Solved ! – MGMT201: Choose A Multinational Corporation MNC Or A Small-Medium Enterprise SME From Singapore: Principles Of Management Assignment, SUSS, Singapore

Choose a Multinational Corporation MNC or a Small-Medium Enterprise SME from Singapore. You are encouraged to choose a company based on your specialization of study. Write a management report based on the details shown in the table below.

  • Introduce your chosen company. Discuss and explain the nature of its business and any other information you feel is important to understand who they are and what they do.
  •  Provide a brief appreciation of the environment surrounding this company using a PESTEL analysis.
  • Create a SWOT  analysis of your chosen company.
  • Choose ONE approach to ‘Ethics’, and briefly explain it. Then, using this chosen approach, explain how your chosen company can engage in ethical decision-making. Provide ONE example relevant to the company.
  •  Choose and briefly explain ONE approach to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR). Then, explain how the chosen company can use this CSR approach to manage their stakeholder/s.
  • Using the 4 key elements to a plan provide a Formal plan for your chosen company. Note: You need to relate the theories and concepts covered in class and relate these to your chosen company.
  • Select and briefly explain ONE aspect of your chosen company’s culture. Explain how your chosen company might create a strong company culture with this aspect of the company culture you have chosen.
  •  Explain how your chosen company may achieve unity of command, centralization, and span of control. Choose the most appropriate organizational structure for your chosen organization. Explain and justify your choice for this structure.

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Public officials must not only do technical things correctly but they also must do ethically correct things. (Dutelle, 2011) (A) Discuss the five basics of public sector ethics? (5 marks) (B) What are the deterrents and opportunities that can influence the likelihood of ethical conduct in the public sector.

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Your Research Analysis will address the following ideas:
Topic: Sexual Harassment in the Military
Introduction
• Present a topic or issue relevant to your academic or professional field.
o This will be presented in your introduction. Explain the overall background and background of this issue and include a well-constructed thesis statement that indicates your topic and the purpose you will develop.
Article 1
• Discuss your first source article.
o Identify the article, and then
 Describe the perspective presented in the article.
o Summarize the article’s findings on your identified topic.
o Show how the article’s perspective contributes to your overall thesis.
Article 2
• Discuss your second source article.
o Identify the article, and then
 Describe the perspective presented in the article.
o Summarize the article’s findings on your identified topic.
o Show how the article’s perspective contributes to your overall thesis.
Article 3
• Discuss your third source article.
o Identify the article, and then
 Describe the perspective presented in the article.
o Summarize the article’s findings on your identified topic.
o Show how the article’s perspective contributes to your overall thesis.
Conclusion
• Analyze the significance of the evidence cited and the connections you have made.
o This will be presented in your conclusion. Connect the ideas presented to show why the topic is an important one, while highlighting your major takeaways from the articles and relating them to your thesis.

RareFitness Club Case Study

RareFitness is an Australian owned chain that supports the fitness needs of the community across Western Sydney region. The club offers a range of fitness equipments, programs and personal training sessions for individuals to achieve their health and fitness goals. RareFitness prides itself on their world-class facilities, and expert professionals. Customers of RareFitness say that they trust the personal trainers because they provide an excellent fitness service that meets their needs. However, the fitness club offers personal training sessions for limited hours only. It has been also reported by the customers that once an equipment is damaged, the club takes too long to repair it.

In a recent market research, the manager of the RareFitness, Michael Clark found that there is a great interest for group fitness classes among the community. People believe that working out with others will help them keep motivated and it is also great fun. The fitness club does not offer group classes and yet to explore the possibilities.

Furthermore, the NSW Government has recently launched a new program, Active Kids program to help kids get active. The program provides two $100 vouchers for parents, guardians, and carers of school-enrolled children to use towards sport and active recreation costs each year.

Fitness Australia is the national authority that provides policies and guidelines to give direction and support to personal trainers, fitness instructors and fitness business owners. Recently, Fitness Australia has added a new set of requirements to the Industry Code of practice for professional credentials for individuals who are delivering fitness services to the public. The Registered Training Organisations (RTO’s) that deliver the training package and associated fitness qualifications/certifications need to comply to these practices starting from next financial year.

In the latest budget, the Australian Government has risen the corporate tax rate from 30% to 35% to increase the revenue for the next financial year which has a sheer effect on the fitness industry.

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Please answer the following questions:

Question 1. From what you have been given in the case study material, perform a SWOT analysis by identifying at least two of the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats for  RareFitness.

Question 2. Identify and write down the prime function for RareFitness. Justify your answer.

Question 3. Construct a mission statement for RareFitness in line with its prime function. Justify your answer.

Question 4. Identify at least two internal and two external stakeholders for RareFitness. Justify your answer

Question 5. Imagine that most of the business activities such as membership, managing fitness classes, rostering staffs e.g., are manually handled by the staff members at RareFitness. Identify at least 5 business activities that RareFitness can plan to automate to better serve their customers.

 

For your Research Paper, select one aspect of cultural diversity from the following list that you would like to study:     ETHINICTY

(For improved memory and increased awareness, remember the mnemonic, GARREACS.)

Must be eight- to ten double-spaced pages in length and formatted according to APA style

Summarize the pertinent historical, political, social, economic and cultural factors related to your chosen aspect of diversity.

Consider and summarize any relevant developmental theory models related to your chosen aspect of diversity.

In regard to your chosen aspect of diversity, identify and evaluate the relevant laws or programs that have either helped or restricted access to care and support.

Evaluate how your chosen aspect of diversity, in combination with two other aspects of diversity, can lead to increased needs or issues. For example, if someone is female, African American, and lesbian, will there be additional challenges? Select any combination of 3 aspects of diversity to discuss.

Describe at least two resources currently available in your area for someone needing special services related to your chosen aspect of diversity.

Explain how your personal characteristics will either complement or conflict with this diversity issue. Consider your own biases and prejudices or those of your family of origin.

Discuss relevant concerns, cautions or insights necessary for you to be a culturally competent human service professional.

Must include a title page with the following:

Title of paper

Student’s name

Course name and number

Instructor’s name

Date submitted

Must begin with an introductory paragraph that has a succinct thesis statement.

Must address the topic of the paper with critical thought.

Must end with a conclusion that reaffirms your thesis.

Must use at least seven scholarly sources.

Must document all sources in APA style,

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First, summarize readings 15 and 16 and the documentary “Whose streets?” by paying special attention to the main arguments.
Then, I want you to answer two questions: (1) What are some of the connections that are evident between anti-Indian racism and anti-Blackness and what may be some of the differences? (2) Of the 21 affirmations that the authors identify, take up at least two and show how you can implement them or work for them in the context of your own life. Note that all affirmations may not apply to you based on your identity. So choose the ones that do. I am looking for real strategies that can be used to implement them.
Please ask at least one question pertaining to the material.
post should be at least 250 words.
https://youtu.be/ocMoJHor-TY

FLUID AND ELECTROLYTES CASE STUDIES
1) Mr. Johnson, 68-year-old, has been vomiting and has had diarrhea for 2 days. He complains of being dizzy. The nurse assesses his physiologic status and notes that his muscles are weak, his abdomen is distended, and bowel sounds are absent.
a. What Electrolyte imbalance do you suspect?
b. What is the normal range for this electrolyte?
c. What other symptoms can this patient have exhibited with this type of electrolyte imbalance?
d. What treatment would be most appropriate for this patient?
2) Mrs. Unger has a high temperature and diaphoresis. She has been nauseated and has taken only ginger ale for the last several days. Her lab tests revealed a Sodium level of 129 mEq/L and Potassium level of 3.7 mEq/L.
a. What type of electrolyte imbalance do you suspect?
b. What is the normal range for this electrolyte?
c. What are some other clinical signs and symptoms might you observe with this type of imbalance?
d. When testing Mrs. Unger’s urine, what would you suspect her specific gravity to be?
e. What treatment would be most appropriate for this patient?
3) A patient has just received an administration of an intravenous potassium too rapidly.
a. What signs and symptoms would you assess for?
b. What lab values would you check for this patient?
c. What treatment would be prescribed for this patient?
4) An elderly patient has just been admitted to the Emergency Department with symptoms of confusion and muscle tremors. When taking his history, it is revealed he had been discharged from the hospital 2 days ago. He has been on IV therapy for a stomach virus, but could not keep down fluids after he was discharged.
a. What electrolyte imbalance do you suspect for this patient?
b. What other signs and symptoms might you need to assess for?
c. What type of treatment would be appropriate for this patient?
5) Develop one care plan for each case study from above. It should contain a NANDA nursing diagnosis, one goal, and at least four nursing interventions. Nursing interventions are not doctor’s orders.

Watch the very short “I, Pencil” video provided below (run time: 6 minutes, 32 seconds). Video: https://www.youtube.com/watch?[removed]v=IYO3tOqDISE I, Pencil … My (Your) Thoughts and Perspectives Then, after watching the video, in 5 to 8 thoughtful/insightful sentences share your thoughts and/or perspective

How would you define the American Identity? How do you think other countries see and define America? Do you think these identities are true or false, positive or negative?”
four and a half, double-spaced full pages

For this assignment you will be writing a short essay that breaks down and interprets a music video. The YouTube era has witnessed a resurgence of creative, unusual, or otherwise outlandish music videos, but these forms of media have always featured inspired ways for conveying messages in short form. By mixing sound and visuals, these media are able to signify multiple things at once. In this assignment you engage with the power that these media forms can have for communicating ideas while speculating on how different audiences may interpret those ideas.
You must choose a music video that premiered before 1998.
Provide some background for the video by briefly noting:
1. the song, artist, album, year, and director of the video.
2. A few sentences on what the song is about.
3. A short history on the release of the video: Was it the artist’s debut, or was it a comeback? Is it a widely known song or one that only fans would recognize? Did the video spark any controversy?
Then, write a close textual analysis of the music video. Choose two or three moments that you think are most significant and focus your analysis on those. Describe the signs present and explain what you think they mean, and why. Could they be interpreted in more than one way, or in ways other than the creators intended? Do they make intertextual references and, if so, to which other media? Consider also how the song’s lyrics and/or music may contradict or enhance the images.
Finally, consider the cultural context in which the video first appeared, including the popularity of its genre, the social themes it addresses, and/or whether there were significant historical events at the time related to the video’s theme.
Given these considerations, what would the images in the video connote to audiences at the time? What do these same images connote to you now? Has something changed, and if so, how can we explain this? In this section, you are making an argument about the work of interpretation as historically specific. Make sure you ground this argument in facts about the social, cultural, or political context of the time of release and contrast these to those of today.
Formatting and length requirements:
○ Double-spaced
○ 12-point font
○ Minimum 1,000 words. Max 1,500 words.
○ MLA format

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After reading Alain de Botton’s essay, Why You Will Marry the Wrong Person (Links to an external site.), write a 750-word minimum APA-formatted critical response, either agreeing or disagreeing with de Botton.
In writing your response, be sure to focus on de Botton’s most compelling reasons behind his claim. Feel free to provide your own compelling reasons to either complement or challenge his argument.
Review this sample APA document downloadto help you with formatting. Your paper should have a title page, headers, in-text citations (when referring to the article), and a reference page with a full reference for the article.

Write an explanatory essay about why plastic trash is a problem and how this problem can be solved.
Your essay must be based on the ideas and information that can be found in the “Plastic Trash” passage set.
Be sure to
• include a thesis statement in the introduction;
• address reasons and details in each body paragraph;
• make sure to explain and elaborate
• use evidence from multiple sources; and
• avoid overly relying on one source;
Other Instructions and Clarifications
– This is a problem and solution essay and you can develop this essay by:
(BLOCK METHOD)
A) presenting the problems in the first body paragraph and
B) providing the solutions in the second and third body paragraph
(POINT BY POINT METHOD)
A) presenting a problem and the solution in each body paragraph
I prefer Point by point.
Every body paragraph will have 5 sentences.

Who does climate degradation affect the most, and in what ways?
Explained in this unit are the outcomes of continued misuse of food, garbage, and natural resources?
In what ways are these misuses related to ethical considerations of human activity?
What is the aim of a more just and equitable environment?
Please cite from at least three of our unit authors in order to make your thesis as you explain the relationship between human activity, climate change, and sustainability?

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1. The CCCOnline Library provides access to scholarly research databases. You can also access these databases from a link provided on your D2L home page.
2. Once you are on the research databases page, scroll down to find the Global Issues in Context database. Select this database. Then select “Database login.” Log in with your S#.
3. In the search box, enter “American Dream.” Then click the Global Viewpoints tab. Limit your search by clicking any of the limiters on the right side of the page. Choose two of the remaining articles to read for this essay.
4. Pre-Write: Closely read and annotate your two chosen articles, noting similarities and differences in language and key ideas. Consider how these voices are connected to one another and to the larger conversation. How do they respond to one another? (Do they agree? Disagree?) How do they respond to previous voices in this conversation?
5. Write: Synthesize the ideas from your two sources into an extended definition of the American Dream. What does the American Dream mean today? What is its significance in terms of immigration, multiculturalism, economics, education, etc.? Blend the key ideas from your sources to create a new and interesting definition of this idea.
6. Your essay should contain 2-3 quotations from your sources, and it should include paraphrasing of other main ideas. Be sure to use quotation marks and in-text citations appropriately and responsibly.
7. Your essay should be approximately 700 words.
8. Please be sure to correctly format your essay in MLA Style. Need help with MLA? Please refer to the CCCOnline MLA Citation Toolkit
9. Once your essay is written, revised, and proofread, you may submit it to the Module 1 Assignment folder: Research Synthesis Essay

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As the Environmental Health and Safety (EHS) professional for a manufacturing company, you have been asked to conduct a risk assessment of potential issues within your facility. Specifically, you have been asked to identify whether these issues present a hazard by conducting a risk assessment using the quantitative risk assessment form, which you can access by clicking here(SeeAttached). Once the risk assessments have been identified, your assignment is to provide control measures based on the hierarchy of controls identified in the Unit IV and Unit V Lessons. Each of the scenarios below have been identified as potential issues.Review each of the potential hazards identified in the scenarios, and provide a technical report of your findings and recommendations. The project should be a technical report with a minimum of three pages detailing your findings and recommendations. The project should be written in full APA format and include the elements listed below.
• Perform a quantitative risk assessment before and after the recommended controls. (You may include these as appendices in the technical report, but the findings should be discussed in the body of the report.)
• Include a priority ranking of controls based on the risk assessment findings.
• Explain the control measures for each of the identified hazards, and explain why you chose those specific control measures.
Scenario 1: Proposed Catwalk (Fall Hazards)There is an elevated area within the plant that requires two maintenance personnel to access it at least once every 2 weeks to perform preventive maintenance by lubricating gears and pulleys. They are currently using a 20-foot extension ladder to reach the locations that require maintenance. This requires that the ladder be moved six times per event, along with the employee climbing up and down the ladder. The maintenance supervisor for the plant has provided a drawing of a catwalk that he would like to install and has asked you to review them for compliance with Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) standards and to identify any potential problems with the design.
(SEE PHOTO1 ATTACHED)
Scenario 2: Hunter Molding Machine (Machine Guarding)
While operating a Hunter molding machine, it is necessary for a single operator to reach inside the machine to adjust the pattern or blow it off to ensure that it is free of particles or other debris that will create deformed parts. This function is conducted once every 75 minutes, 8.5 hours per day. The molding pattern is placed on the holder by the machine, which then automatically rotates the pattern 180 degrees before the molding sand is compressed on the pattern, and then this process is repeated to ensure a two-sided mold is created. When the molds are compressed and then separated, the operator must reach inside the machine to clean the pattern by blowing compressed air onto the mold. The foundry supervisor is concerned that there is a potential for the operator to be caught in the rotating pattern holder, causing an amputation. He has asked for your help to provide a control measure to prevent any possible injuries to the operators. Note: A physical barrier between the operator and the pattern holder is not possible or feasible due to production activities. Please see the photographs below as a reference.
(SEE PHOTO2 and PHOTO3 ATTACHED)
Scenario 3: Quality Control Testing Facility (Airborne Chemicals)
The quality control manager has implemented a new testing procedure to ensure high quality products are being produced by the company. As a part of the testing operation, the quality control technician applies a chemical mixture with a paintbrush onto specific points of the parts, which have previously been identified as weak points by customer complaints. This operation takes place over an open sink, similar to a parts washing tank. The quality control manager has requested your assessment based on the following data, along with any recommendations for any controls that need to be implemented. This operation takes place throughout the day and involves three employees (quality technicians) per 8-hour shift. An outside consultant has sampled the employee exposure over an 8-hour period with the results shown below
.(SEE PHOTO4 attached)
Scenario 4: Mobile Crane Operations (Materials Handling)
While observing a lift of materials onto a flatbed trailer through the use of a mobile hydraulic crane, which had the tires fully inflated and on level and firm ground, the materials manager stopped the operation because it did not look correct to her. She has now requested your assessment and your recommendations on controls to reduce any potential incidents or injuries. Based on your observations, you find the information shown below.
Weight of the load: 28,000 pounds
Boom length: 60 feet
Boom radius: 20 feet

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Prevention through design (PtD) is a proactive approach to risk management often used within the safety and health field. Given the fact that we are in a global health pandemic and our approach to preventing the spread of the virus has been less than stellar, please share your thoughts on ways you feel PtD could have been used when our public health officials first became aware of the potential threat (last year) to minimize the spread of the Corona virus in the United States.
ALSO PLEASE REPLY TO ANOTHER STUDENTS COMMENT BELOW
Megan:
One way I think PtD could have been used is in a national response to the pandemic, rather than forcing each state to come up with solutions. This would have included the US government using its purchasing power to acquire PPE and ventilators and create a national repository, instead of forcing the states to scramble to get the necessary supplies. Nationwide guidance on closures and travel restrictions might have helped reduce the confusion. Once we learned more about the virus, directing money to schools and hospitals to improve their ventilation systems might have helped reduce the spread.
Focusing on prevention, maintaining a pandemic response task force to coordinate the response to a future pandemic as well as a national PPE repository could make a future pandemic less severe. The “just-in-time” inventory system may increase efficiency, but it doesn’t work when a lot of a certain item is needed in a short time period.

1) What do we mean by interdependency (1)? What does interdependence mean for who is impacted by environmental issues (1)?
2) What were the main drivers of the modern environmental movement in the United States – provide examples (1). Since, what have been the dominant modes of protection (1)?
3) Describe four key geographic concepts and provide an example for each (2).
4) Why are we abandoning the term ‘natural disaster’ (2)?
5) (FILL IN THE BLANK) is to short term temperature and precipitation, while (FILL IN THE BLANK) is to decades long temperature and precipitation (2)
6) Describe the relationship between Earth’s Energy Budget and greenhouse gases in terms of climate change (2).
7) Describe the concepts of mitigation and adaptation- how do they differ (2)?
8) What is sustainability? Describe the three pillars and provide a critique of this traditional definition (2).
9) What is meant by the famous EW Zimmerman quote – ‘Resources are not, they become…” (1993) (2)?
10) What are the two principle components of climate (1)? Describe the four main drivers of these components (1).
11) Compare and contrast two main approaches to understanding the relationship between population and the environment (1). How have each of these either supported or negated the popular ‘Tragedy of the Commons’ Theory (1)?
12) (FILL IN THE BLANK) is to single path while (FILL IN THE BLANK) have multiple paths and futures (2)
13) Why is the relationship between city planning and climate change a spatial problem (2)?
14) Describe how we define vulnerability (1). How does vulnerability relate to the idea of ‘double exposure’ (1)?
15) Describe the differences between organic and fair trade food systems (1)? What could an alternative to the alternatives be (1)?
\For part two of the midterm, you will write a maximum 2 page response to the following question: How does a complex approach help ensure a more equitable, just, and hopeful global environmental transformation? Provide specific socio-economic and biophysical examples (10)

Discuss ways one can actively participate in the conservation of biodiversity

Explain carpal tunnel syndrome. What structures are involved, and what pathology exists here? Recommend prevention tips and treatments for this syndrome. Explain the modified Allen test and Tinel’s sign.
Each of us reacts habitually when we see money on the ground; we bend over and pick it up. Describe how you would get employees to avoid improper bending to pick up items from the ground in situations such as this. Use the four Es: empowerment, encouragement, education, and enlightenment.
Imagine that you are leading a training event to help prevent back injuries, and you are teaching students the proper way to lift. Describe, in detail, your recommended steps for lifting a box from a tabletop and placing the box on the floor in a way that would not create any pain or ergonomics issue(s).

Summarize the characteristics and abilities of sound level meters (SLMs) and noise dosimeters and how they can be used to evaluate noise exposures at a facility.
(minimum of 200 words in length. )

Define the following terms associated with occupational noise:
a. Wavelength
b. Frequency
c. Sound Pressure
d. Decibel
e. Octave Band
(minimum of 200 words.)
You have been tasked with establishing and implementing an effective hearing conservation program for a metal stamping facility. Noise monitoring shows that employees working in the press areas of the facility are exposed to 8-hour TWA noise exposures between 85.0 dBA and 89.0 dBA. Based on the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.95, summarize the requirements for an effective hearing conservation program and discuss steps to make the program as effective as possible.
(minimum of 200 words.)
Imagine you are the director of your state’s Department of Environmental Services. Working with legislators, your goal is to decide which alternative renewable energy sources will assist your state in sustaining your limited fossil fuels and what the best fit is for your state’s economy. Develop a presentation highlighting which types of alternative renewable energy sources your state has chosen and how these energy sources will reduce the demands on fossil fuels and lower the carbon emissions in your state.For this assignment, you will create a PowerPoint presentation that covers three alternative energy sources. Using the CSU Online Library and reading assignments in this unit, research alternative energy sources to determine which three will work best within your state. You may also use the U.S. Department of Energy website to assist you in your decisions: https://www.energy.gov/.Your presentation should adhere to the following format.
• Slide 1: On the title slide, include your name, course number, and the date.
• Slide 2: Provide a brief introduction (no more than 2 paragraphs).
• Slide 3: List the first alternative energy source. Briefly describe how this energy source would reduce the demands on fossil fuels and lower carbon emissions. Provide two arguments on why this energy source will work for your state.
• Slide 4: If your first alternative energy source is chosen, how may this source negatively affect the citizens in your state? Provide two arguments, and explain how this energy source may negatively impact your state.
• Slide 5: Include visuals for your first alternative energy source (e.g., hydropower, solar wind farm).
• Slide 6: List the second alternative energy source. Briefly describe how this energy source would reduce the demands on fossil fuels and lower carbon emissions. Provide two arguments on why this energy source will work for your state.
• Slide 7: If your second alternative energy source is chosen, how may this source negatively affect the citizens in your state? Provide two arguments, and explain how this energy source may negatively impact your state.
• Slide 8: Include visuals for your second alternative energy source (e.g., hydropower, solar wind farm).
• Slide 9: List the third alternative energy source. Briefly describe how this energy source would reduce the demands on fossil fuels and lower carbon emissions. Provide two arguments on why this energy source will work for your state.
• Slide 10: If your second alternative energy source is chosen, how may this source negatively affect the citizens in your state? Provide two arguments, and explain how this energy source may negatively impact your state.
• Slide 11: Include visuals for your third alternative energy source (e.g., hydropower, solar wind farm).
• Slide 12: Include references, and ensure you list all supporting sources for your nine content/visual alternative energy source slides.
As a part of the presentation, you are required to use the notes section for each content slide to reinforce your presentation. You should use at least three reliable, academic sources to support your presentation. Images and graphics, along with supporting references and in-text citations, must follow APA formatting guidelines and must be free of errors. Your presentation should consist of a title slide, introduction slide, nine content/visual slides, and a references slide for a minimum total of 12 slides.Click here to access a tutorial on how to create an effective PowerPoint presentation. (Note: The transcript for this resource can be found within the “Notes” tab to the right of the presentation.)

create a 10-slide PowerPoint presentation about both the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) and Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA).
Again, imagine that you are presenting to an audience of high school students who are learning about environmental laws. Discuss their effectiveness at achieving the goals, elaborate on problems with the laws, and suggest improvements to the laws.
Feel free to be creative. You are allowed to utilize PowerPoint’s features to create charts and graphics. Please do not utilize the Notes section for your presentation.
Please use at least three sources to support your presentation, and ensure that the citations and references are in APA format. The required title and reference slides do not count toward meeting the minimum slide requirement.

ENMT 310 Project Three
Scenario and Site Plans
Scenario:
You are to assume the duties of the safety and environmental officer for a large industrial facility located on a river in a medium-sized town, population 23,231. There in a small, non-trauma center, hospital located in town. The local fire department has a Hazardous Materials Response Team trained to respond to chemical releases and spills. You also have a trained Industrial Fire Brigade on-site with first-responder training and equipment.
Your facility produces and ships a product called Methyl-Ethyl-Peanut Butter by rail, highway, and river barge. The product is produced from mixing liquid Acetone, gaseous Sulfur Dioxide, and Magnesium powder. It produces a mixed waste product to be disposed of properly.
Your assignment is to develop an Emergency Action Plan meeting Federal OSHA requirements and an Facility Resonse Plan meeting Federal EPA requirements. You plan must address the minimum requirements of these Federal regulations. Part of the exercise is for you to locate the appropriate OSHA and EPA requirements in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR). Hint: OSHA regulations are contained in Title 29 of the CFR and EPS’s regulations are contained in Title 40 of the CFR.
You may use your imagination to come up with all the details of your plans, but be sure to address all aspects of potential emergency releases within the facility and potential local and international threats to your facility. You plan must meet, as a minimum, all of the applicable EPA and OSHA regulations.
You may prepare two separate plans or one comprehensive plan to meet the requirements. Once prepared, submit you plan to your assignment folder as you did with Project Two. Use this exercise as if your job depends on it, be comprehensive, but have fun coming up with the means you will save your city. Include response actions from all of the first-responder organizations and resources available to you on and off-site.
The length and format of the plans are up to you. Just make sure you cover the requirements and all expected threats and hazards.

PowerPoint presentation containing at least 10 slides.
Imagine that you are presenting to an audience of high school students who are learning about environmental laws. Your presentation should address the need for water quality laws in your area and should describe water quality legislation, including the Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) and Clean Water Act (CWA).
Feel free to be creative. You are allowed to utilize PowerPoint’s features to create charts and graphics. Please do not utilize the Notes section for your presentation.
Please use at least three sources to support your presentation, and ensure that the citations and references are in APA format. The required title and reference slides do not count toward meeting the minimum slide requirement.

 

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SOCIAL WORK
Introduction to Social Work online textbook:- https://ferrisintroductiontosocialwork.pressbooks.com/front-matter/introduction/
LESSON 3 DISCUSSION
Discussion question:
After reviewing the readings and video, please create a substantial discussion post considering the following question(s) in your post.
• What do you think are the most important values for a successful Social Worker?
• Please identify 2-3 values that you think will enable you to be an effective Social Worker?
SOCIAL WELFARE & POLICY
LESSON 2 DISCUSSION
On one page, discuss any type of social work interventions that you have seen implemented. What did you learn from that experience? If you have not seen any of the interventions, what type of intervention would you support or not support and why?
LESSON 3 DISCUSSION
Discussion Guidelines: Your initial post should be approximately one page (250 words).
In your opinion, what are the responsibilities of government during economic crises? Use examples from the assigned chapter and/or provide examples from the present day.
LESSON 4 DISCUSSION
Discussion Guidelines: Your initial post should be approximately one page (250 words).
Briefly research how social security benefits are earned. Describe your findings in your discussion question and discuss whether you agree or disagree with your findings and what you would change.

1. Consider ergonomic hazards associated with the operation of pneumatic impact wrenches in a vehicle maintenance facility. What could you, as part of the ergonomics team, provide in the way of protection against the work-related musculoskeletal disorders (WMSDs) that might be associated with the use of such a tool? Include supporting evidence as part of your discussion. (200 words)
2. Describe one or more potential solutions for an employee who is experiencing the onset of back pain after working at his or her workstation that primarily requires the employee to work in a seated position. Include supporting evidence as part of your discussion. 200 words)
3. Describe the ergonomic risk factors associated with a sharp edge on a work bench. Include supporting evidence as part of your discussion. (75 words)
4.
Describe hand-arm vibrations (HAVS); what are the long-term issues an employee might have if vibration sources are not corrected? (75 words)

Welding fumes are a common occupational exposure. Several different welding fumes can cause similar adverse health effects. Personal sampling of a welding operation at a manufacturing facility produced the following 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA) results for individual metal fumes.
Metal FumeResultOSHA PELACGIH TLVAntimony0.05 mg/m³0.5 mg/m³0.5 mg/m³Beryllium0.00001 mg/m³0.0002 mg/m³0.00005 mg/m³ (I)Cadmium0.025 mg/m³0.005 mg/m³0.01 mg/m³Chromium0.02 mg/m³1 mg/m³0.5 mg/m³Copper0.03 mg/m³0.1 mg/m³0.2 mg/m³Iron Oxide0.5 mg/m³10 mg/m³5 mg/m³ (R)Magnesium Oxide0.02 mg/m³15 mg/m³10 mg/m³Molybdenum0.003 mg/m³15 mg/m³10 mg/m³ (I)Nickel0.25 mg/m³1 mg/m³1.5 mg/m³ (I)Zinc Oxide0.3 mg/m³5 mg/m³2 mg/m³ (R)
(R) Respirable fraction (I) Inhalable fraction
Briefly summarize the primary health effects associated with overexposure to each type of metal fume, including both acute and chronic health effects. Explain what analytical methods you would use for evaluating health hazards in the workplace.
Identify the types of metal fumes that would produce similar health effects on an exposed worker. Assume that each listed metal can cause respiratory irritation. Use the equation in 1910.1000(d)(2)(i) to calculate the equivalent exposure (in relation to OSHA PELS) for the metal fumes with similar health effects based on the “Result” column in the table above. Discuss whether you believe any of the individual metal fume exposures or the combined exposure exceeds an OSHA PEL or an ACGIH TLV.
Your homework assignment should be a minimum of two pages in length.

 

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Introduction to Social Work online textbook:- https://ferrisintroductiontosocialwork.pressbooks.com/front-matter/introduction/
LESSON 3 DISCUSSION
Discussion question:
After reviewing the readings and video, please create a substantial discussion post considering the following question(s) in your post.
• What do you think are the most important values for a successful Social Worker?
• Please identify 2-3 values that you think will enable you to be an effective Social Worker?

LESSON 3 ASSIGNMENT
Please read the following articles on Emotional Intelligence:
https://hbr.org/2017/02/emotional-intelligence-has-12-elements-which-do-you-need-to-work-on (Links to an external site.)
https://www.verywellmind.com/components-of-emotional-intelligence-2795438 (Links to an external site.)
After reading the above articles, please take the following Emotional Intelligence Quiz.
https://greatergood.berkeley.edu/quizzes/ei_quiz (Links to an external site.)
For this assignment, please submit a one-page paper including the following:
• Please copy and paste the results from your quiz.
• Discuss your thoughts about Emotional Intelligence and whether this would be helpful or not in the profession of Social Work.
• Please share your thoughts on the results from the quiz and whether you agree or disagree. What components of Emotional Intelligence would you like to improve?
The paper should be approx. one page and include high-quality writing. Please include a title page and double-check all spelling and grammar prior to submitting. Also, please make sure to cite all relevant information and include references as appropriate.
1. Defend the statement that soil erosion is an environmental problem that could seriously damage, or even cause the collapse of, our civilization.
2. What are things an individual citizen can do to prevent soil erosion?
3. Does the impact of soil erosion go beyond where it occurs? Explain your answer.4. Are the soil problems more severe in developed countries or developing countries?
5. How and why could processes such as clear-cut logging, in which all trees are cut, and use of off-road vehicles lead to loss of soil fertility?
6. You own a consulting firm, and a client hires you to evaluate several hundred hectares (acres) to start a small farm to grow organic vegetables. The land is generally flat with some rolling hills. How could you evaluate the project from a soil perspective? Outline a general plan to advise your client.

What is green reverse logistics in all aspects?
cover page
table of contents
15 pages
reference page -10 reference ( 3 peer reviewed)
APA 12 font times new roman
Using previous outline request if needed

What is green reverse logistics?
Need assistance with 4 page full sentence outline
APA format
4 references included
Full sentences
cover all aspects of reverse logistics
https://owl.purdue.edu/owl/general_writing/the_writing_process/developing_an_outline/documents/20081113013048_544.pdf

Overview
This discussion asks you to formulate a definition of environmental sustainability based on research and how it can apply to environmental stewardship both on a personal and national level. I will start you off by telling you that scientists working on environmental sustainability (ES) consider there to be 3 major principles to ES: reliance on solar energy for photosynthesis and other alternative energy sources; nutrient cycling of chemicals through soil, water, and air; and protection and restoration of biological diversity. These are the 3 legs of our environmental sustainability stool and it will collapse if any one of them is negatively impacted in a substantial way.
Instructions
You may already have an opinion on what is meant by environmental sustainability. The topic is in the news frequently and it is difficult not to form an opinion when you hear a lot about a subject, even when you do not know how accurate the material is that you are confronted with. Follow the following steps to prepare yourself for this discussion:
1. Read the article at this website: Environmental Sustainability. Note in particular the information in the sidebar about the Three Pillars of Sustainability: Social, Environmental and Economic. Website: http://www.thwink.org/sustain/glossary/EnvironmentalSustainability.htm
2. Next, conduct an internet search on environmental sustainability. You can use Wikipedia to get a quick head start; and also look for articles in the web magazine ScienceDaily. Read enough information to have a good basis for an informed opinion on the subject. Website: https://www.sciencedaily.com/
3. Your initial post:
1: What does environmentally sustainable mean to you personally?
2: What do you think the major challenges are to achieving environmental sustainability for our species?
3: What should Americans and the world be encouraged to do to foster sustainability? Name at least 2-3 ideas and discuss how they promote sustainability.
In your initial post, please provide 3-4 references in APA format and use in-text citations.

1- Please submit the recording of your presentation here. It can be the powerpoint itself with a voice over.
2- Please submit your project report as either a word doc or a pdf. (5-8 pages)
– figures and tables
– single spaced
introduction, location(to be decided ) information, hazard 1 & 2 occurrence, destruction, preparation and response.( with examples
Students are expected to complete a project that showcases their knowledge they gained through the course. Students will choose a location on Earth and provide information about it from an environmental science perspective. Guidelines for the project as well as an example rubric will be posted on canvas.

Overview
Many if not most of the topics that you studied in the eText and tackled in the discussions and labs are, or will be directly or indirectly impacted by the myriad effects of climate change. At this point in the course, you should be able to assess the various predictions from the climate models and mesh them with what you have already learned to fashion a credible assessment of our planet’s future.
Instructions
Prepare yourself for this discussion by studying the relevant material presented in the two websites linked below. Most of the living scientists who have received the Nobel Prize are members of the first organization in the list. The second two federal agencies are two of the most respected in this country and world. Amazing that our country will listen with rapt attention to everything that NASA has to say about outer space, but ignore what they say about climate change.
• Union of Concerned Scientists
• NASA.gov
• NOAA
You are encouraged to research the Internet for other climate change related sites and don’t skip ScienceDaily
For your initial post, please respond to the following questions in separate paragraphs:
1. Describe 2-3 pieces of evidence from the science literature that humans are causing climate change to accelerate.
2. What specific impacts do the current climate change models predict globally and which of them, if any, appear to be occurring already?
3. What role does the ocean play in the climate change scenario?
4. What sorts of impacts are predicted for Colorado if the climate change models are correct?
In your initial post, please provide 3-4 references in APA format and use in-text citations.

You are asked to evaluate employees’ exposures to methyl n-amyl ketone during a painting operation. After careful consideration, you choose NIOSH Method 2553 for the sampling. You can access the method by clicking the link below:National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health. (2003). Ketones II: Method 2553. In P. M. Eiler & M. E. Cassinelli (Eds.), NIOSH manual of analytical methods (4th ed.). Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. http://www.cdc.gov/niosh/docs/2003-154/pdfs/2553.pdfYour pre-sampling and post-sampling pump calibrations using a primary standard are both 0.05 L/min. You collect personal samples on two employees working in the operation. The samples are collected for 430 minutes (Sample 1) and 440 minutes (Sample 2).
1. Calculate the sample volumes for each of the samples.
The laboratory reports that the front section of Sample 1 contains 5,000 µg of methyl n-amyl ketone and the back section contains 200 µg of methyl n-amyl ketone. The front section of Sample 2 contains 4,000 µg of methyl n-amyl ketone and the back section contains 50 µg of methyl n-amyl ketone. Neither the front nor back sections of the field blank you supplied contain any detectable levels of methyl n-amyl ketone.
1. Calculate the concentrations of the two personal samples in µg/L and mg/m³.
2. Convert the result to ppm (MW for methyl n-amyl ketone = 114.2). Note: Use the ideal gas constant of 24.45.
3. Show all the steps for your calculations.
You then reference OSHA’s Table Z-1 and find that the 8-hour TWA PEL for methyl n-amyl ketone is 100 ppm
1. Discuss how the results of the two personal samples you collected compare to the OSHA PEL, and describe the sampling method you implemented.
You also look up the ACGIH TLV for methyl n-amyl ketone and find that the TLV is 50 ppm as an 8-hour TWA exposure.
1. Discuss how the results for the two personal samples compare to the ACGIH TLV.
2. Discuss whether you would recommend comparing the results of your sampling to the OSHA PEL or the ACGIH TLV. Include your rationale for the choice, and explain how you would rationalize your choice to your employer.
The case study should be a minimum of three pages in length, and you should cite the NIOSH document using APA style.

You have been tasked with identifying health hazards associated with a production line at a manufacturing facility.Employees at the beginning of the line use a solvent to clean the surface of medium-size auto parts, and then they place the parts on a moving line. As the parts move along the line, an employee sprays them with a powder coating, and the parts move through an oven. Another employee removes the parts from the line and places them in slots in a cart for transporting to shipping.You have been provided safety data sheets for the solvent used for cleaning the parts (click here to access) and the powder coating that is used (click here to access). Use the JHA form to identify the potential health hazards associated with the process. Click here to access the Basic Job Hazard Analysis form. You will use the Basic Hazard Analysis form to enter your responses and to answer the four questions listed below. Please upload this completed document to your instructor for grading. Prepare a two-page homework assignment summarizing your health hazard analysis and answer these questions from the Basic Job Hazard Analysis form.
1. What are the health hazards associated with the operation?
2. What are the primary exposure routes associated with each health hazard?
3. Are there any potential acute or chronic health effects for any of the health hazards you identified?
4. Are special hazards associated with any of the health hazards?
You may use the safety data sheets provided above, information from the OSHA or NIOSH websites, or academic references from the Internet to answer the questions. Citations are not required for this homework assignment; however you may want to use them in order to answer the questions.
SDSpaintthinner.pdf
UnitIII_JobHazardAnalysisForm.docx
SDSPaint.pdf

Create a PowerPoint presentation of 15 slides (not counting title and reference slides) that provides an overview of the three major environmental, health, and safety (EHS) disciplines. Include each of the following elements:
• summary of the responsibilities for the discipline,
• evaluation of types of hazards addressed by the discipline,
• description of how industrial hygiene practices relate to safety and health programs,
• description of how industrial hygiene practices relate to environmental programs,
• evaluation of types of control methods commonly used by the discipline,
• interactions with the other two disciplines, and
• major organizations associated with the discipline.
Construct your presentation using a serif type font such as Times New Roman. A serif type font is easier to read than a non-serif type font. For ease of reading, do not use a font smaller than 28 points.
I’m working on a spanish writing question and need an explanation to help me study.
– Minimum of 750 words
– Any movie by Spanish director Pedro Almodóvar
– In Spanish
Requirements: Minimum 750 words

On the following spreadsheet, you will find a story about the origin of the Merfolk as told to me by an old Merfolk.
https://docs.google.com/spreadsheets/d/1342JsuJRdKn_0a2kDX5K_QK8WO8R8nIWpEYHBV60Ww4/edit?usp=sharing (Links to an external site.)
The story is 48 sentences long. You will be asked to translate only 8 of them, but which 8 depends on your discussion group, according to the chart in the document above. Look at Column B (“Discussion Group”). Find the section containing your word group number and do those 8 lines.
For example, for lines 1 to 8, Column B says “1”. This means that anyone in Discussion Group 1 would translate ALL of those lines.
PLEASE MAKE SURE THAT YOU SELECT THE CORRECT 8 LINES. WE WON’T GRADE YOUR ANSWER IF YOU CHOSE THE WRONG SET OF 8. EMAIL ANDREW IF YOU ARE CONFUSED.
Remember our Grammar and Dictionary.
Grammarː
https://docs.google.com/document/d/1hR2JJSuO2y46gTYhyvOXkfELhrwCqcqg8aNCatg4EMc/edit?usp=sharing (Links to an external site.)
Dictionary (under the tab called “Vocabulary FINAL 7.18.21”):
https://docs.google.com/spreadsheets/d/1hCi53k3y6q1ijCq9-cmB7LPPh1ELD697huc_Qom6oqU/edit?usp=sharing (Links to an external site.)
A note on the vocabulary: I have not indicated the noun class of each noun. When you encounter a noun in the story, it is up to you to determine the most appropriate interpretation for its case ending.
For example, you may encounter the case ending -la, which is either Nominative, Non-Merfolk, Close to the Sea, Non-Dangerous OR Genitive, Merfolk, Non-Dangerous. (This is a situation commonly encountered in natural languages. For example, in Czech, -a may be feminine nominative or animate masculine accusative.)
You will have to use the grammar, the context, and your knowledge of cases to decide which interpretation is correct.
Additionally, some non-Merfolk nouns have been classified as “Merfolk” due to their importance or close association to the Merfolk (as per the grammar) and thus have Merfolk noun class case endings in the story.

Read the Insider Threat from the Department of Homeland Security https://www.dhs.gov/science-and-technology/cybersecurity-insider-threat and CISA: Insider Threat Mitigation https://www.cisa.gov/insider-threat-mitigation
Find additional readings in this area about how to mitigate and assess insider threat concerns.
• What are your ideas on how to provide time to intervene and prevent an insider cyber attack?
• Find information about an insider attack, explain the attack, and did you agree or disagree with the actions? Were they justified?
Provide an original post. This post is to be a minimum of 500 words.

TOPIC IS VACCINES
A literature review summarizes the published research on any given topic. Here, you need to summarize the published research on your research topic. After reviewing the sample literature review (Links to an external site.) from the Writing Center, use the scholarly resources (Links to an external site.) from the University of Arizona Global Campus Library and complete a literature review for your Research study proposal. Include in your review relevant published studies on your health related topic.
The primary goal of this literature review is to integrate concepts from biomedical research related to your topic and that explores the literature encompassing your proposed research question/hypothesis. In this section of the proposal, you will review the findings in the individual empirical articles, organize the research in a meaningful way, evaluate the reliability, validity, and generalizability of the research findings, and present an integrated synthesis of the research that sheds new light on the topic you have selected.
A successful integrative literature review may result in a significant contribution to a particular body of knowledge and, consequently, to research and practice. Therefore, before writing this literature review, substantive new research must be conducted via scholarly and peer-reviewed resources (Links to an external site.) from within the University of Arizona Global Campus Library. Address methods of analysis commonly used in the applicable research to your topic, contrasting results, and any surrounding cultural considerations. Address any evidence of health disparities related to the selected topic. A minimum of eight peer-reviewed sources must be included.
The literature review should include the following sections:
• A clear introduction that provides a general review and organizes the research in a meaningful way;
• A discussion in which the evidence is presented through analysis, critique, and synthesis;
• Evidence of health disparities related to the selected topic.
• A conclusion in which the discussion is drawn together in a meaningful way where the claims of the introduction are brought to a logical closure, and new research is proposed.

Please view and read the attached file below and answer the following questions

1. Identify the purposes of government (See Supplementary Materials Folder ).
2. Define politics.
3. Define a social contract. (See Supplementary Materials Folder )
4. Identify the view of political theorists John Locke and Thomas Hobbes. (See Supplementary Materials Folder )
5. Define the principles and types of a democracy. (See Supplementary Materials Folder )
6. Identify the principles of pluralism, elitism, and democracy.
7. Define negative and positive liberty.
8. Differentiate among ideological beliefs: liberal, conservative, socialist, and libertarian.
9. Relate equality to its measurements: opportunities, results/outcomes, political, and social.
Morone-Chapter1waudio.pptx
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
After completing this week’s required learning activities, why are theories important in the study of public policy? How do output-based models and process-based models differ and explain the pros and cons of each? Explain the pluralist and elite theories of political power and influence and discuss how they apply to the study of public policy-making?
In APA format with at least 1 reference.

1. In 75-150 words summarize each of the following major approaches to public policy-making:
a. Systems Analysis
Need in APA format and at least 1 reference.

When proposing a research study, a new researcher may not know how to find secondary data or how to calculate an appropriate sample to represent the population. In this discussion, you will explore free sources or tools to assist you in developing a research proposal. Utilizing the Internet, identify health care data readily available to a researcher, online resources for calculating an appropriate sample, and a resource or tool of your choice. Identify a minimum of three resources not yet identified in this course, summarize the information, explain why the resource is helpful as a new researcher, and describe how it could be utilized. Your initial post should be a minimum of 300 words.

Part A. 300 words each with 1 reference each, 600 words total
1. Discuss the public choice theory or model. How does it relate to rivalness and excludability?
2. Think of a time when a government policy directly affected policy or policies at your organization. While health care examples are preferred, if you do not have experience working in that environment yet, any professional setting can apply.
Part B. 1,500 words
Review news stories and articles regarding a recent (within the last year) health-related policy (not the Affordable Care Act).
Introduce this policy and discuss the following:
1. How the governmental policy process informs the development, implementation, and assessment of policy within the realm of health care.
2. The impact of your chosen policy on health care consumers, organizations, and systems.
3. The impact of your chosen policy on health care providers.
Now imagine you are adapting this policy to the health care organization at which you work (or where you wish to work). Describe the organization and discuss the following:
1. The stakeholders involved in policy formation and their impact on health care policy formation and structures.
2. The response you expect from those stakeholders.
3. The specific impact this governmental policy will make (positive, negative, indifferent) and why?
Incorporate two or three peer-reviewed scholarly resources

YOU MUST ensure that you address how the preliminary phase, the field study phase, and the integration phase can help achieve your intended results (based upon reading CMH Pub 70-21, 2014). Ensure that you identify what the overall development goal is for your staff ride. If you use references, then cite IAW APA standards.
Analyze the concepts and theories you read about in T111, L107, and S302, and L104; utilizing key language and terms from these concepts and theories, identify and analyze a historic campaign or battle (T111) that you can use as a staff ride to develop the Professional Character of an organization (L107). Approach this journaling from a Sergeant Major’s perspective on how you would plan and implement this staff ride to assess and address performance gaps and develop the workforce within your organization (S302).
Assigned Readings:
1. (T111: Staff Ride)
2. CMH Pub 70-21, 2014).
3. (L107: Army Leadership and the Profession, ADP 6-22, pp. 1-1 – 1-12, para 1-1 – 1-69 (12 pages)
T111_RA_TheStaffRide.pdf
CMHPub70-21_TheStaffRide_2014.pdf
L107RB_20200212.pdf

How to Apply for a Grant
You now have a compelling problem/need statement written, so you’re well on your way to applying for that grant. But the funders are going to need a lot more information than what you put in those few paragraphs.
Now you need to find out more of the specifics that you’ll need to put into the actual grant application. At this stage you will need to complete two things:
1. Choose one of the funders identified in the first part of the course to do some additional research on and create a list of required items to apply for that grant.
2. Develop goals and objectives for the program that can be used in the grant application.
Part 1
Research the application requirements for two of the funders identified at the beginning of the course. In a Word document, write 1–2 paragraphs on why you believe each funder has the requirements they do, what, if any, differences there are in application requirements, and what might account for those differences.
Part 2
You will develop clear goals that define what the Resource Center intends to accomplish through the development of the tutorial program, as well as establish measurable objectives that will highlight your organization’s progress toward established goals.
The goals and objectives provide an assessment of the tutorial program’s success to both the organization and the funder. When goals and objectives are not clearly defined, it can not only have an impact on the program’s outcomes, but it can also impact negatively program staff, participants, and funders.
Based on the problem statement you created, you’ll want to answer the following questions:
• What are the key areas of the nonprofit are you seeking to change?
• Who (which segment of the population or community) will be affected or involved with the change?
• How will the change be measured (an increase or improvement, or a decrease and reduction)? And by how much?
• When will this change take place? Months? Years? Or by what specific date?

Please Answer this:
Please share your research question with your classmates. How did you identify a gap in the current research and how will your thesis fill that gap? Refining your research question will provide a solid foundation from which to conduct your research.
This is the research question that we develop last time:
Research Question
To better understand the importance of radicalization to terrorism, this research develops research questions that will help to answer some of the concerns about domestic terrorism. They include:
1) What are the common threads in the cases of domestic radicalization to terrorism?
2) Which radicalization models of terrorism explain domestic terrorism towards the United States?
3) What do these models explain about countering and preventing domestic terrorism?
4) Why do some communities such as the Islamic and the KKK engage in violence to further their beliefs?
500 words minimum, APA style

Part A. 300 words each with 1 reference each, 600 words total
1. Explain the history of failed attempts to enact national health insurance in the United States.
2. According to your personal worldview, should individuals have a right to medical care? Are there any instances when medical care should not be considered a right?
Part B. 1,000 words
The purpose of this assignment is to familiarize yourself with the intricacies of health care reform.
Analyze the nature of health care reform in the United States, both in the past and present.
1. Discuss the two needed elements in health care reform and why they hold importance.
2. Evaluate a minimum of three different health care reform strategies and provide a rationale for each.
3. Choose one of the three areas (above) and provide a specific example of health care reform at either the state or national level: (a) What was it called? (b) Who introduced it? (c) When was it introduced? (d) What was its ultimate purpose? and (e) Did it succeed? If not, why not?
Incorporate two or three peer-reviewed scholarly resources

HOw can I address the statement below in a PowerPoint presentation.
1. The development of various communication technologies has reshaped (and will continue to reshape) the methods by which policy advocates and interest groups seek to influence policymaking. Describe how this idea applies to the Internet.

Incorporate appropriate animations, transitions, and graphics where appropriate as well as “speaker notes” for each slide. The speaker notes should be comprised of brief paragraphs.
Length: 10-15 slides (with a separate reference slide with a minimum of five (5) scholarly references)
Notes Length: 100-150 words for each slide

Research Topic:Perspective on Domestic Terrorism
(Islamism and Ku Klux Klan)

Research Question, Purpose Statement, and Design Statement

In this assignment you will present your research question along with a purpose statement. You will also present your preliminary thoughts on a research design. In other words, how do you intend to answer your research question? The specific research question should be of depth and breadth required for a major project. There is a template attached with the proper headings and settings. You are required to use this template to submit your assignment. This temple is attached as “Assignment1Template.”

Required Elements of the Assignment

Title Page
1 – Introduction – Provide pertinent information related to your topic focusing on why your topic is important. The introduction contains three secondary headings which are Purpose Statement, Research Question, and Design Statement.
2 – Purpose Statement – Present your purpose statement in this section.
3 – Research Question – Present your research question in this section.
4 – Design Statement – Explain how you intend to answer your research question. This section represents your preliminary thoughts on a methodology. For example, you may intend to conduct a case study in order to answer your research question. It is expected that your research design will evolve as a result of conducting the literature review.
5 – Reference list in APA format containing at least 8 scholarly sources of which six must be peer reviewed journal articles

Technical Requirements
– Your paper must be at a minimum of 3 pages (the Title and Reference pages do not count towards the minimum limit).
– Scholarly and credible references should be used. A good rule of thumb is at least 2 scholarly sources per page of content.
– Type in Times New Roman, 12 point and double space.
– Students will follow the current APA Style as the sole citation and reference style used in written work submitted as part of coursework.
– Points will be deducted for the use of Wikipedia or encyclopedic type sources. It is highly advised to utilize books, peer-reviewed journals, articles, archived documents, etc.

Part A. 300 words each with 1 reference each, 600 words total
1. Supply and demand encompass the health care workforce, just as they do any other service providers. Describe the role that public policy plays when discussing physician shortages.
2. Nursing shortages are a source of feared for many health care administrators. Describe what the nursing workforce is like where you live. (Your state board of nursing website is a good place to gain information.) Next, discuss what aspects are leading to an overall nursing shortage, and what steps are being done to counteract this shortage.
Part B. 1,000 words, separate doc
The purpose of this assignment is to describe the importance of evaluations in health economics.
Describe the importance of evaluations in health economics.
1. Compare and contrast the four types of economic analysis as they relate to health economics.
2. Discuss how economic evaluations and health policy are related. Provide recent examples.
3. Discuss the role of technology in economic evaluations.
Include an introduction and conclusion and incorporate at least three peer-reviewed scholarly resources.

How did the Great Awakening challenge the authority of the established churches? What role did this play in planting the seeds for the Revolution? How did the challenging of religious authority lead to the challenging of political authority? ( 125 words please)
There is a belief that the United States is a “Christian Nation.” Based on the founding documents and the prevalent Enlightenment ideals of the 18th century, how could this argument be supported or opposed? ( 125 words please)

SEE ATTACHMENT(S) FOR MORE
REQUIREMENT **MUST MAKE EXACT SCRIPTED NOTES FOR WHAT TO SAY FOR THE POWERPOINT VOICE OVER “
Required Resources
Read/review the following resources for this activity:
• Link (website): Narrated PowerPoint Tutorial
• Minimum of 8 scholarly resources (These are from the Week 4 Annotated Bibliography. Conduct additional research as needed.)
Introduction
For this project, select a person whom you believe had significant influence (positive or negative) on a movement for social, economic, and/or political change in the 20th and 21st centuries. Explore and address the following in your project:
• Summarize the person’s ideas.
• How did the ideas or changes affect the establishment and status quo?
• What was the context in which this person proposed ideas/change?
• How did the government or the people respond to the ideas/change?
• What sort of following or support did he/she have?
• How have the ideas/actions of the person influenced contemporary cultures and ideas?
For the final presentation, make sure to go beyond the surface information and go into depth about the person you are researching.
Here is a brief breakdown of the project so that you can plan your time in the course:

Week Task
Week 3: Topic Selection
Week 5: Annotated Bibliography
Week 6: Script
Week 8: Presentation
Instructions
The final step in the course project is to develop the presentation with audio narration.
• You may use PowerPoint or another method (mp4 file) approved by your instructor.
• Deliver the presentation in a professional and engaging manner.
• Include parenthetical in-text citations support observations made in the presentation. Make sure to read the citations when recording your narration. Do not read the references slide.
Presentation Requirements
• Length: 4-6 minutes narrated presentation
• Slide length: 5-8 slides (not including title slide, conclusion slide, or references slide)
• Title slide
• Conclusion slide
• References slide (minimum of 8 scholarly sources cited in APA format; not narrated)
MLKAnnotatedBibliography.docx
Please view and read the attached file and answer the following questions
Questions
Identify the weaknesses in the Articles of Confederation.
Differentiate the federalists and anti-federalists.
Identify the Bill of Rights and each amendment contained within.
Identify the history of and the methods to amend the U.S. Constitution, including the concept of proposal and ratification.
Relate the concepts of original ism and pragmatism as they relate to constitutional interpretation.
Explain James Madison’s concerns regarding factions.
Identify the parts of the Constitution, including the articles and their principles.

Things Fall Apart
You will write one essay for this course based on your reading of Things Fall Apart. This project counts for 25% of your grade.
Chinua Achebe’s Things Fall Apart was one of the first novels written by an African author to garner worldwide acclaim. Achebe set out to depict the social and psychological disorientation accompanying the imposition of Western customs and values upon traditional African (Igbo) society. Based upon a careful reading of the text, provide an overview of the salient themes and key events in Things Fall Apart. Some questions to consider when crafting your essay (you need not answer all of them – they are simply touchstones for addressing central issues). How does the main character Okonkwo fight against the coming of missionaries and European colonial government? What are his personal strengths and greatest weaknesses? Does he successfully challenge the new order? How does this novel fit within the context of European colonialism in Africa? You might consider the following: there is a saying common to Native Americans and Africans alike which goes like this: “Before the white man came, we had the land and they had the Bible. Now we have the Bible and they have the land.”
A successful essay will incorporate specific evidence from the assigned readings. I will evaluate your essays on the strength and clarity of the thesis, development of the argument, use of evidence, and writing style/grammar. No outside sources are necessary, but if you do choose to integrate external analyses or interpretations into your essay, you must properly cite them. Make sure that the entire essay reflects your ideas written in your own words. All papers will checked for plagiarism through Turnitin. Use Chicago Manual of Style or MLA for your citations. A Work(s) Cited page is required even if your only source is Things Fall Apart. Be sure to number your pages.
Your essay must be at least four (4) full pages in length, double-spaced, 1 inch margins, and 12 point Times New Roman font. Only your name should appear at the top of the page. Papers that are below required length (even by half a page) will lose significant points from the total score. The Work(s) Cited page does not count toward the page total.

You must answer one question from the list below. The exam is worth 40 points. You should turn your answer in through canvas. Your answer must use 12 point font and include your name and student ID at the top of the first page. Your work must be your own. You must refer to at least 3 articles from the course assignments in your answer. You may refer to more than 3 articles, but you may not refer to any material that was not assigned in the course. These are thought pieces designed to show you understand and can synthesize the material. You should cite the articles within your answer like this: (Smith 2020) and you need not include a reference page so long as the citations are clear which readings you are citing. The answer to the question should be between 3 and 5 pages long.

Choose one of these questions to answer:
• What are human rights and how can we get states to recognize them?
• Identify and discuss some of the risks when the international community attempts to improve human rights whether through military intervention or economic sanctions.
• Agree or disagree with the following statement: “The protection of human rights only occurs with respect to issues everyone already agrees about, so international treaties and other efforts to protect human rights are a waste of time.” Make sure you explain why you agree or disagree.

Hunting is hard to do, and you have to have the skills to provide meat on the table. My husband is a hunter, and there are some seasons where he may get only get one deer. It is not a stable way of life. Tribes who primarily lived off of hunting and gathering had to move around all the time. They were not stable and went through many seasons of change. Agricultural-based tribes were well-rounded and could provide for their families. They were stable and seemed to live longer. ( Read and explain in your own words what this mean to you in 125 words)

The Revenge of Nature: (Plague, Cold and the Limits of Disaster in the 14th century); had lasting impacts on the societies of the 14th and 15th century. Examine these impacts to society and how it can be compared to the impact of nature during the time of COVID 19.
2 and a half pages

Read Boreuski’s This Way for the Gas, Ladies and Gentlemen.
Parameters
• double-spaced, 12-point Times New Roman font, with one-inch margins
• Use MLA for citing references and quotations
Criteria
• 500 words
• The flow of ideas follows a logical, well-organized pattern
• Each paragraph expresses one idea encapsulated in a topic sentence
• The introduction and conclusion are engaging, cohesive, and appropriate in their position
• The response is relevant to the reading
Style and Clarity
Elements of style and clarity are strong.
• Paragraph and sentence transitions are present and maintain the flow of thought
• The tone is appropriate to the content and assignment
• A variety of sentence structures are present

How successful was Reconstruction? What measures were created to assist the Freedmen? Give examples of how the ex-slave society tried to stop the advancement of African Americans after the Civil War.

1. Describe capital budgeting in detail. Describe in detail 4 tools used to evaluate a capital budgeting project. Which tool is the best and why? Describe how to calculate MIRR. Describe mutually exclusive projects and independent projects.Why is IRR of the project compared to the WACC of the company? If the project’s IRR is equal to the company WACC, what is the NPV of the project? Is a project with a NPV of 0 acceptable? Which group of investors (stock or bond investors) receive the NPV from the project and why? Is NPV and IRR measured in dollars or percentage? Why is payback period the weakest of all the capital budgeting tools? Why do many CFO’s say 5 years of future cash flows is the maximum they try to estimate? How can % lie (think of a $1 project with a high IRR)?
2. Describe business risk and financial risk. Describe how a higher debt to asset ratio affects EPS and stock price. Describe how a higher debt to asset ratio affects cost of debt and equity and WACC. Describe the optimal debt to asset ratio for a company. Describe Chapter 7 and Chapter 11 bankruptcy. Describe the costs of bankruptcy (explicit and implicit). Discuss what is happening to a company currently in bankruptcy court (google one).
3. Research Walmart’s current e-commerce efforts as compared to Amazon and other rivals. Do you think Walmart will catch Amazon? Does it need to? What advantages does Walmart enjoy by blending retail stores with e-commerce efforts?

This Assignment is asking you to use your imagination AND the information contained in Chapter 3 and the Lecture/ Slide Show for Chapter 3, to record a day/night in the life of California Indians, as if you were a member of a tribe living here BEFORE European contact. You can write in first person as a specific individual or describe in third person what is unfolding on a daily basis within the larger tribe. As you compose your submission (375 words) some suggested categories to explore could be: food, shelter, clothing, hunting, gathering, gender roles, other kinds of work such as tool making and basket weaving, spiritual beliefs/rituals, story-telling, hobby/leisure time activities, etc. Please follow the rules for grammar and capitalization, and especially the footnoting format and listing sources included in the 1st block of Modules. Remember to include an appropriate image with your submission.

Specific Instructions
1. The text portion of this assignment needs to be at least 375 words long and include a picture/image.
2. Make sure you are following the assignment description and including a strong introduction and conclusion. Consult Rubric at bottom of page.
3. Submission MUST be double-spaced. Font cannot be larger than 12.
4. Footnotes must be used to show specific source of information whether it is being directly quoted or not. You must consult at least two sources and they must be listed. Consult Grammar/Footnote Rules in Opening Module.

Please respond below 2 different post separately:
First one:
On December 11, 1961 Eichmann was convicted of crimes against the Jewish people, crimes against humanity, war crimes, and membership in a criminal organization. He was sentenced to death on December 15.1961. Later on in June 1962, Eichmann was exicuted by hanging and he was tunre to ashes and spread out into the sea. After reading about the Eichmann trial, I learned that his trial in Israel was the only trial in Israel history to have ended with the death sentence. In adfition, I learned that Eichmann had admitted he was guilty of the crimes he was put to trial for. He stated thta he was guilty of the deportation of millions of Jews to their deaths, but did not feel guilty of the consequences. The Nuremberg Trials was the trial of the top surviving German leaders. The trial was held in Nurmenberg Germany before an international military tribute. I learned that the judges were all from the allied powers, Great Britain, France, Soviet Union, and the United States. There were one hundred adn ninety nine top German soldiers tried throughout the Nurmenberg trials. Out of the one hundred and ninety nine, thirty seven were sentenced to death and one hundred and sixty one were convicted for the crimes they commited. I believe that more justice could have been seved because there were pleanty of German Nazi soldiers that feld to other countries including the United States. The soldiers that fled escaped their consequences, and I feel that they should have been tracked down and hunted just like they had done to the inncoent Jewish community in Europe. Finally, the German Nazi soldiers that were captured and put to trial used the excuse that they were only following orders. Prior to this module, I learned that they were given the opportunity to not participate in the mass shootings and killing of the European Jewish community. Therefore, the excuse of “just following orders” is invalid.
Second one
The crimes that the Nazis committed were inhumane and based of anti-semitic beliefs. There were mutiple attempts for the Nazis to be tried for these crimes. The Eichmann trials took place in Jerusalem in front of the Israeli police. This was a very high populated Jewish area. This was the first time that the Holocaust was exposed for what it truly was in large detail. Journalists from all around the world came to Jerusalem to cover this trial. Eichmann was found guilty and indicted. The Nuremburg trials uncovered the German authority that upheld the Nazi fascism. Of the 177 respondents, 24 were condemned to death, 20 to long lasting detainment, and 98 other jail sentences. 25 respondents were seen not as blameworthy. A large number of the detainees were delivered right off the bat during the 1950s because of absolutions. I believe justice was served as a result of these trials and the Nazis received a fair amount of punishment.

Primary Response: Within the Discussion Board area, write 200–250 words that respond to the following questions with your thoughts, ideas, and comments. This will be the foundation for future discussions by your classmates. Be substantive and clear, and use examples to reinforce your ideas.
For this Discussion Board, please complete the following:
The decade following World War II has been described as the Boom Years in the United States. There was an economic boom and a rise in technological innovation. Some of the developments of the 1950’s include the following:
• The growth of suburbs
• The expansion of infrastructure
• The rise of consumerism
• Car culture
• Many other technological, economic, and infrastructure developments
All of these events had an effect on American’s daily lives.
Watch this video to learn more about changes to American life in the 1950s.
Choose ONE advancement (cultural or technological) that is discussed in the video and answer the following questions:
• How did this advancement change the way that Americans lived their daily lives?
• What have been the positive and negative consequences of this advancement on American society?

Discussion Question Response
Based on your reading in the webtext, select one of the following thesis statements. Your response should be two to three paragraphs in length.
1. The Alaska Native Regional Corporations (ANCSA) and the Native corporation system have been good for Alaska Natives.
OR
1. ANCSA and the Native corporation system have been bad for Alaska Natives.
Next, revise the statement you have chosen to reflect the complexity of the historical events surrounding this issue. Provide specific examples of how ANCSA and the Native corporation system have had a positive or negative impact—or perhaps both—on Alaska Natives. Further illustrate the complexity of this issue by showing how the passage of ANCSA was contingent on at least three historical events or forces.
In response to your peers, reflect on their revised statement. Describe the ways you find it shows the complexity of the event, and provide a suggestion for how they can further develop the statement or the supporting examples.

1. Pierre Taylor – The Alaska Native Regional Corporations (ANCSA) and the Native corporation system have been good for Alaska Natives.
Revised statement: The Alaska Native Regional Corporations (ANCSA) and the Native corporation system have been financially good for Alaska Natives, benefiting the Native community. More than half of the top Alaska-owned business were Native regional corporations. Resulting in millions of dollars in dividends paid to shareholders. Native corporation created thousands of jobs for native shareholders and paid for Native student scholarships.
The passage of ANCSA was contingent on the government and the AFN coming to an agreement. The abundance of valuable natural resource on the Alaska native land was the main reason why the government wanted to strike a deal with the natives. The natives had political representation making it hard for the government to just take the land like they have done in the past. Awareness of past native mistreatment was also a factor when making this deal adding political pressure when negotiating a deal.
Response –

2. Brook Phillips – “The Alaska Native Regional Corporations (ANCSA) and the Native corporation system have been good for Alaska Natives.”
This statement would better reflect the complexity of the historical events surrounding the ANCSA and the Native corporation system. The Alaska Native Regional Corporations (ANCSA) and the Native corporation system are great first steps that have been good for Alaska Natives. Through these steps, Natives can sustain themselves and their way of life.

I most appreciated the perspective presented in the article “ANCSA Unrealized: Our Lives Are Not Measured in Dollars.” In this article, authors Allaway and Mallott explained that the ANCSA has been both good and bad for Alaskan Natives. They acknowledge that living in a society that is capitalistic requires the same, “Yet in my reading of history, no racial minority will ever survive for long in a capitalistic society without having economic power or at least an economic ability to survive. ANCSA gives us that. So, from that standpoint, it is very, very meaningful” (Allaway & Mallott, 2005, p. 141). From this standpoint, it is clear that the economic ability to survive is important for an ethnic minority group. The ANCSA allows financial stability that enables the continued development of Native culture. Allaway and Mallott also point out how much stronger Native culture has become as a result of this economic stability.
I see a very different attitude today than I saw when I did my own village journey just after the passage of ANCSA. Today, I see a much stronger sense of being Native, of wanting to continue to define ourselves, and the lives of our children, as Native. In young people, the aspiration is evident in very powerful ways; for example, in Native dancing, in Native programs of all sorts in schools, including programs that are built around culture camps, spirit camps, communal meals, and Native art. The culture is not dying; in fact, it is being revised (Allaway & Mallott, 2005, P.142).
When I saw the topic for this week’s study and discussion, I instantly reached out to my sister who has been living in Alaska for the last twenty years. I asked her what her observations are of the ANCSA and the Native corporations. Her friends who are Native enjoy the economic stability that comes from the ANCSA for the most part. There are instances where Native corporations do not allow tribe members to participate in corporation events if they are not employees despite being part of that tribe and a shareholder. Another aspect of life in Alaska involving art, culture, and tradition is the stigma of Native art. A non-Native is not allowed to produce art in the same style as Alaskan Natives. I am in agreeance that the overall idea of ANCSA and Native corporations is a good starting point. And, as with all things, must change and get better over time.
Congrats everyone on another completed term! Good luck in completing your degree programs! Thank you for the wonderful and thought-provoking conversations this summer.
References
Allaway, J., & Mallott, B. (2005). Ancsa unrealized: Our lives are not measured in dollars. Journal of Land, Resources, & Environmental Law, 25(2), 139-148.
Response –

Please write comments to below discussion posts separately:
First discussion post
These Nazi doctors were criminals and murderers! They are liars and played the part in Hitlers final solution. these doctors tricked these people, rushing them into “showers”, just to have them murdered. Schuomel was a prime example of a person with the wrong morals. He was one of the doctors responsible for rushing the Jews into the gas chambers. He told the people to rush into the showers because the water was getting cold. These monsters really did anything to see these people die. They were so insecure about themselves and what they stood for that they needed people to die to make them feel succesful. Dr Menegele is a more interesting and even a more depressing story. He was not raised to be this monster and animal. He came from a Catholic upbringing, a normal, healthy childhood. He became obsessed in his work and lost touch with his only child. His soon grew up to be curious and skeptical of his own fathers work. His father escaped the Americans with a fake ID and various other sorts. His experiments on the Jews will never be forgotten. He truly thought he was making a difference. He did make a difference, he made the world a bitter and cold place. These people deserved the death penalty.
Second Discussion Post
If you were to look at pictures of Nazi doctors without having any information about what they did during World War 2 you would think they were medical professionals who were dedicated to saving lives. In reality, they took lives and experimenting on Jewish prisoners. Experiments ranged from altitude, cold weather, poisons, intentional give prisoners gangrene and many more. German doctors completely disregarded their oath to never do harm. Mengele is probably the most recognized of the German doctors, nicknamed the Angel of Death. He would chose who would be gased immediately and who would work. He also performed experiments on the forced laborers. Most notably was his experiments on twins. All of these doctors should be regarded as villains.

You can use internet, including the Peter Hayes video included in this module, please write at least FOUR pages, typed, double spaced, WORD, and uploaded to this link.
Please provide your analysis of why you think the Holocaust occurred. Give details and specific examples, and refer to points made in the Hayes lecture video included in this module. How do you explain Holocaust Denial in light of everything you have learned in this course? In addition, please discuss what you think we can learn from the Holocaust in terms of tolerance and how people should behave towards one another, and why prejudice and hatred should never be an option.
Peter Hayes lecture:
https://www.c-span.org/video/?422043-2/why

It will be one page discussion post:
What did you learn about the crimes perpetrated by the Nazis? What did you learn about the Eichmann trial? What did you learn about the Nuremberg Trials? Do you believe that justice was done? Were the perpetrators guilty or did they have a valid defense that they were just following orders?
You can use below links to get idea:
https://www.yadvashem.org/holocaust/eichmann-trial.html
https://encyclopedia.ushmm.org/content/en/article/the-nuremberg-trials

Identify one of the explanations for “graft” in Italy. Do you think it is convincing? Explain your reasoning. Additionally, consider whether or not you agree with the statement that “Italians seem to tolerate corruption more than other people.” Do you think this is true? What evidence makes you think so? one-two paragraphs

Do you think that some Italians might be subconsciously proud of the Mafia? Why do you think so? Explain your stance using content from this week’s readings. Also, consider how the Italian government might tackle dissolving the Mafia. Would they be able to do so? Must use textbook provided.

Primary Response: Within the Discussion Board area, write 200–250 words that respond to the following questions with your thoughts, ideas, and comments. This will be the foundation for future discussions by your classmates. Be substantive and clear, and use examples to reinforce your ideas.
For this Discussion Board, please complete the following:
Dr. King’s 1963 March on Washington was the largest civil rights protest in American history. It helped drive change. This included the passage of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Jim Crow laws were dismantled in the South. Voter registration increased during the Freedom Summer of 1964. In 1965, Johnson outlawed discriminatory voting practices by signing the Voting Rights Act. Three years later, and just a few days after the assassination of Dr. King, Johnson signed the Fair Housing Act. This act banned discrimination in housing. It also increased protection of Native American rights.
Watch this video to learn more about these key acts. As you can imagine, these acts have impacted people of many different groups—race, sex, national origin, religion, and more.
• Choose one of these acts:
• Civil Rights Act of 1964
• Voting Rights Act of 1965
• Fair Housing Act of 1968
Then, respond to the following questions:
• How has the act you chose impacted your neighborhood, town, or workplace?
• What progress do you hope to see in the future?

Today, large proportions of Americans believe that most or all politicians are corrupt, that government serves the interest of the few, and that government is dominated by the wealthy and powerful. I want each of you to evaluate these statements, and using modern examples discuss whether you believe such statements to be true or false. All students must submit at least one original post to this forum as well as you must respond to the post of at least one student, for a total of two responses.

Debate over the role and size of government is central to contemporary American politics, and it is a theme that is examined in each chapter of the course textbook titled Government in America. The authors ask: is the scope of government too broad, too narrow, or just about right? In a blog post of atleast 300 words, use contemporary examples to discuss what is meant by the government being “too big.” Do you agree or disagree with the conservative sentiment that the American government is “too big” today? Why or why not?
In your “posting” be sure to develop a set of criteria, or values, with which one could evaluate what is “too big” about government today.
NO BIG VOCABULARY WORD USE.

1. Conclusion: In this section of your essay, you will discuss the impact of historical thinking. Specifically, you should:
2. Explain why this historical event is important to you personally. In other words, why did you select this event to research?
3. Illustrate how your research of the historical event impacted the way you thought about the event. In other words, how did thinking like a historian change the lens through which you viewed the event? Support your response with specific examples.
4. Explain how a historian would pursue further study of your thesis statement. In other words, if a historian were to continue researching your thesis statement, what would be the future directions or next steps?
5. Provide a reference list that includes all of the primary and secondary sources you used to investigate your historical event and support your thesis statement. Ensure that your list is formatted according to current APA guidelines (or another format, with instructor permission).
6. Communicate your message in a way that is tailored to your specific audience. For instance, you could consider your vocabulary, your audience’s potential current knowledge of historical events, or lack thereof, and what is specifically important to the audience.

Module Eight Short Responses

Historians, like judges and juries, come to conclusions after considering all the evidence. A conclusion* is essentially a brief thesis statement; it’s the judgment that a historian makes about a historical event, after considering the relevant evidence.
In each of the following exercises, you will be asked to consider the evidence about ANCSA and Native corporations that was presented in this assignment. Based on that evidence, you will be asked to assess the validity of different conclusions. Be sure to respond to each question in one to two sentences, using proper grammar

Question 1: Consider the following statement: The support of non-Native Alaskans was an important factor leading to the settlement of Alaska Native land claims. Is this conclusion consistent with the evidence presented in this learning block? Answer Yes or No, and then explain your choice in one or two sentences.
Question 2: Consider the following statement: ANCSA was a fair settlement for Alaska Natives. Is this conclusion consistent with the evidence presented in this learning block? Answer Yes or No, and then explain your choice in one or two sentences.
Question 3: Consider the following statement: ANCSA led to economic benefits for white Alaskans as well as for Natives. Is this conclusion consistent with the evidence presented in this learning block? Answer Yes or No, and then explain your choice in one or two sentences.
Question 4: For an American literature course: What skills from this course would you use to develop a brief essay on the significance of Walt Whitman’s “When Lilacs Last in the Dooryard Bloom’d,” a poem written in the summer of 1865?
Question 5: For a sociology course: What skills from this course would you use to produce an annotated bibliography for your course research project?
Question 6: For a business course: What skills from this course would you use to decide between two different investment proposals?
Question 7: How can history serve as a lens for the rest of the academic program you will pursue at SNHU? Has this course changed the way you think about what you want to study? Why or why not?
Question 8: What did you learn about one of these topics or historical events that was new or surprising to you? Explain in at least two to three sentences.
Question 9: In one paragraph, explain which parts of your historical investigation and analysis were most interesting to you. Which parts were less interesting?

Assignment: Closer examination of a Civil Rights Leader or Event
Purpose of Assignment: The purpose of this assignment is to introduce to the student a closer appreciation of either a Civil Rights Leader during the Civil Rights Movement or a significant Civil Right Movement event. This can vary but must be approved by the instructor. This assignment will be completed in the form of a power point presentation and must be placed in the drop box designated in Learning Studio. The assignment must adhere to the following specifications. A presentation must be a minimum of eight slides and no more than ten slides. See rubric for details and requirements. IT MUST BE RELAYED THAT SPEAKER’S NOTES WILL BE CRITICAL AND REQUIRED!!!!!!!
*** PLEASE NO MARTIN LUTHER KING****
Examples of a leader could range from a national leader like MLK or a local leader like WW Law. Events could include a national protest like Rosa Parks and the Bus Event or a local “sit in” event on Broughton Street. You will have flexibility, but topic must be approved. No approval, no acceptance, thu

M1 Discussion 2: Indian Assimilation
Available on Wednesday, August 18, 2021 12:01 AM EDT until Wednesday, August 25, 2021 11:59 PM EDT Must post first.Subscribe
Overview
The purpose of this discussion is to help you imagine how it felt to be an Indian forced to undergo assimilation at a boarding school far from home and try to understand also the point of view of other people at the time.
Instructions
For this discussion, review your readings for Unit 2. Afterwards, you will analyze the photo of Tom Torlino embedded here. You might also look at Tom Torlino’s school record at the Carlisle Indian School site. Feel free to do research outside the course if you’d like other points of view.
Then form groups that represent: a Navajo student, a white male Christian missionary, or an African American who has his or her own issues with assimilation. Each group will answer the following question: How would your character describe the impact of the transformation on Tom Torlino and others like him who attended the Carlisle Boarding School? How did this experience echo the expectations of other Americans for this type of school?
To form groups, students with last names beginning with A-H will take the role of a Navajo child sent to a boarding school. Students with names beginning with I-P will take the role of a white male Christian missionary. Everyone else will take the role of an African American. Be sure to put yourself in the shoes of the person you are speaking for — try to imagine how that person felt, what their ideals were, what they thought was good or right or appropriate at the time, even if you personally do not feel that way. Remember, history is not about you; it is about what people knew and felt and believed in the past, based on different knowledge than you and other modern people have about what happened later.

Tom Torlino, a member of the Navajo Nation, entered the Carlisle Indian School, a Native American boarding school founded by the United States government in 1879, on October 21, 1882 and just before he departed on August 28, 1886. Torlino’s student file contained photographs from 1882 and 1885. Carlisle Indian School Digital Resource Center.
Before you complete your discussion, make sure you refer to the course rubric for the expectations for this assignment. Participating in the course discussions is an important part of your final grade. In your discussions, you cannot simply reply to someone’s posting with “ditto” or “I agree with you”. You must answer the question(s) asked in a minimum of two paragraphs and maximum of three paragraphs. Your responses should also quote and cite the material you have read in the class so far; you may also do outside research. Use the Purdue OWL Chicago Style guide for help with the correct citation style for your quotes.
Then, respond to at least TWO classmates’ postings referring to at least one element of critical thinking. Your response to your classmates should be a minimum of two sentences, and a maximum of four sentences (refer to your Introduction to Critical Thinking and to the How to Read History Sources modules for a review of how to read primary sources).

1) Describe in detail the role of the financial manager. Describe in detail the goal of the financial manager. Describe four types of business forms and their advantages and disadvantages (i.e., LLC). Describe conflicts between stock holders and managers. Describe conflicts between bond holders and stock holders. Should a company behave ethically, why? Should a CEO of a company donate $1 million of a company’s profits to a local charity?
2) Describe indirect finance, direct finance, financial intermediaries, financial markets, financial securities, primary market, secondary market, and investment bankers in detail. Also, compare the NYSE and NASDAQ. Describe what a bank does in detail. Discuss a recent IPO in detail (google one and read about it).

No Plagiarism Please look at the directions for each assignment

Assignment 2 Summary
Top of Form
Provide a summary of chapter seven. In your review, make sure you include a response to the following questions:
How did the domestic slave trade and the exploitation of black women by white males affect slave families?
How did urban and industrial slavery differ from plantation slavery in the Old South?
What impact did housing, nutrition, and disease have on the lives of slaves?
How did black Christianity differ from white Christianity in the Old South? How did black Christianity in the South differ from black Christianity in the North?

Assignment 3
In two to three pages as part of the summary, explain how the history of the Civil War and Reconstruction can give context to the issues we are facing today.

Assignment 4

After reading chapters 12 and 13, respond to the following questions:
How and why did the agricultural and mechanical training that Hampton Institute and Tuskegee Institute offered gain so much support among both black and white people? why did black colleges and universities emphasize learning trades and acquiring skills?
How did middle-class and prosperous black people try to contribute to the progress for their race? Were there efforts effective?
How did middle-class black women contribute to the advancement of African Americans?
What were the reasons for the widespread outbreak of race riots during the first quarter of the twentieth century?
Explain why African Americans began to leave the rural South in the early twentieth century, and describe the types of lives they made for themselves in urban communities?

Assignment 5

Write a summary of the Chapter 16. In your review, explain why the literary and artistic movement known as the Harlem Renaissance emerge? How did it advance the culture of the African American community?
Assignment 6
Write a combined 3 to 4 pages review of the articles and chapters 19 and 20. In your review, explain how the Civil Rights Movement develop and progressed in the 1960s? What risk were the leaders taking in engaging in civil disobedience? Lastly, in your opinion, do you think we need a second Civil Rights Movement in the U.S.?

Week 2 Objectives: In Week 2, we will explore the three branches of government, and differentiate the powers granted to the executive, legislative, and judicial branches of the federal government by the U.S. Constitution, as well as the concepts of separation of powers and checks and balances, as established by the U.S. Constitution. These topics are as relevant today as they were when the U.S. Constitution was created.
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DISCUSSION RULES
Post a total of three substantive responses each week. A substantive reply is:
• A minimum of 175 words.
• Notes facts from the materials in the Learning Activities folder with references and citations.
• Includes your thoughts about those facts.
• Includes references in APA 7 format.
• Be nice and don’t talk politics – we’re all on the same side here.
• Your first post is due Thursday and should be a stand-alone post that starts a discussion thread.
• Then between Tuesday and Monday, reply at least once to any instructor post and reply at least once to another classmate.
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DISCUSSION TOPICS & QUESTIONS
Choose one topic for your initial main post and then select a different topic for your reply message to a classmate. Your reply to one of my posts can be on any topic (so my response to your initial post or my response to any other classmates’ initial post).
Topic One: The Powers of Congress: Article I, Section 1 of the U.S. Constitution provides to Congress “All legislative Powers herein granted shall be vested in a Congress of the United States, which shall consist of a Senate and House of Representatives.” Considering that throughout the course of U.S. history, the three federal branches have jockeyed for power via the system of “checks and balances,” analyze why congressional powers were listed first in the Constitution in Article I. After reviewing the readings on this topic in the Week 2 Learning Activities Folder, consider the following:
• How do having two chambers and a committee system affect Congress’s policymaking role?
• Do you see Congress today as still having the most power of the three branches? Why or why not?
• What other continual conflicts do you see between the three branches?
Topic Two: The Powers of the President: Article II, Section 1, Clause 1, of the U.S. Constitution provides to the president that “The executive Power shall be vested in a President of the United States of America.” We tend to think of the presidency as a powerful office. After reviewing the readings on this topic in the Week 2 Learning Activities Folder, consider the following:
• How is the president powerful?
• How is the presidency limited in power?
Topic Three: The Powers of the Supreme Court: Article III, Section 1, of the U.S. Constitution provides that the “judicial power of the United States, shall be vested in one Supreme Court, and such inferior Courts as the Congress may from time to time ordain and establish.” In the Judicial Branch video, we learned about the structure of the court system, how justices are appointed and removed, and how justices interpret the U.S. Constitution using the concept of judicial review. After reviewing the readings on this topic in the Week 2 Learning Activities Folder, consider the following:
• In what ways does the doctrine of judicial review interfere with the right of “we the people” to pass laws that “seem most likely to affect our safety and happiness?”
• What are the strengths and weaknesses of such a doctrine?
Topic Four: Separation of Powers / Checks and Balances: In Week 1, we learned that federalism is a system of shared but separate powers between the federal government and the states; the readings in the Week 2 Learning Activities folder discuss the three branches of the U.S. government (the executive, the legislative, the judiciary) and how they have separate and shared powers that created a system of checks and balances to curb government power overall (preserving the states’ powers) and to prevent one branch from seizing all of the power. After reviewing the readings on this topic in the Week 2 Learning Activities Folder, consider the following:
• What are the three branches of the federal government?
• How is the separation of powers achieved for these three branches?
• What is the purpose of the separation of powers?
• What is an example occurring today that demonstrates one branch of government checking another?

Question: Briefly describe a personal experience you have had at managing/directing a team
APA format, double spacing, minimum 600 words, NO FRONT PAGE, 1 reference

Conduct a job analysis. Choose a job you wish to study, conduct a job analysis of the job, and prepare a written report. You can use your current position, one with which you are familiar, or one that you gather information about via the Internet or other library resources. The report should include:
1. Basic information items:
a. What job did you choose and why?
b. What methods did you use and exactly how did you use them?
c. What sources did you use and exactly how did you use them?
2. Job description – discuss how essential job functions for positions are identified, reviewed, documented, and updated.
3. Job specification.
4. Purpose statement.
5. Data gathering, analyzing, and reporting techniques. (How did you go about gathering, analyzing and reporting the information?)

Culturally diverse clients who migrate to the U.S. often experience acculturative stress. For this Discussion, refer to the five factors of acculturative stress provided in Chapter 9 of your text.
Please respond to the following:
• Share an example of what you consider to be a bias for each of the following: assessing, diagnosing, and recommending mental health service delivery with culturally diverse clients.
• What steps would you recommend to address each example of bias?
• Choose two factors of acculturative stress and discuss how you would address these factors when assisting culturally diverse clients.

All organizations, regardless of their sector of practice or size, operate within a budget and an annual financial planning cycle. Many organizations rely on multiple sources of funding.
In your initial post, compare the financial planning processes for a nonprofit organization with those for a government (city, county, state, or federal) agency. Discuss how financial planning and financial constraints can impact collaboration and human service delivery for a specific population (such as substance abuse, mental health, family services, child care, educational programs, health care, the elderly, or disabled populations). What challenges exist when there are restrictions on the use of funds for specific purposes? How do financial reporting practices impact efforts to develop collaboration between programs or agencies?

The need for interaction and collaboration with other agencies in service to the mission of the organization is becoming the norm for many human service organizations in all sectors of practice. This need for collaboration affects the way organizational management is practiced.
In your initial post, discuss the importance of hiring and staff development processes that foster teams that are flexible, adaptable, and responsive to trends and forces that influence human service delivery. As a leader developing an adaptable team, what are some qualities you would look for in building a staff organization that is capable of collaborating with other agencies or organizations for optimum service delivery to a specific client population?

Your textbook presents several examples of situations where objectivity and transference might impact a therapeutic relationship. There is often a continuum that ranges from emotional objectivity to transference that can completely impair judgment. Select a scenario from the Cooperative Learning Exercise on page 260 of your textbook, or provide an example from your experience where there was a real or potential loss of objectivity or transference.
In your initial post, describe the difference between emotional objectivity and transference. Describe the scenario you selected and explain where or how the loss of objectivity or transference might occur in the scenario.

The dilemma of dual relationships, particularly in rural communities, can present significant ethical challenges. Review the articles by Gonyea, Wright, and Earl-Kulkosky (2014) and by Witt and McNichols (2014) in the studies for this unit.
In your initial post, discuss some of the methods used to manage potential dual relationships from the perspective of a provider and from the perspective of a supervisor. Describe at least one similarity and one difference in the ways a provider and a supervisor address dual relationship situations.
Assessing_the_Needs_of_Rural_CWittandMcNichols.pdf NAVIGATING_DUAL_RELATIONSHIPS_WrightandKulkosky.pdf

Review Customer Service: Internal and External Customers, within Chapter 23 of our text. Identify the internal and external customers in a health care setting. List several components that are used to determine the quality of care. What are some aspects of quality improvement management?

Apa format
1-2 paragraphs
references
• You have been assigned to a project team as one of the SMEs to analyze the plan of a project for a new payroll system that is behind schedule and over budget. The project was supposed to be completed in one (1) year, but now, it is running about three (3) months behind schedule and 25% over budget. It is expected that the project may continue to fall further behind schedule and over budget. The sponsor and the project manager want to save the project at all costs.
• Recommend a series of actions to save the project and identify possible risks in following your recommendations.

Module 02 Content
1. The Lollipop Company, Inc. needs your help with the current compensation and benefits plan. Leadership expects you to use your evaluation skills, combined with or built upon your knowledge, application, and/or analysis skills, to help solve this dilemma. The current plan is viewed as fair by the CEO and Leadership but several employees have complained it’s not enough. The current employee status is as follows:
o 1 CEO with a base salary of $150,000 and benefits that equal 40% of the salary
o 3 additional executives (senior management) with a combined base salary of $300,000 and each receives benefits that equal 35% of the salary
o 6 middle management personnel with a combined base salary of $420,000 and each receives benefits that equal 30% of the salary
o 10 first-line supervisors with a combined base salary of $500,000 and each receives benefits that equal 25% of the salary
o 150 non-supervisory employees with a combined base salary of $4,500,000 with an average individual salary of $30,000 and each receives benefits that equal 25% of the salary
o For this project assignment on Lollipop Company, Inc. complete a minimum 3-page business professional report selecting and organizing expert information that is useful for a CEO and addresses the following concepts:
o Visit the Rasmussen online Library and search for a minimum of 4 articles covering the topics of FMLA and workplace safety. Conduct academic research using the library’s databases, like:
o Discovery
o ASP: Human Resource Management Online
o Business Source Complete via EBSCO
o Business via ProQuest
o How would market research provide information about compensation and benefits when designing a compensation and benefits plan? How should the CEO use this market research for the company’s plan?
o How does the company achieve a balance between financial and non-financial compensation and benefits?
o What type(s) of primary and secondary research would you recommend be conducted? What are the benefits? Explain.
o Remember to integrate citations accurately and appropriately for all resource types; use attribution (credit) as a method to avoid plagiarism. Use NoodleTools to document your sources and to complete your APA formatted reference page and in-text citations.

1. analyze the different cultures and worldviews that inform human thinking and actions, and respond constructively to human and global differences in workplaces, communities, and organizations
Write a paper that compares and contrasts the cultures from the table in Part 1. Use three additional sources and include the GLOBE resources) to support your analysis of the two cultures. This paper should be around three to four pages in length. Your paper should not be a simple description – it should show evidence of analysis and synthesis of the information.

HS440M5 Capital Investment and Cost Analysis in Healthcare Organizations
This competency assessment assesses the following Outcome(s):
HS440M5-5: Explain the processes used in preparing budgets for health care organizations.
In this assignment, you are the CFO of a hospital, and you will create a one-page memorandum detailing cost-cutting measures that will be undertaken in response to the COVID-19 (or similar) crisis. You will consider debt financing, variance analysis, and cost variances in the organization. You need to translate your analysis results into practical action steps the organizations and employees will take.
Instructions
In this one-page memorandum, you will:
• Describe the action steps the organization will take to cut costs.
• Explain the reason for the cost-cutting measures.
• Discuss the valued contributions the employees can make to make the cost-cutting measures a success.
• Describe the appreciation the organization has for the employees during this crisis.
Requirements
Memorandum should:
• Describe the action steps the organization will take to cut costs.
• Explain the reason for the cost-cutting measures.
• Discuss the valued contributions the employees can make to make the cost-cutting measures a success.
• Describes the appreciation the organization has for the employees during this crisis.
Minimum Submission Requirements
• Proper notification of any resubmission, repurposing, or reworking of prior work per the Purdue Global Student Coursework Resubmission, Repurposing, and Reworking Policy Resource.
• This assessment should be a Microsoft Word (minimum 350 words) document, in addition to the title and reference pages.
• Respond to the questions in a thorough manner, providing specific examples of concepts, topics, definitions, and other elements asked for in the questions. Your submission should be highly organized, logical, and focused.
• Your submission should provide a clearly established and sustained viewpoint and purpose.
• Your writing should be well ordered, logical, and unified, as well as original and insightful.
• Your submission must be written in Standard English and demonstrate exceptional content, organization, style, and grammar and mechanics.
• A separate page at the end of your submission should contain a list of references in APA format. Use your textbook, the Library, and the internet for research.
• Be sure to include references for all sources and to cite them using in-text citations where appropriate. Your sources and content should follow current APA citation style. Review the writing resources for APA formatting and citation found in Academic Tools. Additional writing resources can be found within the Academic Success Center.
• Your submission should:
o include a title page;
o be double-spaced;
o be typed in Times New Roman, 12 -point font; and
o be free of spelling or punctuation errors.
If the work submitted for this competency assessment does not meet the minimum submission requirements, it will be returned for revision. If the work submitted does not meet the minimum submission requirements by the end of the term, you will receive a failing score.
Plagiarism
Plagiarism is an act of academic dishonesty. It violates the University’s Code of Student Conduct, and the offense is subject to disciplinary action. You are expected to be the sole author of your work. Use of another person’s work or ideas must be accompanied by specific citations and references. Whether the action is intentional or not, it still constitutes plagiarism.
For more information on plagiarism and the University’s Code of Student Conduct, refer to the current University Catalog.

Need Assistance on the following scenario:
Janie is a 34-year old mother of three. At present, she is separated from her husband of six years. Her children are Chloe, age seven, Devin, age four and Brenden, age two. Janie is a full-time mom and stays home to care for her children. She lives in a 3-bedroom apartment and receives child-support assistance from her husband. Janie comes to your human service organization because she is struggling to manage behavioral disorders regarding her daughter Chloe. On several occasions the school has contacted Janie informing her that Chloe is acting out at school as evidenced by oppositional behavior with teachers, arguing and fighting with peers, and poor academic performance. Janie reports similar oppositional behavior at home and states that Chloe has frequent nightmares. Her four-year-old brother is beginning to show signs of oppositional behavior.
Janie says that she is feeling overwhelmed and stressed in parenting her children. She complains of bouts of depression. She is also concerned that her husband’s child support is insufficient to sustain the family’s basic needs. Her husband rarely visits her or the children.
You are the caseworker assigned to work with Janie. Your agency is limited in the services it provides. Your organization’s primary function is to screen clients who may qualify for specific types of financial assistance for school supplies, childcare items e.g. formula, diapers, clothing and discounted school lunches.
In a 2-page address the following: Identify the key problems in this scenario. Provide a rationale for the problems that you have identified as being the most important to address.
Having identified key problems, review services/agencies in your community that would be a good and appropriate match for your client. Describe the services provided and defend your decision to refer to these agencies.
Discuss organizations or agencies that can provide the most services without the client having to be referred to multiple agencies. This is not always possible. Discuss options in your community and identify any gaps in services.

A critical aspect of policy analysis is development. Employees are the most valuable asset within an organization. Policies serve as a framework to guide decision making.
Your assignment this week is to analyze the framework toward the creation of a policy and the process involved. Then, you will compare two similar policies from different organizations that address a current HRM issue and analyze if the policies are clearly defined. Examples can consist of but not include: computer usage at work (personal e-mail), cellphone use policy, attire and grooming policy, etc. This will serve as preparation toward revising a policy within your organization. Be sure to consider what you learned during this week’s resources and the additional scholarly resources you gathered to analyze the policy development process.
Prepare an infographic that answers the following questions:
• What steps are required in policy analysis?
• What collaboration is required to create policy?
• What factors contributed to creating policy?
• What controversy could emerge during the analysis process?
Length: May vary depending on the content
References: Include a minimum of 3 scholarly sources. In addition, other appropriate scholarly resources may be included.
Your brochure should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course and provide new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards

Answer Objectives
should be able to:
● Demonstrate an understanding of and relevance to your academic career by
making a connection between knowledge learned in the classroom and practical
problems in an off-campus work environment.
● Identify your strengths, weaknesses, and areas of interest, based on your
practical work experience.
● Enhance a portfolio or resume with practical experience and projects.
Assignments to complete this week:
Assignment:
In a 4 – 6 page paper based on your internship course experience and the learning
objectives achieved during the course, review your internship experience
successes and challenges leading to growth. You should demonstrate in your
paper a description of your professional portfolio and include any evidence of
accomplishment and skill development or recognition that you have acquired this session
and how it will contribute to your portfolio.
Provide at least two (2) peer-reviewed sources. when you have completed this question
select new examples and sources
to support your response. For questions, contact your instructor.
about me: I am an information security enginer working for an IT company. you can write daily traits according to any engineer. the assignment should be presentable with real life examples.
Assignment-1:- No plagiarism
Discussion:
Assume that you have been hired by a small veterinary practice to help them prepare a contingency planning document. The practice has a small LAN with four computers and Internet access. Prepare a list of threat categories and the associated business impact for each. Identify preventive measures for each type of threat category. Include at least one major disaster in the plan.

Provide an outside source (for example, an article from the UC Library) that applies to the topic, along with additional information about the topic or the source (please cite properly in APA 7)
Make an argument concerning the topic
At least one scholarly source should be used in the initial discussion thread. Be sure to use information from your readings and other sources from the Library. Use proper citations and references in your post.

Overview
Blumberg’s Nursing Home (BNH) is a 100-bed Medicare and Medicaid certified facility in suburban Philadelphia, PA. The administrator recently terminated the facility’s DON, receptionist, and dietary aid for inappropriate conduct. They had all been involved in purchasing and using illegal substances on facility grounds. The facility staff and many of the more lucid residents have found out about the incident.
The charge nurse has been appointed interim DON. The human resource manager has sent a memo to all staff informing them of a mandatory staff meeting to discuss BNH’s code of ethics and to provide additional training on workplace culture. Because federal law requires that there be at least one registered nurse on duty for a minimum of eight hours a day, seven days a week, and that the DON must be a registered nurse (RN) which the interim DON is not—BNH is out of compliance.
Instructions
Write a 4–6 page paper in which you:
1. Assess the immediate staffing needs at BNH. Prioritize the order in which BNH should fill the main unstaffed position. Justify your selection.
2. Considering the reason behind the termination of the employees, formulate a human resources policy that addresses inappropriate conduct in the workplace, the process of reporting inappropriate conduct, and the consequences of violating the policy. Explain your rationale.
3. Per the text, an effective long-term care facility administrator must have both leadership and management skills. Propose at least one way the administrator in this case must demonstrate quality leadership skills and one way the administrator must demonstrate quality management skills in the aftermath of this crisis so as to improve and maintain staff and resident morale.
4. Recommend a strategy for BNH to use the Quality Indicator Survey to improve administrative practices and ensure future compliance at the facility. Justify your recommendation.
5. Use at least three quality academic resources. Note: Wikipedia and other similar websites do not qualify as academic resources.
This course requires the use of Strayer Writing Standards. For assistance and information, please refer to the Strayer Writing Standards link in the left-hand menu of your course. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
The specific course learning outcome associated with this assignment is:
• Formulate a human resource policy that addresses inappropriate conduct in the workplace, administration leadership skills, and strategies for improving administrative practices.

Search the web and find a resource on how cryptography has been used to either defeat or defend a secured network.
• Provide the URL for the resource you found. Give a brief, one-paragraph description of the circumstances, including the tool used, the name of the attack, and other information. Describe how cryptography was used in the attack or defense of the network, as you understand it.

Due date: Week 12
Group/individual: individual
Word count / Time provided: 3000 words
Weighting: 30%
Unit Learning Outcomes: ULO-3, ULO-4, ULO-5

Assessment Details:
Read the case study and the article below, then complete the exercise at the end. In order to answer the exercise questions provided, you will need to conduct further research about the topic (read the article below see the list of references included for further research).
Case Study
UBER
Uber is a ride-sharing service that was rolled out in 2009 after two of its founders, Travis Kalanick and Garrett Camp couldn’t get a taxi in Paris during a snowstorm. It originated from the idea, “What if you could request a ride from your phone?” Its vision and mission is to “bring transportation-for everyone, everywhere…that is safer, cheaper and more reliable…create more jobs opportunities and incomes for drivers.”
Today, Uber boasts an annual revenue of over $11 billion, a market capitalization rate of $74 billion, and over 19,000 employees. With 75 million global customers and three million dedicated drivers in 83 countries, Uber has been a legitimate game-changer in the ride-sharing services market.
The name Uber is derived from the German word meaning “above all the rest,” a bedrock principle Kalanick and Camp wanted for their young company. All the riders need to do is to open their mobile phone, tap a button, and find an affordable ride in minutes.

In direct competition with Google and Tesla Motors, Uber was also a frontrunner in the future of driverless cars. However, they faced some Intellectual Property (IP) issues when Alphabet Inc’s Waymo sued Uber in 2018 for theft of its self-driving technology. In March 2018, a self-driving car fatally struck a pedestrian, causing the company to temporarily suspend all testing. In May 2018, Uber announced that it would halt its Arizona testing program but would conduct it elsewhere. In July 2018, Uber’s self-driving cars made their return in Pittsburgh, but it was never the same. In
December 2020, it was announced that Uber would sell its autonomous vehicle business to Aurora Innovations, a start-up in San Francisco. Uber had invested more than $1 billion in the business at the time of the sale.
How autonomous vehicles could save over 350K lives in the US and millions worldwide
Fatal accidents could drop dramatically in the future as autonomous vehicles become mainstream and make deaths from driver error a thing of the past.
American roads are deadly. In 2016, 37,461 people died in traffic accidents in the US, a 5.6 percent increase over 2015, according to the US Department of Transportation (DoT). This is down from 1970, when around 60,000 people died in traffic accidents in the US. The addition of safety features such as seat belts and air bags have reduced the number of deaths, and new technology from autonomous vehicles could help even more as driver error is eliminated.
DoT researchers estimate that fully autonomous vehicles, also known as self-driving cars, could reduce traffic fatalities by up to 94 percent by eliminating those accidents that are due to human error. Using 2016 numbers as a baseline, and multiplying 37,461 by 10, this means that there could be 374,610 deaths in a 10-year span, and 94 percent of these — or 352,133 — could possibly be prevented through fully autonomous cars by eliminating driver error.
And globally there were 1.25 million traffic fatalities in 2013, according to the World Health Organization. So, there are millions of lives that could be saved around the world every decade with fully autonomous cars. In developing countries some accidents are caused by unsafe roads, not driver error, so the 94 percent calculation wouldn’t be applicable, although many lives could still be saved through autonomous vehicles, said Mark Zannoni, analyst at IDC.
“I think that most people, most experts, would say that there’s a strong possibility that automated technology can prevent the crashes that are related to human error, and there is a pretty hard number that’s about 94 percent of fatal crashes in the US are attributable, or caused by, human error,” said John Maddox, CEO of the American Center for Mobility.
Elderly drivers and teenagers are particularly likely to benefit from autonomous vehicles because the cars can monitor a situation that a driver might not be able to themselves, said Wayne Powell, vice president of electrical engineering and connected technologies for Toyota Motors North America.
“Teen drivers are classically a high-risk category of people. If you put a teen driver in a car that was looking out for that person, it won’t let them make bad choices. That could also have an immediate benefit,” Powell said.
People are optimistic about autonomous technology in cars because it works well in areas where humans tend to not work well. “For example, human error often includes lack of vigilance. They’re distracted for whatever reason, whether texting or eating or talking with kids in the back seat. Or they could be impaired. Or they could be driving in conditions where they have a hard time, like dark night in an urban area with pedestrians, etcetera,” Maddox said.
Ever vigilant, always sober
Cars with automated technology have sensors that never lose vigilance. “They’re always looking for pedestrians. They’re always looking for the edge of the road. They’re always watching the car in front. They don’t become distracted or drunk, and I think that’s really the main reason why most experts would say that there is a definite possibility that automation can significantly reduce those human error caused fatal crashes,” Maddox said.
However, there is a learning curve, as drivers in cars with automated technology operate in an environment with drivers who are not in cars with any level of autonomy. With five levels of autonomy, as defined by the DoT’s National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), there is a range of how much autonomy a driver can choose, with Level 1 providing a specific function, such as steering or accelerating done automatically by the car, and Level 3 where the automated driving system begins to monitor the driving environment.
Sometimes drivers might be frustrated with a slower-moving vehicle that is actually an autonomous car, even though the other driver doesn’t know it. And this could result in accidents as frustrated drivers can often act aggressively. Maddox said he’s been in his own vehicle at a Level 2 of automation, and spotted aggressive drivers trying to get around his slower-moving vehicle.
“Really, the jury’s still out [on the safety of autonomous vehicles], and what we need is lots of data. We know a lot about human-caused crashes, because we’ve been studying that for 100 years. We don’t have the same level of data, the same breadth of data, on automated vehicles. Not even close. So, to really be sure on the effects, we need to acquire and analyse lots of data,” Maddox said.
“While it will take us years to collect the data that even starts to rival what we have today, the good news is that automated vehicles are data-collecting machines. That’s how they work. They collect data about their environment and other road users. So, if we can correctly and effectively tap into that data, we don’t have to wait 100 years. The data collection and analysis process can go a lot faster because of the data that’s generated on board and off board these vehicles,” he said.
Every vehicle on the road doesn’t need to be autonomous before safety benefits can be realized. Benefits can be realized from earlier levels of automation, said Carrie Morton, deputy director of the Mcity autonomous vehicle test facility at the University of Michigan.
“I think that pretty much for every mistake that a human makes there’s an opportunity for automation and artificial intelligence to replace that flawed behavior with a safe behavior,” Morton said.
Some of the types of accidents that can be potentially avoided in an autonomous vehicle include front-to-rear crashes, with real-world testing showing a 40 percent decline, said Susan Beardslee, senior analyst for ABI Research.
The infrastructure of a city will change to accommodate autonomous vehicles. The first is providing electric vehicle (EV) stations, since many vehicles will be electric because EVs have a lower total cost of operation, said Paul Stith, director of strategy and innovation for transformative technologies at Black & Veatch, which outlines some of the strategies in its 2018 report on smart cities and utilities.
Cities will need to prepare with infrastructure investments for EV charging stations and ensuring there is an adequate communications structure in place to collect the data from the autonomous vehicles on the road. “There will be terabytes of data that each vehicle will need to convey,” Stith said.
One thing to keep in mind is that in the beginning, there will still be accidents caused by autonomous vehicles. “Aviation is extremely safe. But in the early years of aviation, there were more crashes as well. There were more in the beginning with traditional cars. Anything new, whether FDA drugs or new surgical procedures, get safer as they get better and better. But when a new product comes out initially, it might break down. But eventually it can get better,” Zannoni said.
References:
Patrick Lin. (2021). The ethical dilemma of self-driving cars. [Online Video]. 9 December 2015. Available from: https://youtu.be/ixIoDYVfKA0. [Accessed: 23 May 2021].

TechRepublic. 2021. Our autonomous future: How driverless cars will be the first robots we learn to trust. [ONLINE] Available at: https://www.techrepublic.com/resource-library/downloads/ourautonomous-future-how-driverless-cars-will-be-the-first-robots-we-learn-to-trust-pdf-download/. [Accessed 23 May 2021].
TechRepublic. 2021. Tesla’s Autopilot: A cheat sheet. [ONLINE] Available
at: https://www.techrepublic.com/article/teslas–autopilot–the–smart–persons–guide/. [Accessed 23 May 2021].
TechRepublic. 2021. 81% of Americans believe driverless vehicles will kill jobs for professional drivers – TechRepublic. [ONLINE] Available at: https://www.techrepublic.com/article/81-of-americansbelieve-driverless-vehicles-will-kill-jobs-for-professional-drivers/. [Accessed 23 May 2021].
ZDNeT. 2021. How autonomous vehicles could save over 350K lives in the US and millions worldwide. [ONLINE] Available at: https://www.zdnet.com/article/how-autonomous-vehicles-couldsave-over-350k-lives-in-the-us-and-millions-worldwide/. [Accessed 23 May 2021].
ZDNet. 2021. US House approves bill to advance autonomous car testing. [ONLINE] Available at: https://www.zdnet.com/article/us-house-approves-bill-to-advance-autonomous-car-testing/. [Accessed 23 May 2021].
ZDNet. 2021. Autonomous vehicle predictions are premature: Toyota. [ONLINE] Available at: https://www.zdnet.com/article/autonomous-vehicle-predictions-are-premature-toyota/. [Accessed 23 May 2021].
Exercise:
After reading the case study above and conducting further research, you now need to answer the following research questions below.
1. Critique the alignment between Uber’s information systems strategy and business strategy.
2. Critically review the role of business intelligence and business analytics in supporting business decision making at Uber.
3. Review and evaluate contemporary tools and techniques for accessing information from databases to improve business performance.
4. A report of 3000 words summarising your analysis must be submitted by the due date.
Reasonable assumptions are allowed.
Penalty for Late submission: a deduction of 5% of the total mark shall be imposed on each of the next subsequent days.
Submission requirements
1. Use a typical report structure, with a Cover Page, Table of Contents, Executive Summary, Introduction, Body, Recommendation/Conclusion and References format.
2. The Executive Summary and the References are excluded in the word count.
3. The Cover Page should clearly indicate the names of each person in the group and the word count.
4. You can use task above as Headings in the Body of your report, and after the question is the name of the group member(s) who discussed that particular topic. For example, “Alignment between Uber’s information systems strategy and business strategy” by Jaspreet Singh.
5. All References should reflect quality citations from relevant academic journals and adhere to the correct Harvard format (Wikipedia NOT allowed).
Marking Information: The Case study-2 will be marked out of 100 and will be weighted 30% of the total unit mark.
Marking rubric:
Marking
Criteria Not satisfactory
(0-49%) of the criterion mark Satisfactory
(50-64%) of the criterion mark Good
(65-74%) of the criterion mark Very Good
(75-84%) of the criterion mark Excellent
(85-100%) of the criterion mark
Introduction about the case study

(10 marks) Introduction is presented poorly without adequate details. Introduction is presented briefly with some relevance and missing elements such as summary of case objectives, and problem/ report outline. Introduction is presented with adequate details, however missing one or more elements such as summary of case objectives, and problem/report outline.
Introduction is well written with clear discussion about the summary of case objectives, problem/ report outline. Introduction is very well written with very clear background and discussion about the summary of case objectives, and problem/report outline.
Content
Critical analysis of the alignment of an organisation’s information systems strategy and business
strategy

(20 marks) Does not clearly state an argument or point of view or else little or no supporting reasoning or evidence is presented. States an argument or point of view but does not present the evidence or reasons in a logically adequate way. States an argument or point of view but expected to be
organized more
logically. Analysis of the problem situation is so far reasonable. Presents an argument using evidence and /or logical reasoning in support of a point of view with satisfactory
level of critical analysis skills. Develops a clearly articulated argument, using evidence and/or systematic logical reasoning with high level of critical analysis skills.

Content
Critically review the role of business intelligence and business analytics in supporting Does not clearly state an argument or point of view or else little or no supporting reasoning or evidence is presented. States an argument or point of view but does not present the evidence or reasons in a logically adequate way. States an argument or point of view but expected to be organized more
logically. Analysis of Presents an argument using evidence and /or logical reasoning in support of a point of view with satisfactory Develops a clearly articulated argument, using evidence and/or systematic logical reasoning with high
business decision
making

(20 marks)
the problem situation is so far reasonable. level of critical analysis skills. level of critical analysis skills.
Content Review and evaluate contemporary tools and techniques for accessing information from databases to improve business
performance

(20 marks)
Does not clearly state an argument or point of view or else little or no supporting reasoning or evidence is presented. States an argument or point of view but does not present the evidence or reasons in a logically adequate way. States an argument or point of view but expected to be organized more
logically. Analysis of the problem situation is so far reasonable. Presents an argument using evidence and /or logical reasoning in support of a point of view with satisfactory
level of critical analysis skills. Develops a clearly articulated argument, using evidence and/or systematic logical reasoning with high level of critical analysis skills.
Structure and organization How logically arguments are stated and how critically problems
are analysed

(15%) Does not clearly state an argument or point of view or else little or no supporting reasoning or evidence is presented. Problem situation is not critically analysed. States an argument or point of view but does not organize the evidence or reasons in a logically adequate way. Analysis of the problem situation is not that satisfactory. States an argument or point of view but expected to be
organized more
logically. Analysis of the problem situation is so far reasonable. Presents an argument using evidence and /or logical reasoning in support of a point of view. Problem situation is analysed with satisfactory level of critical analysis skills. Develops a clearly articulated argument, using evidence and/or systematic logical reasoning in support of a conclusion or point of view. The way problem situation is
analysed requires high
level of critical analysis skills.
Writing Quality &
Adherence to
Format Guidelines

(15%) Report shows a below average/poor writing style lacking in elements of appropriate standard English and following proper Harvard guidelines. Frequent errors in spelling, grammar, punctuation, spelling, usage, and/or formatting.
Report shows below average and/or casual writing style using standard English and following Harvard guidelines. Some
errors in spelling, grammar, punctuation, usage, and/or formatting. Report shows an average and/or casual writing style using standard English and following Harvard guidelines. Some
errors in spelling, grammar, punctuation, usage, and/or formatting. Report shows above average writing style and clarity in writing using standard English and following Harvard guidelines. Minor errors in grammar, punctuation, spelling, usage, and/or formatting. Report is well written and clear using Harvard guidelines and standard English characterized by strong writing style. It is free from grammar, punctuation, spelling, usage, or formatting errors.
1. When using different data algorithms, why is it fundamentally important to understand why they are being used?
2. If there are significant differences in the data output, how can this happen and why is it important to note the differences?
3. Who should determine which algorithm is “right” and the one to keep? Why?
Students should engage on three separate days (the initial post by Wednesday and two additional days with peers) with peers with substantive posts. Be sure to refer to the grading rubric for additional discussion board requirements.
Bedford Furniture. The board of directors is considering launching a WebStore and does not know what is involved in developing a new system. You have been asked to present to the board of directors to help them know what to expect.
Create a 12- to 16-slide presentation directed to the board of directors in which you:
Explain the importance of using systems analysis and design methodologies when building an information system.
Justify the systems development life cycle (SDLC) implementation, and explain why that’s the best option, rather than the quick and easy process.
Summarize the criteria for selecting commercial off-the-shelf software (COTS) presented in Modern Systems Analysis and Design, Ch. 2.
Identify additional criteria that are, or might be, used to select COTS.
Consider if the choice was between alternate custom software developers rather than pre-written packages.
Select appropriate criteria for comparing multiple application custom development bids.
Briefly define each of these criteria.
Briefly summarize the project management process.
Explain which of the 4 project management process phases you think is most challenging.
Explain how to mitigate the risks for that stage.
Include speaker notes and media, such as graphics or tables.
Cite any references and graphics used to support your assignment.
Format your citations according to APA guidelines.

board of directors wants to continue consideration of a new WebStore for the company. They have asked you to assist them in selecting and initiating which project to do. They are considering a WebStore for 1 of their following 3 target markets:
Corporate furniture
Home office furniture
Student furniture
Presentation (10 to 16 slides)
Executive summary (3 to 4 pages)
Address the following components in your presentation or executive summary :
Explain 4 methods for identifying and selecting IS projects.
Compare the characteristics of each method, and identify the strengths and weaknesses of each method.
Identify valuation criteria when classifying and ranking the 3-target market projects.
Rank the 3-target market projects.
Summarize the project initiation and planning process, and identify the next steps for Pine Valley Furniture’s board of directors.
Questions
1. Draw a decision tree for Don New comb’s problem.
2. What is the significance of his statement that he would sell the business for 20 billion credits?
3. Suppose that Don’s risk attitude can be modeled with an exponential utility function. If his certainty equivalent were 15 billion credits, find his risk tolerance. What would his risk tolerance be if his CE were 20 billion?

Your individual project consists of an 11-14 slide presentation on web security mitigation strategies and tools. For this assignment you will detail the WASP framework and common security tools to include a web application security scanner, anti-virus software, and firewall technology. Please ensure your presentation conforms to the following technical subject area and format:
1. Title Slide (1 slide)
2. Topics of Discussion Slide (1 slide)
3. Discuss the purpose and functionality of Web Application Vulnerability Scanners within the OWASP framework (1-2 slides)
4. Provide research speaking to at least 3 of the following vulnerabilities below facing vulnerabilities scanners today (3-4 slides):
o Cross-site scripting
o SQL Injection
o Command Injection
o Path Traversal
o Insecure server configurations
5. Discuss the differences in functionality between the OWASP Web Application Firewall and traditional Network Firewalls. (3-4 slides)
6. Conclusion slide (1 slide)
7. Reference slide in APA format (1 slide)

The “Cloud Brokers” trade publication was very pleased with the results of your journal publication on cloud architecture and have asked you to write another journal article related to cloud security.
Prepare a publication on the topic of cybersecurity and cloud computing that includes the following:
• Discuss the risks and recommended best practices management for security management in a cloud environment.
• Cloud security guidelines, recommendations for the design of security, and examples of best practices in cloud security design.

As an IT project manager for Intuit, Inc., you are responsible for leading IT projects that affect the entire company. You are in consideration for the project manager role for the new cloud-based applications project that your group is running. One of the tasks the c-suite would like to see prior to promoting someone to this position, is your use of communicating with the c-suite through a visual presentation. They would like you to review the company’s reports and demonstrate your ability to analyze and present project data.
To access the company’s reports, follow these steps:
1. Navigate to Business Insights: Essentials via the University Library.
2. Search for “Intuit Inc.”
3. Select Market Share Reports.
Select two reports of your interest, and create two visuals (one for each report) that represent the information provided. For example, you could select the Tax Preparation Services Market report and use a pie chart to represent the market share.
Write a 350-word justification summary in which you answer the following questions:
• What type of visual did you select to present the information in each report?
• How does the type of visual you selected support the information?
• What tool(s) did you use to create these visuals?
• How will these visuals be presented to the c-suite? (Email, presentation, etc.)
• Why did you choose to use this type of communication to present the information to the c-suite?

3)Develop a Complete Disaster Recovery Plan to be submitted to the executive board of your company.
Only MS Word (.doc, .docx) and Adobe Acrobat (PDF) formats are acceptable. Please note that this is a formal writing, all references (peer-reviewed) mostly must be cited appropriately within the text and clearly avoid plagiarism. The paper should have a minimum of 7 pages, 1.5 spacing and Times New Roman font. A minimum of 5 peer review references must be provided. Reference style is APA. You can also have some web references alongside the stated requirement. Please see class syllabus for additional details
Submit Disaster Recovery Plan Power point presentation

Write a 800 word (excluding references) research paper that answers the following question:
List some of the more common categories of incidents that may occur.
Discuss the IR reaction strategies unique to each category of incident.
Explain what an IR reaction strategy is and list general strategies that apply to all incidents.
Provide real-world examples.
Remember to cite all sources. Use scholarly/peer reviewed articles (with the exception of the real-world examples of course)

Instructions
Case Study
As an assistant district attorney for Cityburgh, you are assigned to review three cases and present your findings to the district attorney to decide on how to proceed. You must review the facts of each case, specifically focusing on the procedural aspects and looking for any legal issues that may arise. You will need to judge the admissibility of the evidence provided and, on the basis of the evidence that will be available at trial, determine if the crimes provided should be charged. You are to present an analysis of the situations to the district attorney.
Case 1—Able
On Thursday, November 14, Able was stopped for driving 20 miles over the posted speed limit. It was further found that the vehicle had a no noperating speedometer and the driver was aware of this. During the stop, the officer ordered Able out of the car and conducted a frisk, during which a lump was discovered in Able’s pocket. The officer then asked Able to remove the object, and he complied. It was determined that the object in question was a baggie of methamphetamine. Reviewing these facts, explain whether the suspect should be charged with reckless driving, under Code of Virginia § 46.2-862, and possession of controlled substances, under Code of Virginia § 18.2-250. Concerning the drugs found, are there any issues with the frisk performed or the discovery when the suspect removed the object from his pocket?
Case 2—Charlie
On the morning of November 16, Charlie was found sleeping on a park bench, at which time he admitted to drinking the previous night and falling asleep in the park. Further, Charlie admitted that he knew the park was closed at dusk. Upon returning Charlie to his vehicle, an officer ran Charlie’s license plate and asked Charlie if he could look in his trunk. The officer found two garbage bags containing human body parts and a bloody axe in the trunk. Charlie claims to have no recollection of the previous night. Should Charlie be charged with public intoxication, under Code of Virginia § 18.2-388, and murder and manslaughter, under Code of Virginia § 18.2-30? What issues might be present in the opening of the trunk and discovery of the bodies?
In both cases, be sure to address the criminal elements ad possible defenses raised. If any of the situations have multiple outcomes based on facts not given, address all possibilities.
Note: You can use the Internet to find information about the Virginia Legislative Information System and the specific codes.
Support your responses with examples. Cite any sources in APA format.

You are working with the staff-training department of a correctional facility. Your assignment is to help create an orientation program for new employees, explaining the types of correctional facilities based on custody levels and the standard punishments used at each custody level. In a Microsoft Word document, create a report that describes each custody level and punishment. The report must:
• Illustrate the security level of each type of prison that is available in the state and federal correctional systems; include the custody level of inmates living in each type of prison.
• Describe the programs available for inmates in each type of prison.
• Describe how corrections officials determine to which facility a convicted offender should be sent.
• Indicate the types of offenders living in each type of facility, including facilities that house death row inmates.

Students will develop a program to fix a crime problem along with a policy evaluation of the theoretical program.
The final paper will be about 4-5 pages in length. The paper will be submitted as a Word document in Blackboard. All papers should be Times New Roman 12 font, double-spaced, APA format, with a title and reference page.
CJ 4600 Unit 8 Final Paper Guidelines
1. 1) What is the name of your program?
2. 2) What is the mission of your program?
3. 3) Why is your program needed?
4. 4) What issue/criminal justice problem does it attempt to address/gap fill?
5. 5) Who will be served by your program?
6. 6) What is your target number and kind of participants?
7. 7) Where will your program take place?
8. 8) When will your program take place?
9. 9) What will be the various characteristics of your program (e.g. counseling,
employment assistance, peacemaking circles, coffee with a cop, self-defense
classes, a new curriculum on racial profiling for the police academy, etc)
10)How will you evaluate your program? Will you use a random-controlled trial
(RCT)? Will you use surveys, pre and post tests, interviews, focus groups,
participant observation, etc?
11)What will be the independent and dependent variables guiding your
evaluation?
12)What will be the sample size?
13)How will you protect human subjects (confidentiality, voluntary nature, IRB,
etc)?
14)What are the limitations of your study? 15)What are the threats to your study?
*Include a Title Page, Reference Page, and section your paper to include an introduction to the issue, program overview, evaluation plan, human subjects protections, conclusion, and ideas for next steps/future research.

1
CRIMINAL JUSTICE COMPETENCY STUDY GUIDE
COMPENTENCY TERMS TO KNOW
& REFERENCES
Below you will find a list of courses, key concepts, and key court cases that you are
required to know. Competency exams will change each semester; however, the
possible topics are listed below. For each class, you will be asked approximately 8
competency questions. You may use any edition of the course textbook that you
possess. However, in the event that you did not keep your course books, we have
placed several books on reserve in the Nancy Thompson Library (Kean campus). You
can sign the books out for 2 hours at a time. You may find several books for one class
on reserve. This is to ensure that more than more person can access a subject book at
any given time.
CJ 2600 CRIMINAL JUSTICE IN AMERICA
Substantive & Procedural Criminal Law, the Court System, & Measuring
Crime
DESCRIPTION
This course provides an overview of the American criminal justice system, emphasizing
the police, courts, and corrections, including community-based corrections. Topics
include the police role in a democratic society, the tension between due process and the
need for order, and issues of punishment involving proportionality, rehabilitation, and
public safety. Competency questions for this course cover measuring crime and the
operations of the courts.
KEY CONCEPTS
1. Actus reus
2. Bill of Rightsa. Fourth Amendment
b. Fifth Amendment
c. Sixth Amendment
d. Eighth Amendment
3. Consensus and conflict model
4. Due process and crime control model
5. Due process clause (Fourteenth Amendment)
6. Exclusionary rule
7. Excuse defenses
8. Federal courts
a. District
2
b. Appellate / circuit
c. Supreme
9. Index crime (Part I)
10.Justification defenses
11.Mens rea
12.National Crime Victimization Survey (NCVS)
13.National Incident Based Reporting System (NIBRS)
14.Probable cause
15.Procedural criminal law
16.Reasonable suspicion
17.Search & seizure
a. Search warrant
b. Warrantless search
18.State courts
a. Limited jurisdiction
b. General jurisdiction
c. Intermediate appellate
d. Final resort
e. Specialty courts
19.Stop and risk
20.Strict liability
21.Substantive criminal law
22.Uniform Crime Report (UCR)
KEY COURT CASES
1. Gideon v. Wainwright (1963)
2. In re Gault (1967)
3. Mapp v. Ohio (1961)
4. Miranda v. Arizona (1966)
5. Terry v. Ohio (1968)
6. Weeks v. United States (1914)
RELEVANT RESOURCES1
Bohm, R. (2011) Introduction to criminal justice. 6th Ed. McGraw Hill*
Bohm, R. (2014) The American system of criminal justice. 13th Ed. Belmont, CA:
Wadsworth, Cengage Learning.*
Cole, G. (2014) The American System of Criminal Justice. 14th Ed. Belmont, CA:
Wadsworth, Cengage Learning.*
Gaines, L. K. & Miller, R. L. (2010). Criminal justice in action: The core. Belmont,
CA: Wadsworth, Cengage Learning.*
1 References followed by an asterisk (*) can be found on reserve in the library. You can find more than one copy of
a book for a particular subject on reserve simply to allow access by more than one student at a time.
3
Regoli, R. (2011). Exploring criminal justice. 3rdEd. Boston, MA: Jones and
Bartlett.*
Scheb, J. M. & Scheb II, J. M. (2011). Criminal law and procedure. 7th Ed.
Belmont, CA: Wadsworth, Cengage Learning.*
Schmalleger, F. (2014). Criminal justice: A brief introduction. 10th Ed. Upper
Saddle River, NJ: Prentice Hall.*
Schmalleger, F. (2012). Criminal justice today: An introductory text for the 21st
century 12th. Ed. Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson.*
Siegel, L. (2013) Essentials of criminal justice. 8th Ed. Belmont, CA: Wadsworth,
Cengage Learning.*
Siegel, L.J. & Worrall, J. L. (2015). Essentials of criminal justice. Belmont, CA:
Wadsworth, Cengage Learning.*
CJ 2610 CRIMINOLOGY
DESCRIPTION
Criminology is the scientific study of making and breaking laws. How society reacts to
law breaking is an important component of our criminal justice system’s goals and
objectives. Laws are sometimes arrived at by consensus, sometimes imposed by the
powerful in society. Societies today are moving closer together regarding accepted
human behavior and because most people share this common interest, the study of
crime and its causes, and prevention strategies take on a global perspective. Students
should be familiar with the following key concepts and theories when studying this topic.
KEY CONCEPTS
1. Broken windows theory
2. Classical school of criminology
3. Conflict theory
4. Differential association theory
5. Environmental theories
6. Feminist theory of female delinquency (Chesney-Lind)
7. General theory of crime
8. Labeling theory
9. Life course theory (Moffitt)
10.Rational choice theory
11.Routine activities
12.Shaming (Braithwaite)
13.Sisters in Crime/Freda Adler
14.Social bond theory (Hirschi)
15.Social disorganization theory
4
16.Social learning theory
17.Social process theories
18.Strain theory (Merton)
RELEVANT RESOURCES
Cullen, F.T. & Agnew, R. (2011). Criminological theory: Past to present. Essential
readings. 4th edition. New York: Oxford University Press.*
Schmalleger, F. (2011). Criminology: A brief introduction. Boston, MA: Prentice
Hall.*
CJ 3500 DIVERSITY & CRIMINAL JUSTICE
DESCRIPTION
Diversity critically examines race, gender and other diversity issues, such as hate crime,
within and faced by criminal justice systems within the United States and internationally.
Topics of emphasis include the importance of diversity issues in the development,
organization and operation of criminal justice systems; and diversity in offenders,
victims, and criminal justice professionals. Also examined, when discussing diversity,
are problems of prejudice and discrimination. The course materials include historical,
legal, social, and other sources of data that elucidate how diversity impacts societies
and criminal justice systems. Students should be familiar with the following key
concepts and theories when studying this topic.
KEY CONCEPTS & THEORIES:
1. Anti-semitism
2. Assimilation
3. Civic assimilation
4. Collective conscience
5. Conflict theory
6. Contextual discrimination
7. Constitution & equality
8. Cultural assimilation
9. Cultural capital
10.Culture
11.Deindividuation
12.Differential association theory
13.Discrimination
14.Ethnic pluralism
15.Ethnocentrism
16.Globalization
5
17.Hate crime
18.Hate crime constitutionality
19.Hate crime debate
20.Hate crime offenders
21.Hate crime victimization (race, age, gender, sexual orientation, religion)
22.Hate speech
23.Homogeneity
24.Institutional discrimination
25.Ku Klux Klan movement
26.LBGT population and hate crime
27.Melting pot
28.Multiculturalism
29.Other
30.Perpetual foreigner
31.Prejudice
32.Protected groups
33.Race/ethnicity
34.Racial separatism
35.Racialized social system
36.Rational relationship test
37.Scapegoat theory
38.Skinhead movement
39.Social privilege
40.Social constructionism
41.Stratification
42.Strain theory
43.Structural assimilation
44.Underlying crime
45.Xenophobia
RELEVANT RESOURCES:
Gerstenfeld, P. B. (2011). Hate crime: Cause, controls, and controversies. 2nd
Ed. Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage.*
Levin, J. (2007). The violence of hate: Confronting racism, anti-semitism, and
other forms of bigotry. 2nd ed. Boston, MA: Pearson Allyn and Bacon.
Morash, M. (2006). Understanding gender, crime, and justice. Thousand Oaks,
CA: Sage Publications, Inc.*
Pincus, F. L. (2006.) Understanding diversity: An introduction to class, race,
gender, and sexual orientation. Boulder, Colorado: Lynne Rienner Publishers, Inc.*
The Criminology and Criminal Justice Collective of Northern Arizona University.
(2009). Investigating difference: Human and cultural relations in criminal justice (2nd
Ed.). Boston: Massachusetts: Allyn and Bacon.*
6
CJ 3600 POLICE ORGANIZATION & ADMINISTRATION
DESCRIPTION
This course examines the development, organization, and administration of American
police departments, considering the principles of organization best adapted to ensure
effective service to the community. The course also evaluates line, staff, and auxiliary
functions, and analytic units of administration. Students should be familiar with the
following key concepts and theories when studying this topic.
KEY CONCEPTS
1. 4
th Amendment
2. Affidavit
3. Basic types of police organizational design (line, line and staff, functional, matrix)
4. Broken windows theory
5. CALEA
6. Centralization
7. Chain of command
8. Christopher Commission
9. Community policing
10.Computer Aided Dispatch (CAD)
11.Consent
12.COMPSTAT
13.Decentralization
14.Directed patrol
15.Exclusionary rule
16.Field training officer (FTO)
17.Goldstein, Herman
18.Good faith exception
19.Hot spot policing
20.Law Enforcement Assistance Administration (LEAA)
21.Kerner Commission
22.Knapp Commission
23.Miranda
24.Peel, Robert
25.Plain view
26.Police Officer Standards and Training Commissions (POST)
27.President’s Commission on Law Enforcement and Criminal Justice
28.Principle of hierarchy
7
29.Probable cause
30.Problem Oriented Policing
31.Reasonable suspicion
32.Record Management Systems (RMS)
33.S.A.R.A
34.Saturated patrol
35.Search warrant
36.Span of management
37.Styles of policing (James Q. Wilson)
38.Tennessee v. Garner
39.Terry v. Ohio
40.Title 42 U.S.C., Section 1983
41.Unity of command
42.Vollmer, August
43.Wickersham Commission
44.Wilson, O.W.
RELEVANT RESOURCES
Dempsey, J. S., & Forst, L. S. (2012). Police. 2nd Ed. Clifton Park, NY: Cengage
Learning.*
Hess, K. M. (2009). Introduction to law enforcement and criminal justice. 9th Ed.
Belmont, CA: Cengage Learning.*
Peak, K.J., & Glensor, R.W. (2012). Community policing and problem solving:
Strategies and practices. 6th Ed. Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson.*
Swanson, R.C., Territo, L., & Taylor, R. W. (2011). Police administration:
Structures, processes, and behavior. 7th Ed. Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson.*
Walker, S., & Katz, C. M. (2011). The police in America: An introduction. 8
th Ed.
New York, NY: McGraw-Hill Higher Education.*
CJ 3610 CORRECTIONAL SYSTEMS
DESCRIPTION
This course examines the client of the criminal justice system in the post conviction,
institutional setting. Attention is given to the evolution of correctional services for
institutionalized offenders. Also examined is the relationship between prison
administration and other elements of the justice system. Students should be familiar
with the following key concepts and theories when studying this topic.
8
KEY CONCEPTS
Auburn system
Bail
Bifurcated trial system
Classification of prisons (types)
Constitution and prisoner rights
Death penalty: arguments for the death penalty v arguments against the death penalty
Death penalty: state of the death penalty in the U.S. today
Early forms of punishment (pre-America)
Features that typify prisons as hierarchical structures
How do male and female prison subcultures differ?
Jails
Parole boards
Parole function
Parole supervision
Pennsylvania system
Probation and intermediate sanctions
Private prisons
Purpose of corrections
Rational relationship test
Restorative justice
Southern penology
Today’s correctional systems in America
Types of sentencing and the ideologies of punishment they represent
Types of Inmates in correctional institutions
What are the important Issues for female offenders in prison?
Types of institutional programs and effectiveness
KEY COURT CASES
Bell v Wolfish
Bounds v. Smith
Furman v. Georgia
Gregg v Georgia
Pate v Cooper
Wolff v McDonnell
RELEVANT RESOURCES
Clear, T. Cole, G., & Reisig, M. (2009/2012). American corrections, 9th or 10th Ed.
Belmont, CA: Wadsworth, Cengage Learning.*
Siegel, L. & Bartollas, C. (2011). Corrections today. Belmont, CA: Wadsworth,
Cengage Learning.*
9
CJ3650 JUVENILE JUSTICE
DESCRIPTION
This course examines the juvenile justice system in America with theory and practice of
controlling youth crime through formal juvenile institutions and diversion. The juvenile
justice system parallels and differences with the “adult system” will be emphasized.
Students should be familiar with the following key concepts and theories when studying
this topic.
KEY CONCEPTS
1. Adjudication
2. Adjustment
3. Aftercare
4. Career offender
5. Child savers and houses of refuge
6. Confidentiality of juvenile’s delinquency records
7. Constitutional rights of juvenile within the juvenile justice system
8. Deinstitutionalization of status offenders
9. Detention center
10.Discretion
11.Disposition hearing
12.Dispositional alternatives
13.Diversion programs
14.First juvenile court system in the United States
15.Get-tough policy
16.G.R.E.A.T. programs
17.Intake process
18.Jurisdictions of the juvenile justice system
19.Juvenile death penalty
20.Juvenile’s delinquency records in the juvenile justice system
21.Juvenile probation
22.Legal factors and extralegal factors
23.Limited jurisdiction
24.Parens patriae
25.Petition
26.Role of the probation officers in the juvenile justice system
27.Shock probation
28.Status offenses
29.Teen court
30.Transfer, waiver, and certification
31.Types of policing
32.Types of waivers
33.Turning point
10
34.UCR v. NCVS v. NIBRS v. Self-report data
KEY COURT CASES
1. Breed v. Jones
2. In re Gault
3. In re Winship
4. Kent v. United States
5. McKeiver v. Pennsylvania
6. Roper v. Simmons
RELEVANT RESOURCES
Champion, D. J. (2013). The Juvenile Justice System: Delinquency, Processing,
and the Law. Upper Saddle River, NJ: Prentice Hall. (ISBN: 978-0-13-276446-9)
Vito, G. F. & Kunselman, J.C. (2012). Juvenile justice today. Upper Saddle River,
NJ: Prentice Hall.*

Prior to beginning work on this assignment, please review the assigned material in your Stojkovic and Lovell (2019) textbook. Additionally, please read the article Toward a More Constitutional Approach to Solitary Confinement: The Case for Reform. As you recall, Week 1 had you prepare an outline to provide a foundation for this week’s assignment. For this assignment, you will develop your outline into a two-to-three-page paper. The goal is to consider constitutional rights of incarcerated persons and administrative objectives for correctional institutions. Additionally, this paper will also have you consider diversity awareness and cultural sensitivity issues in corrections. You will support your work with two scholarly and/or credible resources, in addition to your textbook. You may use scholarly and/or credible resources included in your Week 1 Issues and Constitutional Rights in Corrections assignment. Address each of the elements below:
• Constitutional rights and administration
o Explain how constitutional rights of incarcerated persons are balanced with the correctional system functions of the jail or prison.
o Explain the mandatory rights that prison administrators must provide incarcerated persons, and how those rights are balanced with the security, safety, court requirements, visits, and other functions of the facility.
o Examine a U.S. Supreme Court case (you may use your selected case from your Week 1 Issues and Constitutional Rights in Corrections assignment) that balances correctional administrative goals with the constitutional rights of incarcerated persons.
• Diversity and cultural sensitivity issues
o Explain at least one cultural sensitivity issue and at least one diversity issue in corrections (you may use the cultural sensitivity issue and diversity issue from your Week 1 Issues and Constitutional Rights in Corrections assignment).
o Analyze perspectives on each issue within the context of constitutional rights and administrative functions in corrections.
*Note: You are encouraged to integrate any feedback from your instructor and upload the assignment to your ePortfolio (Links to an external site.).
The Constitutional Rights and Administrative Goals paper
• Must be two to three double-spaced pages in length (not including title and references pages) and formatted according to APA Style (Links to an external site.) as outlined in the Writing Center’s APA Formatting for Microsoft Word (Links to an external site.) resource.
• Must include a separate title page with the following:
o Title of paper in bold font
 Space should appear between the title and the rest of the information on the title page.

Robin went to work for Titans, Inc., a major banking house, as a security specialist. He had charge of designing and implementing all security protocols and equipment at Titan Towers for Titan’s physical security and security of their business transactions. Before starting work, Robin signed a written employment agreement. The agreement included a non-compete clause that stated as follows:
“18. NON-COMPETE – Employee agrees that for a period of two years following Employee’s term as an employee of Company, Employee shall not be employed as a security specialist for any other company in the financial service industry, anywhere in the world. Provided Employee shall comply with all terms of this provision, at the end of said two year term, Company shall pay to Employee a bonus payment of Ten Thousand (10,000) Dollars within 30 days of the end of the aforesaid two year period.
Robin worked for Titans, Inc. for a year and then left to return to his prior life as a circus acrobat. He toured the world with Hailey’s Circus for two years, doing no work at all in the financial services industry. At the end of two years from the date he left Titans, Inc., Robin returned to the US and opened his own security firm, aimed at the financial services industry. Robin also wrote to Titans, Inc. and informed them that he had lived up to his obligations under the non-compete clause in his agreement, and requested they send him the $10,000 bonus.
Titans writes back thanking Robin for abiding by his agreement.
Robin waits patiently, but after six months, his savings are running low and his new business could use an influx of cash. Robin sells his right to collect the $10,000 to Speedy, a friend from his Titans, Inc. days who has also left the company. Two weeks later, Speedy sends a letter to Titans, Inc., telling them that he has acquired the rights to the debt owed to Robin and demanding payment in ten (10) days.
A week after Robin sells the debt to Speedy, Titan’s Inc,’s accountants do an internal audit. They discover that many debts from former employees to the company, from participating in the company’s Home Down Payment Borrowing Program, had never been collected. Among these debts are $5,000 from Robin and also $5,000 from Speedy. When Titans, Inc. gets Speedy’s letter, they ignore it, believing they are now even with Robin and Speedy.
When he does not hear back from Titans, Inc., Speedy sues them for the $10,000 debt to Robin.
In the lawsuit between Speedy and Titan’s Inc., who should win and who should collect what?
IRAC Method
Format
Section 1
Issue – Applicable Case (summary of case) – Applicable Statute(s)(summary of statute) – Application to Case (apply case and statutes to current case)- Conclusion
Section 2
Issue – Applicable Case (summary of case) – Applicable Statute(s)(summary of statute) – Application to Case (apply case and statutes to current case)- Conclusion
Section 3
Issue – Applicable Case (summary of case) – Applicable Statute(s)(summary of statute) – Application to Case (apply case and statutes to current case)- Conclusion
Each issue needs a separate section. In each section the applicable cases and statutes need to address the issues at hand
4 U.S cases
4 U.S statutes
5-6 pages

COURSE CODE: BCO125 COURSE NAME: BUSINESS LAW (3 ECTS) Task brief & rubrics
Task: Mid-term timed assignment – 30% (deadline Week 4: Sunday 22
nd of August 2021 – 23h59)
• This is an individual task in which the student will answer the following questions:
o Question 1: Explain, with your words, what is Law and how important it is for the development of business environment in a Local and Global
level? Give one example of a secondary source of law.
o Question 2: Elaborate about the nature and content of Contracts. Give one example of an international agreement and how a more adequate
Dispute Resolution Strategy can be adopted by the parties?
o Question 3: What is the difference between public and private companies? How are Law and Governance intertwined in these 2 legal
structures?
o Question 4: Explain the importance of Arbitration for dispute resolution in international business. Elaborate about one case that was resolved by
arbitration
Formalities:
• Wordcount: There is no specific word count, but we can consider 1 page answer per question using Arial 11 pts.
• Font: Arial 11 pts.
• Text alignment: Justified.
• The in-text References and the Bibliography must be in Harvard’s citation style.
Submission: Week 5: Sunday 22
nd of August 2021 – 23h59. Timed assignments will be made available on Moodle 48 hours before the submission deadline. Students
need to complete the assignment and upload their submission within this timeframe.
Weight: This task is a 30% of your total grade for this subject.
It assesses the following learning outcomes:
• Outcome 1: Understand the role of law as a business and management tool;
• Outcome 2: Identify different issues and laws applicable in the context of doing business;
Rubrics
Exceptional 90-100 Good 80-89 Fair 70-79 Marginal fail 60-69
Knowledge &
Understanding
(20%)
Student demonstrates
excellent understanding of
key concepts and uses
vocabulary in an entirely
appropriate manner.
Student demonstrates
good understanding of the
task and mentions some
relevant concepts and
demonstrates use of the
relevant vocabulary.
Student understands the
task and provides minimum
theory and/or some use of
vocabulary.
Student understands the task
and attempts to answer the
question but does not
mention key concepts or uses
minimum amount of relevant
vocabulary.
Application (30%) Student applies fully
relevant knowledge from
the topics delivered in
class.
Student applies mostly
relevant knowledge from
the topics delivered in
class.
Student applies some
relevant knowledge from
the topics delivered in
class. Misunderstanding
may be evident.
Student applies little relevant
knowledge from the topics
delivered in class.
Misunderstands are evident.
Critical Thinking
(30%)
Student critically assesses
in excellent ways, drawing
outstanding conclusions
from relevant authors.
Student critically assesses
in good ways, drawing
conclusions from relevant
authors and references.
Student provides some
insights but stays on the
surface of the topic.
References may not be
relevant.
Student makes little or none
critical thinking insights, does
not quote appropriate
authors, and does not
provide valid sources.
Communication
(20%)
Student communicates
their ideas extremely
clearly and concisely,
respecting word count,
grammar and spellcheck
Student communicates
their ideas clearly and
concisely, respecting word
count, grammar and
spellcheck
Student communicates
their ideas with some
clarity and concision. It
may be slightly over or
under the wordcount limit.
Some misspelling errors
may be evident.
Student communicates their
ideas in a somewhat unclear
and unconcise way. Does not
reach or does exceed
wordcount excessively and
misspelling errors are
evident.

Discuss the difference between policy analysis and operations research. What/Who is the NIJ and what functions do they serve? What branch are they a part of in the government? What type of research do they engage in? What are the research priorities of the NIJ? Do you believe the NIJ plays a critical role in policy analysis? Explain why or why not

Complete a 750-1,000-word action plan and supporting rationale based on the following scenario:
Mark is a Hispanic 8th grade student who has been identified as having an emotional/behavioral disorder, specifically Mood Disorder (Not otherwise specified). Currently, he participates in a general education inclusion classroom. During his annual IEP meeting, the team reviewed recent test scores and determined he qualifies
for the gifted program in the area of ELA only. He will continue to participate in the inclusion classroom for the remainder of his courses. He is very successful in all of his inclusion classes. Mrs. Stone, the gifted teacher, was not able to be present during the IEP meeting. She has never worked with a student who has an IEP before. Mark is the only Hispanic student in the gifted class, which tends to make him uncomfortable. He says the teacher does not include him in the classroom conversations and speaks abruptly to him, but not to the other students.
After one month of Mark being in the gifted class, Mrs. Stone has requested that a paraeducator be present to support Mark. The IEP team determined that this was necessary because in order to meet Mark’s needs. After the paraeducator was assigned, the principal did a walk through observation of the gifted classroom and he noticed that Mark was isolated in a corner and the teacher did not interact with him. In addition, the principal received a phone call from Mark’s parents stating Mrs. Stone told Mark, “You do not belong in this class!” Mark no longer wants to be in the class because he does not
feel welcome.
The principal has come to you, the special education teacher, for assistance with supporting Mrs. Stone and Mark in being successful. To assist the principal, create an action plan that includes goals and steps for achieving those goals and reporting progress.
Specifically, the action plan should include one over-arching long-term goal and a minimum of four short-term goals related to the following considerations:
1. Communication and collaboration between teachers of the student, specifying positives in working with the student in their classrooms, as well as challenges that may arise as a result of the complex human issues that interact with the delivery of special education services.
2. Collaborative coaching for the gifted teacher to include research-based instructional strategies and recommendations that acknowledge that diversity is a part of families, cultures, and schools.
3. Collaborative coaching and guidance for the paraeductor with the intention of providing support to the gifted teacher and student.
4. Evaluating the implementation of the action plan activities and reporting back to
administration.
5. Communication strategies to use with the student’s parents that demonstrate elements of effective collaboration.
Next, outline detailed action steps related to each identified goal utilizing the “Action Plan Template.”

“What is Family Resource Management and why is it important to today’s American family?”
Goldsmith, E. B., & GOLDSMITH, E. B. (2003). Resource Management. In J. J. Ponzetti Jr. (Ed.), International encyclopedia of marriage and family (2nd ed.). Farmington, MI: Gale. Retrieved from

RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
from International Encyclopedia of Marriage and Family
Resource management is the process in which individuals and families use what they have to get what they want. It begins with thinking and planning and ends with the evaluation of actions taken. Three fundamental concepts in resource management are values, goals, and decision making. Values such as honesty and trust are principles that guide behavior. They are desirable or important and serve as underlying motivators. Values determine goals, which are sought-after end results. Goals can be implicit or explicit. They can be short-term, intermediate-, or long-term. Decisions are conclusions or judgments about some issue or matter. Decision making involves choosing between two or more alternatives and follows a series of steps from inception to evaluation.
Through choices, individuals and families define their lives and influence the lives of others. The study of resource management focuses on order, choices, and control, and how people use time, energy, money, physical space, and information. As an applied social science, it is an academic field that is fundamental to our understanding of human behavior. “The knowledge obtained through the study of management is evaluated in light of its ability to make an individual’s or family’s management practice more effective” (Goldsmith 2000, p. 5).
Individuals and families have characteristic ways of making decisions and acting called their management style. Although similar styles are exhibited within families (such as a tendency to be on time or to finish tasks to completion), there are also wide ranges of styles within families making the study of management intrinsically interesting, especially from a socialization point of view. Why do such differences exist and how does the individual’s style mesh with that of the other members’ styles in the family?
Measuring devices, techniques, or instruments that are used to make decisions and plan courses of action are called management tools. For example, time is a resource and a clock or stopwatch is a management tool.
Resources can be divided up into human and material resources, assets that people have at their disposal. Material resources (e.g., bridges, roads, houses) decline through use whereas human resources (e.g., the ability to read, ride a bicycle) improve or increase through use. Human capital describes the sum total of a person’s abilities, knowledge, and skills. Education is one way to develop human capital. Related to this is the concept of social capital. The term social capital is gaining in importance in the family-relations field and management is considered part of a person’s or family’s social capital. As a dynamic concept social capital can be considered a resource imbedded in the relationships among people that individuals, groups, and communities create, in which they invest, and which can be used to provide or develop resources or facilitate social and personal well being (Bubolz 2002).
Conceptual Framework and History
Resource management has a long history and an interdisciplinary base borrowing from and contributing to such fields as economics, organizational behavior, anthropology, psychology, and sociology. The discipline was originally called home management—with an emphasis on work simplification and household efficiency—but since the postmodern period (beginning in the 1960s) the emphasis has been on viewing the family as a social system and resource management as one of the many functions of that system (Knoll 1963; Maloch and Deacon 1966; McGregor 2001). In recent years the most widely used term to describe the field is family resource management or more simply management, which will be a term used in the remainder of the entry. Although the family is recognized as the fundamental societal unit, it is recognized that management principles and techniques apply to singles as well as to families. Attention is also paid to the management styles and situations of different types of families besides the traditional two-parents-and-children configuration.
Management research studies are conducted worldwide and results are reported in journals and at conferences. Family functioning, time, and stress are common themes. For example, data-based studies have found that family resources play a critical role in the healthy family functioning of Korean immigrant families in the United States (Lee 2000). Multinational papers presented at the 1998 International Household and Family Research Conference held in Helsinki, Finland reinforced the importance of family resource management to the well-being of families including the pursuit of the ideal life (Turkki 1999; Fujimoto and Aoki 1999).
Several theories, most importantly systems and economic theories, influence the way management is taught, practiced, and studied. According to Deacon and Firebaugh (1988), the family’s values, demands and resources are defined as inputs to the system. A leading management theorist in the twentieth century, Beatrice Paolucci, was especially interested in how family systems interact with their various near and far environments, which is termed the human ecological approach. Paolucci along with her coauthors Nancy Axinn and Olive Hall wrote:
Things need not just happen in a family; they can be decided. The responsibility and the burden of choice are a particular attribute of humanness. The quality of human life and the prospect of the family’s continued survival within limited environmental settings depends, in large measure, on the decisions made in daily family living (1977, p. 1).
For a history of her life and contributions to family resource management see Beatrice Paolucci: Shaping Destiny through Everyday Life (Bubolz et al. 2002). Economic theory assumes that people seek to maximize their satisfaction through the decisions that they make. In economics, individuals are seen as rational and acquisitive. Management recognizes that although individuals want to increase satisfaction, they often behave in nonoptimizing, less than rational ways. Unexpected events or reactions to events may require adjustments to plans and actions.
Family resource management differs from the way management is taught in business schools. In colleges of business, the application is mostly to employer/employee relationships in nonprofit and for-profit organizations. The fields are alike in that both are concerned with productivity and decision making but in family resource management the examples are more likely to be of a personal, home-based, or family nature. However, it should be pointed out that there are several cross-over topics such as time management and balancing work and family life and cross-field collaborations are common.
Practical Applications and a Model of Managerial Action
Because management explores the workings of everyday life, it is both complex and practical. To show the interaction of various management components, a model of managerial action using the systems approach is given in Figure 1.
In the model, for example, demands and values lead to planning and the use of resources ending with met demands, achieved goals, and feedback. In Africa, where many regions suffer from drought and food shortages, individuals and families have to plan wisely and use resources well in order to incrase their chances of survival. In management, wants and needs are differentiated from goals. Wants are specific and temporary, such as craving a certain food. Needs range from basic physiological needs to self-actualization (Maslow 1954). Within a family there can be conflicting needs. People arrive at their needs through a complex subjective assessment based on their inherent motivations and their perceptions of the external world (Foxall, Goldsmith, and Brown 1998). In today’s fast-paced world, filled with competing demands, people do not have the time to carefully assess their needs or to plan effectively.
Situational factors, personality traits, and motivational forces affect plans. Individuals and families set standards within the context of existing demands and resource availability. Standards develop over time. People live in the present, but they are thinking about the future and developing plans based on their values and standards. “Planning is a thinking and information-gathering process involving a series of decisions. It is a process because formulating plans requires several steps, such as information gathering, sorting, and prioritizing; then, based on this information, the planner must decide which plan is most likely to succeed” (Goldsmith 2000, p. 125). Plans have purpose; they are taking the planner somewhere. To succeed, plans should be clear, flexible, appropriate, and goal-directed. People have primary plans and back-up plans. Implementing refers to putting plans into action. Evaluation is the end process of looking back, checking over, examining past decisions and actions and determining how they worked. Goal achievement should provide satisfaction.
Time, Work, Family, and Stress
Time use and the direction of human effort are integral to the study of management. Queen Elizabeth I said on her deathbed, “All my possessions for a moment of time.” Time is generally considered the ultimate resource because it is a resource all people, rich or poor, share. In the discipline in the past there was debate about whether time is a “true” resource (Winter 1995).
As the Queen Elizabeth I quote shows we all share time but it is finite. Therefore, a critical management question is how do we make the best use of the time that we do have. One answer is through conscious control. In management studies, a person is trained to ask when confronted with competing activities, “What is the best use of my time right now?” Another question to ask is “Is the activity I am about to undertake consistent with my goals?” These questions address both quantitative time (measured units of time such as minutes and hours) and qualitative time (feelings about how time is spent). Time perceptions vary widely by individual and by culture. For example, being on time in most North American cultures means five or ten minutes before the agreed upon time or being right on time. In other cultures, being an hour late may still be regarded as being on time. Discretionary time is free time one can use any way one wants. Nondiscretionary time is programmed by others or set by schedules and appointments. Everyday life is a combination of both. Stress is often caused by not having enough discretionary time. Over-programmed time is a problem for children as well as adults.
Few people are immune from the difficulties of trying to balance work and family life. Most controversy centers around managing hours and responsibilities, but it is also about one’s priorities. Which is more important: work or family? When someone is asked to work overtime, this question becomes apparent. In workaholism, work is the most pleasurable part of life and family or personal life takes a back seat. On the other hand, procrastination is the postponement of work usually in favor of more pleasurable parts of family or personal life.
With improvements in technology, there has been a blurring of work and family roles and often less lag time. Email, cellular telephones, automatic teller machines, and the Internet have accelerated everyday life and have made people, information, and services more accessible. Work and family lives are becoming increasingly blurred and even may share the same physical space as one considers the growth in the number of home-based businesses.
The twenty-first century will be characterized by more family transformation and stress (McCubbin et al. 1997). Because the purpose of management is not only to describe problems, but also to present solutions, distress and fatigue are subjects of discussion in terms of what can be done to lessen them. Regarding getting more sleep, James Maas (1998) suggests getting an adequate amount of sleep every night, establishing a regular sleep schedule, getting continuous sleep, and making up for lost sleep. Another solution is the reestablishment of routines such as regular mealtimes as a way to simplify life. The simplification process may involve other steps such as pulling back on spending and building up more savings to provide for more leisure time in the future (Goldsmith 2001).
Family resource specialists strive to reach a stage called managerial judgment, defined as the ability to accept and work with change for the betterment of self and humankind. The ultimate goal of the management expert is the creation of a better tomorrow.
Conclusion
More could be said about managing human effort, environmental resources, and financial resources. This entry briefly touches the surface of a more than century-old discipline that affects every aspect of daily life. What management does is provide a framework, a way of looking at things that can be applied to a variety of situations. It is about life not just happening but happening in an orderly way. Humans are constantly seeking answers, making plans, and pursuing goals that bring desired results. Management provides insight into how this occurs. It is both simple and complex. Each day presents new challenges, new questions about how life should be and can be. Individuals are continually confronted with decisions to be made given scarce resources. This entry has endeavored to show the basics of the discipline and its application to everyday life. The greatest future challenge for the field will be the continued integration of management with other theories to address socially relevant issues as life becomes more complex and diverse.
See also: COHABITATION; DECISION MAKING; DIVISION OF LABOR; FAMILY LIFE EDUCATION; FAMILY SYSTEMS THEORY; FOOD; HOME ECONOMICS; HOUSEWORK; HOUSING; HUMAN ECOLOGY THEORY; POVERTY; POWER: MARITAL RELATIONSHIPS; PROBLEM SOLVING; RICH/WEALTHY FAMILIES; ROLE THEORY; SPOUSE ABUSE: THEORETICAL EXPLANATIONS; STRESS; TIME USE; WORK AND FAMILY
Bibliography
• Bubolz, M. (2002). “Family and Social Capital.” Panel presentation at Fourth Beatrice Paolucci Seminar: Personal, Social, and Corporate Responsibility in a Common World. East Lansing, Michigan State University.
• Bubolz, M.; Axinn, N.; Mitsifer, D.; Nelson, L.; Wenberg, B. (2002). Beatrice Paolucci: Shaping Destiny through Everyday Life.Michigan State University East Lansing.
• Deacon, R.; Firebaugh, F. (1988). Family Resource Management, 2nd edition. Allyn and Bacon Boston.
• Foxall, G.; Goldsmith, R.; Brown, S. (1998). Consumer Psychology for Marketing. Routledge London.
• Fujimoto, T.; Aoki, K. (1999). “What to Recognize from Everyday Life in Interaction of Man, Matter, Life and Environments.” In New Approaches to the Study of Everyday Life: Proceedings of the International Household and Family Research Conference, May 31-June 3, 1998, Helsinki, Finland.
• Goldsmith, E. (2000). Resource Management for Individuals and Families, 2nd edition. Wadsworth Belmont, CA.
• Goldsmith, E. (2001). Personal Finance. Wadsworth Belmont, CA.
• Knoll, M. (1963). “Toward a Conceptual Framework in Home Management.” Journal of Home Economics 55: 335-339.
• Lee, H. (2000). “The Effects of Family Resources and Social Support on Family Functioning Style among Korean Immigrant Families in the U.S.” Journal of Family and Consumer Sciences. 92(3):66.
• Maas, J. (1998). Power Sleep. Villard New York.
• Maloch, F.; Deacon, R. (1966). “Proposed Framework for Home Management.” Journal of Home Economics 58:31-35.
• Maslow, A. (1954). Motivation and Personality. Harper and Row New York.
• McCubbin, H.; McCubbin, M.; Thompson, A.; Hans, S.; Allen, C. (1997). “Families Under Stress: What Makes Them Resilient?”Journal of Family and Consumer Sciences 2-11.
• McGregor, S. (2001). Modernism and Post-Modernism Compared. Working paper. Halifax, Nova Scotia, Canada: Mt. St. Vincent University.
• Paolucci, B.; Hall, O.; Axinn, N. (1977). Family Decision Making: An Ecosystem Approach. Wiley New York.
• Turkki, K., ed. (1999). In New Approaches to the Study of Everyday Life: Proceedings of the International Household and Family Research Conference, May 31-June 3, 1998, Helsinki, Finland.
• Winter, M. (1995). “Resource Management.” In Encyclopedia of Marriage and Family Relationships, ed. D. Levinson. Macmillan New York.
ELIZABETH BEARD GOLDSMITH
© 2003 by Macmillan Reference USA
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Goldsmith, E. B., & GOLDSMITH, E. B. (2003). Resource Management. In J. J. Ponzetti Jr. (Ed.), International encyclopedia of marriage and family (2nd ed.). Farmington, MI: Gale. Retrieved from http://ezproxy.apus.edu/login?url=https://search.credoreference.com/content/entry/galemarriage/resource_management/0?institutionId=8703
International Encyclopedia of Marriage and Family
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The second edition of the International Encyclopedia of Marriage and Family revises and expands Macmillan’s 1995 Encyclopedia of Marriage and the Family, adopting an international, cross-cultural approach to such diverse topics as adolescent parenthood, family planning, cohabitation, widowhood, domestic violence, child abuse and neglect, codependency and commuter marriages. It includes articles specific to countries and to religious traditions, examining the history of family life within these cultures and discussing how families have been affected by political and social change.
Editor(s): James J. Ponzetti Jr.Edition: 2ndArticles: 420Images: 1People: 31
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Despite the challenges facing families across time, the family remains the world’s oldest form of relationship, a universal phenomenon (Sokalski, 1994). For centuries, families have been organized as a basic unit of society. This social unit has continued to be maintained over time, and, until recently, the family unit was generally considered to be a private institution. The contemporary family is now, more than ever before, a political entity. Family values are emerging in campaign slogans, drawing increased attention to the importance of family units within the social framework of communities, locally, nationally, and globally. This surge of interest in the family unit has resulted in increased research, expanding our knowledge base of family functions and evolution over time.
Although family life does give individuals a strong sense of continuity, Skolnick and Skolnick (2005) call attention to the fact that the family is in transition. Emerging communications and technology capabilities have accelerated this transition. Families of the future will not only need to be aware of changes that are taking place, but they will also need the skills to adapt resource management to fit new realities.
Paralleling the changing social, political, and economic climates surrounding families are changes in the structure of families. Coontz (2000) points out that favored traditional family structures carry privilege, whereas Doherty (1997) speculates that, as a result of environmental changes, our current society may be the first in history that cannot clearly define the family. These complexities necessitate the need for ongoing education and evaluation about the ways families function.
The key concepts of family resource management include an interdependency of individuals, a dynamic environment, and a conscious effort to meet basic needs for all individuals within the family unit. Managing family resources has always been a process, requiring individuals to recognize that effective decisions cannot be made quickly and that the evaluation of those decisions is essential for future decisions.
Families cannot effectively manage resources without an awareness of their opportunities as well as a consideration of their limitations. They need to be aware that living in the 21st century presents numerous challenges to the family. Families will continue to consume large amounts of resources, be engaged in the global economy, and provide safety and security for its members. Each of these functions requires management. Thus, the concept of family resource management is imbedded in those three individual words: family, resource, and management.
WHAT IS A FAMILY?
Contemporary families are diverse in nature, reflecting the socioeconomic environments surrounding them. The idea that a traditional family exists, from which students can compare and contrast other nontraditional family units, is nonproductive to the goals and objectives of family service providers. It is necessary, however, to categorize and define families when public and private programs assess needs and determine qualified services for citizens based on that designation. Chapter 2 presents a framework for understanding contemporary family definitions and structures.
Joe and Rocia have three children. Joe recently lost his job. To qualify for financial assistance through various local and state programs, they must meet the criteria of those programs in terms of how a family is defined. Some programs may only be available to them if they are legally married. Other assistance programs may provide more resources if Rocia is unmarried. These discrepancies challenge ethical decision making and may result in a weakening of family structure. Some assistance may be available based on their household status regardless of whether they share a home. If Joe is not the biological father of the children, his assistance may only be based on what is deemed necessary for a single male.
In terms of family resource management, it is assumed that families are units where members strive to meet the needs of all members while maintaining that family unit over a period of time. Thus, families have both individual and group needs. Identification and communication of these needs are continual. To satisfy these needs, resources must be identified and secured. Money and material possessions are easiest to identify as important family resources; however, the human resources available among all family members are just as important, if not even more essential, to the family’s survival and maintenance.
The processes of identifying needs and securing resources are dynamic within a family unit. Situations arise in frequent, repetitive ways that allow many decisions to become subconscious and almost habitual. Family members shopping for a weekly supply of groceries may cruise down the store aisles identifying and purchasing an assortment of products with little deliberation. These products have been identified through previous decision-making processes; until family members decide that these basic products are no longer meeting their needs, they are habitual purchases. Other situations require more deliberation and information seeking. The working parent who is confronted on Monday morning with an ill childcare provider must find a specific resource to meet an acute need. The stress level in this type of decision is much higher because this decision impacts the family unit on multiple levels.
HOW DO FAMILIES USE RESOURCES?
Humans consume and require massive amounts of resources for survival, physical growth, and personal growth. Basic needs such as food, water, shelter, and clothing are obvious. Other resources are necessary to facilitate education, community, and recreation. The study of family resource management considers both consumption of resources and the availability/expenditure of human resources by family members.
The identification of resources to meet specific needs is guided by culture, availability, and accessibility. Tap water quenches thirst, yet an individual may choose to buy bottled water for family drinking purposes. A single-family detached house may be preferred, but if apartments are the only choice available, a family may make do until other options surface. An Ivy League college may be a student’s choice, but if he or she does not meet the requirements for admission, another selection must be made.
As families identify needs, their focus turns to finding ways to fulfill those needs. The number of possible solutions will vary depending on the particular need. These solutions, however, always require resources. The larger the pool of resources, the higher the probability that needs will be met efficiently and effectively. In managing family resources, sufficiency is also an important consideration. Will family members accept a solution that just meets their minimum expectations? Old newspapers suffice for bathroom use, but not everyone would accept this choice. Because family needs are dynamic and ongoing, any one particular resource may prove useful on some occasions, but not even be considered at other times.
Families may substitute some resources for others depending on the situational variables. Lunch may consist of a peanut butter sandwich when time is limited but may be a multicourse feast when time is not an issue. Money is often substituted for time in resource selection. Fast food, airline travel, and lawn-care services are examples of this resource transfer or exchange. The complexity of individuals and families elevates the complexity of resource identification and selection when compared to resource management in the business setting.
IN THE NEWS
Boomerang Commuters
In April 2011, FoxNewsInsider coined the phrase “Boomerang Commuters” to describe the growing trend of two-career, two-households, two-city family units. Creamer (2011) reported on this dramatic rise of commuter marriages in The Sacramento Bee.Current statistics suggest that almost three million American couples fit the definition of commuter couple: “Men and women in dual-career marriages who desire to stay married, but also voluntarily choose to pursue careers to which they feel a strong commitment. They establish separate homes so they can do so” (Rhodes, 2002).
Why has the number of commuter couples risen from around half a million couples in 1980 to this new high? Some believe that the economy has driven many couples to split to find jobs as the unemployment rates rose in the recent past. Others suggest that it may be more a sign of the rise of working women. Rates are higher among professional, academic and white-collar workers than in lower socioeconomic circles. In the past, the poor in society have endured long separations to find work. The new commuters, however, seem to be a phenomenon of education and relative privilege (Creamer, 2011). The average age of commuting spouses is 51, and the average length of marriage for commuting couples is 22 years (Bergen, 2010).
Marriages, and families within these commuter arrangements, face complex and unusual challenges in family resource management. While it may facilitate financial resource acquisition, separation and maintenance of multiple living sites can be mentally and physically demanding. The demographics of this group indicate that very young children are not part of the mix, but this age group is part of the “sandwich generation,” serving as support for their young adult children and their aging parents.
Weisser (2006) suggests three strategies to help commuter couples swing the dual reality. First, tap into any support employers might provide. Some may provide expense accounts for travel, meals, housing, and utilities to employees. If Internet access is crucial to job performance, the company may provide an allowance to the employee for such service. Second, use all relevant mileage plans—flights, car rentals, hotel charges, restaurants. Finally, be diligent when managing the finances within these living arrangements. Don’t forget to keep long-range financial plans in the picture.
MANAGING FAMILIES
The history of family sciences is closely linked to that of business management. Both fields emerged in academia at about the same time, and both began with efforts to facilitate efficient and effective use of resources. Many of the management theories applied to individual and family resource management stem from business management. Many of the human resource theories are supported by research in family science and other social sciences. Business management focuses on planning, organizing, leading, and controlling the use of resources to accomplish performance goals. The goal of any business is the maximization of this process. It is a conscious effort and a constant process. Choices must be made and evaluated continually.
Although the family is not a business, it does have many of the same goals that a business addresses. Management theories are explored from both the business and family conceptual frameworks in Chapter 3. Business decisions generally have a stronger hierarchical base and more tangible factors available in the decision-making process. Most family management activity begins with that same decision-making process, but family management exists on a higher personal level with more emotional, intangible types of factors to consider. The decision-making process is a major concept addressed and explored throughout this text.
THE DECISION-MAKING PROCESS
There are many ways that individuals and families go about making decisions. Janis (1989) proposes the rational model, presuming that, in the process of making decisions, there are purposeful goals and objectives. Rational decision making involves searching for alternatives, assessing consequences, estimating risk or uncertainty, determining the value of consequences, and selecting the action that maximizes attainment of those desired objectives. Decisions that have long-lasting impact on a family unit would benefit from this type of structure. Selection of educational programs and disease treatment options are often approached within this type of framework.
Pfeffer (1987) proposes another model that draws from rules, procedures, and processes, rather than the effort to maximize values. The bureaucratic model relies on habitual ways of doing things and is appropriate only for low-risk and uncontested decision situations. Although this model is more appropriate for business decisions, there are some frequent, low-risk decisions that must be made by families. Grocery shopping, especially for staple items, often operates this way.
The political model of decision making (Pfeffer, 1987) produces outcomes that are related to the power of individuals within the group. This model recognizes that individuals within the unit may have differing interests and acknowledges that conflict is normal or at least customary. Although decisions made within this model are seldom perfect for all members, the acts of bargaining and compromising result in member support for the final decision. Decisions specific to family relocation are often reached using this approach. Although children are greatly affected by such moves, it is generally more of a negotiation among the adults where power becomes a crucial influence.
Photo 1.1 Technology enhances a family’s search for alternatives.

Source: ©iStockphoto.com/STEEX.
Realizing that family decision making may be served by any, all, or a combination of these basic models, it is necessary to create a flexible framework for analysis of a variety of individual situations. The five-step decision-making process is the framework chosen for this text. Although family decisions are not always methodical, they follow a general framework of need identification and clarification, identification of alternative resources available, analysis and comparison of those resources, selection and implementation of resources chosen, and post-implementation evaluation. This model also gives the family the tools for rational, bureaucratic, or political thought found in the other decision-making models. By analyzing these steps separately and then synthesizing them as a process, the learner can more fully understand the complexity and occasional unpredictability of family choices and behaviors.
The Decision-Making Process
• Recognize existing need(s)
• Identify alternatives to fulfill identified needs
• Evaluate identified alternatives
• Select and implement alternatives
• Reflect and evaluate alternative selected
CONTEXTUAL INFLUENCES IN FAMILY RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
Families do not exist in a vacuum. Outside influences come into the family environment to change the way the family thinks and behaves. These influences come from history, culture, and the environment.
Historical Influences
Throughout history, there have been ideas and circumstances that have influenced the way families manage their resources. New ideologies and ways of thinking have impacted existing family behaviors. New childcare practices, new medical discoveries, and even changing marriage expectations may alter the way a family carries out its functions. Historical events also influence the family. Wars, recessions or depressions, terrorist attacks, and other events all have an impact on families. The most recent national recession and global financial crises have illuminated the vulnerability and the strengths of contemporary family structures in times of economic difficulties. The ultimate impact of unemployment on a dual-earner family unit has been very different than that experienced in earlier recessions where the sole-paycheck adult may have lost all earning potential. Families change as history evolves, reflecting and impacting the larger economic environment.
The history of family resource management has influenced the way a family manages today. The early Greek and Roman cultures left a wealth of information about family management that can be found in the writings of the ancient philosophers. The word economy comes from the ancient Greek oikos nomos, which means house and management. Hesiod (CA. 715 BCE) wrote, “You should embrace work-tasks in their due order, so that your granaries [grain storage] may be full of substance in its season” (Hesiod, 1999). The 13th century Church of England also left a legacy of instruction for management. As the church experienced a reform movement, more clergy were encouraged to speak out on marriage and family issues (Murray, 1987). One of the earliest recorded writings was by Robert Grossesteste, Bishop of Lincoln. This was written for his friend, Countess Margaret of Lincoln, after the death of her husband to help her manage his vast estate. He wrote,
And with the money from your corn, from your rents, and from the issues of pleas in your courts, and from your stock, arrange the expenses of your kitchen and your wines and your wardrobe and the wages of servants, and subtract your stock.” (Henley, Lamond, Cunningham, & Grosseteste, 1890)
In contemporary terms, he was suggesting how this new widow might balance her budget—income and expenses.
By the end of the 20th century, the world was changing at a rapid pace. Social mobility and invention would change the way many families managed. Although the Western family was still patriarchal, the Industrial Revolution forced men and women to move into different spheres of influence. Men gave their energies to their work, now outside the home, whereas women gained more power over the household. Isabella Beeton’s Book of Household Management (cited in Hughes, 2006) sold thousands of copies in England. Her ideas have been compared to modern small business management techniques. According to Mrs. Beeton, good management included setting an example for and giving clear guidance to the staff, controlling the finances, and applying the benefits of order and method in all management activities (Wensley, 1996).
In the United States, another reference during this time was Beecher’s (1869) The American Woman’s Home. This volume was written as a training manual for women in the duties of the home in the same fashion as training for other trades at that time. According to Beecher, a woman’s profession included
care and nursing of the body in the critical periods of infancy and sickness, the training of the human mind in the most impressionable period of childhood, the instruction and control of servants, and most of the government and economies of the family state. (p. 14)
The influences of science (ecology and biology) and technology (invention) in the home precipitated the Lake Placid Conferences in 1899 and 1909. The discipline of home economics or domestic science was developed as a result of these conferences.
Since the early 1900s, many changes have taken place in living conditions, equipment, and values and standards. During this time, the development of management also changed. The way in which today’s egalitarian family acquires and uses resources is radically different than in previous decades.
Environmental Influences
The resources that are available for use also influence family management. Some families may have a limited amount of resources available because of their geographic location or economic status. The needs of a family may not be met because necessary resources are not available. In other cases, if a resource is limited, the family may have to pay more to get that resource than if it were plentiful. The availability and accessibility of resources greatly influence how they are used. These factors also influence how resources are managed. More discussion about how resources influence family management can be found in Unit III.
REALITY CHECK
When Uncle Sam Calls
What impact does military deployment of a parent have on a family? The United States has fought many wars in the past, but the most recent efforts in Iraq and Afghanistan have disrupted families in ways that were not typical in past deployments. The majority of soldiers did not come through a draft of young men. In the Vietnam and Korean Wars, the average soldier spent less than a year overseas and was a young recruit or draftee. In Iraq, much of the burden has fallen on older reservists, National Guardsmen—family men and women (Skipp, Ephron, & Hastings, 2006). As the recent war winds down and deployed family members return home, the Arrendos’ experience will be common across the nation.
Photo 1.2 Family members serving in the military leave more than emotional voids behind them.

Source: ©iStockphoto.com/JaniceRichard.
The Arrendos (name changed for privacy) agreed to share their experience with our readers. Kathy and Mike were young professionals with two small children, ages 2 and 3, when Mike was called to duty. Kathy shares how her needs and resources changed during the course of her husband’s absence. Payne’s (1998) five resource categorizations are used as a framework for understanding.
Financial Resources
My husband’s income increased through deployment. He made more money as a major than he was making as a civilian. Our expenses changed, also, with his absence. He was not spending money and was no longer part of the budget for food, clothing, gasoline, and entertainment. I continued to work, and with both of our incomes and this decreased spending, we were able to accumulate a large savings account.
This situation is much different than in previous wars, when young men entered the service at much lower pay rates and, if married, their wives were usually not professional, career women, so money was often tight for those military families. Kathy shared her discomfort initially in this situation.
I met many military wives in a support group. They were in similar economic situations and their spending was unbelievable. I think I tried hard not to increase spending with our savings goal in mind. Some spending, I believe, is tied to emotions. When I was feeling angry about our situation, I spent money. As the savings account grew, I relaxed a little and spent a little more on myself—haircuts, dining out, clothing, and makeup. Other wives were remodeling their entire homes, buying new homes, and getting new vehicles. When my husband returned, we went on a bit of a spending spree, and we don’t feel the same financial pressures we did before we accumulated the savings account.
Not all military families experience such increased financial resources. However, without the draft, enlistment demands have changed the level of incentives currently offered.
Emotional Resources
Initially, I couldn’t focus or concentrate. How am I going to be a single parent? We always did everything together! When he left, it was almost easier because the anticipation of his departure was so emotionally draining. I went into automatic, doing what had to be done. I realize now that I did take some of my frustration out on my daughter. My mother recognized this early on and set me straight. I had relaxed control over both children, and I needed to reclaim it. Eventually, the kids and I were functioning normally, again.
At the 6-month point, I quit feeling sorry for us and changed my thinking. The hardest thing emotionally is the loss of companionship. I was very lonely and found myself grasping every opportunity to converse with another adult. I found myself drinking alcohol more frequently, not more, just one or two drinks each night.
His return was much more emotionally taxing than I anticipated. It took at least 3 months for the kids and me to get used to another adult making and enforcing some of the rules. I didn’t deal well with his disciplining of the children, and he seemed to be talking down to the children. It had been 18 months, and the three of us seemed to have grown and matured, but he returned at the same level he was at when he left. He resumed managing all bills and the checking account. It drove me nuts for a while! It seemed like when he had called me from over there almost every day, we really talked! He listened. At home he was returning to his old routine of avoiding conflict and controlling things. I was unwilling to go back to that relationship. We have had to work through a lot, and that probably should include counseling.
When asked to discuss how her relationships with family and friends changed during Mike’s deployment, Kathy noted several things that surprised her.
My father, who hates emotions, came with me to the “send off” and came to visit us every 3 months from his home in another state. Usually, on past visits, he wanted to be taken care of and entertained, but not during this time. He mowed, fixed things, winterized our home, and did everything that needed to be done. My mom watched the kids when I needed to be away for days at a time for work. I didn’t hear from my mother-in-law at all, but I didn’t before the deployment, either. No one from his family really stepped up to help. His little brother called more than usual, but never spent time with us. My siblings were supportive, my sister most. My brother did take my children to his home for 2 weeks over Christmas and made it an incredible holiday for all of us.
Friends … well, I really learned who my friends were. Most of those we believed to be friends before Mike left disappeared. Some we had never really done a lot with suddenly appeared and gave me tremendous support. When Mike returned, his old buddies started calling. I insisted that we had new friends, and he was understanding enough to change friendships, himself.
Mental Resources
At first it was difficult to go from two adults making decisions to one adult in a high-stress, emotional state solving problems. However, as time went on, I was more and more confident in solving problems myself, and I think that I actually grew and became more independent and better at decision making.
I became a very good time manager. I was forced to be more efficient. I think the hardest thing was being a working parent and wanting to spend as much time with the children as possible, but cleaning, mowing, laundry, cooking still had to be done. I simply decided to choose my battles. We ate out a lot, and we found more time to play together on the weekends.
Spiritual Resources
I am not a real spiritual person. I think through deployment you have to maintain a high level of trust and believe that our troops are well trained and that your spouse will make good decisions. I wasn’t able to even think about what if … I maintained a level of confidence that things would be OK and I had a greater appreciation for God. During this time, my 18-month-old neighbor was diagnosed with cancer. I couldn’t play the “poor me” card after that. I developed an ability to focus on the positives in life.
Although my husband is the religious member of my family, I continued to take my children to church each week. At first, it was nothing more than a hassle with a 2-year-old and a 3-year-old to watch and control. I got nothing out of the sermon. Over time, they became more manageable, and, although I did not receive support from the church, it was a nice quiet time to reflect.
Physical Resources
At first I was exhausted, but after about 6 months, my stamina improved. I did hit a wall at 12 months. I had had enough. I was frustrated and angry, and I wanted it to be over! We all stayed in very good health through this time. When the kids did get sick, I brought them to work or they went to a neighbor’s house. I felt neglectful, but I didn’t have a choice. Once I got sick, myself, and had to ask for help, but I actually was the most physically fit I have ever been during this time. Cooking for me and two little ones was easy. The kids and I walked every day.
Kathy and Mike did what had to be done and coped in the best ways available to them. Their resources expanded with increasing needs. Sources of support shifted and changed completely in some ways. They will never be able to return to the same relationships and decision-making style present before deployment. Time, circumstances, and priorities have changed their family unit markedly. The year following a service member’s return to civilian life will often determine the family’s ultimate adjustment.
The toll on families caught up in the wars in Iraq and Afghanistan will be analyzed for years to come. Divorces in the military increased by 100% in 2004 (Skipp, Ephron, & Hastings, 2006). The army has spent millions of dollars on programming designed to positively enhance marital relationships of deployed men and women. All branches of the military have engaged in conscious efforts to strengthen support systems on both sides of the globe. Kathy appreciated this.
The army family support group meetings were helpful, and I really respected the army chaplains and their wisdom. It was a good place to air frustrations and anger, but it was only once a month.
Cultural Influences
Any study of individuals and families in the context of a global community could not ignore the enormous impact that culture and diversity have on the identification, use, and production of both material and human resources.
One cultural influence is family experience. When individuals marry, they bring with them a wide array of experiences from their own family of origin, including their unique cultural heritage, which ultimately influences their expectations for the new family. How their family managed resources will follow them into their newly formed relationship, and the two individuals will explore these experiences as they formulate their own unique way of managing resources.
Yuki and Eric have been married for 4 years. They are planning to begin a family soon. Eric announces that they must find a larger, two-bedroom apartment before a baby arrives. Yuki doesn’t understand this need. In her home country, Japan, it is not uncommon for infants to share their parents’ bed for the first few years.
Another important cultural influence on family resource management is worldview. Kluckhohn and Strodtbeck (1961) developed a framework for comparing and contrasting the different value systems between and among different cultural groups. The assumptions underlying their work include the following:
• There is a limited number of common human problems for which all people at all times must find some solution. Most families, at one time or another, must match needs and resources to feed, clothe, educate, and protect members.
• Although there is variability in solutions of all the problems, it is neither limitless nor random, but is definitely variable within a range of possible solutions. Each family and each situation is unique; however, experiences have common factors between and among families.
• All alternatives of all solutions are present in all societies at all times, but are differentially preferred. Choices made by any family at any given time may differ from those of others because of cultural expectations and beliefs. (p. 10)
As a result of these different value frameworks, they identified five distinctive orientations that exist within any particular cultural group, yet differ between groups. These orientations are human nature, man and nature, time, activity, and relational.
The orientation of human nature may be viewed by a cultural group as evil, a mixture of good and evil, or basically good. Often, cultural practices are based on these beliefs. Consider the judicial system. The practice of imprisoning criminals for certain periods of time with rehabilitative treatment suggests a culture that believes that humans are basically good but can be misled. Religions that believe in original sin purport human nature as basically evil, with possible salvation through ritual.
The relationship between humans and nature is an orientation that can be categorized in three perspectives. Humans can be subjugated to, in harmony with, or have mastery over nature. Refusal of medical treatment is illustrative of a subjugation orientation. Air-conditioning and heating systems are used by many to gain mastery or control over the weather elements. Today, emerging concerns over environmental quality and sustainability of natural resources have forced a reconsideration of harmony between man and nature.
Every cultural group must deal with all three time orientations—past, present, and future—to maintain existence over time. The preference or dependence on a particular time orientation separates cultural groups. To participate in a financial savings plan implies that an individual is preparing for the future. Investing four or more years to obtain a college degree is another example of future-time orientation. Cultural groups that devote a great deal of time to the study of and the continued practicing of past rituals, art forms, and doctrine are reflective of past-time orientation.
Photo 1.3 Family traditions draw heavily from the concepts of Worldview.

Source: ©iStockphoto.com/JaniceRichard.
The value placed on human activity is an orientation that also differs between cultural groups. Some focus on being or living only for the day. Others focus on becoming, searching and working for self-growth and improvement. A third orientation places more emphasis on accomplishments that are measurable by external standards. All three orientations may exist within any large group of people; however, the group as a whole shows a preference for one. Members who show evidence of that preferred activity are then deemed to be successful.
The last orientation identified to differentiate between cultures is that of human relations. Three different patterns emerge: lineal, collaborative, and individualistic. The lineal pattern is characterized by dominant group goals, a chain of command, and a commitment to maintaining the group over time. A collaborative pattern is reflected in the concept of a team. Someone operating from the individualistic pattern will place primary emphasis on personal goals and objectives and on personal autonomy.
How does this worldview framework impact family decision making? Each and every decision made by a family reflects cultural preferences at multiple levels. For instance, when a parent decides to participate in a college savings plan for his or her child, this decision reflects core beliefs that education is important, that sacrificing today for something that might come to be in the future is a worthy action, and that a college degree is an accomplishment viewed positively by the larger social group.
A human service professional operating from his or her own worldview will find that his or her ability to serve individuals and families functioning within another orientation is problematic. When an individual is devoted to collaborative relationships (i.e., family, gang, religion), he or she will not consider solutions that involve competitive actions or individualistic accomplishments. If a parent believes that children are inherently good or bad, behavior modification plans will be viewed as illogical. A family struggling for many generations with intense poverty may see no value in saving or planning for the future when surviving each day requires so much of its resource base.
As Payne (1998) states,
[T]he role of the educator or social worker or employer is not to save the individual, but rather to offer a support system, role models, and opportunities to learn, which will increase the likelihood of the person’s success. Ultimately, the choice always belongs to the individual. (p. 149)
Awareness and understanding of cultural differences or different worldviews provide the human service professional with increased options and heightened objectivity.
Table 1.1 Selection of Family Housing: Same Ages, Income, Location, and Educational Levels

WORLDVIEW
Using the structured form below, analyze the following family decisions in terms of differing worldview perspectives:
• A dual-career couple decides that the wife will leave the workforce until the youngest child enters middle school.
• Your neighbor refuses to use weed killer on his or her lawn because it is harmful to the environment.
• A 16-year-old high school student drops out of school to take a full-time job to help support his or her family during an economic crisis.
• A high school graduate decides to attend a 4-year college instead of entering the workforce immediately.
Table 1.2 Worldview Applications

MULTIDISCIPLINARY PERSPECTIVES
The study of families and behaviors of individuals and family units depends on research methods and disciplines that provide a variety of perspectives. The field of family studies integrates existing theory, new research findings, and cross-disciplinary works into a framework for understanding the complexities of family study. Using that framework, professionals are able to engage in further research or practical application of knowledge in the field. Although the following discussion illustrates a few specific disciplines that contribute to this knowledge base, several others are possible contributors over time.
Psychology
In ancient Greek, the word psyche meant soul or mind, and logos was the study of something. Psychology, as a field, has evolved into an academic and applied field focusing on the study of the mind and behavior. In the applied sense, psychology also refers to the use of the knowledge accumulated through that study to mental illness and behavioral analysis. Psychologists study mental processes and behavior of individuals, alone or in a group, not on the group itself. Wilhelm Wundt opened the first psychological laboratory in 1879.
Sociology
Sociology is the study of society, with a focus on the study of the social interactions of people, groups, and entire societies. This academic discipline emerged in the early 1800s and evolved through that century as struggles for global leadership emerged. Scientific methods were used to understand how and why groups come together and continue across time. From this inquiry, theories about social rules and governing structures give insight on why individuals are motivated to be a part of groups. In an applied form, sociological research benefits educators, lawmakers, administrators, families, and others who seek resolution of social problems and creation of public policy.
Social Psychology
The ancient philosopher Plato believed that humans organize themselves into groups and form governments to solidify their groups because they cannot achieve all of their individual goals alone (Goethals, 2003). Through the ages, students have pondered the question, how much of our behavior is determined by external constraints vs. internal drives? Triplett (1898) put social psychology into the realm of academic discipline by conducting studies that focused on the impact of other people on the individual. Allport’s (1935) textbook, Social Psychology, grounded the study of social psychology in scientific methods. Many studies have focused on the development of norms within groups and the transmission of those norms across groups—interpersonal influence.
Social psychology is a field devoted to understanding how individuals impact the groups they associate with and how groups impact their individual members. Research within this discipline includes studies of marriage, religion, and parenting, as well as adolescent behavior.
Cultural Anthropology
Anthropology is the study of humanity. The cultural branch of anthropology seeks to make sense of difference or variation among humans. Because culture is acquired through learning, people living in different, separate places or under differing circumstances will develop different ways of thinking about similar things. This belief is exemplified by the earlier discussion of worldview.
Although understanding the differences among cultures is important to understanding how families manage their resources, it is also important to this discipline to seek universalities among humans across cultural and geographic boundaries. Are beliefs and behaviors completely learned, or is there a biological, hereditary basis to them? Anthropologists have surmised that people adapt to their environments in nongenetic ways—through culture. Current concern for the global environment and international relationships has redirected study in this field to the tensions among cultures.
Economics
The study of economics is not only about business, but also about human behavior within existing structures of production, distribution, trade, and consumption of goods and services. As a science, it functions to predict and explain the consequences of choices made by consumers and producers. Economics is a quantified field of research depending on numerical methods of analysis.
Microeconomics studies individual agents, like households and businesses. Macroeconomics focuses on the economy as an entirety. Key concepts include supply, demand, competition, and pricing. The research and models derived from the study of economics help explain how families identify and evaluate resources in their decision-making processes.
Behavioral economics is an emerging field of study that focuses on application of scientific principles to human and social dimensions of decision making. Research questions seek to answer how consumer decisions impact pricing and the allocation of resources in a society.
Biology
The field of biology is the study or science of living things. Family resource management derives important information on reproduction, physical health, and safety from biological findings, and implements biological research methods and theories to answer questions about how the environment and humans interact. Genetics is an associated field that provides families with guidance when making important reproductive and health decisions. Medicine is also a related field that plays an important part in family decisions and resource allocation.
Professionals in family studies use multidisciplinary research methods and integrate research generated by all of these fields, which allows a multifaceted exploration of topics. For instance, if we want to understand maternal employment and its impact on the family, we can approach the question from multiple frameworks. Psychologists might focus on the emotional and cognitive impacts on family members—parents and children. Sociologists may consider the motivations that lead to the mother’s participation in the workforce and how social expectations influence that behavior.
Social psychologists may view the topic in terms of how employment impacts the female’s self-esteem or power base, or how females impact the working environment they occupy. Cultural anthropology might be more interested in how maternal employment participation varies between and among different cultures and across time. Economics would be interested in how maternal employment impacts resources available to families and how that, in turn, impacts their consumption. Another topic of interest to economists is the potential for increased production through more fully participating adult female labor pools. Biology might study the issue from a physical perspective. The spread of contagious diseases through on-the-job contact or within childcare centers might be of interest.
In combination, these disciplines provide us with a holistic view of family resource management. All are important to the study and understanding of family behavior.
SUMMARY
The family unit has been and continues to be the basic unit of society. As such an integral part of the larger social system, the family is impacted by all social, economic, political, and environmental changes. Thus, the family is dynamic in nature, responding and adapting to change. To allow such flexibility, families must engage in the management process, using basic decision-making tools and accessing necessary resources to maintain over time.
QUESTIONS FOR REVIEW AND DISCUSSION
1. Why and when is it necessary to create limiting definitions of the family?
2. Other than money, how many resources can you list that would be important in the management of families?
3. How have culture and worldview influenced your decision to study family resource management?
4. Individuals and families use the basic decision-making steps for even small situations. Trace your most recent eating experience through the process.
5. Using the worldview framework in this chapter, determine your personal combination of the five dimensions.
6. Marriage and divorce are two important topics in this field. How might researchers in economics and social psychology differ in the way they approach these topics? Psychology and sociology?
7. Book : Tami James Moore & Sylvia M. Asay “Family Resource Management”

Developmentally Appropriate Activity Planning
The focus of the Final Project is to choose nine developmentally appropriate activities for young children. Your capability to effectively plan these activities demonstrates your mastery of the course learning outcomes and your ability to use your knowledge to plan effective activities for young children. Early childhood educators play an important role in the future success of children, and your ability to create effective curriculum experiences is a fundamental part of that.
To prepare for this assignment,
• Please refer to the Week 5 Guidance for further tips and examples that will support your success with this discussion.
• Review and download the ECE 203 Activity Template.
o There are nine required sections total: Science/Sensory, Language and Literacy, Creativity, Fine motor (please choose an indoor activity), Gross motor (please choose an outdoor activity), Self-Concept, Emotional Skills/ Regulation, Social Skills, and Math.
o Read the required resources for this week and consider reviewing the recommended resources as well.
Remember that any applicable resource used throughout this course can support the requirement for four scholarly resources for this assignment.
• If you did not begin the development of your ePortfolio in ECE 101, read Portfolium Student Guide to help you set up your ePortfolio.
o Choose an area of focus:
 Center-Based Preschool (3, 4, or 5 years old)
 Center-Based Infant/Toddler (young infants, mobile infants, or toddlers)
 Early Childhood (4–8 years old)
• In your assignment, create a nine-page Word document that addresses the following:
For the Center-Based Preschool Option
• Complete each section of the ECE 203 Activity Template.
o To complete the sections for a Center-Based Preschool:
 Indicate the age group (3s, 4s or 5s).
 List the intended goals.
 List all of the materials that will be needed for each activity.
 Explain in detail the process/teaching strategies that will be used for each activity.
 Specify how each activity is developmentally appropriate for that age group.
For the Center-Based Infant/Toddler Option
• Complete each section of the Activity Template.
o To complete the sections for a Center-Based Infant/Toddler:
 Indicate the age group (3s, 4s or 5s). Of the nine activities, three should be appropriate for young infants, three for mobile infants and three for toddlers.
 List the intended goals.
 List all of the materials that will be needed for each activity.
 Explain in detail the process/teaching strategies that will be used for each activity.
 Specify how each activity is developmentally appropriate for that age group.
For the Early Childhood (4–8 Years Old) Option
• Complete each section of the Activity Template
o To complete the sections for Early Childhood:
 Indicate the age group (4, 5, 6, 7, 8).
 List the intended goals.
 List all of the materials that will be needed for each activity.
 Explain in detail the process/teaching strategies that will be used for each activity.
 Specify how each activity is developmentally appropriate for that age group.
For this assignment, you must submit
• A link to your electronic portfolio in Portfolium. To do this you will copy and paste the Web address into the comments feature in Waypoint.
• A Word document including your completed assignment, as well as the link to your ePortfolio.
• Click on the Assignment Submission button. The Waypoint “Student Dashboard” will appear.
• Browse for your assignment.
• Click Upload.
• Confirm that your assignment was successfully submitted by viewing the appropriate week’s assignment tab in Waypoint, or clicking on Check Assignment Status within the Meet Your Instructor unit in the left navigation panel.
The Developmentally Appropriate Activity Planning project:
• Must be nine double-spaced pages in length (not including title and reference pages) and formatted according to APA style as outlined in Ashford Writing Center (Links to an external site.)’s APA Style (Links to an external site.)
• Must include a separate title page with the following:
o Title of paper
o Student’s name
o Course name and number
o Instructor’s name
o Date submitted
• Must use at least three scholarly sources in addition to the course text.
o To assist you in completing the library research required for this assignment, view this Help! Need Article (Links to an external site.) tutorial, which can help you find a good starting place for your research.
o The Scholarly, Peer Reviewed, and Other Credible Sources (Links to an external site.) table offers additional guidance on appropriate source types. If you have questions about whether a specific source is appropriate for this assignment, contact your instructor. Your instructor has the final say about the appropriateness of a specific source for a particular assignment.
• Must document any information used from sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center’s Citing Within Your Paper (Links to an external site.)
• Must include a separate references page that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center. See the Formatting Your References List (Links to an external site.) resource in the Ashford Writing Center for specifications.

CHILD OBSERVATION ASSIGNMENT REPORT
Summer 2019

CHILD OBSERVTION REPORT DESCRIPTION:
will write two separate child Observation Reports to fulfill these assignments involving observing a child of different ages (an infant OR toddler age and an early childhood OR a school-age child) and will then use the child observation notes as a basis for writing a report about the child’s development in the domains. Each report is worth 65 points. It is a course requirement that students complete both observation reports. If a student does not pass in the Observation Reports the notes will not be graded for credit. If a student does not pass in both observations any extra credit points will not be graded as part of the final grade. Students should use the Child Observation Grading Report Form for the report. Do not make your own form or copy/change the form in any way. Do not pass in a grading form that you have made a PDF document.
FINAL CHILD OBSERVATION REPORT DUE DATES:
Observation One-Choose either the Infant OR Toddler age for the observation report (4 months- 2.4 years). The Observation Notes Form is Due 7/26 and the Child Observation Report Grading Form is Due 7/29 by 11:30 PM. Submit the child observation notes form and the child observation report grading form titled with your name and the name of the observation on Moodle using the assignment link. The observation notes should be written as a separate document using the Observation Notes Form in the Observation folder. After submitting the Observation Notes Form, the notes should then be copied to the end of the Child Observation Report Grading Form that will be submitted later.
Observation Two– Choose either the Early Childhood observation paper-(3 to 5 years) OR School-age observation paper (6-11 years). The Due Date for the Child Observation Report Notes is 8/17 by 11:30 PM. The Child Observation Two Grading Form with the notes copied to the end due date is 8/20 by 11:30 PM. Note: If you choose a child who is 2 years four months for Observation One do not do Observation Two on a 3 year old.
**Note: All students should do Observation One on a child who is between 4 months and 2 years four months. For Observation Two students who are early childhood education majors should complete the early childhood observation (3-5 years). If you are an education major, you should complete the middle childhood age report (6-11 years) unless you cannot find a child of that age group and then you may do the report on the early childhood age. You may choose the early childhood or middle childhood age child if you are human services or another major.
If a student does not have a child for the report, students may visit a referred child care site for an observation of a toddler and/or preschool age child. Students will need to sign up ahead of time with the course Professor and receive a letter of introduction to set up a visit to the referred child care center. Students will need to contact the center director to set up the observation time after the director is notified by the course Professor. A letter of introduction will need to be brought to the site with the student BHCC ID or driver’s license if not a regular BHCC student. Students should not contact the director of the center unless they have given their name and received a letter of introduction from the course professor. The address for the program will also be posted.
CHILD OBSERVATION AND REPORT DESCRIPTION:
Audience for this Assignment:
You are to take the role of an observer spending a minimum at least 60 minutes observing each child and recording your observation notes for your report. You may also spend more time with the child and write the observation notes for sections of time. Each set of instructions below details the ages of children to be observed and other particulars to consider when looking for developmental trends as you observe children of different ages. Possible observation ideas are presented at the end of this assignment as an appendix for your use to assure strong, observational experiences. Set up these observations to get the most out your time to see as much about the child’s development as possible. Review the developmental child development information in your textbook, developmental checklists posted on Moodle or from other reliable resources for further ideas of what to look for before you observe the child.
Sites for observations: You may use the following sites for observing your children for this assignment—child’s home, your home, child’s center or school, or other site i.e. playground. Students should not observe children in a public setting that they do not know
Competencies from the course involved in this assignment:
While this assignment involves most of the competencies listed on the syllabus, the primary objective for this assignment will allow you to meet the following competencies fully as you complete the course.
Promoting Child development and learning:
1. Knowing and understanding children’s characteristics and needs. (Level I, II, & III)
2. Knowing and understanding the multiple influences on development and learning. (Level I, II, III)
3. Using developmental knowledge to create healthy, respectful, supportive, and challenging learning environments. (Level I, II, III)
Family and community relationships:
4. Knowing about and understanding diverse family and community characteristics. (Level I, II, III)
Assessment and evaluation of young children:
5. Understanding the goals, benefits, and uses of assessment.
6. Knowing about and using observation, documentation, and other appropriate assessment tools and approaches. (Level I, II, III)
Using Developmentally Effective Approaches to Connect
with Children and Families:
7. Understanding positive relationships and supportive interactions as a foundation of work with children. (Level I, II, III)
8. Using a broad repertoire of developmentally appropriate teaching/learning practices. (Level I, II, III)
9. Reflecting on their own practice to promote positive outcomes for each child. (Level I, II, III)
Using Content Knowledge to Build Meaningful Curriculum
10. Knowing and using central concepts, inquiry tools and structures of content area and/or academic disciplines.
11. Using their own knowledge, appropriate early learning standards and other resources to design, implement, and evaluate meaningful, challenging curricula for each child. (Level I, II, III)
Professionalism:
12. Engaging in continuous, collaborative learning to inform practice. (Level I, II, III)

Process and Format for Completing Each of the Reports
The process for observing involves the following:
• Make an appointment to observe your child, even if you are going somewhere that is familiar. Everyone involved should be informed as to your purpose in the observation. It may be required that you obtain written permission from a parent to observe the child. Check this ahead of time with the program, director, and/or the parent. Some programs have a blanket approval for all observations. You will be changing the child’s name and the names any other children in the observation or you may use initials.
• Plan your observation well ahead of the due date. All sorts of problems can occur with observations (you don’t get the information you need; the child is sick; the setting is chaotic the day you arrive, etc.) so you will need extra time to complete the assignment.
• Before you go to observe the child, be clear about the child you are going to observe and the setting in which you will observe. Who is the child, where will you be observing, what expectations does the setting have for your interaction with the child? You do not need to interact with the child to do the observation.
• Be careful if you know the child. This relationship often interferes with objectivity. If you are observing a child you are acquainted with, or know well, plan to be objective and to stay less emotionally attached than you might normally behave. You should only write about the behaviors you observed in the observation and not about other times you spent with the child.
• Have your note paper set up ahead of time and plan your observation activities so you know what you will do when you arrive to observe. Plan for all the supplies you need (i.e., paper, pencil(s), props to help child with play, if needed, etc.). If you are observing a child you do not know in a child care setting, you can observe the child without interacting with them. You should follow the direction of the staff at the child care center about how you should interact with the child during the observation time.
• You will need to write the observation anecdotal notes using objective statements using the child observation notes form before the report is written. The observation notes are used to identify the behaviors and the domains of development discussed in the observation report. Students should not write about any behaviors that were not observed during the observation time. Do not include any subjective statements i.e. child was angry, happy, sad and do not include your interpretations of the child’s behavior and development. The notes will also be submitted for credit as part of the observation report assignment. The notes should be written into complete sentences from the notes taken during the observation time. Use details and be descriptive in your writing so the child’s actions, behaviors, and activities are clear to the reader. You do not need to pass in the field notes. Students should complete the observation notes form that includes the information about the child and the setting etc. A copy should be downloaded from the Observation Folder on Moodle.
Format for the Observation Report:
The format for each report is discussed in detail below and you should follow this process for writing the report using the child observation grading form.
• Use the Child Observation Notes form to submit your observation notes written in complete sentences. The form is found in the Observation Folder.
• Use the Child Observation Report Grading Form to record your child observation report that can be downloaded from the Observation Folder.
• The Child Observation Report Grading Form has seven sections. The sections are clearly explained below. Using the observation report answer form found in the week folder, follow the topic section headings in the report to ensure that you write all of the report. The answer form also has an overview file that includes the directions for writing the report. Student should follow the directions on the overview form when writing the report.
• Students will be choosing three behaviors that each span two domains (biosocial, cognitive, language, social, emotional, cognitive, creative and self-help). The self-help domain information is located in the developmental checklist labeled Developmental Birth to Five Adapted and revised by the Mid-State Early Childhood Direction Center, 2012. These three behaviors will be the basis for your report and will be discussed using the same format. Do not use a behavior that is an example of one domain. The format will be discussed below.
• The three behaviors will be labeled as Behavior One, Behavior Two and Behavior Three. The domains you can discuss are biosocial, cognitive, language, emotional, social, creative and self-help.
Child Observation Report Grading Form
Title: Your Name and Observation One Infant OR Toddler or Observation Two Early Childhood OR Middle Childhood
Students should download the Child Observation Report Grading Form from Moodle
Part One: Introduction
Introduction
Write an introductory paragraph that will state the purpose of your child observation report. You are observing a child to describe and explain domains of development and how these domains intersect with one another as the child grows. Give information about the child i.e. age, setting that was listed on the Observation Report Form. You can include other information if important to the observation report i.e. the child is bilingual. Do not describe any behaviors that were not observed in the observation time i.e. you know the child from birth and you discuss the child’s development from the past.
Part Two: Behavior One
Behavior One and Two Domains
Choose one of the behaviors that span two domains taken directly from the observation notes. The behavior notes will be labeled as Behavior One. Use the exact notes from the observation written in objective statements and do not interpret or discuss the behavior in this paragraph. Identify two domains that the behavior is an example of. List the two domains that you will be discussing under the Domain One and Domain Two paragraphs.
Behavior One Domain One Quote for Typical Development
In this paragraph you will state the domain that you will be discussing for Behavior One Domain One. Then describe at least one quote that is a statement about what the typical development is in that domain for the child’s age and/or developmental level from the text, another reliable source (handout or website) or a developmental checklist. The course text must be used for some of the quotes and use (Santrock, pg. 100) to document where you got the quote in the text. You should also state the title of the handout or the title of the developmental checklist with the age. A quote that is a definition of the domain being discussed is not accepted as a quote for credit. If you do not use a quote about typical development, your discussion for the child’s development will be your opinion only and you will not get credit for the behavior domain discussion. It can be compared to writing a research paper without using any citations. More than one quote may be used. Students may get a total of three extra credit points for the entire report.
Behavior One Domain One Analysis to the Quote for Typical Development
In this paragraph the student will discuss how the behavior in the first domain described relates to developmental norms for the age of the child being observed or the quote about typical development from the text, handout or developmental checklist. Discuss how the observed behaviors are like or unlike the description about typical development that you quoted in the paragraph from the text or other reliable source. This paragraph should have at least four sentences.
Behavior One Domain Two Quote for Typical Development
In this paragraph the student will be use the same format as above to discuss Behavior One Domain Two that was identified in the Behavior One paragraph. In this paragraph state the second domain you will be discussing for Behavior One and then list the quote and resource about typical development that you found in the text, handout, or developmental checklist.
Behavior One Domain Two Analysis to a Quote for Typical Development
In this paragraph describe how the child’s behavior compares to the quote about typical development or is not typical compared to the quote about development. This paragraph should have at least four sentences.
Part Three: Behavior Two
Behavior Two and Two Domains
Choose the second example of behavior labeled that spans two developmental domains from your observation notes and insert the behavior observation notes taken directly from the notes into the paragraph. State the two domains you will be discussing for Behavior Two
Behavior Two Domain One Quote for Typical Development
In this paragraph for Behavior Two Domain Two include a quote about typical development with a resource for where you got the quote.
Behavior Two Domain One Analysis to a Quote for Typical Development
In this paragraph you will then compare the child’s development to the quote about typical development or how the behavior is different from the quotes. This paragraph should be at least four sentences.
Behavior Two Domain Two Quote for Typical Development
In this paragraph describe Behavior Two Domain Two that includes a quote about typical development with a resource for where you got the quote. You are using the same behavior for Behavior One from above but are using a different domain.
Behavior Two Domain Two Analysis to a Quote for Typical Development
In this paragraph compare the child’s development to the quote about typical development or how the behavior is different from the quote. This discussion should be at least four sentences.
Part Four: Behavior Three
Behavior Three and Two Domains
Then continue to the third example of behavior that spans two developmental domains taken directly from the observation notes. Describe the two domains that you will be discussing in the Behavior Three paragraphs.
Behavior Three Domain One Quote for Typical Development
In this paragraph insert a quote about typical development for Behavior Three Domain One and resource from the text, developmental checklist or handout.

Behavior Three Domain One Analysis to a Quote for Typical Development
In this paragraph include an analysis of how your child’s behavior compares to the statement about typical development or how the behavior is different than the behavior described in the quote. This paragraph should be at least four sentences.

Behavior Three Domain Two Quote for Typical Development
In this paragraph you will be using the same behavior for Behavior Two but will be discussing a second domain. List the Behavior Three Domain Two you will now be discussing. In this paragraph insert a quote about typical development for Behavior Three Domain Two with a resource from the text, developmental checklist or handout.
Behavior Three Domain Two Analysis to a Quote for Typical Development
In this paragraph include an analysis of how your child’s behavior compares to the statement about typical development or how the behavior is different than the behavior described in the quote. This paragraph should include four sentences.
Part Five: Summary of the Child’s Growth and Development
Complete your child observation report with a summary statement that restates your purpose drawing from your thesis in the introductory paragraph. “How is the whole child’s development progressing?” Consider what the observation tells you about the child’s development, what skills would be expected to emerge next, and how teachers and parents can help -the child to grow and develop these skills. Give examples from your report about the child’s development in the domains. Summarize and discuss the child’s growth development from the child observation report in all of the domains you observed. Give examples of what you learned about the child’s growth and development in the domains that were the most important to you as the observer. This paragraph should have at least 8 sentences.
Part Six: Resources
Students should list all of the resources used for the quotes about typical development. Include the following information for the resource list- the title of a text, author and edition, publisher and date of publication, title of handout and author, title of developmental checklist with source/author and title of website, website address and page resource used from the website with author if an article. You must use your text for some of the quotes.
Part Seven: Observation Notes Form
The Observation Notes Form found in the Observation Folder includes the information about the child who is being observed should be inserted at the end of the Child Observation Report Grading Form. The notes should be written in complete sentences using a story format. The statements about the child should be written using objective (fact) not subjective (opinion) language. The observation notes should be submitted separately as well before the child observation report grading form so the Professor knows the students has completed the observation and has written the notes.
Observation Notes for Observation Assignment
When observing each child for your Observation Assignment, you should record the behavior of the child using objective statements. An objective statement includes what you see the child doing or saying and not any of your interpretations or thoughts about the child’s behavior. You should include the physical, emotional, social and cognitive development including language. This form should be completed for each observation. It will be posted on Moodle in case you need to download it.
Recorder’s Name: Child’s Name or Initial: Age of Child in Years/Months: Date of Observation: Beginning and Ending Time of Observation Setting: People Included in the Observation: Observation Notes- Include in the notes exactly what you see the child doing including language or sounds if an infant. Use sentences and not phrases. Do not include any of your interpretations about the child’s behavior that will be written as part of the Observation Report.
OBSERVATION
Examples for how to use the Headings for the Child Observation Reports for different ages are described under the specific ages below.
SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS FOR WRITING ABOUT DIFFERENT AGE GROUPS
Child Observation Report #1 Infant OR Toddler Observation Assignment:
Spend at least 60 minutes observing a child who is an infant or toddler (from 4 months to 2 years four months). Keep a running record of what you are observing the child do in his environment. Include any sounds or words the child makes. Describe the behavior in objective terms described as facts writing exactly what you see the child doing and saying. Do not label the child’s behavior in subjective terms described as opinion. He is happy, selfish etc. Using these notes transcribe the phases from the notes taken during the observation time into complete sentences and insert the notes into the observation notes form.
The behaviors you observe should show an intertwining of at least two development domains seen in growth and development, not just one simple behavior. For example, don’t just look at a child beginning to talk (a language/cognitive skill) with a simple babble, but describe the social domain that accompanies this as the infant tries to interact with others (a social/emotional skill), using his new language babbling skills.
Some areas that might be interesting to look for when you observe (look at the infant toddler chapters in the text to consider what you might see before you go to observe):
• Physical: Body changes in height, weight, and motor movement; gross and/or fine motor skills.
• Cognitive: Sensorimotor levels/behaviors; object permanence skills; memory; language development.
• Social-Emotional: Attachment; temperament; self-awareness; interaction with others; emotions
• Self-help skills: See the developmental checklist of behaviors that are listed by age on the developmental checklist. The skills may be used as a domain i.e. self- feeding can be self-help as well as biosocial motor skill.
Remember to connect your observation to explanations of multiple domains of development.
For example:
This Behavior Example with two domains for Sally (age 12 months) includes a paragraph with a quote about typical development and then another paragraph about how the child’s behavior compares to the quote about typical development. Two domains for the same behavior are discussed in separate paragraph. Your observation notes will be longer as you will be observing the child for at least 60 minutes.
Anecdotal Observation Notes
Sally (12 months) was sitting on the floor in the living room. Using her hands, arms and legs, she pulled herself up to stand balancing on the couch by holding on with both her hands. Smiling Sally held on to the couch cushion and lifted each hand and arm and moved each leg in a side step movement along the outside of couch cushions. Sally then moved to the end table putting out her left hand first and then her right hand. Sally stopped and then paused for 15 seconds. She took her hands off the table at the same time and quickly lowered herself to the floor. She said “Oh!” as she sat on the floor.
Behavior One and Two Domains
Behavior One is an example of both biosocial and cognitive development. “Smiling Sally (12
months) held on to the couch cushion and lifted each hand and arm and moved each leg in a side step movement along the outside of couch cushions.”
Behavior One Domain One Quote for Typical Development
In Behavior One Domain One, Sally has developed biosocial gross motor skills that are seen in older infants. Infants who are Sally’s age of 12 months are beginning to start to use their walking motor skills. According to the Developmental Checklist Birth to Five from the Mid-State Early Childhood Direction Center, infants from the age of 8-12 months will “walk and holding on to furniture (10-13 months)”. Infants may also “walk two or three steps without support (11-13 months)”.
Behavior One Domain One Analysis to a Quote for Typical Development
Using the gross motor skills for the biosocial domain, walking requires balance and integration of muscle control. Since Sally is now 12 months, she is demonstrating that she has achieved balance in her biosocial motor skills by her ability to walk holding onto the couch and table. Walking by holding onto an object is also an example of integration of motor skills that shows Sally is typically developing in her biosocial skills. Her ability to walk using an object like furniture is the beginning stage of walking independently for an infant who is 11-13 months. She has not yet developed independent walking skills that is also typical of a child who is age 12-14 months. Developmentally Sally could be walking independently at 12 months according to the developmental checklist.

Behavior One Domain Two Quote for Typical Development
The domain for Behavior One Domain Two is the cognitive domain. Sally also has demonstrated cognitive development by her ability to understand where and how to hold on to the furniture by using motor/muscle control to accomplish the walking task. According to Piaget’s Sensorimotor Sub Stage Four Secondary Circular Reactions (8-12 months), infants will become more deliberate and purposeful in responding to people and objects (Santrock, pg. 160). In Piaget’s Sensorimotor Sub Stage Four, infants will begin to use new adaptions and anticipation also called a means to an end. (Santrock pg. 160) Infants in this Sensorimotor Sub Stage Four will also work hard to achieve a goal. (Santrock, pg. 160).
Behavior One Domain Two Analysis to a Quote for Typical Development
In Behavior One Domain Two, Sally used the furniture to balance herself and then to walk
sideways holding onto the furniture. The infant’s ability to use her body and objects to accomplish her goal of walking is an example of an infant using an object with a purpose that is
typical as described in Piaget’s Sensorimotor Sub stage Four Secondary Circular Reactions.
Since Sally was able to walk using support, her ability to accomplish this skill is an example of
means to an end. Another characteristic of Piaget Sensorimotor Sub Stage Four
Secondary Circular Reactions is the infant’s ability to achieve a goal. Sally’s success in walking
with support is an example of her purposeful achievement of this skill that will later lead to
independent walking.

Child Observation Report #2-Choose either the Early Childhood Age 3-5 years or Middle Childhood Age 6-11 years
The Early Childhood (Preschool/Kindergarten 3-5 Years) Observation Assignment:
Spend at least 60 minutes observing a child between the ages of 3 and 5 years of age. Keep a running record of what you are observing the child do in his environment. Include any interaction the child has with other children and adults. Record any language for the child and anyone who is interacting with the child. After the observation time use the Observation Notes Form and write the observation notes in complete sentences using objective terms in a story format. Using three behaviors that span two domains from the observation notes, prepare the child’s observation report form using the same form used for Observation One.
The behaviors you write about must show an intertwining of these behaviors not just one behavior. For example, don’t just look at a child beginning to express emotions using words (a social emotional skill) but involve the cognitive reasoning the child uses as he interact with others and negotiate his position.

Some areas that might be interesting to look for when you observe (look at the preschool chapters in the text to consider what you might see before you go to observe):
• Physical: Body changes in height, weight, motor skills; eating, toileting, and sleeping routines; gross and/or fine motor skills
• Cognitive: Language development and usage; preoperational stages; information processing or memory; modeling of skills from others; cooperation and following directions/instructions; creativity in developing ideas beyond what is told to do
• Social-Emotional: Prosocial behaviors; empathy; sharing; aggression; gender identification; expression of emotions (both verbal and physical); play patterns and activities
• Self Help Skills-In the developmental checklists you will find a heading for self-help skills skills that may be used for this age group. An example would be self-dressing that would be both a biosocial motor skill but also a self-help skill,
Remember to connect your observation to explanations of multiple domains of development. For example:
Behavior One Example for Tommy age 4.2 years and his friend Ian age 4.6 years
Observation Notes
Tommy was playing with friends his classmate Ian in the block corner. They were using unit blocks to build a rectangle shaped building with 4 by 6 blocks (12 by 18 inches). Using his right hand, Tommy placed the blocks right beside each other in the rectangle formation. Using his right hand Tommy then placed another block directly on top of the previous block to make the block building higher. After the second level was completed, Tommy and Ian took turns placing the blocks on top of each other to make the building. After placing the block Tommy and Ian said, “It’s your turn now.”
Behavior One and Two Domains
In Behavior One Tommy and Ian took turns placing the blocks on top of each other to make the building. After placing the block Tommy and Ian said, “It’s your turn now.” This behavior is an example of biosocial development and social (play) development.
Behavior One Domain One Quote for Typical Development
From this behavior, I see that Tommy has developed biosocial fine motor skills that are refined and can be used to build elaborate structures using his right hand. In the Skills Builder Fine Motor Development 0-6 Years Handout a child who is 3-4 years will begin to have a strong preference for a lead/dominant hand but switching continues.
Behavior One Domain One Analysis to Quote for Typical Development
In this behavior domain description, Tommy is only using one dominant hand (his right hand) and does not switch to his left hand. Tommy is demonstrating his ability to use a dominant hand that is typically developing but does not use his other hand to switch off. The skill of not switching to his less dominant hand demonstrates his ability to only use his dominant hand. This behavior is not typical according to the listed handout that indicates children will use both hands of their body at this age.
Behavior One Domain Two Quote for Typical Development
The second domain for Behavior One is the social domain. In Mildred Parten’s Social Play Development from 1-6 years, cooperative play is described as children playing together, creating dramas or taking terms. (Kinds of Play class handout).
Behavior One Domain Two Analysis to a Quote for Typical Development
Tommy demonstrated that he was capable of cooperative play as he and his friend Ian took turns placing the blocks building the block structure. Cooperative play is typical for children who are early childhood age demonstrating the ability to work cooperatively by taking turns to complete a common goal that is described by Mildred Parten. Tommy has social skills that allow him to share materials and is able to cooperate in developing an idea from thought to an actual product. When playing in a cooperative way, children need to be able to work together and word towards a common goal. Both Tommy and Ian took turns placing the blocks and were able to design the block building together. This skill is a true characteristic of cooperative play.
Child Observation Report Two: School Age Observation (6-11 years):
Spend 60 minutes observing a child between the ages of 6 and 11 years of age. Do not choose a child that is age 12 as that age begins adolescence. Keep a running record of what you are observing the child do and say in his environment. Also record any interactions that the child has with other children or adults. Include conversation as well. After the observation time use the Observation Notes Form and write the observation notes in complete sentences using objective terms in a story forma. Using three behaviors that span two domains from the observation notes, prepare the child’s observation report form using the same form used for Observation One.
The behaviors you write about must show an intertwining of these behaviors not just one behavior. For example, don’t just look at a child reasoning and arguing with his teacher about not wanting to do something (a cognitive skill) but involve the relational aspects of the two as they negotiate an outcome of the problem (a social emotional skill).
Some areas that might be interesting to look for when you observe (look at the school-age chapters in the text to consider what you might see before you go to observe):
• Physical: Gross or fine motor skills; eating and sleeping routines
• Cognitive: Language development and usage; reading and writing skill development; concrete operational level; information processing or memory; modeling knowledge and skill levels from peers; creativity in work and need for conformity
• Social-Emotional: Moral skills- figuring out right from wrong; peer relationships; emotional changes in expression and feelings; preadolescent behaviors
Remember to connect your observation to explanations of multiple domains of development.
Behavior Observation example for a Middle Childhood age child: Jayne is 6 years old and has just enrolled in a new school in the first grade.
Observation Notes
Jayne is sitting in the back corner desk of the classroom and is not talking to any of the other children sitting around her. They did not talk to her. After a few minutes, she started to cry and the teacher went over and asked her, “Why are you crying Jayne?” Jayne said, “Nobody likes me at this school and I miss my old friends.” The teacher then said, “I know you miss your friends but you have new friends here to meet.” The teacher led Jayne to join a small group of girls reading in the book area. The teacher said to the group, “We have a new member of our class who would like to be your friend and read with you today. Her name is Jayne.” The children said, “Hello, Jayne.” The children made a place for her on the rug and they all started to read the books together.
Behavior One and Two Domains
The Behavior One that span two domains for the Middle Childhood Observation Report is
“After a few minutes, she started to cry and the teacher went over and asked her, “Why are you crying Jayne?” Jayne said, “Nobody likes me at this school and I miss my old friends.” The teacher then said, “I know you miss your friends but you have new friends here to meet.” Behavior One is an example of the social domain as well as cognitive domain.
Behavior One Domain One Quote for Typical Development
In this behavior example for the social domain, children in middle childhood, “peers become
increasingly important and they are aware of their classmate’s opinions, judgements and
accomplishments.” (Berger, pg. 395). In addition, “Most children learn in middle childhood how to be a good friend.” (Berger, pg. 396.)
Behavior One Analysis To a Quote for Typical Development
Children, who are new to a school situation, may feel lonely for familiar peers and frightened about fitting in with peers in the new setting. It is typical development for Jayne to miss her old friends as well as want to seek out new friendships. In middle childhood it is important for children to be accepted by their peers as well as to have friendships.
Behavior One Domain Two Quote for Typical Development
This behavior is also an example of cognitive development. “Children want to be liked and they learn faster as well as feel happier when they have friends.” (Berger, pg. 396). In addition, “Social comparison is a consequence of concrete operational thought.” (Berger, pg. 395) Concrete operational thought is Piaget’s term for “the ability to reason logically about direct experience and perceptions.” (Berger, pg. 351)
Behavior One Domain Two Analysis to Quote for Typical Development
By crying and expressing her feelings of missing her friends, Jayne is aware of the importance of having friends. According to the quotes about cognitive development in middle childhood, children who have friends learn faster. It is important then for Jayne to be able to adjust to her new school and be able to feel like she is part of a new social group. In this behavior domain Jayne is also demonstrating concrete operational thought that is characteristic for this age group. This behavior demonstrates that she is aware of what she is missing by not being able to see her old friends and the fact that she does not yet have friends in her new school.

Grading Rubric Description:
Writing Matters: The Writing Standard
Writing is a process. The more you practice the better you get. That means that you should never hand in a first writing as a final draft. Begin by just writing down your ideas freely as they come to you. Then organize them into paragraphs. Introduce your paper with a paragraph explaining what you are addressing. Then build your argument with well-organized paragraphs. Read the paper aloud. This will help you catch many of your mistakes like missing words or awkward incomplete or run on sentences. Check for spelling, capitalization and grammar. If you aren’t sure, use a dictionary or spell check on the computer. Remember that Bunker Hill offers tutorial support at the TASC and the Language Lab. Use these!! The final product must be neat and legible.
Check these areas to assure you are getting as many points for writing as possible.
1. Paper is well organized with seven sections including an introductory paragraph and conclusion as required above. The paragraphs have a heading for the section listed in the outline for the report. Ideas are clearly expressed.
2. Paragraphs hang together cohesively around one or two main points. Each paragraph for the analysis has at least four sentences.
3. Sentences are complete and well structured. Capitalization follows standard rules.
4. Spelling and punctuation is standard.
Process for completing the report
• Use the observation report form with the headings for the report listed above.
• The report should be word processed
• The paper must describe and discuss in detail each part for the sections of the paper as outlined above.
• Write the child observation report using sentences and paragraphs and give as much detail as you are able with the material you have.
• DO NOT COPY MATERIALS FROM ANOTHER SOURCE. This means not from the Internet, from other students, or another writing. This is plagiarism and is a serious academic offense. Use your own words to express your thoughts. You must document your quote from the text properly and any other information that have come from materials beyond the text or lessons. Use a consistent style to cite these sources. (Author Name, page, #) A reference list should be included at the end with complete information about the references. Students must use the course text for some of the quotes.
• When you are finished with your report first PROOF READ the paper at least twice and fix any errors. This is after you have spell checked and grammar check it at least twice. Then consider the grading rubric below to be assured that you have completed the assignment as required.
• You will be able to redraft the papers up to one time if there are difficulties with your writing or the concepts expressed in the papers. Due to the time constraints of the session, students will only be able to rewrite the first report. The edited report should be submitted up to 5 days after the due date. You will be notified after submission if you need to do an edit. The observation notes should be submitted ahead of the child observation report but will then be copied to the end of the child observation report form.
• See the Specific Instructions for what to include in the Behavior and Domain paragraphs with the examples of the behavior, quote about typical development and an analysis of how the child’s behavior compares to the typical development. You will not be able to receive a passing grade if you do not include the quote and analysis for the behaviors in the domains.
This rubric describes how you will be graded. Please use the rubric as a guide in writing your paper. Students must use the Child Observation Report Grading Form for the Report submission.
The point value of each observation report is worth 65 points.
ü The anecdotal notes are submitted and graded for credit and must include objective statements describing the child’s behavior written in complete sentences 15 points
ü The report includes an Introduction that discusses the observation process as well as shares information about the child that is the subject of the observation. 2 points
ü At least 3 examples of behavior observed that describe behaviors from two different developmental domains (3 behaviors @ 2 pts) 6 points
ü A quote(s) from the text/resource specifically relates to the example(s) of behavior that you observed. Documentation must be included for where the quote was found. (6 quotes @ 3 pts each) 18 points
ü A clear and detailed discussion that compares the behavior observed to the developmental patterns quoted. The analysis should be complete so that someone with no child development experience can understand it. (6@ 3 pts) 18 points
ü Summary Closing Paragraph about the Child’s Growth and Development 4 points
ü Resource List that includes specific information about the resources used for the quotes about typical development (i.e. text, author, publisher, date of publication) 2 Points
ü Points will also be taken off for spelling or punctuation. Please edit your report by conducting a spell check prior to passing in the report.

*Note:
Students who include more than the required 6 quotes for typical develop for the behavior domains will receive one extra credit for any additional quote up to 3 points for each observation. One point will be added for each additional quote that relates to the section on the child’s development in the domains being discussed. Quotes that are definitions for domains will not get extra credit. Students who pass in the report late will have 5 points taken from the total number of points. The second observation report will not be accepted for late submission as it is due during the last week of the course. Students will have the opportunity to edit the first observation report if the format has not been used or the student has issues related to the report content or writing.

Complete a 750-1,000-word action plan and supporting rationale based on the following scenario:
Mark is a Hispanic 8th grade student who has been identified as having an emotional/behavioral disorder, specifically Mood Disorder (Not otherwise specified). Currently, he participates in a general education inclusion classroom. During his annual IEP meeting, the team reviewed recent test scores and determined he qualifies
for the gifted program in the area of ELA only. He will continue to participate in the inclusion classroom for the remainder of his courses. He is very successful in all of his inclusion classes. Mrs. Stone, the gifted teacher, was not able to be present during the IEP meeting. She has never worked with a student who has an IEP before. Mark is the only Hispanic student in the gifted class, which tends to make him uncomfortable. He says the teacher does not include him in the classroom conversations and speaks abruptly to him, but not to the other students.
After one month of Mark being in the gifted class, Mrs. Stone has requested that a paraeducator be present to support Mark. The IEP team determined that this was necessary because in order to meet Mark’s needs. After the paraeducator was assigned, the principal did a walk through observation of the gifted classroom and he noticed that Mark was isolated in a corner and the teacher did not interact with him. In addition, the principal received a phone call from Mark’s parents stating Mrs. Stone told Mark, “You do not belong in this class!” Mark no longer wants to be in the class because he does not
feel welcome.
The principal has come to you, the special education teacher, for assistance with supporting Mrs. Stone and Mark in being successful. To assist the principal, create an action plan that includes goals and steps for achieving those goals and reporting progress.
Specifically, the action plan should include one over-arching long-term goal and a minimum of four short-term goals related to the following considerations:
1. Communication and collaboration between teachers of the student, specifying positives in working with the student in their classrooms, as well as challenges that may arise as a result of the complex human issues that interact with the delivery of special education services.
2. Collaborative coaching for the gifted teacher to include research-based instructional strategies and recommendations that acknowledge that diversity is a part of families, cultures, and schools.
3. Collaborative coaching and guidance for the paraeductor with the intention of providing support to the gifted teacher and student.
4. Evaluating the implementation of the action plan activities and reporting back to
administration.
5. Communication strategies to use with the student’s parents that demonstrate elements of effective collaboration.
Next, outline detailed action steps related to each identified goal utilizing the “Action Plan Template.”

PLEASE READ IT FIRST.
Each activity should be consist on atleast 300 words
ACTIVITY 1 :

Choose a film that you have seen recently, and which you particularly enjoyed. Now find a friend or colleague who has seen the same film, and who hated it.
Discuss your views of that particular film. What factors (age, sex, background, education, interest, values and beliefs, political views, past experience) can you identify that explain the differences in perception between you and your friend or colleague?
ACTIVITY 2 :

Visit www.greatplacetowork.co.uk and take a look at the UK’s 50 best places to work, as well as the 100 best workplaces in Europe.
Find out what these companies do to motivate their staff ?
ACTIVITY 3 :
You need to answer three questions of a case study and i dont have that case study so i am going to attach a file in which you will find three questions and their answers,if you can answer those questions according to thier answers BUT in your own words,that will be great.(if you cannot answer these three questions then i can replace this activity with another one)
ACTIVTY 4:

Watch the following video:
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=XKUPDUDOBVo (Ten Leadership Theories in 5 minutes)
Activity:
Answer the following questions:
1. What is the difference between trait and behaviour theories of leadership? are the theories valid?
2.How can organisations select and develop effective leaders? provide 1 example.
ACTIVITY 5 :

Answers the following questions:
1. Identify three to five sustaining innovations that have affected you over the past year.
2. Identify three to five disruptive innovations that have affected you. Did you welcome these innovations because they were Beneficial’s, or did you have cause to complain?

The principles of unity & variety apply to all music, regardless of compositional style or historical period.
Now that you are familiar with the concepts in the first section of the course (Basic Musical Concepts), and you have seen how they work on different pieces of music, try your hand, mouse, and ears at how they operate in a music selection that you may not have heard yet.
Cherry Pink and Apple Blossom White by Louiguy (4:08)
Your analysis should include:
1. The number of different musical ideas in the piece (for example, can we say that there are two ideas A and B? Or is there only one?)
2. The timings (start and stop times) of the different sections of the piece in a single vertical column that also shows the letter or label for the musical idea and the featured instrument along with any accompanying instruments. (Hint: Listen for changes in musical ideas and timbre, for example, points when different instruments come in or give way to others.)
3. How unity and variety are exemplified in those sections through the use of:
a) Dynamics: Where does the music get louder or softer? Is there any apparent reason for those changes?
b) Timbre: Where do instruments take over the melody or a solo passage?
c) Pitch: What is the general pitch level of the piece? Are there wide variations in pitch level?
1. Although there are sections that feature one instrument over others, whether you think this is a piece for a solo performer or for an ensemble
2. A list of the characteristics of the musical style closest to the one this piece exemplifies. (Hint: Look at the last lecture in the first section of the course)
3. Whether you think this piece serves (or could serve) a specific purpose.
4. Whether or not it has any specific connotation(s) for you.
JAZZ/POP SONG FORMS
The classic jazz/pop song form is a 32-bar AABA form with each section lasting 8 bars. “Cherry Pink and Apple Blossom White” is typical of this classic jazz/pop song form. In many cases, the “main theme” corresponds to this AABA form and is then followed by a series of “solo” sections where various instruments take a solo over the harmonic background (chord changes) of the Main Theme. After the solo sections, the Main Theme usually comes back in. Have fun with this assignment which is a bit more upbeat than our other assignments.
Your submission should include a detailed timeline in the form in a single vertical column with the corresponding timings for each section, a label for the musical idea for each of the timings (unless it’s an improvised solo section), and the instrument or instruments that are featured in each section. You will then discuss the aspects of Unity and Variety in two separate paragraphs below the timeline of the form.

The Bible has many verses about money, whether speaking of its importance or the potential for it to detract from our relationship with family, friends, or Him. However, our lives are reliant on the use of money to provide food, shelter, clothing, and other necessities. It is, therefore, imperative that we approach money management from a biblical perspective. Hebrews 13:5 (ESV) states, “Keep your life free from love of money, and be content with what you have, for He has said, ‘I will never leave you nor forsake you.’”
In this Discussion Board, you will start by reading the document entitled “Simplifying the Money Conversation: The 4H Tool” provided in this week’s Assignments folder. Once you have thoroughly reviewed the document, write your Discussion Board Thread based on the following:
• Paragraph 1 – After reading the document, Which one of the 4 elements that Ron Blue presented (Heart, Habits, Health, or Hope) did you identify with most? Why did that particular element stand out to you? Do you see your money habits changing after learning more about biblical money management? This paragraph should be at least 150 words.
• Paragraph 2 – Choose a Bible verse or passage that discusses money other than the one provided above. Then, discuss how that Bible verse or passage relates to the 4Hs that Ron Blue describes. This paragraph should be at least 150 words.

ATI Maternal newborn 2019
1. A nurse is assessing a newborn following a forceps assisted birth. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse identify as a complication of the birth method?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Polycythemia
C. Facial Palsy
D. Bronchopumonary dysplasia
2. A nurse is providing teaching about terbutaline to a client who is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following statement by client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
“The medication could cause me to experience heart paptation”
“This medication could cause me to experience blurred vision”
“This medication could cause me to experience ringing in my ears”
“This medication could cause me to experience frequent …”
3
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse anticipate?
Urine Ketones
Rapid plasma regain
Prothrombin time
Urine culture
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and requests nonpharmacological pain management. Which of the following nursing actions promotes client comfort?
A. Assisting the client into squatting position
B. Having the client lie in a supine position
C. Applying fundal pressure during contractions
D. Encouraging the client to void every 6 hr
6. A nurse caring for a client who is at 20 weeks of gestation and has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Thick, White Vaginal Discharge
B. Urinary Frequency
C. Vulva Lesions
D. Malodorous Discharge
7. A nurse is caring for a client who is 14 weeks of gestation. At which the following locations should the nurse place the Doppler device when assessing the fetal heart rate?
A. Midline 2 to 3 cm (0.8 to 1.2 in) above the symphysis pubis
B. Left Upper Abdomen
C. Two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus
D. Lateral at the Xiphoid Process
8.A nurse is assessing a client who is at 27 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Urine protein concentration 200 mg/ 24 hr
B. Creatnine 0.8 mg/ dL
C. Hemoglobin 14.8 g/ dL
D. Platelet Count 60.000/ mm3
9. A nurse is teaching about clomiphene citrate to a client who is experiencing infertility. Which of the following adverse effect should the nurse include?
A. Tinnitus
B. Urinary Frequency
C. Breast Tenderness
D. Chills
10. A nurse is assessing a newborn upon admission to the nursery. Which of the following should the nurse expect?
A. Bulging Fontanels
B. Nasal Flaring
C. Length from head to heel of 40 cm (15.7 in)
D. Chest circumference 2 cm (0.8 in) smaller than the head circumference
11. A nurse is planning care for a newborn who has neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care.
A. Increase the newborn’s visual stimulation
B. Weigh the newborn every other day
C. Discourage parental interaction until after a social evaluation
D. Swaddle the newborn in a flexed position
12. A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 6 hr old and has a bedside glucometer reading of 65 mg/ dL. The newborn’s mother has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Obtain a blood sample for a serum glucose level
B. Feed the newborn immediately
C. Administer 50 mL of dextrose solution IV
D. Reassess the blood glucose level prior to the next feeding
13. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about exercise safety during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply).
A. “I will limit my time in the hot tub to 30 minutes after exercise.”
B. “I should consume three 8-ounce glasses of water after I exercise.”
C. “I will check my heart rate every 15 minutes during exercise sessions.”
D. “I should limit exercise sessions to 30 minutes when the weather is humid.”
E. “I should rest by lying on my side for 10 minutes following exercise.”
14. A charge nurse is teaching a group of staff nurses about fetal monitoring during labor. Which of the following findings should the charge nurse instruct the staff members to report to the provider?
A. Contraction durations of 95 to 100 seconds
B. Contraction frequency of 2 to 3 min apart
C. Absent early deceleration of fetal heart rate
D. Fetal heart rate is 140/min
15. A nurse in a woman’s health clinic is obtaining a health history from a client. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as increasing the client’s risk for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
A. Recurrent Cystitis
B. Frequent Alcohol Use
C. Use of Oral Contraceptives
D. Chlamydia Infection
16. A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about immunizations that newborns receive following birth. Which of the following immunizations should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Rotavirus
C. Pneumococcal
D. Varicella
17. A nurse is providing nutritional guidance to a client who is pregnant and follows a vegan diet. The client asks the nurse which foods she should eat to ensure adequate calcium intake. The nurse should instruct the client that which of the following foods has the highest amount of calcium?
A. ½ cup cubed avocado
B. 1 large banana
C. 1 medium potato
D. 1 cup cooked broccoli
18. A nurse in a provider’s office is assessing a client at her first antepartum visit. The client states that the first day of her last menstrual period was March 8. Use Nagele’s rule to calculate the estimated date of delivery. (Use the MMDD format with four numerals and no spaces or punctuation.)
19. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the second stage of labor. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
A. The client expels the placenta
B. The client experiences gradual dilation of the cervix
C. The client begins have regular contractions.
D. The client delivers the newborn
20. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation. Which of the following statement by the client requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
A. “It burns when I urinate
B. “My feet are really swollen today”.
C. “I didn’t have lunch today, but I have breakfast this morning”.
21. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a new parent about car seat safety. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. “I should position my baby’s car seat at a 45 degree angle in the car.”
B. “I should place the car seat rear facing until my baby is 12 months old.”
C. “I should place the harness snugly in a slot above my baby’s sholders.”
D. “I should position the retainer clip at the top of my baby’s abdomen.”
22. A nurse is developing an educational program about hermolytic diseases in newborns for a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following genetic information should the nurse include in the program as a cause of hermolytic disease?
A. The mother is Rh positive and the father is Rh negative
B. The mother is Rh negative and the father is Rh positive
C. The mother and the father are both Rh positive
D. The mother and the father are both Rh negative
23. A nurse on an antepartum unit is reviewing the medical records for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A. A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8%
B. A client who has preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/ dL
C. A client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and a sodium level of 110 mEq/L
D. A client who has placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36%
E. “I have been seeing spot this morning”
24. A nurse is assessing a newborn immediately following a vaginal birth. For which of the following findings should the nurse intervene?
a. Molding
b. Vernix Caseosa
c.Acrocyanosis
d.Sternal retractions
25. A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for four clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse notify the provider?
A client who has a urinary output of 300 ml in 8 hr
A client who reports abdominal cramping during breastfeeding
A client who is receiving magnesium sulfate and has absent deep tendon reflexes
A client who reports lochia rubra requiring changing perineal pads every 3 hr
26. A nurse is caring for a client who has active genital herpes simplex virus type 2. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Metronidazole
Penicillin
Acyclovir
Gentamicin
27. A nurse is caring for a client following an amniocentesis. The nurse should observe the client for which of the following complications?
Hyperemesis
Proteinuria
Hypoxia
Hemorrhage
28. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving oxytocin by continuous IV infusion for labor induction. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
Increase the infusion rate every 30 to 60 min.
Maintain the client in a supine position.
Titrate the infusion rate by 4 milliunits/min.
Limit IV intake to 4 L per 24 hr.
29. A nurse is caring for a 2-day-old newborn who was born at 35 weeks of gestation. Which of the following actions should the nurse the nurse takes? (Click on the “Exhibit” Button for additional information about the newborn. There are three tabs that contain separate categories of date.)
Administer nitric oxide inhalation therapy to the newborn
Insert an orogastric decompression tube with low wall suction.
Provide the newborn with an iron-rich formula containing vitamin B12 every 2 hr.
Measure the aadbominal circumference at the level of the newborn’s umbilicus every 2 hr.
30. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin for induction of labor and notes late decelerations of the fetal heart rate on the monitor Tracing. Which of the following action should the nurse take?
Decrease maintenance IV solution infusion rate.
Place the client in lateral position.
Administer misoprostol 25 mcg vaginally
Administer oxygen via face mask at 2 L/min
31. A nurse is planning care for a client who is pregnant and has HIV. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Instruct the client to stop taking the antiretroviral medication at 32 weeks of gestation.
Use a fetal scalp electrode during labor and delivery.
Administer a pneumococcal immunization to the newborn within 4 hr following birth.
Bathe the newborn before initiating skin-to-skin contact
32. A nurse is preparing to administer methylergonovine 0.2 mg orally to a client who is 2 hr postpartum and has a boggy uterus. For which of the following assessment findings should the nurse withhold the medication?
Blood pressure 142/92 mm Hg
Urine output 100 mL in hr
Pulse 58/min
Respiratory rate 14/min
33. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for client who is pregnant. The Nurse should expect which of the following laboratory values to increase?
RBC count
Bilirubin
Fasting blood glucose
Bun
34. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preterm labor and has a prescription for 4 doses of dexamethasone 6 mg IM 12 hr. Available in dexamethasome 10 mg/mL. How mane mL of dexamethasome should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use trailing zero.)
mL.
35. A nurse is caring for four clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate during the prenatal visit?
A. A client who has an ultrasound that confirms a molar pregnancy
B. A client who has a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation
C. A client who has a positive urine pregnancy test 1 week after missed menses
D. A client who has felt quickening for the first time
36. A nurse is planning care for a full-term newborn who is receiving phototherapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A. Dress the newborn in lightweight clothing.
B. Avoid using lotion or ointment on the newborn skin.
C. Keep the newborn supine throughout treatment
D. Measure the newborn’s temperature every 8hr
37. A nurse is receiving laboratory results for a term newborn who is 24 hr old. Which of the following results require intervention by the nurse?
A. WBC count 10,000/mm3
B. Platelets 180,000/mm3
C. Hemoglobin 20g/dL
D. Glucose 20 mg/dL
38. A nurse is assessing a client following an amniocentesis. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as complications? ( select all that apply).
A. Amnionitis
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Polyhydramnios
D. Leakage of amniotic fluid
E. Preterm labor
39. A nurse on a labor and delivery unit is receiving infection control standards with a newly licensed nurse. The nurse should instruct the newly licensed nurse to don gloves for which of the following procedures?
A. Assisting a mother with breastfeeding
B. Performing a newborn’s initial bath
C. Administering the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine
D. Performing umbilical cord care
40. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has mild preeclampsia and will be caring for herself at home during the last 2months of pregnancy . This of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching.
A. “I will count baby’s lacks every other day.
B. “I will alternate the arm use to check my blood pressure.
D. I will consume 50 grams of protein daily
41. A nurse is caring for four newborns. Which of the following newborns should the nurse assess first?
A. newborn who has nasal flaring
B. newborn who has subconjunctival hemorrhage of the left ey
C. A newborn who has overlapping suture lines
D. A newborn who has not rust-stained urine
42. A nurse is reviewing the electronic medical record of a postpartum client. The nurse should identify that which of the following factors paces the client at risk for infection.
A. Meconium – start fluid
B. placenta previa
C. Midline episiotomy
D. Gestational hypertension
43. A nurse is caring for a client who is 4hr postpartum and is experiencing hypovolemic shock. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Administer indomethacin
B. Insert a second using a 22 gauge IV catheter,
C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
D. Administer oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula.
44. A nurse is teaching a client who is 28 weeks of gestation and not up-to date on current immunization. Which of the following immunizations should the nurse inform the client to anticipate receiving following birth.
A. Pneumococcal
B. Hepatitis
C. Human papillomavirus
D. Rubella
45. A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 24 hr old. Which of the following Laboratory findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Hgb 20 g/dL
B. Bilirubin 2mg/dL
C. Platelets 200 .000/mm3
WBC count 32.000/mm3
46. A nurse is caring for newborn who is 1 hr old and has a respiratory rate of 50/min, a heart rate of 130/min, and an auxiliary temperature of 36.1*C (97F). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Give the newborn a warm bath.
B. Apply a cap to the newborn head.
C. Reposition the newborn.
D. Obtain an oxygen saturation level
47. A nurse is planning care for a newborn who is scheduled to start phototherapy using a lamp. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?
A. Apply a thin layer of lotion to the newborn skin every 8 hrs.
B. Give the newborn 1oz of glucose water every 4 hrs
C. Ensure the newborn eyes are closed beneath the shield.
D. Dress the newborn in a thin layer of clothing during therapy
48. A nurse is caring for a client following a vaginal delivery of a term fetal demise. Which of the following statement should the nurse make?
A. “You can bathe and dress your baby if you’d like to.”
B. “If you don’t hold the baby it will make letting go much harder.”
C. “You should name the baby so she can have an identity.”
D. “I’m sure you will be able to have another baby when you’re ready.”
49. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has a prescription to receive misoprostol intravaginally. Which of the following statement should the nurse make?
A. “you will need to stay in a side-lying position for 30 minutes after each dose.”
B. “You will receive an IV infusion of oxytocin 1 hour after your last dose.”
C.” You will receive a magnesium supplement immediately following therapy.”
D.” You will need to have a full bladder before the therapy begins.”
50. A nurse is assessing a newborn who was born Postterm. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Nails extending over tips of fingers
B. Large deposits of subcutaneous fat
C. Pale, translucent skin
D. Thin covering of fine hair on shoulders and back
51. A nurse is planning to teach a group of clients who are about breastfeeding after returning to work .Which of the following infection should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. “Thawed breast milk can be refrigerated for up to 72 hours.”
B. “Breast milk can be stored in a deep freezer for 12 months.”
C. Breast milk can be stored at room temperature for up to 12 hours.”
D. “Thawed breast milk that is unused can be refrozen.”
52. A nurse on postpartum unit caring for four clients. Which of the following clients should receive Rh,(D) Immune globulin to prevent Rh- is immunization?
A. An Rh negative mother who has an Rh- positive infant
B. An Rh –positive mother who has an Rh- negative infant
C. An Rh-positive mother who has an Rh- positive infant
D. An Rh- negative mother who has an Rh- negative infant
53. A nurse is caring for an infant who has signs of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Provide a stimulating environment
B. Monitor blood glucose level every hr.
C. Intiate seizure precautions.
D. Place the infants on his back with legs extended.
54. A nurse is reviewing signs of effective breathing with a client who is 5 days postpartum. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. “You should feel a tugging sensation when the baby is sucking.
B. You should expect your baby to have two to three wet diapers in 24hour period
C. “Your baby’s urine should appear dark and concentrated”.
D. “Your breast should stay firm after the baby breastfeeds”.
55. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 41 weeks of gestation about a non stress test. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. “This test will confirm fetal lung maturity “.
B. “This test will determine adequacy of placental perfusion”.
C. “This test will detect fetal infection”.
D. “This test will predict maternal readiness for labor”.
56. A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is assessing four clients. Which of the following clients is a candidate for an induction of labor with misoprostol?
A. A client who has active genital herpes
B. A client who has gestational diabetes mellitus
C. A client who has a previous uterine incision
D. A client who has placenta previa
57. A nurse is monitoring a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse reports to the provider?
A. Blood pressure 148/94mm Hg
B. Respiratory rate 14mm
C. Urinary output 20 mL/hr
D. 2+deep tendon reflexes
58. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the transition phase of labor and reports a pain level of 7 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Instruct the client to use effleurage
B. Apply counter pressure to the client sacral.
C. Assist the client with patterned-paced breathing.
D. Teach the client the technique of biofeedback.
59. A nurse is caring for newborn immediately following birth and notes a large amount of mucus in the newborn’s mouth and nose. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow when performing suction with a bulb syringe. (Move the streps into the box on the placing them in the selected order of performance. Use all the streps.)
Assess the newborn for reflex bradycardia.
Compress the bulb syringe
Place the bulb syringe in the newborn’s mouth.
Use the bulb syringe to suction the newborn’s nose.
60. A community health nurse is providing education on gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) to a group of clients who are pregnant when discussing risk factors, which of the following ethnicities should the nurse identify as having the lowest incidence of GDM?
A. Asian
B. Non-Hispanic White American
C. Hispanic
D. African American
61. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation. Which of the following statement by the client requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
A. “It burns when I urinate
B. “My feet are really swollen today”.
C. “I didn’t have lunch today, but I have breakfast this morning”.
D. “I have been seeing spot this morning”
62. A nurse is providing teaching about expected changes during pregnancy to a client who is at 24 weeks of gestation. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
A. “Your stomach will empty rapidly”
B. “You should expect your uterus to double in size”
C. “You should anticipate nasal stuffiness.”
D. “Your nipples will become lighter in color”.
63. A nurse is teaching a prenatal class regarding false labor. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
A. “your contraction will become more intense when walking”
B. “you will have dilation and effacement of the cervix”
C. You will have bloody show”
D. “Your contraction will become temporally regular”
64. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an epidural block with an opioid analgesic. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
A. Hypnosis
B. Polyuria
C. Bilateral crackles
Hyperglycemia
65. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving prenatal care and is at her 24-week appointment. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plans to conduct?
A. Group B strep culture
B.1-hr glucose tolerance test
c. Rubella titer
D. Blood type and Rh
66. A nurse is caring for a client who has bacterial vaginosis. Which of the following medication should the nurse expect to administer?
A. Metronidale
B. Fluconazole
C. Acyclovir
67. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing sore nipples from breastfeeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Place a snug dressing on the client’s nipple when not breastfeeding.
B.Eusure the newborn’s mouth is wide open before latching to the breast.
C. Encourage t
D. Instruct the client to begin the feeding with the nipple that is most tender.
68. A nurse is assessing a preterm newborn who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following finding should the nurse expect?
A. Minimal arm recoil
B. Popliteal angle of less than 90
C. Creases over the entire sole
D. Sparse lanugo
69. A nurse on a labor and delivery unit is providing teaching to a client who plans to use hypnosis to control labor pain. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
A. Focusing on controlling body functions
B. “Synchronized breathing will be required during hypnosis”
C. “Hypnosis can be beneficial in you practiced it during the prenatal period”
D. “Hypnosis does not work for controlling pain associated with labor”.

The primary goal of your last assignment is to reflect on what you have learned about yourself as a result of this class and how you will use this knowledge to succeed in future courses. Reflecting on your thoughts, feelings, and actions and making appropriate connections will help you plan for your future success.
Review the Model Essay document in the online classroom. Use the sample as a guide to complete your own. Then, in a five-paragraph essay that is three to four pages in length, address the following:
• Paragraph 1: Learning at the college level involves accumulating experiences, growing through feedback, exchanging ideas, and revisiting learning challenges. How can awareness of your Learning Patterns, skills, and experiences help you be competitive in your chosen career?
• Paragraph 2: In Week 1, you explored the concept of mindset. In the Week 5 Instructor Guidance, this concept was revisited as you explored how it can be applied outside an academic setting. What does it mean for you to have a growth mindset? Aside from being a student, consider other roles that you have (parent, employee, manager, etc.) and choose one. How can having a growth mindset help you further develop and positively impact others in the role you chose?
• Paragraph 3: Thinking, reading and writing critically are essential skills that contribute to academic, personal, and professional success. For this paragraph, choose either critical reading or critical writing and address the following – Identify two specific strategies to enhance your critical reading skills OR your critical writing skills. Select strategies presented in Chapter 4 and explain how you will apply each of the strategies both in and outside the classroom. Finally, describe how academic integrity is supported by critical thinking, critical reading, and critical writing.
• Paragraph 4: Metacognition refers to your internal talk or, as Vygotsky described it, “learning to direct one’s own mental processes with the aid of words.” Throughout this course, you have engaged in a metacognitive forum that challenged you to think about how you processed the learning from the previous week. Describe how you approached the metacognitive forums. How did your approach change from week to week? How was value added to your learning process by participating in the metacognitive forums? Explain how continuing to complete these reflective sentence starters can enrich your learning.
• Paragraph 5: Reflect on the past five weeks. What were your expectations when you began this course? Were they met? Why or why not. If you could change one thing about this course, what would it be? Considering the course content, online learning platform, and interactions with your peers and instructor, what advice would you give to someone who is just starting this course to maximize their learning experience?
This assignment must be double spaced, written in Times New Roman 12-pt. font, and submitted to Waypoint as a Microsoft Word document.

In this transcription assignment, you will demonstrate your ability to apply advanced counseling skills, theory, and critical analysis. After conducting the video recording for observation 2, select a 15-minute segment of that session to transcribe for this assignment. This segment can be one that you find critical or necessary to analyze for your growth as a counselor-in training. Please transcribe verbatim (continuous) in the template provided. Include 1) Verbatim transcription of a 15-minute video for observation #2, 2) analyze each column for skills and competencies, 3) analysis of critical thinking, and 4) evaluation of responses
100 points.
You must watch the counseling video that was recorded with the student in order to complete this assignment. The 13 year old student is always getting in trouble with her mother for breaking the house rules. Her mother expects her to act older and be more responsible. She occasionally gets angry and punches her pillows.
PLEASE, PLEASE, PLEASE READ AND FOLLOW THE INSTRUCTIONS THOROUGHLY! I’M NOT ACCEPTING ANYMORE INCOMPLETE ASSIGNMENTS BECAUSE THE INSTRUCTIONS WERE NOT READ AND FOLLOWED. I AM NOT ADJUSTING THE DUE DATE! I HAVE ATTACHED THE FORMAT THAT SHOULD BE FOLLOWED WITH DETAILED INSTRUCTIONS.

Mark 8:29 Worksheet
Name:
Course:
Date:
Instructor:
Please address each question below with complete sentences and clear, specific explanation. The total word count (including all questions and answers combined) should be between 900-1400 words. For questions one and two, use a total of one to three resources, in addition to the Bible. Include sources in the reference list at the end of the assignment. If you have your own Bible commentary, you may use that, or use the sources in the “Other Biblical Sources on the Internet” found in the topic materials.
Sample citation:
Keener, C. S. (n.d.). IVP New Testament Commentary Series: Matthew. Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press. Retrieved from https://www.biblegateway.com/resources/ivp-nt/toc/
1. Select one teaching of Jesus from one of the following Bible verses (underline the passage chosen): Matthew 5:21-24; Matthew 5:43-48; Matthew 6:19-24; Matthew 7:15-23; Luke 15:1-32; John 13:1-17, 34-35; John 15:1-11. Answer the following questions:
a. What was Jesus’ point in the teaching?
b. What sort of relevance does this teaching have for other worldviews?
c. What does this teaching reveal about Jesus?
2. Identify at least one claim that Jesus made about his nature and/or the purpose of his ministry (such as in Matthew 9:1-8; Matt 9:9-13; Luke 7:18-23; John 5:16-18; John 10:25-38; or John 14:5-11). Underline the passage chosen. What is the significance of this claim?
3. How would you personally answer Jesus’ question, “But who do you say that I am?” (Mark 8:29 ESV). Describe your own beliefs about Jesus.

As the book explains, “Vincent, Cari, and Duane all lack an understanding of how to be mindful, intentional learners. …they are not headed for success, because they lack a personalized set of study strategies. Each [student] requires skills to turn their internal thoughts (metacognition) into external actions (personalized learning techniques).” For this journal, you will explain what they could have done to be successful and identify personalized learning techniques to be more intentional learners. You will also identify personal learning techniques to help you be a more intentional learner.
To prepare for this journal, return to Chapter 3 and review Sections 3.1 and 3.4, paying careful attention to Tables 3.10-3.12. Then, download the Personal Learning Strategies Journal Reflection template and respond to each section. Save the completed template to your computer and upload it to Waypoint. Be sure to double check that it was properly saved and uploaded successfully.
Submit your work below using Waypoint and verify your submission was successful.
Late Policy: Waypoint assignments are due on the specified days in the course. Waypoint assignments will be subject to a late penalty of up to 10% per day up to three days late. If Waypoint assignments are submitted after 72 hours past the due date, instructors can give a penalty up to and including a grade of 0 for the assignment.
Carefully review the Grading Rubric (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. for the criteria that will be used to evaluate your assignment.

Part 1
1.How did you score on the assessment, and what was your initial reaction to your score and interpretation?

2.Remember that even excellent leaders have room for improvement. Consider two areas you scored low on and research ways to help you grow in those areas. What can you do to improve your score?

3.Think of someone you consider to be an excellent leader. What characteristics does this person possess that cause you to perceive him or her as an excellent leader? Does your definition of what makes this person a good leader coincide with the characteristics presented to you in Unit 1?

Part 2
You are an up and coming leader in your organization. You have worked hard for years and are well-liked by management because you are dedicated and trustworthy. Recently, you were privy to a confidential meeting where the CEO announced that layoffs are likely to happen within the next 4 months. One of the names on the list is your longtime friend and subordinate, Sarah. You have maintained the confidentiality of the meeting for over a month now, but Sarah has just confided in you that she and her husband are considering buying a much larger house with a much higher house payment. You know that Sarah’s income will be imperative to this purchase.

1. What do you do?
2. Is the decision about whether to tell Sarah about the impending layoffs an ethical one? If so, in what ways?
3. Is it ever ok to lie to an employee? What factors go into this decision-making process?

BUSINESS INTEGRATION AND STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT
BUSINESS INTEGRATION AND STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT
1. A firm has many goals and a set of _____ that shape the achievement of the goals.
\
2. The difference between goals and objectives is that goals are ____ and objectives are ____.
3. The five stage strategic management process is comprised of mission and vision, objectives, strategy formulation, _____, and _____.
4. Cinnabon and Kopi Luwak are examples of a _____ strategy.
5. Checkers Drive In and Redbox are examples of a _____ strategy.
6. Strategic leadership is about _____ in the process of exploiting opportunities.
7. Ken Olson of DEC failed to _____ the change occurring in the industry, focused too much on engineering precision, and brought about the downfall of the company.
8. Organizational change is any ____ that requires a change in ____ .
9. Strategic leaders can mitigate people-oriented resistance to change by ____.
10. Leaders can mitigate take-oriented resistance to change by aligning _____.
11. Segmentation is the process of dividing a _____ market into _____ clusters, each of which have some common characteristics.
12. Positioning maps show ____ of brands versus competing brands on important buying decisions.
13. Which of the following is most likely to lead to customer loyalty?
Reducing the effort required by customers
14. Service quality is characterized by intangibility, heterogeneity, and _____.
15. Service quality is a comparison between ____ and ____.
16. The three key elements of enterprise performance management are ______, processes, and people.
17. A low performance orientation with low psychological safety leads to _____.
18. A low performance orientation with high psychological safety leads to _____.
Complacency
19. A strategy map outlines the _____ along each of the four dimensions of the balanced scorecard.
20. Supply Chain Management flows are comprised of product or service flows, data and information flows, and ____.
21. The three step continuous improvement methodology is comprised of Assess, ____, and ____.
22. The Japanese Method of continuous improvement is called ____.
23. At the heart of the Six Sigma is the ____ process.
24. DMAIC is an acronym for Define, Measure, Analyze, ____, and _____.
25. The focus of Lean is a bias for ____ while the focus of Six Sigma is a bias for ____.
26. Inbound logistics is sometimes synonymously used with _____.
27. Operations refers to the transformation process of converting ____ into _____.
28. In terms of value chain integration, leadership provides the mission, vision, _____, and _____.
29. In terms of the value chain concept, the ultimate differentiator is ______.
Service
30. Firms following a differentiation strategy need to focus on ______.
Innovation and marketing
31. _____ is a support activity of the value chain.
Procurement
32. While evaluating alternatives, one needs to look at whether the proposed course of action is legal, ethical, ____, and _____.
33. Organizations are generally good at strategy_____ but fail at strategy ____.
Formulation; implementation
34. According to Ansoff, a firm that introduces new products into new markets is engaged in____.
Diversification
35. Suppose INTEL acquires its competitor AMD. This would be an example of _____.
Horizontal integration
36. Return on investment in the realm of quality denotes the ratio of ____ to ____ resulting from the improvement initiatives.
37. The three major perspectives along which segmentation is carried out are demographic, ____ and _____.
38. People resist change due to several factors. One of the factors is the perception that change _____.
39. An adaptive strategic leader combines resoluteness with _____.
Flexibility
40. APPLE having their showrooms and retail outlets with experts to help customers is an example of______.
41. Helpful techniques to define a problem are flow charts to depict the process and ____ to identify the root cause.
42. The ultimate goal of an organization is to _____ and _____ value its customers.
Create; provide
43. ______ and the willingness to share information in time is a critical success factor in business.
44. ______ is a primary activity of the value chain.
45. ______ leadership is about positively impacting others through clear vision, stretch goals, personal example, humility, and intellectual stimulation.
46. The components of the PDCA cycle are ______, ______, _______, and ______.
47. The concepts of supply chain management and ______ go together.
Just in time
48. Givenchy and Rolex are examples of a _______ strategy.
49. Competitive rivalry is high in industries with a ____ number of ______ players.
50. Lean processes focus on ______ and support Six Sigma processes.
51. A performance orientated system embedded in an organizational culture of ______ leads to a learning environment.
52. Quality can be considered to be the ______ at the start of use of a product or service.
53. A copper producing company acquiring copper ore mines to ensure a steady supply of raw materials is pursuing a _____ strategy.
54. By focusing on cost drivers, Activity Based Costing isolates activities that_____.
55. Optimizing an enterprise’s strategic value is dependent on the _____ between various levels and across domains.
56. Strategic leaders challenge the _____.
57. Firms such as eBay and Tophatter offer a ______ value proposition.
58. Performance management provides the ______ and ______ integration of different elements that make up an organization.
59. Who are an organization’s internal customers?
Employees whose work is impacted by or dependent on the work of others in the organization.
60. To be instruments for purposeful change, strategy maps should be part of _____.
61. The Balanced Scorecard Links organizational vision and strategy to financial, internal process, organizational capacity and ______.
62. The firm attempts to achieve its goal through a combination of resources and _____.
63. A compelling unique value or unique selling proposition is the building block of _____.
64. _______ refers to the state of a product or service after an interval of time.
65. The ability to manufacture a small number of units without increasing costs is a feature of _______.
66. Southwest Airlines has consistently followed a ______ strategy.
67. A(n) _______ is a set of integrated parts or processes working towards a common objective.
68. Strategic leaders can prepare people for change through _______.
69. If we remove all technicalities, performance management is all about _____.
70. Today’s competitive environment is characterized by rapid change, _____, and ambiguity.
71. When leaders are unable to achieve competitive advantage through either cost leadership or differentiation, the organization _____.
72. A fearless analysis of organizational failures – What happened? What should have happened? Where did we go wrong? – leads to ______.
73. Abell’s framework provides a valuable understanding of the _____, ______, and _____ of business.
74. Quality reduces waste and network thereby reducing costs. A perception of superior quality allows the firm a _____ price relative to its competitors.

IEP Goals Sample
Elementary Individualized Education Program (IEP)
Measureable Annual Goals, Progress Report
Directions: Use this sample as a guide for all of the key elements of a correctly written goal. This sample will help you with the IEP Goals assignment and the Final IEP assignment. This sample should not be replicated within your IEP Goals assignment or Final IEP assignment.

1. MEASURABLE ANNUAL GOAL:

GOAL: By the next annual review [remember this is a full calendar year], when given a reading at the 2nd grade level [always be specific about the grade/level of words/reading/problem], Elli [always include the student’s name] will correctly answer 80% [include the percentage of accuracy] or higher on an assessment of reading comprehension in 4 of 5 trials [always include the number of trials, as one assessment can look very different from an average of assessments].

Write the SOL number related to this goal: Refer to the English Standards of Learning

How will progress toward these annual goals be measured? (Check all that apply)

____ Classroom Participation
____ Checklist
____ Class work
____ Homework
____ Observation
____ Special Projects
____ Tests and Quizzes
____ Written Reports
____ Criterion-referenced test:_____________________
____ Norm-referenced test: _______________________
____Other:____________________________________

2. MEASURABLE ANNUAL GOAL:

GOAL:

Write the SOL number related to this goal:

How will progress toward these annual goals be measured? (Check all that apply)

____ Classroom Participation
____ Checklist
____ Class work
____ Homework
____ Observation
____ Special Projects
____ Tests and Quizzes
____ Written Reports
____ Criterion-referenced test:_____________________
____ Norm-referenced test: _______________________
____Other:____________________________________

3. MEASURABLE ANNUAL GOAL:

GOAL:

Write the SOL number related to this goal:

How will progress toward these annual goals be measured? (Check all that apply)

____ Classroom Participation
____ Checklist
____ Class work
____ Homework
____ Observation
____ Special Projects
____ Tests and Quizzes
____ Written Reports
____ Criterion-referenced test:_____________________
____ Norm-referenced test: _______________________
____Other:____________________________________
English Standards of Learning for Virginia Public Schools – January 2010 Grade Two Reading continues to be a priority in second grade. The student will be immersed in an environment filled with fiction and nonfiction texts, which relate to all areas of the curriculum and interest. The student will expand vocabulary by speaking and listening effectively in classroom discussions, use a combination of strategies when reading, and read familiar selections with fluency and expression. The student will learn comprehension strategies for fiction and nonfiction texts. The student will be asked to identify main ideas, to make and confirm predictions, and to formulate questions about learning in all subjects, with emphasis on materials that reflect the Standards of Learning in mathematics, science, and history and social science. The student will write stories, letters, and simple explanations; apply simple grammatical principles to writing; and locate information in reference materials. Oral Language 2.1 The student will demonstrate an understanding of oral language structure. a) Create oral stories to share with others. b) Create and participate in oral dramatic activities. c) Use correct verb tenses in oral communication. d) Use increasingly complex sentence structures in oral communication. e) Begin to self-correct errors in language use. 2.2 The student will expand understanding and use of word meanings. a) Increase listening and speaking vocabularies. b) Use words that reflect a growing range of interests and knowledge. c) Clarify and explain words and ideas orally. d) Identify and use synonyms and antonyms. e) Use vocabulary from other content areas. 2.3 The student will use oral communication skills. a) Use oral language for different purposes: to inform, to persuade, to entertain, to clarify, and to respond. b) Share stories or information orally with an audience. c) Participate as a contributor and leader in a group. d) Retell information shared by others. e) Follow three- and four-step directions. f) Give three- and four-step directions. 2.4 The student will orally identify, produce, and manipulate various units of speech sounds within words. a) Count phonemes (sounds) within one-syllable words. b) Blend sounds to make one-syllable words. c) Segment one-syllable words into individual speech sounds (phonemes). d) Add or delete phonemes (sounds) to make words. e) Blend and segment multisyllabic words at the syllable level. 1 English Standards of Learning for Virginia Public Schools – January 2010 Reading 2.5 The student will use phonetic strategies when reading and spelling. a) Use knowledge of consonants, consonant blends, and consonant digraphs to decode and spell words. b) Use knowledge of short, long, and r-controlled vowel patterns to decode and spell words. c) Decode regular multisyllabic words. 2.6 The student will use semantic clues and syntax to expand vocabulary when reading. a) Use information in the story to read words. b) Use knowledge of sentence structure. c) Use knowledge of story structure and sequence. d) Reread and self-correct. 2.7 The student will expand vocabulary when reading. a) Use knowledge of homophones. b) Use knowledge of prefixes and suffixes. c) Use knowledge of antonyms and synonyms. d) Discuss meanings of words and develop vocabulary by listening and reading a variety of texts. e) Use vocabulary from other content areas. 2.8 The student will read and demonstrate comprehension of fictional texts. a) Make and confirm predictions. b) Relate previous experiences to the main idea. c) Ask and answer questions about what is read. d) Locate information to answer questions. e) Describe characters, setting, and important events in fiction and poetry. f) Identify the problem and solution. g) Identify the main idea. h) Summarize stories and events with beginning, middle, and end in the correct sequence. i) Draw conclusions based on the text. j) Read and reread familiar stories, poems, and passages with fluency, accuracy, and meaningful expression. 2.9 The student will read and demonstrate comprehension of nonfiction texts. a) Preview the selection using text features. b) Make and confirm predictions about the main idea. c) Use prior and background knowledge as context for new learning. d) Set purpose for reading. e) Ask and answer questions about what is read. f) Locate information to answer questions. g) Identify the main idea. h) Read and reread familiar passages with fluency, accuracy, and meaningful expression. 2 English Standards of Learning for Virginia Public Schools – January 2010 2.10 The student will demonstrate comprehension of information in reference materials. a) Use table of contents. b) Use pictures, captions, and charts. c) Use dictionaries, glossaries, and indices. d) Use online resources. Writing 2.11 The student will maintain legible printing and begin to make the transition to cursive. 2.12 The student will write stories, letters, and simple explanations. a) Generate ideas before writing. b) Organize writing to include a beginning, middle, and end for narrative and expository writing. c) Expand writing to include descriptive detail. d) Revise writing for clarity. 2.13 The student will edit writing for correct grammar, capitalization, punctuation, and spelling. a) Recognize and use complete sentences. b) Use and punctuate declarative, interrogative, and exclamatory sentences. c) Capitalize all proper nouns and the word I. d) Use singular and plural nouns and pronouns. e) Use apostrophes in contractions and possessives. f) Use contractions and singular possessives. g) Use knowledge of simple abbreviations. h) Use correct spelling for commonly used sight words, including compound words and regular plurals. i) Use commas in the salutation and closing of a letter. j) Use verbs and adjectives correctly in sentences. 2.14 The student will use available technology for reading and writing.

Present Level of Academic Achievement and Functional Performance (PLAAFP)
The Present Level of Academic Achievement and Functional Performance summarizes the results of assessments that identify the student’s interests, preferences, strengths, and areas of need. It also describes the effect of the student’s disability on his/her involvement and progress in the general education curriculum, and for preschool children, as appropriate, how the disability affects the student’s participation in appropriate activities. This includes the student’s performance and achievement in academic areas such as writing, reading, math, science, and history/social sciences. It also includes the student’s performance in functional areas, such as self-determination, social competence, communication, behavior, and personal management. Test scores, if included, should be self-explanatory or an explanation should be included, and the Present Level of Academic Achievement and Functional Performance should be written in objective, measurable terms, to the extent possible. There should be a direct relationship among the desired goals, the Present Level of Academic Achievement and Functional Performance, and all other components of the IEP.
Student’s Strengths, Preferences, and Interests
Elli Smith is an 8-year-old girl currently in the 2nd grade. Elli was found eligible for service for Specific Learning Disability. Elli also has asthma and needs access to her inhaler, as well as regular check-ins with the school nurse.
According to the psychological evaluation, Elli demonstrates an overall ability in the average range. She demonstrates substantially less developed long-term retrieval associative memory and auditory processing, specifically phonemic awareness. These relative weaknesses coupled with difficulties in the aspect of auditory processing, such as phonemic awareness, which is the understanding of the smallest units of sound (phonemes), might make the acquisition of reading difficult. Also, the spelling of unfamiliar words might also prove to be a challenging task. Elli’s social functioning, as assessed through rating scales, teacher interviews, and direct observation appears to be a challenging area. According to achievement assessment, Elli demonstrates average oral language skills, mathematics and written expression in the low average range with significant deficient range. Teacher reports indicate that Elli demonstrates an independent reading level of pre-primer 1. Her auditory comprehension is very good, but her word attack is very poor. She has received PALS remediation and Title I supports for reading for a period of 6 months and has made very minimal progress despite supplemental instruction interventions targeting her identified areas of deficit.
Student’s Areas of Need (Deficits that Require Supports)
Elli’s areas of need resulting from her disability related deficits include:
Decoding
Reading
Spelling
Written language
Prolonged or moderate/heavy physical activity (Asthma)
Effect of Disability on Student
Elli demonstrates substantially less developed long-term retrieval, associative memory, and auditory processing, specifically phonemic awareness. These relative weaknesses coupled with difficulties in aspects of auditory processing, such as phonemic awareness, which is the understanding of the smallest units of sound (phonemes), makes the acquisition of reading difficult as well as the spelling of unfamiliar words.
Academic Performance
Wechsler Individual Achievement Test – Third Edition (WIAT–III)
Subtests with age-based scores:
Listening Comprehension 90, Early Reading Skills 92, Reading Comprehension 79
Math Problem Solving 80, Alphabet Writing Fluency 96, Sentence Composition 90
Word Reading 72, Pseudoword Decoding 77, Numerical Operations 93
Oral Expression 95, Oral Reading Fluency 63, Spelling 80, Math Fluency – Addition 83, Math Fluency – Subtraction 89, Oral Reading Accuracy 61
Oral Reading Rate 78,
Listening Comprehension
Receptive Vocabulary 81 Below Average
Oral Discourse Comprehension 103 Average
Sentence Composition
Sentence Combing 98 Average, Sentence Building 84 Below Average
Oral Expression
Expressive Vocabulary 85 Average, Oral Word Fluency 107 Average
Sentence Repetition 97 Average, Oral Language 91 Average
Total Reading 69 Low, Basic Reading 75 Below Average
Written Expression 85 Average
Mathematics 85 Average, Math Fluency 86 Average
Total Achievement 82 Below Average
Teacher Educational Information
Reading instructional level (1st); independent level (Readiness); Elli’s comprehension is good as long as it is tested orally. She can recall story elements and information when the story is read to her. Her word attack skills are extremely limited. She knows sounds when they are isolated but has difficulty putting the sounds together. Her retention of words (sight words) is very weak. She is currently receiving Title 1 and Pals Remediation, but she has made very little growth. Language instructional level (below grade level); She has memorized certain sentence structures and adapts it to the current topic. Elli is an excellent speller, but she cannot read the words she is spelling. She memorizes the spelling features. Math: She is very good at adding and subtracting and has caught on well to the strategies she has been taught. She does a great job deciding which operation should be used and then working out a word problem. Social Studies and Science: Elli does very well in both classes. Movement Ed.: She follows directions and does all activities; seems to get along with everyone during class and seems to enjoy PE. She does need access to her inhaler during PE and recess, as well as regular check-ins with the school nurse. She appears to love Art and Library and works well with other students.

*subject: HCM520: Quality and Performance Improvement in Healthcare
*Homework: Critical thickening
*Note: 1-attached book and articles required to read ,2- Need the plagiarism below 18%
Required:
• Chapters 16 & 17 in The Healthcare Quality Book: Vision, Strategy, and Tools
• Chapter 20 in Patient Safety and Healthcare Improvement at a Glance
• Bishop, A. C., & Cregan, B. R. (2015). Patient safety culture: Finding meaning in patient experiences. International Journal of HealthCare Quality Assurance, 28(6), 595-610.
• Webair, H. H., Al-assani, S. S., Al-haddad, R. H., Al-Shaeeb, W. H., Bin Selm, M. A, & Alyamani, A. S. (2015). Assessment of patient safety culture in primary care setting, Al-Mukala, Yemen. BMC Family Practice, 16, 1-9.
• ===========================================Assignment :Implementing Quality as the Core Organizational Strategy
Case Study: Ministry of Health (MOH) Vision and Strategy (100 points)
For this assignment, you will write a research paper exploring the Ministry of Health’s vision and strategy to improve healthcare delivery for all citizens throughout the Kingdom.
Choose three out of the four topics below:
o Interoperable electronic health records,
o Equitable care standards,
o Quality and performance standards, or
o Governance and accountability.
o For each selected topic:
o Provide an overview of the MOH vision and strategy for that topic.
o Explain the importance of the topic and how it will improve healthcare quality and safety in Saudi Arabia.
o Your well-written paper should meet the following requirements:
o Four to five pages in length, not including the cover or reference pages.
o Formatted per APA and Saudi Electronic University standards.
o Provide support for your work with in-text citations from a minimum of four scholarly articles. Two of these sources may be from the class readings, textbook, or lectures, but two must be external. The Saudi Digital Library is a good place to find these references.
o Provide full APA references for the sources used, along with appropriate in-text citations.
o Utilize headings to organize the content in your work.

The purpose of this research project is for you to write a professional, graduate-level research paper in current APA format.

You will research and write a paper analyzing the cultural perspectives of doing business in another nation. (Italy)

After reading your paper, the reader should be able to comprehensively answer the following research questions. Thus, the research questions form the major aspects (APA Level 1 headings) of your outline.
-What are the major elements and dimensions of culture in this region? (See Chapter 2 of the textbook for a list of the required dimensions.)
-How are these elements and dimensions integrated by locals conducting business in the nation?
-How do both of the above items compare with US culture and business?
-What are the implications for US businesses that wish to conduct business in that region?

Important Points to Consider
This paper must be written in strict conformance to current APA format, and contain a minimum of 24 pages of content (first nine pages have been provided) (excluding the title page, abstract, and references) utilizing at least 24 references from reputable professional and/or scholarly journals and/or informational venues that deal with the content of the course (i.e., not blogs, Wikipedia, newspapers, etc.).
-Use the following as the exact title of your paper, Global Business Cultural Analysis: (insert nation selected)
-The paper must consist of only 4 sections, as indicated above. Do not add sections, or revise the research questions.
-Three levels of current APA headings must be used throughout the paper, as this is a graduate-level research paper.

PLEASE FOLLOW INSTRUCTIONS…READ ALL INSTRUCTION….COMPLETE EXCEL SPREAD SHEET THAT I HAVE UP LOADED….MUST BE DONE IN 5HRS….ALL ORGINAL WORK…
Part 1
Three hundred consumers between 21 and 49 years old were randomly selected. After sampling a new wine cooler, each was asked to rate the appeal of the phrase: “Not sweet like wine coolers, not filling like beer, and more refreshing than wine or mixed drinks” as it relates to the new wine cooler. The rating was made on a scale from 1 to 5, with 5 representing “extremely appealing” and with 1 representing “not at all appealing”.
As a manager overseeing the development of the concept, you bottle the wine cooler and placed it into distribution in one test store.
Your manager has asked you to assess the data and determine the most likely customer based on the ratings. Additionally, your manager would like you to review sales in the test store.
Use the Week 3 Data Set to create and calculate the following in Excel®:
1. Estimate the probability that a randomly selected 21 to 49 year old consumer:
o Would give the phrase a rating of 5
o Would give the phrase a rating of 3 or higher
o Is in the 21-24 age group
o Is a male who gives the phrase a rating of 4
o Is a 35 to 49 year old who gives the phrase a rating of 1
o Based on the probabilities for the ratings of 4 and 5, which age/gender demographic would be the best target audience for the new concept?
2. Create a probability distribution using the data which shows how many cartons of the wine cooler were bought per customer in a month.
o Calculate the mean and the standard deviation of your probability distribution.
o Calculate the probability that exactly 3 six packs will be bought in a month.
o Calculate the probability that between 4 and 8 six packs will be bought in a month.
o Calculate the probability that at least 5 six packs will be bought in a month.
o Calculate the probability that no more than 5 six packs will be bought in a month.
3. Create a relative frequency distribution based on the wine cooler drinking temperatures.
o Create 6 bins with the same interval in each.
o Create a histogram
4. Considering the mean and standard deviation for the ideal drinking temperature:
o Calculate z values then refer to Table 6.1 – Cumulative Areas Under the Standard Normal Curve
o Calculate the probability of the wine cooler being less than 45 degrees.
o Calculate the probability of the wine cooler being greater than 60 degrees.
o Calculate the percentage of wine coolers served at the ideal temperature, between 49 and 55 degrees.
Part 2
Reference your Excel® spreadsheet from Part 1.
Complete the Week 3 Case in Connect.
Note: You have only 1 attempt available to complete assignments.

As the book explains, “Vincent, Cari, and Duane all lack an understanding of how to be mindful, intentional learners. …they are not headed for success, because they lack a personalized set of study strategies. Each [student] requires skills to turn their internal thoughts (metacognition) into external actions (personalized learning techniques).” For this journal, you will explain what they could have done to be successful and identify personalized learning techniques to be more intentional learners. You will also identify personal learning techniques to help you be a more intentional learner.
To prepare for this journal, return to Chapter 3 and review Sections 3.1 and 3.4, paying careful attention to Tables 3.10-3.12. Then, download the Personal Learning Strategies Journal Reflection template and respond to each section. Save the completed template to your computer and upload it to Waypoint. Be sure to double check that it was properly saved and uploaded successfully.
Submit your work below using Waypoint and verify your submission was successful.
Late Policy: Waypoint assignments are due on the specified days in the course. Waypoint assignments will be subject to a late penalty of up to 10% per day up to three days late. If Waypoint assignments are submitted after 72 hours past the due date, instructors can give a penalty up to and including a grade of 0 for the assignment.
Carefully review the Grading Rubric (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. for the criteria that will be used to evaluate your assignment.

Effective classroom management allows for maximum time for learning in a positive, supportive, and well structured environment. In an effective classroom the teacher and the students look forward to each day of learning.
In the Fred Jones text, read chapters 1 and 2 to complete a 1 page reflective response to the following:
1. What “aha” did you have as a result of this reading?
2. Describe how you will implement concepts learned from these chapters to establish a classroom management system for your classroom.
3. Provide an example of a motivating activity.

Prompt: Your second course project is an observation journal. You have already gathered your advertisements and completed your comparison template to determine the social science approaches that are relevant to your ads. For this assignment you will use that information to write an observation journal that will ask you to draw conclusions from the ads and, eventually, devise a social science question that you might like to investigate.
The critical elements of this assessment will be evaluated in your observation journal. Specifically, the following critical elements must be addressed and will be graded using the rubric at the end of this document:
I. Explain why you chose these advertisements for social scientific and personal study. For instance, what aspects of them intrigued you and made you curious?
II. Explain the assumptions and observations about human interactions and behaviors you made about the advertisements. These are some questions you might want to consider in your explanation:
a. Who do you believe the audiences for the ads might be?
b. What messages do you think the ads are sending?
c. What do you think the nature of the relationship is between or among the people in theads?
d. What relationship(s) do you see between or among the people and the product or service being advertised?
e. How effective are the ads in influencing your own consumer decisions?
III. Identify topics in this course that are relevant to the human behaviors in your advertisements and explain how they are relevant. This is your social science evidence for your observations. For instance, what ideas and people have you studied so far that apply to your observations?
IV. Taking all of your observations and objective conclusions about human behavior in your advertisements into account, assume the role of a social scientist. What question would you ask about the advertisements that you, as a social scientist, could seek to answer? What observations and objective conclusions lead you to this question?
PLEASE REFER TO THE 3 ATTACHMENTS
1ST ATTACHMENT: Advertisement of ads that were chosen to do this project.
2Nd ATTACHMENT: Answers to the questions that are being asked. (about chosen ads)
3Rd ATTACHMENT: Example how the assignment should look.

Submit an evaluation of at least four leadership theories in the form of a properly formatted, APA-compliant taxonomy table. For each of the theories you select, you should include the following:
• The name of the theory
• The year the theory was introduced
• The theorist/author
• Key components of the theory
For each theory presented, be sure to include a minimum of two references to peer-reviewed, scholarly resources, as well as appropriate in-text citations.
Note: Be sure to use the Leadership Theory Taxonomy Template to complete this Assignment.
Northouse, P. G. (2016). Leadership: Theory and practice(7th ed.). Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage.
• Chapter 7, “Leader–Member Exchange Theory” (pp. 137–160)
• Chapter 9, “Authentic Leadership” (pp. 200–224)
• Chapter 10, “Servant Leadership” (pp. 225–256)

Early childhood and special education teachers should understand their role as advocates for children who may have exceptionalities. Teachers can promote professional practice by taking part in professional development opportunities to explain this role and other responsibilities to their colleagues. Professional development enables teachers to stay informed of current practices and ethics associated with the discipline.
Part 1: Advocacy Presentation
For Part 1 of this benchmark assignment, create a 15-20 slide presentation in digital format (e.g., PowerPoint, Prezi) using relevant, current research to inform early childhood and special education teachers about their role as advocates for young children and their families. Address the following within your presentation:
• Specify the importance of detecting possible exceptionalities (including disabilities and giftedness) in Pre-K through Grade 3 children.
• Include at least three laws or policies related to identifying or providing services to children with exceptionalities.
• Relating to the early detection of possible exceptionalities, provide at least three examples of ways in which advocating for students and families optimizes learning opportunities for young children, strengthens learning environments, and advances the early childhood profession.
• Provide 3-5 talking points that teachers could use to inform paraeducators, tutors, and volunteers about some of the more important legal and ethical practices regarding students who may have exceptionalities and how to interact with their families (e.g., confidentiality).
Include presenter’s notes, a title slide, in-text citations, and a reference slide that contains 3-5 scholarly sources from the required readings or the GCU Library.
Part 2: Ethical Analysis
For Part 2 of this benchmark assignment, write a 250-500 word statement regarding how the advocacy role of early childhood educators (as described in your presentation) promotes compassion, justice, and concern for the common good of students, families, and colleagues and reflects the GCU College of Education’s Professional Disposition of Advocacy (provided below). Beneath the Professional Disposition of Advocacy description is a section of the GCU Statement on the Integration of Faith, Learning, and Work, which you may also (but are not required to) refer to in your response.
GCU College of Education’s Professional Disposition of Advocacy
Educators should promote positive change in schools and communities that benefit the welfare of others.
• Actively building positive relationships with the students.
• Engaging students in conversations beyond the scope of the classroom.
• Taking time to understand student issues and concerns.
• Assisting students in finding resolutions to their problems.
• Guiding students through the problem-solving process.
• Seeking to understand the issues and challenges facing students.
• Sincerely getting to know the students’ interests and needs in their context.
GCU Statement on the Integration of Faith, Learning and Work:
“WE BELIEVE that Jesus Christ is both Savior and Lord and that all who follow Jesus should seek His Kingdom and His righteousness in relation to all aspects of human experience, including culture and society. Therefore, we have resolved to carry out our work within the public arena with compassion, justice and concern for the common good.”
While APA format is not required for the body of this assignment, solid academic writing is expected, and in-text citations and references should be presented using APA documentation guidelines, which can be found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center.
This assignment uses a rubric. Review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite.
Standards and program competencies assessed in this assignment:
COE 5.1: Engage in ongoing, collaborative professional development from the early childhood education/special education field to inform practice in order to maximize learning outcomes for all students. [CEC 6.4; NAEYC 6a, 6c; InTASC 9(a), 9(b), 9(c), 10(a), 10(b), 10(f)]
COE 5.2: Model the expectations of the profession by upholding ethical standards, professional standards of practice, and relevant laws and policies. [CEC 6.1; NAEYC 6b; InTASC 9(o), 10(i)]
COE 5.3: Analyze ethical decisions that promote the common good for students, families, and colleagues that are consistent with the Christian worldview. [MC 3]
COE 5.5: Integrate relevant, research-based perspectives on early childhood education/special education to promote professional practice. [CEC 6.2; NAEYC 6d; InTASC 10(h)]
COE 5.6: Engage in informed advocacy to optimize the learning opportunities for young children, strengthen the learning environment, and advance the early childhood profession. [CEC 6.5; NAEYC 6e; InTASC 10(j), 10(k); MC 2]
COE 5.7: Provide guidance and direction to paraeducators, tutors, and volunteers. [CEC 6.6; InTASC 10(n); MC 2, MC 3]

1. Being prepared for an emergency is important at all ages. Identify an emergency policy needed for all children to learn and share how preparation will vary from each different age group.
2. Identify and describe two safety activities that K-grade 3 students could teach their families at home. Rationalize your recommendations.

3.

Health and Safety Mini-Lessons
As part of the benchmark assignment for this course, you will be organizing and designing an upcoming Wellness Fair for your kindergarten class. To prepare for this Wellness Fair, you will develop four mini-lessons in the areas of health, safety, nutrition, and fitness throughout the course. In addition, you will research community organizations to be represented in booths at the Wellness Fair that will provide your school community with information related to health, safety, nutrition, and fitness.
For this assignment, use the “Mini-Lesson Template” to design one health mini-lesson and one safety mini-lesson for the event. Lesson topics may include, but are not limited to:
• Oral health
• Specific health issues
• Lead poisoning
• Allergies
• Accident prevention
• Fire/natural disaster safety
• Hygiene
• Hand-washing
• Emotional safety
Make sure each lesson is developmentally appropriate and addresses strengths and needs of the students depicted within the “Class Profile.”
In addition, select two community organizations to host a booth at the Wellness Fair. One organization should support your health mini-lesson and one should support your safety mini-lesson. In 250-500 words, summarize the chosen organizations and why each should be featured at the school community Wellness Fair.
As part of the benchmark assignment for this course, you have been asked to organize and design an upcoming Wellness Fair for your kindergarten class. To prepare for this Wellness Fair, you will develop four mini-lessons in the areas of health, safety, nutrition, and fitness throughout the course. In addition, you will research community organizations to be represented in booths at the Wellness Fair that will provide your school community with information related to health, safety, nutrition, and fitness.
For this assignment, use the “Mini-Lesson Template” and design one nutrition mini-lesson and one fitness mini-lesson for the event. Lesson topics may include, but are not limited to:
• Meal planning
• School garden
• Recycling
• Label reading
• Food safety
• Healthy choices
• Healthy lifestyle
• Muscle strength
• Being active
Make sure each lesson is developmentally appropriate and addresses strengths and needs of the students depicted within the “Class Profile.”
In addition, select two community organizations to host a booth at the Wellness Fair. One organization should support your nutrition mini-lesson and one should support your fitness mini-lesson. In 250-500 words, summarize the chosen organizations and why each should be featured at the school community Wellness Fair.
Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
4
Use the attached document titled “Your GCU Experience” in order to gain insight into your community and college experience.
5
Use the attached document titled “Time Management” in order to gain insight into your daily schedule and weekly time management.

Write a 3-4-page paper that includes the following 3 parts & respond to the questions. Include smart goals in 3 parts of the paper. Using APA style and references.
Part 1: Classroom Management Self-Inventory include the following paper.
Part 2: Motivation and Engagement include the following in paper
Part 3: Final Conclusion Reflection include the following in paper.
(View assignment attachment and respond to questions)
follow the directions

Teachers must work collaboratively with colleagues, school staff, and parents to develop and implement behavior plans for students engaging in challenging behaviors. All stakeholders need to have a clear understanding of the plan and the steps to take to ensure the student is learning behaviors that are more appropriate. Each member of the team must also know how to implement the consequences when/if a student does not engage in appropriate behavior. In some cases, behavior can be severe; all members of the team need to be aware of how to respond to a student in crisis.
Review the scenario below to inform the assignment:
Michael is a seventh grader who is in his first year of rotating from class to class. Michael has shown that he really enjoys his homeroom teacher, Mrs. Thomas, who also happens to be the special education teacher. Mrs. Thomas takes Michael out of his reading class, for half of the class time, to provide his reading minutes according to his IEP. While Michael is serviced in reading only, Mrs. Thomas will take Michael out during all testing to provide a quiet, more 1:1 environment for testing. All of Michael’s teachers are male aside from Mrs. Thomas.
Mrs. Thomas was called into a team meeting to discuss Michael’s behaviors in his other classes.
All of the other teachers reported during the meeting that Michael is disruptive in class. His social studies teacher has noted that Michael is redirected at least three times each class period for talking with other students or being out of his seat. His social studies teacher also noted that Michael enjoys talking about baseball and video games with his classmates rather than participating in class or completing tasks. When redirected a few times last week, Michael asked to use the restroom and was out of the classroom for at least 15 minutes each time.
Michael’s math teacher also reported that periodically Michael shouts out during class or talks with others during instruction and independent work time. The math teacher has tried to redirect his behavior, but like his social studies teacher mentioned when redirected, Michael will ask to use the restroom or see the nurse and remain out of the classroom for the duration of the period. This causes Michael to miss instruction and not complete work.
Both teachers report that Michael will often doodle with highlighters or pencils on his assignment when redirected to get on task. Mrs. Thomas was shocked since Michael does not display any of these behaviors during the times he is with her.
Use the “Student Goals and Intervention Template” to complete this assignment.
Part 1: Intervention Plan
Referring to the scenario provided, identify an operational definition of the target behavior, outline 3 aligning function of behavior goals, and an intervention plan for these goals.
Using the “Student Goals and Intervention Template,” identify and outline the following within Michael’s intervention plan:
• Replacement behavior and specific steps to be implemented that will change the behavior based on information from teacher data
• Strategies to manage (reduce target behavior) situations and consequences based on information from observations .
• Any rewards and reinforcements.
• Progress monitoring (what data will be collected and in what manner).
• Steps to respond to any escalation of behavior.
Part 2: Crisis Plan
A crisis intervention plan are procedures to follow when reducing the target behavior is ineffective. The goal to maintain safety for all students and staff. Many schools and districts have crisis plans to follow with the goal of maintaining safety for all students and staff.
Create a descriptive crisis plan in a way that others can easily follow once it is determined that reducing the target behavior has been unsuccessful. Consider the following if the target behavior escalates:
• How long should a staff member allow the target behavior to continue before implementing the crisis plan?
• At what point should the student exhibiting the target behavior be removed from the classroom or when should other students be removed for safety? Where does the student or students go?
• When should administration be involved?
• At what point should local authorities or the school‐based officer be contacted?
• At what point should parents/guardians be contacted?
• How will you know the crisis is over and full de‐escalation has occurred? What happens then?
Part 3: Summary
After completing the intervention plan, include a 50‐100 word summary describing the role Mrs. Thomas has in communicating Michael’s needs to and collaborating with his general education teachers .
Support each scenario response with 1‐2 scholarly resources specific to current engagement theories and strategies.

The four lessons in this course have explored the best ways to set up healthy and safe environments for children and how to promote a healthy lifestyle. Early childhood professionals are advocates for children and their families. They must make sure that they’re providing families with healthy choices, ideas, and resources to help families better understand how to live healthy lives.
In this assignment, imagine yourself in the role of a preschool classroom teacher preparing to send home with students a Healthy Take Home Bag that offers families the opportunity to work, play, explore, and learn together regarding health, safety, and nutrition. You’ll complete this assignment in theory; in other words, it isn’t necessary to create a real Take Home Bag. However, you’ll plan your bag, your letter to families, and your essay responses as if you were putting together a real Take Home Bag.
Instructions
As an early childhood professional, building a home-school connection is an important part of teaching and learning. As we teach three-, four-, and five-year-old children about healthy lifestyles, nutrition, safety, and wellness, we also must offer support and education to families at home. This graded project involves developing a themed Healthy Take Home Bag to be sent home each week with a different child throughout the school year. It should contain important ideas and activities that provide families and children with knowledge about becoming and staying healthy and fit. These bags allow family members to be involved in a child’s learning.
Follow these steps to begin your assignment:
Choose one of these four themes and plan your Healthy Take Home Bag around your selected topic:
a. Germs, Handwashing, and Staying Healthy
b. Nutrition and Healthy Food Choices
c. Fire Safety and Emergency Preparedness
d. Dental Health and Hygiene
Search online and select an image of the ideal book bag, backpack, or tote bag you would send home with children in your class. Copy the image of the bag and paste it into your assignment. Cite the source of the image on your references page in APA format, and explain in five to seven sentences which theme you’ve selected and why. Then, share why you selected this particular bag to serve as your Healthy Take Home Bag.
From the teacher’s perspective, write a letter to families of your students explaining what the bag is about and why their children are receiving the bag to take home. In your letter, include a greeting and closing, and follow proper spelling, punctuation, grammar, and formatting rules. Your letter should motivate and excite families to receive the bag, provide a detailed explanation of each item included in the bag, suggest how to use each item appropriately, and include any other directions, suggestions, or guidance you wish to express. Before writing your letter, imagine what questions, concerns, or apprehensions families might have as they receive the Healthy Take Home Bag. Then include your answers and any additional information that might lessen their confusion or reluctance.
Research ideas as you plan the bag’s contents, which should include materials in each of the following categories:
Games. Include a description of at least one game families would play together that promotes understanding of your chosen theme. Describe the materials needed to play each game, and share a summary of how each game is played. Finally, indicate what the child will learn from playing each game at home with their family. This portion of your assignment is expected to be one fully developed paragraph of at least five to seven sentences.
Children’s literature. Identify and describe two books that promote children’s understanding of your chosen topic. Provide the title, author’s name, publisher, date, and a summary of each book. Then, identify two reasons for selecting each book to be included within your Healthy Take Home Bag.This portion of your assignment is expected to be two fully developed paragraphs of at least five to seven sentences each (one paragraph per book).
Manipulatives. Describe at least one manipulative set you would include in the Healthy Take Home Bag. Tell about the materials included and how they’re to be used. Then explain how the manipulatives extend the child’s understanding of your selected theme. This portion of your assignment is expected to be one fully developed paragraph of at least five to seven sentences.
Dramatic play. Share ideas for costumes, puppets, or other dramatic play materials you would send home in the Take Home Bag. Be specific by sharing the manufacturer’s name of each item, describing the items themselves, and explaining how they’ll be used. Describe how the dramatic play items you’ve included relate to your chosen theme and advance the child’s understanding of your selected topic. This portion of your assignment is expected to be one fully developed paragraph of at least five to seven sentences.
Sensory play. Describe one sensory play experience you would include in the Take Home Bag to help teach children and families about your selected topic. Explain how this sensory experience would benefit the family. This portion of your assignment is expected to be one fully developed paragraph of at least five to seven sentences.
Science experiment. Describe one age-appropriate science experiment included in the Take Home Bag that supports your selected topic. Explain the materials needed, the steps of the experiment, and the expected outcome. Then, explain how this experiment would benefit the family. This portion of your assignment is expected to be one fully developed paragraph of at least five to seven sentences.
Recipes for healthy snacks. Share at least one recipe for a kid-friendly snack that’s healthy, nutritious, and relates to the topic you’ve chosen. Identify the ingredients you would send home in the bag or expect the family to have on hand. Describe the procedure of making the snack, and explain how and why the snack contributes to the family’s experience in learning together about the bag’s theme. This portion of your assignment is expected to be one fully developed paragraph of at least five to seven sentences.
Additional resources. Provide at least one resource—such as a website, book, magazine, movie, or other resource—that would extend the family’s exploration of your chosen theme. Explain what the resource is and how it would benefit the family. Make sure this is a credible source that families will find beneficial and easily accessible. This portion of your assignment is expected to be one fully developed paragraph of at least five to seven sentences.
As you complete these portions of your assignment, click on the links below and consider some of the ideas pinned for you on your ECE instructors’ Pinterest boards:
ECE130 Health, Safety and Nutrition
Healthy Take Home Bag Ideas
Submission and Grading
Formatting Your Assignment
Begin by creating a title page in APA format. Format your paper using a standard font, such as 12-point Times New Roman. Set the margins at a standard 1 inch on all sides. Set your line spacing as double. Because you’ve given your information on the title page, no header is necessary. The standard style format for citations, if required, is American Psychological Association (APA). For more information on this citation style, refer to this site.
Prior to Submitting Your Assignment for Grading
Before submitting your ideas for your Healthy Take Home Bag:
Watch the video on your student portal for this assignment, as it offers greater insight and advanced instructions on how to successfully complete this exam.
Visit the recommended Pinterest boards and related websites for ideas about age-appropriate and developmentally appropriate activities to include in your Take Home Bag.
Proofread your work for any spelling, punctuation, grammatical, or formatting errors.
Review the grading rubric below to ensure all portions of the assignment are satisfied.
Save your assignment as one continuous file in Microsoft Word or another rich-text format.
Read the statement below.
I declare that the assignment submitted here is original except for source material explicitly acknowledged in APA formatted, in-text citations and references.
I acknowledge that I am aware of the College’s policy and regulations on honesty in academic work, and of the disciplinary guidelines and procedures applicable to breaches of such policy and regulations, as contained in my Student Handbook.
I submit this assignment for grading as my best efforts, resulting from my careful consideration of the assignment’s instructions as explained in my lesson material and in the assignment’s video on my student portal. If, after considering the lesson material and the video, I was unsure of the assignment’s requirements, I have already contacted my instructor via phone or email to seek guidance and clarification.
In submitting this work for a grade, I accept that my work will not be returned ungraded.
Submitting Your Assignment for Grading
Note: Each project is individually graded and therefore could take up to five to seven business days to grade. Follow this procedure to submit your assignment online:
Be sure that your document contains:
Your name
Your student number
Course name and number
Project number (580803)
Go to http://www.pennfoster.edu and log in to your student portal.
On your student portal, click on Take an Exam.
In the box provided, enter the examination number. (The number for this exam is 580803.)
Click on Submit.
On the next screen, enter your email address. (Note: This information is required for online submission.)
If you wish to tell your instructor anything specific regarding this assignment, enter it in the Comments.
Attach your file as follows:
Click on the first Browse box.
Locate the file you wish to attach.
Click on Submit. Be sure to keep a backup copy of any files you submit to the school!
Grading Criteria—Healthy Take Home Bag Project
Grading Criteria
Exemplary Proficient Fair Poor Not Evident
Image of ideal Healthy Take Home Bag is provided. Selected bag is appropriate, and bag and chosen theme are explained in a fully developed paragraph. 10 8 6 4 0
One or more games are provided. Games are age- and developmentally appropriate, and are explained in a fully developed paragraph. 10 8 6 4 0
Two or more children’s books are provided. Books are age- and developmentally appropriate, and are explained in two fully developed paragraphs. 10 8 6 4 0
One or more sets of manipulatives are provided. Manipulatives are age- and developmentally appropriate, and are explained in a fully developed paragraph. 10 8 6 4 0
One or more dramatic play sets are provided. Dramatic play activities are age- and developmentally appropriate, and are explained in a fully developed paragraph. 10 8 6 4 0
One or more sensory play experiences are provided. Sensory play activities are age- and developmentally appropriate, and are explained in a fully developed paragraph. 10 8 6 4 0
One or more science experiments are provided. Science experiments are age- and developmentally appropriate, and are explained in a fully developed paragraph. 10 8 6 4 0
One or more recipes for healthy snacks are provided. Recipes are age- and developmentally appropriate, and are explained in a fully developed paragraph. 10 8 6 4 0
One or more additional resources are provided. Resources are appropriate and easily accessible to families, and are explained in a fully developed paragraph. 10 8 6 4 0
APA references page, title page, in-text citations, spelling, grammar, punctuation, and format are appropriate. 10 8 6 4 0

Using the English Language Proficiency Standards (ELP) from Arizona or from your state, select a stage (grade level) for a group of students of your choosing. Create a content objective and a language objective using the English Language Arts Standards from AZ or from your state for your group of ELLs at the Basic Proficiency Level for each of the following domains:
1. Listening and Speaking
2. Reading
3. Writing
Include a 500-750-word summary below the chart (within the same document) that contains rationales for each of the three domains that describes how the objectives you wrote address the characteristics of a basic ELL level and accounts for the theoretical language acquisition principles mentioned in your required reading.

art 1: Intervention Plan
Referring to the scenario provided, identify an operational definition of the target behavior, outline 3 aligning function of behavior goals, and an intervention plan for these goals.
Using the “Student Goals and Intervention Template,” identify and outline the following within Michael’s intervention plan:
• Replacement behavior and specific steps to be implemented that will change the behavior based on information from teacher data
• Strategies to manage (reduce target behavior) situations and consequences based on information from observations .
• Any rewards and reinforcements.
• Progress monitoring (what data will be collected and in what manner).
• Steps to respond to any escalation of behavior.
Part 2: Crisis Plan
A crisis intervention plan are procedures to follow when reducing the target behavior is ineffective. The goal to maintain safety for all students and staff. Many schools and districts have crisis plans to follow with the goal of maintaining safety for all students and staff.
Create a descriptive crisis plan in a way that others can easily follow once it is determined that reducing the target behavior has been unsuccessful. Consider the following if the target behavior escalates:
• How long should a staff member allow the target behavior to continue before implementing the crisis plan?
• At what point should the student exhibiting the target behavior be removed from the classroom or when should other students be removed for safety? Where does the student or students go?
• When should administration be involved?
• At what point should local authorities or the school‐based officer be contacted?
• At what point should parents/guardians be contacted?
• How will you know the crisis is over and full de‐escalation has occurred? What happens then?
Part 3: Summary
After completing the intervention plan, include a 50‐100 word summary describing the role Mrs. Thomas has in communicating Michael’s needs to and collaborating with his general education teachers .
Support each scenario response with 1‐2 scholarly resources specific to current engagement theories and strategies.

Teachers must employ a variety of assessments, instructional strategies, and intervention techniques to support their students who are displaying behaviors that are getting in the way of successful learning in the classroom. If initial classroom management efforts are unsuccessful in helping such a student, then it is often determined that the situation warrants a behavior plan. For a behavior plan to be successful, it is imperative that stakeholders collaborate to support the student in reducing the occurrence of challenging behaviors and increasing appropriate behaviors. When appropriate, the student should also be involved in the development of the behavior plan. Providing students with choices and involving them in decision‐making aids in the development of self‐advocacy and self‐determination.
For this benchmark, you will propose a behavioral intervention plan for a student based on the information provided in “Student Scenario: Joseph.” Use the “Proposal for Behavior Change Template” to complete this assignment.

Part 1: Data Collection and Definition of Student Behavior
Describe Joseph’s behaviors on the ABC chart using the “Proposal for Behavior Change Template” provided. Create one measurable, observable operational definition for Joseph’s challenging behavior.
Part 2: Analysis of Data
The hypothesis is a best guess of the cause of the function of behavior that summarizes the observations. It includes the when (antecedent or trigger), the what (behavior of student), and the why (outcome student’s target behavior: attention, tangible, or escape).
Part 3: Intervention Ideas and Replacement Behaviors
Based on your analysis of the FBA data and the operational definition for Joseph’s behavior, identify an appropriate replacement behavior.
Part 4: Proposed Intervention Plan
Propose an intervention plan that outlines one goal for Joseph and includes the following:
• Replacement behavior and specific steps to be implemented that will help Joseph reach each goal.
• Strategies to manage activities and social interaction through collaboration with general educators and other colleagues .
• Rewards and reinforcements you will use with Joseph.
• A plan to monitor progress by gathering ongoing data from colleagues and student’s family .
• Steps to resolve any escalation of behavior safely and appropriately .
Be sure to incorporate appropriate intervention and replacement behavior ideas identified in Part 3.
Part 5: Reflection
In a 250‐500 word summary reflect upon how you, in your future professional practice, will ensure formal and informal assessments of student behaviors are unbiased and technically sound, considering culture, language, gender, and ability differences.
Support your template responses with 1‐2 scholarly resources.
While APA format is not required for the body of this assignment, solid academic writing is expected, and in‐text citations and references should be presented using APA documentation guidelines, which can be found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center.

Case 1: Read the Case Study entitled The School Board at the end of Chapter 10 of Saks, A., and Haccoun, R. (2015). Managing performance through training and development, 7th ed. Toronto: Nelson. Assume the role of a training consultant who has been hired by the company to assess where this training initiative went wrong and how to move forward.
Write a 1000-word memo that answers the five Questions in the case study. Ensure that you incorporate the concepts and ideas learned, and that you properly cite any materials you paraphrase or directly quote using APA 6th edition format.
CASE STUDY- THE SCHOOL BOARD
For years, parents, students, and teachers complained that nobody listened, that decisions were made without participation, and that good ideas went unacknowledged. A needs analysis that involved a survey of teachers and students confirmed that these problems were widespread. Carlos DaSilva, who was recently appointed trainer at the school board and had a strong background in teaching, had to address the communications problem as his first assignment. He designed what he considered to be an excellent three- day communications program. He spent months on the design: finding videos, exercises, and games that taught active listening, upward communication, brain- storming, and other areas identified in the survey. Carlos was excited to deliver his new training program and was sure that the participants would like it. On the first day, Carlos began with a brief introduction on the importance of communication, followed by a lecture on communication channels. Afterwards, he showed a video about manager–employee communication problems and how to improve communication. This was followed by a discussion of the key points in the video and what the trainees might do to improve their communication skills. On day two of the training program, Carlos began with a lecture on brain- storming. He then had trainees participate in a group brainstorming exercise. Each group had to brainstorm as many ideas as possible for improving communication in the school board. Afterwards, the groups presented their ideas followed by a discussion of the most creative ways to improve communication with teachers, students, and parents. On the third day of the training program, Carlos began with a lecture on active listening. Trainees then participated in an exercise in which they had to develop a message and then communicate it to the other trainees. At the end of the exercise, each trainee had to recall the message sent by the other trainees. This was followed by a discussion of how to be a more effective listener and tips on active listening. Carlos ended the training program by having trainees participate in a communication game. First, he had trainees complete a self-assessment of how they send messages and the channels they use for communication. Then groups of trainees had to develop a message that they would communicate to the other groups. Each group had to determine the best way for their message to reach the other groups as accurately and quickly as possible. At the end of the game, each group read out the message they received from the other groups. Carlos then scored each group in terms of the accuracy of the message received by the other groups and how long it took for each group to receive the message. The game was a lot of fun for the participants, who left the training program on a high. Carlos thanked them for attending the program and encouraged them to apply what they learned in training when they returned to work. The trainees applauded Carlos and thanked him for providing such an enjoyable training experience. Two months after the training program, Carlos was sitting at his desk, thinking about his meeting scheduled for 2 p.m. with the school board superintendent. He was looking forward to the meeting, knowing that he would be praised for the successful interactive communications program he had designed and delivered.
However, the meeting with the superintendent went poorly. Although some participants had loved the exercises and games in the communications course, most had not changed their work behaviour. Furthermore, a review of the situation showed that the old problems persisted and communication remained a serious problem at the school board. Carlos did not know what to say or what he should do. Several days later, Carlos approached some of the participants who had attended the training program and asked them how things were going. One participant laughed and said, “Well that was a lot of fun, but training is training and work is work. Besides, nothing ever changes around here.” Carlos asked her what she meant and she explained to him that supervisors don’t get it and continued to call the shots. “The only thing they know about communication is downward,” she said. “Maybe they should have attended your training program!” QUESTIONS
1. What are some reasons that Carlos’s training program did not transfer?
2. Discuss some of the barriers to transfer that might be operating at the school board. Who is responsible for these barriers and when do they occur during the training process?
3. Describe some of the things that Carlos might have done before, during, and after the training program to improve the transfer of training. What could the trainees and supervisors have been asked to do before, during, and after training to improve transfer?
4. Discuss the training transfer climate and the transfer system at the school board. How might they have contributed to the transfer problem?
5. What should Carlos do about the transfer problem at the school board? What changes should he make next time he delivers a training program?
Case 2: Read the Case Study entitled The Alcohol/Drug Abuse Prevention Program (ADAPP) at the end of Chapter 11 of Saks, A., and Haccoun, R. (2015). Managing performance through training and development, 7th ed. Toronto: Nelson. Assume the role of a training consultant who has been hired by the company to assess where this training initiative went wrong and how to move forward.
Write a 1000-word memo that answers the four Questions in the case study. Ensure that you incorporate the concepts and ideas learned, and that you properly cite any materials you paraphrase or directly quote using APA 6th edition format.
CASE STUDY- THE ALCOHOL/DRUG ABUSE PREVENTION PROGRAM (ADAPP)
The North American Transportation Company (NATC) is a very large organiza- tion that provides continent-wide facilities for the shipping of goods, from tonnes of wheat and iron ore to individual parcels. Headquartered in Canada, the com- pany uses all forms of heavy equipment to load, transport, and deliver goods and materials for its clients. In recent years, a number of accidents and near-accidents have occurred. In some cases the accidents caused injuries to people (mainly employees, though some injuries were sustained by bystanders). They also caused substantial material damage to prop- erty and/or the environment. In three cases in the last five years, people were killed. Investigation of these accidents indicated that drug and/or alcohol abuse by company personnel was relatively common and that these may have been contributing factors to the accidents. This analysis also uncovered that absenteeism and job performance problems were also the result of drug/alcohol use by employees. The CEO of the company asked the HR department to solve the problem. In response, the department formulated a zero-tolerance policy toward workplace alcohol and drug abuse. The policy outlawed alcohol/drug use on the job and made the implementation and enforcement of the policy the direct responsibility of all supervisory personnel in the company. They further developed and imple- mented a training program to instruct all supervisors on the policy, the means to implement it, and the specific behaviours expected of them. This training program became known as the Alcohol/Drug Abuse Prevention Program (ADAPP). The day-long training program explained that it was the responsibility of super- visors to be vigilant with respect to drug/alcohol use on the job and to act imme- diately when there was a problem. There were three main aspects to the ADAPP policy that supervisors were to learn and to transfer to the job: (1) explain the policy to their employees as a group; (2) watch for employees who show signs of being “under the influence”; and (3) choose the specific supervisory action required correctly. Supervisor were instructed to (a) assess the situation with the employee; (b) immediately relieve the employee from his/her post should the impairment prevent safe and effective job performance; and (c) direct the person to the Employee Aid Program for further investigation and treatment. Supervisors who failed to implement the procedure would face disciplinary actions including, in some cases, immediate dismissal. The training program consisted of lectures and video presentations, followed by various role-playing exercises and discussions designed to help supervisors learn the policy, motivate them into implementing it, and enhance their confidence in their ability to do so.
Questions
1 . Design a training evaluation for the ADAPP. The training evaluation must be both summative (Has ADAPP led to an increase in the desired supervisory behaviours and to a decrease in employee absence and work- place accidents and injuries?) and formative (What aspects of the training program, if any, should be improved?).
2. What model or models of training evaluation would seem appropriate in this case? Explain your answer.
3. What variables should be measured and how should this be done? a. Determine the main variables to measure. b. Determine the information to be collected to address potential improvements to the program, if necessary.
4. What data collection design or designs would you consider most appropriate for the evaluation? Explain your reasoning.

Write a 3-4-page paper that includes the following 3 parts & respond to the questions. Include smart goals in 3 parts of the paper. Using APA style and references.
Part 1: Classroom Management Self-Inventory include the following paper.
Part 2: Motivation and Engagement include the following in paper
Part 3: Final Conclusion Reflection include the following in paper.
(View assignment attachment and respond to questions)
follow the directions

Create a graphic organizer, or use the “Instructional Strategies for ELLs” resource, to identify and describe oral, reading, and writing strategies appropriate for each ELL proficiency label. Include a justification as to why each strategy is applicable to the specific ELL proficiency label, citing references.
While APA format is not required for the body of this assignment, solid academic writing is expected and in-text citations and references should be presented using APA documentation guidelines, which can be found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.

For this final assignment, you will write a 750-1,250 word research paper on a controversial topic involving a cultural identifier and the implications for K-12 public education.

Review the list of cultural identifiers.

Identify a controversial topic in K-12 education that involves one or more of the cultural identifiers, already done in week 2 assignment. This topic should include two or more viewpoints that are for and against the issue.

Using a minimum of three scholarly journal articles from the last 12-36 months complete your paper on the following points:
1. Describes the cultural identifiers discussed in the articles.
2. Summarizes the historical background of the cultural identifiers and associated controversial topic in K-12 education.
3. Identifies arguments presented for and against the issue.
4. Discusses any associated injustices arising from the issue.
5. Identifies 3 stakeholder groups that are most affected and where they fall on the cultural competence continuum
6. How future teachers and students are affected by the identified cultural identifier(s).
7. Summarizes solutions and/or proposed solutions to associated injustices.

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

This assignment uses a rubric. Review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

links:
Becoming a Multicultural Educator: Developing Awareness, Gaining Skills, and Taking ActionRead Chapter 7 in Becoming a Multicultural Educator: Developing Awareness, Gaining Skills, and Taking Action.
http://gcumedia.com/digital-resources/sage/2016/becoming-a-multicultural-educator_developing-awareness-gaining-skills-and-taking-action_ebook_2e.php
Ten Quick Ways to Analyze Childrens Books for Sexism And RacismRead “Ten Quick Ways to Analyze Childrens Books for Sexism And Racism ” by Derman-Sparks and the A.B.C. Task Force, located on the Teaching for Change website.
http://www.teachingforchange.org/wp-content/uploads/2012/08/ec_tenquickways_english.pdf
1. Cultural Competencies: Essential Elements of Caring-Centered Multicultural EducationRead “Cultural Competencies: Essential Elements of Caring-Centered Multicultural Education,” by Pang et al., from Action in Teacher Education (2011).
https://lopes.idm.oclc.org/login?url=http://search.ebscohost.com.lopes.idm.oclc.org/login.aspx?direct=true&db=ofs&AN=71524035&site=ehost-live&scope=site

Case 1: Read the Case Study entitled The School Board at the end of Chapter 10 of Saks, A., and Haccoun, R. (2015). Managing performance through training and development, 7th ed. Toronto: Nelson. Assume the role of a training consultant who has been hired by the company to assess where this training initiative went wrong and how to move forward.
Write a 1000-word memo that answers the five Questions in the case study. Ensure that you incorporate the concepts and ideas learned, and that you properly cite any materials you paraphrase or directly quote using APA 6th edition format.
CASE STUDY- THE SCHOOL BOARD
For years, parents, students, and teachers complained that nobody listened, that decisions were made without participation, and that good ideas went unacknowledged. A needs analysis that involved a survey of teachers and students confirmed that these problems were widespread. Carlos DaSilva, who was recently appointed trainer at the school board and had a strong background in teaching, had to address the communications problem as his first assignment. He designed what he considered to be an excellent three- day communications program. He spent months on the design: finding videos, exercises, and games that taught active listening, upward communication, brain- storming, and other areas identified in the survey. Carlos was excited to deliver his new training program and was sure that the participants would like it. On the first day, Carlos began with a brief introduction on the importance of communication, followed by a lecture on communication channels. Afterwards, he showed a video about manager–employee communication problems and how to improve communication. This was followed by a discussion of the key points in the video and what the trainees might do to improve their communication skills. On day two of the training program, Carlos began with a lecture on brain- storming. He then had trainees participate in a group brainstorming exercise. Each group had to brainstorm as many ideas as possible for improving communication in the school board. Afterwards, the groups presented their ideas followed by a discussion of the most creative ways to improve communication with teachers, students, and parents. On the third day of the training program, Carlos began with a lecture on active listening. Trainees then participated in an exercise in which they had to develop a message and then communicate it to the other trainees. At the end of the exercise, each trainee had to recall the message sent by the other trainees. This was followed by a discussion of how to be a more effective listener and tips on active listening. Carlos ended the training program by having trainees participate in a communication game. First, he had trainees complete a self-assessment of how they send messages and the channels they use for communication. Then groups of trainees had to develop a message that they would communicate to the other groups. Each group had to determine the best way for their message to reach the other groups as accurately and quickly as possible. At the end of the game, each group read out the message they received from the other groups. Carlos then scored each group in terms of the accuracy of the message received by the other groups and how long it took for each group to receive the message. The game was a lot of fun for the participants, who left the training program on a high. Carlos thanked them for attending the program and encouraged them to apply what they learned in training when they returned to work. The trainees applauded Carlos and thanked him for providing such an enjoyable training experience. Two months after the training program, Carlos was sitting at his desk, thinking about his meeting scheduled for 2 p.m. with the school board superintendent. He was looking forward to the meeting, knowing that he would be praised for the successful interactive communications program he had designed and delivered.
However, the meeting with the superintendent went poorly. Although some participants had loved the exercises and games in the communications course, most had not changed their work behaviour. Furthermore, a review of the situation showed that the old problems persisted and communication remained a serious problem at the school board. Carlos did not know what to say or what he should do. Several days later, Carlos approached some of the participants who had attended the training program and asked them how things were going. One participant laughed and said, “Well that was a lot of fun, but training is training and work is work. Besides, nothing ever changes around here.” Carlos asked her what she meant and she explained to him that supervisors don’t get it and continued to call the shots. “The only thing they know about communication is downward,” she said. “Maybe they should have attended your training program!” QUESTIONS
1. What are some reasons that Carlos’s training program did not transfer?
2. Discuss some of the barriers to transfer that might be operating at the school board. Who is responsible for these barriers and when do they occur during the training process?
3. Describe some of the things that Carlos might have done before, during, and after the training program to improve the transfer of training. What could the trainees and supervisors have been asked to do before, during, and after training to improve transfer?
4. Discuss the training transfer climate and the transfer system at the school board. How might they have contributed to the transfer problem?
5. What should Carlos do about the transfer problem at the school board? What changes should he make next time he delivers a training program?
Case 2: Read the Case Study entitled The Alcohol/Drug Abuse Prevention Program (ADAPP) at the end of Chapter 11 of Saks, A., and Haccoun, R. (2015). Managing performance through training and development, 7th ed. Toronto: Nelson. Assume the role of a training consultant who has been hired by the company to assess where this training initiative went wrong and how to move forward.
Write a 1000-word memo that answers the four Questions in the case study. Ensure that you incorporate the concepts and ideas learned, and that you properly cite any materials you paraphrase or directly quote using APA 6th edition format.
CASE STUDY- THE ALCOHOL/DRUG ABUSE PREVENTION PROGRAM (ADAPP)
The North American Transportation Company (NATC) is a very large organiza- tion that provides continent-wide facilities for the shipping of goods, from tonnes of wheat and iron ore to individual parcels. Headquartered in Canada, the com- pany uses all forms of heavy equipment to load, transport, and deliver goods and materials for its clients. In recent years, a number of accidents and near-accidents have occurred. In some cases the accidents caused injuries to people (mainly employees, though some injuries were sustained by bystanders). They also caused substantial material damage to prop- erty and/or the environment. In three cases in the last five years, people were killed. Investigation of these accidents indicated that drug and/or alcohol abuse by company personnel was relatively common and that these may have been contributing factors to the accidents. This analysis also uncovered that absenteeism and job performance problems were also the result of drug/alcohol use by employees. The CEO of the company asked the HR department to solve the problem. In response, the department formulated a zero-tolerance policy toward workplace alcohol and drug abuse. The policy outlawed alcohol/drug use on the job and made the implementation and enforcement of the policy the direct responsibility of all supervisory personnel in the company. They further developed and imple- mented a training program to instruct all supervisors on the policy, the means to implement it, and the specific behaviours expected of them. This training program became known as the Alcohol/Drug Abuse Prevention Program (ADAPP). The day-long training program explained that it was the responsibility of super- visors to be vigilant with respect to drug/alcohol use on the job and to act imme- diately when there was a problem. There were three main aspects to the ADAPP policy that supervisors were to learn and to transfer to the job: (1) explain the policy to their employees as a group; (2) watch for employees who show signs of being “under the influence”; and (3) choose the specific supervisory action required correctly. Supervisor were instructed to (a) assess the situation with the employee; (b) immediately relieve the employee from his/her post should the impairment prevent safe and effective job performance; and (c) direct the person to the Employee Aid Program for further investigation and treatment. Supervisors who failed to implement the procedure would face disciplinary actions including, in some cases, immediate dismissal. The training program consisted of lectures and video presentations, followed by various role-playing exercises and discussions designed to help supervisors learn the policy, motivate them into implementing it, and enhance their confidence in their ability to do so.
Questions
1 . Design a training evaluation for the ADAPP. The training evaluation must be both summative (Has ADAPP led to an increase in the desired supervisory behaviours and to a decrease in employee absence and work- place accidents and injuries?) and formative (What aspects of the training program, if any, should be improved?).
2. What model or models of training evaluation would seem appropriate in this case? Explain your answer.
3. What variables should be measured and how should this be done? a. Determine the main variables to measure. b. Determine the information to be collected to address potential improvements to the program, if necessary.
4. What data collection design or designs would you consider most appropriate for the evaluation? Explain your reasoning.
Submit a 3- to 4-page analysis of the differences between leadership and management. In your analysis, do the following:
• Evaluate the two scenarios by answering the following questions:
o What are the roles of the individuals in the scenarios?
o Are they managers, leaders, or both?
o What distinguishes management from leadership and managers from leaders?
• Analyze the similarities and differences between leadership and management.
• Support your work with a minimum of two specific citations per page from this week’s Learning Resources and/or additional scholarly sources. These may include specific media examples of leadership behavior and other relevant organizational information.

Assessment
Time to put your knowledge of the evolving role of the media in political messages to work! You’ve been asked by a popular news organization to create a web article for their official website that will help the public understand the role that media plays in politics. Your product will first explain your analysis of a media item and then describe how the role of media in politics has changed over time.
Steps
1. Choose a visual, text, or other media item that is political in nature. This list provides some examples of media items you may use and guidance on where to locate other examples on the Internet. Be sure to include the media item, or directions on how to access it, with your assessment.
2. Analyze the political message delivered by your chosen media item. In two well-written paragraphs, explain the background of the image, text, or video and explain what bias the message reveals and how.
o The background paragraph should include who created the media item, when, for whom, and for what purpose.
o The analysis paragraph should explain the bias in the media item. What strategies does the media item use to persuade people? (examples are symbolism and emotional appeal)
3. Write a third well-written paragraph that answers the following question, in your own words. How have the media changed over time, and how has this affected political communication?
4. List
________________________________________
Select one of the following media items for your assessment. Remember, you must provide the source or information on how to access the source with your assessment.
1.
1. TV Commercial
Television advertisements from recent elections are readily available from multiple internet sources, such as the

YOU ARE TO REPLY TO THIS STUDENT POST NO LESS THAN 250 WORDS NO MORE THAN 300 WORDS. NO PLAGIARISM. I AHVE ATTACHED THE ORIGINAL

Ken Ewert’s article Moral Criticisms of the Market (1989) explores the subject of religion and economics, and rebuts the leftist views of the “Christian Socialists” in regards to the free market system. He does a phenomenal job of breaking down the morality of the free market and examining the traits of selfishness, materialism, impersonalism and individualism, community relationships, economic power, and economic ability to please.
With regards to selfishness, Ewert made a great distinction that a self-directed action can happen in one of two ways: “through mutually beneficial economic exchanges, or through predatory political actions” (1989). This cuts to the core of selfishness in a free market. We have the ability to choose our actions, and selfishness is not a requirement for success. I slightly disagree, however, with his views on materialism. While advertisement does give customers important information about products, it can equally be misleading. A consumer may receive just as much misleading information from an advertisement as sound material. I do agree with Ewert’s (1989) assertion that materialism is a problem of all economic systems, as well as his views on impersonalism and individualism. I worked as a waitress for quite a while, and formed many personal relationships with customers; my tips were better if I had a personal relationship with the customer. A free market definitely doesn’t always encourage impersonalism and individualism, nor does it discourage community relationships. Ewert’s (1989) stance on how economic intervention, not the free market, has actually disintegrated family bond is interesting, and a claim I am not sure I agree with, however I am not able to refute his statements on the subject. Ewert’s (1989) comments about economic power were thought-provoking, as I had never thought much into the subject. He made a great point in that an employee chooses to work for an employer because the benefits, even if seemingly small, outweigh the consequences, such as moving costs and loss of local friendships. The last subject Ewert (1989) touches on is economic ability to please. I agree with everything he says in this section, especially his comments about politicians and the “powerful oppressing the weak” (Ewert, 1989).
Overall, I think Ewert did a fantastic job refuting the claims that “Christian Socialists” make about the free market. His statements assume that people have the ability to delve down into the root of what causes our behaviors and thoughts. God has given us that ability, although sometimes it may be hard to put into practice.

Research paper instruction.
Each student will write a five page research paper on their assigned topic within their designated group theme (case study). The individual research paper will be in APA 6th ed. Format (no abstract), 12 pt. Times New Roman font and include at least three additional references to the base document/article.
My Topic
Accidental Statesman Base
Mission Command: Visualize
This is your small group for collaboration on your group project and peer review of your research paper, as well as working on collaborative PEs. View the The Accidental Statesman Base Document topic.(attached) To assist you in your research I have attached the advanced sheets for those lessons.
All document attached.

Research paper instruction.
Each student will write a five page research paper on their assigned topic within their designated group theme (case study). The individual research paper will be in APA 6th ed. Format (no abstract), 12 pt. Times New Roman font and include at least three additional references to the base document/article.
My Topic
Accidental Statesman Base
Mission Command: Visualize
This is your small group for collaboration on your group project and peer review of your research paper, as well as working on collaborative PEs. View the The Accidental Statesman Base Document topic.(attached) To assist you in your research I have attached the advanced sheets for those lessons.
All document attached.

Now that you are familiar with the judicial decision-making process, you will use your experience with it to write a judicial opinion.
Steps
1. Reflect on your decisions in the cases of T.M. v. State of Florida and Hazelwood v. Kuhlmeier using the following questions:
o Did your opinion reflect the majority or minority opinion on each case?
o Did you tend to favor loose or strict interpretation of the laws and rights for each case?
o What factors most influenced your decision and interpretations in each case?
2. Use your answers to the questions above to write a judicial opinion for each case using this Template. Explain your answers to each question in detail and use information from the lesson and the court’s minority and majority opinions. Be sure to check your work for proper spelling and grammar, and revise as needed to ensure your writing is clear and understandable.
3. Instructions: Replace the information in parentheses with your own work according to the assessment instructions.

template
T.M. v. State of Florida
I, (your name), write this opinion to (support the majority opinion or dissent with the majority opinion) on the case of T.M. v. State of Florida.
(First paragraph—Explain why your opinion reflects the majority or minority opinion. Give details of each side of the case.)
(Second paragraph—Explain whether you tended to favor loose or strict interpretation of the laws and rights in this case. Give specific examples of where you used each type of interpretation in this case. Explain your reasons for favoring one or the other.)
(Third paragraph—Describe the factors that most influenced your decision and interpretations in this case. Explain why you thought each was significant.)
Hazelwood v. Kuhlmeier
I, (your name), write this opinion to (support the majority opinion or dissent with the majority opinion) on the case of Hazelwood v. Kuhlmeier.
(First paragraph—Explain why your opinion reflects the majority or minority opinion. Give details of each side of the case.)
(Second paragraph—Explain whether you tended to favor loose or strict interpretation of the laws and rights in this case. Give specific examples of where you used each type of interpretation in this case. Explain your reasons for favoring one or the other.)
(Third paragraph—Describe the factors that most influenced your decision and interpretations in this case. Explain why you thought each was significant.)

Select ONE of the following topics to answer for the Lesson Writing Assignment. The writing assignment should be a minimum of 500 words. You should find most of the information you need to complete the assignment in the chapter, but you are allowed to use outside sources as well (such as news articles or government websites). DO NOT simply copy the information word for word from your sources. If you use information directly from the textbook or another source, it should be cited and the properly formatted citation should be provided at the end of the assignment. All assignments will be analyzed with SafeAssign to identify possible plagiarism.
1. Read Chapter 8, including “You Decide: Voices of Texas: A Plural or Single Executive?” and write an essay answering the following questions:
• How does the power of the governor in Texas compare to other states?
• What is a plural executive? What is the single executive model?
• What are the arguments for and against a plural executive?
• Do you believe that the plural executive is more democratic than the single executive model? Why or why not?
• Does the plural executive lead to more efficient and accountable government? Why or why not?
• Do you believe the power of the governor should be increased, decreased or remain the same? Why or why not?
2. Read Chapter 10, including “You Decide: Voices of Texas: Houston’s ‘Bathroom Ordinance’” and write an essay answering the following questions:
• According to the graphic “Who Governs Texas’s Cities?”, which city council best reflects the racial/ethnic composition of its population? Which council diverges the most from its city’s population?
• Do you think it is important that the city councils do reflect the racial/ethnic composition of their communities? Why or why not?
• Why are there so many special districts in Texas? Do you feel cities and counties should do the jobs that special districts do? Why don’t they?
• Do you think cities and counties should more closely monitor the activities of special districts? Who do you think should be in charge of oversight?
• In recent years, local ordinances relating to hydraulic fracking, ride hailing services, and discrimination have led to conflict with the state government. Should cities’ lawmaking powers be limited to concerns such as traffic or animal control issues, rather than broader issues?
• Should the state have the power to preempt or invalidate local ordinances in order to ensure consistency in regulations across the state?
3. Read Chapter 11, including “You Decide: Voices of Texas: What to Do with a Budget Surplus” and write an essay answering the following questions:
• Do you think that sales and use taxes are a fair way for the state to generate revenue? Why or why not?
• How should policy makers deal with a projected budgetary surplus? Should taxes be cut or spending increased?
• In the case of a budget surplus, what arguments would you make to the legislature to increase spending? Where would you increase spending? Why?
• In the case of a budget deficit, what areas would you target for cuts? Why?
• Under what circumstances should the legislature tap into the Rainy Day Fund?
• Why did the Texas Legislature give up the ability to set tuition at state universities and how has this decision impacted you?

Think about two environments you have experienced.
1. The first environment is one that did not confront the brutal facts, where the people (and the truth) were not heard.
2. The second environment is one that did confront the brutal facts, where people had a tremendous opportunity to be heard.
Whataccounts for the difference between the two environments? If you do not havethis life experience you are not off the hook—you will need to interview aleader who has these experiences and report on that. What does the contrastteach us about how to construct an environment where the truth is heard? Usingstrong Biblical support, explain how you relate this to your ChristianWorldview? Does your Christian Worldview help you develop this environment? Howdoes this relate to the ethical components of the Meese and Ortmeier text?
These replies are from a previous discussion boards
#1 from Ryan Collins
n today’s society, technology is advancing as fast as the population is growing. The constant change in society dictates the organizations structure and path to either success or failure. Leadership is vital in the initiation and process of moving an organization forward in keeping up with competition or even being the leader in the respective market. To answer the question if Collins was incorrect regarding Wells Fargo is debatable due to the circumstances of the behind the scene aspects, which were not public knowledge until publicized.
As Paul stated in Titus 1:7 (NIV) “Since an overseer manages God’s household, he must be blameless not overbearing, not quick tempered, not given to drunkenness, not violent, not pursuing dishonest gain.” This passage is relevant to the Wells Fargo leadership and initial perspective of Jim Collins. In the initial research of Collins, the apparent facts to including the Dow along with the profits reported, I believe Collins was on point pertaining to the initial research and facts present. The perspective of Collins on the reporting of Wells Fargo’s successes after 2001 derives from his statement of “build enduring greatness through a paradoxical blend of personal humility and professional will” (Wexler, Wycoff, & Fischer, 2007, p. 6).
Looking at the imperative events which took place during the early 2000’s changed the banking aspect and societies approaches on life in general. The devastating event of terrorism on September 11 may have been the trigger event. This event may have encouraging the spike in Wells Fargo’s success due to diversion of the public to enact the lack of integrity triggering uncommon business practices which came back to haunt Wells Fargo. Even if Collins misinterpreted the success of Wells Fargo, the discrepancy was hidden, and the facts apparent to Collins allowed for Wells Fargo to be a part of the 11 successful companies.
According to Collins (2001), the hedgehog concept derives a cycle from good to great insinuating success to the doom loop which is the downfall of an organization relevant to leadership or practices (p.16). The internal structure of Wells Fargo was an imminent result for the Hedgehog Concept to go awry due to the lack of integrity and core values demonstrated by the leadership. The Hedgehog Concept went awry, as soon as the organization strayed from the mission statement enabling scandals and the destruction of organizations reputation to include the lack of trust from clients/customers. In reference to the Hedgehog Concept, Collins stated “It is an understanding of what you can be the best at. The distinction is absolutely crucial” (Wexler, Wycoff, & Fischer, 2007, p. 15), which is the total opposite result of the path Wells Fargo leadership ran the operations.
The downward fall of Wells Fargo derived from internal criminal aspects deriving from the top down. The leaderships lack of knowledge or worse case knowledge of criminal intents within one’s organization lead to the failure to the organization. The deviation of mission statement and goals of the leadership led to the decline of profit per employee. The loss of profit as a top bank in the respective arena along with the loss of confidence to the investors of the bank is a perfect equation for failure contradicting the reporting.
#2 from Shockley
In September 2016, Wells Fargo’s scandalous practices came to be known. It was revealed that bank employees were opening bank accounts, transferring money, and signing up for different services in customers’ names without the customers consenting to these activities. These extra accounts were generating fees payable to the bank. It is alleged that these illegal and unethical activities were done due to aggressive, impossible to meet sales quotas placed on employees. Employees were also trained to use fake email addresses and phone numbers when customers failed to provide one. There was a culture permeating Wells Fargo that if an employee was not cheating then he would not meet the numbers required to remain employed at the company (Cavico & Mutjaba, 2017, p. 4).
Jim Collins’ research focused on the numbers, so he was not wrong, but he did misinterpret the root of the numbers. When he did his examination, he saw a company that utilized the Hedgehog Concept and started producing exemplary numbers. “Then the Wells Fargo team asked itself, ‘What can we potentially do better than any other company?’ The brutal fact was that Wells Fargo would never be the best global bank in the world – and so the leadership team pulled the plug on the vast majority of the bank’s international operations” (Collins, 2001). This action appears to be the perfect example of the Hedgehog Concept. The company abandoned something it knew it would never be able to become the best at. The company then focused on “profit per employee” which they appeared to be the best at until their fraudulent activities surfaced.
Profit per employee practices can be a recipe for disaster without attentive leadership. “Without proper safeguards, incentive-based compensation arrangements in financial institutions may encourage excessive risk-taking by employees, leading to serious financial loss for financial institutions…These compensation arrangements were based on short-term revenue, and thereby incentivized employees to expose the financial institution to more risk” (Mims, 2017, p. 429). The executive leadership at Wells Fargo pushed employees to meet sales quotas and open numerous, superfluous accounts for customers or be subject to disciplinary action. This produced a cutthroat environment that eventually led to unethical activities on the part of the employee (Cavico & Mutjaba, 2017, p. 5). Culture of an organization is developed at the top of the organization and is implemented by the bottom. The leadership of Wells Fargo failed in two main ways. “The astute and agile leader should not be blind-sided by any weaknesses or improprieties in the company or organization, such as in the case of Wells Fargo, employees acting in an illegal and immoral manner to meet the unrealistic sales goals set by the bank…Moreover, the leader must be proactive, not a mere reactor, which sadly, appears to be the case with Wells Fargo” (Cavico & Mutjaba, 2017, p. 16). Had Wells Fargo’s leadership noticed the sales goals it was setting on its employees was turning into a weakness, it could have been proactive in preventing any unethical or immoral practices that would harm its customers.
Leaders with a Christian worldview should refrain from participating or allowing their employees to participate in any unethical business practice. It is important to always remember God will provide enough for those who believe in Him and trust Him. “God is able to bless you abundantly, so that in all things at all times, having all that you need, you will abound in every good word (2 Corinthians 9:8).

Term Paper Requirements
The paper must be written in accordance with APA standards using the current edition. The required length is 4-5 pages excluding the cover page, charts, tables, graphs, diagrams, photographs, the reference page, or the appendix. The format will be double-spaced, 1-inch margins, Times New Roman, and 12pt font.
Term Paper Topics
Topics for the term paper are required be directly related to aviation or aerospace legislation. You must have selected a topic from one of the Statutes or Cases listed here. The instructor may approve a topic from the Rhoades text which must be directly related to aviation or aerospace legislation.
The instructor may also approve an alternative topic suitable for your location in a jurisdiction outside the United States but only if it is directly concerned with aviation or aerospace legislation.
Plagiarism
Papers submitted to Turnitin may be compared against billions of Internet documents, archived Internet data that is no longer available on the live web, a local repository of previously submitted papers, and subscription repository of periodicals, journals, and publications. The comparison may be against any or all of these repositories as set on a specific assignment by the instructor of the class.

Paper half written as follows. No plaigarism. Need an advantage or disadvange two more pages in microsoft word double spaced.
Abstract
In the years leading up to 1978 there were five major airlines that dominated the market as well as the skies. These major airlines were regulated under the Civil Aeronautics Board (CAB), by 1978 there was a demand for lower airfares. There were several factors and courses of actions for the US Government to consider. Two of these courses of action will be presented here as well as advantages and disadvantages of each. In conclusion, the purpose of the Airline Deregulation Act of 1978 is presented.
Keywords: CAB, aviation, revenue, deregulation

I need help in writing an EXPOSITIONARY ESSAY on a contemporary issue facing the U.S. Army in one of three categories; Leadership, Operations, or Management, using your personal experience and at least three references (Wikipedia IS NOT an acceptable reference) to support your context. This paper must set forth an argument concerning your own experience, in one of those three categories, in a clear and concise manner; using correct grammar, sentence structure, and word usage. Provide a coherent transition from one topic to the next using structure, and transition sentences. Your essay should be in Times New Roman, 12pt font, APA 6th edition format with no abstract, and must be three to five pages in length not including your title and reference page. the recommended online resource for APA style writing is the Purdue University Owl website@ https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/01/.
Note: I want the paper based on leadership, if possible out of the three categories ( Leadership, Operations, or Management)
Note: I need three REFERENCE you can use FM 6 – 22 Leader Development as one of three sources.
This is helpful information to understand the basic knowledge in helping to write the EXPOSITIONARY ESSAY
What is leadership?
Leadership is the process of influencing people by providing purpose, direction, and motivation to accomplish the mission and improve the organization.
What is an Army Leader?
An Army leader is anyone who by virtue of assumed role or assigned responsibility inspires and influences people to accomplish organizational goals.
How can leaders mitigate resistance?
Leaders can mitigate resistance by anticipating what others value, their reactions to influence, their shared understanding of common goals, and their commitment to the general organization or the purpose of the mission and their trust in the organization and the leader.
What conveys the expectations that the Army wants leaders to meet?
The Leadership Requirements Model
What are the leader attributes?
Character, presence and intellect.
What are the three categories of competencies?
The Army leader serves to lead others.
The Army leader serves to develop the environment, themselves, others and the profession as a whole.
The Army leader serves to achieve organizational goals.

Reflective Writing: Texas Legislative Branch, Redistricting, Campaigns and Elections under Federalism
Requirements and Completion Instructions
When completing your essay, you must provide in-text citations for any work that is directly quoted or paraphrased. However, you do not need to put the direct citation next to each piece of information that you include in your chart. A bibliographic citations on your bibliography will suffice. When writing your essay, respond to the prompt thoroughly, and completely.
Your response should be your own thoughts and analysis. Citations may be formatted in MLA as long as they are consistent throughout. Research and resources should be incorporated with scholarly application. I.e. used as examples or evidence to support your analysis. Make sure to use complete sentences, and proper grammar. Your response to the prompt should focus on analyzing the information you gather and use to complete the constitutional chart through application. Incorporate the information you gathered by using it to provide examples and support for your response to the prompt.
Your analysis and essay must be at least 2 pages, in length. This does not include the bibliography. The bibliography should be incorporated, on a separate page.
My expectations of a complete assignment are that information is organized clearly and in detail with specific examples. Quality is preferred to quantity.
Prompt:
Copy and paste the link below, to access and stream the movie The Big Buy: How Tom Delay Stole Congress, free online. http://www.dailymotion.com/video/x6rzv (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.
Choose from one of the prompts below, to respond to
1. Thinking about federalism and the how power is distributed between multiple levels of government, including the federal and state level, identify current federal and Texas laws that regulate elections, such as those that provide for determining electoral processes, eligibility to participate in an election, selection methods, winning requirements, candidate qualifications, determining when and where election is held. Discuss inconsistencies and provide some possible examples to explain the potential effects these could have on electoral outcomes, of who is deemed winner, and ultimately achieving democratic representation of the appropriate people (constituents) who will be electorally linked and impacted by the winner of a political office.
2. In your own opinion, is re-redistricting, before the decennial census, a crime, based on statutory and constitutional law? Or, given the nature and number of state level elections, across a wide geography made up of an extremely demographically heterogeneous population, make it democratically necessary that re-mapping between census’s be a reserved power of the states, in order to maximize representative democracy. How could the remapping of Texas be applied to example and explain the state’s Don’t Mess With Texas, age old attitude, and individualistic political culture.
3. How could you defend an argument that re-redistricting was not illegal, and how could you defend the argument that re-redistricting violated the Voting Rights Act. Despite, the Texas remapping controversy, should the federal judicial system be involved, in what Justice Felix Frankfurter called the “political thicket” of partisan redistricting? Especially, since the power to redistrict is a power reserved to for the state, and its people. If political gerrymandering is a problem, should its resolve be left to the voters, state by state, and jurisdiction by jurisdiction, or to the federal government (i.e. oversight, regulation, intervention, law…what do you think).

The subject for the first of three larger written assignments in the course is the interaction between Congress and the Executive branches, topics from Modules 4-6.
ASSIGNMENT OVERVIEW
A recent presidential election, new Administration, unified government, and renewed interest in separation of powers between co-equal branches, executive authority over the bureaucracy, the role of congressional oversight all point to a relevant range of subjects for you to select a topic, engage in research and analysis, and compose an essay addressing a current topic that illustrates executive-legislative relations.
Washington, D.C. is an extremely competitive, political town and you must work hard to govern — whether it is via legislation, an executive order, or to keep or increase your agency funding — it is an important part of government. No matter when on the legislative calendar or President’s agenda, you sell your ideas and compete for attention, staff, funding.
Choose an issue of contemporary relevance to the federal government — it may be an issue of primarily legislative oversight or initiative or executive branch purview. However, in particular, identify a current issue of contention between the branches and present a reasoned argument or analysis describing the problem or conflict and how the branches work (or fail).
DETAILS
1. Submit a written analysis on a current topic of your choice. If you have any questions about relevant topics, please reach out to your Instructor.
2. A quality report will be between 750-1000 words (3-4 content pages).
Clarity and detail, as well as connections to the structure and powers of each branches, are more important than length.
3. You should use at least 5 quality sources to research and clarify your thoughts. When appropriate, the sources should be cited within the body of your analysis (using MLA (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. or APA (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.style). A complete bibliography or Works Cited should be and the end of your submitted document and will include all sources from which you gathered information. URLs alone are NOT a sufficient citation (See MLA (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. or APA (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. style guides).
4. Be sure to check for clarity and appropriate word usage; complete sentences; correct grammar, spelling and punctuation.
5. You should demonstrate substantial understanding about your topic and the current state of play on the issue.
6. Be sure to follow all guidelines as outlined in the full Writing Assignment Rubric (click here) .

The purpose of this paper is to provide practical application of material learned by developing concepts presented in the presentations. The body of the paper must be at least 6 pages (double spaced, 12-pt font). In addition to the body there must be a separate title page and a page of references. A separate abstract is not necessary and must be omitted.

Do not attempt to write the paper without carefully studying the related presentations. To achieve more than a passing grade, you must demonstrate a mastery of the presentations and factual information and incorporate those ideas into your papers. Naturally, stylistic points such as grammar and spelling will be considered in grading. Your paper must be in current APA format. Doing the minimum amount of work does not guarantee a perfect score.

Topic: Becoming an Informed Voter – Researching Your Congressional Delegation

The research paper has 2 steps. First, you will analyze the background of your congressional district and your U.S. Representative. Second, you will analyze the political background of your state and 1 of your U.S. Senators. You may choose which senator to study; however, if one senator is newly elected and does not have interest group ratings, choose the other one. Note that these are United States Representatives and Senators. Do not use members of your state legislature.

Begin by reviewing the presentation on “Becoming an Informed Voter.” The example of Congressman Bob Goodlatte of Virginia is used. If you live in the Sixth Congressional District of Virginia, you will have to adopt another Virginia congressional district as your temporary home and write about that one, since you have already been given some of the information on Bob Goodlatte. If you have a newly elected representative who has not yet received interest group ratings, get the interest group ratings of a representative from a neighboring district.

After reviewing the presentation, you will write an essay with 2 parts. The first part will deal with your congressional district and congressman; the second part will deal with your state and senator. As explained in the presentation, interest group scores may be found at http://www.votesmart.org.

A helpful source to find information for this paper is The Almanac of American Politics by Michael Barone and Chuck McCutcheon.

This essay will address a number of questions:

• What is the recent political history of your district and state?
• How have they voted in recent presidential and congressional elections?
• Can your district or state be considered to be leaning Republican or leaning Democratic?
• Are the parties relatively even or does one party dominate the elections?
• Does your district have a long tradition of supporting one party or has it been changing in recent years?
• How did your representative and senator come to power? (Thoroughly describe their backgrounds.)
• How do the interest groups (ADA, ACLU, ACU, CC or FRC) rate your representative and senator? (Note: If the Christian Coalition score is not available, you may substitute the Family Research Council score. Include the exact scores from each of these groups. The rationale for this is explained in the presentation.)
• Based on these ratings, would you classify your representative and senator as conservative or liberal? Justify your answer.
My state is north carolina so I will need senator and congressman from North Carolina

Prepare: Since this is the first step in developing your Final Paper, it is recommended that you review POL201 Assignment GuidePreview the document before beginning this assignment. A model POL201 Final Paper templatePreview the document and the POL201 Research Guide are both provided for you within the online classroom to utilize when completing your Final Paper. You should also review the Week 2 Policy and Your Life discussion and the list of some possible policies found in the Week 2 DQ and Final Paper Policy ExamplesPreview the document in your online classroom, before completing this assignment. The first step to researching your Final Paper is selecting a specific policy for your paper, which was part of the Week 2 Policy and Your Life discussion. Your paper must focus on a specific policy that focuses on an aspect of the United States government and ideally, that relates to your major and future career. You should be able to find research that will allow you to support your ideas. If you have questions or would like your instructor to approve your policy, please email them directly and/or discuss with your instructor and colleagues in the Week 2 Policy and Your Life discussion forum.
Reflect: Once you have found a topic that interests you, you will begin the research for your Final Paper this week. In addition to establishing your topic and the thesis for your paper, you will also provide an Annotated Bibliography (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. for four of the sources you intend to utilize to support your Final Paper. Each annotation should be a minimum of one full paragraph (five sentences) in length and should explain what the source discusses and how this links to your Final Paper topic. While your textbook can be utilized as a source, it does not count towards your four sources for this assignment. As your paper progresses, it is expected that you will find more sources to support your ideas for a minimum of eight sources are required for the final, with a minimum of five of those sources from the Ashford University Library databases. This research is necessary to develop a strong Final Paper. The following resources will help you to use the library effectively to find sources for your paper: For guidance on using library databases to locate scholarly, peer-reviewed articles click on Help! Need Article (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.and then click the “How Do I Search for Articles” button from the Main Menu. For guidance on identifying the types of sources you can use for academic research, watch this interactive tutorial on Evaluating Sources. The Scholarly, Peer Reviewed, and Other Credible Sources (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. table offers additional guidance on appropriate source types. Additionally, the POL201 Research Guide, located within the online classroom, is designed to help you find sources for your paper. If you have questions about whether a specific source is appropriate for this assignment, please contact your instructor. Be sure that the sources you are utilizing to support your ideas are valid, reliable, and not overly bias. For information on identifying information bias, watch this interactive tutorial on Subjective and Objective Statements (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site..
Write: To complete the assignment, download the Week 2 Annotated Bibliography WorksheetPreview the document from the online classroom to your computer, fill it out, and submit it via Waypoint. Within the worksheet, you will address your policy, find four scholarly sources to support your policy, and explain the significance of each of your four sources. Please be sure that each section is at least a full paragraph (minimum of five sentences) in length and fully addresses the questions presented. All references should be listed in full APA format and cited appropriately.

Select ONE of the following topics to answer for Writing Assignment 1. The writing assignment should be a minimum of 750 words. You should find most of the information you need to complete the assignment in the textbook, but it may improve your submission by using additional sources (such as news articles or government websites).
• Discuss how the population has changed in Texas and how it is projected to change in the future. (Hint: Look at the charts and graphs in Chapter 1.) In what ways might Texas’ politics change in the future based on its racial and ethnic makeup? Based on the population growth, urbanization and economic transformation of the last two decades, how might Texas change in the next two decades? Which areas will grow in population, and what might Texas’ government have to do to respond to that growth? (Be specific)
• Compared to the US Constitution, why is the Texas Constitution so frequently amended? How does the turnout for elections dealing with constitutional amendments compare to turnout for presidential elections? (Refer to “Who are Texans?” in Chapter 2). Do you think the level of turnout influences the legitimacy of the amendments that are passed or rejected? Do you think that more people should participate in constitutional amendment elections? Why or why not? Is there anything the state can do to increase turnout for constitutional amendment elections?
• Has the evolving relationship between the federal government and the states changed for the better or worse? Why? How has Texas generally responded to mandates from the federal government? Do you think the federal government should be allowed to enact “unfunded mandates” on the states? What state issues, if any, do you feel the federal government should be involved in? Why these and not others?
• Do you think political parties serve an important function in Texas? Why? What are some of the barriers to third parties in Texas? Do you think Texas should make it easier for minor parties to gain political power? Why or why not? What changes would you make in order to improve the visibility and power of minor parties in Texas?
• What are some of the past and more recent barriers to voting in Texas? (Be specific) What accounts for the low level of voter participation in Texas? What can be done to increase voter participation? (Specifically discuss at least two policy proposals that election officials could adopt.) Under legislation passed in 2017, Texas will be eliminating straight-ticket voting beginning with the 2020 elections. Do you agree with this? Why or why not?
• What are some of the positive and negative consequences of former members of the Texas Legislature lobbying current members of the legislature? People in the legislature and outside observers have discussed putting limitations on lobbying by former members. Should Texas enact laws to limit the ability of ex-legislators to lobby? What major proposal was put forward in the 2019 legislative session? How far did the bill go in the Texas Legislature? (Note: The Texas Tribune is a good source for information on the legislative session.)
• Discuss the gender, racial and educational makeup of the Texas Legislature. (Refer to “Who are Texans?” in Chapter 7.) Does it adequately represent the population of the state? If the legislature had more people of color, more women, or more people of varying levels of education, do you think it would pass different policies? If so, what kinds of policies might they pass? (Be specific here.) Does the part-time nature of the Texas legislature encourage or discourage people from particular occupations to run? Do you think a full-time legislature could make the legislature more representative? Why or why not?

Ch. 6 & 7 discuss the influence gender and family have on delinquency. In addition, you have read briefly about gender and the juvenile justice system.

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper answering the following questions:

How does gender affect delinquency?

What are some current explanations for gender differences as they relate to delinquency?

How does family affect delinquency?

How does family makeup affect delinquency?
How does family behavior influence delinquency?

Are delinquent females treated differently than delinquent males by members of the juvenile justice system?

Are they treated unfairly?
Do they benefit from being female? Why or why not?

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

For this assignment, you will write a 2–3-page essay (double-spaced, 1-inch margins) providing examples of how some facet of “process philosophy” has impacted American government and/or society. You may focus on just 1 example, or you may discuss 2–3 examples.

Options include the following topics:
• A specific piece of legislation.
• The “party platform” of either the Republican Party or the Democratic Party (or both).
• Family and marriage.
• Economics.
• Civil rights.
• Education.

In discussing one of these topics, the goal is to relate how a particular political perspective derives from process philosophy (such as socialism). In making the connection, incorporate clear references from the required reading.

Select ONE of the following topics to answer for Writing Assignment 1. The writing assignment should be a minimum of 750 words. You should find most of the information you need to complete the assignment in the textbook, but it may improve your submission by using additional sources (such as news articles or government websites).
• Discuss how the population has changed in Texas and how it is projected to change in the future. (Hint: Look at the charts and graphs in Chapter 1.) In what ways might Texas’ politics change in the future based on its racial and ethnic makeup? Based on the population growth, urbanization and economic transformation of the last two decades, how might Texas change in the next two decades? Which areas will grow in population, and what might Texas’ government have to do to respond to that growth? (Be specific)
• Compared to the US Constitution, why is the Texas Constitution so frequently amended? How does the turnout for elections dealing with constitutional amendments compare to turnout for presidential elections? (Refer to “Who are Texans?” in Chapter 2). Do you think the level of turnout influences the legitimacy of the amendments that are passed or rejected? Do you think that more people should participate in constitutional amendment elections? Why or why not? Is there anything the state can do to increase turnout for constitutional amendment elections?
• Has the evolving relationship between the federal government and the states changed for the better or worse? Why? How has Texas generally responded to mandates from the federal government? Do you think the federal government should be allowed to enact “unfunded mandates” on the states? What state issues, if any, do you feel the federal government should be involved in? Why these and not others?
• Do you think political parties serve an important function in Texas? Why? What are some of the barriers to third parties in Texas? Do you think Texas should make it easier for minor parties to gain political power? Why or why not? What changes would you make in order to improve the visibility and power of minor parties in Texas?
• What are some of the past and more recent barriers to voting in Texas? (Be specific) What accounts for the low level of voter participation in Texas? What can be done to increase voter participation? (Specifically discuss at least two policy proposals that election officials could adopt.) Under legislation passed in 2017, Texas will be eliminating straight-ticket voting beginning with the 2020 elections. Do you agree with this? Why or why not?
• What are some of the positive and negative consequences of former members of the Texas Legislature lobbying current members of the legislature? People in the legislature and outside observers have discussed putting limitations on lobbying by former members. Should Texas enact laws to limit the ability of ex-legislators to lobby? What major proposal was put forward in the 2019 legislative session? How far did the bill go in the Texas Legislature? (Note: The Texas Tribune is a good source for information on the legislative session.)
• Discuss the gender, racial and educational makeup of the Texas Legislature. (Refer to “Who are Texans?” in Chapter 7.) Does it adequately represent the population of the state? If the legislature had more people of color, more women, or more people of varying levels of education, do you think it would pass different policies? If so, what kinds of policies might they pass? (Be specific here.) Does the part-time nature of the Texas legislature encourage or discourage people from particular occupations to run? Do you think a full-time legislature could make the legislature more representative? Why or why not?

The following questions are based on assigned textbook readings. Answer each question as completely as possible. Be sure to proofread your work carefully for correct spelling, grammar, and usage. Creative thinking and your own wording are important aspects of an effective answer.
Do not merely copy sentences or paragraphs from the readings. However, you should use ideas from the readings if they support your answer. When you do, be sure to acknowledge the source of the quotation or paraphrase.
1.Interest groups attempt to influence politicians and public policy in a variety of ways. Define the term interest group, distinguishing it from a political party, and briefly describe some of the ways interest groups seek influence. [MO4.1, MO4.2]
2.Discuss the differences between economic groups and citizen groups. Which areas does each try to influence, and why? From which sources does each of these groups receive the funds needed to function? [MO4.1, MO4.2]
3.Through inside lobbying, groups seek to gain direct access to officials in order to influence their decisions. Describe key elements and tactics of the process of inside lobbying. Define outside lobbying. Who is involved, and who are the targets? What tactics are used, and what relationship is there with elections? [MO4.1, MO4.2]
4.Political action committees (PACs) are the financial arm of interest groups. Discuss PACs and super PACs. Discuss some of the controversies surrounding PACs. [MO4.1, MO4.2]
5.Define a pluralist approach to group theory and the elite critique. [MO4.1, MO4.2]
6.Summarize the historical development of the news media from the nation’s founding to today. What has been happening to the news audience and the news media in recent years, and how has that affected the information levels of the American public? Why is it important for citizens to be attentive and informed? [MO4.3]
7.Define and explain the media functions of agenda setting, promoting the public good, watchdogs, and corporate revenue generator. Why is the media referred to as the fourth estate, and what are the other three? Explain your answer. [MO4.3]
8.Discuss divided government. Does redistricting have any effect? What is gerrymandering? [MO4.3]

Book Critique on Martin’s, Prevailing Worldviews of Western Society Since 1500. The Book Critique must be 3–5 pages, not including the title and reference page. Format the body of your critique in 4 main sections: summary, critique, application, and policy review. Do not summarize or critique the chapters chronologically. Consider the book as a whole. Avoid excessive quotations. State the authors’ viewpoints in your own words and give specific page references when paraphrasing. Be sure to review the Book Critiques Grading Rubric before starting this assignment. Each submission must be in a Microsoft Word document.
• Summary
Summarize the main theme of the book. What is the overall perspective, purpose, or argument of the book? If the author wanted you to get 1 idea from the book, what would it be?
• Critique
This section needs to balance the book’s strengths and weaknesses in order to unify your evaluation. What strikes you as noteworthy? What has the book accomplished? In what ways was the book effective or persuasive? Challenge assumptions, approaches, or arguments made by the author. Does the argument make sense? You can offer agreement or disagreement as well as identifying where you find the work exemplary or deficient in its knowledge, judgments, or organization. Provide concrete evidence for your assertions. Support judgments with references from the textbook readings in this course and other scholarly resources. The paper must include at least 2 references in addition to the course textbooks and the Bible. All citations must be in current Turabian format. Be sure that your evaluation is balanced, respectful, and fair. Control the tone of your critique.
• Application
This section must demonstrate how the book has enhanced your understanding of current public policy issues. Why is this topic important today? How can this information be used in forming and maintaining a strong foreign policy?
• Policy Review
Identify and assess a current public policy issue in current events in light of the theories presented in this material. Do not merely state what the policy is. Explain the policy and provide a short but detailed briefing on the policy. Additionally, state if the policy is good or bad based on the perspective you gained in reading this book. You must also introduce new ideas that go beyond the book if they complement ideas you have gleaned from reading in the book.

Read the John D. Rockefeller Standard Oil Trust case study as well as pp. 145–150 –> Exxon and the Control of Oil. In your paper, you are to support the position of the dominance theory of business power.
From the perspective of the dominance theory which you have been assigned, consider the following prompts in your paper:
1. Regarding the seven levels of corporate power, how did the power of Standard Oil change society?
2. Was the power exercised in keeping with the social contract of Rockefeller’s era?
3. Does the story support the position of the dominance theory of business power?
4. Did the arguments you read in this case study change your perspective?
Paper Requirements
12-font, Times New Roman, 1-3 pages, APA style (scholarly reference citations)

Worldview Analysis Paper Instructions
You will write a 2-page paper (double-spaced, 1-inch margins, 2 full pages) providing examples of how some facet of “process philosophy” has impacted American government and/or society. You may focus on just 1 example, or you may discuss 2–3 examples.

Options include the following topics:

• A specific piece of legislation
• The “party platform” of either the Republican Party or the Democratic Party (or both)
• Family & Marriage
• Economics
• Civil Rights
• Education

In discussing one of these topics, the goal is to relate how a particular political perspective derives from process philosophy (such as socialism). In making the connection, incorporate clear references from the required reading.

The required reading and study material for Module/Week 4 must be cited, specifically:

• Martin: chs. 8–13
• Either 1 or more of the presentations from Module/Week 4, or Lecture Notes 4.1
• Several (2–4) additional outside sources which provide specifics on your chosen topic
• I can email the lecture notes and anything else that I have if you need them.

Assignment 1: Forces and Public Issues in Industry
Introduction
In this module we explored business, government, and society as an interrelated system made up of primary and secondary stakeholders. In additional to stakeholder forces, we also introduced some of the broader forces influencing this system. In this assignment, you will demonstrate your understanding of stakeholder relationships and influences (including that of government and the media) on industry and public issues.
This assignment will comprise 15% of your total course mark. Part A is a case study on land development, and Part B is a report on public issues relating to the tobacco industry. Each question carries the marks as stated for a total of 100 marks.
Part A: A Brawl in Mickey’s Backyard
Read the Discussion Case, “A Brawl in Mickey’s Backyard,” on pages 22–23 of your textbook.
• Question 1: In a chart, diagram, or paragraph form, identify the primary and secondary (or market and nonmarket) stakeholder groups influencing or influenced by SunCal’s plans to develop a 26-acre site in the resort district. (5 marks)
• Question 2: Explain why each stakeholder group identified in question 1 is in favour of, or opposed to, SunCal’s plans to build condominiums in the resort district. (15 marks)
• Question 3: Identify possible solutions to this dispute that might emerge if SunCal was to work collaboratively with its stakeholders to address their concerns. (10 marks)
Part B: The Tobacco Industry
The tobacco industry is constantly in the media. Choose one or more public issue(s) relating to the tobacco industry (banning of smoking in public places, secondary smoke health issues, controls on tobacco advertising and corporate sponsorship, youth or women as a tobacco industry target markets, etc.) Write a 2500-word double-spaced report containing the following:
• Section 1. Context: Introduce the issue(s) you have selected and list primary and secondary stakeholders influencing or influenced by this issue(s). Be specific in naming individuals, groups, associations, and/or government bodies and describe these stakeholders’ roles. (15 marks)
• Section 2. What does this mean to my family? Identify your own stakeholder role(s) in relation to the tobacco industry and cigarette smoking in our society. Describe the biases, perspectives, or experiences that may influence your position on this public issue. (10 marks)
Note: There is no right or wrong perspective, but it is important to recognize your own stakeholder positions and how they influence your perspectives.
• Section 3. What does this mean to my company? Imagine yourself as a tobacco industry executive and describe management of the public issue(s) from this perspective. (15 marks)
• Section 4. What does this mean to my country? Discuss the role(s) of government in this issue(s) and how it is influencing both the industry and the public. (15 marks)
• Section 5. Media impact: Describe the media’s role in this issue(s) and the perspective it is presenting to the public. Discuss both industry-sponsored media communications, as well as government communications and reporting in the popular press. Cite specific examples using references. (15 marks)
Completion Guidelines
• Submit your assignment by WebCT mail. Be sure to save your assignment as a Word document and name it BBUS_3031_Module_1_Assignment.
• Did you scan the document for viruses?
• Did you complete all the required elements?
• Did you use information and terminology learned in this course?
• Did you support your statements with specific examples and external resources?
• Did you cite references, using correct referencing format?
• Is your report grammatically correct, clear, and well organized?
• Did you demonstrate your ability to evaluate sources of information?
• Send your assignment to your Open Learning faculty member.

Worldview Analysis Paper Instructions
You will write a 2-page paper (double-spaced, 1-inch margins, 2 full pages) providing examples of how some facet of “process philosophy” has impacted American government and/or society. You may focus on just 1 example, or you may discuss 2–3 examples.

Options include the following topics:

• A specific piece of legislation
• The “party platform” of either the Republican Party or the Democratic Party (or both)
• Family & Marriage
• Economics
• Civil Rights
• Education

In discussing one of these topics, the goal is to relate how a particular political perspective derives from process philosophy (such as socialism). In making the connection, incorporate clear references from the required reading.

The required reading and study material for Module/Week 4 must be cited, specifically:

• Martin: chs. 8–13
• Either 1 or more of the presentations from Module/Week 4, or Lecture Notes 4.1
• Several (2–4) additional outside sources which provide specifics on your chosen topic
• I can email the lecture notes and anything else that I have if you need them.

Assignment 1: Forces and Public Issues in Industry
Introduction
In this module we explored business, government, and society as an interrelated system made up of primary and secondary stakeholders. In additional to stakeholder forces, we also introduced some of the broader forces influencing this system. In this assignment, you will demonstrate your understanding of stakeholder relationships and influences (including that of government and the media) on industry and public issues.
This assignment will comprise 15% of your total course mark. Part A is a case study on land development, and Part B is a report on public issues relating to the tobacco industry. Each question carries the marks as stated for a total of 100 marks.
Part A: A Brawl in Mickey’s Backyard
Read the Discussion Case, “A Brawl in Mickey’s Backyard,” on pages 22–23 of your textbook.
• Question 1: In a chart, diagram, or paragraph form, identify the primary and secondary (or market and nonmarket) stakeholder groups influencing or influenced by SunCal’s plans to develop a 26-acre site in the resort district. (5 marks)
• Question 2: Explain why each stakeholder group identified in question 1 is in favour of, or opposed to, SunCal’s plans to build condominiums in the resort district. (15 marks)
• Question 3: Identify possible solutions to this dispute that might emerge if SunCal was to work collaboratively with its stakeholders to address their concerns. (10 marks)
Part B: The Tobacco Industry
The tobacco industry is constantly in the media. Choose one or more public issue(s) relating to the tobacco industry (banning of smoking in public places, secondary smoke health issues, controls on tobacco advertising and corporate sponsorship, youth or women as a tobacco industry target markets, etc.) Write a 2500-word double-spaced report containing the following:
• Section 1. Context: Introduce the issue(s) you have selected and list primary and secondary stakeholders influencing or influenced by this issue(s). Be specific in naming individuals, groups, associations, and/or government bodies and describe these stakeholders’ roles. (15 marks)
• Section 2. What does this mean to my family? Identify your own stakeholder role(s) in relation to the tobacco industry and cigarette smoking in our society. Describe the biases, perspectives, or experiences that may influence your position on this public issue. (10 marks)
Note: There is no right or wrong perspective, but it is important to recognize your own stakeholder positions and how they influence your perspectives.
• Section 3. What does this mean to my company? Imagine yourself as a tobacco industry executive and describe management of the public issue(s) from this perspective. (15 marks)
• Section 4. What does this mean to my country? Discuss the role(s) of government in this issue(s) and how it is influencing both the industry and the public. (15 marks)
• Section 5. Media impact: Describe the media’s role in this issue(s) and the perspective it is presenting to the public. Discuss both industry-sponsored media communications, as well as government communications and reporting in the popular press. Cite specific examples using references. (15 marks)
Completion Guidelines
• Submit your assignment by WebCT mail. Be sure to save your assignment as a Word document and name it BBUS_3031_Module_1_Assignment.
• Did you scan the document for viruses?
• Did you complete all the required elements?
• Did you use information and terminology learned in this course?
• Did you support your statements with specific examples and external resources?
• Did you cite references, using correct referencing format?
• Is your report grammatically correct, clear, and well organized?
• Did you demonstrate your ability to evaluate sources of information?
• Send your assignment to your Open Learning faculty member.

Assessment task details:
You are required to choose one (1) of the following three contemporary ethics issues (Topics 1, 2 or 3) for analysis and produce a board briefing paper for tabling at the next meeting of the company’s board of directors.
Board members gain a great deal of information about the decisions they need to make through the papers they receive prior to a board meeting. Board papers are often prepared by non-board members. Papers cover a variety of functions, from providing general information to a call for action. For example, section 180 of the Australian Corporations Act 2001 outlines that directors have a statutory duty of care to have read the board papers to be able to contribute effectively to board meetings.
In this briefing paper you will argue either in the affirmative (for) or the negative (against), providing a critical argument with evidence to support your argument.
Whilst the tone of this writing is slightly different to an essay, this briefing paper must have essay-like qualities. That is, you are required to formulate an argument, undertake research to locate academic references, and support your argument with theories covered in this course.
You are also required to table recommendations for the board to consider based on your analysis of the issue, including future action and possible barriers (these must be theory driven/evidence based).
To formulate your argument, you are required to undertake research to locate academic references using online databases (e.g. EBSCO, Proquest, Emerald, Science Direct etc). You must to use at least 12 academic references to support your argument.
Literature pointers will be provided on the Ethics & Governance Canvas site. Also, please read the Ethics & Governance – Guide to Assessment 1: Research Essay for details on essay writing, research and referencing requirements for this assessment.
E&G Assessment Guide
See also the Australian Institute of Company Directors (AICD) Directors Tools on Board Papers Meeting Effectiveness (Links to an external site.)
Topic 1: Walmart and Foreign Corruption
Walmart has agreed to pay $US282 million (AUD $407 million) to settle US federal allegations of overseas corruption. Once upon a time it was possible to get away with having differing ethical stances in different jurisdictions. In a globalised world is it ethical and still possible to practice ethical relativism? (Answer with reference to course literature, theory, concepts and research.)
Literature pointers:
• Barakat, M 2019, ‘Walmart to pay $407m over foreign corruption charges’, Australian Financial Review, 21 June, https://www.afr.com/business/retail/walmart-to-pay-407m-over-foreign-corruption-charges-20190621-p51zys (Links to an external site.) [viewed 27 June 2019].
• Hartman, LP & Desjardins, J 2008, Business ethics: Decision making for personal integrity & social responsibility, McGraw-Hill irwin, Boston, pp 63-109. see Chapter 3: Philosophical ethics and business https://equella.rmit.edu.au/rmit/file/0815e3d6-0fcf-3116-63ae-98e378546eae/1/31259007731461.pdf (Links to an external site.)
• (Links to an external site.) (Links to an external site.)Jones, TM & Ryan, LV 1998, ‘The effect of organizational forces on individual morality: Judgment, moral approbation, and behavior’, Business Ethics Quarterly, vol. 8, no. 3, pp. 431-45.
• Scherer, AG & Palazzo, G 2011, The new political role of business in a globalized world: A review of a new perspective on CSR and its implications for the firm, governance, and democracy, Journal of Management Studies, 48(4), 899-931.
• Trevino, LK and Nelson, KA 2011, Managing business ethics : straight talk about how to do it right, Chapter 3: Deciding what’s right: a psychological approach, pp. 71-110, 5th ed. Hoboken, NJ : John Wiley.
I want to 2000 words and it should be Harvard format no plagiarism.
I chose Walmart and Foreign Corruption Topic. I also attached all the articles and the course slides you may need it.
the course name : Ethics & governance

APA format, properly formatted cover page, double-spaced text, Times New Roman 12pt font, 1-inch margins, as well as full endnote-style citations for paraphrasing and quotations. Eight references (minimum) 1,600 word paper addressing the following topic:
The integration and application of airpower in warfare has been debated throughout history with a variety of perspectives and opinions on its proper use. Many of the key ideas, theories, and doctrine regarding the use of the military instrument of power—particularly the use of airpower. Reflecting on the Airpower, describe and explain the capabilities and limitations of military power in the air domain.
Objectives
1. Analyze the different perspectives on the application of airpower in warfare.
2. Apply the principles of airpower to warfare.
3. Relate historical changes in the perspectives on the proper use of airpower in warfare to contemporary events.
4. Apply an understanding of the patterns and trends in airpower to the modern debate

Assignment Details
As recent events have shown, the rapid pace in which technology advances has created complicated legal questions that are being litigated before the courts today. Likely, one of the most controversial of these advances is the relationship between DNA, probable cause, and issues of privacy. In this activity, you are provided two research documents. Research Document 1 provides an overview of the legal issues associated with compulsory DNA collection and was prepared by the Congressional Research Service. Research Document 2 contains a detailed overview of the legal and ethical issues associated with DNA. Read both documents, and then write an argumentative essay explaining your position on the issue of DNA that is discussed in these documents.
Complete the following for this assignment:
1. Read the following 2 research documents:
o Henning, A. C. (2008). Compulsory DNA collection: A Fourth Amendment analysis. Washington, D.C.: Congressional Research Service, Library of Congress.
 Click here to access the article.
o Strutin, K. (2014). DNA without warrant: Decoding privacy, probable cause and personhood. Rich. JL & Pub. Int., 18, 319.
 Click here to access the article.
2. Summarize the key legal and privacy concerns discussed by Henning.
3. Summarize the key legal and privacy concerns discussed by Strutin.
4. Form an argumentative essay supporting your position relating to those issues raised by Henning and Strutin. Indicate whether you agree with one author over the other, whether you disagree with both, or have other ideas on this topic. Explain your position in detail.
Be sure to cite all references in APA format.

Texas Government Essay Questions (3)

Please answer following three essay questions. Each essay must be at least two pages long (double-spaced and font size of 12). You are more than welcome to write more than two pages for each essay. Please make sure to give proper citations if you utilize any sources. MLA format is a must (work cited page, in-text citations, etc.). I will use TURNITIN when grading your essays. .
1. Describe the particular historical conditions under which the Constitution of 1876 was drafted. What were some of the main principles behind the Constitution of 1876? What are some of the most important aspects of the constitution that reflect the political philosophy of its framers?
2. Describe the character of federal–state relations today. How much influence does the federal government wield over the states? What tools can it use to coerce state compliance with federal measures? What means do states have to resist federal initiatives?
3. Describe the history of Texas as a one-party state. Which party dominates Texas politics today, and what are the historical origins behind this dominance? What were some of the ramifications of one-party rule? What caused the rise of a two-party system in Texas?

Liz Claiborne, Inc. (Claiborne), is a large maker of sportswear in the United States and a wellknown name in fashion, with sales of over $1 billion per year. Claiborne distributes its products through 9,000 retail outlets in the United States. Avon Products, Inc. (Avon), is a major producer of fragrances, toiletries, and cosmetics, with annual sales of more than $3 billion per year. Claiborne, which desired to promote its well-known name on perfumes and cosmetics, entered into a joint venture with Avon whereby Claiborne would make available its names, trademarks, and marketing experience and Avon would engage in the procurement and manufacture of the fragrances, toiletries, and cosmetics. The parties would equally share the financial requirements of the joint venture. During its first year of operation, the joint venture had sales of more than $16 million. In the second year, sales increased to $26 million, making it one of the fastest-growing fragrance and cosmetic lines in the country. One year later, Avon sought to “uncouple” the joint venture. Avon thereafter refused to procure and manufacture the line of fragrances and cosmetics for the joint venture. When Claiborne could not obtain the necessary fragrances and cosmetics from any other source for the fall/Christmas season, Claiborne sued Avon for breach of contract, seeking specific performance of the contract by Avon. Is specific performance an appropriate remedy in this case? Liz Claiborne, Inc. v. Avon Products, Inc., 141 A.D.2d 329, 530 N.Y.S.2d 425, Web 1988 N.Y.App. Div. Lexis 6423 (Supreme Court of New York) (Cheeseman 260)

1. Consider the topic of the “American Politics in Comparative Perspective” feature. What areas of domestic or foreign policy would be impacted if the United States were to split the head of state and head of government roles?
2. Consider the topic of the “American Politics in Comparative Perspective” feature. In parliamentary systems, both the prime minister and the Cabinet are ultimately accountable to parliament. In the U.S., the executive and legislative branches are separate and co-equal. What are the major advantages and disadvantages of each system?

Give your views in 3-4 sentences each.
1. Do you believe the Tea Party movement revitalizes the Republican Party? Should they incorporate the Republican Party?
2. How would a representative treat the issue of immigration if his/her district were located in a large city such as Houston or Dallas?
3. How would the budget shortage be treated if a representative represented a high-income district in Texas?
4. As a legislator, what argument is most compelling to you about addressing unemployment benefits?
5. As a lobbyist, what specific argument would you make to a legislator about addressing air quality in Texas?
6. As a legislator in the Texas House, what must you consider when you support your party and constituents over the Speaker?
7. As a legislator in the Texas House, what must you consider when you support the Speaker over your party and constituents?

Your success with the City of Palms landed you a new consultant job. The organization that suffered the hazard you chose in Week Two hired you to further explore its disaster. This week, the organization asked you to review its preparedness and mitigation strategies.
Review Figure 4.1, Preparedness Cycle, in Introduction to Emergency Management (6th ed.). (ATTACHED)
Write a 1 1/2- to- 2-page paper containing at least 750 words in which you conduct an analysis of the way the organization handled the hazard you chose in Week Two based on the elements outlined in the Preparedness Cycle figure.
Research mitigation tools applicable to a potential response plan.
Include the following sections in your analysis:
• Where does the organization fall on the Preparedness Cycle? Why?
• What are the organization’s Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats (SWOT) analysis results?
• What mitigation tools are applicable to a potential response plan for the organization?
Format your sources according to APA guidelines; provide at least two references.

UNDERSTANDING THE ASSIGNMENT: ESSAY – EXPLORING ANCIENT MYSTERIES
Write a 3-4 paragraph essay (of at least 250-500 words) which adequately address the topic and requirements stated below.
Format your essay according to the Strayer University Writing Standards as detailed in the formatting instructions below.
STEP 1: TOPIC SELECTION
Select a topic from the list below and include this topic on your title page.
Pyramids at Giza
There have been many theories regarding how the pyramids at Giza were constructed. Most experts agree that they were constructed as burial monuments for pharaohs, but “how” these ancient people constructed monuments of such great size without modern machinery is a mystery which is still being debated.
Tutankamen
Tutankhamen died young, at approximately eighteen (18) years of age. However, his cause of death has been the subject of quite varied scholarly theories and conclusions. Did he die of an injury, of illness, of murder, or something else?.
Great Zimbabwe
Great Zimbabwe is an enormous complex of structures in East Africa. Since the builders and occupants left no written records, several theories have developed as to the identity of its builders and the functions of the structures. Which theory makes the most sense?
Tomb of Shihuangdi
The monumental size and complexity of the Tomb of Shihuangdi is astounding, yet its location and construction details were to be kept secret. What was the emperor’s purpose for such an elaborate, secret burial place?.
STEP 2: MYSTERY & THEORIES
Describe the mystery as though someone is hearing it for the first time.
Provide a brief summary of at least 2 reasonable and scholarly theories which could explain the mystery. Because some theories may sound far-fetched, include the source or promoter of each theory – such as a scientist, a historian, a theologian, etc.
STEP 3: EXAMINING THE MOST PLAUSIBLE
Identify 1 of the theories that you summarized above as the most plausible.
Provide at least 2 convincing reasons why the theory you have chosen is the best one to explain the mystery.
STEP 4: REFERENCES & CITATIONS
Include a reference page that identifies at least 3 references. The class text may be included in the list of 3 or more.
In-text citations are required when paraphrasing or quoting another source. (i.e., STEPS 2 and 3 above)
STEP 5: DOUBLE CHECK FORMATTING
Formatting and writing standards are part of your grade. Align your formatting to the Strayer University Writing Standards.
View the: Strayer University Writing Standards (SWS)

Assessment task details:
You are required to choose one (1) of the following three contemporary ethics issues (Topics 1, 2 or 3) for analysis and produce a board briefing paper for tabling at the next meeting of the company’s board of directors.
Board members gain a great deal of information about the decisions they need to make through the papers they receive prior to a board meeting. Board papers are often prepared by non-board members. Papers cover a variety of functions, from providing general information to a call for action. For example, section 180 of the Australian Corporations Act 2001 outlines that directors have a statutory duty of care to have read the board papers to be able to contribute effectively to board meetings.
In this briefing paper you will argue either in the affirmative (for) or the negative (against), providing a critical argument with evidence to support your argument.
Whilst the tone of this writing is slightly different to an essay, this briefing paper must have essay-like qualities. That is, you are required to formulate an argument, undertake research to locate academic references, and support your argument with theories covered in this course.
You are also required to table recommendations for the board to consider based on your analysis of the issue, including future action and possible barriers (these must be theory driven/evidence based).
To formulate your argument, you are required to undertake research to locate academic references using online databases (e.g. EBSCO, Proquest, Emerald, Science Direct etc). You must to use at least 12 academic references to support your argument.
Literature pointers will be provided on the Ethics & Governance Canvas site. Also, please read the Ethics & Governance – Guide to Assessment 1: Research Essay for details on essay writing, research and referencing requirements for this assessment.
Topic 1: Walmart and Foreign Corruption
Walmart has agreed to pay $US282 million (AUD $407 million) to settle US federal allegations of overseas corruption. Once upon a time it was possible to get away with having differing ethical stances in different jurisdictions. In a globalised world is it ethical and still possible to practice ethical relativism? (Answer with reference to course literature, theory, concepts and research.)
I want to 2000 words and it should be Harvard format no plagiarism.
I chose Walmart and Foreign Corruption Topic. I also attached all the articles and the course slides you may need it.

Select ONE of the following topics to answer for the Lesson Writing Assignment. The writing assignment should be a minimum of 500 words. You should find most of the information you need to complete the assignment in the chapter, but you are allowed to use outside sources as well (such as news articles or government websites). DO NOT simply copy the information word for word from your sources. If you use information directly from the textbook or another source, it should be cited and the properly formatted citation should be provided at the end of the assignment. All assignments will be analyzed with SafeAssign to identify possible plagiarism.
1. Read Chapter 1 in the textbook, including “You Decide: Voices of Texas: Immigration in Texas,” and write an essay that addresses the following questions:
• How is the population changing in Texas?
• What are some of the possible political implications of the changing population in Texas?
• After reading the “You Decide” passage, do you agree with Dan Patrick or Julian Castro? Should undocumented immigrants be given a pathway to citizenship or be sent back to their country of origin?
• What are the pros and cons of illegal immigration in regards to both the U.S. and Texas economies? Consider how illegal immigrants have positively or negatively affected the economy.
• Do you believe compromise is possible on immigration? Are the only two options deportations and amnesty? Is there a third option?
• What role should the state of Texas play in the immigration policy?
2. Read Chapter 2 in the textbook, including “You Decide: Voice of Texas: Proposition 2 and Same-Sex Marriage,” and write an essay that addresses the following questions:
• As compared to the US Constitution, why is the Texas Constitution so frequently amended?
• How does the turnout for elections dealing with constitutional amendments compare to turnout for presidential elections?
• Do you think the level of turnout influences the legitimacy of the amendments that are passed or rejected?
• Is Proposition 2 a violation of the equal protection clause of the U.S. Constitution?
• Should Proposition 2 be deleted from the Texas Constitution? Why or why not?
• Must the state recognize same-sex marriages that have been licensed and performed lawfully in another state? If so, why? If not, why not?
• Do you believe that religious freedom gives people the right to deny their services for same-sex marriages? If so, why? If not, why not?
3. Read Chapter 3 in the textbook, including “You Decide: Voices of Texas: Voting Rights and Redistricting,” and write an essay that addresses the following questions:
• Has the evolving relationship between the federal government and the states changed for the better or worse? Why?
• How has Texas often responded to mandates from the federal government?
• With regards to voting rights, is this an area where the federal government should have more or less influence on the states?
• What is Section 5 of the Voting Rights Act?
• Does preclearance violate the Tenth Amendment and give the federal government too much power, or is it a necessary check on the states to make sure that minorities are not discriminated against?
• Texas argued that it is unconstitutional to impose preclearance unless a state’s racial discrimination was as bad as what existed in 1965. In 2013, then-Attorney General Gregg Abbott argued that voter discrimination is no longer a problem in Texas and consequently is exempt from federal oversight. Do you agree? If yes, why? If not, why not?
• What are two other areas where Texas is at odds with federal laws or mandates?

A student notifies you that she has been subjected to bullying through a classmate’s Facebook page. In 500-750-words, address the following:
1. Steps you are required to take that are consistent with state statutes, your district’s school board policies, faculty handbook, and the student handbook;
2. Any First Amendment arguments you think the student with the Facebook page may raise; and
3. Responses you could make to the First Amendment arguments that are consistent with the cases in the assigned readings.
APA format is not required, but solid academic writing is expected.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

After reviewing the ‘boom in bust’ case
What would you consdier to be the pros and cons for entrepreneur friendly bankruptcy laws?
Why can bankruptcy laws become an entry/exit barrier for an entrepreneurial firm?
Having studied this case, how would you respond to a friend’s comment: “Recent news about the boom in bankruptcies is so depressing”?

The American system of government has historically been referred to as an “experiment in democracy” that blends elements of thought on self-rule with historical and philosophical thought.
(a) Describe two historical examples of self-rule or democratic rule from which the Framers of the US Constitution drew inspiration. Connect each example to one of these elements of American democracy.
Voting and elections
Limits on government power
(b) Explain how Enlightenment philosophy influenced the Framers in their drafting of these key documents.
The Declaration of Independence
The US Constitution
(c) Explain the purpose of government as accepted by the Framers, and identify one major influence on the development of that purpose.

Please before you understand that this bid requires a forum post along with 2 forum post responses below, both must be done. The budget is what it is posted, please do not try to raise the price, either you will do it or the next person will. The forum post is due by Thursday and the responses by Sun; I will annotate this posting with responses once I get them and contact you
Your readings this week also goes on to discuss the capabilities-based assessment (CBA) process, which is the “backbone” of JCIDS Defense Acquisition University, 2010, p. 35). There is an excellent chart on page 36 of your textbook that details the CBA process. The CBA is an analytical approach utilized by the DoD to identify the needs of the warfighter. The purpose of the process is to find out what requirements the warfighter has. “Requirement” is just the acquisition way of saying needs, supplies, or equipment. In a DoD contracting activity, the “requirement” is the item or service that is being acquired.
The ground work discussed in the lesson for this week is imperative to set the stage for the acquisition process. Without solid research and analysis early on, the acquisition process will go down the wrong path and result in lost money and time.
So, your question for this week, and some of what we discussed last week, is “What is wrong with the requirements” analysis that goes into our federal or defense contracts today? Bring in examples of any problems you have experienced to help round out the discussion this week.
Instructions: Your initial post should be at least 250 words. Please respond to at least 2 other students. Responses should be a minimum of 100 words and include direct questions.

Complete Case 28, Foster Pharmaceuticals: •Review Case 28, pages 193–196, in your Cases in Healthcare Finance text. You will find a case spreadsheet model via the Student Spreadsheets link in the Resources area. (Select Case 28 to download the Excel spreadsheet.) •Write a case review that addresses receivables management. Your review should be approximately three pages.

SCORING GUIDE:
Evaluate case and identify decisions to be made pertaining to receivables management. 18%
Determine quantitative factors pertaining to receivables management. 18%
Analyze qualitative factors pertaining to receivables management. 18%
Conclude findings of a receivables management case. 18%
Recommend best practices for effective receivables management. 18%
Recommend best practices for effective receivables management. 18%

Word count: minimum 1,500, maximum 2,000 (approximately 5-7 pages).
2021 Iran Nuclear Test: Ends, ways and means
You are a member of the National Security Council staff asked to recommend an appropriate United States response to the notional 2021 Iranian nuclear test crisis. Develop a strategy proposal using the “Ends, Ways and Means” model. Ensure that your actions are consistent with US policy and the state of international affairs in the notional 2021 scenario. Keep in mind that you are writing recommendations, not directions. Write from the perspective of a staff official presenting a report to the President.
The paper must also have these elements accomplished:
• Have I demonstrated adequate justification for each recommendation?
• Have I integrated my recommendations?
• Have I integrated the instruments of national power in my recommendations

Denial and deception are attempts by those you are collecting intelligence against to either prevent collection or to provide signals that are are misleading and deceptive.
The question for this week is two-fold for collectors:
1) How can you tell whether your collection is being targeted for disinformation or deception? Research and include real-life examples!
–AND–
2) What measures as a collector can you take to reduce the effects of that disinformation/deception?
Must be 500 words before any sources. Sources must be in Chicago Style format

Choose a topic from one of the reading given, and write an anaytical essay about a topic that builds upon issues.
What is your perspective about the topic you’re interested in? Your essay must demonstrate that you are able to synthesize between historical, theoretical and practical knowledge, and their relations to the field of design.
Your writing must contain an arguable point, in a tone that is formal and objective. Ensure that credible sources of information are used, and that any sources quoted or paraphrased are cited.
Module Learning Outcome(s):
– Construct an argument and defend your opinions with supporting information and references .
– Demonstrate research and analytical skills in the application of design theories and movements .
Requirements:
1) 2500-3500 words
2) Arial 10.5 pts, 1.5 spacing
3) References and Bibliography according to the MLA standard
I have attached files below:
1) Project brief
2) 4 Readings: Pallasmaa, Ando, Frampton and Ryan

Book used: Fagel, M. J. (2011). Principles of emergency management and emergency operations centers (EOC). Boca Raton, FL: CRC Press.
Using the reading material from the textbook (pp. 139-162), Components of an Emergency Operations Plan, analyze the components of the Emergency Operations Plan (2013) for Holderness, New Hampshire. Write a two-page essay (500 words). In the analysis, discuss the following: 1. Does the plan include the components of an Emergency Operations Plan? 2. What are the strengths and weaknesses of the plan? 3. Could the plan be improved and how? All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations. Submit the assignment in APA style (6th ed.) format to include a title page, content (2 pages), and a references page.

Respond to the three questions below. EACH response should be at least 500 WORDS in length. Type your responses in Word. The only source that should be used on the quiz is the ebook attached below. DO NOT USE INTERNET SOURCES ON THIS PAPER. Be sure that your name is included and save your files as .doc or .rtf and submit to the drop box by the due date.
Essay Questions
1. In what respects did various strands of the “new psychology” emerging in the Progressive Era provide support for innovations in schooling, including differential curricula and extracurricular activities? Defend your position with support and examples.
2. Charles Eliot and other social-efficiency liberals believed that they were serving the interests of democracy with their vision of progressive education. Explain their point of view according to their conception of democracy. Next, evaluate their educational and political points of view by using your definition of the educational requirements of democracy.
3. The debate about education for its own sake versus education for a particular role in society continues today. What are some of the ways you see this disagreement being played out in today’s educational environment? In your experience, how do you think schools today tend to orient themselves—towards a classical educational model, or towards a more vocational one—and what are your thoughts about this?

Texas Legislature – H.B 21
Every August, Texas has a “tax free weekend.” School supplies and school clothes can be purchased for a few days without the addition of Texas’ 6 1/4 % sales tax – which, around Houston, is really 8 1/4% because of the additional penny for the City of Houston and the additional penny for METRO.
What about college textbooks? Have you priced them lately? Ours isn’t too bad, but some of my students pay nearly $300 for some science and engineering books.
Representative Terry Canales (D-Edinburg) – (https://house.texas.gov/members/member-page/?district=40) wants to cut college textbook customers in on the action before each regular semester.
Go to the Texas Legislature’s website, https://capitol.texas.gov/Home.aspx and look up House Bill 21.
Hint: Make sure you use the little pull-down menu to select the current legislative session (86R-2019 – that’s the 86th Regular session of the Texas Legislature) and just type HB21 in the search window.
What do you think?
Write a 2 – 5 page essay explaining this bill and the problem it’s trying to solve. Explain the advantages and disadvantages with this approach. Do you think it will pass? If you were a legislator, how would you vote on this bill?
Submit in Word. Cite your sources.
Resources
For anything to do with the Texas Legislature, start with the Texas Legislature’s website: http://www.capitol.state.tx.us/
Here’s Rep. Canales’ website: http://www.terrycanales.com/
CBS News writes that textbook costs are rising faster then inflation: https://www.cbsnews.com/news/whats-behind-the-soaring-cost-of-college-textbooks/
It probably doesn’t help that 80% of the textbook industry is controlled by five companies: https://www.businessinsider.com/why-college-textbooks-expensive-textbook-publishing-2018-12

Discussion Forum format – not a paper: 250+ words
Choose one of the two topics:
1) Why is the development and presentation of finished strategic analysis products, primarily the NIE and PDB, so complex, and often fraught with contradictions and nuanced conclusions?
-or-
2) What are the impediments to strategic intelligence analysis and why have they persisted for so long?

Objective: Use examples from the movie to explain the politics of Texas’ justice system in application of criminal proceedings and the nature of corrections policy to illustrate meaning of the statement “lock em up” mentality; and create an argument supporting rehabilitation or incarceration as the best correctional policy approach to dealing with criminals in Texas.
Instructions:
When writing your essay, respond to the prompt thoroughly, and completely. Essays must be a minimum of 1.5 – 2 pages in length, double spaced, 1 inch margins, 12 point font, and written in Times New Roman.
Your response should be your own thoughts and analysis. Citations may be formatted in MLA , as long as they are consistent throughout. Research and resources should be incorporated with scholarly application. I.e. used as examples or evidence to support your analysis. Make sure to use complete sentences, and proper grammar. Your response to the prompt should focus on analyzing the information you gather and used to provide examples that support your assessment
“A” papers should include a critical analysis of the video’s by applying at least 1 example from each film to support your position.
A bibliography, references or works cited page, must accompany submission. This page does not count towards the minimum length, of the paper. Students must provide proper in-text (parenthetical) citations. Failure to cite paraphrased work or direct quotes, from the original work, thoughts and/or ideas of someone, other than your own, will result in an automatic 0, with no make-up work being accepted.
PART 1: Video Access and Viewing
The video you are required to watch, in order to complete this assignment is 50 minute in length. The video is over the Todd Willingham Case. The video is publicly accessible through PBS Frontline’s official website. You can access the video one of two ways, following the instructions provided below
1. Click the link below, or copy and paste the link , into a new tab, in your internet browser.
http://www.pbs.org/wgbh/pages/frontline/death-by-fire/ (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.
PART 2: Video Reflection, Analysis and Submission Instructions
Write a reflective analysis of crime, justice and punishment under application of the Death Penalty, in Texas, based on application of what you learned from the Todd Willingham Case Video.
Write an essay that addresses each of prompt’s 2 components,Issue Position and Explanation and Application, outlined below
Issue Position:
First, Identify whether you are for, or against use of the death penalty as a form of criminal punishment (there is NO right or wrong answer). Successful completion of this assignment, and it’s learning objective, require your compliance in identification or your personal position, and perspective, towards the issue of the “death penalty”. Responses are confidential and will be graded objectively, based on student’s independent, reflective analysis of their own individual personal perspectives, and application of the information.
Explanation and Application
Then, Discuss, and describe, the nature of political debate, surrounding the issue of the death penalty, and explain how your personal position toward the issue has changed or been reinforced, with regard to application to crime, punishment and justice in Texas, based on what you learned from the movie.

why is your topic a national health priority areas and how is this being addressed’
Attached the assignment details.
1. define the health priority and state why it is a priority
2. include information on what it is and whom it affects
3. in the priority area, show evidence or credible and current research data to illustrate that this is a valid arguement (IMPORTANT)
4. Which specific target groups are impacted eg. youth(12-18yrs), young adults (18-30yrs), or seniors (60+)
5. illustrate the positioning of the priority within the frameworks of welling being ( you can use erikson framework)
6. how are fundamentals of health promotion addressing this area of concern?
7. Discuss in relation to action and strategies of health promotion, are there any gaps name at least 1 or 2.
8. reference in text (APA) format include reference list as per APA Format
Format of Individual Assessment:
Introduction
– Set the context
– define the national health priority area
– Why is it important? Economic? Society?
– Sub content of your main body
Main Body
– Evidences to support priority
– target group/ areas (erikson framework) https://goo.gl/images/bKVg4u
– Compare and Contrast policy with Ottawa Charter
Conclusion
– Demonstrate understanding that you have answered assignment questions: “why is your topic a national health priority area and how is this being addressed.”
Basically you have to collect alot of data and cross reference each other

Topic: International Organizations Making a Difference
Question/Prompt: In this module/week’s Reading & Study materials, you were educated on many facets of international engagement. The assignment this module/week is to research an international group, NGO, or other similarly situated group and explain how this group is helping to engage an international audience. If this is an area of interest or passion for you that should also be noted.

Citizenship is defined in the text as “enlightened political engagement.” List at least five ways mentioned in the assigned textbook for this course by which citizens can participate politically. Explain which one you consider most important and why?
Note: Your response should be a minimum of 50 words and include the citation of your source, using MLA style (including “in-text” citation). Citation will not be included in the word count.
Example of MLA In-Text and Work Cited Citation
The text list 1) voting, 2) serving on a jury, 3) lobbying, 4) writing a letter to the local newspaper, and 5) engaging in a public rally or protest as ways by which citizens can influence their government. Voting is characterized in the text as the building block of citizenship, as it is the one activity by which everyone can participate (Ginsberg et al. 8).
Work Cited
Ginsberg et al. We the People: An Introduction to American Politics. W. W. Norton & Company. 2019.

Instructions
Part 1- students will find a current event related to topics in Texas government: state and local politics. Whats a summary analysis, you say? The grandaddy of all political science, Harold Lasswell, is known for defining Politics. , Ideological values, beliefs, and opinions, aside, when it comes to government and politics, his definition of the word (ironically) is probably the only thing that all mankind can agree on. Lasswell, defines politics, as “who, gets what, where, when, and how”. Apply that definition to the article’s information, or the article’s information to that definition, and write a 10 sentence summary that focuses on critically evaluating what is going on, from your personal perspective. Interject your opinion. You should be making a statement, argument, and your opinion about the subject matter, should be known. However, this needs to be done in a scholarly and academic manner. Focus on explanation, reason and rationalization, to provide a clear opinion statement and discussion of their personal perspective and political position towards the event or issue in their article. In addition, to receive full credit, students MUST include a direct link to the original article’s text that they are using to complete this assignment.
Part 2- students will review summary analyses submissions, made in part 1, and offer a rebuttal to a classmate’s current event analysis, which opposes their own. MOST IMPORTANTLY, BE CONSTRUCTIVE in your critiques; and RATIONAL in your explanation of your perspective. Rebuttals must be 5-10 sentences in length.
Both parts are to be submitted to this discussion bored. Reply directly to the original post of your peer, when completing part 2. .
You must complete part 1, and post your article with the summary analysis, before you will be able to review and respond to the post’s of your peers.

“Hot Coffee at McDonald’s” Please respond to the following:
• Read Case 6.2: Hot Coffee at McDonald’s, located here or on page 231 in your textbook.
CASE 6.2
Hot Coffee at McDonald’s
TO AFICIONADOS OF THE BEAN, THERE’S NOTHING like a piping-hot cup of Java to get the day off to a good start, and nothing more insipid than lukewarm coffee. That’s what McDonald’s thought, anyway—until it learned differently, the hard and expensive way, when seventy-nine-year-old Stella Liebeck successfully sued the company after she was burned by a spilled cup of hot coffee that she’d bought at the drive-through window of her local McDonald’s. The jury awarded her $160,000 in compensatory damages and a whopping $2.7 million in punitive damages. After the trial judge reduced the punitive damages to $480,000, she and McDonald’s settled out of court for an undisclosed sum.105
Unlike the outcome of most other lawsuits, the hot-coffee verdict received nationwide attention, most of it unfavorable. To many ordinary people, the case epitomized the excesses of a legal system out of control. If hot coffee is dangerous, what’s next: soft drinks that are too cold? To conservatives, the case represented the all-too-familiar failure of consumers to take responsibility for their own conduct, to blame business rather than themselves for their injuries. More policy-oriented pundits used the case as an occasion to call for reform of product liability law—in particular, to make winning frivolous suits more difficult and to restrict the punitive awards that juries can hand down.
However, those who examined the facts more closely learned that the Liebeck case was more complicated than it first appeared. For one thing, Liebeck suffered third-degree burns on her thighs and buttocks that were serious enough to require skin grafting and leave permanent scars. After her injury, she initially requested $10,000 for medical expenses and an additional amount for pain and suffering. When McDonald’s refused, she went to court, asking for $300,000. Lawyers for the company argued in response that McDonald’s coffee was not unreasonably hot and that Liebeck was responsible for her own injuries.
The jury saw it differently, however. First, McDonald’s served its coffee at 185 degrees Fahrenheit, significantly hotter than home-brewed coffee. The jury was persuaded that coffee at that temperature is both undrinkable and more dangerous than a reasonable consumer would expect. Second, before Liebeck’s accident, the company had received over seven hundred complaints about burns from its coffee. In response to the complaints, McDonald’s had in fact put a warning label on its cups and designed a tighter-fitting lid for them. Ironically, the new lid was part of the problem in the Liebeck case because she had held the coffee cup between her legs in an effort to pry it open.
Although the jury found that Liebeck was 20 percent responsible for her injuries, it also concluded that McDonald’s had not done enough to warn consumers. The jury’s $2.7 million punitive-damage award was intended, jurors later said, to send a message to fast-food chains. Although the judge reduced the award—equivalent to only about two days’ worth of coffee sales for McDonald’s—he called McDonald’s conduct “willful, wanton, reckless, and callous.”
DISCUSSION QUESTIONS
1. Is hot coffee so dangerous, as the jury thought? Should a reasonable consumer be expected to know that coffee can burn and to have assumed this risk? Is a warning label sufficient? Is our society too protective of consumers these days, or not protective enough?
2. In serving such hot coffee, did McDonald’s act in a morally responsible way? What ideals, obligations, and effects should it have taken into consideration?
3. McDonald’s claims that most consumers would prefer to have their coffee too hot rather than not hot enough. After all, if it’s too hot, they can always wait a minute before drinking it. Suppose this is true. How does it affect McDonald’s responsibilities? Given that McDonald’s serves millions of cups of coffee every week, how important are a few hundred complaints about its coffee being too hot?
4. Was Liebeck only 20 percent responsible for her injuries? Do you agree with the amount of compensatory and punitive damages that the jury awarded her? If not, what would have been a fairer monetary award?
5. Should juries be permitted to award punitive damages in product liability cases? If so, should there be a limit to what they can award? Is it right for a jury to award punitive damages against one company in order to send a message to a whole industry?
• Next, watch the video titled, “Woman Burned by McDonald’s Hot Coffee, Then the News Media | Retro Report | The New York Times” (12 min 17 s), located at https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pCkL9UlmCOE.

After reviewing the video and case study, choose two (2) of the five (5) discussion questions located at the end of the case. Formulate your response and post to the Week 5 discussion.

Assignment Details
You are a victimologist assigned to a multijurisdictional fusion center. The Department of Homeland Security would like an evaluation on the community response to a recent raid by Homeland Security agents on a druid religious compound just outside of a major urban area.
Druids are easily recognizable because they wear long robes with hoods. The raid was conducted in response to a sect of the druid religion that planned to destroy a major furniture-producing factory that was clearing a nearby forest to produce their furniture. The radical druids were concerned over the damage to the forest and the spirits that they believed resided in the trees.
The agents who conducted the raid discovered the following in the druid compound:
• Several drums of homemade napalm
• The floor plans of the furniture factory
• A time table for the planned attack
Your are tasked with evaluating the community’s response to the raid on the druid compound.
Focus your evaluation on the following:
• Explain how you would help the community understand that it was a small radical group in the druid community that planned the attack.
• Assess the impact that the community would have felt if the radical druid sect successfully destroyed the furniture factory. Determine how this might have impacted the economic base of the local community.
• Identify who the potential victims are in the community, not just for loss of income or injury but also for the relationships between the druid and non-druid members of the community.
• Explain to your fusion center leadership how the community has been impacted by the potential attack and what the community feels about the remaining druids in the community who are not directly tied to the radical element that planned the attack.
• Is there an impending possibility of racial profiling by authorities when observing members of the druid community?

WK5 – #4 Case Study – New Belgium Brewing
Answer the following questions related to Case 5 in Business Ethics in a 2-page essay:
• Is there a possible conflict between an industry that sells a product that can have negative consequences from the use of its product and the industry’s ability to engage in socially responsible activities?
• What perks do you see in the New Belgium Brewery that could be an added plus to your work environment? Identify at least two of those perks.
• What are the dangers any company might face if its sole focus is the bottom line? Identify at least five of those dangers.
Read the following sections of Business Ethics:
• Ch. 7, “Organizational Factors: The Role of Ethical Culture and Relationships”
• Ch. 8, “Developing and Effective Ethics Program”
• Case 5, “New Belgium Brewing: Ethical and Environmental Responsibility,” on pp. 437–446
Read the following sections of Conscious Capitalism:
• Ch. 15, ”Conscious Cultures”
• Ch. 16, ”Conscious Management”
• Ch. 18, ”The Power and Beauty of Conscious Capitalism”
• “The Conscious Capitalism Credo” on p. 273
Required Course Materials
Title: Business Ethics: Ethical Decision Making and Cases
Edition: 11th
Authors: Ferrell, O. C., Fraedrich, J., & Ferrell, L.
ISBN-13: 9781305500846
Title: Conscious Capitalism: Liberating the Heroic Spirit of Business
Authors: MacKay, J., & Sisodia, R.
ISBN-13: 9781422144206

BOS 3525, Legal Aspects of Safety and Health Unit I to Unit VIII Assignment
Unit I Assignment
Hi Jerry! This is your OSHA’s Area Director.
We received a non-formal complaint recently from one of your current employees. The complaint alleges that employees there are performing welding operations on stainless steel in an area with inadequate ventilation.
This employee also states that they frequently “cough up” black sputum, and that they are worried about the health consequences caused by this lack of ventilation.
The complaint further states that no air sampling has been performed to evaluate the employees’ exposures to welding fumes. And, that when asked for respirators, they were given “dust masks” with one strap, which were purchased at the local hardware store. The effectiveness of these dust masks for the exposure that is present is also in question.
I will also be sending you an email summarizing this non-formal complaint, so that you can respond accordingly.
Thanks Jerry! Goodbye.
Part 1
Draft a letter in response to the complaint. Your letter should summarize why you believe the complaint is invalid and no on-site inspection is required. Keep in mind, simply stating that the complaint is invalid is not adequate. You must support your opinions in the letter.
Part 2
(Answer the following question on the page 2 of your word document) Answer the questions below in a few sentences.
1. Where does this type of complaint fit on OSHA’s Priority criteria?
2. What factors could have made this complaint non-formal rather than formal?
3. What steps could you take as the employer to identify the employee who filed the complaint? 4. What factors could result in this complaint being reclassified as a formal complaint?
Save both parts of this assignment in one word document to submit for grading.
Unit II Assignment
Discussion Question
Question 1
Under what conditions can an employee be denied access to the opening conference, walk-around, and closing conference? Your response should be at least 75 words in length.
Question 2
If the OSHA compliance officer requests documents that are not related to a formal complaint, what options do you believe the employer has? Your response should be at least 75 words in length.
Question 3
If OSHA determines that an employer’s response to a non-formal complaint is adequate, what options does the employee filing the non-formal complaint have? Your response should be at least 75 words in length.
Question 4
Can an employee request that an attorney or union representative attend a private conference with the compliance officer? If the union demands to have a representative present, does the employee have to comply? Your response should be at least 75 words in length.
Unit II Assignment
You receive a follow-up call from the area director saying the employee filing the original non-formal complaint has provided additional information about the alleged health situation and submitted a formal complaint using the OSHA-7 form, making the complaint a formal complaint. A few days later, an OSHA compliance officer shows up at your facility to perform a comprehensive inspection. The compliance officer presents the proper credentials, and you verify that the compliance officer is employed by OSHA and assigned to the local office.
During the opening conference, the compliance officer provides you with the formal complaint, alleging that employees are exposed to hazardous concentrations of metal fumes in welding areas of the plant, that you have not performed any air sampling to determine exposure levels, that adequate ventilation is not present in welding areas, and that adequate respiratory protection has not been provided to welders. As a part of the inspection, the compliance officer requests the following documents:
• Chemical inventory list;
• OSHA 300 logs;
• Hazard Communication Program, including training records;
• any sampling data that you have;
• Respiratory Protection Program, including medical clearance letters and training records;
• written hazard assessment for personal protective equipment (PPE) used at the facility;
• Safety Data Sheets (SDSs) for the metals you use in the production process and any welding rods/wire used in the welding area; and
• any other written programs you have that are required by an OSHA regulation.
The compliance officer takes a walk-through tour of the facility, spending extra time in the welding areas. During the walk-through, the compliance officer points out several issues believed to be apparent violations. The issues are as follows:
• Heavy haze is present in the welding area.
• Individuals wearing half-mask air-purifying respirators have full beards.
• Employees are using chemicals that could be injurious to the eyes, and no emergency eyewash is present.
• Eyewash is present in another area of the plant that is covered in dust, and there is no indication of recent operation or inspection.
• Employees are using chemicals that could be absorbed through the skin and are not using any gloves.
• Employees are performing maintenance inside a press with no lock-out/tag-out applied.
• No written lock-out/tag-out program is available at the time of the inspection.
• Welding operation is performed near flammable materials, and no fire watch present.
• There is no record of training for fork truck drivers.
• Extension cords are stretched across walkways.
• Three containers are present in the plant with no label present on any of the containers.
• An employee could not find a SDS for the chemical he or she was using.
The compliance officer asks for a private conference room and a list of non-managerial employees. He tells you that he intends to interview four non-managerial employees before leaving for the day. He also states that he will return the next day to collect some air samples at the facility.
You are worried about the number of citations and penalties that you may face. Provide a document summarizing the steps you would take as soon as the compliance officer leaves, and the steps you believe you could have taken during the walk-through that may have resulted in a quick-fix penalty reduction.
Your document must be at least three pages in length, not counting the title or reference pages. You must also include at least one reference using appropriate APA style.
Information about accessing the Blackboard Grading Rubric for this assignment is provided below.
Unit III Assignment
You receive a document (linked below) by certified mail. After reading the document, prepare a response that summarizes the approach you would take to the citations and penalties that have been proposed. Be sure to include the following in your response:
• Steps you are required to take,
• Options available to you,
• Contacts you would make, and
• Documentation necessary to respond to the citations and penalties.
Your response must be a minimum of two pages in length, using at least one reference. All sources must be cited and a reference provide using APA style. Click here to access the OSHA citation document for this assignment. Information about accessing the Blackboard Grading Rubric for this assignment is provided below.
Unit IV Assignment
Based on the Citation and Notification of Penalty letter you received in Unit III, prepare a document that summarizes at least five actions you would take as soon as possible after you reviewed the letter. For each of the actions, you must state the following:
• the exact action,
• why you believe the action is required for the citations and penalties,
• how you believe the actions will assist in responding to the citations and penalties, and
• resources you would use to accomplish the action.
You must support your actions with reliable sources. Your response must be a minimum of two pages in length, using at least one reference. All sources must be cited, and a reference must be provided using APA style.
Information about accessing the Blackboard Grading Rubric for this assignment is provided below.
Unit V Assignment
You managed to schedule an informal conference with the area director at the regional OSHA office four days after you receive the Notice of Citations and Penalty. Based on the citations and penalties you received in Unit III, prepare a document that lists the citations and penalties you wish to discuss with the area director.
You should summarize what you are trying to accomplish in regard to each citation/penalty you choose, to include:
• The information you will use to try and accomplish your goal,
• The information you will take with you to the meeting, and
• Who will accompany you to the meeting.
You must support your actions with reliable sources. Your grade will be based on your ability to present a case to your professor (serving as the area director) to reduce either the severity of some citations, or the amount of some penalties. If you simply state that you accept the citations and penalties as written, you will receive a minimal score on the assignment.
Your response must be a minimum of two pages in length, not including the title page and reference page. You must use at least one reference in the paper. All sources must be cited in the text and on the reference page, using APA style.
Unit VI Assignment
You fail to reach an informal settlement agreement with the area director. You file a Notice to Contest within the required 15-day period. Your case is assigned to an administrative law judge (ALJ). Prepare a document summarizing the case you will submit to the ALJ. The document should discuss the following at a minimum:
• Which citations and penalties you would contest,
• the reasoning behind each contested citation and/or penalty,
• Documents you would bring to the hearing,
• Individuals you would use at the hearing,
• How the case before the ALJ differs from the informal conference,
• What information will be presented before the ALJ that was not presented in the informal conference, and
• What information you would request from OSHA as part of discovery.
You must support your actions with reliable sources. Your grade will be based on your ability to present a case to your professor, serving as the ALJ, to reduce or vacate either the severity of some citations or the amount of some penalties. If you simply state that you accept the citations and penalties as written, you will receive a minimal score on the assignment.
Your response must be a minimum of two pages in length, using at least one reference. All sources must be cited in the text and on the reference page, using APA style.
Unit VII Assignment
Assume that a fatality occurred at your facility one month prior to the OSHA inspection. Review the citations and penalties that were assessed to your facility, and respond to the following questions:
• Which of the citations could be referred to the U.S. DOJ for criminal proceedings?
• What conditions would have to be met before the citations could be referred for criminal proceedings?
• Which individuals working at your facility could face criminal charges under the Act?
• What would be the maximum prison sentence and fines that any individual would face?
• What would be the maximum fine that the company would face?
• If you were facing criminal charges under the Act, what would be your best defense?
• How could you involve the OSHRC in the criminal case(s)?
Your response must be a minimum of two pages in length, using at least one reference. All sources must be cited in the text and on the reference page, using APA style.
Unit 8- Question Answer
1. Summarize the procedures required to achieve Star status under OSHA’s Voluntary Protection Program (VPP).
2. Describe the role that Challenge Administrators play in the OSHA Challenge voluntary cooperative program.
3. Provide your opinion as to which OSHA voluntary cooperative program would be the most beneficial to a small business that prints business cards and letterhead.
4. Discuss the benefits that OSHA alliances provide to employers and workers in general industry.

Each of your textbook chapters has a “Bring It Home” conclusion naming personal choices you can make to help our world be more sustainable. Please list 4 personal choices, from any 4 different chapters (one each per any 4 of the 25 chapters) that have meant the most to you, and explain how you can personally make lifestyle changes that will have an impact on sustainability. What challenges do you face with these changes? For instance, if you want to use more public transportation, are the schedules and routes adequate? If you want to be a vegan, do you have the support of your roommates, friends or family who may be enthusiastic carnivores? Do you have international efforts underway, or want to start or join a larger movement? Choose the four ways you can personally be more sustainable, and if you’ve already made some changes, write about challenges you’ve faced to make these changes and/or rewards you experienced.
You must answer within a word-count (no less than 200 words, maximum count 350 words for entire essay (all four lifestyle choices are within one essay), citation sources do not count towards the wordcount, albeit words you cite within quotes do count, citing material from the course content, and using proper English grammar. A minimum of four different course reference sources from the course content (at least one chapter reference and at least one course video reference) are required to support your ideas for the entire essay. For textbook chapter references, you must provide author and page number(s), as example: (Karr, et al, p.57). For video references, you must provide video name with a minutes:seconds timestamp, as example: (The Future of Food: A Looming Crisis, 33:54) Outside-course citations may be used but will not be counted towards the four required. There is no need for a separate works cited page, please credit your sources within the body of your essay. Do NOT cite Wikipedia in this assignment.
If the formatting is off when you copy and paste, no worries, as long as you have the word count, good grammar and correct spelling, I won’t delete points if the formatting is off (this occasionally happens when you copy and paste). Be sure to read the rubric below to earn as many points as possible:
Your grading rubric is as follows:
30pts if within wordcount requirement (no less than 200, no more than 350) 80pts lifestyle changes to support sustainability (20 each of 4) 40pts course material citations from different sources – use different chapters, include at least one video source (10pts each of 4)
Points will be deducted if necessary as follows: -5 poor grammar -10 typos/spelling errors
Reference:
http://www.unfpa.org/video/state-world-population-2013-motherhood-childhood

Imagine your area is in a state of emergency and you are concerned about the balance of liberty and security as people try to return to their normal lives, recover what was lost, and rebuild what was destroyed. Compose an email you could send to elected officials to voice your concerns. Your email should include positions on two of the potential issues related to civil liberties found below.
Template
Instructions: Replace the information (in parentheses) with your own thoughts and information from the lesson.
Hello ________ (name of one of your elected officials at the local, state, or national level) ____,
(Write paragraph one here. Paragraph one should address why rights are not absolute. Explain how the Constitution safeguards and limits individual rights.)
(Paragraph two should address one of the ten situations from the list. Be sure to include the following information in the paragraph:
the Constitutional amendment that relates to the situation
arguments that could be made for or against the action that took place
your position on the situation and the reasons you think officials should agree with you)
(Paragraph three should address a different situation from the list. Address the bulleted items again for this second situation.)
(Short summary conclusion with points made in your email and appreciation expressed for the officials’ time.)
Sincerely,
(Your Name)
Imagine that the following situations have occurred in your community following the disaster. Select two of the following situations to address and evaluate in your email:
© 2012 BananaStock/Thinkstock
The government suspended the right of habeas corpus (the right to see a judge after arrest to determine if imprisonment is lawful).
The government forced people to evacuate from their homes.
The press accessed the disaster area and published a story in a national newspaper about the event.
The government allowed federal and state troops to be quartered in private residences to assist residents and protect order.
Citizens were denied the right to bring legally owned firearms to storm shelters.
The government made certain dangerous areas off-limits, which prevented residents from accessing their homes and personal property.
Prisoners were kept in prisons that lacked power, supplies, and plumbing during the emergency.
The federal and state courts postponed scheduled criminal and civil trials due to the emergency.
The government prevented the press from publishing graphic photos of victims of the natural disaster to protect the privacy of the victim’s family.
The federal government stated that local and state governments are solely responsible for the disaster recovery efforts and that it will not be providing assistance.
Once you have chosen the concerns you wish to address, compose a well-written response to each situation with the following information:
the Constitutional amendment that relates to the situation
arguments that could be made for or against the action that took place
your position on the situation and the reasons you think officials should agree with you
Save your email and check it for spelling and grammar.

For this assignment, you will write a 2–3-page paper (double-spaced, 1-inch margins) providing at least 1 example of how government has overstepped biblical principles in some form of economic policy.
Options include the following topics:
A specific piece of legislation relating to business regulation or taxation.
The “party platform” of either the Republican Party or the Democratic Party (or both).
The role of the Federal Reserve.
The budget process.
In discussing one of these topics, incorporate clear references from the required reading.
The required Reading & Study material for Module/Week 7 must be cited specifically, and you must include outsides sources as well. You must include at least 2 sources in your essay, cited in current APA formatting.

Research paper instruction.
Each student will write a five page research paper on their assigned topic within their designated group theme (case study). The individual research paper will be in APA 6th ed. Format (no abstract), 12 pt. Times New Roman font and include at least three additional references to the base document/article.
My Topic
Accidental Statesman Base
Mission Command: Visualize
This is your small group for collaboration on your group project and peer review of your research paper, as well as working on collaborative PEs. View the The Accidental Statesman Base Document topic.(attached) To assist you in your research I have attached the advanced sheets for those lessons.
All document attached.

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10-15 slides PowerPoint assignment. please you must put speakers note on each slides so i can read.

 

Instruction

In this week’s Discussion, you discussed specific metrics companies should use when evaluating their employee turnover and retention rates. However, there may be some additional qualitative data points you didn’t consider. These data points are often collected through ways such as exit interviews, employee satisfaction surveys and 1-year retention metrics. When evaluating this case study, look for ways to include these data points. Instruction Global Protech’s executive team is concerned about the company’s high turnover and they want to take steps to improve their retention rates. Maia, the HR director at Global Protech, has asked you to provide the executive team with a presentation on the specific turnover and retention metrics for the company and a recommendation on how the company can improve its retention rates. To complete this Assignment, you are tasked with using Global Protech’s HR intranet site, the Learning Resources for this week, and other resources you have found in the Library or online to address the following in a minimum 10-slide PowerPoint presentation, including detailed speaker notes. Using the Global Protech Turnover Calculations (Excel document), identify the variations in turnover by the three-position types listed. Considering the positions with the highest turnover rates, identify the reasons why employees are leaving. Hint: Be sure to use Global Protech’s HR intranet to find additional information to help identify why employees are leaving. Using the turnover metrics above, develop a retention incentive/benefit recommendation for the executive team. Calculate the specific cost per employee of your recommended retention incentive/benefit, and then show the return on investment of the program. https://mym.cdn.laureate-media.com/2dett4d/Walden/MHRM/PROG/Global_ProTech/index.html USE POINT POWER MUST USE SPEAKER NOTES INCLUDE…….BELOW ARE MORE RESOURCE ATTACHED IS FORMULA. https://www.huffpost.com/entry/how-much-does-employee-turnover-really-cost_b_587fbaf9e4b0474ad4874fb7 https://www.forbes.com/sites/billconerly/2018/08/12/companies-need-to-know-the-dollar-cost-of-employee-turnover/#3b6bf83ed590 https://smallbusiness.chron.com/negative-impacts-high-turnover-rate-20269.html https://sts.shrm.org/STS/default.aspx?wa=wsignin1.0&wtrealm=https%3a%2f%2fwww.shrm.org%2f_trust%2f&wctx=https%3a%2f%2fwww.shrm.org%2f_layouts%2f15%2fauthenticate.aspx%3fsource%3d%252fresourcesandtools%252ftools-and-samples%252ftoolkits%252fpages%252fmanagingforemployeeretention.aspx https://search-proquest-com.ezp.waldenulibrary.org/docvie

 

 

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Question 1:     Mathematics

 

Math 111 – S2020 –  Covering Week 14 –  Weekly Assignment

Directions:  Complete the following problems justifying all answers by showing all work.  Answers must be found by using Calculus, not by looking at a graph unless directed to do so.   All work must be in your handwriting and all work must be labeled as to which problem it is answering.   Your final answer must be circled.

 

Remember, you must show each step you take towards the solution of the problem.  Your best bet would be to follow the steps for solving problems and indicating which step you are following.

 

( 5 points) Explain the relationship between  and its antiderivative.  Give examples.

 

 

(5 points) Using the knowledge that  , explain why the indefinite integral must have the  “added at the end.  Explain why the definite integral does not need ” added at the end.

 

Two students are studying on campus.  Zach is in the Math Help Room in Pfahler and John is at the library.  Zach texts John that he’s hungry.  John realizes he also wants food and suggests they both take a break to get dinner at Wismer.  Zach agrees and they leave their study spots at the same time.  Note the diagram below… We are assuming that Pfahler, the library, and Wismer are in a straight line:

 

Given Zach travels with the velocity      and John travels with velocity    where t is time in seconds and length is measured in feet….

(6 points) Give the position function of each student given that John is 600 feet closer to Wismer than Zach.  In other words,  and

 

( 6 points) If Wismer is 1000 ft away from Pfahler how many minutes does it take Zach to get to Wismer?  How long does it take John to get there?

 

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( 8 points) Graph the function , paste the graph here and shade the area bounded by  and the x-axis.  Determine the area bound by by  and the x-axis.

 

 

 

Below the blue diagonal line represents the function

 

 

(  6 points)

  1. Compute the area of each yellow triangle using the formula and sum them.
  2. Evaluate the definite integral    to find the area bound by  and the x-axis.
  3. Are the value from A and B the same? Why or why not.

 

For the curve described by this expression answer the following questions:

( 9  points) Find the equation(s) of all lines tangent to the curve at .  Give line in slope-intercept form.  If there is more than one line, please indicate to which point the line corresponds.

 

( 5 points) Find the equation(s) of all lines normal to the function at . Give line in slope-intercept form.  If there is more than one line, please indicate to which point the line corresponds.

 

( 9 points) Does this curve have a horizontal tangent(s)?   If so, give the x-value(s) at which it/they occur.  Be sure to justify your work.

 

( 6 points) Does this curve have a vertical tangent(s)?  If so, give the x-value(s) at which it/they occur.  Be sure to justify your work.

For  on the interval   using 5 partitions:

( 10 points) Sketch the curve and determine which Riemann sum would underestimate the area between f(x) and the x-axis on this interval.  Which will overestimate?  Justify your answer with a drawing or actual values.  You should be able to answer the question with just a drawing.

 

( 5 points) What can you do to increase the accuracy of the area calculation when using Riemann sums?

 

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Question 2:     Finance

 

One question in section A and Two questions from section B.

Please note the word count limits noted at the beginning of each section.

Your answers need to be in the form of Word and/or Excel files.

Case Study – Background

Stockpile PLC is an independent UK cinema chain with 8 cinemas across the country, the majority of which are on the south coast of England. The market is fairly competitive with large national chains owning the majority of the UK market.

Three of the eight cinemas in the group (Isle of Wight, Bournemouth and Portsmouth) have a retail store within them in addition to the food and beverage offerings. These stores sell movie memorabilia and prices range from 99p to over £2,000.

You are employed as one of the Senior Finance Managers within Stockpile PLC’s Head Office in Portsmouth and given the recent requirements in the UK to close cinemas temporarily, you have been asked to carry out a number of research tasks from home.

The Financial Controller would like you to respond to ONE question in section A and TWO questions in section B.

Section A can be submitted as an Excel spreadsheet, or equivalent. This section has no word count.

Section B needs to be presented in a report format limiting yourself to 1,500 words in total for this section. How you chose to allocate these words is up to you, however every question is of equal weighting. This report needs to be addressed to your line manager, Owen Klopp, the Financial Controller.

As a number of questions (3-6) require research, you are expected to cite your reference sources and provide a bibliography. This will not count towards the overall word count.

There is no need to introduce or conclude your work outside of the questions asked.

Section A Worth 25% of total marks

[Answer ONE of the following TWO questions. Both questions are weighted equally. There is no word count limit for Section A]

Question 1 – Accounts preparation

The trial balance for the Southampton branch for the year ended 29th February 2020 is as follows:

Share capital: £1 Ordinary shares Share premium
General Reserve
Retained earnings as at 1/3/2019 Inventory as at 1/3/2019

Sales Revenue Purchases Administrative expenses Distribution expenses

Plant and machinery: cost
Plant and machinery: accumulated depreciation
Vehicles: cost

Vehicles: accumulated depreciation Returns outwards
8 % Debenture
Debenture Interest paid

Dividends paid
Returns inwards
Bad Debt expense
Salesmen’s salaries Administrative wages and salaries Directors’ remuneration

Trade receivables
Provision for doubtful debts (1/3/2019) Cash at bank
Trade payables

£000 £000

1,400 200 80 304

328
4,820

2,640 100 140 1,440

440 580

280 120 120

5 280 140 80 320 316 180 1,280

56 623

632 £8,452 £8,452

/Question 1 continued……

 

Question 1 continued

The following additional information is supplied:

(i) Depreciation of plant and machinery at 10% straight-line to be charged to cost of sales

(ii)

Depreciation of vehicles at 20% straight-line to be charged to distribution costs

  • (iii)  Provide for auditors remuneration
  • (iv)  Income tax expense
  • (v)  Accrue for debenture interest unpaid
  • (vi)  Closing inventory was valued at

£4,000 £106,000

£112,000

  • (vii)  Based on past experience, the provision for doubtful debts is to be increased to 5% of trade receivables and allocated to administrative expenses.
  • (viii)  Transfer to General Reserve £50,000
  • (ix)  On 1st September 2019 Stockpile plc had issued 400,000 Ordinary shares at full market price of £1.50 per share.
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Required:

  • (a)  Prepare an Income Statement, Statement of Financial Position and Statement of Changes in Equity as at 29th February 2020 for the Southampton branch, that comply with the Companies Act 2006 and IAS1.
    (21 Marks)
  • (b)  Calculate the basic earnings per share for the year ended 29th February 2020.
    (4 Marks) [Total 25 Marks]

Question 2 – Consolidated group accounts

One of your junior staff is studying towards their ACCA exams and due to the recent provision to work from home they are now studying entirely online. Unfortunately, their education provider’s website has crashed and they are unable to get the answer to the following revision question:

Requirement:

Prepare the consolidated statement of financial position for the Zazu group as at 31st December 2019, so enabling your colleague to check their answer.

[Total 25 marks]

Consolidation question :

On 1st October 2012 Zazu PLC purchased 2,100,000 of the 3,000,000 £1 ordinary shares in Petersfield Ltd, paying £8,900,000 in cash; at the date of acquisition the Retained Earnings of Petersfield Ltd were £3,800,000 and there was no General Reserve.

The summarized Statement of Financial Position of the two companies for the year ended 31st December 2019 are as follows:

Non-current Assets

Property, plant and equipment
210,000 £1 shares in Petersfield Ltd at cost

Current Assets

Inventories
Trade Receivables Bank

Current Liabilities

Trade Payables

Net Current assets

Equity

Share Capital £1 ordinary Share Premium
Retained Earnings General Reserve

Zazu PLC £’000

21,000 8,900 29,900

10,000 3,000 2,000

15,000

8,000

7,000 36,900

10,000 1,000 25,900

36,900

Petersfield Ltd

£’000

8,500 8,500

6,000 1,500 500 8,000

3,500

4,500 13,000

3,000

8,000

2,000 13,000

The fair value of the land owned by Petersfield Ltd was £2,800,000 above book value. No adjustment has been made for this revaluation.
Petersfield Ltd sold goods to Zazu PLC during the year at an invoice price of £5,000,000. The goods had originally cost Petersfield Ltd £3,800,000. A quarter of these goods remained in stock at the year-end.

At 31st December 2019 Zazu PLC owed £900,000 to Petersfield Ltd for goods purchased for resale. This amount is shown as a trade payable in the Statement of Financial Position of Zazu PLC and as a trade receivable in the accounts of Petersfield Ltd.

An impairment test at 31st December 2019 on the consolidated goodwill indicated that it should be written down to £2,000,000. No other assets were impaired.

No dividends were paid by either of the companies in the relevant years, nor were there any changes in share capital.

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Required:

Prepare the consolidated statement of financial position for the Zazu group as at 31st December 2019.

[End of Section A]

[Total 25 Marks]

Section B Worth 75% of total marks

[Answer TWO of the following FOUR questions. All questions are weighted equally in section B and the word count for section B is 1,500 words]

The following scenario relates to ALL section B questions:

Question 3 – Taxation

One of Stockpile PLC’s rivals have been in the press recently in relation to a tax avoidance scheme.

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Requirement:

As a result of your competitor’s actions, Owen would like you to investigate and report back on the impact that the adoption of a tax avoidance scheme will have on a company. Owen specifically wants to know:

  1. a) What is their motivation for adopting a tax avoidance scheme?
    b) What happens to a company once they are found guilty of tax avoidance?

Your work should discuss both positive and negative effects on a business and you can bring in real life examples to substantiate your points.

Question 4 – Statement of Cash Flows

Your team has just received the draft Statement of Cash Flows for each cinema in the group up to the end of February 2020. You have been allocated the Isle of Wight cinema to review and their statement is over the page.

Requirement:

Within your report to Owen Klopp, please discuss your thoughts on the Statement of Cash Flow below, highlighting any key entries you notice, both positive and negative, for the company.

You will need to expand your answers to highlight the implications of these entries and what further information you would need to develop your understanding.

/Question 4 continued……

Question 4 continued

Statement of Cash Flows Year ended 29th February 2020
Isle of Wight branch

Cash flows from operating activities

Profit before tax
Adjustments for:
Depreciation
Interest expense
Operating profit before working capital changes (Increase) / decrease in trade and other receivables (Increase) / decrease in inventory

Increase / (decrease) in trade and other payables Cash generated from operations
Interest paid
Interest received

Income taxes paid
Net cash from operating activities

Cash flows from investing activities

Purchase of plant and machinery Purchase of a leasehold property Sale of plant and machinery
Net cash from investing activities

Cash flows from financing activities

Proceeds from the sale of ordinary share capital Bank loan repaid
Dividends paid
Net cash used in financing activities

Net increase in cash and cash equivalents
Cash and cash equivalents at the beginning of the period
Cash and cash equivalents at the end of the period

£’000

1,023

232 60 1,315 187 (420) 260 1,342 (10) 135 (280)

1,187

(301) (800) 201

(900)

456 (120) (750)

(414)

(127) 92

(35)

£’000

Section B continued……

Question 5 – Internal Controls

One of your team needs to review the internal controls of the Brighton cinema as this branch only joined the group in January 2020. The Brighton cinema is the third largest branch in the group with a £2million annual turnover. It employs 60 staff, both full and part-time, including 1 Manager (Ben Skrtel) and 1 Deputy Manager (Trent Oxlade).

The Brighton cinema is in the process of setting up a memorabilia store onsite which is due to open later this year. The current offering includes popcorn, ice cream and both alcoholic and soft beverages. Everything is scanned through a till system other than the ice cream sales, as there have been issues since 2018 with the till terminals at this stand. The sales are 95% on card payments.

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Cinema ticket sales are taken both online via the company website and in person using the terminals in the lobby. Between Friday night and Sunday evening the entrance is manned by a member of staff who checks the tickets of those entering the cinema.

The payroll and accounting records are completed by Ben on a weekly basis. Staff are registered onto the payroll system after working for the company for 3 months. Ben finds the whole payroll system particularly laborious, and knows at certain points of the year he needs extra staff for a few weeks.

Once registered, staff get a name badge, uniform and their own user name for the till. Until this point, uniform is borrowed, random name badges are supplied and a temporary log on is issued for the till system.

Requirement

As you cannot visit the cinema at the present time and observe how it operates, Owen has asked that you outline how the following areas could be at risk if they are not protected and suggest, with examples, what control activities could be put in place to help with any of the above?

 

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Question 6 – Accounting regulations

Part of your role is to mentor junior staff. A number of them have asked for some guidance on the advantages and disadvantages of using accounting standards in financial reporting.

Research and present your thoughts on this, offering examples wherever possible. Your work should be presented in clear, and fully explained manner as this will ultimately be sent out to junior staff with very little knowledge in this area.

[End of Section B]

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Question 3:     Mathematics

 

What critical value t* would you use for a confidence interval for the population mean in each of the following situations? Match the critical value with the correct interval.

A 95% confidence interval based on n = 10 randomly selected observations
A 99% confidence interval from an SRS of 20 observations
A 90% confidence interval based on a random sample of 77 individuals
A 95% confidence interval from an SRS of 30 observations
A 95% confidence interval with
A. 2.262
B. 2.861
C. 1.671
D. 2.045
E. 2.571
F. 2.205
G. 1.665

 

A local newspaper in a large city wants to assess support for the construction of a highway by-pass around the central business district to reduce downtown traffic. They survey a random sample of 1152 city residents and find that 543 of them support the bypass. Use StatCrunch to construct and interpret a 95% confidence interval to estimate the proportion of residents who support construction of the bypass.

Include the State, Calculate, and Conlude.

.

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About 130,000 high school students took the AP Statistics exam in 2010. The free-response section of the exam consisted of five open-ended problems and an investigative task. Each free-response question is scored on a 0 to 4 scale (with 4 being the best).  For one of the problems, a random sample of 30 student papers yielded the scores that are graphed in the dot plot of part (a) in the previous problem. The mean score for this sample is X = 1.267 and the sample standard deviation is S = 1.23. Construct and interpret a 99% confidence interval to estimate the mean score on this question.

Show the three step process

 

At the Chrysler manufacturing plant, there is a part that is supposed to weigh precisely 19 pounds. The engineers take a sample of parts and want to know if they meet the weight specifications.  State the null and alternative hypothesis.

 

Suppose the present success rate in treating a certain type of lung cancer is 0.75. A research group hopes to demonstrate that the success rate of a new treatment of this cancer is better.  State the null and alternative hypotheses.

 

 

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For his second semester project in Statistics, Zenon decided to investigate whether students at his school prefer name-brand potato chips to generic potato chips. He randomly selected 50 students and had each student try both types of chips, in random order. Overall, 32 of the 50 ( p-hat = 0.64) students preferred the name-brand chips. Zenon performed a significance test using the hypotheses

 

Where p = the true proportion of students at his school who prefer name-brand chips. The resulting P-value was 0.0239. What conclusion would you make at each of the following significance levels?

 

 

 

According to the National Campaign to Prevent Teen and Unplanned Pregnancy, 20% of teens aged 13 to 19 say that they have electronically sent or posted sexually suggestive images of themselves.8 The counselor at a large high school worries that the actual figure might be higher at her school. To find out, she administers an anonymous survey to a random sample of 250 of the school’s 2800 students. All 250 respond, and 60 admit to sending or posting sexual images. Carry out a significance test at the α = 0.05 significance level. What conclusion should the counselor draw?

 

Check the conditions to do a one sample test for proportions.

State your hypotheses.

Determine the test statistic (z) and the p-value of the test

State your conclusions in context.

 

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A classic rock radio station claims to play an average of 50 minutes of music every hour. However, it seems that every time you turn to this station, there is a commercial playing. To investigate their claim, you randomly select 12 different hours during the next week and record what the radio station plays in each of the 12 hours. Assume the population of music played each hour follows an approximately Normal Distribution. Here are the numbers of minutes of music in each of these hours along with the sample mean and sample standard deviation.

 

Do the data provide convincing evidence that the average number of minutes of music played every hour is less than 50 minutes? Let x = 0.05. Assume the conditions to do a one sample t-test for means are met.

State your hypotheses

Determine the t test statistic and the p-value of the test.

State your conclusions.

For question number 9, choose the possible error that could be made, based on YOUR conclusion, and what this would mean in context to the problem

a. Type I Error
b. Type II Error
c. We said that the radio station does not play 50 minutes of music each hour, when in fact, they do.
d. We said that the radio station does play 50 minutes of music each hour, when in fact, they do not.

A college student organization wants to start a nightclub for students under the age of 21. To assess support for this proposal, they will select an SRS of students and ask each respondent if he or she would patronize this type of establishment. What sample size is required to obtain a 92% confidence interval with an approximate margin of error of 4%?

 

The critical value at 90% confidence is
Since no other information is given, P should be set equal to
The value of 1-P should be set equal to
The organization must select an SRS of at least
A. 1.645
B. 0.50
C. 0.50
D. 423
E. 1.96
F. 1.976
G. .25
H. .75
I. 466
J. 1692

 

 

Question 4:     Chemistry

 

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

 

Charles’ Law

Procedure Summary

 

Type a summary of the experimental procedure below, in your own words.

 

 

 

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

 

CHARLES’ LAW

Pre-Lab Questions

 

  • The following data was plotted on the graph below. Based on this graph, predict a value for Absolute Zero and type it in the space provided.

 

Temperature of Air (oC)

(x-axis)

Volume of Air (mL)

(y-axis)

100 140
20 110
4 105

 

 

Based upon this graph, Absolute Zero = _________oC

 

 

  • Based upon the graph in question 1, how does a decrease in temperature affect the volume of the gas (the pressure and amount of gas is held constant)?

 

Answer:

 

  • Charles’ Law allows the prediction of gas volumes at different temperatures. What would the volume of a gas be at 38.3oC if it started at a volume of 45.7mL and a temperature of -58.5 oC?

Remember that temperatures must be in Kelvin when performing Gas Law calculations.

 

Answer:

 

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  • Using the raw data from question 3 as an example, explain why temperature must always be converted to Kelvin when using gas law equations.

 

Answer:

 

  • Charles’ Law applies when gases are behaving as Ideal Gases. Can you assume that the gas will behave ideally during this experiment? Explain.

 

Answer:

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CHARLES’ LAW

Experimental Data

 

 

1.                  Experimental Procedure – Part 1 (Tap Water)

15) A student measured the temperature of the tap water bath, and found it to be 25.0 °C.

 

18) The student poured the tap water from the Erlenmeyer flask into a graduated cylinder and found the volume of the water to be 25 mL.

 

2.                  Experimental Procedure – Part 2 (Ice-Water)

15) A student measured the temperature of the ice-water bath, and found it to be 13.0 °C.

 

18) The student poured the ice-water from the Erlenmeyer flask into a graduated cylinder and found the volume of the water to be 33 mL.

 

3.                  Experimental Procedure – Part 3 (Boiling Water)

23 g) The student poured the combined contents of the Erlenmeyer flask and small glass tube into a graduated cylinder and found the total volume of the water to be 141 mL.

 

26) The student read the Barometric Pressure of the room, and found it to be 738.6 torr. Consulting the CRC Handbook, the student determined that the temperature of boiling water at that pressure is 99.203 °C.

 

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Instructions

Use the data provided to complete the data table on the next page.

In the Charles’ Law folder of the Lab Community, open the Excel file labeled “Charles Law Graphing”. Plot a graph of the Volume of Air versus Temperature by inputting the data from your data page into the table on the Excel spreadsheet (do not enter units). You must enter three sets of data (t1 vs. v1, t2 vs. v2 and t3 vs.v3). Save your graph to submit with your lab report.

NOTE: Be sure to use the Volume of Air and NOT the Volume of Water when plotting the graph.

From the extrapolated line on the graph, obtain a value for Absolute Zero in °C (the point where your line crosses the x-axis). Record your experimental value for Absolute Zero on the data page.

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

 

 

CHARLES’ LAW

Experimental Data and Results

 

Refer to the Experimental Data provided, and enter it into the table.

Data Table

Temperature (°C) Volume of Water (mL) Volume of Air (mL)

(Total Volume of flask – Volume of water)

Part 1

(t1, v1)

Part 2

(t2, v2)

Part 3

(t3, v3)

 

Temperature of Boiling water:

 

Total Volume of Flask:

 

 

Barometric Pressure: _____________ torr

 

 

Prediction of Absolute Zero as determined from the graph:

 

Absolute Zero: _____________ oC

 

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Question 5:     Other

 

Recommendation Report

Associated Textbook Chapter: Chapter 18

 

Assignment: Write a Recommendation Report that includes a title page, abstract, executive summary, introduction, methods, results, conclusions, recommendations, and reference list. You can use the same topic as your Proposal assignment, or you may select a new topic. There is no minimum word count or number of sources, but this should be a research-based document. You may write either a Recommendation Report or Feasibility Report, depending upon your topic and the type of research you collect.

  • Recommendation Reports are used to make suggestions about the best course of action. Essentially a problem is studied, possible solutions are offered, and then the best course of action is recommended.
  • Feasibility Reports are written when management is unsure whether something can be done. This report helps to determine whether the company or organization should move forward with a project.

Whether you choose the Recommendation Report or the Feasibility Report, the basic pattern of layout is the same. You will include the following:

  • Front Matter that orients the reader to the subject. Provides summary for the reader, helps the reader to navigate the report, and helps readers decide whether to read the document. For this assignment, you should have a title page, abstract, and executive summary.
  • Body that provides the most comprehensive account of the project, from its inception of the problem or opportunity that motivated it to the methods and the most important findings. For this assignment, you should have an introduction, methods, results, conclusions, and recommendations.
  • Back Matter that presents the supplementary information, such as more detailed explanations than are provided in the body that enables readers to consult the secondary sources used. For this assignment, you are required to include a list of references and any appendixes that are appropriate.
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Readers:
Your audience for the Recommendation Report is the person(s) responsible for asking you to carry out the research study. They are the decision makers; they are the ones who can approve or deny the project. Your report will be written in response to their specific needs.

Context of Use:
The Recommendation Report represents the final assignment you will complete this semester. It is intended to be comprehensive in nature, so that your reader can easily understand the decision that has to be made based on the research you conducted.   While the timeline for this project has been shortened to reflect the nature of our course, in the workplace, one can work for many weeks or even months on a Recommendation Report.

Assessment:
Your report will be graded based upon the following three areas: Content; Organization, Design, and Audience Awareness; and Revision and Editing.

Content (50 points)

  • Introduction clearly defines the research question(s) and presents contextual information in a way the reader can understand.
  • Methodology clearly identifies the research conducted and justifies the validity of the research methods.
  • Results section demonstrates that writer carried out research necessary in order to gather information necessary for addressing the research questions.
  • Discussion of results demonstrates careful reflection and assessment of the research conducted as it pertains to the stated research questions.
  • Writer presents conclusions that successfully wraps up the study, presenting a feasible choice or recommends a particular course of action.

Organization, Design, and Audience Awareness (30 points)

  • Report contains excellent front and back matter that provides a title page, list of graphics (if appropriate) Works Cited, and necessary Appendices (if appropriate).
  • Report is well-organized with headings that help move a reader through the document.
  • Major divisions are clear visually.
  • All graphics are correctly cited if they are borrowed.

Revision & Editing (20 points)

  • No misspellings or typos are present.
  • Writer uses complete sentences.
  • Work is writer’s original text.
  • Grammar and punctuation are correct

 

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Question 6:     History

 

World History 1, Write a 250-page discussion post on Medieval Weaponry from the 5th-12th Century. APA

 

Question 7:     Law

 

Labor and Employment Law

Spring 2020

At Home Final Examination

IR 4320

 

 

Write a well-reasoned essay in response to each of the items below.

 

This is an open-book exam. You may consult any written materials that you wish, but it is not necessary to consult any materials not on the syllabus.  You may not discuss the examination or any of the issues raised by the examination with anyone, whether orally or in writing, until after you have received your grade.

 

The College Wide Policy on Academic Integrity applies to all work you do for this class, including this examination.

 

 

 

I.

 

The Novel Corona Virus (“COVID-19”) is a recently discovered health hazard. It poses a particularly severe danger to those persons, such as grocery store workers, who are required to report to work during the worst stages of the pandemic. Explain the procedures that the Occupational Safety and Health Administration and the Secretary of Labor could use in response to this health hazard in order to assure safe and healthful working conditions for American workers both in the coming weeks and in the coming years.

 

 

 

II.

 

The population of Central City is 20% African-American and 55% female.  In order to be accepted into the Central City Police Academy an applicant must be at least 5’8” tall, must have at least two years of college, and must score at least 80% on a written examination.  Over the last twenty years, the average Police Academy class has been 5% African-American and 15% female.

 

The EEOC brought an action against Central City in federal court alleging that the city’s requirements for Police Academy applicants violate Title VII of the Civil Rights Act.  The City moved to dismiss the complaint, and the District Court agreed with the City.  The EEOC then appealed that decision to the Circuit Court of Appeals.

 

  1. Write an argument on behalf of the EEOC to convince the Court of Appeals that Central City has violated Title VII of the Civil Rights Act; and

 

  1. Write an argument on behalf of Central City to convince the Court of Appeals that Central City has not violated Title VII of the Civil Rights Act.

 

 

III.

 

Alice works as a mail room employee for the accounting firm of Quinn and Ingram.  Alice’s job requires her to climb dozens of flights of stairs in the course of a day as she brings mail to and from various offices in the firm’s three-story building. Alice has developed arthritis in her knees and is now able to climb only four or five flights of stairs in the course of a workday. Alice asked her employer to install an elevator in the building so that she will be able to do her job going forward. The elevator would cost $70,000 to install on all three floors. When Quinn and Ingram refused her request Alice, after receiving a right to sue letter from the EEOC, commenced an action in the US District Court for the Eastern District of New York pursuant to the Americans with Disabilities Act.

 

Write an essay setting forth the arguments that Quinn and Ingram can make as to why Alice’s claim has no merit.

 

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Question 8:     Computer Science

 

Instruction

The Lo Shu Magic Square is a grid with 3 rows and 3 columns shown below. The Lo Shu Magic Square has the following properties: • The grid contains the numbers 1 – 9 exactly. Each number 1 – 9 must not be used more than once. So, if you were to add up the numbers used, the sum would always come out to 45. • The sum of each row, each column and each diagonal all add up to the same number, i.e. 15 in this example. This is shown below: Write a program that simulates a magic square using 3 one dimensional parallel arrays of integer type. Each one the arrays corresponds to a row of the magic square. The program asks the user to enter the values of the magic square row by row and informs the user if the grid is a magic square or not. See the sample outputs for more clarification. Project Specifications Input for this project: • Values of the grid (row by row) Output for this project: • Whether or not the grid is magic square • Programmer’s full name • Project number • Project due date

 

Question 9:     General

 

The lecture notes (below) discussed Dr. Albert Ellis Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy. Make sure to review this material. Also, if you have not already done so make sure to listen to the brief audio recording of Ellis describing his theory.

Here is the link: Albert Ellis – Theory and Practice of REBT Therapy

Now, after having reflected on this model answer the following question:

1)Do you agree with Dr. Ellis that one’s thoughts have a direct bearing on their feelings and behaviors? Why or why not? Make sure that you provide enough detail to support your answer.

Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy-Albert Ellis

Combining cognitive therapy and behavioral techniques.

Albert Ellis developed Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy. He believed that people were often irrational (illogical) in how they thought about the events of their lives. He developed the ABC model. It helps you understand what he meant. It is described below.

 

A                                  B                                               C

Adversity            Beliefs About A             Consequences Of Our Beliefs

(events)            (Our thoughts)                (how we feel and behave)

 

Common Example: We get cut off in traffic. We immediately become angry and scream at the other driver. (This never happens in real life—right?)

Here, A is getting cut off in traffic. B is our beliefs about or interpretation of getting cut off (e.g., “That no good $%@–how dare he cut me off”). C is the anger and screaming.

So, in this model, A does not cause C. B causes C—how one thought about the event. Think about it—how could a car cutting someone off cause someone to become enraged? That’s just a random life event. It has to be how one thought about the event. Someone else might not even be bothered by such an event—their thoughts might be something along the lines as: “He cut me off—no biggie—I aint’ going let that bring me down.” Here is a link to a brief audio recording in which Ellis discusses this idea: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kxrjAbhTmNQ

Now, the main thing to understand is the idea that we are often irrational in how we interpret the events of our lives. Look again at the statement above. First, calling a person that you do not know a terrible name is illogical. They might be the nicest human being in the world! Second, stating “How dare he” suggests that one is somehow better than others (I guess that could be true) and that nothing like this should ever happen to oneself. See the issue?

Finally, did you watch the exposure therapy video? At the beginning of the video they showed how they were working on changing the patient’s thoughts (a Cognitive intervention). The patient’s exposure therapy was a Behavioral intervention.

 

Question 10:   Other

 

Instruction

I like playing basketball, I plan on and want to go pro. I have a daughter that I center my life around, I would say that I am outgoing, passionate, care for others and very competitive. I am the ifest in my family to make it to college and plan on being the first to graduate. I hope I can become the best dad to my daughter. in the next 6 months I will continue working out trying to be the best i can be at basketball and spend as much time as i can with my daughter. This answers some of the questions that are asked in the layout of the paper.

 

 

Final paper instructions UNIV/IDS 333:

Part I

Introduction:

The people that are happiest in their life choices know who they are at their core. They have a sense of self. They know who they are and why. Maslow’s pyramid gives us a foundation for self, as do many other theorists. Self-concept leads to, or unfortunately from, self-confidence and a sense of purpose and understanding our place in this world. Personally, I believe this is more important than ever due to technology and the social and economic pressures of life. It is too easy to lose or temporarily misplace our sense of who we are. Identity is a complicated construct. Research self, and the importance of understanding our identity.  I am giving you  quite a bit of latitude here, this need not be heavy journal articles, but rather articles that speak to you for any number of reasons.  Include the sources in a bibliography. Once the research is complete think about all the self-assessments from the class. Then….

Define your own self-image.   Using all the assessment from this class and other information you have gathered about yourself through your own life experience answer the following questions in depth. You are in fact being asked to synthesize this class and your life experiences to date into a solid reflection paper that may help you select a pathway forward from this point in time and in your personal journey.

What is your idea of your own self-image? (Be sure to include personality, emotionality, and values in this answer) Minimum three paragraphs

Who are you at your core?  (The central or most important part of something. What are the core elements that you have developed and want to keep developing? The essence of you. Include values and beliefs in this answer) Minimum two to three paragraphs

What are your hopes? {Hope is defined as the following: a feeling of expectation and desire for a certain thing to happen.}

synonyms: aspiration, desire, wish, expectation, ambition, aim, goal, plan, design;

archaic a feeling of trust.}

What are your dreams? {A series of thoughts, images, and sensations or to contemplate the possibility of doing something or that something might be the case.}

Synonyms: to think, conceive, contemplate, consider. Hopes and dreams are different.  Minimum two paragraphs

What have you done so far in your life? Use the accomplishment sheets and the resume prep here, but also look at what you would want to change? Why? Length should reflect experience to date

What do you want to do in your life?  Articulate your goals not just in one area of your life, but in multiple areas of your life. Financial, Spiritual, Professional, Personal, and any others that are important and relevant to you. Paragraph for each area, feel free to add your own areas

While this may seem like B. S. it really is not. These are not necessarily easy questions to answer. If you take this seriously it requires you to take a hard look at yourself. You began this class with a poem and a logo about yourself, you were asked to explore everything from motivational theory to human resource law.  Take all this to the next step.  Integrate the knowledge gained here and from other sources and write a reflection paper answering all these questions.

 

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Part II

 

Action Plan:

What steps will you take in the next six months to help you stay on a positive path or get back to a better path? You may use bullets

Who will you have help you with this process? (You do not have to name names you can indicate the individuals roles in your life)

What time will you carve out for yourself? When will you structure time for quiet contemplation and reflection? (I cannot stress the importance of this enough) once again you may use bullets

Where will you be one year from now? This is referred to as manifesting positive events in your life, it is also called the power of thought, some even use the term quantum thought, regardless if what we call it, envision and write down your world a year from now.

What are the big steps in your five year plan? Complete the attached form and upload with your reflection paper as one document.

Part III

Go do something nice for yourself.

 

 

Question 11:   Religious Studies

 

Instruction

What is eternal life and does it exist? How have various religions interpreted the relationship between life and death from a philosophical perspective? What do you believe? Do your beliefs relate to any of the philosophical themes raised in class? What is the nature of free will, and how is free will perceived in various religious traditions? Choose at least two different religious traditions to compare and contrast the understandings of free will. Nietzsche famously stated that “God is dead.” What did he mean by this and do you think it is true? Is morality static or circumstantial? If it is static, how does it remain so? If it is circumstantial, why do you think morality is allowed to change? Which would you prefer? Explain. Choose only one and write about it

 

Question 12:               Finance

 

FINA 8002: Finance For IT (Investment) BIS Year 4 Final Assignment Semester 2 2020

Section 1: 55 marks in total.

BIG PLC is currently evaluating a large capital investment project named “Project Remote”. The company typically evaluates such projects using Capital Budgeting and the Net Present Value investment appraisal method. Your boss – the company’s chief financial officer – has asked you to perform a detailed capital budgeting investment appraisal analysis on Project Remote to help determine if the project is viable. BIG PLC has carefully built its capital reserves over the years but its reserves are limited nonetheless and Project Remote would use up a significant portion of the firm’s cash resources.

Project Remote would, if accepted, be a significant departure in terms of the type of work that BIG PLC normally does. Head management are very bullish about the opportunity the project presents. The chief executive officer has recently commented: “we’ve got good people, we learn quickly, if you can succeed in one line of work you will find that skills are transferable, let’s do it!”

BIG PLC is experiencing a period of rapid growth and this shows no sign of slowing down. The company is currently approaching full capacity. The HR manager feels that additional flexible labour is available and that BIG PLC will shortly ramp up on recruiting additional staff – albeit on temporary contracts.

In order to be able to capture and priorities new projects the current project managers have been asked to test the waters with regard to “pushing out or extending” current customer deadlines. BIG PLC has a great reputation for on-time project delivery and the company CEO wants to leverage some of the goodwill built up with existing customers to facilitate the acquisition of new investment opportunities such as Project Remote.

BIG PLC has recently noted a spike in staff turnover rates. Whereas the company is growing quickly management have been keen to re-invest surplus profits for projects such as Project Remote. Even though the company has posted record profit announcements for the last two years staff pay and bonus schemes have remained static. Many staff have complained of longer working hours and a more stressful work environment due to mounting workloads and tight looming deadlines. Management have moved to address this issue by stating that they will shortly review current remuneration packages and bonus schemes.

The assistant accountant has provided you with the latest cash flows and cost estimates relating to Project Remote and these can be seen in the table and bullet points below:

Year 1 Year 2 Year 3
Sales & Revenues from the project: €1,800,000 €2,900,000 €2,400,000
Cost of Sales & Service relating to the project: €350,000 €390,000 €280,000

 

  • BIG PLC uses both debt and equity financing. As of recently the company funds itself 40% of the time with equity financing and 60% of the time with debt. The assistant accountant has calculated the most recent cost of equity as 10% and the current cost of debt as 5%. The company typically renegotiates its loans every 3 years. The company is due to next renegotiate its loans in one year’s time. The Financial controller is confident she can reduce BIG PLC’s cost of capital by increasing their level of gearing (borrowing). She has recently stated – “debt is so cheap right now and is likely to become even cheaper, equity financing is twice as expensive as debt currently – I can save us a lot of money – we won’t be issuing any more shares any time soon – I’m getting our weighted average cost of capital down as low as I can by using cheap debt financing, our projects will be worth more, that’s good for us, good for our management bonus schemes and good for our shareholders, it’s all positives, a real no-brainer”
  • The company estimates that the project will require an immediate investment (Year Zero) of €2,400,000 in order to begin. This initial investment has been categorized as a capital investment in fixed assets. These fixed assets are to be depreciated using the straight-line method of depreciation at a rate of €700,000 per annum. The asset qualifies in full for capital allowances (i.e. tax allowable depreciation charges). You may apply a balancing allowance or balancing charge in year 3 as appropriate. You may assume that the asset will not be sold at the end of Year 3 (i.e. no scrap value will be received).
  • The project will not cause any increase in General Fixed Overheads at Company HQ (Headquarters). HQ would like to allocate €200,000 of their general costs per annum to the project as part of BIG PLC’s internal performance management scheme.
  • Thus far, BIG PLC has incurred legal and consultancy fees of €200,000. This is for legal and consultancy work already done regarding the project and these fees are non-refundable in the event of the project not proceeding. Half of this €200,000 amount is yet to be paid and these costs are due to for payment at the beginning of year 1. Future legal fees, should the project continue, are estimated at €80,000 per annum.
  • Additional labour will be required if this project goes ahead. These additional labour costs have been estimated at €24,000 for year one but will fall by 10% in year 2 and by 10% again in year 3.
  • Merchandising items worth €9,000 were ordered for the project. These have been paid for already and cannot now be returned for a refund should the project be cancelled.
  • If the project does proceed BIG PLC will need to recall some office space that they are currently renting out to a third party for an annual rate of €35,000 per annum.
  • The project, if it is accepted, will incur expenses of €30,000 in year one, these expenses are expected to rise by 5% in Year 2 and then rise again by a further 5% in Year 3.
  • Management estimate that they would need to dedicate 25% of their time to this project as it is a “significant departure” from the firm’s typical business. Management salaries amount to €500,000 per annum and will not be affected by the project.
  • The company pays tax one year in arrears at a rate of 5% on Accounting Profits.

Required:

Provide a concise quantitative (25 marks) and qualitative (25 marks) analysis of BIG PLCs prospective investment in Project Remote.

Finally give a consensus recommendation, based on your findings as to whether you think the company should pursue the project or not (5 marks).

(55 marks in total for Section 1)

 

 

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Question 13:   Business Finance

 

M-M theory (1958) what could possibly be the most important theory for the structure of capital, through which it explains the effect of the capital structure for the value of companies that the firm’s value and cost of capital are autonomous of the capital structure decision and as such debt is irrelevant in determining a company’s cost of capital.
Assess and make a critical review of Modigliani and Miller’s Theory and the dominating literature that is pro and against this theory, aiming to identify the theory’s importance and contribute to the field modern finances.

 

Question 14:               Finance

 

Antarctic, Inc. was founded by Joseph and Jessie Lee. They equally own the company and each has 50,000 shares of stock. The company manufactures and installs cooling systems. The company has experienced spectacular growth because of rapid technological development.

Last year, Antarctic, Inc. had an EPS of $4.90 and paid a dividend to Joseph and Jessie of $80,000 each. The company also had a return on equity of 18 percent. The Lees believe that 14 percent is an appropriate required return for the company.

Joseph and Jessie are interested to know the value of their holdings in the company. They hired Janet Wang, a financial consultant, to conduct an analysis for them. Below is the information collected by Janet about their main competitors:

Antarctic, Inc.’s negative earnings per share were the result of an accounting write-off last year. Without the write-off, earnings per share for the company would have been $.54.

QUESTIONS

  • Assume the company continues with its current growth rate, calculate the company’s current stock price.

Janet has examined the financial statements of Antarctic, Inc. and those of its competitors. Although Antarctic, Inc. currently has a technological advantage, Janet understands that other companies are investigating methods to improve efficiency of the cooling systems. Janet believes that the company’s technological advantage will only last for the next five years. After that period, the company’s growth will likely slow down to industry average. She also believes that the required return used by the company is too high and the industry average required return is more appropriate. Using this assumption, what is the estimated stock price of the company?

 

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Question 15:   Engineering

 

A buck-boost chopper circuit operating at 8 kHz supplies 100 W power at 25 V to the single-phase bridge inverter. The input voltage to the DC to DC converter is constant at 15 V.

  1. a) find the value of L required for continuous current if the duty cycle is 0.5.
  2. b) if the switching frequency is reduced to 1 kHz while keeping the turn-on time and the value of inductance same as the values in part (a), find the new duty cycle.

 

Question 16:               Mathematics

 

Suppose that two competing television channels, channel 1 and channel 2, each have 50% of the viewer market at some initial point in time. Assume that over each one-year period channel 1 captures 10% of channel 2’s share, and channel 2 captures 20% of channel 1’s share.

Let X_{n} be the channel that a customer watch at year n. At the initial time n= 0, P(X_{0}= 1) = P(X_{0}=1) = 0.5.

  1. Given that at the initial time, the customer watch Channel 1, find the probability that he/she will watch Channel 1 in year 3
  2. Given that at the initial time, the customer watch Channel 1, find the probability that he/she will watch Channel 1 in year 10, 20, 30
  3. What can you tell about the probability P(X_n = 1|X_0 = 1) and P(X_n = 1| X_0 = 1) when n goes to infinite.
  4. Find P(X_1 = 1), P(X_2=1), P(X_3) =1
  5. Discuss about the behavior of P(X_n =1) when n goes to infinite

 

Question 17:   Computer Science

 

Assignment 3 Question

 

Further Background

 

Refer to background information provided in Assessments 1 and 2 regarding My Housing project.

 

Complete the Following

 

Please refer to the marking guide when preparing your response to see what criteria and standards will be used to assess your work and your progress.

 

Agile Methodologies

 

Compare and contrast Unified Process (UP) and Scrum. Then recommend either Unified Process or Scrum you will use for the proposed system and briefly describe why.

 

Plan and Monitor Project

 

Planning and monitoring project activities are important part of system development. Review all possible system functions that you identifed in assignment 1 and 2, and complete the following tasks. You are not required to explain these tasks, just draw a table for each task with some relevant parameters. Please note, as this is not a complete project, if information is not given you should assume reasonably.

  • Estimate the development cost and the time required to complete My Housing project.
  • Develop a work breakdown structure (WBS) for the My Housing project’s first iteration.
  • Prepare a detailed work schedule for the first iteration.

RATIONALE

This assessment task will assess the following learning outcome/s:

  • be able to evaluate development requirements and prepare a feasibility proposal based on multi-disciplinary (financial, human resource, technological) analyses.
  • be able to formulate and justify system requirement models based on evaluation of given situations.
  • be able to assemble the components of a requirements model using the tools and techniques of object oriented or structured systems modelling.

 

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MARKING CRITERIA AND STANdards

CRITERIA STANDARDS
High Distinction Distinction Credit Pass Fail
Compare and contrast Unified Process (UP) and Scrum. Then recommend either Unified Process or Scrum you will use for the proposed system and briefly describe why.

 

6 marks

Response clearly states the differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with strong justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (5.10-6.00) Response clearly states the differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with some justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (4.50-5.09) Response lists the major differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with little justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (3.90-4.49) Response lists some differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with limited justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (3.00-3.89) Response just describes both methodologies no comparison and no justification about

which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (0.00-2.99)

Estimate the development cost and the time required to complete My Housing project.

Develop a work breakdown structure (WBS) for the My Housing project’s first iteration.

Prepare a detailed work schedule for the first iteration.

6 marks

Table provides accurate estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project.

Table provides accurate work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities.

Table provides accurate work schedule using all possible use cases.

(5.10-6.00)

Table provides mostly accurate estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project.

Table provides mostly accurate work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities.

Table provides mostly accurate work schedule using all possible use cases.

(4.50-5.09)

Table provides some estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project.

Table provides some work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities.

Table provides some work schedule using all possible use cases.

(3.90-4.49)

Table provides some estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project. Minor errors.

Table provides some work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities. Minor errors.

Table provides some work schedule using all possible use cases. Minor errors.

(3.00-3.89)

Table used to estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project is wrong.

Table used to develop work breakdown structure (WBS) is wrong.

Table used to estimate work schedule is wrong.

(0.00-2.99)

Presentation and clarity (accuracy, spelling, grammar, punctuation, figures)

2 Marks

Fluent writing style appropriate to the assignment with accurate grammar and spelling, and high-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.70-2.00) Mostly fluent writing style appropriate to assignment with accurate grammar and spelling, and good-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.50-1.69) Mostly fluent writing style appropriate to the assignment with mostly accurate grammar and spelling. Minor omissions only. Some-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.30-1.49) Writing style not always fluent or well organized and grammar and spelling contain errors. Poor-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.00-1.29) Writing style not fluent or well-organized, and many grammatical and spelling mistakes. Very bad quality figures, copied from others work, no captions. (0.00-0.99)
Referencing and Citation

1 Marks

Referencing is mainly accurate and according to the APA standard. All references are cited in the text. (0.85-1.00) Referencing is mainly accurate and according to the APA standard. Most of the references are cited in the text. (0.75-0.84) Some attempt at referencing and according to the APA standard. Few references are cited in the text. (0.65-0.74) Attempt at referencing but not exactly according to APA standard and only few references are cited in the text. (0.50-0.64) Referencing is absent/ unsystematic. (0.00-0.49)

PRESENTATION

Your answer should be approx. 4 pages, Times New Roman Size 12 (title page and references are not part of page count). You should use your own words and avoid lengthy quotations.

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REQUIREMENTS

If any references are required, ensure to use APA referencing to acknowledge the sources that you have used in preparing your assessment. Please refer to the CSU referencing guide http://student.csu.edu.au/study/referencing-at-csu. In addition a very useful tool for you to use that demonstrates how to correctly use in text referencing and the correct way to cite the reference in your reference list can be found at https://apps.csu.edu.au/reftool/apa-6

 

Question 18:               Business

 

Identify and discuss interventions/approaches that can be adopted by the healthcare industry to enhance the quality of life

 

Question 19:               General Question

MN 551 Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam (Latest)

MN 551 Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam (Latest)

 

Question 20:               General Question

ATI Pharmacology Exam Latest 2020

ATI Pharmacology Exam Latest 2020

 

Question 21:               General Question

South University NSG 6420 Week 10 Final Exam Latest 2020

South University NSG 6420 Week 10 Final Exam Latest 2020

 

Question 22:               History

 

Answer the following essay in about 600-700 words.  (40 points).  Make sure your organize your essay into paragraphs with a well-stated opening and closing paragraph.

  1. There are forces that are pulling the world together in the 21st century and forces that are pulling it apart. What forces are pulling the world together in the 21st century?  How do these forces compare with those pulling it apart?  Discuss these two questions and apply two lessons learned from the period of history studied this term.

 

Question 23:               Statistics

1.

A scientist is conducting a study on the effect of eating chocolate and overall mood. They believe that gender is a significant factor.  The participants are divided by gender.  Then, within each group, participants are randomly assigned to consume either chocolate or a placebo and then rate their mood for the day. This experiment will run for two weeks.

Which type of experimental design does this situation describe?

 

2.

To compare the teaching methodologies of two of its eighth-grade math teachers, a school decides to compare student test scores from the two classes throughout the year.

Which type of statistical study is the school conducting?

 

3.

Peter randomly draws a card from a deck of 24. The odds in favor of his drawing a spade from the cards are 1:3.

What is the probability ratio for Peter to draw a spade?

 

4.

Select the correct statement regarding experiments.

A researcher can carefully control the explanatory variables and observe human responses.

5.

A trainer is studying the effects of vitamin D on his athletes. He has realized that there are many potential confounding factors, such as gender and age. To limit the effect of these confounding variables, he decided to first group two athletes together based on these variables (for example, two 21-year-old males). Then he randomly assigned one person to receive the vitamin D and the other to receive a sugar pill.

What type of experimental design does this situation demonstrate?

 

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6.

Amanda is the owner of a small chain of dental offices. She sent out the yearly satisfaction survey to 600 randomly selected patients and received 544 surveys back. When looking through the results, she noticed that the downtown dental office staff had 84% of clients reporting satisfaction with services, while the uptown dental office staff had 76% of clients reporting satisfaction with services.

Which of the following sets shows Amanda’s null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis?

 

7.

Which of these statements best defines a stratified random sample?

 

8.

What is the probability of drawing a red card or a queen from a standard deck of 52 cards?

 

9

Ryan is playing a multiplication game with a pile of 26 cards, each with a number on them. Each turn, he flips over two of the cards, and has to multiply the numbers.

How many possible outcomes are there on Ryan’s first turn flipping two cards?

 

10.

The average number of road accidents that occur on a particular stretch of road during a month is 7.

What is the probability of observing exactly three accidents on this stretch of road next month?

 

 

 

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Question 24:   Music

 

According to the film, Alex Lora: Rock and Roll Made in Mexico, how was the view of the Mexican government towards Rock n’ Roll during the ’60s?

Question 1 options:

 

  1. A)

The Rock and Roll was banned in Mexico, and they were persecuted.

 

  1. B)

The government persecuted the groups that played “Refried” songs.

 

  1. C)

“Rhythm and blues” was the only genre that was permitted.

 

  1. D)

It became very popular and everyone liked it.

Question 2 (2 points)

 

According to the film, Comparers, how did the women learn the mariachi tradition of music?

Question 2 options:

 

  1. A)

They taught themselves.

 

  1. B)

They learned in school.

 

  1. C)

They learned by imitating successful musicians.

 

  1. D)

All of the above.

Question 3 (2 points)

 

According to the film Comparers, what main obstacle did the mariacheras have to overcome during their journey to become professional mariachis?

Question 3 options:

 

  1. A)

None of the above

 

  1. B)

Machismo

 

  1. C)

It was difficult for them to learn the music

 

  1. D)

Some of them did not want to become professional mariachis but society pushed them into it.

Question 4 (2 points)

 

According to the film, El Corrido Mexicano, the song, ” Somos Más Americanos, by popular band Los Tigres del Norte, addresses what important issue, among others?

Question 4 options:

 

  1. A)

immigration

 

  1. B)

drug dealing

 

  1. C)

social diseases

 

  1. D)

religion

Question 5 (2 points)

 

According to the film, Sing and Don’t Cry: The Mariachis, why is the Venezuelan mariachi ensemble’s participation in the event significant to the larger genre of mariachi music?

Question 5 options:

 

  1. A)

It demonstrates the economic reliability of Venezuela from an international perspective.

 

  1. B)

It shows the international appeal of the mariachi musical tradition.

 

  1. C)

It represents the similarities between mariachi and folk music from Venezuela.

 

  1. D)

It points to the lax immigration laws of Mexico.

Section V: Listening

Section I: Identifying Terms and Concepts Fundamental to Music and Dance—Matching (14 points)

Question 6 (6 points)

 

Match the element of music to its description.

Question 6 options:

Bottom of Form

1.Dynamics

 

  1. Form

 

  1. Texture

 

  1. Pitch

 

  1. Timbre

 

4.Rhythm

1.

Volume and articulation of sounds

2.

Underlying organizational structure of the sounds

3.

Frequency of the tone

4.

Duration of sounds and silences and organization of such

5.

Phonic structure or relationships between the sounds

6.

Tone or aural color

Question 7 (4 points)

 

Match the element of dance to its description.

Question 7 options:

  1. Refers to the dancer him/herself

 

3.Use of floor patterns, direction, level, and shape

 

4.Amount of force expended in a given movement

 

2.Speed of movements and manipulation of rhythmic patterns

1.

Body

2.

Time

3.

Space

4.

Effort

Question 8 (4 points)

 

Match the classification with the way in which its instruments produce sound.

Question 8 options:

Membranophones

 

. Idiophones

 

. Chordophones

 

1.Aerophones

 

Vibrations of air columns

 

Vibrations of stretched skins, organic or synthetic

 

Vibrations of strings

 

Vibrations of instrument body

Section III: Text/Lecture–Multiple Choice (16 points)

Choose the correct answer in response to the question/prompt.

Question 9 (1 point)

 

Which of the following is an example of participatory performance?

Question 9 options:

 

  1. A)

A piano solo

 

  1. B)

An opera

 

  1. C)

An open drum circle

 

  1. D)

A staged rock concert

Question 10 (1 point)

 

The reference to a despedida in the final chapter should call to mind this custom:

Question 10 options:

 

  1. A)

a sung reference to ancestral tradition.

 

  1. B)

the sung farewell in a corrido.

 

  1. C)

a statement of protest in popular song.

 

  1. D)

the practice of participatory singing.

Question 11 (1 point)

 

What is the Spanish term for “mixture” used in reference to racial blending and, later, syncretism of cultural features?

Question 11 options:

 

  1. A)

Diaspora

 

  1. B)

Essentialization

 

  1. C)

Stereotype

 

  1. D)

Mestizaje

Question 12 (1 point)

 

José Pablo Moncayo’s Huapango:

Question 12 options:

 

  1. A)

rejects the spirit of nationalism that shaped the opening decades of the 20th century.

 

  1. B)

is only played by symphonic orchestras and never played outside of Mexico.

 

  1. C)

was intended for performance by rural musicians.

 

  1. D)

has become a beloved symbol of Mexican identity.

Question 13 (1 point)

 

What is the six-beat pattern with varying accentuation, sometimes felt in two and other times in three, common in various Latin musics called?

Question 13 options:

 

  1. A)

Triple meter

 

  1. B)

Compound meter

 

  1. C)

Huapango

 

  1. D)

Sesquiáltera

Question 14 (1 point)

 

Which of the following is another name for the dance music called, waila?

Question 14 options:

 

  1. A)

Tecnobanda

 

  1. B)

Quebredita

 

  1. C)

Chicken scratch

 

  1. D)

Tex-Mex

Question 15 (1 point)

 

Why do practitioners of Danza Azteca take issue with Danza de los Concheros?

Question 15 options:

 

  1. A)

The attire donned by the dancers utilizes materials taken from endangered animals.

 

  1. B)

Aztec ceremonies do not provide space for both groups, so competition between them has become intense.

 

  1. C)

The representation of women is misogynistic and further oppresses women in modern society.

 

  1. D)

Use of the concha represents European influence on indigenous practices.

Question 16 (1 point)

 

One of the earliest and most famous stars of rocanrol was:

Question 16 options:

 

  1. A)

Gloría Rios

 

  1. B)

Amparo Ochoa

 

  1. C)

Judith Reyes

 

  1. D)

Julieta Venegas

Question 17 (1 point)

 

Which of the following was the singer-actor who became the idealized representative of the handsome, heroic rancher?

Question 17 options:

 

  1. A)

Emilio Zapata

 

  1. B)

Jorge Negrete

 

  1. C)

Agustín Lara

 

  1. D)

José

Question 18 (1 point)

The guitar and other stringed instruments didn’t exist prior to European contact and belong to this category.

Question 18 options:

 

  1. A)

Idiophone

 

  1. B)

Membranophone

 

  1. C)

Aerophone

 

  1. D)

Chordophone

Question 19 (1 point)

 

Which of the following is a guitar-like instrument with six double courses associated with conjuntos norteños?

Question 19 options:

 

  1. A)

Bajo sexto

 

  1. B)

Mandolin

 

  1. C)

Guitarrón

 

  1. D)

Vihuela

Question 20 (1 point)

 

Villancicos were one of the most important genres of music to develop in vice-regal Mexico and offered a vehicle for:

Question 20 options:

 

  1. A)

inserting popular music styles into the formal liturgy.

 

  1. B)

giving space to women composers.

 

  1. C)

sharing new instruments imported from Germany, like the accordion.

 

  1. D)

teaching the congregation high Latin.

Question 21 (1 point)

 

Which of the following is a Spanish genre of musical theater characterized by a mixture of sung and spoken dialogue?

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Question 21 options:

 

  1. A)

Kunqu

 

  1. B)

Zarzuela

 

  1. C)

Opera

 

  1. D)

Noh

Question 22 (1 point)

 

What is the foot-stomping heard in Mexican son that creates rhythmic accents called?

Question 22 options:

 

  1. A)

Zapateado

 

  1. B)

Ceili

 

  1. C)

Baile

 

  1. D)

Flamenco

Question 23 (1 point)

 

Independence Day in Mexico is:

Question 23 options:

 

  1. A)

May 5th.

 

  1. B)

April 15th.

 

  1. C)

September 16th.

 

  1. D)

December 25th.

Question 24 (1 point)

 

The mega-genre of Mexican dance song, called son, is defined by which three dimensions?

Question 24 options:

 

  1. A)

Music, verse, and instrumentation

 

  1. B)

Verse, instrumentation, and choreography

 

  1. C)

Music, verse, and choreography

 

  1. D)

Music, instrumentation, and choreography

Section IV: Text/Lecture–True-False (15 points)

Select T (true) or F (false) for the following statements.

 

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Question 25 (1 point)

 

All societies have music, but music is not a universal language.

Question 25 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 26 (1 point)

 

Another term for “traditional” music is “folk” music.

Question 26 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 27 (1 point)

 

The beginning of the nationalist movement in Mexican classical music began with the establishment of the Orquesta Sinfónica Nacional in 1928 and ended with the death of composer Silvestre Revueltas in 1940.

Question 27 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 28 (1 point)

 

Classical music is distinct in that it requires very specialized training to understand and perform and is typically based upon a theoretical system, like notation.

Question 28 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 29 (1 point)

 

Banda is a broad style of Mexican dance music popularized by the wind bands of Sinaloa.

Question 29 options:

 

True

 

False

 

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Question 30 (1 point)

 

Popular music refers to music mostly from the 1980s-1990s, especially music that includes electric guitar, bass, and keyboards.

Question 30 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 31 (1 point)

 

Canto nuevo (a.k.a. nueva canción and nueva trova) was a song movement easily identified by the women who invariably fronted the bands to represent the gender equality for which it was striving.

Question 31 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 32 (1 point)

 

A song structured in verse form with different text, but the same melody is known as strophic.

Question 32 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 33 (1 point)

 

Flor silvestre (1943) is a film that provides a social critique of the Mexican Revolution in its music and narrative.

Question 33 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 34 (1 point)

 

The huéhuetl (single-headed drum with carved wooden base) is categorized as an idiophone.

Question 34 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 35 (1 point)

 

Francisco “Pancho” Villa (1878-1923) was a major leader during the Mexican Revolution.

Question 35 options:

 

True

 

False

 

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Question 36 (1 point)

 

The romance is a poetically conceived ballad song and ancestor to the modern corrido.

Question 36 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 37 (1 point)

 

The Porfiriato was a period of social degradation and oppression of freedom, but with a lot of economic and infrastructure improvements in Mexico.

Question 37 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 38 (1 point)

 

Son istmeño is well known for its characteristic instrument, the pinkillu.

Question 38 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 39 (1 point)

 

Porfirio Diaz is most well-known for his rallying cry for Mexican independence, “death to the gachupines.”

Question 39 options:

 

True

 

False

 

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Question 25:               Business

 

Assignment Overview

The Case Assignments for this course are tightly coordinated with the SLP and the TD. In the SLP, you will be working with a virtual team comprising several of your classmates. In the Case, you will be considering the more conceptual topics that will guide you in structuring your team and its work. Your task is to apply what you learn from preparing the Cases to the way you build your team. The exception is Module 4, where the Case involves an assessment of your team and the SLP an action plan for improvement and learning. The goal is that by the end of the course you will have had a chance to learn and practice what current management “gurus” are telling us about how to work in virtual teams, and will be in a position to analyze how effective these practices are.

Case Assignment

Arguably the trickiest part of building and maintaining an effective virtual team is the task of balancing “togetherness” and “apartness.” Some insight was given to this question in the background reading. Now read an additional piece, which expands on this theme:

Mapping out the creative process and work design approach. Retrieved from http://media.wiley.com/product_data/excerpt/46/07879711/0787971146.pdf

After considering the material in this reading as well as the background readings and any other research material you choose to use, reflect on how a virtual team best addresses the balance between togetherness and apartness. Specifically, you will want to think about how the work in virtual teams is designed as well as how leadership is handled.  For example:

  • What are the options for work design and leadership of virtual teams?
  • How do task requirements and team characteristics affect the choices of work design and leadership (such as rotating, etc.)? Be specific and give examples if appropriate.
  • Make an assessment of the effectiveness of the structures/practices covered by the readings in this module for virtual teaming. (In other words, do they work, or are the authors of the readings hopelessly out of touch with reality?)

Assignment Expectations

Your paper (which should be from 4 to 5 pages), will be evaluated using the following five (5) criteria:

  • Assignment-Driven Criteria (Precision and Breadth): Does the paper fully address all assignment expectations? Are the concepts behind the assignment addressed accurately and precisely using sound logic? Does the paper meet minimum length requirements?
  • Critical Thinking (Critical Thinking and Depth): Does the paper demonstrate graduate-level analysis, in which information derived from multiple sources, expert opinions, and assumptions has been critically evaluated and synthesized in the formulation of a logical set of conclusions? Does the paper address the topic with sufficient depth of discussion and analysis?
  • Business Writing (Clarity and Organization): Is the paper well written (clear, developed logically, and well organized)? Are the grammar, spelling, and vocabulary appropriate for graduate-level work? Are section headings included in all papers? Are paraphrasing and synthesis of concepts the primary means of responding to the assignment, or is justification/support instead conveyed through excessive use of direct quotations?
  • Effective Use of Information (Information Literacy and References): Does the paper demonstrate that the student has read, understood and can apply the background materials for the module? If required, has the student demonstrated effective research, as evidenced by student’s use of relevant and quality (library?) sources? Do additional sources used in paper provide strong support for conclusions drawn, and do they help in shaping the overall paper?
  • Citing Sources: Does the student demonstrate understanding of APA Style of referencing, by inclusion of proper end references and in-text citations (for paraphrased text and direct quotations) as appropriate? Have all sources (e.g., references used from the Background page, the assignment readings, and outside research) been included, and are these properly cited? Have all end references been included within the body of the paper as in-text citations?

Turn in your 4- to 5-page essay by the end of the module.

 

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Question 26:               Business

 

Amazon.com Business Combinations and Financial Results Analysis

worth 120 points

Search the Internet for acquisitions and equity investments made by Amazon.com during the last five (5) years. Review the 10-K of Amazon.com located at http://www.sec.gov/cgi-bin/browse-edgar?company=&match=&CIK=AMZN&filenum=&State=&Country=&SIC=&owner=exclude&Find=Find+Companies&action=getcompany.

Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:

Examine how at least three (3) growth strategy alternatives utilized by Amazon.com in the global and domestic retail markets influenced profitability and indicate if the strategies were successful.
Assess the financial value of the acquisitions and investments made by Amazon.com, and the influence of the acquisitions and investments on profitability during the accounting period.
Analyze the effect of the equity investments and impairments resulting from the acquisitions and investments by Amazon.com on the financial statements and indicate whether the strategy was a creatable one. Provide support for your rationale.
Create an argument that growth in the European market can have a significant impact on current earnings and profit for Amazon.com. Provide support for your rationale.
Use at least two (2) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar websites do not qualify as academic resources. You have access to Strayer University’s Online Library at https://research.strayer.edu or iCampus University Library Research page at https://icampus.strayer.edu/library/research.

 

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Question 27:               Business

 


For this assignment, use the same company you researched in Assignment 1 (Wegmans Food Markets)

Write a two to three (2-3) page paper in which you:

  1. Compare the difference between job satisfaction and organizational commitment. Determine which is more strongly related to performance for your selected company.
  2. Apply motivational theory and performance management principles to evaluate the company as a potential employer.
  3. Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and similar websites do not qualify as academic resources.

 

 

Question 28:               Economics

 

The demand for 3D televisions (TVs) would fall if 3D TVs are normal goods and:

 

  • Question 2

10 out of 10 points

 

 

What would explain the price of petrol being much higher in 2012 than it was in 2011, yet roughly the same amount of petrol was bought in both years?

 

 

  • Question 3

0 out of 10 points

 

 

Businesses feel that slowly rising general prices are good for business because:

 

Question 4

10 out of 10 points

 

If the price of wood suddenly increases, which of the following would be a likely explanation?

 

  • Question 5

10 out of 10 points

 

 

If the demand for a good increases when there is high unemployment, we can conclude that the commodity is:

 

 

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  • Question 6

10 out of 10 points

 

 

If the price of petrol doubles while consumer income is constant:

 

 

  • Question 7

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

If the price of luxury cars falls, the most likely outcome, ceteris paribus, will be that the:

 

Question 8

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

An advance in technology increases supply:

 

 

 

  • Question 9

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

Health Clubs typically experience an increase in one-year memberships in January, but many new customers cancel their memberships before the end of the year. Which of the following is the best explanation for this behavior?

 

  • Question 10

0 out of 10 points

 

 

 

The substitution effect of a price change refers to the:

 

 

 

  • Question 1

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

An advance in technology increases supply:

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 2

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

The substitution effect of a price change refers to the:

 

 

 

  • Question 3

10 out of 10 points

  • Question 4

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

If wages of workers in the car manufacturing industry rise, and the wage rises are not due to increases in worker productivity, then the market:

 

  • Question 5

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

What would explain the price of petrol being much higher in 2012 than it was in 2011, yet roughly the same amount of petrol was bought in both years?

 

 

  • Question 6

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

The demand for 3D televisions (TVs) would fall if 3D TVs are normal goods and:

 

  • Question 7

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

Assume that the prices of airline tickets (assuming airline tickets are normal goods) have fallen in recent months. Over this same period, assume that the price of jet fuel has risen and consumer incomes have fallen. Which of the following best explains the falling prices of airline tickets?

 

 

  • Question 8

10 out of 10 points

 

If the price of petrol doubles while consumer income is constant:

 

  • Question 9

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

Businesses feel that slowly rising general prices are good for business because:

 

 

  • Question 10

10 out of 10 points

 

 

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If the demand for a good increases when there is high unemployment, we can conclude that the commodity is:

 

 

Question 3

0 out of 10 points

 

 

 

An increase in the demand for bananas will not be caused by:

 

 

Question 10

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

Soon after the price of beef increases, the price of chicken increases also because:

 

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Question 29:               Psychology

 

  1. Researchers (Dexter et al., 1998) wanted to know what impact, if any, the consumption of violent movies has on attitudes toward women. Participants at a large, Midwestern university viewed either (a) a slasher film daily for 1 week, (b) Three slasher films in 1 week, or (c) a George Pierrot adventure travelogue. Slasher films feature the slicing and dicing of young women’s bodies (e.g., The Texas Chain Saw Massacre, 1974). In the week following the film viewing, all participants were escorted to the campus law school where they were asked to observe law students try a rape case in a mock trial; participants’ task was to evaluate the performance of all parties to the trial. A Likert-style questionnaire (1=not at all; 9=extremely) completed by participants included evaluations of the respective attorneys, the defendant, and the accuser. Examples were:
  • How sympathetic is she/he?
  • How attractive is she/he?
  • How intelligent is she/he?
  • How likeable is she/he?

 

Reference:

 

Dexter, H. R., Penrod, S., Linz, D., & Saunders, D. (1998). Attributing responsibility to female victims after exposure to sexually violent films: The effects of victim-observer similarity, situational relevance, and mass media induced emotional arousal. Journal of Applied Social Psychology, 27(24), 2149-2171.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

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If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

 

  1. A pair of psychologists are interested in the effects of mood in helping (based on Isen & Levin, 1972). They give participants free tickets to a happy movie. They then have a confederate drop papers in front of the people who just got out of the movie, and people who are only walking by and have not just seen a happy movie for free. The researchers watch to see if the participants help pick up the dropped papers.

 

Reference:

Isen, A. M., & Levin, P. F. (1972). Effect of feeling good on helping: Cookies and kindness. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 21(3), 384–388.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (www.homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

 

 

  1. Researchers are interested in personal experiences of Indian adolescent girls with regard to gender discrimination and how they feel about the discrimination (Sarkar, 2003). All of the participants used in this study are female. Participants are interviewed with a set of semi-structured, open ended questions in an individual setting and in focus groups.

 

Reference:

 

Sarkar, S. (2010). Cross-cultural examination of psychological well-being in India and Sri Lanka. Paper accepted and to be presented as a part of the Symposium “Exploring psychological well-being in culturally diverse populations: Methodological innovations”, chaired by B. K. Nastasi at the American Psychological Association’s 112th annual convention (August 2010, San Diego).

 

  1. a)    What is the qualitative research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

.

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

  1. Researchers (Reifman, Larrick, & Fein, 1991) were interested in the factors causing aggression. They looked at an entire baseball season’s worth of news reports. For each game, they recorded the temperature of the locale and the number of batters who were hit by pitched balls.

 

Reference:

Reifman, A. S., Larrick, R. P., & Fein, S. (1991). Temper and temperature on the diamond: The heat-aggression relationship in major league baseball. Personality and Social Psychology Bulletin, 17(5), 580–585.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. e)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (www.homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

 

 

  1. Researchers are interested in influences on self-esteem. Half of the participants used in this study are male and half are female. Participants are given a set of anagram problems to solve in a 5-minute period. Half are randomly assigned to receive very easy anagrams and half are given difficult ones. After completing as many of the anagrams as they can, participants are given a questionnaire labeled “Thoughts and Feelings Questionnaire” that is really a measure of self-esteem.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. f)     What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (www.homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

 

 

Question 30:               Psychology

 

  1. Researchers (Dexter et al., 1998) wanted to know what impact, if any, the consumption of violent movies has on attitudes toward women. Participants at a large, Midwestern university viewed either (a) a slasher film daily for 1 week, (b) Three slasher films in 1 week, or (c) a George Pierrot adventure travelogue. Slasher films feature the slicing and dicing of young women’s bodies (e.g., The Texas Chain Saw Massacre, 1974). In the week following the film viewing, all participants were escorted to the campus law school where they were asked to observe law students try a rape case in a mock trial; participants’ task was to evaluate the performance of all parties to the trial. A Likert-style questionnaire (1=not at all; 9=extremely) completed by participants included evaluations of the respective attorneys, the defendant, and the accuser. Examples were:
  • How sympathetic is she/he?
  • How attractive is she/he?
  • How intelligent is she/he?
  • How likeable is she/he?

 

Reference:

 

Dexter, H. R., Penrod, S., Linz, D., & Saunders, D. (1998). Attributing responsibility to female victims after exposure to sexually violent films: The effects of victim-observer similarity, situational relevance, and mass media induced emotional arousal. Journal of Applied Social Psychology, 27(24), 2149-2171.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

 

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (www.homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

 

 

  1. A pair of psychologists are interested in the effects of mood in helping (based on Isen & Levin, 1972). They give participants free tickets to a happy movie. They then have a confederate drop papers in front of the people who just got out of the movie, and people who are only walking by and have not just seen a happy movie for free. The researchers watch to see if the participants help pick up the dropped papers.

 

Reference:

Isen, A. M., & Levin, P. F. (1972). Effect of feeling good on helping: Cookies and kindness. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 21(3), 384–388.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (www.homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

 

 

  1. Researchers are interested in personal experiences of Indian adolescent girls with regard to gender discrimination and how they feel about the discrimination (Sarkar, 2003). All of the participants used in this study are female. Participants are interviewed with a set of semi-structured, open ended questions in an individual setting and in focus groups.

 

Reference:

 

Sarkar, S. (2010). Cross-cultural examination of psychological well-being in India and Sri Lanka. Paper accepted and to be presented as a part of the Symposium “Exploring psychological well-being in culturally diverse populations: Methodological innovations”, chaired by B. K. Nastasi at the American Psychological Association’s 112th annual convention (August 2010, San Diego).

 

  1. a)    What is the qualitative research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

.

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

  1. Researchers (Reifman, Larrick, & Fein, 1991) were interested in the factors causing aggression. They looked at an entire baseball season’s worth of news reports. For each game, they recorded the temperature of the locale and the number of batters who were hit by pitched balls.

 

Reference:

Reifman, A. S., Larrick, R. P., & Fein, S. (1991). Temper and temperature on the diamond: The heat-aggression relationship in major league baseball. Personality and Social Psychology Bulletin, 17(5), 580–585.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. e)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (www.homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

 

 

  1. Researchers are interested in influences on self-esteem. Half of the participants used in this study are male and half are female. Participants are given a set of anagram problems to solve in a 5-minute period. Half are randomly assigned to receive very easy anagrams and half are given difficult ones. After completing as many of the anagrams as they can, participants are given a questionnaire labeled “Thoughts and Feelings Questionnaire” that is really a measure of self-esteem.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. f)     What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

Question 31:               Psychology

 

SS360 Abnormal Psychology Final Exam

  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the typical minor side effects of antipsychotic medications?

 

Grogginess

 

Blurred vision

 

Headaches

 

Dryness of the mouth

 

  1. The main deficit of amnestic disorder is an inability to

 

transfer information into long-term memory.

 

remember significant events from the distant past.

 

perform basic mathematical calculations.

 

remember one’s own name.

 

  1. One of the major differences between dementia caused by Alzheimer’s disease and dementia caused by depression is that the Alzheimer’s type of dementia:

 

is generally reversible

 

is not reversible

 

involves a slow increase in symptoms

 

leads to a rapid decline in abilities

  1. Tardive dyskinesia, a condition that can occur in patients who take antipsychotic medications:

 

can result from short term use

 

can result from low doses

 

occurs in less than 2% of patients

 

may often be irreversible

  1. Which of the following is the persecutory type of psychotic delusion?

 

A familiar person is actually a double.

 

You are a famous or important person.

 

People are out to get you.

 

A body part has changed in some impossible way.

 

  1.  Most models of developmental psychology suggest that normal childhood development progresses as a series of steps, with each new achievement building on prior development. Given this model, select any childhood developmental disorder and describe how it can influence current and future deficits for the individuals
  2. Which of the following is(are) the primary issue(s) in mental health law today?

 

The rights of mentally ill individuals

 

The rights of society to be protected

 

both of these

 

neither of these

  1. Several years ago, Mary was arrested for participating in a crime. Since then she has been confined in a psychiatric hospital. Mary is periodically evaluated to see if she is still mentally ill. When it is determined that she is no longer mentally ill, Mary will be released. From your knowledge of mental health and the law, you would correctly state that the original verdict in Mary’s case was:

 

NGRI

 

GBMI

 

both of these

 

neither of these

  1. In which of the following disorders are hallucinations and delusions NOT part of the symptom pattern?

 

schizotypal personality disorder

 

schizoaffective disorder

 

schizophreniform disorder

 

brief psychotic disorder

  1. One of the subtypes of schizophrenia is termed residual. Which of the following individuals would be diagnosed with this condition?

 

Mr. S. is actively hallucinating and has delusions of persecution.

 

Miss L. has had an episode of schizophrenia but has no active symptoms at this time.

 

Mrs. R. has never had an episode of schizophrenia but acts in a very bizarre manner.

 

Mt. F. is at risk for developing schizophrenia because of his family history.

  1. Which of the following occurs when drugs are administered to schizophrenic patients?

 

drugs that increase dopamine (agonists) cause an increase in schizophrenic behavior

 

drugs that decrease dopamine (antagonists) decrease schizophrenic behavior

 

both of these statements are correct

 

neither of these statements are correct

  1. Which best describes the way attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) develops as children grow into adulthood?

 

children tend to outgrow ADHD

 

ADHD tends to evolve into more severe forms of pathology

 

symptoms remain relatively stable throughout the lifespan for most individuals

 

manifestations of ADHD tend to change over time, but problems often persist

  1. Jena is a 14-year-old autistic girl who seems compelled to run around touching each door every time she comes home. If she is prevented from touching each door, Jean has a tantrum. This is an example of:

 

restricted behavior pattern

 

social impairment

 

ritualistic behavior

 

maintenance of sameness

  1. Callie has been diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder. This means that in addition to schizophrenic symptoms, she also has symptoms of:

 

an anxiety disorder

 

a mood disorder

 

a split personality

 

obsessive-compulsive disorder

  1. The inattention symptom of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder is characterized by:

 

careless mistakes

 

fidgeting

 

not waiting one’s turn to answer questions

 

all of these

  1. If Jane’s dementia is caused by a process that has damaged her brain’s dopamine pathways, it can be assumed that this condition is related to:

 

head trauma

 

Parkinson’s disease

 

Huntington’s disease

 

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Alzheimer’s disease

  1. Which of the following is most likely to occur in the paranoid type of schizophrenia?

 

Disorganized speech

 

Poor prognosis when compared to the other subtypes of schizophrenia

 

Limited cognitive skills and flat affect

 

Hallucinations and thematic or systematized delusions

  1. According to the authors of your textbook, the periodic changes in the laws regarding civil commitment are a sign of a:

 

society that has no idea of what to do with this issue

 

hospital system that is ineffective in treating uncooperative patients

 

healthy system responding to the limits of previous decisions

 

prior mistake that has now been successfully corrected

  1. Which of the following was used for a definitive diagnosis of Alzheimer’s type dementia in the past?

 

psychological testing

 

mental status exam

 

autopsy

 

reported observations of the patient by family members

  1. Describe the “positive” and “negative” symptoms of schizophrenia. Explain what is meant by these terms and how they are related to prognosis and outcome.
  2. The risk of violence among mentally ill patients increases if specific symptoms such as __________ are present.

 

hallucinations

 

delusions

 

both a and b

 

neither a nor b

  1. Which of the following is accurate in regard to the long-term outlook for schizophrenia patients?

 

About 50% of persons diagnosed with the disorder eventually recover.

 

Recovery is possible only if the person stays on medication

 

Recovery is possible only if the patient receives psychotherapy.

 

Complete recovery from schizophrenia is rare.

  1. Mr. Smith (age 72) is brought to the hospital emergency room. Mr. Smith’s son explains that his father woke up this morning and was “not himself.” Mr. Smith appears confused, agitated, and a bit frightened. He does not know his own name and cannot recognize his son. Mr. Smith’s son reports that his father had been completely fine with no symptoms prior to that morning. Mr. Smith appears to be suffering from :

 

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dementia

 

Alzheimer’s

 

delirium

 

amnesic disorder

  1. In regard to dementia, the cognitive reserve hypothesis suggests that:

 

skills acquired through formal education help compensate for the early symptoms of dementia

 

the more synapses one develops throughout life, the more neuronal death required before the person becomes impaired

 

individuals with Alzheimer’s type dementia never had reserve neurons

 

Alzheimer’s type dementia is caused by a lack of formal education

  1. If an individual is diagnosed as psychotic, it usually means that the person has

 

hallucinations.

 

delusions.

 

both of these

 

neither of these

  1. One major difference that is useful in the diagnosis of dementia or delirium is that:

 

dementia symptoms develop slowly over time; delirium symptoms develop quickly

 

dementia symptoms are usually associated with underlying medical conditions; delirium is usually the result of other factors

 

the initial symptoms of dementia are generally more severe than the symptoms of delirium

 

the symptoms of dementia involve memory but the symptoms of delirium are more likely to involve expressive language

  1. Which of the following statements accurately describes the outcome of the policy known as deinstitutionalization?

 

Previously hospitalized patients received adequate care in most communities.

 

Funding for community mental health centers was sufficient to provide care for previously hospitalized patients.

 

Deinstitutionalization is considered a failure because patient care deteriorated.

 

None of the above

  1. Results of research showing that auditory hallucinations are localized in the expressive speech area of the brain suggest:

 

these hallucinations are produced by the auditory nerve in the ear as well as the speech area of the brain

 

people who are hallucinating think the voices of other people are actually their own

 

a person who is hallucinating is actually listening to is/her own thoughts

 

these hallucinations are related to the disorganized speech that occurs in schizophrenia

  1. Which of the following statements is true?

 

A cold, dominant, and rejecting mother causes schizophrenia.

 

A communication style that produces conflicting messages causes schizophrenia.

 

High expressed emotion in a family is a good predictor of relapse among patients with chronic schizophrenia.

 

None of these

  1. The hypothesis that attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) may be influenced by toxins, food additives, or diet:

 

is based on well controlled studies

 

is not well understood or studied, but generally effective as a treatment

 

appears true for a small subset of individuals diagnosed with ADHD

 

has no scientific evidence

 

 

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  1. Alvin is a ten-year-old boy diagnosed with a mathematics disorder. His treatment plan will most likely involve:

 

teaching him different strategies to compensate for areas where he has difficulty

 

stimulant medication

 

developing an educational plan that exempts him from mathematics requirements

 

placing him in a school for learning disordered children

  1. The familial communication style called expressed emotion (EE) sometimes used to predict relapse in schizophrenia patients includes all of the following EXCEPT:

 

over-involvement

 

criticism

 

emotional distance

 

Hostility

  1. Although not classified as developmental disorders, many, if not most, psychological disorders can be considered developmental because they:

 

appear early in life and change over a the lifespan

 

have a genetic component

 

lack biological causes and are influenced by learning

 

are unique to children

  1. Most autistic individuals develop symptoms of the disorder:

 

at birth

 

by age one

 

by age three

 

by teen years

  1. At various times individuals have been arrested for stalking celebrities who they believed were in love with them. This condition is called _____ delusion.

 

jealous

 

erotomanic

 

somatic

 

persecutory

  1. The famous case of the Genain sisters, identical quadruplets all diagnosed with schizophrenia, points out that siblings raised in the same household may experience their environment very differently, a concept called:

 

variable home structure

 

 

unshared environment

 

 

environmental phenomenon

 

 

unique perceptive interpretation

 

 

 

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  1. Monte is a 3-year-old boy recently diagnosed with autism. He appears completely unresponsive to his parents and shows no indication of any language development. Monte seems uninterested in communication of any kind and has significant rituals such as lining up his toys and realigning them every few minutes. He becomes hysterical if anyone interrupts his ritualistic activity. On an IQ assessment designed for very young children, Monte’s score was extremely low. His prognosis is poor primarily because of:

 

 

 

Question 32:   Psychology

 

Psych 328 Midterm

Which of the following is not thought to contribute to the onset of puberty?

the presence of sexually mature partners in the environment

 

whether the individual is healthy enough to begin reproduction

 

the development of primary sex characteristics

 

whether there are nutritional resources available to support a pregnancy

 

 

 

.

Which of the following statements suggests that rising levels of the protein leptin is an important signal that tells the body it is ready for puberty?

Production of pubic hair relates to increased sex drive.

 

Excessive thinness can delay onset of puberty.

 

Poorer adolescents tend to go through puberty earlier than non-poor adolescents.

 

Excessive exercise promotes early physical development.

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #13
Which of the following is not part of the feedback loop in the endocrine system?

gonads

 

hypothalamus

 

pituitary gland

 

thyroid hormones

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #14
Ten-year-old Luna’s budding feelings of sexual attraction are most likely explained:

by maturation of the adrenal glands through the process called adrenarche.

 

by maturation of the gonads through a process called menarche.

 

as rising levels of leptin instruct her hypothalamus to set the hormonal changes of puberty in motion.

 

as increases in sex hormones activate her HPG axis.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #15
The hormonally induced increase in the rate of growth in height and weight is referred to as:

the adolescent growth spurt.

 

epiphyses.

 

secular trend.

 

delayed phase preference.

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #16
The simultaneous release of growth hormones, thyroid hormones, and _________ stimulates rapid acceleration in height and weight during puberty.

pituitary glands

 

estrogens

 

androgens

 

thyroid glands

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #17
.

At the time of peak height velocity, adolescents grow at about the same rate as:

newborns.

 

infants.

 

toddlers.

 

elementary schoolchildren.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #18
The adolescent growth spurt:

generally begins two years earlier for girls than for boys.

 

generally begins two years earlier for boys than for girls.

 

is slower in the early adolescent years, then speeds up around age 15 for boys and girls.

 

proceeds along a smooth and rapid course over the teen years.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #19
.

Which of the following is not characteristic of changes in skeletal structure during puberty?

One marker that indicates the termination in growth in height is epiphysis.

 

Bones become more porous and more likely to break.

 

Height gains are attributable more to increases in torso length than leg length.

 

The growth sequence generally begins with the extremities, and then proceeds to the arms and legs, then to the torso and shoulders.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #20
.

Who is at the greatest risk of developing body dissatisfaction?

Callie, an early-maturing, affluent White girl who compares herself to her friends

 

Miranda, a late-maturing Black girl

 

John, an early-maturing Black male who compares himself to his friends

 

Mike, a late-maturing White male who feels he is not muscular enough

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #21
One reason for the difference in the body shapes of the sexes is:

the timing of the growth spurt.

 

that females tend to be more “left-brained” and males more “right-brained.”

 

differences in the size of the hypothalamus.

 

the difference in the amount and distribution of body fat.

 

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #22
Although both sexes experience changes in muscle tissue and body fat, the ratio of muscle to body fat is:

greater in boys than girls.

 

greater in girls than boys.

 

about the same in both genders.

 

greater in early-maturing girls than in late-maturing boys.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #23
Which of the following girls would probably be least susceptible to feelings of body dissatisfaction due to the rapid increase in body fat in early adolescence?

Suzy, an early mature

 

Lilly, someone who began dating early

 

Diane, someone from a relatively affluent family

 

Beth, a Black adolescent girl

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #24
The rapid increase in body fat that adolescent girls experience:

leads to a majority of adolescent girls dieting unnecessarily.

 

leads to an increase in healthy eating patterns among adolescent girls.

 

increases vulnerability to feelings of body dissatisfaction for Black adolescent girls.

 

is seen by the Centers for Disease Control as a major risk factor for obesity among adolescent girls.

 

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #25
According to the textbook, the sex difference in athletic performance during early adolescence results from all of the following except:

self-confidence.

 

body fat.

 

hormones.

 

diet and exercise.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #26
All of the following are reasons that males have greater gains in strength than females during early adolescence, except:

increased production of androgens among females.

 

strong societal pressures on girls to decrease their physical activity in adolescence.

 

inadequate nutrition among adolescent girls.

 

sex differences in body fat.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #27
Which of the following sex characteristics is the first to develop in boys?

production of sperm

 

appearance of facial hair

 

growth of testes and scrotum

 

growth of penis

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #28
Which of the following is probably true for Ashley, an early-maturing girl who was short and stocky as a child?

After puberty, she will be shorter and heavier than her late-maturing peers.

 

After puberty, she will be shorter and thinner than her late-maturing peers.

 

After puberty, she will be taller and heavier than her late-maturing peers.

 

After puberty, she will be taller and thinner than her late-maturing peers.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #29
The first ejaculation of seminal fluid that occurs is:

biologically predetermined.

 

genetically inherited.

 

often determined culturally.

 

a major embarrassment for most boys.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #30
The first sign of puberty in girls is generally:

growth of breasts.

 

underarm hair.

 

menarche.

 

acne.

 

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #31
Molly’s breasts are beginning to develop, she is beginning to grow pubic hair, her skin is becoming more oily, and her body is growing rapidly. These changes are brought about by the secretion of _____ by the _____.

estrogen only; testes

 

androgens only; ovaries

 

estrogen and androgens; ovaries

 

estrogen and androgens; testes

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #32
Which of the following female sex characteristics is usually the last to develop?

menarche

 

regular ovulation

 

development of the nipples of the breasts

 

growth of pubic hair

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #33
Which of the following statements about puberty in girls is false?

Regular ovulation and the ability to carry a baby to term usually follow menarche by several years.

 

The development of the areola and nipple are far better indicators of sexual maturation than is breast size.

 

Menarche occurs very early in the process of sexual development.

 

The changes in the nipple and areola occur regardless of the size to which the breast finally develops.

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #34
Which of the following statements about the timing and tempo of sexual maturation is true?

In the United States, and in all other countries, menarche typically occurs around age 12.

 

The duration of puberty varies widely, from 1.5 to 6 years in girls and 2 to 5 years in boys.

 

Adolescents who begin puberty early are also those who complete it early.

 

Adolescents who begin puberty earlier usually grow to be taller adults.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #35
Sarah is a junior high student anticipating and preparing for puberty. She wants to know when puberty will start and how long it will take until she looks and is considered an adult. What would you tell her?

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly variable and is influenced by both genetic and environmental factors.

 

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly predictive. She will begin the puberty process around 12.5 years of age and it will take four years until it is completed.

 

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly controllable.

 

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is predetermined by your DNA.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #36
Based on research addressing ethnic differences in the timing and rate of pubertal maturation, which American girl would be expected to be the earliest to mature?

Brandy, a middle-income Black adolescent

 

Miranda, a middle-income Mexican adolescent

 

Emily, a middle-income White adolescent

 

Kimberly, a middle-income Asian adolescent

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #37
Which of the following can delay the onset of puberty?

stress

 

nutritional deficiencies

 

excessive exercise

 

All of the above

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #38
Differences in the timing and rate of puberty among individuals growing up in the same general environment are largely caused by:

hormonal factors.

 

genetic factors.

 

environmental factors.

 

None of the above

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #39
Which of the following factors have not been found to influence the onset of maturation?

father absence

 

good nutrition

 

family conflict

 

peer pressure

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #40
According to the textbook, Julie, a seventeen-year-old living in a college dormitory, has noticed that her menstrual periods have begun to synchronize with _____, which is compelling evidence that social relationships can affect biological functioning.

the time her female roommate menstruates

 

her most stressful days of the month

 

days she feels most sexually aroused

 

her biological sister living in a different city

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #41
Over the past century, the onset of puberty has been coming at an earlier age. This has been referred to as the:

cross-sectional trend.

 

endocrine trend.

 

menarche trend.

 

secular trend.

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #42
Puberty began for Nancy when she was 9 years old. Her mother began puberty at 11 years. For her grandmother, the onset was at 13 years of age. These changes in the age of onset of puberty over time are referred to as:

cross-sectional trend.

 

secular trend.

 

longitudinal trend.

 

physiologic trend.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #43
Professor Kendall has been researching adolescent maturation around the world. Which of the following is she likely to determine has the smallest role in determining group differences in pubertal maturation?

nutrition.

 

sanitation.

 

infectious diseases.

 

genetics.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #44
The biological changes that take place during puberty can cause changes in adolescents’ behavior in all of the following ways, except:

directly.

 

by affecting the adolescent’s self-image.

 

by affecting the reactions of others to the adolescent.

 

All of these are ways in which biological changes occurring in puberty can cause changes in adolescents’ behavior.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #45
Dr. Davis is interested in how puberty affects adjustment. He studies a group of 100 junior high school students over the course of three years. He is conducting what kind of study?

longitudinal

 

cross-sectional

 

cross-sequential

 

secular

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #46
A research design in which subjects of different ages are assessed simultaneously is called a:

longitudinal study.

 

cross-sectional study.

 

cross-sequential study.

 

correlational study.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #47
Which of the following statements about hormonal changes of puberty is true?

Hormonal changes affect the brain in ways that increase adolescents’ desire for sensation-seeking activities.

 

Hormonal changes of puberty make adolescent more risk averse.

 

Hormonal changes of puberty make adolescents more introverted.

 

Hormonal changes affect the brain in ways that decrease adolescents’ desire for rewarding activities.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #48
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Which of the following statements about adolescent mood swings is false?

The effect of hormones on adolescent mood swings is strongest early in puberty.

 

Adolescents’ moods fluctuate during the course of the day more than the moods of adults.

 

Adolescent mood swings parallel their changes in activities.

 

Hormones play a greater role in the development of depression than do stressful life events.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #49
Which of the following plays the greatest role in the development of depression?

rapid increases in hormones

 

early maturation

 

stressful life events

 

the delayed phase preference

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #50
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Studies show that adolescent mood swings are most closely related to changes in:

hormone levels.

 

family relationships.

 

nutrition.

 

activities.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #51
52.

Which of the following statements about the impact of hormones on behavior is false?

Adolescents’ moods fluctuate more during than day than the moods of adults.

 

The direct relation between adolescent moodiness and hormonal changes of puberty is extremely strong.

 

The relation between hormonal changes and adolescent mood is strongest during early puberty.

 

Rapid increase in hormones may be associated with increased irritability, impulsivity, aggression, and depression.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #52
53.

Given a choice, Mike would prefer to stay up until 1:00 a.m. and sleep until 10:00 a.m. This pattern is called the:

secular trend.

 

delayed phase preference.

 

longitudinal design.

 

adolescent growth spurt.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #53
54.

Which of the following does not contribute to changes in sleep patterns during adolescence?

later secretion of melatonin

 

mood fluctuations throughout the day

 

television, computers, and artificial light sources

 

early school starting times

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #54
55.

The delayed phase preference suggests that:

adolescents should not be taught sex education until high school.

 

school should be held year-round.

 

school should begin later in the morning.

 

school should begin earlier in the morning.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #55
56.

Researchers have found that, with regard to adolescent sleep patterns:

adolescents today are getting more sleep than adolescents 30 years ago.

 

the reason that high schools begin classes earlier than middle schools or junior high schools is that adolescents are more alert during the morning hours than later in the day.

 

getting inadequate sleep is associated with poorer mental health and lower grades for adolescents.

 

although most adolescents do not get sufficient sleep during the week, they are able to make up for the deficit by sleeping later on weekends.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #56
57.

Which of the following statements about puberty’s impact on family relationships is true?

Puberty appears to increase distance between parents and children.

 

Other species do not experience distance during the pubertal transition.

 

Distancing effect of puberty on adolescent-parent relationships is consistently observed in minority families.

 

Puberty does not interfere with family relations.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #57
58.

According to the textbook, when compared to their less mature peers, adolescents who are physically mature are:

less likely to have problems with their parents.

 

more likely to be involved in cross-sex activities such as going out on dates.

 

more likely to have platonic relationships with opposite sex peers.

 

less likely to be depressed.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #58
59.

Which of the following girls will experience the greatest menstrual discomfort?

Sarita, who is prepared for the physical changes

 

Alison, who is a late mature

 

Loryn, who has a negative attitude toward menarche

 

Janet, who is unpopular among her classmates

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #59
60.

Studies have shown that prepubertal girls who expect menstruation to be uncomfortable report:
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milder menstrual symptoms than their peers.

 

more severe menstrual symptoms than their peers.

 

about the same level of menstrual symptoms as their peers.

 

experiencing menarche sooner than their peers.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #60
61.

Which of the following conditions is most likely to produce the most favorable and easiest adjustment to menarche?

when the girl’s mother prepares her by describing the unpleasant aspects of menarche

 

when the girl reaches menarche early

 

when menarche occurs before the girl has been told about the physical changes which will occur

 

when the girl knows the facts about the physical changes her body will undergo

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #61
62.

When adolescents in the United States begin to experience specific pubertal events, which of the following is most likely to occur?

 

 

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A girl’s mother will be the first person the girl tells that she has begun to menstruate.

 

A girl’s best friend will be the first person the girl tells that she has begun to menstruate.

 

A girl is likely not to tell anyone that she is menstruating for the first several months after she begins.

 

A boy will tell his friends about his first ejaculation soon after it occurs.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #62
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63.

Suzanne and Greg are the first members of their class to begin the pubertal transition. Based on what you know about early-maturing adolescents, Suzanne and Greg are more likely to:

become involved in illegal activities.

 

do better in school.

 

be ostracized by their classmates.

 

get along with their parents.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #63
64.

Which of the following characteristics is not associated with being an early-maturing boy?

fewer problem behaviors

 

greater popularity

 

a more positive self-concept

 

greater confidence in one’s self

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #64
65.

Mike, an early maturer, is more likely to __________ than Bob, a late maturer.

experience pseudomaturity

 

suffer greater consequences if bullied by peers

 

experiment with drugs and alcohol

 

All of the above

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #65
66.

Early-maturing boys are:

likely to have low self-esteem.

 

often expected to be more mature than they are.

 

better prepared to deal with changes of adolescence.

 

more childish than their later-maturing peers.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #66
67.

Avram is considered a late-maturing boy. A year after pubertal onset, we would expect Avram to show all of the following advantages over his early-maturing peers, except:

greater athletic ability.

 

more intellectual curiosity.

 

greater exploratory behavior.

 

higher levels of social initiative.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #67
68.

During puberty, individuals who mature early are likely to experience which of the following?

more intellectual curiosity

 

less frequent temper tantrums

 

less depression

 

more frequent and more intense temper tantrums

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #68
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69.

Which of the following characteristics is not typically associated with being an early-maturing girl?

feelings of awkwardness and self-consciousness

 

being less popular, especially with boys

 

being more likely to become involved in juvenile delinquency

 

being less likely to pursue advanced education and a demanding career

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #69
70.

In America, early-maturing girls are more likely than their late-maturing peers to:

be unpopular.

 

have a more negative self-image.

 

succeed in school.

 

perceive themselves as attractive.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #70
71.

Which of the following was not offered by the textbook as an explanation for the sex differences in the impact of early and late maturation?

the cultural desirability of thin body types

 

the developmental readiness hypothesis

 

the maturational deviance hypothesis

 

genetic makeup

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #71
72.

Nadia is an early-maturing girl. Compared to her late-maturing peers, which of the following statements is most likely to be true for Nadia?
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Nadia is less likely to suffer from social anxiety.

 

Nadia is less likely to be popular with girls.

 

Nadia is more likely to be popular with the boys.

 

Nadia is less likely to be the victim of rumors and gossip.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #72
73.

The impact of early maturation on problem behaviors or depression is worse when:

adolescents have many stressful life events.

 

have harsh or inconsistent parents.

 

live in disadvantaged neighborhoods.

 

All of the above.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #73
74.

Generalizing from the textbook, the children who are most likely to think of themselves as being “off schedule” with respect to their physical development are girls who mature _____ and boys who mature _____.

late; early

 

early; late

 

late; late

 

early; early

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #74
75.

Follow-up studies of Swedish women who had been early maturers found that as adults they were:

unable to develop coping skills.

 

less likely to continue their education beyond high school.

 

more likely to continue their education beyond high school.

 

indistinguishable from those who had been late maturers.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #75
76.

The _____ is the minimal amount of energy one uses when resting.

basal metabolism rate

 

delayed phase preference

 

secular trend

 

feedback loop

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #76
77.

Which of the following statements about the secular trend is true?

There is currently no evidence that boys have followed the secular trend.

 

Evidence for the secular trend in boys can be found in reports from European children’s choirs.

 

Experts agree that the secular trend (for boys and girls) has indeed continued in recent years.

 

Scientists believe that the secular trend is caused by chemicals in the food supply.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #77
78.

Which of the following is true about obesity?

To be considered obese, a person’s body mass index must fall at or above the 95th percentile for their age and gender.

 

Forty percent of American adolescents are obese.

 

The rate of obesity has quadrupled worldwide since 2005.

 

Obesity is solely caused by a low basal metabolic rate.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #78
79.

Which group is most at risk for obesity?

late-maturing Black girls

 

early-maturing Black girls

 

early-maturing White boys

 

early-maturing White girls

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #79
80.

According to the textbook, in general, the amount of time individuals spend in moderate-to-vigorous physical activity:

increases from childhood to adolescence.

 

 

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decreases from childhood to adolescence.

 

remains the same from childhood to adolescence.

 

is directly related to socioeconomic status.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #80
81.

Rosy believes that “fat is beautiful” and has a steady diet of fried chicken, French fries, and cheeseburgers. Tanya believes that “thin is in” and uses vomiting and laxatives as a way to keep her weight down. Both girls exhibit what psychologists call:

disordered eating.

 

bulimia.

 

anorexia nervosa.

 

normal adolescent eating patterns.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #81
82.

Which of the following is not associated with disordered eating in the United States?

poor interpersonal relationships

 

depression

 

alcohol and tobacco use

 

All of the following are associated with disordered eating.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #82
83.

Theresa has been known to go on eating binges and then purge immediately afterward. Theresa is probably suffering from:

anorexia nervosa.

 

bulimia.

 

binge eating disorder

 

obesity.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #83
84.

Karen has been known to exercise excessively, count calories, and diet obsessively. She is currently depriving herself of food even though she is 20 pounds underweight. Karen is probably suffering from:

anorexia nervosa.

 

bulimia.

 

binge eating disorder.

 

deprivation syndrome.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #84
85.

The potentially fatal disorder in which young women actually starve themselves is called:

bulimia.

 

anorexia nervosa.

 

obesity nervosa.

 

purging.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #85
86.

Which of the following statements about obesity is not true?

Adolescent obesity epidemic will cost the United States more than $250 billion.

 

Adolescent obesity has been especially dramatic among Black females.

 

Adolescent obesity is limited to the United States.

 

Obesity is the most serious health problem of American adolescents.

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #86
87.

Who of the following is likely to gain excess weight during adolescence?

Mary, who gets inadequate sleep on school nights but sleeps in on the weekends

 

Kevin, who gets insufficient physical inactivity, but lives near recreational facilities

 

Tony whose friends are relatively overweight

 

All of these adolescents are likely to gain excessive weight during puberty.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #87
88.

Non-White adolescents are relatively more likely than White adolescents to experience all of the following, except:

to be murdered.

 

to be physically inactive.

 

suffer from chronic illness.

 

anorexia nervosa.

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #88
89.

Who most closely resembles the profile of someone who has binge eating disorder?

Steve, a wrestler who nearly starves himself so he can stay in his weight bracket

 

Carla, a gymnast who binges on junk food but makes herself vomit after each meal

 

Howard, a football player who believes he is overweight and exercises twice a day, seven days a week

 

Sherri, a volleyball player who binges on junk food but does not engage in any other weight loss behaviors

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #89
90.

Of the following, the biggest threat to adolescents’ health is:

infectious disease.

 

chronic illness.

 

cardiovascular disease.

 

risky behaviors.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #90
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91.

Which of the following is not associated with the “new morbidity and mortality” of adolescence?

accidents

 

suicide

 

homicide

 

cancer

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #91
92.

Which of the following statements about health in adolescence is not true?

Adolescents have low rates of disabling or chronic illness.

 

Adolescents have high rates of accidents, homicide, and suicide.

 

The majority of health problems during adolescence are preventable.

 

The new approach to adolescent health care is a return to traditional medicine.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #92
93.

The most virulent threats to adolescent health come from all of the following, except:

unhealthy behaviors, such as drug use.

 

chronic disabilities, such as cancer.

 

violence inflicted by themselves or by others.

 

risky activities, such as unprotected sexual intercourse.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #93
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94.

Current efforts aimed at encouraging healthy behaviors among adolescents involve all of the following, except:

changing the contexts in which adolescents live.

 

increasing adolescents’ knowledge and understanding of health enhancing behaviors.

 

encouraging adolescents to sign contracts promising to abstain from unhealthy behaviors.

 

encouraging health care professionals to do more screening for risky health practices.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #94
95.

Which adolescent is at highest risk for suicide?

Black males

 

Hispanic females

 

White females

 

American Indian/Alaskan Native males

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #95
96.

According to the textbook, the prevalence of adolescent smoking is a direct function of:

the number of retail outlets selling tobacco in their immediate neighborhood.

 

the amount of people smoking in the neighborhood.

 

whether biologic

 

 

 

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Question 33:   Education

 

Assignment 2, Motivation & Performance Management Motivation and Performance Management

Compare the difference between job satisfaction and organizational commitment. Determine which is more strongly related to performance for your selected company.

Job Dissatisfaction

Organizational Commitment

Apply motivational theory and performance management principles to evaluate the company as a potential employer.

 

 

Question 34:               Health Care

 

NSG 6001 FINAL EXAM 2020 / NSG6001 FINAL EXAM 2020 (LATEST): SOUTH UNIVERSITY

 

Question 35:               Health Care

 

NURS 6670 MIDTERM EXAM |LATEST-2020: WALDEN UNIVERSITY

 

Question 36:               Health Care

 

NURS 6521N week 10 advanced pharmacology quiz

  • Question 1

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is assigned to a patient who is at 32 weeks’ gestation and is receiving terbutaline (Brethine) IV for 24 hours to control preterm labor. Which of the following nursing actions will the nurse take to decrease the risk of hypotension and promote circulation to the fetus?

 

 

 

  • Question 2

1 out of 1 points

A 51-year-old female patient has been receiving doxorubicin (Adriamycin) for metastatic breast cancer. Her medical record indicates she has cardiomyopathy and a cumulative dose of 300 mg/m2 of doxorubicin. Which of the following measures would help limit the severity of the cardiomyopathy in this patient?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 3

1 out of 1 points

A 38-year-old pregnant patient admits to the nurse that she is an alcoholic and has been consuming alcohol during her pregnancy. The nurse knows that using alcohol during pregnancy may result in a child who presents with

 

 

 

 

  • Question 4

1 out of 1 points

On the advice of her sister, a 52-year-old woman has visited her nurse practitioner to discuss the potential benefits of hormone replacement therapy in controlling the symptoms of menopause. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 5

1 out of 1 points

The nurse practitioner has recommended that a breast-feeding woman take her prescribed medications just before her infant takes his longest nap of the day. The woman does not understand and asks the nurse to explain. The nurse will tell the woman that the recommendation was made to

 

 

 

 

  • Question 6

1 out of 1 points

A 59-year-old man with a recent history of erectile dysfunction has been assessed and prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). When providing patient education to this man, the nurse should tell him which of the following?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 7

1 out of 1 points

A patient is pregnant and is at 7 weeks’ gestation. She has type 1 diabetes and has been taking insulin since she was 13 years old. She asks the nurse if the insulin will be harmful to her baby. The best response to the patient by the nurse would be

 

 

 

 

  • Question 8

0 out of 1 points

A nurse is working in a women’s hospital where she is caring for a new mother who is experiencing postpartum urinary retention. Bethanechol (Urecholine) has been ordered. The nurse will observe for which of the following?

 

 

 

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  • Question 9

1 out of 1 points

A 20-year-old woman has been prescribed estrogen. As with all women taking estrogen, the nurse will carefully monitor the patient for which of the following?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 10

1 out of 1 points

A male patient with a medical background tells the nurse that he is not satisfied with the oral synthetic testosterone that has been prescribed for him and he would like to try a natural form of oral testosterone. Which of the following would be an appropriate response by the nurse?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 11

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is performing patient education for a woman who has just been prescribed a bisphosphonate. Which of the following diagnostic and history findings would have prompted the woman’s care provider to prescribe a bisphosphonate?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 12

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is working with a 16-year-old pregnant teen and assessing for behavior that may put the baby at risk. The most important assessment the nurse can make is

 

 

 

 

  • Question 13

1 out of 1 points

A woman who is in the second trimester of her first pregnancy has been experiencing frequent headaches and has sought advice from her nurse practitioner about safe treatment options. What analgesic can the nurse most safely recommend?

 

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  • Question 14

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is providing patient education to a 50-year-old woman who is taking methotrexate (MTX) for breast cancer. The nurse will instruct the patient to avoid which of the following drugs?

 

 

 

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  • Question 15

1 out of 1 points

A postmenopausal patient is prescribed bisphosphonates to treat osteoporosis. The nurse will instruct the patient to take the drug

 

 

 

  • Question 16

1 out of 1 points

A 71-year-old man has just been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). Which of the following complaints by this patient most likely indicated a need for this drug?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 17

1 out of 1 points

A female patient is taking oral cyclophosphamide therapy for breast cancer. Because of possible adverse effects of the drug, the nurse will instruct the patient to do which of the following?

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 18

1 out of 1 points

A male patient is experiencing climacteric symptoms secondary to androgen deficiency. His physician has prescribed testosterone. The nursing assessment reveals that the patient has had a myocardial infarction. The combination of testosterone therapy and a history of myocardial infarction would place that patient at a significantly higher risk of

 

 

 

 

  • Question 19

1 out of 1 points

A 73-year-old woman has osteoporosis and is prescribed alendronate. She takes calcium and vitamin D supplements, drinks lots of water, and has just quit smoking. The nurse should advise the patient to also

 

 

 

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  • Question 20

1 out of 1 points

A female patient has been prescribed estrogen therapy. Which of the following will the nurse advise the patient is a common adverse effect of estrogen therapy?

 

 

 

  • Question 21

1 out of 1 points

A 68-year-old man is being treated for benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and began treatment with finasteride (Proscar) 3 months ago. When planning the care of this patient, what desired outcome should the nurse prioritize?

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 22

1 out of 1 points

Alprostadil (Caverject), a drug used to treat erectile dysfunction, has been prescribed to a 42-year-old patient. When providing education to the patient and his wife, the nurse should inform the wife about which of the following adverse effects?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 23

0 out of 1 points

A patient is being discharged from the hospital and will be taking oxybutynin (Ditropan) for overactive bladder. The nurse will instruct the patient that she will be taking a medication

 

 

 

 

  • Question 24

1 out of 1 points

A 29-year-old pregnant patient is extremely upset about having to take medication for a pre-existing medical condition. She is consumed with fear that her baby will be born with a physical deformity or a congenital anomaly but knows that she has to take the medication. She talks constantly about this and is unable to sleep most nights. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient is?

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 25

0 out of 1 points

A nurse is instructing a 19-year-old female patient on the use of fluconazole for candida vaginitis. A teaching priority will be to

 

 

 

  • Question 26

1 out of 1 points

A 36-year-old woman with a history of dysmenorrhea has begun treatment with progesterone, which she will be receiving by the intramuscular route. The nurse participating in the woman’s care should prioritize which of the following potential nursing diagnoses?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 27

1 out of 1 points

The nurse recognizes that the potential for teratogenic drug effects is not static throughout the prenatal and postnatal periods. The potential for teratogenic effects is highest during

 

 

 

 

  • Question 28

1 out of 1 points

A man is prescribed ciprofloxacin to treat a sexually transmitted infection. The nurse will instruct the patient to

 

 

 

 

  • Question 29

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is explaining to a pregnant 21-year-old college student why she cannot continue to take ibuprofen (Advil) for her headaches. The nurse draws a picture depicting drug molecules crossing the placental membrane and entering into the fetal circulation. The nurse tells the patient that the main reason this happens is because

 

 

 

 

  • Question 30

1 out of 1 points

A 36-year-old patient comes to the clinic and tells the nurse that she suspects that she is pregnant. During the initial assessment, the nurse learns that the patient is currently taking medications for diabetes, hypertension, and a seizure disorder. The nurse would be most concerned about which of the following medications?

 

 

 

  • Question 31

1 out of 1 points

A pregnant patient who has diabetes has been admitted to the hospital to begin labor. Since the patient has diabetes, the physician has decided to use oxytocin (Pitocin) to initiate labor contractions. When talking to the patient about the adverse effects of the drug, the nurse should understand that the most common adverse effects of the drug include

 

 

 

 

  • Question 32

1 out of 1 points

A 54-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis has been prescribed ciprofloxacin for recurrent cystitis. Because of the patient’s history, the nurse would be sure to discuss with the woman the use of

 

 

 

 

  • Question 33

1 out of 1 points

A woman is receiving prolonged drug therapy during her complicated pregnancy, and it may pose a risk to both the mother and the fetus. The primary care physician has made dosage adjustments to minimize adverse effects and prevent toxicity. The nurse should make sure

 

 

 

 

  • Question 34

1 out of 1 points

A 56-year-old woman will soon begin treatment of her overactive bladder with tolterodine (Detrol). What patient teaching should the nurse provide to this woman?

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 35

0 out of 1 points

A male patient is trying to decide if he should use finasteride (Proscar) to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). When providing information about the drug, the nurse will include which of the following as a risk associated with finasteride therapy?

 

 

 

  • Question 36

1 out of 1 points

A pregnant patient asks the nurse what over-the-counter medication she can take for recurring headaches. The nurse should recommend

 

 

 

 

  • Question 37

1 out of 1 points

The nurse has established peripheral IV access and begun an infusion of magnesium sulfate on a 29-year-old antepartum patient who is 35 weeks pregnant. Which of the following assessment findings most likely prompted the patient’s physician to order magnesium sulfate for this patient?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 38

1 out of 1 points

Alendronate (Fosamax) is prescribed for a 67-year-old postmenopausal woman. In order to help prevent gastrointestinal distress, the nurse will advise the patient to

 

 

 

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  • Question 39

1 out of 1 points

A man has a demonstrated history of androgen deficiency and the consequences of this health problem include an inability to maintain an erection. Which of the following medications would best address this patient’s erectile dysfunction (ED)?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 40

1 out of 1 points

After 6 months of unsuccessfully trying to conceive, a 31-year-old woman and her husband have sought a referral to a fertility specialist in order to explore their options. A nurse at the clinic should recognize that the woman may benefit from

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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 Question 37:  Other

 

Microsoft Word Resume

INSTRUCTIONS

For the Word piece of your Final project, use Word to create a resume for yourself.

Include your name and contact information, as well as information about your education, work history, and skills. You can, at your option, include a Goal at the beginning. (Be sure to include your proficiency in Microsoft Office!) Your resume should be professional, visually appealing, at least one full page and no more than two pages long.

Plan your layout:

  • ·  Look at resume designs and choose a few that you like.
  • ·  Given the design and layout tools in Word (columns, tabs, tables, etc.) decide how you will

construct your design.

Create a new blank document:

  • ·  Do NOT use a resume templates or other pre-formatted document.
  • ·  Create a NEW BLANK DOCUMENT in MS Word and save the file as
  • ·  Display your rulers and turn on the show/hide button. You can toggle show/hide on and off to

view your document as you work.

Use all of the following Word features:

  • ·  Header/Footer (e.g., name, page numbering)
  • ·  Custom Tab Stops
  • ·  Styles: Use Heading 1 at the start of each section (education, work history & skills); Modify the

formatting of the Heading 1 style to complement your design.

  • ·  Custom Font (use no more than two fonts), Font Size, Font Color, and Font Styles
  • ·  Custom Line and Paragraph Spacing

Additionally, use at least three of these features:

  • ·  Custom Margins
  • ·  WordArt
  • ·  Paragraph Shading
  • ·  Font Effects (e.g., superscript, subscript, small caps, all caps)
  • ·  Insert and format an image
  • ·  A Word table (can be a traditional table or used for alignment)
  • ·  Columns

Submission:

  • ·  Print your document
  • ·  Staple these instructions on top of your printed resume.
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  •  Submit your resume in My Lab IT as a .docx file and also as a .pdf file.

Scoring Rubric

Score Item 12 8 4 0
Content Content is well chosen and well written Contains a mix of relevant and irrelevant content Most of the content is poorly chosen or poorly written Very little relevant content is included in the resume
Overall Look Resume content is well- organized and aesthetically pleasing Resume content looks somewhat cluttered and unprofessional Resume content looks very cluttered and unprofessional Little to no effort was made on the appearance of resume content
Header/Footer Appropriate content is included in the header or footer; the style matches the rest of the document. Appropriate content is included in the header or footer, but the style does not match the rest of the document Poorly chosen or awkwardly positioned content is included in the header or footer Content is not included in the header or footer
Tab Stops Custom tab stops are used to make the content of paragraphs more readable Custom tab stops are included, but do not make the content more readable Custom tab stops make the content less readable Custom tab stops are not applied
Styles Styles are applied to words or paragraphs to make the content more readable and visually appealing Styles are applied, but do not make the content more readable or visually appealing Styles make the content less readable Styles are not applied
Font Choices Font choices make the content more readable and visually appealing Font choices do not make the content more readable or visually appealing Font choices make the content less readable Custom fonts and font styles are not included
Paragraph and Line Spacing Custom spacing makes the content more readable and visually appealing Custom spacing is applied, but does not make the content more readable Custom spacing makes the content less readable Custom spacing is not included
Other Features Used at least three other features to add visual appeal and professionalism Used two other features to add visual appeal and professionalism Used one other feature to add visual appeal and professionalism Did not use any other features

 

 

 

 

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Question 38:               Biology

 

 

 

 

  1. Please indicate which of the following is a Phenotype or Genotype

Freckles dusted across the cheeks and nose

The movement of sodium by the sodium/potassium pump

Homozygous recessive allele inherited from each parent

True breeding parents in a monohybrid cross

Blood clots formed due to a defect in the ant thrombin gene

 

 

 

  1. Why is it necessary for the male and female gametes of sexually reproducing animals to contain a haploid number of chromosomes?

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Explain Where in the cell cycle do genetic mutations often occur, and what specific process is occurring during that phase that could lead to mistakes?

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Please complete the statement “Wild type” refers to the phenotype that is

 

________________________

 

 

 

 

 

  1. In humans brown eye color (B) is dominant to blue eye color (b). A brown- eyed man marries a blue-eyed woman and they have three children, two of whom are brown-eyed and one of whom is blue-eyed. What is the genotype of the first brown-eyed child?

 

 

 

 

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  1. Use the letters “G and g” to show the genotypes of the two parents that are participating in a cross that would produce a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio among the offspring?

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Two brothers are born of the same parents. One of the boys has all of the features of albinism, while the other brother has normal pigmentation. Neither parent exhibits symptoms of albinism. Please use the appropriate terms to describe the genotypes of the parents?

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. List all possible gametes from an individual with the genotype, AABb?

 

 

 

 

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  1. Which of the following statements are FALSE?
  2. An individual who shows a recessive phenotype must have a parent that shows the

recessive phenotype

  1. If an individual shows a dominant phenotype, at least one parent must show a

dominant phenotype

  1. Heterozygous individuals always show the dominant phenotype
  2. All offspring from crosses of true breeding-parents show the same phenotype

 

 

  1. Which of the following crosses represents a cross between 2 true-breeding individuals?
  2. BB X Bb
  3. Bb x bb
  4. BB X bb
  5. Bb x Bb

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Assuming both parents in the following pedigree are true-breeding, why do all of the individuals in the F1 generation have white phenotypes?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Because the F1 genotypes are homozygous
  2. Because the white phenotype is dominant over black
  3. Because both parents passed on white alleles

 

 

 

 

  1. In watermelons, solid green color (G) is dominant to stripes (g), and round shape (R) is dominant to an oblong shape (r). If you cross a watermelon that is homozygous dominant for color and heterozygous for shape with a watermelon that is heterozygous for both traits, what percentage of the offspring will be solid green and oblong?

 

 

 

 

 

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  1. An open (unfilled or unshaded) circle in a pedigree represents a _______ the trait in question.
  2. male with
  3. male without
  4. female with
  5. female without

 

 

 

14   The figure to the left is a common way to depict all possible outcomes of a cross between two individuals.

 

What is the name of this graphic device?

 

Does this depict a monohybrid cross or dihybrid cross?

 

 

 

  1. The following pedigree represents the inheritance of full lips in a family

 

What is the genotype of the individual indicated by the solid arrow? (Use “L” and “l” to represent alleles.

 

 

Are full lips due to a dominant allele or a recessive allele?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Suzy and Bobby are married and have one child. Both parents are healthy, but their son has the recessive disorder, cystic fibrosis. Which of the following pedigrees (A, B, C, D) CORRECTLY depicts their family?

 

 

 

 

  1. When conducting a test cross what phenotype is being expressed by the individual that is being tested?

 

 

 

  1. Suppose one person in 100 is a carrier of a fatal recessive mutation, such that babies homozygous recessive for the mutation die soon after birth. In a population where there 1,000,000 births per year, how many babies per year will be born with the lethal homozygous condition?

 

 

 

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  1. A mutation that is due to a dominant allele causes guinea pigs to lose their body hair. A breeder is trying to establish a colony of mutant “hairless” guinea pigs to sell to pet stores. He has a male mutant guinea pig that he wants to use for the breeding. However, due to an error in record keeping, he is uncertain of the mutant male’s genotype. He decides to mate a true-breeding normal guinea pig with the mutant male and notices that 100% of the offspring (F1 generation) have the hairless mutant phenotype.

 

The cross that was conducted is often used by breeders to determine the genotype of an individual that shows the dominant trait. What is the name of this specific cross?

 

 

The hairless mutation is dominant and it occurs because there was a deletion of the 3 bases that are bolded in the coding sequence of the gene – 5’ CATTGGTA 3’.  The deletion or removal of the bases is a mistake or error that occurs during which phase of the cell cycle?

 

 

The mutation in the above coding sequence causes the protein that is responsible for hair follicle stimulation in guinea pigs to be non-functional. This protein is made and secreted by skin or epidermal cells. What organelle would produce this protein

 

 

 

 

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Question 39:               Biology

 

 

 

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ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Introduction to Biological Anthropology

Final Exam Review Guide

The first exam will cover material from Larsen Chapters 6 – 8, 10 -12 in your textbook, information from Palomar tutorials, and videos. Be aware that this is a study guide; meaning to guide you in studying for the exam. That being said, it does not cover all of the information that may be on the exam. This exam will not simply ask you to recite definitions, but rather require you to make connections between concepts and demonstrate your knowledge of these concepts in context. In other words, can you apply what you know?

Ch. 6 and 7-Primate Characteristics/Taxonomy/Social Behavior

Define: nocturnal binocular vision

dental formula terrestrial estrus
sexual swelling

arboreal brachiation altruism stereoscopic vision sexual dimorphism

diurnal natal coat quadrupedal

allomothering
ischial callosities
vertical cling and leaping (VCL)

  • Why study primates?
  • What are the characteristics of primates?

o Skeletal structure (including characteristics of the joints, spine, hands, feet) o Vision
o What senses do primate rely on?
o Diet (types of teeth)

o Role of canines in sexual selection and sexual dimorphism

  • What are the different types of primate locomotion? What are the characteristics of

each?

  • Know the characteristics of each taxonomic groups and what types of primates

belong to each.

o Strepsirhine vs Haplorhine
o Platyrrhine vs Catarrhine
o Colobine vs Cercopithecine
o Cercopithecoids vs Hominoids

▪ For hominoids know: Hylobatidae and Hominidae

  • How are primates adapted to living in the trees?
  • Why do primates have long growth and development?
  • What are the primate residence patterns?
  • What are the reproductive strategies of male and female primates?
  • What is the importance of grooming?
  • How are apes and humans similar to each other? What characteristics to we share

with the other apes?

o

  • Do primates demonstrate culture? Examples?
  • What is the basic primate social unit?
  • How do primates communicate?
  • What types of foods do primates eat?

o What is a folivore, frugivore, insectivore, omnivore?

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

  • Which sex has the highest burden when it comes to parental investment? Why?
  • Primates are characterized by adaptations for life in trees and for eating a broad diet.

What are examples of primate adaptations for life in the trees and examples of primate

adaptations for eating a wide variety of foods?

  • Discuss the primate parental investment in terms of natural selection. What are the

most important aspects of primate parenting and what is their value to socialization?

  • Compare and contrast male and female primates in terms of reproductive strategies and

competition.
o What is infanticide? Who are the perpetrators? Benefits?

  • Describe the range of primate residence patterns. Relate social grouping to food and reproduction
  • What are cooperative behaviors in primates?

o What are the benefits?

o Examples?
o Grooming
o Kin Selection o Mutualism

  • What are the costs and benefits of living in a group?
  • How do primates acquire food?
  • How do primates communicate?

Chapter 10: Roots of Humanity

    • What is a hominin?
    • Why did hominins emerge?
    • Patchy Forest Hypothesis
    • Provisioning Hypothesis
    • What is bipedalism?
    • What are the anatomical characteristics of a human biped?
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o Position of the foramen magnum o Shape of spine
o Shape of pelvis
o Characteristics of the foot

  • What are the costs and benefits of bipedalism?
  • What are the anatomical differences between apes and humans in regard to the

o Cranium and face

o Dentition

  • What is honing and non-honing chewing?
  • What are the anatomical features of Australopithecines?
  • What are the anatomical features of the robust Australopithecines (Sometimes

assigned to the genus Paranthropus?
o What is a sagittal crest? Why do they have it? How do these traits differ from

other Australopithecines?

o What is their diet?

  • For the following hominins, know the date, location, anatomical features, and other cultural features

o Ardipithecus ramidus
o Australopithecus afarensis o Australopithecus garhi
o Australopithecus africanus

2

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Chapters 11- 12: Genus Homo

  • Homo hablis
    o What are its characteristics? How are similar/different from

Australopithecines?

  • Oldowan Tool Industry

o Which hominin is associated with this tool industry?
o What are the characteristics of these tools?
o What do they tell us about hominin culture and intelligence?

  • Homo naledi
  • Homo erectus

o What is a sagittal keel?
o When was this hominin present? When did they leave Africa? o What is the Acheulean tool industry?
o What type of shelter did they live in?
o What is persistence hunting?
o What are the costs and benefits of a larger brain?
o What are the benefits of fire and cooking food?

 

 

 

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  • What are archaic Homo sapiens?
  • Homo neanderthalensis? (What environment are they adapted for?)

o Are they closely related to humans?
o Mousterian Tool Industry/Culture (How are these tools different from Oldowan

and Acheulean? What types of tools are these? o Burial

o Subsistence strategies (What food did they eat? How did they get it?) o Evidence supporting speech

▪ Anatomical evidence

▪ FOXP2 gene
o What are the anatomical characteristics? How are these characteristics

adaptive to their environment?
▪ Crural index
▪ Bergmann’s Rule and Allen’s Rule

  • Homo sapiens (Modern Humans)
    o Complete Replacement Model (“Out of Africa”), Regional Continuity Model

(Multiregional Evolution), Assimilation Model
o What are anatomical traits of modern humans?

▪ How do these compare to Neandertals?
o What are the tool techniques of the Upper Paleolithic?

▪ What are blade flakes?
▪ What is punch flaking?
▪ What is pressure flaking?

o What tools are made out of bone?
o What are some tools of the upper Paleolithic?
o Why are these tool making techniques significant?
o What evidence has been discovered that modern humans made art?

▪ What is parietal art?

▪ What is portable art?
o Genetic evidence for archaic and modern humans?

▪ Why is this siginificant? • Homo floresiensis

o Why is it nicknamed the Hobbit?

3

 

 

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ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Hominin Charts
• (This is not an assignment, but a tool to help you prepare for the exam)

Australopithecines (gracile) Date(s) Location(s) Key Features
Ardipithecus ramidus
Australopithecus afarensis
Australopithecus garhi
Australopithecus africanus

 

Australopithecines (robust) Date(s) Location(s) Key Features
Paranthropus aethiopicus
Paranthropus boisei
Paranthropus robustus

 

Homo Date(s) Location(s) Key Features
Homo habilis
Homo erectus

4

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Homo floresiensis
Homo neanderthalensis
Homo sapiens

5

 

 

Question 40:               Finance

 

Investors often pay a higher price for growth stocks and accept more price volatility as they expect at these stocks will increase in value in the future”. Discuss with regards to investment in different types of funds. [Support your answer with examples based in Mauritius and international markets]

[20 marks] Word limit: 2500

 

 

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Question 41:               Finance

 

The Stock Exchange of Mauritius (SEM) has come a long way from its modest early
development in 1989 and has been able to embark on a number of initiatives over its 30 year
existence. Today, it is one of the leading exchanges in Africa. Discuss the main challenges
and opportunities for investors and other stakeholders in the Mauritian Stock Market.
[30 marks]
Word limit: 300

 

 

 

 

Question 1:     Health Care

NURSING 4: PSYCHIA-COMPREHENSIVE

 

Substance abuse

  1. Nurse Rob has observed a co-worker arriving to work drunk at least three times in the past month. Which action by Nurse Rob would best ensure client safety and obtain necessary assistance for the co-worker?
  2. Ignore the coworker’s behavior, and frequently assess the clients assigned to the co-worker.
    B. Make general statements about safety issues at the next staff meeting.
    C. Report the coworker’s behavior to the appropriate supervisor.
    D. Warn the co-worker that this practice is unsafe.
  3. Elsa is being treated in a chemical dependency unit. She tells the nurse that she only uses drugs when under stress and therefore does not have a substance problem. Which defense mechanism is the client using?
  4. Compensation
    B. Denial
    C. Suppression
    D. Undoing
  5. Nurse Tara is teaching a community group about substance abuse. She explains that a genetic component has been implicated in which of the following commonly abused substances?
  6. Alcohol
    B. Barbiturates
    C. Heroin
    D. Marijuana
  7. Nurse Julie recommends that the family of a client with substance-related disorder attend a support group, such as Al-Anon and Alateen. The purpose of these groups is to help family members understand the problem and to:
  8. Change the problem behaviors of the abuser.
    B. Learn how to assist the abuser in getting help.
    C. Maintain focus on changing their own behaviors.
    D. Prevent substance problems in vulnerable family members.
  9. Ryan who is a chronic alcohol abuser is being assessed by Nurse Gina. Which problems are related to thiamin deficiency?
  10. Cardiovascular symptoms, such as decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
    B. CNS symptoms, such as ataxia and peripheral neuropathy
    C. Gastrointestinal symptoms, such as nausea and vomiting
    D. Respiratory symptoms, such as cough and sore throat
  11. Nurse Wilma is teaching a client about disulfiram (Antabuse), which the client is taking to deter his use of alcohol. She explains that using alcohol when taking this medication can result in:
  12. Abdominal cramps and diarrhea.
    B. Drowsiness and decreased respiration.
    C. Flushing, vomiting, and dizziness.
    D. Increased pulse and blood pressure.
  13. The nurse administers bromocriptine (Parlodel) to Bryan who is undergoing detoxification for amphetamine abuse. The rationale for this medication is to:
  14. Aid in GABA inhibition.
    B. Prevent norepinephrine excess.
    C. Restore depleted dopamine levels.
    D. Treat psychotic symptoms.
  15. Which medication is commonly used in treatment programs for heroinabusers to produce a non-euphoric state and to replace heroin use?
  16. Diazepam
    B. Carbamazepine
    C. Clonidine
    D. Methadone
  17. Nurse Christine is teaching an adolescent health class about the dangers of inhalant abuse; the nurse warns about the possibility of:
  18. Contracting an infectious disease, such as hepatitis or AIDS
    B. Recurrent flashback events
    C. Psychological dependence after initial use
    D. Sudden death from cardiac or respiratory depression
  19. The newly hired nurse at Nurseslabs Medical Center is assessing a client who abuses barbiturates and benzodiazepine. The nurse would observe for evidence of which withdrawal symptoms?
  20. Anxiety, tremors, and tachycardia
    B. Respiratory depression, stupor, and bradycardia
    C. Muscle aches, cramps, and lacrimation
    D. Paranoia, depression, and agitation
  21. The community nurse practicing primary prevention of alcohol abuse would target which groups for educational efforts?
  22. Adolescents in their late teens and young adults in their early twenties
    B. Elderly men who live in retirement communities
    C. Women working in careers outside the home
    D. Women working in the home
  23. Johnette is reviewing her lessons in Pharmacology. She is aware that the general classification of drugs belonging to the opioid category is analgesic and:
  24. Depressant.
    B. Hallucinogenic.
    C. Stimulant.
    D. Tranquilizing.
  25. When a client abuses a CNS depressant, withdrawal symptoms will be caused by which of the following?
  26. Acetylcholine excess
    B. Dopamine depletion
    C. Serotonin inhibition
    D. Norepinephrine rebound
  27. Kendall, the sister of a client with a substance-related disorder, tells the nurse she calls out sick for her sister Kylie occasionally when the latter has too much to drink and cannot work. This behavior can be described as:
  28. Caretaking.
    B. Codependent.
    C. Helpful.
    D. Supportive.
  29. During an initial assessment of a client admitted to a substance abuse unit for detoxification and treatment, the nurse asks questions to determine patterns of use of substances. Which of the following questions are most appropriate at this time? Select all that apply.
  30. How long have you used substances?
    B. How often do you use substances?
    C. How do you get substances into your body?
    D. Do you feel bad or guilty about your use of substances?
    E. How much of each substance do you use?
    F. Have you ever felt you should cut down substance use?
    G. What substances do you use?

2

  1. Flumazenil (Romazicon) has been ordered for a male client who has overdosed on oxazepam (Serax). Before administering the medication, nurse Gina should be prepared for which common adverse effect?
  2. Seizures
    B. Shivering
    C. Anxiety
    D. Chest pain
  3. Nurse Tamara is caring for a client diagnosed with bulimia. The most appropriate initial goal for a client diagnosed with bulimia is to:
  4. Avoid shopping for large amounts of food
    B. Control eating impulses
    C. Identify anxiety-causing situations
    D. Eat only three meals per day
  5. A female client who’s at high risk for suicide needs close supervision. To best ensure the client’s safety, Nurse Mary should:
  6. Check the client frequently at irregular intervals throughout the night
    B. Assure the client that the nurse will hold in confidence anything the client says
    C. Repeatedly discuss previous suicide attempts with the client
    D. Disregard decreased communication by the client because this is common with suicidal clients
  7. Which of the following drugs should Nurse Mary prepare to administer to a client with a toxic acetaminophen (Tylenol) level?
  8. Deferoxamine mesylate (Desferal)
    B. Succimer (Chemet)
    C. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
    D. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

 

 

 

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  1. A male client is admitted to the substance abuse unit for alcohol detoxification. Which of the following medications is Nurse Alice most likely to administer to reduce the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?
  2. Naloxone (Narcan)
    B. Haloperidol (Haldol)
    C. Magnesium sulfate
    D. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
  3. During postprandial monitoring, a female client with bulimia nervosa tells the nurse, “You can sit with me, but you’re just wasting your time. After you had sat with me yesterday, I was still able to purge. Today, my goal is to do it twice.” What is the nurse’s best response?
  4. “I trust you not to purge.”
    B. “How are you purging and when do you do it?”
    C. “Don’t worry. I won’t allow you to purge today.”
    D. “I know it’s important for you to feel in control, but I’ll monitor you for 90 minutes after you eat.”
  5. A male client admitted to the psychiatric unit for treatment of substance abuse says to the nurse, “It felt so wonderful to get high.” Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
  6. “If you continue to talk like that, I’m going to stop speaking to you.”
    B. “You told me you got fired from your last job for missing too many days after taking drugs all night.”
    C. “Tell me more about how it felt to get high.”
    D. “Don’t you know it’s illegal to use drugs?”
  7. For a female client with anorexia nervosa, Nurse Jimmy is aware that which goal takes the highest priority?
  8. The client will establish adequate daily nutritional intake
    B. The client will make a contract with the nurse that sets a target weight
    C. The client will identify self-perceptions about body size as unrealistic
    D. The client will verbalize the possible physiological consequences of self-starvation
  9. When interviewing the parents of an injured child, which of the following is the strongest indicator that child abuse may be a problem?
  10. The injury isn’t consistent with the history or the child’s age
    B. The mother and father tell different stories regarding what happened
    C. The family is poor
    D. The parents are argumentative and demanding with emergency department personnel
  11. For a female client with anorexia nervosa, nurse Rose plans to include the parents in therapy sessions along with the client. What fact should the nurse remember to be typical of parents of clients with anorexia nervosa?
  12. They tend to overprotect their children
    B. They usually have a history of substance abuse
    C. They maintain emotional distance from their children
    D. They alternate between loving and rejecting their children
  13. In the emergency department, a client with facial lacerations states that her husband beat her with a shoe. After the health care team repairs her lacerations, she waits to be seen by the crisis intake nurse, who will evaluate the continued threat of violence. Suddenly the client’s husband arrives, shouting that he wants to “finish the job.” What is the first priority of the health care worker who witnesses this scene?
  14. Remaining with the client and staying calm
    B. Calling a security guard and another staff member for assistance
    C. Telling the client’s husband that he must leave at once
    D. Determining why the husband feels so angry
  15. Nurse Mary is caring for a client with bulimia. Strict management of dietary intake is necessary. Which intervention is also important?
  16. Fill out the client’s menu and make sure she eats at least half of what is on her tray.
    B. Let the client eat her meals in private. Then engage her in social activities for at least 2 hours after each meal
    C. Let the client choose her own food. If she eats everything she orders, then stay with her for 1 hour after each meal
    D. Let the client eat food brought in by the family if she chooses, but she should keep a strict calorie count.
  17. Nurse Mary is assigned to care for a suicidal client. Initially, which is the nurse’s highest care priority?
  18. Assessing the client’s home environment and relationships outside the hospital
    B. Exploring the nurse’s own feelings about suicide
    C. Discussing the future with the client
    D. Referring the client to a clergyperson to discuss the moral implications of suicide

 

 

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  1. A 24-year old client with anorexia nervosa tells the nurse, “When I look in the mirror, I hate what I see. I look so fat and ugly.” Which strategy should the nurse use to deal with the client’s distorted perceptions and feelings?
  2. Avoid discussing the client’s perceptions and feelings
    B. Focus discussions on food and weight
    C. Avoid discussing unrealistic cultural standards regarding weight
    D. Provide objective data and feedback regarding the client’s weight and attractiveness
  3. Nurse Alice is caring for a client being treated for alcoholism. Before initiating therapy with disulfiram (Antabuse), the nurse teaches the client that he must read labels carefully on which of the following products?
  4. Carbonated beverages
    B. Aftershave lotion
    C. Toothpaste
    D. Cheese
  5. Nurse Harry is developing a plan of care for a client with anorexia nervosa. Which action should the nurse include in the plan?
  6. Restrict visits with the family until the client begins to eat
    B. Provide privacy during meals
    C. Set up a strict eating plan for the client
    D. Encourage the client to exercise, which will reduce her anxiety
  7. Nurse Taylor is aware that the victims of domestic violence should be assessed for what important information?
  8. Reasons they stay in the abusive relationship (for example, lack of financial autonomy and isolation)
    B. Readiness to leave the perpetrator and knowledge of resources
    C. Use of drugs or alcohol
    D. History of previous victimization
  9. A male client is hospitalized with fractures of the right femur and right humerus sustained in a motorcycle accident. Police suspect the client was intoxicated at the time of the accident. Laboratory tests reveal a blood alcohol level of 0.2% (200 mg/dl). The client later admits to drinking heavily for years. During hospitalization, the client periodically complains of tingling and numbness in the hands and feet. Nurse Gian realizes that these symptoms probably result from:
  10. Acetate accumulation
    B. Thiamine deficiency
    C. Triglyceride buildup.
    D. A below-normal serum potassium level
  11. A parent brings a preschooler to the emergency department for treatment of a dislocated shoulder, which allegedly happened when the child fell down the stairs. Which action should make the nurse suspect that the child was abused?
  12. The child cries uncontrollably throughout the examination
    B. The child pulls away from contact with the physician.
    C. The child doesn’t cry when the shoulder is examined
    D. The child doesn’t make eye contact with the nurse.
  13. When planning care for a client who has ingested phencyclidine (PCP), nurse Wayne is aware that the following is the highest priority?
  14. Client’s physical needs
    B. Client’s safety needs
    C. Client’s psychosocial needs
    D. Client’s medical needs
  15. The nurse is aware that the outcome criteria would be appropriate for a child diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder?
  16. Accept responsibility for own behaviors
    B. Be able to verbalize own needs and assert rights.
    C. Set firm and consistent limits with the client
    D. Allow the child to establish his own limits and boundaries
  17. A male client is found sitting on the floor of the bathroom in the day treatment clinic with moderate lacerations on both wrists. Surrounded by broken glass, he sits staring blankly at his bleeding wrists while staff members call for an ambulance. How should Nurse Anuktakanuk approach her initially?
  18. Enter the room quietly and move beside him to assess his injuries
    B. Call for staff back-up before entering the room and restraining him
    C. Move as much glass away from him as possible and sit next to him quietly
    D. Approach him slowly while speaking in a calm voice, calling him name, and telling him that the nurse is here to help him

 

 

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  1. A female client with anorexia nervosa describes herself as “a whale.” However, the nurse’s assessment reveals that the client is 5′ 8″ (1.7 m) tall and weighs only 90 lb (40.8 kg). Considering the client’s unrealistic body image, which intervention should nurse Angel be included in the plan of care?
  2. Asking the client to compare her figure with magazine photographs of women her age
    B. Assigning the client to group therapy in which participants provide realistic feedback about her weight
    C. Confronting the client about her actual appearance during one-on-one sessions, scheduled during each shift
    D. Telling the client of the nurse’s concern for her health and desire to help her make decisions to keep her healthy
  3. Eighteen hours after undergoing an emergency appendectomy, a client with a reported history of social drinking displays these vital signs: temperature, 101.6° F (38.7° C); heart rate, 126 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 24 breaths/minute; and blood pressure, 140/96 mm Hg. The client exhibits gross hand tremors and is screaming for someone to kill the bugs in the bed. Nurse Melinda should suspect:
  4. A postoperative infection
    B. Alcohol withdrawal
    C. Acute sepsis.
    D. Pneumonia.
  5. Clonidine (Catapres) can be used to treat conditions other than hypertension. Nurse Sally is aware that the following conditions might the drug be administered?
  6. Phencyclidine (PCP) intoxication
    B. Alcohol withdrawal
    C. Opiate withdrawal
    D. Cocaine withdrawal
  7. A male client with a history of cocaine addiction is admitted to the coronary care unit for evaluation of substernal chest pain. The electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a 1-mm ST-segment elevation the anteroseptal leads and T-wave inversion in leads V3 to V5. Considering the client’s history of drug abuse, nurse Greg expects the physician to prescribe:
  8. Lidocaine (Xylocaine).
    B. Procainamide (Pronestyl).
    C. Nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid IV).
    D. Epinephrine.
  9. A 14-year-old client was brought to the clinic by her mother. Her mother expresses concern about her daughter’s weight loss and constant dieting. Nurse Kris conducts a health history interview. Which of the following comments indicates that the client may be suffering from anorexia nervosa?
  10. “I like the way I look. I just need to keep my weight down because I’m a cheerleader.”
    B. “I don’t like the food my mother cooks. I eat plenty of fast food when I’m out with my friends.”
    C. “I just can’t seem to get down to the weight I want to be. I’m so fat compared to other girls.”
    D. “I do diet around my periods; otherwise, I just get so bloated.”
  11. Nurse Fey is aware that the drug of choice for treating Tourette syndrome?
  12. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
    B. Fluvoxamine (Luvox)
    C. Haloperidol (Haldol)
    D. Paroxetine (Paxil)
  13. A male client tells the nurse he was involved in a car accident while he was intoxicated. What would be the most therapeutic response from nurse Julia?
  14. “Why didn’t you get someone else to drive you?”
    B. “Tell me how you feel about the accident.”
    C. “You should know better than to drink and drive.”
    D. “I recommend that you attend an Alcoholics Anonymous meeting.”
  15. A male adult client voluntarily admits himself to the substance abuse unit. He confesses that he drinks one (1) qt or more of vodka each day and uses cocaine occasionally. Later that afternoon, he begins to show signs of alcohol withdrawal. What are some early signs of this condition?
  16. Vomiting, diarrhea, and bradycardia
    B. Dehydration, temperature above 101° F (38.3° C), and pruritus
    C. Hypertension, diaphoresis, and seizures
    D. Diaphoresis, tremors, and nervousness
  17. When monitoring a female client recently admitted for treatment of cocaine addiction, nurse Aaron notes sudden increases in the arterial blood pressure and heart rate. To correct these problems, the nurse expects the physician to prescribe:
  18. Norepinephrine (Levophed) and Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
    B. Nifedipine (Procardia) and Lidocaine.
    C. Nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid IV) and Esmolol (Brevibloc)
    D. Nifedipine and Esmolol
  19. A 25 –year old client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is upset about going through detoxification. Which of the following goals is a priority?
  20. The client will commit to a drug-free lifestyle
    B. The client will work with the nurse to remain safe
    C. The client will drink plenty of fluids daily
    D. The client will make a personal inventory of strength
  21. A male client is admitted to a psychiatric facility by court order for evaluation for antisocial personality disorder. This client has a long history of initiating fights and abusing animals and recently was arrested for setting a neighbor’s dog on fire. When evaluating this client for the potential for violence, nurse Perry should assess for which behavioral clues?
  22. A rigid posture, restlessness, and glaring
    B. Depression and physical withdrawal
    C. Silence and noncompliance
    D. Hypervigilance and talk of past violent acts
  23. A male client is brought to the psychiatric clinic by family members, who tell the admitting nurse that the client repeatedly drives while intoxicated despite their pleas to stop. During an interview with the nurse Linda, which statement by the client most strongly supports a diagnosis of psychoactive substance abuse?
  24. “I’m not addicted to alcohol. In fact, I can drink more than I used to without being affected.”
    B. “I only spend half of my paycheck at the bar.”
    C. “I just drink to relax after work.”
    D. “I know I’ve been arrested three times for drinking and driving, but the police are just trying to hassle me.”
  25. A female client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Initial nursing assessment reveals that the client’s wrists are scratched from a recent suicide attempt. Based on this finding, the nurse Lenny should formulate a nursing diagnosis of:
  26. Ineffective individual coping related to feelings of guilt.
    B. Situational low self-esteem related to feelings of loss of control
    C. Risk for violence: Self-directed related to impulsive mutilating acts
    D. Risk for violence: Directed toward others related to verbal threats

 

 

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  1. A male client recently admitted to the hospital with sharp, substernal chest pain suddenly complains of palpitations. Nurse Ryan notes a rise in the client’s arterial blood pressure and a heart rate of 144 beats/minute. On further questioning, the client admits to having used cocaine recently after previously denying use of the drug. The nurse concludes that the client is at high risk for which complication of cocaine use?
  2. Coronary artery spasm
    B. Brady arrhythmias
    C. Neurobehavioral deficits
    D. Panic disorder
  3. A male client is being admitted to the substance abuse unit for alcohol detoxification. As part of the intake interview, the nurse asks him when he had his last alcoholic drink. He says that he had his last drink six (6) hours before admission. Based on this response, nurse Lorena should expect early withdrawal symptoms to:
  4. Begin after seven (7) days
    B. Not occur at all because the time period for their occurrence has passed
    C. Begin anytime within the next one (1) to two (2) days
    D. Begin within two (2) to seven (7) days
  5. Nurse Helen is assigned to care for a client with anorexia nervosa. Initially, which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client?
  6. Providing one-on-one supervision during meals and for one (1) hour afterward
    B. Letting the client eat with other clients to create a normal mealtime atmosphere
    C. Trying to persuade the client to eat and thus restore nutritional balance
    D. Giving the client as much time to eat as desired
  7. A female client begins to experience alcoholic hallucinosis. Nurse Joy is aware that the best nursing intervention at this time?
  8. Keeping the client restrained in bed
    B. Checking the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes and offering juices
    C. Providing a quiet environment and administering medication as needed and prescribed
    D. Restraining the client and measuring blood pressure every 30 minutes
  9. Nurse Bella is aware that assessment finding is most consistent with early alcohol withdrawal?
  10. Heart rate of 120 to 140 beats/minute
    B. Heart rate of 50 to 60 beats/minute
    C. Blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg
    D. Blood pressure of 140/80 mmHg
  11. Nurse Amy is aware that the client is at highest risk for suicide?
  12. One who appears depressed frequently thinks of dying and gives away all personal possessions
    B. One who plans a violent death and has the means readily available
    C. One who tells others that he or she might do something if life doesn’t get better soon
    D. One who talks about wanting to die
  13. Nurse Penny is aware that the following medical conditions is commonly found in clients with bulimia nervosa?
  14. Allergies
    B. Cancer
    C. Diabetes mellitus
    D. Hepatitis A
  15. Kellan, a high school student is referred to the school nurse for suspected substance abuse. Following the nurse’s assessment and interventions, what would be the most desirable outcome?
  16. The student discusses conflicts over drug use
    B. The student accepts a referral to a substance abuse counselor
    C. The student agrees to inform his parents of the problem
    D. The student reports increased comfort with making choice
  17. A male client who reportedly consumes one (1) qt of vodka daily is admitted for alcohol detoxification. To try to prevent alcohol withdrawal symptoms, Dr. Smith is most likely to prescribe which drug?
  18. Clozapine (Clozaril)
    B. Thiothixene (Navane)
    C. Lorazepam (Ativan)
    D. Lithium carbonate (Eskalith)
  19. A male client is being treated for alcoholism. After a family meeting, the client’s spouse asks the nurse about ways to help the family deal with the effects of alcoholism. Nurse Lily should suggest that the family join which organization?
  20. Al-Anon
    B. Make Today Count
    C. Emotions Anonymous
    D. Alcoholics Anonymous
  21. A female client is admitted to the psychiatric clinic for treatment of anorexia nervosa. To promote the client’s physical health, nurse Tair should plan to:
  22. Severely restrict the client’s physical activities
    B. Weigh the client daily, after the evening meal
    C. Monitor vital signs, serum electrolyte levels, and acid-base balance
    D. Instruct the client to keep an accurate record of food and fluid intake
  23. Kevin is remanded by the courts for psychiatric treatment. His police record, which dates to his early teenage years, includes delinquency, running away, auto theft, and vandalism. He dropped out of school at age 16 and has been living on his own since then. His history suggests maladaptive coping, which is associated with:
  24. Antisocial personality disorder
    B. Borderline personality disorder
    C. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
    D. Narcissistic personality disorder
  25. Macoy and Helen seek emergency crisis intervention because he slapped her repeatedly the night before. The husband indicates that his childhood was marred by an abusive relationship with his father. When intervening with this couple, nurse Gerry knows they are at risk for repeated violence because the husband:
  26. Has only moderate impulse control
    B. Denies feelings of jealousy or possessiveness
    C. Has learned violence as an acceptable behavior
    D. Feels secure in his relationship with his wife
  27. A client whose husband just left her has a recurrence of anorexia nervosa. Nurse Vic caring for her realizes that this exacerbation of anorexia nervosa results from the client’s effort to:
  28. Manipulate her husband
    B. Gain control of one part of her life
    C. Commit suicide
    D. Live up to her mother’s expectations

 

 

 

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  1. A male client has approached the nurse asking for advice on how to deal with his alcohol addiction. Nurse Sally should tell the client that the only effective treatment for alcoholism is:
  2. Psychotherapy
    B. Total abstinence
    C. Alcoholics Anonymous (AA)
    D. Aversion therap

3

Paranoid schizo, schizo

  1. A psychotic client reports to the evening nurse that the day nurse put something suspicious in his water with his medication. The nurse replies, “You’re worried about your medication?” The nurse’s communication is:
  2. an example of presenting reality.
    B. reinforcing the client’s delusions.
    C. focusing on emotional content.
    D. a nontherapeutic technique called mind reading.
  3. A client is admitted to the inpatient unit of the mental health center with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. He’s shouting that the government of France is trying to assassinate him. Which of the following responses is most appropriate?
  4. “I think you’re wrong. France is a friendly country and an ally of the United States. Their government wouldn’t try to kill you.”
    B. “I find it hard to believe that a foreign government or anyone else is trying to hurt you. You must feel frightened by this.”
    C. “You’re wrong. Nobody is trying to kill you.”
    D. “A foreign government is trying to kill you? Please tell me more about it.”
  5. A client receiving haloperidol (Haldol) complains of a stiff jaw and difficulty swallowing. The nurse’s first action is to:
  6. reassure the client and administer as needed lorazepam (Ativan) I.M.
    B. administer as needed dose of benztropine (Cogentin) I.M. as ordered.
    C. administer as needed dose of benztropine (Cogentin) by mouth as ordered.
    D. administer as needed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) by mouth.
  7. The nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia who experiences auditory hallucinations. The client appears to be listening to someone who isn’t visible. He gestures, shouts angrily, and stops shouting in mid-sentence. Which nursing intervention is the most appropriate?
  8. Approach the client and touch him to get his attention.
    B. Encourage the client to go to his room where he’ll experience fewer distractions.
    C. Acknowledge that the client is hearing voices but make it clear that the nurse doesn’t hear these voices.
    D. Ask the client to describe what the voices are saying.
  9. A client with paranoid schizophrenia has been experiencing auditory hallucinations for many years. One approach that has proven to be effective for hallucinating clients is to:
  10. take an as-needed dose of psychotropic medication whenever they hear voices.
    B. practice saying “Go away” or “Stop” when they hear voices.
    C. sing loudly to drown out the voices and provide a distraction.
    D. go to their room until the voices go away.
  11. A client with catatonic schizophrenia is mute, can’t perform activities of daily living, and stares out the window for hours. What is the nurse’s first priority?
  12. Assist the client with feeding.
    B. Assist the client with showering.
    C. Reassure the client about safety.
    D. Encourage socialization with peers.
  13. A client tells the nurse that the television newscaster is sending a secret message to her. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing:
  14. a delusion.
    B. flight of ideas.
    C. ideas of reference.
    D. a hallucination.
  15. The nurse knows that the physician has ordered the liquid form of the drug chlorpromazine (Thorazine) rather than the tablet form because the liquid:
  16. has a more predictable onset of action.
    B. produces fewer anticholinergic effects.
    C. produces fewer drug interactions.
    D. has a longer duration of action.
  17. A client who has been hospitalized with disorganized type schizophreniafor 8 years can’t complete activities of daily living (ADLs) without staff direction and assistance. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Self-care deficient: Dressing/grooming related to inability to function without assistance. What is an appropriate goal for this client?
  18. “Client will be able to complete ADLs independently within 1 month.”
    B. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with only verbal encouragement within 1 month.”
    C. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with assistance in organizing grooming items and clothing within 1 month.”
    D. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with complete assistance within 1 month.”
  19. The nurse is planning care for a client admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. Which nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority?
  20. Risk for violence toward self or others
    B. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements
    C. Ineffective family coping
    D. Impaired verbal communication
  21. The nurse is preparing for the discharge of a client who has been hospitalized for paranoid schizophrenia. The client’s husband expresses concern over whether his wife will continue to take her daily prescribed medication. The nurse should inform him that:
  22. his concern is valid but his wife is an adult and has the right to make her own decisions.
    B. he can easily mix the medication in his wife’s food if she stops taking it.
    C. his wife can be given a long-acting medication that is administered every 1 to 4 weeks.
    D. his wife knows she must take her medication as prescribed to avoid future hospitalizations.

 

 

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  1. Benztropine (Cogentin) is used to treat the extrapyramidal effects induced by antipsychotics. This drug exerts its effect by:
  2. decreasing the anxiety causing muscle rigidity.
    B. blocking the cholinergic activity in the central nervous system (CNS).
    C. increasing the level of acetylcholine in the CNS.
    D. increasing norepinephrine in the CNS.
  3. A dopamine receptor agonist such as bromocriptine (Parlodel) relieves muscle rigidity caused by antipsychotic medication by:
  4. Blocking dopamine receptors in the central nervous system (CNS).
    B. Blocking acetylcholine in the CNS.
    C. Activating norepinephrine in the CNS.
    D. Activating dopamine receptors in the CNS.
  5. Most antipsychotic medications exert which of following effects on the central nervous system (CNS)?
  6. Stimulate the CNS by blocking postsynaptic dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin receptors.
    B. Sedate the CNS by stimulating serotonin at the synaptic cleft.
    C. Depress the CNS by blocking the postsynaptic transmission of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine.
    D. Depress the CNS by stimulating the release of acetylcholine.
  7. A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit of a local hospital with chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia. During the next several days, the client is seen laughing, yelling, and talking to herself. This behavior is characteristic of:
  8. delusion.
    B. looseness of association.
    C. illusion.
    D. hallucination.
  9. Which of the following medications would the nurse expect the physician to order to reverse a dystonic reaction?
  10. prochlorperazine (Compazine)
    B. diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
    C. haloperidol (Haldol)
    D. midazolam (Versed)
  11. A schizophrenic client states, “I hear the voice of King Tut.” Which response by the nurse would be most therapeutic?
  12. “I don’t hear the voice, but I know you hear what sounds like a voice.”
    B. “You shouldn’t focus on that voice.”
    C. “Don’t worry about the voice as long as it doesn’t belong to anyone real.”
    D. “King Tut has been dead for years.”
  13. A client has been receiving chlorpromazine (Thorazine), an antipsychotic, to treat his psychosis. Which findings should alert the nurse that the client is experiencing pseudoparkinsonism?
  14. Restlessness, difficulty sitting still, and pacing
    B. Involuntary rolling of the eyes
    C. Tremors, shuffling gait, and masklike face
    D. Extremity and neck spasms, facial grimacing, and jerky movements
  15. For several years, a client with chronic schizophrenia has received 10 mg of fluphenazine hydrochloride (Prolixin) by mouth four times per day. Now the client has a temperature of 102° F (38.9° C), a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 210/140 mm Hg. Because the client also is confused and incontinent, the nurse suspects malignant neuroleptic syndrome. What steps should the nurse take?
  16. Give the next dose of fluphenazine, call the physician, and monitor vital signs.
    B. Withhold the next dose of fluphenazine, call the physician, and monitor vital signs.
    C. Give the next dose of fluphenazine and restrict the client to the room to decrease stimulation.
    D. Withhold the next dose of fluphenazine, administer an antipyretic agent, and increase the client’s fluid intake.
  17. A schizophrenic client with delusions tells the nurse, “There is a man wearing a red coat who’s out to get me.” The client exhibits increasing anxiety when focusing on the delusions. Which of the following would be the best response?
  18. “This subject seems to be troubling you. Let’s walk to the activity room.”
    B. “Describe the man who’s out to get you. What does he look like?”
    C. “There is no reason to be afraid of that man. This hospital is very secure.”
    D. “There is no need to be concerned with a man who isn’t even real.”
  19. Important teaching for women in their childbearing years who are receiving antipsychotic medications includes which of the following?
  20. Occurrence of increased libido due to medication adverse effects
    B. Increased incidence of dysmenorrhea while taking the drug
    C. Continuing previous use of contraception during periods of amenorrhea
    D. Instruction that amenorrhea is irreversible

 

 

 

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  1. A client is admitted to a psychiatric facility with a diagnosis of chronic schizophrenia. The history indicates that the client has been taking neuroleptic medication for many years. Assessment reveals unusual movements of the tongue, neck, and arms. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
  2. Tardive dyskinesia
    B. Dystonia
    C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
    D. Akathisia
  3. What medication would probably be ordered for the acutely aggressive schizophrenic client?
  4. chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
    B. haloperidol (Haldol)
    C. lithium carbonate (Lithonate)
    D. amitriptyline (Elavil)
  5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of schizotypal personality disorder. Which signs would this client exhibit during social situations?
  6. Aggressive behavior
    B. Paranoid thoughts
    C. Emotional affect
    D. Independence needs
  7. During the initial interview, a client with schizophrenia suddenly turns to the empty chair beside him and whispers, “Now just leave. I told you to stay home. There isn’t enough work here for both of us!” What is the nurse’s best initial response?
  8. “When people are under stress, they may see things or hear things that others don’t. Is that what just happened?”
    B. “I’m having a difficult time hearing you. Please look at me when you talk.”
    C. “There is no one else in the room. What are you doing?”
    D. “Who are you talking to? Are you hallucinating?”
  9. The definition of nihilistic delusions is:
  10. a false belief about the functioning of the body.
    B. belief that the body is deformed or defective in a specific way.
    C. false ideas about the self, others, or the world
    D. the inability to carry out motor activities.
  11. A client who’s taking antipsychotic medication develops a very high temperature, severe muscle rigidity, tachycardia, and rapid deterioration in mental status. The nurse suspects what complication of antipsychotic therapy?
  12. Agranulocytosis
    B. Extrapyramidal effects
    C. Anticholinergic effects
    D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
  13. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Impaired social interaction related to disorganized thinking for a client with schizotypal personality disorder. Based on this nursing diagnosis, which nursing intervention takes highest priority?
  14. Helping the client to participate in social interactions
    B. Establishing a one-on-one relationship with the client
    C. Exploring the effects of the client’s behavior on social interactions
    D. Developing a schedule for the client’s participation in social interactions
  15. A client with schizophrenia hears a voice telling him he is evil and must die. The nurse understands that the client is experiencing:
  16. a delusion.
    B. flight of ideas.
    C. ideas of reference.
    D. a hallucination.
  17. A client with delusional thinking shows a lack of interest in eating at meal times. She states that she is unworthy of eating and that her children will die if she eats. Which nursing action would be most appropriate for this client?
  18. Telling the client that she may become sick and die unless she eats
    B. Paying special attention to the client’s rituals and emotions associated with meals
    C. Restricting the client’s access to food except at specified meal and snack times
    D. Encouraging the client to express her feelings at meal times
  19. Which of the following groups of characteristics would the nurse expect to see in the client with schizophrenia?
  20. Loose associations, grandiose delusions, and auditory hallucinations
    B. Periods of hyperactivity and irritability alternating with depression
    C. Delusions of jealousy and persecution, paranoia, and mistrust
    D. Sadness, apathy, feelings of worthlessness, anorexia, and weight loss
  21. The nurse must administer a medication to reverse or prevent Parkinson-type symptoms in a client receiving an antipsychotic. The medication the client will likely receive is:
  22. Benztropine (Cogentin).
    B. diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
    C. propranolol (Inderal).
    D. haloperidol (Haldol).
  23. A client is receiving haloperidol (Haldol) to reduce psychotic symptoms. As he watches television with other clients, the nurse notes that he has trouble sitting still. He seems restless, constantly moving his hands and feet and changing position. When the nurse asks what is wrong, he says he feels jittery. How should the nurse manage this situation?
  24. Ask the client to sit still or leave the room because he is distracting the other clients.
    B. Ask the client if he is nervous or anxious about something.
    C. Give an as needed dose of a prescribed anticholinergic agent to control akathisia.
    D. Administer an as needed dose of haloperidol to decrease agitation.
  25. A man is brought to the hospital by his wife, who states that for the past week her husband has refused all meals and accused her of trying to poison him. During the initial interview, the client’s speech, only partly comprehensible, reveals that his thoughts are controlled by delusions that he is possessed by the devil. The physician diagnoses paranoid schizophrenia. Schizophrenia is best described as a disorder characterized by:
  26. disturbed relationships related to an inability to communicate and think clearly.
    B. severe mood swings and periods of low to high activity.
    C. multiple personalities, one of which is more destructive than the others.
    D. auditory and tactile hallucinations.
  27. A client has a history of chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia. Because she has a history of noncompliance with antipsychotic therapy, she’ll receive fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate) injections every 4 weeks. Before discharge, what should the nurse include in her teaching plan?
  28. Asking the physician for droperidol (Inapsine) to control any extrapyramidal symptoms that occur
    B. Sitting up for a few minutes before standing to minimize orthostatic hypotension
    C. Notifying the physician if her thoughts don’t normalize within 1 week
    D. Expecting symptoms of tardive dyskinesia to occur and to be transient
  29. A client with chronic schizophrenia who takes

 

 

 

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Question 2:     Heath Care

 

  1. A client with major depression is having a disturbed sleep pattern. Which of the following nursing interventions will help the client to get maximum sleep during the night?

 

  1. A)           Acknowledge the client’s feeling of despair.
  2. B)            Encourage active exercise before bedtime.
  3. C)            Encourage the client to go to bed early.
  4. D)           Keep the client busy during the day.

 

 

  1. A client with bipolar disorder is having a disturbed thought process. Which of the following nursing interventions can help the client to be oriented and accurately perceive circumstances surrounding admission?

 

  1. A)           Provide ample information.
  2. B)            Support the client when in delusion.
  3. C)            Reduce distracting stimuli.
  4. D)           Offer a large-muscle activity

 

 

  1. Which of the following nursing interventions should a nurse perform when caring for a female client with mood disorder who is prescribed lithium?

 

  1. A)           Instruct to resume regular activities such as driving.
  2. B)            Administer lithium before meals.
  3. C)            Withhold if serum level is less than 1.5 mEq.
  4. D)           Instruct to avoid breastfeeding.

 

  1. During the assessment of a client with mood disorder, the nurse observes that the client experiences hallucinations and delusions. Which of the following forms of depressive disorders does the client experience?

 

  1. A)           Reactive depression
  2. B)            Mania
  3. C)            Psychotic depression
  4. D)           Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)

 

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of subacute symptoms that may be observed in the older adult who may be depressed?

 

  1. A)           Weight gain
  2. B)            Lack of energy
  3. C)            Memory loss
  4. D)           Increased sleep

 

 

  1. What clinical manifestation should the nurse periodically monitor for while a client is being administered valproic acid?

 

  1. A)           Hepatotoxicity
  2. B)            Hypertensive crisis
  3. C)            Orthostatic hypotension
  4. D)           Hyperalertness

 

 

  1. Which of the following mood disorders has alternating sad and elated mood, resembling bipolar disorder, but less extreme mood shifts?

 

  1. A)           Euthymia
  2. B)            Dysthymia
  3. C)            Cyclothymia
  4. D)           Psychotic depression

 

 

  1. Administering an MAOI with food containing tyramine may develop a potentially fatal condition known as which of the following?

 

  1. A)           Psychosis
  2. B)            Serotonin syndrome
  3. C)            Hypertensive crisis
  4. D)           Hallucinations

 

 

 

 

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  1. Anticonvulsants enhance which neurotransmitter in clients diagnosed with bipolar disorder?

 

  1. A)           Serotonin
  2. B)            Dopamine
  3. C)            GABA
  4. D)           Acetylcholine

 

 

  1. Which type of therapy is facilitated by a bond that developed between the therapist and the client?

 

  1. A)           Behavioral therapy
  2. B)            Supportive psychotherapy
  3. C)            Interpersonal psychotherapy
  4. D)           Cognitive therapy

 

 

  1. The nurse is caring for a client who states he is not feeling very well. When asking the client for specific symptoms, the client is vague with details but does state feeling better when the sun is shining. With this information, the nurse would document which disorder as a possibility?

 

  1. A)           Major depression
  2. B)            Seasonal affective disorder
  3. C)            Bipolar disorder
  4. D)           Reactive depression

 

 

 

 

  1. The nurse has been working with a client who has difficulty controlling mood. The client continues to experience anger outbursts, which make it difficult to maintain employment. When explaining this dysfunction to the client’s family members, which area of the brain does the nurse identify as being the site for mood generation?

 

  1. A)           The central nervous system
  2. B)            The autonomic nervous system
  3. C)            The limbic system
  4. D)           The peripheral nervous system

 

  1. A nurse is counseling a client diagnosed with depression. When asked questions, the client responds with words of self-blame and self-pity. When the nurse uses the monoamine hypothesis, which chemical is thought to be elevated?

 

  1. A)           Serotonin
  2. B)            Norepinephrine
  3. C)            Epinephrine
  4. D)             Dopamine
  5. The nurse is caring for the client newly placed on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. When instructing the client on the action of the medication, which statement relating to the fluctuation of serotonin is correct?

 

  1. A)           Serotonin will be suppressed in the brain slowing the transmission of impulses.

 

  1. B)            Serotonin will remain within the brain enhancing chemical messages instead of being metabolized.

 

  1. C)            Serotonin production will be increased within the brain speeding transmission of impulses.

 

  1. D)           Serotonin activity will fluctuate according to the body’s hormone release.

 

  1. The nurse is providing education via phone to a client who called stating that the newly prescribed imipramine (Tofranil) is not working as depression is still a problem. Which question is most important to ask first?

 

  1. A)           “Are you feeling worse since taking the medication?”
  2. B)            “How long have you been taking the medication?”
  3. C)            “What time of day are you taking the medication?”
  4. D)           “What dosage of medication are you taking?”

 

 

 

 

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Page 6

 

  1. A patient with major depression has been place on phenelzine (Nardil). The nurse is instructing on dietary practices. Which food selection would be omitted from the diet?
  2. A)           Fruit salad
  3. B)            Lobster
  4. C)            Pork medallions
  5. D)           Spinach and feta salad

 

 

  1. A nurse is caring for a newly admitted client to the emergency department. The nurse obtains the following vital signs: temperature, 101.6° F; pulse rate, 92 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 28 breaths/minute; and blood pressure, 160/100 mm Hg. The client appears disheveled and disoriented. Upon physical assessment, the nurse notes restlessness and muscle spasms with rigidity. Which documented finding in the health history is evaluated as a potential causative factor?

 

  1. A)           Mixing antibiotics with psychotherapeutic medications
  2. B)            Changing from one psychotherapeutic to another
  3. C)            Initiating psychotherapeutic drug therapy
  4. D)           Combining dairy products with psychotherapeutics

 

The nurse is caring for a middle-aged client prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. Which side effect of medication therapy leads to the most common cause of noncompliance?

 

  1. A)           Hypertension
  2. B)            Dizziness
  3. C)            Hallucinations
  4. D)           Sexual dysfunction

 

 

  1. The nurse is employed in a pediatric mental health clinic. Which statement, made by the client, is an indication of a clinical effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors?

 

  1. A)           “I have gained 25 lb in the last year.”
  2. B)            “I feel that I am so sleepy all of the time.”
  3. C)            “No one cares about me. I just want to die.”
  4. D)           “I have a difficult time concentrating.”

 

 

  1. The nurse is instructing a client in treatment options often provided to resolve clinical depression. Which option does the nurse instruct as producing a brief, generalized seizure?

 

  1. A)           Vagal nerve stimulation
  2. B)            Electroconvulsive therapy
  3. C)            Deep brain stimulation
  4. D)           Transcranial magnetic stimulation

Page 8

 

 

 

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  1. The nurse is caring for a client who has selected transcranial magnetic stimulation to treat depression. For which side effect would the nurse provide preprocedural instructions?

 

  1. A)           Headache
  2. B)            Blurred vision
  3. C)            Hearing loss
  4. D)           Vertigo

 

 

  1. Which nursing consideration is most important when administering medications to a suicidal client?

 

  1. A)           Do not leave any syringe unattended.
  2. B)            Watch the client place all pills in the mouth.
  3. C)            View the inside of the mouth to make sure that all medications are swallowed.

 

  1. D)           Remove all medications and medication administration equipment from client area.

 

 

  1. The nurse is admitting a client to a mental health clinic following a recent suicide attempt and hospitalization. In assessing the client’s status, which question is best?

 

  1. A)           “How are you currently feeling?”
  2. B)            “What made you decide to harm yourself?”
  3. C)            “Do you have a suicide plan or feel like ending your life?”
  4. D)           “What method did you choose for your suicide attempt?”

 

 

  1. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is of highest priority when caring for a client who is depressed and considers suicide?

 

  1. A)           Hopelessness
  2. B)            Risk for Injury
  3. C)            Disturbed Sleep Pattern
  4. D)           Ineffective Coping

 

  1. Which of the following observations is helpful in determining a client’s mood? Select all that apply.

 

  1. A)           Client appearance
  2. B)            Body language
  3. C)            Speech
  4. D)           Energy level
  5. E)            Work history

 

 

 

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  1. The nurse is providing instruction to a community class who experience occasional depression regarding why humans feel better when the sun is shining. Which gland and hormone would the nurse stress is responsible?

 

  1. A)           Thyroid gland and thyroxin
  2. B)            Pineal gland and melatonin
  3. C)            Pancreas and insulin
  4. D)           Pituitary gland and oxytocin

 

 

  1. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with seasonal affective disorder. When caring for the client, at which time of the year does the nurse limit nursing interventions due to an uplifting of mood?

 

  1. A)           September/October
  2. B)            February/March
  3. C)            April/May
  4. D)           December/January

 

 

  1. When caring for a geriatric client diagnosed with bipolar disorder, which manifestation of the disease is anticipated?

 

  1. A)           The disease remits as the client ages.
  2. B)            The disease increases as the client ages.
  3. C)            The depression increases as the client ages.
  4. D)           The manic phase increases as the client ages.

 

 

  1. The nurse is caring for a client on long-standing lithium therapy for a bipolar disorder. Which component of drug therapy administration would require follow-up?

 

  1. A)           A lab result showing serum lithium level of 1 mEq
  2. B)            Client states, “I use salt on my potato salad.”
  3. C)            Client states, “I take my medication each morning.”
  4. D)           Client states, “I only take lithium after breastfeeding.”

 

 

 

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  1. The nurse is completing a medication history for a client diagnosed with bipolar. When assessing the medications, which medication classification is noted as an adjunct to lithium therapy?

 

  1. A)           Antidiabetics
  2. B)            Antihypertensives
  3. C)            Anticonvulsants
  4. D)           Antianginals

.

 

 

  1. The nurse is completing a plan of care for a client on lithium therapy to manage bipolar symptoms. Which nursing interventions will be included? Select all that apply.

 

  1. A)           Monitor for symptoms of nausea, vomiting, muscle weakness, and lack of coordination.

 

  1. B)            Increase fluid intake to 3000 mL/day.
  2. C)            Limit sodium intake daily.
  3. D)           Monitor kidney and liver functioning.
  4. E)            Instruct client that it may take up to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic level.
  5. F)             Monitor intake and output

 

 

  1. The nurse is assessing a client’s affect while discussing common issues such as the weather and family. The client appears sad with a slow speech pattern. The nurse considers that this may be a sign of depression but understands that the physician will want to rule out which medical condition first?

 

  1. A)           Mania
  2. B)            Hypothyroidism
  3. C)            A pituitary deficiency
  4. D)           A cerebral vascular accident

 

  1. When providing a clinical reference guide to a client on MAOI drug therapy, which over-the-counter medications should be highlighted to avoid?

 

  1. A)           Cold and allergy medications
  2. B)            Antiulcer medications
  3. C)            Multivitamins
  4. D)           Laxatives

 

  1. Which of the following nursing instructions is most helpful to a client experiencing mild seasonal affective disorder symptoms?

 

  1. A)           Use sunglasses when exposed to sunlight.
  2. B)            Install skylights.
  3. C)            Sleep in a darkened room.
  4. D)           Stay indoors during the winter time.

 

 

  1. The nurse is caring for a client with a disturbance in thought process who is disoriented and aggressive. Which of the following nursing actions may produce further agitation?
  2. A)           Speaking in slow, brief sentences
  3. B)            Presenting the reality of the situation
  4. C)            Allowing the client freedom in a confined area
  5. D)           Being present without speaking

 

 

 

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Question 3:     Health Care

 

Exam 7 2018, questions and answers

Fundamentals in clinical techniques (Rasmussen College)

RN Fundamentals Online Practice

A nurse is caring for a client who requires a 24-hr urine collection. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

  1. “I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.”
  2. “I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.”
  3. “I flushed what I urinated at 7:00 a.m. and have save all urine since.”
  4. “I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.”

 

 

A nurse is assessing a client who has been on bed rest for the past month. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client has developed thrombophlebitis?

 

  1. Bladder distention
  2. Decreased blood pressure
  3. Calf swelling
  4. Diminished bowel sounds
  5. Calf swelling

 

A nurse manager is overseeing the care on a unit. Which of the following situations should the nurse manager identify as a violation of HIPAA guidelines?

  1. A nurse who is caring for a client reviews the client’s medical chart with the nursing student who is working with the nurse
  2. A nurse asks a nurse from another unit to assist with her documentation
  3. A nurse who is caring for a client returns a call to the client’s durable power of attorney for health care designee to discuss the client’s care
  4. A nurse discusses a client’s status with the physical therapist that is caring for the client at the client’s bedside

A nurse is caring for a client who requires bed rest and has a prescription for antiembolic stockings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Apply the stockings so the creases are on the side of the leg
  2. Apply the stockings while the client’s legs are in a dependent position
  3. Remove the stockings at least once per shift
  4. Remove the stockings while the client is sitting in a reclining chair

 

A nurse is administering IV fluid to an older adult client. The nurse should perform which priority assessment to monitor for adverse effects?

 

  1. Auscultate lung sounds
  2. Measure urine output
  3. Monitor blood pressure readings
  4. Monitor serum electrolyte levels
  5. Auscultate lung sounds

 

A nurse is assessing a client’s readiness to learn about insulin administration. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?

 

  1. “I can concentrate best in the morning.”
  2. “It is difficult to read the instructions because my glasses are at home.”
  3. “I’m wondering why I need to learn this.”
  4. “You will have to talk to my wife about this.”

 

A nurse is performing a Romberg’s test during the physical assessment of a client. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

 

  1. Touch the face with a cotton ball
  2. Apply the vibrating tuning fork to the client’s forehead
  3. Have the client stand with her arms at her side and her feet together
  4. Perform direct percussion over the area of the kidneys

 

A nurse is planning an education session for an older adult client who has just learned that she has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following strategies should the nurse plan to use with this client?

 

  1. Allow extra time for the client to respond to questions
  2. Expect the client to have difficulty understanding the information
  3. Avoid references to the client’s past experiences
  4. Keep the learning session in private and one-on-one

 

 

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A nurse is teaching an older adult client who is at risk for osteoporosis about beginning a program of regular physical activity. Which of the following types of activity should the nurse recommend?

 

  1. Walking briskly
  2. Riding a bicycle
  3. Performing isometric exercises
  4. Engaging in high-impact aerobics

 

A nurse is assessing an adult client who has been immobile for the past 3 weeks. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings requires further intervention?

 

  1. Erythema on pressure points
  2. Lower-extremity pulse strength 2+
  3. Fluid intake of 3,000 mL of fluid per day
  4. A bowel movement every other day

 

A nurse is preparing to administer 0.5 mL of oral single-dose liquid medication to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Gently shake the container of medication prior to administration
  2. Transfer the medication to a medicine cup
  3. Place the client in a semi-Fowler’s position prior to medication administration
  4. Verify the dosage by measuring the liquid before administration

 

A nurse is responding to a call light and finds a client lying on the bathroom floor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

 

  1. Check the client for injuries
  2. Move hazardous objects away from the client
  3. Notify the provider
  4. Ask the client to describe how she felt prior to the fall

 

A nurse is caring for a client who is expressing anger over his diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Discuss the risk factors for colon cancer
  2. Focus teaching on what the client will need to do in the future to manage his illness
  3. Provide the client with written information about the phases of loss and grief
  4. Reassure the client that this is an expected response to grief

 

 

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A nurse in a clinic is caring for a middle adult client who states, “The doctor says that, since I am at an average risk for colon cancer, I should have a routine screening. What does that involve?” Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

 

  1. “I’ll get a blood sample from you and send it for a screening test.”
  2. “Beginning at age 600, you should have a colonoscopy.”
  3. “You should have a fecal occult blood test every year.”
  4. “The recommendation is to have a sigmoidoscopy every 10 years.”

 

A nurse manager is preparing to review medication documentation with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statement should the nurse manager plan to include in the teaching?

 

  1. “Use the complete name of the medication magnesium sulfate.”
  2. “Delete the space between the numerical dose and the unit of measure.”
  3. “Write the letter U when noting the dosage of insulin.:
  4. “Use the abbreviation SC when indicting an injection.”

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

 

  1. Place the client in a room with negative-pressure airflow
  2. Wear gloves when assisting the client with oral care
  3. Limit each visitor to 2 hr increments
  4. Wear a surgical mask when providing client care
  5. Use antimicrobial sanitizer for hand hygiene

 

A charge nurse is discussing the responsibility of nurses caring for clients who have a Clostridium difficile infection. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

 

 

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  1. Assign the client to a room with a negative air-flow system
  2. Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer when leaving the client’s room
  3. Clean contaminated surface in the client’s room with a phenol solution
  4. Have family members wear a gown and gloves when visiting

 

A nurse in a surgical suite notes documentation on a client’s medical record that he has a latex allergy. In preparation for the client’s medical record that he has a latex allergy. In preparation for the client’s procedure, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Ensure sterilization of non-disposable items with ethylene oxide
  2. Wrap monitoring cords with stockinette and tape them in case

 

  1. Cleanse latex ports on IV tubing with chlorhexidine before injecting medication
  2. Wear hypoallergenic later gloves that contain powder

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who is reporting difficulty falling asleep. Which of the following measures should the nurse recommend?

 

  1. Drink a cup of hot cocoa before bedtime
  2. Exercise 1 hr before going to bed
  3. Use progressive relaxation techniques at bedtime
  4. Reflect on the day’s activities before going to bed

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for 5 units of regular insulin and 10 units of NPH insulin to mix together and administer subcutaneously. Determine the correct order of steps for this procedure.

 

 

A nurse is reviewing practice guidelines with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include that is within the RN scope of practice?

 

  1. Insert an implanted port
  2. Close a laceration with sutures
  3. Place an endotracheal tube
  4. Initiate an enteral feeding through a gastrostomy tube

 

A nurse is caring for a client who requires an NG tube for stomach decompression. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when inserting the NG tube?

 

  1. Position the client with the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees prior to insertion of the NG tube
  2. Remove the NG tube if the client begins to gag or choke
  3. Apply suction to the NG tube prior to insertion
  4. Have the client take sips of water to promote insertion of the NG tube into the esophagus

 

 

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A nurse is assessing an older adult client’s risk for falls. Which of the following assessments should the nurse use to identify the client’s safety needs? (Select all that apply.)

 

  1. Lacrimal apparatus
  2. Pupil clarity
  3. Appearance of bulbar conjunctivae
  4. Visual fields
  5. Visual acuity

 

A nurse is evaluating a client’s use of a cane. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as an indication of correct use?

 

  1. The top of the cane is parallel to the client’s waist
  2. When walking, the client moves the cane 46cm (18 in) forward
  3. The client holds the cane on the stronger side of her body.
  4. The client moves her stronger limb forward with the cane

 

A nurse is admitting a client who has varicella. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

 

  1. Airborne
  2. Droplet
  3. Contact
  4. Protective environment

 

A nurse is preparing to administer multiple medications to a client who has an enteral feeding tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

 

  1. Dissolve each medication in 5 mL of sterile water
  2. Draw up medications together in the same syringe
  3. Push the syringe plunger gently when feeling resistance
  4. Flush the tube with 15 mL of sterile water

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for wound irrigation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Wear sterile gloves when removing the old dressing
  2. Warm the irrigation solution to 40.5 degrees Celsius (105 degrees Fahrenheit)
  3. Cleanse the wound from the center outward
  4. Use a 20 mL syringe to irrigate the wound

 

 

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A nurse is providing care to four clients. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete an incident report?

 

  1. A nurse tied a client’s restraint straps to the moveable part of the bed frame
  2. An assistive personnel placed a surgical mask on a client who has tuberculosis before transporting her to radiology
  3. A nurse administers a medication to a client 30 minutes before the dose is due
  4. A client who has an IV infusion pump receives an additional 250 mL of IV fluid

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client receiving fluid through a peripheral IV catheter. Which of the following findings at the IV site should the nurse identify as infiltration?

 

  1. Purulent exudate
  2. Warmth
  3. Skin blanching
  4. Bleeding

 

 

A nurse is preparing a change-of-shit report. Which of the following tools or documents should the nurse use to communicate continuity of care?

 

  1. Critical pathway
  2. Situation, background, assessment, and recommendation (SBAR)
  3. Transfer report
  4. Medication administration record (MAR)

 

A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse indicate?

 

  1. Protective environment
  2. Airborne precautions
  3. Droplet precaution
  4. Contact precautions

 

A nurse is caring for a client who is having difficulty breathing. The client is lying in bed with a nasal cannula delivering oxygen. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take first?

 

  1. Suction the client’s airway
  2. Administer a bronchodilator
  3. Increase the humidity in the client’s room
  4. Assist the client to an upright position

 

 

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A nurse is reviewing a client’s fluid and electrolyte status which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

 

  1. BUN 15 mg/dL
  2. Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
  3. Sodium 143 mEq/L
  4. Potassium 5.4 mEq/L

 

 

A nurse is lifting a bedside cabinet to move it closer to a client who is sitting in a chair. To prevent self- injury, which of the following actions should the nurse take when lifting the object?

 

  1. Bend at the waist
  2. Keep his feet close together
  3. Use his back muscles for lifting
  4. Stand close to the cabinet when lifting

 

 

A nurse is reviewing a client’s medication prescription, which reads, “digoxin 0.25 by mouth every day.” Which of the following components of the prescription should the nurse question?

 

  1. The medication
  2. The route
  3. The dose
  4. The frequency

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has had his diet prescription changed to a mechanical soft diet. Which of the following food items should the nurse remove from the client’s breakfast tray?

 

  1. Tomato juice
  2. Banana slices
  3. Pancakes
  4. Fried egg

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has terminal liver cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is experiencing spiritual distress?

 

  1. “What could I have done to deserve this illness?”
  2. “I blame medical science for not curing me.”
  3. “Where is my daughter at a time like this?”
  4. “Will I ever begin to feel in charge of my life again?”

 

 

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A nurse is caring for a client who is refusing a blood transfusion for religious reasons. The client’s partner wants the client to have the blood transfusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Ask the client to consider a direct donation
  2. Withhold the blood transfusion
  3. Request a consultation with the ethics committee D.. Ask the client’s family to intervene

 

 

A nurse is reviewing protocol in preparation for suctioning secretions from a client who has a new tracheostomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

 

  1. Use a resuscitation bag with 80% oxygen prior to the procedure
  2. Select a suction catheter that is half the size of the lumen
  3. Place the end of the suction catheter in water-soluble lubricant
  4. Adjust the wall suction apparatus to a pressure of 170 mmHg

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has limited mobility in his lower extremities. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent skin breakdown?

 

  1. Place the client in high-Fowler’s position
  2. Increase the client’s intake of carbohydrates
  3. Massage reddened areas with unscented lotion
  4. Have the client use a trapeze bar when changing position

 

 

 

A nurse is talking with the partner of an older adult male client who has dementia. The client’s partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for his partner. The nurse should identify that he is going through which of the following types of role- performance stress?

 

  1. Role ambiguity
  2. Sick role
  3. Role overload
  4. Role conflict

 

  1. Role overload

 

A nurse in a long-term care facility is planning to perform hygiene care for a new resident. Which of the following assessment questions is the nurse’s priority before beginning this procedure?

 

  1. “When do you usually bathe, in the morning or in the evening?”
  2. “Do you prefer a bath or a shower?”
  3. “At what temperature do you prefer your bath water?”
  4. “Are you able to help with your hygiene care?”

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has herpes zoster and asks the nurse about the use of complementary and alternative therapies for pain control. The nurse should inform the client that his condition is a contraindication for which of the following therapies?

 

  1. Biofeedback
  2. Aloe
  3. Feverfew
  4. Acupuncture

 

 

 

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A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client who will require oxygen therapy at home. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands how to manage this therapy at home?

 

  1. “I’ll make sure that, when my friend comes by, she smokes at least 6 feet away from my oxygen.
  2. “I’ll use a woolen blanket if I get chilly while I’m using my oxygen.
  3. “I’ll check the wires and cables on my TV to make sure they are in good working order.
  4. “I’ll lay my oxygen tank down on the floor when the grandchildren visit so they don’t knock it over.

 

 

A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of an opioid medication to a client. The nurse draws out 1 mL of the medication from a 2 mL vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Ask another nurse to observe the medication wastage
  2. Notify the pharmacy when wasting the medication
  3. Lock the remaining medication in the controlled substances cabinet
  4. Dispose of the vial with the remaining medication in a sharps container

 

A nurse is caring for a client who is terminally ill. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client’s family member is coping effectively with the situation?

 

  1. “We are not worried. We still have hope that everything will be okay.”
  2. “This is a difficult time, but we are helping each other through this.”
  3. “After he comes home, we can plan our family reunion.”
  4. “We do not need to talk about funeral arrangements at this time.”

 

A nurse is planning care to improve self-feeding for a client who has vision loss. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

 

  1. Tell the client which food should eat first.
  2. Provide small-handle utensils for the client.
  3. Thicken liquids on the client’s tray
  4. Use a clock pattern to describe food on the client’s plate

 

A nurse is preparing to transfer a client who has right-sided weakness from the bed to a chair. In what order should the nurse take the following actions to assist the client?

 

 

 

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A nurse is caring for a client who reports pain. When documenting the quality of the client’s pain on an initial pain assessment, the nurse should record which of the following client statements?

  1. “I’m having mild pain.”
  2. “The pain is like a dull ache in my stomach.”
  3. “I notice that the pain gets worse after I eat.”
  4. “The pain makes me feel nauseous.”

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

 

  1. “They allow the court to overrule an adult client’s refusal of medical treatment.”
  2. “They indicate the form of treatment the client is willing to accept in the event of serious illness.”
  3. “They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel.”
  4. “They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client’s condition.”

 

A nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client who reports vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?

 

  1. Neck vein distention
  2. Urine specific gravity 1.010
  3. Rapid heart rate
  4. Blood pressure 144/82 mmHg

 

 

 

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A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and refuses to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery. Which of the following is the nurse’s priority action?

  1. Request that a respiratory therapist discuss the technique for incentive spirometry
  2. Determine the reasons why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer
  3. Document the client’s refusal to participate in health restorative activities
  4. Administer a pain medication to the client

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has an NG tube and is receiving intermittent feedings through an open system. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

 

  1. Rinse the feeding bag with water between feedings
  2. Tell the client to keep the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees
  3. Make sure the enteral formula is at room temperature
  4. Wipe the top of the formula can with alcohol

 

A nurse is administering an otic medication to an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure that the medication reaches the inner ear?

 

  1. Press gently on the tragus of the client’s ear
  2. Pack a small piece of cotton deep into the ear canal
  3. Move the client’s auricle down and back toward her head
  4. Tilt the client’s head back for 5 minutes

 

A nurse is using an open irrigation technique to irrigate a client’s indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. Place the client in a side-lying position
  2. Instill 15 mL of irrigation fluid into the catheter with each flush
  3. Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client’s urine output
  4. Perform the irrigation using a 20 mL syringe

 

 

A nurse is planning to insert a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

 

  1. Insert the catheter at a 45-degree angle
  2. Place the client’s arm in a dependent position
  3. Shave excess hair from the insertion site
  4. Initiate IV therapy in the veins of the hand

 

 

A nurse is assisting a client who is postoperative with the use of an incentive spirometer. Into which of the following positions should the nurse place the client?

 

  1. Side-lying
  2. Supine
  3. Semi-Fowler’s
  4. Trendelenburg

 

 

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Question 4:     Health Care

 

1)      A nurse is caring for a patient who has a terminal illness and is approaching death. The patient is short of breath and has noisy respirations from secretions in their airway. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. a)      Turn the patient every 2 hr
  2. i)        The nurse should turn the pt at least once every 2 hr to break up the secretions in the pt’s lungs and prevent noisy respirations
  3. b)      Administer an antiemetic every 6 hr
  4. i)        The nurse should admin antiemetics for pts experiencing nausea or vomiting. However, this is not the correct action to take when assisting a pt who’s experiencing respiratory difficulty at the end  of life
  5. c)      Hold oral care
  6. i)        The nurse should provide frequent oral care in order to keep the pt’s mouth moist and provide comfort
  7. d)     Increase the room’s temperature
  8. i)        Keeping the air temperature cool by allowing air to circulate with the use of a fan or opening windows is more comfortable for a pt who is dying and will decrease air hunger

 

2)      A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the spread of infection?

  1. a)      Carry a patient’s soiled linens out of the room in a mesh linen bag
  2. i)        The nurse should place soiled linens in a fluid-resistant bag to reduce the risk of infection transmission
  3. b)      Place a patient who has tuberculosis in a room with negative pressure airflow
  4. i)        A pt who has tb req’s airborn precautions, which include placing the pt in a room that has negative pressure airflow to reduce the risk of infection transmission
  5. c)      Provide disposable plates and utensils for a patient who is HIV positive
  6. i)        Ppl transmit HIV mainly by blood and sexual activity; therefore, a pt who is HIV+ does not req disposable plates and utensils. Standard precautions are sufficient
  7. d)     Dispose of a patient’s blood saturated dressing in a trash bag inside a second trash bag
  8. i)        The nurse should dispose of items that have a large amount of blood in a biohazard bag that is impervious to micro-organisms

 

3)      A nurse is using an open irrigation technique to irrigate a client’s indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. a)      Place the client in a side lying position
  2. i)         The nurse should place the client in a supine or dorsal recumbent position for maximal access to the catheter
  3. b)      Instill 15 mL of irrigation fluid into the catheter with each flush
  4. i)        Open irrigation technique requires instilling 30-40 mL of irrigation fluid
  5. c)      Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client’s urine output
  6. i)        The nurse should calculate the fluid used for irrigation and subtract it from the clients total urinary output
  7. d)     Perform the irrigation using a 20 mL syringe
  8. i)        The nurse should use a 30- 50 mL syringe to perform open irrigation

 

4)      A home health nurse is performing a follow-up visit for a client who has a gastrostomy tube through which they receive intermittent feedings and medications. The client has recently developed diarrhea. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible cause of the diarrhea?

  1. a)      The client is receiving formula at room temperature
  2. i)        Cold formula can cause gastric cramping; therefore, room temperature formula is appropriate and is likely not because of the clients diarrhea
  3. b)      The feedings in fuse at a slow, continuous drip over 8 hr each night
  4. i)        Diarrhea is more likely to develop with rapid installation of enteral formula
  5. c)      The clients caregiver washes out the feeding bag with warm water once every 24 hr
  6. i)        Feeding bags should be washed out after each feeding and replaced with a new feeding back every 24 hr to prevent bacterial contamination. The nurse should reinforce this information with the clients caregiver to avoid future contamination
  7. d)     The clients caregiver flushes the tubing with water before and after administering medications
  8. i)        It is correct to flush the tubing with water before and after administering medications to prevent clogging of the tube

 

 

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5)      A nurse is initiating a protective environment for a client who has had an allogeneic stem cell transplant. Which of the following precautions should the nurse plan for this client?

  1. a)      Make sure the client’s room has at least six air exchanges per hour
  2. i)        A protective environment requires at least 12 air exchanges per hour
  3. b)      Make sure the client wears a mask when outside her room if there is construction in the area
  4. i)        And allogeneic stem cell transplant compromises the client’s immune system, greatly increasing the risk for infection. The client will need protection from breathing in any pathogens in the environment.
  5. c)      Place the client in a private room with negative pressure airflow
  6. i)        The nurse should place the client in a private room that provides positive pressure airflow
  7. d)     Wear an N95 respirator when it giving the client direct care
  8. i)        The nurse should wear an N 95 respirator mask when caring for clients who require airborne precautions, not a protective environment

 

 

6)      A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

  1. a)      Protective environment
  2. i)        Client to have a compromised immune system require a protective environment
  3. b)      Airborne precautions
  4. i)        Airborne precautions or a requirement for clients who have infections that spread via droplet nuclei that are smaller than 5 microns in diameter, including tuberculosis and measles
  5. c)      Droplets precautions
  6. i)        Droplet precautions or a requirement for clients who have infections that spread via droplet nuclei that are larger than 5 microns in diameter, including rubella, meningococcal  pneumonia, and a streptococcal pharyngitis
  7. d)     Contact precautions
  8. i)        Major wound infections required contact precautions, which means the nurse should admit the client to a private room. All caregivers should wear a gown and gloves during direct contact with this client

 

7)      A nurse is teaching a client and his family how to care for the clients tracheostomy at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

  1. a)      Remove the outer cannula cautiously for routine cleaning
  2. i)        The outer cannula stabilizes the airway; therefore, the client should never remove it for cleaning
  3. b)      Use a tracheostomy covers when outdoors
  4. i)        Tracheostomy covers protect the client’s airway from cold air, dust and other airborne particles
  5. c)      Use sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care at home
  6. i)        In the home environment, medical a sepsis with clean technique is appropriate
  7. d)     Cleaned irritated skin with full strength hydrogen peroxide
  8. i)        Hydrogen peroxide can irritated skin; therefore, the nurse should instruct the client and family to use 0.9% sodium chloride irrigation to cleanse the site and prevent further irritation

 

8)      A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and is exhibiting signs of hemorrhagic shock. The nurse notifies the surgeon, who tells the nurse to continue to measure the client’s vital signs every 15 min and to report back in 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

  1. a)      Document the provider’s statement in the medical record
  2. i)        The nurse should document the provider’s directions in the medical record for later reference; however, another action is the nurse’s priority
  3. b)      Complete an incident report
  4. i)        The nurse should prepare an incident report detailing the delay in treatment for later review and action for prevention of future occurrences; however, another action is the nurse’s priority
  5. c)      Consult the facility’s risk manager
  6. i)        The nurse should discuss the situation with the facility’s risk management dept to help determine the need for preventative actions; however, another actions is the nurse’s priority
  7. d)     Notify the nursing manager
  8. i)        The greatest risk to the client is not receiving timely intervention for a deterioration in physiological status; therefore, the next action the nurse should take is to activate the chain of command to ensure that the client receives the necessary care

 

9)      A client who is postoperative is verbalizing pain as a 2 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the preoperative teaching she received about pain management?

  1. a)      “I think I should take my pain medication more often, since it is not controlling my pain”
  2. i)        As a 2 on a scale of 0 to 10, this client’s pain is mild. Additional analgesic medication is unnecessary at this time
  3. b)      “Breathing faster will help me keep my mind off the pain.”
  4. i)        Rapid breathing can lead to hyperventilation, while slow, focused, breathing helps induce relaxation, which can help with managing pain
  5. c)      “It might help me to listen to music while I’m lying in bed.”
  6. i)        Listening to music is an effective nonpharmacological intervention for the management of mild pain
  7. d)     “I don’t want to walk today because I have some pain.”
  8. i)        Postoperative clients need to ambulate even if they are having mild pain

 

10)  A nurse is assessing a client’s readiness to learn about insulin self-administration. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?

  1. a)      “I can concentrate best in the morning.”
  2. i)        The pt’s statement indicates a readiness to learn bc he’s verbalizing the best time for him to learn
  3. b)      “It is difficult to read the instructions because my glasses are at home.”
  4. i)        The pt’s statement indicates the pt is not ready to learn. The pt has to have the tools he needs to learn and comprehend the info
  5. c)      “I’m wondering why I need to learn this.”
  6. i)        The pts statement indicates a reluctance to learn information he thinks he might not need to know
  7. d)     “You will have to talk to my wife about this.”
  8. i)        With this statement, the pt is redirecting the nurse’s attempt to teach toward someone else, indicating that he is not ready to learn

 

 

11)  A nurse is planning strategies to manage time effectively for client care. Which of the following strategies should the nurse implement?

  1. a)      Comine client care tasks when caring for multiple clients
  2. i)        The nurse should complete the tasks for one pt before beginning the tasks for another client to reduce fragmentation of care and avoid potential errors
  3. b)      Wait until the end of the shift to document client care
  4. i)        Documentation should be completed in a timely manner after care is performed to reduce errors and unsafe client care. Performing documentation at the end of the shift tis not effective time management
  5. c)      Use the planning step of the nursing process to prioritize client care delivery
  6. i)        Setting up a list of goals and tasks to perform for pts can help the nurse set care priorities and plan tasks accordingly. The priority to do list is an efficient tool for optimal time management
  7. d)     Allow for interruptions in tasks to discuss client care issue with colleagues
  8. i)        An important principle of time management is controlling interruptions to reduce errors and loss of care delivery time

 

12)  A nurse is caring for a client who asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

  1. a)      “They allow the court to overrule and adult client’s refusal of medical treatment.”
  2. i)        A court can only overrule an adult pt’s refusal of medical treatment if the pt is legally incompetent
  3. b)      “They indicate the form of treatment a client is willing to accept in the event of a serious illness”
  4. i)        Advanced directives include a living will, which permits pts to direct the treatment they will receive in the even of a medical emergency or serious illness
  5. c)      “They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel”
  6. i)        The Americans with Disabilities Act, not advance directives, protects the privacy of a pt who chooses not to disclose a medical disability
  7. d)     “They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client’s condition.”
  8. i)        The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act, not advance directives, directs emergency personnel to provide screening and stabilizing care before discharging or transferring pts to another facility

 

13)  A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of an opioid medication to a client. The nurse draws out 1 mL of the medication from a 2 mL vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. a)      Ask another nurse to observe the medication wastage
  2. i)        A second nurse must witness the disposal of any portion of a dose of a controlled substance
  3. b)      Notify the pharmacy when wasting the medication
  4. i)        Pharmacies do not req notification of the disposal of a portion of a dose of a controlled substance
  5. c)      Lock the remaining  medication in the controlled substances cabinet
  6. i)        The nurse should not lock the remaining  controlled substance in the cabinet bc this is a violation of the Controlled Substances Act
  7. d)     Dispose of the vial with the remaining medication in the sharps container
  8. i)        The nurse should not dispose of the remaining controlled sub in the sharps bc this is a violation of the Controlled Substances Act

 

14)  A nurse is caring for a pt who has a terminal illness and is at the end of life. The nurse should recognize that which of the following statements by the pt’s partner indicates effective coping?

  1. a)      “I am not worried bc I still have hope that he will be okay”
  2. i)        This statement reflects false hope and possible denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. Denial involves the blocking of painful thoughts or feelings that induce anxiety
  3. b)      “I am relying on support from our family during this time”
  4. i)        This statement indicates effective coping bc the partner is relying on others in the family for support during a time of crisis
  5. c)      “We can plan our family reunion once he recovers and comes home”
  6. i)        This statement reflects false hope and possibly denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. Denial involves the blocking of painful thoughts or feelings that induce anxiety
  7. d)     “We don’t see any reason to start discussing funeral arrangements right now”
  8. i)        This statement reflects potential false hope about and possible denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. It also indicates the partner’s potential inability or unwillingness to address unpleasant or challenging issues related to the pt’s health

 

 

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15)  A nurse is planning to insert a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

  1. a)      Insert the catheter at 45* angle
  2. i)        Generally, the nurse should insert the catheter at a 10*-30* angle. However, for an older adult client, an angle or 10*-50* is preferable because weins are closer to the skin surface as aging diminishes subcutaneous tissue
  3. b)      Place the client’s arm in a dependent position
  4. i)         The nurse should the pt’s arm in a dependent position bc the veins will dilate due to gravity
  5. c)      Shave excess hair from the insertion site
  6. i)        The nurse should clip excess hair from the iv insertion site and avoid shaving the area bc shaving can cause breaks and cuts in the skin that could place the pt at risk for infection
  7. d)     Initiate iv therapy in the veins of the hand
  8. i)        The nurse should avoid using the fragile veins of an older adult’s hands bc the loss of subq tissue can allow those veins to roll away from the needle. Also, having an IV catheter in the pt’s hand can interfere w the pt’s performance of activities of daily living and can diminish an older adult’s sense of independence and mobility.

 

16)  A nurse is caring for a pt who has dementia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take to minimize the risk for injury to the pt.

  1. a)      Use a bed exit alarm system
  2. i)        The nurse should identify that a pt who has dementia requires assistance when exiting their bed and might be unable to remember to ask for help. The pt’s condition places them at a risk for falling; therefore, a bed alarm system can alert staff members that the pt is trying to get out of bed and requires assistance
  3. b)      Raise four side rails while the pt is in bed
  4. i)        Raising four side rails when the pt is in bed is form of restrain and increases the risk for falls and injury
  5. c)      Apply one soft wrist restraint
  6. i)        Applying one soft restraint is a physical restraint requiring a prescription. Other forms of distraction or intervention to maintain pt safety should be attempted for pts who have dementia
  7. d)     Dim the lights in the pt’s room
  8. i)        Dimming the lights in the room for a pt who has dementia can reduce visibility and increase the risk for injury

 

 

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17)  A nurse is caring for a pt who is postoperative following a knee arthroplasty and requires the use of thigh length sequential compression sleeves. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. a)      Assist the pt into a prone position
  2. i)        The nurse should place the pt in a dorsal recumbent or semi Fowler’s position to facilitate application of sleeves
  3. b)      Place a sleeve over the top of each leg w the opening at the knee
  4. i)        The nurse should place the sleeve under each leg w the opening at the knee and then wrap the sleeve around the leg so that it is secure
  5. c)      Make sure two fingers can fit under the sleeves
  6. i)        The nurse should ensure that there is enough space for two fingers to fit under the sleeve bc any less space bt the sleeves and the legs can inhibit circulation when the sleeves inflate
  7. d)     Set the ankle pressure at 65 mm Hg
  8. i)        The nurse should set the ankle pressure bt 35-55 Hg to achieve a therapeutic effect while also preventing damage to the pt’s skin and circulatory impairment

 

18)  A nurse is caring for a pt who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

  1. a)      Numbness of the extremities
  2. i)        Numbness of the extremities is manifestation of hyperkalemia
  3. b)      Bradycardia
  4. i)        Tachycardia is a manifestation of hyponatremia along with hypovolemia
  5. c)      Positive Chvostek’s sign
  6. i)        A positive Chvostek’s sign is a manifestation of hypomagnesemia and hypocalcemia
  7. d)     Abdominal cramping
  8. i)        The pt has hyponatremia, which is a low sodium level. Manifestations include abdominal cramping, weakness, confusion, lethargy, headache, and nausea

 

19)  A nurse is auscultating the anterior chest of a pt who was newly admitted to a medical-surgical unit. Listen to the audio clip of what the nurse auscultates through the stethoscope and identify the type of breath sounds (click on the audio button to listen to the clip).

  1. a)      Crackles
  2. i)        Unlike these breath sounds, crackles (also called rales) are discontinuous sounds heard primarily during inhalation and resulting from air bubbling through fluid or mucus in the airways
  3. b)      Rhonchi
  4. i)        Rhonchi are dry, low pitched, snore like noises produced in the throat or bronchial tube due to partial obstruction, such as by secretions
  5. c)      Friction rub
  6. i)        Friction rub is a scratching or squeaking sound that persists throughout the respiratory cycle
  7. d)     Normal breath sounds
  8. i)        These are normal Broncho vesicular breath sounds, characteristically of moderate intensity and sounding like blowing as air moves through the larger airways on inspiration and expiration

 

 

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20)  A nurse is talking with an older adult pt who is contemplating retirement. The pt states, “I keep thinking about how much I enjoy my job. I’m not sure I want to retire.” Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

  1. a)      “You would have so much more time to spend w your family”
  2. i)        This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is minimizing the pt’s feelings and making assumptions about the pt’s relationships
  3. b)      “You should consider getting a part time job or doing volunteer work.”
  4. i)        This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is minimizing the pt’s feelings and offering personal advice
  5. c)      “Let’s talk about how the change in your job status will affect you”
  6. i)        The response is therapeutic bc the nurse is encouraging the pt to verbalize feelings about the life transition of retirement
  7. d)     “Why wouldn’t you want to retire and relax?”
  8. i)        This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is asking a “why” question, which can provoke a defensive response from the pt

 

21)  A nurse is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a pt who is postoperative and has fluid volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the nurse identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?

  1. a)      Increase in hematocrit
  2. i)        Fluid volume deficit causes an increase in hematocrit level due to depletion of extracellular fluid. With correction of the imbalance, the hematocrit level should decrease
  3. b)      Increase in respiratory rate
  4. i)        Fluid volume causes an increase in respiratory rate. With correction of the imbalance, the respiratory rate should return to the expected range
  5. c)      Decrease in heart rate
  6. i)        Fluid volume deficit causes an increase in respiratory rate. With correction of the imbalance, the respiratory rate should return to the expected range.
  7. d)     Decrease in capillary refill time
  8. i)        Fluid volume deficit slows capillary refill. With correction of the imbalance, capillary refill time should return to the expected range

 

 

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22)  A nurse is caring for a pt who is postoperative and refuses to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions is the nurse’s priority?

  1. a)      Request that a respiratory therapist discuss the technique for incentive spirometry with the pt.
  2. i)        The nurse can request that another team member discuss the use of the incentive spirometer w the pt to encourage the pt to use it; however, this is not the priority action for the nurse to take.
  3. b)      Determine the reasons why the pt is refusing to use the incentive spirometer
    i)     The 1staction the nurse should take when using the nursing process is to assess the client; therefore the priority action for the nurse to take is to determine why the pt is refusing the treatment
  4. c)      Document the pt’s refusal to participate in health restorative activities
  5. i)        If other interventions to promote the pt’s use of the incentive spirometer are unsuccessful, the nurse must document the pt’s refusal; however, this is not the priority action for the nurse to take.
  6. d)     Administer a pain medication to the client
  7. i)        Pain or incisional complication might make the pt refuse spirometry; however, administering medication is not the priority action for the nurse to take.

 

23)  A nurse is talking w the partner of a pt who has a dementia. The pt’s partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for their partner. The nurse should identify that the partner is experiencing which of the following types of role-performance stress?

  1. a)      Role ambiguity
  2. i)        Role ambiguity occurs when people are unclear about the expectations of their role in a given situation
  3. b)      Sick role
  4. i)        Sick role refers to the expectations placed on the individual who has the alteration in health, rather than the caregiver
  5. c)      Role overload
  6. i)        The partner’s expression of frustration is an example of role overload, which refers to having more responsibilities within a role than one person can manage
  7. d)     Role conflict
  8. i)        Role conflict develops when a person must assume multiple roles that have opposing expectations

 

 

 

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24)  A nurse is assessing four adult patients. Which of the following physical assessment techniques should the nurse use?

  1. a)      Use the face, legs, activity, and consolability (FLACC) pain rating scale for a pt who is experiencing pain
  2. i)        The nurse should use an age appropriate pain-rating scale, such as the visual analog or numerical scale, when assessing the pain level of an adult. The FLACC pain rating scale is used for pts ages from 2 mo’s to 7 yrs
  3. b)      Ensure the bladder of the blood pressure cuff surrounds 80% of the pt’s arm
  4. i)        The nurse should use a blood pressure cuff w a bladder that surrounds 80% of pt’s arm circumference to give an accurate reading
  5. c)      Obtain an apical heart rate by auscultating at the third intercostal space left of the sternum
  6. i)        The nurse should place the stethoscope at the point of maximal impulse, which is at the 5thintercostal space at the midclavicular line left of the sternum
  7. d)     Palpate the pt’s abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds
  8. i)        When assessing an adult client’s abdomen, the nurse should auscultate bowel sounds before performing palpation in order not to change the character of the sounds

 

25)  A nurse is admitting a pt who is having an exacerbation of heart failure. In planning this pt’s care, when should the nurse initiate discharge planning?

  1. a)      During the admission process
  2. i)        Discharge planning should begin as soon as the pt is undergoing the admission process. The nurse should begin to assess the pt’s needs and plan for care both during and after the pt’s time in the facility
  3. b)      As soon as the pt’s condition is stable
  4. i)        Although it is appropriate to defer pt teaching until the pt is stable and receptive to learning, the initation of discharge planning does not depend on the pt’s physiological stability.
  5. c)      During the initial team conference
  6. i)        Team conferences facilitate discharge planning, but they are not essential for initiating the planning process
  7. d)     After consulting with the pt’s family
  8. i)        The nurse should only consult with the pt’s family if the pt gives the nurse permission to share that information. In the case of a pt who has an exacerbation of heart failure, delating discharge planning until this time could result in overlooking essential care needs.

 

26)  A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a pt who will be using a walker. Which of the following pt statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

  1. a)      “I can place an extension cord across my living room to plug in my television”
  2. i)        Extension cords should be securely fastened to the floor and should be run along the edge of the wall, if possible, to avoid the risk for tripping
  3. b)      “I will hire someone to trim the tree that hangs low over the stairs of my front porch”
  4. i)        Clearing stairs of any object that could cause the pt to trip or require them to bend over while walking will decrease the risk for falls.
  5. c)      “I will place my alarm clock on my bedroom dresser across the room”
  6. i)        Frequently used items like an alarm clock, glasses, or disposable tissues should be placed within reach, such as on the pt’s night stand. This helps to prevent the pt from needing to get up and potentially falling in the night.
  7. d)     “I will replace the old throw rug in my kitchen with a new one”
  8. i)        Using throw rugs increases the pt’s risk for falls bc they create a tripping and slipping hazard for the pt

 

27)  A nurse is performing a skin assessment for a pt who expresses concern about skin cancer. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a potential indication of a skin malignancy?

  1. a)      A lesion with uniform pigmentation
  2. i)        Variations in pigmentation are a possible indication of a skin malignancy. A lesion with uniform pigmentation is not an expected indication of a skin malignancy.
  3. b)      New appearance of petechiae
  4. i)        Petechiae are capillaries that have burst under the skin and appear as small spots on the skin. Although they can be indications of other conditions, petechiae are not an expected indication of a skin malignancy.
  5. c)      A mole with an asymmetrical appearance
  6. i)        An uneven or asymmetrical shape is a potential indication of a skin malignancy. This is manifested when part of a lesion or mole looks different from the other part.
  7. d)     The presence of a papule
  8. i)        Papules are solid elevations that are palpable in the skin and are less than 1 cm (0.39 in) in size. The are not an expected indication of a skin malignancy

 

 

 

 

 

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28)  A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a pt about self-administering heparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

  1. a)      Insert the needle at a 15* angle
  2. i)        The nurse should instruct the pt to insert the needle at a 45* to 90* angle to administer the medication into the sub tissue
  3. b)      Aspirate for blood return prior to administration
  4. i)        The nurse should instruct the pt not to aspirate for blood return bc this can cause tissue damage and bruising
  5. c)      Administering the medication into the abdomen
  6. i)        The nurse should instruct the pt to administer the medication into the abdomen at least 5.08 cm (2 in) from the umbilicus. The pt should pinch or spread the skin at the injection site to administer the medication into the sub tissue.
  7. d)     Massage the site following the injection
  8. i)        The nurse should instruct the pt not to massage the site bc this can cause tissue damage and bruising

 

29)   A nurse is reviewing evidence-based practice principles about administration of oxygen therapy with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

  1. a)      Regulate the flow rate by aligning the rate with top of the ball inside the flow meter
  2. i)        The nurse should regulate the oxygen flow rate by aligning the rate on the flow meter w the middle of the silver ball inside the meter
  3. b)      Regulate oxygen via nasal cannula at a flow rate of no more than 6 L/min
  4. i)        Evidence-based practice supports a flow rate of 1 to 6 L/min via nasal cannula. Rates above 6 L/ min have a drying effect and force pts to swallow air excessively without increasing their fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2)
  5. c)      Make sure the reservoir bag of a partial rebreathing mask remains deflated
  6. i)        The reservoir bag should inflate by one-third to one-half with inspiration. If it remains deflated, it indicates that pts are breathing in too much of the carbon dioxide they exhale
  7. d)     Use petroleum jelly to lubricate the pt’s nares, face, and lips
  8. i)        Evidence-based practice supports the use of water soluble lubricant to protect the pt’s skin from the drying effect of oxygen

 

30)  A nurse is preparing a change of shift report. Which of the following tools or documents should the nurse use to communicate continuity of care?

  1. a)      Critical pathway
  2. i)        A critical pathway is an extraprofessional approach to planning all phases of pt care
  3. b)      Situation, background, assessment, and recommendation (SBAR)
  4. i)        SBAR is a communication tool nurses use to relate a pt’s status during a change of shift report
  5. c)      Transfer report
  6. i)        The nurse should use a transfer report when the cpt is moving from one health care area or facility to another
  7. d)     Medication administration record (MAR)
  8. i)        The nurse should use the MAR to document medication administration

 

31)  A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a pt. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. a)      Administer the medication with the needle at a 45* angle
  2. i)        The nurse should insert the needle at 45* to 90* angle for a sub injection
  3. b)      Administer the medication into the pt’s nondominant arm
  4. i)        The nurse should administer enoxaparin into the abdomen, at least 5 cm (2 in) from the umbilicus
  5. c)      Pull the pt’s skin laterally or downward prior to administration
  6. i)        The z-track technique involves displacing the skin laterally or downward prior to administration of an IM injection
  7. d)     Massage the injection site after administration
  8. i)        The nurse should not massage the injection site following the injection of an anticoagulant due to the risk for bruising

 

32)  A nurse is evaluating a pt’s use of cane. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as an indication of correct use?

  1. a)      The top of the cane is parallel to the pt’s waist
  2. i)        The top of the cane should be parallel to the client’s greater trochanter
  3. b)      When walking, the pt moves the can 46 cm (18 in) forward
  4. i)        To maintain balance, the pt should advance the cane about 15 to 30 cm (6 to 12 in) at a time
  5. c)      The pt holds the cane on the stronger side of her body
  6. i)        The pt should hold the cane on the stronger side of her body to increase support and maintain alignment
  7. d)     The pt moves her stronger limb forward with one cane
  8. i)        The pt should move her weaker leg forward with the cane. The divides the pt’s body weight between the cane and stronger leg

 

 

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33)  A nurse is assessing a pt who reports increased pain following physical therapy. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask when assessing the quality of the pt’s pain?

  1. a)      “Is your pain constant or intermittent?”
  2. i)        Asking the pt whether the pain is constant or intermittent determines the onset, duration, and pattern of the pain.
  3. b)      “What would you rate your pain on a scale of 0-10?”
  4. i)        Asking the pt to rate the pain using the pain scale determines the intensity of the pain
  5. c)      “Does the pain radiate?”
  6. i)        Asking the pt whether the pain radiates determines the pain’s location
  7. d)     “Is your pain sharp or dull?”
  8. i)        Asking the pt whether the pain is sharp, dull, crushing, throbbing, aching, burning, electric-like, or shooting helps determine the quality of the pain

 

34)  A nurse is performing a home safety assessment for a pt who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which of the following observations should the nurse identify as proper safety protocol?

  1. a)      The pt uses a wool blanket on their bed
  2. i)        The pt should use a cotton blanket instead of wool blanket to avoid generating static electricity that could ignite the oxygen
  3. b)      The pt uses nonacetone nail polish remover
  4. i)        The pt should use nonflammable materials, such as nonacetone nail polish remover, while using supplemental oxygen
  5. c)      The pt stores an extra oxygen tank on its side under their bed
  6. i)        The pt should store extra oxygen tanks in upright position to maintain safety
  7. d)     The pt has a weekly inspection checklist for oxygen equipment
  8. i)        The pt or caregiver should inspect oxygen equipment daily

 

35)  A nurse is preparing to apply a dressing for a pt who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following types of dressing should the nurse use?

  1. a)      Alginate
  2. i)        Alginate dressings are used to treat stage 3 and 4 pressure injuries to absorb drainage. Alginate forms a soft gel when it comes in contact with drainage
  3. b)      Guaze
  4. i)        Moistened gauze promotes healing in stage 4 or unstageable pressure injuries by causing debridement and allowing granulation of the wound bed
  5. c)      Transparent
  6. i)        Transparent dressings promote healing in stage 1 pressure injuries by preventing further friction and shearing
  7. d)     Hydrocolloid
  8. i)        Hydrocolloid dressings promote healing in stage 2 pressure injuries by creating a moist wound be

 

36)  A nurse is caring for a pt who has a respiratory infection. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use when performing nasotracheal suctioning for the pt?

  1. a)      Insert the suction catheter while the pt is swallowing
  2. i)        The nurse should insert the suction catheter while the pt is inhaling to avoid inserting the catheter into the esophagus
  3. b)      Apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter
  4. i)        The nurse should apply intermittent suction during the withdrawal of the catheter to prevent injury to the mucosa. However, suctioning continuously for more t

 

 

 

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Question 5:     Health Care

 

A&P – Chapter 7 MC Questions

1)    Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton? a) Hyoid
b) Ribs
c) Vertebrae d) Carpals e) Sternum

2)    Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
a)    Tarsals
b)    Tibia
c)    Sphenoid
d)    Scapula
e)    Clavicle

3)    Which of the following types of bone is the femur? a) Long bone
b) Short bone c) Flat bone

  1. d) Irregular bone e) Sesamoid bone

4)    Which following types of bone is the occipital bone? a) Long bone
b) Short bone c) Flat bone

  1. d) Irregular bone e) Sesamoid bone

5)    Which following types of bones comprise the ankles and wrists? a) Long bone
b) Sutural bone c) Irregular bone d) Sesamoid bone e) Short bone

6)    An opening or hole in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves and ligaments pass is called

  1. a
    a) fissure. b) foramen. c) fossa. d) meatus. e) sulcus.7) In the diagram, which bone is the flat b
  2. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    E

8)    How many named bones are found in the adult human skeleton? a) 200
b) 206 c) 212 d) 227 e) 250

9) In the diagram, which bone is the short bone?

  1. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    E

10)    Which gender shows the coccyx pointed inferiorly? a) Females
b) Males
c) Both genders
d) The coccyx does not point inferiorly in either gender

11) In the diagram, where is the ethmoid bone?

  1. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    E

12)    Which of the vertebrae listed below would be the largest and strongest vertebra in adult humans?
a) C5 b) L4 c) T4 d) C7 e) T12

13) In the diagram, where is the lacrimal bone?

  1. a)    E
    b)    F
    c)    G
    d)    H
    e)    I

14)    What bone marking found on the second cervical vertebra projects superiorly into the anterior portion of the vertebral foramen of the atlas?
a) Primary projection b) Ocular process c) Odontoid process d) Cervical projection e) Cervix

15) In the diagram, where is the zygomatic bone?
G
b)    H
c)    I
d)    J
e)    None of these answer choices are correct.

16)    The primary function of the transverse and spinal processes of vertebrae is a) attachment site for muscles.
b) calcium storage.
c) to support the body of the vertebrae. d) to hold the hyoid in place.

  1. e) to create a passageway for the spinal cord17) In the diagram, where is the temporal bone?
  2. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    G
    e)    None of the selections are correct

18)    The two primary curves of the adult vertebral column are the a) thoracic and sacral curves.
b) lumbar and sacral curves. c) cervical and lumbar curves. d) cervical and thoracic curves. e) cervical and sacral curves.

19) In the diagram, where is the vomer?
a)    D
b)    E
c)    F
d)    I
e)    J

20)    What is the purpose of the nucleus pulposus region of intervertebral discs? a) To compress the vertebral bones
b) To help absorb vertical shock to the spinal column c) Calcium storage
d) Spinal fluid reservoir e) Muscle attachment

21) In the diagram, which bone is considered the keystone of the cranial floor?
a)    E
b)    B
c)    G
d)    H
e)    I

22)    Ribs that have costal cartilage that attaches directly to the sternum are called a) floating ribs.
b) vertebrochondral ribs. c) false ribs.
d) true ribs.
e) separated ribs.

 

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23) In the diagram, where is the ethmoid bone?
a)    J
b)    K
c)    G
d)    H
e)    I

24)    Joe was found dead. His hyoid bone was broken. What was the most likely cause of death? a) Natural causes
b) Cardiac arrest c) Gunshot
d) Strangulation e) Choking

25) In the diagram, where is the mastoid process?
a)    J
b)    K
c)    G
d)    H
e)    I

26)    The hyoid bone is suspended by ligaments and muscle that extend from the _______ of the temporal bone.
a) mastoid process b) styloid process c) occipital condyle d) zygomatic process e) superior nuchal line

27) In the diagram, where is the palatine bone?
a)    A
b)    B
c)    C
d)    D
e)    E

28)    Which bone of the axial skeleton does NOT articulate with any other bone? a) Vertebrae
b) Ethmoid c) Sternum d) Hyoid e) Ilium

29) In the diagram, where is the nasal bone?

  1. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    E

30)    This facial bone articulates with teeth. a) Lacrimal
b) Palatine c) Vomer d) Maxillae e) Nasal

 

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31) Where is the mandibular notch in the diagram?
a)    A
b)    B
c)    E
d)    F
e)    None of these answer choices are correct.

32) Where is the coronoid process in the diagram?
a)    A
b)    B
c)    E
d)    F
e)    None of these answer choices are correct.

33) This fontanel usually closes within 18 to 24 months after birth.

  1. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    Both A and C

34)    A prominent ridge or elongated projection on a bone is called a a) crest.
b) trochanter. c) sulcus. d) fossa.
e) tubercle.

35) This is largest fontanel in size at birth.

  1. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    Both A and D36) Where is the spinous process in the diagram?
  2. a)    B
    b)    C
    c)    D
    d)    E
    e)    F

37)    The tube-like passageway found in the temporal bone that allows sound waves to reach the eardrum is an example of which of the following bone surface markings?
a) fissure. b) foramen. c) fossa. d) meatus. e) sulcus.

 

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38)    Which of the cervical vertebrae contain a unique process that is responsible for the ability to move your head from side to side signifying “no”?
a)    A
b)    B
c)    C
d)    D
e)    E

39)    Which of the following is NOT a facial bone? a) Parietal
b) Nasal c) Maxillae d) Zygomatic e) Palatine

40)    Which of the cervical vertebrae are responsible for permitting the movement of the head seen when saying “yes”?
a)    A
b)    B
c)    C
d)    D
e)    E

41)    Which of the following bones is NOT visible from the anterior view of the skull? a) Parietal
b) Frontal c) Mandible d) Occipital e) Maxilla

42) Where is the vertebral body?

  1. a)    C
    b)    D
    c)    H
    d)    I
    e)    J

43)    These cranial bones contain the organs of hearing and balance, and articulate with the mandible.
a) Frontal b) Temporal c) Parietal d) Occipital e) Nasal

44) Where is the clavicular notch?

  1. a)    A
    b)    C
    c)    D
    d)    B
    e)    F

 

 

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45)    Which cranial bone is called the “keystone” of the cranial floor because it articulates with every other cranial bone?
a) Occipital b) Frontal c) Ethmoid d) Nasal e) Sphenoid

46) Where is the sternal angle?
a)    A
b)    C
c)    D
d)    E
e)    F

47)    This cranial bone is anterior to the sphenoid and posterior to the nasal bones. It contains foramina for the olfactory cranial nerve.
a) Ethmoid b) Frontal c) Palatine d) Maxilla e) Temporal

 

 

 

 Question 6:    Biology

 

(10 pts) Gene Model Checker:

Take a screenshot of your passed gene model checker page for your report (including both the left and right sides of the screen).

Explain any excused failures

 

 

(10 pts) Dot Plot

Take a screen shot of your dot plot and paste it into your report.

Discuss any problems with your gene model that you have noticed from the dot plot

 

 

(10 pts) Protein Alignment

take a screenshot of the sequence alignment. You may need to scroll down, and break it up into several screen shots to obtain the entire alignment.

does the overall length of your predicted sequence match well to the D. melanogaster orthologue? Are there large gaps (——-) in the alignment? If there are gaps, do these gaps map to a boundary between exons or in the middle of the exon? What can this mean?

 

 

(10 pts) GEP UCSC Genome Browser verification

Take of screen shot of the genome browser for your custom gene model and paste it in your report. Take three screen shots: one for the whole gene model (Custom Gene Model), one screenshot for the beginning of the gene and another for the end the gene.  Annotate (with an arrow) on the gene the START CODON and THE END CODON.

 

 

(10 pts) Conclusions

What do you conclude about your gene in terms of

Number of exons related to its orthologue in melanogaster

The identity and similarity related to its orthologue in melanogaster

Did the gene diverge from its orthologue in melanogaster?

How useful was the melanogaster gene model in figuring out the gene model for your isoform in the D. ananassae contig?

 

 

 

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Question 7:     Chemistry

 

How many grams of Cu(NO3)2 includes 96.0 g of oxygen (O) atoms?

 

Question 8:     Physics

 

An electromagnet of flux equal to 8Wb increases uniformly to 25Wb in a period of 5s. Calculate the voltage induced in a coil having 10 turns and is stationary in the magnetic field.

 

Question 9:     Psychology

 

Mental& Behavioral Health In Adolescents

 

  • What topic and research question did you pursue?
  • How is your research question relevant to your passions and interests in psychology and to your purpose?
  • Reflecting on the Library Research Knowledge Assessment, what skill areas were recommended for improvement and what skill areas did you do well on?
  • What strategies did you use to locate relevant articles?
  • Did you find Boolean commands (for example, AND, OR) confusing? What tips would you give others for learning these commands?
  • What insights did you gather about your research question?
  • What conclusions did you come to about the role of research in your future career vision?

 

 

 

 

 

 

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Question 10:   Statistics

 

Mid Semester Assignment

 

This assignment is to be your own work, though you may discuss the general concepts of the questions (e.g. which formulae are relevant etc.) with other students. Please read the following conditions and sign below to indicate you have followed them.

 

Conditions of Assessment

By signing below, you certify that:

The answers submitted are your own original work, and that all material drawn from other sources have been fully acknowledged where required.

No part of this assessment was written for you, provided to you by a third party, or was completed as a result of a third party assisting you

You have taken proper and reasonable care to prevent this work from being copied by another student.

You understand that plagiarism is the presentation of the work, idea or creation of another person as though it is your own, and is a serious academic offence. You have read and understood the policy on Academic Conduct and the University Charter of Student Rights.

Name Signature Student Number

 

  1. This test counts for 20% of your final mark for STAT1520. 2. Total Marks = 100.
    3. Where appropriate, working with reasons should be given.

Tick this box if you would like to scrap your test 1 mark and make this assignment worth 25% and test 2 worth 15%.

 

  1. (20 marks) The daily demand D for vegetarian pies at a bakery ranges between 0 and 5 and has the probability distribution given below.

(a)  What is the mean and variance of the demand for vegetarian pies each day? [5 marks]

(b)  All baking is done at the start of the day so there is no chance to make more during the day, however the bakery has to throw away any unsold pies at the end of the day.

If the bakery sells vegetarian pies at $4 per pie and they cost $1 each to produce, what is the mean and variance in the profit from vegetarian pies each day, if they make 5 vegetarian pies? [5 marks]

(c)  The bakery could make less than 5 pies at the start of the day to reduce wastage but that could possibly leave unfulfilled demand (assume in this question that the only veg- etarian option the bakery makes is these vegetarian pies and so if a customer wants a vegetarian pie and one is not available then they will walk away from the shop and not buy anything).

What is the optimal number of pies (between 1 and 5) to make at the start of the day

in order to maximize expected profit?

[10 marks]

3

  1. (14 marks) An optometrist sells frames in 3 price levels: $75 per frame, $150 per frame and $250 per frame. Customers purchase 1, 2 or 3 pairs of frames (we will assume that when a customer purchases multiple pairs of frames that they purchase all types from the same level). If X = the number of pairs of frames that a customer buys and Y = the price level at which the customer buys the frames, then the joint distribution of random variables X and Y is given in the table below.

y 75 150 250 pX(x) x

1 2 3

pY (y)

(a) Calculate E(X) and interpret it in the context of this question

 

(b) Calculate E(Y ) and interpret it in the context of this question (c) Calculate E(XY ) and interpret it in the context of this question

 

 

 

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(d) Calculate Cov(X, Y ) and interpret it in the context of this question (e) Are the random variables X and Y independent? Justify your answer.

 

[3 marks] [3 marks] [3 marks] [3 marks] [2 marks]

0.2

0.1 0.05

0.1 0 0.3 0.2

0 0.05

 

  1. (20 marks) Let X be the weight of flour (in g) contained in a 1kg bag of flour made by a certain company and assume X ∼ U (980, 1030).

 

(a)  Draw the graph of the pdf of X.

(b)  What is the mean and variance of X?

(c)  What is the probability that the bag of flour has less than 1kg of flour in it?

[4 marks] [2 marks] [2 marks]

(d)  If I take 20 bags of flour from the production line today, what is the probability that more than 10 of them will weigh less than 1kg? (Assume the weight of each of them follows the same distribution as above.) [4 marks]

(e)  The owner of this factory feels that the probability of a bag of flour weighing less than 1kg is too high, and adjusts the flour dispensing machine to try and reduce this probability. She randomly selects 15 bags of flour from the next day’s production and 3 of them are found to weigh less than 1kg. Conduct a hypothesis test to decide if there is enough evidence that she has reduced the probability of a bag of flour containing less than 1kg.

[8 marks]

 

Note: Parts (d) and (e) require you to use the probability from part (c), if for some reason you could not get an answer for part (c) perhaps pretend the answer to part (c) was 0.5. That is not correct but you will get follow on marks.

 

  1. (37 marks) Your client is planning to invest some money with your investment company. The client narrows their options down to 2 investment strategies X and Y , and from past experience the annual percentage returns are as follows: X ∼ N(3,12) and Y ∼ N(5,32).

 

(a)  For each investment strategy, calculate the probability of a negative return. [4 marks]

 

(b)  For each investment strategy, calculate the probability of return greater than 5.5%. [4 marks]

 

(c)  Describe the advice you might give to your client about these two investments depending on whether they were risk averse or a risk taker. [2 marks]

 

(d)  Find k such that P(X > k) = P(Y > k) Do not simply solve this by trial and error, you need to show working out as to how your proved this. [4 marks]

 

(e)  Assume that within the same year Cor(X,Y) = 2 and that X and Y are bivariate 3

normal. Remember X and Y being bivariate normal just means that sums of X and Y will still follow a normal distribution. Then answer the following questions:

 

(i)  If your client invests half of their money in each investment type, what are the mean and variance of their annual return? [6 marks]

(ii)  If your client invest a fraction k of their money in investment type X and the rest in Y (ie 0 ≤ k ≤ 1), what are the mean and variance of their annual return in terms of k? [5 marks]

(iii)  If your client invest a fraction k of their money in investment type X and the rest in Y (ie 0 ≤ k ≤ 1), what value of k makes the probability of their investment achieving a negative return equal to 1%. [6 marks]

 

Note: this is a very difficult question and will require working with a quadratic function. Just do your best.

 

 

(f) If the client was investing the money for 10 years in investment type Y , one way to think

about this would be that the return in the first year is Y1 ∼ N(5,3) and the return in

the 2nd year is Y2 ∼ N(5,3), …, and finally the return in the 10th year is Y10 ∼ N(5,3)

We could then define the average return as AY = Y1+Y2+…+Y10 , assuming the returns are 10

 

independent from year to year calculate the distribution of this average return for AY . Would you change your advice for the risk averse and risk taking clients that you had in

 

(c) regarding investment Y if their investment was for 10 years? [6 marks] Note: The geometric average would probably be a better indicator of average return

but that is beyond the scope of this course.

 

  1. (9 marks) The number of teachers who call in sick on a any given day at a particular school follows a Poisson distribution with a mean of 1.

 

(a)  What is the probability that exactly 1 teacher will call in sick on a given day?
[1 mark]

 

(b)  What is the probability that more than 3 teachers will call in sick on a given day? [1 mark]

 

(c)  If there are 5 schools in a local district and the number of staff calling in sick followed the same distribution as above and we assume that each school is independent of any other school, what distribution does the total number of teachers who call in sick across all schools follow? [2 marks]

 

(d)  When teachers call in sick, the school either rearranges existing teacher’s timetables to cover or has to call in casual relief staff, or a combination of both. The following table shows the expenses incurred by a single school according to the number of teachers who call in sick.

 

Number sick teachers 0−1 2−3 4 5+ Cost to School $0 $400 $600 $1000

 

What is the expected daily cost due to sick teachers in a school? [5 marks]

 

 

 

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Question 11:   Psychology

 

Instruction

For the Final Project, you will select a person for whom you will complete a diagnostic battery. The person and his/her history should be connected to some legal issue, be it criminal, civil, or juvenile. The person can be a public figure or a fictional character from a book, a movie, or a TV show who is related to the legal process. As you progress through the reading and assignments in the remaining weeks, think about how you might want to develop your Final Project. The Learning Resources, the Discussions, and the Application Assignments all will assist you in completing each section of the Final Project. Your Final Project will contain the following sections: Introduction of the person or the character you are diagnosing Background of the person and presenting information, including the legal issue he or she has encountered Data collection methods (testing, interviews, observation, etc.) Diagnosis Related psychosocial and family issues Related career and vocational issues Proposed treatment and intervention options Continuing assessment and proposed follow-up Potential legal and ethical issues

 

 

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Question 12:               Business

 

Research the firm advertising the position (https://jobs.netflix.com/jobs/871897). What business and industry are they in? What is their product or service? Find the firm’s 10K information and review section 1. What are the key factors driving their business? What information is relevant regarding customers, competitors, sales, goals, staff, turnover, organizational structure, etc.? Is the firm doing well? Are there recent newsworthy issues regarding this firm or industry? What are trade publications, newspapers, industry publications, and social media saying about the firm/industry overall? Research the compensation package typical of this job for this industry

 

 

Question 13:               Business

 

Comment on one of the following two questions: 1) Considering the emerging technologies (AI, Bitcoin, Block chain, High Frequency Trading, etc.) that impact financial decision making, how would you go about recommending any or all of these tools into your company/division/agency? 2) Note that these technologies are all still emerging and with the exception of high frequency trading, none of them is fully implemented on a widespread basis. What are the constraints? What are the major concerns? For example, what would prevent you from dumping your bank account and working entirely with Bitcoin? Would you be comfortable banking at an institution that replaced human tellers with Alexa?

 

 

 

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Question 14:                Statistics

 

 

Assignment #4

  1. A researcher hypothesizes that juveniles will have a greater number of police contacts than will adults. Identify the type of hypothesis and whether a one –tailed or two-tailed test is warranted.
  2. A statement of no difference is known as what type of hypothesis?
  3. If a researcher fails to reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is false, the researcher committed what type of error?
  4. A researcher hypothesizes a difference in disciplinary infractions between a sample of inmates who participated in an anger management program and the population of inmates who did not participate in the program. Write the research and null hypotheses in both text and notational form.

 

Assignment 3

  1.     1. Imagine that we survey a group of student workers at in Hannah Hall and find that the average hourly wage is $14.25 with a standard deviation of $1.80.
  2.      a.What is the z-scores for an employee who makes $15.00 per hour?
  3.     what is the z-scores for an employee who makes $13.50 per hour?
  4.     c.  What is the z-scores for an employee who makes $17.50 per hour?

 

  1.     2. Imagine that we survey a group of fire fighters and find that the average annual family income is $67,525. We also find that the standard deviation for these communities is $6,330.
  2. What is the z-scores for a community with a median income of $36,000?
  3. What is the z-scores for a community with a median income of $60,000?

 

  1.    3.      Use the table below to answer the questions below:  
Column A

Z score

Column B

Area Between the mean and Z

Column C

Area beyond the Z score

.12 .0478 .4522
1.40 .4192 .0808
1.41 .4207 .0793
1.42 .4222 .0778
1.43 .4236 .0762
1.44 .4251 .0749
1.45 .4265 .0735
1.46 .4279 .0721
1.47 .4292 .0708
1.48 .4306 .0694
1.49 .4319 .0681

 

  1. What is the probability of obtaining a score between z = 1.40 and the mean?
  2. What is the probability of obtaining a score beyond z = 1.48 and the mean?
  3. What is the probability of obtaining a score between z = 1.40 and the mean?
  4. What is the probability of obtaining a score beyond z = .12 and the mean?

The following students are enrolled in a course in a criminal justice class. They are listed along with their year in school and whether they are majoring in criminal justice. Use the information to answer the following questions below:

Student Year Criminal Justice Major
1 Sophmore  Yes
2 Senior  No
3 Junior  Yes
4 Freshman  No
5 Freshman  Yes
6 Sophmore  Yes
7 Sophmore  Yes
8 Junior  No
9 Sophmore  Yes
10 Sophmore  No

 

  1. What is the probability of selecting at random from this class
  2. a sophomore?
  3. a student majoring in sociology?
  4. a freshman or a sophomore?
  5. not a freshman?

 

  1. What is the probability of any given score falling within the following range?
  2. ±1σ from the mean

b.±2σ from the mean

c.±3σ from the mean

  1. Suppose probation officer caseloads have a mean of 115 offenders and a standard deviations of 10. Assuming caseload sizes are normally distributed, determine
  2. the probability that a particular probation officer has a caseload between 90 and 105.
  3. the probability that a particular probation officer has a caseload larger than 135.
  4. the probability that four probation officers have a caseload larger than 135.

 

 

 

 

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Question 15:               Sociology

 

Write an essay over the chapters 8-10. The book is Titled Clothing Poverty: Brooks, A. (2015). Clothing poverty: The hidden world of fast fashion and second-hand clothes.(so that you can locate the book online.)

Mini essays are your chance to analyze and reflect on the topic via your readings. Create a clear thesis statement and craft your essay around supporting and explaining this thesis.

For this essay, you should draw evidence primarily from the book Clothing Poverty.

Your essay should be approximately 600-900 words and should demonstrate that you have completed the book and have engaged in thoughtful consideration of the themes contained within. Essays do not need a title page. They should be single spaced, 12-point font, with a reference list and in-text citations. Students should use APA style for citations (Links to an external site.).

Please upload your essay as a Word doc/docx.

If you are unsure of how to cite something for your reference list, please check Purdue OWL here: https://owl.purdue.edu/owl/research_and_citation/apa_style/apa_formatting_and_style_guide/reference_list_basic_rules.html

Choose a theme from the book Clothing Poverty: The Hidden World of Fast Fashion and Second-hand Clothes.

Please read the three chapters and select a theme based on the readings.

Please use12 font, times new roman, and APA format. Use in text citations as well.

 

 

Question 16:               History

Which of these two ancient mysteries—King Tut and the Pyramids of Giza—interests you the most? Why?

  • Share two reasons why you find your choice interesting.
  • What is it about these two mysteries that have captivated us for centuries?

Question 17:               General Question

 

NSG 6430 Final Exam (2020): South University Graded A Score 100%

NSG 6430 Final Exam (2020): South University Graded A Score 100%

 

Question 18:               History

 

Answer the following essay in about 600-700 words.  (40 points).  Make sure your organize your essay into paragraphs with a well-stated opening and closing paragraph.

 

There are forces that are pulling the world together in the 21st century and forces that are pulling it apart. What forces are pulling the world together in the 21st century?  How do these forces compare with those pulling it apart?  Discuss these two questions and apply two lessons learned from the period of history studied this term.

 

Question 19:               Mathematics

 

MATH225N Week 8 Final Exam Question and Answers (2 Latest Versions, 2020) : Chamberlain College of Nursing (Already graded A)

 

Question 20:               Nursing

 

As the school nurse working in a college health clinic, you see many opportunities to promote health. Maria is a 40-year-old Hispanic who is in her second year of nursing school. She complains of a 14-pound weight gain since starting school and is afraid of what this will do to both her appearance and health if the trend continues. After conducting her history, you learn that she is an excellent cook and she and her family love to eat foods that reflect their Hispanic heritage. She is married with two school-age children. She attends class a total of 15 hours per week, plus she must be present for 12 hours of labs and clinical. She maintains the household essentially by herself and does all the shopping, cooking, cleaning, and chauffeuring of the children. She states that she is lucky to get 6 hours of sleep per night, but that is okay with her. She lives 1 hour from campus and commutes each day. Using Healthy People 2020 (Links to an external site.) Links to an external site. and your text as a guide, answer the following questions.

  1. What additional information would you like to gather from Maria?
  2. What are Maria’s real and potential health risks?
  3. Why is Maria’s culture important when obtaining the health assessment?
  4. Pick one of Maria’s health risks. What would be one reasonable short-term goal for this risk?
  5. What nursing interventions would you incorporate into Maria’s plan of care to assist her with meeting your chosen goal? Please provide rationale for your selections.

 

Question 21:               Biology

 

  • Why Study Biology?
  • What is Life?
  • What About?
  • How do we ask and answer questions Scientifically?
  • Role of Experiments
  • Experimental Design
  • Experimental Problems
  • Higher Levels of Organization
  • Scientific Names
  • Categories of Biological Classification
  • Three Domains with Six Kingdoms
  • 1 Eularyotic Domain with 4 Kingdoms
  • Fungi
  • Plants
  • Animals
  • Animal Cell Features
  • History of Microscopes & Cells
  • Cell Theory
  • Plasma Membrane: Fluid Mosaic Model
  • Components of Nucleus

 

 

Question 22:               Accounting

 

1c. A basic difference between microeconomics and macroeconomics is:

 

2c. The distinction between positive and normative economics is that:    

 

9d. If the price of computers increases from $1,000 to 1,500, what will happen to the computer market?     

                                                                                                               

10b. In an effort to support family orange growing businesses, the government sets a maximum price of $6 for a gallon of orange juice. The current market price for orange juice is $7 for a gallon. The government’s action will have what effect on the orange juice market?                                                                                                                                  

11d. Producer surplus is the                                    

                                                                    

12e. An improvement in the technology used in the production of automobiles and a decrease in the input costs of production will most likely cause the price and quantity of automobiles to change in which of the following ways?       

                                        

13c. A decrease in the price of silicon chips (used in computers) and a decrease in tariffs for a computer parts will affect the domestic computer price and quantity in which of the

 

14e. All of the following might reasonably be expected to shift the demand curve for beef to a new position except            

                                                                                                 

15c. Changes in demand are caused by:     

                                                                     

16a. In an effort to support family orange growing business, the government sets a minimum price of $6 for a gallon of orange juice. The current market price for orange juice is $5 for a gallon. The government‘s actions will have what effect on the orange juice market?                                                                                                                                             

 17d. A firm increases the price of its product and finds that its total revenue increases. Which of the following best describes why this happened?      

                                    

18d. If a firm faces a relatively inelastic demand for its product and the price of the product drops, the firm can expect that             

                                                                                         

19b. Using the above graph, if the market for frankfurters is left unregulated, the market

 

20d. If the government were to establish an effective price ceiling as indicated in the graph, the market price and quantity sold would be:          

                                                                      

21e. If the government were to establish an effective price ceiling as indicated in the graph, the result would be a                 

                                                                                       

22e. If there were no government interference in this market, and the market equilibrium price and quantity were to prevail, the consumer surplus would be the area       

                           

23d. If there were no government interference in this market and the market equilibrium price and quantity were to prevail, the producer surplus would be the area           

                

24d. If the price of lunch at a school cafeteria increases and the cafeteria’s revenue increases, the elasticity of demand for a school lunch must be            

                                                

25c. Assuming that good A and good B currently sell at the same price. Good A is more elastic than good B. Both goods A and B experience a 10% increase in price, then:      

       

26a. In the long run, a perfectly competitive firm will achieve all BUT which of the following:          

                                                                                                                          

 

 

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27e. On the graph above, what is the area of total revenue at the profit-maximizing price?         

 

28c. On the graph above, what is the area of total cost at the profit-maximizing quantity?     

 

29c.  The area of deadweight loss or welfare loss to society at the profit-maximizing price and quantity is:                                                                                                                           

  1. The monopoly maximizes total revenue at quantity:    

                                                        

31c. Frictional unemployment is   

                                                                                                  

33b. Investment spurs growth of potential output because it increases       

                                      

34a. Technological improvement causes                                                         

                             

                 

36c. Suppose that the government increases spending by $100 billion. If everything else stays constant and the marginal propensity to consume is 0.8, the value of equilibrium output increases by        

                                                                                                                          

37a. If the economy is currently on the intermediate section of the SRAS curve, when aggregate demand increases,      

                                                                                              

38c. An expansionary fiscal policy would be the one that     

                                                              

39e. Aggregate demand reflects the willingness and capability of which of the following to purchase a quantity of goods and services at any price level?

 

40d. An increase in the price level will        

                                                                                      

41a. If $100 billion were added to an economy through government spending and the marginal propensity to save is 25, what would be the maximum increase in output in the economy?                                                                                                                                             

                        

43e. If firms entering an industry that is monopolistically competitive, we would expect       

      

44c. To decrease the money supply, the FED can               

                                                        

45a. In the short run, combining an expansionary fiscal policy with a tight money policy is most likely to cause                 

                                                                                                            

                                                                                                                                  

47c. In the short run, how will an increase in aggregate demand most likely affect the overall price level and real GDP?               

                                                                                         

49b. When inflation rises quickly:

 

 

 

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50d. Use this information to answer the next question. All numbers are in millions.                

What is the unemployment rate for the nation?                                                                           

 

Question 23:   Accounting

1)    The financial system is primarily a means by which    1)
A)    funds are transferred from savers to borrowers.
B)    the government puts into operation its plans for the economy.
C)    business firms distribute their goods.
D)    money is put into circulation.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
2)    Which of the following is NOT a financial asset?    2)
A)    Wells Fargo Bank    B) a home mortgage loan
C) a certificate of deposit    D) a bond issued by Google
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 2
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
3)    If you buy a bond issued by Intel, the bond is a(n):    3)
A)    liability to both you and Intel.    B) asset to both you and Intel.
C) liability to you and an asset to Intel.    D) liability to Intel and an asset to you.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
4)    Which of the following forms the largest share of household holdings of financial assets?    4)
A)    corporate equities    B) life insurance
C) bank deposits    D) pension funds reserves
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 9
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
5)    Which of the following is NOT a key financial service provided by the financial system?
A)    profitability    B) risk sharing    C) information    D) liquidity
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12-­‐13 Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

6)    Economists define risk as
A)    the difference between the return on common stock and the return on corporate bonds.
B)    the chance that the value of financial assets will change from what you expect.
C)    the difference between the interest rate borrowers pay and the interest rate lenders receive.
D)    the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for other assets or for goods and services.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 12
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
7)    Economists define liquidity as
A)    the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for money.
B)    the fraction the asset makes up of an investor’ʹs portfolio.
C)    the difference between the return on the asset and the return on a long-­‐term U.S. Treasury bond.
D)    the difference between the total demand for an asset and the total supply of the asset.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
8)    Which of the following assets is the most liquid?
A)    computer    B) U.S. Treasury bond
C) washing machine    D) money market mutual fund
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
9)    By providing and communicating information, the financial system
A)    reduces the difference between the return on three-­‐month U.S. Treasury bills and the return on thirty-­‐year U.S. Treasury bonds.
B)    relieves individual savers from the necessity of searching out individual borrowers.
C)    guarantees investors a reasonable return on their money.
D)    eliminates the risk in investing in the stock market.
Diff:  2  Page  Ref:  13-­‐14  Topic:
financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
10)    Financial securities that represent partial ownership of a corporation are known as
A)    bonds.    B) dividends.    C) stocks.    D) coupons.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 3

 

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Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
11)    Securitization is the process of    11)
A)    issuing stocks to finance capital spending.
B)    converting loans into securities.
C)    issuing bonds to finance purchases of equipment and structures.
D)    reducing risk by decreasing corporate debt loads.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
12)    If a bank grants you a mortgage, the mortgage is
A)    an asset to you as well as an asset to the bank. B)a liability to you as well as a liability to the bank.
C)    a liability to you, but an asset to the bank. D) an asset to you, but a liability to the bank.

Diff: 2    Page Ref: 4 Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

13)    Financial markets    13)
A)    act as go-­‐between by holding a portfolio of assets and issuing claims based on that portfolio to savers.
B)    channel funds indirectly between borrowers and lenders.
C)    channel funds directly from lenders to borrowers.
D)    generally provide lenders with lower returns than do financial intermediaries.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 4 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

14)    If you purchase a Treasury bond, the Treasury bond is    14)
A)    a liability to you, but an asset to the U.S. government.
B)    a liability to you as well as a liability to the U.S. government.
C)    an asset to you as well as an asset to the U.S. government.
D)    an asset to you, but a liability to the U.S. government.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

15)    Which president said, “ʺProsperity is just around the corner”ʺ?
A)    Franklin Delano Roosevelt near the start of the Great Depression
B)    George W. Bush near the start of the Great Recession
C)    Herbert Hoover near the start of the Great Depression
D)    Barack Obama near the start of the Great Recession
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

16)    Funds flow from lenders to borrowers
A)    primarily through government agencies.
B)    indirectly through financial intermediaries.
C)    indirectly through financial markets.
D)    directly through financial intermediaries.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
17)    Which of the following is NOT a financial intermediary?
A)    Vanguard Total Stock Market Index Fund
B)    Bank of America
C)    NASDAQ
D)    Allstate Insurance Company
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
18)    Which of the following is NOT a financial intermediary?
A)    bank    B) stock exchange
C) mutual fund    D) insurance company
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
19)    The main role of financial intermediaries is to
A)    provide advice to consumers on how they should handle their finances.
B)    provide funds to the federal government to cover the budget deficit.
C)    help ensure that there is enough money in circulation.
D)    borrow funds from savers and lend them to borrowers.

20)    Financial intermediaries
A)    include the New York and American Stock exchanges.
B)    directly issue claims on individual borrowers to savers.
C)    include banks and other depository institutions.
D)    are owned and operated by the federal government.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21)    A “ʺprimary market”ʺ is a market
A)    in which newly issued claims are sold by savers to borrowers.
B)    for debt by large or “ʺprimary”ʺ corporations.
C)    in which newly issued claims are sold to buyers by borrowers.
D)    for government securities.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 9
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
22)    A bank lending depositors’ʹ money to a local business and a pension fund investing contributions in shares of a company are similar financial activities in that
A)    both involve a reduction in the overall level of liquidity in the financial system.
B)    both involve in an increase in the overall level of risk in the financial system.
C)    both involve the use of financial markets.
D)    both involve funds being channeled from savers to borrowers through financial intermediaries.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4, 8 Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
23)    The leading federal regulatory body for financial markets in the United States is the A) Securities and Exchange Commission.    B) Federal Financial Market Bureau.
C) Investors Protection Agency.    D) Federal Bureau of Investigation.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 10

Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
24)    Economists define money as 24)
A)    cash in circulation.
B)    bonds issued by large corporations.
C)    anything that people are willing to accept in payment for goods and services or to pay off debts.
D)    deposits in commercial banks.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 3

Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

25)    The Federal Reserve System    25)
A)    is headed by the Secretary of the Treasury.
B)    is the central bank of the United States.
C)    is in charge of managing the New York Stock Exchange.

  1. D)    is responsible for conducting fiscal policy for the United States.
    Diff: 1    Page Ref: 11
    Topic: Federal Reserve
    Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

26)    Monetary policy refers to the government’s    26)
A)    plans for retiring the national debt.
B)    management of the money supply and interest rates to achieve macroeconomic objectives.

  1. C)    decisions on how much money to collect in taxes.
    D)    decisions on how much money to spend.
    Diff: 1    Page Ref: 11 Topic: Federal Reserve
    Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

 

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27)    Diversification refers to the    27)
A)    difference between the liquidity of an asset and its risk.
B)    difficulty of converting investments in common stocks into investments in bonds.
C)    difficulty of selling common stocks in a weak market.
D)    splitting of wealth into many assets.

28)    The purpose of diversification is to
A)    increase the liquidity of a financial portfolio.
B)    reduce tax liability.
C)    reduce risk.
D)    reduce the brokerage fees involved in managing a financial portfolio.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
29)    The financial system provides risk sharing by allowing A) borrowers to obtain funds either directly or indirectly.
B)    savers to earn interest tax-­‐free.
C)    savers to hold many assets.
D)    borrowers to convert liabilities into assets.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
30)    Liquidity
A)    was declining for many financial assets during the 1990s.
B)    is a characteristic of money, and of no other asset.
C)    is the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for money.
D)    is the best available measure of the riskiness of an asset.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
31)    Which of the following assets is the least liquid?
A)    treasury bond    B) stock
C) money market mutual fund    D) house
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
32)    Increased liquidity in recent decades has reduced interest rates on which of the following assets (holding constant all other things that affect interest rates)?
A)    bonds issued by state governments    B) business loans
C) U.S. government bonds    D) bonds issued by large corporations

33)    The financial system performs the role of communicating information by    33)
A)    incorporating all available information into the prices of financial assets.
B)    constantly increasing the liquidity of most assets.
C)    providing to investors for a nominal charge all government reports available about a particular company.
D)    constantly reducing the riskiness of most assets.

34)    The distinguishing feature of a well-­‐functioning financial market is the
A)    continual reduction in the riskiness of most assets.
B)    increased ease of converting common stocks into bonds.
C)    continual increase in the liquidity of most assets.
D)    incorporation of available information into asset prices.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 14
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
35)    In the United States, monetary policy is carried out by
A)    the Federal Reserve System.
B)    Congress and the President acting together.
C)    the President.
D)    Congress.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 11
Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

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36)    In the United States, the lender of last resort is
A)    Fannie Mae.
B)    Securities and Exchange Commission.
C)    the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
D)    the Federal Reserve.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 11 Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
37)    A decline in bank lending has the most significant effect on
A)    large businesses.    B) federal government.
C) small businesses.    D) state governments.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 6
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

38)    What made the recession of 2007-­‐2009 different than any other recession since the Great Depression?
A)    it was accompanied by a financial crisis
B)    the Fed failed to reduce interest rates
C)    the impact was primarily limited to the financial sector
D)    the government did not implement a fiscal stimulus
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
39)    All of the following took place during the economic crisis that began in 2007 EXCEPT:
A)    there was a devastating decline in the production of goods and services throughout the economy
B)    large portions of the U.S. economy were cut off from the funds they needed to thrive
C)    the financial system was disrupted
D)    unlike households, most businesses still had easy access to funds
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
40)    Owners of small firms in countries with weak banking systems have to rely on funds from all of the following EXCEPT:
A)    the savings of relatives and friends
B)    their own savings
C)    global investors
D)    local lenders who charge high interest rates

41)    All of the following accurately describe microlending EXCEPT:
A)    it involves small loans
B)    lending is primarily undertaken by the government
C)    many economists think it has aided economic growth in many low-­‐income countries
D)    the borrowers are people who are attempting to start or expand a small business

Diff: 1    Page Ref: 6 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

42)    Which of the following does NOT describe the relationship between banks and small business during the 2000s (prior to the financial crisis)?
A)    Many small businesses were receiving loans from regional and national banks.
B)    Fewer small businesses received loans as banks shifted their focus to mortgages.
C)    More banks became convinced that it would be profitable to loosen their loan guidelines to make more borrowers eligible to receive credit.
D)    Banks typically applied fixed guidelines for granting loans, leaving little room for personal judgment.

Diff: 2    Page Ref: 7 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
43)    The process by which investment banks guarantee a certain price to a firm issuing stocks or bonds is known as:
A)    securitization    B) underwriting
C) proprietary trading    D) microlending
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 8
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
44)    Investment banks do NOT engage in which of the following?
A)    securitization    B) proprietary trading
C) underwriting    D) lending to households
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 8
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
45)    All of the following represent returns to savers EXCEPT:
A)    coupon payments on bonds    B) interest on deposits
C) dividends on stocks    D) fees on loans

46)    Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac both    50)
A)    help regulate the banking system.
B)    reduce access to funds for mortgages by purchasing existing mortgages.
C)    sell bonds to investors and use the funds to purchase mortgages.
D)    directly lend funds to people seeking mortgages.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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51)    All of the following are examples of risky mortgages that became more common in the 2000s EXCEPT
A)    alt-­‐A mortgages.
B)    mortgages requiring down payments of at least 20%.
C)    adjustable-­‐rate mortgages with low rates for a few years and then higher rates in later years.
D)    subprime mortgages.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
52)    Which of the following best describes a “ʺbubble”ʺ?
A)    when bond prices rise more quickly than stock prices B)an unsustainable increase in the price of a class of assets

  1. C)    when the price of an asset reaches a new high D) rapid increases in inflation

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

53)    All of the following were significant changes in the mortgage market in the 2000s EXCEPT
A)    lenders loosened lending standards.
B)    borrowers tended to increase the amount of their down payments.
C)    mortgage-­‐backed securities became more popular with investors.
D)    investment banks became significant participants in the secondary mortgage market.
Diff:  2  Page  Ref:  15-­‐16  Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
54)    Which type of borrowers were least likely to default in their mortgage at the beginning of the financial crisis?
A)    those with fixed-­‐rate mortgages who made large down payments
B)    those with adjustable-­‐rate mortgages
C)    subprime borrowers
D)    those with alt-­‐A loans
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
55)    The Troubled Asset Relief Program (TARP) allowed    55)
A)    the Fed to make loans to banks as the lender of last resort.
B)    the Treasury to inject funds into commercial banks in return for stock in the banks.

 

 

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  1. C)    the Fed to provide funds to commercial banks in return for stock.
    D)    the Treasury to insure bank deposits at major U.S. banks.
    Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
    financial crisis
    Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

56)    Which firm did the Treasury allow to fail during the financial crisis?    56)
A)    J.P. Morgan    B) American International Group (AIG)
C) Bear Stearns    D) Lehman Brothers
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

57)    Alt-­‐A borrowers were those who
A)    borrowed using “ʺinterest-­‐only”ʺ mortgages.
B)    did not provide documentation of their income when applying for a mortgage.
C)    chose adjustable-­‐rate mortgages instead of fixed-­‐rate mortgages.
D)    used mortgages to purchase apartments.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
58)    The financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 worsened after the failure of which firm?
A)    American International Group (AIG)    B) General Motors
C) Bear Stearns    D) Lehman Brothers
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
59)    At the beginning of the financial crisis, banks were hurt by all of the following EXCEPT
A)    declines in the value of mortgage-­‐backed securities.
B)    holding too many Treasury bonds.
C)    defaults on mortgages by those with subprime mortgages.
D)    not being repaid on loans to real estate developers.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

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60)    Borrowers who stated but did not document their incomes are referred to as:    60)
A)    alt A    B) securitized    C) adjustable    D) subprime
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 16
Topic: financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

61)    The Fed and Treasury took action to restore the flow of funds from savers to borrowers in order to    61)
encourage all of the following EXCEPT:
A)    increase the likelihood of purchases of houses
B)    allow firms to finance purchases of structures and equipment
C)    increase the return to savers
D)    enable households to purchase durable goods
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

Chapter 2

1)    An important reason why economies at an early stage of development tend to operate inefficiently    1) is
A)    they tend to have authoritarian governments that stifle innovation.
B)    they tend to be dominated by the agricultural sector, where productivity is usually low.
C)    the high transactions costs associated with barter.
D)    they tend to be plagued by superstitious beliefs that stifle innovation.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

2)    By “ʺspecialization”ʺ economists mean a situation where 2)
A)    goods are traded directly for goods and money is not used.
B)    individuals produce the goods or services for which they have relatively the best ability.
C)    individuals who produce goods do not also produce services and individuals who produce services do not also produce goods.
D)    individuals are assigned to occupations on the basis of tests that gauge their relative abilities.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system

 

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AACSB: Reflective Thinking

3)    The most important economic benefit from specialization is  that it    3)
A)    eliminates the need for financial markets.
B)    makes it possible for an economy to begin using money.
C)    makes barter possible.
D)    leads to an increase in the standard of living in an economy.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
4)    When an economy relies on specialization,    4)
A)    each individual in the economy produces the goods or services for which he or she has relatively the best ability.
B)    the economy will usually be heavily agricultural.
C)    each individual will be assigned by the government to produce that good or service the government believes the economy should specialize in. D) the economy will generally produce only one product.

Diff: 2    Page Ref: 26 Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

5)    Fundamentally, to reap the benefits of specialization, an economy must    5)
A)    have an extensive system of higher education.
B)    develop ways for individuals to trade goods with one another.
C)    be heavily agricultural.
D)    be heavily industrial.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
6)    Barter is    6)
A)    the basis for economic specialization.
B)    the main system of exchange in the United States today.
C)    another name for money.
D)    an exchange of goods and services directly for goods and services.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
7)    Under a system of barter    7)

A)    currency is accepted for purchases, but personal checks are not.
B)    goods may be traded for money, but money may not be traded for goods.
C)    each individual trades output directly with another.
D)    only agricultural goods may be traded.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

 

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8)    Which of the following is an example of a barter transaction? 8)
A)    An individual pays her electric bill with a check.
B)    An individual provides three light bulbs to her neighbor in exchange for two gallons of milk.
C)    An individual pays her electric bill with currency.
D)    An individual deposits three twenty-­‐dollar bills in her checking account.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
9)    In a barter system individuals    9)
A)    will almost invariably specialize.
B)    find it impossible to specialize.
C)    find it difficult to specialize, but may be able to do so.
D)    must be entirely self-­‐sufficient.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

10)    A system of barter has substantial transactions costs because 10)
A)    the uncertainties of trade result in high legal fees being incurred to draw up binding contracts.
B)    taxes under such a system are generally a large fraction of the value of output.
C)    the uncertainties of trade result in high insurance premiums.
D)    traders must spend considerable time searching for trading partners.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

11)    Under a barter system
A)    each good has a single price.
C) no prices for goods exist.

  1. B)    prices for goods are very stable.
    D)    each good has many prices.Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
    Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

12)    How many prices would there be in a barter economy with 100 goods? 12)
A) 100    B) 1,000 C) 10,000    D) 4,950

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

13)    The problem of a double coincidence of wants refers to13)
A)    poorly-­‐managed companies producing what consumers want only by coincidence.
B)    the likelihood that needs will not be the same as wants.
C)    the insatiability of wants in a free market economy.
D)    the necessity in a barter system of each trading partner wanting what the other has to trade.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

14)    Andy can’t make a deal with Danny. Andy has a Alex Rodriguez baseball card and would like to trade it to Danny for Danny’ʹs Albert Pujols card, but Danny doesn’ʹt want a Alex Rodriquez card.   Andy’ʹs   problem   illustrates   the   drawback   to   a   barter   system   known   as   A)   the specialization problem.
B)    the transactions problem.
C)    the many prices problem.
D)    the double coincidence of wants problem.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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15)    Which of the following is NOT a significant cost that a barter system imposes on an economy?
A)    Many prices must be maintained for each good.
B)    The costs arising from the problem of finding two people who each want what the other produces.
C)    Specialization of labor is hindered.
D)    Only agricultural goods may be traded.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
16)    Which of the following is the most efficient means of trade?
A)    government rationing
B)    barter
C)    money
D)    the combination of barter with some government rationing
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
17)    In Moscow in 1989, what were taxi drivers using as a medium of exchange?
A)    Marlboro cigarettes    B) Russian rubles
C) gold coins    D) caviar

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 26 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

18)    Money eliminates the need for
A)    people to have a double coincidence of wants.
B)    specialization.
C)    the market system.
D)    any government role in the economy.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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19)    Using a good as a medium of exchange confers the benefit that    19)
A)    the need for specialization is reduced.
B)    the need for a double coincidence of wants is greatly increased.
C)    the need to quote so many prices in trade is reduced.
D)    transactions costs are increased, but they now may be paid in money terms.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

20)    Commodity money can best be described as    20)
A)    standardized goods like gold that trade in a financial market
B)    a good used as money that also has value independent of its use as money C) the form of money used in a barter system
D) money used to purchase agricultural products
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21)    Which of the following is NOT a problem with barter? 21)
A)    the commodity money having value for other uses besides money B) each good has multiple prices C) high transactions costs
D) lack of standardization of products exchanged
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

22)    The introduction of money to an economy results in:    22)
A)    a more efficient barter system    B) higher productivity
C) increased specialization    D) higher incomes
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 26 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
23)    Money can BEST be described as:    23)
A)    anything that is generally accepted as payment for goods and services or in the settlement of debts.
B)    any form of wealth possessed by consumers
C)    commodities that have intrinsic value
D)    paper that can be used to purchase goods and services
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 24 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

24)    Money is a medium of exchange in that    26)

A)    it must maintain most of its value over time.
B)    other assets may be better or worse in facilitating exchange than money.
C)    currency may be exchanged for gold at any national bank.
D)    money is generally accepted for buying and selling goods and services.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

27)    Money as a medium of exchange refers only to
A)    checks at commercial banks.
B)    currency.
C)    anything that is generally accepted as payment for goods and services.
D)    gold coins.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money  AACSB: Reflective Thinking
28)    When economists refer to the role of money as a unit of account, they mean that
A)    money gives traders a way of measuring value in the economy.
B)    most accounting systems reflect that goods are purchased with currency.
C)    most accounting systems reflect that goods are purchased with checks.
D)    money makes it possible for specialization to take place.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money  AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

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29)    When economists refer to the role of money as a store of value, they mean that
A)    the value of money falls only when the quantity of money in circulation falls.
B)    the value of money falls only when the quantity of money in circulation rises.
C)    money never loses its value, unlike other assets.
D)    money allows value to be stored easily.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money  AACSB: Reflective Thinking
30)    An asset is
A)    the same thing as a liability.    B) money, as opposed to stock or bonds.

  1. C) anything that never declines in value.    D) a thing of value that can be owned.

Diff: 1    Page Ref: 28 Topic: functions of money

Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

31)    The attribute that distinguishes money from other assets is that only money    31)
A)    may be used as collateral for a bank loan.
B)    serves as a medium of exchange.
C)    is counted in determining the size of an individual’ʹs wealth.
D)    retains its value during times of inflation.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 28
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

32)    Wealth is
A)    equal to income.
B)    a flow variable.
C)    the sum of the value of assets.
D)    the sum of the value of assets minus value of liabilities.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 28
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money  AACSB: Reflective Thinking
33)    The difference between money and income is that whereas income is an individual’ʹs
A)    stock   of   all   assets,   money   is   an   individual’s   stock   of   currency   and   currency substitutes. B) stock of currency and currency substitutes, money is an individual’ʹs stock of all assets.
C)    flow of earnings over a period of time, money is an individual’ʹs stock of all assets.
D)    flow of earnings over a period of time, money is an individual’ʹs stock of currency and currency substitutes.

Diff: 2    Page Ref: 28 Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money  AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

 

 

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Question 24:               Economics

 

  1. Real wages in the United States in the long run:
    A. show no discernible relationship to output per worker.
    B. have increased at about the same rate as increases in output per worker.
    C. have increased slower than increases in output per worker.
    D. have increased faster than increases in output per worker.
  2. The long-run trend of real wages:
    A. cannot be determined from available data on nominal wages and the price level.
    B. has been downward because the price level has risen faster than nominal wages.
    C. has been upward.
    D. has been downward because labor’s share of the domestic income has fallen.
  3. If the nominal wages of carpenters rose by 5 percent in 2010 and the price level increased by 3 percent, then the real wages of carpenters:
    A. decreased by 2 percent.
    B. increased by 2 percent.
    C. increased by 3 percent.
    D. increased by 8 percent.
  4. Over the long run, real earnings per worker can increase only at about the same rate as the economy’s rate of growth of:
    A. total output.
    B. stock of capital.
    C. output per worker.
    D. international trade.
  5. Increases in the productivity of labor result partly from:
    A. the law of diminishing returns.
    B. improvements in technology.
    C. reductions in wage rates.
    D. increases in the quantity of labor.

 

 

 

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  1. The real wage will rise if the nominal wage:
    A. falls more rapidly than the general price level.
    B. increases at the same rate as labor productivity.
    C. increases more rapidly than the general price level.
    D. falls at the same rate as the general price level.
  2. The productivity and real wages of workers in industrially advanced economies have risen historically partly because:
    A. workers have acquired less education and training over time.
    B. workers have been able to use larger quantities of capital equipment.
    C. over time the capital equipment used by workers has deteriorated in quality.
    D. the supply of labor has increased.
  3. If the nominal wage rises by 4 percent, and the price level rises by 7 percent, the real wage will:
    A. be unaffected.
    B. rise by 3 percent.
    C. fall by 3 percent.
    D. rise by 11 percent.
  4. If the nominal wage rises by 6 percent, and the price level falls by 2 percent, the real wage will:
    A. be unaffected.
    B. rise by 4 percent.
    C. fall by 4 percent.
    D. rise by 8 percent.
  5. Marginal revenue product (MRP) of labor refers to the:
    A. increase in total revenue resulting from the sale of an additional unit of output.
    B. amount by which a firm’s total resource cost increases when it employs one more unit of labor.
    C. increase in total revenue resulting from the hire of one more unit of labor.
    D. price at which additional units of labor can be employed in a monopsonized labor market.
  6. Marginal resource cost refers to the:
    A. increase in total revenue resulting from the sale of the extra output of one more worker.
    B. price at which additional units of a resource can be hired in an imperfectly competitive resource market.
    C. increase in total cost resulting from the production of one more unit of output.
    D. amount by which a firm’s total resource cost increases as the result of hiring one more unit of the resource.

 

 

 

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  1. If a firm is hiring a certain type of labor under purely competitive conditions:
    A. its labor demand curve will be perfectly elastic at the market-determined wage rate.
    B. the labor supply curve will lie above the marginal labor cost curve.
    C. the labor supply and marginal labor (resource) cost curves will coincide and be upsloping.
    D. the labor supply and marginal labor (resource) cost curves will coincide and be perfectly elastic.
  2. The market supply curve for labor is upsloping because:
    A. of diminishing returns.
    B. of the opportunity cost of labor in housekeeping, leisure, or alternative employments.
    C. of declining MRC.
    D. each employer is a “wage taker.”
  3. A firm operating in a purely competitive resource market faces a resource supply curve that is:
    A. perfectly inelastic.
    B. perfectly elastic.
    C. highly inelastic.
    D. highly elastic.
  4. A firm that is hiring labor in a purely competitive labor market and selling its product in a purely competitive product market will maximize its profit by hiring labor until:
    A. marginal revenue product is zero.
    B. marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource (labor) cost by the greatest amount.
    C. marginal resource cost is zero.
    D. marginal revenue product equals marginal resource (labor) cost.
  5. A profit-maximizing firm will:
    A. expand employment if marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource cost.
    B. reduce employment if marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource cost.
    C. expand employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
    D. reduce employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
  6. A profit-maximizing firm will:
    A. expand employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
    B. reduce employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
    C. reduce employment if marginal revenue product is less than marginal resource cost.
    D. expand employment if marginal revenue product is less than marginal resource cost.

 

  1. A firm hiring labor in a perfectly competitive labor market faces a:
    A. downsloping labor supply curve and upsloping labor demand curve.
    B. upsloping labor supply curve and downsloping labor demand curve.
    C. upsloping labor supply curve and horizontal labor demand curve.
    D. horizontal labor supply curve and downsloping labor demand curve.

 

 

 

 

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  1. Refer to the above data. If there is neither a union nor a minimum wage, we can conclude that this firm:
    A. “purchases” labor in purely competitive labor market.
    B. is a monopsonist.
    C. faces a perfectly inelastic labor supply curve.
    D. has a perfectly elastic labor demand curve.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. In maximizing its profit, this firm will employ:
    A. 2 units of labor.
    B. 3 units of labor.
    C. 4 units of labor.
    D. 5 units of labor.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. At the profit maximizing level of employment, this firm’s total labor cost will be:
    A. $16.
    B. $30.
    C. $24.
    D. $32.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. At the profit maximizing level of employment, this firm’s total revenue will be:
    A. $16.
    B. $32.
    C. $24.
    D. $30.

 

 

  1. Refer to the above diagrams. The firm:
    A. is a monopsonist in the hiring of labor.
    B. must be selling its product in an imperfectly competitive market.
    C. is a “wage taker.”
    D. must pay a higher marginal resource cost for each successive worker.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagrams. The firm:
    A. has a principal-agent problem.
    B. has a constant marginal resource cost of $5.
    C. has a marginal resource cost that exceeds the wage rate for each worker.
    D. will fail to maximize profits if it hires 5 workers.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagrams. The profit-maximizing firm’s total wage cost:
    A. is 0abc.
    B. is 0Wbc.
    C. is Wab.
    D. cannot be determined.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagrams. The profit-maximizing firm’s total revenue:
    A. is 0abc.
    B. is 0Wbc.
    C. is Wab.
    D. cannot be determined.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagrams. At the profit-maximizing level of employment for this firm, the amount available to pay to nonlabor resources:
    A. is 0abc.
    B. is 0Wbc.
    C. is Wab.
    D. cannot be determined.

 

  1. The individual firm in a purely competitive labor market faces:
    A. a perfectly elastic labor supply curve and a downsloping labor demand curve.
    B. a perfectly elastic labor demand curve and an upsloping labor supply curve.
    C. labor demand and labor supply curves both of which are perfectly elastic.
    D. a downsloping labor demand curve and an upsloping labor supply curve.

 

 

 

 

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  1. Refer to the above data. This firm’s product price is:
    A. $2.
    B. $3.
    C. $4.
    D. $16.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. The marginal revenue product of the second worker is:
    A. $16.
    B. $32.
    C. $8.
    D. $4.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. The marginal revenue product of the fourth worker is:
    A. $8.
    B. $52.
    C. $2.
    D. $4.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. We can conclude from the information given that this firm is a:
    A. pure monopolist.
    B. discriminating monopolist.
    C. monopolistic competitor.
    D. pure competitor.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8, this firm will employ:
    A. 2 workers.
    B. 3 workers.
    C. 4 workers.
    D. 5 workers.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8 and the firm hires its profit-maximizing number of workers, the firm’s total wage bill (payment) will be:
    A. $16.
    B. $24.
    C. $32.
    D. $48.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8 and the firm hires its profit-maximizing number of workers, the firm’s total revenue will exceed its total wage payment by:
    A. $20.
    B. $16.
    C. $12.
    D. $8.

 

 

 

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  1. Refer to the above data. If this firm can hire as few or many workers as it wants at $8, it is:
    A. hiring labor in a monopsony labor market.
    B. hiring labor in a purely competitive labor market.
    C. selling its product in a monopolized product market.
    D. selling its product in a purely competitive product market.

 

 

 

  1. Refer to the above list. The outcome in a purely competitive labor market is shown by:
    A. 1.
    B. 2.
    C. 3.
    D. 4.

 

  1. Refer to the above list. The outcome in a monopsony labor market is shown by:
    A. 1.
    B. 2.
    C. 3.
    D. 4.

 

  1. The labor supply curve facing a purely competitive employer is __________ whereas the labor supply curve facing a monopsonist is _________.
    A. upsloping; horizontal
    B. downsloping; vertical
    C. vertical; upsloping
    D. horizontal; upsloping

 

  1. The economic term for a firm that is the sole buyer in a market is:
    A. monopsonist.
    B. monopolist.
    C. bilateral competitor.
    D. bilateral monopolist.

 

  1. In a monopsonistic labor market the employer will maximize profits by employing workers up to that point at which:
    A. the difference between the wage rate and marginal resource (labor) cost is at a maximum.
    B. marginal revenue product equals marginal resource (labor) cost.
    C. the wage rate equals marginal revenue product.
    D. the wage rate equals marginal resource (labor) cost.

 

 

  1. A firm can hire six workers at a wage rate of $8 per hour but must pay $9 per hour to all of its employees to attract a seventh worker. The marginal wage cost of the seventh worker is:
    A. $9.
    B. $10.
    C. $15.
    D. $21.

 

 

 

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  1. Suppose the MRP of a firm’s twelfth worker is $22 and the worker’s marginal wage cost is $16. We can say with certainty that the firm:
    A. is hiring labor in a competitive labor market at a wage rate of $16.
    B. is hiring labor in a monopsonistic labor market.
    C. will find it profitable to hire fewer workers.
    D. will find it profitable to hire more workers.

 

  1. In monopsony:
    A. each firm employs a small portion of the total supply of labor.
    B. the work force is highly mobile.
    C. the wage rate paid by the employer varies directly with the number of workers employed.
    D. the employer is a “wage taker.”

 

  1. Which of the following is most likely to be an example of monopsony?
    A. The market for fast-food workers in a large summer resort town.
    B. The market for card dealers in Las Vegas.
    C. The market for major league baseball umpires.
    D. The market for retail sales clerks in a major city.

 

  1. If a firm faces an upsloping labor supply curve (and there is no union or minimum wage), its:
    A. MRC curve is also upsloping.
    B. MRC curve is perfectly elastic.
    C. MRP curve is perfectly inelastic.
    D. MRP curve is also upsloping.

 

  1. A monopsonist’s wage cost in hiring an additional worker is the:
    A. worker’s wage rate.
    B. worker’s wage rate plus the wage increases paid to all workers already employed.
    C. worker’s wage rate adjusted for the lower price that must be charged for the extra output.
    D. marginal wage cost less the wage rate.

 

  1. A monopsonistic employer:
    A. has a perfectly elastic labor supply curve.
    B. is necessarily a monopolist in the product market.
    C. confronts a marginal resource (labor) cost that is greater than the wage rate.
    D. confronts a marginal resource (labor) cost that is less than the wage rate.

 

 

 

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  1. Other things equal, the monopsonistic employer will pay a:
    A. lower wage rate and hire fewer workers than will a purely competitive employer.
    B. higher wage rate but hire fewer workers than will a purely competitive employer.
    C. lower wage rate but hire a larger number of workers than will a purely competitive employer.
    D. higher wage rate and hire a larger number of workers than will a purely competitive employer.

 

  1. A monopsonistic employer in an unorganized (nonunion) labor market will:
    A. pay a wage rate less than labor’s MRP.
    B. pay the same wage rate but hire fewer workers than if the market was purely competitive.
    C. hire the number of workers indicated by the intersection of the MRC and the labor supply curves.
    D. pay a wage rate in excess of labor’s MRP.

 

  1. As compared to a purely competitive labor market, in a nonunionized monopsonistic labor market wages:
    A. and employment will both be lower.
    B. will be higher, but employment will be lower.
    C. will be lower, but employment will be higher.
    D. and employment will both be higher.

 

  1. “Player drafts” of professional athletes:
    A. increase the competitiveness of the labor market for professional athletes.
    B. reduce the profitability of professional sports franchises.
    C. promote monopsony in the hire of professional athletes.
    D. increase salaries of professional athletes.

 

  1. Which of the following is not correct?
    A. Other things equal, a monopsonist will pay a lower wage rate than will a firm hiring labor competitively.
    B. A monopsonistic employer will pay workers a wage rate equal to their MRP.
    C. A purely competitive seller will pay workers a wage rate equal to their MRP.
    D. An imperfectly competitive seller will employ additional workers as long as the MRP of additional workers exceeds their MRC.

 

 

 

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  1. A monopsonistic employer’s marginal resource (labor) cost curve:
    A. is always more elastic than the labor supply curve.
    B. coincides with the labor supply curve.
    C. lies below the labor supply curve because the higher wage paid to an additional worker must also be paid to all other employed workers.
    D. lies above the labor supply curve because the higher wage paid to an additional worker must also be paid to all other employed workers.

 

  1. The critical feature of a monopsonistic labor market is that the employer:
    A. has a perfectly elastic demand curve for labor.
    B. can hire any number of workers it chooses at the going wage rate.
    C. faces an upsloping labor supply curve.
    D. faces a perfectly inelastic labor supply curve.

 

  1. If a firm is a monopsonist in the hiring of both labor and capital, it will obtain the profit-maximizing quantities of labor and capital when:
    A. MRPL/PL = MRPC/PC = 1.
    B. MRPL/MRCL = MRPC/MRCC = 1.
    C. the MRP of labor equals the MRP of capital.
    D. the MRC of labor equals the MRC of capital.

 

  1. If a firm is hiring variable resources D and F in imperfectly competitive input markets, it will maximize profits by employing D and F in such quantifies that:
    A. MRPD/MRCD = MRPF/MRCF = 1.
    B. MRPD/MRCD = MRPF/MRCF.
    C. MRPD/PD = MRPF/PF = 1.
    D. MRPD/PD = MRPF/PF.

 

Answer the question on the basis of the following supply information facing a single firm in a particular labor market:
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  1. Refer to the above information. This labor supply curve demonstrates that:
    A. the firm is selling its output under imperfectly competitive conditions.
    B. the firm is selling its output under purely competitive conditions.
    C. higher wage rates must be paid to successive workers to overcome their higher opportunity costs.
    D. the firm is hiring labor under purely competitive conditions.

 

  1. Refer to the above information. The marginal resource (labor) cost of the third worker is:
    A. $15.
    B. $25.
    C. $35.
    D. $45.

 

  1. Empirical studies suggest that, other things equal, the smaller the number of hospitals in a city, the lower are nurses’ wages. This is evidence that:
    A. the labor markets of nurses are purely competitive.
    B. hospitals may possess some degree of monopsony power.
    C. the minimum wage does not apply to nurses.
    D. labor unions have been ineffective in increasing the wages of nurses.

 

 

 

 

  1. If the above diagram were relevant to an individual firm, we could conclude that the firm is:
    A. a pure competitor in the hire of labor.
    B. a monopsonist in the hire of labor.
    C. selling its product in an imperfectly competitive market.
    D. selling its product in a purely competitive market.

 

 

 

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  1. Refer to the above diagram. The MRC curve lies above the labor supply curve because:
    A. any number of workers can be hired at the going equilibrium wage rate.
    B. the firm must lower product price to increase its sales.
    C. the higher wage needed to attract additional workers must also be paid to the workers already employed.
    D. there is an inverse relationship between wage rate and the amount of labor employed.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. Assuming no union or relevant minimum wage, the firm represented will hire:
    A. Q2 workers and pay a W4 wage rate.
    B. Q2 workers and pay a W1 wage rate.
    C. Q3 workers and pay a W2 wage rate.
    D. Q4 workers and pay a W1 wage rate.

 

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. An industrial (inclusive) union could increase employment in this labor market:
    A. by negotiating any wage rate between W1 and W4.
    B. by negotiating a wage rate greater than W4.
    C. only if it accepted a wage rate below W1.
    D. only if it could shift the labor demand curve rightward.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. An industrial union could maximize employment by negotiating a wage rate of:
    A. W4.
    B. W3.
    C. W2.
    D. W1.

 

  1. Which of the following tactics is most associated with the demand-enhancement union model?
    A. Reducing the price of inputs that are substitutes for union workers.
    B. Lobbying for increases in public expenditures on the product it is producing.
    C. Restricting the number of workers allowed to work in the industry.
    D. Increasing the price of products that are complements for the one it is producing.

 

  1. Inclusive unionism is practiced mostly by:
    A. professional and semiprofessional employees.
    B. small unions comprised of skilled workers, such as the bricklayers.
    C. industrial unions.
    D. craft unions.

 

 

 

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. If this labor market is purely competitive, the wage rate and level of employment respectively will be:
    A. D and E.
    B. C and E.
    C. B and G.
    D. B and F.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. If this labor market is monopsonistic, the wage rate and level of employment respectively will be:
    A. D and E.
    B. C and F.
    C. B and F.
    D. A and F.
  2. Refer to the above diagram. Assume that an inclusive union is formed to bargain with the monopsonistic employer of the previous question. To what level can this union increase the wage rate without causing the number of jobs to decline below that which the monopsonist would otherwise have provided?
    A. D minus A
    B. D
    C. C
    D. B

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. If an inclusive union seeks to maximize the number of jobs available for its members, what wage rate will it seek to impose on the monopsonist?
    A. D minus A
    B. F
    C. C
    D. B

 

  1. A craft union attempts to increase wage rates by:
    A. equating the MRP and the MRC curves.
    B. shifting the labor supply curve to the left.
    C. shifting the labor supply curve to the right.
    D. shifting the MRP curve to the right.

 

 

 

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  1. Occupational licensing has much the same effect as:
    A. inclusive unionism.
    B. exclusive unionism.
    C. bilateral monopoly.
    D. monopsony.

 

  1. Occupational licensing:
    A. functions essentially the same as inclusive unionism.
    B. attracts large numbers of workers and therefore depresses wages.
    C. often restricts occupational entry and raises the incomes of license holders.
    D. has been declared illegal in the majority of states.

 

  1. If an exclusive union is successful in restricting the supply of labor, the:
    A. wage rate will rise.
    B. quantity of labor demanded will rise.
    C. number of job opportunities in the firm or industry will increase.
    D. demand for labor curve will shift leftward.

 

  1. If an industrial union is formed to bargain with a monopsonistic employer, then in this labor market:
    A. the resulting wage rate will necessarily be above the competitive level.
    B. employment may either increase or decrease.
    C. employment will increase.
    D. employment will decrease.

 

  1. The electricians’ union is a good example of:
    A. exclusive unionism.
    B. an industrial union.
    C. how unions can simultaneously increase wage rates and employment by increasing the demand for labor.
    D. inclusive unionism.

 

  1. Labor unions may attempt to raise wage rates by:
    A. increasing the supply of labor.
    B. forcing employers, under the threat of a strike, to pay above-equilibrium wage rates.
    C. decreasing the demand for labor.
    D. increasing the price of complementary resources.

 

 

 

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  1. Construction workers frequently sponsor political lobbying in support of greater public spending on highways and public buildings. One reason for this is to:
    A. restrict the supply of construction workers.
    B. increase the elasticity of demand for construction workers.
    C. increase the demand for construction workers.
    D. increase the price of substitute inputs.

 

 

  1. Craft unions:
    A. attempt to organize workers at all skill levels in a firm or industry.
    B. have been declared illegal by Federal legislation.
    C. only organize workers who have a particular skill.
    D. attempt to increase the supply of their particular type of labor.

 

  1. Labor unions are restrained in their wage demands because:
    A. legislation limits annual increases in nominal wages to 6 percent.
    B. the labor demand curve is downsloping.
    C. marginal wage cost curves lie above labor supply curves in most labor markets.
    D. most unions deal with monopsonists who have superior bargaining power.

 

  1. In a labor market characterized by bilateral monopoly the wage rate will:
    A. be logically indeterminate.
    B. be established at the level desired by the union.
    C. be established at the level desired by the employer.
    D. always be established at the competitive level.

 

 

 

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  1. If a single large employer bargains with an inclusive union, the resulting labor market model can best be described as:
    A. a cartel.
    B. countervailing power.
    C. a bilateral monopoly.
    D. an internal labor market.

 

  1. Bilateral monopoly occurs where:
    A. a monopsonistic employer bargains with an inclusive union.
    B. a monopsonistic employer bargains with an exclusive union.
    C. a craft union bargains with a purely competitive employer.
    D. an industrial union bargains with a purely competitive employer.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If this were a purely competitive labor market, the equilibrium wage rate and level of employment would be:
    A. $5 and 3 respectively.
    B. $6 and 4 respectively.
    C. $7 and 5 respectively.
    D. $8 and 3 respectively.

 

  1. Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If this were a monopsonistic labor market, the equilibrium wage rate and level of employment would be:
    A. $5 and 3 respectively.
    B. $6 and 4 respectively.
    C. $7 and 5 respectively.
    D. $8 and 3 respectively.

 

 

  1. Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If an inclusive union was formed and was able to get the monopsonist to agree to a $7 wage rate, then the monopsonist would:
    A. reduce employment from 5 to 3 workers.
    B. reduce employment from 5 to 2 workers.
    C. increase employment from 3 to 5 workers.
    D. not alter its level of employment.

 

  1. Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If an inclusive union was able to get the monopsonist to pay a $6 wage rate, then:
    A. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for the first four workers, but the MRC curve would be unaffected.
    B. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for all workers and the MRC curve would coincide with it.
    C. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for the first four workers and the MRC would be $6 for the first four workers.
    D. eight workers would be hired.

 

 

 

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  1. Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. An inclusive union could increase the level of employment above that which the monopsonist would provide if it could get the monopsonist to agree to any wage rate:
    A. below $7.
    B. between $5 and $8.
    C. above $5.
    D. above $8.

 

  1. Minimum-wage legislation is less likely to have adverse effects on employment when the:
    A. affected labor market is monopsonistic.
    B. economy has high unemployment.
    C. derived demand for labor is shifting to the left.
    D. affected labor market is perfectly competitive.

 

 

  1. Critics of minimum-wage legislation argue that it:
    A. keeps inefficient producers in business.
    B. reduces employment.
    C. undermines incentives to work.
    D. is deflationary.

 

 

 

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  1. Many economists are critical of the minimum wage because they believe that it:
    A. hurts the efforts of labor unions.
    B. reduces the number of available job opportunities.
    C. conflicts with policies designed to equalize the distribution of income.
    D. causes labor shortages in affected markets.

 

  1. Unions might support a higher minimum wage because:
    A. their constitutions obligate them to do so.
    B. they feel a higher minimum wage will lower labor’s tax payments for welfare programs.
    C. a higher minimum wage makes less-skilled workers less substitutable for union workers.
    D. the minimum wage is better targeted than are alternative income-maintenance programs.

 

 

  1. If all workers are homogeneous, all jobs are equally attractive to workers, and labor markets are perfectly competitive:
    A. compensating differences would cause wage differentials.
    B. noncompeting groups of workers would result in wage differentials.
    C. all workers would receive the same wage rate.
    D. worker mobility would occur such that wage differentials would widen.

 

  1. Wage differentials may result from all the following except:
    A. differences in the nonmonetary aspects of various occupations.
    B. differences in the education and skills of workers.
    C. geographic and sociological immobilities of workers.
    D. the tendency of qualified workers to move from lower pay jobs to higher pay jobs.

 

  1. Suppose all workers are identical, but working for Ajax is more pleasant than working for Acme. In all other nonwage aspects the two firms offer the same job characteristics. We would expect:
    A. wage rates at Ajax to be higher than at Acme.
    B. wage rates at Ajax to be lower than at Acme.
    C. wage rates at Ajax and Acme to be the same.
    D. workers at Ajax would have to be monitored more closely than at Acme.

 

  1. Noncompeting groups of workers are the result of:
    A. differences in the age-earnings profiles of workers.
    B. differences in the “job tastes” of workers.
    C. differences in the innate and acquired abilities of workers.
    D. geographic immobilities.

 

  1. Compensating differences in wages:
    A. compensate workers for differences in their human capital.
    B. are wage differences that compensate for differences in the desirability of jobs.
    C. describe the tendency for the wages of all occupations to adjust to the median level.
    D. do not exist if jobs have different nonmonetary characteristics.

 

  1. Compensating differences in wages pay workers for:
    A. differences in worker training and skills.
    B. differences in the nonmonetary characteristics of jobs.
    C. geographic immobilities.
    D. discrimination in hiring and firing.

 

 

 

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  1. The idea of compensating differences is used:
    A. by inclusive unions as an argument in bargaining for wage rate increases.
    B. to justify the application of minimum wages to low-wage labor markets.
    C. to explain the divergence between wage rates and marginal resource cost.
    D. to explain wage rate differences based on differing nonmonetary aspects of jobs.

 

 

  1. The concept of investment in human capital indicates that:
    A. union workers are better educated and more productive than nonunion workers.
    B. expenditures on education can be explained in essentially the same way as expenditures on machinery and equipment.
    C. worker productivity correlates negatively with annual earnings.
    D. the level of education is unrelated to the level of one’s income.

 

  1. Data on education and earnings reveal:
    A. negative age-earnings profiles for male workers.
    B. no relationship between the two.
    C. a positive relationship between the two.
    D. a negative relationship between the two.

 

  1. According to age-earnings data,
    A. lower educated workers have similar earnings at age 65 as higher educated workers.
    B. investments in education result in higher earnings.
    C. high earnings are due to motivation and innate ability, rather than education.
    D. there is no clear relationship between education and worker productivity.

 

 

  1. Economists regard expenditures on education as investments because:
    A. they are subject to tax deductions at the same rate as are expenditures on machinery and equipment.
    B. education is economically beneficial at the same time it is being acquired.
    C. such expenditures are current costs that are intended to enhance future earnings.
    D. they differ from expenditures on health and worker mobility.

 

  1. Which of the following involves the creation of human capital?
    A. the XYZ Corporation upgrades the machinery on its assembly line
    B. Jones receives apprenticeship training as a carpenter
    C. Smith buys 30 shares of common stock
    D. a retired person decides to reenter the labor force

 

  1. Human capital is best defined as:
    A. the productive skills and knowledge that workers acquire from education and training.
    B. the substitution of labor for machinery in the production process.
    C. any piece of machinery that must be combined with labor to be productive.
    D. the exchange of money for real assets.

 

 

 

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  1. Which of the following is a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
    A. movement of labor from lower-wage to higher-wage jobs
    B. readily available information about job opportunities and pay
    C. principal-agent problems
    D. discrimination

 

  1. Which of the following is a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
    A. geographical immobility of workers
    B. readily available information about job opportunities and pay
    C. principal-agent problems
    D. compensating wage differentials

 

  1. Which of the following is not an example of a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
    A. geographic immobility of workers
    B. discrimination
    C. noncompeting groups
    D. poor information about job opportunities and pay

 

  1. Jack and Jill have identical skills and training but Jill earns higher wages in her job. Which of the following reasons would best explain why Jill earns more than Jack?
    A. Jack has a chronic illness and would lose health care coverage if he changed jobs.
    B. Jill suffers from gender discrimination in the workplace.
    C. Jack has better access to information about available jobs in his field.
    D. Jill is reluctant to move to a new city because she wants to live near family.

 

 

 

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  1. In the context of labor markets, shirking refers to:
    A. the nonmonetary disadvantages of certain jobs.
    B. the neglecting or evading of work.
    C. the elimination of monitoring costs.
    D. any scheme where pay is directly related to worker output.

 

  1. Traveling sales representative Harold Hill only calls on clients four days a week rather than the five days expected by his employer. This is an example of:
    A. equalizing differences.
    B. a nonmonetary job disadvantage.
    C. shirking.
    D. the free-rider problem.

 

  1. The idea of efficiency wages is that:
    A. the wages of each type of labor must be proportionate to their marginal products.
    B. the wages of each type of labor must be equal to their marginal products.
    C. firms might get greater work effort by paying above-equilibrium wage rates.
    D. workers are more diligent when paid below-equilibrium wages.

 

  1. Paying an above-equilibrium wage rate might reduce unit labor costs by:
    A. permitting the firm to attract lower-quality labor.
    B. increasing the cost to workers of being fired for shirking.
    C. increasing voluntary worker turnover.
    D. increasing the supply of labor.

 

  1. Compensation paid in proportion to the number of units of personal output best describes:
    A. royalties.
    B. profit-sharing.
    C. bonuses.
    D. piece rates.

 

  1. A firm might choose to pay its employees a wage higher than that which would clear the market because:
    A. the higher wage raises the opportunity cost of shirking.
    B. the higher wage may shift the labor demand curve to the left.
    C. the firm will have higher turnover, allowing “new blood” to invigorate older workers who have a greater tendency to shirk.
    D. this policy reduces the proportion of experienced to inexperienced workers, resulting in a lower overall wage bill.

 

  1. For the firm, the major goal of profit sharing plans is to:
    A. force workers to incur some of the business risk.
    B. overcome the monopsony problem of having to pay higher wages to attract additional workers.
    C. overcome the principal-agent problem by better aligning the workers’ interests with those of the firm.
    D. reduce total compensation payments.

 

  1. Stock options as a form of payment are designed to:
    A. evade the equal-pay-for-equal work provisions of the Federal antidiscrimination law.
    B. boost the overall earnings of minimum wage workers.
    C. offset monopsony.
    D. address the principal-agent problem.

 

  1. One of the potential negative side-effects of pay in the form of sales commissions is:
    A. a greater incentive for sales people to engage in unethical or fraudulent sales practices that may eventually cause legal problems for the firm.
    B. increased volatility of sales revenue for the firm.
    C. the potential that pay levels may get so high that they will increase a firm’s marginal wage cost more than its marginal revenue product.
    D. an increased likelihood of shirking by workers.

 

 

 

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Question25:    Psychology

 

The early perspective called Gestalt psychology has evolved into the current perspective called _______________.
Choose one answer.
a. behavioral psychology
b. psychoanalysis
c. social psychology
d. cognitive psychology

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 2
Marks: 1
John B. Watson believed that psychology should involve the study of _________.
Choose one answer.
a. the brain
b. consciousness
c. behavior
d. the mind  ect
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 3
Marks: 1
Each of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association EXCEPT __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. parents of infant participants must be informed about the study
b. investigators must debrief participants
c. participants may withdraw at any time
d. debriefing may be omitted when young children are involved
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 4
Marks: 1
According to present research on psychologists, thirty-four percent are in the ________________ subfield of psychology.
Choose one answer.
a. Industrial/Organizational
b. Clinical
c. Developmental
d. Counseling

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 5
Marks: 1
The placebo effect means _______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the expectations of the participants influence their behavior
b. all conditions in an experiment are the same
c. that there is no control group
d. experimenter bias causes the subjects to act strangely

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 6
Marks: 1
A researcher stops people at the mall and asks them questions about their attitudes toward gun control. Which research technique is being used?
Choose one answer.
a. case study
b. survey
c. experiment
d. naturalistic observation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

 

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Question 7
Marks: 1
Sallie noticed that when her alarm clock goes off in the morning her dog, Ruffles, is standing by her bed salivating. Every morning when Sallie wakes to the alarm, she immediately rolls out of bed and feeds Ruffles who very much enjoys his canned dog food. It is likely that ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to sleep next to her bed
b. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to enjoy canned dog food
c. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to salivate to the sound of her alarm clock
d. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to salivate over canned dog food

Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 8
Marks: 1
Self-actualization was part of which of the following perspectives?
Choose one answer.
a. humanism
b. cognitive perspective
c. behaviorism
d. functionalism

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 9
Marks: 1
Pavlov’s research demonstrated that ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. involuntary reaction (sound of a bell) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (food)
b. an unrelated stimulus (food) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (barking)
c. an unrelated stimulus (salivation) could occur in response to an involuntary reaction (sound of a bell)
d. involuntary reaction (salivation) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (sound of a bell)

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 10
Marks: 1
What did Sigmund Freud consider as the key to understanding the nervous disorders he observed?
Choose one answer.
a. external consequences
b. free will
c. brain physiology
d. unconscious mind

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 11
Marks: 1
The steps or procedures an experimenter must use to control or measure the variables in a study is called the ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. hypothesis
b. double-blind study
c. theory
d. operational definition

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 12
Marks: 1
A variable that the experimenter manipulates is called a  _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. independent variable
b. dependent variable
c. control condition
d. coefficient of correlation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 13
Marks: 1
Jane Goodall’s research with chimpanzees and gorillas can best be described as __________.
Choose one answer.
a. participant observation
b. a case study
c. experimentation
d. naturalistic observation
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 14
Marks: 1
______________________ is an experiment in which participants do not know if they are in the experimental or the control group but the experimenters do know which participants are part of which group.
Choose one answer.
a. Correlational research
b. The double-blind study
c. The single-blind study
d. Field research
ect
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 15
Marks: 1
Which of the following is  concerning random assignment?
Choose one answer.
a. The best formula for random assignment is birth dates.
b. In random assignment each participant is assigned alphabetically to each condition.
c. Random assignment can only be determined after an experiment is over.
d. In random assignment each participant has an equal chance for each condition.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 16
Marks: 1

 

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Ken is planning on studying the influence of intelligence on the ability to recall events from the 1960s. If Ken does not account for variables such as age that could also influence one’s ability to recall these events, age could be considered a  __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. dependent variable
b. random variable
c. independent variable
d. confounding variable

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 17
Marks: 1
A correlation coefficient shows that alcohol consumption and driving accidents are indeed related. As a result, a researcher could predict _____________ if the direction of the relationship is known.
Choose one answer.
a. the number of arrests a person has will go up or down based on the type of car an individual drives
b. the number of arrests will increase the fewer drinks an individual consumes
c. the number of driving accidents a person has will go up or down based on the number of alcoholic drinks consumed
d. the number of driving accidents a person has will contribute to the number of days spent in jail

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 18
Marks: 1
Which perspective focuses on free will and self-actualization?
Choose one answer.
a. behaviorism
b. humanism
c. psychoanalysis
d. cognitive perspective

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 19
Marks: 1
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the independent variable is _____________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the use of a driving simulator
b. the use of nicotine
c. the driving skills of each driver
d. the number of collisions

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 20
Marks: 1
Researchers must report their results completely whether the hypothesis was supported or not. Complete reporting is necessary for the purpose of ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. finding a better way to support the hypothesis
b. educational knowledge
c. replication
d. publication

Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 21
Marks: 1
Experimenters can justify the use of deception because ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. it is not that harmful
b. there is informed consent
c. it may be necessary for the experiment to work
d. research is more important than people

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 22
Marks: 1
All of the following variables, except for __________ show a negative correlation.
Choose one answer.
a. school grades and IQ scores
b. men’s educational level and their income
c. height and weight
d. alcohol consumption and scores on a driving test

Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 23
Marks: 1
One of the reasons psychodynamic theories have persisted over the years is that they are ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. used by the majority of psychologists
b. difficult to scientifically test and, thus, difficult to disprove
c. based on facts
d. supported by significant scientific research
ect
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 24
Marks: 1
Which research method involves watching behaviors as they occur without intervening or altering the behaviors in any way?
Choose one answer.
a. case study
b. naturalistic observation
c. experiment
d. correlational studies

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 25
Marks: 1
A perfect correlation, whether positive or negative, is _____________ in the real world.
Choose one answer.
a. rare
b. common
c. expected
d. imperfect

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 26
Marks: 1
Psychologists who give potential employees tests that determine what kind of job those employees might best perform are interested in the goal of _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. description
b. control
c. prediction
d. explanation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 27
Marks: 1
Which of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association?
Choose one answer.
a. Participants must be allowed to make an informed decision.
b. Participants may not withdraw once they start.
c. Participants cannot be subjected to shock of any kind.
d. Participants cannot be deceived about aspects of the research.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 28
Marks: 1
Julie finds that the number of hours she sleeps each night is related to the scores she receives on quizzes the next day. As her sleep approaches 8 hours, her quiz scores improve; as her sleep drops to 5 hours, her quiz scores show a similar decline. Julie realizes that ______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. she should sleep about 10 hours a night to ensure 100 percent quiz grades
b. her low quiz scores are caused by sleep deprivation the night before a quiz
c. there is a negative correlation between the number of hours she sleeps and her quiz grades
d. there is a positive correlation between the number of hours she sleeps and her quiz grades
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 29
Marks: 1
Mei was sent to the school psychologist to be tested. Based on her IQ scores it was decided that she would do well in the gifted child program. This is an example of which goal of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. describing behavior
b. controlling behavior
c. explaining behavior
d. predicting behavior

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 30
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements concerning using animals in research is ?
Choose one answer.
a. Pain and suffering of animals are allowed but only when necessary.
b. There are rules that prevent the killing of animals.
c. There are no ethical guidelines when it comes to animals.
d. New ethical guidelines prevent the use of primates in psychological research.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 31
Marks: 1
The tendency to look for information that supports one’s own belief is called _____.
Choose one answer.
a. confirmation bias
b. volunteer bias
c. the principle of falsifiability
d. criterion validity

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 32
Marks: 1
Freud stressed the importance of _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. adolescence
b. early adulthood
c. early childhood experiences
d. middle adulthood

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 33
Marks: 1
Critical thinking means making judgments based on ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. emotion
b. keeping a closed mind
c. authority and expertise
d. reason and logical evaluation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 34
Marks: 1
A correlation coefficient represents two things: ______________________ and ______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. a representative sample; strength
b. strength; direction of the relationship
c. the experimental group; control group
d. direction of the relationship; expectant functionality
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 35
Marks: 1
Dr. Mosher is a psychologist who tries to understand how people select their mates. She must be a  ___________________ .
Choose one answer.
a. evolutionary psychologist
b. behavioral psychologist      ect
c. cognitive psychologist
d. biopsychological psychologist
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 36
Marks: 1
Observing behavior as it happens in real-life natural settings without imposing laboratory controls is known as the ______.
Choose one answer.
a. survey method
b. experimental method
c. naturalistic observation method
d. psychometric approach

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 37
Marks: 1
The question “When will it happen again?” refers to which of the following goals in psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. prediction
b. control
c. explanation
d. description

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 38
Marks: 1
The majority of psychologists work in ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. colleges and universities
b. public school
c. government
d. private practice

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 39
Marks: 1
Sam conducted a naturalistic observation as a project for a psychology class. He observed the interactions of parents and children at a restaurant. Many of the people he observed seemed to notice him. When Sam described his work to his teacher, she suggested he find out more about the _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. observer effect
b. restaurant effect
c. butterfly effect
d. parent effect

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 40
Marks: 1
________________ is a system used for reducing bias and error in the measurement of data.
Choose one answer.
a. Statistics
b. The scientific method
c. The double-blind method
d. Checks and balances

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
1
Marks: 1
Jane Goodall’s research with chimpanzees and gorillas can best be described as __________.
Choose one answer.
a. a case study
b. naturalistic observation
c. experimentation
d. participant observation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 2
Marks: 1
What is one of the major reasons that psychologists report results publicly?
Choose one answer.
a. to comply with legal requirements
b. to allow researchers to replicate experiments
c. to identify all the extraneous variables
d. to explain research results so that non-psychologists can understand them

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 3
Marks: 1
At the close of the nineteenth century, Gerhard is excited to find that he has been accepted for training in the psychology laboratory of Wilhelm Wundt. It is likely that Gerhard will be trained to ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. carefully feel the bumps on a person’s head in order to determine his or her character traits
b. listen intently while individuals tell him of their depression or nervousness
c. analyze how to break down his sensations into their most basic elements
d. determine the function or purpose of a particular human behavior

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 4
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is true about naturalistic observation?
Choose one answer.
a. It involves observing behavior in its natural context.
b. It recreates natural conditions in the laboratory as closely as possible to make an experiment more valid.
c. It involves observing behavior in the lab without taking formal notes or using technological equipment to measure the experimental findings.
d. It is basically the same process as objective introspection.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 5
Marks: 1
Researchers must report their results completely whether the hypothesis was supported or not. Complete reporting is necessary for the purpose of ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. educational knowledge
b. finding a better way to support the hypothesis
c. publication
d. replication

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 6
Marks: 1

 

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All of the following are accurate statements regarding random assignment EXCEPT ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. it is a procedure in which each subject has the same possibility of being assigned to a given group
b. it is a procedure in which subjects are assigned to a positive correlation or a negative correlation condition
c. it is a procedure for assigning people to experimental and control groups
d. it is a procedure that allows individual characteristics to be roughly balanced between groups

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 7
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is ?
Choose one answer.
a. Psychiatric social workers can prescribe medication.
b. A psychologist has no medical training.
c. A psychiatrist generally goes to graduate school, not medical school.
d. An M.D. and a Ph.D. are pretty much the same thing.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 8
Marks: 1
Rob was named to the first team all-American basketball team last year. However, he is academically ineligible to play this year due to failing several classes. As a result, he is ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. supporting the idea that negative stereotypes exist for collegiate student athletes that they are likely to perform poorly in academics compared to non-athletes
b. supporting the idea that professors are biased in grading assignments of collegiate student athletes
c. supporting the idea that athletes have higher GPAs than non-athletes
d. supporting the idea that collegiate student athletes are not as smart as non-athletes

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 9
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is  concerning critical thinking and astrology?
Choose one answer.
a. Research shows no connection between astrological signs and personality.
b. Astrology is based on stars and, therefore, it is scientific.      ect
c. Astrology is used by a lot of people.
d. Although there are many skeptics, astrology has strong evidence suggesting it is a valid science.
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 10
Marks: 1
Ken is planning on studying the influence of intelligence on the ability to recall events from the 1960s. If Ken does not account for variables such as age that could also influence one’s ability to recall these events, age could be considered a  __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. confounding variable
b. independent variable
c. dependent variable
d. random variable

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 11
Marks: 1
Professor Holden gives a psychology exam on the origins of intelligence. She gives a short answer question based on the IQ scores of a parent-child pair. In order to answer the question ly, her students need to remember that ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. given these variables, the correlation will be uncorrelated
b. given these variables, the correlation will be positive
c. given these variables, the correlation will be negative
d. a parent’s high IQ does not necessarily cause a child to have a high IQ

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 12
Marks: 1
Testing a hypothesis is the third step in a scientific investigation. This step is derived from which goal of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. understanding
b. changing
c. describing
d. predicting

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 13
Marks: 1
“There is no life outside this solar system and nothing you can say will change that fact!” Which criterion of critical thinking does this person lack?
Choose one answer.
a. Evidence is only necessary if it can be tested.
b. All evidence is not equal in quality.
c. Critical thinking requires an open mind.
d. Authority or expertise does not make the claims of the authority or expert true.      ect
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 14
Marks: 1
In 1879, in Leipzig, Germany, the first psychological laboratory was developed by ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. William James
b. Wilhelm Wundt
c. Sigmund Freud
d. William Tell

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 15
Marks: 1
Which type of psychologist would be most likely to argue that a criminal engages in unlawful behavior because he grew up around older boys who engaged in criminal activities?
Choose one answer.
a. functionalist
b. behavioralist
c. psychodynamic
d. Gestaltist

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 16
Marks: 1
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the dependent variable is ____________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the number of collisions
b. the use of nicotine
c. the use of a driving simulator
d. the driving skills of each driver

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 17
Marks: 1
The emerging field of brain imagery in cognitive neuroscience has developed methods, such as MRI, to examine _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. biopsies of the brain of a cadaver
b. acute time of death in stroke patients
c. images of the living brain
d. select biopsied portions of a brain

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 18
Marks: 1
Which perspective focuses on free will and self-actualization?
Choose one answer.
a. cognitive perspective
b. humanism
c. psychoanalysis
d. behaviorism

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 19
Marks: 1
The work of Freud was built around __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. a theory of personality that emphasizes the awareness of one’s own cognitive processes
b. a method of psychotherapy in which an observer carefully records and interprets behavior without interfering with the behavior
c. a method of psychotherapy that emphasizes how maladaptive behaviors are learned through imitations of others and through cognitive expectations
d. a theory of personality that emphasizes unconscious motives and conflicts

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 20
Marks: 1
Forming a hypothesis is the second step in a scientific investigation. This step is derived from which goal of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. describing
b. understanding
c. predicting      ect
d. changing
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 21
Marks: 1
While on a visit to a large city, you observe several billboards in which a series of lights seems to move. Which perspective in psychology would most likely help you understand this phenomenon?
Choose one answer.
a. Gestalt
b. behavioral
c. humanistic
d. psychodynamic

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 22
Marks: 1
The goals of psychology are to _____.
Choose one answer.
a. understand, compare, and analyze human behavior
b. explore the conscious and unconscious functions of the human mind
c. describe, understand, predict, and control behavior
d. improve psychological well-being in all individuals from birth until death

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 23
Marks: 1
In the statement “Critical thinking requires reasoned judgments,” the word reasoned means __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. logical and well thought out
b. focusing on opinion
c. giving it a lot of thought
d. seeing one side of an argument very clearly

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 24
Marks: 1
Psychologists who give potential employees tests that determine what kind of job those employees might best perform are interested in the goal of _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. prediction
b. control
c. explanation
d. description

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 25
Marks: 1
Wesleyan University researchers Jamison and colleagues conducted a study to explore the negative stereotypes of collegiate athletes as “dumb jocks.” In their study, the researchers found ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. negative stereotypes in higher education may contribute to collegiate student athletes underperforming in academics
b. a correlation between collegiate athletes exposure to the negative stereotypes, the better they performed on an intelligence test
c. collegiate student athletes performed better in the classroom if they were made aware of the impact of
negative stereotypes
d. professors often excuse absences by collegiate student athletes who miss class due to attending practices

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 26
Marks: 1
Unintended changes in participants’ behavior due to cues inadvertently given by the experimenter are called _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. replications
b. experimenter effects
c. volunteer biases
d. single-blind studies

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 27
Marks: 1
Which of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association?
Choose one answer.
a. Participants may not withdraw once they start.
b. Participants cannot be deceived about aspects of the research.
c. Participants cannot be subjected to shock of any kind.
d. Participants must be allowed to make an informed decision.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 28
Marks: 1
A psychologist evaluated Tameka, an eight-year-old child who has experienced difficulty in school. The psychologist sent questionnaires to 100 teachers to determine if they had ever seen similar cases. Based on the teachers’ responses, the psychologist hypothesized that a particular diet might cause the learning problem. Following her tabulation of the responses, she designed a study that would tell her if diet were the actual cause. Which of the following lists, in order from first to last, the research methods this psychologist used?
Choose one answer.
a. experiment, case study, survey
b. correlation, case study, experiment
c. naturalistic observation, survey, experiment
d. case study, survey, experiment

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 29
Marks: 1
An operational definition is ___________________.
Choose one answer.
a. an organized system of assumptions and principles that purports to explain a specified set of phenomena and their interrelationships
b. a statement that attempts to predict a set of phenomena and specifies relationships among variables that can be empirically tested
c. the principle that a scientific theory must make predictions that are specific enough to expose the theory to the possibility of disconfirmation
d. the precise meaning of a term used to describe a variable, such as a type of behavior, that researchers want to measure

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 30
Marks: 1
Which of the following terms do NOT belong together?
Choose one answer.
a. structuralism; observable behavior
b. psychoanalysis; unconscious conflict
c. Gestalt; whole
d. natural selection; functionalism

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 31
Marks: 1
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the cigarette without nicotine is _____________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the control group
b. the experimental group
c. the no-control group
d. the driving simulator

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 32
Marks: 1
The tendency to look for information that supports one’s own belief is called _____.
Choose one answer.
a. confirmation bias
b. the principle of falsifiability
c. volunteer bias
d. criterion validity

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 33
Marks: 1
The question “What is happening?” refers to which of the following goals in psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. explanation      etc.
b. description
c. control
d. prediction
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 34
Marks: 1
Which of these is the most accurate definition of the discipline of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. the science of behavior
b. the science of behavior and mental processes
c. the science of human behavior and mental processes
d. the science of mental processes

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 35
Marks: 1
In the early part of the past century, psychologists who broke down thought processes into their basic elements and analyzed them were called structuralists. What term might we use to describe psychologists with similar interests today?
Choose one answer.
a. humanistic
b. cognitive
c. behavioral
d. Gestalt

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 36
Marks: 1
Roger went to McDonald’s to observe people eating in fast-food restaurants. He brought a camera crew and bright lights, and they all wore yellow jump suits. Roger said he wanted to do a naturalistic observation but may have had some problems because of ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. participant observation
b. room crowding
c. eating McDonald’s food
d. observer effects

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 37
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements concerning critical thinking is etc.?
Choose one answer.
a. There are few truths that need not be tested.
b. Critical thinking requires an open mind.
c. Some authorities should not be questioned.
d. All evidence is not equal in quality.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

 

Question 26:               Chemist

 

   Homework 6

An ammonia water solution is added at a specified rate to a charge of a formaldehyde water solution.  The reaction is instantaneous, that is, as soon as the ammonia and formaldehyde mix they react forming HMT and water; the reaction is also highly exothermic.  A cooling jacket surrounds the reactor to cool the liquid.

 

 

 

Process Information:

Initial charge of formaldehyde water solution = 1000 kg

Mass fraction of formaldehyde in the original solution = 0.42

Initial temperature of formaldehyde water solution = 50 oC

Feed flow rate: ;  Ammonia mass fraction in feed:

Feed temperature:

Heat capacity of reactants and products:

Heat of reaction (assumed constant):

Overall heat transfer coefficient:

By the way, the jacket volume (volume of liquid in the jacket) is 2 m3.  Be careful with the units!

 

 

The feeding time is 130 minutes.

 

  1. a)      Assume that the cooling water flow rate is so high that its temperature due to heat transfer hardly increases that is, its exit temperature is also.  Find the heat transfer area such that the reactor temperature just rises to by the end of the feeding time.
  2. b)       Assume now that the utility plant providing the cooling water is limited in its capacity, and we must remove the assumption of very high cooling flow and thus, constant cooling temperature.  It is necessary to find out the water flow rate that experiences no more than increase in temperature, that is, the maximum exit water temperature cannot be over, and at the same time does not allow the reactor’s content to exceed by the end of the feeding time.  Use the heat transfer area obtained in (a).

 

Question 27:   Science

 

Midterm Exam 

Return to Assessment List

Comment: Outstanding!

 

Part 1 of 1 –

100.0/ 100.0 Points

 

Question 1 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Blackpowder is an example of a ____?

 

A.High explosive

B.Low explosive

C.Flammable liquid

D.Caustic explosive

 

Answer Key:

Question 2 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Which explosive is considered to be the first composite explosive developed?

 

A.Gunpowder and/or Blackpowder

B.Poudre B

C.Greek Fire

D.Saltpeter

 

Answer Key:

Question 3 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

An explosive is a substance capable of producing an explosion by its own ______.

 

A.Matter

B.Structure

C.Density

D.Energy

 

Answer Key:

Question 4 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Who introduced blackpowder to Europe?

 

A.Nobel

B.Munroe

C.Schwartz

D.Bacon

 

Answer Key:

Question 5 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Blackpowder contains a __________ and a ___________ chemical mixture.

 

A.Fuel & oxidizer

B.Oxidizer & primer

C.Oxidizer & granulate

D.Fuel & nitrate compound

 

Answer Key:

Question 6 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

High explosives ____________ under the influence of shock.

 

A.Burn

B.Deflagrate

C.Fizzle

D.Detonate

 

Answer Key:

Question 7 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

According to Tenny Davis, this type of ordnance/munition contains 3 classes of explosives.

 

A.Dynamite

B.TNT

C.Blasting Cap

D.Complete round of ammunition

 

Answer Key:

Question 8 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This inventor discovered liquid nitroglycerine.

 

A.Ascanio Sobrero

B.Alfred Noble

C.Charles Munroe

D.Albert Schwartz

 

Answer Key:

Question 9 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This process greatly improved upon the quality and production efforts of Blackpowder.

 

A.Milling and/or corning

B.Sensitizing

C.Drying

D.Wetting

 

Answer Key:

Question 10 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

TNT is also known as _______?

 

A.Triluene

B.Trinitrotoluene

C.Tetracycaline

D.Tritium nitrate

 

Answer Key:

Question 11 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

__________ was the 1st smokeless powder.

 

A.Ballistite

B.Poudre B

C.Gunpowder

D.Blackpowder

 

Answer Key:

Question 12 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Which country developed the 1st explosive testing procedures to determine adequate safety handling precautions?

 

A.England

B.Sweden

C.Germany

D.China

 

Answer Key:

Question 13 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

___________ is a chemical reaction which takes place between a substance and oxygen.

 

A.Combustion

B.Equilibrium

C.Kinetics

D.Dissolution

 

Answer Key:

Question 14 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

The combustion process of propellant and explosive substances can be defined as a _____________.

 

A.Self-sustaining reaction

B.Exothermic reaction

C.Rapid-oxidizing reaction

D.All of the above

 

Answer Key:

Question 15 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

The propagation of any explosion reaction through a deflagration explosive is based on _____________.

 

A.Thermal reactions

B.Chemical kinetics

C.Thermo mechanics

D.Kinetic combustion

 

Answer Key:

Question 16 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Explosives can be classified by the ease with which they can be _______ and _________.

 

A.Composed and detonated

B.Composed and deflagrated

C.Detonated and dissolved

D.Ignited and subsequently exploded

 

Answer Key:

Question 17 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Incendiary compositions containing saltpeter, sulphur, and combustible materials over a century ago were used primarily for ______ and ______.

 

A.War and amusement

B.Amusement and theology

C.War and advanced space exploration

D.DNA testing and amusement

 

Answer Key:

Question 18 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Antimony is also known as ________.

 

A.Sb2S3 which is referred to as Antimony sulphide

B.Sb8h1

C.Saltpeter

D.Sulphur

 

Answer Key:

Question 19 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Permitted explosives are also known as ____________.

 

A.Primary explosives

B.Secondary explosives

C.Commercial explosives

D.Special explosives

 

Answer Key:

Question 20 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This chemical explosive was the 1st compound to be globally accepted as a basic compound for military use.

 

A.Picric acid

B.Blasting gelatin

C.Blackpowder

D.Potassium nitrate

 

Answer Key:

Question 21 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This chemical code provides the makeup for TNT.

 

A.C7H5N3O6

B.C5H8N4O12

C.CH4N4O2

D.C3H6N6O6

 

Answer Key:

Question 22 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Explosions by type can be divided into which 3 groups?

 

A.Atomic, chemical, & kinetic

B.Kinetic, overpressure, & blastwave

C.Chemical, atomic, & mechamical

D.Atomic, chemical, & physical

 

Answer Key:

Question 23 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Atomic energy is approximately how many times greater than chemical energy?

 

A.A million to a billion

B.A hundred and to million

C.A hundred to a thousand

D.A thousand to a million

 

Answer Key:

Question 24 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

An erupting volcano is an example of what type of explosion?

 

A.Physical

B.Chemical

C.Atomic

D.Kinetic

 

Answer Key:

Question 25 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Chemical explosions can be divided into how many groups?

 

A.2

B.1

C.3

D.4

 

Answer Key:

 Question 28:              Health Care

 

  1. To improve the health of a population, an acute care nurse practitioner’s intervention is to:

join a professional nursing organization and run for an organizational office.
maintain current certification as an acute care nurse practitioner.
participate in hospital grand rounds.
report any unusual pattern of infections to the local health department.

  1. A patient, who is allergic to penicillin, requires antibiotic treatment for community-acquired pneumonia. The patient has a limited income, lacks health insurance, and is about to be discharged from the hospital. An acute care nurse practitioner’s intervention is to:

consult social services for assistance.
order an aerosol antibiotic.
transfer the patient to an extended care facility.
write a prescription for an antibiotic.

  1. A patient is scheduled for elective orthopedic surgery. During the preadmission physical examination, the acute care nurse practitioner detects an asymptomatic pulsatile mass in the middle upper abdomen. The nurse practitioner’s most appropriate action is to:

obtain a kidney-urethra-bladder x-ray.
obtain a renal arteriogram.
obtain an abdominal ultrasound.
proceed with the patient’s elective surgery.

  1. Which musculoskeletal disease primarily involves the distal joints, hips, knees, and spine, and is characterized by the development of Heberden and Bouchard nodes?

Gout
Osteoarthritis
Osteoporosis
Rheumatoid arthritis

  1. An acute care nurse practitioner is deciding whether to recommend a long-term medication regimen that will help a patient manage disease symptoms but may also introduce problematic side effects. This decision reflects which ethical principle?

Autonomy
Beneficence
Fidelity
Justice

  1. A patient, who has been in the intensive care unit for 17 days, develops hypernatremic hyperosmolality. The patient weighs 132 lb (59.9 kg), is intubated, and is receiving mechanical ventilation. The serum osmolality is 320 mOsm/L kg H2O. Clinical signs include tachycardia and hypotension. An acute care nurse practitioner’s initial treatment is to:

reduce serum osmolality by infusing a 5% dextrose in 0.2% sodium chloride solution.
reduce serum sodium concentration by infusing a 0.45% sodium chloride solution.
replenish volume by infusing a 0.9% sodium chloride solution.
replenish volume by infusing a 5% dextrose in water solution.

  1. A 78-year-old male patient with heart failure develops a bacterial urinary tract infection secondary to an indwelling Foley catheter. The patient has a known history of allergy to penicillin and sulfonamides. The appropriate choice for antimicrobial therapy is:

cephalexin (Keflex).
ciprofloxacin (Cipro).
doxycycline (Vibramycin).
tetracycline (Sumycin).

  1. An acute care nurse practitioner is evaluating a 78-year-old patient for an aortic valve replacement. Laboratory results indicate a low serum albumin level. The nurse practitioner prescribes a high-protein diet and evaluates the patient’s response by:

assessing the total serum protein level.
calculating the body fat percentage.
obtaining a complete blood count.
obtaining a serum prealbumin level.

9. A 42-year-old patient with metastatic lung cancer is admitted with severe intractable pain related to a pathologic fracture of the left femur. The plan is to stabilize the fracture surgically, and begin local radiation therapy to the site. For this patient, the most appropriate analgesic regimen is:

fentanyl (Duragesic) transdermal system applied every 72 hours.
meperidine (Demerol) 50 mg intramuscularly every three hours around the clock.
morphine sulfate (Avinza) IV via a patient-controlled analgesia pump with a basal rate.
oxycodone/acetaminophen (Percocet) orally every six hours around the clock.

10. A female patient is receiving adjuvant chemotherapy for breast cancer and has been given information about her treatment regimen, expected side effects, and symptom management.  Which symptom, if occurring two weeks after treatment, warrants a prompt call to the acute care nurse practitioner?

Alopecia
Fatigue
Fever
Nausea

  1. A patient with hydrocephalus secondary to a subarachnoid hemorrhage has developed an intracranial pressure of 25 mm Hg. The acute care nurse practitioner’s intervention is to:

hyperventilate to reach a PCO2 of 30 mm Hg.
order dexamethasone (Decadron) 4 mg IV.
perform a ventriculostomy and drainage of cerebrospinal fluid.
prescribe mannitol (Osmitrol) 100 g IV.

  1. Which medication is used with caution in older adults due to the potential for confusion and delirium?

Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Haloperidol (Haldol)
Lorazepam (Ativan)
Phenelzine (Nardil)

  1. A 45-year-old patient, who is on mechanical ventilatory support in the intensive care unit, is receiving a neuromuscular blockade for respiratory control related to acute respiratory failure. To prevent keratoconjunctivitis sicca, the acute care nurse practitioner prescribes:

artificial tears preparations.
IV antibiotic administration.
local sulfonamide therapy.
topical steroid administration.

  1. After undergoing a successful autologous bone marrow transplant for multiple myeloma, a 55-year-old male patient comes to the clinic for his follow-up appointment. The patient reports that a skin lesion has changed in appearance. The acute care nurse practitioner responds by:

consulting dermatology to evaluate the lesion.
inspecting and excising the lesion.
prescribing a topical steroid preparation.
recommending reevaluation in two weeks.

  1. An 83-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department in severe respiratory distress. The patient verbalizes a desire not to be intubated nor to have cardiopulmonary resuscitation performed. The patient states that a neighbor has a copy of the patient’s recently signed living will. The acute care nurse practitioner leaves the bedside momentarily and returns to find the physician preparing to intubate. The nurse practitioner’s initial action is to:

assist the physician with intubation.
call the patient’s neighbor to deliver a copy of the living will.
locate a previous patient record to find a copy of the living will.
notify the physician of the conversation with the patient.

  1. A 24-year-old male patient with a closed head injury has been intubated for 12 days. The patient’s parents have repeatedly refused consent for a tracheostomy and long-term care placement. On multiple occasions, the surgeon has discussed the risks and benefits of the surgery with them. Addressing the parents, the acute care nurse practitioner states:

“I understand you have reservations about the placement of a tracheostomy.”
“Please know that not many patients die while undergoing a tracheostomy.”
“Without a tracheostomy, we can’t transfer your son to another facility.”
“You know, your son will die if a tracheostomy is not placed.”

  1. Before initiating a new antihypertensive drug therapy, an acute care nurse practitioner uses which evidence-based practice approach?

Discussing the medication choices with a collaborating physician
Discussing the medication’s side effects with a colleague
Reviewing the confidence intervals of related research
Reviewing the institutional formulary

  1. During a clinic appointment, an acute care nurse practitioner sees a 56-year-old male patient with a history of hypertension, metabolic syndrome, and hyperlipidemia. A review of the patient’s symptoms reveals nocturia, occasional heartburn, and transient rhinitis. The patient asks about the appropriate interval of certain screening tests for someone his age. The nurse practitioner responds that a:

digital prostate examination should be performed monthly.
prostate-specific antigen should be performed annually.
sigmoidoscopy should be performed every 10 years.
testicular examination should be performed every two years.

  1. Which is an accurate statement regarding the formal evaluation of quality of care?

Continuous quality improvement (CQI) programs focus on individual incidents.
Health care regulatory agencies have not identified an effective means to measure quality.
Hospitals do not receive payment for services if quality of care evaluations are not performed.
The Joint Commission mandates that hospitals implement CQI programs.

  1. While providing a history, a patient requests that an acute care nurse practitioner disclose the information gathered with no one but the patient’s spouse. By respecting this request, the nurse practitioner demonstrates which component of a therapeutic relationship?

Autonomy
Beneficence
Confidentiality
Empathy

  1. A 57-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department with substernal chest pain. An electrocardiogram reveals ST segment depression in leads V3 and V4. Before administering nitrates, an acute care nurse practitioner assesses the patient’s use of:

angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
aspirin.
beta-blockers.
phosphodiesterase inhibitors.

  1. For an 84-year-old patient who undergoes surgery, the most accurate predictor of mortality and patient outcome is:

a low score on a Mini-Mental State Examination.
an impaired functional status.
the availability of social support.
the patient’s chronological age.

  1. An acute care nurse practitioner performs a cardiac assessment on a patient with a confirmed mitral valve prolapse. During which activity does the nurse practitioner expect the patient’s murmur to diminish?

Inhaling
Sitting
Squatting
Standing

  1. A 21-year-old patient is admitted to the intensive care unit with a severe closed head injury. The patient’s family is becoming louder and more insistent about seeing the patient. To establish a therapeutic relationship with the family, an acute care nurse practitioner’s initial action is to:

acknowledge the family’s anxiety.
arrange for a meeting with a social worker.
escort the family to a conference room.
gently direct the family to maintain composure.

  1. An acute care nurse practitioner is called to the medical intensive care unit to evaluate a patient who is intubated for mechanical ventilation. The patient’s arterial blood gas results are: pH-7.35; PCO2-44 mm Hg; HCO3-22 mEq/L; and PO2-52 mm Hg. The current ventilator settings are: Assist control; Respiratory rate-14 breaths/min; Tidal volume (TV)-400 mL; Fraction of inspired O2-100%; and positive-end expiratory pressure (PEEP)-5 cm H2O. The nurse practitioner’s next action is to increase the:

peak pressure alarm to 40 mm Hg.
PEEP to 10 cm H2O.
respiratory rate to 18 breaths/min.
TV to 500 mL.
Question 29:   Health Care

 

Care of Adults and Older Adults

 

 

  1. The nursing unit manager on a medical teaching unit says that she would like a nurse to present a case study at interdisciplinary rounds on a patient who has compartment syndrome from a leg injury. This is the first patient you have cared for with this complication, and you have difficulty presenting your ideas in front of a group. What would you do?
  2. Ask to attend the rounds to increase your understanding of the condition.
  3. Research the condition and present what you have learned as well as your assessment findings and care measures.
  4. Suggest that a more experienced nurse be selected to present this case study.
  5. Approach the unit manager, explain your difficulty presenting in front of interdisciplinary team members, and ask to be excused from presenting.
  6. Which of the following situations would indicate a professional boundary violation?
  7. To empathize with a patient’s situation, sharing a personal experience with a patient that is very similar to the situation the patient is experiencing.
  8. Reminding a patient who has dementia that certain sexual touch behaviours are not acceptable.
  9. Being concerned about a patient’s welfare and seeking ways to protect the client’s best interests.
  10. Having well-intentioned behaviours that detract from achievable health outcomes for patients.

 

 

  1. An important component of professional practice is self-awareness. Why is self-awareness an important basis for nursing practice?
  2. It may prevent biases and assumptions from affecting relationships.
  3. It may allow the nurse to examine how biases and assumptions could interfere with therapeutic effectiveness.
  4. It may enable the nurse to treat people from different cultural backgrounds according to the dominant beliefs of their culture.
  5. It allows for mo re objectivity in facilitating the healing process.

 

  1. Which of the following is a theoretical perspective that underlies group process and effectiveness?
  2. The personality style theory acknowledges that the nature of individuals in a group helps us understand group dynamics and sources of conflict in the group.
  3. When groups are formed to complete a task, the task functions need to be assigned to individuals to ensure effective group functioning.
  4. Considering the roles and functions or groups would explain the developmental theory of groups.
  5. For group effectiveness, a group needs to have homogeneity and common views and interests.

 

 

  1. Which of the following group principles interfere with the effectiveness of a group?
  2. Groups get to know each other while focusing on accomplishing tasks.
  3. Groups set norms, cooperate, and monitor progress.
  4. Groups encourage similarity of viewpoints and minimize differing opinions.
  5. Groups deal with conflicts and allow members to express their differences.

 

  1. Janna, age 27 years, a sing le mother, appreciates the help you have given her through the birth of her first child.  When you conclude your last follow-up community visit, she expresses gratitude and suggests that you come back and visit her and the baby for regular outings. How would you respond?
  2. Acknowledge your appreciation of this experience, explain that her nursing needs have been met, and tell her you have to leave to care for other new mot hers.
  3. Thank her for the offer and tell her that you will have to give her a call to see whether you will be able to work in outings in your personal schedule.
  4. Tell her this would be unprofessional.
  5. Stale that you would really like to do this but you are too busy with your other commitments.

.

 

 

  1. How would you respond to Mr. Carlson?
  2. Remind him that he has signed the consent and that the surgery has been scheduled.
  3. Discuss his fear s regarding the surgery and reassure him that many patients want to change their minds as the surgery draws near.
  4. Explore reasons why he wishes to cancel the surgery, clarify his concerns, and reinforce that he can change his mind if he chooses.
  5. Tell him not to make up his mind until the doctor comes to talk to him again.

 

  1. Mr. Carlson makes the decision to sign himself out of the hospital. What actions would you take?
  2. Ensure that he signs the release form and contact the doctor and the operating room staff.
  3. Convince him 10 slay because heart surgery is very important.
  4. Contact the nursing unit manager and document it in the chart.
  5. Realistically explain the wail list for surgery and what could happen to him.

.

 

  1. You are admitting Darlene, age 40 years, who has come in for regulation of her insulin dependent diabetes.  When she is unpacking, you note that she has a bag with some of her used syringes with needles, which she places in the top drawer of her bedside table. What would you do?
  2. Rein force that she should keep the syringes in her suitcase so there are no injuries to staff members.
  3. Ask her why she is keeping the used syringes and ensure they are disposed of safely.
  4. Ask her to glove and dispose of the contaminated syringes in the needle receptacle.
  5. Report the incident to the diabetic care team so effective teaching can be done.

 

  1. You are supervising a nursing student during a dressing change. When the student is removing the dressing from a leg ulcer, the patient begins to yell and swear at both of you. He threatens to throw the water pitcher if both of you don’t leave his room immediately. What should you do?
  2. Leave the leg ulcer undressed and exit the room immediately.
  3. Report the incident to the doctor and have him or her explain that this behaviour will not be tolerated.
  4. Temporarily dress the wound, explain that verbal abuse is not tolerated, leave the room and return later to discuss alternate wound dressing strategies.
  5. Firmly explain that that behaviour will not be tolerated, remove the water pitcher, and continue applying the dressing

 

 

  1. You have completed your initial assessment and charting on a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. When you go back into the room 1 hour later, you note that his Status has changed: He has become confused end does not know where he is; is taking short, rapid breaths at 34 breaths/min; has to sit up to breathe; and has a bluish tinge around his lips. His oxygen saturation levels have gone from 94% to 84%.  What would you document for the assessment?
  2. Confused and disoriented X3, Dyspneic, Pallor of lips. Oxygen saturation dropped from 94% to 84%.
  3. Confused, Cheyne Stokes breathing at rate of 34/min. Positioned in Fowler’s position. Blue lips.
  4. Disoriented, Tachypneic breathing at 34/min.Short of breath.  Oxygen saturation at 84%.
  5. Disoriented to place, tachypneic, shallow breathing at 34/min, orthopneic with circumoral cyanosis.  Oxygen saturation at 84%.

 

 

 

  1. Laurana, age 24 years, is being discharged today after the birth of her first baby. She is concerned about how she will manage at home and wonders how she can get her questions answered.  What sources of information would you suggest?
  2. Parents and friends.
  3. A retired nurse in her neighborhood and web sites.
  4. Community health clinics, telehealth, and hospital-based web site.
  5. Pamphlets, library books, husband, parents, and in-laws.

 

  1. What is the most important responsibility when inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube?
  2. Accurate measurement and lubrication of the NG tube.
  3. Asking the patient to breathe deeply when the tube is inserted past the nasopharynx.
  4. Encouraging the patient to swallow sips of water to facilitate the insertion.
  5. Checking the placement of the tube by aspiration and testing the pH of the contents.

 

 

Case Study: Mrs. April Hume, age 86 years, has been admitted with advanced liver metastasis after a mastectomy. She is very weak and is experiencing abdominal pain, has ascites, and is having difficulty breathing. She has requested that only supportive measures be given. Questions 14 and 15

 

  1. Which would be priority nursing Interventions?
  2. Addressing concerns she might have regarding death and dying, encouraging family support, and promoting her independence in meeting her needs.
  3. Initiating oxygen therapy, Fowler’s positioning, pain control, and addressing her Questions and concerns.
  4. Encouraging her to eat, mobilizing her every 2 hours, and having her perform deep breathing and coughing exercises every half hour.
  5. Ensuring that she under stands that she is on a palliative care unit and explaining that only comfort measures she requests will be followed.

 

 

  1. Mrs. Hume is anxious and concerned about her breathing difficulties. She states that she feels that breathing is taking so much energy that she is hardly able to eat. She is having difficulty mobilizing because of the pain and spends most of her time in bed. She says that her family is concerned about her lack of progress. What would you do?
  2. Explore other ways to more effectively control her symptoms and advocate for her when approaching her family.
  3. Rein force the meaning of supportive care to her family and restrict their visits so Mrs. Hume has more rest time.
  4. Provide support for the family and encourage Mrs. Hume to become more actively involved in her care.
  5. Determine where the patient is regarding the stages of dying and discuss the findings with her family.

 

  1. If a mass casualty occurs near your acute care unit what would be included in a disaster preparedness plan?
  2. An informal fan out to contact and inform all registered nurses about the disaster and elicit their help in assisting with the casualties.
  3. A formal written plan of action for coordinating the response of the hospital staff and to designate how different areas will be used.
  4. A designation of levels of casualty care and having nurses volunteer services at different levels.
  5. A formal plan to ensure that medical supplies and medications are available for the great number of casualties.

 

  1. Mrs. Jones recently had a cystectomy for bladder cancer. She has an ileal conduit (urostomy).  What teaching would you include?
  2. How to protect the skin, how to apply a dressing over the ostomy site, and the importance of reporting shreds of mucus in the urine as evidence of a urinary tract infection.
  3. Stoma care and application of an ostomy pouch and drainage bag, increasing intake of fluids, observing amount and the colour of the urine.
  4. Odour control, skin cleansing, and irrigation of the ostomy.
  5. Signs of infections or skin breakdown, intermittent application of the appliance, and the importance of dietary restrictions.

,

 

  1. Which of the following patients require increased sensory stimulation to prevent sensory deprivation?
  2. A 24-year-old patient who has been admitted with an anxiety disorder and appears very agitated.
  3. A 60-year-old patient, who is blind, reads books through use of Braille, listens to the radio, and regularly takes walks around the unit.
  4. A 65-year-old patient, who has employment-induced presbycusis and advanced glaucoma.
  5. An 84-year-old patient who has hemiparesis and ambulates with a walker.

.

 

 

  1. Mrs. Starface, age 62 years, a First Nations patient, has been admitted with a chronic cough and progressive weight loss.  She has a positive Mantoux test result, and is placed in isolation for suspected tuberculosis. What isolation precautions should the nurse take?
  2. Have her wear a disposable mask when she is transported to the radiography department.
  3. Wear a gown and gloves while in her isolation room.
  4. Wear a disposable mask, gown, and gloves while giving care.
  5. Discourage visitors from spending time with the patient to reduce transmission.

.

 

  1. Mrs. Mames, age 27 years, gravida 1, para 0, is admitted in active labour.  She states that her contractions are very intense and that she needs pain medication.  What is the most important factor to assess before analgesic administration?
  2. Her respiratory rate and fetal heart rate during contractions.
  3. The frequency, duration, and intensity of her contractions.
  4. The effectiveness of the coaching from her husband.
  5. How well she manages through the next five contractions.

 

 

  1. Mrs. Dravies, gravida 2, para 1, is admitted at 8 weeks gestation for a moderate amount of bleeding and abdominal cramps.  A day later, the bleeding stops, and she is being discharged.  What would you include in discharge teaching?
  2. Ask her how badly she wants this baby and what she would be willing to do to ensure carrying the baby to term.
  3. Ask her if she understands the reason for the cramping and bleeding and explain what precautions she could take to retain the pregnancy.
  4. Explain that nurse aborts the fetus if it is abnormal and that bleeding and cramps may indicate an abnormality.
  5. Ask her if she has been eating nutritious meals and restricting her activity during pregnancy.

 

  1. Mr. Jones, age 64 years, had a transurethral resection of the prostate yesterday.  How could you detect hypovolemic shock in this client?
  2. Slow, irregular heart rate and pulse deficit.
  3. Bounding pulse and hypotension.
  4. Pallor, cold extremities, and tachycardia.
  5. Dark red-tinged urine, shivering, and confusion.

 

  1. Jennifer, age 16 years, is admitted to the postanesthesia recovery room after wiring of a fractured jaw.  She is conscious.  Her breathing has become noisy and shallow.  Her oxygen saturation levels were at 98 and now are at 90.  What actions would you take?
  2. Position her in Sims position with her head to the side, give oxygen as ordered, and suction if needed.
  3. Position her in Fowler’s position to assist her in breathing and give oxygen as ordered.
  4. Insert an airway, suction her, and position her in the supine position.
  5. Encourage her to breathe deeply, position her in the prone position, and give oxygen as ordered.

 

 

 

  1. Daniel, age 16 years, had a cast applied after a fracture of the tibia.  When teaching him before discharge about detecting signs of impaired circulation and nervous system functioning, which signs would indicate problems?
  2. Pallor, coolness, and numbness of the toes.
  3. Pain at the fracture site and a small amount of bleeding through the cast.
  4. Inability to move the leg at the fracture site.
  5. Slight edema of the foot and presence of pedal pulse.
  6. Mr. Blair had a bowel resection 2 days ago and has had a nasogastric (NG) tube inserted.  He is complaining of increased abdominal pain and nausea.  What assessments or actions would be most appropriate?
  7. Check the patency and amount of drainage from the NG tube.
  8. Give him an analgesic and antiemetic as ordered.
  9. Irrigate the NG tube with water and give an analgesic as ordered.
  10. Explain that nausea is common because the NG tube irritates the gag reflex.
  11. Mr. Evans has ascites secondary to cirrhosis of the liver.  He is jaundiced and malnourished.  Which of the following problems is not associated with cirrhosis of the liver?
  12. Eupnea related to esophageal varices.
  13. Potential for pressure ulcers related to malnourishment.
  14. Concentrated, dark urine related to kidney excretion of bile byproducts.
  15. Confusion and disorientation related to increase in circulating toxins.
  16. Mrs. Chu had a cholecystectomy 2 days ago.  Which signs would indicate a wound infection?
  17. Serosanguineous drainage, temperature of 38-degree C, and abdominal pain.
  18. Purulent drainage, pain in the mid incision, and temperature of 38.5-degree C.
  19. Serous drainage, temperature of 38 degree C, and redness of the incision line.
  20. Sanguinous drainage, temperature of 37.5 degree C, and bradycardia.

 

  1. Dillon is 7 years old and weighs 30 kg.  He has acute streptococcal pharyngitis.  He is prescribed Keflex (cephalexin) 26.67 mg/kg q6h.  How much would he receive in each dose?
  2. 150 mg.
  3. 200 mg.
  4. 400 mg.
  5. None of the above.

 

 

  1. Jane, age 18 years, has an asthma attack when in the hospital.  She is in respiratory distress.  What initial action would you take?
  2. Position her in the supine position and administer oxygen and bronchodilators as ordered.
  3. Position her in the Sims position and gave bronchodilators as ordered.
  4. Position her in Fowler’s position, initiate oxygen, and give bronchodilators as ordered.
  5. Give bronchodilators and steroid medication as ordered.

 

  1. Mrs. Jones, age 34 years, returns from the recovery room after bowel surgery.  She is receiving morphine sulfate through a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump.  When you assess her pain levels, her pain intensity is 8 of 10.  When you ask her if she has been using the button to relieve her pain, she states, “I’m afraid that I’ll become addicted if I use too much morphine.”  Which would be the best response to her concern?
  2. “Morphine is not addicting in these circumstances.”
  3. “You need to take the morphine to help you rest and recuperate from the surgery; you can deal with the addiction later.”
  4. “When morphine is used to alleviate severe pain for 2 to 3 days, there is little likelihood of becoming addicted.”
  5. “Have you had problems with drug addiction before?”

 

 

  1. Mr. Keaton, age 65 years, has a plastic anemia and is going to receive a transfusion of packed blood cells.  In addition to taking vital signs and verifying that packed blood cells are matched to the patient, what other assessments would you make?
  2. Assess pain at the transfusion site and transfuse the packed blood cells over 5 hours to lessen reactions.
  3. Check the patient regarding chills, low back pain, dyspnea, and skin itching during the transfusion.
  4. Ask the patient about headaches, maintaining bed rest during the transfusion, and reducing intake of fluids to reduce the likelihood of fluid overload.
  5. Transfuse the blood quickly for the first 15 minutes and then check for abnormal breath sounds and other symptoms.

.

 

  1. Mrs. Kilts, age 84 years, has hypostatic pneumonia.  When you complete your assessment, which of the following would indicate hypoxia?
  2. Tachypnea, orthopnea, tachycardia, and circumoral cyanosis.
  3. Hypotension, bradycardia, braypnea, and use of accessory muscles in the neck.
  4. Eupnea, hypertension, bradycardia, and cyanosis of the nail beds.
  5. Occasional productive cough, pursed-lip breathing, and nasal flaring.

 

  1. When you enter the recreation room, you observe Sara Jones, age 20 years, pacing, speaking in a threatening manner, and appearing to defend herself. She has been diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. What approach would you take?
  2. Approach her directly and tell her you are going to get her some medication to help her calm down.
  3. Ignore her until she calms down and then approach her gently and ask what is wrong.
  4. Ask her if she is hallucinating and whether she has taken her medication today,
  5. Approach her calmly and find out what is causing her to be upset.

 

 

 

  1. Mr. Pritchard, age 55 years, has been informed by his doctor that his pancreatic cancer is inoperable and that it has spread to his liver. When you enter the room, he states, “The doctor feels that things are hopeless. I hate this place. You’re all so useless. Just leave me alone.”  What would be a therapeutic response?
  2. “This is devastating news for you. I’ll let you have some time and will come back later.”
  3. “You arc much too young to have inoperable cancer. How does your family fee l about this?”
  4. “You’ll need to get over this. Your family needs you to get your affairs in order.”
  5. “Why are you upset with us? You need some time to calm down.”

 

  1. Mr. Corwin, age 74 years, has had an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) after a right hip fracture. What are important priorities on the first postoperative day?
  2. Supporting the leg to maintain adduction, ensuring adequate pain control, and maintaining bed rest.
  3. Assessing the neurovascular status in the right leg; providing pa in control; and encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises, position changes, and early ambulation.
  4. Assessing for skin integrity, enhancing his nutritional status, and restricting his movement and activity in bed.
  5. Preventing confusion and disorientation, restricting analgesics, and encouraging pursed-lip breathing.

 

  1. Mr. Balm, age 70 years, comes into the emergency department with acute onset of severe chest pain, dyspnea, and anxiety.  His respirations are 28 breaths/min, and he has circumoral cyanosis with an oxygen saturation of 84%.

What would your immediate actions be?

  1. Gather information regarding the nature and intensity of the chest pain.
  2. Place him in Fowler’s position, Initiate oxygen therapy, and gel an analgesic ordered.
  3. Keep him in the supine position, encourage deep breathing, and request an ECG.
  4. Get an order for an analgesic, position him in the side-lying position, and encourage pursed- lip breathing.

 

  1. During a gymnastics practice, 18-year-old Tracey falls and fractures her right tibia. The doctor asks to be notified if anterior compartment syndrome presents in the right extremity.  What signs and symptoms would indicate this syndrome?
  2. Edema of the right foot, loss of sensation in the right leg, and hypotension.
  3. Edema of the right foot, redness on the skin surface or the calf, and poor capillary refill in the toenails.
  4. Severe pain aggravated by plantarflexion, tense and tender muscles in the lateral right calf, and paresthesia.
  5. Painful contracture of the calf muscles, inability to extend the leg, and redness arid warmth in the calf region.

 

  1. Mr. Harris, age 65 years, had a n abdominal perineal resection for cancer of the rectum. He is receiving morphine via a patient-control analgesia (PCA) pump. What would your priority assessment be regarding the analgesia?
  2. The rate and depth of respiration.
  3. The pulse rate and blood pres sure
  4. The effectiveness of pain control
  5. The accuracy of the programming on the pump.

 

  1. You are caring for Shauna, an 18- year-old gymnast who has been admitted for investigation of seizures. She weighs 50 kg. For two meals, you observe that she eats a very small amount of salad and skim milk. What approach would you take?
  2. Tell her you will have a dietician come to assess her eating habits.
  3. Ask her about her usual eating patterns and reason for her low intake.
  4. In form the doctor regarding her poor intake and suggest an appetite stimulant.
  5. Inform her that it she isn’t eating foods, a nasogastric feeding tube will have to be inserted.

 

  1. When you complete the initial postoperative assessment for Mr. Violini, age 55 years, you note that his IV is in fusing at 200 cc/hr. You check the order, which reads: “IV of 1000 cc D5S to infuse over 8 hours.” What actions would you lake?
  2. Continue infusing the IV at 200 cc/hr and observe his hydration status.
  3. Change the rate to 125 cc/hr and observe for fluid overload.
  4. Reduce the rate to 150 cc/hr and observe for fluid overload.
  5. Tell him that he should not adjust the flow clamp on the IV.

 

  1. Dana Evans, age 19 years, has been admitted after an asthma attack. When you complete your assessment, you observe that she is anxious, has audible wheezing, and is using her neck muscles when breathing. What would you do?
  2. Position her in orthopneic position, encourage coughing exercises, and ask her to calm down.
  3. Position her in Fowler’s position, administer oxygen, and give her the ordered pm lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg.
  4. Encourage her to lie in a semi-prone position, perform diaphragmatic breathing, and give her the ordered pm beclomethasone dipropionate (Beclovent) inhaler.
  5. Position her in Fowler’s position, administer oxygen as ordered, and give her the ordered pm med salbutamol (ventolin) by inhaler.

 

  1. Mr. Lexus, age 33 years, comes into the emergency department with severe back pain radiating to the left lower groin region. The doctor suspects renal calculi and orders meperidine HCI (Demerol) 100 mg 1M q3-4h pm. One hour after Mr. Lexus receives the medication, he states that the pain is still at 8 of 10.  What actions would you take?
  2. Explain that the medication takes longer than 1 hour to exert its effects.
  3. Tell him he will have to wait for 2 more hours before he can get his next injection.
  4. Contact the doctor, explain that the pain is still at 8 of 10, and request a higher dosage.
  5. Ask Mr. Lexus if he has routinely taken pain killers or street drugs.

 

  1. Which of the following indicates that the nurse is using critical thinking skills?
  2. The nurse follows the routine of the unit and encourages others to do the same.
  3. The nurse asks another nurse to outline the steps in performing a wound packing.
  4. The nurse does not know the answer and checks to find the answer on the unit or in the library.
  5. The nurse asks the patient about the symptoms she is experiencing an d lists them on the care plan.

 

  1. Which is the most important step in the nursing process?
  2. The assessment step because it involves collecting, organizing, and validating information that is used for the remaining steps.
  3. The nursing diagnosis step because it involves identifying the problems.
  4. The planning steps because it identifies ways to reduce, prevent and resolve problems.
  5. The implementation step because it ensures that interventions are effective.

 

  1. When identifying the nursing diagnosis or patient problems, which statement is most accurate?
  2. The nursing diagnosis helps to clarify the medical diagnosis and the problems that result from this diagnosis.
  3. Critical thinking skills are used to interpret, analyze, and duster the assessment data to determine the problems.
  4. The nursing diagnosis focuses on ways to prevent, reduce, or resolve the identified problems.
  5. The identification of patient problems provides the means of measuring the degree to which the goals are met.

 

 

 

  1. When performing a psychosocial assessment, which areas should be assessed?
  2. Breathing patterns, circulation patterns, and metabolic needs.
  3. Health ha bits, family, and social and sexual pattern).
  4. General survey, movement, eating habits, and activities of daily living.
  5. Rest and sleep patterns, activity and exercise patterns, and coping and stress tolerance.

 

  1. What is the primary purpose of conducting a health history?
  2. Identify the risk factors and how to promote health for the client.
  3. Obtain information to identify the level of health of the client and his or her past illnesses.
  4. Examine the chief complaint of the client and related factors.
  5. Provide for health teaching opportunities.
  6. When completing the physical assessment of the abdomen, which is the first skill used in the assessment?

 

  1. Which of the following statements heard during shift report identifies an important priority for action?
  2. A patient is reluctant to ambulate on the evening of surgery.
  3. A postoperative patient’s pulse has been increasing, and his blood pressure is decreasing.
  4. A postoperative patient is drowsy and slow to respond when the analgesic is at its maximal effect.
  5. A postoperative patient has not voided for 5 hours alter surgery.

 

  1. Upon completion of teaching related to Lanoxin (digoxin), a client is able to explain the effects of the medication and when not take it and can also identify the radial pulse site. What would this indicate?
  2. An accurate assessment of her teaching needs.
  3. An evaluation of psychomotor and cognitive learning.
  4. A high degree of motivation.
  5. An independent learner.

 

 

  1. When teaching a group of middle-aged women, what would you include when discussing primary prevention?
  2. Prevention of anemia and type 1 diabetes.
  3. Prevention of ulcers and inflammatory bowel disease.
  4. Fall prevention and maintaining joint mobility.
  5. Prevention of osteoporosis and the importance of regular breast self-examinations and regular Pap smears.

 

  1. A community health nurse is planning to address the needs of elderly adults living in their homes.  What primary area s should be included in this discussion?
  2. Importance of exercise, balanced nutrition and hydration, and safety and fall prevention.
  3. Prevention of joint deterioration and mobility problems.
  4. Prevention of hearing and visual deficits.
  5. Importance of frequent doctor visits and access to health care resources.

 

  1. Which of the following legal definitions is true?
  2. Good Samaritan laws are designed to protect victims in emergency situations.
  3. Negligence is intentional failure to act responsibly or deliberate omission of a professional act.
  4. Malpractice is failure to perform professional duties that result in patient injury.
  5. Scope of practice involves general guidelines that define nursing.

 

  1. A nurse has delegated the taking of vital signs for an unregulated health care provider. When a client’s blood pressure is reported as high, the registered nurse rechecks the blood, pressure and other vital signs for the patient. What would these actions be called?
  2. Obligation to the patient.
  3. Reversing of delegation.
  4. Empowerment of the patient.
  5. Accountability for care.

 

  1. When suctioning a tracheotomy, which actions are correct?
  2. Insert the suction catheter as far as patient can tolerate and suction for 25 seconds.
  3. Oxygenate the patient and then suction for 10 to 15 seconds while withdrawing the catheter.
  4. Suction every 15minutes to prevent secretions, from accumulating.
  5. Commence suctioning upon insertion of the catheter and continue for 5 seconds while withdrawing the catheter.
  6. A patient has been admitted to the emergency department after a car accident. He is sent to the hospital unit after emergency chest tube insertion. What would constitute an emergency situation with the chest tube?
  7. Bubbling of air in the underwater seal chamber.
  8. Improper suction setting on the wall suction.
  9. Disconnection of the connecting tubing from the chest tube.
  10. Drainage of bloody material into the drainage chamber.

 

 

 

  1. A postoperative patient after bowel surgery has orders for DAT (diet as tolerated). What assessments would indicate return of peristalsis?
  2. Distended abdomen and tympany on percussion.
  3. Soft abdomen and absence of bowel sounds on auscultation.
  4. Intermittent cramping, abdominal pain and bowel sounds in all four quadrants.
  5. Nausea, vomiting, and pain on palpation.

 

  1. A patient has a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump with morphine after a bowel resection. What are the nursing responsibilities after the client has self-administered a bolus of medication?
  2. Have the client mobilize to reduce the harmful effects of morphine.
  3. Ensure that the client understands that a bolus may take up to 15 minute to alleviate the pain.
  4. Encourage deep breathing and coughing exercises to lessen respiratory depression.
  5. Reduce the amount of IV pain medication being administered on a regular basis.

 

  1. Your assigned patient has been requesting a stronger pain medication. In response, the doctor has ordered morphine combined with a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for pain relief. How would you explain the effectiveness of these two medications?
  2. Combining these two drugs will increase pain relief without the increased side effects of increasing the morphine dose.
  3. The two drugs are antagonistic, so they will relieve the pain but will counteract the side effects.
  4. Combining the two drugs will lessen the incidence of addiction.
  5. The NSAID will relieve muscle pain; the morphine will act centrally on the central nervous system to relieve pain.

 

  1. In addition to the pain medication, what other measures help promote comfort and alleviate pain?
  2. Encouraging ambulation and vigorous rubbing of the inflamed tissues.
  3. Gentle massage of the area, warm and cold applications, guided imagery, and TENS.
  4. Prolonged heat applications followed by prolonged cold application to the area
  5. Encouraging tensing of muscles and performing distraction exercises.

 

  1. Which of the following would be indicators of severe hypoxia?
  2. Generalized pallor and eupnea.
  3. Circumoral cyanosis and Pa02 of 70 mm Hg.
  4. Low oxygen saturation levels of 95%.
  5. Increased anxiety and drowsiness.
  6. What nursing measures are important when a Foley retention catheter has been inserted?
  7. The Foley catheter should be left unsecured to prevent urethral irritation.
  8. Urine samples should be obtained by disconnecting the catheter from the drainage bag.
  9. The patient should limit fluid intake to keep the catheter patent.
  10. Reflux of urine from the tubing to the bladder should be prevented.

 

  1. You read through your assigned patient’s chart.  The history states:  “Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea; reduced CSWM in left leg.”  What do these medical history terms and abbreviations indicate.’?
  2. The patient is experiencing intermittent shortness of breath, is unable to breathe unless in a supine position, and has impaired venous return in the left leg.
  3. The patient is experiencing painful breathing and shortness of breath with exertion and has impaired arterial flow to the left leg.
  4. The patient is experiencing periods of severe shortness of breath at night and impaired circulation and sensory and motor functioning in the left leg.
  5. The patient has reduced breathing capacity, loss of breathing reserve, and impaired motor movement of the left leg.

 

  1. Which sexuality alterations might emerge after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
  2. The patient may be concerned that a heart attack may occur during orgasm.
  3. Emotional concerns may interfere with the phase of resolution.
  4. The arousal phase may he affected by personal concerns.
  5. Sexual dysfunction may present because of reduced ventricular contractions.

 

  1. Which of the following signs and symptoms would indicate impaired arterial circulation in the lower extremities?
  2. Capillary refill in the toenails with in 2 seconds.
  3. Absence of dorsalis pedis pulse; coolness and decreased sensation in the feet.
  4. Edema and coolness in the ankles and feet.
  5. Redness, inflammation, and sharp pain with calf muscle con traction.

 

  1. Which of the following isolation precautions would be relevant for the communicable illness identified?
  2. Airborne precautions are indicated for varicella (chickenpox) and involve wearing a mask when in the room.
  3. Gloves, a mask, and a gown are worn when changing a wound dressing infected with Staphylococcus
  4. If a patient is infected with VRE (vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus), vital signs equipment is brought into the room every time it is needed.
  5. Specimens obtained from a contaminated wound would be transferred directly to the laboratory without special precautions.

 

  1. You are developing a care plan for a patient with tuberculosis. What isolation precautions would you take?
  2. Use a special mask to prevent inhaling infected airborne droplets.
  3. Wear a mask, gown, and gloves when providing care.
  4. Wear c, gown and gloves when in contact with the patient.
  5. Prevent visitors from visiting to reduce the possibility of transmission.

 

  1. You arc assessing a patient who has been in a car accident. He complains about sore ribs and painful breathing on the left side of his chest cage.  What assessment findings would alert you to a pneumothorax?
  2. Pain on exhalation; fatigue.
  3. Dyspnea; decreased breath sounds on the affected side.
  4. Bradycardia and hypertension.
  5. Tachypnea and hyperventilation.

 

  1. A patient has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Suddenly, the patient develops chest pain and severe dyspnea. He looks anxious and is very apprehensive. What actions would you take?
  2. Position him in Fowler’s position, initiate oxygen, and call the physician.
  3. Auscultate for abnormal breath sounds and encourage deep breathing.
  4. Encourage pursed- lip breathing and coughing exercises.
  5. Ambulate the patient, encourage deep breaths, and take the apical pulse.
  6. Your patient has a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which of the following neurologic deficits may present after a CVA?
  7. Visual field deficits such as homonymous hemianopsia.
  8. Emotional changes such as lack of emotional response and enhanced coping.
  9. Motor deficits such as paresthesia with numbness and tingling.
  10. Verbal deficits such as dysphagia and memory loss.

 

  1. Which of the following assessment findings are associated with cholelithiasis?
  2. Associated risk factors include being male and athletic.
  3. Jaundice is seen if the calculus lodges in the common bile duct.
  4. Biliary colic attacks occur when there is stone formation in the gallbladder.
  5. Symptoms of pain include steady LUQ pain radiating to the left scapula.
  6. Which of the following assessment findings are seen in patients with cancer of the head of the pancreas?
  7. Early onset of pain.
  8. Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting.
  9. Early onset of jaundice and pruritus.
  10. Presence of steatorrhea, melena stools, and dilute urine.

 

 

  1. A client presents with cirrhosis of the liver secondary to alcohol abuse. What assessment findings would indicate portal hypertension?
  2. Ascites and hematemesis.
  3. Pulmonary edema.
  4. Absence of jugular vein distension.
  5. Cramps and watery diarrhea.

 

  1. Alter a total hip arthroplasty, what are the most important precautions to prevent dislocation?
  2. Limit movement s resulting in internal rotation and adduction of the affected hip.
  3. Use a pillow under the knees to prevent hip flexion.
  4. Reduce extension and hyperextension of the affected hip.
  5. Use toile t seats to prevent circumduction of the hip joint.
  6. Without hand washing between activities, a nurse makes an occupied bed and then assists another patient with meal preparation. Considering the chain of infection, which statement is true?
  7. The new portal of entry of microorganisms could be through the mouth.
  8. The mode of transmission is through direct contact.
  9. Microorganisms from the bed making would be spread by direct contact.
  10. An epidemic infect ion would occur if pathogens from the health care agency caused an illness.
  11. What are characteristics of effective decision making strategies in a nurse?
  12. Reviewing the chart and duplicating the actions of previous nurses.
  13. Gathering assessment data and analyzing and identifying-priority problems.
  14. Independently developing a plan of care based on the nurse’s workload.
  15. Willingness to follow the doctor’s orders and directions without questioning his or her rationale.
  16. What are important considerations when assessing and caring for a patient with pyrexia?
  17. The patient usually experiences a decrease in vital signs.
  18. The patient usually exhibits flushing of the skin and jaundice.
  19. The patient may experience dehydration and convulsions from a high temperature.
  20. The patient may experience increased urine output and dilute urine.
  21. Which of the following statements is true regarding wound healing when an infection is present?
  22. The infected portion of the wound will likely heal by primary intention.
  23. The inflammatory phase of healing will be shortened.
  24. The proliferative or regeneration phase will be delayed and prolonged.
  25. There will be less for mat ion of granulation tissue because of the infection,

 

  1. Which of the following assessment factors would indicate a need for oral pharyngeal suctioning?
  2. Thin sputum and a weak cough.
  3. Breathing rate of 36 breaths/min; noisy, gurgling respirations.
  4. Auscultation of fluid (rales and rhonchi) in the lower lobes of the lungs.
  5. Oxygen saturation levels of 95%; use of diaphragmatic breathing.

 

  1. Which of the following is an important consideration when performing oral-pharyngeal suctioning?
  2. Oxygen provided before suctioning limits the effectiveness of the suction.
  3. The nurse should only suction when the patient agrees to the procedure.
  4. Fluid intake should be limited to reduce the secretions produced.
  5. The duration of each suctioning episode should be IO to 15 seconds.
  6. What important postoperative care measures related to care of chest tubes should be done the day after a lobectomy?
  7. Disconnect the tubing to empty and measure drainage at the end of each shift.
  8. Frequently check the dressing and chest tube for drainage.
  9. Ensure that all connections arc securely taped.
  10. Position the patient in the prone or supine position to permit optimal drainage.

 

  1. Nutrients are important for wound healing.  Which of the following is true regarding the role of specific nutrients in healing?
  2. Vitamin C is needed for building capillaries and fibroblasts in the inflammatory phase.
  3. Essential amino acids art’ needed to ensure building blocks are present for building or proliferative phase.
  4. Nonessential fatty acids to provide a good supply of glucose for energy.
  5. Vitamin K is needed for the convalescent phase to help restore energy and nutrient needs.
  6. Mr. John G. has a history of cramps and has been experiencing diarrhea for the past 2 days. His urine is concentrated. You would assess for:
  7. Dehydration by checking tissue turgor and checking mucous membranes.
  8. Impaction as a result of the surgery.
  9. Signs of kidney suppression because of the concentrated urine.
  10. Absence of bowel sounds in the abdomen.

 

  1. What assessment findings would indicate circulatory overload from too rapid an IV in fusion?
  2. Decreased pulse, decreased blood pressure, and jugular vein distension.
  3. Increased pulse, increased respirations, and jugular vein distension.
  4. Headache, paleness, and hypertension.
  5. Increased temperature, peripheral edema, and decreased pulse rate.

 

  1. Which is the priority system to assess when a patient has severe hypothyroidism?
  2. Respiratory system.
  3. Heart and circulation.
  4. Neuro logic system.
  5. Integumentary system.
  6. A patient with diabetes is being tested for glvcosylated hemoglobin. How would you explain the reason for this diagnostic test?
  7. It determines the fasting blood glucose level.
  8. It determines the average blood glucose level in the previous; months.
  9. It determines the ratio of glucose to hemoglobin.
  10. It is used to identify a reduction in hemoglobin because of high glucose levels.

Case Study: Mr. Evan Jenkins, age 65 years, has had type 2 diabetes for 20 years and has been admitted to the hospital with chronic renal failure. Questions 87 to 90

 

  1. When completing the initial assessment, which signs would indicate circulatory overload?
  2. Increased blood pressure, apprehension, and shock.
  3. Weigh t gain, coughing of frothy sputum, and jugular vein distension.
  4. Cool, dry skin; gastric distension; and pleural edema.
  5. Apprehension, poor tissue turgor, and bradycardia.
  6. Which of the following statements is true regarding end-stage renal failure?
  7. A common cause of renal failure is pyelonephritis.
  8. It results in an increase in erythropoietin, leading to chronic fatigue.
  9. It results in a decrease in creatinine and blood urea nitrogen.
  10. It is characterized by fluid volume excess, hypernatremia, and hyperkalemia.
  11. What are important nursing care measures for a patient with chronic renal failure?
  12. Prepare the client for temporary peritoneal dialysis or hemodialvsis.
  13. Restrict sodium and potassium; restrict fluids as ordered.
  14. Provide a diet high in protein; restrict fluids as ordered.
  15. Monitor for hypotension and maintain accurate intake and output records.
  16. Mr. Jenkins makes this comment just before his hemodialysis treatment: “What havI got to live for? I’d just like this to be over.” How would you interpret these comments?
  17. This indicates feelings of depression associated with a long –term, incurable disease.
  18. This response will be temporary, and he will feel much better after his hemodialysis is initiated.
  19. His family is no t providing the support he needs at this time.
  20. This is an unusual response and indicates that his cognitive abilities have become impaired by the disease.
  21. A client has just been transferred to the postanesthesia recovery room. What are the most important initial assessments that need to be completed?
  22. Skin color, warmth of extremities, and mental status assessment.

 

Question 30:               Health Care

 

NSG 4029 WEEK 5 KNOWLEDGE CHECK
1.    Technology competence is:

  1.  The goals of nursing informatics are effectiveness, efficiency and safety.
  2.  An informatics nurse violates a patient’s legal right to privacy and confidentiality by:
  3.  Which fields in nursing were affected by the information technology?

 

Question 31:               Law

 

The purpose of this paper is to enable you to complete an original research project on a relevant topic in the administration of justice. Drawing on the extant literature and using your own unique research frame, you will develop and complete a research paper that answers your unique questions (your electives classes in AJ will help) about an issue in the administration of justice. While your own interests will guide your research, it is crucial to use the literature available to develop an informed and professional research paper. 

Paper Requirements: After your topic is selected and approved. (1) Abstract: should include your research questions, the theory (AJ 100 or 105 will help) or theories that inform your research, the methods of data collection and analysis (see AJ 301/2) to be used, and what you believe you will find as a result of your study (see course objectives). (2) BODY: After you have identified a specific topic, you will then develop your own unique area of discussion and analysis: introduction, literature review, theory and methods, and possible finding (your previous courses in AJ will help such as AJ 100,105, 211,240, etc.). (3) Citations: You must use the APA guide for identifying authors cited in the text as well as the bibliography listing all sources used in alphabetical order. If you are not familiar with APA, there are reference guides in the library as well as on-line sources. (4) Placement of graphs, figures, or tables: If you use graphs, figures, or tables in your paper, I would prefer that you note their location in the text, [TABLE 1 HERE], and compile all tables at the end of the paper. This is easier for both the writer and the reader. (5) Format: Papers must be type, double spaced, with one-inch side, top, and bottom margins and use a 12-point font.. The minimum page requirement for the paper is 12 pages (NOTE: cover, reference, graphs, figures and, tables pages will not be counted as part of the 12 pages). While I do not specify a maximum length, I am anticipating that most people will submit papers 12 pages long.

 

Question 32:               Business

 

  1. Explain what happens to the 95 % confidence interval as the sample size increases. (2 marks)
  2. Explain what happens to the width of the confidence interval for a 99% interval versus a 95%. (2 marks)

 

 

Q2.   Consider the population of adult females resident in Melbourne. Our focus is on the population mean height. Assume we do not know 𝜎 (population standard deviation) or the population mean, µ. We take a sample of adult females resident in Melbourne (n=100) and calculate the sample mean height as 70 cm and the sample standard deviation as 25cm.

 

  1. Derive the 95% confidence interval for the population mean (4 marks)
  2. Compare your interval here and last week – which is larger and why? (2 marks)

To answer ii question, you need to answer the question below.

 

 

 

Tutorial covering Lecture Topic 6: Part 1 Confidence intervals. (answer this in different page)

 

Q3. Consider the population of adult females resident in Melbourne. Our focus is on the population mean height. Assume we know 𝜎 (population standard deviation) is 25, but we do not know the population mean, µ. We take a sample of adult females resident in Melbourne (n=100) and calculate the sample mean height as 70 cm.

 

  1. Derive the 95% confidence interval around the sample mean. (3 marks)
  2. In your answer to i) will the specific confidence interval you have derived contain the population mean? Explain carefully. (2 marks)

 

Question 33:               Business

 

INDIVIDUAL LEARNING PROJECT INSTRUCTIONS The Individual Learning Project is an opportunity for you to evaluate yourself and your role within your organization by completing 10 self-assessment activities. You will begin the paper by completing a modified Abstract that details a past, present, or future job you will use as a basis for analyzing the self-assessment results. You will then write a full-page analysis of each assessment and combine all 10 together according to the provided format for submission at the end of the course. Each self-assessment must have at least 1 reference from your textbook to support your analysis and be cited according to current APA. You will find the Self-Assessment Activities in Connect. These are the activities you must complete. They are found at the end of the indicated chapter. CHAPTER SELF-ASSESSMENT ACTIVITY 2 Are You Introverted or Extraverted? 4 How Do You Cope With Stressful Situations? 5 How Strong Are Your Growth Needs? 7 What is your Preferred Decision-Making Style? 8 What Team Roles Do You Prefer? 9 Are You An Active Listener? 10 What’s Your Approach to Influencing Co-Workers? 11 What’s Your Preferred Conflict Handling Style? 12 Do Leaders Make a Difference? 13 What Organizational Structure Do You Prefer? After completing an assessment, analyze it by using the scoring key located in Connect and write an analysis with the following components: Title of the self-assessment (centered at the top of the page) 1. Purpose of assessment 2. Your actual score 3. The interpretation of your score, using the assessment feedback 4. How you can use the results of this self-assessment to improve your effectiveness and/or efficiency in an organization Page and Paper Format: • Components 1–3 above must not exceed 1/4 of the space on the page. • Component 4 above must occupy the remaining 3/4 of the space on the page. • All pages must be double-spaced with 1” margins (right, left, top, bottom) and left-justified. • Font must be Times New Roman and 12-pt size. • Titles for each assessment must be centered according to current APA format. • The first line of paragraphs must be indented 5 spaces. • For the submitted collection of analyses, attach a standard cover page like the sample document accompanying these instructions. Your submissions must also include a reference page. • Submit the collection as a Microsoft Word document. • Page headers must include short title and pagination (use Microsoft Word header function) with standard numbering according to APA requirements

 

Question 34:   English

 

 

Notes on plagiarism:

  1. According to the Arab Open University By-laws, “the following acts represent cases of cheating and plagiarism:
  • Verbatim copying of printed material and submitting them without proper academic acknowledgement and documentation.
  • Verbatim copying of material from the Internet, including tables and graphics.
  • Copying other students’ notes or answers.
  • Using paid or unpaid material prepared for the student by individuals or firms.

 

  1. Penalties for plagiarism ranges from failure in the STMA to expulsion from the university.

 

  1. Collaboration with anyone else (including fellow students) is strictly prohibited.

 

  1. All quotations used must be referenced.

 

Declaration: I hereby declare that the submitted STMA is my own work and I have not copied any other person’s work or plagiarized in any other form as specified above.

Student Signature:

 

 

FACULTY OF LANGUAGE STUDIES

EL120: English Phonetics and Linguistics

 

Exam Instructions:

 

 

  1. There are THREE parts to this examination paper as in the following table:

 

Part Question No. Marks per section
A 50
B a 7.5
b 5
c 2.5
C 35
TOTAL   100

 

 

  1. You are required to answer all THREE parts.

 

  1. Follow carefully the instruction in each part.

 

  1. Review your answers carefully paying attention to your grammar, spelling and punctuation as well as to relevant textual elements (e.g. paragraphing, cohesion & coherence) as part of the mark for each question will be given to language accuracy and text organization.

 

 

 

 

You are required to answer ALL questions

 

 

PART A

 

Answer the following questions in a paragraph form in not less than 150 words each. USE YOUR OWN WORDS                                   (50marks)                                                                            

 

  1. Explain why there are more sounds than letters of the alphabet in English? Illustrate your answer with examples.             (Not less than 150 words)                  (25 Marks)

 

___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

  1. What are the differences between a phoneme and an allophone? Refer to at least 2 features as examples of allophones and the effect of neighboring sounds. Use examples of your own to illustrate your answer. (Not less than 150 words) (25 Marks)

 

_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

PART B

 

  1. a) Give the appropriate phonetic symbol for each of the following consonant descriptions and provide examples of this symbol in three positions (initial, medial, final)

(7.5 Marks)

 

  1. i) Voiced dental fricative: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

 

  1. ii) Voiceless velar plosive/stop: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

 

iii) Voiceless post alveolar affricate: /    /   Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

 

 

 

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  1. b) Give the appropriate phonetic symbol for each of the following descriptions of RP

vowels: Put each vowel in three examples of your own.                                          (5 Marks)

 

 

  1. A long, front, high, unrounded vowel: / /   Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

 

  1. A short, front, high, unrounded vowel: /    /   Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

 

  1. c) Use the above two vowels in b) in two sets of minimal pairs to illustrate the difference between them. (2.5 marks)

 

  1. ________________ & ___________________
  2. ________________ & ___________________

 

 

PART C

 

Which of the following statements is true (T) and which is false (F)? Provide the correct answer in case of “FALSE”      . Explain The Phonetic Rule Relevant To Each Of The 7 Statements.                                                                                                       (35 Marks)

 

  1. The pronunciation in connected speech of “good girl” as / good girl / is an example of aspiration.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

  1. The difference between the /f/ in the word fish and the /v/ sound in the word vase has to do with voicing.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

  1. The pronunciation of the underlined vowel sounds in the following words is identical (the same): four – founder – soup.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

  1. The alveolar ridge is the organ responsible for creating voiced and voiceless sounds.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

 

  1. The /t/ in till has the same pronunciation as the /t/ in still.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. /l/ in light – while – milk is the same allophone.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

 

  1.  The place of the stress in the word ‘object’ is the same in the noun and the verb.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

 

Question 35:               History

 

Please write a 250-word essay about a NJ Historical figure (that you select) found within the chapters of the Maxine Lurie text. Tell why this person is important, what they did, how others reacted to their actions, how this person relates to the present, and your Personal Analysis of the individual’s actions.

 

 

 

 

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Question 36:               General

 

What would Mary T. Norton think of the women’s movement of the 1970’s? What would she think of today’s society? Since Norton envisioned a female Governor and a female President, do you think she should have run for those offices? Why? How has Mary T. Norton impacted your life?

 

 

 

 

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Question 37:               Human Resource

 

What do you believe would be the most important components of the selection process for the following jobs? a Telemarketer,

  1. Restaurant manager
    c. School teacher
    d. A beginner football player

 

Question 38:               Finance

 

Instructions:

 

1 This is an individual assignment.
2 Your assignment should be typed using font-size 12, Times New Roman, and 1.5 spacing.
3 Your report should not exceed 2000 words in length. This excludes quotes, references.
4 It should contain complete references by using the APA referencing method for all citations made in the paper (including internet citations). An essay without citations would be considered as plagiarism and would be awarded a failed grade.
5 A Turnitin originality report has to be attached to the assignment. You will have to register yourself at www.turnitin.com. The information required when submitting your assignment are :

·         Class ID: 24175513

·         Enrollment Password: d2fin100

6 The assignment should submit online through LMS
7 You must submit your assignment by 30 April 2020. Failure to submit the assignment by the stipulated date would result in your assignment not being marked or marked as zero.

 

You will be given a selected public listed company that listed in Bursa Malaysia as your research target.

You are required to find all the necessary financial information from the companies’ Annual Reports, on the companies’ website, online searching etc., in order to perform the different tasks that required by this assignment as shown in the following sections.

You are required to write an analysis report on your selected company to present you findings. Your reports should start with an introduction to introduce the background of the company and perform industry and competitive analysis to understand the intense of competitiveness in the market.

Section A

In the first section of your report, you are required to examine the short-term financial activities of your selected company.

Using the following assumptions together with the information you collect from the company’s annual report to perform the required task:

Assumption:

  1. Assuming a constant rate for purchases, production, and sales throughout the year.
  2. Assuming all sales are on credit.
  3. Assume a 365-day year.
  4. Assuming the credit period that currently offer by the company to their customers are close to the company’s average collection period, and they did not offer any cash discount.
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Required:

  1. Calculate the following ratios for your selected company (based on the latest annual report):
    1. Average age of Inventory
    2. Average collection period
    3. Average payment period
  2. what are your selected company’s operating cycle (OC), cash conversion cycle (CCC), and the resource needs to support its cash conversion cycle (based on the latest annual report)?
  3. The company are contemplating to introduce a cash discount of 3 percent to those who pay the account within 10 days, while the others are still expect to pay according to the current credit period. The following assumption have been made:
  4. The sales revenues are expected to increase by 3 percent.
  5. 40 percent of the customers are expected to take the 3 percent discount.
  • The average collection periods are expected to reduce by 30%
  1. The bad debt expenses are expected to decrease from 1.5% of sales to 1% of sales.
  2. The firm’s opportunity cost of tying up funds in account receivable is 12%
  3. All the costs of sales are variable cost and 50 percent of the other operational costs are variable cost.
  • Other incomes remain unchanged.

You are required to calculate the following items:

  1. Additional profit contribution from the increase in sales revenue
  2. Cost/cost savings of marginal investment in account receivable
  3. Cost/cost savings of marginal bad debts
  4. Cost of cash discount
  5. Net profit/loss from initiating of proposed cash discount
  6. Use your findings from part (a) to part (e) to assess whether offering the cash discount can be justified financially.

 

  1. Answer the following questions:
    1. Why is working capital management one of the most important and time-consuming activities of the financial manager?
    2. What is the relationship between the predictability of a firm’s cash inflows and its required level of net working capital? How are net working capital, liquidity, and risk of insolvency related?
    3. What are the basic trade-offs in a tightening of credit standards?

 

 

 

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Section B

In this second section, you are required to conduct an equity analysis on your selected company. Your report should include the following content:

  1. You are required to perform the equity valuation on the selected company to find the intrinsic value by using an appropriate equity valuation model.
  2. Explain your selected equity valuation model, and why you think your selected model is appropriate to use to value the selected company.
  3. Explain how you estimate/obtain the inputs for your valuation model, and why you think the method you use to estimate the input is appropriate for your selected company.
  4. You should use the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) to calculate the required return for the selected company. You may find the Beta of your selected company from investing.com.
  5. For the market return, you should use the return on FBM KLCI index as a proxy for the market return. You should first find the average monthly changes for FBM KLCI over the past twenty years and then annualized it to find the annual capital gains. You should then add the average annual capital gains with the long-term average dividend yield of FBMKLCI to find the annual market return. The average dividend yield for FBMKLCI are assumed to be 3.5%.
  6. You should use the yield of 10 years Malaysian Government Securities to represent the risk-free rate.
  7. Based on this information, you can then calculate required rate of return for the common stock of your selected company.
  8. Using all of this information from the previous steps, you are then required to find the intrinsic value for your selected company.
  9. You will also need to find out what is the current price of your selected company.
  10. Explain how the outbreak of the Covid-19 will affect your selected company.
  11. Based on your analysis, would you recommend buying this stock at the current market price? Explain why you make that recommendation.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Assessment Criteria

For your guidance, your assignment report will be marked as follows:

  Question Marks (%)
Introduction, Company Background and industry analysis 10
Section A Working Capital Management
Shows all calculations using appropriate formula/model. (Use Excel). 25
Theory and explanation 15
Section B Equity Valuation and Cost of Capital
Shows all calculations using appropriate formula/model. (Use Excel). 30
Explanation, discussion and analysis 15
Conclusion and recommendation

 

5
Total 100

 

The marks will then convert into the final weightage of 50%.

 

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Questions1:          Mathematics

 

An investor is considering purchasing a bond with a 7.89 percent coupon interest rate, a par value of $1,000, and a market price of $1019.06. the bond will mature in nine years. Based on this information, answer the following questions:

  1. What is the bond’s current yield?
  2. What is the​ bond’s approximate yield to​ maturity?
  3. What is the​ bond’s yield to maturity using a financial​ calculator?

 

Question2: Business

 

Search the internet for financial statements of publicly traded companies. Students are required to utilize different financial statements from the Week 2 Individual Assignment.

Analyze the financial ratios of the identified publicly traded company in a minimum 1,400 words including the following:

  • Review week 2 graded assignment feedback and restate/revise the uses for each of the three classifications of ratios: liquidity, solvency, and profitability.
  • Calculate the current ratio, profit margin, and after tax ROE, of an additional (different company from week 2) publicly traded company—then compare this second company ratios with the ratios you computed for the company from week 2 “Revenue Forecast” assignment). Include both verbiage and a chart to compare the company’s ratios from week 2assignment with the ratios from the company for this week’s assignment.
  • Display your calculations.

Question 1: Statistics

 

Though 70% of women with children younger than 18 years participate in the labor force, society still upholds the stay at home mother as the traditional model. Some believe that employment distracts mothers from their parenting role, affecting the well-being of children.

Question 1: In the GSS 2024, respondents were asked to indicate their level of agreement to the statement, “A working mother hurts children”. Of the 435 male respondents who answered the question, 18% strongly agreed that a working mother does not hurt children. Construct a 90% confidence interval for this statistic.

Question 2: of the 566 female respondents who answered the question, 40% strongly agreed that a working mother does not hurt children. Construct a 90% confidence interval for this statistic.

P.S. these questions are on chegg 

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Question 3: Business

  1. 1What are some ways that social media has changed your daily life? What can marketers take advantage of for their promotional purposes?

 

  1. Choose a local business that is utilizing social media effectively. Analyze what they are doing by conducting your own social media monitoring. What tools can you use? What are the company’s objectives? What are they doing right?

1.3    Provide some examples of brands that have garnered success with social media. Provide some examples of some brands that have not been successful with social media. Based on this comparison, what are the key ingredients to getting customers to engage with a brand?

1.4  Assume you are starting a new yogurt store on campus. Develop a profile of your likely target market. What social media tools do you think will be most effective at reaching that audience? Why?

 

Question 4: Business

 

Topic: Is it ever moral to break a promise? A rational analysis and conclusion.

Thread: The Reading & Study materials this module/week discuss the complex issue of poverty, and the moral imperative of promise-keeping is mentioned several times. After reviewing the Reading & Study materials, compose a 500-600 word argument that is objective, carefully-constructed, and free of emotion (and hence it should not contain any exclamation points) in support of your opinion on each of the following questions.

  1. Why is promise-keeping morally important?
  2. Is it ever morally permissible to break a promise?
  3. If you answer “yes” to #2, then what are the conditions that render promise-breaking morally acceptable?
  4. If you answer “no” to #2, then explain why you believe it is never permissible. How would you handle difficult scenarios wherein someone has made a promise the keeping of which would have significant undesirable consequences?
  5. Is it ever morally obligatory to break a promise?
  6. If you answer “yes” to #5, what are the conditions that render promise-breaking morally obligatory?

Be sure to carefully define your terms. You are encouraged to support your position with rational arguments, fitting examples, and expert sources. Any quotes or information used from sources other than yourself must be cited using footnotes in current Turabian format and will not count towards the total word count.

You will be penalized for falling short or exceeding the word count. This is a university-level writing assignment and therefore it must be carefully proofread, free of grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. Do not use slang, emoticons, or abbreviations (as if you are texting or sending an email to a friend).

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Reply: After reading your classmates’ threads, choose one to which you will respond, then write a reply that interacts with your classmate’s thread and presents a well-reasoned alternative to his or her approach to the issue. You do not have to defend a position that is diametrically opposed to your classmate’s position, but you do need to either defend a position that is significantly different from his/hers or defend the same position in a very different way. If possible, you must reply to a classmate to whom no one else has yet replied. Treat your classmate’s opinion with sensitivity and respect.

This is a university-level writing assignment. Therefore it must be carefully proofread, free of grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. Do not use slang, emoticons, or abbreviations (as if you are texting or sending an email to a            friend).

Your reply must be 500–600 words. You will be penalized for falling short or exceeding the word count. Any quotes or information used from sources other than yourself (including your classmate’s thread) must be cited using footnotes in current Turabian format and will not count towards the total word count.

 

Question 5: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

 

Explain how training can be an organizational competitive strategy.

 

 

 

 

Question 6: Business

 

Imagine that your training plans are not yielding the expected results in learning according to the data that you’ve analyzed. There has been discussion with the leadership team about issues with employees not being motivated to learn, and employee surveys have confirmed that employees are not sufficiently motivated. Your team has been asked by the HR Director to investigate what may be causing the lack of motivation. Your investigation should consider barriers to learning, motivational theories, and alternatives for enhancing employee motivation.

Create a report of no more than 700 words that summarizes various motivational theories.

Write a report that includes the following components:

  • A comparison of motivational theories
  • Alternatives that should be considered to enhance learner motivation
  • The impact on self-efficacy on learning
  • Recommendations for improving motivation for learning
  • Data that you will collect to determine whether or not your recommendations are having a positive effect upon employee motivation
  • Strategies for enhancing the retention of learning
  • Post-implementation surveys and analysis to determine the effectiveness of training on motivation

 

Cite any outside sources according to APA formatting guidelines.

 

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Question 7: Business

 

As people become increasingly comfortable posting their lives online via social networks like Facebook or through microblogs like Twitter, some companies have begun to build Web dossiers of consumers. They do this by mining the social Web on Facebook, Twitter, blogs, and online forums. Then they sell it to other companies. And here is the deal . . . most consumers have no idea that this is being done.

While the use of customer data has been around for a few years (especially through companies like Amazon who use algorithms based on customer searches and purchases to make product recommendations), there are some privacy advocates who feel that mining and using data from the social Web crosses ethical lines. For their part, the companies that aggregate this information say that they are using this information to detect behavioral patterns in order for companies to provide better products and customer service.

SOURCE: “How Companies Are Using Your Social Media Data,” http://mashable.com/2010/03/02/data-mining-social-media.

Instructions:

Document your activities and exercise in this application exercise assignment. Keep good notes that you will submit as part of this assignment. Answer the following three question!

Questions

  1. Do think that this practice violates privacy, or is it acceptable since it uses information that a person has posted voluntarily?
  2. What are some promising ways that companies can use this data?
  3. What are some questionable ways that companies can use this data?

 

Question 8: History

 

According to Khrushchev’s address to the 20th Congress of the Communist Party in February 1956, what were Stalin’s major crimes? To what degree were these problems resolved under later Soviet leaders? How would Russia’s current leaders react to this speech? Follow these guidelines: Write an essay of 500 words (or more) responding to the prompt Use complete and accurate sentences, avoid showing bias or using “I/me” statements, and avoid text-message writing Your paragraphs need to be at least four to six sentences long Include at least one APA-style citation (Author, year, p. #) with each paragraph, placing it immediately after a sentence with evidence

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Question 9: Language

 

Differences between Urdu and Modern Standard Arabic

Topic: consonants :

Form: essay form

Compare and contrast consonants inventory in ​two languages​ by following these criteria: (Write the paper using essay form)

(introduction)

  1. Start the essay with a paragraph of the ​history​ of the two languages. Do they have a common origin?

(body)

  1. The ​number​ of consonants these languages have.
  2. consonants inventory in terms of: Phonetic description – consonants quantity –  consonants quality
  3. Include a consonants quadrilateral “graph”
  4. Are there any special features associated with “language1” which are not present in “language

?”2

(conclusion)

  1. End the essay by relating the first paragraph with the rest of the paragraphs by stating how these two languages’ origins resulted in similar or different consonants inventory, ​highlighting the biggest similarities or differences.
  2. Citation using ​APA style.
  3. Maximum 3 pages. ​Minimum: cover the criteria assigned in 3 paragraphs​.

*note: use consonants IPA symbols for consonants

 

 

Questions 10: History

 

Choose one of the following topics and answer the questions based on what you learned from the readings and resources for this week: 1) What were the global forces that influenced the civil rights movement within the United States? 2) What reasons have been advanced to explain why the Soviet system collapsed in 1991? Which do you think are the most persuasive? Your response to the discussion question should: Be at least 150 words in length Be thoughtful and substantive Respond to the discussion prompt and demonstrate critical thinking Follow APA formatting and documentation guidelines when referring to course readings and other materials Use proper spelling, grammar, and punctuation Respond to at least two of your classmates. Each response should: Be at least 50 words in length and include more than one’s agreement or disagreement with another student’s post React to the classmate’s post and demonstrate higher-order thinking (challenge, connect, suggest, question, or expand) Follow APA formatting and documentation guidelines when referring to course readings and other materials Use proper spelling, grammar, and punctuation

 

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Question 11: Business

 

It’s a 2 part assignment. First part is to write a profile of a wine consumer, like who is the type of person that consumes wine, age, loyalty to a particular brand? Is there a preference to certain types of wine? any difference between a younger wine consumer vs an older consumer. something general like that.

2nd part is what is the image of wine from Chile, locally and internationally

 

Question 12: Political Science

 

how has the war on drugs affected living in Latin America and in the US”.

 

Question 13: Psychology

 

Answer in complete sentences. Chapter 11 A. What neurotransmitters are active during any emotional output? B. How do appraisals impact our emotional experiences? Chapter 12 D. In what way can intrinsic motivation be more powerful than extrinsic motivation for achieving something? E. Explain the attachment theory as it pertains to the romantic relationship.

 

 

Question 14: History

 

HIEU 201 LECTURE QUIZ 1

  • Question 1

According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which empire brought conflict to Egypt and were the first to fashion iron weapons?

  • Question 2

 

According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who built the very first, world empire?

  • Question 3

 

According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who were considered a “deadly force of ruthless attackers”?

  • Question 4

 

According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” Sumer, the foundation for Mesopotamian culture, was located in which region?

  • Question 5

 

According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which of the following is NOT one of the legacies of the Persian Empire?

  • Question 6

 

According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” where did most civilizations rise up?

  • Question 7

 

According to the lecture, “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which seafaring people, mentioned in the Old and New Testaments, gave us the writing system based on sound, rather than pictures?

  • Question 8

 

According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which of the following peoples contributed the greatest legacy to Western civilization?

  • Question 9

 

True or False: According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” the purpose of this course is to consider all important civilizations from around the world.

  • Question 10

 

According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who was the greatest Chaldean ruler, who sacked Jerusalem and took many Israelites into captivity?

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Question 15: Mathematics

 

How much will a $7,500 EE savings bond cost when you initially purchase it? Assuming the bond earns 4.13 percent annually, approximately how long will it take for the bond to reach its stated face value?

When you initially purchase it, the EE saving bond will cost $ 3750

Assuming the bond earns 4.13 percent annually, the length of time it will take for the bond to reach its stated face value is ___ years.

 

 

Question 16: Biology

 

NUR 602 Midterm Study GUIDE – Chanberlain College of Nursing

 

Question 17: Psychology

 

A criticism of the use of anesthesia during childbirth is that it

 

A baby is defined as post mature if it

 

Question 18:  Education

 

Which of the following are traits that effective teachers demonstrate in their dealings with peers, administrators, and parents?

According to Gary Borich, which of the following is a characteristic behavior of effective teachers?

 

 Question 19:  Health Care

 

Nutritional Principles in Nursing: Evaluating Diets Module 11

NURSING: NUR1172 N Garcia NUT Mod11 Diets

 

 

Question 20: Health Care

 

Bparker Module 01 PowerPoint Carbohydrates Proteins Lipids Vitamins Minerals Water

 

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Question 21: Health Care

 

Walden NURS6660 Final Exam ( 2019)

 

Question 22:        Health Care

 

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

 

Rashidah is a 55-year-old female who is experiencing acute chest pain and shortness of breath. She describes the pain as “pressure and squeezing.” When she becomes nauseous and light-headed, her son insists that he take her to the emergency room.

 

Health History: She started smoking when she was 18, attempted to quit several times in her 40s, and had her last cigarette on her 50th birthday. She has been overweight for most of her adult life, but has gained 20 pounds in the last few years, which increased her BMI to 34. The last time she had a physical exam was when she turned 50. Her vital signs and blood test results from that exam are listed below.

 

BP: 178/90

HDL: 62 mg/dl

LDL: 190 mg/dl

Triglycerides: 174 mg/dl

Total cholesterol: 252 mg/dl

Fasting blood glucose: 128 mg/dl

 

Which of these statements is most likely correct?

Selected Answer:

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

 

 

In the emergency room, multiple tests are performed. Which of these results would confirm myocardial damage?

Selected Answer:

 

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

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Which of Rashidah’s physical exam lab test results was within normal limits for her age and sex?

Selected Answer:

 

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

 

 

Given her last physical exam results, Rashidah’s physician believes she has likely had undiagnosed atherosclerosis for years. Briefly describe the pathophysiology of atherosclerosis.

Selected Answer:            Atherosclerosis is the narrowing of arteries from plaque build up on the arterie walls. When there is a build up of plaque it makes it harder for the body to get oxygen rich blood through out the body. If there is too much build up in the ateries it can cause a blockage which can make it more likely to have blood clots

 

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

 

Rashidah’s most recent Body Mass Index indicates that she is:

Selected Answer:

Obese

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

 

 

Which of the following statements is true?

Selected Answer:

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

 

 

A coronary angiography is performed and shows a complete blockage of the LAD. Briefly describe what this means.

 

Question 8

1 out of 1 points

 

 

Which of the following treatments would help correct Rashidah’s condition?

Selected Answer:

Question 9

1 out of 1 points

 

 

Rashidah quit smoking 5 years ago, but still suffered a myocardial infarction. She is tempted to start smoking again since quitting “obviously didn’t make me healthier.” What does research tell us about her future health risks if she resumes smoking?

 

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Question 10

1 out of 1 points

 

 

Before Rashidah is discharged from the hospital, her care team informs her that she may experience stable angina, a form of chest pain, in the future. Briefly explain how angina is different from the pain associated with a myocardial infarction.

 

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

 

 

Roberto is a 78-year-old male who has recently been diagnosed with Class III Congestive Heart Failure (CHF). His physician told him that his left ventricle has become stiff and cannot relax. Although there is no current treatment that can “fix” Roberto’s condition, he is prescribed two medications- an ACE inhibitor and beta blockers.

 

There are multiple types of CHF. Which of these types does Roberto have?

Selected Answer:

 

Question 12

0 out of 1 points

 

 

Which of these statements is most likely true of Roberto’s current symptoms?

Selected Answer:

Question 13

0 out of 1 points

 

 

Because of the dysfunction of Roberto’s left ventricle, which of these findings is most likely?

Selected Answer:

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

 

 

Briefly describe how beta-blockers will influence Roberto’s heart function, specifically the physiology of the ventricles.

 

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

 

 

Briefly describe how ACE-inhibitors will influence Roberto’s heart function.

 

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

 

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Roberto’s doctor orders several tests of his heart function, including “ejection fraction.” Briefly explain what an ejection fraction measures. (Include what a normal measurement would be.)

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

 

 

Which of the following conditions may have led to Roberto’s CHF?

Selected Answer:

 

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

 

 

Which of the following choices is NOT a risk factor for developing CHF?

Selected Answer:

 

Question 19

0 out of 1 points

 

 

Which heart valve opens to allow blood to leave the left ventricle?

 

 

Aortic valve

 

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

 

 

Further testing reveals that Roberto has hypertrophy of the left ventricle. How does this finding relate to his diagnosis?

 

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Question 23: Health Care

 

BSC 2347 Module 1 Case Study / BSC2347 AP 2 Module 1 Human Anatomy and Physiology II Case Study

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Correct           Jasper is a 7-year-old boy who has had flu-like symptoms for several weeks. It was mild at first, but his parents notice that he has been getting worse. They took him to his pediatrician last week, but he was sent home with suggestions to use OTC medication to treat his symptoms while his body recovered from what appeared to be a mild infection. Jasper appears weak, has lost 3-4 pounds in the last month, and has been complaining of headaches. Jasper’s parents have now brought him back to the clinic and another physician orders a CBC.

 

What is a CBC? In your own words, briefly describe why it is useful.

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

Correct           The physician suspects that Jasper may have leukemia. Which of the lab results most likely lead the physician to this conclusion?

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

Correct           Jasper exhibits many symptoms that could relate to a diagnosis of leukemia. List and briefly explain 2 other symptoms of leukemia that are NOT mentioned in this case study.

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

Correct           Because of Jasper’s age, which type of leukemia is the most likely?

Selected Answer:

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

Correct

If Jasper has ALL, which of the following lab results is most likely?

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

Correct           What is the most common type of childhood leukemia? In your own words, briefly describe the pathophysiology of the disease.

Selected Answer:

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

Correct           Which of these tests would NOT be helpful in diagnosing leukemia?

Selected Answer:

Question 8

1 out of 1 points

Correct           In your own words, briefly describe the difference between myelogenous and lymphocytic leukemia.

Selected Answer:

Question 9

1 out of 1 points

Correct           Which of the following is NOT a treatment option for ALL?

Selected Answer:

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

Correct           Assuming that Jasper has the most common type of childhood leukemia, what is his prognosis?

Selected Answer:

Question 11

0 out of 1 points

Incorrect        Elsa is an 11-month-old girl. Her parents have brought her to her pediatrician because they have noticed she seems lethargic and pale. Both parents have noticed that she appears bloated, doesn’t want to eat as much as she has before, and is tired and “cranky all the time.” They suspected she might be suffering from anemia, since she was being fed a low-iron formula, so they had switched to a high-iron formula. The change made no difference in her symptoms. The pediatrician notes that Elsa’s belly appears swollen. Her vital signs show that her temperature is normal and her heart rate is on the low end of the normal range for her age. She has dropped from the 50th percentile in height and weight (at her last check-up) to the 10th percentile in both height and weight.

 

Blood test results:

Hemoglobin: 5 g/dl

RBC: 4.6×106 cells/ml

MCV: 65

WBC 15,000 cells/ml

Platelet count: 250,000

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Which of Elsa’s symptoms is NOT typical of anemia in infants?

Selected Answer:

Question 12

 

1 out of 1 points

Correct           In your own words, briefly describe why Elsa’s parents changed her formula to the high-iron baby formula.

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

Correct           Which of her blood test results is within normal range?

Selected Answer:

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

Correct           Elsa’s blood sampled was analyzed under a microscope and it was determined that her red blood cells were “hypochromatic” and “microcytic.” Explain, in your own words, what these terms mean.

Selected Answer:

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

Correct           Elsa’s pediatrician suspects that she has thalassemia. Which of the following statements is true of thalassemia?

Selected Answer:

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Correct           In your own words, explain why hemoglobin is important in hematology.

Selected Answer:

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

Correct           It is determined that Elsa is experiencing beta-thalassemia major. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding this diagnosis?

Selected Answer:

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

Correct           Because Elsa has received a confirmed diagnosis of beta-thalassemia major, which of the following statements is true about her parents?

Selected Answer:

Question 19

1 out of 1 points

Correct           As Elsa gets older, which of the following choices is NOT a likely complication of her disorder?

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

Correct           In your own words, briefly describe how thalassemia is related to Elsa’s failure to thrive.

Selected Answer:

 

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Question 2: Psychology

 

Introduction Guided Response#1 This is what i wrote i have to response back to students and the Teacher

Hello everyone. It is my sincere congratulations to you for making it this far and for being part of this class. I am again looking for a fun and exciting time together and with our instructor. My name is Tishawn Thomas I am 42 years old and reside in Easton, Pennsylvania. I come from Brooklyn, New York. I have a Bachelor of Arts in Social Science and Master of Arts in Special Education from Ashford University. I am kind of old school because I love jazz and classical rock. Currently, I have joined this class to take a master’s program in psychology to enable me become a licensed counselling psychologist.

When navigating the left I found this course very interesting. I have reviewed the major theoretical approaches, research methods, and assessment instruments that will be covered in the course and I must say that this course will be interesting. I am looking forward to learning how the theoretical approaches and research methods can be combined with the assessment instruments to assist personality analysis.

The model of personality that I am more interested in researching further is the five-factor model (FFM) of personality. The FFM is a set of five personality trait dimensions, often called the Big Five: Extraversion, Agreeableness, Conscientiousness, Neuroticism, and Openness to Experience. The initial model was advanced by Raymond Christal and Ernest Types in 1961. In 1990, J.M. Digman advanced the five-factor personality model, which was later extended by Lewis Goldberg, making Goldberg the father of FFM. This model is important in my current and future careers because it provides me with a basis of judgement and personality analysis. As an educator, the five-factor model provides an opportunity for understanding students and engaging them appropriately.

References

Choca, J. P. (1999). Evolution of million’s personality prototypes. Journal of Personality Assessment, 72(3), 353-364

Jung, C. G. (1933). Psychological Types. New York: Harcourt, Brace.

Carl Jung. Jung Journal, 6(2), 86-102. doi: http://dx.doi.org/10.1525/jung.2012.6.2.86

 

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 Guided Response#1 

Glad to be in class with you. I too enjoy the Big Five as it tends to show up in the entertainment industry. One simply has to look to Harry Potter to see the how the Big Five and in extension psychology affects people without them knowing. People subscribe and find out their ‘houses’ on a daily basis by taking a personality test that places them in one of the five houses of Harry Potter. It’s simply amazes me how much we use psychology daily.  There are many ways the Big Five may be used even when assisting persons with PTSD. Each personality handles stressors differently and would need to be assisted in a different way. I’m glad to be in class with you.

Guided Response#2

Welcome to the course and I am excited to about you. As a Marriage and Family Therapist here in California I can attest to the very rewarding and challenging nature of the job and how important self care is. My favorite part of the work is finding a way to engage the client to access their own resources to solve their problems. I am curious how you will balance all you do?

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Question 3:  Biology

ESOH 315 Soil Sampling Lab

PURPOSE:

Soil Sampling

To introduce students to:

  • Bucket auger sampling
  • Head space analysis
  • Sieve soil sizing procedure and plotting
  • Soil moisture by difference method
  • The soil texture by feel procedure

INTRODUCTION

For this lab you will be taking samples using a bucket auger which you will then analyze using head space analysis, soil moisture by difference and by moisture probe, and perform soil texture by feel protocol. In addition, you will analyze a pre-dried soil sample using sieve analysis.

Headspace analyses done in the field typically use a photoionization detector (PID). The PID uses ultraviolet light to irradiate the sample, thus ionizing it. The analysis chamber is composed of two plates between which an electric field is established by application of a difference in potential on each plate. Since the plates are not in contact, electricity can only flow through the circuit by bridging the electric field. When a sample is introduced, UV light ionizes gaseous molecules present, and the ions travel to the charged plates. When the ions reach the charged plates, an electric current is produced. The magnitude of the current is proportional to the concentration of ions preset (and, by extension, the concentration of molecules present). Although the exact response of the detector depends on the lamp ionization energy and the ionization potential of the molecules present, the PID responds to almost all VOCs – though not equally. Consequently, both false positives and under reporting of VOC concentrations are relatively common.

Refer to the accompanying slides for instructions on sieve analysis and workup.

ESOH 315 Soil Sampling Lab

METHODS Equipment List:

  • Bucket auger
  • Sample container
  • Temperature probe
  • Soil moisture probe
  • 4×8’ sheet of plastic (optional)
  • Mason jar with foil lid
  • Weigh boats or pieces of aluminum foil
  • PID air sampler
  • Sieve stack and shaker
  • Small shovel for backfill

Procedure:
Sample Collection
Using a decontaminated bucket auger, you will collect a soil sample from a depth of at least 3” below ground surface (bgs).

  • Use the decontaminated bucket auger to remove the top 3” of soil
  • One individual from each table, measure the temperature of the soil and the soil

moisture using the soil moisture probe (both at 3” bgs)

  • Collect soil sample with bucket auger

o Place in clean container and seal immediately, place on ice o Be sure to collect enough for:

  • Head space analysis
    §Texture by feel protocol
    §Moisture analysis (at least 3 samples)

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Headspace Sampling

Weigh a small portion of your soil sample and place in a clean mason jar:

  • Should be enough to completely cover the bottom of the jar to a depth of at

least 1 inch

  • Place a square of aluminum foil over the opening of the jar (shiny side up)

and screw the retaining ring down to seal

  • Allow sample to rest in jar at room temp for at least 5 minutes, and take a

reading of the headspace in the jar (using PID)

o Pierce the foil with the sampling probe, being careful not to tear too

large of a hole
o Insert the probe approximately 4 cm (1.5 in) and sample until the

reading has stabilized
·Place tape over the opening you created with the sampling probe and allow

sample to rest another 10 minutes, then sample headspace again

ESOH 315 Soil Sampling Lab

In addition to the sample you collected, there will be 2 additional soil samples provided upon which you should perform headspace analysis. You are only required to measure each of the additional samples once.

Moisture Determination

Each table will perform a moisture determination

  • Place at least 3 samples of your soil into either weigh boats or pieces of foil
  • Weigh samples (and container)
  • Place in oven for 24 hours (record start time)
  • After 24 hours remove samples and weigh again (record end time)
  • Determine % water content (by mass)

Sieve Sizing

Follow directions and analysis instructions found in the accompanying slides

REPORT

Include all of the normal sections, be sure to include:

Analyses

Be sure to complete and include in your report (I expect all to be professionally formatted):

  • All analyses included in the sieve slides (size distribution plot, sizing, coefficients of uniformity and gradation, etc.)
  • Soil moisture analysis
  • Headspace analysis

Discussion Questions:

  1. What kind of soil did you have by the ‘Soil Texture by Feel’ test? What color was the soil? What does that tell you?
  2. Compare the soil moisture by difference value to that obtained from the soil probe – provide a quantitative analysis.
  3. How did the headspace analysis of your sample compare to those of the provided samples?
  4. What are the Coefficients of Uniformity and Gradation for your soil sample? What does that mean about the variability in grain size for your sample? What about the soil’s ability to drain effectively?
  5. Compare the results of the Soil Texture by Feel test and Coefficients of Gradation and Uniformity – are they contradictory?
  6. What percent of your soil sample was lost during the sieve procedure? Is any explanation required?

 

What two reagents are used in preparation of the chloride complex

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Question 2: Psychology

University of Phoenix Material

Week Four Homework Exercise 1

PSYCH/610 Version 2

Answer the following questions, covering material from Ch 8–10 of Methods in Behavioral Research:

  1. What is a confounding variable and why do researchers try to eliminate confounding variables? Provide two examples of confounding variables.
  2. What are the advantages and disadvantages of posttest only design and pretest-posttest design?
  3. What is meant by sensitivity of a dependent variable?
  4. What are the differences between an independent groups design and a repeated measures design?
  5. How does an experimenter’s expectations and participant expectations affect outcomes?
  6. Provide an example of a factorial design. What are the key features of a factorial design? What are the advantages of a factorial design?
  7. Describe at least four different dependent variables.
  8. What are some ways researchers can manipulate independent variables?
  9. What is the difference between main effects and interactions?
  10. How do moderator variables impact results? Provide an example.
  11. A researcher is interested in studying the effects of story endings on preference ratings. He randomly assigns participants into two groups: predictable ending or surprise ending. He instructs them to read the story and provide preference ratings. The experimenter’s variation of story endings is a __________ (straightforward or staged) manipulation.
  12. A researcher was interested in investigating the vocabulary skills of 6th graders in a program for gifted students. She gave a group of participants a test of vocabulary that was aimed at the 7th-grade level. She quickly discovered that there was limited variability in the scores because nearly all the students answered 90% or more of the questions correctly. This outcome is called a _______ effect.

Question 3: Chemistry

 

The fuel for your car is a mixture of octane and several other hydrocarbons.  What mass of CO2 will be produced when 219 g of C8H18 react completely in the following equation?

2 C8H18 + 25 O2 → 16 CO2 + 18 H2O

 

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Question 4: Computer Science

 

Using C, write a simple program to exhaustively list (generate) all binary strings of length N. Your program should read N > 5

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Question 5: Computer Science

 

THE UNIVERSITY OF THE WEST INDIES

ASSIGNMENT 1
SEMESTER I, 2019/2020
Code and Name of Course: COMP2201 – Discrete Mathematics

Assignment 1 – Individual Assignment
AREA DESCRIPTION
Objectives To have a student apply the knowledge garnered during the first few weeks of the course
Title Assignment 1 – Individual Assignment
Deliverable The answers for the questions which follow the given case
Instructions 1.

2. 3.

Review Lectures of the first three weeks of the course, the COMP2201 Text and any other related Discrete Mathematics material
Read the Assignment 1 Sheet thoroughly

Submit the gradable solution by using the
COMP2201 Assignment 1 – Individual located within the ASSIGNMENTS Section of the OURVLE COMP2201 Course Environment. This may also be accessed by choosing the Assignments section below “Activities”

Format The solution for this assignment must be submitted as a Microsoft Word document.

Your ID number should form part of the Microsoft Word file name. The file name should take the format “COMP2201 Assignment 1 Semester 1 2019- 2020 XXXXXXXX” where XXXXXXXX represents the student ID number.

Upload Constraint The solution for this assignment should be uploaded in the relevant space provided in OURVLE (See “Instructions” section above). A message indicating “File uploaded successfully” will acknowledge that the file has been sent successfully.

Do NOT assume your project has been received if you do not get this acknowledgement.

Scoring Rubric Your electronic submission will be evaluated on:

  1. Your attempt of the compulsory questions 1, 4 and 7
  2. The response submitted for each question (See detail individual

marks below) – Maximum 50 marks

The actual grade of 50 marks will be displayed. The actual grade allocated is the percentage of the maximum marks (5 points)

Late Assignments Late assignments are accepted. These are however graded then 25% deducted for each day of late submission.
Expectation It is expected that students will discuss means to a solution. The actual work written is expected to reflect each student’s uniqueness. Where replication of work is identified, each paper will be graded. The allocated grade to each student’s piece of work for where this anomaly is identified will be the grade divided by the number of replications discovered.
Due Date Sunday, October 6, 2019

Question 1 [10 marks] – COMPULSORY

[The fraction of the marks attained for this question determines the fraction of the attained marks to be allocated for questions 2 and 3.]
Given a sequence with n objects where there are n1 indistinguishable objects of type 1, n2 indistinguishable objects of type 2, …, nt indistinguishable objects of type t

(a) Where the number of repetitions of each object is known as in the string

PNOUMONOULPRAMICROSCOPICSILICOVOLCANOCUMARSIS

show why the formula for the number of unordered k-selections of t types is 𝑘+𝑡−1𝐶 𝑜𝑟 𝑘+𝑡−1𝐶 [3]

𝑘 𝑡−1

  1. (b)  Using the word from question (a) as an example, show that the reason given for question (a) holds. [2]
  2. (c)  Hence, determine the number of unordered 3-selection of the said string PNOUMONOULPRAMICROSCOPICSILICOVOLCANOCUMARSIS [2]
  3. (d)  Using your formula in (b), state a simplified formula for the number of unique codewords, assuming a codeword such as

PNU276(*#*$!dqjb

is made up of the letters of the word in (a) , 3 distinct digits where order is not important, 6 special characters (allowing repeats with order not being important), and 4 lowercase letters of the English alphabet where order is important, all in the same order. For ease of reference, it is accepted that there are 32 special characters. [3]

 

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Question 2 [2 marks]

By applying Pascal’s Identity, determine the row of Pascal’s triangle containing the following binomial coefficients (8) , 0 ≤ 𝑘 ≤ 8 [2]

𝑘

Question 3 [6 marks]

Solve the following question using Tree Diagrams.
A seven-person committee composed of Tian, Uber, Vera, Weir, Xylo, Yani and
Zoey is to select a president, treasurer and liaison officer. How many selections are
there in which either Tian is treasurer and Zoey is not an officer, or Weir is president
or Vera is treasurer? [6]

Question 4 [5 marks] – COMPULSORY
[The fraction of the marks attained for this question determines the fraction of the attained marks to be allocated for questions 5 and 6.]

  1. (a)  Why is the study of modular arithmetic important? [2]
  2. (b)  Construct the Addition and Multiplication Tables in Z10. [3]

Question 5 [3 marks]
Expand the following expression using the binomial theorem: ( –2p2 + 3q – 4r2 )4 [3]

Question 6 [5 marks]

  1. (a)  If any nine letters (of the 23-letter Latin alphabet) could be used to form a ten-letter words, how many words would have at least one repeated
    letter? [3]
  2. (b)  A computer access password consists of from four to nine letters chosen from
    the 26 in the alphabet with repetitions not allowed. How many different passwords are possible? [2]

Question 7 [10 marks] – COMPULSORY
[The fraction of the marks attained for this question determines the fraction of the attained marks to be allocated for questions 8 and 9.]

  1. (a)  Use modular arithmetic to explain why a date that falls on Saturday this year

will fall on Tuesday eight years from now. [2]

  1. (b)  The Greek Mathematician Euclid developed an algorithm to determine the

Greatest Common Divisor (GCD) also known as the Highest Common Factor (HCF). Develop an algorithm to determine the Least Common Multiple
(LCM). [3]

  1. (c)  Using the algorithm provided for section (b) of this question, illustrate how
    your algorithm would find the Least Common Multiple of 55692 and 119340. [3]
  2. (d)  Using the Euclidean Algorithm, illustrate how the Highest Common Factor of 55692 and 119340. [2]

Question 8 [5 marks]

The function This_Is_Not_A_Fib_Chkr takes a list of integers, int_list and returns
True if they are NOT consecutive numbers within the Fibonacci sequence; False is returned otherwise. Using any programming language taught in your first year at the university, write the function This_Is_Not_A_Fib_Chkr . [5]

Question 9 [4 marks + Bonus 5 marks (to an assignment maximum of 50 marks)]

Let f(n) be defined by

𝑓(1) = 2

𝑓(𝑛) = 32𝑓 (𝑛) + 3𝑛5 2

if n > 1 and n = 2m, where m is a positive integer.

  1. (a)  By using the principles of Recurrence Relation, find a general formula

for f(n)

  1. (b)  Hence show that f(n) = Θ (n5 log 2 n).

[4] [Bonus – 5]

 

 

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Question 6: General Question

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Question 4: Engineering

 

High resolution digital TV broadcasting (HDTV) uses a form of SSB-AM for signal transmission. 2. Regular sinusoidal AM is often called double-sideband AM (DSB-AM). WHY??? 3. When AM and FM are used? 4. What are the advantages and disadvantages of FM and AM?

 

Question 5: Business

 

ACCT. 510 – Accounting for Business Decisions

TEAM PROJECT

FALL 2019

 

The basic financial statements of a company include the balance sheet, income statement and cash flow statement.  Each statement contains specific information about the company.  When viewed together, much can be learned about how the company operates and the impact of decisions made during the period.

 

Obtain the 2017 and 2018 annual reports for Starbucks.  Use the information in the financial statements to respond to the following questions:

 

  1. Write out the basic accounting (balance sheet) equation and provide the values reported by Starbucks at September 30, 2018.
  2. Did total assets increase or decrease in 2018 over the previous year?
  3. How much inventory did the company have at September 30, 2018?
  4. What are the major operating revenue accounts? What percentage is each to total revenues?
  5. What are the major operating expense accounts? What percentage is each to total operating expenses?
  6. Describe the company’s revenue recognition policy, if reported. (See significant accounting policies).
  7. What is Starbuck’s gross margin in 2018? Was this an increase or decrease from 2017?
  8. What type of costs do you think is included in Starbuck’s ‘Cost of Sales?’
  9. How do ‘cost of sales’ differ from ‘operating expenses’
  10. What inventory valuation method does the company use?
  11. What were cash flows from operating activities?
  12. What were cash flows from investing activities?
  13. What were cash flows from financing activities?
  14. What was the increase/decrease in cash in 2018 from 2017?
  15. Ratio Analysis: Compute the following ratios for 2017 and 2018 for Starbucks?
    1. Current Ratio
    2. Quick Ratio
    3. Accounts Receivable Turnover Ratio
    4. Inventory Turnover Ratio
    5. Debt-to-Equity Ratio
    6. Return on Equity
    7. Return on Assets
    8. Quality of Net Income (Cash Flows from Operating Activities/Net Income)
    9. Profit Margin
  16. What does each ratio measure and what does your results suggest about the company?
  17. If available, find the industry ratios for the most recent year, compare to your results, and discuss why you believe your company differs or is similar to the industry.
  18. Were there any economy, industry or company-specific factors that impact Starbuck’s future income and growth? If so, briefly discuss.

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Question 6: Other

 

Hotel Rwanda

How does this film illustrate the concepts of “forward-looking” and “backward-looking” justice? How is the problem of personhood discussed in this film?

 

Question 7: Other

 

Unit V Case Study
Case studies are an important learning strategy in business classes as they provide an opportunity for you to critically analyze events that have taken place in real-life businesses. This develops your critical thinking and research skills as you research the competition and industry in which your business resides with an end goal of formulating a recommendation for the challenges faced by the company.

Select one of the three case studies listed below, which can be found in your textbook. Evaluate the case of your choice, and respond to each of the questions below using both theory and practical managerial thinking as well as supporting research.

Option 1: Procter & Gamble (pp. 332–333)

  1. Using segmentation strategies, what are the target market(s) for P&G? How does this relate to the company’s brand management strategies?
  2. Who are the top three competitors of P&G, and what are their advantages/disadvantages with respect to their competitive product/service strategies?
  3. P&G’s impressive portfolio includes some of the strongest brand names in the world. What are some of the challenges associated with being the market leader in so many different categories?
  4. With social media becoming increasingly important and with fewer people watching traditional commercials on television, what does P&G need to do to maintain its strong brand images?
  5. What risks will P&G face in the future?

Option 2: Caterpillar (pp. 394–395)

  1. Using segmentation strategies, what are the target market(s) for Caterpillar? How does this relate to their brand management strategies?
  2. Who are the top three competitors of Caterpillar, and what are their advantages/disadvantages with respect to their competitive product/service strategies?
  3. What were some of the key steps that made Caterpillar the industry leader in earth-moving machinery? Explain how Caterpillar’s products differ from competitors.
  4. Discuss Caterpillar’s future. What should it do next with its product line? Where is the future growth for this company?

Option 3: The Ritz-Carlton (pp. 424–425)

  1. Using segmentation strategies, what are the target market(s) for The Ritz-Carlton? How does this relate to their brand management strategies?
  2. Who are the top three competitors of The Ritz-Carlton, and what are their advantages/disadvantages with respect to their competitive product/service strategies.
  3. How does The Ritz-Carlton match up to competing hotels? What are its key differences?
  4. Discuss the importance of the “wow stories” in maintaining top quality customer service for a luxury hotel like The Ritz-Carlton.

In formatting your case analysis, do not use the question-and-answer format; instead, use an essay format with subheadings. Your APA-formatted case study should be a minimum of 500 words in length (not counting the title and reference pages). You are required to use a minimum of three peer-reviewed, academic sources that are no more than 5 years old (one may be your textbook). All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased material must have accompanying in-text citations.

 

 

 

 

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Unit 5 DB AM

 

Consider the many means of differentiating products and services. Which technology brand does the best at impacting consumer buying decisions? Why? In an attempt to maintain diversity in this discussion forum, please bring a different brand example into this discussion than your fellow classmates.

 

 

Question 8: Finance

 

A project requires an initial investment of $700,000 depreciated straight-line to $0 in 10 years. The investment is expected to generate annual sales of $400,000 with annual costs of $120,000 for 10 years. Assume a tax rate of 30% and a discount rate of 15%. What is the NPV of the project?

 

Question 9: Psychology

 

So, imagine you are a researcher trying to find a new medication to treat depression.

What would be a type 1 errors?

What would be a type 2 error?

You don’t have to tell us the research and null hypotheses, just tell us what happened, (ex: what you thought you found, and what you really did find).

 

Question 10: Finance

 

A Bank has $100 million in capital, and $900 million of checkable deposit. The bank currently maintains a total reserve of $100 million dollars, $200 million in T-bills, and rest in loans. A new corporate customer opens a checkable deposit account, and deposit $100 million.

1a. Please show the T-Account of the bank after the deposit?

 

1b. If the required reserve ratio is 10%, what is likely to happen?

 

1c. If the required rate for reserves increase to 11%, what should the bank do? How much can the bank lend out after the adjustment? Assume the bank want to maximize return.

 

1d. What is the equity multiplier?

1e. If the bank collects an average interest of 7.8% on their loan, and T-bill yield 1.44% return. What is the Return on Equity (ROE)? (Assume the profit margin is 8%)

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1f. Suppose there is a reserve outflow of $ 20 million, and the reserve ratio is 11% for the bank. Assume the bank decides to borrow from the Fed to meet reserve requirement. How much they will borrow? Please also show the new the T-account.

1g. Suppose the bank is reconsidering to generate more profit. They want to restructure their assets. After the restructuring, they want have 10% second reserve, 40% residential mortgage, 30% corporate loans or securities, and 20% inter-bank loan to OECD banks. In addition, there is $600 million of off-balance activities for the bank. What is the risk-weighted capital ratio?

1h. Can this bank be classified as well capitalized bank?

 

1i. Suppose the T-bill yield 1.44%, the Libor is 1.83%, average residential mortgage rate is 5.5%, and average corporate loan is 7%. What is the new ROE? Assume the new structure yield a profit margin of 13%.

 

1j. Recently, 20% of checkable deposit is still in checking accounts. 40% of them becomes saving account, and 40% of them becomes CDs. If interest will increase by 2%, what is the financial result for the bank?

 

1k. If there is a terrible news hits the mortgage markets, and mortgage rate jump by 6%, which cause the value of the residential mortgage drop by 25%. What does the bank’s balance sheet look like? What will happen for this bank?

 

Discuss an experiment that you would like to perform. State 1. the population that you wish to study and 2. what the factor (or factors) would be. 3. How would you sample your subjects from that population? 4. How would you set up the experiment (Block design? Matched pairs? Double-blind?) How you would ensure 5. control, 6. randomization, and 7. replication? 8. What sort of conclusion could be drawn from the results

 

Question 7: Finance

 

Answer the following question regarding the price of a five percent coupon bond with the face value of $1000, which matures in three years from today. Coupon is paid annually at the end of the year. Your investment plan is to purchase the coupon bond today and hold it to the maturity.

  1. a)  Assuming the market price of bond is $1000, what would be the yield to maturity?
  2. b)  Suppose that you can reinvest your coupon at the annual rate of return of 3%. What is your effective

annual rate of return on the bond investment. Why is your effective rate of return different from the yield to maturity, if it is different? Under what circumstance, effective rate of return is equal to yield to maturity?

  1. c)  Now suppose the market price of bond drops to $900 right after the purchase. Would you expect higher or lower effective rate of return on the bond investment than the yield to maturity you compute in a? Explain why.

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Question 11: Finance

 

1d.       What is the equity multiplier?

1e.      If the bank collects an average interest of 7.8% on their loan, and T-bill yield 1.44% return. What is the Return on Equity (ROE)? (Assume the profit margin is 8%)

1f.        Suppose there is a reserve outflow of $ 20 million, and the reserve ratio is 11% for the bank. Assume the bank decides to borrow from the Fed to meet reserve requirement. How much they will borrow? Please also show the new the T-account.

1g.      Suppose the bank is reconsidering to generate more profit. They want to restructure their assets. After the restructuring, they want have 10% second reserve, 40% residential mortgage, 30% corporate loans or securities, and 20% inter-bank loan to OECD banks. In addition, there is $600 million of off-balance activities for the bank. What is the risk-weighted capital ratio?

1h.      Can this bank be classified as well capitalized bank?

1i.        Suppose the T-bill yield 1.44%, the Libor is 1.83%, average residential mortgage rate is 5.5%, and average corporate loan is 7%. What is the new ROE? Assume the new structure yield a profit margin of 13%.

1j.        Recently, 20% of checkable deposit is still in checking accounts. 40% of them becomes saving account, and 40% of them becomes CDs. If interest will increase by 2%, what is the financial result for the bank?

1k.       If there is a terrible news hits the mortgage markets, and mortgage rate jump by 6%, which cause the value of the residential mortgage drop by 25%. What does the bank’s balance sheet look like? What will happen for this bank?

 

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Question 12: Mathematics

 

Describe using pseudocode as described in class an algorithm that takes a list of n integers a1, a2, …, an, and returns a count

 

Question 13: Engineering

 

The University has recently leased a building for new campus. The building will
house some Administrative offices, classrooms, library, and computer labs.
There will be four computer labs that will be used for instruction. Each of these
labs will have 32 computers (30 student computers and 1 instructor computer). Each
of these labs will also have a server in the closet located inside the lab.
In addition to the six regular labs, there will also be a Additional Computer Lab
that will provide computer access to students to do their assignment. There will be
63 computers in this lab and a server in the closet.
The library will also have some computers to allow students access to the library
resources. There will be 64 computers for students to read digital resources.
In this project you are required to design a network for a typical academic
institution that requires its computers to communicate with each other and on the
internet. It aims to provide student labs, provide computers for its education and
administrative staff and also set up a web server. The institution has just purchased
one T1 connection providing 1.5Mbps for upload and download. It has also
purchased the network address 12.22.32.0/24 from its ISP.
Additionally, make sure that all sub-networks are split up allowing them the
fastest access possible depending on their requirements. Also keep the design as
simple as possible allowing efficient troubleshooting while guaranteeing the least
downtime in the system.
As a Network Administrator, Design and Draw the network including
topology and Subnet for this institution with proper explanation/justification and
wherever the data necessary proceed with your assumption.

 

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Question 14: Economics

 

  1. Explain how the following changes in aggregate demand or short-run aggregate supply, will affect the level of total output and the price level in the short run.
  2. An increase in aggregate demand
  3. A decrease in aggregate demand
  4. An increase in short-run aggregate supply
  5. A reduction in short-run aggregate supply
  6. In the Keynesian framework, which of the following events might cause a recession? Which might cause inflation? Sketch AD/AS diagrams to illustrate your answers.
  7. An increase in government purchases
  8. An increase in nominal wages
  9. A major improvement in technology
  10. A reduction in net exports

 

 

 

Question 15: Psychology

 

The relationship between social media use and narcissistic personality trait

 

Question 16: Economics

Your submission should include the screenshots of the STATA outputs (graphs, summary tables, regression tables) along with your answers to the questions.

Stata file Growth.dta contains contains data on average growth rates over 1960-1995 for 65 countries, along with variables that are potentially related to growth. These data were provided by Professor Ross Levine of Brown University and were used in his paper with, Thorsten Beck and Norman Loayza “Finance and the Sources of Growth” Journal of Financial Economics, 2000, Vol. 58, pp. 261- 300.

Using this dataset, we would like to study determinants of GDP growth rate.

Variable Definition
Country name Name of country
growth Average annual percentage growth of real Gross Domestic Product (GDP)* from 1960 to 1995.
rgdp60 The value of GDP* per capita in 1960, converted to 1960 US dollars
Years school Average number of years of schooling of adult residents in that country in 1960
  1. 1)  Report a summary table where you have the mean, median, standard deviation, etc. of the outcome variable (growth) and the explanatory variables listed above (rgdp60 and years school). Interpret these results.
  2. 2)  Construct a scatterplot of average annual growth rate of real GDP on the variable rgdp60. Does there appear to be a relationship between the variables?

4) Construct a scatterplot of average annual growth rate of real GDP on the variable years school. Does there appear to be a relationship between the variables?

3) Run a regression of growth on rgdp60.

  1. a) Comment on the sign, magnitude and the significance of the slope coefficient.
  2. b) Does the intercept coefficient have a meaningful interpretation?
    c) Provide an economic interpretation to this regression model.

5) Run a regression of growth on years school.

  1. a) Comment on the sign, magnitude and the significance of the slope coefficient. b) Does the intercept coefficient have a meaningful interpretation.
    c) Provide an economic interpretation to this regression model.

 

Question 17: Psychology

 

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University of Phoenix Material

 

Correlation

 

A researcher is interested in investigating the relationship between viewing time (in seconds) and ratings of aesthetic appreciation. Participants are asked to view a painting for as long as they like. Time (in seconds) is measured. After the viewing time, the researcher asks the participants to provide a ‘preference rating’ for the painting on a scale ranging from 1-10. Create a scatter plot depicting the following data:

 

 

Viewing Time in Seconds Preference Rating
10 3
12 4
24 7
5 3
16 6
3 4
11 4
5 2
21 8
23 9
9 5
3 3
17 5
14 6

 

 

What does the scatter plot suggest about the relationship between viewing time and aesthetic preference? Is it accurate to state that longer viewing times are the result of  greater preference for paintings? Explain. Submit your scatter plot and your answers to the questions to your instructor.

 

Last assignment!! Please use the word document to get data from scatter plot. Whoever chooses part 1 needs to create plot for everyone to be able to answer the other 3 questions. Please be mindful of that before selecting part one. It would need to be in before everyone else completes their part.

 

Part 1 – create scatter plot–Dawn

Part 2 – What does the scatter plot suggest about the relationship between viewing time and aesthetic preference?

Part 3 – Is it accurate to state that longer viewing times are the result of  greater preference for paintings?

Part 4 – Please explain why or why not?

Part 5 – Separate parts for assignment – Put completed parts together – edit – submit – Tanya

Correlation

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A researcher is interested in investigating the relationship between viewing time (in seconds) and ratings of aesthetic appreciation. Participants are asked to view a painting for as long as they like. Time (in seconds) is measured. After the viewing time, the researcher asks the participants to provide a ‘preference rating’ for the painting on a scale ranging from 1-10. Create a scatter plot depicting the following data:

 

 

Viewing Time in Seconds Preference Rating
10 3
12 4
24 7
5 3
16 6
3 4
11 4
5 2
21 8
23 9
9 5
3 3
17 5
14 6

 

 

What does the scatter plot suggest about the relationship between viewing time and aesthetic preference? Is it accurate to state that longer viewing times are the result of  greater preference for paintings? Explain. Submit your scatter plot and your answers to the questions to your instructor.

 

Question 18: Business

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Exercise A

Barney Company makes and sells stuffed animals.  One product, Michael Bears, sells for $28 per bear.  Michael Bears have fixed costs of $100,000 per month and a variable cost of $12 per bear.  Howe many Michael Bears must be produced and sold each month to break even?

 

 

Exercise B

What is meant by the term break-even point? What are two ways in which the break-even point can be expressed? What is the relevant range?

 

 

Question 19: Chemistry

 

Using equations 1 and 2 and their respective equilibrium constants, K, determine the equilibrium constant for the third equation:

  1. A –> B    K1=0.10
  2. 3A + C –> D K2=0.020
  3. D –> C +3B K=?

 

 

Question 20: Psychology

 

 

University of Phoenix Material

 

Week Eight Homework Exercise

 

Answer the following questions covering material from Ch. 14 of Methods in Behavioral Research:

 

What is replication, and what role does it play in increasing the external validity or generalizability of a study? In what way is the IRB involved in using participants in a research study?

 

 

What are the advantages and disadvantages of using college students as participants in research studies?

 

 

What potential problems can arise from generalization of results to different cultures or ethnic groups?

 

 

What is meta-analysis, and how is it useful to practitioners and scholars?

 

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True or false: In many cases, meta analyses involves calculating an average effect size for a relationship between variables.

 

 

True or false: Many constructs, such as physical attractiveness and self-esteem, appear constant across cultures; thus, external validity is less of a concern when conducting research on such constructs. Provide a brief explanation of your answer.

 

 

Summarize the main points of the course, emphasizing the importance of research to the psychology profession.

 

 

 

 

 

Question 21: Psychology

 

University of Phoenix Material

 

Week Seven Homework Exercise

 

Answer the following questions, covering material from Ch. 13 of Methods in Behavioral Research:

 

Define inferential statistics and how researchers use inferential statistics to draw conclusions from sample data.

 

 

Define probability and discuss how it relates to the concept of statistical significance.

 

 

A researcher is studying the effects of yoga on depression. Participants are randomly assigned to one of two groups: yoga and medication (experimental group); or support group and medication (control group). What is the null hypothesis? What is the research hypothesis?

 

In the scenario described in the previous question, the researcher implements two programs simultaneously: a 6-week yoga program coupled with medication management and a 6-week support group program coupled with medication management. At the end of the 6 weeks, participants complete a questionnaire measuring depression. The researcher compares the mean score of the experimental group with the mean score of the control group. What statistical test would be most appropriate for this purpose and why? What is the role of probability in this statistical test?

 

In the scenario described in the previous questions, the researcher predicted that participants in the experimental group—yoga plus medication—would score significantly lower on measures of depression than would participants in the control group—support group plus medication. True or false: A two-tailed test of significance is most appropriate in this case. Explain your response.

 

Explain the relationship between the alpha level (or significance level) and Type I error. What is a Type II error? How are Type I and Type II errors different?

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A researcher is studying the effects of sex—male and female—and dietary sugar on energy level. Male and female participants agree to follow either a high sugar or low sugar diet for eight weeks. The researcher asks the participants to complete a number of questionnaires, including one assessing energy level, before and after the program. The researcher is interested in determining whether a high or low sugar diet affects reported energy levels differently for men and women. At the end of the program, the researcher examines scores on the energy level scale for the following groups: Men – low sugar diet; Men – high sugar diet; Women – low sugar diet; Women – high sugar diet. What statistic could the researcher use to assess the data? What criteria did you use to determine the appropriate statistical test?

 

Question 22: Chemistry

 

Consider the following calculation:

x=(b−c)/a

The following experimental values and their errors are obtained:

a = 22.1, Δa = 1.4

b = 29.6, Δb = 1.2

c = 25.7, Δc = 1.2

What is the absolute error in x (Δx)?

Note we are not asking for the value of x itself, only its error. Report your answer to 2 significant figures.

 

Question 23: English

 

Last week I went to visit Atlantic College, an excellent private college in Wales. Unusually, it gives people much needed experience of life outside the classroom, as well as the opportunity to study for their exams. The students, who are aged between 16 and 18 and come from all over the word, spend the morning studying. In the afternoon they go out and do a really useful activity, such
as helping on the farm, looking after people with learning difficulties, or checking for pollution in rivers.
One of the great things about Atlantic College students is that they come from many different social backgrounds and countries. As few can afford the fees of £20,000 over two years, grants are available. A quarter of students are British, and many of those can only attend because they receive government help. “I really admire the college for trying to encourage international understanding among young people”, as Barbara Molenkamp, a student from the Netherlands, said. ”You learn to live with people and respect them, even the ones you don’t like. During the summer holidays my mother couldn’t believe how much less I argued with my sister.”
To sum up, Atlantic College gives its students an excellent education, using methods which really seem to work.

 

What is the writer trying to do in the text?

  1. give an opinion about a particular student
  2. give an opinion about his own experience of education
  3. describe the activities the student
    s do in their free time
  4. describe his own experience of education

 

 

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Question 24: Economics

 

A Bank has $100 million in capital, and $900 million of checkable deposit. The bank currently maintains a total reserve of $100 million dollars, $200 million in T-bills, and rest in loans. A new corporate customer opens a checkable deposit account, and deposit $100 million.

1a. Please show the T-Account of the bank after the deposit?

 

1b. If the required reserve ratio is 10%, what is likely to happen?

 

1c. If the required rate for reserves increase to 11%, what should the bank do? How much can the bank lend out after the adjustment? Assume the bank want to maximize return.

 

1d. What is the equity multiplier?

 

1e. If the bank collects an average interest of 7.8% on their loan, and T-bill yield 1.44% return. What is the Return on Equity (ROE)? (Assume the profit margin is 8%)

 

1f. Suppose there is a reserve outflow of $ 20 million, and the reserve ratio is 11% for the bank. Assume the bank decides to borrow from the Fed to meet reserve requirement. How much they will borrow? Please also show the new the T-account.

 

1g. Suppose the bank is reconsidering to generate more profit. They want to restructure their assets. After the restructuring, they want have 10% second reserve, 40% residential mortgage, 30% corporate loans or securities, and 20% inter-bank loan to OECD banks. In addition, there is $600 million of off-balance activities for the bank. What is the risk-weighted capital ratio?

 

1h. Can this bank be classified as well capitalized bank?

 

 

1i. Suppose the T-bill yield 1.44%, the Libor is 1.83%, average residential mortgage rate is 5.5%, and average corporate loan is 7%. What is the new ROE? Assume the new structure yield a profit margin of 13%.

 

1j. Recently, 20% of checkable deposit is still in checking accounts. 40% of them becomes saving account, and 40% of them becomes CDs. If interest will increase by 2%, what is the financial result for the bank?

 

1k. If there is a terrible news hits the mortgage markets, and mortgage rate jump by 6%, which cause the value of the residential mortgage drop by 25%. What does the bank’s balance sheet look like? What will happen for this bank?

 

 

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Question 25: Computer Science

Define an array of 100 ints, and write a loop (including the body) to initialize every element in the array to 0. You can name the array whatever you’d like.

Question 26: Physics

Design a digital circuit that receives a 4 bits BCD-coded(*) number X = abcd and returns a signal M7=1 if X ≥ 7, and M7=0 otherwise. The algorithm below shows the functional description of the circuit (“dc” means a “don’t care” combination).

Inputs and outputs of the circuit must be named as: a, b, c, d, and M7. Respect the upper and lowercases.

(*): BCD code (Binary Coded Decimal) encodes any base-10 number from 0 to 9 in base-2, using 4 bits. That is, 0 is coded by 0000, 1 by 0001, 2 by 0010 and so on until 9, which is encoded by 1001. Base-10 numbers higher than 9 require at least 2 digits and, consequently, they will never enter to the circuit.

if X > 1001 then M7<=dc; else if X > 0110 then M7<=1; else M7<=0; end if; end if;

Question 27: Other

Power-flow programs are used to analyze large transmission grids and the complex interaction between transmission grids and the power markets. Historically, these transmission grids were designed primarily by local utilities to meet the needs of their own customers. But increasingly there is a need for coordinated transmission system planning to create coordinated, continent-spanning grids. Describe in detail some of the issues associated with such large-scale system planning

 

Question 28: Physics

 

a) What is an island in an interconnected power system? [3]
(b)Why is a micro grid designed to be able to operate in both grid-connected and
standalone modes? [4]
(c) When operating in the stand-alone mode, what control features should be
associated with a micro grid?

 

Question 29: Other

 

Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:

  1. Analyze how standardizing procedures and documenting steps can improve outcomes when performing a complex procedure. Review the peer-reviewed journal article, The Next Wave of Hospital Innovation to Make Patients Safer. Articulate your position as the top administrator concerned about the importance of professional conduct and negligence in SCIP quality guidelines.
  2. High Reliability Organizing emphasizes the varying actions that can affect patient safety given that standardized systems ignore the fact that each patient is different. Ascertain the major ramifications when the health care team “fails to rescue” the patient. Identify what hospital policies should be in place and identify previous case laws.
  3. Analyze the four (4) elements required of a plaintiff to prove medical negligence.
  4. Discuss the overarching duties of the health care governing board in mitigating the effects of medical non-compliance as they apply to the rules of practice set forth in the We Care Hospital governing board’s manifesto.
  5. Use at least five (5) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar websites do not quality as academic resources.

Question 30:    Mathematics

 

Let T:R^3->R^3 be the transformation that reflects each vector x=(x_1, x_2,x_3) through the plane x_3=0 onto T(x)=(x_1,x_2,-x_3). Prove that T is a linear transformation

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Question 31: Geology

 

Name the five factors that involve in soil formations. With regard to each of these factors of soil formation compare a forested rocky mountain slope to the semi-arid grassland plains.

Question 32: General

 

GUIDELINES FOR WRITING A RESEARCH ESSAY

The Objective

The overall objective of a research paper is to present a thesis (a coherent and substantiated/evidence-supported argument) about a topic. The ideas that inform the paper are often those of the researcher and other people. It is the student’s responsibility to faithfully and meticulously acknowledge other people’s ideas by citing the sources. Quotation marks must be used for direct quotes.

The Requirements
The research paper should be a maximum of 8-10 double-spaced typed pages/2000- 2500 words (of text). Font size should be 12 points. Margins should be a minimum of 1 inch. Papers that significantly depart from these requirements will be given a lower grade. Students may discuss the assignment, but the essay must be the student’s own work. Plagiarism and any other form of academic dishonesty will be heavily penalized.

The Assignment

Regions across the world are deeply entwined in economic, political, cultural, and environmental processes and activities. The term globalization is used to describe these transcontinental and interregional flows, processes and activities that bind the world’s regions. What are the impacts of globalization in our world of stark regional and social inequalities? “Globalization invites a fundamental questioning of the prospects for developing economies and the world’s poorest people in an era marked by powerful forces of world-wide economic, political and cultural interconnectedness, over which they have little direct political control”, according to McGrew (2000: 346) (McGrew, A., 2000. Sustainable globalization? The global politics of development and exclusion in the new world order. In Allen, T. and Thomas, A. (eds.), Poverty and Development into the 21st Century. Oxford: Oxford University Press). China is a key driver of globalization. There is a narrative that “China is quietly reshaping the world.” For example, China has, since 2013, spent US$300 billion, and plans to spend another US$1 trillion on an infrastructure project called the “Belt and Road” project (the largest ever infrastructure project) connecting countries across the globe from East Asia, to Southeast Asia, South Asia, Central Asia, Russia, Southwest Asia, Northeast Africa, and Europe. The regions in which this project occur comprise 65% of the world’s population and one-third of the world’s economic activities. The project is expected to increase interregional trade and economic cooperation. Beyond this massive infrastructure plan, China’s political, cultural and economic relations with other regions of the world have escalated at an astounding speed since the 1980s. Ninety-two countries in the various world regions have China as their largest international trade partner. Africa is a region which is experiencing rapid and deepening regional ties with China. McGrew (2000) invites us to fundamentally question which region and its people are (or are not) the primary beneficiaries of the increasing and deepening ties between China and Africa, and why. Write an explanatory research essay on: China-Africa Relations: Who Benefits, Who Loses, and Why.

1

Note: This assignment will be the subject of one of the questions posed in the final exam

The essay must be informed by the research of scholars and specialists, which is typically published in peer-reviewed academic journals and books. There are multiple academic journals and book resources in the University of Regina library, including electronic databases, which report the findings of research. Do subject and key word searches for the topic, for example, China and Africa economic relations, in order to identify the relevant journals and other sources of information. Seek the assistance of the librarians if you need help!

To help you with this assignment and to provide a solid context for a comprehensive explanation of China-Africa relations, please proceed as follows:

  1. Read:
    a) The journal article by Rich, T.S. and Recker, S. (2013) entitled

“Understanding Sino-African Relations: Neocolonialism or a New Era?” in Journal of International and Area Studies, Vol.20. No.1,pp. 61-76, as an example of “a middle-of-the-road/win-win” discussion of China-Africa relations. Note that there are other perspectives that question the balanced/win-win approach and instead emphasize the skewed benefits of this relationship for China, and the heavy costs for African countries.

  1. b) The short article by Manuel, Anja (2017) entitled “China is quietly reshaping the world” https://www.theatlantic.com/international/archive/2017/10/china- belt-and-road/542667/ that describes the emerging scale of China’s ties with the rest of the world and some of the implications.

Do further library research to gather the key research-based material that would substantiate and support your arguments and discussion relating to the topic;

Prepare a one-page research proposal/plan that outlines:
a) The title of the essay;
b) The thesis statement (central idea/overall argument) of the essay. The thesis

statement is the overall (overarching) assertion/point regarding the topic, and

the rationale for making that assertion/point;
c) The objectives/goals that would be met by the essay in order to

comprehensively address the topic and its related thesis statement;
d) The argument/discussion you intend to make under each objective/goal and

the sources you intend to use in support of each argument/discussion.

An excellent exercise would be to identify the thesis statement (and rationale), and the objectives of the journal article by Rich, T.S. and Recker, S. (2013) entitled “Understanding Sino-African Relations: Neocolonialism or a New Era?” in Journal of International and Area Studies, Vol.20. No.1,pp. 61-76;

2

Append a reference list to the plan. Note that a minimum of 5 reputable academic sources, e.g. academic journal articles, is required;

Submit the proposal to your professor for comments, no later than Tuesday October 29; and

Finally, after careful consideration of the proposal and the Professor’s comments, start preparing the essay.

A sample of a research proposal is posted in URCOURSES

Writing Tips

Your final essay must reflect a thesis—an organized, well-structured, and coherent argument focused on the topic. The common rule is to have an introduction, main body, and a conclusion.

Introduction: provide a context for the topic, and a statement of the thesis and objectives of the paper.

Main body: present, in full, the analysis of evidence to support/substantiate arguments and systematically organize the discussion in paragraphs. Section headings are useful for improving the coherency of arguments (see example of journal articles, such as the journal article by Rich, T.S. and Recker, S. (2013) entitled “Understanding Sino-African Relations: Neocolonialism or a New Era?” in Journal of International and Area Studies, Vol.20. No.1,pp. 61-76).

Conclusions: summarize the thesis and highlight any related issues.

Grading

First class papers (A- to A+; 80% and above) will score very high on each of the criteria below. Lower grades will be inadequate in one or more of these criteria.

  1. Research
  2. a)  Has the student provided relevant references, and a cited references list

and a bibliography that follow carefully the citation rules*?

  1. b)  Are there enough sources and are these sources actually used in a

substantive manner in the paper?

  1. c)  Are most of the sources academic refereed sources?
  2. d)  Are the references relatively recent or dated?

*Reference citations should conform to the APA (American Psychological Association) style. See PDF of summaries and samples of APA citation style in URCOURSES.

3

Argument: organization, logic, and coherence

  1. a)  Is a thesis (central idea/claim/assertion) clearly expressed and is it set in an

appropriate larger context?

  1. b)  Is the topic effectively limited in its scope?
  2. c)  Are the aims and objectives of the essay outlined clearly?
  3. d)  Is an analytical, easy to follow, and convincing argument sustained

throughout the essay?

  1. e)  Are ideas well developed and logical?
  2. f)  Does the essay have a clear structure with smooth transitions of sentences

and paragraphs?

  1. g)  Does the essay have a strong introduction and conclusion?
  2. h)  Does the conclusion follow from the evidence?

Argument: depth and breadth of evidence

  1. a)  Is sufficient evidence (specific empirical examples from specific research

in specific locations) provided to support the thesis and arguments?

  1. b)  Is the evidence factually correct, substantive, and precise?
  2. c)  Is the evidence provided relevant to the thesis?
  3. d)  Are there relevant facts and alternative arguments that are ignored?

Writing: style and mechanics
a) Are sentences clear, well-structured, focused, and meaningful?
b) Are grammar, spelling, and punctuation of excellent quality?
c) Does the paper demonstrate careful proof-reading and superior editing?

ANY CHALLENGE TO THE ASSIGNED GRADE MUST BE IN WRITING, AND MUST CLEARLY INDICATE THE SPECIFIC REASONS FOR DISSATISFACTION, AND MUST PROVIDE EVIDENCE TO SUPPORT THE REQUEST FOR CHANGE.

 

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Question 33: History

 

Instruction

How did the societies discussed in this chapter deal with the political, economic, and social challenges that they faced after World War I? How did these challenges differ from one region to another? Your response to the discussion question should: Be at least 150 words in length Be thoughtful and substantive Respond to the discussion prompt and demonstrate critical thinking Follow APA formatting and documentation guidelines when referring to course readings and other materials Use proper spelling, grammar, and punctuation

 

Question 34: History

 

Instruction

Review the telegrams under “Opposing Viewpoints” titled “Communications Between Berlin and Saint Petersburg on the Eve of World War II.” Based on these documents, what was the chief issue that led to the outbreak of war? Was Emperor William II correct when he told Tsar Nicholas II that the latter would “have to bear the responsibility for war or peace”? What do these telegrams suggest about why wars happen? Follow these guidelines: Write an essay of 500 words (or more) responding to the prompt Use complete and accurate sentences, avoid showing bias or using “I/me” statements, and avoid text-message writing Your paragraphs need to be at least four to six sentences long Include at least one APA-style citation (Author, year, p. #) with each paragraph, placing it immediately after a sentence with evidence

 

Question 35: History

 

Instruction

Choose one of the following topics and answer the questions based on what you learned from the readings and resources for this week: 1) How have historians answered the question of whether the United States or the Soviet Union bears the primary responsibility for the Cold War, and what evidence can be presented on each side of the issue? 2) How did the Cold War impact the nations of Southeast Asia? Your response to the discussion question should: Be at least 150 words in length Be thoughtful and substantive Respond to the discussion prompt and demonstrate critical thinking Follow APA formatting and documentation guidelines when referring to course readings and other materials Use proper spelling, grammar, and punctuation

 

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Question 8: Other

Unit II Essay
Marketing Plan: Part I

Throughout this course, you will compile a comprehensive marketing plan using one of the product/service scenarios listed below. (Note: You will use the same scenario throughout the course.) This scenario will be the basis of your start-up company and will be the catalyst for the three parts of the marketing plan that you will compose in Units II (Part I), IV (Part II), and VII (Part III). The company that you choose to submit a marketing plan for is a fictional start-up company (not an existing company).

Scenarios for your start-up company are explained below. (Note that these descriptions are basic, and you will need to be creative and develop the business idea/model for your selected scenario.)

Scenario #1

Travel Supreme is a start-up travel organization with the mission of assisting customers with travel planning. While today’s customers enjoy developing their vacations themselves, Travel Supreme believes there are travel services that are still in demand. Initial research needs to develop what types of travel services are in demand by this target market.

Scenario #2

IT to Seniors is a start-up company interested in ensuring a positive experience for seniors (65 and older) with respect to the use of technological gadgets, software, the Internet, and/or any additional aspects of technology. Initial research will provide an idea of the business model that would be in most demand for this target market.

Scenario #3

Galaxy Restaurant is a start-up restaurant developed with the idea of providing the customer with a unique dining experience. This could extend from the product offering, service offering, atmosphere, or a host of other unique experiences. Initial research will provide an idea of what this unique dining experience would look like.

Scenario #4

Women on the Go is a startup company targeted at women who need assistance with the selection and purchasing of their clothing/accessories. This service is aimed at the more affluent customer who simply does not have the time and/or knowledge to dress to the business or social setting that they are expected to fulfill. Initial research will provide insight into the types of services that this particular target market would be interested in.

Remember to choose one of the aforementioned scenarios to use for the entire course. Submissions will be completed in Units II, IV, and VII and, together, will comprise a full marketing plan. While this is a cumulative marketing plan, submit only the designated unit’s work.

This unit’s submission should consist of the items listed below.

  • Include an introduction/overview of the company.
    • This section of the marketing plan should introduce the company and business model along with a brief description of the products/services.
  • Discuss market research strategies.
    • This section of the marketing plan should discuss the research strategies that will be used by your company to understand the target market(s), industry, competition, and/or any other aspects of the company that will provide valuable insight into profitable operations.
  • Describe the macro environment through a political, economic, social, and technological (PEST) analysis.
    • In this section, you will compile a PEST analysis of your company. You will analyze how the changes in the macro environment as described in the PEST will impact the company and, specifically, the marketing decisions.

Ensure you provide an introduction for this assignment that is engaging and provides a clear background to the purpose of the assignment. The format of the submission should be in essay format using subheadings. Use APA format. Additionally, you need to include a minimum of five sources, three of which must be peer-reviewed, academic sources that are no more than 5 years old. The submission should be a minimum of three pages in length (not counting the title and reference pages).

 

Select an existing company, and think about applying the political, economic, social, and technological (PEST) analysis to this company. Discuss with your fellow students how using the PEST tool best assists marketers in analyzing the external environment in which they are operating. Review the Unit II Lesson in order to better understand the PEST analysis tool. Please bring forward a company that fellow students have not previously discussed.

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Question 9: Economics

 

(a) The specific-factors model holds that an increase in the relative price of a good lead to real gains for the specific factor used in that sector, losses for the other specific factor, and an ambiguous change in the real wage for labour, whereas the Heckscher Ohlin model predicts unambiguous real gains for one factor and losses for the other. In other words, the industry of employment should not matter in Heckscher Ohlin model but it does in the alternative model. Discuss the underlying causes of these different predictions.

(b) Think about an extension of the specific-factors model, in which, in addition to their wage, labour also earns some part of the rental on specific factor in their industry, i.e., farmers who own their own land and manufacturing workers who salary includes a profit based bonus. Discuss how this extension affects the conclusion of the model.

*Found two sources on course hero

 

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Question 10:        Health Care

 

Promotional Plan Assignment  
 

In this assignment, you will complete another key section of your marketing plan:

 

Write a 2-3 page recommendation for the integrated promotional plan necessary to successfully market your health care product or service.

 

Describe the audience you hope to reach with the promotion efforts, the primary message to be delivered across all media, and the rationale for your media choices.  Take into consideration the geographic reach of your target market, and adapt your media choices accordingly.

Also, be realistic in cost considerations – do not plan a $2 million ad campaign for a product that will only create $1 million in revenue. The U.S. Small Business Administration suggests spending 7-8% of sales revenue on marketing and advertising each year. So, a new product expected to produce $10 million in sales annually might have a $700,000–$800,000 ad budget for the first year.

You will need to research the costs of local media and other communications such as public relations or special events to create an estimated budget for your total promotional plan.  Much of this information can be found on the websites of local media outlets (search “ad rates”).  For purposes of this assignment, estimated costs are acceptable.

Within this section draft, please demonstrate your grasp of the marketing terminology and concepts related to promotion and advertising.  Be sure to include the use of traditional media and interactive/social media that you feel are the best choices to reach your target consumers.  Explain why you have chosen these media, using the concepts of market segmentation and consumer buying behavior.

 

 

 

Question 11: Finance

 

Westlake Corporation has the following information (obtained) from its balance sheet, income statement and statement of retained earnings.

Increase in current assets $50
Operating income $75
Interest expense $25
Increase in accounts payable $35
dividends $15
Increase in common stock $20
Increase in net fixed assets $23
Depreciation expense $12
Income taxes $17

Calculate the free cash flow from operations. (Answer found on chegg)

 

Question 12: Business

 

  1. Provide a description of the company at which you work. The Company will be a government agency and primary product is travel arrangements. The system is called Defense travel system. (DTS)
  2. Describe an “agency problem” (not just any problem) within the firm and discuss what you think is causing the problem and how the problem might be better controlled.
  3. Describe the job dimensions of the firm and discuss whether or not you believe the current design is appropriate for the firm.  Discuss any suggestions you might have for improving the job design.
  4. Describe the compensation package for executives/employees within the firm and discuss whether or not you believe that the compensation package is effective.  Discuss any suggestions that you might have for improving the compensation package.
  5. Describe the individual performance measures for executives/employees within the firm and discuss whether or notyou believe that the performance measures are effective.  Discuss any suggestions that you might have for improving the performance measures.

 

Question 13: Psychology

 

Survey discussion (please engage in the discussion the professor will be looking at this discussion thread. Please respond to this thread with your comments.

Team, why is it important to write good survey questions? and who is it important to?

 

Question 14: Other

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Case studies are an important learning strategy in business classes as they provide an opportunity for you to critically analyze events that have taken place in real-life businesses. This develops your critical thinking and research skills as you research the competition and industry in which your business resides with an end goal of formulating a recommendation for the challenges faced by the company.

Select one of the three case studies listed below, which can be found in your textbook. Evaluate the case of your choice, and respond to each of the questions below using both theory and practical managerial thinking as well as supporting research.

Option 1: Nike (pp. 30–31)

  1. How has the industry in which Nike resides been doing over the last 5 years?
  2. What are the pros, cons, and risks associated with Nike’s core marketing strategy? How have they managed to develop a strong customer relationship with their target market?
  3. Who are the top three competitors of Nike, and what are their advantages/disadvantages with respect to their product/service development?
  4. Looking at the competitors you discussed in question #3, what would you recommend as being the next steps for these competitors and, subsequently, the next steps for Nike to combat these competitors?

Option 2: Cisco (pp. 58–59)

  1. How is building a brand in a business-to-business (B2B) context different than that of a business-to-consumer (B2C) market? How has Cisco managed to develop a strong customer relationship with their target market?
  2. How has the industry in which Cisco resides been doing over the last 5 years?
  3. Who are the top three competitors of Cisco, and what are their advantages/disadvantages with respect to their product/service development?
  4. Is Cisco’s plan to reach out to consumers a viable one? Why, or why not? As a marketing manager for Cisco, what would you recommend to be the next steps?

Option 3: Intel (pp. 59–60)

  1. Discuss how Intel changed ingredient-marketing history. What did it do so well in those initial marketing campaigns? How did Intel manage to develop a strong customer relationship with their target market?
  2. How has the industry in which Intel resides been doing over the last 5 years?
  3. Who are the top three competitors of Intel, and what are their advantages/disadvantages with respect to their product/service development?
  4. Evaluate Intel’s greatest risks and strengths as the industry moves out of the personal computer (PC) era. Identify the next steps that Intel needs to employ in order to maintain its competitive advantage.

In formatting your case analysis, do not use the question-and-answer format; instead, use an essay format with subheadings. Your APA-formatted case study should be a minimum of 500 words in length (not counting the title and reference pages). You are required to use a minimum of three peer-reviewed, academic sources that are no more than 5 years old (one may be your textbook). All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased material must have accompanying in-text citations.

 

Discuss an example of an organization that you believe does either a good job or a not-so-good job of marketing. Explain your rationale. For the sake of diversity within the class discussion, please do not duplicate organizations that have already been discussed by your fellow classmates.

 

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Question 15: History

 

SLO #2 The 2020 Elections in Texas

Research the current candidates running for state offices in 2020.

Create a table listing candidates and party affiliations for the following offices being elected in November 2020:

Only list candidates for YOUR district. Don’t list all candidates for every office, just ones you could vote for.

Find your representatives here: https://wrm.capitol.texas.gov/home

You may not be able to find all challengers (it’s early) but at least list the incumbent.

  • S. Senator
  • S. House of Representatives
  • Texas State Senator
  • Texas State Representative
  • Some School Board Members
  • Texas Railroad Commissioner
  • Texas Supreme Court
  • Texas Court of Criminal Appeals
  • Pick ONE of the offices above. Analyze and evaluate the candidate’s platforms. What goals or positions do they share? Where do they differ? In your opinion, which candidate is more aligned with Texas’ changing demographics? In your opinion, which candidate do you think will win the election? In your opinion, will the “best” candidate win?
  • If you can’t find a challenger, at least evaluate the incumbent’s background and platform and determine if he/she should face a challenger.

Resources:

You should be able to find most, if not all, of the information you need here:

https://www.sos.texas.gov/elections/candidates/guide/2020/offices2020.shtml

https://ballotpedia.org/Texas_elections,_2020

By following links on the site above, you should be able to learn more about the candidates, including following links to candidates’ websites, Facebook profiles and Twitter pages.

My area: location for representatives is:

4900 Valley Ridge Drive

Irving, Texas 75062

 

Question 16: Economics

 

Based on your findings in the readings, place yourself in the role of a person determining the U.S. currency rate. Recently, you found that the U.S. dollar appreciated against the New Zealand dollar and depreciated against the Chinese yuan. If your goal was to promote U.S. exports, what would be your strategies? Address the concepts below within your essay submission.

  • Discuss the operation of the foreign exchange market.
  • Explain how traders benefit from the forward exchange market.
  • Describe how exchange rates are determined in a free market.

In addition to addressing the bullets listed above, your essay should be comprised of the sections listed below.

  • Introduction: Include an engaging paragraph or two on the important concepts that the reader will learn about while reading your essay assignment.
  • Discussion: Provide a brief summary of one article by comparing and contrasting the advantages and disadvantages of promoting U.S. exports. Then, briefly state your position in light of the article. The online databases listed below are recommended in order to find articles for the essay assignment.
    • Business Source Complete
    • ABI/INFORM Collection
  • Conclusion: Summarize the main results, and provide policy recommendations to promote U.S. exports.

Your APA-style essay should be a minimum of 500 words in length, not counting the title and reference pages. You are required to use a minimum of two sources; at least one source must come from the CSU Online Library (one source may be your textbook). All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased material must have accompanying in-text citations.

 

 

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Question 17: Engineering

 

We have a piece of cardboard that is 50cm by 20 cm and we are going to cut out the corners and fold up the sides to form a box. Determine the height of the box that will give the maximum volume.

 

Question 18: Mathematics

 

Find two positive number whose product is 750 and and for which the sum of one and ten times the other is a minimum

 

Question 19: English

 

Write an exemplification essay in which you argue the internet and social media (facebook,instagram,twitter,etc.) helps people feel good about themselves through sharing images, comments,stories,confessions,etc., or bad about themselves, for instance because it as an invasion of privacy. Some topics you could include are online bullying, the many internet challenges ( tide pod challenge, the Kylie Jenner Challenge, the cinnamon challenge,etc.) or on the other side how the internet and social media helps people stay connected.

If you use any quotes from an outside source cite it both in the, for example (Jones 56) and on the last page as a works cited listing.

 

Question 20:        Economics

 

A monopolist is operating at an output level where |ε| = 3. The govern- ment imposes a quantity tax of $6 per unit of output. If the demand curve facing the monopolist is linear, how much does the price rise?

 

 

 

Question 21: History

 

Compare and contrast the steamboats of the antebellum years with technologies today. In your estimation, what modern technology compares to steamboats in its transformative power?

This answer is on Chegg

Question 22: English

 

One paragraph that explains why the industrial revolution is described as the “antithesis to romantic literature.”

 

Question 23: Business

 

Instruction

CASE STUDY Nissan Company Nissan Motor Company, Ltd, shortened to Nissan, is a Japanese multinational automaker. Head quartered in Japan, founded 1932. It formerly marketed vehicles under the “Datsun” brand name and is one of the largest car manufacturers –revenue appx $90 billion USD (2007) and Employees 190,000 (2008). Nissan continues its quest to optimize product development and deliver highly innovative technology. Today, in various countries and regions around the world they enjoy a reputation for creating truly innovative vehicles and service programs. With facilities around the world, the Qashqai, Micra, Micra C+C and Note are produced by Nissan Motor Manufacturing (UK) Ltd in Sunderland, Tyne & Wear. • Answer the following questions on the above case, you should review about this company through secondary available information and use APA style references 1) Describe the nature of operations management in the organization. In doing this, first describe the operation process of the production system. Second, identify operations decisions and responsibilities. Finally, write a short paper on some of the challenges facing operations management.? (Marks 2) (word count maximum:500) 2) Evaluate Nissan Motor Company in terms of its emphasis on the operations strategy objectives? What are the order winners and the order qualifiers? (Marks 1) (word count maximum:300) 3) What is the proper role of the operations function in product design? (Marks .05) (word count maximum:100) 4) How to manage production and operation issues in the context of demand uncertainty and fluctuation? (Marks 1) (word count maximum:300) 5) Suppose that Nissan Motor Company has considering moving from a batch process to an assembly-line process to better meet evolving market needs. What concerns might the following functions have about this proposed process change: marketing, finance, human resources, accounting, and information systems? (Marks 0.5) (word count maximum:150).

 

Question 24: Other

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Instruction

Conduct research on behavior skills assessments. Then, complete a self-evaluation using information you gained or realized through this week’s Books and Resources. Prepare a written appraisal of your own specific skills and behaviors, and then examine how these can be beneficial to guide organizational change as a leader/coach. Determine how these findings would affect your personal relations and those of others within an organization. Then, provide real world examples of the application to support your assessment. Support your assessment with at least five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your assessment should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic.

 

 

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Question 25: Mathematics

 

  1. With only a part-time job and the need for a professional wardrobe, Rachel quickly maxed out her credit card the summer after graduation. With her first full-time paycheck in August, she vowed to pay $210 each month toward paying down her $7,424 outstanding balance and not to use the card. The card has an annual interest rate of 24 percent. How long will it take Rachel to pay for her wardrove? Should she shop for a new card? Why or why not?

If Rachel continues to pay $210 per month, it will take her 62 months to pay for her wardrobe. Answer is 62 how did we get 62?

 

Question 26: Business

 

Refer Attachment for questions. Pls refer the YouTube links. 

Requirements Note: Answer each question briefly and include the references. (12 pt. 1.5 spacing)

 

 

Case: Discussion on Australian Auto Industry

Some videos related to the event covered in the case:

  1. Toyoda Announcing the closure:

 

  1. Speech to the Parliament about Tony Abbott’s inaction on Toyota (Note he mentioned the loss of jobs in US between 2007-2009)

 

  1. Workers reacting to closure:

 

Discuss in detail: 

1) What caused the decline of auto industry in Australia?  Does it make sense to have an auto industry in Australia in the first place?

2) Should the government adopt more protective trade policies to save the auto industry in Australia? What kind of policies would work?

3) What do you think of the on-going trade conflicts between US and China?

 

Note: Answer each question briefly and include the references. (12 pt. 1.5 spacing)

 

Case : Global Capital Market and Foreign Exchange Risks

 

The risks and rewards of global capital market

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=VEq04xjxfyY

this topic, we will focus more on the flow of capital globally. Obviously, the global capital market provides opportunities as well as risks for investors & companies looking for financing. However, a major development over the past 2 decades — a rather worrisome one in my mind — has been the dominance of financial institutions (the ultimate handlers of capital) in the world economy. Financial industry emerged to serve the “real” industries. For instance, the creation of install payments allowed the exponential sales growth for Singer sewing machines. The innovative mortgage products allow us to enjoy the ownership of a house before we save up enough to buy one. But now, the servant has become the master — CEOs of companies now listen to Wall Street and try to meet the earnings estimate of some analysts who may have never set foot on the floor of any factory. Private equity fund managers buy and sell companies, often destroying the core competencies and the culture of a company while dressing up the balance sheet and then they exit with 100% to 300% returns in 1 to 3 years. A newly college-minted investment banker can make $200k plus while a senior engineer makes half of that. Smart graduates from MIT go to Wall Street to do financial engineering rather than real engineering. With their ingenious engineering, we now have all kinds of financial products. While the real-world economy is about $70 trillion, outstanding derivative contracts are estimated to be more than 10 times that, some of which we don’t know what they are and how they work or how risky they are and whether they will lead to another financial crisis like 2008 again. With my rather “biased” negative view of Wall Street out in the open (Mind you, I have an MBA in finance),

I would like that you think about the following:

1) In what ways can a company be exposed to foreign exchange risks? What are some of the ways to hedge? Should companies try to make money from such hedging activities?

2) What are the causes of the global financial crisis of 2008? What caused the crisis in Greece a few years back? Have we (governments, financial institutions, investors etc.) made enough changes (or any changes at all) to prevent future crises?

Note: Answer each question briefly and include the references. (12 pt. 1.5 spacing)

 

Question 27: Religious Studies

 

Please imagine, that you are the architect of a new society.  It is up to you to determine the social order, the culture, the norms and values of this totally new world.  You are indeed creating a religion, but you are not limited to theological tenets.  Your goal is to influence the way that your community interacts with one another.  Therefore, it is important to think about what you want people to believe.  How should individuals interact with one another, and what boundaries and rules will govern those interactions?  Is there a sacred space that encourages community in this new society like a church, synagogue, or the Kaaba in Muhammad’s day?  What holidays are important if there are any?  Does your religion believe in a spiritual realm, or how does it deal with death, life, and the afterlife if at all?

Please think about all of the religious teachers that we have discussed such as the Buddha, Confucius, Lao Tzu, Moses, Jesus, and Muhammad, to name a few and their stories.  Think about what they taught and the challenges they faced in influencing others to believe and behave in a certain manner.  Like them, …others will be dissecting your “Religion” centuries from now, and they will determine if what you’ve organized and constructed is a good and logical system to follow.  Nevertheless, your goal is to achieve the common ends of promoting social cohesion, or helping people to achieve an eternal reality, or simply the best “good” within the individuals that encounter your religion.  This is your world, and the fate of it will lie in your system of beliefs.

 

Below are a few elements to include and/or consider for your new society.  Just remember…its success depends on the health of your socio-religious ideas that you put forward.

 

Name of Religion:

Founder:

The story of the Founder:

  • Circumstances of Birth, Childhood, Adult Life (Ex: Story of Buddha in the Palace & the Four Passing sights; Jesus’ virgin birth narrative)
  • Country and the realities of their day, etc. (Confucius and the Warring States of China; Buddha and the caste system)

 

Religious Creed: a written formal statement of beliefs that highlight central tenets of your religion.

  • Nicene Creed (Catholicism)
  • Shahadah (Islam)

 

Major Tenets of Belief: Primary characteristics, practices, or beliefs that define a follower of your religion.  You can include your Ten Commandments extra credit for this.

  • Ten Commandments (Judaism)
  • Eight Noble Truths (Buddhism)
  • 5 Pillars (Islam)

 

Denominations: Give at least 2-3 variations of your initial belief system and how they differ from original, or orthodox belief.  What happened?  What caused the split?

  • Theravada, Mahayana, Vajrayana (Buddhism)
  • Catholicism, Eastern Orthodox, Protestantism (Christianity)
  • Sunni, Shia, Sufi (Islam)

Religious Symbols:  Think of a symbol that already exists, or that you can create, that represents your religion and belief system.

  • Re-visit your Iconography assignment from Lesson 9

Other Things to Consider:

  • What is your religion’s view of God?
  • What is your religion’s view of the afterlife?
  • How can someone be initiated into your religion?
  • Is this religion the only way to truth?
  • Does your religion address any social realities like politics, social order, and behavior?  Is there a Caste system, or other social programs? Think Confucius’ deliberate tradition
  • Is there a day of the week that your religion congregates?  What does this look like?
  • What holidays are important, and how are they relevant to your religion? (Feel free to create a holiday)

 

 

 

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Question 28: Education

 

Research a health care organization or network that spans several states with in the United States (United Healthcare, Vanguard, Banner Health, etc.). Assess the readiness of the health care organization or network you chose in regard to meeting the health care needs of citizens in the next decade.

Prepare a 1,000 word paper in APA format  that presents your assessment and proposes a strategic plan to ensure readiness. Include the following:

  1. Describe the health care organization or network.
  2. Describe the organization’s overall readiness based on your findings.
  3. Prepare a strategic plan to address issues pertaining to network growth, nurse staffing, resource management, and patient satisfaction.
  4. Identify any current or potential issues within the organizational culture and discuss how these issues may affect aspects of the strategic plan.
  5. Propose a theory or model that could be used to support implementation of the strategic plan for this organization. Explain why this theory or model is best.

 

 

Question 29: English

 

One paragraph that explains why the industrial revolution is described as the “antithesis to romantic literature.”

 

Question 30: Chemistry

 

An ice freezer behind a restaurant has a Freon leak, releasing 42.39 g of C2H2F3Cl into the air every week. If the leak is not fixed, how many kilograms of fluorine will be released into the air over 6 months? Assume there are 4 weeks in a month.

 

Question 31: Chemistry

 

The compound known as butylated hydroxytoluene, abbreviated as BHT, contains carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. A 3.876 g sample of BHT was combusted in an oxygen rich environment to produce 11.61 g of CO2(g) and 3.803 g of H2O(g).

Question 1: Engineering

 

Research Paper

 

Solid fuel and component recovery from tetra-pak
waste using hydrothermal treatment

 

Question 2: Computer Science

 

Java Tutor-A*

COSC 520/CPMA 580: Artificial Intelligence

Assignment #2: 19-Puzzle

Points: 100

Consider a variant of the 8-puzzle where there are 19 tiles plus a blank, arranged in the shape of a cross. An example would be:

+———+
| 2| 1| +———+
| 6| | +—————————–+ | 4| 5| 7| 3| 8| 9| +—————————–+ | 10 | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | +—————————–+ | 16 | 17 |

+———+

| 18 | 19 |

+———+

The rules of the puzzle are the same as that of the 8-puzzle. A tile may be moved to the blank space in each move (or you can think of it as moving the blank). The goal is to get all the tiles in the following order using the fewest number of moves:

+———+
| | 1| +———+
| 2| 3| +—————————–+ | 4| 5| 6| 7| 8| 9| +—————————–+ | 10 | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | +—————————–+ | 16 | 17 |

+———+

| 18 | 19 |

+———+

Write an program using the A* algorithm to solve this puzzle.

The program should use a consistent heuristic measure for h. One possible function is the Manhattan distance: For any non-blank tile, find the difference in the x-direction from where the tile is to where it should be in the solution and add that to the difference in the y-direction from where the tile is to where it should be. Sum up these numbers for all the non-blank tiles to calculate h.

The program should read in the starting state from standard input and print out the states that lead to the goal to standard output. The input and output will consist of just the numbers, not the lines as shown above. The number 0 will indicate the blank in the input and the output.

Allowable Code

You may use any code from the book or from class. You may use the APIs for a PriorityQueue, HashMap or HashTable, and ArrayList, or similar code for these data structures (and accredit the code.) You must write your own A* algorithm code or use the book’s code.

Sample Run

java Puzzle

Start State:

21

63
4 11 5 7 0 8

10 12 13 14 15  9

16 17

18 19

21

63
4 11 5 7 8 0

10 12 13 14 15  9

16 17

18 19

21

63
4 11 5 7 8 9

10 12 13 14 15  0

16 17

18 19

21

63
4 11 5 7 8 9

10 12 13 14  0 15

16 17

18 19

21

63
4 11 5 7 8 9

10 12 13  0 14 15

16 17

18 19

21

63
4 11 5 7 8 9

10 12  0 13 14 15

16 17

18 19

21

63
4 11 5 7 8 9

10  0 12 13 14 15

16 17

18 19

21

63 405789

10 11 12 13 14 15

16 17 18 19

21

63 450789

10 11 12 13 14 15

16 17

18 19

21

03 456789

10 11 12 13 14 15

16 17

18 19

01

23 456789

10 11 12 13 14 15

16 17

18 19

 

 

 

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Question 3: Engineering

 

suppose first and second ball drawn from urn are red and black what is the probability you have presented with urn c2

 

Question 4: Engineering

 

Acetone is typically produced in commercial quantities as a by-product during the formation of phenol. Benzene is alkylated to cumene, which is further oxidised to cumene hydro peroxide and finally cleaved to yield phenol and acetone. However, acetone manufactured thus generally contains small amounts of the reactant benzene and the desired product phenol. In the past, these impurities were deemed to be within allowable limits. However, recent downward revisions of these limits, particularly in the pharmaceutical industry, has made alternative processes (which do not involve benzene) more attractive. You are required to design one such alternative process, using isopropyl alcohol as the reactant and appropriate catalyst(s) that will achieve minimal effluent discharge. Assume an operating period of 8000 hrs on stream and 95% purity of the final product.

 

Question 5: Computer Science

 

COMP 2412
Fall 2019
Assignment 1#
Total Marks: 30

Notes:

  1. For each assignment question submit program files (C/C++).
  2. Make a document file and write pseudocodes for all three

program.

  1. Each question has 10 marks (5 for pseudocode and 5 for the

implementation)

  1. Your program should have well documented too. If your code is

not well documented (commented), you will recive 20% (1 mark) penalties on each question.

Final Deliverables:

Three program files for three tasks and one document file which will have pseudocodes. And finally compressed all files in one assignment1.zip file.

  1. Write the C/C++ program that uses a recursive function to print the elements of a list in reverse order.
  2. Write a C/C++ program for the recursive algorithm that removes all occurrences of a specific character from a string.
  3. Write down a program which will create a list (simple linear linked list) of nodes. Each node consists of two fields. The first field is a

pointer to a structure that contains a student id (integer) and a grade- point average (float). The second field is a link. The data are to be read from a text file. Your program should read a file of 10 students (with student id and grade point average) and test the function you wrote (by printing student’s information on screen).

Question 6: Engineering

 

6-13. As a junior field engineer, you have been asked to assist the contractor on your job in resolving the following problem. A 4.9 kW motor and gear drive rated at 175 rpm has been shipped with the four impellers described below. The baffled rapid mix tank into which it is to be installed is 3.0 m3 in volume (1.56 m diameter by 1.56 m deep). Which impeller should be used? Assume a water temperature of 10°C, a G = 1,000 s–1, a water density of 1,000 kg/m3, and that the motor power to water power efficiency is 80%. Show the calculations to justify your decision.

Impellers

  • Propeller, pitch of 2, 3 blades, diameter = 0.48 m, Np = 1.0
  • Propeller, pitch of 2, 3 blades, diameter = 0.61 m, Np = 1.0
  • Turbine, 6 flat blades, vaned disc, diameter = 0.48 m, Np = 6.3
  • Turbine, 6 flat blades, vaned disc, diameter = 0.61 m, Np = 6.3

 

Question 7: English

having read rachel harveys essay my serenity. Write a paragraph describing your serenity. Like the author,you should convey an impression not just of the feeling itself or of the setting that produces it ,but both

 

Question 8: Mathematics

Suppose that, historically, April has experienced rain and a temperature between 35 and 50 degrees on 20 days. Also, historically, the month of April has had a temperature between 35 and 50 degrees on 25 days. You have scheduled a golf tournament for April 12. If the temperature is between 35 and 50 degrees on that day, what will be the probability that the players will get wet?

 

 

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estion 9:      Accounting

 

Laurie Manufacturing Pty Ltd., manufactures grass collection attachments for Lawn Mowers that are sold in the market. The income statement for 2018 indicated an operating loss of $420,000 details of which are given below: Laurie Manufacturing Pty Ltd. Sales (30,000 attachments @$500 each) 15,000,000 Fixed Costs 5,670,000 Variable Costs 9,750,000 Operating income (420,000) Mr Samuel (cost accountant) and Mr Martin, his assistant, have been asked by the owners of Laurie Manufacturing to see if there are ways to reduce costs. After some thinking and some analysis, Martin proposes to Samuel the following two options: 1.Option 1 – To reduce the variable costs by 70%, by procuring cheaper direct raw materials. 2.Option 2 – To reduce the company’s variable costs by 60%, by reducing the costs it currently incurs for safe disposal of wasted plastic resulting from the manufacture of the grass collection attachments. Samuel is concerned that this would expose Laurie Manufacturing to potential 3 environmental liabilities. He requests Martin to factor into his analysis an estimation of potential environmental liabilities. Samuel responds by saying: “We are not violating any laws. There is some possibility that we may have to incur environmental costs in the future, but if we bring it up now, this proposal will not go through because the owners will always assume that these costs could be larger than they turn out to be. We may be in danger of the company closing down and costing our jobs. The only reason our competitors are making money is because they are doing exactly what I am proposing.” REQUIRED: 1. Show calculations for break even revenues for 2018. 2. Show calculations to determine the break even revenues for 2018, if variable costs are at 70% and 60% of revenues as per options 1 and 2. 3. Show calculations to determine the operating income for 2018, if variable costs were at 70% and 60% of revenues as per options 1 and 2. 4. Evaluate Martin’s comments in line with the ethical standards as advanced by the Institute of Management Accountants. 5. How would the non-inclusion of environmental costs impact Laurie Manufacturing in the future.

 

Question 10: Business

 

Excel has the capability to convert/summarize numbers into visual representation through various charts. Share with the class why charts are important. Are there particular types of charts for specific purposes? For instance, when is the right time to use a pie chart instead of a line chart or a bar chart?

 

Question 11: Other

 

You are a manager in charge of a marketing research project. Your goal is to determine what effects different levels of advertising have on consumption behavior. Based on the results of the project you will recommend the amount of money to be budgeted for advertising different products next year. Your supervisor will require strong justification for your recommendations, so your research design has to be as sound as possible. However, your resources (time, money, and labor) are limited. Develop a research project to address this problem. Focus on the kind of research designs you would use, why you would use them, and how you would conduct the research.

 

Question 12: Computer Science

 

Let us consider the following Elliptic Curve Equation y 2 = x 3 + x + 6 mod 11 over the
Prime field of 𝑍ଵଵ
∗ and solve the following questions
a. Find the list of points lies on the elliptic curve
b. Assume that 𝑃 = (5,2), Calculate 5. 𝑃 = (𝑥, 𝑦) and find (𝑥, 𝑦)

 

 

Question 13: Statistics

 

Name: _____________________________________________________

 

Directions: (1) For each set of variables provided, please form a research question, (2) next, create a Research and Null hypotheses, (3) identify which variable is the independent variable and which variable is the dependent variable, (4) provide a conceptual definition for each variable, (5) lastly, create five indicators for each of your conceptual definitions (if needed).

 

I have done the first one for you as an example.

 

  1. Cash Incentives and Test Performance

RQ: Will cash incentives increase test performance?

HA: Cash incentives will increase test performance.

HO: There is no relationship between cash incentives and test performance.

IV: Cash incentives

DV: Test performance

Conceptualization 1: For the purposes of this research cash incentives will be defined as a cash award for grades received on an examination.

Indicators for conceptualization 1: $50 for an A, $40 for a B, $20 for a C, $0 for D or F.

Conceptualization 2: For the purposes of this research, test performance is defined as grade received on an exam.

Indicators for conceptualization 2: None needed. The conceptualization does not require operationalization as it already specifies exactly how the concept will be measured.

 

  1. Attractiveness of Person and Perceived Credibility

RQ:

HA:

HO:

IV:

DV:

Conceptualization 1:

Indicators for conceptualization 1:

Conceptualization 2:

Indicators for conceptualization 2:

 

  1. Academic Stress and Prescription Amphetamine Abuse

RQ:

HA:

HO:

IV:

DV:

Conceptualization 1:

Indicators for conceptualization 1:

Conceptualization 2:

Indicators for conceptualization 2:

 

  1. Intelligence and Assertiveness

RQ:

HA:

HO:

IV:

DV:

Conceptualization 1:

Indicators for conceptualization 1:

Conceptualization 2:

Indicators for conceptualization 2:

 

  1. Number of Hours of Daylight and Suicide

RQ:

HA:

HO:

IV:

DV:

Conceptualization 1:

Indicators for conceptualization 1:

Conceptualization 2:

Indicators for conceptualization 2:

 

 

Question 14: Business

 

Select one element of the Marketing mix and discuss how marketing research could help that area.  Be specific in your recommendations.

Your original response is due, and then reply to another student’s post .  The required length for your original posting is 350 words, and your reply should be a minimum of 250 words.

 

 

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Question 15: Communications

 

This week you will have the opportunity to write a letter to the editor as a way to explore your research topic. If you have never read any letters to the editor, you might find reading a few as a way to see what it is you will be writing. The source you choose to read them from will not matter since the content and guidelines for letters to the editor are quite similar. As I wrote in the syllabus, the letters are short (usually about 200 words so one typed page double spaced) and are to the point with a specific focus. This means you will want to write about an aspect of your research topic.

 

 

Question 16: Psychology

 

I just need an introduction paragraph for the paragraph below… 100 words

  • A well-known researcher at a major university has two graduate student assistants. He conducts three studies in his laboratory, all of which involve very labor-intensive procedures. The graduate research assistants complete all of the data collection. They also assist in writing the Discussion section of the final article, adding their thoughts and suggestions to the various drafts. The article is accepted into a leading journal for publication. The primary researcher lists only himself as author of the article, claiming that he wrote at least 75% of the final paper.

 

  • Describe the ethical consideration(s) involved with the scenario.
  • Has the primary researcher committed an ethical violation?

 

Question 17: Physics

 

In a cycling road race consisting of a flat section and an uphill section, a particular cyclist pedals with an average power of 324 Watts for 5.50 hrs on the flat section of the course, and an average power of 418 Watts for 30.0 mins while climbing the uphill section, which has an average grade of 6%. Potentially useful information: power=energy/time; 1 watt= 1 joule/sec; 1kcal= 4186 J; 1kcal = 1 food Calorie.

(A) calculate the average mechanical power output of the cyclist over the whole race.

(B) given that the human body has an efficiency of 25.0% at converting foo energy into mechanical output, how many kcal of food energy must the cyclist consume to replace the mechanical energy expended during the race?

 

 

 

 

Question 18: Mathematics

 

Find The Limit As X Approaches 0 Of (5x-tan(5x))/x^3 Using L’Hospital’s Rule.

 

Question 19: Health Care

 

Objectives & Target Market Assignment

 

In this writing assignment, you will complete the following steps:

 

Write at least two marketing objectives to be accomplished by this marketing plan.  Be sure that your objectives are stated in a way to meet the criteria for “S.M.A.R.T.” goals, which means they are:

Specific  — answer the who, what, when, where, why questions

 

Measurable – include a numeric objective (“increase sales to $10 million”)

Attainable – within your reach, even if optimistic (you are willing to commit)

Realistic – have a reasonable likelihood of being met (you are able to commit)

Timely – have a deadline or time period attached

 

Based on your analysis of the market data, and a comprehensive understanding of the customer and the buying processes, write a 2-3 page description of the major segments of the market and the specific target market segment you have chosen to serve.  Be sure to include a discussion of demographic and psychographic factors if you are targeting a consumer segment, or for business targets, a discussion of whether you are serving a producer, reseller, institution or government unit.  Include your reasons for concluding that this is the target market segment that is most likely to be served profitably by your firm.

 

Please combine all sections of this draft (Marketing Objectives and Target Market Strategy) into a single document, along with citation of sources.

 

 

Question 20: Economics

 

On September 6, Sam Goldfarb reported for the Wall Street Journal that the “average yield on double-B bonds, the highest-rated type of speculative-grade debt, has fallen to 4.07% from 4.69% at the start of May, according to Bloomberg Barclays data. The average yield on a tiple-C bond, close to the lowest-rated type of speculative-grade debt, has increased to 10.89% from 9.64%”. Explain why the average yield on double-B bonds has decreased, while the average yield on triple-C bonds rose?

 

 

 

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Question 21: Economics

 

Visit WSJ.com Bond Benchmark page, and calculate the risk premium on the latest Baa corporate bond relative to AA corporate bonds.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 22: Accounting

 

Need to completely answer three accounting case questions. Please take a look at the attached document and answer the case study questions completely and accurately.

 

Accounting discussion Questions

 

Case A Revenue Recognition

 

 

Smooth Blend, Inc., a calendar year company, produces several blends of whiskey. Maturing whiskey is stored for 3 years in a large, dark aromatic warehouse owned by Smooth Blend. Smooth Blend sells the whiskey to Distributor Company at the beginning of the aging process (January 1, 2011). Distributor Company will pick up the whiskey at the end of the aging process (December 31, 2013) and take it to its facilities for bottling. Distributor Company pays the full purchase price to Smooth Blend on January 1, 2011 to protect itself against price increases.

 

  1. When should Smooth Blend recognize revenue? Why?

 

  1. Would your answer change

 

  • If the quality control manager of Distributor Company had the right to taste the whiskey on December 31, 2013 and receive a full refund if not satisfied with the quality of the liquor?

 

  • If there was no right of return but Smooth Blend promised to help Distributor Company attract customers?

 

  • If Smooth Blend acquired a fixed price option from Distributor Company to repurchase the whiskey in 6 months?

 

  1. How would your answer change if Smooth Blend sold the whiskey to Friendly Bank, agrees to oversee the aging process on the bank’s behalf, and acquires a fixed price forward from Friendly Bank to repurchase the whiskey in 6 months?

 

 

 

Case B:  Revenue Recognition: Timing

 

 

 

Accountants from Construction Company, Boat Builder Company and BMW are discussing revenue recognition. All are calendar year companies. A description of the production process of each company follows.

 

Construction Company builds homes on lots it owns. It currently is building a home for Billy Bob (BB). The terms of the contract required BB to pay the entire $200,000 price of the home on the date the construction contract was signed (October 1, 2012). The advance payment protects BB from a forecasted increase in home prices. The contract promises BB that he can move into the house no later than 9 months from when he signs the contract (June 30, 2013). The total expected cost of completing the house is $150,000. If the house is not completed by June 30, 2013 Construction Company must pay BB a $1,500 penalty each week until he can move into the house.  Construction Company spends

$20,000 to lay the foundation for the house in 2012. It completes the house for $2,000 under budget on July 1.

 

 

Boat Builder Company currently is completing work on a boat that a customer contracted for on September 30, 2012 and expects to take delivery of on August 1, 2013. The $200,000 fixed price contract does not obligate the customer to pay Boat Builder until the boat is delivered and the title transfers to the customer. The boat is a basic design offered by Boat Builder. Customers individualize the basic boat by selecting custom trim, accessories and other finish details. Boat Builder typically fulfills specific customer orders rather than holding boats in inventory. If the customer cancels the contract prior to delivery, Boat Builder must be paid for any work completed up to that date. Boat Builder incurs initial design and selling costs of $10,000. Boat Builder’s actual and expected building costs are

$150,000, which consists of raw materials of $50,000 and labor costs of $100,000. The raw materials are purchased on October 1, 2012. Raw materials are consumed and direct labor costs are incurred evenly over the construction period.

 

 

BMW agrees to sell Joe Customer a new BMW 650i for $85,000 on December 4, 2012 through one of its company-owned dealerships. The cost to BMW to produce the car is $60,000. Because of the highly specified nature of the options requested by this customer, BMW must build the car from scratch, a process that will take 8 weeks. BMW anticipates delivering the vehicle on February 1, 2013.

 

  1. Under current GAAP, how much revenue should Construction Company, Boat Builder and BMW recognize in 2012 and 2013? Please answer in a minimum of 200 words

 

 

 

Case C: Cellular Telephone Contract

 

 

 

XTel runs a promotion in which new customers who sign a two-year contract receive a free phone. There is a one-time activation fee of $50 and a monthly fee of $40 for the ongoing service. The same monthly fee is charged by XTel regardless of whether the free phone is provided. Each phone costs XTel $100.

XTel frequently sells the phone separately for $120. XTel is not required to refund any portion of the fee paid for any reason. XTel is a sufficiently capitalized, experienced and profitable business. There is no reason to believe the two years of service will not be provided.

 

 

  1. How should XTel account for this transaction? Please answer completely with a minimum of 150 words.

 

Question 23: Mathematics

 

https://www.chegg.com/homework-help/wildlife-management-wildlife-manager-crocodile-lengths-worki-chapter-1.6-problem-24e-soluti

 

Question 24: Business

 

Friedman identifies 10 ‘Flatteners” in part 2 of TWIF that he believes have accelerated the pace of Globalization.  For this discussion assignment, you should rank what you believe to be the top 3 of these 10 flatteners in order of their impact.  In other words, identify your first, second and third most important Flattener based on TWIF or other observations or information you may have.  Give a brief explanation for why these particular flatteners are so important and a rationale for your ranking as part of your contribution.  Feel free to comment on the responses of your peers.

 

Question 25: Business

 

Current position of the organisation: Provide an outline of goals and the philosophy of the
organisation. Present the current target market and performance of the organisation. (10 Marks)
2. Analysis of the business environment: Effectively assess the Micro-Environment, Market /
Task environment and Macro-Environment of your organisation. (20 Marks)
3. Roles and skills of managers: To discuss the overlapping roles of managers and the skills
required of them in order to take the organisation. The management style of the management
team and its relevance to the achievement of the organisational goals. (15 Marks)
4. Human Resources: An assessment of the organisations human resources in terms of skills,
motivation and retention. (15 Marks)
3
5. Change Management: Ways in which management can react to the changing business
environment. Discuss the inter-related approaches which the organisation can adopt in reacting
to the environment. (10 Marks)
6. Organisation Design: The fundamental principles underlying organisation design should be
discussed. Evaluate the organisational structure of the organisation and its suitability for the
growth and expansion of the organisation. (15Marks)
7. Recommendations: Present possible recommendations and critical success factors that the
organisation should implement to achieve the desired goals.

 

 

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Question 26: History

 

Instruction

In one paragraph, identify which 3 colonies you feel were the best examples of what would become the United States. Then explain why for each in 1-2 sentences. Total length of paragraph should be 5-8 sentences. Consider values important to us today as Americans, which colonies really influenced these core values the most?

 

Question 27: Health Care

 

(Title of the paper): Identify the prevalence of tick-borne diseases from existing data and the risk of co-infection in the United States for the last two decades then provide public health recommendations to increase awareness regarding the tick-borne diseases

 

 

Nature & scope of proposed paper:

 

Tick-borne diseases have been a significant public health problem in the last two decades. Climate change and global warming are two crucial factors affecting the growth of tick-borne pathogens that should be controlled to maintain humans and domestic animals’ health (Sutherst, 2004).  According to the CDC report (CDC, 2016) listed that top five tick-borne diseases in the United States: anaplasmosis, babesiosis, Lyme disease, spotted fever rickettsiosis, and ehrlichiosis. Regarding to the geographical distribution to TBD, the CDC demonstrated in the 2016 report that cases have been found of Babesiosis in the east coast states, west coast states, southern states, northern states; additionally, anaplasmosis cases have been found in Colorado, Idaho, New Mexico, Alaska, and Hawaii in (2016, CDC). The US Department of Health and Human Services has released in ‘Tick-borne Disease Working Group 2018 report’ (HHS,2018) to the Secretary and the Congress that Lyme disease has raised by 300% in the northeastern states and 250% in the north-central states.

There are three significant tick-borne diseases in the northeast states, including, Lyme disease, babesiosis, and anaplasmosis according to the (CDC, 2018). The Lyme disease profile contains the disease agents: Borrelia burgdorferi and B. mayonii; as well as the mode of transmission: a lone star tick bite; also, the disease has two stages localized stage and disseminated stage; additionally, the incubation period: 3 days to a month (CDC, 2018). The second TB disease is babesiosis including the agents: Babesia microti and other Babesia species; also, the disease could be transmitted by the vector Ixodes scapularis ticks and the signs of the disease are mostly asymptomatic, however, sometimes it could be lethal; lastly, the incubation period is one to more than nine weeks (CDC, 2018). The third tick-borne disease profile is anaplasmosis. The anaplasmosis’ agent is Anaplasma phagocytophilum also the diseases could transfer by a bite from an infected tick and a contaminated blood transfusion (CDC, 2018). In addition to the epidemiological profile of the tick-borne disease, the risks of co-infection consider a significant health problem that concerns the public health community. In a retrospective cohort study conducted by (Fida, 2019) stated that 37% of patients with babesiosis developed non-fatal co-infection of Lyme diseases and anaplasmosis.

In conclusion, this project aims to identify the magnitude of tick-borne disease in the US, create a geographical map of at least four of tick-borne diseases in the US, compose an epidemiological profile of 4 TB diseases, finally develop public health recommendation of the prevention and public education of tick-borne diseases.

TBD- Tick-borne disease                    TB- Tick-borne

 

Objectives (please list a minimum of three):

  • By 9/12/19, conduct literature reviews with a minimum of 15 evidence-based article of the top 5 tick-borne diseases in the US.
  • By 9/19/19, identify the prevalence of a minimum 4 of tick-borne diseases in the United States specifically the northern states of the US from existing data.
  • By 9/25/19, distinguish prevalence of co-infection and the risk of tick-borne diseases co-infections from existing data.
  • By 10/10/19, create geographical map of the top 5 tick-borne diseases in the northern states or in the US by using existing maps
  • By 10/20/19, arrange epidemiological profile of 5 tick-borne diseases in the north east states.
  • By 11/1/19, develop minimum of 4 public health recommendations focusing on prevention and public education of tick-borne diseases in the US.
  • By 11/15/19, finalize and submit the report, portfolio, and the poster.

 

Strategies to be used:

 

Review of the literature (primary studies, case studies) and public health sites including the CDC, MMWR, https://www.cdc.gov/ticks/diseases/index.html to identify tick borne diseases in the US, prevalence, and epidemiological profiles.

 

 

Site resources to be used (if special permission is needed to gain access to data, records, etc. how it will be arranged):

 

 

Identify which competencies you will be developing during the course of your APE (please identify a minimum of five competencies, of which three must be foundational competencies):

  1. FC1: Apply epidemiological methods to the breadth of settings and situations in public health practice
  2. FC2: Select quantitative and qualitative data collection methods appropriate for a given public health context
  3. FC3: Analyze quantitative and qualitative data using biostatistics, informatics, computer-based programming and software, as appropriate.
  4. FC4: Interpret results of data analysis for public health research, policy or practice
  5. FC7: Assess population needs, assets, and capacities that affect communities’ health
  6. EPIC1: Identify key sources of data for epidemiologic purposes.
  7. EPIC2: Describe a public health problem in terms of magnitude, person, time and place.
  8. EPIC3: Apply the basic terminology and definitions of epidemiology.
  9. EPIC4: Draw appropriate inferences from epidemiologic data.

 

 

References: (AMA or APA formatting)

 

Fida, M., Challener, D., Hamdi, A., O’horo, J., & Abu Saleh, O. (2019, June). Babesiosis: A Retrospective Review of 38 Cases in the Upper Midwest. In Open forum infectious diseases (Vol. 6, No. 7, p. ofz311). US: Oxford University Press.

Hersh, M. H., Ostfeld, R. S., McHenry, D. J., Tibbetts, M., Brunner, J. L., Killilea, M. E., … & Keesing, F. (2014). Co-infection of blacklegged ticks with Babesia microti and Borrelia burgdorferi is higher than expected and acquired from small mammal hosts. PloS one, 9(6), e99348.

Sutherst, R. W. (2004). Global change and human vulnerability to vector-borne diseases. Clinical microbiology reviews, 17(1), 136-173.

Tick-borne disease of the United States a reference manual for healthcare providers Fifth Edition, 2018. Retrieved from https://www.cdc.gov/ticks/tickbornediseases/TickborneDiseases-P.pdf

Tick-borne disease working group 2018 report to congress. Retrieved from https://www.hhs.gov/sites/default/files/tbdwg-report-to-congress-2018.pdf

 

 

 

 

Practice-based products that demonstrate MPH competency achievement
Specific products in portfolio that demonstrate application or practice List competency name and number as defined in the APE Guidelines (see Appendix A, Appendix B)
Epidemiological profile of the top 3 Tick-borne diseases in the northern east states EPIC2, EPIC3, FC1,FC2,FC3,FC4
Create geographical map of 4 tick-borne diseases EPIC2, FC1, FC2, FC4, EPIC4
Provide 3 public health recommendations on prevention and public education FC1, FC7
Practicum Report FC1, FC2, FC3, FC4, FC7, EPIC1, EPIC2, EPIC3, EPIC4
Practicum Poster FC1, FC2, FC3, FC4, FC7, EPIC1, EPIC2, EPIC3, EPIC4

Final products (Each student must include two products. Students must match their identified competencies to their products. A specific deliverable can cover more than one competency

 

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Question 28: Sociology

 

Instruction

Based on your reading of Ghetto, and other materials we have covered in this course, your essay will outline forces that influence the lives of those residing in ghettos and how the activities of people affect life in the ghetto. You will accomplish this by answering the following questions: 1. What political, economic, and cultural forces influence life in ghettos? In answering this question, you will want to outline the economic and political forces that influenced people’s pursuit of livelihood opportunities in the economy (both formal and informal). More specifically, you will want to discuss the economic, cultural and political factors that contributed to overall condition and the day to day lives of the residents. 2. How do race, class, and gender differences play a role living in the ghetto? In answering this question, you will relate specific examples from the book on how differences in race, class, and gender influence interactions between different types of people. Are these differences causes of tension or sources of unfairness? You will also describe how ideas about race and class influence outsider’s perceptions and, in turn, how those perceptions influence institutional ‘solutions’ to the perceived problems. Are the tactics used to address the (perceived) problems effective (or not)? 3. How does space affect the life of the residents and the city? In answering this question, you will use evidence from the book to argue whether the people and their activities are positive or negative influences on the life of the city as a whole. In other words, you will use specific evidence from the book to evaluate whether outsiders’ negative perceptions of street people are accurate (or not). FORMAT : Your essay should be 4 pages long, not including your bibliography (a cover sheet is not necessary). It should be in 12-point font, double-spaced, and with 1 inch margins. Writing much less than 4 pages will hurt your grade. You must use the APA system for references.

 

Question 29: Education

 

Instruction

Using Leverage Leadership 2.0: A Practical Guide to Building Exceptional Schools 2nd Edition as a tool to complete the paper. (this book is mandatory in writing this paper) The paper should be on building school culture and a vision that would be beneficial to the entire school. (Staff, students and parents) Research project or research paper: Topics for the research project/paper may come from any listed in the course training materials, review of literature, the textbook, or a topic of interest to the individual consistent with the content of this course. The research paper should be eight to ten pages in length and utilize the American Psychological Association (APA) documentation and include at least 8 sources. Projects may be done in PowerPoint, Publisher or other 21st-century software appropriate for the task, but should contain internal citations and end with a reference list that is matched to the sources cited in the project.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Project Grading Rubric

SCALE 1 2 3 4 Total Points
Organization (Focus and rationale) No focus/no rationale Information somewhat relates to the topic and rationale Information tied to topic and supports rationale Information presented in logical and engaging sequence, closely tied to topic/supports rationale
Content knowledge No research evident (e.g. power point slides only with no elaboration) Some research evident (e.g. power point slides with limited elaboration) Research evident (e.g. power point slides with some elaboration) Extensive research evident (e.g. explanation and elaboration in notes of power point)
Introduction Introduction does not convey the topic. Introduction provides a general thesis. Introduction delineates subtopics and general thesis. Introduction clearly delineates subtopics, intended audience, key questions(s), terms, and specific thesis.
Closure Conclusion is not evident. Review of key elements with some connection to thesis/purpose of project. Review of Key elements with a strong connection to thesis/purpose of project. Strong review of key elements, insightful integration with thesis/purpose of project.
Grammar & Mechanics Grammar and mechanics substantially detract from the project. Grammar and mechanics interfere with the project. Grammar and mechanics are minimal and do not detract from the project. The project is free from grammar and mechanical errors.
APA Style Does not follow APA style. Errors in APA style are noticeable. Minimal errors in APA style. No errors in APA style.
Requirements

 

8-9 pages (research paper)

 

15-19 slides (project)

No sources

3-4 pages

(research paper)

 

No sources

8-10 slides

(project)

2-3 sources

5-6 pages

(research paper)

 

1-3 sources,

11-12 slides

(Project)

 5-6 sources

7 pages

(research paper)

 

4-5 sources

13-14 slides

(Project)

8+ sources,

8-10 pages

(research paper)

 

6+ sources

15-19 slides

(Project)

 

 

 

 

Question 30: Education

Write a narrative (3,750-4,000 words) that summarizes the important information about the 10 articles you selected and describes how the studies form the research gap that your dissertation will fill. Your narrative should include the following: A summary of the key points of each article (purpose, research method, research design, sample, data collection instrument, results). A description of how these studies individually lead to the research gap that your dissertation study will fill.

 

Instruction

With the construction of the 10 Strategic Points for your dissertation study, you began to draft the literature review (Point 2) of the study to illuminate an identified gap in the literature to be filled by your dissertation study. While the literature review ultimately requires more than simply summarizing studies in some logical order, summarizing and paraphrasing are the beginning points of a solid literature review. In this assignment, you will summarize several studies from Point 2 (Literature Review) of your 10 Strategic Points document and the references to studies related to your dissertation topic that you added to the Literature Review Resources assignment in the final week of RES-850. From those summaries, you will describe how the studies form the gap that your dissertation will fill. Remember, to illuminate a gap in the research, the articles surveyed must have been published within the last 5 years General Requirements: Use the following information to ensure successful completion of the assignment: Refer to the draft of the 10 Strategic Points that you developed for your dissertation study in Topic 5 of RES-850. You may also use a more recent version of this document if one is available. Refer to the list of 10 references to studies related to your dissertation topic that you added to the Literature Review Resources assignment in the final week of RES-850. Instructors will be using a grading rubric to grade the assignments. It is recommended that learners review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment in order to become familiar with the assignment criteria and expectations for successful completion of the assignment. Doctoral learners are required to use APA style for their writing assignments. The APA Style Guide is located in the Student Success Center. You are required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite. Refer to the directions in the Student Success Center. Directions: Locate the draft of the 10 Strategic Points from Topic 5 of RES-850 (or a more recent version if one is available) and the 10 references to studies that you added to the Literature Review Resources assignment in the final topic of RES-850. Choose five articles from your draft of the 10 Strategic Points and 5 articles from those you added to the Literature Review Resources assignment in the final week of RES-850. The articles you choose must have been published within the last 5 years. I have all the articles and reference

 

 

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Question 1: General Question

 

Chamberlain NR283 Test Question Bank (Exam 1, Exam 2, Exam 3, Final Exam) graded A

Chamberlain NR283 Test Question Bank (Exam 1, Exam 2, Exam 3, Final Exam) graded A

 

Question 2: History

 

Background to the assignment: Who “owns” the past? Who has the right to define what the past means for us today? This assignment asks you to reflect on these questions. In the course of this assignment, you will discover that ancient history can sometimes be very contemporary, reminding us that the past is always present with us. Many of the conflicts in our world today have ancient roots, which is one of the reasons studying the past is important.

 

Description of the assignment: Go online and find some information about the “Elgin Marbles” (also called the “Parthenon Marbles”). Read a little about the controversy between the British and Greek governments concerning the ownership of these marbles. In a 2-paragraph essay, first summarize the controversy in your own words, and then take a clear position by supporting either the Greek or British side. Discuss 2 main reasons that support your position. You do not need to do extensive research or reading to complete this assignment well. However, if you include sources, cite them in current APA format. This assignment must be 250–300 words and must include the word count in parentheses. Submit a draft of your Learning Activity to Safe Assign for feedback a few days before the assignment is due.

 

Question 3: Business

 

What is your favorite brand of sandwich cookie? If you’re like most Americans, chances are its Oreo. In fact, Oreos are so popular that many people think Oreo was the original sandwich cookie. But they’re wrong. Sunshine first marketed its Hydrox sandwich cookie in 1908. Hydrox thrived until 1912, when Nabisco (now part of Kraft) launched Oreo. With Nabisco’s superior distribution and advertising, Hydrox was soon outmatched. By 1998, Hydrox sales totaled $16 million, while Oreo’s revenues were at $374 million. Hydrox has been purchased by Keebler (subsequently purchased by Kellogg), whose elves are trying to give the cookie a major facelift. You are part of the Keebler team deciding what to do with the Hydrox brand.

Purpose: To show students how important branding can be to product success. Students try to relaunch the Hydrox cookie brand (the original chocolate sandwich cookie) by investigating branding issues, including brand name and brand mark, determining the role of packaging, and assessing the feasibility of brand extensions

Instructions:

Document your activities and exercise in this application exercise assignment. Keep good notes that you will submit as part of this assignment.

Activities and questions to answer:

  1. Can you re-create Hydrox through a name change? What kind of brand name could go head-to-head with Oreo? (Most people unfamiliar with Hydrox think it is a cleaning product.) Make a list of five possibilities to be submitted with this assignment.
  2. Next, how can you package your renewed sandwich cookie to make it more attractive on the shelf than Oreo? What about package size? Draft a brief packaging plan for the new Hydrox (or whatever name you chose).
  3. Can you modify the original formula to make something new and more competitive? Will a brand extension work here? Why or why not?

 

 

Question 4: Business

 

Firm/Product Selection: Introduce the company and the product or service for which you wish to propose to engage in an international activity.

Proposed Company: https://www.shinola.com (Made in Detroit USA)

  • Brief about the history of the company through to current situation.
  • What needs does this product/service satisfy?(e.g., Harley Davidson motorcycle is often not a means of transportation, but satisfies a buyer’s desire for freedom/power/ escape from mundane rule-bound life)
  • How does the firm provide this product/service and satisfy needs?(e.g., Harley Davidson builds this American icon with often retro-style and powerful engine product, effective branding)

Minimum 2 pages’ word report (12pt).

 

 

 

 

 

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Question 5: Business

Complete the Internal Versus External Candidates worksheet

 

University of Phoenix Material

 

 

Internal vs. External Candidates Worksheet

 

Compare in a total of 525 to 700 words the strategies used to evaluate internal versus external candidates.

 

 

Strategy

 

Pros

 

Cons

 

 

Assess in 175 words the factors that should be considered when deciding whether to hire from within to seek external candidates.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Select a position with which you are familiar.

Determine in 175 words whether you would hire using an internal or external process.

Defend your recommendation.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

References

 

APA-formatted citation

 

APA-formatted citation

 

Question 6: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

Discuss non-traditional applicant pools. To what extent is this population hired at your current or previous organization?

 

Question 7: Business

 

Read the opening vignette, “Sourcing Top Talent at McAfee” on page 143 in Strategic Staffing, Ch. 6.

Assess the following in 150 words: Introduction

  • Just an introduction is need
  • Determine three metrics that McAfee should use to evaluate the effectiveness of its talent community in sourcing top talent.
  • Explain your rationale for selecting these three metrics.
  • Propose other ways in which McAfee can keep its talent pipeline full of high-quality potential job applicants.

 

 

Question 8: Business

Watch the below two videos and Read Netflix in India. 

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=s0YjL9rZyR0   (Eric Li)

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=jsZDlBU36n0  Why nations fail?

Discuss:

1) What are the key differences between USA and China, both formal (political economical and legal systems etc. ) and informal (culture, social norms etc.) institutions? What do you have to say to Eric Li?

2) Identify the major macro-environment factors in India that impact Netflix’s operation in India. What do you recommend to Netflix to achieve better performance in India?

 

 

 

 

 

Question 9: Business

 

How tightly do you fit into a particular market segment? Do you think you can be neatly classified? If you think your purchasing habits make you an enigma to marketers, you may need to think again.

 

Instructions: Document your activities and exercise in this application exercise assignment. Keep good notes that you will submit as part of this assignment.

Purpose: This exercise quickly shows students the limitations of using only demographics to describe their customers, and really clarifies the process of segmentation and positioning for them.

Activities

Visit the following website located in this folder named: Segments

  1. Click on the link above and then type in your zip code. The database will generate many cluster descriptions based on your ZIP code. Depending on the functionality of the Web site at the time you access the database, you may need to reenter your ZIP code multiple times if you want to read all the cluster descriptions.
  2. Now review the demographic and psychographic data for the segments. Please provide insights on their life stage, lifestyle, and others things that they like such as automobiles, music, health, books, magazines, beauty products, and income. Then think about which products in that category would appeal to each of the clusters generated by your ZIP code search. Please name 3 to 4 of the groups identified and provide feedback on similarities between the groups. For example, a car that appeals to a cluster titled “Young Bohemians” may not be the car of choice for the cluster “Pools and Patios.” If your search generated only one cluster type, you may wish to enter other ZIP codes for your area of town or for your region.
  3. Write a short statement that describes what you have learned about the most common segments for your zip code.

https://claritas360.claritas.com/mybestsegments/#zipLookup

 

 

Question 10: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

 

Considering the internal labor market at your organization ( Marshalls), what competency or skill gap needs to be closed? What’s the approach to doing so?

 

Question 11: Business

 

Use a position that you would like to obtain (CEO) to create job duties and at least three KSAOs (knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics).

 

Answer the following questions in 350 words for each KSAO:

  • Is the KSAO necessary prior to hiring, or can it be trained?
  • What is the importance of each characteristic relative to the others?
  • What is the approximate time the employee will spend on each duty?

 

 

 

 

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Question 12:  Economics

 

Matching Definitions

 

  1. (   ) Shows the amounts households plan to spend for consumer goods at different levels of disposable income.
  2. () The share of the additional dollar a person decides to save.
  3. () Percent of disposable income that household spend on consumer goods.
  4. () Tendency for people to increase or decrease consumption spending when the value of their financial assets changes.
  5. () Shows the amounts households plan to save at different levels of disposable income.
  6. () The share of the additional dollar a person decides to devote to consumption expenditures.
  7. () Percent of disposable income that household save
  8. () Increased savings may be both good and bad for the economy.
  9. () The ratio of a change in equilibrium GDP to the change in investment.
  10. () The line along which the value of output is equal to the value of aggregate expenditures.

 

  1. Consumption schedule
  2. Marginal  propensity to save (MPS)
  3. Average propensity to consume (APC)
  4. Wealth effect
  5. Savings schedule
  6. Marginal propensity to consume (MPC)
  7. Average propensity to save (APS)
  8. Paradox of thrift
  9. Multiplier
  10. 45 degree line

 

 

Question 13: Economics

 

Matching Definitions

 

(    )  the percentage of adults who are in the labor force and thus seeking jobs,

but who do not have jobs

(    )  unemployment that occurs because individuals lack skills valued by

employers, or the job is no longer there.

(    )  those who have stopped looking for employment due to the lack of suitable

positions available.

(    )  the unemployment rate that would exist if cyclical unemployment were 0%.

(    )  a contractual provision that wage increases will keep up with inflation.

(    )  “Take this job and shove it!” results in this.

(    )  When demand rises faster than supply, causing price to rise.

(    )  the adults in an economy who are either employed or who are unemployed

and looking for a job

(    )  unemployment closely tied to the business cycle, like higher unemployment

during a recession.

(    )  Rising production costs cause the supply of goods and services to decline and prices to rise..

 

  1. Unemployment rate
  2. labor force
  3. Discouraged workers
  4. frictional unemployment
  5. COLAs
  6. cyclical unemployment
  7. structural unemployment
  8. Natural rate of unemployment
  9. Demand-pull inflation
  10. Cost-push inflation

 

 

Question 14: Economics

 

Matching Definitions

 

value of a country’s output found by adding up C + Ig + G + Xn

value of a country’s output found by adding the  costs incurred and income (including profits) generated by production of goods and services during the period

a measure of inflation

value of a country’s output expressed in the current year’s dollars.

output provided to other businesses at an intermediate stage of production, not for final users.

output used directly for consumption, investment, government, and trade purposes.

Increase in worth of a good or service provided at each stage of production

=100

value of a country’s output expressed in the base year’s dollars.

the value of the output of all goods and services produced within a country in a year

 

GDP

Intermediate goods

Final goods

Value added

Expenditure approach

Income approach

Nominal GDP

Real GDP

Price index

Base year

 

Question 15: Psychology

 

Read the Research Paper Instructions and Research Paper Rubric. Decide which specific DSM disorder you plan to research for the Research Paper assignment. Go to the LU Online Library and begin researching for your paper, locating one journal article to share with the class. Share your chosen topic with the class and your reasoning behind your interest in the selected topic. Within your post, provide a 150-word summary of one journal article that you are interested in using for your research paper. Provide the journal (full text) as an attachment. Include at least one direct quote from the journal article (not more than 25 words).   (Note that the entire post should be 200-250 words. For this assignment, the direct quote is included in the required word count). All citations should be in APA format.  As per assignment directions and rubric, include a Bible verse and application and an outside source cited in APA format.

 

Research a specific mental disorder within the realm of Abnormal Psychology. The topic must be one which is discussed in the course textbook and described in the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM). The length of the body of the paper must be at least 7 pages, and must not exceed 10 pages of summarized research findings in current APA format.  All sources used must be scholarly journals. In addition to this, include a current APA-style title page, abstract, and references; these do not count toward the minimum number of pages required. The paper must be organized with sub-headings reflecting the required sections (I–IX).

The research paper will address the following aspects, organized in this order:

*          Title Page: APA-style

*          Abstract: APA-style

  1. Introduction: Introduce and describe the topic. Discuss the DSM classification for the disorder, including a discussion of the specific criteria as described in the DSM (1/2 page).
  2. Historical: Describe the disorder in a historical context (how the view of disorder has changed over time, how cause/treatment options have changed, etc). (1 page).

III.              Cause of the Illness: Current research as to the cause of the illness (1 page).

  1. Treatment: Various treatment approaches for this disorder, including the benefits of the treatment (1 page).
  2. Prevention: Research as to the prevention of the illness (1 page).
  3. Cross Cultural: Cross-cultural issues pertaining to the topic (1 page).

VII.           Biblical Worldview: Discuss the topic from a Christian worldview perspective, including disorder’s cause, treatment, and prevention. Utilize the Bible and a journal source written from a biblical/theological perspective on the topic (1 page).

VIII.        Conclusion: Include a closing summary of the research, including ideas for future research on the topic (1/2 page).

  1. References: APA-style. See also References Grading Rubric and instructions.

*          Organize the paper according to directions. Include current APA-style Level 1 sub-titles. Do not use Roman numerals.

*          The use of 3rd person point of view is expected for this type of scholarly research assignment.

*          Correct spelling, grammar, and punctuation is expected in writing at this level.

*          Include not more than ½ page of directly quoted material. Directly quoted material in excess of ½ page would not count towards length/content requirements of the paper.

*          Current APA formatting is required.

*          Course textbook is not permitted as a source.

*          All sources must be journal articles dated within the past 10 years.

 

 

Research Paper Grading Rubric

Criteria Levels of Achievement
Content 70%

140 points

Advanced 90-100% (A) Proficient 70-89% (B-C) Developing 1-69% (< D) Not present
Content (20 points each) 126 to 140 points

 

The paper exceeds content requirements:

 

Introduction/Conclusion

 

Intro: Detailed DSM information for the disorder and a full 1/2 page. Conclusion: thoughtful content and ideas for future research. Content is a full 1/2 page.

 

Historical: detailed Historical content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Cause: detailed Causal content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Treatment: detailed Treatment content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Prevention: Detailed Prevention content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Cross-Cultural: Detailed Cross-Cultural content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Biblical Worldview

Detailed Biblical content and is a full page. Contains content based on 1 or more Bible type sources and also includes a Bible verse and application to the topic.

 

 

98 to 125 points

 

The paper meets content requirements:

Introduction/Conclusion

Intro: Detailed DSM information for the disorder and a full 1/2 page. Conclusion: thoughtful content and ideas for future research. Content is a full 1/2 page.

 

Historical: Detailed Historical content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Cause: Detailed Causal content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Treatment: detailed Treatment content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Prevention: Detailed Prevention content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Cross-Cultural: Detailed Cross-Cultural content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Biblical Worldview

Detailed Biblical content and is a full page. Contains content based on 1 or more Bible type sources and also includes a Bible verse and application to the topic.

1 to 97 points

The paper meets some of the content requirements:

 

Introduction/Conclusion

 

Intro: Detailed DSM information for the disorder and a full 1/2 page. Conclusion: thoughtful content and ideas for future research. Content is a full 1/2 page.

 

Historical: Detailed Historical content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Cause: Detailed Causal content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Treatment: Detailed Treatment content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Prevention: Detailed Prevention content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Cross-Cultural: Detailed Cross-Cultural content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Biblical Worldview

Detailed Biblical content and is a full page. Contains content based on 1 or more Bible type sources and also includes a Bible verse and application to the topic.

0 points

Not present.

Structure 30%

60 points

Advanced 90-100% (A) Proficient 70-89% (B-C) Developing 1-69% (< D) Not present
Organizational Elements 9 to 10 points

The paper exceeds structure requirements:

Organizational Elements as outlined in instructions were followed, including APA style Level 1 sub-titles

7 to 8 points

The paper meets structure requirements:

Organizational Elements as outlined in instructions were followed, including APA style Level 1 sub-titles

1 to 6 points

The paper meets most of the structure requirements:

Organizational Elements as outlined in instructions were followed, including APA style Level 1 sub-titles

0 points

Not present.

General APA 18 to 20 points

The paper exceeds structure requirements:

Content displays correct APA format in all required paper sections (Historical, Cause, Treatment, Prevention, Cross-Cultural, Biblical Worldview) with citations throughout matching the References page.

14 to 17 points

The paper meets structure requirements:

Content displays correct APA format in all required paper sections (Historical, Cause, Treatment, Prevention, Cross-Cultural, Biblical Worldview) with citations throughout matching the References page.

1 to 13 points

The paper meets most of the structure requirements:

Content displays correct APA format in all required paper sections (Historical, Cause, Treatment, Prevention, Cross-Cultural, Biblical Worldview) with citations throughout matching the References page.

0 points

Not present.

Title page, abstract, reference page formatting 27 to 30 points

The paper exceeds structure requirements:

Title page is in proper APA format.

Abstract is in proper APA format, contains 150-250 words, and includes keywords.

References page is free of APA errors, contains 5 or more scholarly sources in correct APA format (books or journals only). Textbook is not used as a source as per directions. Sources contain Bible type book/journal source.

21 to 26 points

The paper meets structure requirements:

Title page is in proper APA format.

Abstract is in proper APA format, contains 150-250 words, and includes keywords.

References page is free of APA errors, contains 5 or more scholarly sources in correct APA format (books or journals only). Textbook is not used as a source as per directions. Sources contain Bible type book/journal source.

1 to 20 points

The paper meets most of the structure requirements:

Title page is in proper APA format.

Abstract is in proper APA format, contains 150-250 words, and includes keywords.

References page is free of APA errors, contains 5 or more scholarly sources in correct APA format (books or journals only). Textbook is not used as a source as per directions. Sources contain Bible type book/journal source.

0 points

Not present.

 

 

 

 

 

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Question 16: Education

 

SEJPME Final Exam | Complete Solution | Scored 100%

SEJPME Pre Test and Post Test (Study Guide) / SEJPME Final Exam (Study Guide)

SEJPME I POST TEST

1) In the name of strategic mobility, the Marine Corps adopted prepositioning for which of the following purposes?   [objective81]

 

 

 

speed and dispersion

 

 

 

provide materiel needed to sustain a brigade for 30 days in a potential combat zone

 

 

 

amphibious assault

 

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

 

 

2) The most well-known Coast Guard mascot during World War II, who provided a morale boost to his crew, was named?   [objective88]

 

 

Skipper

 

 

Aladdin

 

 

Sinbad

 

 

Smoky

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

3) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.   [objective92]

 

none of the answers are correct

 

 

the Army Reserve

 

 

both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve

 

 

the Army National Guard

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council?   [objective63]

 

Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National Intelligence

 

 

Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence

 

 

President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense

 

 

Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

5) Between 1777 and 1778, Baron Friedrich Willhelm von Steuben taught the Continental Army what aspects of war? (Select all that apply.)   [objective79]

 

rifle cartridges loading

 

 

drill formations

 

 

proper care of equipment

 

 

bayonet usage

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.)   [objective72]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

to train forces

 

 

to retain forces

 

 

to equip forces

 

 

to organize forces

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____.   [objective58]

 

gather multiple perspectives on the problem

 

 

report the problem to the commanding officer

 

 

define the problem

 

 

draft an action plan

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

8) Derived from the integration of Service cultures and competencies and requires teamwork amongst all Services and Military Departments to accomplish objectives in the best interest of national security unfettered by parochialism. _____ best describes this concept.   [objective96]   [Remediation Accessed: N]

 

Integration

 

 

Interdependence

 

 

Diversity

 

 

Jointness

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

9) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what point in the planning process?   [objective90]

 

after all of the planning is completed

 

 

early in the planning process

 

 

somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included

 

 

late in the planning process

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

10) One of the three approaches within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program includes preventative strategies which include addressing and eliminating the stigma and other factors that prevent Service members (and their families) from seeking help early and focus on achieving increased performance.   [objective105]

 

False

 

 

True

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

11) Who are the caretakers of naval customs, traditions, honors, and ceremonies?   [objective85]

 

commanders

 

 

chief petty officers

 

 

admirals

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard?   [objective77]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

maritime stewardship

 

 

maritime safety

 

 

maritime security

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far greater extent than surface forces can.   [objective76]

 

False

 

 

True

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the following? (Select all that apply.)   [objective70]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

compromise

 

 

communication

 

 

coordination

 

 

consensus

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.   [objective91]

 

Adaptability

 

 

Transformation

 

 

Predictability

 

 

Training

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste, and abuse (FWA).   [objective102]

 

True

 

 

False

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

17) In a traditional cake-cutting ceremony the first piece of cake is given to the youngest Marine present, and the second piece of cake is given to the oldest Marine present.   [objective86]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

True

 

 

False

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

18) While its missions might include forcible entry operations and peace enforcement, humanitarian assistance is not within the Marine Corps’ purview.   [objective75]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

False

 

 

True

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

19) Service members contribute to force readiness by being focused, alert, and prepared for new tasks, behaving responsibly and ethically, and _____.   [objective103]

 

limiting the number of times they take vacations

 

 

remaining single

 

 

maintaining dental health and hygiene

 

 

being able to engage in critical thinking

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

20) Each geographic combatant command has a _____ to plan and control special operations and other Special Operations Forces activities.   [objective95]

 

Regional Special Warfare Command (RSWC)

 

 

Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)

 

 

Joint Special Operations Command (JSOC)

 

 

Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

21) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____.   [objective60]

 

President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security

 

 

President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy

 

 

President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State

 

 

President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

22) Taking steps and precautions to reduce the likelihood of something negative or hazardous happening, or reducing the extent of the exposure to a risk, is called risk modification.   [objective100]

 

False

 

 

True

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

23) What are the fundamental roles of the U.S. Navy, Marine Corps, and Coast Guard in the implementation of the National Naval Strategy (NNS)? (Select all that apply.)   [objective74]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

establish favorable security conditions

 

 

secure strategic access and retain global freedom of action

 

 

strengthen existing and emerging alliances and partnerships

 

 

secure the United States from direct attack

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

24) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences – both positive and negative.   [objective101]

 

seek out professional assistance

 

 

acknowledge our own prejudice

 

 

know all of the facts

 

 

critically think about

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

25) _____ warfare is a violent struggle among state and non-state actors for legitimacy and influence over the relevant population(s). It favors indirect and asymmetric approaches, though it may employ the full range of military and other capacities, in order to erode an adversary’s power, influence, and will.   [objective59]

 

Irregular

 

 

Asymmetric

 

 

Joint

 

 

Traditional

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams.   [objective94]

 

civil affairs

 

 

foreign area officers

 

 

special forces

 

 

political advisors

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

27) What Services were established as precursors to the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.)   [objective83]

 

Lighthouse and Revenue Cutter Service

 

 

Bureau of Navigation

 

 

Steamboat Inspection Service

 

 

Transportation Security Administration

 

 

Life Saving Service

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

28) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of the U.S. Navy?   [objective78]

 

False

 

 

True

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)   [objective57]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence

 

 

signals intelligence

 

 

solutions, products, and services

 

 

information systems security

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

30) Joint _____ is the component of joint force development that entails collecting observations, analyzing them, and taking the necessary steps to turn them into changes in behavior that improve the mission ready capabilities of the joint force.   [objective97]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

lessons learned

 

 

concepts

 

 

education

 

 

doctrine

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

31) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?   [objective87]

 

as a reward for attendance

 

 

recognition for a job well done

 

 

as punishment for violating the rules of the mess

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

32) The major challenge in working toward unity of effort often comes from _____.   [objective62]

 

disjunctions in the three levels of interagency coordination

 

 

the news media reporting on governmental and military actions

 

 

a lack of sufficient resources applied to the problem

 

 

bipartisan politics and infighting in Congress

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

33) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI) representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands.   [objective64]

 

JIACG

 

 

HAST

 

 

CMOC

 

 

POLAD

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

34) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required.

 

subordinate unified command

 

 

combatant command

 

 

joint task force

 

 

Service component command

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

35) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was exiled by Oliver Cromwell.   [objective84]

 

False

 

 

True

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

36) What are the Army’s primary missions? (Select all that apply.)   [objective73]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

shaping the international environment

 

 

responding to crises

 

 

preparing now for an uncertain future

 

 

secure the United States from direct attack

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), “. . .requires leaders at every echelon to be _____.”   [objective98]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

impartial

 

 

adaptable

 

 

decisive

 

 

strict adherents to doctrine

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

38) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of multinational forces.   [objective71]

 

Liaison network, coordination centers

 

 

Rationalization, training

 

 

Interoperability, liaison network

 

 

Training, interoperability

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States?   [objective89]

 

50 percent

 

 

60 percent

 

 

30 percent

 

 

40 percent

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

40) After the attacks of 9/11, U.S. Special Operations Command assumed an operational role in synchronizing the DoD effort in _____.   [objective93]

 

combating weapons of mass destruction

 

 

cyberspace operations

 

 

support of the U.S. government response to pandemic influenza

 

 

global operations against terrorist networks

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____ to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more than one level.   [objective65]

 

not equipped and organized

 

 

usually willing, but hesitant

 

 

not educated and trained

 

 

not eager

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

42) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to U.S. interests are known as _____ operations.   [objective67]

 

enforcement

 

 

nation assistance

 

 

economy of force

 

 

show of force

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

43) The post-Vietnam Maritime Strategy called for the positioning of strong Naval forces along the seaward flanks of the Soviet Union in what locations? (Select all that apply.)   [objective80]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

the Far East

 

 

the Black Sea

 

 

the Mediterranean Sea

 

 

northern Europe

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility.   [objective99]

 

delegation of authority

 

 

experience

 

 

maturity

 

 

rank

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

45) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.   [objective66]

 

rotation

 

 

transition

 

 

situational awareness

 

 

influence

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

46) The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff provides a channel of communication between the President/SECDEF and the combatant commanders.   [objective56]

 

False

 

 

True

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.   [objective104]

 

False

 

 

True

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

48) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place? (Select all that apply.)   [objective82]

 

a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17

 

 

a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare

 

 

clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

49) To promote their mutual national interests and ensure mutual security against real and perceived threats, nations that form partnerships must understand the impacts of _____.   [objective69]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

techniques, tactics, and procedures (TTPs)

 

 

culture and economics

 

 

non-governmental agencies

 

 

internally displaced personnel (IDPs)

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

50) The principle of joint operations designed to limit collateral damage and prevent the unnecessary use of force is _____.   [objective68]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

proportionality

 

 

perseverance

 

 

restraint

 

 

legitimacy

 

 

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

 

ADDITIONAL POST TEST QUESTIONS

 

 

 

1) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and defensive air operation.   [objective72]

 

 

 

False

 

 

 

True

 

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

 

 

2) The U.S. employs the military instrument of national power at home and abroad in support of its national security goals. The ultimate purpose of the U.S. Armed Forces is to _____.   [objective96]

 

 

deter aggressors from attacking the U.S.

 

 

support and defend U.S. allies and partners

 

 

defend the homeland

 

 

fight and win the Nation’s wars

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

3) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.)   [objective77]

 

maritime security

 

 

maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories

 

 

maritime stewardship around the globe

 

 

maritime safety

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

4) During the conduct of military operations, multinational personnel must be able to _____.   [objective70]

 

develop guidance for detainee operations in a joint environment according to their respective laws

 

 

enforce local rules of engagement (ROE) without regard to approved coalition ROE

 

 

properly control, maintain, protect and account for all detainees according to applicable domestic law, international law, and policy

 

 

target only a small percentage of individuals who fall into different categories under the law of war

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

5) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning, Sir,” in the case of an officer.   [objective86]

 

True

 

 

False

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

6) Which of the following are primary functions of the Marine Corps according to DoD Directive 5100.01?   [objective75]

 

conduct prompt and sustained combat operations at sea, including sea-based and land-based aviation

 

 

all of the answers are correct

 

 

organize, equip, and provide Marine Corps forces to conduct joint amphibious operations and train all forces assigned to joint amphibious operations

 

 

provide detachments and organizations to serve on armed vessels of the Navy and provide security detachments for naval stations and bases

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

7) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to support the United States’ Security Strategy.   [objective74]

 

True

 

 

False

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

8) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?   [objective57]

 

Navy

 

 

Army

 

 

Coast Guard

 

 

Air Force

 

 

Marines

 

 

None of the branches

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

9) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions.   [objective97]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

force development

 

 

force planning

 

 

force training

 

 

doctrine

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

10) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which of the following?   [objective73]

 

Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

 

 

Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

 

 

Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

11) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), with the advent and increase of command and control (C2) capabilities, networked-enabled leaders are cautioned against the lure to _____.   [objective98]

 

micromanage

 

 

delegate authority

 

 

second-guess

 

 

provide guidance

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

12) In 1798, the U.S. Navy and U.S. Marine Corps were created.   [objective80]

 

False

 

 

True

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

13) A(n) _____ is a relationship that results from a formal agreement between two or more nations for broad, long-term objectives, while _____ is an ad hoc arrangement between two or more nations for common action, usually for a single occasion.   [objective69]

 

partnership, coalition

 

 

alliance, partnership

 

 

coalition, alliance

 

 

alliance, coalition

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

14) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results.   [objective68]

 

offensive

 

 

mass

 

 

objective

 

 

maneuver

 

 

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Question 17:  Health Care

 

NR 222 Unit 3 EXAM 1 Practice

Chapter 01: Nursing Today

 

Potter et al.: Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition

 

Chapter 01: Nursing Today

 

Potter et al.: Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which nurse most likely kept records on sanitation techniques and the effects on health?
  2. The nurse prescribes strategies and alternatives to attain expected outcome. Which standard of nursing practice is the nurse following?
  3. An experienced medical-surgical nurse chooses to work in obstetrics. Which level of proficiency is the nurse upon initial transition to the obstetrical floor?
  4. A nurse assesses a patient’s fluid status and decides that the patient needs to drink more fluids. The nurse then encourages the patient to drink more fluids. Which concept is the nurse demonstrating?
  5. A nurse prepares the budget and policies for an intensive care unit. Which role is the nurse implementing?
  6. The nurse has been working in the clinical setting for several years as an advanced practice nurse. However, the nurse has a strong desire to pursue research and theory development. To fulfill this desire, which program should the nurse attend?
  7. A nurse attends a workshop on current nursing issues provided by the American Nurses Association. Which type of education did the nurse receive?
  8. A nurse identifies gaps between local and best practices. Which Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) competency is the nurse demonstrating?
  9. A nurse has compassion fatigue. What is the nurse experiencing?
  10. A patient is scheduled for surgery. When getting ready to obtain the informed consent, the patient tells the nurse, “I have no idea what is going to happen. I couldn’t ask any questions.” The nurse does not allow the patient to sign the permit and notifies the health care provider of the situation. Which role is the nurse displaying?
  11. The patient requires routine gynecological services after giving birth to her son, and while seeing the nurse-midwife, the patient asks for a referral to a pediatrician for the newborn. Which action should the nurse-midwife take initially?
  12. The nurse has a goal of becoming a certified registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA). Which activity is appropriate for a CRNA?
  13. A nurse teaches a group of nursing students about nurse practice acts. Which information is most important to include in the teaching session about nurse practice acts?
  14. A bill has been submitted to the State House of Representatives that is designed to reduce the cost of health care by increasing the patient-to-nurse ratio from a maximum of 2:1 in intensive care units to 3:1. What should the nurse realize?
  15. A nurse is using a guide that provides principles of right and wrong to provide care to patients. Which guide is the nurse using?
  16. A graduate of a baccalaureate degree program is ready to start working as an RN in the emergency department. Which action must the nurse take first?
  17. While providing care to a patient, the nurse is responsible, both professionally and legally. Which concept does this describe?
  18. A nurse is teaching the staff about Benner’s levels of proficiency. In which order should the nurse place the levels from beginning level to ending level?

 

Chapter 06: Health and Wellness

 

 

Potter et al.: Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition

 

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. A nurse is teaching about the goals ofHealthy People 2020. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session?
  2. A nurse is following the goals ofHealthy People 2020 to provide care. Which action should the nurse take?
  3. A nurse is using the World Health Organization definition of health to provide care. Which area will the nurse focus on while providing care?
  4. The nurse is preparing a smoking cessation class for family members of patients with lung cancer. The nurse believes that the class will convert many smokers to nonsmokers once they realize the benefits of not smoking. Which health care model is the nurse following?
  5. A nurse is using Maslow’s hierarchy to prioritize care for an anxious patient that is not eating and will not see family members. Which area should the nurse address first?
  6. The patient is reporting moderate incisional pain that was not relieved by the last dose of pain medication. The patient is not due for another dose of medication for another 2 1/2 hours. The nurse repositions the patient, asks what type of music the patient likes, and sets the television to the channel playing that type of music. Which health care model is the nurse using?
  7. A nurse is assessing internal variables that are affecting the patient’s health status. Which area should the nurse assess?
  8. The nurse is admitting a patient with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. It is the fourth time the patient is being admitted in the last 6 months for high blood sugars. During the admission process, the nurse asks the patient about employment status and displays a nonjudgmental attitude. What is the rationale for the nurse’s actions?
  9. The nurse is working on a committee to evaluate the need for increasing the levels of fluoride in the drinking water of the community. Which concept is the nurse fostering?
  10. The nurse is working in a clinic that is designed to provide health education and immunizations. Which type of preventive care is the nurse providing?
  11. The patient is admitted to the emergency department of the local hospital from home with reports of chest discomfort and shortness of breath. The patient is placed on oxygen, has labs and blood gases drawn, and is given an electrocardiogram and breathing treatments. Which level of preventive care is this patient receiving?
  12. A patient is admitted to a rehabilitation facility following a stroke. The patient has right-sided paralysis and is unable to speak. The patient will be receiving physical therapy and speech therapy. Which level of preventive care is the patient receiving?
  13. Upon completing a history, the nurse finds that a patient has risk factors for lung disease. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
  14. The nurse is caring for a patient who has been trying to quit smoking. The patient has been smoke free for 2 weeks but had two cigarettes last night and at least two this morning. What should the nurse anticipate?
  15. The nurse is working in a drug rehabilitation clinic and is in the process of admitting a patient for “detox.” What should the nurse do next?
  16. A female patient has been overweight for most of her life. She has tried dieting in the past and has lost weight, only to regain it when she stopped dieting. The patient is visiting the weight loss clinic/health club because she has decided to do it. She states that she will join right after the holidays, in 3 months. Which stage is the patient displaying?
  17. Upon completion of the assessment, the nurse finds that the patient has quit drinking and has been alcohol free for the past 2 years. Which stagebestdescribes the nurse’s assessment finding?
  18. The patient had a colostomy placed 1 week ago. When approached by the nurse, the patient and spouse refuse to talk about it and refuse to be taught about how to care for it. How will the nurse evaluate this couple’s stage of adjustment?
  19. A patient has had emphysema (lung disease) for many years. When approached by the nurse, the patient states “I would be better off dead.” The patient supports the family, and now because of oxygen dependency the patient must quit work. The patient’s spouse will have to go to work. Which action should the nurse take?
  20. A nurse is teaching about the transtheoretical model of change. In which order will the nurse place the progression of the stages from beginning to end?

 

 

Chapter 16: Nursing Assessment

 

Potter et al.: Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

  1. The nurse is using critical thinking skills during the first phase of the nursing process. Which action indicates the nurse is in the first phase?
  2. A nurse is using the problem-oriented approach to data collection. Which action will the nurse takefirst?
  3. After reviewing the database, the nurse discovers that the patient’s vital signs have not been recorded by the nursing assistive personnel (NAP). Which clinical decision should the nurse make?
  4. The nurse is gathering data on a patient. Which data will the nurse report as objective data?
  5. A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?
  6. Which method of data collection will the nurse use to establish a patient’s database?
  7. A nurse is gathering information about a patient’s habits and lifestyle patterns. Which method of data collection will the nurse use that willbest obtain this information?
  8. While interviewing an older female patient of Asian descent, the nurse notices that the patient looks at the ground when answering questions. What should the nurse do?
  9. A nurse has already set the agenda during a patient-centered interview. What will the nurse donext?
  10. The nurse is attempting to prompt the patient to elaborate on the reports of daytime fatigue. Which question should the nurse ask?
  11. A nurse is conducting a nursing health history. Which component will the nurse address?
  12. While the patient’s lower extremity, which is in a cast, is assessed, the patient tells the nurse about an inability to rest at night. The nurse disregards this information, thinking that no correlation has been noted between having a leg cast and developing restless sleep. Which action would have beenbest for the nurse to take?
  13. The nurse begins a shift assessment by examining a surgical dressing that is saturated with serosanguinous drainage on a patient who had open abdominal surgery yesterday (or 1 day ago). Which type of assessment approach is the nurse using?
  14. Which statement by a nurse indicates a good understanding about the differences between data validation and data interpretation?
  15. Which scenariobest illustrates the nurse using data validation when making a nursing clinical decision for a patient?
  16. While completing an admission database, the nurse is interviewing a patient who states “I am allergic to latex.” Which action will the nurse takefirst?
  17. A patient verbalizes a low pain level of 2 out of 10 but exhibits extreme facial grimacing while moving around in bed. What is the nurse’sinitial action in response to these observations?
  18. The nurse is interviewing a patient with a hearing deficit. Which area should the nurse use to conduct this interview?
  19. A new nurse is completing an assessment on an 80-year-old patient who is alert and oriented. The patient’s daughter is present in the room. Which action by the nurse will require follow-up by the charge nurse?

 

 

 

Chapter 22: Ethics and Values

Potter et al.: Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Four patients in labor all request epidural analgesia to manage their pain at the same time. Which ethical principle is mostcompromised when only one nurse anesthetist is on call?
  2. The patient reports to the nurse of being afraid to speak up regarding a desire to end care for fear of upsetting spouse and children. Which principle in the nursing code of ethics ensures that the nurse will promote the patient’s cause?
  3. The patient’s son requests to view documentation in the medical record. What is the nurse’sbest response to this request?
  4. When professionals work together to solve ethical dilemmas, nurses must examine their own values. What is the bestrationale for this step?
  5. A nurse is experiencing an ethical dilemma with a patient. Which information indicates the nurse has a correct understanding of the primary cause of ethical dilemmas?
  6. The nurse questions a health care provider’s decision to not tell the patient about a cancer diagnosis. Which ethical principle is the nurse trying to uphold for the patient?
  7. The nurse finds it difficult to care for a patient whose advance directive states that no extraordinary resuscitation measures should be taken. Which step may help the nurse to find resolution in this assignment?
  8. The nurse values autonomy above all other principles. Which patient assignment will the nurse findmost difficult to accept?
  9. A nurse must make an ethical decision concerning vulnerable patient populations. Which philosophy of health care ethics would be particularly useful for this nurse?
  10. A nurse agrees with regulations for mandatory immunizations of children. The nurse believes that immunizations prevent diseases as well as prevent spread of the disease to others. Which ethical framework is the nurse using?
  11. The nurse has become aware of missing narcotics in the patient care area. Which ethical principle obligates the nurse to report the missing medications?
  12. A young woman who is pregnant with a fetus exposed to multiple teratogens consents to have her fetus undergo serial PUBS (percutaneous umbilical blood sampling) to examine how exposure affects the fetus over time. Although these tests will not improve the fetus’s outcomes and will expose it to some risks, the information gathered may help infants in the future. Which ethical principle is atgreatest risk?
  13. A nurse is discussing quality of life issues with another colleague. Which topic will the nurse acknowledge for increased attention paid to quality of life concerns?
  14. Which action by the nurse indicates a safe and efficient use of social networks?

 

  1. The nurse is caring for a dying patient. Which intervention is considered futile?
  2. During a severe respiratory epidemic, the local health care organizations decide to give health care workers priority access to ventilators over other members of the community who also need that resource. Which philosophy would give the strongest support for this decision?
  3. A nurse is teaching a patient and family about quality of life. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session about quality of life?
  4. The nurse is caring for a patient supported with a ventilator who has been unresponsive since arrival via ambulance 8 days ago. The patient has not been identified, and no family members have been found. The nurse is concerned about the plan of care regarding maintenance or withdrawal of life support measures. Place the steps the nurse will use to resolve this ethical dilemma in the correct order.

 

 

09: Cultural Awareness

 

Potter et al.: Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition

 

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. A nurse is working at a health fair screening people for liver cancer. Which population group should the nurse monitormost closely for liver cancer?
  2. A nurse is caring for an immigrant with low income. Which information should the nurse consider when planning care for this patient?
  3. A nurse is assessing the health care disparities among population groups. Which area is the nurse monitoring?
  4. A nurse is providing care to a patient from a different culture. Which action by the nurse indicates cultural competence?
  5. The nurse learns about cultural issues involved in the patient’s health care belief system and enables patients and families to achieve meaningful and supportive care. Which concept is the nurse demonstrating?
  6. A nurse is beginning to use patient-centered care and cultural competence to improve nursing care. Which step should the nurse takefirst?
  7. A nurse is performing a cultural assessment using the ETHNIC mnemonic for communication. Which area will the nurse assess for the “H”?

 

  1. The nurse is caring for a patient of Hispanic descent who speaks no English. The nurse is working with an interpreter. Which action should the nurse take?
  2. Which action indicates the nurse is meeting a primary goal of cultural competent care for patients?
  3. The nurse is caring for a Chinese patient using the Teach-Back technique. Which action by the nurse indicates successful implementation of this technique?
  4. A nurse is using core measures to reduce health disparities. Which group should the nurse focus on to cause the mostimprovement in core measures?
  5. A nurse is designing a form for lesbian, gay, bisexual, and transgender (LGBT) patients. Which design should the nurse use?
  6. A nurse is assessing population groups for the risk of suicide requiring medical attention. Which group should the nurse monitormost closely?
  7. A nurse is assessing a patient’s ethno history. Which question should the nurse ask?
  8. A nurse is teaching patients about health care information. Which patient will the nurse assess closely for health literacy?
  9. A nurse works at a hospital that uses equity-focused quality improvement. Which strategy is the hospital using?
  10. A nurse is providing care to a culturally diverse population. Which action indicates the nurse is successful in the role of providing culturally congruent care?
  11. A nurse is assessing the patient’s meaning of illness. Which area of focus by the nurse ispriority?

 

 

MATCHING

 

A nurse is using Campinha-Bacote’s model of cultural competency to improve cultural care. Which actions describe the components the nurse is using?

 

Chapter 10: Caring for Families

 

Potter et al.: Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition

 

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. A nurse is assessing the family unit to determine the family’s ability to adapt to the change of a

 

  1. member having surgery. Which area is the nurse monitoring?
  2. A nurse reviews the current trends affecting the family. Which trend will the nurse find?
  3. A spouse brings the children in to visit their mother in the hospital. The nurse asks how the family is doing. The husband states, “None of her jobs are getting done, and I don’t do those jobs, so the house and the kids are falling apart.” How will the nurse interpret this finding?
  4. A nurse cares for the family’s as well as the patient’s needs using available resources. Which approach is the nurse using?
  5. A nurse is caring for a patient who needs constant care in the home setting and for whom most of the care is provided by the patient’s family. Which action should the nurse take to help relieve stress?
  6. A nurse is working with a patient. When the nurse asks about family members, the patient states that it includes my spouse, children, and aunt and uncle. How will the nurse describe this type of family?
  7. A nurse is assessing a child that lives in a car with family members who presents to the emergency department. Which area should the nurse assess closely?
  8. The nurse is interviewing a patient who is being admitted to the hospital. The patient’s family went home before the nurse’s interview. The nurse asks the patient, “Who decides when to come to the hospital?” What is the rationale for the nurse’s action?
  9. A nurse is caring for a patient from a motor vehicle accident. Which action by the unlicensed assistive personnel will cause the nurse to intervene?
  10. A nurse is using the family as context approach to provide care to a patient. What should the nurse do next?
  11. The nurse is caring for a patient in hospice. The nurse notes that the patient is getting adequate care, but the spouse is not sleeping well. The nurse also assesses the need for better family nutrition and meals assistance. The nurse discusses these needs with the patient and family and develops a plan of care with them using community resources. Which approach is the nurse using?
  12. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient who has no apparent family. When questioned about family and the definition of family, the patient states, “I have no family. They’re all gone.” When asked, “Who prepares your meals?” the patient states, “I do, or I go out.” Which approach should the nurse use for this patient?
  13. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient at home who requires teaching for dressing changes. The spouse and adult child are also involved in changing the dressing. Which statement by the nurse willmost likely elicit a positive response from the patient and family?
  14. The nurse is providing discharge teaching for an older-adult patient who will need tube feedings at home. The spouse is the only source of care and states “I will not be able to perform the feedings due to arthritis.” Which action should the nurse take?

 

 

 

 

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Question 18: Health Care

 

DB 1
Scope and Standards of Nursing Practice (graded, 25 points)

The American Nurses Association’s Nursing: Scope and Standards of Practice (3rd ed.) discusses integrating the art and science of nursing. Describe how science and art are synthesized in the practice of nursing.

 

 

 

 

Question 19: Health Care

 

Nurse’s Touch: Wellness Health Promotion and Disease Prevention

  1. Which of the following aspects of the care of this client and his family exemplifies primary prevention?
  2. Which of the following aspects of the care of this client and his family exemplifies secondary prevention?
  3. Which of the following aspects of the care of this client and his family exemplifies tertiary prevention?
  4. Which of the following clinical manifestations is a common systemic side effect of receiving an influenza immunization?
  5. When the nurse responds to the client’s report about his son contributing to the family’s support with the statement, “ It is not easy to handle that on your own,” she illustrates the therapeutic communication technique of:

TEST

  1. A nurse has made a commitment to change his eating habits to optimize his health and wellness. He researches various dietary plans and narrows his choices to those that minimizes the effect of lifestyle barriers like eating quickly at work. Which stage of the Transtheorectical Model is he in?
  2. A nurse is giving a series of workshops about health and wellness to a group of older adults at a community center. Which of the following statements from the attendees demonstrate that they understood what the nurse explained about the concept of Health? (select all that apply)
  3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a long history of abuse of alcohol and opioid analgesics. When counseling this client about the adverse effects of substance abuse the nurse should explain that these patterns reduce the oxygenation of as tissues and organs because they cause….
  4. A nurse is giving a presentation about health promotion and disease prevention to a group of young adults at a community college which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
  5. A nurse is caring for a client who is immobile. Which of the following actions should she perform when repositioning the client to avoid injuring her own musculoskeletal system?
  6. A nurse can communicate well, manage time effectively, weigh options and consequences, and learn from mistakes. The nurse is demonstrating Wellness in which of the following dimensions of Health?
  7. A nurse is caring for a client in an ambulatory Clinic who attended a blood pressure screening event and the Stress Management lecture at a community Fair. His blood pressure was 150 /94 mm Hg at the event, so he saw provider at the clinic and begin therapy with a beta blocker. Soon after, the client had a mild myocardial infarction, after discharge from the hospital, enrolled in a program of cardiac Rehabilitation. Which of the following activities of this client is an example of primary prevention?
  8. The World Health Organization’s (WHO)  definition of health promotion focuses on the concept of
  9. A nurse is counseling a client who says that she attends a book club in her neighborhood regularly. She says it troubles her that no one engages in the discussion with her. Applying Maslow’s hierarchy of needs to this client this client needs falls into which of the following levels?
  10. A nurse is giving a presentation to a group of nursing students about distinguishing health promotion and disease prevention activities. Which of the following actions should the nurse include as a specific disease prevention activity? (select all that apply)

 

Question 20: Health Care

 

NR 222 UNIT 1 NOTES

NR 222 UNIT 1 NOTES

 

Question 21: Health Care

 

1.You are preparing a presentation for your classmates regarding the clinical care coordination conference for a patient with terminal cancer. As part of the preparation you have your classmates read the Nursing Code of Ethics for Professional Registered Nurses. Your instructor asks the class why this document is important. Which of the following statements best describes this code?

 

  1. Improves self–health care

 

  1. Protects the patient’s confidentiality

 

  1. Ensures identical care to all patients

 

  1. Defines the principles of right and wrong to provide patient care

 

  1. An 18-year-old woman is in the emergency department with fever and cough. The nurse obtains her vital signs, listens to her lung and heart sounds, determines her level of comfort, and collects blood and sputum samples for analysis. Which standard of practice is performed?

 

  1. Diagnosis

 

  1. Evaluation

 

  1. Assessment

 

  1. Implementation

 

  1. A patient in the emergency department has developed wheezing and shortness of breath. The nurse gives the ordered medicated nebulizer treatment now and in 4 hours. Which standard of practice is performed?

 

  1. Planning

 

  1. Evaluation

 

  1. Assessment

 

  1. Implementation

 

  1. A nurse is caring for a patient with end-stage lung disease. The patient wants to go home on oxygen and be comfortable. The family wants the patient to have a new surgical procedure. The nurse explains the risk and benefits of the surgery to the family and discusses the patient’s wishes with them. The nurse is acting as the patient’s:

 

  1. Educator.

 

  1. Advocate.

 

  1. Caregiver.

 

  1. Case manager.

 

  1. The nurse spends time with the patient and family reviewing the dressing change procedure for the patient’s wound. The patient’s spouse demonstrates how to change the dressing. The nurse is acting in which professional role?

 

  1. Educator

 

  1. Advocate

 

  1. Caregiver

 

  1. Case manager

 

  1. The examination for registered nurse (RN) licensure is exactly the same in every state in the United States. This examination:

 

  1. Guarantees safe nursing care for all patients.

 

  1. Ensures standard nursing care for all patients.

 

  1. Ensures that honest and ethical care is provided.

 

  1. Provides a minimal standard of knowledge for an RN in practice.

 

  1. Contemporary nursing requires that the nurse has knowledge and skills for a variety of professional roles and responsibilities. Which of the following are examples? (Select all that apply.)

 

  1. Caregiver

 

  1. Autonomy and accountability

 

  1. Patient advocate

 

  1. Health promotion

 

  1. Lobbyist

 

  1. Match the advanced practice nurse specialty with the statement about the role.

 

  1. Clinical nurse specialist-b. Expert clinician in a specialized area of practice such as adult diabetes care

 

  1. Nurse anesthetist-d. Provides care and services under the supervision of an anesthesiologist

 

  1. Nurse practitioner-c. Provides comprehensive care, usually in a primary care setting, directly managing the medical care of patients who are healthy or have chronic conditions

 

  1. Nurse-midwife-a. Provides independent care, including pregnancy and gynecological services

 

 

  1. Health care reform will bring changes in the emphasis of care. Which of the following models is expected from health care reform?

 

  1. Moving from an acute illness to a health promotion, illness prevention model

 

  1. Moving from an illness prevention to a health promotion model

 

  1. Moving from an acute illness to a disease management model

 

  1. Moving from a chronic care to an illness prevention model

 

  1. A nurse meets with the registered dietitian and physical therapist to develop a plan of care that focuses on improving nutrition and mobility for a patient. This is an example of which Quality and Safety in the Education of Nurses (QSEN) competency?

 

  1. Patient-centered care

 

  1. Safety

 

  1. Teamwork and collaboration

 

  1. Informatics

 

  1. A critical care nurse is using a computerized decision support system to correctly position her ventilated patients to reduce pneumonia caused by accumulated respiratory secretions. This is an example of which Quality and Safety in the Education of Nurses (QSEN) competency?

 

  1. Patient-centered care

 

  1. Safety

 

  1. Teamwork and collaboration

 

  1. Informatics

 

  1. The nurses on an acute care medical floor notice an increase in pressure ulcer formation in their patients. A nurse consultant decides to compare two types of treatment. The first is the procedure currently used to assess for pressure ulcer risk. The second uses a new assessment instrument to identify at-risk patients. Given this information, the nurse consultant exemplifies which career?

 

  1. Clinical nurse specialist

 

  1. Nurse administrator

 

  1. Nurse educator

 

  1. Nurse researcher

 

  1. Nurses in an acute care hospital are attending a unit-based education program to learn how to use a new pressure-relieving device for patients at risk for pressure ulcers. This is which type of education?

 

  1. Continuing education

 

  1. Graduate education

 

  1. In-service education

 

  1. Professional Registered Nurse Education

 

  1. Which of the following Internet resources can help consumers compare quality care measures? (Select all that apply.)

 

  1. WebMD

 

  1. Hospital Compare

 

  1. Magnet Recognition Program

 

  1. Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare

 

  1. The American Hospital Association’s webpage.

 

  1. The components of the nursing metaparadigm include:

 

  1. Person, health, environment, and theory

 

  1. Health, theory, concepts, and environment

 

  1. Nurses, physicians, health, and patient needs

 

  1. Person, health, environment, and nursing

 

  1. Theory is essential to nursing practice because it: (Select all that apply.)

 

  1. Contributes to nursing knowledge.

 

  1. Predicts patient behaviors in situations.

 

  1. Provides a means of assessing patient vital signs.

 

  1. Guides nursing practice.

 

  1. Formulates health care legislation.

 

  1. Explains relationships between concepts.

 

  1. A nurse ensures that each patient’s room is clean; well ventilated; and free from clutter, excessive noise, and extremes in temperature. Which theorist’s work is the nurse practicing in this example?

 

  1. Henderson

 

  1. Orem

 

  1. King

 

  1. Nightingale

 

 

  1. The nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with the diagnosis of a stroke and right-sided weakness. The nurse assumes responsibility for bathing and feeding the patient until the patient is able to begin performing these activities. The nurse in this situation is applying the theory developed by:

 

  1. Neuman.

 

  1. Orem.

 

  1. Roy.

 

  1. Peplau.

 

  1. Match the following types of theory with the appropriate description.

 

  1. Middle-range theory-d. Addresses a specific phenomenon and reflects practice

 

  1. Shared theory-c. Applies theory from other disciplines to nursing practice

 

  1. Grand theory-a. Very abstract; attempts to describe nursing in a global context

 

  1. Practice theory-b. Specific to a particular situation; brings theory to the bedside

 

  1. Match the following descriptions to the appropriate grand theorist.

 

  1. King-d. Based on the belief that nurses should work with patients to develop goals for care

 

 

  1. Henderson-c. Based on 14 activities, the belief that the nurse should assist patients with meeting needs until they are able to do so independently

 

  1. Orem-b. Based on the belief that people who participate in self-care activities are more likely to improve their health outcomes

 

  1. Neuman-a. Based on the theory that focuses on wellness and prevention of disease

 

  1. Match the following description to the appropriate middle-range theory.

 

  1. Benner’s Skill Acquisition-b. The nurse progresses through five stages of expertise.

 

  1. AACN’s Synergy Model-d. Matching nurse competencies to patient needs can improve patient outcomes

 

  1. Mishel’s Uncertainty in Illness-c. The nurse helps the patient to process and find meaning related to his or her illness.

 

  1. Kolcaba’s Theory of Comfort- a. The nurse strives to relieve patients’ distress.

 

  1. Which of the following statements related to theory-based nursing practice are correct? (Select all that apply.)

 

  1. Nursing theory differentiates nursing from other disciplines.

 

  1. Nursing theories are standardized and do not change over time.

 

  1. Integrating theory into practice promotes coordinated care delivery.

 

  1. Nursing knowledge is generated by theory.

 

  1. The theory of nursing process is used in planning patient care.

 

  1. Evidence-based practice results from theory-testing research.

 

  1. A nurse is caring for a patient who recently lost a leg in a motor vehicle accident. The nurse best assists the patient to cope with this situation by applying which of the following theories?

 

  1. Roy

 

  1. Levine

 

  1. Watson

 

  1. Johnson

 

  1. Using Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, identify the priority for a patient who is experiencing chest pain and difficulty breathing.

 

  1. Self-actualization

 

  1. Air, water, and nutrition

 

  1. Safety

 

  1. Esteem and self-esteem needs

 

  1. Which of the following categories of shared theories would be most appropriate for a patient who is grieving the loss of a spouse?

 

  1. Biomedical

 

  1. Leadership

 

  1. Psychosocial

 

  1. Developmental

 

  1. While working in a rehabilitation facility, it is important to obtain nursing histories and develop a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship. List in correct order the phases of Peplau’s theory as applied in this setting. The nurse:

 

3) Ensures that the patient has access to appropriate community resources for long-term care.

 

2)Collaborates with the patient to identify specific patient needs.

 

4)Collects essential information from the patient’s health record.

 

1)Works with the patient to develop a plan for resolving patient issues.

 

  1. Nurses have developed theories in response to: (Select all that apply.)

 

  1. Changes in health care.

 

  1. Prior nursing theories.

 

  1. Changes in nursing practice.

 

  1. Research findings.

 

  1. Government regulations.

 

  1. Theories from other disciplines.

 

  1. Physician opinions.

 

  1. Which of the following types of theory influence the “evidence” in current “evidence-based practice (EBP)”?

 

  1. Grand theory

 

  1. Middle-range theory

 

  1. Practice theory

 

  1. Shared theory

 

  1. A nurse is preparing to begin intravenous fluid therapy for a patient. Which category of theory would be most helpful to the nurse at this time?

 

  1. Grand theory

 

  1. Middle-range theory

 

  1. Practice theory

 

  1. Shared theory

 

  1. A nurse is presenting a program to workers in a factory covering safety topics, including the wearing of hearing protectors when workers are in the factory. Which level of prevention is the nurse practicing?

 

  1. Primary prevention

 

  1. Secondary prevention

 

  1. Tertiary prevention

 

  1. Quaternary prevention

 

  1. A patient had surgery for a total knee replacement a week ago and is currently participating in daily physical rehabilitation sessions at the surgeon’s office. In what level of prevention is the patient participating?

 

  1. Primary prevention

 

  1. Secondary prevention

 

  1. Tertiary prevention

 

  1. Quaternary prevention

 

  1. Based on the transtheoretical model of change, what is the most appropriate response to a patient who states: “Me, stop smoking? I’ve been smoking since I was 16!”

 

  1. “That’s fine. Some people who smoke live a long life.”

 

  1. “OK. I want you to decrease the number of cigarettes you smoke by one each day, and I’ll see you in 1 month.”

 

  1. “I understand. Can you think of the greatest reason why stopping smoking would be challenging for you?”

 

  1. “I’d like you to attend a smoking cessation class this week and use nicotine replacement patches as directed.”

 

  1. A patient comes to the local health clinic and states: “I’ve noticed how many people are out walking in my neighborhood. Is walking good for you?” What is the best response to help the patient through the stages of change for exercise?

 

  1. “Walking is OK. I really think running is better.”

 

  1. “Yes, walking is great exercise. Do you think you could go for a 5-minute walk next week?”

 

  1. “Yes, I want you to begin walking. Walk for 30 minutes every day and start to eat more fruits and vegetables.”

77

 

  1. “They probably aren’t walking fast enough or far enough. You need to spend at least 45 minutes if you are going to do any good.”

 

  1. A male patient has been laid off from his construction job and has many unpaid bills. He is going through a divorce from his marriage of 15 years and has been seeing his pastor to help him through this difficult time. He does not have a primary health care provider because he has never really been sick and his parents never took him to a physician when he was a child. Which external variables influence the patient’s health practices? (Select all that apply.)

 

  1. Difficulty paying his bills

 

  1. Seeing his pastor as a means of support

 

  1. Age of patient (46 years)

 

  1. Stress from the divorce and the loss of a job

 

  1. Family practice of not routinely seeing a health care provider

 

  1. A nurse is conducting a home visit with an older-adult couple. While in the home the nurse weighs each individual and reviews the 3-day food diary with them. She also checks their blood pressure and encourages them to increase their fluids and activity levels to help with their voiced concern about constipation. The nurse is addressing which level of need according to Maslow?

 

  1. Physiological

 

  1. Safety and security

 

  1. Love and belonging

 

  1. Self-actualization

 

  1. When taking care of patients, a nurse routinely asks if they take any vitamins or herbal medications, encourages family members to bring in music that the patient likes to help the patient relax, and frequently prays with her patients if that is important to them. The nurse is practicing which model?

 

  1. Holistic

 

  1. Health belief

 

  1. Trans theoretical

 

  1. Health promotion

 

  1. Using the Trans theoretical Model of Change, order the steps that a patient goes through to make a lifestyle change related to physical activity.

 

  1. 2: The individual recognizes that he is out of shape when his daughter asks him to walk with her after school.

 

  1. 5: Eight months after beginning walking, the individual participates with his wife in a local 5K race.

 

  1. 1: The individual becomes angry when the physician tells him that he needs to increase his activity to lose 30 lbs.

 

  1. 4: The individual walks 2 to 3 miles, 5 nights a week, with his wife.

 

  1. 3: The individual visits the local running store to purchase walking shoes and obtain advice on a walking plan.

 

  1. Which statement made by a nurse shows that the nurse is engaging in an activity to help cope with secondary traumatic stress and burnout?

 

  1. “I don’t need time for lunch since I am not very hungry.”

 

  1. “I am enjoying my quilting group that meets each week at my church.”

 

  1. “I am going to drop my gym membership because I don’t have time to go.”

 

  1. “I don’t know any of the other nurses who met today to discuss hospital-wide problems with nurse satisfaction.”

 

  1. Which of the following are symptoms of secondary traumatic stress and burnout that commonly affect nurses? (Select all that apply.)

 

  1. Regular participation in a book club

 

  1. Lack of interest in exercise

 

  1. Difficulty falling asleep

 

  1. Lack of desire to go to work

 

  1. Anxiety while working

 

  1. After a class on Pender’s health promotion model, students make the following statements. Which statement does the faculty member need to clarify?

 

  1. “The desired outcome of the model is health-promoting behavior.”

 

  1. “Perceived self-efficacy is not related to the model.”

 

  1. “The individual has unique characteristics and experiences that affect his or her actions.”

 

  1. “Patients need to commit to a plan of action before they adopt a health-promoting behavior.”

 

  1. A patient registered at the local fitness center and purchased a pair of exercise shoes. The patient is in what stage of behavioral change?

 

  1. Precontemplation

 

  1. Contemplation

 

  1. Preparation

 

  1. Action

 

  1. As part of a faith community nursing program in her church, a nurse is developing a health promotion program on breast self-examination for the women’s group. Which statement made by one of the participants is related to the individual’s perception of susceptibility to an illness?

 

  1. “I have a door hanging tag in my bathroom to remind me to do my breast self-examination monthly.”

 

  1. “Since my mother had breast cancer, I know that I am at increased risk for developing breast cancer.”

 

  1. “Since I am only 25 years of age, the risk of breast cancer for me is very low.”

 

  1. “I participate every year in our local walk/run to raise money for breast cancer research.”

 

  1. The nurse assesses the following risk factors for coronary artery disease (CAD) in a female patient. Which factors are classified as genetic and physiological? (Select all that apply.)

 

  1. Sedentary lifestyle

 

  1. Mother died from CAD at age 48

 

  1. History of hypertension

 

  1. Eats diet high in sodium

 

  1. Elevated cholesterol level

 

  1. Which activity shows a nurse engaged in primary prevention?

 

  1. A home health care nurse visits a patient’s home to change a wound dressing.

 

  1. A nurse is assessing risk factors of a patient in the emergency department admitted with chest pain.

 

  1. A school health nurse provides a program to the first-year students on healthy eating.

 

  1. A nurse schedules a patient who had a myocardial infarction for cardiac rehabilitation sessions weekly.

 

 

 

 

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Question 22:  English

 

Read the passage from “The Monkey’s Paw.” The Whites are being offered compensation for Herbert’s death. In what way does the stranger’s answer increase the tension of the rising action?

From “The Monkey’s Paw”

The [visitor] coughed, and rising, walked slowly to the window. “The firm wished me to convey their sincere sympathy with you in your great loss,” he said, without looking round. “I beg that you will understand I am only their servant and merely obeying orders.”

There was no reply; the old woman’s face was white, her eyes staring, and her breath inaudible; on the husband’s face was a look such as his friend the sergeant might have carried into his first action.

“I was to say that Maw and Meggins disclaim all responsibility,” continued the other. “They admit no liability at all, but in consideration of your son’s services, they wish to present you with a certain sum as compensation.”

Mr. White dropped his wife’s hand, and rising to his feet, gazed with a look of horror at his visitor. His dry lips shaped the words, “How much?”

“Two hundred pounds,” was the answer.

Unconscious of his wife’s shriek, the old man smiled faintly, put out his hands like a sightless man, and dropped, a senseless heap, to the floor.

The answer causes Mr. White to faint.
The answer satisfies the first wish, and there are still two wishes left.
The answer causes the wife to shriek.
The answer indicates that Herbert has doubts about the wish.

 

 

Question 23:  Accounting

 

In April of the current year, Freeman Steel Company transferred Herb Porter from its factory in Nebraska to its plant in Michigan. The company’s SUTA tax rates based on its experience ratings are 3.2% in Nebraska and 3.8% in Michigan. Both states base the tax on the first $9,000 of each employee’s earnings. This year, Freeman Steel Company paid Herb Porter wages of $20,900; $2,800 were paid in Nebraska and the remainder in Michigan. Compute:

 

Question 24: Biology

 

Describe approaches you would use to identify appropriately-silenced fungal transformants

 

Question 25:  Business

 

Research Report 

Question
Context: Recently you have joined the firm X – one of the leading export firms in country Z (home country – Malaysia or Australia). Your company is an exporter of goods or services (e.g., food and beverages, telecommunications, energy, or services such as education, entertainment, finance, tourism and health services). You have been assigned to the task of developing a strategic plan to expand the company’s exports to country Y (target country). Country Y could be an existing market or new market.
Relating to the key aspects of the strategic international trade operations topics covered in the course
, provide recommendation on trade expansion strategy to the firm
. In the report, an explicit statement and evaluation of the firm’s strategic plan must be included. Note
: You are required to visit the foreign trade web sites of the home and target countries (for example, explore Austrade website www.austrade.com.au if you have chosen Australia as the exporting/home country, or Malaysia External Trade Development Corporation Matrade www.matrade.gov.my/en/ if you have chosen Malaysia as the exporting/home country) to obtain information on export issues.

The report should include but not limited by the following:
(1). Context analysis (5 marks) – Provide a detailed account of the firm’s historical and current trading operations, export capacities, range of products and services, its market strength, and financial performances. Most of this information could be extracted from the company’s web site and internet (do not contact the company)

(2). Market analysis (5 marks) – Evaluate the export market (e.g. total market volume of the goods or services, market share of the exporting country and the firm etc.). Comment on consumer preferences and potential demand for the product at the targetcity/region/country.

(3). Country analysis (5 marks) – Provide a brief description about economic, political, legal, environmental and other relevant factor
s in the target country including potential risks. Also highlight export support structures present in home and target countries (if any).
(4). Facility location (5 marks) – Analyse the firm’s location issue
s in expanding operations to the chosen target city/region/country.
(5). Trade expansion strategy (5 marks) – Outline and evaluate the firm’s strategy in expanding ope
rations to the chosen target city/region/country.
(6). Firm’s strategic core value (5 marks) – An explicit statement and evaluation of the firm’s strategic core value must be included. Analyse and evaluate the continued actions taken to maintain the firm’s core value in the process of trade expansion

Details

 

 

VICTORIA UNIVERISTY BUSINESS SCHOOOL
BEO3432 STRATEGIC INTERNATIONAL TRADE OPERATIONS

SEMESTER 2: 2019 Sunway University, Kuala Lumpur

Assignment (30%)

This assignment is to be undertaken as group work of 3 – 5 students. Assignment should be printed on one-sided A4 paper, with the signed College of Business Student Assessment Declaration form as the first sheet of the paper and the originality report following it. Make sure that you keep a copy of your submitted assignment. The assignment accounts for 30 percent of the total assessment of this unit.

Submission: Students need to submit the assignment to Turnitin in the Assignment Dropbox on the unit VU Collaborate to obtain an originality report, and the hard copy in class of Week 10.

Research Plan due in Week 4: You are required to submit the research plan including a Gant Chart during the tutorial class of Week 4.

Develop a research plan (maximum of two pages) and divide the work equitably amongst the group. The research plan shall provide the followings:

  1. (a)  A concise and informative title reflecting the task undertaking, and a brief explanation of the aims/objectives of the project and important features/characteristics of the chosen firm/company.
  2. (b)  A Gant Chart listing and diagram of activities and estimated time in days to complete the group assignment. The key activities include but are not limited to: Firm analysis, Market analysis, Country analysis, Strategic core value and plan, and the tasks assigned to each group member.

Presentation: Present the assignment professionally. Refer to the Group Assignment Assessment criteria.

Word limit: Maximum of 4000 words. Upload the final research report onto Turnitin on VU Collaborate. Make sure you hand in a hard copy of the report to your tutor.

1

Research Report Question

Context: Recently you have joined the firm X – one of the leading export firms in country Z (home country – Malaysia or Australia). Your company is an exporter of goods or services (e.g., food and beverages, telecommunications, energy, or services such as education, entertainment, finance, tourism and health services). You have been assigned to the task of developing a strategic plan to expand the company’s exports to country Y (target country). Country Y could be an existing market or new market.

Relating to the key aspects of the strategic international trade operations topics covered in the course, provide recommendation on trade expansion strategy to the firm. In the report, an explicit statement and evaluation of the firm’s strategic plan must be included.

Note: You are required to visit the foreign trade web sites of the home and target countries (for example, explore Austrade website www.austrade.com.au if you have chosen Australia as the exporting/home country, or Malaysia External Trade Development Corporation Matrade www.matrade.gov.my/en/ if you have chosen Malaysia as the exporting/home country) to obtain information on export issues.

The report should include but not limited by the following:

  1. (1).  Context analysis (5 marks) – Provide a detailed account of the firm’s historical and current trading operations, export capacities, range of products and services, its market strength, and financial performances. Most of this information could be extracted from the company’s web site and internet (do not contact the company).
  2. (2).  Market analysis (5 marks) – Evaluate the export market (e.g. total market volume of the goods or services, market share of the exporting country and the firm etc.). Comment on consumer preferences and potential demand for the product at the target city/region/country.
  3. (3).  Country analysis (5 marks) – Provide a brief description about economic, political, legal, environmental and other relevant factors in the target country including potential risks. Also highlight export support structures present in home and target countries (if any).
  4. (4).  Facility location (5 marks) – Analyse the firm’s location issues in expanding operations to the chosen target city/region/country.
  5. (5).  Trade expansion strategy (5 marks) – Outline and evaluate the firm’s strategy in expanding operations to the chosen target city/region/country.
  6. (6).  Firm’s strategic core value (5 marks) – An explicit statement and evaluation of the firm’s strategic core value must be included. Analyse and evaluate the continued actions taken to maintain the firm’s core value in the process of trade expansion.

2

Formatting requirement:

Use Times New Roman or Arial, size 12 and 1.15 or 1.5 spacing for text. Number the pages.

  1. (a)  Have a Cover Page including:

Subject code and title
Name of assignment
Tutorial group
Tutor name
Assignment group member names and student ID numbers Due date

  1. (b)  ThesignedStudentAssessmentDeclarationFormisthefirstsheetofthepaper.
  2. (c)  Most importantly, the document should be professionally presented. Staple the

assignment, please do not submit the assignment in plastic covers.

Skills development objective over the semester include but are not limited to:

  • Complex problem solving
  • Critical thinking
  • Communication interpersonal and intercultural
  • Confident and creative life-long learner

Group member contribution:

On a separate page in the assignment document (after Cover Page), nominate the contributions made by group members for the assignment. In no more than 20 words give reasons why you think the percentage (%) you have nominated is appropriate.

Note that:

The research report will be assessed based on the following criteria. • Coherence of argument
• Originality
• Presentation

  • Referencing
    For further information, please refer to the rubric for assessment criteria

3

Assessment Rubric

The overall mark will depend on the content, presentation and originality of the report. If evidence of plagiarized work is found, the report will be marked as fail.
The following rubric provides a general reference on marking, please consult your lecturer/tutor to clarify the requirements of specific topic.

Content 50%

High Distinction 80 – 100%

Distinction 70 – 79%

Credit 60 – 69%

Pass 50 – 59%

Fail
0 – 49%

Demonstrate good understanding of the requirement of the tasks and relevant concepts. Demonstrated application and conclusions with justifications of consistent explanations.

Demonstrate satisfactory understanding of the requirement of the task and relevant concepts. Demonstrated application and conclusions, and attempts some justification with explanations.

Analysis

Demonstrate thorough understanding of the requirement of the tasks and relevant concepts. Demonstrated application and conclusions with appropriate justifications, with clear and concise explanations

Demonstrate limited understanding of the requirement of the tasks and relevant concepts. Can identify decision but no attempt at justifying decision.

Substantial work is required to meet the requirement of the tasks and relevant concepts. Writing is overall of insufficient understanding.

20%

Information is mostly accurate and integrated with some analysis.

Presentation 20%

Information is partially accurate and integrated with minimal analysis.

Information is incorrect, with no effort of analysis.

Information is accurate and integrated with excellent analysis.

Information is accurate and integrated with good analysis.

Formatted and edited to very good standard, with minimal grammatical and spelling errors Attention to details: cover page, headings and page numbers.

Formatted and edited to good standard, with some grammatical and spelling errors Attention to details: cover page, headings and page numbers.

Formatted and edited to satisfactory standard, with grammatical and spelling errors. Some details are included: cover page, headings and page numbers.

Referencing 10%

Formatted and edited to excellent standard, with no grammatical and spelling errors. Attention to details: cover page, headings and page numbers.

Submission contains differing formatting and font from different contributors.
No effort of editing is made, with consistent grammatical and spelling errors.

Information is accurately referenced using Harvard System where applicable with minimal errors.

Information is accurately referenced using Harvard System where applicable with some errors.

Total score

Information is accurately referenced using Harvard System where applicable with no errors.

Information is accurately referenced using Harvard System where applicable with many errors.

Incorrect references with substantial errors and with no evidence of consulting the recommended Harvard System.

 

 

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Question 26: English

 

Do you think these two girls Morgan and Anissa should be tried as adult 60 years prisons possibly or 10 years Juveniles? GIVE 3 REASONS and 5 PARAGRAPH

YOU HAVE TO READ THE ARTICLE DOWN BELOW IN THE LINK OR YOU CAN WATCH THE VIDEO THAT I ATTACHED.

Link Full article : https://www.cambridge-news.co.uk/news/uk-world-news/slender-man-stabbing-morgan-anissa-16820541

Link to the video of the article : https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TXjMEMFvZFI

 

 

Question 27: Chemistry

 

What is the de Broglie wavelength (in meters) of a small car with a mass of 1150 kg travelling at a speed of 55.0 mi/h?

 

Question 28: Psychology

 

Qualitative vs. Quantitative Research

 

Use the table below to answer the following:

 

  • Define and distinguish between qualitative and quantitative research.
  • Provide examples of qualitative and quantitative research.
  • Imagine that you are a researcher interested in identifying the components of ‘giftedness’ in pre-teen children. What quantitative methods might you use to help you better understand the experience of giftedness? What qualitative methods might you use?
  • What are the advantages and disadvantages of each approach?

 

 

Definition Examples Examples of methods to study ‘giftedness’ Advantages Disadvantages
Quantitative

Research

Qualitative

Research

 

Question 29:  Psychology

 

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

 

Reactivity

When conducting observations, it is important that your data are accurate. One issue that often impacts observational studies is reactivity.

Reactivity occurs when individuals alter their behavior due to the awareness that they are being observed. Reactivity also refers to situations where individuals alter their behavior to conform to the expectations of the observer.

 

So, when conducting an observational study, what can you do to reduce reactivity? You have many, many options….

 

 

Question 30:  Other

 

The DellaVecchia Garden Center purchases and sells Christmas trees during the holiday season. It purchases the trees for $10 each and sells them for $20 each. Any trees not sold by Christmas day are sold for $2 each to a company that makes wood chips. The garden center estimates that four levels of demand are possible: 100, 200, 500, and 1,000 trees.

  1. Compute the payoffs for purchasing 100, 200, 500, or

1,000 trees for each of the four levels of demand.

  1. Construct a payoff table, indicating the events and alternative    courses of action.
  2. Construct a decision tree.
  3. Construct an opportunity loss table. Use the Optimistic (maximax) to choose the best choice.
  4. Use the Pessimistic (maximin) to choose the best choice.
  5. Use the Criterion of realism (Hurwicz) to choose the best choice. α = 0.6
  6. Use the Equally likely (Laplace) to choose the best choice.
  7. Use the Minimax regret to choose the best choice.
  8. Use the expected monetary value to make a choice. ( Probability for the four level demand are :

100 = 0.30

200 = 0.35

500 = 0.20

1000 = 0.15

 

 

Question 1: Religious Studies

 

BIBL 104 Quiz 2 / Liberty University BIBL 104 Quiz 2 (Already graded A)

BIBL 104 Quiz 2 / Liberty University BIBL 104 Quiz 2 (Already graded A)

 

Question 2: Health Care

 

NURS 6660 Midterm Exam II -Walden University – Question and Answers – Latest(2019) – Already Graded A

NURS 6660 Midterm Exam II -Walden University – Question and Answers – Latest(2019) – Already Graded A

 

Question 3: Health Care

 

NURS 6630 Final Exam / NURS6630 Final Exam (2019): Walden University (Already graded A)

NURS 6630 Final Exam / NURS6630 Final Exam (2019): Walden University (Already graded A)

 

Question 4: Psychology

 

After reading one of the provided articles, discuss the topic of stress from a Biblical perspective.  What insights about stress can be gleaned from the article? What insights about stress can be gained from the Bible?  Provide at least one specific example from the Bible of a traumatic event or stressful situation and how the stress was handled.  Cite the journal article (one required), the Bible (verse and application required), along with any other sources used in APA format (optional additional sources). As per assignment directions and rubric, include a Bible verse and application. Cite one of the provided articles in APA format (this will count as your required outside source, as per assignment directions rubric).

Files attached

 

 

ORIGINAL PAPER

Reading the Bible, Stressful Life Events, and Hope:

Assessing an Overlooked Coping Resource

Neal Krause1

  • Kenneth I. Pargament2

_ Springer Science+Business Media, LLC, part of Springer Nature 2018

Abstract Many people rely on religion to deal with the stressors in their lives. The

purpose of this study is to examine a religious coping resource that has received relatively

little attention—reading the Bible. We evaluated three hypotheses: (1) reading the Bible

moderates the relationship between stress and hope; (2) people who read the Bible more

often are more likely to rely on benevolent religious reappraisal coping responses; and (3)

individuals who rely on benevolent religious reappraisals will be more hopeful about the

future. Support was found for all three hypotheses in our analyses.

Keywords Bible _ Stressful events _ Hope

It seems that virtually every survey on religion contains a question on how often study

participants read the Bible or other sacred literature. However, these data have not been

exploited fully. Instead, questions on reading sacred literature are, more often than not,

relegated to the status of a control variable or they are combined with other religious

behaviors to form more comprehensive indices of private religious practices (Ciarrocchi

et al. 2008; Davis and Epkins 2009; Marquine et al. 2015). Handling Bible reading in this

manner makes it easy to overlook important functions that may be performed by this

particular type of religious behavior.

As Hood et al. (2009) maintain, religion performs a number of important functions. One

function involves helping people cope with adversity. The purpose of the current study is to

see whether reading the Bible or other sacred literature serves as a potentially important

& Neal Krause

nkrause@umich.edu

1 Department of Health Behavior and Health Education, School of Public Health, University of

Michigan, 1415 Washington Heights, Ann Arbor, MI 48109-2029, USA

2 Bowling Green State University, Bowling Green, OH, USA

123

J Relig Health

https://doi.org/10.1007/s10943-018-0610-6

coping resource. We have been able to identify only two quantitative studies that focus

specifically on turning to religious literature in the face of adversity. The first study was

conducted by Johnson et al. (2016). These investigators studied 101 women who were

diagnosed with PTSD. They report that women with PTSD were more likely to read the

Bible on a regular basis when they were exposed to a traumatic life event. The second

study was conducted by Tepper et al. (2001). These researchers studied 406 individuals

who were diagnosed with persistent mental illness. They found that 30% of their study

participants turned to reading scriptures in an effort to cope with symptoms of mental

illness. Since both of these studies were conducted with special populations, it is difficult to

determine whether the findings can be generalized to a wider population.

Further support for the notion that religious literature is a potentially important coping

resource is provided by a small cluster of qualitative studies. Based on a series of in-depth

interviews, Arcury et al. (2000) found that reading the Bible was a common response to the

challenges that are associated with disease self-management. Similarly, Gerdner et al.

(2007) found that one of the primary ways in which family members helped women who

were dealing with caregiving stressors involved reading Bible passages to them on a

regular basis. Another qualitative study by Hamilton et al. (2013) suggests that the Bible is

often used as a mental-health-promoting resource during stressful times. Further support

for the notion that people turn to sacred literature in order to cope with adversity is found in

the research program of Krause (2002). He conducted a series of qualitative studies in an

effort to develop closed-ended survey items on religiousness. One closed-ended item in his

resulting measure of spiritual support asked study participants to report how often, ‘‘…

someone in your congregation helps you find solutions to your problems in the Bible?’’

(Krause 2008, p. 38).

The findings from the studies that have been reviewed so far suggest that some people

turn to the Bible for help in dealing with stressors they encounter in their lives. However,

this research does not directly test whether people reap specific benefits from doing so. In

order to address this issue, researchers must assess whether reading the Bible moderates the

relationship between stress- and health-related outcomes. We are unaware of any studies

that empirically evaluate this statistical interaction with data from members of the general

population. The first goal of the current study is to address this gap in the literature.

Two questions must be addressed at this juncture in order to flesh out the theoretical

underpinnings of our study. First, it is important to reflect more deeply on what people may

actually get (or hope to receive) when they turn to sacred literature during difficult times.

As we will discuss below, addressing this issue provides a way of thinking about religious

coping that has not received sufficient attention in the literature. Second, it is important to

identify an outcome measure that is well suited for capturing the potential benefits of

turning to the Bible for help in overcoming adversity.

What Reading Religious Literature May Provide

Wuthnow’s (1994) widely cited work on support groups in American society provides a

useful source of information on what people hope to get when they turn to sacred literature

for assistance. This work is relevant because Wuthnow (1994) devotes considerable

attention to Bible study groups, which are formal groups in religious institutions that are

designed to help people learn about their faith by discussing scriptures and other religiously

oriented literature. Wuthnow (1994) reports that an important function of Bible

study groups is to help people deal with personal crises. This is accomplished by helping

J Relig Health

123

people deepen their faith and develop more realistic and mature ways of thinking about the

nature of God. A more mature view of God includes trusting in Him and believing that

what has happened is part of His plan for helping those who are in need. This function

corresponds closely to Pargament’s notion of a benevolent religious reappraisal coping

response (Pargament et al. 2000). As Pargament and his colleagues argue, benevolent

religious reappraisals do not deny the reality of the seriousness of an event (Pargament

et al. 2000). Instead, this type of coping response helps a person reframe the meaning of a

stressful situation by placing it in a larger more positive and hopeful religious context.

Based on these insights, the second goal of the current study is to see whether turning to

sacred literature is associated with greater use of benevolent religious coping responses.

Pursuing this second goal is important because it highlights an understudied dimension

of religious coping and represents a shift in thinking about reading the Bible. Instead of

being a form of instructional religious practice or discipline, reading the Bible in this

context becomes a way of coming to terms with one’s own life problems. Based on the

discussion that has been provided up to this point, we view reading religious literature as a

religious coping resource in its own right. Similarly, benevolent religious reappraisals are

also construed as a religious coping resource. By linking the two empirically, we aim to

show that one religious coping resource (i.e., reading the Bible) serves as a gateway for a

second religious coping resource (i.e., adopting benevolent religious reappraisals). The two

differ in that one (Bible reading) is a more distal factor, while the other (benevolent

appraisals) is a more proximal factor in the coping process. However, they are similar

because when they are taken together, they provide a richer conceptual view of the way in

which people may use their faith to deal with adversity: they rely on multiple religious

coping resources, not just one and they may activate these resources in a sequential

manner.

We were unable to find any studies in the literature that examine the association

between reading the Bible and benevolent religious coping responses. However, research

by Vishkin and his colleagues provides some support for examining this relationship

(Vishkin et al. 2006). These investigators report that individual who are more religious are

more likely to use general cognitive reappraisal coping responses. Our work attempts to

bring this relationship into sharper focus by examining one specific dimension of religion

that may be involved in this relationship (i.e., Bible reading) and coping responses that are

more explicitly religious in nature (i.e., benevolent religious reappraisals).

How the Benefits of Reading Religious Literature May be Manifest

Hope is the primary outcome variable in the analyses that are provided below. The reason

for choosing this outcome measures can be traced to two findings in the literature. First,

research reviewed by Folkman (2010) suggests that stress may erode a person’s sense of

hope. Second, the benevolent reappraisals coping strategy that was discussed above may

help replenish a threatened sense of hope. This coping response includes the belief that

even though one is faced with adversity, God has a plan. Moreover, this plan will

strengthen a focal person, thereby allowing them to ultimately hand the stressful situation

successfully. Implied in this perspective is the notion that although the precise nature of the

plan may not have been grasped fully, some people have faith and hope that the plan will

ultimately lead to the best outcome. There are both biblical as well as social psychological

reasons why hope makes a good outcome in the research on religion and stress.

J Relig Health

123

With respect to a biblical basis, the apostle Paul succinctly captured the role of hope in

the process of relying on religion to deal with adversity: ‘‘We also glorify in our sufferings

because we know that suffering produces perseverance, perseverance produces character,

and character hope.’’ (Romans 5:3–5, New International Version). It follows from this that

if a person turns to the Bible for solace and guidance during difficult times, they may

eventually become more hopeful about the future.

Snyder and his colleagues provide a clear social psychological framework for linking

involvement in religion with hope (Snyder et al. 2002). According to these investigators,

hope is viewed as a goal-directed cognitive process that includes both planning and the

motivation to reach goals. These researchers go on to point out that religion provides a

prepackaged configuration of goals, pathways for accomplishing these goals, and the

necessary cognitions for successfully pursuing the pathways. Perhaps this is one reason

why Capps (1996) argues that pastors are fundamentally providers of hope: ‘‘Pastors, I

suggest, are agents of hope by definition (or calling) and often that is all they are’’ (p. 325,

emphasis in the original).

Findings from a number of empirical studies are consistent with this logic. More

specifically, research by Krause and his colleagues (Krause 2014; Krause and Hayward

2012; Krause et al. 2015) as well as studies by Jankowski and Sandage (2011) indicates

that greater involvement in various aspects of religious life is associated with a greater

sense of hope.

Taken as a whole, the discussion that is provided above leads to the following study

hypotheses:

H1 The magnitude of the relationship between stress and hope will be lower for people

who read the Bible more frequently.

H2 People who read the Bible more frequently will be more likely to adopt a benevolent

religious reappraisal coping strategy.

H3 Individuals who adopt a benevolent religious reappraisal coping strategy will be more

hopeful about the future.

Methods

Sample

The data for this study come from a nationwide, face-to-face, random probability survey of

people aged 18 and older who live in the coterminous USA. The interviews, which were

completed in 2014, were conducted by the National Opinion Research Center (NORC).

The response rate for this study was 50%. A total of 3010 interviews were completed

successfully. The sample was stratified into the following age groups: age 18–40

(N = 1000), age 41–64 (N = 1002), and age 65 and older (N = 1008).

After using listwise deletion to deal with item nonresponse, data were available for

between 2873 and 2159 study participants. The reason for different sample sizes is the way

information on benevolent religious reappraisals was obtained. Study participants were

given a checklist of 12 life events they may have encountered in the past 18 months. The

respondents were asked to identify the one life event that was most stressful for them.

Following this, study participants were told to keep this event in mind as they answer the

questions on benevolent religious reappraisals. A total of 707 study participants were

J Relig Health

123

excluded from the current study because they did not encounter a major stressor in the

previous 18 months.

A series of preliminary analyses were performed in order to develop a demographic

profile of the participants in this study. These analyses suggest that the average age of the

participants in the current study was 46.4 years (SD 17.7 years), 43.8% are men, 44.7%

were married at the time of the interview, and the average level of educational attainment

was 13.4 years (SD 3.1 years). These descriptive data as well as the findings that are

presented below are based on data that have been weighted.

Measures

Table 1 contains the measures of the core constructs that are evaluated in this study. The

procedures that were used to code these indicators are given in the footnotes of this table.

Hope

Three indicators were taken from the work of Scheier and Carver (1985) to measure hope.

A high score denotes greater hope (M = 11.0; SD 2.1; range 3–15). The internal consistency

reliability estimate (i.e., Cronbach’s a) for the composite measure of hope is .707.1

Bible Reading

A single indicator that assesses how often study participants read the Bible when they are

alone was taken from the work of the Fetzer Institute/National Institute on Aging Working

Group (1999). A high score on this item represents study participants who read the Bible

more often (M = 3.1; SD 2.4; range 1–8).

Stressful Life Events

Exposure to stressful life events was assessed with a 12-item checklist that was developed

by Moos et al. (1984). A simple count of the number of events that respondents had

encountered in the 18-month period prior to the survey was computed. The average number

of events was 2.7 (SD 2.1; range 0–12).

Benevolent Religious Reappraisals

This coping response measure was developed by Pargament and his colleagues (Pargament

et al. 2000). A high score stands for respondents who relied on this coping strategy more

1 Scheier and Carver (1985) claim that the items in their scale assess optimism, but we refer to them as

indicators of hope. Following the seminal work of Peterson and Seligman (2004), we believe the terms

‘‘hope’’ and ‘‘optimism’’ are virtually synonymous. Moreover, these investigators note, the correlation

between the two is ‘‘considerable’’ (Peterson and Seligman 2004, p. 570) and despite differences in the way

they are operationalized, the correlates of these constructs are ‘‘strikingly similar’’ (Peterson and Seligman

2004, p. 570). The reader might also wonder whether the items we use to assess hope capture a state-like or

trait-like phenomenon. Generally speaking, state-like phenomenon are less stable than trait-like phenomenon.

However, as we will show below, stressful life events tend to be negatively associated with hope,

suggesting that the construct we measure changes over time. Clearly, longitudinal data are needed to address

this issue.

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often (M = 7.5; SD 2.9; range 3–12). The reliability estimate for this brief composite is

.855.

Religion Control Variables

Two additional measures of religion were included in the analyses provided below to help

insure that the effects were due to bible reading per se and not some other dimension of

Table 1 Core study measures

  1. Hopea
  2. I always look at the bright side of things
  3. I’m optimistic about my future
  4. In uncertain times, I usually expect the best
  5. Bible readingb

When you are at home, how often do you read the Bible?

  1. Stressful life eventsc
  2. Moved to a new residence
  3. Death of a close friend
  4. Separation or divorce
  5. Trouble with family members
  6. Trouble with friends or neighbors
  7. Your own serious illness or injury
  8. Serious illness or injury of a family member
  9. Death of a spouse
  10. Death of an immediate family member (other than spouse)
  11. Unemployed for more than a month
  12. Income decreased substantially (20% or more)
  13. Assaulted or robbed
  14. Benevolent religious reappraisalsd
  15. Saw my situation as part of God’s plan
  16. Tried to find a lesson from God in the event
  17. Tried to see how God might be trying to strengthen me in this situation
  18. Church attendancee

How often do you attend religious services?

  1. Private prayerb

How often do you pray by yourself?

aThese items were scored in the following manner (coding in parentheses): strongly disagree (1), disagree

(2), uncertain (3), agree (4), strongly agree (5)

bThis item was scored in the following manner: never (1), less than once a month (2), once a month (3), a

few times a month (4), once a week (5), a few times a week (6), once a day (7), several times a day (8)

cA simple count was taken of the number of events that were experienced

dThese items were scored in the following manner: not at all (1), a little bit (2), quite a lot (3), a great deal

(4)

eThis item was scored in the following manner: never (1), less than once a year (2), about once or twice a

year (3), several times a year (4), about once a month (5), 2 to 3 times a month (6), nearly every week (7),

every week (8), several times a week (9)

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religion that is associated with it. These religion control variables assess the frequency of

church attendance and the frequency of private prayer. These items were taken from

research by the Fetzer Institute/National Institute on Aging Working Group (1999). A high

score on these items reflects more frequent church attendance (M = 4.7; SD 2.8; range 1–9)

and more frequent private prayer (M = 5.9; SD 2.5; range 1–8), respectively.

Demographic Control Variables

The relationships among the measures in Table 1 were estimated after the effects of age,

sex, education, and marital status were controlled statistically. Age and education were

scored continuously in years, whereas sex (1 = men; 0 = women) and marital status

(1 = married; 0 = otherwise) were coded in a binary format.

Data Analysis Strategy

The first hypothesis that was developed for this study specifies that the relationship

between stressful life events and hope will be weaker for study participants who read the

Bible more often. This means we expect to find a statistical interaction effect between

stress and Bible reading on hope. Following the procedures that are recommended by

Aiken and West (1991), tests for this interaction were performed with ordinary least

squares multiple regression analyses. All of the independent variables were centered on

their means. Following this, a multiplicative term was created by multiplying the centered

vales of the stress by the centered values of Bible reading. Then, a test for the proposed

interaction effect was conducted in two steps. First, the additive relationships between the

independent variables and hope were estimated in Model 1. Second, the cross-product term

was entered into the model in the second step (Model 2).

If the regression coefficient associated with the multiplicative term is statistically significant,

then it is important to perform some additional calculations to see whether the

proposed interaction effect is in the hypothesized direction. These additional computations

are performed with a formula that is provided by Aiken and West (1991, see p. 12).

Support for the first hypothesis would be found if the relationship between stress and hope

becomes progressively weaker at successively higher levels of Bible reading. Although any

value of Bible reading can be used in these additional computations, we selected four

equally spaced scores that capture the full distribution of bible reading values: 2, 4, 6, 8. It

is important to show that there are a sufficient number of cases at each of the selected data

points because too few cases can result in statistical estimation problems with data

sparseness (see Cohen et al. 2003, for a discussion of data sparseness). The following

number of cases was observed at each of the selected bible reading scores: 2 (N = 423), 4

(N = 188), 6 (N = 296), and 8 (N = 106). As these data reveal, we did not encounter

problems with data sparseness at these selected values of Bible reading. Once estimates

have been derived at the selected data points, Aiken and West (1991) provide an additional

formula that reveals whether these coefficients are statistically significant.

The tests for Hypothesis 2 and Hypothesis 3 were more straightforward. OLS was used

in both cases. Hypothesis 2 was evaluated by regressing benevolent religious reappraisal

coping scores on the religion control variables, the demographic control variables, and the

frequency of Bible reading. The stress measure was not included in these analyses because,

as we discussed above, questions on benevolent religious reappraisals refer specifically to

the single most stressful event. Hypothesis 3 was assessed by regressing hope on the

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frequency of Bible reading, stressful life events, the interaction between reading the Bible

and stress, benevolent religious coping responses, and the control variables.

Results

Table 2 contains the results of the test of Hypothesis 1. Findings from the first step of the

data analysis procedures that were discussed above are provided by Model 1, whereas

Model 2 contains the results that were obtained after the multiplicative term was added to

the regression equation.

Two noteworthy results emerge from the estimates that were derived from Model 1.

First, the data suggest that greater exposure to stressful life events is associated with a

diminished sense of hope (b = – .134; p\.001). But in contrast, reading the Bible more

often does not appear to be associated with hope (b = .034; ns.).2

The estimates that were derived with Model 2 are of greater interest because they

contain the test for the proposed interaction between stress and Bible reading on hope.

These data indicate that a significant interaction between stress and Bible reading is present

in the data (b = .029; p\.001; unstandardized regression coefficients are discussed when

presenting the results of tests for interaction effects because standardized effects are

meaningless in this context).

2 Preliminary analyses suggest that the level of exposure to stressful life events is not significantly associated

with the frequency of Bible reading (r = – .024; ns.).

Table 2 Assessing the relationships

among bible reading, stress,

and hope (N = 2873)

aStandardized regression

coefficient

bMetric (unstandardized)

regression coefficient

*p\.05; **p\.01;

***p\.001

Model 1 Model 2

Independent variables

Age – .059**a – .062***

(- .007) (- .007)

Sex – .022 – .022

(- .093) (- .091)

Education – .044* – .044*

(- .029) (- .030)

Marital status .027 .028

(.112) (.117)

Church attendance .069** .071**

(.052) (.053)

Private prayer .105*** .108***

(.089) (.090)

Stressful events – .134*** – .132***

(- .136) (- .133)

Bible reading .034 .035

(.029) (.031)

(Bible Reading X Stressful Events) – –

(.029)***

Multiple R2 .053 .058

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Following the data analyses strategy that was presented earlier, additional computations

were performed at four equally spaced Bible reading scores to see whether the interaction

effect is in the hypothesized direction. The results from these additional calculations are

not shown in Table 2. A value of 2 represents people who read the Bible less than once a

month. The additional calculations reveal that greater exposure to stressful life events

among people at this level of Bible reading is associated with lower hope scores

(b = – .164; b = – .166; p\.001). A score of 4 stands for people who read the Bible a

few times a month. At this level of Bible reading, stress is still associated with lower hope

scores (b = – .106; b = – .108; p\.001). However, the standardized estimate is about

35.4% smaller than the estimate for study participants at the previous level (i.e., those who

read the Bible less than once a month). Study participants with a score of 6 say they read

the Bible a few times a week. At this level, stress is not significantly associated with hope

(b = – .049; b = – .050; ns.). The same is true for study participants who read the Bible

several times a day (i.e., those with a score of 8) (b = .008; b = .008; ns.). Looking across

the full range of scores, the data suggest that reading the Bible more often tends to fully

moderate (i.e., offset) the negative relationship between stress and hope. These data

therefore provide support for Hypothesis 1.

Hypothesis 2 was designed to examine one way in which the potentially beneficial effects

of reading the Bible might arise. This issue was addressed by estimating the relationship

between reading the Bible and relying on benevolent religious reappraisal coping responses

when the most significant life event in the previous 18 months was encountered. As discussed

above, this relationship was evaluated by regressing benevolent reappraisal coping scores on

the frequency of Bible reading as well as age, sex, education, marital status, church attendance,

and prayer. These additional analyses (not shown here) indicate that people who read

the Bible more often are more likely to rely on benevolent religious reappraisal coping

responses when the most stressful event was encountered (b = .130; b = .158; p\.001).

Hypothesis 3 was designed to bring the analyses full circle by assessing whether greater

use of benevolent religious reappraisal coping responses is associated with greater hope.

Recall that this hypothesis was evaluated by regressing hope on benevolent religious

reappraisals, the frequency of reading the Bible, stress, the interaction between reading the

Bible and stress, and the control variables. The findings (not shown here) suggest that

people who use benevolent reappraisals to deal with the greatest stressor tend to be more

hopeful (b = .215; b = .148; p\.001). Support is therefore found for Hypothesis 3. These

analyses further reveal that the interaction between reading the Bible and stress is still

statistically significant (b = .024; p\.01), but it is approximately 17.2% smaller than the

estimate that is provided when the measure of benevolent reappraisals is not in the model

(see Table 2) ((.029- .024/.029) = .172).

Discussion

Sacred texts are, arguably, the backbone of a faith tradition.3 They typically contain

information on the history of a faith tradition, but, more importantly, they also contain

precepts which presumably lead to a better life. Even though sacred texts are a vitally

3 Our study was conducted in the U.S. and as a result, the study participants were overwhelmingly

Christian. The statement that religious texts are the backbone of a faith tradition is appropriate for those with

a Judeo-Christian background. It should be emphasized, however, that religious texts may play a less central

role in other faith traditions, such as Buddhism.

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important part of a faith tradition, it is surprising to find that empirical research on them has

lagged behind research in other substantive areas (e.g., religious coping) in the religion and

health literature. The purpose of the current study was to redress this imbalance in the

literature by assessing whether reading sacred texts contributes to the quality of life by

providing access to potentially important coping resources. Toward this end, three

hypotheses were evaluated. The first specified that the relationship between stress and hope

would be weaker among people who read the Bible more often. It was proposed in the

second hypothesis that people who read the Bible more often will be more likely to adopt

benevolent religious reappraisal coping responses to deal with the single most troublesome

life event they encountered in the previous 18 months. According to the third hypothesis,

individuals who adopt benevolent religious reappraisal coping responses will be more

hopeful about the future. The data from the current study provide support for each of these

hypotheses.

There are three reasons why the findings from this study are noteworthy. First, to the

best of our knowledge, this is the first study that assesses the potential stress-buffering

function of reading sacred scriptures in the general population. Second, an effort was made

to move beyond this important issue by clearly identifying one way in which reading the

Bible may confer stress-related benefits: adopting benevolent religious reappraisal coping

responses. Third, we examined these issues with data from a large nationally representative

survey of adults.

Even though our research may have contributed to the literature, a substantial amount of

work remains to be done on reading sacred scriptures. Perhaps the greatest need has to do

with the measurement of this core construct. As in the current study, researchers often

assess reading sacred scriptures with a single indicator (e.g., Fetzer Institute/National

Institute on Aging Working Group 1999). Yet even a moments reflect reveals that reading

sacred scriptures is a complex phenomenon in its own right. Briefly reflecting on research

on prayer helps illustrate this point. Many researchers initially assessed prayer with a single

indicator. But as this literature began to evolve, it quickly became evident that there are

different types of prayer (Poloma and Gallup 1991) and different functions of prayer

(Spilka and Ladd 2013). Perhaps researchers can develop a counterpart to this literature in

their work on reading sacred scriptures. For example, it might be useful to devise a

topology of reasons for reading the Bible. Some people might read the Bible for help in

dealing with stress, but others might read sacred scriptures simply to deepen their faith,

while yet other individuals may read the Bible in order to feel closer to their chosen faith,

thereby deriving comfort in knowing they are part of an ongoing tradition. These (and

other) reasons for reading scriptures could be measured directly and then examined in

larger models to see which one(s) are associated with health-related outcomes.

Following closely on the point that was raised above, it would be helpful to identify the

specific Biblical passages that people turn to when they encounter stressful events. This in

turn may help flesh out our understanding about how Bible reading shapes religious coping

responses. Unfortunately, our study does not contain data on the specific Biblical passages

that people consult during difficult times. Gathering this type of information should be a

high priority in the future.

As the data in our study reveal, Bible reading, stress, and religious coping responses do

not explain all of the variance in the hope outcome measure. This suggests that hope is

likely to be influenced by other aspects of religious life, as well. Research by Krause and

his colleagues suggests that social relationships in the church may play an important role in

this respect. More specifically Krause and Hayward (2012) report that more frequent

informal support from pastors is associated with increases in hope over time. Similarly,

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research by Krause, Ellison, Shaw, Marcum and Boardman (2001) indicates that more

frequent informal support from fellow church members is associated with greater use of

religious coping responses.

It would also be important to gather more information on the context in which Bible

reading takes place. We assess Bible reading in private, but people also attend Bible study

groups. It would be helpful to see whether reading the Bible in groups conveys a similar or

even greater benefit than reading the Bible privately.

In order to advance research on reading the Bible, investigators should also address the

limitations in the work we have presented. At least two shortcomings are in need of

attention. First, the data for our study are cross-sectional. Consequently, the causal

ordering among the constructs in our models was based on theoretical considerations alone.

For example, we assumed that people who rely on benevolent religious reappraisals are

subsequently more likely to feel hopeful about the future. But one might just as easily

argue that people who are initially more hopeful are subsequently more likely to adopt this

type of coping response. Longitudinal data are needed to address this, as well as other

causal assumptions in our work. Second, only one specific coping response was examined

in our study. However, as Pargament et al. (2000) show, individuals may adopt a wide

range of coping responses when they are confronted by an unwanted stressor. Some of

these coping responses may be especially useful in research on reading sacred scriptures

(e.g., collaborative religious coping, seeking spiritual support). Clearly, examining the

relationship between reading the Bible and a full spectrum of coping responses will likely

yield much greater insight into the potential benefits of this core religious behavior.

In recent years, the theories and measures that are used in the study of religion have

become increasingly sophisticated. We applaud these efforts as long as more fundamental

aspects of religious life are not overlooked. If our study accomplishes anything, we hope it

calls attention to one of the most basic elements of involvement in virtually any faith

tradition—reading sacred scriptures.

Funding This study was funded by the John Templeton Foundation (Grant 40077).

Compliance with Ethnical Standards

Conflict of interest Neal Krause and Kenneth I. Pargament declare that they have no conflict of interest.

Ethical Approval All procedures performed in studies involving human participants were in accordance

with the ethical standards of the institutional and/or national research committees and with the 1964 Helsinki

Declaration and its later amendments or comparable ethical standards.

Informed Consent Informed consent was obtained from all individual participants included in the study.

References

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Park, CA: Sage.

Arcury, T. A., Quandt, S. A., McDonald, J., & Bell, R. A. (2000). Faith and health self-management of rural

older adults. Journal of Cross-Cultural Gerontology, 15, 65–74.

Capps, D. (1996). The pastor as agent of hope. Currents in Theology and Mission, 23, 325–335.

Ciarrocchi, J. W., Dy-Liacco, G. S., & Denke, E. (2008). Gods or rituals? Relational faith, spiritual discontent,

and religious practices as predictors of hope and optimism. Journal of Positive Psychology, 3,

120–136.

Cohen, J., Cohen, P., West, S. G., & Aiken, L. S. (2003). Applied multiple regression/correlation analysis

for the behavioral sciences (3rd ed.). Mahwah, NJ: Lawrence Erlbaum.

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Davis, K. A., & Epkins, C. C. (2009). Do private religious practices moderate the relationship between

family conflict and preadolescents’ depression and anxiety symptoms? Journal of Early Adolescence,

29, 693–717.

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religiousness/spirituality for use in health research. Kalamazoo, MI: John E. Fetzer Institute.

Folkman, S. (2010). Stress, coping, and hope. Psycho-Oncology, 19, 901–908.

Gerdner, L. A., Tripp-Reimer, T., & Simpson, H. C. (2007). Hard lives. God’s help and struggling through:

Caregiving in Arkansas Delta. Journal of Cross-Cultural Gerontology, 22, 355–374.

Hamilton, J. B., Moore, A. D., Johnson, K. A., & Koenig, H. G. (2013). Reading the Bible for guidance,

comfort, and strength during stressful life events. Nursing Research, 62, 178–184.

Hood, R. W., Hill, P. C., & Spilka, B. (2009). The psychology of religion: An empirical approach (4th ed.).

New York: Guilford.

Jankowski, P. J., & Sandage, S. J. (2011). Meditative prayer, hope, adult attahcment, and forgiveness: A

proposed model. Psychology of Religion and Spirituality, 3, 115–131.

Johnson, S. D., Williams, S. L., & Pickard, J. G. (2016). Trauma, religion, and social support among African

American women. Social Work & Christianity, 43(6), 73–693.

Krause, N. (2002). A comprehensive strategy for developing closed-ended survey items for use in studies of

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Question 5: Economics

 

Chapter 12 matching vocabulary

 

 

  1. Aggregate demand
  2. Real-balances effect
  3. Foreign-purchases effect
  4. Interest-rate effect
  5. Aggregate supply
  6. Productivity
  7. Short-run aggregate supply curve
  8. Menu costs
  9. Long-run aggregate supply curve
  10. Equilibrium price  level

 

(     )  The amount of total spending on domestic goods and services in an

economy.

(     )  Where there is neither a shortage nor a surplus and no tendency for

the price to rise or fall.

(     )  As the price level declines, the purchasing power of money increases.

(     )  Shows the total quantity of output that firms will produce and sell

where input prices are fully responsive to changes in the price level.

(     )  A lower price level will make domestically produced goods less

expensive relative to foreign goods.

(     )  The costs of changing prices, like the costs of changing prices at

Publix.

(     )  A lower price level will reduce the demand for money and lower the

real interest rate, which will stimulate additional purchases.

(     )  Shows the total quantity of output that firms will produce where input

prices do not change in response to changes in the price level.

(     )  The total quantity of output (i.e. real GDP) firms will produce and sell.

(     )  The average output per worker during a specific time period.

 

Question 6: Economics

 

chapter 11 matching vocabulary

 

Money that enters the spending stream through an increase in business or government spending.

The difference between exports and imports in an economy.

Where spending equal output in an economy.

The level of consumer and business spending at each possible income or output level.

Insufficient total spending to achieve full-employment GDP

A tax where everyone pays the same amount.

Total spending exceeds level to achieve full-employment GDP

Money, like savings, that is no in the spending stream.

The business spending plan at each level of GDP

Spending choices of business independent of current real output.

 

Planned investment

Investment schedule

Aggregate expenditures schedule

Equilibrium GDP

Leakage

Injection

Net Exports

Lump-sum tax

Recessionary expenditure gap

Inflationary expenditure gap

 

 

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Question 7: Economics

 

Chapter 10 matching definitions

 

 

  1. (   ) Shows the amounts households plan to spend for consumer goods at different levels of disposable income.
  2. (   ) The share of the additional dollar a person decides to save.
  3. (   ) Percent of disposable income that household spend on consumer goods.
  4. (   ) Tendency for people to increase or decrease consumption spending when the value of their financial assets changes.
  5. (   ) Shows the amounts households plan to save at different levels of disposable income.
  6. (   ) The share of the additional dollar a person decides to devote to consumption expenditures.
  7. (   ) Percent of disposable income that household save
  8. (   ) Increased savings may be both good and bad for the economy.
  9. (   ) The ratio of a change in equilibrium GDP to the change in investment.
  10. (   ) The line along which the value of output is equal to the value of aggregate expenditures.

 

  1. Consumption schedule
  2. Marginal  propensity to save (MPS)
  3. Average propensity to consume (APC)
  4. Wealth effect
  5. Savings schedule
  6. Marginal  propensity to consume (MPC)
  7. Average propensity to save (APS)
  8. Paradox of thrift
  9. Multiplier
  10. 45 degree line

 

 

Question 8: Business

 

Resources: Strategic Staffing, Ch. 11; Top Performers Case Study Grading Guide

Read the opening vignette in Ch. 11, “Hiring Top Performers at MarineMax” on page 304 in Strategic Staffing, Ch. 11.

Answer the following in 150 to 200 words:

What can MarineMax do to increase the likelihood that the top sales candidates it recruits will accept its job offers?

 

 

Question 9: Business

 

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words: 

 

Discuss the multiple hurdles approach. Do you think this is a viable method for choosing candidates? Or does an alternative approach work best for your current or previous organization?

 

 

Question 10: Business

 

 

BUSI   300      PowerPoint     Instructions

For this assignment, you will create a professional looking PowerPoint presentation on a topic of professional communication. To help put this in perspective, the scenario is that your supervisor has assigned you the task of presenting a 45 to 60-minute training session on some aspect of professional communication. You need to research your topic and prepare an engaging PowerPoint that would be used to guide your presentation.

 

Topic Ideas

 

The course textbook will be a great resource when looking for a topic that relates to some aspect of professional communication. Some examples of topics include (but are not limited to):

  • How to be an Effective Verbal and Nonverbal Communicator;
  • How to Give an Effective Presentation;
  • Effective Communication Within Teams;
  • Overcoming Communication Barriers

 

It is recommended that you pick a topic of interest and then do some research to make sure you can find five credible sources – more about credible sources below. Once you are certain you can locate five credible sources, begin creating your PowerPoint presentation.

PowerPoint Requirements: 

 

  1. Title Slide
  • This will be the first slide of your PowerPoint (and is NOT considered a contentslide).
  • This slide will include the following: title of your presentation; your full name; class name and section number; & your institution (Liberty University).

 

  1. Content Slides
  • A minimum of 15content slides must be included.
  • All content slides must contain speaker notes.

o   Speaker notes are a presenter’s “cheat sheet”, if you will. In other words, speaker notes are hidden from your audience, but you are able to view them while presenting.

o   Speaker notes are NOT a copy of the information on your slide. Instead, speaker notes expand upon and/or offer further clarification regarding points on each slide.

o   To add speaker notes, go to the Notes pane under the slide where you will see, “Click to add notes”. For more help, view the information at: https://support.office.com/en-us/article/add-speaker-notes-to-your-slides-26985155-35f5-45ba-812b-e1bd3c48928e

  • A minimum of fourrelevant, professional images/graphics must be included in your PPT.

o   All images/graphics used must be of high quality and professional, with the main purpose of helping an audience better grasp a complex concept and/or remember information presented.

o   Re-read section 12-3 in your course textbook, as there are some important guidelines regarding the use of images/graphics in a presentation.

 

III. Reference Slide

  • This slide will be the last slide(s) of your PowerPoint (and is NOT considered a contentslide).
  • This slide (or slides) will contain all sources used in your PowerPoint presentation.
  • Sources must be formatted according to current APA formatting guidelines.
  • In addition to current APA formatting guidelines, the inclusion of thecomplete URL (sometimes called a permalink) is required for all full-text, peer-reviewed/scholarly articles retrieved from Liberty’s online library journal database. Note that this is not the same as the doi #. The URL must take your reader directly to the full text article within Liberty’s online library journal database. If you’re unsure about the specific URL/link, you can copy the entire web address from the top of the browser’s address bar once you are viewing the full text article within Liberty’s online library journal database.

 

  1. Sources
  • A minimum of five credible sourcesmust be used within your presentation. Required, credible sources include:

o   four full-text, peer-reviewed/scholarly articles retrieved from Liberty’s online library journal database.

o   two of the above four full-text, peer-reviewed/scholarly articles must be within the last 7 years.

o   the course textbook (as listed on the course syllabus).

  • You are able to include additional sources, other than the five credible sources listed above; however, they must be full-text articles retrieved from Liberty’s online library journal database.
  • Sources NOT acceptable for this assignment: 

o   No textbooks (including e-books), other than the course textbook/ebook (as listed on the course syllabus)

o   No general Internet searching is acceptable.  Therefore, no blogs, education sites, commercial sites, Wikipedia, About.com, editorials, abstracts, online books, book reviews, etc.

  1. Avoiding Plagiarism
  • Create an original PowerPoint presentation; previously submitted work from this or another course is considered self-plagiarism and is prohibited.
  • Provide citations for any:
    • statement, idea, & thought (whether paraphrased or directly quoted) used from an outside source;
    • table, data, image, etc. used from an outside source.
  • All citations should be formatted according to current APA formatting guidelines and should directly follow the information used from an outside source.
  • All sources used should be formatted according to current APA formatting guidelines on your reference slide(s).

 

  1. Other Requirements and Reminders:
  • Must be created in Microsoft PowerPoint and uploaded through the assignment link as a .ppt or .pptx file.
  • Individual slides and the overall design of your presentation must be professional and engaging.
  • A running header or page #s are not required.
  • An abstract is not required.

 

 

 

 

PowerPoint Project Grading Rubric_BUSI 300

Based on 150-point maximum

Criteria Levels of Achievement
Content 70% Advanced 90-100% Proficient 70-89% Developing 1-69% Not present
Content 94.5 to 105 points

Topic meets assignment requirements. Content is accurate, and the presentation has a logical sequence of ideas. All slides outline or supplement a major point or detail a previous point.

Four relevant, professional images/graphics are included. All image/graphics illustrate the topic of the slide and/or explain a complex issue.

Speaker notes are included on all content slides and expand upon and/or offer further clarification of points.

73.5 to 93.5 points

Topic meets assignment requirements. Content is mostly accurate, and the presentation has a good flow. Most slides outline or supplement a major point or detail a previous point.

Presentation contains only 1-3 images/graphics.

Some, but not all, images/graphics illustrate the topic of the slide and/or explain a complex issue.

Speaker notes are missing on 1-5 content slides. Speaker notes help clarify some, but not all points.

1 to 72.5 points

Topic does not meet assignment requirements. Content is not completely accurate, and/or the presentation is unorganized and difficult to follow. Slides do not outline or supplement a major point or detail a previous point.

Graphics do not illustrate the topic of the slide and/or explain a complex issue.

Speaker notes are missing on 6 or more content slides. Speaker notes do not clarify points on the slides.

0 points

Not present

Structure 30% Advanced 90-100% Proficient 70-89% Developing 1-69% Not present
Grammar, Spelling, and Sentence Structure 4.6 to 5 points

No spelling or grammar errors are present.

3.6 to 4.5 points

Presentation contains some spelling and/or grammar errors.

1 to 3.5 points

Presentation contains multiple spelling and/or grammar errors.

0 points

Not present

Formatting and Number of Slides 36 to 40 points

5 credible sources are used, and correct APA formatting has been applied throughout.
The title slide is included and contains all required items.
Transitions and animations are smooth and enhance the presentation very well.
A professional theme is used. All text is clearly visible with the appropriate amount of content per slide.
All required slides are present.

28 to 35.6 points

4 credible sources are used. The presentation contains some APA formatting errors.
The title slide is included, but is missing one required item.
Transitions and animations are adequately used.

A professional theme is used.
All text is visible and most slides contain the appropriate amount of content per slide.
Two required slides are missing.

1 to 27.6 points

1-3 credible sources are used. The presentation contains multiple APA formatting errors.
The title slide is included, but is missing 2+ required items.
Transitions and animations are not used and/or distract from the presentation.
A professional theme is missing.

Text is unclear, and there is either too much or not enough content per slide.

Three or more required slides are missing.

0 points

Not present

 

 

 

 

BUSI 300 PowerPoint Instructions

For this assignment, you will create a professional looking PowerPoint presentation on a topic of professional communication. To help put this in perspective, the scenario is that your supervisor has assigned you the task of presenting a 45 to 60-minute training session on some aspect of professional communication. You need to research your topic and prepare an engaging PowerPoint that would be used to guide your presentation.

 

Topic Ideas

 

The course textbook will be a great resource when looking for a topic that relates to some aspect of professional communication. Some examples of topics include (but are not limited to):

  • How to be an Effective Verbal and Nonverbal Communicator;
  • How to Give an Effective Presentation;
  • Effective Communication Within Teams;
  • Overcoming Communication Barriers

 

It is recommended that you pick a topic of interest and then do some research to make sure you can find five credible sources – more about credible sources below. Once you are certain you can locate five credible sources, begin creating your PowerPoint presentation.

PowerPoint Requirements:

 

  1. Title Slide
  • This will be the first slide of your PowerPoint (and is NOT considered a content slide).
  • This slide will include the following: title of your presentation; your full name; class name and section number; & your institution (Liberty University).

 

  1. Content Slides
  • A minimum of 15 content slides must be included.
  • All content slides must contain speaker notes.
  • Speaker notes are a presenter’s “cheat sheet”, if you will. In other words, speaker notes are hidden from your audience, but you are able to view them while presenting.
  • Speaker notes are NOT a copy of the information on your slide. Instead, speaker notes expand upon and/or offer further clarification regarding points on each slide.
  • To add speaker notes, go to the Notes pane under the slide where you will see, “Click to add notes”. For more help, view the information at: https://support.office.com/en-us/article/add-speaker-notes-to-your-slides-26985155-35f5-45ba-812b-e1bd3c48928e
  • A minimum of four relevant, professional images/graphics must be included in your PPT.
  • All images/graphics used must be of high quality and professional, with the main purpose of helping an audience better grasp a complex concept and/or remember information presented.
  • Re-read section 12-3 in your course textbook, as there are some important guidelines regarding the use of images/graphics in a presentation.

 

III. Reference Slide

  • This slide will be the last slide(s) of your PowerPoint (and is NOT considered a content slide).
  • This slide (or slides) will contain all sources used in your PowerPoint presentation.
  • Sources must be formatted according to current APA formatting guidelines.
  • In addition to current APA formatting guidelines, the inclusion of the complete URL (sometimes called a permalink) is required for all full-text, peer-reviewed/scholarly articles retrieved from Liberty’s online library journal database. Note that this is not the same as the doi #. The URL must take your reader directly to the full text article within Liberty’s online library journal database. If you’re unsure about the specific URL/link, you can copy the entire web address from the top of the browser’s address bar once you are viewing the full text article within Liberty’s online library journal database.

 

  1. Sources
  • A minimum of five credible sources must be used within your presentation. Required, credible sources include:
  • four full-text, peer-reviewed/scholarly articles retrieved from Liberty’s online library journal database.
  • two of the above four full-text, peer-reviewed/scholarly articles must be within the last 7 years.
  • the course textbook (as listed on the course syllabus).
  • You are able to include additional sources, other than the five credible sources listed above; however, they must be full-text articles retrieved from Liberty’s online library journal database.
  • Sources NOT acceptable for this assignment:
  • No textbooks (including e-books), other than the course textbook/ebook (as listed on the course syllabus)
  • No general Internet searching is acceptable. Therefore, no blogs, education sites, commercial sites, Wikipedia, About.com, editorials, abstracts, online books, book reviews, etc.
  1. Avoiding Plagiarism
  • Create an original PowerPoint presentation; previously submitted work from this or another course is considered self-plagiarism and is prohibited.
  • Provide citations for any:
    • statement, idea, & thought (whether paraphrased or directly quoted) used from an outside source;
    • table, data, image, etc. used from an outside source.
  • All citations should be formatted according to current APA formatting guidelines and should directly follow the information used from an outside source.
  • All sources used should be formatted according to current APA formatting guidelines on your reference slide(s).

 

  1. Other Requirements and Reminders:
  • Must be created in Microsoft PowerPoint and uploaded through the assignment link as a .ppt or .pptx file.
  • Individual slides and the overall design of your presentation must be professional and engaging.
  • A running header or page #s are not required.
  • An abstract is not required.

 

 

 

 

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Question 11: Mathematics

 

  1. Calculate the percentage return on a 1-year Treasury bill with a face value of $10,000 if you pay $9,777.46 to purchase it and receive its full face value at maturity.

The percentage return is %  Round to decimal place

 

Question 12: History

 

From the readings in you textbook, you have learned about Plato, Aristotle and other philosophers within the Greek culture. Some people say, “We should not study and learn about the secular philosophies taught by the Greeks because they are not Christian based.” Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Give specific reasons why you have come to your conclusions.

 

TEXTBOOK chs. 7–8:

 

A Narrative of Western Culture First Edition Dennis E. Rawls, MALS

ISBN-13: 978-1-260-51106-2 ISBN-10: 1-260-51106-5

 

 

Module/Week 3

Review Study Guide

 

This module/week we are looking at the philosophy and humanist legacy that the Greeks added to Western Culture. Philosophy many times is a big word that people avoid using but it is literally the love of wisdom. It generally does take a position on what is the nature of reality. Men like the Sophists (a professional philosopher-teacher) would debate philosophy in the Greek marketplace called an agora. On occasion we are critical of the Greek philosophy but many of these men were brilliant and modern Christianity could learn some things from them. We should not be afraid to understand the world in which we live a little better. They were not afraid to have a systematic speculation of the universe from their vantage point. There are a number of men who are listed as philosophers in the Greek culture, so let’s get some of the key individuals in the correct time frame.

 

The correct order:

  • Pythagoras—Died 495 BC
  • Socrates—399 BC
  • Plato—348 BC
  • Aristotle—322 BC
  • Alexander the Great—323 BC (not really thought of as a philosopher, but was a student of Aristotle and was heroic figure in the late classical period of Greek history).

 

Let’s now try to cover a little of what each is known for.

 

Pythagoras was the early Greek philosopher who taught that “number” was the essence of all things. Not to be confused with Protagoras who is also credited with saying that “man is the measure of all things”. Socrates is next and it is interesting that there are no written works of him, and we only know what he taught because of what Plato wrote about him. Socrates was known for his method of teaching by asking questions. He is best recognized for inventing the teaching practice of pedagogy, wherein a teacher questions a student in a manner that draws out the correct response. He was not necessarily a student of Pythagoras but probably learned some things from him. It is interesting that Socrates’ favorite student, Plato, developed a philosophy diverse from that of his teacher. Socrates was later brought to trial by his enemies on capital charges of atheism and corruption of the young.

Let’s look at Plato, who was associated with a principle used in the art of debate called the dialectic. Reality for Plato consisted of (Ideas) of all basic things. Forms that exist beyond the grasp of the senses, or even the mind, which is not what Socrates or Aristotle would teach. Aristotle had a great influence in the field of logic, particularly with his invention of the syllogism as a tool for deductive reasoning. In logic, Plato was more inclined to use inductive reasoning, whereas Aristotle used deductive reasoning. The syllogism, a basic unit of logic (if A = B, and B = C, then A = C), was developed by Aristotle. Plato would write the Republic as well as the Allegory of the Cave.

Both Aristotle and Plato believed thoughts were superior to the senses and are considered to be the most influential philosophers in the history of Western Culture.  However, whereas Plato believed the senses could fool a person, Aristotle stated that the senses were needed in order to properly determine reality. Aristotle would have some excellent views on logos, which when used in the philosophical sense takes on the meaning of the rational principles that govern and develop the universe as well as his greatest field of logic.

An example of this difference is the Allegory of the Cave, created by Plato (who would create the Academy of Athens). To him, the world was like a cave, and a person would only see shadows cast from the outside light, so the only reality would be thoughts. To the Aristotelian method, the obvious solution is to walk out of the cave and experience what is casting light and shadows directly, rather than relying solely on indirect or internal experiences.

Next, let’s look at some of the philosophical terms that were used and have been used to describe various beliefs and values.

Ideology is basically the doctrines, opinions, or way of thinking of an individual or group.

 

Hedonism develops within cultures that begin to focus on themselves and not others, because this belief says that pleasure is the principal god and should be the highest aim of the individual and society.

 

 Naturalism in many cases leads to Hedonism and Humanism. Naturalism is the view that the universe requires no supernatural cause or government, that it is self-existent, self-explanatory, self-operating, and self-directing, and that it is purposeless, deterministic, and only accidently productive of humanity.

 

Syncretism is a view we have seem before and is the joining together of ideals, beliefs and values. Syncretism is basically a combination, reconciliation, or coalescence of varying, often mutually opposed beliefs, principles, or practices, esp. those of various religions, into a new conglomerate whole typically marked by internal inconsistencies.

 

We have previously studied how the Greeks were individualistic in their view of their society. This concept was unusual in the history and cultures of this and previous time periods. We may look down upon a prideful person and Scripture certainly does, but the Greeks considered pride a virtue. We had mentioned it earlier but the Greeks were good at illustrating their cultural perspective by their use of the Comedy and Tragedy (the first one was in 534 BC) plays. The typical Greek tragedy depicts how the hero becomes alienated from society, which is a tragedy.

 

Greek Theatre was not the only form of art for the Greeks. We have famous sculptures such as The Discus Thrower by Myron, The Kritios Boy done in 481 BC, and Poseidon, one of the finest original Greek bronzes (the Greeks favorite sculpture forms). Many of these art works depicted people not as they were but as they should be. Just a note here: there are not as many bronze sculptures as were actually produced because many were melted down for weapons. Many of the bronzes statues we have today have been recovered from the sea, where they were able to lay safely to be recovered by future generations. We cannot forget the art that the Greeks felt was the most important, which was Music.

 

Just because there were many views of reality with the Greek culture, this did not mean that the people did not believe in gods and build temples (without priests). Most expensive temples were built on the mainland of Greece, not on the islands such as Sicily; one of them being the Parthenon (built in Athens), which was a temple dedicated to the goddess Athena. The ancient Greeks saw the human form even in their temple styles. The Corinthian columns were associated with the Greek Classical time period and were used in the Greek temple architecture because of their elegance and refinement. The Corinthian columns can be seen in many of the buildings in downtown Washington D.C.

Not to say that the Greeks all got along with each other. Towns would fight towns and basically have an all-out war, and many of them were based on pride. As we mentioned earlier, the Peloponnesian War between Sparta and Athens was just such a war. We know much about this war because of the accurate historical accounts by Thucydides. Thucydides believed that history should provide an accurate record of past events.  It would have very negative effects of both areas of Greece, but Athens would continue to provide the majority of cultural influence for Greece until the Romans arrived on the scene.

The Greeks thought education was very important and like many of the Classical schools in America today, thought music was important in this educational process. How could we describe the Greeks? In two words: Individualistic and competitive. Thus the Olympics?

 

Question 13: General Question

 

ACCT 212 Learn smart Assignment 11 Liberty University Complete Answers

 

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

 

A capital investment evaluation method that measures the expected time for the present value of the net cash flows to equal the initial cost of the investment is the:

A company is considering several investment opportunities. The investments have been evaluated using payback period and break-even time. Only one project will be chosen and time value of money is important. The company should choose the project which the:

The capital investment evaluation method compares the present value of the net cash flows to the initial amount invested is the:

A company is considering a capital investment of $45,000 in new equipment which will improve production and increase cash flows by $15,000 per year for 6 years. The company has a hurdle rate of 10%. The break-even time is approximately:

When using accounting rate of return to evaluate capital investment decisions, choose the project with the (1) risk, (2) payback period, and (3) return for the (4) time period.

A company needs to choose between two investment opportunities. Project 1 has a cost of $500,000 and expected NPV of cash flows of $450,000. Project 2 has a cost of $800,000 and expected NPV of cash flows of $750,000. Using profitability index as the evaluation method, the company should choose:

A company is considering a capital investment of $45,000 in new equipment which will improve production and increase flows by $15,000 per year for 6 years. The payback period is ____ years.

When comparing investment opportunities with approximately the same cost and risk level, choose the investment with the:

A company is considering a capital investment of $16,000 in new equipment which will improve production and increase cash flow for next five years at the following amounts: Year 1: $8,000; Year 2: $6,000; Year 3: $5,000; Year 4: $5,000. The payback period is __ years.

A company is considering two similar investment projects. One has an initial cost of $50,000 and the other an initial cost of $450,000. Which evaluation method would be most appropriate?

Assume straight-line depreciation and even cash flow. A company plans to purchase equipment for $25,000. The equipment will have $0 salvage value and increase after-tax income by $7,500 annually during it 5-year life. The accounting rate of return is ___%

Which of the following is the approximate internal rate of return for an investment that costs $45,880 and has net cash flow of $4,000 for 20 years?

Consider the following projects: Project A cost = $30,000, NPV of cash flows = $10,000; Project B: Cost = $45,000, NPV of cash flows = $10,000 Project C: Cost = $30,000, NPV of cash flows = $20,000; Project D: Cost = $40,000, NPV of cash flows = $5,000. Using profitability index as the evaluation method, rank the projects in order of preference with the best choice on top.

A company has evaluated several projects using net present value. All projects are similar in amount invested and risk. Rank the projects in the order they should be accepted.

A company is considering an investment opportunity with a cost of $5,000 that will provide future cash flows of $8,000. The flows for the investment for the next 4 years are: $1,000, $1,000, $2,000, and $4,000. Assume a required rate of return of 10%. The NPV is $ _____

 

 

 

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Question 14:        General Question

 

ECON 213 How to use InQuizitive Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

 

  1. Points, Grades, and Levels

Drag the labels below to fill in the blanks.

(Hint: You saw most of this information on the introductory screen when you first started the activity. To view that screen again, click the gear icon in the top right-hand corner and select “Instructor Activity Introduction” from the drop-down menu.)

Drag word(s) below to fill in the blank(s) in the passage.

  • You score points in InQuizitive by answering .
  • You determine how many points you can gain or lose on each question using the Question slider (to the right if you’re on a computer, or at the bottom for smartphone users).
  • You must answer a number of questions to get a grade on the activity.
  • To get a perfect grade (100%) on the activity, you must reach a designated Score.
  1. Confidence Levels

Find the Question Confidence slider (to the right if you’re on a computer, or at the bottom for smartphone users). Try sliding the ball to adjust your confidence level.

Using the keys below or your keyboard, type out the name of the lowest confidence level.

  1. Confidence Levels

Go back to the Question Confidence slider. What’s the highestconfidence level?

Using the keys on the screen or your keyboard, enter it below.

  1. Confidence Levels

As you’ve seen, you can adjust your confidence level on each question using the Question Confidence slider. What happens when you increase the confidence level for a question?

When you answer the question correctly on the first try, it the number of points you’ll earn.

When you answer incorrectly while attempting the question, it the number of points you’ll lose

  1. Other InQuizitive Policies and Features

Which devices can you use to work on InQuizitive activities?

(Note that to complete this question you must drag every answer option into either the “Correct Answer(s)” area or the “Incorrect Answer(s)” area.)

  1. Confidence Levels

If you guess incorrectly on a question, you immediately lose the points you “wagered” when setting your confidence level. If you answer the question correctly after that initial incorrect guess, however, you can earn back half of those points in most cases.

So, here’s a math question for you: Suppose you set your confidence level at “I think I know it,” which means that you’re initially risking 80 points. You guess wrong on the first attempt. How many “second-chance” points will you be able to earn back?

  1. Other InQuizitive Policies and Features

Find Quizmo, the InQuizitive alien, in the upper left-hand corner of the screen. Quizmo is thinking of an African animal’s common name. Guess the animal.

(This is an impossible question that we’re slipping in here, to make sure you get at least one question wrong and see what happens when you guess incorrectly. Just keep typing until you fill in the answer. You will not encounter impossible questions like this in later InQuizitive activities in your course!)

If you answer the minimum number of questions for an activity before you reach the Target Score, your initial grade will be calculated this way:

If you’ve just reached the minimum number of questions and have scored 750 points, your initial grade is .

However, if you keep answering questions and eventually reach 1,500 points, your grade will improve to , no matter how many questions it takes you to get there.

 

 

Question 15: General Questions

 

ECON 213 InQuizitive ch. 13 Liberty University Complete Answers

 

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

 

Chapter 13: Oligopoly and Strategic Behavior

Apply the correct label to each network externality or externality-related effect.

What generally causes U.S. companies in oligopoly to have similar prices?

How is oligopoly different from monopolistic competition?

The Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890 was successful enough in reducing the power of cartels and monopolies that no further legislation to curb monopoly power has ever been needed.

What must be demonstrated to prove that a company engaged in predatory pricing?

Joey and Sarah own competing cell phone companies. Using tit-for-tat strategy, describe what Joey should do if Sarah decides to change her advertising practices. Fill in the blanks to complete the passage.

Two cable companies serve a city. The companies are of comparable size and are charging the profit-maximizing price. Then Company A raises its prices.

According to the kinked demand curve theory, what will Company B do?

How could network externalities encourage monopolistic behavior? Fill in the blanks to complete the passage.

Why might it be difficult for the firms in a duopoly to form a cartel? Fill in the blanks to complete the passage.

Why would two rival airlines choose not to follow a tit-for-tat strategy to reduce or eliminate advertising?

The output in chairs per month for four firms is:

200 for firm A
300 for firm B
275 for firm C
320 for firm D

The total output of the chair industry is 2,000 chairs per month. If firms A, B, C, and D are the four largest firms in the industry, calculate the four-firm concentration ratio for the chair industry by finding out what percentage of the total output the four firms are responsible for. Round your answer to the nearest whole percent.

Three separate oligopolists in the same industry serve a city. Company A is the dominant firm in the industry and produces a large share of the total output in the industry. Companies B and C are rival firms, but they are much smaller than Company A. Company A sets its price at a level that maximizes its own profits.

According to the theory of price leadership, what will Companies B and C likely do?

When are prices higher? Order the following market scenarios from lowest price to highest price based on their descriptions.

Why might network externalities cause a new cable provider to be unsuccessful when it tries to enter the market?

Lukas owns a phone company in a city with three other phone companies. He wants to attract more customers and is considering lowering his prices to do so. According to the kinked demand curve theory, will this strategy work? Fill in the blanks to complete the passage.

Sometimes duopolists try to cooperate with one another. Match the economic phenomenon to the description that most accurately describes it.

Maddie and Gavin own competing bakeries in a small town. Maddie lowers her bakery’s prices to a point at which Gavin cannot compete, and he must go out of business. Gavin believes Maddie deliberately lowered her bakery’s prices with the intent of driving his bakery out of business. Gavin wants to file suit against Maddie. Does Gavin have a case? Fill in the blanks to complete the passage.

Match the strategy to the scenario it describes.

Match the company to the outcome of its antitrust suit.

 

 

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Question 16: General Questions

 

ECON 213 InQuizitive ch. 12 Liberty University Complete Answers

 

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

 

Chapter 12: Monopolistic Competition and Advertising

In the short run, low barriers to entry and exit allow new entrants into a monopolistically competitive market.

What are the characteristics of monopolistic competition?

Which shift in the demand curve is most likely to describe a company in a monopolistically competitive market that begins to spend more on advertising?

Which of the following are reasons a firm might choose to advertise?

For each industry, drag the label into the column of the table that describes what type of market it is.

What might be the consequences of government intervention in the bottled water industry?

Which graph likely represents a popular designer sunglasses company located in a busy, downtown shopping mall?

How does advertising affect industries in competitive markets? Fill in the blanks to complete the passage.

In monopolistically competitive markets, government regulation is always desirable because it improves efficiency.

What does a shift from point 1 to point 3 illustrate about the result of advertising in monopolistically competitive markets?

How does advertising affect consumers? Fill in the blanks to complete the passage.

In which market type(s) are individual firms likely to advertise regularly?

When are firms more efficient? Order the following firms from least efficient to most efficient.

How do the actions of the Federal Trade Commission influence advertising?

A pizza company that charges five dollars more for its pizzas than a competitor’s pizza will find it impossible to survive in a monopolistically competitive market.

Drag the industries to the graph that would best represent them.

Drag the following products to the graph that most likely illustrates their price and output.

Katy owns a monopolistically competitive firm that has many competitors that advertise. What can Katy realistically hope to achieve if she decides to advertise as well?

Match the description of the industry to the type of market in which it belongs.

What are some of the differences between a monopolistically competitive firm and a competitive firm?

Ananya is the owner of a toy store and is considering whether or not to purchase advertising for her company. The graph here illustrates the firm’s long-run average total cost curve in three different scenarios. Drag each situation to the appropriate point on the graph.

Order the industries based on increasing market power and ability to set prices, starting with the highest.

Advertising expenses occupy approximately what percentage of global economic activity?

Match each type of market to a possible incentive or disincentive for advertising in it.

Mrunal opened the first flower shop in her town. For a while, she was the only provider of flowers, until people noticed how profitable her business had been. Now several new flower shops have opened. What might happen to Mrunal’s business in the long run?

Identify each situation as either a competitive market or a monopolistically competitive market.

Fill in the blanks to describe the characteristics of monopolistic competition.

 

Question 17: Computer Science

 

There are 3 sections to this assignment- each section is a page long for total of 3 pages Please label each section APA Format for reference

Instruction

Section 1- needs to be 1 page What is change control and why does it need to be managed? Give two examples of the impact of mismanagement. Why does a network require constant monitoring to determine the percentage of its capacity being used? Explain the potential results of not monitoring capacity usage. Define bandwidth. Why does a company need standards regarding who can expand the network or add applications that require heavy bandwidth to operate? Complete the assignment in a 1- to 2-page Microsoft Word document. Cite all sources using the correct APA style. Save the document as. Section 2- needs to be 1 page Find An article advocating centralized management of the IT function and find an article on advocating user-dominated management of IT Discuss your findings in each article and present your analysis of which aspects of each method seem most beneficial to the companies mentioned overall. Section 3- needs to be 1 page Read a case a scholarly source such as Google Scholar dealing with a company’s IT strategy, the implementation of that strategy, and the way the strategy benefited the company as a whole. Analyze the case and describe how the company mentioned was able to develop a successful IT strategy. How did the company plan and implement the strategy? How is the company supported by the IT strategy? You should identify at least three scholarly and independent sources utilizing services such as (but not limited to) Google or Google Scholar over the Internet. The sources you identify should support the case you selected for the purpose of this assignment.

 

 

 

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Question 18: Business

 

Instruction

complete 3 assignments. Only have to show work or graphing if asked

 

 

  1. T/F the longer the maturity, the lower the bond duration, which measures interest rate risk.

 

 

  1. What is the value of a 5 year semi-annual pay 9% coupon bond  if rates are 9%
  2. 1000
  3. 923
  4. 928
  5. 965

 

 

You are looking to value some common stock using various valuation models and are answering the following questions:

 

  1. T/F A  company with a high growth rate will cause most valuation models to yield a higher stock price.

 

  1. T/F the higher the required return should cause an investor to pay more for a stock.

 

  1. If a firm pays a dividend this year of $3, has a growth rate of 5%, a required return on equity of 10%, what is the price of the stock

 

  1. 60
  2. 63
  3. 75
  4. 79

 

 

  1. T/F  A firm has EPS of $2 and the industry PE multiple is 18, so I should pay $36 for the stock.

 

You need to analyze some projects for a company you work for. You meet with the CFO to discuss some options.

  1. T/F If the IRR<WACC then project should be accepted

 

 

  1. A truck costs 100k and is projected to bring in cash flows of 20k per year for the first 4 years with a cash flow of 10k in year 5 with a salvage value of 15k in that same year. If the WACC is 7.5% then you should

 

  1. Reject as the NPV is a negative 21k
  2. Reject as the NPV is a negative 16k
  3. Accept as the NPV is a positive 11k
  4. Neither accept or reject

 

 

  1. You are going to receive monthly payments of 1,000 for the next 5 years. You need a lump sum however and you go to a firm that will pay you a lump sum but they need to earn 9%. How much will you receive

 

  1. 60k
  2. 11k
  3. 48k
  4. 75k

 

 

 

  1. T/F The 3 main financial statements are the income statement, balance sheet, and statement of cash flow and the balance sheet list assets and liabilities of the firm.

 

 

 

 

  1. The new firm wants to minimize fixed costs. What does this mean?
  2. This will keep operating leverage down which in turn will lower business risk
  3. This will lower financial risk which in turn lowers the risk of the firm.
  4. Higher fixed costs will leverage up returns and lower business risk
  5. Higher operating leverage is directly associated with higher financial risk.

 

  1. T/F The goal of a firm is to maximize the value of its stock and that occurs at the point where the WACC is the lowest. Debt should  have a lower cost of capital component versus equity as interest payments are tax deductible.

 

  1. T/F Capital structure refers to the % of equity and the % of debt affirm has with the goal of minimizing that cost or finding the highest WACC.

 

  1. T/F Essentially, the whole idea of valuing stocks and bonds and deciding whether or not to accept or reject capital investments (machines, a truck fleet, etc.) is to compute the present value of the cash flows.

 

 

  1. T/F A firm should pay out a dividend if they can earn a better rate of return  than the stockholder

 

  1. What is the yield to maturity of a 6% semiannual coupon bond that matures in 8 years if he pays 930?
  2. 6%
  3. 58%
  4. 16%
  5. Cannot be determined

 

 

An MRI machine has the following cash flows:

Cost: 1 million

Cash flows are 500k for 3 years

The WACC is 15%

 

  1. The IRR on this MRI machine is:
  2. 0%
  3. 4%
  4. 6%
  5. 26%

 

  1. T/F Based on the IRR decision criteria we should accept this project

 

  1. . T/F the payback under the original MRI assumptions is 3 years

 

 

  1. T/F  You are taking a take home final exam.

 

 

  1. You want to retire in 30 years and a financial planner tells you that you need 1.5 million then to live comfortably. If you have 50k to invest now and can earn 7%, how much would you have to invest annually to reach your goal?
  2. 11,850
  3. 19,908
  4. 31,250
  5. Cannot be determined

 

 

 

  1. What is the Present value (PV) of 10,000 to be received in 5 years if your required return is 6%

a.7,473

  1. 10,000
  2. 8,250
  3. 0

 

 

  1. T/F The lower the interest rate the lower the FV

 

  1. T/F The higher the required return the lower the PV

 

  1. T/F Companies raise capital by issuing stocks and bonds, which is why the equation

assets =  liabilities +equity holds true

 

  1. T/F General obligation muni bonds are backed by the full faith and credit of the issuing state
  2. T/F U.S. treasury securities have credit risk
  3. T/F A corporate bond will have some degree of risk premium or credit spread over U.S Treasury bonds to compensate for risk.
  4. The PV of a semi-annual 6% bond that matures in 5 years if market interest rates are now 5% is:
  5. $1,000
  6. $1,050.32
  7. $1,43.76
  8. Cannot be determined

 

 

  1. The YTM of a bonds purchased at $950 with a semi-annual coupon of 7% and a $1,000 par that matures in 4 years is:
  2. $1,000

b.6.25%

  1. 4.25%
  2. 8.5%

 

 

You are looking at some stocks to value using different valuation models and come across the following questions:

 

11.T/F the higher the growth rate and the lower the discount rate, the higher the price using the dividend discount model or PV of FCF model

 

  1. A stock with next year’s dividend of $2 and a growth rate of 4% and a cost of equity of 9% has an intrinsic value of:
  2. 42
  3. 40
  4. 23
  5. 50

 

 

  1. T/F If a firm has cash flows of 500 million and the growth rate of the cash flow is 5% with a required return of 10%, the value of operations is a little over 10 billion

 

14.T/F  A stock that has a PE multiple of 15 and earnings of 2 per shares should trade at 7.5.

 

15.T/F   A company with a high PE multiple may not be overvalued if they have a high growth rate.

 

  1. T/F The goal of the firm is not to maximize its stock price.

 

17 . T/F  The common stockholders are the owners of the firm and they elect the company board of directors who in turn appoint the officers of the firm

 

 

 

Question 1 (Chapter 14: EVM)

At a certain point in your project, you did a performance measurement and found the following results:

PV = $500,000 EV = $350,000
AC = $550,000 BAC = $1,200,000

 

  1. Calculate the schedule variance (SV)
  2. Calculate cost variance (CV)
  3. Calculate schedule performance index (SPI)
  4. Calculate cost performance index (CPI)
  5. Calculate estimate at completion (EAC)
  6. What do those numbers tell you? What do you think you should do?

 

Question 2

Given the following information for a one-year project, answer the following questions. Recall that PV is the planned value, EV is the earned value, AC is the actual cost, and BAC is the budget at completion.

PV = $23,000
EV = $20,000
AC = $25,000
BAC = $120,000

  1. What is the cost variance, schedule variance, cost performance index (CPI), and schedule performance index (SPI) for the project?
  2. How is the project doing? Is it ahead of schedule or behind schedule? Is it under budget or over budget?

III. Use the CPI to calculate the estimate at completion (EAC) for this project. Is the project performing better or worse than planned?

  1. Use the SPI to estimate how long it will take to finish this project.

 

 

 

 

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Question 19: Other

 

Crisis Counselling

 

 

Assignment #2: The Connection between Trauma and Crisis or Crisis Prevention

Format: essay (8-10 pages)                       Value: 20%           Due: see outline

Students will prepare a research paper on their choice of two questions:

Either 1) what is the connection between trauma and crisis? Or 2) Crisis Prevention with a target population or issue.

 

Choice #1: What is the connection between trauma and crisis? Here students will use the Herman text from their Trauma theory and practice course as well as course material from this course, and put them in conversation with one another to answer this question. No external sources are required for this paper – just the Herman text and CMH 481 course materials.

 

Choice #2: Students are to use a combination of and minimum of four scholarly and grey sources to prepare a research paper focusing on crisis prevention with a particular population or issue of their choice, for example, crisis prevention regarding suicidal thoughts or behaviour, or crisis prevention on a community level.

 

Evaluation Rubric:

Criteria Points/percentage of overall
Quality of understanding of course materials and themes related to question (choice 1) OR of the scholarly research sources (choice 2) 6
Direct integration of course materials & Herman text (choice 1) OR scholarly sources (choice 2) 6
Analysis/creativity in responding to questions/topic of assignment 4
Professional presentation requirements 4

 

 

 

 

Question 20: General

 

You will be assigned a forensic psychology case to analyze. In order to complete it successfully, you must follow the attach outline precisely. Keep in mind that your Forensic Case Study is written in an outline format, the narrative and reference sheet must adhere to APA style. Also, notice that you will need to include legal AND social science research articles in you paper. It is just as important to describe the behavioral science research behind the psychological issues in the case as it is to explain the legal aspects of it. CASE: Spruce v. Sargent failure to protect inmate liability

 

 

Writing the Forensic Case Study

Start with the case as the title of your report:

Case Citation Example:  Myers v. United States, 272 U.S. 52, 135 (1926)

Followed by your name.

 

The body of the report should be written in outline structure: 1., 2., 3., etc. in which each number provides a specific set of information as detailed below.  Most report outlines will not be more than 5 pages long, not counting the reference page.

 

  1. Facts of the Case: Pinpoint the determinative facts of a case, ie., those that make a difference in the outcome. You goal here is to be able to briefly tell the story of the case without missing any pertinent information but also not including too many extraneous facts either.  Above all, make sure you have clearly identified the main players.  State the parties’ names and positions in the case (Plaintiff/Defendant or Appellee/Appellant, and victims or agencies involved).

 

  1. Forensic Psychology or Scientific Issue Presented: Formulate the main legal issues and forensic psychology questions embedded in the case.  Write them in the form of questions.  For example, “What is the level of competence needed to stand trial when the defendant is mentally retarded?”  Later you will need to explain how are these issues are argued in the case, so clearly stating the question(s) will make writing that section easier.

 

  1. Review of Literature: What does the scientific research say about these issues?   Like any other research paper, conduct a brief review of literature to see what professional journals say the issue at the heart of the legal question. What does behavioral science know about this issue?  For example, when the legal question is the competence of a mentally retarded defendant, you would need to find three or four research articles describing the cognitive capacities or limitations of individuals with intellectual deficiencies.   Are there a lot of differing opinions or conflicting research results?  Is this an issue with little scientific information about it?  If there is a clear consensus of professional opinion, what is it?

 

  1. Court Decision: What was the judgment in this case?  Who did the judge or jury decide was right?   If the opinion says, “We hold…” that’s the majority opinion.  Just state the decision in a sentence or two.

 

  1. Rule of Law: What was the legal standard that comes out of this case?  In some cases this will be clearer than others, but basically you want to identify the principle of law on which the judge or jury is basing the resolution of the case.  This rule of law will be used in future cases to make judgments.  For example, the Rule of Law in Miranda v. Arizona is that ‘evidence obtained by police in a custodial interrogation of a suspect is not admissible in court to prove guilt unless the suspect was given warnings about his constitutional rights.  Those rights included….’

In other words, state why this case is important.

 

  1. Reasoning: What were the judges’ reasons for deciding the case the way they did?  How were the issues argued?  There may be dissenting opinions as well, which is important to state why some judges disagreed.  Did the majority opinion consider the scientific research or expert opinions in reaching their decision?  If not, why did they disregard with the experts or best practice evidence?  Remember, legal facts are different from scientific facts.  What were the facts that persuaded the court to make their decision?

 

  1. Reference Sheet: APA style

Depending on the case, your paper will be anywhere from 5-6 pages.  Make sure you use APA format in the body of the paper as well as in the Reference pages.  Please review the rubric for the best outcome.

 

 

Question 21: Computer Science

 

 

Instruction

Read the assignment. show all the calculations

 

 

 

 

ASSIGNMENT – 2

NOTE: Please Show all the calculations Deadline: OCTOBER, 21, 2019
1) [9 points] Find the eight bit 2’s complementary representation for the following

decimal numbers:
a) 121 b) -121 c) 54

2) [3 points] Is there a relationship between EBCDIC character representation of the decimal digits from 0 to 9 and their BCD representation? Explain.

3) [5 points] Consider a hypothetical computer system. A 12-bit memory space is used for a sign-and-magnitude representation of integers with BCD and the sign is stored in MSB. What is the range of signed integers in base 10 that can be represented? Explain.

4) [18 points] Consider the two following decimal numbers: 15,675 and -8,741
a) Convert these numbers to 9’s complement five-digit representation and show

all the steps

  1. b) Find the sum of the two numbers in 9’s complement arithmetic showing all the steps and convert the sum back to decimal
  2. c) Was there a carry or overflow condition in your calculation? Explain
  3. d) Convert the initial two numbers to 10’s complement representation and show all the steps
  4. e) Find the sum of the two numbers in 10’s complement arithmetic showing all the steps and convert the sum back to decimal
  5. f) Compare the two procedures and explain the difference of addition in 9’s and 10’s complement. Which one is easier to implement?

5) [6 points] Provide the Packed Decimal representation of the following decimal numbers:

  1. a) -76 b) 4389 c) -5005

6) [6 points] What number is represented in 9’s complement by:
a) 4987 (four-digit 9′ complement representation) b)

836 (three-digit 9′ complement representation)

7) [6 points] Perform the calculation 95.675 + 0.95675 using the decimal floating point representation SEEMMMMM, where S is the sign (0 for “plus”, 1 for “minus”), EE is the decimal exponent in excess-50 notation and MMMMM is the five-digit mantissa. Show all steps and explain the result.

8) [18 points] Convert the following binary numbers to floating-point format using single-precision IEEE 754 format.

Convert your answer to hexadecimal format.
a) 11001.0101 b) -101.111101 c) -0.0101001

9) [21 points] Convert the following hexadecimal numbers to floating-point format using single-precision IEEE 754

format. Convert your answer to hexadecimal format.
a) 251D b) -B26.9 c) -0.00A5

10) [7 points] Convert the following decimal number to floating-point format using single-precision IEEE 754

format. Express your answer in hexadecimal format. Do the conversions with 8 bits of precision in the

mantissa. -23.103

11) [21 points] The following numbers are in IEEE 754 single-precision floating- point format. What decimal numbers

do they represent?
a) C4C2E00016 b) 483C540016 c) BEF8000016

12) [3 points] Define or explain briefly: normalization of a floating point number.

13) [2 points] True or False: Double precision floating point format can store all real numbers in the range 2-126 to 2127.

14) [1 point] True or False: In one’s binary complement, negative numbers are represented by themselves.

15) [2 points] In the IEEE 754 format, the exponents 0 and 255 are used to represent special values.

16) [2 points] A number of magnitude too large to be stored in a computer is an example of what condition?

 

 

 

 

 

Question 22: Education

 

Final Essay Instructions

Congratulations on reaching the capstone assignment for EDUC 200.  The goal of this essay is to combine the major learning objectives of this course into a single reflection document that is personalized for each student.  By now you should be able to determine some of the rewards and challenges the education profession presents. Imagine that you are interviewing for a job.  How would you professionally describe the rewards and challenges you may encounter?  Use first person, “I”, as you write your essay to respond to the principal in the interview.

 

Note the following requirements:

  • You will write a 800 word essay in response to the given prompt
  • The essay must be written in current APA format and include a title page, main body, and reference page.
  • It must also include a minimum of 3 in-text citations from the textbook in current APA format. See APA Basics in the Instructions section for specific guidelines.
  • The main body must include an introductory paragraph, body paragraphs and a conclusion paragraph.
    • The introductory paragraph should have strong hook or attention grabbing statement to draw the reader into the paper. A position or thesis statement should name the chosen rewards and challenges.
    • The body paragraphs should describe the 3 potential rewards and 3 potential challenges with two or more details to support each reward or challenge.
    • The conclusion should summarize the paper and restate the position or thesis statement from the introduction.
  • The essay must be submitted through Blackboard. Please consult a copy of the assignment rubric in Blackboard for a detailed description of expectations and grading criteria.

 

Final Essay Question:

You have decided to apply for your first teaching position. The principal seated across from you asks this question: “What are 3 rewards and 3 challenges that you will face as a teacher?”

 

Question 23: General

 

philosophical/theoretical basis of the Abeka curriculum. i need one page that has to include three theorist such as JOHN DEWEY, vYGOTSKY, PIAGET OR HOWARD GARDENER

 

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History 1301 signature assignment

HISTORY Signature Writing Assignment

Step 1: View the Power Point Lesson for the “Overview for Primary Source Documents” provided by the Library of Congress which describes primary and secondary sources. This step is VITAL!

Step 2: After viewing the lesson, pick out a primary source that you find interesting. For the purpose of this course, students are required to pick out a letter, speech, or diary entry. Use one (1)
single artifact rather than a collection of artifacts. The primary source must be something that is covered in this course. For HIST 1301, this can be anything from Christopher Columbus to the Civil War/Reconstruction. For HIST 1302, this can be anything after the Civil War up to the last chapter that is covered in the book.

In addition, students must use a secondary source that backs up or provides information to clarify information in the primary source. An example of this would be if a student chooses a letter written by Thomas Jefferson to James Madison, a secondary source that gives information about who James Madison was and a little bit of background information about him would meet the requirements. One secondary source is required, but students can use more than one. Please see the information after the Power Point about Primary and Secondary sources to find out more information about finding a Primary Source. Primary sources can be found using the sources provided on the following page.

Step 3: After a primary source and secondary source(s) is chosen, students can begin to write the paper by answering the 10 questions below. The finished product should be a formal paper that is 3 pages MINIMUM (750 words) written in essay style, NOT in a numbered list (minimal work will get a minimal grade). Reviews are to be doubled-spaced in Microsoft Word format utilizing MLA format and must include in-page citations. Reviews should be composed in Times New Roman 12 point font.

Taking into consideration the information presented in the Overview of Primary Source Documents lesson: Address the following points in your review:

  1. Who wrote the document? Until you know this you know little about the document. Sometimes you can figure this out from the document itself. Was the author a political or private individual? Was he educated or not?
  2. Who was the intended audience/who was the letter or speech written to? This will tell you about the author’s use of language and the knowledge that he assumed on the part of the reader.
  3. What is the story line? What is going on in the document?
  4. Why was the document written? Everything is written for a reason. Is it just a random note, or a

scholarly thesis?

  1. What type of document is this, or what is its purpose? A newspaper article is different than a diary.

Thus, one can expect to extract different kinds of information from different kinds of documents. A

private letter to a friend is very different from a political letter written to discuss governmental matters.

  1. What are the basic assumptions made by the author? For example, did the author assume that the

reader could understand certain foreign or engineering terms?

  1. Can you believe this document? Is it reliable? Is it likely? This should be more than a yes or no answer.

What makes it believable or not?

  1. What can you learn about the society that produced this document? All documents reveal information

about the people who produced them. It is embedded in the language and assumptions of the
text. Your task is to learn how to “read,” or analyze, a document to extract information about a society. You might wish to analyze each document in terms of various aspects of a society (economic, political, religion, social structure, culture, etc.).

  1. What is the importance of this document to history? Everything can be considered important even if it is not important for political or governmental purposes. Does it shed light on what life was like during the time period it was written? Does it demonstrate views of the world from a time long ago? Etc.
  2. Finally, What does this document mean to you? If you answer nothing, you will lose a whole letter grade. You are the one picking out the sources, so pick something that you find interesting that means something to you. Tell me why it means something to you and why you picked it.

Step 4: Submit the assignment through Canvas. Do not send the assignment via email. Submit your Signature Assignment paper in MICROSOFT WORD format. Please understand that all papers WILL be

Signature Assignment paper in MICROSOFT WORD format. Please understand that all papers WILL be checked for plagiarism before grading.

Question 25: Law

 

International Justice System- Generally, as we have learned earlier in the semester, substantive law refers to how crime and punishment are defined, and that each of the four legal traditions do share some characteristics of substantive law. Similarly, each of the four legal traditions differ from each other with respect to substantive law. As such, 1) Briefly summarize how each of the four legal traditions are similar in defining criminal responsibility, and 2) Briefly summarize how each of the four legal traditions differ in defining criminal responsibility

 

 

Question 26: General

 

A paper on the Congress. (Theses Question) – If you were serving in Congress, would you tend to follow the instructed delegate model of representation or the trustee model? Why? What might be the likely outcome of your choice? has to be in apa format 5 pages double~ spaced, cover page, twelve font.

 

 

Question 27: Education

 

Create a lesson plan on the book :Whistle for Willie By Ezra Jack Keats. It’s a very short book maybe you can check it out from the library like I did. Its a childrens multicultural book, or maybe there is a way you can read it online. follow the format of the example I attached for you below

Instruction

AUTHOR STUDY LESSON PLANS AND FOCUS UNIT (Critical Assignment)As a reflective decision-maker, the student is capable of researching an author of children’s literature and make informed decisions concerning appropriate lessons and content connections involving the author’s work. Objectives: 1) research and collect information about a children’s literature author; 2) create activities for a balanced literacy classroom; and 3) link learning activities to the Common Core State Standards for a selected grade level.Corresponding FL-FAU READING Performance Indicator(s) for the Reading Endorsement: 1.A.5: Identify cognitive targets (e.g. 8locate/recall, integrate/interpret, critique/evaluate) and the role of cognitive development in the construction of meaning of literary and informational texts; 1.A.7: Understand the reading demands posed by domain specific texts; 1.A.8: Understand that effective comprehension processes rely on well developed language, strong inference making, background knowledge, comprehension monitoring and self-correcting

 

 

 

 

FAU MODIFIED LESSON PLAN FORMAT

LAE 4353 Professor Oetinger – Kenski

Fall 2019

 

 

Teacher:______________________________________ Date: _________________________

 

Book Title: ___________________________ ____           Grade Level: ____________________

 

Author:____________________________Illustrator: __________________________________

 

Publisher and Copyright Date: ____________________________________________________

 

Culture(s) Represented: ________________________________________________ _________

 

 

  1. Instructional Objective(s)/Outcomes: Indicate what is to be learned.

Please include 1-2 “I Can” Statements and 1 Essential Question.

 

 

 

Standards/Objective:

 

Choose two Florida Language Arts Standards (LAFS) in one of the categories listed below. Use the following website: http://www.fldoe.org/pdf/lafs.pdf. These standards are based on the national Common Core State Standards: www.corestandards.org.

 

You may choose from the following categories:

Reading: Literature                                      Reading: Informational Text

Reading: Foundational Skills                       Writing

Speaking and Listening                                Language

 

 

 

  1. Instructional Procedures: Indicate how you intend to sequence the activities in the lesson from initiation to closure (based on the LAFS reading standards) and what prior knowledge students have to have in order to be successful. Estimate the time necessary to complete each major component of the lesson.

Please include the necessary components of a Balanced Literacy Block, within Sections A – C.

 

 

 

  1. Initiating activities: Time = __________________

 

 

 

  1. Core Activities: Time = _____________________

 

 

 

 

  1. Closure Activities: Time = ____________________

 

 

 

 

  1. Adaptations for ESOL and ESE:

 

 

 

 

  1. Classroom management plan:

 

 

 

 

  • Materials and Equipment: List all books, materials, and equipment to be used by both the teacher and the learner.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Assessment/Evaluation: Identify the techniques used in determining to what extent the students have attained the instructional objectives. For your Author Study lesson plan, you will need to create a rubric. You may use the rubistar4teachers.com website. Attach the rubric to your lesson plan. Your assessment must match at least one of the reading standards you selected for your before, during and after language arts activities.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Follow-up Activities or Extensions: Plan three activities across the curriculum.  You should include one activity for integrating literacy with the arts (visual arts, dance or movement, drama, or music) and one activity that includes writing.  The third activity should be connected to reading in the content areas: social studies or geography, science, or math.  These activities should be different from the ones used previously in the lesson.

 

A.

 

 

B.

 

 

C.

 

 

 

  1. References

APA format

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  • Summary of Feedback from Peers

 

 

 

 

 

  • Revisions to Lesson Based on Peer Suggestions

 

 

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Question 28: General

 

Co-op Letter of Intent Requirements The letter of intent is meant to demonstrate your suitability for the Co-operative Education Program. It is a very important factor in your admission decision. The strength of your letter is based on a number of factors including basic writing skills, spelling, grammar, format, and interest in Co-op. Maximum 1-page single spaced: Professional business letter format Your letter must confirm you understand the Co-op program Please discuss why you are interested in joining the Co-op program, and what you hope to gain from your involvement with the program Spelling and grammar reflect your attention to detail Poor written communication skills could result in your application not being considered

 

Question 29: Computer Science

 

Instruction

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words: 1) Explain the benefits a recursive algorithm can provide. and 2) Provide an example from a process in your organization or with which you are familiar. #Demonstrate how to apply recursion concepts as they relate to an organization’s data system.

 

Question 30: Finance

 

Assignment Questions Q1. From the information given below: (10 Marks) a. Prepare a balance sheet b. Net working capital Q2 From the information given above, prepare (a) the income statement, and (b) the common-sized income statement. Q3. Prepare a statement of cash flows from the following list of items. Q4. Calculate the following ratios from the Balance Sheet and the Income Statement of Saudi Manufacturing Corporation given below: (5 Marks) a. Current Ratio b. Debt Ratio c. Fixed asset turnover d. Total asset turnover e. Operating profit margin

 

 

 

Assignment No. 1

Course: Principles of Finance

(FIN101)

Student name:

 

Academic Year:1440-1441 H Student ID:

 

Semester: 1st Student grade:    / 30
CRN: Level of the marks:

 

 

  • This Assignment must be submitted on Blackboard (WORD format only) via the allocated folder.
  • Email submission will not be accepted.
  • You are advised to make your work clear and well-presented; marks may be reduced for poor presentation. This includes filling your information on the cover page.
  • Assignment will be evaluated through BB Safe Assign tool.
  • Late submission will result in ZERO marks being awarded.
  • The work should be your own, copying from students or other resources will result in ZERO marks.
  • Use Times New Roman font 12 for all your answers.

 

 

 

 

Assignment Questions

Q1. From the information given below: (10 Marks)

  1. Prepare a balance sheet
  2. Net working capital
Cash 100,000
Account receivables 72,000
Accounts payable 48,000
Short-term notes payable 35,000
Inventories 70,000
Gross fixed assets 1,750,000
Common stock 680,000
Other current assets 10,000
Accumulated depreciation 524,000
Long-term debt 350,000
Other assets 25,000
Retained earnings ?

 

Q2.                                                                            (10 Marks)

Sales $525,000
Cost of goods sold $200,000
General and administrative expenses $62,000
Depreciation expenses 8,000
Interest expense 12,000
Income taxes 97,200
 

From the information given above, prepare

(a) the income statement, and

(b) the common-sized income statement.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q3.   Prepare a statement of cash flows from the following list of items. (5 Marks)

 

Increase in inventories 22,000
Operating income 625,000
Dividends 55,000
Increase in accounts payables 92,500
Interest expense 118,000
Increase in common stock 22,000
Depreciation expense 48,000
Increase in accounts receivable 210,000
Increase in long-term debt 145,000
Increase in short-term notes payable 36,500
Increase in gross fixed assets 144,000
Increase in paid in capital 60,000
Income taxes 202,000
Beginning cash 700,000

 

Q4. Calculate the following ratios from the Balance Sheet and the Income Statement of Saudi Manufacturing Corporation given below:  (5 Marks)

  1. Current Ratio
  2. Debt Ratio
  3. Fixed asset turnover
  4. Total asset turnover
  5. Operating profit margin

 

Balance Sheet:
Cash 30,000
Acct/Rec 72,500
Inventories 50,000
   Current assets 152,500
Net fixed assets 240,000
   Total assets 392,500
Accts/Pay 44,500
Accrued expenses 31,000
Short-term N/P 9,500
   Current liabilities 85,000
Long-term debt 110,000
Owner’s equity 197,500
   Total liabilities and owners equity 392,500
Income Statement:
Net sales 450,000
COGS 220,000
   Gross profit 230,000
Operating expenses 128,000
   Net operating income 102,000
Interest expense 18,500
   EBT 83,500
Income taxes 33,000
   Net income 50,500

 

 

 

 

Question 31: Business

 

Essay must be on Coca-Cola Company. Your essay should be two to three pages in length, double-spaced,the title and reference pages do not count towards the minimum page length.

Instruction

For this essay, you will conduct research on corporate strategies and the affect they have on the decision process. Use the same company you chose in Unit II. As you explore the decision process, consider how corporate strategies influence these decisions. In your essay, address the following questions: What is a functional strategy? What are stability strategies in business? What are the pros and cons of these strategies? What are competitive and cooperative strategies? What are the tradeoffs (pros and cons) between an internal and an external growth strategy? Which approach is best as an international strategy? Why? What about retrenchment? Your essay should be two to three pages in length, double-spaced, and in 12 pt. Times New Roman font. The title and reference pages do not count towards the minimum page length. To complete this assignment, a minimum of two reputable sources must be used, cited, and referenced. At least one reference must come from the CSU Online Library. Use APA style guidelines.

 

 

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Question 32: Psychology

 

Write a 500-750-word paper discussing process addictions. Include the following in your paper:

Instruction

A definition of process addiction A description of criteria similarities for substance use disorders and process addiction A description of the differences between process addictions and substance use disorders Include a minimum of two scholarly references in addition to the textbook in your paper. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, An abstract is not required. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. You are required to submit this assignment to Lopes Write.

 

 

Question 33: Business

 

Your task is to research a company that is using digital technologies to transform the workplace and critically examine how it has changed employment and occupations.

 

Instruction

 

You should provide enough evidence to answer the question: do you think this company has shown leadership in the way it has implemented technology driven change? Answering this question should include consideration of things like: an overview of the company and its transformation process; how this transformation process has changed employment in the company; any information that the company has made available about the rationale for its business model transformation using new technologies; and coverage in the media about the experience of the change process, such as by workers or interviews with company leaders. Word count: 3,000 words (+/- 10%) 8 References minimum (including 2 academic sources – consult the topic Readings) Harvard Weighting: 50% of final grade Graduate Qualities being assessed in this assignment: •GQ1: Are knowledgeable •GQ2: Can apply their knowledge •GQ3: Communicate effectively •GQ4: Can work independently •GQ6: Value ethical behaviour

 

 

 

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Question 1: General Question

 

NSG 6001 Midterm Exam (Latest): South University (Already graded A)

NSG 6001 Midterm Exam (Latest): South University (Already graded A)

 

Question 2: General Question

 

BUSI 400 Individual Assignment 3 Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

 

Which of the following is a value driver that Mont Blanc’s managers are NOT likely to focus on in pursuing the company’s strategy?

When a company like Bic releases a new product to its core consumer group, it must be sure to satisfy which aspect?

Companies that focus on a product’s functional demands drives are likely to pursue a(n) ______ strategy, while those that focus on customers’ social and emotional needs in addition to the product’s functional aspect use a(n) ______ strategy.

As discussed in the case, how many different models of the Mini are now available?

Which of the following was NOT a way that BMW was able to create the premium compact car niche?

Who is Mini’s top competitor?

What was Mini’s growth between 2011 and 2012?

The economic crisis sent the European market for full-featured automobiles ________.

What is the most likely reason that Renault’s strategy might fail to result in a sustainable competitive advantage?

Renault’s low-priced, no-frills cars can be seen as a form of ________.

Which of Michael Porter’s generic strategies did Renault primarily pursue after the economic crisis?

The traditional approach to strategic control is sequential. Which of the following is not one of the steps in the sequence?

For businesses facing complex and turbulent business environments, which of the following is true?

Contemporary approaches to strategic control rely primarily on

Informational control systems are concerned with which of the following questions?

As firms simultaneously downsize and face the need for increased coordination across organizational boundaries, a control system based primarily on ______________ is dysfunctional.

The primary participants in corporate governance do not include the

In order to minimize the temptation for managers to act in their own self-interest, governance mechanisms exist for implementation consideration. Which of the following is not a primary means for monitoring managerial behavior?

Sales quotas, operating budgets, and production schedules are examples of traditional controls.

Once a strong and healthy organizational culture has been established, it becomes self-sustaining.

 

 

 

Question 3: General Question

 

BUSI 400 Individual Assignment 2 Liberty University Complete Answers


The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

 

  1. Complete Chapter 3 Summary Review Questions: 1, 6, & 7 found on page 97.

SWOT analysis is a technique to analyze the internal and external environments of a firm. What are its advantages and disadvantages?

What are the advantages and disadvantages of conducting a financial ratio analysis of a firm?

Summarize the concept of the balanced scorecard. What are its main advantages?

  1. Complete Chapter 3 Application Questions & Exercises: #2 found on page 98. Use Exhibit 3.8 found on page 91 to complete the 19 financial ratios for Campbell Soup (Case #15 – p. C91-C101). Use the financial information located on C98-C100 to calculate each ratio.
  2. Complete Chapter 4 Experiential Exercise found on page 132. *Pfizer Table
  3. Place the results of the exercise(s) in a single document and submit it via the link provided. Include your name, class, section number, and the number of the exercise(s) on the attachment. Restate each question prior to answering it. Be sure that the assignment is in a business-professional format; include current APA citing and referencing.

 

Question 4: General Question

 

BUSI 400 Individual Assignment 1 Liberty University Complete Answers


The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

 

Complete Chapter 1 Summary Review Questions: 1 & 2 on textbook page 30.

How is “strategic management” defined in the text, and what are its four key attributes? See pp. 6-8 in your textbook.

Briefly discuss the three key activities in the strategic management process. Why is it important for managers to recognize the interdependent nature of these activities? See pp. 9-13 in your textbook.

Complete Chapter 2 Summary Review Questions: 1, 3, & 5 on textbook page 65.

Why must managers be aware of a firm’s external environment?

Discuss and describe the six elements of the external environment.

 

Describe how the five forces can be used to determine the average expected profitability in an industry.

Complete Application Question & Exercise: 4 on textbook page 66.

Go to the Internet and look up www.kroger.com. What are some of the five forces driving industry competition that are affecting the profitability of this firm?

Place the results of the exercise(s) in a single document and submit it via the link provided. Include your name, class, section number, and the number of the exercise(s) on the attachment. Restate each question prior to answering it. Be sure that the assignment is in a business-professional format; include current APA citing and referencing.

 

 

 

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Question 5: Physics

 

3.5. A laminated toroidal iron core has a mean magnetic path of diameter 15 cm and relative permeability 1000. The core has a circular cross-section of diameter 2 cm and a coil with 100 turns. The flux density in the core is 1T. Calculate

(a)        the value of magnetic  field     strength           H         in         the       core
(b)        the       required           coil      mmf.
(c)        the       coil      current
(d)       the       coil      flux
(e)        the       coil      flux      linkage
(f) the coil inductance from the coil flux-linkage

 

Question 6: Physics

 

  • Discuss the differences between inductive and deductive methods of science
  • Elaborate on how they are involved in technology.
  • What is grounded theory?
  • The general rules to follow to apply the inductive and deductive method to technology
  • Approaches to follow to make the inductive and deductive methods successful

 

 

Question 7: Sociology

 

What are the various programs conducted by the National Cancer Institute (NCI) and Media Campaign Resource Centers to prevent teenage cigarette smoking?

 

Question 8: Sociology

 

How does the caste culture in India work? Is it still being used? Bad effects of the caste system. Good effects of the caste system

 

Question 9: Architecture

 

INF3703 ASSIGNMENT (2)2019 SEM 1-PROJECT

INF3703 ASSIGNMENT 2 Semester 1 Updated 2019

 

Question 10: English

 

Week Four Discussion Board Thread Instructions

$12 Summaries

With each word being worth 10 cents, write four $12 summaries of the reading from any four of the following chapters in Everyday Bible Study:

  • Observe: How to Make Accurate Observations
  • How to Use Multiple Translations of the Bible
  • How to Ask Key Questions
  • Interpret: How to Find the Meaning of the Bible
  • Correlate: How to Connect Scripture to Other Scriptures
  • Correlate: How to See Jesus in the Bible
  • Apply: How to Live Out What You Learn
  • How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 1: Law
  • How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 2: Narrative
  • How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 3: Wisdom and Poetry
  • How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 4: Prophetic Literature

This means that in this assignment you are developing four summaries of 120 words each (one for each of the four chapters you selected). You should aim to create four summaries where each summary is between 100-120 words. Each of your summaries should not exceed the 120-word or $12 limit. For an example of this type of thread, please see the provided example in the Course Content folder.

 

Week Five Discussion Board Response Post Instructions

Once you have completed the necessary textbook reading in Everyday Bible Study, select two threads you wish to reply to and address your classmates’ thoughts and ideas. The goal of these two posts is to build on the material provided by your classmates. Thus, responses that simply affirm the thread material are not sufficient. The content of each reply must reflect an excellent knowledge of the textbook reading and interact with both the thread and relevant chapter material. You must support your thoughts and ideas by implementing at least one significant quote from Everyday Bible Study. Each response post should be at least 200 words in length.

 

Question 11: Business

 

Wk 5   :Discussion

 

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

 

  • Think about your current or previous organization. What are some of the retention strategies that worked? What did not work so well?

 

 

Question 12: Business

 

Case study week 5

 

  1. Resources: Strategic Staffing, Appendix Strategic Staffing at Chern’s: A Case Study and Strategic Staffing, Ch. 12; Downsizing Strategy Grading Guide
  2. Read the Strategic Staffing at Chern’s: A Case Study on page 383 in the appendix of Strategic Staffing.
  3. Develop a 350-word downsizing strategy to reduce the number of sales associates by 15%.

 

 

Question 13: Education

 

INF 1511 Semester 1, Assignment 4  2019 / INF1511 Semester 1, Assignment 4  2019

 

 

Question 14: Education

 

INF3703 ASSIGNMENT 3 Semester 1 2019 / ASSIGNMENT 03 COMPULSORY

 

 

Question 15: General Question

 

BUSI 400 Learnsmart Chapter 12 Liberty University Complete Answers


The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

 

Which of the following questions would help assess the effectiveness of a corporation’s venturing initiatives?

Which of the following are some guidelines for successfully competing in dynamic markets with high technology uncertainty?

Which of the following statements regarding the application of real options analysis to strategic decision making are true?

Which of the following are the two stages new venture concepts must pass in order to get off the ground?

Which of the following statements about managers being able to develop innovative products and services are correct?

Which of the following affect whether a typical company will pursue entrepreneurial projects?

Which of the following statements regarding the building capabilities versus collaborating challenges to innovation are true?

Which of the following statements regarding the internal versus external staffing challenges to innovation are correct?

Which of the following refers to a firm-specific view of innovation that defines how a firm can create new knowledge and learn from an innovation initiative even if the project fails?

Biases, blind spots, and other human frailties that lead to poor managerial decisions fall under the concept of ___.

In companies with many innovative ideas, deciding which ideas to cultivate and which to cast aside is known as .

Which of the following are examples of staffing practices for innovation that are counterproductive?

Which of the following are functions or services that business incubators provide start-up companies?

Which of the following statements regarding the incremental versus preemptive launch challenges to innovation are correct?

____ are groups of individuals or a division within a corporation that identifies, evaluates, and cultivates venture opportunities.

Corporate entrepreneurship in which a dedication to the principles and policies of entrepreneurship is spread throughout the organization is known as the ___ to corporate entrepreneurship.

A sustaining innovation is a type of disruptive innovation.

Which of the following regarding the challenges to innovation of experience versus initiative are correct?

Disruptive innovations appeal to less demanding customers who want more convenient and less expensive solutions.

Which of the following is the approach to corporate venturing in which corporate entrepreneurship activities are isolated from a firm’s existing operations and worked on by independent work units?

Which of the following refers to a willingness to introduce novelty through experimentation and creative processes aimed at developing new products and services as well as new processes?

Which of the following statements about the seeds versus weeds challenge to innovation are correct?

Companies are often reluctant to invest time and other resources into activities with an unknown future.

Which of the following refers to the strategy-making practices that businesses use in identifying and launching new ventures consisting of autonomy, innovativeness, proactiveness, competitive aggressiveness, and risk taking?

Which of the following refers to a willingness to act independently in order to carry forward an entrepreneurial vision or opportunity?

 

 

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Question 16: General Question

 

BUSI 400 Individual Assignment 1 Liberty University Complete Answers


The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

 

Complete Chapter 1 Summary Review Questions: 1 & 2 on textbook page 30.

How is “strategic management” defined in the text, and what are its four key attributes? See pp. 6-8 in your textbook.

Briefly discuss the three key activities in the strategic management process. Why is it important for managers to recognize the interdependent nature of these activities? See pp. 9-13 in your textbook.

Complete Chapter 2 Summary Review Questions: 1, 3, & 5 on textbook page 65.

Why must managers be aware of a firm’s external environment?

Discuss and describe the six elements of the external environment.

 

Describe how the five forces can be used to determine the average expected profitability in an industry.

Complete Application Question & Exercise: 4 on textbook page 66.

Go to the Internet and look up www.kroger.com. What are some of the five forces driving industry competition that are affecting the profitability of this firm?

Place the results of the exercise(s) in a single document and submit it via the link provided. Include your name, class, section number, and the number of the exercise(s) on the attachment. Restate each question prior to answering it. Be sure that the assignment is in a business-professional format; include current APA citing and referencing.

 

 

Question 17: General Question

 

BUSI 400 Learnsmart Chapter 9 Liberty University Complete Answers


The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

 

Which of the following actions that can have a positive influence on the dynamics of the boards of directors?

 

Rule-based controls are most appropriate for organizations that have which of the following?

 

Which of the following statements are true regarding the role that good corporate governance plays on the decision to invest in companies?

 

Which of the following statements regarding controls in a bureaucratic organization are correct?

 

Principal-principal conflicts are conflicts between controlling shareholders and __ shareholders.

 

Which of the following has a fiduciary duty to ensure that the company is run consistently with the long-term interests of the business owners or shareholders and to act as an intermediary between the shareholders and management?

 

Which of the following are ways that a board of directors an incentivize managers to make decisions that are in the company’s shareholders’ interest?

 

Which of the following are reasons for emphasizing both culture and rewards in a system of behavior controls?

 

When controlling shareholders conduct activities that enrich the controlling shareholders at the expense of the minority shareholders, they are engaging in ______.

 

The risk of being acquired by a hostile raider is often referred to as the __ and deters opportunistic behavior by management.

 

A set of firms that, though legally independent, are bound together by informal and formal ties and are accustomed to taking coordinated action are known as __.

 

The board of directors functions as a “go between” for the .

 

Which of the following are steps that organizations can take to evolve the organization from boundaries to rewards and culture?

 

Research of boards of directors shows that simple restrictions, such as a requirement that a majority of the board members be outside directors, is enough to make the operations of the board effective.

 

The control process that continuously updates and challenges assumptions that underlie the organization’s strategy is __ control.

 

Unity-of-command advocates believe that a CEO can act more efficiently and effectively when holding the positions both of CEO and chairman of the board.

 

Actions by large shareholders to protect their interests when they feel they are not receiving value maximization is called __.

 

Which of the following are appropriate conditions for using the traditional approach to strategic control?

 

Agency theory is concerned with resolving which of the following problems that can occur in agency relationships?

 

Managers consider both external and internal factors to determine how to achieve appropriate ______________ control over the individuals who work for the organization.

 

The leadership structure where the CEO acts as both the chief executive officer and the chair of the board of directors is called CEO .

 

A mechanism created to allow for different parties to contribute capital, expertise, and labor for the benefit of each party is called a(n) __.

 

The set of unwritten standards of acceptable behavior in an organizational is called organizational __.

 

The relationship between various participants, including shareholders and management, in determining the direction and performance of corporations is called __.

 

Question 18: Religious Studies

 

Unit 1 – 5.0 Assignment – Begin with the End in Mind.

“Would you tell me please which way I ought to walk from here?”

“That depends a good deal on where you want to get to,” said the Cat.

“I don’t much care where-“ said Alice.

“Then it doesn’t matter which way to walk,” said the Cat.

From Alice’s Adventures in Wonderland

 

When you think about plans for your future, do you ever feel like Alice?  Alice wants to get somewhere, but she doesn’t know where she wants to go.  As you can imagine, it is very difficult to give her directions.  Without a plan or directions, where will Alice end up?

If you think about it, most things in life begin with a plan.  We use blueprints when we build a house; we use a recipe for baking a cake; even getting your driver’s license requires a sequential step-by-step plan before it can be acquired.  So if a house, a cake and your driver’s license deserve a plan, what about your life?  Do you have a detailed plan that will help ensure that you get to your destination?

Follow the directions below very carefully.

A student sample is provided (return to main page).

Assignment

Requirements:

2-4 pages double-spaced, Single sided

Times New Roman font – 12 pt

Normal Margins

Strong English skills

Use the following guide in writing your paper:

Part 1:

Start your report with a detailed picture of what you would like your life to look like in eight years.

What job will you have?

Do you hope to be married?

What is your financial status?

What other details do you see?

 

Part 2:

Everything needs a plan!  You have written what you want your life to look like in eight years; now, how are you going to get that?

 

Those that fail to plan

Plan to fail!

 

Starting with today, look at the next eight years in small steps (maybe 6-12 months).  Very specifically and with great detail, outline what you need to get done and how you are going to accomplish this to make it to your final destination (in 8 years).

 

Part 3:

Take a second look.

With any life plan, you want it to be flexible and continually rewritten to adjust to the ever changing journey your life will take.  What if, you decided to throw your plan totally out the window and live for the moment?

At this point in your essay, write about some realistic possibilities that may interfere with your plan.  For example, if you make some choices such as becoming sexually active, letting your marks slip, fighting with your parents and moving out.  What possible consequences could there be to these choices?  How would this affect your plan?

The goal for this section is to take a realistic look at what your life may look like if you divert from your plan.

 

Part 4:

So where is this unique child of God headed?

Now that you have created this detailed plan and looked at possible outcomes, how do you feel?  What things can you put in place to keep you focused on the final destination that you pictured?

Once you have completed your assignments, PASTE your  assignment from Word.  (click on the W in the middle row).

Here is a student sample for the “Begin with the End in Mind” assignment.  Although, they did not receive 100%, they did receive a very good mark.

My Future Plan

In eight years from now I’m going to be living on a small farm or ranch near Swift Current or Saskatoon.  I’ll be working as an elementary teacher, or maybe as a child and youth worker, and my husband will be working as a rancher or farmer.  I hope my husband and I will be celebrating our third or fourth anniversary, and that we will have two children already.  If we live on a ranch, then I want a wide variety of animals including horses, cattle, dogs, cats, chickens, goats, and rabbits.  We won’t be rich, but we’ll be able to save enough money every year to afford trips to Disneyland and other places.  I also hope we can save enough money to hire someone to watch our farm while we are away on trips.

To get to where I want to be in eight years I am going to take it one step at a time starting with finishing grade twelve.  My next step will be to decide which career I would like to pursue.  I am currently trying to decide between education and a child and youth worker.  To help me decide on which career I would like, I want to shadow a teacher and child and youth worker to see what an average day is like. I believe it would help me to decide on which career I would prefer.  Even if I have not decided on a career by the end of the year I will still apply to the University of Saskatchewan or SIAST in Saskatoon, and take general studies for the first year.  Taking general studies the first year will give me more time to decide on a career and to decide if it is the career I want. The University of Saskatchewan is my first choice because a lot of my friends are there, it is a great school, and it has a lot of athletic programs.  SIAST in Saskatoon is my second choice because I know it has the program I am looking for, and I am unsure if the U of S also has that program.  The U of S has many scholarships available, which would be very useful since school is expensive and I do not have the money to put myself through four years of University.  This is all part of my plan to reach where I want to be in eight years.

Many things can happen during your life that will throw off your entire plan for the future.  I could decide after graduation that I don’t want to attend university immediately and decide to travel instead.  That would throw off my plan to be done school and have a career in at least six years. It would throw off my plan because I would put off my schooling, and it could make it difficult for me to get back into the routine of school.  I might suddenly change my mind about what career I want, or I might start University and decide I don’t like the career I’m going for.  This would change how many years I spend in school and it could change where I end up living.  I might not meet a man that I love within the next eight years, which would throw off my plan of being married.  That would also change where I’d be living.  If I let my grades slip it could affect the University or College I get into and my career. It is difficult to make a plan and stick to it because of all these things, and these are only a few of the many things that could happen that would throw off my plan.

I feel scared, overwhelmed, excited, and a whole lot of other things.  Yes I have a plan, which will make things easier, but there are so many things that could happen that could change it all.  I am scared because I don’t actually know what will happen, the future is unpredictable.  I know where I want to be, but the challenge is actually getting there regardless of any obstacles in my way.  I’m overwhelmed because there is so much that could go wrong and there is so much that I have to do to get where I want to be.  I’m also overwhelmed because deciding what I want to do for the rest of my life is a huge decision.   Eight years is a long time, even if it doesn’t feel like it, and I will probably change quite a bit in that time.  I’m excited because it is intriguing to find out what will happen in the future.  Will I get married?  Where will I be living?  Although I have a plan I don’t actually know where I’ll end up, or where I’ll be living.  I have an idea of where I want to be, but it is not guaranteed anything could happen.

 

 

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Question 19: Geography

 

Question

Global Geography (Envi419)

RESEARCH ESSAY QUESTION

Push and pull factors in Syrian migration.

Syria has been embroiled in a civil war since 2011. Since the beginning of that war, “more than two million” refugees have fled their homes and many migrants have left the country (Yardley and Pianigiani 2013; Semple 2014). While many of the people migrate to neighboring countries such as Turkey and Lebanon, others make their way to Europe or the United States, both legally and illegally (Stevis 2014). The war and migration have even had some negative impacts on education in Syria (UNICEF 2013). Please note that the sources I’ve provided are from the early stages of the crisis and that there are many current sources that you will find as you do your research.

Provide details about the migration of people from Syria since the beginning of its civil war in 2011, including a discussion of the push and pull factors in migration. You should also include a discussion of the destinations of Syrian refugees. These destinations include both neighboring countries of Syria as well as more distant destinations in Europe and the United States.

To answer this question thoroughly, you may want to consider the following questions. Why are people leaving Syria? How many people have left the country and what are their destinations? What percentage of Syrians have left their homes? What are the characteristics of those who are migrating to various countries? What are they doing in their new locations? What effects are being felt both in Syria and in the destinations of these migrants?

Sources and Strategies

Choose a variety of sources. First, use the library and/or the internet databases to learn more about this
subject. Because this is a current event, please look for up-to-date articles in reputable popular media (for example, New York Times, Wall Street Journal, Time, Newsweek, BBC, etc.). As well, look for expert analysis and historical background by scholars, participants and journalists. Be sure that your search for expert analysis and opinions includes voices from across the political spectrum, and if possible, from outside the United States as well as
inside. I’ve given you a start with four sources, shown below. Wikipedia is NOT an acceptable source. Nor is any other encyclopedia.

Formatting Requirements

Length: The body of your research essay should be 1200-1500 words (use “Word Count” to make sure you meet minimum length of 1200 words). Use Times New Roman font (12 point), with 1 inch margins all
around. Begin your response at the top of the page. Do NOT use a title page. Please include your name in the “header.” No other identifying information is needed. Please number your pages. Please send a digital copy as an e- mail attachment through the “Messages” application in Blackboard. SAVE A COPY FOR YOURSELF.

Tips on Essay Writing

Tips on writing an essay and “21 Writing Tips” are included in the “Research Essay” area on Blackboard. In addition, there is also information on the evaluation criteria.

Works Cited – this is just a start, and some of these sources are dated. Please be sure to identify new and more recent sources as well.

Semple, Kirk. 2014. “Fleeing the Bombs in Aleppo, Syria, and Ending Up In New Jersey,” New York Times, January 3, 2014; online at http://www.nytimes.com/2014/01/04/nyregion/fleeing-syria-and-ending-up-in- new-jersey.html? action=click&module=Search&region=searchResults&mabReward=relbias%3Ar&url=http%3A%2F%2Fq uery.nytimes.com%2Fsearch%2Fsitesearch%2F%3Faction%3Dclick%26region%3DMasthead%26pgtype %3DHomepage%26module%3DSearchSubmit%26contentCollection%3DHomepage%26t%3Dqry341%23 %2FSyria%2520migration&_r=0

Stevis, Matina. 2014. “Number of Migrants Trying to Reach Europe Illegally Rose Sharply in 2013,” Wall Street Journal; online at http://online.wsj.com/news/articles/ SB10001424052702304908304579561341054849918?KEYWORDS=Syria+migration&mg=reno64-wsj

Yardley, Jim. 2013. “Out of Syria, Into a European Maze,” New York Times, November 29, 2013; online at http:// www.nytimes.com/2013/11/30/world/middleeast/out-of-syria-into-a-european-maze.html? action=click&module=Search&region=searchResults&mabReward=relbias%3Ar&url=http%3A%2F%2Fq uery.nytimes.com%2Fsearch%2Fsitesearch%2F%3Faction%3Dclick%26region%3DMasthead%26pgtype %3DHomepage%26module%3DSearchSubmit%26contentCollection%3DHomepage%26t%3Dqry341%23 %2FSyria%2520migration

UNHCR. 2019. “Syria Emerigency.” United Nations High Commission on Refugees (UNCR). Accessed August 17, 2019; online at: https://www.unhcr.org/en-us/syria-emergency.html

UNICEF. 2013. “Syria Crisis: Education Interrupted,” UNICEF, December 2013;online at http://www.unicef.org/ media/files/Education_Interrupted_Dec_2013.pdf

Here are some links to additional information on the Syrian refugee crisis: http://syrianrefugees.eu/
http://data.unhcr.org/syrianrefugees/regional.php http://www.unhcr.org/emergency/5051e8cd6-56ab78229.html http://www.bbc.com/news/world-middle-east-35577736 https://www.facebook.com/TheIndependentOnline/videos/10153387826906636/?fref=nf http://www.nytimes.com/2016/01/24/magazine/why-is-it-so-difficult-for-syrian-refugees-

to-get-into-the-us.html?_r=0 http://www.wsj.com/articles/the-many-steps-in-a-syrian-refugees-journey-to-the-u-

s-1448413279

You can also google Syria and many articles from reputable sources should pop up. Please remember that the sources must be reputable. Wikipedia is not reliable enough for this assignment.

You may use these sources, but you are not required to do so. In any case, be sure that you find enough high- quality sources to be able to answer the question clearly, thoroughly, and with sufficient detail. If you choose to use these sources, they’ll give you a pretty good start. There are plenty of good sources on this

subject and they’re easy to find! If you need additional help finding sources, talk to a librarian.

Question 20: Other

 

Instruction

Instructions Prepare a coaching/consulting profile to apply in the business environment. Then, conduct research to develop a coach consultant process that is specific to your skills. The process must be detailed and include a plan for you to communicate your findings with management as well as collaborate on an action plan. Be sure to include a figure/flowchart to visualize this process. Support your profile with at least five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your profile should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic.

 

Question 21: English

 

Watch A Raisin in the Sun and write a 1000 word summary.

 

 

Question 22: English

 

Narration Essay Topic: Teenage single mother mla format

 

Question 23: Computer Science

 

Two Smallest  (10 points). Write a program TwoSmallest.java that takes a set of double command-line arguments and prints the smallest and second-smallest number, in that order. It is possible for the smallest and second-smallest numbers to be the same (if the sequence contains duplicate numbers).

 

Question 24: Computer Science

 

predict result by implementing linear regression on CIFAR-10 dataset and calculate accuracy for each classifier?

 

 

Bishop’s University
CS 596 – Research Topics On Computer Science Assignment 1: Machine Learning Basics

The goal of this assignment is to help you understand the fundamentals of a few classic methods and become familiar with scientific computing tools in python and Pytorch. You will also get experience in hyper parameter tuning and using proper train/test/validation data splits. For that purpose, you will implement some linear classifiers and you will validate them on the well-known CIFAR-10 image classification dataset. The classifiers you will implement are the following:

  • K-nearest neighbor,
  • Support Vector Machine,
  • Linear regression,
  • Logistic regression.

Recommendations

Because this assignment represents initiation to Python programming for the most of students, you can rely, reuse and integrate in the assignment one or more the following implementations:

  • Tutorial To Implement k-Nearest Neighbors in Python From Scratch
  • K-NN classification – PyTorch API
  • Linear SVM with PyTorch
  • PyTorch: Linear and Logistic Regression Models
·Logistic Regression on MNIST with PyTorch
  • Linear Regression using PyTorch

The starting code is provided. The top-level notebook (CS596Assignment-1.ipynb) will guide you through all the steps. Setup instructions are below. The format of this assignment is inspired by the Stanford CS231n assignments, and we have borrowed some of their data loading and instructions in our assignment ipython notebook.

1

If your local machine does not support GPU programming, you are encouraged to use Google Colaboratory to do this assignment; since it provides free access to a Tesla K80 (for running short jobs).

Here are two interesting links about Google Colaboratory with the instructions to install Pytorch:

https://towardsdatascience.com/getting-started-with-google-colab-f2fff97f594c

https://colab.research.google.com/notebooks/welcome.ipynb

By this environment, you will be able to do GPU programming and to run your programs through the cloud computing provided by Google.

Environment Setup (Local)

If you will be completing the assignment on a local machine then you will need a Python environment set up with the appropriate packages.

Once you have downloaded the zip file, navigate to the cifar10 directory in MP1 and execute the get_dataset script provided:

We suggest that you use Anaconda to manage python package dependencies. This guide provides useful information on how to use Conda.

Data Setup (Local)

cd MP1/cifar/

./get_datasets.sh

Data Setup (For Colaboratory)

If you are using Google Colaboratory for this assignment you will need do some additional setup steps.

Download the assignment zip file and follow the steps above to download CIFAR-10 to your local machine. Next, you should make a folder in your Google Drive to hold all of

2

your assignment files and upload the entire assignment folder (including the cifar10 dataset you downloaded) into this Google drive file.

You will now need to open the assignment 1 ipython notebook file from your Google Drive folder in Colaboratory and run a few setup commands. You can find a detailed tutorial on these steps here (no need to worry about setting up GPU for now).

IPython

The assignment is given to you in theCS596Assignment-1.ipynb file.As mentioned, if you are using Colaboratory, you can open the ipython notebook directly in Colaboratory. If you are using a local machine, ensure that ipython is installed. You may then navigate the assignment directory in terminal and start a local ipython server using the jupyter notebook command.

Submission

You will have to submit all the programmed solutions, the CSV files associated to the four linear classifiers that contain the prediction results. Please, provide a pdf report following the format of the provided word template that highlights the team members, the contribution of each one of them, and the obtained accuracy for each classifier. The function that computes this accuracy is already provided in the starting code.

Good luckJ

 

 

 

 

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Question 25: Philosophy

 

University of Phoenix Material

 

Research Proposal

 

Develop an original research study proposal and describe it in detail in a 10-12 page (APA style) paper.  Include at least 10 scholarly references in your proposal. Use the following outline as a guide when writing your paper. Be sure to include detailed information on all of the topics listed below and use headings to organize your thoughts.

 

  1. Statement of the problem: Introduce the reader to the problem to be studied. Provide sufficient background information such that the reader has a grasp of the situation and its importance.
  2. Review of the literature: Provide the reader with a review of most relevant literature, beginning with general information, and narrowing the focus to the specific issues under consideration in the study.
  3. Purpose of the study: Identify why the study that you are proposing is needed.
  4. Hypotheses or research questions: List them as simple statements. Make sure they are measurable.
  5. Definition of terms: Operationally define terms the average reader may not know, or that have a specific meaning in your study.
  6. Assumptions: Identify issues you assume to be true in order for your study to be valid.
  7. Research methods and procedures
    1. Population: Describe the population sample to be studied
    2. Procedure: Discuss how the study will be carried out.
    3. Instruments: Describe the specific measurements (instruments) to be used to test each hypothesis (research question).
    4. Data Analysis: Describe the procedures you intend to use to analyze the data produced from your instruments, and how that would answer the hypotheses (research questions).
    5. Discussion: Since you are only proposing (not conducting) a research study, you will not have results; however, you can discuss potential outcomes. Review your hypothesis and discuss how this study will address it. For example, if the results allow you to reject the null hypothesis, what are the implications? What would happen if you fail to reject the null hypothesis? Discuss the implications of your proposed study, the limitations of your study, and future research ideas and directions.
    6. Since you are only proposing (not conducting) a research study, you will not have results; however, you can discuss potential outcomes. Review your hypothesis and discuss how this study will address it. For example, if the results allow you to reject the null hypothesis, what are the implications? What would happen if you fail to reject the null hypothesis? Discuss the implications of your proposed study, the limitations of your study, and future research ideas and directions.
  8. Implications: Provide a brief summary of your proposal and a powerful statement as to how your study would advance the field.
  9. References: Include at least 10 scholarly sources in your Reference section. Be sure to use APA style throughout your paper.

Details

 

 

Question 26: Business

 

Define in specific detail the industry segment for Jamba Juice and describe in detail 4 of the environmental forces (from the course) currently acting on their industry as a whole – with examples.

 

Question 27: Business

 

Distinguish Between Centralization And Decentralization?

 

Question 28: Chemistry

 

Using the Molecular Orbital Theory, discuss the delocalized system in NO3 - . Hence, determine the bond order for N-O bond.

 

Question 29: Economics

 

Suppose the home country exports clothing, which is produced by labour and capital, and imports food, which is produced locally by labour and land. That is, assume the specific-factor production structure of Chapter 4. Let some of the capital used in the clothing sector be provided by foreign investment. If the home country protects its food industry with a tariff, trace through the following scenarios:

  1. What is the effect on factor prices, production, consumption, and trade volumes if no more foreign capital enters or leaves the country? ( outline gains on trade for domestic and foreign)
  2. What is the further impact on factor prices, production, consumption, and trade if returns to capital in the clothing sector adjust to a given world rate of return via changes in the quantity of capital (FDI) foreigners wish to place in the protectionist country?  (arbitrage opportunity if domestic rate of return> abroad capital inflows and vice versa)

 

  1. What is the effect on net home welfare in each case?

 

 

Question 30: Health Care

 

 Distribution Strategy Assignment

 

In this assignment, you will complete another key section of your marketing plan:

 

Write a 1 page recommendation for the distribution (“place”) strategy necessary to successfully market your health care product or service. Comment on where, when and how customers prefer to access your product or service, and how that influenced your distribution channel strategy.  If you wish, you may include a simple diagram of the distribution channel.

 

Within this section draft, please demonstrate your grasp of the marketing terminology and concepts related to distribution strategy.  For example, describe the level of intensity of distribution, the types of relationships within your distribution channel, and the correct titles (retailer, wholesaler, agent/broker, etc.) of the various intermediaries in the channel.

 

 

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Question 31: Health Care

 

Pricing Strategy Assignment

 

 

In this assignment, you will complete another key section of your marketing plan:

 

Write a 1 page recommendation for the pricing strategy necessary to successfully market your health care product or service. Be sure to include an estimate of the costs associated with the product or service, and the profits that are expected with the recommended pricing.

 

You will need to make some “educated estimates” to complete this assignment; please follow a format like this to demonstrate that your recommended pricing will result in profits:

 

New Product Per Unit 20,000 units

(1st year sales forecast)

Suggested retail price $100.00 $2,000,000
Cost to retailer  ** $50.00 $1,000,000
     Retailer margin $50.00 $1,000,000
Cost of Goods Sold
     Components/raw materials $10.00 $200,000
     Labor $10.00 $200,000
     Overhead $5.00 $100,000
Marketing costs $7.00 $140,000
     Manufacturer profit $18.00 $360,000
** “Cost to retailer” is the same as Manufacturer’s sales revenue

 

 

New Service Per Day 200 days per year

(1st year sales forecast)

Service Charges** $250.00 $500,000
Cost of Goods Sold
     Labor $100.00 $200,000
     Materials $20.00 $40,000
     Overhead $30.00 $60,000
Marketing costs $10.00 $20,000
     Service provider profit $90.00 $180,000
** Service Charge is the expected sales revenue from the new service

 

 

As a starting point to estimating costs, visit Bplans and search for a sample plan in a similar line of business to the one you are proposing.  Look for the “Pro Forma Profit and Loss” chart within the Financial Plan section of the business plan, and make note of the expected costs in relation to forecasted sales. You can also do an Internet search for “income statement – (insert your product or service here)” and review the samples that you find.

 

Within this section draft, please demonstrate your grasp of the marketing terminology and concepts related to pricing strategy. For example, it would be appropriate to identify whether you have chosen a penetration, skimming, or followership price strategy, and why you believe that strategy is appropriate.

 

Question  32:       Psychology

 

Discussion question: 175 words

The ethics of designing a study

There are often ethical issues that dictate the use or non-use of one method or another.

Can you give a specific example of when it might not be ethical to use a particular design/method?

 

 

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Question 1: General Question

 

Walden University NURS6630 Final Exam 2019, Walden University NURS6630 Midterm Exam 2019: Psychopharmacologic Approaches to Treatment of Psychopathology (Already graded A)

 

Question 2: General Question

 

NURS 6501 PATHO WK-2 QUIZ (Latest) ALREADY GRADED 100%

NURS 6501 PATHO WK-2 QUIZ (Latest) ALREADY GRADED 100%

 

Question 3: General Question

 

NGS6420 Week 10 Final Exam Guide

NGS6420 Week 10 Final Exam Guide

 

 

Question 4: General Question

 

NSG 6020Prepcheckweek7.docx graded A

NSG 6020Prepcheckweek7.docx graded A

 

Question 5: General Question

 

SEJPME 1 COURSE SEJPME Graded A

SEJPME 1 COURSE SEJPME Graded A

 

Question 6: Biology

 

NSG5003 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY   FINAL EXAM ANSWERS SOUTH UNIVERSITY

 

Question 7: Biology

 

NSG3029 Midterm Test FOUNDATIONS OF NURSING South University

 

Question 8: Biology

 

NSG3029 Final Exam FOUNDATIONS OF NURSING South University

 

Question 9: Biology

 

NSG3012 Midterm Test South University   PRINCIPLES OF ASSESSMENT

 

Question 10: Biology

 

NSG3012 Final Exam South University PRINCIPLES OF ASSESSMENT

 

 

 

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Question 11: Business

 

Use a position that you would like to obtain (CEO) to create job duties and at least three KSAOs (knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics).

 

Answer the following questions in 350 words for each KSAO:

  • Is the KSAO necessary prior to hiring, or can it be trained?
  • What is the importance of each characteristic relative to the others?
  • What is the approximate time the employee will spend on each duty?

 

 

Question 12: Business

 

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words: 

 

Considering the internal labor market at your organization ( Marshalls), what competency or skill gap needs to be closed? What’s the approach to doing so?

 

Question 13: Business

 

How tightly do you fit into a particular market segment? Do you think you can be neatly classified? If you think your purchasing habits make you an enigma to marketers, you may need to think again.

 

Instructions: Document your activities and exercise in this application exercise assignment. Keep good notes that you will submit as part of this assignment.

Purpose: This exercise quickly shows students the limitations of using only demographics to describe their customers, and really clarifies the process of segmentation and positioning for them.

Activities

Visit the following website located in this folder named: Segments

  1. Click on the link above and then type in your zip code. The database will generate many cluster descriptions based on your ZIP code. Depending on the functionality of the Web site at the time you access the database, you may need to reenter your ZIP code multiple times if you want to read all the cluster descriptions.
  2. Now review the demographic and psychographic data for the segments. Please provide insights on their life stage, lifestyle, and others things that they like such as automobiles, music, health, books, magazines, beauty products, and income. Then think about which products in that category would appeal to each of the clusters generated by your ZIP code search. Please name 3 to 4 of the groups identified and provide feedback on similarities between the groups. For example, a car that appeals to a cluster titled “Young Bohemians” may not be the car of choice for the cluster “Pools and Patios.” If your search generated only one cluster type, you may wish to enter other ZIP codes for your area of town or for your region.
  3. Write a short statement that describes what you have learned about the most common segments for your zip code.

 

https://claritas360.claritas.com/mybestsegments/#zipLookup

 

 

Question 14: Economics

 

News commentary article

  • The text,not including inserted quotes, must be between 350 and 450 words long (include a word count). Papers of less than 350 words will not be graded.
  • Identify and explain an economic concept found in the article. If the article is about inflation, then you need to show that you understand what inflation actually is.
  • Use the article just to illustrate the concept.
  • Keep it simple and stick to economics you know and understand.
  • Basically you need to be able to analyze the information, not retell it. The more your paper presents a summary of the article, the lower your grade will go.
  • Adding a graph to your article for further illustration is often very helpful
  • There are 2 commentaries due this semester (see above for the exact dates).
  • .You need to provide a copy of the article or a link to it.
    1. You need to cite each source in correct bibliographic form
    2. If you use the internet to obtain a source, you must find out the date the article was originally published and put it into the correct form listed above, then include the URL afterwards (the address of the page).
  • You need to choose timely news
    1. You may NOT use reference sources, encyclopedic entries, bank reports, etc.
    2. The article you choose must be within a month or so of the date you write it.
  • Some of the best choices of articles come from sections of the newspaper other than the business pages—as long as they illustrate principles you have learned in this course.
  • 45-50 points for meeting the above criteria
  • 30- 44 points for retelling the article with little economic discussion
  • -5 points for not providing copy of the article or workable link to the article.
  • -5 points for over 450 words
  • papers of less than 350 words will be returned ungraded.

 

 

 

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Question 15: Psychology

 

After completing the assigned readings, discuss the concept of “abnormality” from a Biblical perspective. What is considered “normal” and “abnormal” types of cognitions and behaviors? What does the Bible say about abnormal or deviant behavior? How does the Bible’s directives differ from what is currently considered “normal” or “abnormal” in your culture or environment? How can the Bible’s teachings inform a person’s concept of abnormality? Integrate into your discussion the 4 D’s – Dysfunction, Distress, Deviance, and Dangerousness. Cite all sources in APA format. As per assignment directions and rubric, include a Bible verse and application and an outside source cited in APA format.

 

Nolen-Hoeksema: Abnormal Psychology

8TH EDITION, © 2020

By Susan Nolen-Hoeksema

ISBN:1260426092

 

Cite all sources use in the post in APA format, and list any utilized sources in APA format at the end of your post.

 

 

Question 16: Health Care

 

NURS 6512 Week 6 Midterm Exam / NURS6512 Week 6 Midterm Exam Advanced Health Assessment: Walden University

 

Question 17: Health Care

 

NURS 807Chapter 6 – The Skin, Hair, and Nails graded A

NURS 807Chapter 6 – The Skin, Hair, and Nails graded A

 

Question 18: Health Care

 

NSG3029 Midterm Test FOUNDATIONS OF NURSING South University Graded A

NSG3029 Midterm Test FOUNDATIONS OF NURSING South University Graded A

 

Question 19: Religious Studies

 

Hello World Religions Class,

Below is a video entitled, “Is God Great?” between famous atheist intellectual Christopher Hitchens, and Professor John Lennox of Oxford University.  I would like for you to watch this debate and identify at least two (2) major points/arguments from each perspective and describe them clearly in 2-3 sentences each.  Lastly, I would like for you to identify the debater with whom you agree & disagree with and write at least one (1) paragraph describing why you agreed/disagreed with that particular debater.  Your paper should be organized this way…

  1. Debater 1
  • 1st Major Point: 2-3 sentences
  • 2nd Major Point: 2-3 sentences
  1. Debater 2
  • 1st Major Point: 2-3 sentences
  • 2nd Major Point: 2-3 sentences
  1. Agree (One Paragraph describing why; at least 3 sentences)
  2. Disagree (One Paragraph describing why; at least 3 sentences)

 

 

 

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Question 20: Biology

 

NSG 6001 Midterm Test NSG6001 ADVANCED NURSING PRACTICE South University

 

Question 21: Biology

NSG 6001 Final Exam NSG6001 ADVANCED NURSING PRACTICE South University

 

Question 22: Biology

 

NSG 3039 Week 5 Quiz Verified Answers – NSG3039 Information Management and Technology South University

 

Question 23: Biology

 

NSG 3007 Final Exam  Foundations of Professional Nursing   South University

 

Question 24: General Question

 

ACCT 211 Learn smart Assignment 11 Liberty University Complete Answers

 

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

Which of the following statements is not an advantage of bond financing?

 

A company issues $100,000 of 5%, 10-year bonds dated January 1. The bonds pay interest semiannually on June 30 and December 31 each year. If bonds are sold at par value, the issuer records the sale with a debit to in the amount of $ .

 

A company issues $75,000 of 6%, 10-year bonds dated January 1 that pay interest semiannually on each June 30 and December 31. If the issuer accepts $69,000 for the bonds, the issuer will record the sale with a debit to which of the following accounts?

 

When the contract rate of the bonds is higher than the market rate, the bond sells at a higher price than par value. The amount by which the bond price exceeds par value is the ___ on bonds.

 

A company issues $50,000 of 5%, 10-year bonds dated January 1 and pay interest semiannually on June 30 and December 31 each year. The bonds are sold for $48,000. Using the straight-line amortization method, the company will amortize the discount by $__ on each semiannual interest payment.

 

The legal document that describes the rights and obligations of both the bondholders and the issuers is called the bond _____.

 

A company issues $60,000 of 6%, 5-year bonds dated January 1 that pay interest semiannually on June 30 and December 31 each year. If the issuer accepts $62,000 for the bonds, the premium on bonds payable will __ total interest expense recognized over the life of the bond by $____.

 

A company issues $90,000 of 5%, 5-year bonds dated January 1 that pay interest semiannually on June 30 and December 31 each year. If the issuer accepts $95,000 for the bond, the issuer will record the sale with a to on bonds payable in the amount of $5,000.

 

Total bond interest is the sum of the interest payments plus the bond discount.

 

Which of the following are true of amortizing a premium bond using the effective interest amortizing method:

 

The bond carrying value can be determined by which of the following formulas?

 

A company issues $500,000 of 6%, 10-year bonds dated January 1, 2017 that mature on December 31, 2026. The bonds pay interest semiannually on June 30 and December 31 each year. If bonds are sold at par value, the issuer records the sale with which of the following entries?

 

A company borrows $60,000 by signing a $60,000, 8%, 6-year note that requires equal payments of $12,979 at the end of each year. The first payment will record interest expense of $4,800 and will reduce principal by $ ___.

 

The bond amortization method allocates an equal portion of the total bond interest expense to each interest period.

 

Bond market values are expressed as a percentage of their par (face) value. For example, a company’s bonds might be reading at 103, meaning that they can be bought or sold for ___ of their par value.

 

When the market rate is 8%, a company issues $50,000 of 9%, 10-year bonds dated January 1, 2017, that mature on December 31, 2026, and pay interest semiannually for a selling price of $60,000. When the bonds mature, the issuer records its payment of principal with a to Bonds Payable in the amount of .

 

 

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Question 25: General Question

 

ACCT 211 Learnsmart Assignment 12 Liberty University Complete Answers

 

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

 

Which of the following transaction would be reported under cash flows from operating activities? Select all that apply.

Which of the following items are classified as noncash investing and financing activities?

A gain from the sale of a building would be ___ to (from) net income when computing cash flow from operations, using the indirect method.

_____ activities include those transactions and events that affect long-term liabilities and equity, such as obtaining cash from issuing debt and distributing cash to owners.

Which of the following items would be reported under financing activities on the statement of cash flows?

Lakeview Inc.’s statement of cash flows reports financing activities with payments that exceed receipts. This means that Lakeview had a net cash _______ from financing activities.

Which of the following would be included in the operating section when preparing the statement of cash flows using the indirect method?

The _____ method separately lists each major item of operating cash receipts and each major item of operating cash payments. The cash payments are subtracted from cash receipts to determine the net cash provided (used) by operating activities.

In a statement of cash flows, cash received from the sale of a building would be classified under “cash flows from __________ activities.”

The _____ method of reporting the statement of cash flows reports net income and then adjusts it for items necessary to obtain net cash provided or used by operating activities.

Which of the following items would be added to net income when reporting cash flows from operating activities, using the indirect method?

The statement of cash flows explains the difference between beginning and ending balances of cash and cash equivalents. A cash equivalent must satisfy which of the following criteria?

Which of the following items would be correct adjustments to net income to arrive at cash flows from operating activities, using the indirect method?

An increase in wages payable would be to (from) net income, when computing cash flows from operations, using the indirect method.

A(n) activity includes those transactions and events that determine net income, including the purchase of merchandise, the sale of goods and services to customers, and expenditures to operate the business.

Information on the statement of cash flows helps us answer all of the following questions except:

Cash flows from financing activities identifies cash receipts and payments related to which of the following types of accounts?

At the beginning of 2018, Rex Co. showed a debit balance in the cash account of $20,500. Total debits to this account during the year were $45,000, and total credits during the year were $35,000. The net ______ in cash for 2018 equals $_____________.

There are five important steps to preparing a statement of cash flows. Rank the steps in order from first to last.

Collecting money for notes receivable would be reported on the statement of cash flows as a(n) ___________ activity.

Which of the following transactions would not be classified as an operating activity on the statement of cash flows?

Which of the following items would be adjusted to net income when computing cash flows from operating activities, using the indirect method?

 

 

Question 26:        General Question

 

ACCT 211 Learn smart Assignment 9 Liberty University Complete Answers

 

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

 

 

Perez Co. sells automotive supplies and warranties them for a three-month period. Perez sold $10,000 of supplies during the month and anticipates that warranty repairs for these sales will total $250. The adjusting entry that Perez will make to record the warranty expense will include which of the following?

 

Mary’s Magazine Sales sells popular magazine subscriptions. During January, Mary collected $1,200 from various customers to provide magazines over the next 12 months. At the end of February, Mary would make an adjusting entry to record one month of magazines subscriptions earned. This transaction would include which of the following entries?

 

On June 1, Grey Co. borrows $15,000 cash from the National Bank by signing a 120-day, 10% interest-bearing note. Grey will record interest during the year totaling . Using a 360 day year, round your final answer to the nearest whole dollar.

 

A company sells 12-month subscriptions to popular magazines. During the month of May, the company sells $10,000 in magazines, which will start in June. The journal entry to record the sales not yet earned will include a credit to which account?

 

Star Co. reported $10,000 of net income during the month of January. Star estimates that it owes income taxes of $2,000 for the month. The month-end adjusting entry to record this estimate would require which of the following entries?

 

On June 1, Sawyer Co. borrowed $5,000 by extending their past-due account payable with a 45-day, 12% interest-bearing note. On July 16, the due date, Sawyer pays the amount due in full. Sawyer would record this payment with a __________ to Interest Expense in the amount of __________.

 

On December 1, Campbell Co. borrowed $10,000 cash from Second Bank by signing a 90-day, 6% interest-bearing note. On December 31, Campbell accrued interest expense of $50. Campbell does not use reversing entries. On March 1, the due date of the note, Campbell will record the payment with debit entries to which of the following accounts?

 

Tire Co. collected $2,000 in sales tax during the month of October. The entry that shows the remittance of this sales tax to the state government in November would include a credit to the account.

 

During December 2017, Marci Lane opens a computer sales store selling new computers and offering a six-month warranty on all new sales. During December, Lane makes three sales totaling $4,000. Lane estimates warranty repairs will total 15% of sales. In January 2018, a customer submits a warranty claim requiring $300 of work. Lane will record a debit to Estimated Warranty Liability in the amount in January 2018 for the warranty work.

 

During the second quarter of the year, Francisco Co. accrued $8,000 of income taxes. On July 15, Francisco will send in the second quarterly payment. To record this payment, Francisco will enter which of the following entries?

 

Victor’s Vacuum Sales Co. sells high quality vacuums and provides a one-year warranty on all new sales. Based on history, Victor anticipates that 3% of vacuums will be returned at a cost of $30 per vacuum. During the month, Victor sold 100 vacuums for a total of $35,000. At the end of the month, Victor will record in Warranty Expense.

 

 

 

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Question 27: General Question

 

ACCT 211 Learn smart Assignment 5 Liberty University Complete Answers

 

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

 

ABC Co. uses a perpetual inventory system and uses the LIFO cost flow assumption. Calculate the dollar value of its cost of goods sold for the sale made on Jan. 10.

Many companies choose to use LIFO inventory costing during periods of rising purchase costs because reported cost of goods sold will be . This means that income taxes paid will be than if the company used FIFO or weighted average inventory costing.

Assumes that Q-Mart uses a periodic LIFO inventory system. During the period, it sold 14 units. Calculate the dollar value of its cost of goods sold for the period.

Estimates of inventory are not usually required when a company uses a inventory system because they would presumably have updated inventory data.

The LIFO cost flow assumption assumes that the cost of items purchased are the costs that will be transferred first to cost of goods sold on the .

Assume that Wally World uses a perpetual LIFO inventory system. Its ending inventory consists of 13 units. Calculate the dollar value of its ending inventory.

Q-mart failed to include inventory that was kept in a separate warehouse in its end-of-the-period inventory count. Explain how this error will affect this year’s balance sheet.

Assume that sparks uses a periodic FIFO inventory system. Its ending inventory consists of 9 units. Calculate the dollar value of its ending inventory.

Sparky’s incorrectly included inventory that was on consignment in its ending inventory count. Consequently, the ending inventory was overstated on the balance sheet. Explain how this error effect this year’s income statement.

Q-mart failed to include inventory that was kept in a separate warehouse in its 12/31 end-of-the-period inventory count. Consequently, the ending inventory on 12/31 was understated on the balance sheet. Explain how this error will affect the current year’s income statement. (Check all that apply.)

Assume that Maycces uses a periodic weighted average inventory system. Its ending inventory consists of 13 units. Calculate the dollar value of its ending inventory assuming the following information.

Assume that Maycces uses a perpetual weighted average inventory system. Its ending inventory consist of 13 units. Calculate the dollar value of its ending inventory assuming the following information.

Assume that J-Mart uses a perpetual weighted average inventory system. During the period, it had two sales. Calculate the average cost per unit on hand as of June 8 when it made its first sale.

Review the steps below that apply LCM to individual items of inventory. Place them in the correct order of occurrence.

Show your understanding of the ownership of goods in transit by completing the following statement. If goods are shipped FOB shipping point, then the is responsible for paying freight charges and the will not include the merchandise In their Inventory.

Chocolate Inc. uses a perpetual inventory system and uses the FIFO cost flow assumption. Calculate the cost of goods sold for the sale made on Mar. 20.

Recount the methods used to assign costs to inventory and cost of goods sold under both a perpetual and a periodic system

The FIFO cost flow assumption assumes that the cost of items purchased are the cost that will be transferred first to cost of goods sold on the .

 

Question 28: General Question

ACCT 211 Learn smart Assignment 2 Liberty University Complete Answers

 

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

 

Choose the account(s) below, that would have a normal credit balance.

Prepaid accounts are (assets/liabilities) that represent prepayments of future expenses and are increased with a (debit/credit).

Which of the following statements is correct regarding expenses.

Match the items on the left with their definition on the right.

Recall the required information in a financial statement heading. Rearrange the following line items as they would appear in a heading.

The T-account for Accounts payable had 4 transactions entered in into it. It was increased by $300 and by $100 and decreased by $50 and by $150, respectively. Its balance at the end of the period would be a (debit/credit) balance of $ .

Given the descriptions below, which is (are) true regarding notes receivable? (Check all that apply.)

Which statement best describes a T-account?

Smith Company purchased $8,000 of supplies on credit. Show how to record this transaction to the T-account by selecting the correct answer below.

Which of the following accounts has a normal debit balance?

R&R Programming pays a $900 supply bill that it had received earlier in the month. Illustrate how to record the transaction to the T-accounts by completing the following sentence. Accounts payable would be (debited/credited) on the (left/right) side of the T-account, and Cash would be (debited/credited) on the (left/right) side of the T-account.

Which of the following is required information when entering a transaction into a journal?

To enter transactions on the right side of a T-account means you will (debit/credit) the account and will cause a(n) (decrease/increase) in a liability account.

Gunner Corporation received $300 cash from a client that had been billed earlier in the month. Show how to record this transaction into T-accounts by selecting the correct answer below.

When preparing a trial balance, there are certain steps that need to be followed. Place the following steps in the correct order.

Brown Company paid $40 in cash dividends. Show how to record the transaction to the T-accounts by completing the following sentence. Dividends would be (debited/credited) on the (left/right) side of the T-account, and Cash would be (debited/credited) on the (left/right) side of the T-account.

Which of the following statements is (are) true about accounts receivables? (Check all that apply.)

The stockholder of a business received a $1000 dividend. How would this affect the total equity of the business?

Gunner Company purchased a piece of equipment costing $6,000. She paid $1,000 immediately and put the rest on account. Show how to record this transaction to the T-accounts by selecting the correct answer below.

Which of the following statements is (are) correct regarding the definition of a liability?

Which of the following statements is (are) correct regarding the sides of a T-account?

Match the item on the left with the correct definition on the right

On Jan. 2, Callie Taylor received a $700 payment from a customer previously billed for services performed. The journal entry to record this transaction would include a ________ (debit/credit) to the______________ account and a ___________ (debit/credit) to the Accounts Receivable account.

 

 

Question 29:        Biology

 

NSG5003 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY   FINAL EXAM ANSWERS   SOUTH UNIVERSITY

 

Question 30:        Biology

 

NSG5003 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY   MIDTERM TEST ANSWERS SOUTH UNIVERSITY

 

 

 

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Question 1: Finance

 

Return on Investment – Education Funding Develop a three- to five-page analysis (excluding the title and reference pages) on the projected return on investment for your college education and projected future employment. This analysis will consist of two parts.

 

Instruction

Part 1: Describe how and why you made the decision to pursue an MBA. In the description, include calculations of expenses and opportunity costs related to that decision. Part 2: Analyze your desired occupation. Determine how much compensation (return) you expect to earn and how long will it take to pay back the return on this investment. Use the financial formulas, Net Present Value (NPV), Internal Rate of Return (IRR), and Payback. If you do not have any educational costs due to employee reimbursements, you should estimate the cost of your education for your calculations. My employer pays for my education, but the cost is around $2115 The analysis should be comprehensive and reference specific examples from a minimum of two scholarly sources. The paper must be formatted according to APA.

 

Question 2: Other

I need a letter of recommendation from my supervisor point view for a graduate program.

Instruction

I’m applying for a master program, I currently work in the human services industry. In the letter I would like for the writer to write about my great communication skills, great customer service skills with clients who receive services for my our company and my professionalism. I need this letter to be professional and to really sell my skills. Also, I’ve bee with the company over a year

 

 

 

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Question 3: Sociology

 

There are many types of agencies that utilize social workers. With the advancement of technology, it is now standard practice for these agencies to have public-facing websites. This assignment will help you to learn more about the agencies in your community. Visit 3 websites that are owned and operated by either local, regional, or national social welfare agencies. Answer the following prompts based on your review of each agency’s website. ***see worksheet attached

 

 

 

Social Welfare Agency Website Reviews

 

Visit 3 websites that are owned and operated by either local, regional, or national social welfare agencies. Answer the following prompts based on your review of each agency’s website.

 

Agency #1

 

Agency Name
Website URL
Social Problem(s) Addressed
Services Provided
Type of Funding

(private, public, combination)

Profit Status

(for profit, nonprofit)

 

 

 

In 175-260 words, please describe your thoughts about this agency.

 

 

 

 

 

Agency #2

 

Agency Name
Website URL
Social Problem(s) Addressed
Services Provided
Type of Funding

(private, public, combination)

Profit Status

 (for profit, nonprofit)

 

In 175-260 words, please describe your thoughts about this agency.

 

 

Agency #3

 

Agency Name
Website URL
Social Problem(s) Addressed
Services Provided
Type of Funding

(private, public, combination)

Profit Status

 (for profit, nonprofit)

 

In 175-260 words, please describe your thoughts about this agency.

 

 

 

 

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Question 4:        Law

 

This is a business law assignment and all of the information is included below. If you can just tell me what to write or put I can create the PowerPoint.

 

 

 

Business and the law Presentation Scenarios

“Open for Business”

 

Cersei and her brother Jamie inherited a family ranch consisting of 2,000 acres in New Mexico from the recent passing of their father. The ranch was operated mostly by Jamie and Jamie and their late father resided on the New Mexico Ranch. Cersei also owns a ranch in far west Texas, consisting of approximately 2,000 acres, but she resides in Midland. She has big profits from her grazing and hunting operations on the Texas property. The New Mexico property is also likely to be profitable in a few years’ time but is and has been operating at a loss for the last several years. Cersei and Jamie want to form some sort of entity to own and operate the ranches. What should they form? Cersei also has a ranch manager, Jon Snow, for her ranch on site since she doesn’t live there. Should they include him as an owner? Employ him? Keep him on as an independent contractor?

  • Choose an entity form, and if dictated by the type of entity chosen, “form” the entity by choosing a name, a state of formation, drafting a certificate of formation or incorporation, and the governing document of the entity, such as bylaws, a partnership agreement or a company agreement. If you have chosen an entity with limited liability protection for the owners, you may also likely need a written memorandum of organizational meeting, or to hold such a meeting and prepare notes from the meeting.
  • If you have elected to make the ranch hand an owner, explain why and show the electronic negotiations with him regarding his duties and all the parties regarding their ownership interest. If you have elected not to make the ranch hand an owner, negotiate a contract covering his duties and compensation, either as a contracted employee or an independent contractor.

The final assignment to be turned in will be a PowerPoint Presentation for review by me and your classmates.

The best presentations (and those to receive the highest grades) should at a minimum consist of the following:

  1. one or more slides dedicated to the type of entity chosen and why, your entity’s name, your entity’s business purpose, a hierarchy of ownership, management and control appropriate to the selected type of organization, and include some of the formation documents
  2. one or more slides dedicated to the negotiations between the parties, excerpts from the negotiated written agreement consummating the transaction
  3. one video presentation embedded (i.e., not a link) into the presentation. This required video should be produced by you, not a clip you pulled from the internet. You may be creative in this video and use others in the video. You may include other video and/or audio clips from any source, but check file size limitations.
  • You should aim for your PowerPoint presentation to take 5-10 minutes to view, although the length of your presentation will not directly impact your grade.

 

 

Presentation – Step by Step Instructions

Step by Step Instructions

The theme of your project is Open for Business.  Here is an example of the finished project from a prior year: “Open for Business.ppt”.

Step 1:  Each student will select a business scenario.  There are four separate business scenarios set forth below.  Please choose one scenario and you will complete the project based on that scenario.  You must inform me/your coach of the scenario selected via email no later than the end of Module 3.  If you fail to properly or timely choose a scenario, I will assign you one.  Choose early because I reserve the right to pull a scenario off the table if a lot of students choose the same scenario so that we have a variety to watch at the end. (If you wish to complete this project in a group setting with no more than 3 students, you must notify me/your coach no later than the end of Week 3).

Step 2:  In this project, the student will decide (i) what type of business organization to form (and why), (ii) form and name the new entity, assign management duties as appropriate, (iii) discuss and, considering the various roles, negotiate a proposed transaction, and (iv) prepare a simple legal document as indicated in each scenario.

Step 3: The final assignment to be turned in must be uploaded to the general class discussion board in the assigned folder and must be in “View” or “Presentation” Mode before uploading, meaning the file opens to a slide show automatically. It can run automatically on timers or be a click through. Be sure to include: Copies of you formation documents, if applicable; Excerpts of the negotiations; an embedded video; and, a copy of the final negotiated agreement, which should contain all the elements of a contract.

***

Note – Video: Your presentation must contain an embedded video produced by you. The video must be embedded and not just a link.  You do not video yourself presenting your PowerPoint that you made; rather, produce a video that aids some portion of your project. You can use other actors. The goal is to make sure you can prepare a professional looking presentation in PowerPoint.  The video can be anything –  presenting the business model, a scene of getting financing, the negotiations between parties, a summary, or an advertisement for the business.  It is less WHAT the video is about, so long as there is a video (that is appropriate, is somehow related to this project, and is an original creation) and it is EMBEDDED – in other words, I don’t want to be redirected to YouTube.  Embed the video so it runs on a click or automatically within the presentation.  Be creative, but professional (I have 60+ of these to grade).

Also, a note on original creation – one year a group spliced together an ad from multiple tv ads to create their video, and that’s fine too, but you have to have complied it.  Don’t go steal someone’s video and just upload it.

 

 

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Question 6:      English

Instruction

This assignment focuses on your ability to: create effective thesis statements; synthesize research, text support, and personal analyses into a cohesive essay; defend an argument; properly citie researched material in APA format. The purpose of completing this assignment is: as a student, career professional, and individual, learning how to defend your side of an argument with data, experience, and valid information is of paramount importance. As a student at Post, use this assignment to master the objectives listed above, particularly APA citation and reference page formatting. You need to know APA and argumentation techniques! Prompt (what will you be writing about): • Which conflict does Wilson use most to drive (bring forth, move forward) all the other elements of the story? Choose ONE that you feel is more apparent and easier to defend than the others. o Troy vs Society o Troy vs Himself o Troy vs Family o Troy vs Death Instructions (how to get it done): • You have completed research on August Wilson, his life, and his plays. • You have completed reading/viewing Fences by August Wilson. • You have read the resources on Conflict in this unit. • Choose the conflict area that you think will have the strongest text support. • Create a thesis statement that clearly states your stance on why this conflict is the driving force of the play and how you’re going to prove it (see “Helpful Hints” section below). • Research needed sources so that you have at least 3 outside sources that are valid and reliable. • Be sure also to include text examples from the Fences, the play. • Defend your thesis in an introduction, at least three supporting sections, and a conclusion. • Check in with your instructor with any and all questions. Requirements: • Length and format: 3-4 pages. • You should have at least three outside sources plus text examples from the play. • The title page and reference page are also required, but they should not be factored into the 3-4 page length of the essay. • It should also be double spaced, written in Times New Roman, in 12 point font and with 1 inch margins. The essay should conform to APA formatting and citation style. • Use the third-person, objective voice, avoiding personal pronouns such as “I,” “you,” “we,” etc. • Use APA format for in-text citations and references when using outside sources and textual evidence. • Please be cautious about plagiarism. Make sure to use in-text citations for direct quotes, paraphrases, and new information. Helpful Notes: • Thesis: o Your thesis is the response to the prompt question plus the supporting areas that you will be using to defend your argument. Be sure to have a thesis that clearly states which conflict you feel is the most important and drives the other conflicts. o Your thesis could begin with, “In the play, Fences, August Wilson uses the conflict of to drive the other conflicts and elements of the story as evidenced by…. • Sources and evidence: o Be sure to use things that you have learned about Wilson’s life and his writings. For example, if you are analyzing Troy and his father’s conflict, you could bring in information that you researched about Wilson’s relationship with his own father. o Include direct quotations from the play. To cite a direct quote from a play, the format is: § “quotation” (Wilson,1985, act #, scene #, line #). OR § As Wilson (1985) writes, “quote” (act#, scene #, line#). o Use at least three outside sources. Two of them could be from your previous research essay. Be sure to include all of these in your reference page. Source: Fences by August Wilson (pages 1270-1331)

 

 

 

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Question 7: Business

Instruction

Working individually, students should complete the “Critical Thinking” questions at the end of the three assigned chapters ( 7 & 12). These assignments are designed to incorporate the three unifying concepts of this course. These are 1) a “Human Capital” point of views. vs. a traditional Personnel Management point of view; 2) decision making that is driven by Metrics and Analytics vs. emotional appeals; and 3) PARTNERSHIPS between Line Leaders and HR Specialists vs. separate disjointed functional responsibilities held by each. Each paper should be a minimum of 3 – 4 pages and comprehensively incorporate ALL of the questions in the assignment, as well as the associated readings included.

 

CHAPTER 7

Critical Thinking

1.

What is a protected class, and what laws exist that safeguard the rights of each protected class?

2.

Explain the process under which an EEOC complaint is processed. To what extent is it more advantageous for an employee to file an EEOC complaint at the local or federal level?

3.

How can an employer lawfully respond to an allegation of employment discrimination?

4.

Why does illegal discrimination persist nearly 40 years after the passage of Title VII?

5.

What constitutes sexual harassment? What rights and responsibilities does an alleged recipient of sexual harassment have?

6.

To what extent do cultural norms influence how other societies and cultures deal with the issue of sexual harassment in the workplace?

7.

What are the pros and cons of mediation for an employer? What factors might influence whether an employer agrees to the mediation of an employee charge? What can be done to make mediation more attractive to employers?

Reading 7.1

8.

Why is affirmative action such a controversial issue? Is society better served with or without affirmative action? In small groups, take a position either in favor of or against affirmative action and then debate the issue within your group.

Reading 7.2

9.

Explain the different components of organizational justice and the outcomes of perceived organizational justice and injustice.

 

 

CHAPTER 12

Critical Thinking

1.

With unionization on the downturn, why should an organization be concerned about labor relations?

2.

What benefits are received and what costs are incurred when workers unionize?

3.

Describe the process by which workers unionize.

4.

What are the possible outcomes of failure to reach consensus on a collective-bargaining agreement?

5.

Contrast the style of labor unions in the United States to that found in other countries.

6.

Does union diversification make unions stronger or weaker? How would you feel as an auto worker to see the United Auto Workers representing employees outside the auto industry?

7.

What rights and responsibilities do employers and employees have regarding the use of social media communications under the National Labor Relations Act?

Reading 12.1

8.

Assess the status of employer and union recruiter behaviors in union-organizing campaigns. How much access should union organizers have to employees? What new behaviors are likely from employers and union organizers in response to the actions of the other party?

Reading 12.2

9.

How can social media impact the rights of employees under the National Labor Relations Act? Can or should any restrictions be placed by employers on workplace discussions that take place through social media?

 

 

 

Question 8: English

 

In this essay, you will use media to argue for the single greatest way that writing / written communication plays a role in a profession you’ve chosen. To do this, you will need to identify a profession and select a form of media (photograph, movie, music video, YouTube clip, etc.) that represents your profession’s connection to writing. For instance, let’s say I want to focus my essay on being a real estate agent. My argument might be that modern-day real estate agents have to write listing descriptions and ads on a regular basis. To support my argument, I find a YouTube clip that demonstrates for professional real estate agents how to write ads that sell properties quickly. You may also pick a form of media that does not accurately represent your profession’s connection to written communication. For example, let’s say you want to be a lawyer. How does the film or book To Kill a Mockingbird inaccurately depict the kinds of writing lawyers do? Be sure the media you select offers a real

 

 

 

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Question 9: Health Care

 

Participate in the Culture and Health Literacy Modules on the University of Minnesota site https://cpheo1.sph.umn.edu/healthlit/index.asp and write a description of what you learned, what you think is important and why you think it is important. This should be at least 3 pages long.

 

Question 10:        Biology

 

  • Please fill out the following worksheet in typed format only.

Lipid Worksheet.docx

  • Students will research evidence based information to teach classmates about a diet, health belief, agricultural practice, food, ingredient, etc. Please be as creative and interactive as desired.

Presentation Guidelines.pdf

Presentation Grading Rubric.pdf

Presentation Group Evaluation .pdf

  • Food journals and diet logs are common in nutrition to review what a person is actually eating. Understanding daily intake is the first step to helping improve diet, discover nutrient deficiencies or excessive nutrients like salt, sugar, and fat. This activity will provide you with first hand experience. For instructions, follow the link below:(Links to an external site.)

Diet Analysis Assignment.pdf

Diet Analysis Questions.pdf

Items To Hand In for full credit (100 points):

  1. 3-day food log (30 points)
  2. Printed analysis from Nutrition Calc or Super Tracker (30 points)
  3. Completed packet with answered questions (40 points)

Course Outcomes Covered:

  1. Explain the foundational concepts and theories of nutrition.
  2. Identify the basic structures and food sources of micro and macronutrient
  3. Analyze the various factors that influence food habits
  4. Apply knowledge of nutrition to real-life examples
  5. Assess the nutritional status, including measuring the dietary intake of an individual, meal pattern and structure, eating style and behavior.
  • Please submit your references for review. The presentation must contain at least 3-5 references cited in APA formatting. References must be a research study from a peer reviewed journal no more than 5 years old. Consider the Quality of Evidence Pyramid (look for meta analyses and systematic reviews). All other references must be from reliable sources. For more detail on reliable sources, please review Lectures 1-2.

APA formatting: https://owl.purdue.edu/owl/research_and_citation/apa_style/apa_formatting_and_style_guide/general_format.html (Links to

 

 

Question 11: General

 

12 Month Periodised Training Program

Assessment 2 – 60% of final grade

Introduction

This assignment requires you develop a periodised annual training plan for a sport of your choice. You will need to divide the training year into appropriate phases and then produce a detailed microcycle from each phase. Within the microcycle, the precise content of each session for that week must be included (e.g. conditioning, strength training etc.). The overall plan must include the methods you will use to prescribe training load, monitor training and competition load and assess fatigue status. In addition, you will need to provide the details of the testing protocols you would implement and how you would go about assessing change in capacity. Each component of your assignment needs to be supported by a sound theoretical basis combined with the practicalities of the sporting environment.

The format of this assignment is a MS Excel (or other approved software) document for the annual plan and training program, as well as a MS Word document for the justification section. Your justification should be no longer than 3000 words (± 10%). This task is worth 60% of the total marks for this subject and will be graded out of 100.

 

Specific Requirements & Marking Criteria

 

  • Choose your sport (no marks allocated)

It is recommended that you select a sport that relies on a variety of physical capacities (e.g., Intermittent team-sport) as opposed to a sport relying on an isolated capacity or skill (e.g., Powerlifting, Archery).

  • Design an annual plan for your sport (15 marks)

You will be provided with a MS Excel template, or may be able to use other software packages (e.g., Visual Coaching Pro) if approved by your LIC. You will need to:

 

  • Divide the year into appropriate training and competition phases
  • Divide the phases into relevant Macrocycles and Mesocycles
  • Include specific:
    • Competition dates & their relative level of importance
    • Testing dates
    • Other important events/activities (e.g., holidays)
  • Prescribe the overall training load and periodisation approach (20 marks)

You are required to periodise the training program for the entire 12-months, clearly defining the periodisation approach you have taken and justifying it with evidence from the literature. You should also clearly:

  • Include all the components important to performance in your chosen sport (e.g. speed, strength, aerobic endurance, skills, etc)
  • Justify why these are important
  • Present the goal volume, intensity and skill proportions of training for every week of the full calendar year (using the annual plan).

 

  • Provide a complete training program for three separate microcycles of your training program (50 marks)

This key component of the assignment requires you to clearly detail three different microcycles from your annual program. These microcycles (generally 7-10 days) should come from three different training phases (e.g. General preparation, Specific preparation, Competition etc.). If you have only defined 2 phases, you must still include 3 microcycles. You must:

  • Provide a complete plan for every aspect of training that will occur during that microcycle (e.g., conditioning, strength training, etc.).
  • There must be enough detail to allow another coach to take your plan and implement precisely what you had intended.
  • If there is a skill component you do not need to describe specific drills but must include a description of volume and intensity.
  • Provide a clear rationale as to your training approach (can be in the justification document).
  • Identify the testing protocols you will implement as part of your program (15 marks)

The tests that you will use during your 12-month program must be clearly defined and referenced. You will need to detail:

  • Which tests will be conducted and at what times in your annual plan
  • Provide a justification for your choices. This could entail a single line of text as well as a reference for common tests. However, if the choice is not “common”, further justification may be required.
  • Provide expected “norms” for each capacity you assess with appropriate references and further explanation if required.
  • Additional Requirements
    • Provide a reference list of work you have cited in the project at the end of your justification document.
    • Submission must be via Turnitin. Follow the instructions provided by your LIC carefully to do this.
    • If you would like to use another software package for your programming, please seek approval from the LIC prior to beginning the assignment.

 

 

 

 

Summary Marking Criteria from above:

Activity Marks
Choose your sport 0
Design an annual plan for your sport: You will be provided with a MS Excel template, or may be able to use other software packages 15
Prescribe the overall training load and periodisation approach 20
Provide a complete training program for three separate microcycles of your training program 50
Identify the testing protocols you will implement as part of your program 15
Total Marks 100

 

Grade: Mark out of 100. 60% of total grade.

 

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Question 12: History

 

Students will write a paper, 6-8 pages long, based on the Joyner Charles “down the Riverside: A South Carolina Slave Community” and Kaye Anthony “Joining Places: Slave Neighborhoods in the Old South” books. Students will compare and contrast the historians approaches to understanding how African American slaves defined their communities. They will touch on the various topics that each author considers important, judging why each author emphasizes certain things at the expense of others.

 

Question 13: Engineering

 

3.14 A highway reconstruction project is being undertaken to reduce crash rates. The reconstruction involves a major realignment of the highway such that a 60-mi/h design speed is attained. At one point on the highway, a 720-ft equal-tangent crest vertical curve exists. Measurements show that at 3 40 stations from the PVC, the vertical curve offset is 3.5 ft. Assess the adequacy of this existing curve in light of the reconstruction design speed of 60 mi/h and, if the existing curve is inadequate, compute a satisfactory curve length.

 

Question 14: English

 

We have to do a proposal plan before we write the research

 

Proposal Planning
Eng 3880: Intro to Technical Communication
Goals: Develop the quantitative components of your proposal.
Submit: Canvas

 

  1. Quantify the problem you intend your document to solve in THREE ways:
Problem Method of Measuring End Goal Result
A.
B.
C.

 

 

 

  1. SMART goal development:
S What document are you proposing to develop?
M What goal # do you want to see?
A Is it attainable? (no need to type anything here)
R What are the final results? (this might overlap with the M component and you might not need to type anything here)
T When do you want to see the results by, AND when will your document be completed?

 

Write your SMART goal in sentence form:

 

 

 

Computer Science

 

Web Programming

 

This is done using HTML/CSS/JS/PHP

  • Create a PHP page with a simple web form
  • Include at least
    • Two text fields (<input type=”text”>)
    • One drop down (<select>)
    • One radio button group with at least two radio buttons (<input type=”radio”> //same name attribute will cause them to group together)
    • A submit button (<input type=”submit”>)
  • Set up PHP code to validate that all fields had values entered
  • Create styled error messages if fields were not completed
  • Output the values entered on the page using PHP

 

 

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Question 16: General Question

 

Consider the following newborn: Philip is a 6 pound, 7 ounce boy whose pulse is 108. His hands and feet are blue. His grasp is weak. He has been crying loudly. He made a weird face when his reflexes were tested but he did not sneeze or cough. What would Philip’s overall Apgar score be?

 

 

Question 17: Computer Science

 

Concepts of programming languages 11th Edition

 

Build a table identifying all of the major language developments, together with when they occurred, in what language they first appeared, and the identities of the developers.

 

Question 18: Health Care

 

Products & Service Assignment

 

 

In this assignment, you will complete another key section of your marketing plan.

 

Write a 2-3 page description of the product/service to be sold or delivered by your firm. This could be a completely new-to-the-world concept, or an improvement on an existing concept.

 

·         Please discuss the basic attributes in appropriate detail, and then expand to describe the experiential and emotional aspects of the product or service.  Be sure to address the role of branding in fulfilling customer expectations for your product or service.

 

·         Within this section draft, please demonstrate your grasp of the marketing terminology and concepts related to products and services.  For example, it would be appropriate to discuss whether your product is a convenience, shopping, or specialty go

 

 

 

 

Question 19: Computer Science

 

Java

 

      Delta College

CSP26A – Java Programming

     In-class Lab 05

 

Question 1.

Modify your Question 1 in Lab 04 such that you will write all valid input values to an output file called outdata.txt

Hence, if user enter the following integers:

Enter a number : 100

Enter a number : 1

Enter a number : 4

Enter a number : 3

Enter a number : 5

Enter a number : 18

Enter a number : 25

Enter a number : -3

The content of your output file outdata.txt file should be what shown below and you can use Notepad to view this file:

100 1
4
3

5 18 25

What to Submit?

A pdf file that has screenshot of three different outputs for your program.

Also, a zipped files of your .java files ONLY. You may leave the .class files and zipped it together with the .java files.

Question 2

Write a Java program to prompt user to enter the file name of file that has the output in Question 1 (outdata.txt)

You might also have to enter the path to the file as the file can be saved

anywhere in your computer.

After open the outdata.txt file, read all values from the file until all values

read.

When finished reading the file, display the average of all data read to 2 decimal

places.

What to Submit?

A pdf file that has screenshot of three different outputs for your program.

Also, a zipped files of your .java files ONLY. You may leave the .class files and zipped it together with the .java files.

Question 20: English

 

Read the passage from “The Monkey’s Paw.” The Whites are being offered compensation for Herbert’s death. In what way does the stranger’s answer increase the tension of the rising action?

From “The Monkey’s Paw”

The [visitor] coughed, and rising, walked slowly to the window. “The firm wished me to convey their sincere sympathy with you in your great loss,” he said, without looking round. “I beg that you will understand I am only their servant and merely obeying orders.”

There was no reply; the old woman’s face was white, her eyes staring, and her breath inaudible; on the husband’s face was a look such as his friend the sergeant might have carried into his first action.

“I was to say that Maw and Meggins disclaim all responsibility,” continued the other. “They admit no liability at all, but in consideration of your son’s services, they wish to present you with a certain sum as compensation.”

Mr. White dropped his wife’s hand, and rising to his feet, gazed with a look of horror at his visitor. His dry lips shaped the words, “How much?”

“Two hundred pounds,” was the answer.

Unconscious of his wife’s shriek, the old man smiled faintly, put out his hands like a sightless man, and dropped, a senseless heap, to the floor.

The answer causes Mr. White to faint.
The answer satisfies the first wish, and there are still two wishes left.
The answer causes the wife to shriek.
The answer indicates that Herbert has doubts about the wish.

 

 

 

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Question 21: Accounting

 

In April of the current year, Freeman Steel Company transferred Herb Porter from its factory in Nebraska to its plant in Michigan. The company’s SUTA tax rates based on its experience ratings are 3.2% in Nebraska and 3.8% in Michigan. Both states base the tax on the first $9,000 of each employee’s earnings. This year, Freeman Steel Company paid Herb Porter wages of $20,900; $2,800 were paid in Nebraska and the remainder in Michigan. Compute:

 

Question 22: General Questions

 

ECON 213 How to use Inquisitive Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

 

  1. Points, Grades, and Levels

Drag the labels below to fill in the blanks.

(Hint: You saw most of this information on the introductory screen when you first started the activity. To view that screen again, click the gear icon in the top right-hand corner and select “Instructor Activity Introduction” from the drop-down menu.)

Drag word(s) below to fill in the blank(s) in the passage.

  • You score points in InQuizitive by answering.
  • You determine how many points you can gain or lose on each question using the Question slider (to the right if you’re on a computer, or at the bottom for smartphone users).
  • You must answer a number of questions to get a grade on the activity.
  • To get a perfect grade (100%) on the activity, you must reach a designated Score.
  1. Confidence Levels

Find the Question Confidence slider (to the right if you’re on a computer, or at the bottom for smartphone users). Try sliding the ball to adjust your confidence level.

Using the keys below or your keyboard, type out the name of the lowest confidence level.

  1. Confidence Levels

Go back to the Question Confidence slider. What’s the highestconfidence level?

Using the keys on the screen or your keyboard, enter it below.

  1. Confidence Levels

As you’ve seen, you can adjust your confidence level on each question using the Question Confidence slider. What happens when you increase the confidence level for a question?

When you answer the question correctly on the first try, it the number of points you’ll earn.

When you answer incorrectly while attempting the question, it the number of points you’ll lose

  1. Other InQuizitive Policies and Features

Which devices can you use to work on InQuizitive activities?

(Note that to complete this question you must drag every answer option into either the “Correct Answer(s)” area or the “Incorrect Answer(s)” area.)

  1. Confidence Levels

If you guess incorrectly on a question, you immediately lose the points you “wagered” when setting your confidence level. If you answer the question correctly after that initial incorrect guess, however, you can earn back half of those points in most cases.

So, here’s a math question for you: Suppose you set your confidence level at “I think I know it,” which means that you’re initially risking 80 points. You guess wrong on the first attempt. How many “second-chance” points will you be able to earn back?

  1. Other InQuizitive Policies and Features

Find Quizmo, the InQuizitive alien, in the upper left-hand corner of the screen. Quizmo is thinking of an African animal’s common name. Guess the animal.

(This is an impossible question that we’re slipping in here, to make sure you get at least one question wrong and see what happens when you guess incorrectly. Just keep typing until you fill in the answer. You will not encounter impossible questions like this in later InQuizitive activities in your course!)

If you answer the minimum number of questions for an activity before you reach the Target Score, your initial grade will be calculated this way:

If you’ve just reached the minimum number of questions and have scored 750 points, your initial grade is .

However, if you keep answering questions and eventually reach 1,500 points, your grade will improve to , no matter how many questions it takes you to get there.

 

Question 23: General Question.

 

ECON 213 Problem Set ch. 13 Liberty University Complete Answers

 

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

 

01Question

The following table reports the four-firm concentration ratio for five different industries:

Refer to the table above. In which industry do the four largest firms have the most market power?

Refer to the table above. In which industry do the four largest firms have the least market power?

02Question

Consider a cartel, the Organization of the Rice Exporting Companies (OREC), which is a group of rice-exporting countries. Although OREC has eight members, let’s keep it simple and assume there are only two: China and Vietnam. The figure below shows the payoff matrix for the game.

Each country must choose how much rice to produce, either low output or high output. Note that this payoff matrix is not symmetric. At any outcome, China makes more money than Vietnam because China is the dominant member of OREC.

If the countries colluded,

China’s dominant strategy is to produce a

Vietnam’s dominant strategy is to produce a

The Nash equilibrium for these two countries is

Suppose that the countries try to cooperate over a longer time. Although this strategy allows the countries to develop strategies like tit-for-tat, which may sustain collusion, cartel members may still try to cheat. Which of the two countries is more likely to cheat on a cartel agreement?

03Question

Rachel and Joey are two students who are dating. Before they left for class this morning, they decided to meet for dinner in the evening. After their last class, they go home and get ready for their date. Unfortunately, although they both remember the time—7:00 p.m.—neither of them can remember where they agreed to meet: Clementine or Beyond. Also, there is no way for them to contact each other before 7:00 p.m. Where should they go? Let’s assume that Joey prefers Clementine to Beyond, but Rachel prefers Beyond to Clementine. Joey loves Rachel, however, so he would rather be with her at Beyond than by himself at Clementine. Rachel loves Joey, so she would rather be with him at Clementine than by herself at Beyond. The figure below is the payoff matrix, where the payoffs are measured in utils (happy points).

What is Joey’s dominant strategy?

What is Rachel’s dominant strategy?

What is the Nash equilibrium?

04Question

Indicate whether each group or association benefits from network externalities.

Network externalities are important because

05Question

The following table shows your neighorhood’s demand for drinking water. Assume that only two firms (Waterland and Aquataste) produce and sell water in this market. Each firm offers the same quality, no fixed costs are incurred in the production of water, and each firm’s marginal cost is constant and equal to $0 because both companies can pump as much water as needed without cost. Because marginal cost is constant and equal to $0, total revenue is equal to total profit.

Assume Waterland and Aquataste make a nonbinding, informal agreement that each will produce 250 gallons of water, charge $1.50 per gallon, and evenly split the profit of $750.

If Aquataste sticks to the agreement, Waterland has an incentive to renege on the agreement by producing 350 gallons because Waterland’s profits would then increase from $375 to (Provide your answer to two decimal places.)

 

 

 

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Question 24: General Question.

 

ECON 213 Problem Set ch. 10 Liberty University Complete Answers

 

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

 

 

1Question

If you’re like most college students, you are always worried about having enough money. Suppose that you decide to become an Uber driver and offer rides to students on weekends. For a fee, you will drive them to parties and pick them up at the end of the night. The table below depicts the demand schedule for rides. To keep things simple, assume that you are the only person providing this service; that is, you’re a monopolist. Let’s see how much money you can make.

Although you have no fixed costs, you do incur a marginal cost of $15 per ride. How much do you charge per ride to maximize profits?

How much profit do you earn?

02Question

Below are eight descriptions of firms operating under various market conditions. For each item, determine whether the market is a monopoly or a market with perfect competition.
03Question

Suppose that the owner of a smartphone monopoly hires you to determine whether his firm has made the profit-maximizing number of smartphones. He provides you with the following production and sales information for the first six months of 2016.

In which months should the firm have produced fewer smartphones?

In which months should the firm have produced more smartphones?

In which months was the firm maximizing profits?

04Question

A monopolist has the following fixed and variable costs:

Complete the table. The profit-maximizing monopolist produces a quantity of

05Question

The figure below depicts an unlabeled market diagram that includes both the monopoly and perfectly competitive solutions. Label the diagram with the items to the right of the diagram. Make sure you scroll down to see all the items that need labeling.

06Question

Use the figure below to answer the questions that follow.

(a) Which area represents consumer surplus under perfect competition?

(b) Which area represents producer surplus under perfect competition?

(a) Which area represents consumer surplus under monopoly?

(b) Which area represents producer surplus under monopoly?

Which area represents the deadweight loss associated with a monopoly?

07Question

Suppose that after graduating from college with an economics degree, you get a job with your state’s public utilities commission. Your job is to determine the regulated price for an electric utility (a natural monopoly). The figure below shows the current situation in the market.

If the electric utility was unregulated, it would earn

If you set a regulated price to achieve economic efficiency, the electric utility would earn

If the electric utility is forced to charge a price that leads to economic losses, it would go out of business, and consumers would have no electricity. To avoid this, the government has several possible solutions at its disposal. Which of the following is NOT a possible solution?

08Question

The local community bus service, which is a monopoly, charges $2.00 for a one-way fare. The city council is thinking of raising the fare to $2.50 but expects it to generate less than 25% more revenue. The council has asked for your advice as a student of economics. The council predicts that raising the price by 25% will raise revenues by less than 25%. Which of the following is true?

Therefore, the council has

Question 25: History

 

Learning activity 1 instructions

 

Background to the assignment: Who “owns” the past? Who has the right to define what the past means for us today? This assignment asks you to reflect on these questions. In the course of this assignment, you will discover that ancient history can sometimes be very contemporary, reminding us that the past is always present with us. Many of the conflicts in our world today have ancient roots, which is one of the reasons studying the past is important.

 

Description of the assignment: Go online and find some information about the “Elgin Marbles” (also called the “Parthenon Marbles”). Read a little about the controversy between the British and Greek governments concerning the ownership of these marbles. In a 2-paragraph essay, first summarize the controversy in your own words, and then take a clear position by supporting either the Greek or British side. Discuss 2 main reasons that support your position. You do not need to do extensive research or reading to complete this assignment well. However, if you include sources, cite them in current APA format. This assignment must be 250–300 words and must include the word count in parentheses. Submit a draft of your Learning Activity to SafeAssign for feedback a few days before the assignment is due.

 

 

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Question 26: Business

 

Week 4 Quiz

Excess inventory well beyond what is needed for the year may:

tie up cash and cause cash flow problems

reduce cash flow problems

allow the organization to be more responsive to future financial needs

enable the customer to have a better selection of product

allow a company to increase their cash reserves

 

 

 

_______________ helps managers plan, operate and control a company’s activities.

 

Management accounting

Financial accounting

Business accounting

Customer surveys

The federal government

 

The contribution margin is calculated by this formula:

total revenue + variable costs

total revenue + fixed costs

total revenue – fixed costs

total revenue – variable costs

fixed cost + variable costs

 

The accounting system generates information about the:

awareness level

distribution system

level of accessibility

customer preferences

operations of a business.

 

Examples of period costs, also referred to as fixed costs, are:

 

depreciation expenses, SG&A and current liabilities

depreciation expenses, R & D expenses, and labor expenses

depreciation expenses, R&D expenses, and variable costs

depreciation expenses, R & D expenses, and administrative expenses

short term expenses, SG&A, and R&D expenses

 

The difference between contribution margin and gross margin is:

 

gross marketing excludes depreciation expenses

gross margin includes depreciation expenses

contribution includes depreciation expenses

contribution margin includes variable costs

contribution margin and gross margin are identical

 

Variable costs are the:

 

costs of making products the company produces

costs of making products the company sells

costs of making the product the company sells on account

revenues from making the product the company produces

revenue from the products a company sells

 

______________ is used by individuals external to the organization to understand its performance.

 

Question 27: Business

 

SEJPME Final Exam | Complete Solution | Scored 100%

SEJPME Pre Test and Post Test (Study Guide) / SEJPME Final Exam (Study Guide)

SEJPME I POST TEST

1) In the name of strategic mobility, the Marine Corps adopted prepositioning for which of the following purposes?   [objective81]

 

 

 

speed and dispersion

 

 

 

provide materiel needed to sustain a brigade for 30 days in a potential combat zone

 

 

 

amphibious assault

 

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

 

 

2) The most well-known Coast Guard mascot during World War II, who provided a morale boost to his crew, was named?   [objective88]

 

 

Skipper

 

 

Aladdin

 

 

Sinbad

 

 

Smoky

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

3) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.   [objective92]

 

none of the answers are correct

 

 

the Army Reserve

 

 

both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve

 

 

the Army National Guard

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council?   [objective63]

 

Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National Intelligence

 

 

Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence

 

 

President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense

 

 

Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

5) Between 1777 and 1778, Baron Friedrich Willhelm von Steuben taught the Continental Army what aspects of war? (Select all that apply.)   [objective79]

 

rifle cartridges loading

 

 

drill formations

 

 

proper care of equipment

 

 

bayonet usage

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.)   [objective72]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

to train forces

 

 

to retain forces

 

 

to equip forces

 

 

to organize forces

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____.   [objective58]

 

gather multiple perspectives on the problem

 

 

report the problem to the commanding officer

 

 

define the problem

 

 

draft an action plan

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

8) Derived from the integration of Service cultures and competencies and requires teamwork amongst all Services and Military Departments to accomplish objectives in the best interest of national security unfettered by parochialism. _____ best describes this concept.   [objective96]   [Remediation Accessed: N]

 

Integration

 

 

Interdependence

 

 

Diversity

 

 

Jointness

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

9) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what point in the planning process?   [objective90]

 

after all of the planning is completed

 

 

early in the planning process

 

 

somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included

 

 

late in the planning process

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

10) One of the three approaches within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program includes preventative strategies which include addressing and eliminating the stigma and other factors that prevent Service members (and their families) from seeking help early and focus on achieving increased performance.   [objective105]

 

False

 

 

True

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

11) Who are the caretakers of naval customs, traditions, honors, and ceremonies?   [objective85]

 

commanders

 

 

chief petty officers

 

 

admirals

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard?   [objective77]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

maritime stewardship

 

 

maritime safety

 

 

maritime security

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far greater extent than surface forces can.   [objective76]

 

False

 

 

True

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the following? (Select all that apply.)   [objective70]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

compromise

 

 

communication

 

 

coordination

 

 

consensus

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.   [objective91]

 

Adaptability

 

 

Transformation

 

 

Predictability

 

 

Training

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste, and abuse (FWA).   [objective102]

 

True

 

 

False

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

17) In a traditional cake-cutting ceremony the first piece of cake is given to the youngest Marine present, and the second piece of cake is given to the oldest Marine present.   [objective86]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

True

 

 

False

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

18) While its missions might include forcible entry operations and peace enforcement, humanitarian assistance is not within the Marine Corps’ purview.   [objective75]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

False

 

 

True

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

19) Service members contribute to force readiness by being focused, alert, and prepared for new tasks, behaving responsibly and ethically, and _____.   [objective103]

 

limiting the number of times they take vacations

 

 

remaining single

 

 

maintaining dental health and hygiene

 

 

being able to engage in critical thinking

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

20) Each geographic combatant command has a _____ to plan and control special operations and other Special Operations Forces activities.   [objective95]

 

Regional Special Warfare Command (RSWC)

 

 

Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)

 

 

Joint Special Operations Command (JSOC)

 

 

Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

21) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____.   [objective60]

 

President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security

 

 

President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy

 

 

President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State

 

 

President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

22) Taking steps and precautions to reduce the likelihood of something negative or hazardous happening, or reducing the extent of the exposure to a risk, is called risk modification.   [objective100]

 

False

 

 

True

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

23) What are the fundamental roles of the U.S. Navy, Marine Corps, and Coast Guard in the implementation of the National Naval Strategy (NNS)? (Select all that apply.)   [objective74]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

establish favorable security conditions

 

 

secure strategic access and retain global freedom of action

 

 

strengthen existing and emerging alliances and partnerships

 

 

secure the United States from direct attack

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

24) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences – both positive and negative.   [objective101]

 

seek out professional assistance

 

 

acknowledge our own prejudice

 

 

know all of the facts

 

 

critically think about

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

25) _____ warfare is a violent struggle among state and non-state actors for legitimacy and influence over the relevant population(s). It favors indirect and asymmetric approaches, though it may employ the full range of military and other capacities, in order to erode an adversary’s power, influence, and will.   [objective59]

 

Irregular

 

 

Asymmetric

 

 

Joint

 

 

Traditional

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams.   [objective94]

 

civil affairs

 

 

foreign area officers

 

 

special forces

 

 

political advisors

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

27) What Services were established as precursors to the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.)   [objective83]

 

Lighthouse and Revenue Cutter Service

 

 

Bureau of Navigation

 

 

Steamboat Inspection Service

 

 

Transportation Security Administration

 

 

Life Saving Service

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

28) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of the U.S. Navy?   [objective78]

 

False

 

 

True

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)   [objective57]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence

 

 

signals intelligence

 

 

solutions, products, and services

 

 

information systems security

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

30) Joint _____ is the component of joint force development that entails collecting observations, analyzing them, and taking the necessary steps to turn them into changes in behavior that improve the mission ready capabilities of the joint force.   [objective97]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

lessons learned

 

 

concepts

 

 

education

 

 

doctrine

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

31) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?   [objective87]

 

as a reward for attendance

 

 

recognition for a job well done

 

 

as punishment for violating the rules of the mess

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

32) The major challenge in working toward unity of effort often comes from _____.   [objective62]

 

disjunctions in the three levels of interagency coordination

 

 

the news media reporting on governmental and military actions

 

 

a lack of sufficient resources applied to the problem

 

 

bipartisan politics and infighting in Congress

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

33) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI) representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands.   [objective64]

 

JIACG

 

 

HAST

 

 

CMOC

 

 

POLAD

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

34) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required.

 

subordinate unified command

 

 

combatant command

 

 

joint task force

 

 

Service component command

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

35) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was exiled by Oliver Cromwell.   [objective84]

 

False

 

 

True

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

36) What are the Army’s primary missions? (Select all that apply.)   [objective73]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

shaping the international environment

 

 

responding to crises

 

 

preparing now for an uncertain future

 

 

secure the United States from direct attack

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), “. . .requires leaders at every echelon to be _____.”   [objective98]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

impartial

 

 

adaptable

 

 

decisive

 

 

strict adherents to doctrine

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

38) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of multinational forces.   [objective71]

 

Liaison network, coordination centers

 

 

Rationalization, training

 

 

Interoperability, liaison network

 

 

Training, interoperability

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States?   [objective89]

 

50 percent

 

 

60 percent

 

 

30 percent

 

 

40 percent

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

40) After the attacks of 9/11, U.S. Special Operations Command assumed an operational role in synchronizing the DoD effort in _____.   [objective93]

 

combating weapons of mass destruction

 

 

cyberspace operations

 

 

support of the U.S. government response to pandemic influenza

 

 

global operations against terrorist networks

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____ to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more than one level.   [objective65]

 

not equipped and organized

 

 

usually willing, but hesitant

 

 

not educated and trained

 

 

not eager

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

42) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to U.S. interests are known as _____ operations.   [objective67]

 

enforcement

 

 

nation assistance

 

 

economy of force

 

 

show of force

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

43) The post-Vietnam Maritime Strategy called for the positioning of strong Naval forces along the seaward flanks of the Soviet Union in what locations? (Select all that apply.)   [objective80]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

the Far East

 

 

the Black Sea

 

 

the Mediterranean Sea

 

 

northern Europe

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility.   [objective99]

 

delegation of authority

 

 

experience

 

 

maturity

 

 

rank

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

45) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.   [objective66]

 

rotation

 

 

transition

 

 

situational awareness

 

 

influence

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

46) The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff provides a channel of communication between the President/SECDEF and the combatant commanders.   [objective56]

 

False

 

 

True

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.   [objective104]

 

False

 

 

True

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

48) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place? (Select all that apply.)   [objective82]

 

a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17

 

 

a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare

 

 

clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

49) To promote their mutual national interests and ensure mutual security against real and perceived threats, nations that form partnerships must understand the impacts of _____.   [objective69]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

techniques, tactics, and procedures (TTPs)

 

 

culture and economics

 

 

non-governmental agencies

 

 

internally displaced personnel (IDPs)

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

50) The principle of joint operations designed to limit collateral damage and prevent the unnecessary use of force is _____.   [objective68]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

proportionality

 

 

perseverance

 

 

restraint

 

 

legitimacy

 

 

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

 

ADDITIONAL POST TEST QUESTIONS

 

 

 

1) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and defensive air operation.   [objective72]

 

 

 

False

 

 

 

True

 

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

 

 

2) The U.S. employs the military instrument of national power at home and abroad in support of its national security goals. The ultimate purpose of the U.S. Armed Forces is to _____.   [objective96]

 

 

deter aggressors from attacking the U.S.

 

 

support and defend U.S. allies and partners

 

 

defend the homeland

 

 

fight and win the Nation’s wars

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

3) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.)   [objective77]

 

maritime security

 

 

maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories

 

 

maritime stewardship around the globe

 

 

maritime safety

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

4) During the conduct of military operations, multinational personnel must be able to _____.   [objective70]

 

develop guidance for detainee operations in a joint environment according to their respective laws

 

 

enforce local rules of engagement (ROE) without regard to approved coalition ROE

 

 

properly control, maintain, protect and account for all detainees according to applicable domestic law, international law, and policy

 

 

target only a small percentage of individuals who fall into different categories under the law of war

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

5) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning, Sir,” in the case of an officer.   [objective86]

 

True

 

 

False

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

6) Which of the following are primary functions of the Marine Corps according to DoD Directive 5100.01?   [objective75]

 

conduct prompt and sustained combat operations at sea, including sea-based and land-based aviation

 

 

all of the answers are correct

 

 

organize, equip, and provide Marine Corps forces to conduct joint amphibious operations and train all forces assigned to joint amphibious operations

 

 

provide detachments and organizations to serve on armed vessels of the Navy and provide security detachments for naval stations and bases

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

7) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to support the United States’ Security Strategy.   [objective74]

 

True

 

 

False

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

8) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?   [objective57]

 

Navy

 

 

Army

 

 

Coast Guard

 

 

Air Force

 

 

Marines

 

 

None of the branches

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

9) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions.   [objective97]   [Remediation Accessed :N]

 

force development

 

 

force planning

 

 

force training

 

 

doctrine

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

10) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which of the following?   [objective73]

 

Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

 

 

Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

 

 

Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

11) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), with the advent and increase of command and control (C2) capabilities, networked-enabled leaders are cautioned against the lure to _____.   [objective98]

 

micromanage

 

 

delegate authority

 

 

second-guess

 

 

provide guidance

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

12) In 1798, the U.S. Navy and U.S. Marine Corps were created.   [objective80]

 

False

 

 

True

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

13) A(n) _____ is a relationship that results from a formal agreement between two or more nations for broad, long-term objectives, while _____ is an ad hoc arrangement between two or more nations for common action, usually for a single occasion.   [objective69]

 

partnership, coalition

 

 

alliance, partnership

 

 

coalition, alliance

 

 

alliance, coalition

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

14) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results.   [objective68]

 

offensive

 

 

mass

 

 

objective

 

 

maneuver

 

 

——————————————————————————–

 

 

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Question 28: Psychology

 

Read the Research Paper Instructions and Research Paper Rubric. Decide which specific DSM disorder you plan to research for the Research Paper assignment. Go to the LU Online Library and begin researching for your paper, locating one journal article to share with the class. Share your chosen topic with the class and your reasoning behind your interest in the selected topic. Within your post, provide a 150 word summary of one journal article that you are interested in using for your research paper. Provide the journal (full text) as an attachment. Include at least one direct quote from the journal article (not more than 25 words).   (Note that the entire post should be 200-250 words. For this assignment, the direct quote is included in the required word count). All citations should be in APA format.  As per assignment directions and rubric, include a Bible verse and application and an outside source cited in APA format.

 

Research a specific mental disorder within the realm of Abnormal Psychology. The topic must be one which is discussed in the course textbook and described in the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM). The length of the body of the paper must be at least 7 pages, and must not exceed 10 pages of summarized research findings in current APA format.  All sources used must be scholarly journals. In addition to this, include a current APA-style title page, abstract, and references; these do not count toward the minimum number of pages required. The paper must be organized with sub-headings reflecting the required sections (I–IX).

The research paper will address the following aspects, organized in this order:

*          Title Page: APA-style

*          Abstract: APA-style

  1. Introduction: Introduce and describe the topic. Discuss the DSM classification for the disorder, including a discussion of the specific criteria as described in the DSM (1/2 page).
  2. Historical: Describe the disorder in a historical context (how the view of disorder has changed over time, how cause/treatment options have changed, etc). (1 page).

III.              Cause of the Illness: Current research as to the cause of the illness (1 page).

  1. Treatment: Various treatment approaches for this disorder, including the benefits of the treatment (1 page).
  2. Prevention: Research as to the prevention of the illness (1 page).
  3. Cross Cultural: Cross-cultural issues pertaining to the topic (1 page).

VII.           Biblical Worldview: Discuss the topic from a Christian worldview perspective, including disorder’s cause, treatment, and prevention. Utilize the Bible and a journal source written from a biblical/theological perspective on the topic (1 page).

VIII.        Conclusion: Include a closing summary of the research, including ideas for future research on the topic (1/2 page).

  1. References: APA-style. See also References Grading Rubric and instructions.

*          Organize the paper according to directions. Include current APA-style Level 1 sub-titles. Do not use Roman numerals.

*          The use of 3rd person point of view is expected for this type of scholarly research assignment.

*          Correct spelling, grammar, and punctuation is expected in writing at this level.

*          Include not more than ½ page of directly quoted material. Directly quoted material in excess of ½ page would not count towards length/content requirements of the paper.

*          Current APA formatting is required.

*          Course textbook is not permitted as a source.

*          All sources must be journal articles dated within the past 10 years.

 

 

 

 

Research Paper Grading Rubric

Criteria Levels of Achievement
Content 70%

140 points

Advanced 90-100% (A) Proficient 70-89% (B-C) Developing 1-69% (< D) Not present
Content (20 points each) 126 to 140 points

 

The paper exceeds content requirements:

 

Introduction/Conclusion

 

Intro: Detailed DSM information for the disorder and a full 1/2 page. Conclusion: thoughtful content and ideas for future research. Content is a full 1/2 page.

 

Historical: detailed Historical content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Cause: detailed Causal content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Treatment: detailed Treatment content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Prevention: Detailed Prevention content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Cross-Cultural: Detailed Cross-Cultural content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Biblical Worldview

Detailed Biblical content and is a full page. Contains content based on 1 or more Bible type sources and also includes a Bible verse and application to the topic.

 

 

98 to 125 points

 

The paper meets content requirements:

Introduction/Conclusion

Intro: Detailed DSM information for the disorder and a full 1/2 page. Conclusion: thoughtful content and ideas for future research. Content is a full 1/2 page.

 

Historical: Detailed Historical content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Cause: Detailed Causal content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Treatment: detailed Treatment content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Prevention: Detailed Prevention content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Cross-Cultural: Detailed Cross-Cultural content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Biblical Worldview

Detailed Biblical content and is a full page. Contains content based on 1 or more Bible type sources and also includes a Bible verse and application to the topic.

1 to 97 points

The paper meets some of the content requirements:

 

Introduction/Conclusion

 

Intro: Detailed DSM information for the disorder and a full 1/2 page. Conclusion: thoughtful content and ideas for future research. Content is a full 1/2 page.

 

Historical: Detailed Historical content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Cause: Detailed Causal content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Treatment: Detailed Treatment content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Prevention: Detailed Prevention content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Cross-Cultural: Detailed Cross-Cultural content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

 

Biblical Worldview

Detailed Biblical content and is a full page. Contains content based on 1 or more Bible type sources and also includes a Bible verse and application to the topic.

0 points

Not present.

Structure 30%

60 points

Advanced 90-100% (A) Proficient 70-89% (B-C) Developing 1-69% (< D) Not present
Organizational Elements 9 to 10 points

The paper exceeds structure requirements:

Organizational Elements as outlined in instructions were followed, including APA style Level 1 sub-titles

7 to 8 points

The paper meets structure requirements:

Organizational Elements as outlined in instructions were followed, including APA style Level 1 sub-titles

1 to 6 points

The paper meets most of the structure requirements:

Organizational Elements as outlined in instructions were followed, including APA style Level 1 sub-titles

0 points

Not present.

General APA 18 to 20 points

The paper exceeds structure requirements:

Content displays correct APA format in all required paper sections (Historical, Cause, Treatment, Prevention, Cross-Cultural, Biblical Worldview) with citations throughout matching the References page.

14 to 17 points

The paper meets structure requirements:

Content displays correct APA format in all required paper sections (Historical, Cause, Treatment, Prevention, Cross-Cultural, Biblical Worldview) with citations throughout matching the References page.

1 to 13 points

The paper meets most of the structure requirements:

Content displays correct APA format in all required paper sections (Historical, Cause, Treatment, Prevention, Cross-Cultural, Biblical Worldview) with citations throughout matching the References page.

0 points

Not present.

Title page, abstract, reference page formatting 27 to 30 points

The paper exceeds structure requirements:

Title page is in proper APA format.

Abstract is in proper APA format, contains 150-250 words, and includes keywords.

References page is free of APA errors, contains 5 or more scholarly sources in correct APA format (books or journals only). Textbook is not used as a source as per directions. Sources contain Bible type book/journal source.

21 to 26 points

The paper meets structure requirements:

Title page is in proper APA format.

Abstract is in proper APA format, contains 150-250 words, and includes keywords.

References page is free of APA errors, contains 5 or more scholarly sources in correct APA format (books or journals only). Textbook is not used as a source as per directions. Sources contain Bible type book/journal source.

1 to 20 points

The paper meets most of the structure requirements:

Title page is in proper APA format.

Abstract is in proper APA format, contains 150-250 words, and includes keywords.

References page is free of APA errors, contains 5 or more scholarly sources in correct APA format (books or journals only). Textbook is not used as a source as per directions. Sources contain Bible type book/journal source.

0 points

Not present.

 

 

 

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Question 29: Economics

 

Matching Vocabulary

 

Money that enters the spending stream through an increase in business or government spending.

The difference between exports and imports in an economy.

Where spending equal output in an economy.

The level of consumer and business spending at each possible income or output level.

Insufficient total spending to achieve full-employment GDP

A tax where everyone pays the same amount.

Total spending exceeds level to achieve full-employment GDP

Money, like savings, that is no in the spending stream.

The business spending plan at each level of GDP

Spending choices of business independent of current real output.

 

 

Planned investment

Investment schedule

Aggregate expenditures schedule

Equilibrium GDP

Leakage

Injection

Net Exports

Lump-sum tax

Recessionary expenditure gap

Inflationary expenditure gap

 

Question 30: Sociology

 

‘If you consent to it, then the state should not intervene.’ Critically discuss with reference to female circumcision

 

Question 31: Mathematics

 

  1. Calculate the percentage return on a 1-year Treasury bill with a face value of $10,000 if you pay $9,777.46 to purchase it and receive its full face value at maturity.

The percentage return is % Round to decimal place

 

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College Students Use this website www.homeworknest.com for college assignmemts help. Online Homework Tutoring 2019, 2020,2021, Get tutored on your subjects by Expert Tutors!

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A farmer has 1000 acre of land on which he can grow corn, wheat and
soya beans. Each acre of corn cost Rs. 100 for preparation, requires 7
man days of work and yields a profit of Rs. 30. An acre of wheat cost Rs.
120 for preparation, requires 10 man days of work and yields a profit of
Rs. 40. An acre of soya beans cost Rs. 70 to prepare, requires 8 man days
of work and yields a profit of Rs, 200. If the farmer has Rs. 1, 00,000 for
preparation and count on 8000man days of work, how many acres
should be allocated to each crop to maximize profit. (Use Simplex
Method)
Discuss the profitability of different alternatives

Question 2: Chemistry

Calculate the density of a proton, given that the mass of a proton is 1.0073 amu and the diameter of a proton is 1.72×10−15 m.

Question 3: Chemistry

An atom has a diameter of 2.50 Å and the nucleus of that atom has a diameter of 4.50×10−5 Å. Determine the fraction of the volume of the atom that is taken up by the nucleus. Assume the atom and the nucleus are a sphere.

Question 1:     General Question

 

NURS 6501 Week 10 Quiz (2018): Advanced Pathophysiology -Walden University (Already graded A)

 

Question 1: Health Care

 

HEA-306: MEN’S HEALTH

 

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Required Internet Resources

 

 

 

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Written Assignment 1: Health Risk Assessment

The purpose of this activity is to reflect on and identify your potential risk factors for diseases and identify strategies that promote healthy lifestyles. While many of these health risks are the same for women, the focus of this course is men’s health. Therefore, women taking this course should ask a male to complete the assessment.

 

  1. Review the variables and complete the Sample Health Risk Assessment.

 

  1. Write a 3–5 page paper addressing the areas identified in the grading rubric below for this activity.
Grading Criteria Points Allocated Points Earned
  1. Describe your total HRA score and the total score for each category (e.g., physical activity, nutrition, general health).
10
  1. Discuss results.

●       What do you think the overall score means for you? Did it surprise you?

●       Which category score was the highest and which one was the lowest? Did that surprise you?

20
  1. Describe 3 positive behaviors you identified. How can they be enhanced? Provide at least 2 web resources with information to support your answer.
30
  1. Describe 3 behaviors you identified that could use improvement. How can they be improved? Provide at least 2 web resources with information to support your answer.
30
APA, Grammar, and Organization:

●      Uses correct spelling, grammar, and sentence structure.

●      Correct use of APA style.

10
Total  /100

 

Discussion Forum 5: Health Risk Assessment Findings

Complete your Sample Health Risk Assessment Written Assignment and discuss your findings in Discussion Forum 5.

 

  • Based on what you have learned, do you think this assessment includes the most important variables/risk factors of health? If not, which variables / risk factors are not included?
  • Do you see any benefit to using a tool like this? Why or why not?
  • Did you identify any strategies to reduce health risk that you had not considered before?

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Question 2: Health Care

 

Module 10: Critical Thinking Critical Thinking Assignment (105 points) Draft a response plan as a part of the World Health Organization’s strategic planning proposal for natural disasters or disease outbreak specific to the Eastern Mediterranean Region to protect pilgrims during the Hajj. Research a disease or natural disaster in which the WHO seeks to advise the KSA on how to react. Also, as you draft your response plan, consider the policy requirements that are in place for Health Conditions for Travelers to Saudi Arabia for the Pilgrimage to Mecca (Hajj). Draft a 5-6 page policy, not including the cover and reference pages, using the readings, research, and your knowledge of healthcare consumerism influencing marketing. Your paper should analyze the following substantive requirements: Describe what natural disaster or disease you are planning to mitigate through the response plan. Examine the global and regional organizations that could aid in this situation. Assess the humanitarian challenges that should be considered. Provide specific information regarding the implementation of this policy. Recommend how to monitor to continually monitor the implementation to ensure its success. Your report should meet the following structural requirements: Be five to six pages in length, not including the cover or reference pages. Be formatted according to Saudi Electronic University and APA writing guidelines. Provide support for your statements with in-text citations from a minimum of six scholarly articles. Two of these sources may be from the class readings, textbook, or lectures, but four must be external. Utilize headings to organize the content in your work.

 

 

 

 

 

Question 3: Health Care

 

 

Quantitative or Qualitative Critique

Student Name

NSG 3036

Date

 

 

 

 

 

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Qualitative (Individual) Critique

Questions

  1. Is the specific qualitative approach named and described? What is it? (Houser ch 15).
  2. Does the phenomenon lend itself to study by qualitative methods or would a quantitative approach have been more appropriate? Why/ why not?
  3. Does the study focus on the subjective nature of human experience? Explain.
  4. Does the researcher clearly describe how participants were selected? How was the sample size determined? Describe.
  5. Is the data collection and recording process fully presented? If so, how?
  6. Is it clear how researcher bias in data collection was avoided? Explain. (Houser p. 394).
  7. Is the data analysis method consistent with the purpose and approach of the study? Why/why not?
  8. Are the study findings clearly presented and study limitations acknowledged? If so, how?
  9. Will the study findings have significance for nursing? Why/why not?
  10. APA citation for the article:

 

Each item and the citation are worth 10 points each for a total of 100 points.

Total Grade =

 

 

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Quantitative (Individual) Critique

Questions

  1. Is the design clearly identified and described in the research report? What is the design?
  2. Is the design appropriate to test the study hypothesis(es) or answer the research question(s)? Why/ why not?
  3. Did the study use an experimental or nonexperimental design? Was the most appropriate type of experimental design used? Explain your reasoning. (Houser pp. 41-43).
  4. What means were used to control for threats to internal validity? External validity? (Houser p. 243).
  5. Was assignment of subjects to the experimental and control group clearly described? If so, how? (Houser chapter 7).
  6. Does the research design allow the researcher to draw a cause-and-effect relationship between the variables? Describe.
  7. Are the study findings clearly presented and study limitations acknowledged? If so, how?
  8. What means were used to control for extraneous variables, such as subject characteristics? Please explain.
  9. Will the study findings have significance for nursing? Why/why not?
  10. APA citation for the article:

 

Each item and the citation are worth 10 points each for a total of 100 points

 

Instructions

This is an assignment for TWO SEPARATE Critiques using TWO SEPARATE studies

  • Paper must be typed and citation in APA format.
  • Type the answer directly below the question.
  • Only utilize the articles that were approved by Dr. Ramjohn
  • Cover page follows APA format.
  • One paper is completed for the qualitative study
  • One paper is completed for the qualitative study
  • Each paper is to be turned in as a hard copy bound in the following format from front to back: cover page, critique of the paper, reference page and article attached.
  • If you fail to turn a paper in on time 10 points will be deducted automatically.

 

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Question 4: Religious Studies

 

Jewish History

Part 1: Common Holy Days in Jewish Religious Traditions

Complete the table below with information about Jewish holy days. Identify at least seven Jewish religious holy days and place each holy day in the correct season (time of year). Provide a brief explanation of each holy day you identified.

Note: An example has been provided. You may add additional rows or move the text fields to different locations within the table as needed.

Fall

(September – November)

Winter

(December – February)

Spring

(March – May)

Summer

(June – August)

 Enter text. Example:

Hanukkah

Hanukkah is an 8 day-long Festival of Lights. It is a celebration of the victory of the Maccabees over the armies of Syria, as well as the rededication of the Temple in Jerusalem.

Enter text. Enter text.
Enter text. Enter text. Enter text. Enter text.

Part 2: Major Sects of Judaism

Select three major sects of Judaism to compare and contrast. Identify them in the table below.

Sect of Judaism Enter text.
Sect of Judaism Enter text.
Sect of Judaism Enter text.

In the table below, list at least two similarities and two differences among the sects of Judaism you selected.

Similarities Differences
Enter text. Enter text.

Part 3: Summary

Write a 525- to 700-word summary that includes the following:

  • A description of the life and importance of one key person in Jewish history
  • An explanation of one key event in the history of Judaism that is connected to that person
  • A description of any rituals, symbols, or sacred texts in Judaism associated with this event or person
  • Brief explanation of Jewish ethics
Summary
Enter text.

Include references formatted according to APA guidelines. You may find helpful resources for formatting citations in the Center for Writing Excellence in the University Library.

References
Enter text.

 

 

Question 5: Other

 

Explain merit pay. Address what level of risk is associated with the employees. Your response should be a minimum of 75 words. 2. Discuss how performance appraisals should be conducted. Your response should be a minimum of 75 words. 3. Evaluate how performance appraisals are used in pay-for-performance plans. Your response should be a minimum of 75 words. 4. Explain whether or not pay-for-performance affects employee behavior. Your response should be a minimum of 75 words.

 

Question 6: Law

 

Liberty University – CJUS 330 Ch.15-Study Questions / CJUS 330 chapter 15 Study Questions/ CJUS 330 Questions

How much deference (or conversely, scrutiny) an appellate court will afford to the decisions of a judge, jury, or administrative agency in an appeal is referred to as the ____________.

  1. deferential standard
  2. appellate standard
  3. principle or review
  4. standard of review

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Which court is responsible for hearing cases for which there are automatic reviews?

  1. trial court
  2. intermediate court of appeals
  3. state court of last resort
  4. federal circuit court

 

If a defendant loses an appeal, what is the first step to take in order to file a subsequent appeal?

  1. File a notice of appeal.
  2. File a petition for a writ of certiorari.
  3. File a writ of habeas corpus.
  4. File a motion for appeal.

 

Which of the following statements is true?

  1. Criminal appeals always involve questions of fact decided by a judge or jury.
  2. In contrast to the highly deferential appellate review of factual issues, questions of law are reviewed without deference on appeal.
  3. Appellate courts are willing to second-guess findings of fact made in lower courts.
  4. Many appeals are “routine,” which means they have the likelihood of succeeding.

 

____________ errors are defects that seriously affect substantial rights.

  1. Substantial
  2. Reversible
  3. Plain
  4. Grievous

 

If a defendant convicted in a U.S. circuit court files for an appeal, which type of court has jurisdiction?

  1. U.S. Supreme Court
  2. intermediate courts of appeals
  3. state courts of last resort
  4. U.S. circuit courts

 

Which of the following are opinions written “by the court” without attribution to a specific judicial author?

  1. dissenting opinion
  2. concurring opinion
  3. plurality opinion
  4. per curium opinion

 

 

 

During trial, attorneys must make timely objections to the judge’s rulings on points of law or the objections will be deemed waived. This is known as which of the following?

  1. mandatory objection rule
  2. contemporaneous objection rule
  3. appellate objection rule
  4. interlocutory objection rule

 

The ____________ consists of the materials that advance to the appellate court.

  1. writ of certiorari
  2. standards of review
  3. appellate court record
  4. notice of appeal

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A defendant who makes a guilty plea on a felony charge, therefore accepting the sentence recommended by the prosecutor, subsequently requests an appeal. The appeal is based upon the failure of the court to inquire as to whether the plea was voluntary. In this example, the error is subject to which type of test?

  1. classic trial errors rule
  2. reversible error rule
  3. plain error rule
  4. harmless error rule

 

Losing parties at trial have the discretion to file an appeal except in what type of cases?

  1. felony cases
  2. civil cases
  3. misdemeanor cases
  4. capital punishment cases

 

How does the role of the appellate court differ from the trial court?

  1. It retries cases sent from the lower court.
  2. It focuses on the evidence and how it was obtained.
  3. It focuses on how decisions were made in the trial court.
  4. It reexamines the facts presented during the trial.

 

The leading causes of ____________ include mistaken identifications, improper forensic evidence, false confessions, unreliable informants, tunnel vision and misconduct by justice professionals, and inadequate defense representation.

  1. appeals
  2. wrongful convictions
  3. hung juries
  4. postconviction reviews

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Why do criminal appeals rarely succeed?

  1. The appellate court reversal often produces only minor victories for many criminal defendants.
  2. If the appellate court reverses and remands the case to the lower court for a new trial, many defendants will be convicted a second time.
  3. The appellate standards of review often find that no reversible error was committed during the trial court proceedings.
  4. The appellate courts are reluctant to overturn decisions by the lower courts because of time and cost constraints.

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Which court is seen as more conservative with rulings that cut back on abortion rights, condoned mandatory drug testing, and permitted capital punishment for juveniles and developmentally impaired persons who were convicted of murder?

  1. the Warren Court
  2. the Burger Court
  3. the Rehnquist Court
  4. the Roberts Court

 

What was the purpose of the Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act of 1996?

  1. It restricted the time periods and the number of habeas corpus petitions prisoners file.
  2. It restricted courts from hearing habeas corpus petitions from convicted terrorists.
  3. It restricted courts from pursuing all terrorism cases as death penalty cases.
  4. It increased penalties for those convicted of domestic terrorism

 

What does it mean when a case is reversed and remanded?

  1. The case is overturned and sent back to the lower court for further hearing.
  2. The case is overturned and terminated.
  3. The case is returned to the lower court for a retrial.
  4. The case is affirmed and returned to the lower court for further hearing.

 

What are the two primary functions of appeal?

  1. judicial oversight and checks on prosecution
  2. error correction and policy formation
  3. error correction and process oversight
  4. crime control philosophy enforcement and compliance

 

Which of the following is NOT one of the ways in which postconviction differs from appeals?

  1. They may be filed only by those actually in custody.
  2. They may raise only constitutional defects, not technical ones.
  3. They may be somewhat broader than appeals.
  4. Many state court systems limit postconviction remedies.

 

The U.S. Supreme Court and most state high courts of last resort have largely ____________.

  1. discretionary appellate jurisdiction
  2. mandatory appellate jurisdiction
  3. limited appellate jurisdiction
  4. constitutional appellate jurisdiction

 

Which of the following has led to an increase in the broader range of criminal cases being appealed?

  1. relaxation of appellate court rules
  2. increase in the penalties for crimes
  3. increase in meritorious issues of broader concern
  4. public awareness of trial rules

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How do state courts of last resort and the U.S. Supreme Court help set justice policy?

  1. By utilizing the political associations that come with the appointment of the judges.
  2. By exercising caution as to how they word their opinions.
  3. Through their exercise of their discretionary appellate jurisdiction.
  4. Through their exercise of their experience in handling difficult questions of law.

 

Which of the following terms refers to the movement in the state supreme courts to reinvigorate state constitutions as sources of individual rights over and above the rights granted by the U.S. Constitution?

  1. new judicial federalism
  2. rights-generous doctrine
  3. state constitutional reformation
  4. restorative representation

 

Postconviction reviews are termed collateral attacks because they are attempts to ____________.

  1. avoid the effects of a prior court decision by bringing a different action in new court proceedings
  2. overturn prior court decision by bringing in new evidence
  3. affirm prior court decisions by bringing a different action in new court proceedings
  4. change the way the process was handled in the lower court

 

A defendant has been acquitted by a jury of charges filed against him by the state. The prosecution subsequently discovers incriminating evidence that was not presented during the trial. The prosecutor decides to recharge the individual with the crime. However, the court denies the motion for a new trial. Under what rules is the judge basing the denial?

  1. Fifth Amendment protection against double jeopardy
  2. Fifth and Fourteenth Amendment violation of due process
  3. Fourth Amendment protection against admissibility of illegally obtained evidence
  4. Eighth Amendment protection against cruel and unusual punishment

 

 

Question 7: General Question

 

NSG 5002 Week 4 Quiz / NSG5002 Week 4 Quiz / NSG 5002 Quiz 4 (2019): South University (Already graded A)

 

Question 8: General Question

 

NSG 5003 Week 3 Knowledge Check Quiz (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: South University

 

Question 9: General Question

 

Liberty BIOL 101 Quiz 4 Latest Version

 

Question 10:        General Question

 

Liberty University CSTU 101 Quiz 4 Latest

 

Question 11:        Business

 

  1. Imagine you are the HR manager of a healthcare organization with 250 employees. You have been asked, as the HR manager, to determine the skills required for the new IT system that will be implemented in the purchasing department. The new system will impact all non-supervisory employees. Implementation of the new system has an aggressive timeline and the needs analysis will require effective techniques to uncover skill gaps and provide training as needed. In addition to the time constraint, there have also been performance issues in the purchasing department related to relationships with pharmaceutical organizations. So organizational leadership would like for you to assess whether or not current employees can be trained to effectively utilize the new IT system and improve external relationships, and whether or not new positions need to be added to support the IT system implementation.

 

Create a report that details training and recruitment processes at the organization.

 

Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word report that includes the following components:

  • Summary of your suggested needs analysis process
  • Recommendations for how to address organizational constraints related to time and performance
  • Linkages between performance, training, recruitment and needs assessment
  • Options for the needs analysis
  • Recommend the best option for the needs analysis, including your rationale for selecting this option
  • Your recommendations for training and recruitment

 

Cite any outside sources according to APA formatting guidelines.

 

 

Question 12:        Other

 

Lab Report: Elasticity

Answer the questions below. When you are finished, submit this assignment to your teacher by the due date for full credit.

Total score: ____ of 27 points

(Score for Question 1: ___ of 3 points)

Write the goal of the lab or the question you tried to answer.

Answer:

Type your answer here.

(Score for Question 2: ___ of 3 points)

Which observations, experiences, or lesson materials helped you form a hypothesis?

Answer:

Type your answer here.

(Score for Question 3: ___ of 3 points)

State your hypothesis.

Answer:

Type your answer here.

(Score for Question 4: ___ of 6 points)

Use the data from your experiment to complete this data table.

TCype of Rubber Band Original Length

(cm)

Mass

(g)

Length with Mass (cm) Stretch Length

(cm)

thin
medium
Graph your data: Plot mass against stretch length for each rubber band. Use a different symbol for each rubber band. Make a key so that you are able to tell the plots apart. Answer:       (Score for Question 6: ___ of 3 points) Did your data agree with your hypothesis? Explain. Answer: Type your answer here. (Score for Question 7: ___ of 3 points) Draw a trend line that characterizes the data for the thick rubber band. Then, use your graph to predict the thick rubber band’s stretch length if it had a 400 g mass attached to answer: Answer: Type your answer here.
thick

 

Question 13:        Other

 

Total score: ____ of 24 points

(Score for Question 1: ___ of 3 points)

B.Write the goal of the labs on levers and pulleys or the question you tried to answer.

Answer:

Type your answer here.

(Score for Question 2: ___ of 3 points)

C.Which observations, experiences, or lesson materials helped you form a hypothesis?

Answer:

Type your answer here.

(Score for Question 3: ___ of 3 points)

D.State your hypothesis.

Answer:

Type your answer here.

(Score for Question 4: ___ of 6 points)

E.Use the data from the lab on levers to complete the data tables.

Answer:

Resistance

Force, as added mass to resistance side (g) converted to (N) Arm length (m) Work
300 g = 2.94 N 0.70
300 g = 2.94 N 0.75
300 g = 2.94 N 0.80
300 g = 2.94 N 0.85

Effort

A Force (N) applied to balance the lever with no mass on effort side B Pulling force applied to the spring scale (n) when mass is added to effort side Total force B-A Arm length (m) Work
0.87 0.50
1.53 0.45
2.18 0.40
3.30 0.35

(Score for Question 5: ___ of 6 points)

F.Use the data from the lab on pulleys to complete this data table.

Answer:

Pulley System Distance String Pulled (cm) Effort:

Force (N)

Effort:

Work

Distance Mass Lifted (cm) Resistance:

Force (N)

Resistance:

Work

single fixed-position pulley
single moving pulley
one fixed-position pulley with one moving pulley

(Score for Question 6: ___ of 3 points)

G.Compare your data with your hypothesis. Explain how the data supports or does not support your hypothesis. If your data does not support your hypothesis, use the data you collected to answer the original question.

Answer:

Type your answer here.

 

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Question 14:        Finance

 

Using Microsoft Excel, demonstrate your understanding of the Time Value of Money concepts discussed
in the text by answering the following questions.  Upload your answer to canvas.

  1.  You graduate from IU and get a job with an annual salary of $50,000.
    a.   (1 point) Your boss calls you into the office and says she is happy with your performance and is going to give you a $1,000 raise. What percentage raise is this for you?
    b.   (1 points) If the Inflation Rate is 2.0%, what is the actual amount of your raise?
  2. (3 points) At your graduation, your parents give you a $2,000 graduation gift in cash.  You decide to invest this money in an Indiana University Credit Union (IUCU) Term Certificate and the current Annual Rate is 2.80%.  If you leave this money alone for 5 years and it compounds monthly, how much money do you have in this savings account after 5 years?
  3.  (3 points) You decide after graduation to start saving for your retirement.  Even though it might be tough at first, you decide to invest $200 a month for 40 years. If you your investment earns 10% APR and the interest is compounded monthly, how much will you have earned?
  4.  After graduation you decide to buy your first car.  You decide you want to get a Kia because it has a 10 year/100,000 mile warranty. You buy a 2019 Kia Sorrento EX for $35,000 and finance the vehicle through Indiana University Credit Union (IUCU). Today’s new car loans are 4.29% APR.
    a.   (2 points) If you finance this car for 66 months, what is your monthly payment?
    b.   (4 points) Create an amortization table showing monthly payment, monthly interest and monthly principle paid.  After the first year (12 months), how much interest have you paid?
  5.  In order to diversify your investing strategy, after graduation you decide to also
    invest annually in Tesla, Inc.  You decide to invest your $300 annual bonus every January 1st in Tesla stock.  It is possible to purchase parts of a share…i.e. 2.5 shares…

Date                   Amount              Price per share      # share purchased
2015                  $300                       $24                            how many?
2016                  $300                       $21                            how many?
2017                 $ 300                       $31                            how many?
2018                 $ 300                       $33                            how many?

(2 point)  how many shares of stock did you buy each year

(2 point)  If you sell all of your stock today and the share price is $28, how much money did you receive for the sale of that stock?

(2 points) How much money do you Gain or Lose?

  1.  You decide you want to experiment a little with investing in bonds.  Your grandma gives you $1,000 at graduation and you want to put it away in a safe place. You find a government bond to buy.  The bond will mature in 5 years and pays a coupon once a year.
    a.   (2 points) If the Annual Coupon Rate is 5%, what is your coupon payment?
    b.   (3 points) If you assume that the annual discount rate is 4% compounded annually, how much is the bond worth today?

 

Question 15:        Business

 

    Informational Interview Report

My interview job is market research analytics specialist. Below is the information needed for the report.

Deliverables (combine these into one document) 1. A 2-3 page, single-spaced report about your interview, written in memo format 2. An APA-style reference list 3. A list of interview questions. Here is the link you can pick 10-12 questions.(https://s3.us-east-1.amazonaws.com/blackboard.learn.xythos.prod/5a30bcf95ea52/4120098?response-content-disposition=inline%3B%20filename%2A%3DUTF-8%27%27200%2520Great%2520Informational%2520Interview%2520Questions%2520to%2520Choose%2520From.pdf&response-content-type=application%2Fpdf&X-Amz-Algorithm=AWS4-HMAC-SHA256&X-Amz-Date=20191104T005520Z&X-Amz-SignedHeaders=host&X-Amz-Expires=21600&X-Amz-Credential=AKIAIL7WQYDOOHAZJGWQ%2F20191104%2Fus-east-1%2Fs3%2Faws4_request&X-Amz-Signature=428f5253c04c93abd8cd60a47a283cf038a5f662868fb46e764fccdc70bc89ab)

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Learning Goals • Learn to identify appropriate sources of career information • Gain experience contacting and persuading a professional to meet with you • Expand your knowledge of your profession and industry • Practice active listening in an interview setting • Learn how to synthesize and organize relevant information • Become familiar with the professional memo format

 

Assignment Summary An informational interview is a meeting with a working professional who can give you an inside view of an occupation, organization, and/or industry that is of interest to you. You will identify an appropriate interviewee; research their industry; schedule an interview; build a list of appropriate questions; conduct an in-person interview and take notes; send a thank you note; and write a reflective report about what you learned and how it applies to your professional future.

 

Assignment Details The first 2-3 pages of your assignment, formatted as a memo to your professor and typed single-spaced, should include: (1) Your Professional Goals and the Purpose of the Interview (1 paragraph): Briefly describe your career interests and 2-3 career goals and then explain why this interviewee is relevant to those goals. (2) Biography of Interviewee (1-2 paragraphs): Sum up the interviewee’s professional biography, including his/her professional background, current title and responsibilities, organization, and a summary of the interviewee’s career journey, from beginning to date. (3) Industry Overview (2-3 paragraphs, based on research): Provide an overview of the industry including market size, types of careers in the industry, nature of work in the field, types of writing and communication skills required, and other skills needed. Incorporate information from both the interview and additional research you have done. Use 3-5 sources of information for this section and provide in-text citations using APA formatting. (You will also provide a list of references at the end of the paper.) A good place to start is the GMU Library BUS 303 InfoGuide: http://infoguides.gmu.edu/BUS303 (4) Interview Summary (1-2 paragraphs): Provide a summary of your interview, focusing on the most valuable information that your interviewee provided. Do not include a complete transcript of your interviewee’s responses and do not use an “I asked…and she answered…” format. Instead, paraphrase the responses in a narrative format. (5) Reflection (2-3 paragraphs): This is the most important part of your memo. Synthesize 2-3 meaningful highlights or “take-aways” from the interview and reflect on their implications for your career. (6) Interview Questions: A list of 10-12 questions you thoughtfully prepared prior to the interview,

in the order that you intended to ask them. (It’s okay if you don’t end up asking them exactly as

you planned—but it’s important to have a list.) You need to write the questions yourself; do not

plagiarize a list of questions from the internet. Think about what you would really like to know

from this person. One question you should definitely ask is, “What are employers in your industry

looking for in new college graduates?” (7) Reference List: A list of 3-5 sources you used for your industry overview. Be sure to use APA formatting.

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Question 16:        Business

 

As people become increasingly comfortable posting their lives online via social networks like Facebook or through microblogs like Twitter, some companies have begun to build Web dossiers of consumers. They do this by mining the social Web on Facebook, Twitter, blogs, and online forums. Then they sell it to other companies. And here is the deal . . . most consumers have no idea that this is being done.

While the use of customer data has been around for a few years (especially through companies like Amazon who use algorithms based on customer searches and purchases to make product recommendations), there are some privacy advocates who feel that mining and using data from the social Web crosses ethical lines. For their part, the companies that aggregate this information say that they are using this information to detect behavioral patterns in order for companies to provide better products and customer service.

SOURCE: “How Companies Are Using Your Social Media Data,” http://mashable.com/2010/03/02/data-mining-social-media.

Instructions:

Document your activities and exercise in this application exercise assignment. Keep good notes that you will submit as part of this assignment. Answer the following three question!

Questions

  1. Do think that this practice violates privacy, or is it acceptable since it uses information that a person has posted voluntarily?
  2. What are some promising ways that companies can use this data?
  3. What are some questionable ways that companies can use this data?

 

 

Question 17:        English

 

What is counterargument in the opinion essay?  In other words, if someone disagreed with the author, what would they say, what would be their position?

Your claim for this one MUST be in your words.  Then find the evidence that supports it; be mindful that there is specific counterargument in the essay.

Your explanation should include an accurate summary of the author’s argument in order to understand the counterargument.

 

Question 18:        Biology

 

The minimum length for this assignment is 1,200 words. Be sure to check your Turn tin report. Darwin was not the first to consider evolution as a process but he did come up with the first effective explanation for how it happens. Describe Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection. Explain how this theory was a major advance over prior ideas as to how organisms changed over time. Give evidence in support of evolution and describe the driving forces for evolutionary change.

 

 

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Question 19:        English

 

ENGL 2328 –Writing Assignment At this point in the semester, we have looked at even more authors and a much larger smattering of their work. The textbooks have touched upon a number of varied points of interest from different schools of philosophical thought. The books and our discussions have addressed the major paradigm shifts in American Literature (and history) from the Civil War to the middle of the 20th Century. The authors’ points of view have come into play aswe have muddled our way through this often confusing span of decades. More importantly, your points of view have begun to permeate the discussion, giving it a much more relevant and modern scope. (Alice, while in Wonderland,might say, “moderner and moderner.”) Once again, topic selection is up to you. However, this time, the scope of the project is going to be a bit more pointed than before. As with the first project, everything we have approached thus far this semester is fair game, as is anything we will be reading next week (please use something different than you did for the first paper). What I would like to see this time is a critical comparative analysis in which you look at more than one work and more than one author and comparatively analyze them. This is the long paper –about seven to eight pages long –the one that requires at least four sources cited within it, in MLA format of course which means that you must include a works cited page. The works cited page is not one of the seven to eight pages of your paper. Make sure you use credible sources like those found through the library databases. Do not cite Wikipedia, SparkNotes, Cliff Notes, 123HelpMe.com, cheattheprof.com, Gradesaver.com, MegaEssays.com, or any other source that subverts the research process—substantial grade reductions will occur if you use sources such as those listed above

 

Question 20:        Computer Science

 

Write a loop that continually asks the user what pets the user has, until the user enters “rock”, in which case the loop ends. It should acknowledge the user in the following format. For the first pet, it should say “You have a dog with a total of 1 pet(s)” if they enter dog, and so on.

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Question 21:        Engineering

 

Two products A and B are made involving two chemical operations for each. Each unit of product A requires 2 hours on Operation 1 and 3 hours on Operation 2. Each unit of product B requires 3 hours on Operation 1 and 4 hours on Operation 2. Available time for Operation 1 is 16 hours and for Operation 2 is 24 hours. The production of product B also results in a by-product C at no extra cost. Though some of this by-product can be sold at a profit, the remainder has to be destroyed. Product A sells for $8 profit per unit, while product B sells for $20 profit per unit. By product C can be sold at a unit profit of $6 per unit, but if it cannot be sold, the cost of disposal is $5 per unit. The company gets 2 units of C for each unit of B produced. Determine the optimal production quantity of A and B, keeping C in mind so as to make the largest profit.

 

 

Question 22:        Health Care

 

Imagine that you are working in a healthcare facility and you want to apply FOCUS PDCA Process

How you can apply this technique? In addition, what is the main result when you used FOCUS PDCA?

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Question 23:        Other

 

Research the role of the Nurse Practitioner. Select and describe an Advanced Nurse Practitioner role. For example, Family Nurse Practitioner or Gerontological Nurse Practitioner Find one research articles and one expert opinion article about this role and summarize the articles. Examples of state innovations include Maryland’s hospital rate setting, Vermont’s single payer system, and Massachusetts’ health reforms Analyze the effects of the advanced practice nurse role in terms of healthcare and patient outcomes.

 

Instruction

Submission Instructions: The paper is to be clear and concise and students will lose points for improper grammar, punctuation and misspelling. The paper is to be no shorter than 4 pages; nor longer than 5 pages in length, excluding the title, abstract and references page. Incorporate a minimum of 5 current (published within last five years) scholarly journal articles or primary legal sources (statutes, court opinions) within your work. Journal articles and books should be referenced according to current APA style.

 

Question 24: Business

 

Evaluate financial ratios in a minimum 1,050 words which includes the following:

  • Explain the uses for each of the three classifications of ratios: liquidity, solvency, and profitability.
  • Calculate the current ratio, profit margin, and after tax ROE, of any publicly traded company. Then locate and compare these with the ratios provided for that firm by Yahoo Finance, Google Finance, or Morningstar.
  • . Display your calculations in a chart with the formulas and that compares the ones you calculated with the ones you located from Yahoo finance, Google Finance, or Morningstar. They will more than likely not be the exact same amounts because of the difference in dates of the calculations you did and the published dates.

 

Question 25:        Finance

 

Instruction

The topic for the paper is (The Capital Asset Pricing Model). Paper must be 12 pages in length including a cover sheet and reference page. The paper must follow APA citation style.

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Question 26:        Finance

 

You are considering a covenant for the new loan agreement that would require SME Bank to maintain a 100% or higher provision coverage of the Portfolio at Risk in arrears one day or more (“PAR1+”). This means that the entire stock of provisions (general and specific) would have to exceed the PAR1+ balance outstanding at any time. Would SME Bank comply with this covenant as of October 2016 either in terms of the provisions actually held or considering what the bank should have held when correctly applying the prudential rules? Would you consider this a reasonable covenant, or would you argue for a different definition or level of coverage as per your experience? 2. Calculate the three transition matrixes for the Jul-Aug 2016, Aug-Sep 2016 and Sep- Oct 2016 transitions. Use the enhanced transition matrix method including principal paydown as described in Unit 4 and in file U4_Ex5_TransitionMatrix.xlsx. Carry out the transition matrix to 331-360+ days in 30 day arrears increments. Any arrear balances above 360 days should be summarized into the 331-360+ category. Find the average transition matrix across the three monthly transitions. Please use KES equivalent balance amounts for all transition matrix calculations. Give a short business Interpretation of the average transition behavior at SME Bank. Compare your findings with some of the transition matrix examples discussed in the Unit 4.1 text. What might explain the transition patterns seen here? 3. Bonus Question (20%): Take the average monthly transition through the matrix exponential calculation up to 12 months. In the matrix exponential find the conditional probabilities of balances reaching 6 or more months in arrears after 12 months depending on their initial levels of arrears. Calculate IAS 39 compliant empirical provisions for the entire portfolio as of October 2016, using the transition matrix exponential results, with a default definition of having reached 6 or more months in arrears after 12 months. Also take into account the empirical LGD levels at this institution that have been separately estimated as: LGD=60% for KES loans and LGD=45% for USD loans. SME Bank is known in the market for its effective legal collections and requiring relatively strong collateral from SME borrowers, particularly for USD loans.

 

Question 27:        Health Care

 

Instruction

Topic: Ascending and descending venography PowerPoint Presentation (25 slides) including images.

 

Precise, no plagiarism, references required (word cited APA format)

 

 

Question 2:     General Question          

 

Liberty University PSYC 221 quiz 1

 

Question 3:  General Question

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Ashford MGT 330 Week 4 Assignment Team Management Activity and Reflection

 

Question 4: General Question

 

NURS 4100 Week 4 Quiz / NURS4100 Week 4 Quiz (2019): Quality and Safety through Evidence Based Practice- Walden University (Already graded A)

 

Question 5: General Question

 

WRTG 101 APA quiz 100 percent.docx

 

Question 6: General Question

 

Address the following in your role as marketing manager:

  • Define the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach and discuss the importance of research in marketing.
  • Describe each step of the Marketing Research Approach (one slide for each step) in detail including its goal, and create an example aligned to the scenario above to illustrate how that stage would be implemented toward the problem’s solution.
  • Define the two types of research data this process gathers and their pros and cons. Share examples of each type that would be useful in solving the scenario.
  • Compare and contrast the Five-Step Process with two alternative methods for conducting marketing research.  What are the pros and cons of each?
  • Define what it means to differentiate a service and provide an example to illustrate how the local nonprofit charity in the scenario can use the strategy to help increase target market interest.
  • Explain how differentiation will help position the organization.

 

Question 7: General Question

 

NURS-6531N-8, Adv. Practice Care of Adults.2019 Summer

 

Question 8: General Question

 

NR 509 Week 6 Quiz Answers 2019:Chamberlain College Of Nursing

 

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Question 9: Business

 

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

 

What is the purpose of a Training Needs Analysis (TNA)? Is it always necessary? Remember, a needs analysis determines the need for training intervention.

 

 

Question 10:  Business

 

Assignment Content

  1. Imagine you are the HR manager of a healthcare organization with 250 employees. You have been asked, as the HR manager, to determine the skills required for the new IT system that will be implemented in the purchasing department. The new system will impact all non-supervisory employees. Implementation of the new system has an aggressive timeline and the needs analysis will require effective techniques to uncover skill gaps and provide training as needed. In addition to the time constraint, there have also been performance issues in the purchasing department related to relationships with pharmaceutical organizations. So organizational leadership would like for you to assess whether or not current employees can be trained to effectively utilize the new IT system and improve external relationships, and whether or not new positions need to be added to support the IT system implementation.

 

Create a report that details training and recruitment processes at the organization.

 

Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word report that includes the following components:

  • Summary of your suggested needs analysis process
  • Recommendations for how to address organizational constraints related to time and performance
  • Linkages between performance, training, recruitment and needs assessment
  • Options for the needs analysis
  • Recommend the best option for the needs analysis, including your rationale for selecting this option
  • Your recommendations for training and recruitment

 

Cite any outside sources according to APA formatting guidelines.

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Question 11:  Other

 

  1. Risk is a combination of: The probability that an event will occur, and the probability that a terrorist will be able to successfully plan an attack?A. TRUE
    B. FALSE
    2. When conducting a building assessment which of the following should be a member of the multi-functional team? A. engineer/ architect
    B. Security
    C. Emergency Manager
    D. subject matter experts
    E. All of the above
    3. The initial step of a risk assessment is to: A. Collect site data from interactive GIS maps.
    B. Interview staff to determine if there are alternates assigned to key functions.
    C. Define and understand a building’s core functions and processes, and identify building infrastructure.
    D. Evaluate the security master plan.
    4. Mitigation measures can be conducted by which of the following means? A. Regulatory measures
    B. Rehabilitation of facilities
    C. Protective and control structures
    D. all of the above
    5. When designating or designing a Continuity of Operations (COOP) facility,which hazards should be considered? A. Man-made
    B. Natural
    C. terrorist
    D. All of the above
    6. The concept of Design basis Threat (DBT) is essential to building protection because? A. DBT establishes the threat tactics that architects and engineers use in designing mitigations for a new structure or renovation.
    B. DBT provides the mitigations necessary to ensure that standoff is kept to a minimum.
    C. DBT provides a means to identify and characterize all threat groups operating in the local area that could impact the buildings occupancy.
    D. DBT establishes the minimum criteria necessary for the proper selection of window thickness and fragment retention films.
    7. Assembling a GIS Portfolio can help in performing a Vulnerability Assessment on a continuity facility? A. TRUE
    B. FALSE
    8. The best way to lower peak incident pressure and the reflective wave is? A. reflective wave does not matter
    B. peak incident pressure does not cause damage
    C. increase distance of detonation
    D. Decrease distance of detonation
    9. Resilience is the ability of an organization or asset to _________________ its critical functionality in a short period of time after the impact of an adverse event. A. Back-up data for
    B. gracefully shut-down computer functions of
    C. Contract or transfer the responsibility of
    D. Maintain or recover quickly
    10. Continuity programs are a required and critical component of Government and critical infrastructure operations, and during emergencies and disasters, ensure that the Government at all levels can continue to operate and provide essential functions and services. A. TRUE
    B. FALSE
  2. Which biological agents are contagiousA. Small pox
    B. Ricin
    C. Salmonella
    D. Anthrax
    12. Which item is an example of a threat and/or hazard that could potentially impact a building or site? A. Bombing
    B. Armed Attack
    C. Kidnapping
    D. All of the above
    13. CBR detectors can not be successfully integrated into the buildings security operations center and building automation systems. A. TRUE
    B. FALSE
    14. The consequences are defined as the degree of ________________ that is caused by the loss of an asset. A. customer dissatisfaction
    B. debilitating impact
    C. productivity interruption
    D. economic disruption
    15. The four main categories of consequences are? A. Loss of life, loss of communications, loss of revenue, loss of client base
    B. Human impacts, economic impacts, public confidence impacts, and impacts on government ability
    C. Impacts of government ability, damage to company name, distribution of product lines, loss of life
    D. Human impacts, economic impacts, Public confidence and Re-election impacts
    16. Lacerations occur the furthest distance from an explosive event as a result of? A. blast loading effects of the 2/3’s conflaguration.
    B. Projectile debris from progressive collapse
    C. high- velocity glass fragments.
    D. Sub-standard structural components.
    17. Personal protective equipment is only effective against specific agents if: A. The PPE is worn correctly when needed
    B. The purchased equipment is one size fits all
    C. The HVAC system is turned off and the building is sealed
    D. The PPE is stored in warm dry office space
    18. When estimating the direct consequences of an attack you should consider, the target, the effect of the weapon, physical and environmental conditions and ________________ ? A. potential losses
    B. cascading effects
    C. how many people work in the building
    D. estimated damage
    19. The most commonly selected terrorist targets, worldwide, are? A. Commercial facilities
    B. Law enforcement facilities
    C. Government facilities
    D. Military bases
    20. What preparations are needed in order to safely shelter in place? A. Supplies to seal the room, HEPA filter, food and water, windows and a well practiced plan
    B. Supplies to seal room, HVAC shutoff, carbon dioxide absorbers, food and water, communications, and a well practiced plan
    C. Permanently sealed room, direct phone line, 1 gallon of water per person per day, good ventilation
    D. Lan ports for laptops, printer paper, office supplies, food and water, Duct tape and plastic, plants

 

Question 12:  Chemistry

 

Calculate the mass of KHP which will result in an endpoint of 25 mL when titrated against 0.093 M NaOH

 

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Question 13: Other

 

Contemplate whether prices should reflect the value the customers are willing to pay or whether they should be based upon the cost of the product or service to the company. Bring in a product or service example to support and provide clarity on your position.

Unit VI Case Study
Case studies are an important learning strategy in business classes as they provide an opportunity for you to critically analyze events that have taken place in real-life businesses. This develops your critical thinking and research skills as you research the competition and industry in which your business resides with an end goal of formulating a recommendation for the challenges faced by the company.

Select one of the three case studies listed below, which can be found in your textbook. Evaluate the case of your choice, and respond to each of the questions below using both theory and practical managerial thinking as well as supporting research.

Option 1: Southwest Airlines (pp. 490–491)

  1. What is the product and service model of Southwest? Who is their primary target market, and how is Southwest positioned with this group?
  2. What is the pricing strategy of Southwest compared to other airlines? Is this a differentiating factor?
  3. What risks does Southwest Airlines face both from a macro and micro environmental standpoint?
  4. Can Southwest continue to thrive as a low-cost airline when tough economic times hit or as other airlines mimic its business model?

Option 2: Amazon.com (pp. 522–523)

  1. With respect to the distribution, why has Amazon succeeded when so many other companies have failed?
  2. From a theoretical standpoint, what is Amazon’s pricing model? Why is this so effective? How does this compare to their competitors?
  3. Discuss how Amazon has used differentiation and positioning as two key components in maintaining a competitive advantage.
  4. Thinking about the changes in the macro and micro environment, what is next for Amazon? Where else can it grow?

Option 3: Best Buy (pp. 554–555)

  1. What were the keys to Best Buy’s success? How have they differentiated themselves?
  2. What pricing model has Best Buy adopted?
  3. What are the challenges it faces in today’s retail environment from both a micro and macro environmental standpoint?
  4. How else can Best Buy compete against retail competitors like Walmart and Costco as well as online competitors like Amazon.com?

In formatting your case analysis, do not use the question-and-answer format; instead, use an essay format with subheadings. Your APA-formatted case study should be a minimum of 500 words in length (not counting the title and reference pages). You are required to use a minimum of three peer-reviewed, academic sources that are no more than 5 years old (one may be your textbook). All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased material must have accompanying in-text citations.

 

Question 14: English

 

Night by Elie Wiesel

n his encounter with the dentist, Elie looses one of his gold teeth. Why does Elie relent and finally give up the tooth?

 

Question 15:  Accounting

 

A business manager estimates that when p dollars are charged for every unit of a product, the sales will be x=380−20p units. At this level of production, the average cost is modeled by A(x)=5+x50
(a.) Find the total revenue and total cost functions, and express the profit as a function of x. (b.) What price should the manufacturer charge to maximize profit? What is the maximum profit?

 

Question 16: Statistics

 

A sample of 10 mothers wants to know if they sleep less than the population in terms of the number of hours they sleep. Their average number of hours they sleep is 6.8. We know that the average hours of sleep in the population is 8 with a standard deviation of 3.

Conduct a z test to see if the sample of mothers differs from the population.

(Be sure to complete all four steps of a hypothesis test.) α=.05

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Question 17: Statistics

 

Find the probability of getting a total of twelve when five balanced dice are rolled.  Show all work.

 

Question 18: Chemistry

 

dissolving calcium iodate in water is exothermic or endothermic?

 

Question 19: Economics

 

Suppose you are using risk-benefit analysis to evaluate a policy aimed at limiting the use of a pesticide applied to grain crops. Describe the risks and benefits that would have to be estimated to conduct this analysis properly.”

 

 

Question 20:  Business

 

Term Project

you will choose an organization (a public or privatefirm, a non-profit or an educational institution EXCEPT OZYEGIN), visit the organization at least TWO times andcollect data on information systems by interviewing the managers and employees of IS/IT departments. Data collection should capture the information system architecture of the organization, the information systems used and their usage, the value add of information systems, IT function and its governance, future IS projects. Furthermore,
you are expected to make observations, identify IS-related problems and offer your solutions. The organization can be of any industry; however, I don’t suggest the IT industry, it might be confusing or overwhelming for you. The firm should be of appropriate size that it has its own IT function; therefore, micro / entrepreneurial firms do not fit. The firm should NOT be too big, in bigger firms you won’t be able to interview the CIO / IT manager. If the firm has multiple businesses, make sure that you choose one and concentrate on it.

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Summary:

Step 1: Identify your organization, prepare a report about it, explain the business, why is it an interesting context, whom you plan to contact etc. We will evaluate the appropriateness of your choice together, you may not proceed in the project without my approval. You may change the firm later; however, you need to re-prepare the report and re-submit.

Requirements

Your report should be min 400 words. Shorter essays will NOT be accepted.

Your report should be submitted as a Word document (.doc or .docx).  Other formats will NOT be accepted (including PDF).

The file name should contain the last names of all team members and the assignment number  e.g. Yilmaz_Yucel_Guzel_Sezgin_ProjectReport1.docx. Please make sure that you insert the names and Student ID of ALL team members.

E-mail or hard copy submissions are NOT accepted.

Do not forget to run the spelling – grammar check as that will affect your grade.

Failure to submit the report will result in 5 points deduction from your project grade.

 

Question 21: Psychology

 

Can you give me 2 different short responses for this discussion question below? No more than 175 words.

You have learned so much in this class about research methodology in psychology and other behavioral sciences!

What is the most interesting, useful or surprising thing you learned this term?

 

Question 22: English

 

Essay- 38 murders who saw murder and didn’t call the police…

https://www2.southeastern.edu/Academics/Faculty/scraig/gansberg.html

Write an essay pretend to be one of the people and why didn’t you call the police 

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Question 23: Physics

 

A 20N block is being pushed across a horizontal table by an 18N force. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the table is 0.4, find the acceleration of the block.

A  0.5m/s2

B  1m/s2

C  5m/s2

D  7.5m/s2

 

Question 24: History

 

Please type, double-space your answers to the following questions. These answers must be in MLA format.

List and describe early Pacific Northwest history from Native Americans in the pre-contact era to the end of the Progressive Era (about 1920). Include information about early Native American history and culture, early white exploration of the area, fur trade and early immigration into area, the Oregon Trail, Railroad expansion into the area and its multiple effects and the struggle for labor rights.

You need to consider major historical events, important people studied, factors related to culture, economics, and the impact on the environment.

These topics will be discussed in class on Monday. Bring any questions you may have to our class.

Question 25: Computer Science

 

When creating an algorithm, there are many different ways to accomplish the same task. Describe what you might look for in selecting the correct algorithm for your place of business.

 

 

Question 26: Law           

 

School Shooters School shootings have unfortunately become a common occurrence in today’s society. Students of all ages are affected, from those in elementary school to those at the college level. Suppose that a school shooting had occurred in your community and that the shooter was still at-large. Identify and list important criteria that could be used to create a criminal profile. Then, locate a minimum of two (2) articles that discuss real-life school shooting suspects. Test and analyze your criteria. What other factors could you add to your profile? Discuss your results. Your paper should be no more than two (2) pages and should include an APA citation for the article analyzed

 

 

 

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Question 27:  Law

 

What’s Fair? This week, you will read “The Case for Procedural Justice: Fairness as a Crime Prevention Tool.” This article discusses strategies that law enforcement officers can use to implement the procedural justice theory in their community. Using that information, design a brochure that could be used to train new officers. Consider the type of information police would need to know about this view as well as effective strategies. It may be helpful to provide scripted examples of conversations that officers would have with citizens. Your brochure should be no more than two (2) pages and should utilize APA format.

 

Question 28:  General Question

 

Research 5 companies/organizations’ websites on how they recruit individuals into their companies/organizations. Rate them from highest to lowest and explain why you rated them that way, emphasizing their strengths and weaknesses. Requirements: 500 minimum/ 750 maximum with Biblical integration woven into the entire document.

 

Question 29:  Health Care

 

Prompt: Write a paper about the benefits of being a first mover, the response of a second mover, and the response/characteristics of a late mover. Include a discussion of customer loyalty and earning above average returns. Also discuss the effect of competitor response to returns earned. Requirements: 500 words minimum; APA format: a minimum of three peer reviewed references Book used: Hitt, H. A., Hoskisson, R. E., & Ireland, R. D. (2017). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: competitiveness and globalization (12th ed.). Boston, MA: Cengage. ISBN: 9781305502147

 

Question 30:  English

 

write three paragraphs about an article called “BEGINNING YOUR JOURNEY” so basically write what you liked in it!

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Wichita State University – NURS 345Chapter 3

Question 5: General Question

Wichita State University – NURS 345Chapter 1

Question 6: English

Assignment: “Proposal Critique”

In this assignment you will be rewriting and critiquing the proposal provided HERE (Please see attachment). There are at least six improvements to be made in the document. Your job is to identify the six improvements and then, using track changes, rewrite or fix the error. Also, using the comments tool, give a brief explanation to why it is wrong and why you fixed it the way you did. Note: If your word processing program does not have track changes, you will need to insert comments in brackets using red font at the improvement location.

In your document, you should:
Identify at least six proposal weaknesses using track changes.
Include a critique paragraph of at least 150 words at the end of the document.
Discuss improvements for each of the weaknesses in your critique.
Ensure both the comments and critique are concise and error-free

A Proposal

To:

From:
Date:
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Problem and Solution
Mason Office Center is a lovely Georgian building containing four offices. However, the interior is not attractive or inviting for clients/customers and employees. The off-white walls throughout the complex seem dull and boring, adjectives the tenants do not want associated with their businesses. In addition, the air in the building is musty and unpleasant at times.
Green Thumb Planting can provide and maintain a beautiful plantscape in the building that will attract visitors and employees as well as purify the air and introduce more oxygen. Research shows that people respond positively to interiors with at least two plants per room. These changes can be made in an unobtrusive, cost-effective manner.
Objectives of Proposed Plan
Installing plantings in Mason Office Center will give visitors and employees a more appealing and cleaner environment, producing positive feelings and greater productivity.
Background
I have been in the interior plant maintenance business for 32 years and have owned and operated Green Thumb Planting for the last seven years. All associates with Green Thumb Planting take pride in their work, and Green Thumb is happy to provide references.
Methods
Within two weeks of your signing a contract, our design team will interview you and produce a plan showing installation, including the number and types of plants, color and design of containers, and placement. The team will adjust the plan according to your preference.

Furthermore, Green Thumb is concerned about the environment and thus uses only organic methods. No harmful chemicals are used in its plantscapes.
Based on Green Thumb’s design formula, the building could use 31 large and 14 medium-sized low-light plants. Green Thumb’s service agreement provides plants and pots, weekly maintenance, and monthly replacement of weak plants.

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Scheduling
When a plan is agreed upon, Green Thumb will schedule installation within one week. Installation can be accomplished during the evening hours to avoid interrupting your tenants’ business activities. All soil and materials will be brought into the building in specially designed trolleys to prevent spillage and damage to floors. I anticipate being able to complete the job in two nights. Once the plantscape is installed, Green Thumb Planting staff will visit Mason Office Center once a week to maintain the plants.
Capabilities and Qualifications of Personnel
I have a BS degree in landscape design and 32 years of experience in the business. In addition, all personnel have undergone thorough background and criminal checks and are bonded. Your satisfaction with Green Thumb’s plantings and employees are guaranteed.
Budget
The installation cost is $923.40, and the monthly maintenance fee is $75.00 per month. You will incur no other charges to have an inviting, attractive, clean green environment in Mason Office Building.

Installation costs include the following:

31 large 6 braided ficus trees at $25 each $150.00
6 chamaedorea palms at $20 120.00
10 herb topiaries at $20 200.00
9 Chinese evergreens at $25 225.00
14 medium
5 moth orchids at $15 $ 75.00
9 angel ivy at $15 135.00
SUBTOTAL $905.00
Tax 8% 72.40
TOTAL $977.40

Conclusion
For an effortless, inexpensive, attractive, clean environment at Mason Office Center, accept Green Thumb’s proposal. Please send a memorandum of acceptance to Green Thumb Planting, 101 Sienna Way, Ayden, NC 28513-7101.

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Signature Assignment: Public Stewardship Paper

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper outlining the critical need for public stewardship in budgeting.
Detail the needs and methods for training public officials and staff members for ethical public budget preparation and maintenance strategies.
Include the following:
Detail the need and importance of public stewardship in budgeting
Ethical requirements for leaders to consider for proper public stewardship
Consequences of unethical or poor public stewardship
Consider utilizing a recent current events article for reference to a recent incident of unethical public stewardship of budgetary monies.
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the University Library.

Question 8: Business

Pick a local business or your own if current and gather your research to develop a Marketing Plan. Use the outline from chapter 2, exhibit 2.5. Try to interview the owner or a manager if you can. Try to solve a problem or answer a marketing question for the business. Use observation or questionnaire to make suggestions as to how the business should develop a Marketing Plan. Write the Marketing Plan for the business.  You can pick any type of business, product or service.

Write a Marketing Plan for the business.
Refer to Chapter Two, “Strategic Planning for Competitive Advantage”.  Exhibit 2.5, Elements of a Marketing Plan.
Develop your plan as you read the chapters and doing each step in your plan after reading it and completing your plan at Lesson15.  Your plan should address each of these elements including writing a Mission Statement for the business. Conducting a SWOT analysis.  You need three Objectives for the business.  Develop a Target Market based on your research and develop all elements of the Marketing Mix addressing all four P’s.  Use any other industry research you can find to help you develop and support your plans findings.  End your plan adding your Implementation steps, the Evaluations you will use, and the Controls for the business.
Your paper should be a minimum of 3 pages and no more than 10.
Do not use a National Brand

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Develop a Marketing Plan for a Local Business
1. Pick a local business or your own if current and gather your research to develop a Marketing Plan. Use the outline from chapter 2, exhibit 2.5. Try to interview the owner or a manager if you can. Try to solve a problem or answer a marketing question for the business. Use observation or questionnaire to make suggestions as to how the business should develop a Marketing Plan. Write the Marketing Plan for the business.  You can pick any type of business, product or service.
2. Write a Marketing Plan for the business.
3. Refer to Chapter Two, “Strategic Planning for Competitive Advantage”.  Exhibit 2.5, Elements of a Marketing Plan.
4. Develop your plan as you read the chapters and doing each step in your plan after reading it and completing your plan at Lesson15.  Your plan should address each of these elements including writing a Mission Statement for the business. Conducting a SWOT analysis.  You need three Objectives for the business.  Develop a Target Market based on your research and develop all elements of the Marketing Mix addressing all four P’s.  Use any other industry research you can find to help you develop and support your plans findings.  End your plan adding your Implementation steps, the Evaluations you will use, and the Controls for the business.
5. Your paper should be a minimum of 3 pages and no more than 10.

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Matching Definitions
one person consuming a good or service, will not stop another person from or consuming that same product.
the inability to bring about the allocation of resources that best satisfies the wants of a society
people can receive the benefit of a good or service without paying for it
the difference between the price  a product will sell for and the price the seller would be willing to receive.
a person cannot be stopped from consuming or using a good or service
goods or services consumers can get without cost
effects of an activity affect a third party
consumers can be excluded from consuming these, but are felt should be made available.
non-payers can be excluded from consuming these
the difference between the price  a buyer is willing to pay and the actual sale price.

Market failures
Non-excludability
Non-rivalry

Free rider problem
Quasi-public goods

Public goods
Private goods
Externality
Consumer surplus
Producer surplus

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Training Program: Design a 12-week periodized training program for the client described in the Client Profile. Be very specific as you design the training program. This is an opportunity for you to demonstrate your full comprehension of the information and concepts discussed throughout the course. List the types of exercise, duration, sets, reps, rest intervals, and so on.
Include the following in your case study submission:
A description of your professional responsibilities as discussed in the stages of the drawing-in process (Unit 12)
Discussion of any fitness tests, methods of evaluation, and data collection used to assess and evaluate the clientÕs needs
Specific conditions that you have identified in the client profile
A detailed 12-week comprehensive and periodized training program including specific exercises, sets, repetitions, suggested rest times, etc. Use an integrated approach in your program recommendations.
Specific and detailed nutritional strategies and an explanation as to how the strategies will assist the client in meeting energy needs
Explanation for your chosen assessment, programming, and nutritional recommendations. (Be sure to reference course concepts when discussing rationale for your recommendations.
Keep in mind that a client should be able to take your program and put it into practice without having to contact you to clarify what you intended by your recommendations or to explain parts of your program.
Don’t forget your explanation for WHY you listed and recommended what you did. Reference the concepts and theories covered in the course. Be sure to address why the program and exercises recommended are appropriate for the specific client given the clientÕs history, current abilities, and intended goal(s). For example: if you are developing a program for a beginner client without any resistance training experience, explain how your program addresses the lack of experience, initial need for foundational development, process by which you would safely progress the client, etc. Tying your program to course concepts is a critical component of your case study.

Review the Client Profile below.
Client Profile: Diana Prince
Age: 37
Gender: Female
Resting Heart Rate: 75 bpm
Height: 5’5″
Weight: 165 lb
Body Fat Percentage: 31%
Background and Goals: Diana is a 37-year-old mother of two children. She used to exercise fairly consistently (mostly jogging and light aerobic activities) before having kids. Ever since she had her first child 9 years ago, she has not been very active. Diana has her 20-year high school reunion coming up in 3 months (12 weeks). She would like to look and feel her best and is eager and willing to spend the next 12 weeks doing what she can to change her body.

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NSG6430 Midterm Exam / NSG 6430 Week 5 Midterm Exam (2019): South University (Already graded A)

Question 13: Health Care

NSG6435 Week 5 Assignment 4 Midterm Exam / NSG 6435 Week 5 Midterm Exam -Family Health – Pediatrics- South University

Question 14: Philosophy

Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 2 / PHIL201 QUIZ2 / PHIL 201 QUIZ 2 (Already Graded 2019)

Question 15: Law

Instruction
Write a reflection of what you have learned about boundaries and dual relationships in counseling. 1 1/2 pages (no APA format))

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Business Ethics Identify an ethical public policy that is currently present in society. Write an argument in support of the policy or against the policy using at least one of the three public policy models – market economy, social democracy, or neo-mercantile. Indicate which would be your option and why. What are the possible consequences of your decision?

Instruction
You must use the textbook as a reference as well as a minimum of one other reference. Be sure to include a reference page and internal citations. Check the course outline for formatting instructions. Your paper should be 1 ½ to 2 pages in length, double spaced, with Times New Roman 12 pt font and 1” margins. Your heading should be single spaced in the top right corner of your paper and consist of your name, assignment number (Assignment #1), and BMGT 4390. Be sure that you include a reference page and internal citation formatted in either APA or MLA format.

Question 17: Health Care

Topic: Health Care Systems Prompt: Define outpatient care. What are several key changes that have been instrumental in shifting the balance between inpatient and outpatient services? How do outpatient services support the continuity of care in the delivery of health services? Why is it important for hospital administrators to regard outpatient care as a key component of their overall business strategy?

Instruction
1. Ensure that you meet the minimum word count which is 800 word count. 2. Include two references in addition to the text book and a Biblical reference. 3. Add Biblical integration section to Essay , which includes the verse and how it it applies. 4. Use spell check 5. Always submit assignments in essay format, double spaced using APA. 6. List questions then the answers. 7. The posts must contain original information. I hope this helps!!

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Graduate School Scholarly Book Review (Criminal Justice)

Scholarly Book Review – The final component of this course is for you to read and review one of the following books: 1.) Pacifying the Homeland: Intelligence Fusion and Mass Supervision; or 2.) Solitary: The Inside Story of Supermax Isolation and How We Can Abolish It. University of California Press. ISBN: 9780520292239. For this assignment, you must cite at least five peer-reviewed articles, not books, in your review. Your scholarly book review must be between 2,250 to 2,700 words. For this assignment, you need to do more than merely provide a synopsis of the book. Rather, provide a scholarly analysis of the book and explain what, if anything, it contributes to our understanding of the criminal justice system. Students who do a particularly good job with this assignment will be encouraged to submit their work to a scholarly journal. Scholarly publications are often very helpful in gaining admittance to Ph.D. programs. Doing this assignment might also provide you with an opportunity down the road to demonstrate to your supervisors at work that you have an ability to synthesize information into an interesting, evocative report. Also, scholarly book reviews enhance one’s visibility as a burgeoning scholar, and make a contribution to the field of criminal justice, and provide invaluable opportunities for personal growth. The instructor will provide everyone with an example of a scholarly book at the beginning of the course. Several Lamar University graduate students have published book review essays they have written in my courses in academic journals. All scholarly book reviews will be submitted either by the student or the instructor to Safe for originality in order to ensure that there is not any forms of plagiarism, either deliberate or accidental. It must be evident that all papers are original works. If a Safe report reveals any evidence of plagiarism, the paper will not be graded and will be assigned a “zero.” Students should visit with the instructor before the assignment is due if they have any questions about this. Also, if a student fails to cite at least five peer-reviewed journal articles and include these in the references at the end of the book review, it will incur an automatic penalty of twenty points. Please, note the instructor will not, under any circumstances, receive late book reviews, regardless of the reason. in mind, this is an assignment that students are encouraged to work on throughout the semester Please follow the writing rubric in Appendix 1 to understand how you are required to write the paper.

Question 19: Business

Portfolio 2 Questions
PART 1 : Questions from your text book (eBook chapters 3, 4 & 5)

Chapter 3, 4 & 5: ( Answer using lecture slides and eBook)

Q1: Identify a major ethical dilemma in each of the last five decades.
Q2: Identify a key development in business ethics in each of the last five decades.

Reflection tip: Which decade did you connect with the most and why? How does the ethical dilemma of that decade impact you in the present?

PART 2 : Lecture Pods/Videos

Q1: View the video lecture pods (Purpose of Professional Bodies) and make a note of the main points you learned about professional bodies. After viewing the first lecture pod, visit the site of a Professional Body you might be interested in joining as a graduate, and find the answers to the following questions:
How do I become a member?
What must I do to maintain membership?
Do they have a code of conduct and what is required?
Do they have a code of ethics?

Hint: This question is important in helping you prepare for certain parts of Assessment 1 (Executive summary)
Q2:

Access APES 110 Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants and make sure you understand the five fundamental principles. For each of the five principles, think of a scenario which may potentially create threats to compliance with the principle.
Reflection tip: Which objectivity out of the five is the most important to you (even if you are not in the accounting profession, these objectivities are important in other disciplines too)
Q3: View Supplementary videos – Please summarise one to two key points on the following
Are there penalties for breaching the codes? three videos:
SABC Digital News | Accounting and Auditing professional bodies to help fight corruption
Association for Project Management | Professional Bodies, what role do they play in building and maintaining world class competence?
Niobe Elliott | Professional Bodies ICT

Reflection tip: How have you started to think about ethical issues facing your career after watching the videos? what issues may relate to your chosen career and how can we address them?

Q4: Videos from CNN and ABC News on Ethics –
How to buy ethical chocolate video
Should chocolate makers like Cadbury and Nestle be held accountable for the actions of their suppliers? Is it their responsibility to ensure that their suppliers produce cocoa without using child labour of child slave labour?
If you were Nestle’s CEO, what would you do? Buy the more expensive FairTrade cocoa, or continue to but the less expensive, less ethical cocoa?

Fire Kills Over 100 Factory Workers in Bangladesh video
How can companies like Tommy Hilfiger and Wal-Mart emphasize to their employees the importance of choosing suppliers that behave ethically? Discuss how an organisation’s culture can help dictate employee behaviour.

Reflection tip: How have you started to think about ethical issues facing your career after watching the videos? what issues may relate to your chosen career and how can we address them?

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PART 3 : Reading 2: 2017 Graduate Outcome Survey National Report, Jan 2017

Please refer to Table 3 (Undergraduate Employment Outcomes by study area), 2016 and 2017 (%) and provide some comments relating to your profession.
Please refer to Table 8 (Undergraduate Employment by Occupation and study area), 2017 (%) and provide some comments relating to your profession.
Refer to Table 2.6 Skills formation and utilisation – comment on Table 9 (Importance of Qualification for undergraduates’ Current Employment), 2017 (%) and provide some comments relating to your profession.
Refer to Table 28 (Undergraduate median full-time salaries by study area), 2016 and 2017 and provide comments on salary related to your profession.

Reflection tip: What are your thoughts about your chosen profession after reading this article and exploring the statistics? How is this information going to impact you in the workforce?

PART 4 : Vietnam Economic News (8-14 Sep)

Please read Vietnam Economic News from the above dates and provide a summary (any one article and one paragraph) on any article that relates to your profession, career/employment or ethical issues. Vietnam Economic News is available from web site http://ven.vn/

Reflection tip: What is the VEN reading about and how does the information presented impact your thinking? How does your article relate to this week’s topic? what are the positive aspects and how would you apply that in the future? and/or what are the negative aspects and how would you avoid them?

Portfolio Reflection Guidelines:
Provide a 100 to 150 words of reflection on your learning from the homework questions. You may reflect on the question(s) you particularly engaged with and your work experiences. Please use the following as guidelines.

Reflection GUIDELINES must be used Possible questions you could use to meet these guidelines
Evaluate Significance What is the relative value of the overall learning experience from the resources and portfolio questions for this week?
Reconstruct the experience What are the most salient points of what you experienced when learning from the resources for this week?
Analysis: Why did it happen that way? What interpretations, explanations help you to make sense of the learning experience?
Distil: What lessons can be learnt? What positive aspects from learning resources are worth using in the future?
Apply: Prepare for future situations What will you change as a result of learning experience from this week? What preparation do you need now to respond to situations in the future?
(Cottrell 2015: 236-237).

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Internal Analysis

Instruction
ow that you understand the concept of a competitor analysis, you must now be able to communicate your organization’s strategy to all employees. The CEO for your organization has announced that the organization must put more of a focus on consumer-driven health care, and an urgent care clinic division will be added as an answer to the recent uptick in retail health clinics in your area. For this assignment, develop a 4-6-page action plan, not including title page and reference page, that will facilitate communication of the strategy. Your action plan should include, but is not limited to, the following: Goals or objectives that detail how the new urgent care clinic division will contribute to the set strategy (e.g., tie this in with the organizational statements you constructed) What will be required to meet the goals and objectives Who is responsible for each goal and objective What resources will be required to achieve goals and objectives How results will be measured and evaluated At least 1 page of your report should be dedicated to explaining the process for communicating the plan across the organization.

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Question 21: General

Assessment @ a glance
Task Use the Data Science Road Map, your Excel & Descriptive Statistics skills to analyse two data sets to solve a problem
Learning outcomes Present and describe information effectively
Suggest ways to improve decision making processes
Value 15%
Submission Learnline Submit Here
Week 7 (see Learnline for details)
Volume & Documentation Two documents are required:
An Excel workbook showing data analysis and a data dashboard
A 2- 4-page report in Word summarising outcomes and decisions (see required template in task details)
Group or Individual Individual
Criteria See separate document

Overview
This assignment will enable you to practice your data analytics skills learned to date. You need to implement the Data Science Road Map and respond to the scenario on page 2.

SCENARIO
You are Aya Baxter and you are working as a data analyst in a tertiary institution. Your manager has been asked by a Senior staff member responsible for student engagement to analyse a data set of an ‘at risk’ first year university class (often with a high failure rate) to understand the demographics and the potential for all students to successfully complete the unit. The institution is looking to implement some student support strategies but first need to understand the student cohort in some detail.
To: Aya Baxter
From: Monica Dave
Subject: Student Engagement project
Dear Aya,
The Pro Vice Chancellor (PVC) Student Engagement is gathering data regarding some of the problematic subjects we teach in first year across the institution. She is particularly interested in a data set from a first year Statistics unit which has had some very high fail rates in the past.
Could you please review the data sets extracted from the student system and the Learning Management system and provide some advice including a brief report to help with planning intervention strategies to ensure that students can be successful.
You will need to include a range of descriptive statistics and data visualisations (in the form of a data dashboard) so that the PVC and colleagues will be able to quickly understand the situation when in their next meeting which is scheduled for Week 8 of this semester.
It would be great if you could get this work to me no later than Friday, Week7
I look forward to your response
Monica Dave
Preparation
In order to prepare a reply to the email, you will need to examine and analyse the datasets thoroughly. There are two separate excel files that will need to be reviewed.
Remember the process to use and the importance of the first step: Identifying the problem. The data will be messy, you need to clean the data and decide what will be best for your analysis. After cleaning the data, you will need to do some explorations about what its telling you. Consider the variables against which data is being recorded and the various relationships between variables that may be of help. A consideration of the ethical aspects of this request should also be included.
Demonstrate your use of a pivot table to manipulate the data as part of your analysis. Use the pivot table to create an Interactive data dashboard that includes at least 3 charts from which decision making is possible.

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Presentation
The structure for the report is as follows:
Title page
Problem: outline the problem you are trying to solve based on the scenario outlined below and the data sets you receive.
Data Wrangling: outline the steps you took to clean the data initially and the processes you used to understand what was in the data set you received. Include screen captures etc to show the process used.
Features extracted: based on your problem, what features did you choose to work with and why?
Ethical considerations: use the factors from the Business Ethics Canvas to write about the ethical aspects you considered
Modelling & Analysis: what visualisation and statistical processes did you employ to find answers to the problem you identified. Why did you choose these?
Present Results: this should include a data dashboard created in EXCEL and contain both visual, numerical and textual data. Data in your report should refer to data in the spreadsheet
References (where appropriate)

Criteria
Data Analysis Skills (Use of the Data Science Road Map process to structure the analysis; discuss the ethics😉
Demonstration of Statistical Thinking skills (ability to use the language, concepts and processes of statistics to address the problem presented)

Demonstration of EXCEL SKILLS (pivot tables, data dashboards, functions)
Communication skills – ability to write a coherent report
Innovation/Originality – for going above and beyond!

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Instruction
Read, summarize and give your opinion on the attached paper.

A Research Agenda Acknowledging the Persistence of Passwords∗
Cormac Herley
Microsoft Research, Redmond, USA
Abstract
Despite countless attempts and near-universal desire to replace them, passwords are more widely used and firmly entrenched than ever. Our exploration of this leads us to argue that no silver bullet will meet all requirements, and not only will passwords be with us for some time, but in many instances they are the solution which best fits the scenario of use. Among broad authentication re- search directions to follow, we first suggest better means to concretely identify actual requirements (surprisingly overlooked to date) and weight their relative importance in target scenarios; this will support approaches aiming to identify best-fit mechanisms in light of requirements. Second, for scenarios where indeed passwords appear to be the best-fit solution, we suggest designing better means to support passwords themselves. We highlight the need for more systematic research, and how the pre- mature conclusion that passwords are dead has lead to the neglect of important research questions.
1 Introduction
“Well, in our country,” said Alice, still panting a little, “you’d generally get to somewhere else if you run very fast for a long time, as we’ve been doing.” “A slow sort of country!” said the Queen. “Now, here, you see, it takes all the running you can do, to keep in the same place. If you want to get somewhere else, you must run at least twice as fast as that!”
– Lewis Carroll, Through the Looking-Glass
One view of password research is that little progress has been made in the past 20 years. Despite countless attempts to dislodge them, passwords are more widely
∗Version: August 25, 2011. Copyright IEEE. Author’s version for personal use. Not to be offered for sale or otherwise re-printed, re- published or re-used without permission. A version of this paper will appear in IEEE Security&Privacy Magazine in early 2012.
Paul C. van Oorschot
Carleton University, Ottawa, Canada
used and firmly entrenched than ever. The list of new technologies, research efforts and industry initiatives that have tried to supplant them is impressive in effort, and disappointing in outcome. We consider the possible rea- sons in an attempt to learn from this failure. We find that despite almost universal agreement on the desirability of finding something to replace passwords, much confusion has resulted from a failure to specify both the actual re- quirements needed of a replacement, and a relative rank- ing of such requirements. If a solution which satisfies all needs cannot be found, then “best fit” approaches should be explored. The premature conclusion that passwords are dead has generated some perverse effects. We argue that it is time to admit that passwords will be with us for some time, and moreover, that in many instances they are the best-fit among currently known solutions.
We suggest two broad research directions. First, we suggest research that identifies scenarios where pass- words are indeed the best fit and encourages means to better support them; this could have tremendous positive impact given the scale of password deployment. Second, we suggest research systematically prioritizing compet- ing requirements (as rarely can all requirements be met), and using this in comparing alternatives.
We assert the need to better understand the loss situ- ation (what the actual losses related to password com- promises are, and what attack vectors they result from); our current data poor state means perception drives de- cisions more than evidence. Password research has been far from systematic. For example, we still ask many of the same questions asked 15 or 20 years ago and the liter- ature is void of agreement on many issues for which con- sensus should be possible. We attribute this to a lack of a well-organized research agenda, and a lack of systemat- ically documented knowledge. Our goal is to promote a research agenda that both better supports passwords, and allows progress forward.
2 The Resilience of Passwords
Neither users nor security experts would mourn the pass- ing of passwords. For users the main issue is usability. Major complaints are triggered by mandatory password changes (e.g., every 90 days) and complex policies. Frus- tration increases greatly with the number of password that a user must manage. For example, larger portfolios of passwords increase forgetting and login errors.
The security shortcomings of passwords are many and well-known. They are static in the short term and thus replayable upon capture. Early attacks focussed on their vulnerability to guessing and brute-forcing. More recently phishing and keystroke logging have allowed password harvesting on an industrial scale [8]. There are also economic problems. Agent-supported password resets are expensive. The alternative, self-service au- tomated password resets, often rely on much weaker secondary authentication systems, such as “secret ques- tions” [9] (e.g., facilitating compromise of Sarah Palin’s email account).

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Nonetheless, passwords have shown incredible per- sistence. More than seven years after Bill Gates de- clared (2004) “the password is dead”, not only have we failed to get rid of them, but they continue to multi- ply as an almost universal means of Internet authenti- cation, protecting hundreds of millions of accounts on some large sites. Two decades of stories on how urgent and imperative it is to replace them has had little impact: stronger alternatives and two-factor schemes are rele- gated to the fringes. Sites that offer a choice of authen- tication mechanisms (e.g., Paypal, Blizzard World-of- Warcraft) find negligible user uptake of password alter- natives. End-user authentication technologies involving biometrics and tokens (see O’Gorman [11]), client-side public-key-infrastructure (see Housley and Polk [7]), and graphical variations of passwords (see Biddle et al. [1]), have largely failed to gain mainstream deployment. New proposals “to replace passwords” are offered with reg- ularity but expectations of success are so low that they are sometimes labeled as Yet Another Authentication Scheme (YAAS). Progress on federated identity systems has been glacial. A crowded and active offering space in 2004 is noticeably quieter in 2011. There is little ev- idence of user adoption of OpenID [12]. After a 1.0 re- lease by the Eclipse Higgins Project in February 2008 there have been no major updates. Sxip Identity stopped supporting its Sxipper product in April 2011, and Mi- crosoft announced in early 2011 that there would be no future versions of its federated client Cardspace.
There are many reasons for these failures. Approaches that require client hardware (e.g., fingerprints, smart- cards) face an obvious chicken-and-egg barrier. Phys- ical tokens are expensive and few users aspire to carry
the dozens that would be required to replace all of their passwords. Single-signon schemes offer a single point of failure. Password managers often have poor support for roaming and inadequately studied usability [3]. The extra security of proposed alternatives to passwords may not always justify the cost. Organizations may prefer the devil-they-know in the form of current levels of fraud to an unknown devil of support costs for more com- plex technologies. Revocation is more complicated for stronger authentication. Self-service password resets that many rely upon are no longer simple if hardware tokens are involved. Usability is an issue for many stronger schemes (e.g., longer login times). The enthusiasm that users show for getting rid of passwords has not trans- lated into support for alternatives. Non-technical issues are possibly to blame. Mis-aligned incentives can cause desirable solutions to fail. Overall, the reasons for these failures are as many and diverse as the failures them- selves.
Not only have proposed alternatives failed, but we have learnt little from the failures. Is federated identity a bad approach, or have the timing and incentives just been wrong? Do the many failed single-signon initia- tives teach that the whole idea is wrong, or merely that execution has been flawed? Might password managers see wider adoption if roaming were better supported? In spite of considerable research, execution and deployment effort, very little has been ruled in or out; those who seek to replace passwords in 2012 ask many of the same ques- tions asked in 1995. Single sign-on was an active topic of debate in the early 1990’s and remains so today. No progress results from continuing to revisit the same ques- tions without decision. There have been improvements, secure cookies, HTTPonly (which prevents cookie steal- ing) and tracking the history IP addresses, for example. However these have largely been behind-the-scenes and have not affected the user experience. While many things have changed beyond recognition, passwords have ad- vanced little since the days when a 500 MByte disk cost $600, thousands lined up overnight to buy copies of Win- dows 95, and the 1.5 MegaPixel Kodak DCS 420 digital camera retailed for $14,000.
Passwords, though unloved, deserve some words of praise. They have brought us this far: they are the means by which two billion Internet users access email, bank- ing, social networking and other services. They are es- sentially free from the service provider viewpoint, and are readily understood by users. They allow instanta- neous account setup. Revocation is as simple as chang- ing the password. Those who forget their passwords can be emailed either reset links or the passwords themselves (this practice, though insecure, is common for low-value sites). All of this is automated and instantaneous. They allow access to one’s accounts from anywhere in the
2
world assuming nothing more than a simple browser. So- phisticated users can protect themselves from many of the threats. Deploying a functioning password system is relatively simple (although deployment errors are com- mon [2]). Arguably, the Internet could not have grown to its current size and influence without them. Some non- profit sites, such as Wikipedia and Craigslist, have tens of millions of users. Facebook grew from nothing to just shy of one million users before taking any funding. Ev- ery startup wishes to emulate that growth story, and in many cases the only acceptable marginal cost per user is $0. While growing from one to a million users, authen- tication often must be free; in growing from one to 500 million users there is seldom a good time to mandate a new (more costly) user authentication system. Passwords have an impressive record of accomplishment.
3 Confusion Reigns: Goals, Costs, Benefits
Among security experts there is near-unanimous agree- ment on the desirability of “replacing passwords.” Yet, this meta-goal is accepted without an understanding of what exactly is required of a replacement, and what will improve once they have been replaced. There is consid- erable confusion as to the costs and benefits of replacing passwords. This makes it essentially impossible to effec- tively evaluate and compare proposals.
Poor security is obviously the main concern of secu- rity experts. However, since even strong authentication technologies are vulnerable to certain attacks (e.g., ses- sion hijacking involving client-end malware), more de- tail on exactly what is required of a replacement is es- sential. The U.S. government’s 2011 NSTIC initiative— “National Strategy for Trusted Identities in Cyberspace” [10]—summarizes things concisely: “passwords are in- convenient and insecure.” This would suggest that the implicit goal is: “more security, more usability (at rea- sonable cost).” While there is little to disagree with here, this does not point to a way forward. There must be min- imum security and usability goals to be met; incremen- tal improvement in either is probably not worth the cost of disruption. A solution that answers all security con- cerns, provides unequivocally greater usability and dis- rupts nothing seems unattainable: it is likely impossible to find a silver bullet achieving all goals simultaneously. That many attempts have sought this suggests an over- constrained problem. In the absence of a silver bullet the messy work of trade-offs cannot be escaped.
3.1 Confusion on properties needed
What properties do we actually need? Which weak- nesses are unacceptable in a replacement and which can we live with? What are the usability requirements, given
that active web-users must authenticate to dozens of sites? Previous attempts to replace passwords demon- strate confusion as to which threats to address.
As one example, the problem of malware-infected clients has been with us for some time and contin- ues. Yet, many recent proposals, including OpenID and Cardspace and most password managers offer no protec- tion against malware-infected clients. There is confu- sion about whether, in a particular deployment environ- ment, the guessing attacks of concern are online or off- line. Relatively weak passwords may suffice if relevant attacks must be online, allowing other mitigation; much greater strength is required if off-line attacks apply.
Passwords have been with us since the earliest days of computing. The rules, policies and “best practices” that govern their use have grown over time. The policy requirements of many organizations are enforced sim- ply for compliance with security audits or industry best practices. The reasons for some requirements are poorly understood, or long forgotten; in some cases the threats underlying a policy item are no longer applicable, or it is unclear whether the policy accomplishes the design goal. Password expiration, as discussed in Section 5, is an example where there is a high usability cost, yet the best evidence suggests the security objective is not being achieved [15].
The resources currently protected by passwords are as diverse as the Internet itself, ranging from bank and brokerage accounts with significant assets to throwaway email accounts. Clearly, not all accounts in all environ- ments have the same security needs. The objectives of different password-requesting web-sites vary immensely, and are not always centered on security. Passwords might be required to limit liability (if personal informa- tion is compromised), for legal reasons (some laws apply if a door is closed but not if open), to get an email address as username for contact information, or to convey or in- crease the feeling of value in a site. Not all users have the same needs—for celebrities, politicians and people in the public eye, even email and Twitter accounts may re- quire better protection than others need for banking. Not all passwords are equal. The consequences of compro- mise are at least as diverse as what they protect. Health records, employee accounts and banking are at one end of the spectrum; compromise here can be extremely se- rious. Merchant and retailer accounts come next; there might be an opportunity for mischief or vandalism but the damage is likely more limited. Email and social net- working sites present the opportunity for inconvenience and reputation loss. Passwords that allow access to site content, airport WiFi networks etc., rank lowest, protect- ing the site more than the user.
There is confusion as to whether we seek one solu- tion or many. We assert that it is naive to expect that a
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single approach will supplant passwords in every nook and cranny into which they have forced themselves; sev- eral or many technologies are necessary, which itself has advantages over a single solution. We noted earlier the problem is over-constrained in goals. The general confu- sion suggests a problem also insufficiently specified.
3.2 Inability to quantify harm
The insecurity of passwords certainly causes harm. Yet, how much harm exactly is caused by password compro- mises is a subject of speculation. Most organizations reveal nothing of their losses unless compelled. While there is no shortage of estimates, most lack a description of methodology, and many are produced by or for se- curity vendors whose prime motivation is not necessarily accuracy. In the last two years, estimates of “cyber-crime losses” ranged over three orders of magnitude, from $560 million (P. Peterson, Cisco) to $1 trillion (E. Amoroso, AT&T); the inconsistency inspires little confidence in any of these numbers. How bad are things actually— how much harm does the average user suffer? Accurately predicting the benefit of replacing passwords requires ac- curately quantifying harm.
Harm is sometimes suffered by the user, sometimes by the site. Historically, a compromised user account might pose a serious threat to the network itself. Today, a compromised Hotmail account is inconvenient for the user, and might be used to send spam, but poses little threat of direct loss to the site or other users (although indirect damage from compromised accounts may re- sult from their use to spread malware or “stuck in Lon- don” scams). Worst- and average-case harm can differ in severity by orders of magnitude. Gaining possession of an email password might in some circumstances allow an attacker to access a bank account. However the average case is far less serious. Some harms are reversible and some not. Consumers are generally made whole for di- rect costs upon loss of money [5]. Loss of privacy from leaked health records cannot be repaired. Confusing the picture further, indirect harm can be many times greater than direct. Money is the most obvious loss, but time, frustration and reputation are also at stake. As with many forms of crime, online thieves may cause damage out of proportion to the money they make.
Password compromise does not always lead to harm. In fact, we have little idea how often one leads to the other [6]. Survey after survey finds that users ignore most security precautions, yet it seems implausible that two billion people would use the Internet if a majority suffered serious harm each year. The leak of 32 million RockYou user credentials [13] has not been linked to any visible surge in fraud (albeit, proving such direct links convincingly can be difficult). The reasons for this ap-
parent lack of visible harm are poorly understood. Evacuating funds from high value accounts is non- trivial. There is evidence that many more accounts are compromised every year than can be evacuated and that money mules, not passwords, are the bottle-neck re- source in the cyber-crime pipeline [5]. Privilege esca- lation (from low to high value accounts) may be harder than it appears. Stealing passwords and monetizing stolen passwords are distinct events. It is quite possi- ble that current systems are failing at preventing the first event, but succeeding at preventing the second. When are passwords not the last line of defence, but simply one hurdle in a complex fraud prevention apparatus? Aca- demic researchers typically have no data on this. Back- end fraud detection at banks may catch more attempted fraud than researchers imagine. The research literature, largely assuming that passwords are the last line of de- fense, generally lacks discussion of back-end protec- tion. What fraction of password compromises lead to attempted fraud, and what fraction of attempted fraud
succeeds, are simply matters of speculation.
Finally, since riddance is not an end in itself, what im- proves if we get rid of passwords? The goal, presum- ably, is to reduce actual and potential harm (or improve usability without reducing security). Inability to quan- tify harm precludes quantifying the expected improve- ment from alternatives. It is common to cite impressively large fraud estimates when making the case against pass- words. However, establishing how much reduction we might expect of a replacement is rarely attempted. For example the NSTIC document [10] asserts that ID theft cost $37 billion in 2010, but is silent on how much, if any, of this can be laid at the door of passwords. This matters, as displacing passwords will be costly, and no replace- ment will be free of vulnerabilities itself. It would be disappointing to incur all the cost only to find fraud lev- els unchanged (e.g., if session-hijacking were to replace keystroke logging). It would be counter-productive to mandate strong authentication for all email accounts, if passwords are not a major source of loss. Again, without
quantification of the harms we proceed blindly.
3.3 Confusion on cost of ousting passwords
If replacing passwords were an easy proposition, it is likely that one of the many attempts would have suc- ceeded by now. That progress has eluded us suggests that the costs will be large. There will also be benefits, of course. Do the benefits exceed the costs? Answering this is complicated by the number of stake-holders and their diversity of interests. No one actor owns the whole problem. Users, web service providers, browser vendors, software companies, government agencies and law en- forcement all have some involvement or stake. The ben-
4
efit of any proposal may exceed the cost for one party, but not for others. No one party can impose a solution, but several may veto solutions; e.g., users resist innovations where usability is poor.
Organizational difficulties and the alignment of incen- tives plays a large role. OpenID provides a lesson in in- centives: while many sites offer to be identifying parties, few accept the risk of disintermediation of becoming re- lying parties [12]. Economics may play as large a role as technology in deciding outcomes. The sunk costs that many organizations have in passwords pose a large bar- rier to change. Not only is there no first-mover advan- tage, in moving to any new authentication system, there is often real advantage in being last. Given the cost, con- fusion, training and customer support calls that introduc- ing a novel system brings it can be better to let others go first and learn from their experience. The risk of user defection may be unacceptable for web service providers competing vigorously for traffic. Underestimating these factors can lead us to believe that proposals have far bet- ter cost/benefit tradeoff than is actually the case. The many failed attempts to replace passwords offer a cau- tionary lesson: asserting that promised (un-quantified) reduction in harm outweighs the business risks has been tried many times. It has a long history of failure, and this will probably continue.
While the research community is unable to quantify harm, individual companies presumably have estimates of their losses from ongoing threats. Their actions cur- rently reveal a preference for password-related losses as opposed to the uncertainty of alternatives. To assume that they’re wrong is to assume that the research community understands the business trade-offs better than businesses themselves do.
Finally, in segments where the costs of replacement are greater than the benefits, improving usability may be the main driving force, with passwords persisting until a more usable alternative is found. Segments where ben- efits of replacement can be shown to clearly dominate costs are good candidates for more complex solutions— however, the “clear showing” is not so easy.

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4 Seeking Best-Fit over Silver Bullets
Repeated and sustained effort has failed to uncover a sil- ver bullet replacement for passwords. It is time to ad- mit that this is unlikely to change. No single alternative technology is likely to possess the combination of secu- rity, usability and economic features that meets all goals in all situations. There is simply too much diversity in current uses of passwords and consequences when things go wrong, and too many conflicting requirements, threat models, and competing stakeholder interests [2].
Abandoning hope for a silver bullet, we should turn
our efforts towards finding best-fit solutions—by the messy work of weighting security, usability and eco- nomic requirements, considering the differences in ac- count compromise severity, and weighting threats by rel- ative likelihoods. Challenges in this requirements-driven prioritization problem include defining criteria for com- paring proposed solutions, and assigning weights for dif- ferent elements.
While conventional security wisdom oversimplifies the story to a trade-off between security and usability, the situation is far more complex than a one-dimensional space where more of one implies less of the other. In- deed if they were inversely related, any attempt to in- crease both would be hopeless: only by reneging on the promise of better usability could security be increased. Neither is a one-dimensional quantity. For example, in- creasing the complexity of a password improves secu- rity against brute-force attacks, but does nothing against a host of others. Thus, security requirements must be bal- anced against both usability and other potentially greater security requirements. Shoulder-surfing is certainly a threat, but is entirely incapable of compromising creden- tials on the industrial scale that keystroke logging can. While session hijacking is a realistic concern, authenti- cating every Facebook update and tweet with one-time codes seems overkill relative to the threat.
As a tool for ranking properties it is hard to escape the need to quantify the relative likelihoods of various threats. As a thought experiment consider a pie-chart counting all the accounts compromised in a year, di- vided into slices by compromise vectors (e.g., keystroke logging, phishing, brute-forcing, shoulder-surfing, ses- sion hijacking, …). While the range of attacks is large and growing, we have no demonstrated ability to quan- tify their relative likelihoods. We don’t know the slice sizes—not even approximately.
Are more accounts likely to be compromised by brute- force guessing than by shoulder-surfing? Do more ac- counts succumb to keystroke logging than phishing? How often does cross-account password re-use lead to attack escalation? Sadly with very few exceptions, the relative success of each attack vector is unknown. Many have strong opinions on the importance of various at- tacks, but few have any data. This precludes comparing the effectiveness of would-be replacements (relative to requirements). If guessing attacks are insignificant rel- ative to other threats, then accepting poor usability in return for highly complex passwords is a bad bargain. If shoulder-surfing causes marginal harm, then solutions addressing it alone, while neglecting other attacks, are of limited value. Since not all requirements can be met any given proposal will meet some and not others. Thus, in the absence of the “pie slice data” that would allow us to rank requirements, comparing alternatives to passwords

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reduces to speculation.
Identifying the threat vectors is easy work, compared
to the important task: determining their relative likeli- hoods and impact. This prioritization is important, un- less all security requirements can be met (at acceptable cost). Clearly some threats are also less scalable than others. While threat likelihoods will evolve, weighting attack importance per current prevalence is more useful than equal (or arbitrary) weighting of all attacks.
We assert that passwords themselves are the best-fit for many (but not the highest level) authentication needs. They are free (if we don’t consider usability) and read- ily understood by users. They allow account access from anywhere in the world assuming only a simple browser. Revocation is as simple as changing passwords. Those who forget passwords can be mailed reset links or the actual passwords; though far from ideal, this is common practice for low-value sites, for which all steps can be automated and instantaneous, including account set-up. Thus passwords accomplish many things that their nu- merous rivals cannot. Indeed it might be said of pass- words that they are the worst possible authentication sys- tem, except for all the other systems.
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5 A research agenda supporting passwords
Building on the above discussion, we seek to promote a research agenda better supporting passwords. We also highlight research questions—some long overdue and neglected—that we believe deserve attention.
5.1 Ending belief ‘Passwords are dead’
The spectacularly incorrect assumption “passwords are dead” has been harmful, discouraging research on how to improve the lot of close to two billion people who use them. Every effort should be made to correct this. While vast attention, effort and research has been spent on would-be replacements, there has been relatively lit- tle on studying plain old text passwords themselves: how they are (re)used, how often they fail or are confused be- tween accounts, and how to improve things. We are sur- prisingly ignorant on even very basic questions.
During this time usability has degraded: everyone has more passwords, and policies have tended to tighten rather than loosen over time. While this might arguably be acceptable if passwords were on the verge of extinc- tion (in which case an increasing usability burden might even help coax users to consider alternatives), we must now acknowledge that they are not. Indeed, we be- lieve that passwords will be with us in great numbers for the foreseeable future (including as a visible front- end strengthened by complementary measures). Without better user-facing support, passwords represent a grow- ing burden of user effort that is better spent elsewhere.
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The above reiterates the need for data on “pie slice sizes” on which to base advice to users, and more gener- ally, to expend greater research effort on understanding problems related to text password themselves.
5.2 Understanding strength, online, offline
Enormous emphasis is put on coaxing users to choose strong passwords [14]. Yet there is no consensus on what strength various situations demand. This raises numer- ous questions, which we suggest the security community has neglected to seriously consider for far too long.
First, how should strength be measured? Info- theoretic entropy and the NIST criteria are poor mea- sures [13] when users choose common passwords, e.g., ‘Pa$$w0rd’ isn’t particularly strong. Strength is better measured relevant to a large population of passwords, as popularity is a main determinant of risk.
Second, what strength is required to resist online at- tacks (assuming rate-limitation in place)? The answer is non-trivial; it may depend on the scale of the target pop- ulation, as many guessing attacks are easier to conceal in the traffic of a large site. Next, how should a desired level

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6
of strength be achieved? For example, different ways of achieving the same strength can have radically dif- ferent usability properties. The question of minimizing the usability impact of a strength requirement has seen surprisingly little work. Related, but slightly different, how should a desired level of strength be imposed? The policies that constrain password length and composition appear especially hated by users. Are there better means to the same end?
Third, in what scenarios are lockout or rate-limiting policies unacceptable? An argument against these poli- cies is that they admit denial of service attacks. Yet for many sites, living with this threat is preferable to impos- ing greater strength requirements [2].
Fourth, when acceptable, how can lockout or rate lim- iting best be accomplished? By locking accounts after three failed logins, ten, or more? Is an exponentially in- creasing delay between attempts better than a fixed limit?
Fifth, when are off-line attacks a threat? While depen- dent on implementation, access to salted hashed pass- words requires attacker effort; long gone are the days when password hash files were by default world read- able. A disgruntled ex-sysadmin who steals hashed pass- words is the often-conjectured foe in this attack; yet, if un-trusted individuals have had unfettered unaudited ac- cess to the authentication server, a site’s problems go well beyond password strength.
Sixth, are there ways to protect against off-line at- tacks besides password strength? Mandating password changes once hashes leak might be better than strong policies at Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!.
5.3 Better policies and support tools
Password aging polices. Password expiration policies (e.g., mandating passwords be changed every 90–180 days), are a frequently mentioned usability disaster. They raise the cognitive burden on users, increase login errors, and lock legitimate users out of older machines and archived files. The justification of such policies ap- plies only in a small set of scenarios: they reduce the time that an attacker has to access an account (if unde- tected), and the time to brute-force the password in the case of off-line attacks. However, a study by Zhang et al. [15] found that an attacker who knew the old password
could quickly guess the new one 41% of the time with an off-line or 17% of the time with an online attack. Thus, despite their usability burden, expiration policies don’t appear to deliver the intended security benefit. We sug- gest (as do an increasing number of security experts) that expiration policies be eliminated on the grounds that best evidence implies cost greatly exceeds benefit, in all-but contrived circumstances.
Realistic password guidance. Managing a large col- lection of passwords is a problem that most users face, but on which the research literature offers few insights or guidance. The historical injunction to never write pass- words down is now frequently challenged by experts as unrealistic and poor advice (obviously, it is important where the written record is stored). Users are also ad- vised to make them strong, never re-use, change them often, and never use them on un-trusted machines. This advice is, of course, almost universally ignored. The fact that even the most conscientious users find it impossi- ble to comply is often taken as evidence that “passwords are dead” and is used to support the arguments to replace them. We suggest, instead, that it is evidence of a failure by the research community to grapple with the real-world constraints of the Internet-using population. Rather than advice that is bound to be ignored, users need realistic guidance to cope with the dozens of passwords they must now manage. While passwords may not seem “hot” re- search, the scale of deployment is such that any improve- ment in their usability would be hard to equal for impact.
Password managers. Password managers (whether browser-based, client application, or in the cloud) offer to relieve much of the cognitive burden of multiple pass- words. Thus, they are potentially of great interest for scenarios where passwords are the best-fit answer. We assert that the properties of offerings in this space are largely understudied, and that development and analysis of serious password manager tools, and recognition of their potential benefits, offer great opportunities in us- ability and security research. Among important chal- lenges here are security itself (recall that most password managers have no malware resistance), and addressing roaming users (i.e., users using machines other than their primary devices).
5.4 Prioritizing competing requirements
If all requirements cannot be met, then some must be omitted in favor of others. The challenge is how to do so systematically rather than on an ad hoc basis. If we have no ranking of requirements then all features have equal weight—such as, e.g., protecting against shoulder- surfing and keystroke-logging. This seems wrong, as scalability implies the latter can deliver far greater harm. We have proposed that requirements be ranked in pro-
7
portion to the compromises that they currently address. While this approach is imperfect—the numbers can change as attackers adapt to defenses and evolve their techniques—using a ranking based on observed harm is preferable to choosing which threats to address in an arbitrary way. There are two parts to this ranking. First, threats that currently cause significant harm must be ranked high—by definition, they have a demonstrated ability to scale. For example, if malware-infected clients result in significant credential-stealing, then any solution not addressing this threat may not meaningfully reduce fraud. Second, threats that cause little observed harm re- quire careful analysis. Some may remain dormant while more effective attacks exist; others may not scale suffi- ciently to harm large populations. Distinguishing these cases is important. Thus, to rank requirements, we need a much better understanding of which attacks are caus- ing how much of the damage, or at least their relative levels. Populating the pie-chart of Section 4 with threat likelihoods is of first-order importance.
Agreement on a standardized, superset threat model for reference would greatly facilitate comparing solu- tions. This would spring naturally from the ranked list of attacks, with the highest-ranked ones forming a checklist. Rating proposals against this standard check- list would directly improve research. For example, this would immediately reveal the deficiencies of solu- tions that address phishing but not keylogging or brute- forcing, or that address shoulder-surfing alone. Given the diversity of threat vectors, the limited appeal of such single-feature solutions will become obvious if we have consensus on a ranking of threats.
We need better understanding of the harms suffered by users when things go wrongtwo major conclusions.
First, we assert that passwords are themselves the best- fit for many of the scenarios in which they are currently used. No other single technology matches their combi- nation of cost, immediacy and convenience that many scenarios require; they are likely to persist for some time. The research avenue this motivates is exploring how to better support Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!
References
[1]  R.Biddle,S.Chiasson,P.C.vanOorschot.GraphicalPasswords: Learning from the First Twelve Years. ACM Computing Surveys vol.44 no.4 (to appear).
[2]  J. Bonneau and S. Preibusch. The password thicket: Technical and market failures in human authentication on the web. WEIS 2010, Cambridge, MA, USA.
[3]  S.Chiasson,P.C.vanOorschot,andR.Biddle.Ausabilitystudy and critique of two password managers. In 15th USENIX Security Symposium, pages 1–16, 2006.
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[4]  D. Floreˆncio and C. Herley. A Large-Scale Study of Web Pass- word Habits. WWW 2007, Banff, Canada.
[5]  D.Floreˆncio,C.Herley.PhishingandMoneyMules.IEEEWork- shop on Information Forensics and Security (WIFS 2010).
[6]  C. Herley. So Long, And No Thanks for the Externalities: The Rational Rejection of Security Advice by Users. NSPW 2009, Oxford.
[7]  R.Housley,T.Polk.PlanningforPKI.Wiley,2001.
[8]  M. Jakobsson, S. Myers. Phishing and countermeasures: un- derstanding the increasing problem of electronic identity theft. Wiley-Interscience, 2006.
[9]  M.JustandD.Aspinall.Personalchoiceandchallengequestions: a security and usability assessment. In Proceedings of the 5th Symposium on Usable Privacy and Security, pages 1–11. ACM, 2009.
[10]  NIST. National Strategy for Trusted Identities in Cyberspace. Why We Need It. http://www.nist.gov/nstic/ NSTIC-Why-We-Need-It.pdf. 2011.
[11]  L.O’Gorman.Comparingpasswords,tokens,andbiometricsfor user authentication. Proc. IEEE 91(12):2019-2040, Dec. 2003.
[12]  S.-T.Sun,Y.Boshmaf,K.Hawkey,K.Beznosov.Abillionkeys, but few locks: the crisis of web single sign-on. NSPW 2010.
[13]  M. Weir, S. Aggarwal, M. Collins, H. Stern. Testing Metrics for Password Creation Policies by Attacking Large Sets of Revealed Passwords. ACM CCS 2010.
[14]  J.Yan,A.Blackwell,R.Anderson,A.Grant.Passwordmemora- bility and security: empirical results. IEEE Security and Privacy 2(5):25-31, 2004.
[15]  Y. Zhang, F. Monrose, M.K. Reiter. The Security of Modern Password Expiration: An Algorithmic Framework and Empirical Analysis. ACM CCS 2010.

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News commentary article
The text, not including inserted quotes, must be between 350 and 450 words long (include a word count). Papers of less than 350 words will not be graded.
Identify and explain an economic concept found in the article. If the article is about inflation, then you need to show that you understand what inflation actually is.
Use the article just to illustrate the concept.
Keep it simple and stick to economics you know and understand.
Basically you need to be able to analyze the information, not retell it.The more your paper presents a summary of the article, the lower your grade will go.
Adding a graph to your article for further illustration is often very helpful
There are 2 commentaries due this semester (see above for the exact dates).
.You need to provide a copy of the article or a link to it.
You need to cite each source in correct bibliographic form
If you use the internet to obtain a source, you must find out the date the article was originally published and put it into the correct form listed above, then include the URL afterwards (the address of the page).
You need to choose timely news
You may NOT use reference sources, encyclopedic entries, bank reports, etc.
The article you choose must be within a month or so of the date you write it.
Some of the best choices of articles come from sections of the newspaper other than the business pages—as long as they illustrate principles you have learned in this course.
45-50 points for meeting the above criteria
30- 44 points for retelling the article with little economic discussion
-5 points for not providing copy of the article or workable link to the article.
-5 points for over 450 words
papers of less than 350 words will be returned ungraded.

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Develop a Marketing Plan for a Local Business
1. Pick a local business or your own if current and gather your research to develop a Marketing Plan. Use the outline from chapter 2, exhibit 2.5. Try to interview the owner or a manager if you can. Try to solve a problem or answer a marketing question for the business. Use observation or questionnaire to make suggestions as to how the business should develop a Marketing Plan. Write the Marketing Plan for the business.  You can pick any type of business, product or service.
2. Write a Marketing Plan for the business.
3. Refer to Chapter Two, “Strategic Planning for Competitive Advantage”.  Exhibit 2.5, Elements of a Marketing Plan.
4. Develop your plan as you read the chapters and doing each step in your plan after reading it and completing your plan at Lesson15.  Your plan should address each of these elements including writing a Mission Statement for the business. Conducting a SWOT analysis.  You need three Objectives for the business.  Develop a Target Market based on your research and develop all elements of the Marketing Mix addressing all four P’s.  Use any other industry research you can find to help you develop and support your plans findings.  End your plan adding your Implementation steps, the Evaluations you will use, and the Controls for the business.
5. Your paper should be a minimum of 3 pages and no more than 10.

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G150/PHA1500 Module 06 Final Exam. Graded A
G150/PHA1500 Module 06 Final Exam. Graded A

Question 2: General Question

USHIST101 Exam 2 (Latest)
USHIST101 Exam 2 (Latest)
USHIST101 Exam 2 (Latest)

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USHIST101 Exam 1 (Latest)
USHIST101 Exam 1 (Latest)
USHIST101 Exam 1 (Latest)

Question 4: General Question

Nurs6521 Week 11 Quiz Latest
Nurs6521 Week 11 Quiz Latest
Nurs6521 Week 11 Quiz Latest

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NRS410 Week 1 Assess your Knowledge of Foundational Concepts Latest
NRS410 Week 1 Assess your Knowledge of Foundational Concepts Latest
NRS410 Week 1 Assess your Knowledge of Foundational Concepts Latest

Question 6: General Question

NR 602 Dermatology Questions and Answers (Latest) 87 Questions
NR 602 Dermatology Questions and Answers (Latest) 87 Questions
NR 602 Dermatology Questions and Answers (Latest) 87 Questions

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NR 509 Week 4 Quiz (Latest)
NR 509 Week 4 Quiz (Latest)
NR 509 Week 4 Quiz (Latest)

Question 8: General Question

MN576 Unit 10 Final Exam Latest
MN576 Unit 10 Final Exam Latest
MN576 Unit 10 Final Exam Latest

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MCB2289l Week 11 Final Exam Latest
MCB2289l Week 11 Final Exam Latest
MCB2289l Week 11 Final Exam Latest

Question 10: General Question

BUSI 430 EXAM 4 Latest
BUSI 430 EXAM 4 Latest
BUSI 430 EXAM 4 Latest

Question 11: History

HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 4: Liberty University (Already graded A )
HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 4: Liberty University (Already graded A )

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ASSESSMENT 2 – Essay
Written Assessment: You are required to write a formal academic essay. The essay will require an introduction, body, conclusion and reference list. All in-text citations must have a corresponding entry in the reference list. You are required to use APA (6’h ed.) for formatting your essay, citing evidence in your essay and constructing your reference list.
Due date: 17/9/2019 By 5pm AEST
Weighting: 30%
Length and/or format: 1,500 +/- 10%
Purpose: The aim of this essay is to enable students to demonstrate an understanding of and ability to apply the Transtheoretical Model of Change (Stages of Change Model) within an evidence-based framework. In addition to this, students will identify components of Motivational Interviewing which could be utilised to assist with enabling a patient to change their health behaviours.
Learning outcomes assessed: This assessment task assesses L01, L02, L03, LO4
How to submit: Students will submit their assessment to LEO via Turnitin. You should submit your final draft to Turnitin well in advance of the due date (ideally, several days before) to ensure that you get your Turnitin originality report and have time to work on any issues identified by Turnitin.
Return of assignment: The assignment will be returned via Turnitin on LEO with a grade and feedback summary.
Task
Harry is a 58-year-old male who has been admitted to the surgical ward on which you are working for a hip replacement. You have been allocated to care for him for the next 4 days. He weighs 165kg and is due to have a hip replacement tomorrow. He states -I’ve been overweight for years and that’s just how I am. I love food and I am a chef, so I am around food all day long. My doctor says my weight is impacting on my health-.
Using the Transtheoretical Model of Change and Motivational Interviewing techniques, describe how you could support Harry through the Stages of Change cycle to maintenance.
Utilize evidenced based literature to support your discussion. For the purposes of this paper, while seminal work (early literature) may be referenced, current literature is a requirement.

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Choose a patient-care situation in which the RN should intervene and advocate for the patient. An example of such a situation might be when a patient has not been given complete informed consent.

Include the following in your paper:
Describe the clinical situation concisely and descriptively. It can be an actual situation or a hypothetical one.
Apply the Bioethical Decision Making Model  to the specific clinical ethical situation that you choose. Address each section of the model in your paper.
Conclude with a discussion of nursing advocacy in the clinical setting and the nurse’s role as a patient advocate.
Your paper should be 4-5 pages.
You must reference and cite 1-2 scholarly sources other than your text. Include a title page and a reference page to cite your text and adhere to APA formatting.
Review the rubric for further information on how your assignment will be graded.
Due: Sunday, 11:59 p.m. (Pacific time)
Attached it is the Bioethical Decision Making Model

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From the list below, choose a subject you would like to research. This will be the topic of your thread:
·         Long-term customer loyalty and relationships
·         Global marketing
·         The importance of marketing research
·         Defending the practice of social media marketing

Threads:
·         Title your thread according to your topic. Have a title page, and attach a Microsoft Word document with your thread, in addition to the normal discussion board.
·         In at least 600 words, discuss your topic by addressing the following items:
o    Explain the concept of the marketing management topic selected for your paper (Your textbook is a good source for this item).
o    Examine at least 1 practical application/example for your topic.
o    Formulate a question about your topic that your classmates will respond to.
o    Have a separate heading for each of these 3 sections.

Replies:
·         You must respond to at least 2 of your classmates’ threads with a reply of at least 250 words. Your replies must do the following:
·         Answer the question posed in the thread.
·         Respond to the practical example in the thread by sharing a practical example that differs from the one in the thread.
·         Reference at least 1 scholarly source for each reply.
Note about Responses: Seek to understand your classmates’ threads (including the marketing management theory, the facts presented in their posts, their points of view, and their real-world examples). Aim to communicate your own understanding of relevant facts, your values, and your perspective of the topic.

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Refer to Chern’s Case Study in the appendix of Strategic Staffing.

Write at least three realistic process and outcome goals in a total of 525 words for staffing the position of sales associate positions at Chern’s.

Relate how the process goals you have set align with the business goals and explain why this is important in 175 words

Question 16: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

Describe the performance management process in your current organization( Tjx Companies Inc). What’s good about it? bad? How can it be improved?

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Matching
one person consuming a good or service, will not stop another person from or consuming that same product.
the inability to bring about the allocation of resources that best satisfies the wants of a society
people can receive the benefit of a good or service without paying for it
the difference between the price  a product will sell for and the price the seller would be willing to receive.
a person cannot be stopped from consuming or using a good or service
goods or services consumers can get without cost
effects of an activity affect a third party
consumers can be excluded from consuming these, but are felt should be made available.
non-payers can be excluded from consuming these
the difference between the price  a buyer is willing to pay and the actual sale price.

Market failures
Non-excludability
Non-rivalry

Free rider problem
Quasi-public goods

Public goods
Private goods
Externality
Consumer surplus
Producer surplus

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Training Program: Design a 12-week periodized training program for the client described in the Client Profile. Be very specific as you design the training program. This is an opportunity for you to demonstrate your full comprehension of the information and concepts discussed throughout the course. List the types of exercise, duration, sets, reps, rest intervals, and so on.
Include the following in your case study submission:
A description of your professional responsibilities as discussed in the stages of the drawing-in process (Unit 12)
Discussion of any fitness tests, methods of evaluation, and data collection used to assess and evaluate the clientÕs needs
Specific conditions that you have identified in the client profile
A detailed 12-week comprehensive and periodized training program including specific exercises, sets, repetitions, suggested rest times, etc. Use an integrated approach in your program recommendations.
Specific and detailed nutritional strategies and an explanation as to how the strategies will assist the client in meeting energy needs
Explanation for your chosen assessment, programming, and nutritional recommendations. (Be sure to reference course concepts when discussing rationale for your recommendations.
Keep in mind that a client should be able to take your program and put it into practice without having to contact you to clarify what you intended by your recommendations or to explain parts of your program.
Don’t forget your explanation for WHY you listed and recommended what you did. Reference the concepts and theories covered in the course. Be sure to address why the program and exercises recommended are appropriate for the specific client given the client Õs history, current abilities, and intended goal(s). For example: if you are developing a program for a beginner client without any resistance training experience, explain how your program addresses the lack of experience, initial need for foundational development, process by which you would safely progress the client, etc. Tying your program to course concepts is a critical component of your case study.

Review the Client Profile below.
Client Profile: Diana Prince
Age: 37
Gender: Female
Resting Heart Rate: 75 bpm
Height: 5’5″
Weight: 165 lb
Body Fat Percentage: 31%
Background and Goals: Diana is a 37-year-old mother of two children. She used to exercise fairly consistently (mostly jogging and light aerobic activities) before having kids. Ever since she had her first child 9 years ago, she has not been very active. Diana has her 20-year high school reunion coming up in 3 months (12 weeks). She would like to look and feel her best and is eager and willing to spend the next 12 weeks doing what she can to change her body.

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Write up to 500 words per essay. One of the consequences of the “flattening of the world” is that many U.S. manufacturing jobs have
moved to lower-wage countries like China. Yet according to Davidson (“Making it in America”), many of the automotive parts made by
Standard Motor Products are unlikely to move to China any time soon. Why? To what extent is the pattern of international production
described by Davidson consistent with Vernon’s Product-Life Cycle theory?

Question 20: Education

HIUS 420 PowerPoint Presentation Instructions
PowerPoint Presentation Instructions
For the duration of this course, you will submit 2 PowerPoint presentations. You will be evaluated on the following points:
·         Content of presentation.
·         Organization of presentation.
·         Appearance of presentation.
See the PowerPoint Presentation Grading Rubric for a full description of each point.
For this assignment, you will choose a topic from the PowerPoint Presentations Topics document. If you choose a topic that is not listed in the document, you must seek approval from the instructor. You will then develop a PowerPoint presentation with 10–12 slides. You must not exceed the assigned amount of slides. It is important for you to be concise and clear on the slides, and present relevant and organized information in the notes.
Each of the PowerPoint Presentations has 2 components:
A.    Select a topic from the PowerPoint Submission Topics document, and develop your PowerPoint Submission.
a.       You may use materials from the class, scholarly resources, and Internet sources; however, you must be careful to ensure that the source material is providing correct information.
b.      Unless an image is copyrighted, you may use images from the Internet.
c.       Use an attractive and effective background in your PowerPoint presentation.
d.      The last slide of the presentation must be a bibliography. This will include all resources utilized. You must apply current Turabian formatting.
e.       Do not include links to videos (e.g. YouTube), or to other websites.
B.     Submit presentation notes that further develop each slide.
a.       250–300 words for each slide’s notes.
b.      This submission may be in an extended outline format.
c.       You must include your notes in the “Notes” section of each PowerPoint slide.
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Savannah University  NURSING NS 6005 QUIZ Bank Latest (2019) Graded A
Savannah University  NURSING NS 6005 QUIZ Bank Latest (2019) Graded A

Question 22: Health Care

MN502 Unit 7 / MN 502 Unit 7 / MN502 Unit7
Sustainability Focused Business Model of Practice
MN 502- Theoretical Foundations of Advanced Nursing

Question 23: Health Care

MN502 Unit 3 / MN 502 Unit 3 / MN502 Unit3 | A+ work
MN502: Theoretical Foundations of Advanced Nursing
Stewart Leadership…

Question 24: Health Care

MN502: Theoretical Foundations of Advanced Nursing
Running head: PERSONAL PHILOSOPHY OF ADVANCED NURSING PRACTICE
Personal Philosophy of the APN
MN502 Unit 3

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MN502-4: Develop a philosophy that supports advanced nursing practice reflecting the values, beliefs, and cultural competencies relative to nursing practice, science, and theory.
Now that you have spent the last 8 weeks discussing theory development and exploring models and philosophies that guide advance practice nursing, it is time for you to put it all together. In this Assignment, you will create a presentation using any form of presentation software (e.g., PowerPoint®, Prezi™, Movenote™, Powtoons™, Slidedog™, and so on). Your presentation should bring together the theory that best fits your concept of advance practice nursing, the model that you will use to translate this into practice, and your final philosophy of advance practice nursing related to your role after graduation.
Please remember that your presentation should contain slides that have bullet points. The bullets should number no more than four to six per slide. The bullet point is not written as a complete sentence. It contains key words. You, as the presenter will explain in depth what each bullet point means in the audio portion of the presentation. Slides may contain graphics, but should be uncluttered. Background and font colors should be of sufficient contrast to make reading them easy on the eyes. Attention to colors should be paid so that a person who is colorblind can easily read the presentation.
Assignment Details
The presentation should consist of a series of slides that include:
Title Slide: A title slide that identifies the title of the presentation and name of the student.
Introduction Slide: An introduction slide that includes brief information about you and your program track. The slide should also explain to the audience the purpose of the presentation.
Model Slides: The third and fourth slides will address your chosen model. The bullet points should consist of the specific characteristics of the model. You will need at least one citation that identifies where the model came from. Your audio will expound upon the model and what the characteristics mean. The fourth slide should include why you chose the model and how you will apply it in practice.
Theory Slides: The next three slides will focus on your chosen theory. The first slide should present your theory and why you chose it. The next slide would present the key concepts of the theory and how it has been used to date in past research no older than 5 years ago. The third slide will discuss how you will use this theory in practice as an advance practice nurse upon graduation.
Philosophy Slide: The next area will consist of one slide that presents your philosophy of advance practice nursing in the post-graduate role you will assume. The philosophy statement will consist of one to three sentences that distill the essence of what you believe advance practice nursing is and your conception of nursing as a profession. It is written in the first person and present tense. It is a personal statement of your beliefs about the profession of nursing. This should present guiding statements for your future practice in the advanced practice role. An example of a philosophy statement might read this way:Advanced practice nursing takes the art and science of nursing to a level of “other” and “self” interacting together to reach a state of optimal wellness guided with compassion and love for the culture of the “other.”
Graphical Slide: The next-to-last slide will be a graphical representation of how the model, theory, and your philosophy fit together.
Conclusion Slide: The last slide will be a conclusion that brings together everything you have presented. It is not a summary that just reiterates what you presented. It is a judgment about what you presented and bring the audience home, ending the presentation on a positive note about the future.
You will need supporting citations for your theory and model slides, and possibly for your philosophy, as appropriate. You will include the citations where appropriate and your very last slide will be a reference slide.
The total slide count should not exceed 15 slides. This does not include the reference slide(s) or the title slide.
Organization, documentation, references formatting guidelines must follow APA 6th edition: To view the Grading Rubric for this Assignment, please visit the Grading Rubrics section of the Course Home.
Total points: 300
Assignment Requirements
Before finalizing your work, you should:
be sure to read the Assignment description carefully(as displayed above);
consult the Grading Rubric(under the Course Home) to make sure you have included everything necessary; and
utilize spelling and grammar check to minimize errors.
Your writing Assignment should:
follow the conventions of Standard American English(correct grammar, punctuation, etc.);
be well ordered,logical,and unified, as well as original and insightful;
display superior content, organization, style, and mechanics; and
use APA 6th Edition format.

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PHIL201 QUIZ2 / PHIL 201 QUIZ 2
PHIL201 QUIZ2 / PHIL 201 QUIZ 2
Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 2 / PHIL201 QUIZ2 / PHIL 201 QUIZ 2 (Already Graded 2019)

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Question 27: Business

Refer to Chern’s Case Study in the appendix of Strategic Staffing.

Write at least three realistic process and outcome goals in a total of 525 words for staffing the position of sales associate positions at Chern’s.

Relate how the process goals you have set align with the business goals and explain why this is important in 175 words

Question 28: General Question

BUSI 430 EXAM 3 Latest
BUSI 430 EXAM 3 Latest
BUSI 430 EXAM 3 Latest

Question 29: General Question

FIU MAN 3025 Final Exam Latest
FIU MAN 3025 Final Exam Latest
FIU MAN 3025 Final Exam Latest

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ETH 321 Week 3 Chapter 8 Quiz
ETH 321 Week 3 Chapter 8 Quiz
ETH 321 Week 3 Chapter 8 Quiz

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FIN 571 Final Exam (New)
FIN 571 Final Exam (New)
FIN 571 Final Exam (New)

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Magazine article summary: Select 1 article dealing with any sociological concept or issue. Summarize the main points of the article using your own words as well as including what interested you about the article and/ or what you learned. Additionally, you will need to identify the sociological concepts that are involved in the article you select, as well as give your thoughts on the implication these concepts are having, or will have on our society. The article may be selected only from: Newsweek, Time, National Geographic, or US News and World Report. This summary should be 2–3 pages long and must have a copy of the article attached to the summary or send the link.  Sending the link does not count as proper APA documentation.  MAKE sure to send the complete APA citation. Save the attachment as a Word or pdf file ONLY.

This inquiry assignment should be typed using black ink, 10 to 12 New Times Roman font, double-spaced, and with 1 inch margins. Additionally, papers are expected to be free of major grammatical errors as well as spelling errors.

Question 2: Sociology

1. Based on your reading, do you think it is ethical for sociologists to mislead research subjects or to NOT identify themselves as sociologists to their research participants?
2. What if identifying themselves would put sociologists in danger?  What if it would put someone else in danger?
3. What if identifying themselves would destroy their ability to study a certain setting or group? Would this change your initial response? Why or why not?

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Question 3: Other

Assume that you are the project manager for an upcoming new information systems project designed to replace your organization’s old inventory management system. The server and database will also be upgraded. Name one risk of project derailment or failure that you might anticipate? How might you mitigate this risk? Must be 200 words please cite and reference all work used.

Course Learning Outcomes for Unit VII
Upon completion of this unit, students should be able to:
3. Evaluate the process of developing an information system for an organization.
3.1  Assess the core activities and methodologies involved in building information systems.
3.2  Explain how organizations can align information systems development projects with business
strategies and goals.
3.3  Analyze the role of project management in developing information systems.
Reading Assignment
Chapter 13: Building Information Systems Chapter 14: Managing Projects
Unit Lesson
Developing Information Systems
Why do we develop new systems? The answer to this question is pretty evident if you think about it. No organization will remain the same for too long if it wants to be effective, efficient, and competitive. The concept of organizational change goes hand in hand with implementing new systems—regardless of whether you purchase new systems or develop them in-house. There is a whole discipline of quality management based on organizational change, process improvement, and business process redesign that supports the use of technology to improve business processes. For many organizations, the concept of business process redesign is never-ending due to the continual need for evaluating current processes, designing new processes, implementing new processes, and seeking to optimize processes (Laudon & Laudon, 2016).
Let’s look at an office environment as an example. An office environment is not generally set up to be process efficient like an assembly line in an automobile assembly plant. However, people in office environments often get new information systems. Why is that? There are always ways of being more efficient in every type of workplace. There are always new ways to automate manual tasks—even just being able to access data faster is a plus. Most systems development comes from a desire to solve a problem. For example, how can we gather some specific data, manipulate it somehow, and output it into information that makes sense to us or that we can use to make good business decisions?
What is involved in the process of developing a new information system? There are some core activities involved in systems development. These activities or steps in the process might actually be common sense to some of us. Different theorists can break the systems development process into different steps, but for the purposes of this course, we will say that there are six basic activities.
Systems analysis – How do you know how to solve the problem unless you do some analysis first? What is the exact problem? What are the causes? What are the requirements? What are some potential solutions? Are these solutions feasible? Based on many factors including time, cost, benefits, and impacts, management will choose a solution.
Systems design – How do you get written user requirements into technical requirements? What are the system specifications? What is the functionality? What should the user involvement be? The systems design document should lay out the entire solution so that the developers can create the new system.
Programming – This is where a lot of the work happens because the developer has to take the technical document and create an operational system. In many cases, organizations will purchase
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 1
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UNIT VII STUDY GUIDE
Managing Information Systems Development
software packages from a vendor. If the tasks are standard or customUizNabITlex, tShTeUnDpuYrcGhUaIsDinEg a
system may be a good option.
Testing – There are different forms of testing. The developer will test as they go, making sure there is
functionality in the system. Then, the developer or a quality assurance (QA) representative will perform unit testing on the applications or modules one at a time. The next step would be to test the whole system to make sure everything works in unison. There will also likely be some regression testing, which means the tester will make sure no other systems are harmed by what this new system is doing. The final step is to test with the user to make sure the system is functional.
Conversion – This involves the process of going live with the new system. There are many ways of doing this. Two popular ways involve a phased approach or direct cutover. Many times, organizations can even run systems in parallel until they are ready to turn off the old system.
Production and maintenance – This step involves a review process over a period of time to make sure that there are no bugs that need to be addressed.
So, how does one manage all of this? Just like any process, there are ways to manage the software development process to make sure that the rules are followed and that the process is as efficient as possible. Depending on the size of the project, managers may need some tools to help document and manage the process. First, it is important to note that there are different methodologies for developing systems. Structured methodologies are top-down, step-by-step methodologies that use data entities whereby progress flows from one logical step to the next. Object-oriented development methodologies are more iterative and incremental. They use objects that are data accompanied with information/instructions concerning that data.
To manage the software development process, most development shops use a software systems development life cycle (SDLC) program. The original SDLC was called the waterfall method and was characterized by having formal stages where one stage had to be completed before the next one began. That sounds a bit rigid, does it not? It works well for smaller, less complex software projects, but it does not work well for larger, more complex projects. Since the development of the waterfall SDLC, there have been many other approaches that have been developed. For example, prototyping is a popular method where parts of the system are created and presented to the user for use and approval. If the user does not approve, then adjustments can be made and presented again. This method can be used in conjunction with the waterfall method and adds an iterative element. More recently, several methods have been developed that are more versatile and iterative in nature. One of the more popular methods is called agile development, which focuses on the quick delivery of small subprojects, each treated as a full project. Agile is used in many software development shops.
Just as technology has adapted over time to answer the needs of organizations, so have the methods and processes been used to support technology advancement and information systems development.
How does project management fit into this? You might ask yourself if you have an SDLC, why do you need project management? Broadly speaking, a project is a set of activities that work together to achieve some business objective. That business objective might be to build a new warehouse or it might be to build a new system. Either way, the project has to be managed. Nowadays, most complex systems go outside the boundaries of just software development. There may be hardware, network, server, database, and security considerations. You may even have prominent involvement from the business side of the organization. For the actual software development portion of the project, you can use an SDLC methodology to manage that process and project management to manage the overall project.
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There are some higher-level considerations for organizations and project management as well.
How can you align your systems projects with business goals? The organization’s business strategy drives the selection of projects. Many organizations will have a steering committee or similar facsimile to drive this selection process.
How can organizations link their information systems projects to their business plan? An information systems plan will help make the link between specific technology and corporate goals. The plan will list the corporate goals and specify how the information technology will support the achievement of those goals through current systems and new development and acquisitions.
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 2
Title
How can you assess a business value to the information systems that you areUdNeIvTelxopSiTngU?DTYhGeUvIaDluEe of a system is based on whether it provides enough returns to justify its cost. However, remember that there are
always tangible and intangible benefits when discussing value.
All of these are important considerations in the process of developing information systems for organizations.
Reference
Laudon, K. C., & Laudon, J. P. (2016). Management information systems: Managing the digital firm [VitalSource Bookshelf version] (14th ed.). Retrieved from https://bookshelf.vitalsource.com/#/books/9780133898309/
Suggested Reading
The following articles explore the factors of information system development project success which is relevant information to the subject in this unit. Our unit’s chapters cover both systems development and project management.
In order to access the resource below, you must first log into the myCSU Student Portal and access the Business Source Ultimate database within the CSU Online Library.
Haron, H., Gui, A., & Lenny, M. (2014). Factors influencing information technology project success: A case of university information system development division of Bina Nusantara University. International Journal Of Organizational Innovation, 755-765.
Learning Activities (Nongraded)
For this activity, you will create a 5-10 minute video presentation.
Imagine that you are the owner of your own software development company. You have been asked by the local school board to provide a video tutorial for career day at the local high school. Your video will explain the steps involved in the information systems development process.
To create a viewable video, you will need a device with video capabilities and an account set up with www.youtube.com.
Once you have set up your Youtube account, you will need to create your video. You can create your video using any laptop w/webcam, smartphone, or tablet with video capabilities. Once you have created your video, you will upload it to Youtube via the device’s own capabilities or the Youtube website.
As you view your newly uploaded video on Youtube via your computer, there will be a Share button directly underneath the viewing panel. When you click on the Share button, a new set of options will display including Facebook and Twitter links. Beneath those links is the web URL for your video. Copy and paste that link into a Word document with a brief summary description of your video.
As this is a nongraded activity, this work cannot be uploaded to Blackboard. If you would like your professor’s feedback on your work, send this document to them in an email with a note that you would like to receive feedback on your non-graded activity.
Title
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 3
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Unit 7 Essay due 9/16/19 by 12 noon
Introduction:
The learning outcome for this unit involves the process of developing an information system (IS) for an organization. There are many factors involved in this process, including core activities and the methodologies for managing the process. Project management plays a part as well. Additionally, IS development does not happen in a silo; there is also the business side to consider as part of the process. All of these considerations are brought together and addressed in this assignment.
Assignment Instructions:
For this assignment, you will need to access the CSU Online Library to research two articles concerning information systems development and project management. Drawing on these two articles, your textbook, and other sources, write an essay that addresses the following:
Provide a well-formulated thesis statement in your introduction paragraph.
Explain how a business user could be involved in the core activities of building an information system.
Analyze how software development methodologies (such as agile development) can work in tandem with project management for the benefit of both information systems development projects and organizations.
Evaluate how project managers and/or IT managers can ensure that information system development projects are in alignment with business strategies and goals.
Summarize your findings in a five-page paper using proper APA formatting.
Your response must be at least five pages in length, not including the title and references pages, and in APA format. You are required to use the two outside articles. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying APA citations.

Question 4: Business

This paper is a personal paper (use I, my, he, she). You must write in first person not third person. Has to be 15 full pages! Write about Ethical issues as it relates to workplace code of conduct

MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 3
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Using a mass balance, obtain an analytic expression that can be used for determining the time required to consume a finite fuel

Question 6: Health Care

Evidence-Based Project
Is there a difference between “common practice” and “best practice”?
When you first went to work for your current organization, experienced colleagues may have shared with you details about processes and procedures. Perhaps you even attended an orientation session to brief you on these matters. As a “rookie,” you likely kept the nature of your questions to those with answers that would best help you perform your new role.
Over time and with experience, perhaps you recognized aspects of these processes and procedures that you wanted to question further. This is the realm of clinical inquiry.
Clinical inquiry is the practice of asking questions about clinical practice. To continuously improve patient care, all nurses should consistently use clinical inquiry to question why they are doing something the way they are doing it. Do they know why it is done this way, or is it just because we have always done it this way? Is it a common practice or a best practice?
In this Assignment, you will identify clinical areas of interest and inquiry and practice searching for research in support of maintaining or changing these practices. You will also analyze this research to compare research methodologies employed.
To Prepare:
Review the Resources and identify a clinical issue of interest that can form the basis of a clinical inquiry.
Based on the clinical issue of interest and using keywords related to the clinical issue of interest, search at least four different databases in the Walden Library to identify at least four relevant peer-reviewed articles related to your clinical issue of interest.
Review the results of your peer-reviewed research and reflect on the process of using an unfiltered database to search for peer-reviewed research.
Reflect on the types of research methodologies contained in the four relevant peer-reviewed articles you selected.
Part 1: An Introduction to Clinical Inquiry
Create a 4- to 5-slide PowerPoint presentation in which you do the following:
Identify and briefly describe your chosen clinical issue of interest.
Describe how you used keywords to search on your chosen clinical issue of interest.
Identify the four research databases that you used to conduct your search for the peer-reviewed articles you selected.
Provide APA citations of the four peer-reviewed articles you selected.
Part 2: Identifying Research Methodologies
After reading each of the four peer-reviewed articles you selected, use the Matrix Worksheet template to analyze the methodologies applied in each of the four peer-reviewed articles. Your analysis should include the following:
The full citation of each peer-reviewed article in APA format.
A brief (1-paragraph) statement explaining why you chose this peer-reviewed article and/or how it relates to your clinical issue of interest, including a brief explanation of the ethics of research related to your clinical issue of interest.
A brief (1-2 paragraph) description of the aims of the research of each peer-reviewed article.
A brief (1-2 paragraph) description of the research methodology used. Be sure to identify if the methodology used was qualitative, quantitative, or a mixed-methods approach. Be specific.
A brief (1- to 2-paragraph) description of the strengths of each of the research methodologies used, including reliability and validity of how the methodology was applied in each of the peer-reviewed articles you selected.
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 3
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Part 1: An Introduction to Clinical Inquiry Create a 4- to 5-slide PowerPoint presentation in which you do the following: ·   Identify and briefly describe your chosen clinical issue of interest. ·   Describe how you used keywords to search on your chosen clinical issue of interest. ·   Identify the four research databases that you used to conduct your search for the peer-reviewed articles you selected. ·   Provide APA citations of the four-peer reviewed articles you selected.– Levels of Achievement:Excellent 36 (36%) – 40 (40%) The presentation clearly and accurately identifies and describes in detail the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation accurately and thoroughly describes in detail how keywords were used to search on the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation accurately and clearly identifies in detail four or more research databases that were used to conduct a search for selected peer-reviewed articles. The presentation accurately provides APA citations of four or more peer-reviewed articles selected. Good 32 (32%) – 35 (35%) The presentation accurately identifies and describes the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation accurately describes how keywords were used to search on the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation accurately identifies at least four research databases that were used to conduct a search for selected peer-reviewed articles. The presentation accurately provides APA citations of at least four peer-reviewed articles selected. Fair 28 (28%) – 31 (31%) The presentation inaccurately or vaguely identifies and describes the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation inaccurately or vaguely describes how keywords were used to search on the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation inaccurately or vaguely identifies at least four research databases that were used to conduct a search for selected peer-reviewed articles. The presentation inaccurately provides APA citations of the peer-reviewed articles selected. Poor 0 (0%) – 27 (27%) The presentation inaccurately and vaguely identifies and describes the chosen clinical issue of interest or is missing. The presentation inaccurately and vaguely describes how keywords were used to search on the chosen clinical issue of interest or is missing. The presentation inaccurately and vaguely identifies less than four research databases that were used to conduct a search for selected peer-reviewed articles or is missing. The presentation inaccurately provides APA citations of the peer-reviewed articles selected. Feedback: Part 2: Identifying Research Methodologies After reading each of the four peer-reviewed articles you selected, use the Matrix Worksheet template to analyze the methodologies applied in each of the four peer-reviewed articles. Your analysis should include the following: ·  The full citation of each peer-reviewed article in APA format. ·   A brief statement explaining why you chose this peer-reviewed article and/or how it relates to your clinical issue of interest, including a brief explanation of the ethics of research related to your clinical issue of interest. ·   A brief description of the aims of the research of each peer-reviewed article. ·  A brief description of the research methodology used. Be sure to identify if the methodology used was qualitative, quantitative, or a mixed-methods approach. Be specific.– Levels of Achievement:Excellent 45 (45%) – 50 (50%) The response accurately and clearly provides a full citation of each article in APA format. The responses accurately and thoroughly explain the selection of these articles and/or how they relate to a clinical issue of interest, including a detailed explanation of the ethics of research. The responses accurately and clearly describe the aims of the research. The responses accurately and clearly describe the research methodology used, and clearly identify the type of methodology used with specific and relevant examples. The responses accurately and clearly describe the strengths of each of the research methodologies used, including a detailed explanation of the reliability and validity of how the methodology was applied in each of the articles selected. The responses provide a complete, detailed, and specific synthesis of two outside resources related to the selection of articles and two or three course-specific resources. Good 40 (40%) – 44 (44%) The response accurately provides a citation of each peer-reviewed article in APA format. The responses accurately explain the selection of these peer-reviewed articles and/or how they relate to a clinical issue of interest, including an accurate explanation of ethics. The responses accurately describe the aims of the research of each peer-reviewed article. The responses accurately describe the research methodology used and type of methodology used with some examples. The responses accurately describe the strengths of each of the research methodologies used, including an explanation of the reliability and validity of how the methodology was applied in each of the peer-reviewed articles selected. The responses provide an accurate synthesis of at least one outside resource related to the selection of the peer-reviewed articles. The response integrates at least one outside resource and two or three course-specific resources. Fair 35 (35%) – 39 (39%) The response inaccurately or vaguely provides a citation of each peer-reviewed article in APA format. The responses inaccurately or vaguely explain the selection of these articles and/or how they relate to a clinical issue of interest, including the explanation of the ethics. The responses inaccurately or vaguely describe the aims of the research of each article. The responses inaccurately or vaguely describe the research methodology used and the type of methodology used, with only some examples. The responses inaccurately or vaguely describe the strengths of each of the research methodologies used, including the explanation of the reliability and validity of how the methodology was applied in each of the articles selected. The responses provided vaguely or inaccurately synthesize outside resources related to the selection of the articles. The response minimally integrates resources that may support the responses provided. Poor 0 (0%) – 34 (34%) The response inaccurately and vaguely provides a citation of each peer-reviewed article in APA format or is missing. The responses inaccurately and vaguely explain the selection of these articles and/or how they relate to a clinical issue, including the explanation of ethics of research, or they are missing. The responses inaccurately and vaguely describe the aims of the research, or they are missing. The responses inaccurately and vaguely describe the research methodology used, the type of methodology used with no examples present, or they are missing. The responses inaccurately and vaguely describe the strengths of each of the methodologies used, including the explanation of the reliability and validity of the methodology, or they are missing. The responses provide a vague and inaccurate synthesis of outside resources related to the selection of the articles and fail to integrate any resources to support the responses provided, or is missing. Feedback: Written Expression and Formatting—Paragraph Development and Organization: Paragraphs make clear points that support well-developed ideas, flow logically, and demonstrate continuity of ideas. Sentences are carefully focused—neither long and rambling nor short and lacking substance. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement and introduction is provided, which delineates all required criteria.– Levels of Achievement:Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement, introduction, and conclusion are provided, which delineates all required criteria. Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 80% of the time. Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment are stated but are brief and not descriptive. Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 60–79% of the time. Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment is vague or off topic. Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity less than 60% of the time. No purpose statement, introduction, or conclusion is provided. Feedback: Written Expression and Formatting—English Writing Standards: Correct grammar, mechanics, and proper punctuation.– Levels of Achievement:Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%) Uses correct grammar, spelling, and punctuation with no errors. Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%) Contains a few (one or two) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%) Contains several (three or four) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
Required Readings
Melnyk, B. M., & Fineout-Overholt, E. (2018). Evidence-based practice in nursing & healthcare: A guide to best practice (4th ed.). Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer.

Chapter 2, “Asking Compelling Clinical Questions” (pp. 33–54)
Chapter 21, “Generating Evidence Through Quantitative and Qualitative Research” (pp. 607–653)
Grant, M. J., & Booth, A. (2009). A typology of reviews: An analysis of 14 review types and associated methodologies. Health Information and Libraries Journal, 26, 91–108. doi:10.1111/j.1471-1842.2009.00848.x. Retrieved from https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/pdf/10.1111/j.1471-1842.2009.00848.x
Note: You will access this article from the Walden Library databases.
Hoare, Z., & Hoe, J. (2013). Understanding quantitative research: Part 2. Nursing Standard, 27(18), 48–55. doi:10.7748/ns2013.01.27.18.48.c9488. Retrieved from https://www.researchgate.net/publication/239615585_Understanding_quantitative_research_part_2
Note: You will access this article from the Walden Library databases.
Hoe, J., & Hoare, Z. (2012). Understanding quantitative research: Part 1. Nursing Standard, 27(15), 52–57. doi:10.7748/ns2012.12.27.15.52.c9485. Retrieved from https://www.researchgate.net/profile/Juanita_Hoe/publication/235369193_Understanding_quantitative_research_part_1/links/…
Note: You will access this article from the Walden Library databases.

Walden University Library. (n.d.-a). Databases A-Z: Find the best library databases for your research. Retrieved September 19, 2018, from https://academicguides.waldenu.edu/az.php

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Walden University Library. (n.d.-b). Keyword searching: Finding articles on your topic: Boolean terms. Retrieved September 19, 2018, from http://academicguides.waldenu.edu/library/keyword/boolean

Walden University Library. (n.d.-c). Keyword searching: Finding articles on your topic: Introduction to keyword searching. Retrieved September 19, 2018, from http://academicguides.waldenu.edu/library/keyword/searching-basics

Document: Matrix Worksheet Template (Word document)

Required Media

Centers for Research Quality. (2015a, August 13). Overview of qualitative research methods[Video file]. Retrieved from https://youtu.be/IsAUNs-IoSQ

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Centers for Research Quality. (2015b, August 13). Overview of quantitative research methods[Video file]. Retrieved from https://youtu.be/cwU8as9ZNlA

Laureate Education (Producer). (2018). Review of research: Anatomy of a research study[Mutlimedia file]. Baltimore, MD: Author.

Schulich Library McGill. (2017, June 6). Types of reviews [Video file]. Retrieved from https://youtu.be/5Rv9z7Mp4kg

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Assignment 1: Advanced Health Service Planning (92295) Spring 2019 Part 1: Understanding Models of Care (500-750 words)
1. Develop an understanding of ‘models of care’ by responding to the following short answer questions using reliable evidence to support your responses:
o What are models of care?
o Why are models of care important in health service planning?
o How specific are models of care in the health sector in terms of population groups,
settings, a health problem, workforce, type of care? Identify and describe an example of a published model of care for each of these domains and briefly explain the model used in each and their benefits for the health system and patients.
Part 2: Comparative Analysis of Models of Care (1750-2000 words)
Student allocation (see class list for your assessment number)
Comparative Analysis Models of Care for Older People
Comparative Analysis Models of Care Obstetrics (Expectant Mothers)
Comparative Analysis Models of Care for Rural Dwellers
Comparative Analysis Models of Care Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islanders
Comparative Analysis Models of Care for Children
Comparative Analysis Models of Care for Homeless People
Context
The large Health District covers a region of over 1 million people with two age groups predominating i.e. under 25 years and over 55 years. The region has a complex mix of outer regional, low density suburban development areas and highly urbanised areas spread across thirteen Local Government Areas. The population includes people from over 100 different culturally and linguistically diverse backgrounds and a greater than average number of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander peoples.
The health services currently provided across the District include population health programs and services; ambulatory, primary health care and community services; hospital inpatient and outpatient services, and allied, imaging and pathology services, among others. Facilities include six public hospitals and a range of outpatient and community health services, as well as over 50 private general medical practices. Other facilities located in the region include a growing number of private allied and surgical health care facilities and two Primary Health Networks. There is a high and growing number of private residential aged care facilities.
Identify the most appropriate model of care for the population you are assigned that currently does or could best support the following aspects:
Clinical co-management (medical, allied health, nursing, etc.)
Health care integration (across multiple facilities of the local health system)
Public healthcare cost reduction
Patient, family/caregiver needs and support
Timely care
Through a comparative analysis, provide reasoned arguments supported by reliable evidence and/or real-world examples for selecting the models i.e. identify the rationale behind your decision by comparing your selected model with other models of care available for your population. Contextualise information in your response in relation to the health district context given above. NB: Students must analyse primary papers, not review papers, as review papers do not provide the detail needed to adequately compare models).

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A spacecraft is moving through empty space at 8 m/s-1 . A meteoroid travelling at 15m/s-1 comes from behind and at an angle of 45 degrees to the line of movement of the rocket , crashes into the rocket and becomes embedded in it. the rocket has a mass of 350kg and the meteorite mass is 20kg . calculate the velocity of the rocket.

Question 9: Business

you are working for a company that is considering investing in a foreign country. Investing in countries with different traditions is an important element of your company’s long-term strategic goals. As such, management has requested a report regarding the attractiveness of alternative countries based on the potential return of FDI. Accordingly, the ranking of the top 25 countries in term of FDI attractiveness is a crucial ingredient for your report. A colleague mentioned a potentially useful tool called he Foreign District Investment (FDI) Confidence Index. The FDI Confidence Index is a regular survey of global executives conducted be A.T. Kearney. Find this index and provide additional information regarding how the index is constructed.

Question 10: Statistics

A recent ACT administered to a local high school yielded the following results: Mean = 24.4 and Standard Deviation = 4.2. Which of the following is true? (5 points)
a. 65% of the students scored between 16 and 32.8
b. 95% of the students scored between 16 and 33.8
c. 65% of the students scored between 20.2 and 28.6
d. 95% of the students scored between 20.2 and 28.6

Question 11: Finance

Boots Ltd sells its goods with terms of 3/12 EOM, net 70. What is the implicit cost of the trade credit?

Question 12: Health Care

Instruction
What are some research designs that justify themselves in the field of nursing research? Choose one and explain why you chose it. Give an example of how this research design is used in your nursing discipline.

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Instruction
The student will complete a theological essay that will address the relationship of human sinfulness to an aspect of the doctrine of salvation. Students will examine one of the biblical images of salvation (adoption, conversion, regeneration, redemption, reconciliation, justification, election, sanctification, or glorification) and define and describe the doctrine with its biblical, historical and theological contours as well as discuss how this image of salvation relates to and addresses the problem of sin. Finally, the student will apply the implications of this doctrine to the Christian life and for the student’s chosen vocation. The essay will be 750-1000 words and the formatting should be compatible with your current degree program.

Question 14: Mathematics

MATHEMATICAL METHODS FOR ENGINEERS 1 (MATH 1063) CALCULUS 1 (MATH 1054
Problem Solving Exercise 1
PleaseconsulttheCourseOutlinefordetailsofhowtosubmityoursolutions,andpenal- ties for late submission.
Note: You need to submit your solutions via the online submission tool on the web site. If you have not done this before, try it out well in advance of the due date so that you have time to address any problems. Consult the University’s ITHelpDesk if you have problems with submission.
Put your name on every page of your submission. You may type your submission, or write it by hand.
If you photograph your solutions to make a digital file, and the image is difficult to read (poor focus, poor lighting), your mark will suffer a penalty. The marker may not be able to award many marks at all, if they cannot see what you have done. It is your responsibility to ensure that your work is legible, so look critically at what you are handing in before submitting it.
Your solutons should be complete, in that they should explain how you obtained the final answer or answers. A reader of your work should be able to understand the entire process of what you have done.

For example: Find lim x2 − 1. x→1 x−1
The correct answer is 2, but that by itself is not very helpful and would score low marks. It could have been a lucky guess!
A more worthy solution would be:
lim x2 − 1 = lim (x − 1)(x + 1) (factorise numerator)
x→1 x−1 x→1 x−1
= lim(x+1) (maycancelx−1̸=0sincex̸=1)
x→1 = 2.
Give your solutions plenty of space and keep them tidy. Don’t squeeze things in at the bottom of a page – start a new page. You want to make life easy for the reader of your work.
If you receive help in solving a question, you need to disclose this information. On the first page of the submission, please list all questions for which you received help, and who gave you the help. This is important in order to avoid plagiarism charges. Likewise, if you offered help to someone, you need to disclose that information. On the first page of the submission, please list all questions for which you offered help, and who benefited from your help. On the first page of your submission you also need to reference any sources you used other than our textbook, the tutorial exercises, and the lecture recordings for our course. This includes online sources.
1
1. From first principles, find the derivative of the function f (x) = 4×3 − x2 − 5. That is,
find
lim f(x + h) − f(x). h→0 h
2. Using the rules of differentiation (that is, not from first principles) find the derivatives of each of the following functions. If you use the product rule, quotient rule or chain rule, be sure to indicate where you have done that. Do not simplify your answers.
(a) f(x)=tanx2 +2x.
(b) f(x)=(x2 +1)(x3 −1).
(c) g(x) = x3 − 1. x2 + 1
sinx (d) h(x)= 1+cosx.
[10 marks]
3. Find the domain and range for each of the functions f, g, and h below, justifying your answers. Use radians for trigonometric functions.
(a) f(x) = 1 , (b) g(x) = cos x, (c) h(x) = f(g(x)). 1−x2
[4 + 4 + 4 + 4 = 16 marks]
4. (a)
[3 + 2 + 4 = 9 marks]
Verify that the line y = −2x − 1 goes through the point (1, −3) and that it is a tangent to the graph of y = x2. [Hint: There should be precisely one point common to the line and the parabola, so precisely one solution to −2x − 1 = x2.]
(b) There is another line through point (1, −3) that is a tangent to y = x2. Find its equation, and the coordinates of the point where it touches the parabola.
[4 + 5 = 9 marks]
2
A civil engineering student wants to understand how water flows out of a reservoir through a drain hole at its bottom. She decides to use calculus to build a model of the water flow. If V (t) represents the volume of water inside the reservoir at time t, she thinks it is reasonable to say that the more water there is in the reservoir, the faster the
water will flow out. The quantity dV represents the rate at which the volume of water dt
in the reservoir changes. At time t = 0 the reservoir contains V (0) = 500 litres of water. After some thought, the student settles on the model
dV =−kV(t), dt
where k > 0 is a fixed (but unknown) constant.
(a)  Why did she put a negative sign in her equation? Justify.
(b)  After doing some theoretical work, she concludes that V (t) = 500e−kt is the solution to the model. Verify that she is correct.
(c)  How could the value of k be determined?
(d)  Criticise the model: In your opinion, does this model accurately reflect how water
flows out of a reservoir? Justify.
[2 + 3 + 3 + 3 = 11 marks]
A popular brand of chocolate (see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Toblerone) is sold in the form of a long bar with a triangular cross-section. You are asked to design a box for this chocolate bar. The cross-section of the box is to be an equilateral triangle. The surface area of the box is to be 500 cm2. The volume is to be as large as possible.
Model this problem, but don’t carry out the calculations needed to solve it. You may need to use some simple geometry.
Your answer should include
(a) a labelled sketch of the box,
(b) statements defining appropriate variables (with units),
(c) a formula for a function that would have to be maximised or minimised, and (d) equations that encode any relationships between your variables.
[3 + 3 + 2 + 4 = 12 marks]
[Total 67 marks]

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Discuss the following using a maximum of 20 pages and a minimum of 10 good quality references (there is no maximum reference count). The paper should be laid out and properly cited in APA format. You will submit a brief comparison of how Canada and Iran differ or are similar in any aspect relevant to the business environment as covered in this class. In this paper, you will: Define, explain the macro environment and how it differs and same. Only looking between Canada and Iran, select one industry in Iran or Canada that has been negatively impacted by any political agreements. Explain the negative or positive impact of this agreement on that industry. If you were a manager in the industry that you identified having been negatively affected by a political agreement, using concepts from the course, what would you recommend to your senior managers as a possible plan to change the negative impact to either a neutral or positive impacts?

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Instruction
Three pages. As a school leader, how would you plan for professional development for your campus? What steps would be involved? Would you use regularly scheduled staff meetings as part of your program? What is your analysis of the value and use of online school district and campus staff development?

Short Paper Rubric

Low Medium High Comments
Elements of Writing Many grammar or mechanical errors detract from the writing.
Minimum grammar or mechanical errors.
No grammar or mechanical errors.
APA Style Does not follow APA style, e.g. no cover page, reference page, or citations not appropriate Minimum APA errors No APA errors
Sources No source cited Uses only the textbook as a source Uses at least one source in addition to the textbook
Application of theory or law
(graphic organizer) Does not apply the theory/law to a practical situation Applies the theory/law to a practical situation in a simple way Applies the theory/law to a practical situation in a detailed manner
Response Response minimally addresses the topic but is not clear and logical. Response addresses the topic but lacks coherence and flow. Response addresses the topic, has an introduction and closure, and transitions easily between paragraphs.

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Short Paper 4 : Campus Curricular Programs How would you use sound, research-based practice in the development, implementation, and evaluation of campus curricular, co-curricular, and extracurricular programs? 2 1/2 to 3-page paper.

Question 18: Education

Instruction
Short paper #1: Data-driven Decision Making How would you implement procedures for gathering, analyzing, and using data from a variety of sources for informed campus decision making? 2 1/2 to 3-page paper.

Question 19: Law

Instruction
Select a topic of your choice related to the management of criminal justice professionals and write a 5 page research paper.

Question 20: Other

Instruction
For this Signature Assignment, develop and present a proposal for your intended research using a quantitative design. While the most important elements in any proposal are the fundamentals of the problem, purpose, and research questions, the bulk of the assignment will be the methodology. You will want to organize this by subheadings. The actual headings and information that needs to be included in part depend on the method used to collect the data. In studies involving the collection of primary data, you want to be sure to include the details of your sampling plan, measurement of variables, the actual data collection procedure, plan of analysis, and justification for your decisions. Be sure to include the following information in your proposal: •Introduction •Statement of the Problem •Purpose Statement •Research Questions •Hypotheses: Null and Alternative for each research question •Methodology ◦Research Design: Specific quantitative method to be used and rationale (Ex. experiment, survey, etc.) ◦Operationalization of Variable: Specification of the concepts to be measured, the operationalization of the variable(s) to be used to measure the concepts, the question(s)/scale(s) to be used and the resulting level of measurement. ◦Sample design: Specification of the population, method, sample size, specific procedures, and justification. ◦Data collection procedure: Explanation of how the data will be collected. ◦Intended data analysis: How will you analyze the data to test the hypotheses and provide answers to the research questions, including descriptive and inferential statistics? Provide your rationale. •Limitations: Any recognized limitations of the proposed study. •References In this assignment, you are expected to incorporate all previous instructor feedback. Your prospectus must be in APA format and be of the quality expected of doctoral-level work. All research elements must be in alignment and reflect a cohesive and comprehensive research study. Length: Your paper should be between 13 -15 pages, not including title and reference page. References: Include a minimum of ten (10) scholarly sources. Your presentation should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course and provide new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

Question 21: Computer Science

Sustainability Integration: ICT Planning and Design
This assessment is designed to be completed after you have completed your design project and proposal. Ensure you have completed your design project and have had it assessed by your teacher and returned.
Ensure you have completed the Sustainability training before you attempt this assignment
Assignment
You have just designed a solution for an organisation. A late change request has come through from the CEO and she would like some additions to the proposal. She has been reading a lot about how ICT systems are having a large impact on the carbon footprint of business.
Revisit your design, using your new Green IT skills and integrate sustainability elements to it. These elements must include, but are not limited to the following:
Research and recommend strategies the company can take to reduce power consumption
An energy audit on two options of a PC, laser printer and server package estimating the CO 2 emissions for these devices in a year and provide a comparison report summarising potential
energy savings and financial costs
A policy for procurement of equipment from ‘Green Suppliers’, including a disposal plan
Project implementation plan highlighting at what stages you will introduce short and long term
solutions that will save power immediately and long term
List these additions in a priority order and approximate the cost of each change
To complete this assignment you will need access to the internet. Here are some useful links:
http://www.eu-energystar.org/en/en_008.shtml http://www.greenit.org.au/ http://2virtualize.com/index_files/greendatacenter.htm http://42u.com/
http://sustainabledirections.com.au/
Feel free to contact your teacher if you require any assistance.
Submission
Upload your completed documents on the Upskilled Student Portal.

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Part 1: Initial Plan budget. (Using math for decision-making)
You are a manager with budget authority for a new IT project that is being developed for your department. The project is being developed internally by the company IT staff. You are developing a budget for the project. In this scenario, you will be in integrating information systems and information technology to progress an organization toward their organizational objectives. Consider the information given to determine how much capital you will need to raise to complete this project successfully. Your goal is determine the budget needed to complete the project within the stated timeline and maintain the system through the full five year maintenance contract. Note that the first month of maintenance for the contract starts simultaneously with the start of the project. In this case, you have wisely decided to add a 10% strategic reserve to the development phase of the project.
Here are some calculations related to this project. Answer the following 10 questions. You can use Microsoft Excel to do this work; however you must show your answers and detailed calculations.
Part 2: Writing Assignment to explain the tradeoffs during the life of development phase of the project. You will not perform any mathematical calculations for this section of the Assignment. Conduct research to ensure that you understand this concept of the project management triangle. Do not perform any calculations for this portion.
Given:
·                   IT Project Timeline: 1 January 2016– – 31 March 2017
·                   3 weeks of holiday time is planned off during this timeline
·                   Do not forget the concept of a leap year
·                   Assume vacation weeks are not paid for the purpose of this problem, as vacation pay is paid and allocated by a separate corporate budget funding source different from the IT Project funding source
·                   If total weeks are computed as a non-whole number of weeks, round to the nearest week
·                   Carry out items to the thousands place for fractions (for example 1/3 = 0.333) prior to continuing calculations, then round up or down as needed to whole numbers for final dollar values
·                   40 hour work week is the standard contracted work week
·                   No overtime is allowed to keep costs down
·                   10 managers
·                   100 union employees
·                   Manager salary is $100 per hour
·                   Union salary is $35 per hour
·                   Systems planning cost is $50K
·                   System development cost is $1.5M
·                   System fielding cost is $250K
·                   System Maintenance (5 year contract, amortized, payments begin at project start) = $5.0M
·                   Strategic reserve, when (if) applied to the timeline, should also be applied to the maintenance costs during the timeframe of the timeline. However maintenance costs beyond the timeline have been negotiated as a firm fixed priced contract and no longer require the use of strategic reserve in addition to the negotiated price
Answer the following questions: (Show your work):
1.          How many work weeks are in the project timeline, where work will actually occur?
2.          How much money does the team cost per hour?
3.          How much money does the team cost per week?
4.          How much money does the team cost for the duration of the IT Project?
5.          Remembering that maintenance is amortized, and that payments begin during the first month of the project, and that all other system costs are assigned to the project; what is the total systems cost through the timeline completion on 31 March 2017?
6.          What is the total project cost through completion on 31 March 2017?
7.          After project completion on 31 March 2017, what will be the remainder cost for maintenance that will still need to be budgeted and managed?
8.          Forecasting a budget with no strategic reserve, what should the project cost per month be for the budget during the project timeline?
9.          With the addition of a ten % strategic reserve, what should the project cost per month be for the budget during the project timeline?
10.       Considering that you decide to budget using the strategic reserve, and you need to budget for the entire maintenance cost, what is the total amount of capital you will need to raise to complete the project successful during the timeline, and then maintain the system through the full five year maintenance contract, noting that the first month of maintenance for the contract starts simultaneously with the start of the project?
Written Portion – Discussion of the project management triangle
An example situation:
The project manager has come to you with the following:
1.          Some of your employees who will be using the system have suggested changes which will end up improving the system but will take longer to develop and implement. She feels that they would be beneficial changes.
2.          Two of her developers and one of her managers have left to work for another company. The company has a hiring freeze so she is unable to replace them. This will most likely add time to the project but it will also result in small savings in terms of labor cost.

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You are also the aware of the following information:
1.          When the budget was approved there was a strategic reserve to allow for contingencies.
2.          You have some additional discretionary funds which you were hoping to be able to use them for bonuses for you employees at the end of the year.
3.          You have a lot of faith in the project and believe that it will eventually improve the productivity of your employees. He also realize that it will take time after the project is fully implemented for this productivity to be realized and that there is a likelihood that it will actually decrease for a couple of months while people are learning the new system.
4.          You know that you have a number of people in your department that are nearing retirement and are not in favor of having to learn a new system.
To meet the requirements of this Assignment, write an APA style paper in which you take the role of manager to discuss the pros and cons of making any changes to the plan regarding the initial goals of performance, cost, and schedule. For the paper do not do any calculations. The facts presented are examples of the types of situations that you might encounter. You do not have to address these situations.
Limit your discussion to the tradeoffs among these three areas. How do performance, cost, and schedule interact? Discuss the concept of the project triangle, also called the triple constraint, or iron triangle.
Ensure you turn in your unit Project as a single Microsoft Word document, in APA format, with a cover page and reference page citing at least two online references on the unit concept topics and the eBook as a reference. Your work should compose 2–3 pages of content (double spaced, 12 point Times New Roman font).
This Assignment addresses the following outcomes:
MT300-1: Describe the role managers play in integrating information systems and information technology (IS/IT) within an organization.
MT300-2: Solve business problems using information systems.
GEL- 2.3: Solve real-world problems using mathematical skills
Your paper must be double-spaced, Times New Roman, 12 pt. font, and follow APA 6th edition format. You are required to include at least two references using the appropriate APA format. A title page and a reference page are required.

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Develop a Marketing Plan for a Local Business
1. Pick a local business or your own if current and gather your research to develop a Marketing Plan. Use the outline from chapter 2, exhibit 2.5. Try to interview the owner or a manager if you can. Try to solve a problem or answer a marketing question for the business. Use observation or questionnaire to make suggestions as to how the business should develop a Marketing Plan. Write the Marketing Plan for the business.  You can pick any type of business, product or service.
2. Write a Marketing Plan for the business.
3. Refer to Chapter Two, “Strategic Planning for Competitive Advantage”.  Exhibit 2.5, Elements of a Marketing Plan.
4. Develop your plan as you read the chapters and doing each step in your plan after reading it and completing your plan at Lesson15.  Your plan should address each of these elements including writing a Mission Statement for the business. Conducting a SWOT analysis.  You need three Objectives for the business.  Develop a Target Market based on your research and develop all elements of the Marketing Mix addressing all four P’s.  Use any other industry research you can find to help you develop and support your plans findings.  End your plan adding your Implementation steps, the Evaluations you will use, and the Controls for the business.
5. Your paper should be a minimum of 3 pages and no more than 10.

Question 24: Economics
Match the words with definitions
The quantity supplied is greater than the quantity demanded
Direct relationship between price and quantity produced
Increase in price of one will cause increased demand for the other
Inverse relationship between price and quantity purchased
Products usually used together
Hot dogs, Spam, or Raman noodles
This is intended to keep landlords from charging unreasonably high rents
Consumers buy more when incomes increase.
The quantity demanded is greater than the quantity supplied
prices are not allowed to fall below a certain level

Complementary good
Shortage
Price Ceiling
Normal Good
Law of Supply
Inferior Good
Law of Demand
Surplus
Substitute good
Price Floor

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Matching Definitions
one person consuming a good or service, will not stop another person from or consuming that same product.
the inability to bring about the allocation of resources that best satisfies the wants of a society
people can receive the benefit of a good or service without paying for it
the difference between the price  a product will sell for and the price the seller would be willing to receive.
a person cannot be stopped from consuming or using a good or service
goods or services consumers can get without cost
effects of an activity affect a third party
consumers can be excluded from consuming these, but are felt should be made available.
non-payers can be excluded from consuming these
the difference between the price  a buyer is willing to pay and the actual sale price.

Market failures
Non-excludability
Non-rivalry

Free rider problem
Quasi-public goods

Public goods
Private goods
Externality
Consumer surplus
Producer surplus

Question 26: Health Care

NURS 6660 Final Exam (On Date :06-09-2019) Score 98%
NURS 6660 Final Exam (On Date :06-09-2019) Score 98%

Question 27: Health Care

NSG6440  (Date Completed:06-09-2019) Score:98%
NSG6440  (Date Completed:06-09-2019) Score:98%

Question 28: Health Care

NSG5003 Final Exam and NSG 5003 Midterm. Graded A. Latest 2019 (04/09/2019)
NSG5003 Final Exam and NSG 5003 Midterm. Graded A. Latest 2019 (04/09/2019)

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You are a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm. The firm is devising a new employee handbook. You have been asked to create two sections:
The Company Policy regarding Alcohol/Drug Testing
The Company Policy regarding Employer Monitoring of Employees.

Formulate these policies in a single document, reflecting an understanding of course materials and credible outside research.

Include and cite applicable laws for each topic as the basis for the policy. You may use federal, state, or case law as the foundation for your work. Following is a list of topics you may want to consider in your policies:
Pre-employment drug/alcohol testing
Random drug/alcohol testing
Procedure for employees who disagree with results of drug/alcohol Testing
Drug/alcohol procedure for contracted government employees who work in satellite offices
Drug testing in states with legal marijuana use
Monitoring of employee desktop computers
Monitoring of employee personal social media use
Monitoring of employee cell phone and company car

Note: Do not cut and paste an existing policy.

Create your own 1,050-word policy, using APA format for the cover page and references. Both policies should be included in a single document with subheadings to delineate “Alcohol/Drug Testing” and “Employee Monitoring.”

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Develop a Marketing Plan for a Local Business
1. Pick a local business or your own if current and gather your research to develop a Marketing Plan. Use the outline from chapter 2, exhibit 2.5. Try to interview the owner or a manager if you can. Try to solve a problem or answer a marketing question for the business. Use observation or questionnaire to make suggestions as to how the business should develop a Marketing Plan. Write the Marketing Plan for the business.  You can pick any type of business, product or service.
2. Write a Marketing Plan for the business.
3. Refer to Chapter Two, “Strategic Planning for Competitive Advantage”.  Exhibit 2.5, Elements of a Marketing Plan.
4. Develop your plan as you read the chapters and doing each step in your plan after reading it and completing your plan at Lesson15.  Your plan should address each of these elements including writing a Mission Statement for the business. Conducting a SWOT analysis.  You need three Objectives for the business.  Develop a Target Market based on your research and develop all elements of the Marketing Mix addressing all four P’s.  Use any other industry research you can find to help you develop and support your plans findings.  End your plan adding your Implementation steps, the Evaluations you will use, and the Controls for the business.
5. Your paper should be a minimum of 3 pages and no more than 10.

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Assignment 3: Fraud in the AIS
For this assignment, research the Internet or Strayer databases to locate a firm that was involved in a fraud and / or embezzlement case.
Explain how the firm’s accounting information system (i.e., components and functions) contributed to the fraud and / or embezzlement. You will need to focus on how each component / function of the accounting information system failed, which resulted in the scandal / case.
Write a ten to twelve (10-12) page paper in which you:
1.   Based on the information you researched, assess the failure of the firm’s accounting information system to prevent the related fraud / embezzlement.
2.   Imagine that the company that you researched uses a third-party accounting system. Evaluate the effectiveness of the firm’s stakeholder in the event that a third-party accounting system suffers a breach. Include an assessment of the level of responsibility of the software provider to the business and its clients. Provide support for your rationale.
3.   Determine what advances in accounting and / or information technology could have prevented the event from occurring. Provide support for your argument.
4.   Evaluate what changes should be made to both the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 and other current laws in order to make them more effective in deterring companies from committing crimes.
5.   Recommend a strategy that the company you indicated may use to prevent future business information failures. Indicate how the company should approach the implementation of your recommended strategy. Provide support for your recommendation.
6.   Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.

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Write a two- to three-page paper presenting the information listed below.  In addition, provide a title page and reference page in APA style.  Cite any references made to the article within the body of the paper in APA style. Your paper should begin with an introductory paragraph (including a thesis statement) and end with a concluding paragraph summarizing the major points made in the body of the paper and reaffirming the thesis.
The body of your paper must:
1.   Determine what question(s) the authors are trying to answer by doing this research.
2.   Determine the hypothesis being tested and the concepts that were applied in this process.
3.   Evaluate the article and critique the statistical analysis employed in the study.  Would you have included more and/or different variables?  Explain your answer.
4.   Examine the assumptions and limitations of the statistical study.  What would you have done differently in this case?  Explain your answer.
5.   Identify how the authors applied statistical testing to the problem.
6.   Interpret the findings of the author(s) using statistical concepts.

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BIBL 104 Quiz 2 / Liberty University BIBL 104 Quiz 2 (Already graded A)
BIBL 104 Quiz 2 / Liberty University BIBL 104 Quiz 2 (Already graded A)

Question 4: General Questions

HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 8 Liberty University Complete Answers

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Question 1 McClure stated that the founders did not approve of slavery, but accepted the compromises in the Constitution because
Question 2 According to McClure, the Compromise of 1820 merely
Question 3 McClure clearly states that slavery was the source of the war.
Question 4 According to McClure, the basis of state sovereignty was established in
Question 5 According to the video presentation, what did Northerners tend to name battles after?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, what percentage of battles was fought in the South during the Civil War?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was the Northern reaction to the Federal Draft Conscription?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, due to the lack of industrialization in the South, how did women help to provide blankets to Confederate soldiers?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, what happened to Jefferson Davis after the fall of the Confederacy?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, where did the second major surrender of the Civil War take place?
Question 1 According to McClure, it was the deeper issue of power between the State and the Nation that created the conflict that led to war.
Question 2 McClure stated that the Civil War was the result of
Question 3 According to McClure, absolute sovereignty lies with
Question 4 According to McClure, the Compromise of 1820 merely
Question 5 According to the video presentation, what percentage of battles was fought in the South during the Civil War?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who was the President of the Confederate States?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was one reason the Emancipation Proclamation was issued?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, due to the lack of industrialization in the South, how did women help to provide blankets to Confederate soldiers?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, what was the last capitol of the Confederacy located?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, where did the second major surrender of the Civil War take place?
Question 1 According to McClure, absolute sovereignty lies with
Question 2 According to McClure, Jefferson believed in the supreme power of
Question 3 McClure stated that it was necessary for the Constitution to be a series of compromises.
Question 4 According to McClure and Jefferson, which of the following was NOT a danger of centralized government:
Question 5 According to the video presentation, which state did the upper Southern states look to as a model?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, where was the first capitol of the Confederacy located?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, where was Sherman’s March to the Sea located?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, what did the Civil War do for Northern businesses?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, where did the second major surrender of the Civil War take place?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, who were some of the last soldiers to put down their arms at the end of the Civil War?

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HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 7 Liberty University Complete Answers

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Question 1 Which of the following generals who led in the MexicanAmerican War would rather employ intricate maneuvers than frontal attacks?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, what was the root cause of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 3 Which of the following generals was the master of the frontal attack in the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, who was perhaps the only President of the United States who kept all his campaign promises?
Question 5 Which of the following was NOT a result of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who invented the cotton gin in 1793?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was a nickname for Kansas after the KansasNebraska Act?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, what is sectionalism?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, who wrote “Uncle Tom’s Cabin”?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, who was responsible for the caning of Senator Sumner?
Question 1 According to the video presentation, what was the root cause of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 2 Why did the Mexican government think they could win a war against the United States?
Question 3 Which of the following was NOT a result of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, who was perhaps the only President of the United States who kept all his campaign promises?
Question 5 Which of the following generals who led in the MexicanAmerican War would rather employ intricate maneuvers than frontal attacks?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who wrote “Uncle Tom’s Cabin”?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, where did John Brown’s raid take place?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, who invented the cotton gin in 1793?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, what was a nickname for Kansas after the KansasNebraska Act?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what is sectionalism?
Question 1 Which of the following generals who led in the MexicanAmerican War would rather employ intricate maneuvers than frontal attacks?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, who was perhaps the only President of the United States who kept all his campaign promises?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, what was the root cause of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 4 Which of the following generals was the master of the frontal attack in the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 5 Which of the following was NOT a result of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who wrote “Uncle Tom’s Cabin”?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was a nickname for Kansas after the KansasNebraska Act?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, what was the key issue preventing Northern and Southern states from ever truly reaching compromise?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, who invented the cotton gin in 1793?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what is sectionalism?

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HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 6 Liberty University Complete Answers

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Question 1 According to the video presentation, what was the Great Disappointment?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, who is the Father of Modern Revivalism?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, what is the belief that man is sinful, but can be perfected through a moderate and moral lifestyle in adherence to God’s precipices?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, who is the founder of the Church of Jesus Christ Latter Day Saints?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, who was famous for his sermon on the Hamilton and Burr duel called “Remedy for Dueling”?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, what was the emphasis placed on during the second Great Awakening?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, where was Katherine Beecher’s first private school for girls located?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, what was the most successful and widely accepted reform movement?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, what are “ardent spirits”?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, who founded the American Temperance Society?
Question 1 According to the video presentation, who was the founder of the Shakers?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, who is the Father of Modern Revivalism?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, who was famous for his sermon on the Hamilton and Burr duel called “Remedy for Dueling”?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, what was the Great Disappointment?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, what was the emphasis placed on during the second Great Awakening?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, what is the belief that man is sinful, but can be perfected through a moderate and moral lifestyle in adherence to God’s precipices?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was the most successful and widely accepted reform movement?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, where was Katherine Beecher’s first private school for girls located?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, who are the most important figures in education reform?
Question 1 According to the video presentation, who was the founder of the Shakers?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, what was the emphasis placed on during the second Great Awakening?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, what was the Great Disappointment?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, what is the belief that man is sinful, but can be perfected through a moderate and moral lifestyle in adherence to God’s precipices?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, who was famous for his sermon on the Hamilton and Burr duel called “Remedy for Dueling”?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who is the Father of Modern Revivalism?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, where was Katherine Beecher’s first private school for girls located?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, who founded the American Temperance Society?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, who are the most important figures in education reform?

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HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 5 Liberty University Complete Answers

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Question 1 According to the video presentation, what was the name of one of the ships that Jefferson sent to fight the Barbary Pirates?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, what was Jefferson’s primary contribution to the progress of the American nation?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, who was the longest serving Supreme Court Justice as well as a cousin of Thomas Jefferson?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, what was Madison’s goal after the embargo was lifted?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, which of these is NOT a significance of the War of 1812?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who declared the StarSpangled Banner the National Anthem?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, why is this time period called “The Era of Good Feelings”?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, who was the President during the Missouri Compromise?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, which of these was a nickname Andrew Jackson earned during his Presidency?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what was considered a black mark on Jackson’s presidency?
Question 1 According to the video presentation, what was the practice of bringing goods to the Caribbean, “paper unloading” them, paying customs duties, and sending them to Europe?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, who served as Thomas Jefferson’s First Lady?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, what was Jefferson’s “peaceable coercion”?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, what was Madison’s goal after the embargo was lifted?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, who led the defense of the city during the Battle of New Orleans?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who declared the StarSpangled Banner the National Anthem?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, why is this time period called “The Era of Good Feelings”?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, what professions did Jackson occupy before being elected to the Presidency?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what was considered a black mark on Jackson’s presidency?
Question 1 According to the video presentation, where was the USS Philadelphia captured and grounded?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, when was Jefferson’s embargo lifted?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, what was Jefferson’s primary contribution to the progress of the American nation?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, who led the defense of the city during the Battle of New Orleans?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, who declared the StarSpangled Banner the National Anthem?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, which of these is NOT a significance of the War of 1812?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, why did the United States remain neutral in South American matters until 1822?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, which of these authors did NOT rise to popularity during this time period?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what was the new party on the rise in Jacksonian America?

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HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 4 Liberty University Complete Answers

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Which of the branches of government is responsible for passing laws and legislation?
Which of the following is NOT one of the qualifications for becoming President of the United States?
What does Amendment Four prevent?
Where in the Constitution is the “absolute separation of church and state” discussed?
Which is most likely NOT a reason that the Federalist position ultimately prevailed?
The first sentence of the Constitution states: “We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect Union, establish Justice, insure domestic Tranquility, provide for the common defence, promote the general Welfare, and secure the Blessings of Liberty to ourselves and our Posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.” The words “insure domestic Tranquility” may have been a reference to
On June 21, 1788, which state’s vote gave Federalists the nine states needed to ratify the Constitution?
Many Anti-Federalists were concerned that the Constitution did not
Question 1 How many witnesses are necessary in order to convict someone of treason?
Question 2 Which house of Congress must approve a bill before it becomes law?
Question 3 Though most cases can be tried in lower courts, where does the Supreme Court have “original jurisdiction”?
Question 4 What does Amendment Four prevent?
Question 5 The Ninth Amendment makes clear that the rights brought out in the Bill of Rights are the only rights citizens of the United States have.
Question 6 According to the video, our American system of government was formed by what decision?
Question 7 According to the video, who was the leader of the faction who opposed the Virginia Plan at the Constitutional Convention?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, the men who resisted the Virginia Plan were trying to protect
Question 9 According to the video presentation, Citizen Genet came to America to
Question 10 According to the video presentation, which of the following caused issues between American merchant shipping and the British?
Question 1 Which of the branches of government is responsible for passing laws and legislation?
Question 2 Which house of Congress must approve a bill before it becomes law?
Question 3 To which branch of government does the Constitution grant sole power of taxation?
Question 4 Though most cases can be tried in lower courts, where does the Supreme Court have “original jurisdiction”?
Question 5 Where in the Constitution is the “absolute separation of church and state” discussed?
Question 6 According to the video, who was the leader of the faction who opposed the Virginia Plan at the Constitutional Convention?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, the men who resisted the Virginia Plan were trying to protect
Question 8 According to the video presentation, who requested that Madison draft a new constitution to replace the Articles of Confederation?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, Citizen Genet came to America to
Question 10 According to the video presentation, which of the following groups sympathized with the French although they disagreed with the excesses of the Revolution?

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HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 3 Liberty University Complete Answers

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Question 1 Who did the delegates appeal to for judgment of their actions in the Declaration of Independence?
Question 2 The Declaration of Independence claimed that the king had abdicated his right to governing the colonies because he
Question 3 According to the video presentation, most Americans understood
Question 4 According to the video presentation, Thomas Paine felt that who or what should rule in America?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, which of these was NOT an effect of the Stamp Act?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, where was the first Committee of Correspondence formed?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was the primary form of communication in the 18th century?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, where did the second Virginia Convention meet?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, where did Benedict Arnold commit his act of treason?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what did the victory in Saratoga mean for the colonies regarding the French?
Question 1
Who did the delegates appeal to for judgment of their actions in the Declaration of Independence?
Question 2
In every case of the violation of English rights listed in the Declaration of Independence, the colonists had
Question 3
According to the video presentation, what was the most quoted source in literature of the Era of the American Revolution?
Question 4
According to the video presentation, how did Chief Justice Earl Warren describe the relationship between Christianity and the United States?
Question 5
According to the video presentation, which of these was NOT an effect of the Stamp Act?
Question 6
According to the video presentation, where was the first Committee of Correspondence formed?
Question 7
According to the video presentation, what did the establishment of the Committees of Correspondence pave the way for?
Question 9
According to the video presentation, what did the victory in Saratoga mean for the colonies regarding the French?
Question 10
According to the video presentation, where did Benedict Arnold commit his act of treason?
Question 1
Many of the complaints against the king in the Declaration of Independence involved
Question 2
One of the complaints against the king in the Declaration of Independence was that he fundamentally altered longstanding ___________________.
Question 3
According to the video presentation, people at the time of the Revolution saw a connection to
Question 4
According to the video presentation, who is a Founding Father who the British thought was the key instigator of the American Revolution?
Question 7
According to the video presentation, which colony started the intercolonial movement of the Committees of Correspondence?
Question 8
According to the video presentation, what was the policy passed after the Boston Tea Party to make Bostonians repay the East India Trading Company for the tea that was destroyed?
Question 9
According to the video presentation, why did the British want to move the war further south?
Question 10
According to the video presentation, where did the Revolutionary War end?

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HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 2 Liberty University Complete Answers

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Question 1 Colonial assemblies were needed to deal with such responsibilities as
Question 2 The attempts of the British to seize Fort Duquesne were part of a larger ambition to gain control of
Question 3 The Proclamation of 1763 restricted English colonists to territory
Question 4 What aspect of the New England economy grew most dramatically in the eighteenth century?
Question 5 Which of the following events happened last?
Question 6 The Great Awakening was a movement that reflected a renew interest in
Question 7 The term Anglicization refers to
Question 8 Who were the Old Lights?
Question 9 Which region of colonial America was the most ethnically diverse?
Question 10 In what way did the slave codes of the mainland British colonies ensure the continuity of the institution
Question 1 The text for Jonathan Edwards’ sermon “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God” was
Question 2 According to Edwards’ “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God”
Question 3 In his conclusion to “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God,” Edwards equates the lost state to the Biblical city of
Question 4 According to the video presentation, how did the fashionable world set itself apart?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, once a luxury good became common, what happened?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who was Samuel Davies?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, in which region of the American colonies did Baptists become predominant?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, what would the College of New Jersey later come to be called?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, when did the TransAtlantic slave trade begin?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what were the two crops that were grown on plantations that needed the support of slave labor?
Question 1 The text for Jonathan Edwards’ sermon “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God” was
Question 2 In his conclusion to “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God,” Edwards equates the lost state to the Biblical city of
Question 3 According to Edwards’ “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God”
Question 4 According to the video presentation, how was wealth defined prior to the 17 th century?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, where was conspicuous consumption most conspicuous?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, what was the name of the first independent Baptist church?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, where was the first independent Baptist church located?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, which college was founded in 1693 as an Anglican school?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, the concept of race based slavery began when?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what were the two crops that were grown on plantations that needed the support of slave labor?

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HIUS 221 Mindtap Activities 1 Liberty University Complete Answers

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Module 1: The Atlantic World, Exploration and Early Settlement
1.1 Picturing History
Use the dropdown menus to complete the paragraph.
An examination of the graph titled “Native and Nonnative population of North America, 1492–2000” and the information in bubbles on the map reveal the estimated native population in North America to be million. This number between 1492 and 1800 by 2000.
Use the dropdown menus to complete the paragraph.
An examination of the graph titled “Native and Nonnative population of North America, 1492–2000” reveals that the estimated native population steadily decreased from approximately 4.4 million in 1492 to well below 1 million in. Following this decline, the native population until about 1900. After 1900, the native population 2000. During this same period, the estimated nonnative population increased by some 200 million
Use the dropdown menus to complete the paragraph.
An examination of the pie chart titled “World population estimates for 1500 (in millions)” reveals that the Americas contained some million people in 1500. Based on the figure corresponding to the information in bubbles on the map, 5.85 million people resided in, which is much less than the population in Mexico and slightly larger than the population in North America at this time. As seen on the graph titled “Native and Nonnative population of North America, 1492–2000,” the estimated decreased dramatically between 1492 and 1800 but rebounded slightly during the twentieth century.
1.2 A Growing World
When discussing European efforts to expand trade networks between the mid-fifteenth and late sixteenth centuries, historians refer to this period as what?
The Age of Exploration
The Opening of the Silk Road
The Mapping of the Atlantic World
The network of land routes between Europe and Asia was known as what?
The Road to Constantinople
The Mediterranean Thoroughfare
The Silk Road
Select the correct response from the dropdown menu.
In mid-fifteenth- through late-sixteenth-century Europe, men and women performed labor roles specific to their
1.3 Native American and West African Societies before Contact
Determine whether each characteristic describes the Maya culture, the Aztec culture, or both cultures.
Characteristic
Maya
Aztec
Both
Peaked between 300 and 900 AD
Empire consisted of dozens of states
Arrived in the Valley of Mexico around 1200 AD
Determine whether each characteristic describes the Maya culture, the Aztec culture, or both cultures.
Characteristic
Maya
Aztec
Both
Was in decline by the time European explorers arrived
Exercised vast power in Mesoamerica for about three hundred years before European explorers arrived
Developed wealth by conquering neighboring peoples
Characteristic
Maya
Aztec
Both
Developed a society based on military strength
Established a civilization in the Valley of Mexico
Developed an economy based partly on trade

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HIUS 222 Content Quiz 8 Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

How did President Reagan influence defense spending?
2 out of 2 points
President George W. Bush received a mandate from the 2000 presidential election.
2 out of 2 points
What happened to President Clinton because of the Lewinsky affair and his testimony about it?
2 out of 2 points
Which of the following statements concerning Bill Clinton is true?
2 out of 2 points
Where did the United States fight wars between 2001 and 2013?
How did Dr. Falwell and his work with Moral Majority influence how Americans think about religion and government involvement?
2 out of 2 points
Why did Dr. Falwell found Moral Majority?
2 out of 2 points
Who was Jerry Falwell, Sr.?
2 out of 2 points
How did the Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev signal his desire to change past policies in 1988?
2 out of 2 points
Which area did Jimmy Carter stress in his foreign policies?
2 out of 2 points
What Iraqi decision led to the Gulf War of 1991?
2 out of 2 points
What did Iranians who took American hostages demand in return for their release?
2 out of 2 points
Where were challenges to communist rule the least successful in the late 1980s?
2 out of 2 points
How did Jimmy Carter appeal to voters in 1976?
What was the “war on terror” a response to?
2 out of 2 points
Where was the term “terrorism” first used?
2 out of 2 points
Why did the House vote to impeach President Clinton in 1998?
What is true about the Human Genome Project?
2 out of 2 points
Which nation makes up the third crux in what President George W. Bush described as the “axis of evil” with Iraq and Iran?
2 out of 2 points
What was unique about the 1996 election?
What issue undermined the popularity of George H. W. Bush more than any other? Why?
Question 1 President Carter decided against attempting a military rescue to free the hostages in Iran.
Question 3 Troubling aspects of the Watergate scandal included all of the following EXCEPT for
Question 4 How did Republicans portray liberals to working class voters in the 1980s?
Question 6 The “safe sex” message gained currency in the wake of
Question 7 In the election of 1972, Richard Nixon easily defeated the antiwar candidate
Question 9 In a speech later called the “malaise speech,” President Carter expressed his feeling that
Question 10 President George H. W. Bush’s call for U.S. military involvement in the Persian Gulf came when
Question 11 Which of the following individuals was NOT part of George W. Bush’s administration?
Question 13 Violence ensued when an allwhite jury acquitted the officers in the beating of Rodney King.
Question 15 President Bush muted his response to the fall of the Berlin Wall because
Question 16 President Obama was the first president to consider a comprehensive plan to provide all Americans with health care.
Question 17 In the late 1990s, how did President Clinton choose to fight alQaeda and prevent potential terrorist attacks?

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Strayer University – HIS 105Assignment 1 HIS 105.docx
Dealing with Diversity in America From Reconstruction Through the 1920’s
Question 14: History

Strayer University, Washington HIS 105 Assignment 2.2: Policemen of the WorldFinal Paper
Assignment 2.2: Policemen of the WorldFinal Paper
Due Week 10 and worth 120 points

You have already developed a thesis statement and developed an outline in which you explored two (2) real-life international incidentsfrom the past five (5) years involving the United States as they received an elevated status as a world power. Now you will develop the final paper in which you explore your main points in detail.

Write a three to five (3-5) page paper in which you:

Introduce your paper with your previously crafted thesis statement.
Identify two to three (2-3) international events from the past five years that can be traced back to a foreign policy created after the Civil War.
Discuss three (3) aspects of US history since 1865 that has led to the US’s rise as a world super power policeman.
Identify three to five (3-5) international incidents since World War II where America has taken on a policing role.
Determine three to five (3-5) driving forces that fueled international policy decisions involving the international incidents you outlined previously. (Consider treaties, exit strategies, elections, wars, etc.)
Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Analyze the rise of the United States to a world “superpower” and how that status has shaped its internal developments in recent decades.
Recognize the major turning points in American history since the Civil War.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in contemporary U.S. history.
Write clearly and concisely about contemporary U.S. history using proper writing mechanics.

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This assignment consists of two (2) sections: a narrative and a PowerPoint presentation. You must submit two (2) sections for the completion of this assignment. Label each file name according to the section of the assignment it is written for.
Note: For additional information on how to submit more than one file for an assignment, follow the instructions in the document “How to Submit Multiple Files for an Assignment”, located here.
Imagine that you have just been hired by a new company as the director of the HR department. You have been tasked to hire a new secretary for the department and to develop an employee compensation and benefits package that will be used for that position upon hire. Develop a PowerPoint presentation to present this information to your Vice President. Go to the Bureau of Labor Statistics’ (BLS) Website, located at www.bls.gov, for information regarding organizations and pay in your geographical area.
Section 1: NarrativeWrite a two to three (2-3) page paper in which you:
1.   Choose the type of organization for which you are designing the package.
2.   Develop an employee compensation and benefits package for this new position. Support your ideas for the compensation/benefits package.
3.   Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.
Section 1 of your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

Question 16: Biology

In 750-1,000 words, identify and describe the issues affecting standards of practice related to competency of medical care identified in the Lyckholm and Hackney article.
In addition to summarizing the relevant points of the article, explain the relevance that standards of practice have (or will have) to you as a practitioner.

Question 17: Biology

Prokaryotic and eukaryotic are the two major categories of cells making up life on earth. Both these types require water and carbon.
Describe the characteristics of water and carbon that makes them important to living things in general, and to specific forms of life including plants, animals, and prokaryotes. Why is NASA looking for water on Mars?
Describe the differences in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. How have the characteristics of each kind of cell put limitations and provided opportunities for the survival and divergence of modern living things? Why might both cell types be considered equally successful? Make sure to consider both Domains of Prokaryotes.

Question 18: Computer Science

The reasons why companies use HRIS vary widely. Large companies will use HRIS in certain ways while other, smaller companies may use it in other ways. Consider the following questions:
What are your perceptions of an HRIS?
What can an HRIS do for an organization?
List why your organization would want to or does use an HRIS.
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Reform of Healthcare Market and Regulation and Antitrust Policy in Health Care”  Please respond to the following:
From the e-Activity, synthesize the primary ways in which consumer and provider incentives work together to achieve cost reduction under the Affordable Care Act (ACA). Provide at least one (1) example of such synthesis to support your response.
Defend or critique the key provisions of antitrust legislation in the United States. Analyze the major ways in which quality issues in health care affect antirust healthcare policy. Provide at least one (1) example of antitrust laws in action to support your response.

From the e-Activity, synthesize the primary ways in which consumer and provider incentives work together to achieve cost reduction under the Affordable Care Act (ACA). Provide at least one (1) example of such synthesis to support your response.

Question 20: Urban Planning and Policy

Get Local: Rate Your Environment
Based on the material in this module and your own relevant research, address the following:
How would you rate your own neighborhood and the city or town that surrounds it with regard to the concepts presented in this module?
Discuss as many environmental factors that affect wellness (mining communities, contamination, nuclear poisoning, population density, socioeconomic influences, new vs. old developments, community gardens, etc.) as possible in your analysis and highlight how these factors support or challenge wellness.
How do these factors relate to the eight dimensions of wellness?
Make sure you support your ideas with information presented in the course material, other scholarly resources, and specific examples (real-life observations and experiences),

How would you rate your own neighborhood and the city or town that surrounds it with regard to the concepts presented in the module?

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Develop a Marketing Plan for a Local Business
1. Pick a local business or your own if current and gather your research to develop a Marketing Plan. Use the outline from chapter 2, exhibit 2.5. Try to interview the owner or a manager if you can. Try to solve a problem or answer a marketing question for the business. Use observation or questionnaire to make suggestions as to how the business should develop a Marketing Plan. Write the Marketing Plan for the business.  You can pick any type of business, product or service.
2. Write a Marketing Plan for the business.
3. Refer to Chapter Two, “Strategic Planning for Competitive Advantage”.  Exhibit 2.5, Elements of a Marketing Plan.
4. Develop your plan as you read the chapters and doing each step in your plan after reading it and completing your plan at Lesson15.  Your plan should address each of these elements including writing a Mission Statement for the business. Conducting a SWOT analysis.  You need three Objectives for the business.  Develop a Target Market based on your research and develop all elements of the Marketing Mix addressing all four P’s.  Use any other industry research you can find to help you develop and support your plans findings.  End your plan adding your Implementation steps, the Evaluations you will use, and the Controls for the business.
5. Your paper should be a minimum of 3 pages and no more than 10.

Question 22: Business

About Your Signature Assignment
This signature assignment is designed to align with specific program student learning outcome(s) in your program. Program Student Learning Outcomes are broad statements that describe what students should know and be able to do upon completion of their degree. The signature assignments might be graded with an automated rubric that allows the University to collect data that can be aggregated across a location or college/school and used for program improvements.
Purpose of Assignment
The purpose of this assignment is for students to synthesize the concepts learned throughout the course. This assignment will provide students an opportunity to build critical thinking skills, develop businesses and organizations, and solve problems requiring data by compiling all pertinent information into one report.
Assignment Steps
Resources: Microsoft Excel®, Signature Assignment Databases, Signature Assignment Options, Part 3: Inferential Statistics
Scenario: Upon successful completion of the MBA program, say you work in the analytics department for a consulting company. Your assignment is to analyze one of the following databases:
Manufacturing
Hospital
Consumer Food
Financial
Select one of the databases based on the information in the Signature Assignment Options.
Provide a 1,600-word detailed, statistical report including the following:
Explain the context of the case
Provide a research foundation for the topic
Present graphs
Explain outliers
Prepare calculations
Conduct hypotheses tests
Discuss inferences you have made from the results
This assignment is broken down into four parts:
Part 1 – Preliminary Analysis
Part 2 – Examination of Descriptive Statistics
Part 3 – Examination of Inferential Statistics
Part 4 – Conclusion/Recommendations
Part 1 – Preliminary Analysis (3-4 paragraphs)
Generally, as a statistics consultant, you will be given a problem and data. At times, you may have to gather additional data. For this assignment, assume all the data is already gathered for you.
State the objective:
What are the questions you are trying to address?
Describe the population in the study clearly and in sufficient detail:
What is the sample?
Discuss the types of data and variables:
Are the data quantitative or qualitative?
What are levels of measurement for the data?
Part 2 – Descriptive Statistics (3-4 paragraphs)
Examine the given data.
Present the descriptive statistics (mean, median, mode, range, standard deviation, variance, CV, and five-number summary).
Identify any outliers in the data.
Present any graphs or charts you think are appropriate for the data.
Note: Ideally, we want to assess the conditions of normality too. However, for the purpose of this exercise, assume data is drawn from normal populations.
Part 3 – Inferential Statistics (2-3 paragraphs)
Use the Part 3: Inferential Statistics document.
Create (formulate) hypotheses
Run formal hypothesis tests
Make decisions. Your decisions should be stated in non-technical terms.
Hint: A final conclusion saying “reject the null hypothesis” by itself without explanation is basically worthless to those who hired you. Similarly, stating the conclusion is false or rejected is not sufficient.
Part 4 – Conclusion and Recommendations (1-2 paragraphs)
Include the following:
What are your conclusions?
What do you infer from the statistical analysis?
State the interpretations in non-technical terms. What information might lead to a different conclusion?
Are there any variables missing?
What additional information would be valuable to help draw a more certain conclusion?
Format your assignment consistent with APA format.

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You are a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm. The firm is devising a new employee handbook. You have been asked to create two sections:
The Company Policy regarding Alcohol/Drug Testing
The Company Policy regarding Employer Monitoring of Employees.

Formulate these policies in a single document, reflecting an understanding of course materials and credible outside research.

Include and cite applicable laws for each topic as the basis for the policy. You may use federal, state, or case law as the foundation for your work. Following is a list of topics you may want to consider in your policies:
Pre-employment drug/alcohol testing
Random drug/alcohol testing
Procedure for employees who disagree with results of drug/alcohol Testing
Drug/alcohol procedure for contracted government employees who work in satellite offices
Drug testing in states with legal marijuana use
Monitoring of employee desktop computers
Monitoring of employee personal social media use
Monitoring of employee cell phone and company car

Note: Do not cut and paste an existing policy.

Create your own 1,050-word policy, using APA format for the cover page and references. Both policies should be included in a single document with subheadings to delineate “Alcohol/Drug Testing” and “Employee Monitoring.”

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Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
Review the article, “Personal Electronic Devices in the Workplace” Balancing Interests in a BYOD World.” Discuss the reasons why companies should or should not consider a BYOD program. Consider issues of security and privacy in your discussion.

Question 25: Business

Identify and describe the specific issues Maalick encountered in the workplace. Do the
actions of other workers at Treton represent discrimination and harassment? What
elements of law are important for Treton to consider?
Evaluate the, Marta Ford, in response to Maalick’s situation. What could she have done
to prevent the situation and what more could she do to ensure that this type of situation
would not occur in the future?

3. How would you characterize Clive Jenkins’ behavior and response to this situation?
4. What resolution to this situation might Judith Dixon suggest?
5. What are the broader implications of this situation for Treton? What type of
organizational review might Dixon initiate or suggest from a corporate perspective?

Question 26: Business

The most popular way for international expansion is for a local firm to acquire foreign companies. One of the most benefits for international expansion is global distribution capability that helps expanding the market share.
There are different implications of running a company that is within or outside of the European Union. If you were the head of a firm based in the United States, please answer the following questions, providing the rationale behind your answers:
Would you seek to acquire a company within the European Union or outside of it? Why?
Describe the advantages and disadvantages of the choice you made.
Describe the advantages and disadvantages inherent in the option you did not choose.
Explain why an MNC may invest funds in a financial market outside its own country.
Explain why some financial institutions prefer to provide credit in financial markets outside their own country.
APA format. Reference page needed, not inclued in page count. All information needs to be cited

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Chapter 2 Vocabulary                  Name:
Fill in the parentheses with the letter of the term being described.
g. Economic system
n. Command System
l. Market
j. Product markets
o. Invisible hand
f. Market System
k. Resource Markets
h.  Households
i. Circular flow
m. Laissez-faire capitalism

1.     ( m ) Individual decision making with little or no government interference.

2.    (  ) Self-interest helps people provide goods that are in demand by society (they will sell.)
3.    (  ) Economic decisions are made by central planners, as the Communists did.

4.    (  ) Place in the circular flow where resources are provided.

5.    ( f ) Economic decisions are made by individual buyers and sellers

6.    (  ) Where buyers and sellers come together to exchange goods or services.

7.    (  ) Markets where businesses provide output for household consumption, like a  Winn Dixie
8.    (  ) Markets where households provide their resources for businesses to use in production, like an employment office or realtor.
9.    (  ) Shows the flow of resources from households to businesses through resource markets and the flow of money from households to businesses through output markets.
10.  (  ) How a society is organized to make the 4 basic production decisions.

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Assignment 4 Current and Future Economic Issues Impacting Health Care Sector

Use the Internet or Strayer online databases to research five (5) of what you believe to be the most important and pressing economic issues that confront the United States healthcare industry today and will continue to do so into the next decade.

Provide a review of these issues in a ten to twelve (10-12) page paper in which you:

Provide a detailed description of the issues that you have researched.
Analyze the most significant economic effects of the researched issues on healthcare industry. Provide at least two (2) examples of these issues to support your response.
Suggest specific strategies that relevant entities / stakeholders may use to address the selected issues from an economic perspective. Justify your response.
Determine the strategic manner in which the United States can apply best economic best practices from other countries in addressing these issues.
Assess the likelihood of government and or private sector effectively addressing the issues.
Use at least ten (10) current references. Five (5) of these references must be from current peer-reviewed sources to support and substantiate your comments and perspectives.

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Labor in colonial America was scarce. Explain the development of using slaves for labor in the colonies. Below are some of the items you may include:
The development of using slaves for labor
Changes, problems, and issues with slave labor
Unintended consequences of using slave labor
Complete a 2-3 page paper according to CSU-Global’s Guide for Writing and APA Requirements. Each paper should include at least four paragraphs: an introduction, a body with at least two fully developed paragraphs, and a conclusion.

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Compare Lewin’s 3-Step Model and Lippitt, Watson, and Westley’s change model. Compare and contrast the models,
discuss resistance, or how change could be embraced between those 2 models

Question 31: Education

Liberty University – UNIV 104Review Test Submission_ Preview 5 – 201640 Fall 2016 .
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Create an overview of the process and steps involved in human resource planning, recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and hiring of employees.
Develop a comprehensive strategy for training new employees. Focusing on the role of the new employees within the organization.
Propose two to four (2-4) training strategies aimed at motivating the employees to learn key aspects about their new jobs.
Determine key issues that human resource management employees would be likely to encounter in the health care field. Prepare a plan that will enable the new employees to address each issue which includes instructional strategies, resources that will be utilized, and evaluation criteria for determining success.
Design at least three (3) visual components that enhance the program you have outlined, such as charts or diagrams.
Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources

Question 33: Health Care

NAPSRx Final Exam Solution | New Solution Correct Answers | Rated A+
NAPSRx Final Exam Solution | New Solution Correct Answers | Rated A+

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Signature Week 6 QNT561 final Signature Assignment
Purpose of Assignment
The purpose of this assignment is for students to synthesize the concepts learned throughout the course. This assignment will provide students an opportunity to build critical thinking skills, develop businesses and organizations, and solve problems requiring data by compiling all pertinent information into one report.

Resources: Microsoft Excel®, Signature Assignment Databases, Signature Assignment Options, Part 3: Inferential Statistics

Scenario: Upon successful completion of the MBA program, imagine you work in the analytics department for a consulting company. Your assignment is to analyze one of the following databases:
Manufacturing
Hospital
Consumer Food
Financial

Select one of the databases based on the information in the Signature Assignment Options.

Provide a 1,600-word detailed, four part, statistical report with the following sections:
Part 1 – Preliminary Analysis
Part 2 – Examination of Descriptive Statistics
Part 3 – Examination of Inferential Statistics
Part 4 – Conclusion/Recommendations

Part 1 – Preliminary Analysis
Generally, as a statistics consultant, you will be given a problem and data. At times, you may have to gather additional data. For this assignment, assume all the data is already gathered for you.

State the objective:
What are the questions you are trying to address?

Describe the population in the study clearly and in sufficient detail:
What is the sample?

Discuss the types of data and variables:
Are the data quantitative or qualitative?
What are levels of measurement for the data?

Part 2 – Descriptive Statistics

Examine the given data.

Present the descriptive statistics (mean, median, mode, range, standard deviation, variance, CV, and five-number summary).

Identify any outliers in the data.

Present any graphs or charts you think are appropriate for the data.

Note: Ideally, we want to assess the conditions of normality too. However, for the purpose of this exercise, assume data is drawn from normal populations.

Part 3 – Inferential Statistics

Use the Part 3: Inferential Statistics document.
Create (formulate) hypotheses
Run formal hypothesis tests
Make decisions. Your decisions should be stated in non-technical terms.

Hint: A final conclusion saying “reject the null hypothesis” by itself without explanation is basically worthless to those who hired you. Similarly, stating the conclusion is false or rejected is not sufficient.

Part 4 – Conclusion and Recommendations

Include the following:
What are your conclusions?
What do you infer from the statistical analysis?
State the interpretations in non-technical terms. What information might lead to a different conclusion?
Are there any variables missing?
What additional information would be valuable to help draw a more certain conclusion?

Format your assignment consistent with APA format.

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NURS6521 Final Exam Answers Latest Version Walden University

NURS6521 Final Exam Answers Latest Version Walden University

Question 36: Health Care

NURS4115 Week 3 Assignment
NURS4115 Week 3 Assignment

 

 

 

 

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Question 1: General Question

South University NSG 5003 Chapter 14: Cancer in Children

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.      What congenital malformation is commonly linked to acute leukemia in children?
a.
Down syndrome
c.
Retinoblastoma
b.
Wilms tumor
d.
Neuroblastoma
ANS:
Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) is the most common genetic defect linked to the development of acute leukemia. Children with Down syndrome have a 10- to 20-fold increased risk of developing acute lymphoblastic and myelogenous leukemia and a higher risk for developing acute megakaryocytic leukemia. No current research supports a link between the other stated congenital malformations and acute leukemia.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 444

2.      When are childhood cancers most often diagnosed?
a.
During infancy
c.
After diagnosis of a chronic illness
b.
At peak times of physical growth
d.
After an acute illness
ANS:
Childhood cancers are most often diagnosed during peak times of physical growth. No current research supports the other options.

PTS:   1                    REF:   Page 443

3.      Prenatal exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES) can result in which type of cancer?
a.
Breast cancer
c.
Vaginal cancer
b.
Leukemia
d.
Lymphoma
ANS:
DES has been identified as a transplacental chemical carcinogen; a small percentage of the daughters of women who took DES during pregnancy developed adenocarcinomas of the vagina. No current research supports a link between the drug and other cancers.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 445

4.      Currently, what percentage of children with cancer can be cured?
a.
40%
c.
60%
b.
50%
d.
80%
ANS:
Currently, more than 80% of children diagnosed with cancer are cured.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 445

5.      Most childhood cancers arise from the:
a.
Epithelium
c.
Embryologic ectodermal layer
b.
Mesodermal germ layer
d.
Viscera
ANS:

Most childhood cancers originate from the mesodermal germ layer that gives rise to connective tissue, bone, cartilage, muscle, blood, blood vessels, gonads, kidney, and the lymphatic system. The other options are not common sites from which cancers originate.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 443

6.      Which form of cancer is linked to congenital malformation syndromes?
a.
Wilms tumor
c.
Osteosarcoma
b.
Retinoblastoma
d.
Rhabdomyosarcoma
ANS:
Wilms tumors are linked with other genetically linked childhood cancers. It is the only form among the available options that is associated with congenital malformation syndromes.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 443 | Table 14-1

7.      Research data support a carcinogenic relationship in children resulting from exposure to which virus?
a.
Herpes simplex virus
c.
Varicella zoster virus
b.
Influenza
d.
Epstein-Barr virus
ANS:
The strongest association between viruses and the development of cancer in children has been the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), Burkitt lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, and Hodgkin disease. No current research supports a link between the remaining options and childhood cancer.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 445

8.      A child diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has an increased risk of developing:
a.
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
c.
Epstein-Barr
b.
Retinoblastoma
d.
Leukemia
ANS:
Children with AIDS have an increased risk of developing non-Hodgkin lymphoma and Kaposi sarcoma. Leukemia is linked to retinoblastoma. Epstein-Barr has been linked to the development of some cancers, whereas no known link has been found between AIDS and the development of leukemia.

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PTS:   1                    REF: Page 445

9.      Which intervention has the greatest affect on a child’s mortality rate when diagnosed with cancer?
a.
Age at the time of diagnosis
b.
Participation in clinical trials
c.
Proximity to a major cancer treatment center
d.
Parental involvement in the treatment planning
ANS:

Mortality rates have significantly declined in the past 40 years largely as a result of advances in treatment and participation in clinical trials. Although important, the other options are not believed to have an affect on the decline of the mortality rate of childhood cancer.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 445

10.     Which statement is likely true regarding children being treated for cancer with radiation therapy?
a.
They will most likely have a successful remission of tumor growth.
b.
They seldom require follow-up maintenance treatments.
c.
They are prone to experience severe developmental delays.
d.
They are at increased risk for developing adult cancers.
ANS:
Although the need exists for long-term studies, research has shown a correlation between radiation-induced malignancies from radiotherapy (as in cancer treatment) or radiation exposure from diagnostic imaging; both have shown to increase the risk of developing cancer during adulthood. The other options are not necessarily true regarding the outcomes of radiation therapy for childhood cancers.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 445

11.     How should the nurse reply when a parent questions why a computed tomographic (CT) scan of the head was not ordered for their 5-year-old child after a minor fall?
a.
Physicians are cautious about ordering CT scan on children younger than 10 years
of age.
b.
CT scans are seldom conclusive when used to diagnosis head injuries in young
children.
c.
The child’s symptoms will determine whether a CT scan is necessary and worth
the expense.
d.
Research suggests that repeated CT scans can increase the risk of developing brain
cancer.
ANS:
Findings from a recent study of 176,587 children suggest that those who have two or three CT scans of the head before the age of 22 years are three times more likely to develop brain cancer as those in the general population, and the risk of developing leukemia is three times as great in those who received five to ten CT scans. The other options do not represent the logic behind not ordering a CT scan in relationship to minor head trauma.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 445 | What’s New box

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

12.     Childhood exposure to which risk factors increases the susceptibility for developing cancers? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Low birth weight
b.
Chemotherapy
c.
Ionizing radiation
d.
Cigarette smoke

e.
Hodgkin disease

ANS:                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                           , C, E
Childhood exposure to ionizing radiation, drugs, or existing cancer-causing viruses has been associated with the risk of developing cancer. Although unhealthy, no current research identifies cigarette smoke or low birth weight as risk factors for childhood cancer.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 445 | Table 14-3

13.     Which statement is true concerning the difference between adult and childhood cancers?
(Select all that apply.)
a.
Numerous differences exist between these two categories of cancer.
b.
Childhood cancers are far less likely to be associated with genetic mutations.
c.
Environmental risks are strongly associated with childhood cancers.
d.
Exposure to pesticides is a minor risk for the development of adult cancers.
e.
Maternal exposure to carcinogenic substances presents little risk to the fetus.
ANS:                                                                             , B
Overall, cancers in children are very different than adult cancers and are associated with far fewer genetic mutations. Research does not support the other options.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 442 | Page 444 | What’s New box

14.     Most childhood cancers originate from the mesodermal germ layer that ultimately produces which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Connective tissue
b.
Digestive system
c.
Muscles
d.
Kidneys
e.
Blood
ANS:                                                                             , C, D, E
Most childhood cancers originate from the mesodermal germ layer, which gives rise to connective tissue, bone cartilage, muscle, blood, blood vessels, gonads, kidney, and the lymphatic system. Cancers of the digestive tract do not originate in the mesodermal germ layer.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 443

15.     Which statements are true regarding cancers that develop in children? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Childhood cancers tend to be fast growing.
b.
Childhood cancers are diagnosed during growth spurts.
c.
Childhood cancer generally metastasizes by the time of diagnosis.
d.
Childhood cancer is typically at low risk for aggressive metastasis.
e.
Childhood cancers respond well to standardized treatment modalities.
ANS:                                                                             , B, C
Childhood cancers are most often diagnosed during peak times of physical growth. In general, they are extremely fast growing, with 80% having distant spread (metastases) at diagnosis.
The other options are not true regarding childhood cancers.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 443

16.     The nurse is preparing a discussion on cancer and its occurrence among college-aged students. Which cancers will the nurse include in the discussion? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Colorectal
b.
Testicular
c.
Thyroid
d.
Breast
e.
Lung
ANS:                                                                             , B, C, D
The most common cancers among the adolescent and young adult population (15 to 39 years of age) are Hodgkin lymphoma, leukemia, germ-cell tumors (particularly testicular), central nervous system tumors, non-Hodgkin lymphoma, thyroid cancer, melanoma, sarcomas, and breast, cervical, liver, thyroid and colorectal cancers. Lung cancer generally develops after chronic inhalation of nicotine-containing products.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 442

Chapter 15: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.      Which pathway carries sensory information toward the central nervous system (CNS)?
a.
Ascending
c.
Somatic
b.
Descending
d.
Efferent
ANS:
Peripheral nerve pathways can be afferent (ascending) pathways that carry sensory impulses toward the CNS. The remaining options do not carry sensory information to the CNS.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 448

2.      Which type of axon transmits a nerve impulse at the highest rate?
a.
Large nonmyelinated
c.
Small nonmyelinated
b.
Large myelinated
d.
Small myelinated
ANS:
If the myelin layer is tightly wrapped many times around the axon and is forming the nodes of Ranvier, then conduction velocity increases and the neuron is referred to as myelinated. The increased diameter of the myelinated axons allows for the transmission of impulses at a faster rate. The other options do not affect nervous impulse transmission rates.

PTS:   1                    REF: Pages 448-450

3.      Which nerves are capable of regeneration?
a.
Nerves within the brain and spinal cord
b.
Peripheral nerves that are cut or severed
c.
Myelinated nerves in the peripheral nervous system
d.
Unmyelinated nerves of the peripheral nervous system

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ANS:
Nerve regeneration is limited to only myelinated fibers and generally occurs only in the peripheral nervous system.

PTS:   1                    REF: Pages 450-451

4.      The neurotransmitter, norepinephrine, is secreted in the:
a.
Somatic nervous system
c.
Sympathetic postganglion
b.
Parasympathetic preganglion
d.
Parasympathetic postganglion
ANS:
Most postganglionic sympathetic fibers release norepinephrine (adrenaline). The remaining options do not reflect the correct site of norepinephrine secretion.

PTS:   1                    REF: Pages 473-474

5.      Both oligodendroglia and Schwann cells share the ability to:
a.
Form a myelin sheath
c.
Transport nutrients
b.
Remove cellular debris
d.
Line the ventricles

ANS:
The function of oligodendroglia (oligodendrocytes) is to deposit myelin within the central nervous system (CNS). Oligodendroglia are the CNS counterpart of Schwann cells. The remaining options are not reflective of the common function of these structures.

PTS:   1                    REF: Pages 449-450

6.      During a synapse, what change occurs after the neurotransmitter binds to the receptor?
a.
The permeability of the presynaptic neuron changes; consequently, its membrane
potential is changed as well.
b.
The permeability of the postsynaptic neuron changes; consequently, its membrane
potential is changed as well.
c.
The postsynaptic cell prevents any change in permeability and destroys the action
potential.
d.
The presynaptic cell synthesizes and secretes additional neurotransmitters.
ANS:
The binding of the neurotransmitter at the receptor site changes the permeability of the postsynaptic neuron and, consequently, its membrane potential. The remaining options do not accurately describe the occurrence.

PTS:   1                    REF: Pages 452-453

7.      What name is given to a large network of neurons within the brainstem that is essential for maintaining wakefulness?
a.
Midbrain
c.
Medulla oblongata
b.
Reticular activating system
d.
Pons
ANS:
The reticular activating system is essential for maintaining wakefulness. The remaining options are not essential to this function.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 454

8.      Thought and goal-oriented behaviors are functions of which area of the brain?
a.
Cerebellum
c.
Prefrontal lobe
b.
Limbic system
d.
Occipital lobe
ANS:
The prefrontal area is responsible for goal-oriented behavior (i.e., ability to concentrate), short-term or recall memory, and the elaboration of thought and inhibition on the limbic (emotional) areas of the CNS. The remaining options are not involved in these functions.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 456

9.      The region responsible for the motor aspects of speech is located in the:
a.
Wernicke area in the temporal lobe
c.
Wronka area in the parietal lobe
b.
Broca area in the frontal lobe
d.
Barlow area in the occipital lobe
ANS:
Broca speech area is the only region responsible for the motor aspects of speech.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 457

10.     Parkinson and Huntington diseases are associated with defects in which area of the brain?
a.
Thalamus
c.
Cerebellum
b.
Medulla oblongata
d.
Basal ganglia
ANS:
Parkinson and Huntington diseases are conditions associated with defects of the basal ganglia. No current research supports the role of any of the other options in these diseases.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 457

11.     Maintenance of a constant internal environment and the implementation of behavioral patterns are main functions of which area of the brain?
a.
Thalamus
c.
Subthalamus
b.
Epithalamus
d.
Hypothalamus
ANS:
Hypothalamic function falls into two major areas: (1) maintenance of a constant internal environment, and (2) implementation of behavioral patterns. The remaining options do not address these functions.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 459

12.     The ability of the eyes to track moving objects through a visual field is primarily a function of which colliculi?
a.
Inferior
c.
Mid
b.
Superior
d.
Posterior
ANS:
The superior colliculi are involved with voluntary and involuntary visual motor movements (e.g., the ability of the eyes to track moving objects in the visual field). Tracking moving objects is not the primary function of the remaining options.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 459

13.     What parts of the brain mediate the expression of affect, both emotional and behavioral states?
a.
Hypothalamus and subthalamus
c.
Limbic system and prefrontal cortex
b.
Parietal and frontal lobes
d.
Basal ganglia and medulla oblongata
ANS:
Extensive connections with the limbic system and prefrontal cortex mediate the expression of affect, both emotional and behavioral states. The remaining options are not involved in these expressions.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 457

14.     Reflex activities concerned with heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain?
a.
Pons
c.
Cerebellum
b.
Midbrain
d.
Medulla oblongata
ANS:

The medulla oblongata makes up the myelencephalon and is the lowest portion of the brainstem. Reflex activities, such as heart rate, respiration, blood pressure, coughing, sneezing, swallowing, and vomiting, are controlled only in this area.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 460

15.     From which part of the midbrain do cranial nerves V to VIII emerge?
a.
Midbrain
c.
Medulla oblongata
b.
Pons
d.
Lateral colliculi
ANS:
The nuclei of cranial nerves V through VIII (see Table 15-6 for discussion) are located only in the pons.

PTS:   1                    REF: Pages 459-460

16.     From which part of the midbrain do cranial nerves IX to XII emerge?
a.
Midbrain
c.
Medulla oblongata
b.
Pons
d.
Lateral colliculi
ANS:
The nuclei of cranial nerves IX through XII (see Table 15-6 for discussion) are located only in the medulla oblongata.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 460

17.     Which area of the brain assumes the responsibility for conscious and unconscious muscle synergy and for maintaining balance and posture?
a.
Cerebrum
c.
Diencephalon
b.
Cerebellum
d.
Brainstem
ANS:
The cerebellum is responsible for conscious and unconscious muscle synergy and for maintaining balance and posture. This role is not assumed by any of the remaining options.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 459

18.     Which statement is true regarding upper motor neurons?
a.
Upper motor neurons directly influence muscles.
b.
They modify spinal reflex arcs.
c.
Upper motor neurons are located in the gray matter of the spinal cord.
d.
They extend their dendritic processes out of the CNS.
ANS:
Upper motor neurons (i.e., corticospinal tract) are the classification of motor pathways completely contained within the CNS. Their primary roles include directing, influencing, and modifying reflex arcs, lower-level control centers, and motor and some sensory neurons

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Question 2: General Question

NSG 6435 Week 7 Quiz/ NSG6435 Week 7 Quiz (Latest): South University (Already graded A)
NSG 6435 Week 7 Quiz/ NSG6435 Week 7 Quiz (Latest): South University (Already graded A)

Question 3: General Question

Write a 350- to 700-word paper in which you investigate the interrelationship between the
entertainment media and culture. Answer the following questions:
⦁ In what ways have various forms of entertainment media shaped American culture and its values?
⦁ Are the social influences of entertainment media mostly positive or negative? Explain.
Provide specific examples.
Conclude your paper with thoughts on whether the entertainment media are a reflection of or a catalyst for societal behaviors and attitudes.

OR

Write a 350- to 700-word pitch to either a movie or television producer. Your pitch will explain your idea for a new TV or movie program that is based on current market trends. You will need to research what the popular genres are in either movies or television and write your pitch with the intention of selling a story that falls in line with what is currently profitable.
Include an analysis discussing how current popular entertainment trends do or do not reflect American cultural values and their influence on social behavior as well.

Question 4: General Question

Strayer University, Lithonia – ACC 100Accounting Assignment 2.docx
Strayer University, Lithonia – ACC 100Accounting Assignment 2.docx

Question 5: Biology

Each essay response is required to be a minimum of 250 words. Because these essays are open-book, take the time to provide ample information, detail, and personal analysis in each essay response. While there is a minimum word requirement for each essay, there is not a maximum word limit. Feel free to elaborate as needed with relevant information to meet your own personal level of satisfaction.
1. Describe the sliding filament theory, the size principle of motor unit recruitment, and the all or none theory? When training a bodybuilder, why is an understanding of these three principles necessary and how can they be applied when designing training programs for bodybuilders?
2. The author of the textbook describes six core lifts as being necessary to include when designing a training program for a bodybuilder (squat, overhead press, chin-ups, bench press, deadlift, and bar dips). Why does the author feel that these lifts should form the foundation of a bodybuilder’s program? What advantages do these lifts offer? Do you agree with the author’s assessment that these lifts should form the foundation of a training program for bodybuilders? Why or why not?
3. Describe the factors that contribute to muscle hypertrophy. When designing a training program to optimize muscle hypertrophy, what steps can you take to make sure that each factor is accounted for?
4. What style of periodization do you feel would be best for optimizing a bodybuilder’s physique? Defend your answer.
5. Briefly describe the variables that contribute to a bodybuilder’s ability to recover from training. What steps should be taken by a trainer to ensure that optimal recovery is achieved?

Question 6: Biology

You are working with an amateur bodybuilder who is 12 months out from a bodybuilding competition. Design a year-long periodized training program for the athlete with the objective of optimizing the client’s physique at the time of the competition. The training program should include the following:
A list of assessments to be performed at the onset of the training program
A warm-up and cool down for each training day
A detailed year-long periodized training program including specific exercises, sets, repetitions, suggested rest times, etc. The program should include a Foundational Training phase, a Hypertrophy phase, and a Cutting phase.
An explanation as to why you made your recommendations for each phase of training.
Nutrition and supplement recommendations to support the bodybuilder during each phase of training.

Question 7: Biology

Create a video or script demonstrating your understanding of Strength and Conditioning training. The video or script should be completed within the following guidelines:
1. Introduce yourself by name, school, or association that you work for, etc.
2. Identify the athlete and sport you are coaching and the athlete’s position in the training cycle.
3. Introduce the layout of the training program and then begin training. (NOTE: Training should be specific for the athlete’s needs.)
4. Walkthrough training techniques with both verbal explanation and physical demonstration.
5. Include both a warm-up and cool-down routine with both verbal explanation and physical demonstration.
OPTION 2: Training Script
If you are unable to create a video demonstrating your understanding of Strength and Conditioning training, you will need to write a script for the video you would produce if you had the resources. Requirements for the script:
1. The script should be 1500+ words typed and submitted in a Word (.DOC) or PDF format. For ease of review, please used Size 12 font in Black.
2. The format should be easily readable. The reviewer should be able to read your script and get a mental image of what is trying to be relayed. See sample play scripts or movie scripts for sample formats.
3. Since you will not have visual examples, the script will need to convey your vision. Be detailed but concise.

Question 8: Biology

Design year-long training programs for one of the athletes below. Design off-season, pre-season, early season, and competitive season workouts. Include weight training, plyometrics, endurance, and flexibility training.
Choose one of the following:
A. High school football player (specify position)
B. College basketball player (specify position)
C. Minor league baseball player (specify position)
Provide details for the type of exercise, duration, sets, reps, rest intervals, and so on. A coach or athlete should be able to take your program and put it into practice without having to contact you for clarity of further explanation. Provide a rationale for your recommendations. For each season of each 1-year training program, you will include a ONE WEEK ‘example’ of what you would focus on with your client in that given season. For example, in a given week, you will show a proper strength training program for Monday, Wednesday, Friday and will show Plyometrics, agility, and speed on Tuesday/Thursday and you will provide the full exercise program for that given period of time.
⦁ Off-Season: 1-week’ sample’ program
⦁ Pre Season: 1-week ‘sample’ program
⦁ Early Season: 1-week ‘sample’ program
⦁ Competitive Season: 1-week ‘sample’ program
⦁ Post Season: 1-week ‘sample’ program
You will also provide a rationale/explanation regarding your client’s goals for each season and how the programming and training protocol you provided will most appropriately and effectively assist the client in achieving their goals for the following season.

You will provide all of the necessary aspects of your clients’ programming including:
⦁ Initial goals and assessments
⦁ Proper warm-up and cool down for each training day.
⦁ Season appropriate training: exercise prescription, sets, reps and intensity
⦁ Re-assess your client’s progress and update their goals at the beginning of each season in his or her one-year program

Question 9: Biology

Write a 250-word essay response to the following question.
Describe the stretch-shortening cycle and how it relates to exercise.
Analyze two athletes performing a power clean and a power snatch. Do a detailed technical analysis of each lift. List the critical elements of each lift and note any technique deviations.
Pick an athlete and conduct a series of tests appropriate for their sport. What tests did you conduct and what were the results? What do the results tell you about your athlete? What goals will be set for the next testing period?
Give an example of a sports athlete that utilizes each of the three major energy pathways. How long does the body utilize each pathway as its main energy source?

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Question 10: Biology

5 Short Answer Questions: 1. Discuss the three E’s of nutrition. Explain how PDIs fit into the three E’s of nutrition. 2. Describe the significance of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins on health and performance? What are the general recommendations for each macronutrient intake? How do body type, health status, and performance goals influence these recommendations? 3. Explain the difference between micronutrients and macronutrients. What role do micronutrients play in maintaining and optimizing health and performance? What are the common micronutrient deficiencies seen in athletes? 4. Describe the path of food through the digestive system and explain each organ&#039;s role in the digestive process. What are some factors that influence digestion? 5. Perform a body composition assessment on a subject using one of the methods outlined in Unit 14. Discuss the methodology you used, including possible deviations that could have occurred during testing. Then identify the somatotype of your subject and provide a macronutrient split recommendation for your subject based on his/her somatotype. Explain why you feel that the macronutrient split you provided is appropriate for your client.

Question 11: Biology

For this case study, you ideally will need to recruit a healthy adult competitive athlete. This person can be a recreational sports athlete, college athlete, or other type of active athlete. Alternatively, you can even use yourself. Note that this is just an academic exercise, so the person you are working with does not need to follow the program.
Go through Steps 1 to 8 from Unit 17, provided below, and develop nutritional guidelines for your subject, dependent on the season that he/she is in. Then provide a discussion as to why you made your recommendations.
Show all calculations that may apply, using the methods in the course textbook related to the Steps. Make note of the person’s age, gender, sport, and athletic season.
Step 1: Determine body composition.
Step 2: Determine daily caloric expenditure range for training days and non-training days and for competition days.
Step 3: Determine the bioenergetics the sport primarily demands for peak athletic performance; Athlete- Type; Anaerobic – Immediate Energy System; Anaerobic Glycolytic; Anaerobic Glycolytic – Oxidative Glycolytic; and Oxidative. Some examples of sports are included below.
Step 4: Determine daily protein intake estimate and the foods and supplements to achieve it. Remember from your lessons that protein requirements can differ among different Athlete-Types and among individual athletes. This gives a scientific reason for making protein intake a priority for sports nutrition programs, in addition to other factors.
Step 5: Determine daily carbohydrate estimate and the foods and supplements to achieve it. Remember to plan for carbohydrate beverage intake before, during, and after practice and for sports events as appropriate. Modulate carbohydrate type and amount with meals and snacks to meet specific nutrition goals.
Step 6: Determine fat (essential fatty acids) intake estimate and plan, and select foods and cooking methods to achieve it. Keeping fat intake under 30 percent of total daily calories will be an ongoing skill to master. For certain sports, maintaining low fat intake during the season—between 15 and 20 percent of total daily calories—can be challenging and requires extra effort to make sure athletes are ingesting adequate amounts of the essential fatty acids: linoleic and alpha-pnolenic acids. Add healthy sources of essential fatty acids in addition to EPA and DHA as required for health.
Step 7: Maintain proper fluid intake estimate to meet daily requirements, as determined by the amount of physical activity, environmental factors, and specific athletic training, performance, and health needs.
Step 8: Determine the needs for using special sports nutrition and dietary supplement products.

Question 12: Biology

NURS 6531 Midterm Exam  Latest Version Walden University

Question 13: Biology

Nurs 6512 Final Latest Version Walden University

Question 14: Biology

Nurs 6512 Midterm   Latest Version Walden University

Question 15: Business

One way to be exposed to another culture is by examining the foods typical of that culture. In this exercise, you will need to create a limited guide to ethnic dining in your city or area. The finished guide will be descriptive in nature; it is not meant to be a rating guide.Purpose: The purpose of this exercise is to allow those students who have had only minimal exposure to cultural differences an opportunity to experience those differences through the common element of food. Students will create a basic ethnic dining guide for restaurants in their area. The guide is not meant to be a rating guide. It is simply meant to be an informative guide.
Instructions

Activities
⦁ Identify ethnic dining categories for inclusion in your guide. Once you have identified categories for your area, make a list of restaurants for each category.
⦁ You will need to create a data collection form so that the same information is collected from each restaurant. For example, you will want to include the name, address, and phone number for each restaurant. Think of other information that would be helpful.
⦁ Choose and complete the assignment for three of the restaurants from the list you have generated in activity One. Consider visiting an assortment of ethnic restaurants. If your budget allows, eat at a few of the restaurants in addition to collecting the information. After you have all the information, review and compare your findings.
⦁ Was there a meal or type of food that you particularly liked? Disliked? Which type of ethnic restaurant seemed most foreign to you? Why do you think that was?

Question 16: Business

Imagine that you have been appointed as the Chief Compliance Officer for “NIKE”
Create a four to six (4-6) slide PowerPoint presentation in which you:

⦁ Summarize your chosen company’s Supplier Code of Conduct information
⦁ In your own words, explain how each aspect of your Supplier Code of Conduct is committed to ethical business practices and society social responsibility.
⦁ Discuss your company’s stance on each of the following areas:
a. Empowering Workers
b. Labor and Human Rights
c. Health and Safety
d. The Environment
e. Accountability
⦁ Identify the key ways that your company’s Code of Conduct has changed in recent years (i.e. have there been any improvements made).
⦁ Examine the manner in which your company’s Supplier Code of Conduct helps the organization operate as a socially responsible organization.
⦁ Provide detailed speaker notes of what you would say if you were delivering the presentation.

Question 17: Business

QSO 500 Milestone One Guidelines and Rubric
Overview: In this final project, you will create a research report based on the application of action research processes for developing problem solving strategies. In designing the report, you will follow the best practices for ethical research. You will utilize the research process to inform decisions in your professional life and as a framework for approaching research projects in other courses in your program. The final product will be a comprehensive research report using the five-step research process (identify the problem; understand the theoretical framework of the problem; design the research study; collect, explain, and analyze the data; report the results; and make conclusions and recommendations).
For Milestone One, submit a draft of your business problem and literature review. Using the problem you identified in your Module One journal and the feedback you received, describe the research problem including the context in which it exists. Using the problem statement, describe the stakeholders and research objective. Based on the research objective, develop a research question that clearly and concisely articulates in one sentence the purpose of the study. Consider the key real or potential ethical issues or challenges of the study.
After describing your business problem and research question, prepare a comprehensive literature review that carefully and thoughtfully examines the research problem from a scholarly perspective using a minimum of seven quality sources. A minimum of three of the sources must be selected from scholarly, peer-reviewed journals. Other quality sources can be professional publications or magazines, internal corporate publications such as annual reports or white papers, or established news sources.
Prompt: Refer to the given case study Maruti Suzuki India: Defending Market Leadership in the A-Segment and select a data-driven business problem that can be addressed using action research to be the basis for your research report. Prepare a comprehensive literature review that carefully and thoughtfully examines the research problem from a scholarly perspective using a minimum of seven quality sources. A minimum of three of the sources must be selected from scholarly, peer-reviewed journals. Other quality sources can be from professional publications or magazines, internal corporate publications such as annual reports or white papers, or established news sources.
Specifically the following critical elements must be addressed:
Business Problem: Refer to the given case study and select a data-driven business problem that can be addressed using action research to be the basis for your research report.
A. Describe the research problem, including the context in which it exists. In other words, what caused or precipitated this problem? What has already been done to address it?
B. Describe the key stakeholders (or potential stakeholders) of your business problem. In other words, who are the people who have the most to gain or lose from a decision?
C. Explain the research objective. How would it benefit the stakeholder to know the results?
D. Develop a research question based on the research objective that clearly and concisely articulates in one sentence the purpose of the study.
E. Discuss the key real or potential ethical issues or challenges of the study. Consider the following: How will data be collected and protected? How will human subjects be used, treated, and protected?
Literature Review:
A. Explain the theories that best ground your organizational problem. Support your explanation with specific examples. These theories might be management, behavioral, social, and/or business related.
B. Discuss the bias and limitations present in the relevant literature and the potential impact these may have on your research.
C. Summarize at least one other research study that has faced this challenge that could potentially be replicated and applied to your research study.
D. From the literature, analyze at least one other organization that has faced similar problems, explaining what they have done to address the problem.
Rubric
Guidelines for Submission: Your milestone must be submitted as a 5- to 6-page Microsoft Word document with double spacing, 12-point Times New Roman font, one-inch margins, and at least seven sources cited in APA format.
Critical Elements
Proficient (100%)
Needs Improvement (75%)
Not Evident (0%)
Value
Business Problem: Research Problem
Describes the research problem, including the context in which it exists
Describes the research problem, but description is cursory or does not include the context in which the problem exists
Does not describe the research problem
9
Business Problem: Stakeholders
Describes all key stakeholders of the business problem
Describes the stakeholders of the business problem, but description is cursory or neglects to address all key stakeholders
Does not describe the stakeholders of the business problem
9
Business Problem: Research Objective
Explains the research objective, including how this research would benefit the stakeholder
Explains the research objective, but explanation is cursory or does not show how this research would benefit the stakeholder
Does not explain the research objective
9
Business Problem: Research Question
Develops a research question based on the research objective that clearly and concisely articulates in one sentence the purpose of the study
Develops a research question based on the research objective, but it does not clearly or concisely articulate in one sentence the purpose of the study
Does not develop a research question based on the research objective
Business Problem: Ethical Issues
Discusses all key real or potential ethical issues or challenges of the study
Discusses real or potential ethical issues or challenges of the study, but discussion is cursory, contains issues of clarity, or neglects to address key ethical issues
Does not discuss real or potential ethical issues or challenges of the study
12
Literature Review: Theories
Explains the theories that best ground the organizational problem with support from specific examples
Explains the theories that best ground the organizational problem, but explanation is cursory or not supported with specific examples
Does not explain the theories that best ground the organizational problem
12
Literature Review: Bias and Limitations
Discusses the bias and limitations present in the relevant literature, including the potential impact on research
Discusses the bias and limitations present in the relevant literature, but discussion contains issues of clarity or does not address the potential impact on research
Does not discuss the bias and limitations present in the relevant literature
12
Literature Review: Other Research Study
Summarizes another research study that has faced this challenge that could potentially be replicated and applied to your research study
Summarizes another research study that has faced this challenge that could potentially be replicated and applied to your research study, but summary is cursory or contains inaccuracies
Does not summarize another research study that has faced this challenge that could potentially be replicated
12
Literature Review: Other Organization
Analyzes another organization that has faced similar problems, including an explanation of what was done to address the problem
Analyzes another organization that has faced similar problems, but analysis is cursory or does not explain what was done to address the problem
Does not analyze another organization that has faced similar problems
12
Articulation of Response
Submission has no major errors related to citations, grammar, spelling, syntax, or organization
Submission has major errors related to citations, grammar, spelling, syntax, or organization that negatively impact readability and articulation of main ideas
Submission has critical errors related to citations, grammar, spelling, syntax, or organization that prevent understanding of ideas
4
Total
100%

Question 18: Business

You are a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm. Norman is the mid-level manager responsible for the southern regional office. The following events have recently occurred in Norman’s office:
⦁ Ken, an estate planner in Norman’s office, recently adopted a baby with his wife. He applied for 12-week family leave, but was denied by Norman because his wife did not physically give birth. The corporate human resource department (where you work) was not given notice of this decision.
⦁ June, part of the full-time housekeeping staff, has been asking other employees if they would like to join a union. There are currently no unions within the organization.
⦁ Maria is concerned about ladders that are placed around the office for remodeling. Norman said not to worry, and that there are no official policies for safety in an office setting.

Prepare a 15- to 20-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation with speaker notes responding to Norman from a Human Resource standpoint. The video or presentation should address the following topics:
⦁ An overview of the FMLA and its key provisions relating to Ken.
⦁ Recommended resolution for Ken’s situation (both for Ken as an employee and as a company handling these requests moving forward).
⦁ An overview of key labor laws to briefly educate Norman on employee rights in unionizing.
⦁ A brief discussion of OSHA and possible application to Norman’s office setting.

Format your presentation consistent with APA guidelines.

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Question 19: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
⦁  Discuss an element of the FSLA, and give an example of how it is enforced. Include who is and who is not exempt from this element’s regulation.

Question 20: Business

Calculations: Calculate the client’s target heart rate using the Karvonen formula.

Training Program: Design
a full 12-week periodized training program for the client described in the Client Profile. Be very specific as you design the training program. This is an opportunity for you to demonstrate your full comprehension of the information and concepts discussed throughout the course. List the types of exercise, duration, sets, reps, rest intervals, and so on.
Include the following in your case study submission:
⦁ A description of your professional responsibilities as discussed in the stages of the drawing-in process (Unit 12)
⦁ Discussion of any fitness tests, methods of evaluation, and data collection used to assess and evaluate the client’s needs
⦁ Specific conditions that you have identified in the client profile
⦁ A fully detailed 12-week comprehensive and periodized training program including specific exercises, sets, repetitions, suggested rest times, etc. Use an integrated approach in your program recommendations.
⦁ Specific and detailed nutritional strategies and an explanation as to how the strategies will assist the client in meeting energy needs
⦁ Explanation for your chosen assessment, programming, and nutritional recommendations. (Be sure to reference course concepts when discussing rationale for your recommendations.
Keep in mind that a client should be able to take your program and put it into practice without having to contact you to clarify what you intended by your recommendations or to explain parts of your program.
Don’t forget your explanation for WHY you listed and recommended what you did. Reference the concepts and theories covered in the course. Be sure to address why the program and exercises recommended are appropriate for the specific client given the client’s history, current abilities, and intended goal(s). For example: if you are developing a program for a beginner client without any resistance training experience, explain how your program addresses the lack of experience, initial need for foundational development, process by which you would safely progress the client, etc. Tying your program to course concepts is a critical component of your case study.

Review the Client Profile below.
Client Profile: Peter Parker
Age: 28
Gender: Male
Resting Heart Rate: 80 bpm
Height: 6’4″
Weight: 252 lb
Body Fat Percentage: 29%
Background and Goals: Peter is a 28-year-old civil servant with a 9-to-5 desk job. He is 6’4″ tall and weighs 252 lb. He played football and basketball in high school and some intramural sports in college, but has not worked out or been very active since. His diet is sporadic and consists of mostly processed and prepackaged foods that are quick and easy to prepare. Peter’s goals are to lose weight, tone his body, and lead a healthier lifestyle. Based on Peter’s current lifestyle and existing exercise and nutrition habits, design a 12-week progressive training program to help him best achieve his goals.

Question 21: Economics

One of the first lessons you will learn in Economics is that in order to do something, or buy something, it often means you cannot do or have something else.  Life is full of choices and tradeoffs:   “You cannot have your cake and eat it too,” or ” There is no such thing as a free lunch.”  What is this course costing you?  What is your opportunity cost to take this course? As an introductory assignment, answer each of these in the Discussions.
1) Write about what you could be doing instead of taking this course.   It could be something else right at this minute. It could be going on vacation (or buying gas) with the tuition and book money, or it could be another class that conflicted with this, and
(2) Describe a choice you have had to make recently that involved make a choice between 2 alternatives not involving this course, and which way you decided to go.  This could be going out to dine or buying gas, buying food rather than new clothes, or even a career change.

Question 22: Education

American Public University SEJPME Final Exam
SEJPME Final Exam | Complete Solution | Scored 92%
1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially atomic
battlefield? [objective81]
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
tentative landings
fleet dispersion

2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper Fideles”
“Semper Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”

3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32)
mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard
4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council?
[objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security
5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact

6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces

7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan

8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law

9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)

10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness

11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False

12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard?
[objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security

13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False

14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the
following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination

15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training

16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True

17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that
apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night

18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve
Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False

19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression

20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10

21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and
then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True

23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline,
flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations

25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed,
and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine

26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the
commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams.
[objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors

27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton

28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the
Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war

29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security

30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force development
force planning
force training
doctrine

31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.

32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective

33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join
Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S.
embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State.
[objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)

34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving
organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving
authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all
aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the
command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)

35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess?
[objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment

36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which
of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find
themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable

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38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds
to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships

39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part
of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent

40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to
collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not
normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning
the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance

41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____
to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task
Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more
than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager

42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know
what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint
intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support
of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate

43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars

44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank

45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes:
(Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military

46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war

47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False

48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command

49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams

50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and
concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective

1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30

2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical

3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization

4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True

5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service

6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a
person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each
other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice

7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions

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8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture

9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True

10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian
assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control

11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan

12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False

13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches

14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the
Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include
policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff

15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD

16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False

17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of
multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability

18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7

19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)

20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to
U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force

22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence

23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence

24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces

25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises

26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver
Pre Test
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contains 50 Questions

1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment (correct)
3rd Combat Aviation Brigade

2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information (correct)
economics (correct)
diplomacy (correct)
the military (correct)

3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True (correct)

4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force (correct)
subordinate unified command

5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____
and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences
– both positive and negative.
critically think about (correct)
acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts

6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational (correct)
intermediate

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7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe (correct)
maritime safety (correct)
maritime security (correct)

8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare (correct)
a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17 (correct)
clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation

9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy (correct)

10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members (correct)
media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints

11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service (correct)
Life-Saving Service (correct)
Bureau of Navigation

12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True (correct)
False

13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war (correct)
when directed by the President (correct)

14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea” (correct)
Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy

15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process (correct)

16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system (correct)
initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system

17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct (correct)
network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct

18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve (correct)

19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent (correct)
60 percent
40 percent
30 percent

20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine (correct)
Law of warfare

21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities (correct)
major combat operations
forcible entry operations

22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects (correct)
assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction

23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True (correct)
False

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24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador (correct)
Secretary of State

25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage (correct)

26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience (correct)
opposition
vulnerability
indifference

27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council (correct)
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council

28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True (correct)
False

29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem (correct)

30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment (correct)
beachhead assault

31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort (correct)
command and control authority
unity of command

32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess (correct)
as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done

33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True (correct)
False

34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence (correct)
prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line

35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit (correct)
effort
workload

36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability (correct)

37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF) (correct)
Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)

38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True (correct)

39) Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought
onboard to combat the rat population, the practice continued to help keep the crew’s morale high.
False
True (correct)

40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically.
False
True (correct)

41) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you
are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning,
Sir,” in the case of an officer.
False
True (correct)

42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA) (correct)
Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)

43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries (correct)
cyberspace operations
major combat operations (correct)
humanitarian assistance (correct)

44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True (correct)

45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II (correct)
Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War

46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation (correct)
situational awareness
influence

47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage (correct)
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests

48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic (correct)
ill-prepared
segregated

49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True (correct)

50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being. (correct)
Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”
100% Result

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Question 23: Health Care

Walden University – NURS 6501Completed Week 7 Quiz Graded A

Question 24: Health Care

Walden University – NURS 6501NURS 6501 wk. 6 quiz Graded A

Question 25: Health Care

Walden University
NURS
NURS 6501
NURS 6501 Week 5 quiz

Question 26: Health Care

NURS 6501N- 13 Advanced Pathophysiology Week 4 Quiz Graded A

Question 27: Health Care

NURS 6501N- 13 Advanced Pathophysiology Week 3 Quiz Graded A

Question 28: Health Care

NURS 6501N- 13 Advanced Pathophysiology Week 2 Quiz Graded A

Question 29: Health Care

NURS 6501 advanced pathophysiology week1 latest Graded A

Question 30: Health Care

Walden University > NURS 6630 Final Exam (2019) Score A

Question 31: Health Care

NSG 6020 Week 7 Quiz ANSWERS Latest SOUTH UNIVERSITY HEALTH ASSESSMENT NSG6020.docx

Question 32: Health Care

How has nursing practice evolved over time? Discuss the key leaders and historical events that have influenced the advancement of nursing, nursing education, and nursing roles that are now part of the contemporary nursing profession. 200-300 words, 2 citations

Question 33: Health Care

NR511 Week 8 Final Exam Latest 2019 (Graded A)
NR511 Week 8 Final Exam Latest 2019 (Graded A)

Question 34; Health Care

South University NSG 5003 Final exam 2019 (Already Graded A)
South University NSG5003 Final
Question 1 (5 points)

Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?
Question 1 options:

Lysosomes

Peroxisomes

Ribosomes

Oxyhydrosomes
Question 2 (5 points)

What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?
Question 2 options:

Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.

Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.

Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.

Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.
Question 3 (5 points)

Which statement is a description of one of the characteristics of apoptosis?
Question 3 options:

Apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered single cells.

Apoptosis is characterized by the swelling of the nucleus and the cytoplasm.

Apoptosis involves unpredictable patterns of cell death.

Apoptosis results in benign malignancies.
Question 4 (5 points)

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:
Question 4 options:

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:

The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels.

The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane

Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.
Question 5 (5 points)

What is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure?
Question 5 options:

Respiratory distress

Sun intolerance

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) aberrations

Death
Question 6 (5 points)

Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:
Question 6 options: chapter 3 q.2

?Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.

The metabolic rates of obese adults are slower than those of lean adults.

The rates of urine output of obese adults are higher than those of lean adults.

The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.
Question 7 (5 points)

In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?
Question 7 options:

a)
Oncotic pressure

b)
Buffering

c)
Net filtration

d)
Hydrostatic pressure
Question 8 (5 points)

Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure?
Question 8 options:

a)
Capillary hydrostatic

b)
Interstitial hydrostatic

c)
Capillary oncotic

d)
Interstitial oncotic
Question 9 (5 points)

At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because:
Question 9 options:

a)
The interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.

b)
The capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.

c)
The interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

d)
The capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
Question 10 (5 points)

It is true that natriuretic peptides:
Question 10 options:

a)
Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion.

b)
Increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion.

c)
Increase the heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.

d)
Decrease the heart rate and increase potassium excretion.
Question 11 (5 points)

What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and coma in hypernatremia?
Question 11 options:

a)
High sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink.

b)
High sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels into the brain cells, causing them to swell.

c)
High sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain cells, which slows the synapses in the brain.

d)
High sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into the brain cells followed by water, causing the brain cells to swell.
Question 12 (5 points)

A major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses is the ratio between:
Question 12 options:

a)
Intracellular and extracellular Na+

b)
. Intracellular and extracellular K+

c)
Intracellular Na+ and extracellular K+

d)
Intracellular K+ and extracellular Na+
Question 13 (5 points)

In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells’ resting membrane potential?
Question 13 options:

a)
Hypopolarization

b)
Hyperexcitability

c)
Depolarization

d)
Repolarization
Question 14 (5 points)

Physiologic pH is maintained at approximately 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of:
Question 14 options:

a)
20:1

b)
1:20

c)
10:2

d)
10:5
Question 15 (5 points)

Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in edema because of:
Question 15 options:

a)
Losses or diminished production of plasma albumin

b)
Inflammation resulting from an immune response

c)
Blockage within the lymphatic channel system

d)
Sodium and water retention
Question 16 (5 points)

Hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in:
Question 16 options:

a)
A decrease in the activity of the oncogene, thus suppressing cancer development

b)
Deactivation of MLH1 to halt deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) repair

c)
An increase in tumor progression from benign to malignant

d)
Overexpression of micro-ribonucleic acid (miRNA), resulting in tumorigenesis
Question 17 (5 points)

The functions of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and CD1 molecules are alike because both:
Question 17 options:

a)
Are antigen-presenting molecules

b)
Bind antigens to antibodies

c)
Secrete interleukins (ILs) during the immune process

d)
Are capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Question 18 (5 points)

The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex functions uniquely by:
Question 18 options:

a)
Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T (Th) cell

b)
Secreting chemical signals to help cells communicate

c)
Recognizing the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte

d)
Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus
Question 19 (5 points)

The generation of clonal diversity includes a process that:
Question 19 options:

a)
Involves antigens that select lymphocytes with compatible receptors

b)
Allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cells

c)
Takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs

d)
Causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations
Save
Question 20 (5 points)

Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:
Question 20 options:

a)
Strong response from immunoglobulin M (IgM)

b)
Level of protection provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG)

c)
Memory cells for immunoglobulin E (IgE)

d)
Rapid response from immunoglobulin A (IgA)
Question 21 (5 points)

What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?
Question 21 options:

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a)
Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.

b)
Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.

c)
Cytotoxic T (Tc) lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.

d)
Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.
Question 22 (5 points)

When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of:
Question 22 options:

a)
Complement-mediated cell lysis

b)
Phagocytosis by macrophages

c)
Phagocytosis in the spleen

d)
Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products
Save
Question 23 (5 points)

? Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by:
Question 23 options:

a)
Endogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus

b)
Exogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus

c)
Immune complexes acting indirectly on the hypothalamus

d)
Cytokines acting indirectly on the hypothalamus
Question 24 (5 points)
Vaccines against viruses are created from:
Question 24 options:

a)
Killed organisms or extracts of antigens

b)
Live organisms weakened to produce antigens

c)
Purified toxins that have been chemically detoxified

d)
Recombinant pathogenic protein
Question 25 (5 points)

Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?
Question 25 options:

a)
Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.

b)
Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.

c)
Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells

d)
Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia.
Question 26 (5 points)

Two “hits” are required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes because:
Question 26 options:

a)
Each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent.

b)
The first hit stops tissue growth and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth.

c)
Tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to effect carcinogenesis.

d)
The first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation.
Question 27 (5 points)

What is the skin-related health risk induced by some types of chemotherapy?
Question 27 options:

a)
Infection

b)
Ultraviolet damage

c)
Pain

d)
Erythema
Question 28 (5 points)

When a child is diagnosed with cancer, which intervention has the greatest influence on the child’s mortality rate?
Question 28 options:

a)
Age at the time of diagnosis

b)
Participation in clinical trials

c)
Proximity to a major cancer treatment center

d)
Parental involvement in the treatment planning
Question 29 (5 points)

Reflex activities concerned with the heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain?
Question 29 options:

a)
Pons

b)
Midbrain

c)
Cerebellum

d)
Medulla oblongata
Question 30 (5 points)

The edema of the upper cervical cord after a spinal cord injury is considered life threatening because of which possible outcome?
Question 30 options:

a)
Hypovolemic shock from blood lost during the injury

b)
Breathing difficulties from an impairment to the diaphragm

c)
Head injury that likely occurred during the injury

d)
Spinal shock immediately after the injury
Question 31 (5 points)

What term is used to describe the complication that can result from a spinal cord injury above T6 that is producing paroxysmal hypertension, as well as piloerection and sweating above the spinal cord lesion?
Question 31 options:

a)
Craniosacral dysreflexia

b)
Parasympathetic dysreflexia

c)
Autonomic hyperreflexia

d)
Retrograde hyperreflexia
Save
Question 32 (5 points)

Atheromatous plaques are most commonly found:
Question 32 options:

a)
. In larger veins

b)
Near capillary sphincters

c)
At branches of arteries

d)
On the venous sinuses
Question 33 (5 points)

Multiple sclerosis is best described as:
Question 33 options:

a)
A CNS demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus

b)
Inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an autoimmune disorder

c)
The depletion of dopamine in the CNS as a result of a virus

d)
A degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral-immune factors
Question 34 (5 points)

Graves disease develops from:
Question 34 options:

a)
A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormone

b)
An autoimmune process during which lymphocytes and fibrous tissue replace thyroid tissue

c)
Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormones

d)
Ingestion of goitrogens, which inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing goiter
Question 35 (5 points)

Pathologic changes associated with Graves disease include:
Question 35 options:

a)
High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins

b)
Diminished levels of TRH

c)
High levels of TSH

d)
Diminished levels of thyroid-binding globulin
Question 36 (5 points)

A patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20, serum glucose 500 mg/dl, positive urine glucose and ketones, serum potassium (K+) 2 mEq/L, and serum sodium (Na+) 130 mEq/L. The patient
reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for a week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?
Question 36 options:

a)
Increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space.

b)
. Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresi

c)
Increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis.

d)
Decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss.
Question 37 (5 points)

Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as:
Question 37 options:

a)
Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues

b)
The need for lispro instead of regular insulin

c)
An increase in glucagon secretion from α cells of the pancreas

d)
The presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy β cells in the pancreas

Question 38 (5 points)

The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?
Question 38 options:

a)
Immunoglobulin E (IgE)

b)
Immunoglobulin G (IgG)

c)
Immunoglobulin M (IgM)

d)
T cells

Question 39 (5 points)

A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:
Question 39 options:

a)
Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration

b)
The dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime

c)
Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise

d)
Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity
Question 40 (5 points)

Hypoglycemia, followed by rebound hyperglycemia, is observed in those with:
Question 40 options:
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Question 1: Business

Strategy Club Assignment

Instruction
This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions 1. Go to the www.strategyclub.com website and review videos related to Chapter 2. Summarize ten key points. 2. Go to the www.strategyclub.com website and click on Student Resources and then click on Mission Statement Article and prepare your proposed mission statements for this course according to that article, which simply expands on the material presented in Chapter 2 about the statements being customer-focused. 3. Identify the nine components required for an effective mission statement. Find the new ASU mission and assess the extent to which it complies to these criteria. 4. If an organization does not have a vision or mission state, describe a good process for developing them.

Question 2: Business

Instruction
This assignment is an opportunity for you to reflect on how you negotiated the interest payment in the class financial simulation we carried out, and on the general outcomes in the market. In your 1-2 page write-up, make sure to answer the following questions: 1. For one Full Information session, describe your negotiation strategy by referring to your role (borrower, with high or low quality project, or lender), the interest payment you agreed to, and your final profit. 2. Describe your negotiation strategy in one Limited Information session, by referring to the same items as in question 1 above. 3. What do you think are some problems arising in trading with Limited Information as based on your experience in the financial market simulation? Explain. 4. How do you think the limited information trading impacted the agreed interest rate? Did it impact high and low quality borrowers in the same way? How about lenders? Overall, who benefited and who was hurt by the lack of information? Explain. For your reference, here is the Excel sheet containing the transactions from the class simulation:

Question 3: Education

Instruction
PART 1: Students are to submit a matrix that compares the three disability laws in relation to the specified components (a – h). The matrix provides side-by-side comparisons of each law. A template of the matrix is provided. Also the rubric is attached. Please be sure to review the rubric. A. Type of Law B. Eligibility criteria C. Evaluation procedures/guidelines D. Services provided to support students and parents E. Population(s) served (age groups covered) F. Due Process procedures – Parental Rights G. Funding source(s) to support special services provided H. Administrative Office or Agency that monitors and enforces the law PART 2: Video reflections (3 videos) Click on each link below to watch a short video about individuals with InD, LD, and ADHD. Write a brief summary of each video, which highlights significant shifts in the manner in which individuals with specific disabilities are treated or perceived by others. What were your overall impressions; were they positive or negative? Did the content of the video cause you to change your perceptions of individuals with specific disabilities? Why or why not? 1. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=0gTtwMGHPes 2. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CYHzJGTA6KM 3. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=fWCocjh5aK0&feature=youtu.be Your reflections/reactions to the videos assigned should be edited for minor grammatical errors and adhere to the general writing style and formatting guidelines of the APA Manual (6th ed.).

COMPONENTS:
Provide a description of each component below.
IDEA 2004 Section 504 ADA
Type of Law
(2 points)

Broad Eligibility Criteria
(2 points)

Evaluation Procedures/Guidelines
(2 points)

Types of Services Provided
(2 points)

Population Served: Age Group(s) Covered
(2 point)

Due Process Procedures
(2 points)

Special Funds Provided to Implement the Law
(1 point)

Administrative Office or Agency that Monitors/Enforces the Law (2 points)

Total Points: _______ (max. 15 points)

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Question 4: Education

Instruction
PART 1: Answer the following questions in a paragraph each (4-5 sentences required for each question) 1. Why is parent participation so critical to the IEP process? Why have legislators mandated parent and family participation? 2.To what extend do cultures influence educational practices, and to what extend do educational practices influence cultures? 3. Identify common barriers to effective communication between parents and educators. Describe at least three “best practice” strategies teachers could use to promote effective and frequent communication with parents of children with disabilities. Describe three additional “best practices” that promote active parental engagement and meaningful partnerships. PART 2: The literature is replete with documentation that active parent involvement is highly correlated with positive student outcomes. Extensive research has been dedicated to better understanding the underlying issues as to why some parents actively participate in their child’s school activities while others do not, despite the sometimes numerous attempts made by teachers and the school administration to get parents involved. The required article reading presents the findings of a research study that explored parents’ perceptions of the schools’ efforts to get them engaged in their child’s education. Instructions: Read and submit your critique of the following journal article: Rodriguez, R. J., Blatz, E. T. & Elbaum, B. (2014). Parents’ views of schools’ involvement efforts. Exceptional Children, 8(1), 79-95. doi: 10.1177/0014402914532232 Your critique should include a brief summary of the content that highlights the main points expressed in the article. Include in your critique your perspectives and reactions to what the authors said or recommended, making sure you support or justify your viewpoints with examples or references to other articles and resources. Submission Instructions: Article critiques must be carefully edited and formatted according to APA (6th ed.). Critiques should range between 2 – 3 typed pages, not including the reference page.

Question 5: English
DOCUMENTED ESSAY: Literature Research Paper on Alice Walker’s Novel The Color Purple
As part of your coursework for Gender Roles in Literature / ENG 226, you will be writing a documented research essay, on a literary topic of your choice, which analyzes Alice Walker’s seminal novel The Color Purple. The purpose of this paper is for you to demonstrate your ability to research and analyze a specific topic about the novel, develop an interpretive argument, and synthesize your findings into a unified, coherent, and analytical documented essay.
TOPIC: You may develop any literary topic you wish about the novel, except for biographical studies of Alice Walker. Your documented research essay must focus on the author’s writing, not her life. For example, some possible topics you might consider for your research paper:
➢ Ebonics and the African-American Vernacular in The Color Purple
➢ The Sexual Awakening of Celie
➢ The Role of Sofia in Celie’s Life – and in the Lives of Other Characters –in The Color Purple ➢ The Power of the Feminine as Exhibited in The Color Purple
➢ Celie’s Letters to God and the African-American Slave Narratives (such as Frederick Douglass’ Narrative of the Life of . . . an American Slave and Solomon Northup’s Twelve Years a Slave)
➢ Gender Roles and Their Impact in The Color Purple
SOURCES: You should use your research as a vehicle to drive your own thoughts, deliberations, and arguments as you write your essay. As well as your own thoughts, analyses, interpretations, and conclusions on your chosen topic, your paper must have:
➢ One primary source (the literature text itself). You must include direct quotes and paraphrased cited quotations from The Color Purple in your paper.
➢ At least THREE (3) secondary Scholarly Academic sources (writings about the literary text) of two pages or longer:
o At least one secondary source of information/analysis/critical study must be from a peer-reviewed article from an academic scholarly database. Good scholarly databases to start your research are the following (accessible via RCC Library Website):
▪ EBSCO Humanities Source
▪ GALE Artemis Literary Sources
▪ Literature Criticism Online
▪ JSTOR
o At least one of the secondary sources of information/analysis/critical study should be from a BOOK in print, either an e-book or paper & ink (NOTE: a paper & ink physical book earns you extra-credit points!)
Please Note: You should avoid using Internet sites ending with <.net> or <.com>. These sites are usually commercial, not scholarly, and therefore too superficial for college-level work. Use them to gather initial, general information to START your search. They should NEVER be your sole source of information.
FORMAT: Your paper must be / must have:
➢ At least 1500 words / about five pages of text in length (word count does not include the Works Cited page)
➢ Written utilizing correct MLA-8 citation and formatting rules
➢ Double-spaced, typed, using 12-point font size, Times New Roman or comparable font ➢ Quotes taken from the Original Literature (the Primary Source)
➢ At least two (2) short direct quotations
➢ One long (block) direct quotation
➢ At least two (2) paraphrased quotations
➢ All Support Materials, to be submitted with the documented essay
➢ Submitted into Blackboard no later than the due dates for draft & final essay
Question 6: Mathematics

MAC1105 Discussion Assignment 2: Solving Quadratic Equations The purpose of this assignment is to recognize and apply the different methods for solving quadratic equations.

MAC1105 Discussion Assignment 2: Solving Quadratic Equations

The purpose of this assignment is to recognize and apply the different methods forsolving quadratic equations.

Use the Discussions Link in Falcon Online to Complete Steps 1, 2, and 3

Step 1: Choose a method, covered in Section 1.5 of the textbook, (factoring,square root property, completing the square, and the quadratic formula) to solveeach of the following quadratic equations. Each method can be used only ONCE.

A) 4×2 – 27 = 0
B) 4×2 – 8x – 5 = 0
C) 4×2 – 8x – 12 = 0
D) 4×2 – 9x – 7 = 0

You may solve the equation if that clarifies which method should be used, but the solutions and answers should not be typed into the Discussion Board orsubmitted to the Assignments Link.

Step 2: In a posting to the Discussion Board in Falcon Online, explain the solutionmethod you chose for each equation and why you chose it. Refer to each equationby letter when stating the solution method. It is not necessary to post the solutions and answers. The posting should be written with complete sentences and proper grammar. The following explanation is not an acceptable part of the posting: “Thiswas the last method left.”

Step 3: Next, read at least two original posts by other students. After reading atleast two other original posts, reply to one other original post with acorrection/addition that enhances the explanation.

Use the Assignments Link in Falcon Online to Complete Steps 4 and 5

Step 4: Use the Equation Editor in MS Word to type a document showing thecomplete solution
(all steps) and correct answer to both of the following problems

The document should be saved in .docx, .doc, .pdf, or .rtf format.

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Question 7: Health Care

Instruction
What are some research designs that justify themselves in the field of nursing research? Choose one and explain why you chose it. Give an example of how this research design is used in your nursing discipline. Two References within five years. APA formate

Question 8: Other

Instruction
For this Signature Assignment, develop and present a proposal for your intended research using a quantitative design. While the most important elements in any proposal are the fundamentals of the problem, purpose, and research questions, the bulk of the assignment will be the methodology. You will want to organize this by subheadings. The actual headings and information that needs to be included in part depend on the method used to collect the data. In studies involving the collection of primary data, you want to be sure to include the details of your sampling plan, measurement of variables, the actual data collection procedure, plan of analysis, and justification for your decisions. Be sure to include the following information in your proposal: •Introduction •Statement of the Problem •Purpose Statement •Research Questions •Hypotheses: Null and Alternative for each research question •Methodology ◦Research Design: Specific quantitative method to be used and rationale (Ex. experiment, survey, etc.) ◦Operationalization of Variable: Specification of the concepts to be measured, the operationalization of the variable(s) to be used to measure the concepts, the question(s)/scale(s) to be used and the resulting level of measurement. ◦Sample design: Specification of the population, method, sample size, specific procedures, and justification. ◦Data collection procedure: Explanation of how the data will be collected. ◦Intended data analysis: How will you analyze the data to test the hypotheses and provide answers to the research questions, including descriptive and inferential statistics? Provide your rationale. •Limitations: Any recognized limitations of the proposed study. •References In this assignment, you are expected to incorporate all previous instructor feedback. Your prospectus must be in APA format and be of the quality expected of doctoral-level work. All research elements must be in alignment and reflect a cohesive and comprehensive research study. Length: Your paper should be between 13 -15 pages, not including title and reference page. References: Include a minimum of ten (10) scholarly sources. Your presentation should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course and provide new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

Question 9: Psychology

Instruction
Vicarious trauma is similar to but distinctly different from burnout and counter-transference. To treat and prevent vicarious trauma effectively, you must be able to distinguish between the three phenomena. Since vicarious trauma, burnout, and counter-transference are closely related, consider how you would educate future supervisees in understanding the similarities and differences of each. For this Application, review this week’s Course Media “Introduction with Laura Simpson” and consider the implications vicarious trauma may have on the counseling process. The assignment: (2–3 pages) Explain the similarities and differences between vicarious trauma and burnout. Explain the similarities and differences between vicarious trauma and counter-transference. Explain two implications vicarious trauma might have on the counseling process. Be specific. Explain one insight you had or conclusion you drew for each comparison. Be specific. Support your Application Assignment with specific references to all resources used in its preparation. You are asked to provide a reference list only for those resources not included in the Learning Resources for this course.

Question 10: Physics

A spacecraft is moving through empty space at 8 m/s-1 . A meteoroid travelling at 15m/s-1 comes from behind and at an angle of 45 degrees to the line of movement of the rocket , crashes into the rocket and becomes embedded in it. the rocket has a mass of 350kg and the meteorite mass is 20kg . calculate the velocity of the rocket.

Question 11: Business

you are working for a company that is considering investing in a foreign country. Investing in countries with different traditions is an important element of your company’s long-term strategic goals. As such, management has requested a report regarding the attractiveness of alternative countries based on the potential return of FDI. Accordingly, the ranking of the top 25 countries in term of FDI attractiveness is a crucial ingredient for your report. A colleague mentioned a potentially useful tool called he Foreign District Investment (FDI) Confidence Index. The FDI Confidence Index is a regular survey of global executives conducted be A.T. Kearney. Find this index and provide additional information regarding how the index is constructed.

Question 12: Statistics

A recent ACT administered to a local high school yielded the following results: Mean = 24.4 and Standard Deviation = 4.2. Which of the following is true? (5 points)
⦁  a. 65% of the students scored between 16 and 32.8
⦁  b. 95% of the students scored between 16 and 33.8
⦁  c. 65% of the students scored between 20.2 and 28.6
⦁  d. 95% of the students scored between 20.2 and 28.6

Question 13: Finance

Boots Ltd sells its goods with terms of 3/12 EOM, net 70. What is the implicit cost of the trade credit?

Question 14: Other

Management Information Systems

Many organizations have started using behavioral targeting in order to capture your website visitor movements. This data is used in order to personalize advertising when you are surfing the web. Some businesses have started collecting personal information outside of your web clicking to create a profile of you. Do you have any personal issues with these practices? At what point could this type of data collection turn into an ethical dilemma? How about a legal issue? Must be 200 words please cite and reference all work.

Case Study Vodafone: A Giant Global ERP Implementation
Vodafone Group PLC is the largest mobile service provider by revenue in the world, with 400 million customers across Europe, the Middle East, Africa, Asia Pacific, and the United States. In 2013, it had revenues of $64.6 billion and more than 86,000 employees working in over 30 countries. Since its founding nearly 30 years ago, the business has experienced phenomenal growth, largely by establishing local operating companies that provides products and services to their local markets.
As a result, the company was very decentralized, lacking common practices, centralized operations, and data sharing among its various operating companies. Most of Vodafone’s mobile subsidiaries operated as independent companies with their own business processes. Vodafone was a network of individual businesses, but it wanted to function more like a single global firm to better deal with competitive pressures. Management called for a major business transformation to make this happen.
In 2006, Vodafone’s board of directors approved the “Evolution Vodafone” Business Transformation Program” (EVO) designed to refashion Vodafone into a truly global company, with a centralized shared services organization and common worldwide business processes in finances, human resources, and supply chain management for all of the operating companies. (Shared services refers to the consolidation of business operations that are used by multiple parts of the same organization in order to reduce costs and redundancy.) A common SAP ERP system would provide the technology platform for these changes by supporting information-sharing and common business processes that would simplify and speed up work throughout the company. Additional software tools from Informatica, Opentext, Readsoft, Sabrix, Redwood, HP, and Remedy that could integrate with SAP were added to the mix.
Vodafone’s system turned out to be one of the biggest SAP ERP implementations in the world. How did Vodafone pull it off? First of all, Vodafone’s management realized the company lacked the expertise and resources to manage such a complex project entirely on its own. It enlisted the consulting firms Accenture and IBM to provide skills and services that this ambitious project required and which were not available inside the company.
The company spent a year identifying and designing its new business processes and establishing the scope of this project. The management team wanted to limit risks to non-customer-facing processes that were nevertheless important sources of value for the firm. Customer-facing front-end processes were excluded from the first phase of the rollout to keep the transformation more manageable.
Procurement was targeted as the first set of processes to be transformed using the new ERP system. Vodafone had been allowing each of its local companies to manage its own procurement, which prevented it from leveraging the massive purchasing power the company could obtain by managing relationships with material and service suppliers from a single entity. By generating savings from centralized procurement, the transformation project would be able to quickly show a return on investment and win further support. Vodafone did not establish a centralized procurement department but instead created a centralized procurement company based in Luxembourg that uses the SAP ERP platform. Most of the company’s spending goes through this central organization. Suppliers benefit because the system helps them plan their sales to Vodafone and they only need to work with a single purchaser instead of many. This new way of doing business included a new purchase-to-pay process in which invoices are approved automatically for payment by matching them with purchase orders and receipts.
Once the new procurement process and organization were running, Vodafone started creating a centralized shared services organization based on the SAP ERP system. It selected Budapest, Hungary as the pilot location for this new arrangement. Vodafone Hungary is a mid-sized company with 2,000 employees with a small IT platform based on Oracle software. This made Vodafone Hungary more receptive to changing its information system and business processes than Vodafone organizations in larger countries, and Hungary had already been using Oracle systems. There, Vodafone built an entire shared services organization from scratch while simultaneously implementing the SAP ERP system. Vodafone then set up two more shared services organizations in India running on SAP.
After Hungary, Vodafone implemented the new procurement process and SAP software for its German operating company. Germany is Vodafone’s largest market, and accounts for more than 20 percent of Vodafone’s total revenue. Vodafone Germany is a much larger organization than Vodafone Hungary, with 13,000 employees, over 130 local legacy systems, and many customized business processes to replace. Work habits were more deeply entrenched, and Vodafone encountered some employee resistance as it tried to implement the new systems and processes. To minimize risk, Vodafone used a phased, incremental implementation, did a tremendous amount of testing, and made all the necessary system modifications before the system went live. Special support teams were dispatched to work with all the employees affected by the transition. These efforts helped address problems and employee resistance before they got out of hand. Once the German implementation was deemed successful, Vodafone rolled out the new system at many more operating companies, prioritizing the implementations based on each operating company’s size, complexity, and willingness to change.
No two rollouts proceeded the same way because each operating company had unique challenges and demands. Many of these companies had grown rapidly, and had numerous legacy systems based on local requirements. There were large numbers of users, interfaces, and legal requirements to deal with. Vodafone’s project team had to balance the need to proceed rapidly with the need to ensure that the system was implemented carefully.
Vodafone’s implementation plan called for a core project team to visit each individual operating company and implement the new processes locally, assisted by a systems integrator and local resources. Local teams and senior management met with the global teams, IT consultants, and local IT vendors in a friendly environment to encourage knowledge-sharing and openness to change. The success of each rollout was based on multiple factors, including the number and complexity of each unit’s legacy systems, the skills of each local project team, and the willingness of each local organization to embrace change. Vodafone enlisted the services of the global consulting firm Accenture to provide skills where needed and assist with change management in the local companies. Over time, the Vodafone project team and the Accenture consultants learned how to tailor their activities to the needs of each operating company. For example, if no representatives from an operating company showed up for the project launch meeting or they attended but showed little interest, the project team knew that company might be less cooperative. In such cases, the project would require more resources and attention.
The project team also had to be sensitive to local trends as system rollouts took place. For instance, if an operating company was located in a country experiencing economic downturn, its employees might be more resistant to the rollout. Some might see a major business and technology change as an improvement in their situation, while others might see it as another thing to cope with during a very stressful time.
As it finished rolling out the system to its remaining operating companies, the Vodafone project team used what it had learned to make improvements to its earlier ERP implementations. For example, testing and employee feedback revealed that more attention should be paid to usability. So, the project team enhanced the system’s interfaces to make them more user-friendly.
Given the nature of the business, Vodafone’s management wants about 80% of the company’s internal transactions to take place on a mobile device. According to Niall O’Sullivan, Vodafone’s Global Finance Transformation Director, management believes mobile apps will be a major advantage in driving compliance, increasing ease of use, and reducing resistance to the actual processes themselves. The goal is to have the vast majority of user interactions with the system take place on a mobile phone. According to O’Sullivan, mobility provides easy access for employees who don’t typically engage with the SAP system, so more employees are using the system. The more people use the system, the greater the return on investment. Over 60,000 employees around the world now use the new system, with 80,000 expected by the end of 2014.
Vodafone is now rolling out some of its enterprise applications for mobile devices, and so far, four have been selected. The first to go mobile was a travel and expense reporting application. Employees are able to take a photo of their receipts and get reimbursed without using any paper, and they can issue or approve requests for leave on their mobile phones all at one time. This application has reduced the time required to file travel expenses from 30 minutes to 10 minutes, with 7,500 expense claims filed each week, resulting in 300 person-days’ potential savings per week. Vodafone’s future mobile plans call for the development of a mobility portal and the integration of approval applications with finance, HR, and electronic sourcing.
Vodafone’s business process transformation and ERP system have increased business efficiency and produced annual cost savings of $719 million. The total cost of ownership (TCO) of information technology has been lowered. Throughout the world, Vodafone has a consistent way of working and a more unified organizational structure. Getting the various operating companies to think and act more uniformly and to adopt a shared service model has produced benefits that are not immediately quantifiable, but should lead to further profitability in the long run.
Sources: “Customer Journey,” Vodafone Group PLC. www.mysap.com, accessed May 28, 2014,”www.vodafone.com, accessed May 29, 2014; Derek DuPreez, “Vodafone HANA Project Moves Beyond Trial Despite Skills Challenge,” TechWorld, March 11, 2013; “Using SAP MaxAttention to Safeguard the Global Rollout of SAP ERP,” www.mysap.com, accessed April 8, 2013; and David Hannon, “Vodafone Walks the Talk,” SAP InsiderPROFILES, October-December 2012.
Case Study Questions
⦁ 9-13 Identify and describe the problem discussed in this case. What management, organization, and technology factors contributed to the problem?
⦁ 9-14 Why did Vodafone have to spend so much time dealing with change during its business transformation?
⦁ 9-15 Why was an ERP system required for Vodafone’s global business transformation?
⦁ 9-16 What management, organization, and technology issues had to be addressed by the Vodafone project team to ensure the transformation would be successful?
⦁ 9-17 What were the business benefits of Vodafone’s global business transformation? How did it change decision making and the way the company operated?

Instructions

Introduction:
The main learning outcome for this unit addresses advanced information systems solutions. You need to be able to understand not only the concepts behind implementing an advanced solution like ERP, but also the management and technological factors involved in an implementation, the value added by implementing advanced systems, what prompts the need for an advanced system like an ERP system, and the potential benefits of implementing IS advanced systems such as ERP systems. This case gives them a successfully implemented case to analyze.
Assignment Instructions:
Review what you have learned about enterprise resource planning (ERP) from the textbook and from the unit’s study guide.
Analyze the case study titled “Vodafone: A Giant Global ERP Implementation” on pp. 376-378 in your textbook.
For this assignment, you will need to:
analyze and discuss the central issue(s) faced by Vodafone, including the contributing management and technological factors;
explain why ERP was a necessary information system solution to address the organization’s issues;
evaluate the success of Vodafone’s implementation plan and provide one suggestion to improve the process;
discuss the value the new ERP system brought to Vodafone as a company; and
summarize your findings in a two to three page paper.

Course Learning Outcomes for Unit VI
Upon completion of this unit, students should be able to:
9. Examine advanced information systems solutions such as ERP (enterprise resource planning) and SAP (software application and products).
⦁ 9.1  Explain the value added to organizations by implementing advanced information systems
solutions.
⦁ 9.2  Examine different advanced information systems solutions available for businesses.
⦁ 9.3  Analyze different features and functionality offered by advanced information systems solutions.
Reading Assignment
Chapter 9: Achieving Operational Excellence and Customer Intimacy: Enterprise Applications Chapter 10: E-Commerce: Digital Markets, Digital Goods
Unit Lesson
Advanced Information Systems
What exactly are advanced information system solutions? Most people who have worked in an office setting have a good understanding of the processes that affect their everyday lives. They understand that the data they enter or scan is stored in a database, and certain processes they run may close out a monthly account, process a payroll run, or bill a customer. These types of processes, while they seem separate, are often very integrated.
In years past, organizations had large mainframes. These mainframes had to process transactions in batches, usually at night, and until that batch process happened, the screens you were viewing were not always completely correct. For example, you could place an order for a customer, but you would not see the order until the next day. Unfortunately, that also meant that you could not see the inventory reduction until the next day as well. This means you might place an order and there might not be any of that item left in stock at the time. A salesperson or customer service representative might have to go look at three or four different screens to get a good picture of the customer’s account health or to research a problem—even with this batching process. Once client-servers came to organizations, employees had to look at two completely different computers to research that same problem (until organizations could get all of their data and processes moved off of those old mainframes).
Now that businesses have grown so much, many of them have multiple product lines, systems, servers, and databases. In the past, managers would have to wait for big printouts of various reports to make business decisions. Enterprise resource planning (ERP) systems works to integrate all of those critical systems together so they can talk to each other. The applications that make up the enterprise software are created based on predefined best business practices. Think of it this way: When a business purchases a piece of equipment, that order is entered into accounting the same way for all businesses. If a customer makes a purchase, it should generally be handled the same way. When you hire someone, you have the same laws to follow. There may be some customization, but that is handled in the application as well (Laudon & Laudon, 2016).
From a managerial perspective, what is the value in enterprise systems?
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 1

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UNIT VI STUDY GUIDE
Advanced Information System Solutions
This is the question we have to ask ourselves when adopting any sort of informUaNtIioTnxsSyTstUemDYs sGoUluIDtioEn, is it not? We do not just spend large amounts of money on something without understanding the value it offers us
as a company. We have discussed the value of data in previous chapters. Among the other reasons enterprise systems bring us value, they also help us to have firm-wide information to make better decisions.
The bottom line is this: Advanced information system solutions can help organizations in many different ways, such as operating more effectively and efficiently, making better decisions, managing our goods more effectively, reaching our customers faster, and being more competitive and innovative. Anyone can see the value in that!
What Are Some Other Advanced Information System Solutions?
Supply chain management (SCM): Many large organizations (such as Walmart and Amazon) use supply chain management (SCM) to help their organization manage their suppliers and goods more efficiently. If you have thousands of suppliers and hundreds of thousands of orders, it would be impossible to keep up with everything. SCM software can manage all of this and allows for forecasting and decision making as well. Imagine that many of your suppliers are in other countries; this means you have a global supply chain that is even more complex to manage.
Customer relationship management (CRM): Customer relationship management (CRM) involves managing customers. Again, if you have 50,000 customers, how do you keep up with what they purchased? Sure, you can store that information in a database but would it be easy to manage those relationships? How would you keep up with the marketing incentives you have offered them? Better yet, what about the marketing incentives that you want them to pass on to their customers?
Systems application products (SAP): Systems application products (SAP) are a brand of enterprise resource systems. Oracle and Microsoft both have their own brands of enterprise resource systems as well. While all of these vendors offer very similar base functionalities, each of them compete against each other by bringing their own special capabilities to their enterprise resource system offerings.
E-commerce: Another type of advanced information systems involves e-commerce. The explosion of Internet purchasing is no surprise to anyone, but the technology involved in e-commerce is pretty unique. In the past, retailers had pretty tight control over everything. The options for consumers were not plentiful. Still, word of mouth was still prevalent so a business could suffer if it did not treat its customers well. Now, retailers have invited the world to comment on their websites. Sure, they can always delete bad comments, but knowledge is power. Have you ever had a bad experience at a store and wondered if it ever got past the customer service person that you complained to? E-commerce gives retailers global reach, which can be an advantage and a disadvantage. Advanced information systems have given retailers the ability to allow customers to interact with each other through social media-style functionality. Retailers can now personalize your viewing experience based on your web searches. This type of customer targeting was not possible before more advanced information systems were developed.
We have discussed business-to-consumer (B2C) e-commerce, but there have also been many types of e- commerce, e-commerce business models, and e-commerce revenue models developed. Social media is one of the most predominant focuses of marketing today. Another focus of late is m-commerce, which is mobile commerce.
One of the biggest boons to business-to-business e-commerce is the development of electronic data interchange (EDI). This service enables the transfer of data between two organizations. For example, an organization may receive an electronic bill from a supplier through EDI. Conversely, the organization can sent a notice of payment back to the supplier via EDI. An organization can send all of its UPS shipping information to UPS in the form of an EDI file.
Would any of this be possible without advanced information system solutions? What do you think the future holds for information systems and technology as businesses grow bigger and bigger?
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 2
Title
Reference UNIT x STUDY GUIDE Title
Laudon, K. C., & Laudon, J. P. (2016). Management information systems: Managing the digital firm [VitalSource Bookshelf version] (14th ed.). Retrieved from https://bookshelf.vitalsource.com/#/books/9780133898309/
Suggested Reading
The following journal article is a great study on the critical success factors involved in the implementation of enterprise systems. You are encouraged to review this information.
In order to access the resource below, you must first log into the myCSU Student Portal and access the Business Source Ultimate database within the CSU Online Library.
Ahmad, N., Haleem, A., & Syed, A. (2013). Compilation of critical success factors in implementation of enterprise systems: A study on Indian organizations. Global Journal Of Flexible Systems Management, 13(4), 217-232. doi:10.1007/s40171-013-0019-8.
Learning Activities (Nongraded)
Assume that you have been hired as the new Social Media Manager for the e-commerce division of a retail chain. Create a seven to ten PowerPoint slide presentation to outline your strategic plan for integrating social media into the existing e-commerce business for the organization.
You may use various sources including your textbook and the CSU Online Library. Be sure to cite all sources used in a reference slide with proper APA formatting. Cover and reference slides do not count in the length requirement. You may also use the slide notes function.
As this is a nongraded activity, this work cannot be uploaded to Blackboard. If you would like your professor’s feedback on your work, send this document to them in an email with a note that you would like to receive feedback on your non-graded activity.
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 3

Unit 6 Assessment

How can organizations create value by implementing an advanced information system solution paired with the appropriate business model?
Your response should be at least 200 words in length

What is social CRM? Why are some organizations hesitant to implement this advanced information system technology?
Your response should be at least 75 words in length.

Recall the e-commerce Internet business model discussed in the unit readings. Identify three different businesses that use this model and their successful descriptions for solutions to information systems.
Your response should be at least 75 words in length

Question 15: Mathematics

https://www.khanacademy.org/math/ap-statistics/probability-ap/randomness-probability-simulation/v/basic-probability
https://www.khanacademy.org/math/ap-statistics/probability-ap/randomness-probability-simulation/v/statistical-significan…

⦁ Explain, in your words, what significance means in this experiment. How does probability play a role in determining significance?
⦁ Explain, in your words, what made the experiment in 2 statistically significant?

Question 16: Physics
WORKSHEET Pre-Lab 2 (hand in at start of lab 2)
1. Consider an experiment where a marble is rolling between sensors for a computer controlled timer called a photogate. The sensor measures the time the photogate is blocked as the diameter of the marble passes by. You have measured the following quantities to determine the speed (v) of a marble rolling in front of a photogate. The uncertainty in time is estimated from the spread in values of several trials, and the size of the marble is known with a manufacturer specification on the uncertainty.
tblocked=(0.024±0.002)s and d=(2.54±0.01)cm
Determine the following, showing your work below neatly for each %σt %σd %σv σv and v.
These quantities mean: percent uncertainties in time blocked, diameter of marble, speed of marble respectively. Then the absolute uncertainty in the speed of marble, and finally the speed of the marble itself.
Your final reporting of the speed should look like (with numbers) v=________±_______cm/s
1
2. Consider the formula 2 ∆ . This is a kinematic equation relating final speed, initial speed, acceleration, and displacement. You will solve this equation for the acceleration, “a”, insert measured values for the other quantities and report “a” along with its uncertainty. The goal is to use error propagation to determine uncertainties.
You are given vi = 0.00 (consider this exact), and
vf = (1.87±0.04)m/s, and x=(30.0±0.3)cm.
Which rule will you apply to determine the result for acceleration along with its uncertainty?
Question 17: Mathematics
Question 8 Alone.
Compute k in the following table if the coefficient of correlation between X and Y is 0.9879.

MAT2001-SFE- Digital Assignment-1
⦁ Find the mean, median and mode for the following data.
⦁ The mean of five numbers 6,9,2,x,y is 5 and the standard deviation is x,y.

6. Find the values of
Class mark 10.5 30.5 50.5 70.5 90.5 110.5
Fequency 19 6 3 2 1 2
3. A continuous random variable has the probability density function . { kx4 −1 < x < 0
f(x) = 0 otherwise Find the value of k and also find P [(X > 1/2)/(X < −1/4)].
⦁ Find the first four moments about the origin for a random variable X having the probability density function f (x) = 4x(9 − x2 ) , 0 ≤ x ≤ 3.
81
⦁ An investment firm offers its customers municipal bonds that mature after varying number of years. Given that the cumulative distribution function of T , the number of years to maturity for
a randomly selected bond is,

 0, t < 1
 1 / 4 , 1 ≤ t < 3 F(t)=1/2, 3≤t<5 3/4, 5≤t<7
1, t≥7
Find (a)P(T = 5)(b)P(T > 3)(c)P(1.4 < T < 6)(d)P(T ≤ 5/T ≥ 2).
6. The waiting time, in hours, between successive speeders spotted by a radar unit is a continuous random variable with cumulative distributive function
{
0, x<0 1−e−8x, x≥0
F(x) =
Find the probability of waiting less than 12 minutes between successive speeders (i) using the
cumulative distribution function of X (ii) using the probability density function of X.
⦁ If the probability density function of X is given by
{ 2(1−x), 0<x<1 f(x) = 0, otherwise
(a) Show that E(Xr) = 2 . (b) Using this evaluate E[(2X + 1)2]. (r + 1)(r + 2)
⦁ Compute k in the following table if the coefficient of correlation between X and Y is 0.9879.
⦁ Ifthejointprobabilitydensityfunctionofvariable(X,Y)isgivenbyf(x,y)= 9(1+x+y) ,x> 2(1 + x)4(1 + y)4
X 1 3 k 7 8 10
Y 8 12 15 17 18 20
0, y > 0, find the mariginal densities of X and Y . Are they independent?
10. The joint density function of a R.V (X,Y) is given by f(x,y) = 8xy,0 < x < 1;0 < y < x. Find the mariginal and conditional density functions.
11. The joint density function of a random variable (X,Y) is given by f(x,y) = 8xy,1 ≤ x ≤ y ≤ 2
9 and = 0 , elsewhere. Find the mariginal and conditional density functions.
⦁ If the joint p.d.f of a two dimensional random variable (X,Y) is given by f (x, y) = 3(x + y), in x > 0, y > 0 and x + y ≤ 1 and =0, elsewhere, find Var(X), Var(y) and Cov(X,Y).
⦁ If the simple moments of a random variable X are given by E(Xr) = 0.6, for r = 1,2,3,…, show that P (X = 0) = 0.4, P (X = 1) = 0.6 and P (X ≤ 2) = 0.
⦁ The two regression lines are y = a+bx and x = c+dy. Find the values of E(X), E(Y) and rXY . Can you find SX and SY from them?
⦁ If X and Y are two independent variables with variances σX2 and σY2 , prove that r(X, X − Y ) = √σX .
σ X2 + σ Y2
⦁ If X and Y are two independent variables such that the correlation coefficient between (2X+Y)
and (X+2Y) is equal to 1, find the coefficient of correlation between X and Y. 2

Report values for %σvf %σx a %σa σa
Your last statement should look like a=________±__________m/s2.
2
Question 18: Health Care

Need 3 healthcare discussion questions answers to the following:
Take a few minutes to think about the healthcare system as it exists today.
(1) Discuss why quality management is critical?
(2) Explain the three principals of total quality which are customer focus, teamwork, and continuous improvement?
(3) Discuss two ways to ensure healthcare quality is important at the organizational, community, and national level.

In responding to the discussion questions, make sure you provide examples to support each part of the question, and each question should be answered with at least 250 words.
Total discussion questions should be at least 750 words minimum. Need this by Saturday Aug 31. If there are any questions, please let me know.

Question 19: Engineering

https://www.chegg.com/homework-help/questions-and-answers/show-steps-reduction-matlab-code-find-transfer-fuctions-q31106239

Question 20: Physics

A heavy block of mass 625 kg is suspended by a cable is moving downwards with an initial velocity of 7.3 m/s. If the tension in the cable as the block comes to rest is 5000 N calculate the distance travelled by the block(a) 25.0 m(b) 13.6 m(c) 2.72 m(d) 14.8 m

Question 21: General Question

This is a personal paper. It is not a research paper. You can use I,we,she,he etc (cannot be written in 3rd person). The subject is Group Process-write about a personal team and/or group experience including issues faced and how the issues were resolved. Must be 15 pages. No grammatical errors or typos.

Question 22: Health Care

Analysis of a Pertinent Healthcare Issue
The Quadruple Aim provides broad categories of goals to pursue to maintain and improve healthcare. Within each goal are many issues that, if addressed successfully, may have a positive impact on outcomes. For example, healthcare leaders are being tasked to shift from an emphasis on disease management often provided in an acute care setting to health promotion and disease prevention delivered in primary care settings. Efforts in this area can have significant positive impacts by reducing the need for primary healthcare and by reducing the stress on the healthcare system.

Changes in the industry only serve to stress what has always been true; namely, that the healthcare field has always faced significant challenges, and that goals to improve healthcare will always involve multiple stakeholders. This should not seem surprising given the circumstances. Indeed, when a growing population needs care, there are factors involved such as the demands of providing that care and the rising costs associated with healthcare. Generally, it is not surprising that the field of healthcare is an industry facing multifaceted issues that evolve over time.

In this module’s Discussion, you reviewed some healthcare issues/stressors and selected one for further review. For this Assignment, you will consider in more detail the healthcare issue/stressor you selected. You will also review research that addresses the issue/stressor and write a white paper to your organization’s leadership that addresses the issue/stressor you selected.

To Prepare:
⦁ Review the national healthcare issues/stressors presented in the Resources and reflect on the national healthcare issue/stressor you selected for study.
⦁ Reflect on the feedback you received from your colleagues on your Discussion post for the national healthcare issue/stressor you selected.
⦁ Identify and review two additional scholarly resources (not included in the Resources for this module) that focus on change strategies implemented by healthcare organizations to address your selected national healthcare issue/stressor.

The Assignment (3-4 Pages):
Analysis of a Pertinent Healthcare Issue
Develop a 3- to 4-page paper, written to your organization’s leadership team, addressing your selected national healthcare issue/stressor and how it is impacting your work setting. Be sure to address the following:
⦁ Describe the national healthcare issue/stressor you selected and its impact on your organization. Use organizational data to quantify the impact (if necessary, seek assistance from leadership or appropriate stakeholders in your organization).
⦁ Provide a brief summary of the two articles you reviewed from outside resources on the national healthcare issue/stressor. Explain how the healthcare issue/stressor is being addressed in other organizations.
⦁ Summarize the strategies used to address the organizational impact of national healthcare issues/stressors presented in the scholarly resources you selected. Explain how they may impact your organization both positively and negatively. Be specific and provide examples.

Looking Ahead
The paper you develop in Module 1 will be revisited and revised in Module 2. Review the Assignment instructions for Module 2 to prepare for your revised paper.

Develop a 3- to 4-page paper, written to your organization’s leadership team, addressing the selected national healthcare issue/stressor and how it is impacting your work setting. Be sure to address the following: ·   Describe the national healthcare issue/stressor you selected and its impact on your organization. Use organizational data to quantify the impact (if necessary, seek assistance from leadership or appropriate stakeholders in your organization).–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 23 (23%) – 25 (25%)
The response accurately and thoroughly describes in detail the national healthcare issue/stressor selected and its impact on an organization.
The response includes accurate, clear, and detailed data to quantify the impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor selected.
Good 20 (20%) – 22 (22%)
The response describes the national healthcare issue/stressor selected and its impact on an organization.
The response includes accurate data to quantify the impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor selected.
Fair 18 (18%) – 19 (19%)
The response describes the national healthcare issue/stressor selected and its impact on an organization that is vague or inaccurate.
The response includes vague or inaccurate data to quantify the impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor selected.
Poor 0 (0%) – 17 (17%)
The response describes the national healthcare issue/stressor selected and its impact on an organization that is vague and inaccurate, or is missing.
The response includes vague and inaccurate data to quantify the impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor selected, or is missing.
Feedback:
·   Provide a brief summary of the two articles you reviewed from outside resources, on the national healthcare issue/stressor and explain how the healthcare issue/stressor is being addressed in other organizations.–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 27 (27%) – 30 (30%)
A complete, detailed, and specific synthesis of two outside resources reviewed on the national healthcare issue/stressor selected is provided. The response fully integrates at least 2 outside resources and 2 or 3 course-specific resources that fully support the summary provided.
The response accurately and thoroughly explains in detail how the healthcare issue/stressor is being addressed in other organizations.
Good 24 (24%) – 26 (26%)
An accurate synthesis of at least one outside resource reviewed on the national healthcare issue/stressor selected is provided. The response integrates at least 1 outside resource and 2 or 3 course-specific resources that may support the summary provided.
The response explains how the healthcare issue/stressor is being addressed in other organizations.
Fair 21 (21%) – 23 (23%)
A vague or inaccurate summary of outside resources reviewed on the national healthcare issue/stressor selected is provided. The response minimally integrates resources that may support the summary provided.
The response explains how the healthcare issue/stressor is being addressed in other organizations that is vague or inaccurate.
Poor 0 (0%) – 20 (20%)
A vague and inaccurate summary of no outside resources reviewed on the national healthcare issue/stressor selected is provided, or is missing.
The response fails to integrate any resources to support the summary provided.
Feedback:
·   Summarize the strategies used to address the organizational impact of national healthcare issues/stressors presented in the scholarly resources you selected and explain how they may impact your organization both positively and negatively. Be specific and provide examples.–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 27 (27%) – 30 (30%)
A complete, detailed, and accurate summary of the strategies used to address the organizational impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor is provided.
The response accurately and thoroughly explains in detail how the strategies may impact an organization both positively and negatively, with specific and accurate examples.
Good 24 (24%) – 26 (26%)
An accurate summary of the strategies used to address the organizational impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor is provided.
The response explains how the strategies may impact an organization both positively and negatively. May include some specific examples.
Fair 21 (21%) – 23 (23%)
A vague or inaccurate summary of the strategies used to address the organizational impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor is provided.
The response explains how the strategies may impact an organization both positively and negatively that is vague or inaccurate. May include some vague or inaccurate examples.
Poor 0 (0%) – 20 (20%)
A vague and inaccurate summary of the strategies used to address the organizational impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor is provided, or is missing.
The response explains how the strategies may impact an organization both positively and negatively that is vague and inaccurate, or is missing. Does not include any examples.
Feedback:
Written Expression and Formatting – Paragraph Development and Organization: Paragraphs make clear points that support well-developed ideas, flow logically, and demonstrate continuity of ideas. Sentences are carefully focused—neither long and rambling nor short and lacking substance. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement and introduction is provided which delineates all required criteria.–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%)
Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity.
A clear and comprehensive purpose statement, introduction, and conclusion is provided which delineates all required criteria.
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 80% of the time.
Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment is stated, yet is brief and not descriptive.
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)
Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 60%–79% of the time.
Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment is vague or off topic.
Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity < 60% of the time.
No purpose statement, introduction, or conclusion was provided.
Feedback:
Written Expression and Formatting – English writing standards: Correct grammar, mechanics, and proper punctuation–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%)
Uses correct grammar, spelling, and punctuation with no errors.
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Contains a few (1 or 2) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors.
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)
Contains several (3 or 4) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors.
Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
Contains many (≥ 5) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors that interfere with the reader’s understanding.
Feedback:
Written Expression and Formatting – The paper follows correct APA format for title page, headings, font, spacing, margins, indentations, page numbers, parenthetical/in-text citations, and reference list.–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%)
Uses correct APA format with no errors.
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Contains a few (1 or 2) APA format errors.
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)
Contains several (3 or 4) APA format errors.
Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)

Question 23: Health Care

Evaluating a Statistical Study Assignment

To complete this assignment, select one of the articles below taken from the online library and answer the questions that follow.

Articles:
Trends in Patient Information Preferences and Acquisition
Determining College Performance of Allied Health students
The Impact of College Sports Success on the Quantity and Quality of Student Applications
Child Abuse: Radiologic-Pathologic Correlation
Reference Equations for the Six-Minute Walk in Healthy Adults

Questions:

⦁ Briefly summarize (2 or 3 sentences) the objectives and findings of the study
⦁ Describe the data analyzed in the study. Identify the data’s level of measurement. How was it collected? Evaluate possible sources of error or bias in the data.
⦁ What population characteristics or parameters were the researchers trying to evaluate or estimate? What sample statistics were used as indicators?
⦁ Identify one of the researcher’s null hypothesis and the corresponding alternate hypothesis. Did the researchers accept or reject the null hypothesis? What was the confidence interval (significance level) used for evaluating the hypothesis. Evaluate how choosing a different confidence interval could impact the execution or results of the study.
⦁ Identify the type I and type II errors associated with accepting or rejecting the null hypothesis. Given the context of the study, which type of error is more critical to avoid? Why?
⦁ How might the results of this study be used? Describe how the knowledge gained could be applied. Suggest additional research that could be pursued to supplement these findings.

Question 24: Mathematics

https://www.khanacademy.org/math/ap-statistics/probability-ap/randomness-probability-simulation/v/basic-probability
https://www.khanacademy.org/math/ap-statistics/probability-ap/randomness-probability-simulation/v/statistical-significance-experiment
⦁ Explain, in your words, what significance means in this experiment. How does probability play a role in determining significance?
⦁ Explain, in your words, what made the experiment in 2 statistically significant?

Question 25: Health Care

Evidence-Based Practice and the Quadruple Aim
Healthcare organizations continually seek to optimize healthcare performance. For years, this approach was a three-pronged one known as the Triple Aim, with efforts focused on improved population health, enhanced patient experience, and lower healthcare costs.
More recently, this approach has evolved to a Quadruple Aim by including a focus on improving the work life of healthcare providers. Each of these measures are impacted by decisions made at the organizational level, and organizations have increasingly turned to EBP to inform and justify these decisions.
To Prepare:
⦁ Read the articles by Sikka, Morath, & Leape (2015); Crabtree, Brennan, Davis, & Coyle (2016); and Kim et al. (2016) provided in the Resources.
⦁ Reflect on how EBP might impact (or not impact) the Quadruple Aim in healthcare.
⦁ Consider the impact that EBP may have on factors impacting these quadruple aim elements, such as preventable medical errors or healthcare delivery.
To Complete:
Write a brief analysis (no longer than 2 pages) of the connection between EBP and the Quadruple Aim.
Your analysis should address how EBP might (or might not) help reach the Quadruple Aim, including each of the four measures of:
⦁ Patient experience
⦁ Population health
⦁ Costs
⦁ Work life of healthcare providers
Write a brief analysis of the connection between evidence-based practice and the Quadruple Aim. Your analysis should address how evidence-based practice might (or might not) help reach the Quadruple Aim, including each of the four measures of:

·   Patient experience
·   Population health
·   Costs
·   Work life of healthcare providers–
Levels of Achievement: Excellent 77 (77%) – 85 (85%)
Good 68 (68%) – 76 (76%)
Fair 60 (60%) – 67 (67%)
Poor 0 (0%) – 59 (59%)
Written Expression and Formatting—Paragraph Development and Organization:
Paragraphs make clear points that support well-developed ideas, flow logically, and demonstrate continuity of ideas. Sentences are carefully focused—neither long and rambling nor short and lacking substance. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement and introduction is provided which delineates all required criteria.–
Levels of Achievement: Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%)
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)
Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
Written Expression and Formatting—English Writing Standards:
Correct grammar, mechanics, and proper punctuation.–
Levels of Achievement: Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%)
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)
Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
Written Expression and Formatting—The paper follows correct APA format for title page, headings, font, spacing, margins, indentations, page numbers, running head, parenthetical/in-text citations, and reference list.–
Levels of Achievement: Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)

Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)

less than 20% similarities
Question 26: English

I need 5 questions answered from my english class the book is called practical argument 3rd edition
Read Student Sample Essay pp. 361-367 and answer the questions below using complete sentences and clear explanations:
1. Summarize the argument Blaine is making in one sentence.
2. Give three examples of evidence that Blaine uses to prove her argument. Cite the page numbers. Do you think this is enough evidence to support her argument? Why? Why not?
3. Does Blaine give an opposing argument? If so, summarize what it is and how she refutes it.
4. Does Blaine establish a strong context for her argument? Explain why or why not by using specific examples from the text. Make sure to cite the page numbers when stating an example from the text.
5. Do you agree or disagree with Blaine’s argument? Why or why not.

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Question 27: Business

One way to be exposed to another culture is by examining the foods typical of that culture. In this exercise, you will need to create a limited guide to ethnic dining in your city or area. The finished guide will be descriptive in nature; it is not meant to be a rating guide.Purpose: The purpose of this exercise is to allow those students who have had only minimal exposure to cultural differences an opportunity to experience those differences through the common element of food. Students will create a basic ethnic dining guide for restaurants in their area. The guide is not meant to be a rating guide. It is simply meant to be an informative guide.
Instructions

Activities
⦁ Identify ethnic dining categories for inclusion in your guide. Once you have identified categories for your area, make a list of restaurants for each category.
⦁ You will need to create a data collection form so that the same information is collected from each restaurant. For example, you will want to include the name, address, and phone number for each restaurant. Think of other information that would be helpful.
⦁ Choose and complete the assignment for three of the restaurants from the list you have generated in activity One. Consider visiting an assortment of ethnic restaurants. If your budget allows, eat at a few of the restaurants in addition to collecting the information. After you have all the information, review and compare your findings.
⦁ Was there a meal or type of food that you particularly liked? Disliked? Which type of ethnic restaurant seemed most foreign to you? Why do you think that was?
Question 28: Business

Identify and describe the specific issues Maalick encountered in the workplace. Do the
actions of other workers at Treton represent discrimination and harassment? What
elements of law are important for Treton to consider?
Evaluate the, Marta Ford, in response to Maalick’s situation. What could she have done
to prevent the situation and what more could she do to ensure that this type of situation
would not occur in the future?

3. How would you characterize Clive Jenkins’ behavior and response to this situation?
4. What resolution to this situation might Judith Dixon suggest?
5. What are the broader implications of this situation for Treton? What type of
organizational review might Dixon initiate or suggest from a corporate perspective?

Question 29: Business

One way to be exposed to another culture is by examining the foods typical of that culture. In this exercise, you will need to create a limited guide to ethnic dining in your city or area. The finished guide will be descriptive in nature; it is not meant to be a rating guide.Purpose: The purpose of this exercise is to allow those students who have had only minimal exposure to cultural differences an opportunity to experience those differences through the common element of food. Students will create a basic ethnic dining guide for restaurants in their area. The guide is not meant to be a rating guide. It is simply meant to be an informative guide.
Instructions

Activities
⦁ Identify ethnic dining categories for inclusion in your guide. Once you have identified categories for your area, make a list of restaurants for each category.
⦁ You will need to create a data collection form so that the same information is collected from each restaurant. For example, you will want to include the name, address, and phone number for each restaurant. Think of other information that would be helpful.
⦁ Choose and complete the assignment for three of the restaurants from the list you have generated in activity One. Consider visiting an assortment of ethnic restaurants. If your budget allows, eat at a few of the restaurants in addition to collecting the information. After you have all the information, review and compare your findings.
⦁ Was there a meal or type of food that you particularly liked? Disliked? Which type of ethnic restaurant seemed most foreign to you? Why do you think that was?
Question 30: General Question

For this discussion post, define the fact pattern in the Netflix case study, which you read about in the following Module One articles and presentation:
⦁ Library Article: How Netflix Reinvented HR
⦁ Article: The Woman Behind the Netflix Culture Doc
⦁ Presentation: Netflix Culture: Freedom & Responsibility
⦁ This information will be a key part of your final project for this course. According to Legal Dictionary, a fact pattern is “a concise description of all the occurrences or circumstances of a particular case, without any discussion of their consequences under the law.”
⦁ In other words, it provides the basic information—who, what, when, where, and why (which we will call the 5W approach):
⦁ Who: The individuals and organization involved in the issue
⦁ What: The issue at hand. What variables have created the situation that needs resolution, and what facts regarding the individuals involved and the organization can be codified as factual statements.
⦁ When: The timetable as to when the issue began and the approximate timeframe in which it must be settled. If not definitively known, provide an estimate of the duration.
⦁ Where: The geographic location, department, or division in which the problem exists.
⦁ Why: The drivers that created the situation needing resolution.
⦁ How: The ways in which the organizational culture may directly and/or indirectly impact the negotiation in an interpersonal or organization conflict situation.

For this discussion post, define the fact pattern in the Netflix case study, which you read about in the following Module One articles and presentation:

Question 31: General Question

This forum is designed to engage us in a discussion involving a comparison between Kouzes and Posner’s Leadership Practices and Senge’s Five disciplines (click for link).  Support your assertions with scholarly source material. Examine the document showing the table of comparisons and answer the following:
1. In what ways are the two sources suggestive of similar theoretical concepts and/or presentation?
Values/Actions Congruence, Shared Vision, Learning Together Through Collaboration,
2. How are they different?
Question the Status Quo, Integration of the Whole
3. What are your conclusions about the thinking of these leadership scholars as expressed in the table and with regard to additional sources you may elect to include in your discussion.

Question 32: Education

1.      What building blocks can an organization use to sustain competitive advantage?
2.      Define value creation and the components that can be used to determine value creation per unit. How is value creation related to competitive advantage?
What is a value chain? Why is efficiency so important in an organizations value chain?
3.      What does an internal analysis help a company to determine? How does this contribute to the overall health (value creation, competitive advantage, profitability) of the company?
4.      Why do companies fail? How does competitive advantage relate to failure?
5.      What are functional level strategies? How can functional level strategy contribute to efficiency?
6.      Describe economies of scale and its relation to competitive advantage. What strategic significance does economies of scale have?
7.      How does innovation relate to competitive advantage? What can be done to sustain innovation?
8.      How does customer relations contribute to competitive advantage? What is the effect of customer relations on value creation and its components?
9.

Assignment 2

Chapter 3 Questions:

10.  Define value creation and the components that can be used to determine value creation per unit. How is value creation related to competitive advantage?

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Question 33: Health Care

NURS6521 Final Exam Answers Latest Version Walden University

NURS6521 Final Exam Answers Latest Version Walden University

Question 34: Health Care

NURS4115 Week 3 Assignment
NURS4115 Week 3 Assignment

Question 35: Health Care

Week 1 Discussion Nurs 6051 Transforming Nursing and Healthcare Through Technology

Question 36: English

Reform of Healthcare Market and Regulation and Antitrust Policy in Health Care”  Please respond to the following:
⦁ From the e-Activity, synthesize the primary ways in which consumer and provider incentives work together to achieve cost reduction under the Affordable Care Act (ACA). Provide at least one (1) example of such synthesis to support your response.
⦁ Defend or critique the key provisions of antitrust legislation in the United States. Analyze the major ways in which quality issues in health care affect antirust healthcare policy. Provide at least one (1) example of antitrust laws in action to support your response.

From the e-Activity, synthesize the primary ways in which consumer and provider incentives work together to achieve cost reduction under the Affordable Care Act (ACA). Provide at least one (1) example of such synthesis to support your response.

Question 37: History

Strayer University – HIS 105Assignment 1 HIS 105.docx
Dealing with Diversity in America from Reconstruction Through the 1920’s

Question 38: History

Strayer University, Washington HIS 105 Assignment 2.2: Policemen of the WorldFinal Paper
Assignment 2.2: Policemen of the WorldFinal Paper
Due Week 10 and worth 120 points

You have already developed a thesis statement and developed an outline in which you explored two (2) real-life international incidents from the past five (5) years involving the United States as they received an elevated status as a world power. Now you will develop the final paper in which you explore your main points in detail.

Write a three to five (3-5) page paper in which you:

Introduce your paper with your previously crafted thesis statement.
Identify two to three (2-3) international events from the past five years that can be traced back to a foreign policy created after the Civil War.
Discuss three (3) aspects of US history since 1865 that has led to the US’s rise as a world super power policeman.
Identify three to five (3-5) international incidents since World War II where America has taken on a policing role.
Determine three to five (3-5) driving forces that fueled international policy decisions involving the international incidents you outlined previously. (Consider treaties, exit strategies, elections, wars, etc.)
Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Analyze the rise of the United States to a world “superpower” and how that status has shaped its internal developments in recent decades.
Recognize the major turning points in American history since the Civil War.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in contemporary U.S. history.
Write clearly and concisely about contemporary U.S. history using proper writing mechanics.

Question 39: Gender Studies

Create an overview of the process and steps involved in human resource planning, recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and hiring of employees.
Develop a comprehensive strategy for training new employees. Focusing on the role of the new employees within the organization.
Propose two to four (2-4) training strategies aimed at motivating the employees to learn key aspects about their new jobs.
Determine key issues that human resource management employees would be likely to encounter in the health care field. Prepare a plan that will enable the new employees to address each issue which includes instructional strategies, resources that will be utilized, and evaluation criteria for determining success.
Design at least three (3) visual components that enhance the program you have outlined, such as charts or diagrams.
Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources

Question 40: Gender studies

Apply information from the Aquifer Case Study to answer the following discussion questions:
⦁ Discuss the Mr. Payne’s history that would be pertinent to his genitourinary problem. Include chief complaint, HPI, Social, Family and Past medical history that would be important to know.
⦁ Describe the physical exam and diagnostic tools to be used for Mr. Payne. Are there any additional you would have liked to be included that were not?
⦁ Please list 3 differential diagnoses for Mr. Payne and explain why you chose them.  What was your final diagnosis and how did you make the determination?
⦁ What plan of care will Mr. Payne be given at this visit, include drug therapy and treatments; what is the patient education and follow-up?

discuss the Mr. Payne’s history that would be pertinent to his genitourinary problem. Include chief complaint, HPI, Social, Family and Past medical history that would be important to know.

Question 41: Chemistry

Compare Lewin’s 3-Step Model and Lippitt, Watson, and Westley’s change model. Compare and contrast the models,
discuss resistance, or how change could be embraced between those 2 models

Question 42: Geology

Labor in colonial America was scarce. Explain the development of using slaves for labor in the colonies. Below are some of the items you may include:
⦁ The development of using slaves for labor
⦁ Changes, problems, and issues with slave labor
⦁ Unintended consequences of using slave labor
Complete a 2-3 page paper according to CSU-Global’s Guide for Writing and APA Requirements. Each paper should include at least four paragraphs: an introduction, a body with at least two fully developed paragraphs, and a conclusion.

Question 43: Geology

Describe the additional complications facing an MNC compared with a domestic corporation when it is evaluating a capital budgeting project. Why should an MNC’s capital budgeting decision be based on the parent’s results rather than those of the subsidiary? Is an MNC generally faced with incurring double taxation on its profits in the subsidiary’s country? Why or why not?

Question 44: Urban Planning and Policy

Get Local: Rate Your Environment
Based on the material in this module and your own relevant research, address the following:
⦁ How would you rate your own neighborhood and the city or town that surrounds it with regard to the concepts presented in this module?
⦁ Discuss as many environmental factors that affect wellness (mining communities, contamination, nuclear poisoning, population density, socioeconomic influences, new vs. old developments, community gardens, etc.) as possible in your analysis and highlight how these factors support or challenge wellness.
⦁ How do these factors relate to the eight dimensions of wellness?
Make sure you support your ideas with information presented in the course material, other scholarly resources, and specific examples (real-life observations and experiences),

How would you rate your own neighborhood and the city or town that surrounds it with regard to the concepts presented in the module?

Question 45: Computer Science

The reasons why companies use HRIS vary widely. Large companies will use HRIS in certain ways while other, smaller companies may use it in other ways. Consider the following questions:
⦁ What are your perceptions of an HRIS?
⦁ What can an HRIS do for an organization?
⦁ List why your organization would want to or does use an HRIS.
Question 46: Biology

In 750-1,000 words, identify and describe the issues affecting standards of practice related to competency of medical care identified in the Lyckholm and Hackney article.
In addition to summarizing the relevant points of the article, explain the relevance that standards of practice have (or will have) to you as a practitioner.

Question 47: Biology

Prokaryotic and eukaryotic are the two major categories of cells making up life on earth. Both these types require water and carbon.
Describe the characteristics of water and carbon that makes them important to living things in general, and to specific forms of life including plants, animals, and prokaryotes. Why is NASA looking for water on Mars?
Describe the differences in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. How have the characteristics of each kind of cell put limitations and provided opportunities for the survival and divergence of modern living things? Why might both cell types be considered equally successful? Make sure to consider both Domains of Prokaryotes.

Question 48: General Question

Assignment 4  HR Training Class New Employee Customer Service Training

Imagine that you are a member of the HR department of a small retail company and upper management has asked you to create a new employee customer service training class for all new employees.

Write a six to seven (6-7) pages paper in which you:

1. Justify the use of a needs assessment of your company’s proposed employee customer service training, stressing five (5) ways in which such an assessment would expose any existing performance deficiencies.

2. Develop a customer service training implementation plan and determine the method of training (i.e., presentation, discussion, case study, discovery, role play, simulation, modeling, or on-the-job training).

3. Justify why you selected the training method that you did.

4. Propose two (2) ways to motivate an employee who has no interest in attending a training class.

5. Develop a survey to collect feedback from the employees who attend the training.

6. Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Question 49: Engineering

Read the article “Cognitive Effects of Risperidone in Children with Autism and Irritable Behavior”, and identify the research questions and/or hypotheses as they are stated. Consider the following questions: What are the variables (sample sizes, population, treatments, etc.)? How was the analysis of variance used in this article (and what type of ANOVA was used)?
Write a two- to three-page paper presenting the information listed below.  In addition, provide a title page and reference page in APA style.  Cite any references made to the article within the body of the paper in APA style. Your paper should begin with an introductory paragraph (including a thesis statement) and end with a concluding paragraph summarizing the major points made in the body of the paper and reaffirming the thesis.
The body of your paper must:
1.   Determine what question(s) the authors are trying to answer by doing this research.
2.   Determine the hypothesis being tested and the concepts that were applied in this process.
3.   Evaluate the article and critique the statistical analysis employed in the study.  Would you have included more and/or different variables?  Explain your answer.
4.   Examine the assumptions and limitations of the statistical study.  What would you have done differently in this case?  Explain your answer.
5.   Identify how the authors applied statistical testing to the problem.
6.   Interpret the findings of the author(s) using statistical concepts.

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Question 50: Engineering

assignment 3: Fraud in the AIS
For this assignment, research the Internet or Strayer databases to locate a firm that was involved in a fraud and / or embezzlement case.
Explain how the firm’s accounting information system (i.e., components and functions) contributed to the fraud and / or embezzlement. You will need to focus on how each component / function of the accounting information system failed, which resulted in the scandal / case.
Write a ten to twelve (10-12) page paper in which you:
1.   Based on the information you researched, assess the failure of the firm’s accounting information system to prevent the related fraud / embezzlement.
2.   Imagine that the company that you researched uses a third-party accounting system. Evaluate the effectiveness of the firm’s stakeholder in the event that a third-party accounting system suffers a breach. Include an assessment of the level of responsibility of the software provider to the business and its clients. Provide support for your rationale.
3.   Determine what advances in accounting and / or information technology could have prevented the event from occurring. Provide support for your argument.
4.   Evaluate what changes should be made to both the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 and other current laws in order to make them more effective in deterring companies from committing crimes.
5.   Recommend a strategy that the company you indicated may use to prevent future business information failures. Indicate how the company should approach the implementation of your recommended strategy. Provide support for your recommendation.
6.   Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.

Question 51: Astronomy

Crane Corp., a company whose stock is publicly traded, provides a noncontributory
defined-benefit pension plan for its employees. The company’s actuary has provided the following information for the year ended December 31, 2018:

Projected benefit obligation $622000
Accumulated benefit obligation  449000Fair value of plan assets  740000Service cost  180000Interest on projected benefit obligation  12000Amortization of prior service cost  36000Expected and actual return on plan assets  46500
The market-related asset value equals the fair value of plan assets. No contributions have been made for 2018 pension cost. In its December 31, 2018 balance sheet, Crane should report a pension asset / liability of

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Question 1: General Question

Question 1 (500 points)

You are currently working for a company called Pierogi’s and More.  This company specializes in
authentic ethnic European style foods.  Product offering includes Blintzes, Golabki, Kaputsa, and
Kielbasa, but the main item in the product line is the traditional Pierogi.  A pierogi is best
described as a piece of pastry or dough that is stuffed with various ingredients.  Going back to the
tradition of the product, the original pierogis were normally stuffed with mashed potatoes,
spinach, sauerkraut and/or variety of cheeses.  The pierogi was the ‘worker’ or ‘laborers’ meal, so
consequently did not include meats as they were not affordable but when available, some meats
would be an ingredient in the pierogi.  These meat-based pierogis were considered a delicacy and
used mainly for special occasions.
The pricing strategy has been quality/value-priced based.  The company has been trying to
develop a reputation and perspective of a high quality item.  The standard price for one dozen
pierogis has been $5.99 per dozen.  This price is a little higher than the prices of the main
competitors.  Depending upon the ingredients, the competitors’ prices range from $2.79 to $5.39
per dozen in most grocery stores.  Based on the current production costs and overheads, there is
some room to manipulate price, but there is a desire to make sure that the pricing strategy
reflects the quality of the product.  While the company has completed no in-depth research or
analysis, management believes they offer the highest quality pierogi on the market and believes
their price should reflect as much.  A breakdown of the cost structure revealed total variable
costs of $1.87/dozen and total fixed costs of $0.20/dozen.
Pierogi’s and More is starting to enter a new phase of distribution.  To this point, sales were
through the current company store front or direct sales to a few local markets.  The company is
now branching into specialty or higher end grocery retail.  This change will require the inclusion
of a wholesaler into the marketing channel.  Studies have shown that most grocery wholesalers
maintain a 30 percent mark-up while the retailer maintains a 25 percent mark-up.  Pierogi’s and
More desires to maintain their current price point at the retail level when they enter this new
distribution channel.  The company would also like to maintain a 45 percent mark-up.
Based upon the above information, please respond to the following:
a: Using the target price of $5.99, determine the price point the company should use for the
wholesaler.  Does this price point allow the company to maintain its desired 45 percent mark-
up?  If you know that the consumer price elasticity for this product group is 0.80, what would be
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your concerns when establishing the price?
b: Do you believe the company should continue to use a value-based pricing mechanism?  Why or
why not?  If you know the customer group has a high level of price sensitivity, what is your
concern with this pricing scenario?
c: In addition to the pricing decisions, Pierogi’s and More does not have a promotional campaign
designed for this new marketing channel.  Prepare an appropriate marketing campaign to enter
the new market.  Be specific in your response.  Does brand play a role in this process?
d: Pierogi’s and more has the opportunity to distribute the product through the specialty store in
both a frozen offering and a fresh offering in the deli/meat counter.  Should their pricing
structure be the same or different for the two products?  How would this impact other aspects of
the promotional mix?  Does brand play any roll in this process?
e: Create a slogan for the business, less than 20 words, which captures the essence of the brand.
Explain your rationale for the slogan. Then show how it should be incorporated within the brand
image and integrated marketing communication plan.

Question 2: Biology

NURS 6531 Midterm Exam  Latest Version Walden University

Question 3: Biology

NURS 6531 Midterm Exam Review WEEK 2 Latest Version Walden University

Question 4: Biology

NURS 6512 Final Exam   Latest Version Walden University

Question 5: Biology

NURSE 6531 Final Exam Adv. Practice Care of Adults   Latest Version Walden University

Question 6: Business

Wk 4 – Advisory Memo

As a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm, your boss (Will N. Trusts) presents you with the following two scenarios:
Scenario 1
Ned was hired six weeks ago by “State of Estates” to supervise the call center on weekends. At the time of hire, Ned did not disclose that he is a follower of the “Weekend Warriors” religion. In observance of his religious practices, Ned may not work Saturday mornings before noon. Ned called out of work three Saturday mornings in a row, costing the company extra overtime costs. The company looked to re-arrange the schedule, but to pull in a more senior supervisor on the weekend would require time-and-a-half pay. In addition, call-center statistics indicate a drop in productivity when there is a change of supervisor mid-day. The company would like to terminate Ned’s employment.
⦁ Would Ned have an argument for religious discrimination against “State of Estates?” Why or why not?
⦁ If yes, would the company be able to assert any defenses under these circumstances?

Scenario 2
Ella works in the accounting department in the northern satellite office of the company. She has been employed for four years and performed her job well until recently when she was caught sleeping on the job numerous times. Ella explained to her supervisor that she suffers from sleep apnea and has not been sleeping well at night. She requested a special caffeine supplement, at $200 daily, to keep her focused on the spreadsheets.
⦁ What factors would a court consider in determining whether Ella’s sleep apnea qualifies her for protection under the ADA?
⦁ Would “State of Estates” have to provide the requested accommodation of the caffeine pills in this instance? Why or why not?

Create two 350-word memos in one document based on these two scenarios.

Format your memos, including citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

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Question 7: Business

Wk 4 discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
⦁ The age for full social security benefits is 67 today, with more than one-third of people working past the age of 70.  The ADEA was enacted to prevent discrimination against older workers.  Discuss some of the underlying situations that contribute to discrimination by age and what companies can do to avoid decisions based on age alone.

Question 8: Business

6 page paper  (use template)

Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor. Compare their strategies at each level and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice.
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets.
Use at least three (3) quality references.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Identify various levels and types of strategy in a firm.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in business administration.
Write clearly and concisely about business administration using proper writing mechanics.

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Week 8 Assignment 3
Student Full Name

Date

Everything in Blue below should be deleted
Due Week 8 and worth 150 points
Using the corporation you chose from Assignment 1, examine its industry. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. NOTE: Be sure to read Chapters 1 – 10 in the course textbook and complete the LEARN E-Activities for Weeks 1-8 as they set the foundation to this assignment. Be sure to cite your sources! Begin your paper on Page 2 and write a minimum of six (6) pages (does not include Title or Source pages).

Week 8 Assignment 3
Write your brief introduction here: It should not be more than 1 good paragraph (about 5 complete sentences) to introduce the reader to your topic and it should explain in detail what your paper will be discussing. Much of your introduction may be taken from the assignment itself (in your own words). Read the scenario to get a feel for what the paper is about and explain what your paper will be discussing – so be sure to review the Assignment instructions AND Rubric for understanding. Finally, please ask me any questions about this assignment.
Business-Level Strategies
Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) business-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion. For background, be sure to research and explain the industry in which your selected corporation operates. You could also briefly (1 – 2 sentences) define the business-level strategy (cite your sources) you are writing about using the textbook/Learn, as an introduction to your analysis. Read Chapter 4 in the course textbook. Review the Week 4 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. In this section, you will want to research and identify the core competencies of your chosen firm. Demonstrate from your research how the firm uses its core competencies to create and sell its products in the marketplace. What actions & choices has the firm made to compete in individual product markets? Hint: “Every firm must form and use a business-level strategy.” (Hitt, Ireland, & Hoskisson, 2013, pp. 102). Review Chapters 4-9 for specifics on the business-level strategies.

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Corporate-Level Strategies
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) corporate-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion.
You should briefly define (1 – 2 sentences) corporate-level strategy based upon the textbook/lectures (cite your sources) as part of your analysis. Read Chapter 6 in the course textbook. Review the Week 6 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content.
Competitive Environment
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor (this will require research/cite your sources). Compare their strategies at each level (market commonality, resource similarity, competitive behavior, and competitive dynamics/actions/responses) and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Market Cycles
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 (Competitive Environment section above) would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets. It would be a good idea to briefly (1 – 2 sentences) explain what the slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets are from the textbook (cite your sources) as a short introduction to your determination. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook with a special focus on the Competitive Dynamics section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Sources
Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.
List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.
Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course textbook to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.
Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.
The source page must include all sources used. All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.
Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic
source requires logging in).
When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:
Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)
The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.
Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.
⦁ Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
⦁ Have I deleted the blue font instructions in this template?
⦁ Did I leave the provided section headings in place, as provided in this template?
⦁ After deleting the blue fonts in this template, have I changed all font to black?
Additional things to keep in mind.
⦁ You will be graded on the content of your submission, the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills using the grading rubric.
⦁ Strayer uses SafeAssign – an automated plagiarism checker. It is advised that you do your own writing and use external resources to support what you have written in your own words.

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Question 9: Business

The Woolong Company produces high-end vacuum cleaners and has hired you to oversee the development and release of their latest product. A preliminary project initiation meeting will result in the identification of the project sponsor, selection of a project manager, and creation of the project charter. A manager in the production department who knows you are taking a college project management course asks you to prepare a report to help them prepare for the meeting by answering the following questions:
⦁ Who are the project stakeholders? How will they be involved in the project?
⦁ Whom should the project sponsor be? Why?
⦁ What skills and experience are likely needed by the project manager for each phase in the project life cycle, and how do these skills and experiences differ between the various phases?
⦁ What kind of roles and responsibilities should the key stakeholders have? Discuss at least 4–5 different kinds of stakeholders.
⦁ How should they communicate to different stakeholders during the project?
⦁ What information should be shared with the project stakeholders?
⦁ What is the mechanism that could be used for each type of information?
⦁ What is the frequency with which information should be shared?
⦁ What should be done if project communications are not proving to be effective?
⦁ What technology could be used for project communications?
⦁ At what point could communication about the project become an ethical or legal issue?
⦁ What are the best ways to manage project risks as well as opportunities during project execution?
⦁ How do they update and analyze old risks as well as new risks while undertaking the project?
⦁ What business opportunity might project completion create?
⦁ What is the potential financial impact of the project?
⦁ What are the expected results of the project?
⦁ What value will the project add?
⦁ What is the potential impact to the company if the project is not finished well?
Present your findings as a Word document of 4–5 pages (not including title and reference pages) formatted in APA style, using the attached template. Submitting your assignment in APA format means, at a minimum, you will need the following:
⦁ Title page: Remember the running head. The title should be in all capitals.
⦁ Body: The body of your paper begins on the page following the title page and abstract page and must be double-spaced (be careful not to triple- or quadruple-space between paragraphs). The type face should be 12-pt. Times Roman or 12-pt. Courier in regular black type. Do not use color, bold type, or italics except as required for APA-level headings and references. The deliverable length of the body of your paper for this assignment is 2–3 pages. In-body academic citations to support your decisions and analysis are required. A variety of academic sources is encouraged.
⦁ Reference page: References that align with your in-body academic sources are listed on the final page of your paper. The references must be in APA format using appropriate spacing, hang indention, italics, and upper- and lowercase usage as appropriate for the type of resource used. Remember, the Reference Page is not a bibliography but a further listing of the abbreviated in-body citations used in the paper. Every referenced item must have a corresponding in-body citation.

Question 10: Business

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1)      Describe the changing demographic patterns of the aging population. How do these patterns vary by age, gender, race, and ethnicity? How will the demographic changes in the population in the next decade influence the type and delivery of community resources available to older adults?
2)      Major historical events can shape the way a cohort behaves throughout their lives. As an example individuals who grew-up during the depression are often frugal with spending even in old age. What was the major historical event of your life course? How did this affect your life and do you think it will continue to impact you as you age?
3)      From the point of view of older adults, what might be the advantages and disadvantages of living in a state with a large older population? From the point of view of younger generations? Explain, using references from this week’s resources to support your response.
4)      What is ageism (as it applies to the aging population)? Name three examples of ageism that you’ve personally witnessed, experienced, or perhaps even committed yourself. How are these instances damaging to the aging population?

Question 11: Business

HRM 530 Assignment 1 Alignment of HRM and Business Strategies
HRM 530 Assignment 1 Alignment of HRM and Business Strategies

Question 12: Business

Create a chart with rows and columns to establish the following requirements of discrimination under the law in the following areas at the top:

⦁ Title VII Gender Discrimination in Employment Practices
⦁ Sexual Harassment Based on Hostile Work Environment
⦁ Quid-Pro-Quo Sexual Harassment
⦁ Sexual Orientation in the Workplace

Along the left side of the chart, create the following rows:

⦁ Requirements to Prove Under the Law
⦁ Ways Employers can Minimize Liability
⦁ Recent Case Example

Complete the chart for each section.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the requirements of each type of potential gender discrimination.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the specific ways employers can minimize liability for each type of gender discrimination.

Research and include a relevant case to illustrate each type of gender discrimination.

Format your citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

Question 13: Health Care

Nursing Therapy Quiz

STUDY GUIDE

This quiz will cover the following topics, which relate to psychotherapy with individuals in the Wheeler textbook and the Fisher textbook excerpts:

Topics
·         The Nurse Psychotherapist and a Framework for Practice
·         Confidentiality Limits in Psychotherapy: Ethics Checklists for Mental Health Professionals
·         Assessment and Diagnosis
·         The Initial Contact and Maintaining the Frame
·         Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
·         Supportive and Psychodynamic Psychotherapy
·         Stabilization for Trauma and Dissociation
·         Motivational Interviewing
·         Psychotherapeutic Approaches for Addictions and Related Disorders

Wheeler, K. (Eds.). (2014). Psychotherapy for the advanced practice psychiatric nurse: A how-to guide for evidence-based practice (2nd ed.). New York, NY: Springer Publishing Company.
·         Chapter 1, “The Nurse Psychotherapist and a Framework for Practice”
·         Chapter 3, “Assessment and Diagnosis”
·         Chapter 4, “The Initial Contact and Maintaining the Frame”
·        Chapter 5, “Supportive and Psychodynamic Psychotherapy”
·        Chapter 7, “Motivational Interviewing” (pp.299-312)
·        Chapter 8, “Cognitive Behavioral Therapy”
·        Chapter 13, “Stabilization for Trauma and Dissociation”
·        Chapter 16, “Psychotherapeutic Approaches for Addictions and Related Disorders”

Fisher, M. A. (2016). Introduction. In Confidentiality limits in psychotherapy: Ethics checklists for mental health professionals (pp. 3–12). Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. doi:10.1037/14860-001

Fisher, M. A. (2016). The ethical ABCs of conditional confidentiality. In Confidentiality limits in psychotherapy: Ethics checklists for mental health professionals (pp. 13–25). Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. doi:10.1037/14860-002

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Question 1
⦁ After informing a prospective patient about limits of confidentiality, the patient consents to the “conditions” of confidentiality and signs an informed consent form. Several weeks later, a lawyer representing the patient’s spouse for a court case, asks the PMHNP for the disclosure of information about the patient. The PMHNP should:

A.
Disclose all patient information as requested

B.
Refuse to disclose any confidential information

C.
Limit disclosure to the extent legally possible

D.
Ignore the request based on ethical reasons
1 points
Question 2
⦁ The PMHNP is meeting with a new patient who is a young veteran back from serving two tours overseas. When reviewing the patient’s health history file that was sent from the VA, the PMHNP learns that several months ago, the patient was diagnosed with PTSD, but never followed up with treatment for it. After a comprehensive mental health assessment, the PMHNP confirms the PTSD diagnosis and understands that which therapeutic approach will be the most effective as a first-line treatment modality?

A.
Performing a psychiatric debriefing on the patient

B.
Employing cognitive behavioral therapy with the patient

C.
Using psychodynamic psychotherapy with the patient

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 3
⦁ One of the strategies the PMHNP wants to try includes sleep restriction. What will the PMHNP suggest to follow sleep restriction therapy?

A.
“Restrict sleep for 24 hours.”

B.
“Restrict the amount of time you spend in bed.”

C.
“Restrict the amount of exercise you do prior to going to bed.”

D.
“Restrict the amount of food you eat before bedtime.”
1 points
Question 4
⦁ The PMHNP is conducting a peer review of another PMHNP’s medical charts. Upon review, the PMHNP notes that the peer often begins patient sessions late, as well as ends them later than scheduled. The PMHNP also found a comment in the chart regarding the patient sending text messages while in the middle of the session. Based on these findings, the feedback that the PMHNP will provide to the peer involves which therapeutic principle?

A.
Assessing safety

B.
Applying therapeutic communication

C.
Using empathy

D.
Maintaining the frame

32.The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?
1 points
Question 5
⦁ True or false: If after a third round of processing followed by stabilization, a patient has increased anxiety that requires further interventions aimed at stabilization, the therapeutic relationship can no longer successfully provide therapeutic change.
True
False
1 points
Question 6
⦁ The PMHNP has been treating a 15-year-old patient with a history of abuse and neglect. Thirty minutes into their therapy session the patient jumps up and begins to pace around the room. Utilizing Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP’s best action would be to:

A.
Allow the patient time to process before speaking.

B.
Ask, “Why don’t you come have a seat beside me?” while tapping the table.

C.
Say, “I noticed a change. Can you tell me what happened?”

D.
Say, “We can continue this session later if you prefer.”

1 points
Question 7
⦁ The PMHNP is caring for a patient who the PMHNP believes would benefit from a relational psychodynamic approach to therapy. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates appropriate use and understanding of the relationship psychodynamic model?

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A.
Focusing the exploration on making the unconscious conscious

B.
Focusing the exploration on the genetic roots of the patient’s problem

C.
Focusing the exploration on here and now

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 8
⦁ The PMHNP is caring for a patient with borderline personality disorder. Using a psychoanalytic psychotherapy approach, the PMHNP attempts to intensify the patient’s transference to enhance emotional processing by:

A.
Developing increased boundaries

B.
Decreasing supportive psychotherapy

C.
Scaling back contact with the patient

D.
Increasing the number of sessions per week
1 points
Question 9
⦁ An elderly patient in a nursing home has been losing interest in activities and now refuses to leave his room. After a physical exam, he is referred to a PMHNP for an initial assessment.
True or false: After speaking with the patient, an appropriate screening tool for the PMHNP  to use would be the Geriatric Depression Scale.
True
False
1 points
Question 10
⦁ A middle-aged man who works over 50 hours a week is being seen for depression and anger management. He states, “I am even more frustrated when I come home and my wife wants to argue about stupid stuff. All I want to do is come home, take a shower, and eat. Is that too much to ask?” The PMHNP explains that people can be assertive, aggressive, and passive. She encourages the patient to be more assertive and begins role-play with assertive training. The PMHNP determines that the patient is beginning to understand when he states:

A.
“I am tired, I work very hard all day to support you and this family!”

B.
“I come home and all you do is argue, but I don’t care.”

C.
“I don’t know what I did. Why are you acting like this?!”

D.
“I feel frustrated when I come home and we argue.”

1 points
Question 11
⦁ The PMHNP is treating a patient with a substantial fear of feeling closed in (claustrophobia). Thus, the patient will not get into an elevator. The office where he works is on the 10th floor and this requires that he walk up and down the stairs in the morning and evening to get to his office. With permission from the patient, the PMHNP is beginning systematic desensitization to address the patient’s need to use the elevator. What is the PMHNP’s best plan of action?

A.
Begin by having the patient stand in front of the elevator and write down his feelings

B.
Complete a 30-minute therapy session in an elevator

C.
Allow the patient to watch an elevator go up and down

D.
Allow the patient to see the PMHNP getting into an elevator
1 points
Question 12
⦁ A PMHNP is assessing ego functioning of his 40-year-old patient by asking what she feels is the cause of her problems. She attributes her problems to her overprotective parents not letting her have enough freedom growing up. Based on her answer, the PMHNP is testing _____________.

A.
adaptive regression in the service of the ego

B.
regulation and control of affects and impulses

C.
defensive and interpersonal functioning

D.
sense of reality of the world and of the self
1 points
1 points
Question 18
⦁ During a session, the PMHNP asks a patient with a history of sexual abuse to recall the relationship she had as a child with her parents. The patient responds by saying she has a headache and her stomach hurts, and starts talking about her physical ailments. What is the appropriate response by the PMHNP?

A.
Assure the patient that she does not have to discuss these memories

B.
Explain why it is important for the patient to discuss these memories openly

C.
Tell the patient that she may not get better if she does not face her fears

D.
Let the patient know that plenty of other people have similar painful memories, too
1 points
Question 20
⦁ During a therapy session with an 18-year-old female the PMHNP learns that she has lived in six different foster homes in the last 24 months. She states that her mother is in a correctional facility for drug abuse and prostitution. During the assessment, the PMHNP notices multiple superficial cuts to each wrist. The patient appears tearful, withdrawn, and never makes direct eye contact. The PMHNP believes that this patient may have feelings of insecurities as well as abandonment issues and is aware that which diagnosis is likely possible?

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A.
Narcissistic personality disorder

B.
Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

C.
Borderline personality disorder

D.
Paranoid personality disorder
1 points
Question 21
⦁ A patient named Steve is seeking therapy to get help with his home situation, stating that he has been stressed since his mother-in-law moved into the house. What can the PMHNP do to assist the patient in constructing a narrative?

A.
Share a personal story about her home situation and family members

B.
Elicit details so Steve becomes more self-disclosing and self-examining

C.
Guide Steve through imagery exercises so he can decrease his stress

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 22
⦁ A 16-year-old female patient has had a stable therapeutic relationship with the PMHNP for several months. The PMHNP notices what appears to be fresh cigarette burns on the patient’s arm. When asked, the patient admits to this self-injurious behavior. Although the patient is still depressed, her mood seems to be somewhat better this week. True or false: The PMHNP would most likely consider this patient stabilized and ready to move to Stage II.
True
False
1 points
Question 23
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences abreactions when discussing repressed feelings of his sexual abuse as a child. What can the PMHNP do to manage the patient’s intense emotional reactions?

A.
Sit closer to the patient so the patient does not feel isolated

B.
Embrace the patient to provide physical comfort

C.
Suggest a relaxation technique, such as yoga or meditation

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 25
⦁ During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient states, “I get so frustrated sometimes and I just blow up at everybody!” Which response by the PMHNP demonstrates translation of Socratic dialogue (SD)?

A.
“Please explain how this affects the relationship with your wife.”

B.
“When you say blow up, what exactly does blow up mean and  how does it feel to you?”

C.
“What coping methods have you used in the past during times of frustration?”

D.
“So you blow up when you become frustrated?”
1 points
Question 26
⦁ The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?

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A.
Countertransference

B.
Therapeutic communication

C.
Empathy

D.
Boundaries
1 points
Question 27
⦁ A 28-year-old male patient is experiencing distress related to the workplace. What might the PMHNP ask to assess affective development?

A.
“How do you think your colleagues feel about you?”

B.
“How do you calm yourself when you are upset at the office?”

C.
“How do you think your colleague felt when you blamed her?”

D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 28
⦁ A PMHNP is preparing confidentiality forms for his patients. What is the most appropriate first step he should take?

A.
Talk to potential patients to get their feedback and suggestions

B.
Research his profession’s ethics code and state/federal laws

C.
Use current patient interactions to decide what matters most

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 29
⦁ A PMHNP is caring for a 21-year-old woman who is suffering from anxiety and is having difficulty managing stress. Which of the following would be an appropriate step by the PMHNP?

A.
Asking the patient what she does to relieve anxiety

B.
Giving the patient basic stress management activities

C.
Developing a plan together that is not overwhelming

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 30
⦁ The PMHNP is caring for a patient who has acute stress disorder after experiencing a traumatic event 1 week prior. The PMHNP wants to begin with a therapeutic framework that follows the adaptive information processing (AIP) model. What is the priority action for the PMHNP to take?

A.
Focus on the patient’s safety and stabilization

B.
Help the patient process painful memories

C.
Encourage the patient to find ways to achieve personal growth

D.
Assist the patient in planning for the future
1 points
Question 31
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a 43-year-old male patient who develops idiosyncratic transference over weeks of therapy. The best way for the PMHNP to respond to this patient is to ___________:

A.
employ cognitive behavioral therapy

B.
use empathy

C.
utilize intersubjectivity

D.
none of the above
1 points
Question 32
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a 56-year-old man who is being seen because of his anxiety and depression. During the therapy sessions, the PMHNP assists the patient in discussing his experiences and expanding on his thoughts and feelings. He tells the PMHNP stories about how he used to be teased by his coworkers at the office for becoming too anxious in large conference rooms. The PMHNP listens to the patient and helps focus on his strengths to promote self-understanding. Which principle best accounts for the PMHNP’s interactions with the patient?

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A.
Therapeutic communication

B.
Maintaining the frame

C.
Working with resistance

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 33
⦁ During a therapy session the patient is asked how she currently deals with stress, and she says, “Well, I don’t. I just let it build and build.” The PMHNP responds by asking how well this has been working out for her. The patient states, “Well, to be honest, it just feels like I’m drowning, you know what I mean.” Illustrating idiosyncratic meaning, the PMHNP responds with:

A.
“Would you say you feel like you are suffocating?”

B.
“No, I am not sure what you are saying. Can you please explain?”

C.
“Sort of like a fish out of water?”

D.
“When you say, ‘I just can’t breathe,’ you do understand, that is a form of anxiety?”

1 points
Question 34
⦁ The PMHNP is having a therapy session with Charlotte, a 20-year-old victim of date rape. The patient states, “I shouldn’t have been there; I should have just gone home. This was all my fault; how could I have been so stupid?” Using the Socratic method, what is the PMHNP’s best response?

A.
“If this had happened to someone else with the exact same circumstances, would you say this was her fault?”

B.
“Can you recall exactly what stopped you from going home when you originally wanted to go home?”

C.
”Have you shared these thoughts about what you should have done with anybody other than me?”

D.
“Do you understand that there is absolutely nothing that you could ever do to deserve to be treated the way you were treated?”
1 points
Question 35
⦁ At the initial interview with a patient, the PMHNP reviews the condition of receiving services, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. During the discussion, the patient shares information that the PMHNP is legally required to report.
True or false: If the PMHNP does not report information that s/he is legally required to report, state laws govern the consequences which include penalties for not reporting, especially child and elder abuse.
True
False
1 points
Question 37
⦁ The PMHNP is meeting with a 42-year-old man with depression brought on by the recent passing of his wife. As he describes the circumstances surrounding his late wife’s death, the PMHNP begins to feel sad. The sadness lingers for several hours, and the PMHNP finds it difficult to focus on other patients for the rest of the day. What is the most appropriate explanation for the reaction that the PMHNP is experiencing?

A.
Autognosis

B.
Complementary identification

C.
Concordant identification

D.
Self-disclosure
1 points
Question 38
⦁ The PMHNP employs psychodynamic psychotherapy with a patient who experiences anxiety and depression. As the process enters the psychoanalytic end of the psychodynamic continuum, the PMNHP will focus on:

A.
Interpreting unconscious conflict in the patient

B.
Restoring the patient’s functioning and stabilization

C.
Reducing the patient’s anxiety

D.
Strengthening the patient’s defenses
1 points
Question 39
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences anxiety around her parents that later leads to poor impulse control. What will the PMHNP do to employ psychodynamic psychotherapy properly for this patient?

A.
Emphasize the past

B.
Focus on expressions of emotion

C.
Identify patterns in relationships

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 40
⦁ A new patient has been informed of the limits of confidentiality, and has signed informed consent forms. No consent, however, has been obtained for voluntary “Release of Information.” The patient is 20 years old and still lives at home with his parents. He is being treated for depression, which he attributes to the trouble he’s had finding employment.
True or false: If the patient’s mother calls the PMHNP to check up on her son to see how he is doing, the therapist is required to protect patient confidentiality and not disclose information.
True
False
1 points
Question 41
⦁ A PMHNP is treating a 45-year-old female patient who is upset that her brother has not been calling since his divorce. When asked to describe her brother and what prompts him not to call as frequently, she says, “Everything is about him, not me. I think he’s jealous that I have a good marriage and he wants me to be unhappy, too. So he doesn’t call to upset me and ruin my relationships.” Based on this information, the PMHNP can conclude that the patient _________.

A.
may lack ability to see independent motivations

B.
has an insistent emphasis on the feelings of others

C.
has an intrusive interpersonal relationship

D.
all of the above
1 points
Question 42
⦁ The PMHNP is assessing a patient who grew up in a foster home because she was neglected and abused by her birth parents at a young age. The patient admits to having difficulty forming and maintaining relationships throughout her life. Understanding maladaptive schemas, which statement does the PMHNP predict that the patient is likely to make?

A.
“I deserve the utmost respect from everyone who meets me.”

B.
“I prefer doing everything on my own.”

C.
“It takes me a while to warm up to people; people often wear masks.”

D.
“I can’t seem to do anything on my own.”

1 points
Question 43
⦁ A patient who has borderline personality disorder is meeting with the PMHNP. When asked about future goals, the patient responds, “I’d like to go back to school to do what you
do. You know, talk to people all day about their problems. It seems pretty easy.” How does the PHMNP respond to the client in a way that is free from any stigmatizing beliefs or judgments?

A.
“It is dangerous to fantasize about the future.”

B.
“I think that’s an excellent idea! I can help you review the prerequisites!”

C.
“You may want to explore the requirements for becoming a PMNHP.”

D.
None of the above.
1 points
Question 44
⦁ True or false: A PMHNP may ask his patient to describe her relationship with her father, both as a child and now, in order to assess interpersonal style.
True
False
1 points
Question 45
⦁ A 41-year-old male patient is meeting with the PMHNP and reveals that he is homosexual. He begins telling the PMHNP about his feelings as a homosexual, middle-aged man. The PMHNP nods understandingly. Before long, the patient asks, “Are you gay? Are you married? Do you have kids?” What is the best response by the PMHNP?

A.
Answer the patient’s questions honestly to establish trust

B.
Mention that the patient seems quite curious, and ask him to discuss more about himself

C.
Ignore the patient’s questions and move on to another topic

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 46
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a veteran who has posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). The PMHNP believes that dual awareness will be beneficial in allowing the patient to focus on the here and now. What strategies can the PMHNP use to develop dual awareness in the patient?

A.
Asking the patient to recall a recent and mildly disturbing event

B.
Having the patient focus on details of the room, such as how hot or cold it is

C.
Telling the patient to rate the level of disturbance he feels from a mildly disturbing event

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 47
⦁ The PMHNP has been assisting a shy and timid 23-year-old male patient struggling with esteem and self-concept issues. Over the weekend, this patient was given the task of completing an exercise that would usually cause him distress and shame, also called a shame-attacking exercise. The PMHNP determines that this task has successfully been achieved when the patient states:

A.
“I was able to eat in public yesterday despite how loudly I chew.”

B.
“I confessed all of my infidelities to my ex-spouse yesterday.”

C.
“I calmly sat through a conversation with my spouse in which she confessed all of her infidelities to me.”

D.
“I journaled the shame and guilt that I’ve been feeling from my past that has been holding me back.”

1 points
Question 48
⦁ A 35-year-old patient seeks treatment for depression and anxiety after an abusive relationship. To help empower the patient, the PMHNP wants to teach the safe-place exercise to create a feeling of calm. In order to walk the patient through the exercise, the PMHNP first says:

A.
“Identify an image of a safe place that makes you feel calm.”

B.
“Think about the things that cause you anxiety and let them go.”

C.
“Take a deep breath and start to relax with each new breath.”

D.
“Picture a beautiful beach and describe to me what you see.”
1 points
Question 49
⦁ When conducting an initial assessment, a PMHNP has finished conducting a mental status examination with 10 minutes left in the session. The patient is distressed and would like to continue sharing her personal history.
True or false: An appropriate response that the PMHNP might tell the patient is, “I understand that you are upset. [Summarizes diagnosis, treatment recommendations, and follow-up plan.] We can continue the conversation next week. How does this time next Monday work for you?”
True
False
1 points
Question 50
⦁ A PMHNP’s patients have already signed confidentiality agreements, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. Months later, the state’s laws have changed that affect confidentiality promises the PMHNP has already made. What is an appropriate step for the PMHNP to take after finding out this information?

A.
Revise intake forms to align with state laws

B.
Review confidentiality revisions with patients

C.
Have patients give informed consent again

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 51
⦁ A 65-year-old patient has suffered the loss of his wife. He is in a state of hyperarousal with increased sympathetic nervous system arousal. One or more interventions may help the patient to deal with this arousal. To decrease sympathetic nervous system arousal, the PMHNP’s treatment strategy is ___________.

A.
mindfulness techniques

B.
deep breathing exercises

C.
self-regulation strategies

D.
all of the above
1 points
Question 52
⦁ A PMHNP is treating a 50-year-old patient who suffers from depression. When he was growing up, he was often responsible for taking care of his three younger siblings. Since then, the patient puts other people’s needs before his own. Based on this information, the PMHNP would conclude that his interpersonal style is __________.

A.
overly nurturing

B.
nonassertive

C.
exploitable

D.
vindictive
1 points
Question 53
⦁ The PMHNP meets with an adolescent patient who has depression and often presents with resistance when discussing his parent’s divorce. For the past couple of sessions, the patient has been quiet, sometimes refusing to speak. To further support the therapeutic relationship, the PMNHP:

A.
Observes and points out the behavior

B.
Stays quiet until the patient is ready to speak

C.
Brings in a colleague to help get the patient to talk

D.
None of the above
1 point
Question 54
⦁ The PMHNP has a session with a patient who was injured and traumatized from an explosion at the industrial plant where he used to work. During the session, an outside noise startles the patient and he experiences a flashback of the loud boom from the explosion. The PMHNP witnesses the patient present with anxiety and belabored breathing. What is the appropriate action of the PMHNP?

A.
Telling the patient there is no reason to be startled

B.
Avoiding interrupting the flashback as it occurs

C.
Asking the patient to describe the flashbacks

D.
Have the patient use the relaxation response (take a deep breath, exhale long, and slow down)
1 points
Question 55
⦁ In your office, you see a 58-year-old patient with PTSD who reports having nightmares, making it impossible for her to sleep. What recommendations based on principles of sleep hygiene will the PMHNP make?

A.
Eat a heavy meal before bedtime to induce sleepiness

B.
Maintain a warm bedroom temperature

C.
Avoid watching television or reading in bed

D.
Try going to sleep at different times throughout the week to avoid monotony
1 points
Question 57
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a patient who is living in poverty and abusing substances. According to the treatment hierarchy framework, what needs does the PMHNP need to attend to first?

A.
Provide safety through case management strategies

B.
Help the patient manage positive and negative emotions

C.
Explore the meaning of significant adverse life experiences

D.
Process all dimensions of memory associated with the trauma
1 points
Question 58
⦁ Your patient is a 65-year-old male who has a strained relationship with his son and daughter. His children refuse to participate in a family session. The PMHNP asks the patient to draw his family genogram as a next step to _______________.

A.
assess the patient’s mental health status and functioning

B.
explore the interpersonal styles of each family member

C.
provide background information for the patient’s family structure

D.
measure the patient’s quality of well-being and productivity
1 points
Question 59
⦁ During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient, states, “My wife hates me! She’s just waiting for me to die.” Using Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP demonstrates understanding of analysis when she responds:

A.
“Now, I’m sure your wife doesn’t hate you.”

B.
“Where is the evidence that your wife hates you?”

C.
“You seem convinced that your wife hates you.”

D.
“What has your wife done to make you believe this?”

1 points
Question 60
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a patient who has insomnia and battles going to sleep. The patient reports consistent self-defeating behaviors, and hates trying to go to sleep. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates the use of a paradoxical intervention?

A.
Telling the patient to start trying to go to sleep earlier, since it takes long to fall asleep

B.
Telling the patient to resist sleep and stay awake

C.
Having the patient perform a relaxing ritual before bedtime

D.
Instructing the patient to avoid stimulants and sugars for 3 hours before falling asleep
1 points
Question 61
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a patient who seems dissatisfied with the therapeutic relationship. The PMHNP invites the patient to discuss her feelings regarding the PMHNP openly and honestly. It becomes clear to the PMHNP that they are experiencing an alliance rupture. How does the PMHNP repair the therapeutic alliance?

A.
Responding to the patient in a nondefensive manner and accepting responsibility for the PMHNP’s part in the tension

B.
Emphasizing with the patient’s experiences and validating the patient for bringing it up

C.
Considering changing the goals of the patient’s treatment

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 62
⦁ The patient attempts the PMHNP’s sleep hygiene recommendations for 2 weeks, but does not make any progress mitigating nightmares and hyperarousal. Which behavioral strategy does the PMHNP suggest next?

A.
Progressive muscle relaxation exercises

B.
Paradoxical interventions

C.
Biofeedback

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 63
⦁ A PMHNP is taking a history and wants to assess how the patient copes with adversity. To do so, the therapist asks questions about the patient’s belief system. What would be an appropriate question to ask?

A.
“What are your beliefs about therapy and seeking help?”

B.
“To what extent do your religious beliefs give you comfort?”

C.
“What gives you a sense of meaning and purpose in life?”

D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 64
⦁ An 11-year-old patient has been exhibiting low self-esteem at school and acting out. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which of the following questions would best be addressed first by the PMHNP?

A.
“Are Joel’s peers including him at recess?”

B.
“Does Joel feel safe and secure at school?”

C.
“Is Joel getting enough sleep at home?”

D.
“How can Joel feel that he is loved?”
1 points
Question 65
⦁ The PMHNP is treating a 35-year-old male officer in the military. He discloses that both of his parents are deceased and that he loved them. However, he says that he had feelings of inadequacy because his parents held him to a standard that he could never achieve. He went on to say that nothing he did ever felt good enough. The PMHNP assesses that this patient has perfect creases in his uniform with no strings or tags out of place; she also notices that he has perfect posture and questions him about ritualistic behaviors. She suspects that this patient has maladaptive responses to the expectations placed on him as a teenager and young adult. Which statements made by the patient would verify the PMHNP’s suspicion?

A.
“I typically don’t listen to anyone. I take care of my own wants and needs so I feel like no one can judge me or criticize me, period.”

B.
“I don’t mean to hurt other people’s feelings. When people cry or say that I have made them upset in some way, that’s not my fault; some people are just sensitive.”

C.
“I like to listen to the beat of my own drum; I don’t mind spending most of my days alone. I don’t  need recognition or praise; I would just like to be left alone.”

D.
“I believe in systems; I have to have order and rules in my everyday life. If a task must be completed, I will often complete it myself versus depending on someone else.”

1 points
Question 66
⦁ The PMHNP is caring for a patient who seems to seek affection and attention from the PMHNP and others in the clinic, as well as displays heightened emotional responses to feelings of being excluded. What therapeutic approach does the PMHNP use to decrease autonomic arousal in the patient?

A.
Group therapy

B.
Controlled confrontation

C.
A safe-place exercise

D.
Body and energy work
1 points
Question 67
⦁ The PMHNP is caring for a patient with dissociated self-state that the PMHNP identifies as being associated with traumatic experiences in the patient’s past. What approach does the PMHNP use with the patient that is crucial to the psychodynamic therapy process?

A.
Assisting the patient to experience and accept the various dimensions of the self through enhanced awareness of the traumatic states

B.
Becoming a co-participant in the co-construction of the relationship with the patient, rather than an outside observer

C.
Making associations between an event or situation and the patient’s feelings

D.
Providing empathy, understanding, and soothing to help the patient identify the other self-states
1 points

Question 14: Health Care

Once you have submitted your second submission to the grade book dropbox, it will be considered final and subject for grading.
Purpose
The purpose of this assignment is to provide the student an opportunity to explore the role of the advanced practice nurse (APN) and develop an APN professional development plan.
Course Outcomes
Through this assignment, the student will demonstrate the ability to:
CO1: Analyze the historic development of advanced practice roles including the impact of advanced practice nursing on  healthcare delivery from the perspective of selected current reports (i.e., LACE, IOM, etc.) (PO 3)
CO3: Explore how leadership styles influence healthcare delivery and organizations.  (PO 4)
CO5: Reflect on personal and professional growth toward achieving competence as a family nurse practitioner. (PO 3)
Due Date: Sunday 11:59 p.m. MST at the end of Week 6
Total Points Possible: 225
Requirements:
1.    To complete this application, you will need to access to the following databases: CINAHL, MEDLINE, Cochrane Library, and the Joanna Briggs Institute. You may access these databases through the Chamberlain College of Nursing Online Library.
2.    The APN Professional Development Plan paper is worth 225 points and will be graded on quality of information, use of citations, use of Standard English grammar, sentence structure, and overall organization based on the required components as summarized in the directions and grading criteria/rubric.
3.    Create your manuscript using Microsoft Word, which is the required format for all Chamberlain College of Nursing documents.
4.    Follow the directions and grading criteria closely. Any questions about this paper may be posted under the Q & A Forum or emailed to your faculty.
5.    The length of the paper is to be no less than 6 and no greater than 8 pages excluding title page and reference pages. In some cases, students may need to exceed this page number.
6.    APA (2010) format is required with both a title page and reference page. Use the required components of the review as Level 1 headers (upper and lower case, centered):
1.    Introduction to the APN professional development plan- Discuss the goals and purpose of an APN professional development plan
2.    APN Scope of Practice – This pertains to NP practice in your state.
3.    Personal Assessment using Benner’s Self-Assessment Tool
4.    Networking and Marketing Strategies
5.    Conclusion
6.    CV / resume
7.    References
Preparing the paper
The following are best practices for preparing this paper:
1.    Review Chapter 30- Role Transition: Strategies for Success in the Marketplace in DeNisco and Barker (2015).
2.    Nurse practitioners need to take into account the state rules and regulations that guide advanced practice. Research and review the Nurse Practice Act and APN scope of practice guidelines in your particular state. Identify information regarding educational requirements, licensure and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details. Review information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority (This is similar to what you created in your week 1 Kaltura presentation). .
3.    Review Guidelines for APN Role Transition Using Benner’s Self-Assessment Tool (Links to an external site.). Identify and discuss your position on Benner’s Novice to Expert ladder. Prior to engaging in pursuit for employment, APNs should complete a comprehensive, honest, personal assessment to identify their strengths and weaknesses as well as their goals and objectives. Research assessment tools, conduct a personal assessment and reflect upon your strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
4.    To complete the transition from students to expert nurse practitioners working in the healthcare field, graduating APN students will need to secure their first position. Research local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identify networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for your selections. Be specific.
5.    Write your Curriculum Vitae (CV) or current resume. Refer to the template on pages 772-773 in DeNisco and Barker (2015). Your CV / resume should not exceed 2 pages in length but will, vary for each student. If you have not done some of the components of the CV/resume, i.e. research, publications, presentations, then do not include them.
6.    When concluding the paper, summarize important aspects of the APN professional development plan.
This assignment will follow the late assignment policy specified in the course syllabus.
Rubric
NR510 APN Professional Development Plan Grading Rubric
NR510 APN Professional Development Plan Grading Rubric
Criteria
Ratings
Pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeIntroduction to the APN professional development plan
20.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent introduction of APN professional development plan. Rationale is well presented and purpose fully developed.
18.0 pts
Exceeds- Good introduction of APN professional development plan. Rationale is presented and purpose provided.
16.0 pts
Meets- Basic information and/or limited elements addressed regarding APN professional development plan and/or inappropriate emphasis on an area.
8.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Little or very general introduction of APN professional development plan. Little to no original explanation; inappropriate emphasis on an area.
0.0 pts
Developing- No introduction of APN professional development plan provided.
20.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeAPN Scope of Practice
35.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
31.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
28.0 pts
Meets- Provided non-state specific information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
13.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Lacking detailed information regarding education, licensure, regulatory requirements, or practice environment. Missing information regarding practice limitations and/or prescriptive authority.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Not provide information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
35.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomePersonal Assessment
30.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information following a personal assessment and reflected upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
26.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some detailed information following a personal assessment and reflected upon some of the strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
24.0 pts
Meets- Provided some detailed information following a personal assessment. Missed providing reflection upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
11.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided information following a personal assessment, but did not reflect upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide a personal assessment and did not reflect upon personal strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
30.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeNetworking and Marketing Strategies
30.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
26.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
24.0 pts
Meets- Provided information but lacked specific details regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
11.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided information regarding professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities, but missed providing information regarding networking and marketing strategies and/or a rationale for their selections.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Did not identify networking and marketing strategies or provide a rationale.
30.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeCurriculum Vitae
40.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information which included demographics, education, professional employment, licensure and certification, professional honors, research, scholarship, and service. Free from typographical errors.
35.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided detailed information. Missing 1-2 key elements. Free from typographical errors.
32.0 pts
Meets- Provided moderately detailed information. Missing 3 key elements. Free from typographical errors.
15.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided minimal detail. Missing 4 or more key elements. Contains 1-2 typographical errors.
0.0 pts
Developing- Information provided was inaccurate and vague. Contains 3 or more typographical errors. Did not provide curriculum vitae.
40.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeConclusion
25.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent summary of APN professional development plan. Conclusions are well evidenced and fully developed.
22.0 pts
Exceeds- Good summary of APN professional development plan. Conclusions are supported by evidence and developed.
20.0 pts
Meets- Basic and/or limited summary regarding APN professional development plan.
10.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Little or no summary of APN professional development plan; inappropriate emphasis on an area.
0.0 pts
Developing- No summary of APN professional development plan and/or conclusions were provided.
25.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeClarity of Writing
25.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent use of standard English showing original thought. No spelling or grammar errors. Well organized with proper flow of meaning.
22.0 pts
Exceeds- Good use of standard English showing original thought. No more than two spelling or grammar errors. Well organized with proper flow of meaning.
20.0 pts
Meets- Some evidence of own expression and competent use of language. No more than three spelling or grammar errors. Well organized thoughts and concepts.
10.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Language needs development. Four or more spelling and/or grammar errors. Poorly organized thoughts and concepts.
0.0 pts
Developing- More than six spelling and/or grammar errors. Poorly organized thoughts and concepts.
25.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeAPA Format
20.0 pts
Exceptional- APA format, grammar, spelling, and/or punctuation are accurate, or with zero to one errors.
18.0 pts
Exceeds- Two to four errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
16.0 pts
Meets- Five to seven errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
8.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Eight to nine errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
0.0 pts
Developing- Post contains greater than ten errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and/or punctuation or repeatedly makes the same errors after faculty feedback.
20.0 pts
Total Points: 225.0
Question 15: Health Care

Jarvis: Physical Examination & Health Assessment, 6th Edition

Chapter 01: Evidence-Based Assessment

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.         After completing an initial assessment on a patient, the nurse has charted that his respirations are eupneic and his pulse is 58. This type of data would be:
A)
objective.
B)
reflective.
C)
subjective.
D)
introspective.

2.         A patient tells the nurse that he is very nervous, that he is nauseated, and that he “feels hot.” This type of data would be:
A)
objective.
B)
reflective.
C)
subjective.
D)
introspective.

3.         The patient’s record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data combine to form the:
A)
data base.
B)
admitting data.
C)
financial statement.
D)
discharge summary.

4.         When listening to a patient’s breath sounds, the nurse is unsure about a sound that is heard. The nurse’s next action should be to:
A)
notify the patient’s physician immediately.
B)
document the sound exactly as it was heard.
C)
validate the data by asking a coworker to listen to the breath sounds.
D)
assess again in 20 minutes to note whether the sound is still present.

5.         The nurse is conducting a class for new graduate nurses. During the teaching session, the nurse should keep in mind that novice nurses, without a background of skills and experience to draw from, are more likely to make their decisions using:
A)
intuition.
B)
a set of rules.
C)
articles in journals.
D)
advice from supervisors.

6.         Expert nurses learn to attend to a pattern of assessment data and to act without consciously labeling it. This is referred to as:
A)
intuition.
B)
the nursing process.
C)
clinical knowledge.
D)
diagnostic reasoning.

7.         The nurse is reviewing information about evidence-based practice (EBP). Which statement best reflects evidence-based practice?
A)
EBP relies on tradition for support of best practices.
B)
EBP is simply the use of best practice techniques for treatment of patients.
C)
EBP emphasizes the use of best evidence with the clinician’s experience.
D)
The patient’s own preferences are not important with EBP.

8.         The nurse is conducting a class on priority setting for a group of new graduate nurses. Which is an example of a first-level priority problem?
A)
A patient with postoperative pain
B)
A newly diagnosed diabetic who needs diabetic teaching
C)
An individual with a small laceration on the sole of the foot
D)
An individual with shortness of breath and respiratory distress

9.         When considering priority setting of problems, the nurse keeps in mind that second-level priority problems include which of these aspects?
A)
Low self-esteem
B)
Lack of knowledge
C)
Abnormal laboratory values
D)
Severely abnormal vital signs

10.       Which critical thinking skill helps the nurse to see relationships among the data?
A)
Validation
B)
Clustering related cues
C)
Identifying gaps in data
D)
Distinguishing relevant from irrelevant

11.
The nurse knows that developing appropriate nursing interventions for a patient relies on the appropriateness of the _____ diagnosis.
A)
nursing
B)
medical
C)
admission
D)
collaborative

12.       The nursing process is a sequential method of problem solving that nurses use, and includes which steps?
A)
Assessment, treatment, planning, evaluation, discharge, follow-up
B)
Admission, assessment, diagnosis, treatment, discharge planning
C)
Admission, diagnosis, treatment, evaluation, discharge planning
D)
Assessment, diagnosis, outcome identification, planning, implementation,
evaluation

13.       A newly admitted patient is in acute pain, has not been sleeping well lately, and is having difficulty breathing. How should the nurse prioritize these problems?
A)
Breathing, pain, sleep
B)
Breathing, sleep, pain
C)
Sleep, breathing, pain
D)
Sleep, pain, breathing

14.       Which of these would be formulated by a nurse using diagnostic reasoning?
A)
Nursing diagnosis
B)
Medical diagnosis
C)
Diagnostic hypothesis
D)
Diagnostic assessment

15.       Barriers to incorporating evidence-based practice (EBP) include:
A)
nurses’ lack of research skills in evaluating quality of research studies.
B)
lack of significant research studies.
C)
insufficient clinical skills of nurses.
D)
inadequate physical assessment skills.

16.       What is the step of the nursing process that includes data collection by health history, physical examination, and interview?
A)
Planning
B)
Diagnosis
C)
Evaluation
D)
Assessment

17.       During a staff meeting, nurses discuss the problems with accessing research studies in order to incorporate evidence-based clinical decision making into their practice. Which suggestion by the nurse manager would best help this problem?
A)
Form a committee to conduct research studies.
B)
Post published research studies on the unit’s bulletin boards.
C)
Encourage the nurses to visit the library to review studies.
D)
Teach the nurses how to conduct electronic searches for research studies.

18.       When reviewing concepts of health, the nurse recalls that components of holistic health include which of these?
A)
Disease originates from the external environment.
B)
The individual human is a closed system.
C)
Nurses are responsible for a patient’s health state.
D)
Holistic health views the mind, body, and spirit as interdependent.

19.       The nurse recognizes that the concept of prevention in describing health is essential because:
A)
disease can be prevented by treating the external environment.
B)
the majority of deaths among Americans under age 65 years are not preventable.
C)
prevention places emphasis on the link between health and personal behavior.
D)
the means to prevention is through treatment provided by primary health care practitioners.

20.       The nurse is reviewing the components of the nursing process. Which statement about nursing diagnoses is true?
A)
They evaluate the etiology of disease.
B)
They are a process based on the medical diagnosis.
C)
They are clinical judgments about a person’s response to an actual or potential health state.
D)
They focus on the function and malfunction of a specific organ system in response to disease.

21.       The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a newly admitted patient. An example of objective information obtained during the physical assessment includes the:
A)
patient’s history of allergies.
B)
patient’s use of medications at home.
C)
last menstrual period 1 month ago.
D)
2 ´ 5 cm scar present on the right lower forearm.

22.       A visiting nurse is making an initial home visit for a patient who has many chronic medical problems. Which type of data base is most appropriate to collect in this setting?
A)
A follow-up data base to evaluate changes at appropriate intervals
B)
An episodic data base because of the continuing, complex medical problems of this patient
C)
A complete health data base because of the nurse’s primary responsibility for monitoring the patient’s health
D)
An emergency data base because of the need to rapidly collect information and make accurate diagnoses

23.       Which situation is most appropriate for the nurse to perform a focused or problem-centered history?
A)
A patient’s admission to a long-term care facility
B)
A patient has sudden, severe shortness of breath
C)
A patient’s admission to the hospital for surgery the following day
D)
A patient in an outpatient clinic has cold and flu-like symptoms

24.       A patient is at the clinic to have her blood pressure checked. She has been coming to the clinic weekly since she changed medications 2 months ago. The nurse should:
A)
collect a follow-up data base and then check her blood pressure.
B)
ask her to read her health record and indicate any changes since her last visit.
C)
check only her blood pressure because her complete health history was documented 2 months ago.
D)
obtain a complete health history before checking her blood pressure because much of her history information may have changed.

25.       A patient is brought by ambulance to the emergency department with multiple traumas received in an automobile accident. He is alert and cooperative, but his injuries are quite severe. How would the nurse proceed with the data collection?
A)
Collect history information first, then perform the physical examination and institute life-saving measures.
B)
Simultaneously ask history questions while performing the examination and initiating life-saving measures.
C)
Collect all information on the history form, including social support patterns, strengths, and coping patterns.
D)
Perform life-saving measures and not ask any history questions until he is transferred to the intensive care unit.

26.       A 42-year-old Asian patient is being seen at the clinic for an initial examination. The nurse knows that it is important to include cultural information in his health assessment to:
A)
identify the cause of his illness.
B)
make accurate disease diagnoses.
C)
provide cultural health rights for the individual.
D)
provide culturally sensitive and appropriate care.

27.       In the health promotion model, the focus of the health professional includes:
A)
changing the patient’s perceptions of disease.
B)
identifying biomedical model interventions.
C)
identifying negative health acts of the consumer.
D)
helping the consumer choose a healthier lifestyle.

28.       The nurse is classifying nursing diagnoses. Which of these would be considered a risk diagnosis?
A)
Identifying existing levels of wellness
B)
Evaluating previous problems and goals
C)
Identifying potential problems the individual may develop
D)
Focusing on strengths and reflecting an individual’s transition to higher levels of wellness

29.       The nurse has implemented several planned interventions to address the nursing diagnosis of acute pain. Which would be the next appropriate action?
A)
Establish priorities.
B)
Identify expected outcomes.
C)
Evaluate the individual’s condition and compare actual outcomes with expected outcomes.
D)
Interpret data and then identify clusters of cues and make inferences.

30.       Which statement best describes a proficient nurse? A proficient nurse is one who:
A)
has little experience with a specified population and uses rules to guide performance.
B)
has an intuitive grasp of a clinical situation and quickly identifies the accurate solution.
C)
sees actions in the context of daily plans for patients.
D)
understands a patient situation as a whole rather than a list of tasks and sees long-term goals for the patient.

MATCHING

Put the following patient situations in order according to level of priority.
A)
A patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus does not know how to check his own blood glucose levels with a glucometer.
B)
A teenager who was stung by a bee during a soccer match is having trouble breathing.
C)
An older adult with a urinary tract infection is also showing signs of confusion and agitation.

1.         A = first-level priority problem

2.         B = second-level priority problem

3.         C = third-level priority problem

MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT:  First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.

MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT:  First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.

MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT:  First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

1.         The nurse is reviewing data collected after an assessment. Of the data listed below, which would be considered related cues that would be clustered together during data analysis? Select all that apply.
A)
Inspiratory wheezes noted in left lower lobes
B)
Hypoactive bowel sounds
C)
Non productive cough
D)
Edema, +2, noted on left hand
E)
Patient reports dyspnea upon exertion
F)
Rate of respirations 16 breaths per minute

Question 16: Health Care

Liberty University HIEU 201 Lecture 1 Test
Liberty University HIEU 201 Lecture 1 Test

Question 17: Health Care

NURS 6551 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University
NURS 6551 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 18: Health Care

NURS 6551 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University
NURS 6551 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 19: Mathematics

six times a certain number plus the number is equal to 56

Question 20: Other

Use scholarly sources you need and refer to specific information from those sources. To demonstrate your use of these works, please cite them. Quotes should be used very sparingly. The answers should be paraphrased and should demonstrate your understanding of the material and concepts.
Each answer needs to be 300 words
⦁ What is the threat of transnational gangs to local communities? How should immigration laws be changed to be able to appropriately deal with members of transnational gangs once they are identified?
⦁ What relationship do you see between social, political, and economic conditions of an ethnic group to the success or decline of a gang from that ethnic group?
⦁ How do the responses of correctional staff to the gangs contrast or compare to those of law enforcement? Provide at least two resources supporting your answer.
⦁ Compare and contrast gangs from two ethnic groups in terms of membership, criminal activity, violence, and relationship to their own community.
⦁ Consider the trend of more females becoming involved in gang activity. How does this trend change the way law enforcement devises programs to suppress, intervene, and combat gangs?

Question 21: Business

For your research paper, be sure to include:
1.     Title page (not included in the 5-page limit)
2.     Introduction: a brief overview of topic selected, including why this topic is of importance to organizations (you may reuse the rationale in paper M3A1), but you need to edit the language to fit the introduction of your essay. Include a thesis statement/purpose for the paper.
3.     Body of research paper: Develop the outline that you designed in M5A1. Make sure to use in-text citations in APA style.
4.     Conclusion: Write a brief summary of your findings and a call to action. A call to action for at least one action or step you want the President to take after reading your research paper (you may use the items identify in the application for professional practice).
5.     References: Insert a page with the references used for your paper, in APA style.

Motivating Employees

Name of student:

Student ID:

Introduction
For an organization, it is very important to make sure that the employees are motivated. This helps the organizations in many ways that lead to increase in their productivity and performance in the market. However, motivating employees is not an easy task. There are many challenges that the managers face due to the individual nature of each of the employees. In the present day business context, managers have to identify the individual factors that motivate each of the employees and use that knowledge for helping them increase their productivity in the company (Manzoor, 2012).
Thesis Statement
The paper aims to define the major factors that contribute to employee motivation and how can employee motivation be promoted in an organization along with its major benefits.
Issues addressed in the Paper
The paper aims to understand the area of employee motivation to understand its contribution for the company. In order to understand that, the following areas will be addressed in the paper:
⦁ What is the effect of employee motivation on the organization: For an organization, it is important to make sure that their employees are motivated. It is because when employees are motivated, it is possible for them to improve their performance at work (Ali & Ahmed, 2009).
⦁ What are the advantages of employee motivation for the organization: There are a number of other advantages of motivating the employees. Besides improving their individual performance, when employees are motivated properly, they engage better with their peers, making way for mutual dependence and healthy competition. This helps in the improvement of the organizational culture and ultimately contributes to improving the productivity of the company (Dar et al., 2014).
⦁ What are the factors that contribute to employee motivation: The biggest challenge for the employers is to understand the factors that motivate their employees. While some employees are motivated in a positive manner through appreciation and reward, some need to be motivated through negative factors like the fear of punishment and elimination (Tohidi, 2011).
What are the benefits of having motivated employees for the organization: Understanding the various factors that can motivate the employees can help employers in making sure that the goals of the organization are achieved while also promoting personal and professional growth of the employees (Manzoor, 2012).
Application to Professional Practice
The area of employee motivation is as challenging as it is important for an organization. When the employees in a company are motivated, this is beneficial for the entire organization. This is the reason why the research in employee motivation holds so much importance for an organization. It has been observed over time that as the needs of an organization change, the employees are likely to feel less motivated with time, this shows that the motivation is not only a mental boost for the employees but the ways in which employees are motivated also helps them to understand the needs of the organization that they are working for. It allows them to develop startegic methods that can help them in improving their performance in the organization (Ali & Ahmed, 2009).
Due to its many benefits, employee motivation is as essential for the company and the president as it is for the employees. For a president, it is easier to explain the needs of the organizations to motivated employees. Besides, they can also expect their employees to contribute positively to the purpose of the organization if they are motivated. Without motivation, the employee will not be able to take up his part of the job in the company in a proper manner. The result of this is that it will affect the performance of the company along with the results that they expect. This will increase the problems of the president in the direction of achieving the goals of the company (Dar et al., 2014).
The president of a company can uses the information from the paper to motivate employees in three ways:
⦁ By rewarding them for their good performance with bonus or increments.
⦁ By encouraging them in case of poor performance.
⦁ By promoting them for good performance in the long run by giving incentives and other benefits.
For presidents, motivating the employees has three major benefits:
⦁ It improves the performance of the employee.
⦁ It helps in reducing employee turnover.
⦁ It helps in boosting the performance of the company.

References
Ali, R., & Ahmed, M. S. (2009). The impact of reward and recognition programs on employee’s motivation and satisfaction: an empirical study. International review of business research papers, 5(4), 270-279.
Dar, A. T., Bashir, M., Ghazanfar, F., & Abrar, M. (2014). Mediating role of employee motivation in relationship to post-selection HRM practices and organizational performance. International Review of Management and Marketing, 4(3), 224-238.
Manzoor, Q. A. (2012). Impact of employees motivation on organizational effectiveness. Business management and strategy, 3(1), 1-12.
Tohidi, H. (2011). Teamwork productivity & effectiveness in an organization base on rewards, leadership, training, goals, wage, size, motivation, measurement and information technology. Procedia Computer Science, 3, 1137-1146.

Question 22: Engineering

An inverter is connected to the utility network by a transformer. The connection
transformer can be modelled by a per-phase series inductance of 0.8 mH and
resistance of 0.4 Ω.
i. Derive the control transfer function for the d and q axis loops, showing your
fully working.
ii. If a q-loop control with gains of 𝑘𝑘𝑝𝑝 = 14 and 𝑘𝑘𝑖𝑖 = 900 are used. What is the
control loop bandwidth and damping for this loop?

Question 23: Engineering

What are the types of soil dams?

Question 24: Computer Science

Instruction
I’m looking for someone to help me write 25 to 30 pages for my thesis in computer science I uploaded a Doc with the sections that you have to write about it so you have clue about how I want my thesis will be

Assessing the Security Health of Public WiFi Environments Using Mobile Devices
I. Abstract
IV. Contents
V. List of Figures
VI. List of Tables 1. Introduction
1.1 Overview
1.2 Introduction 1.3 Mobile Threats
1.3.1 Classification of mobile threat
1.3.2 Most Targeted Mobile Platform in 2014 1.4 Honeypot Approach
1.4.1 Advantages & Benefits of Honeypot
1.4.2 Honeypot types based on interaction levels 1.4.3 Honeypot classifications
1.4.4 Honeypot requirements
1.5 Problem statement
1.6 Research Challenges
1.7 Objectives and desirable outcomes 1.8 Project Outline
2. Literature Review
2.1 Introduction
2.2 New Types of Honeypots
2.3 Honeypot Data Consumption 2.4 Configurations of Honeypots 2.5 Smartphone Honeypots
3. Design and Implementation
3.1 Introduction (Linux-based application ” HosTaGe”) 3.2 Implementation (HosTaGe Honeypot works)
3.2.1 Implementation Steps
3.2.1.1 Remote Procedure Call Attack (RPC)
3.2.1.1.1 Remote Procedure Call Attack Result 3.2.1.2 Scanning Attack using nmap
3.2.1.2.1 Scanning Attack Result 3.2.1.3 Metasploit Attack
3.2.1.3.1 Metasploit Attack Result 3.2.1.4 Nessuss Attack
3.2.1.4.1 Nessus Attack Result 3.3 Performing Attacks in Khalifa campus wireless
4. Data Collection
4.1 Introduction
4.2 Transferring Data from HosTaGe Database 5. Analysis
5.1 Introduction
5.2 Data Analytic and Intelligence
5.2.1 Add Data to Splunk 5.2.2 Search in Splunk
6. Conclusion
6.1 Summary
6.2 Future work 7. References
5.2.2.1 Summarized Analysis

Question 25: Business

Instruction
Write out the question prior to answering it Answer in your own words – As a rule of thumb, no more than 10% of your response to review questions should be quoted. Have at least one intext citation per question, such as [Moseley, 47], unless it is entirely an opinion question Use quotes if you copy three or more words and include an intext citation Use a minimum of three resources – the textbook, one item from “lecture” – the videos I provide each module, and one outside source that you have researched Provide a Works Cited or Reference Section in MLA Style at the end of the paper. Watch the following YouTube Videos. Information from at least one of these sources must be referenced in answering your Review Questions. Please be sure to use intext citations and reference them. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TVBPhCJh-dw https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2rnYxbIcf44

1.Why do people form organizations and why is management needed? 2.Identify the five functions every manager must perform and briefly explain each. 3.What are the three levels of management found in large organizations? Describe each, giving its responsibilities. 4.How are most supervisory positions filled? Explain why this is so. 5.Identify each of the trends challenging today’s supervisors and explain how each impacts supervisors. 6.What are the three basic steps in planning? Why do supervisors tend to slight the planning function? 7.How does planning differ among top, intermediate, and supervisory management levels? 8.What are some guidelines for setting performance objectives? 9.What is the difference between a policy, a rule, and a procedure? 10.Distinguish between objectives and strategies.

Question 26: Health Care

Instruction
Adopting a personal code of conduct can guide leaders and managers to make and prioritize decisions. You have been selected to serve in a critical leadership position in your organization. In 2-4 pages not including title page and reference page, write a personal code of conduct (sometimes called a personal code of ethics) that you would pass along to your staff. Explain how you would communicate your personal code of conduct across the organization. Note: Use APA style to cite at least 2 scholarly sources from the last 5 years.

Question 27: Physics

Clearly show me your system sketch and related energy flows for all problems.

1.[5/100 pts] In a particular application the heating load is 1750 kW, the cooling load is 1500 kw and the power load is 2500 kW. The installed capacity of the power generation, Winstalled, is 2700 kW. Calculate the HLRP, CHR and % air flow for this case.

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2.[5/100 pts] The Energy Utilization Factor, EUF, for a tri-generation system is 0.98. Calculated the required fuel input when the thermal load is 100 kW and the power load is 1000 kW. The high heat value is 55.4 MJ/Kg.

3.[5/100] The HLRP, %Air Flow and CHR values for a given application are 1.0, 100% and 1.0. Determine the Energy Utilization factor and the rate of carbon dioxide production per total energy load for this condition.

4.1 [10/100 pts] Determine the electrical energy supplied to a tank heater when the temperature of the water is heated from 20 C to 89 C. The pressured tank holds 1500 Kg of liquid water at a constant pressure of 3 bars and the specific heat is c = 4,370 J/(Kg K). There is no heat loss from the tank.

4.2[10/100 pts] Calculate the entropy production in Problem 4.1.

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4.3[10/100 pts] Calculate the exergy destruction (J) in Problem 4.1. The dead state temperature is 293.2 K and pressure is 1 bar.

4.4 [10/100] Calculate the mass of fuel (natural gas) required to heat the water mass to the conditions of problem 4.1. The high heating value (HHV) of the fuel is 50.02 MJ/kg and the efficiency of the burner unit can be taken as 100%.

4.5[10/100] Calculate the exergy destroyed in the process described by problem 4.4. The exergy of the fuel entering this process is 51.82 MJ/Kg. The dead state temperature is 293.2 K and pressure is 1 bar. The products of combustion leave this process at the dead state.

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4.6[15/100] The utility providing the electricity to the heater in problem 4.1 uses the same fuel as that used in problem 4.4 and has an efficiency of 0.35. The cost of the water tank is the same in each process, but the cost of the electric heater is $3000 and has a lifetime of 15 years. The cost of the fuel based heating system is $5000 and has a lifetime of 20 years. The fuel cost is $0.10/kg and the cost of electricity is $0.20/kWh. Which process would you recommend in terms of fuel consumption, exergy production and cost? Note the total amount of fuel consumed is directly related to the carbon dioxide emission from each process. This is not a thermoeconomic problem.

5.1[10/100 pts] Water flows at a mass rate of 1.0 Kg/s from an elevation of 250 m through a water turbine. The turbine exit is located at zero m, elevation. The water enters the pipe at temperature 293 K a velocity of 0.1 m/s and a pressure of 1 bar. It leaves the turbine’s exit at a temperature, velocity and pressure of 293.2 K, 0.05 m/s 1 bar. The process is adiabatic. Determine the power output at steady state conditions from this turbine. The specific heat of water is 4,180 J/(Kg K) and its density is 1000 Kg/m3.

5.2[10/100 pts] Calculate the exergy destruction for water turbine. (Hint: include all exergy property terms into and out of the system). The dead state is T0 = 293 K and P0 = 1.0 bar.

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Question 28: Other

Instruction
A minimum of 25 page business plan, suggested 15-20 slide powerpoint/prezi and 1-2 page reflection paper that refers to the project. The business plan is outlined with what areas or questions need to be answered. The project must be plagiarism free and done at a quality that I would receive an A.

BADM690 Strategic Management Project Guidelines
Table of Contents
Required Submissions…………………………………………………………………………………………………2 Tips for Writing the Plan……………………………………………………………………………………………..3 Project Format……………………………………………………………………………………………………………4 Expectations ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………5 Suggested Section Topics ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 7 Full Outline………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..8
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Required Submissions:
This project allows you to apply concepts learned in this class and your other graduate business courses. Make sure your report has been specifically prepared ONLY for this class. You must include a statement on your project cover page that the paper has NOT been submitted for credit in a previous class and will not be submitted for credit in any future class, either in whole or in part.
You may work either with a team (max 3 students) or independently on this project. You should identify a “real life” company that you can have enough access to in-depth financial and operational information to fully analyze the company’s strategic management situation. It would be best if you (or a group member) work in the company you want to analyze. This will facilitate the flow of information. This project has the following assignments or requirements:

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⦁ (1)  A PROJECT PROPOSAL from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page proposal that describes the company you are using for the project and the plan you have for completion. Document how you plan to get relevant company information. Ideally, you will analyze the entire company and then focus on specific projects and initiatives. You should include a proposed timeline for completion. If you are working with a group, explain how you plan to work with group members (who, when, where, etc.). The proposal should be completed individually so that I can confirm that all students have a project that will work for this assignment. You will need to submit the proposal in the “Project Proposal” assignment dropbox available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade).
⦁ (2)  A PROJECT UPDATE from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page paper that describes your progress. Explain what problems you have run into and how you plan to overcome those. Specifically list which sections you have completed and what is still remaining. Include an updated completion timeline from your proposal. If you are working with a group, explain how your group members are collaborating (who, when, where, etc.). You will need to submit the update in the “Project Update” assignment drop box available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade)
⦁ (3)  A FINAL REPORT that includes all of the detailed data, sources of information and an in depth analysis as well as a more exhaustive discussion of all of the points contained in the outline provided below. You will need to submit the final report in the Turnitin link called “Final Report”, which is available under the Project tab. (15%-group/individual grade)
⦁ (4)  A POWERPOINT/PREZI describing the Final Report that is a professional presentation. The presentation should summarize the findings and recommendations. The submission must be placed in the drop-box called “Powerpoint” which is available under the Project tab. (4%-group/individual grade)
⦁ (5)  A COURSE REFLECTION PAPER that describes your experiences and learning in this course. You should describe the strengths and weaknesses in your capstone project. What did you feel that you did really well? What areas could you have improved on? If you worked in a group, specifically discuss the positive and/or negative contributions made by each individual. Also, please explain what new knowledge, skills, and/or abilities you have learned from the project and the case studies. Which case study did you enjoy most/least and why? In addition, please describe how the text material you
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studied this this course relates to: (a) your project, (b) the case studies, and (c) your current/past/future workplace. Use specific examples/concepts from the chapters. Also, include your opinions on different aspects of the course. What was most helpful to you? What was least helpful? How could you have improved your course experience and how could I have improved your semester? Finally, please include a section describing what comes next for you. What will your life look like post-MBA? Will you look for a new job, get a promotion, get married, move, go back for another degree (i.e. DBA, JD, PhD), and/or just enjoy more free time? The reflection paper should be approximately 5 pages and should be submitted in the drop-box called “Course Reflection” which is available under the Project tab. (10%-individual submission and grade).
Your first step is to decide whether you want to work independently or in a group. If you want to work alone, you will need to sign-up in the ‘Solo Sign-up List’. To sign-up, select any available Solo#. You must sign-up in a Solo# so that the assignments will be available for you, and you will be able to access your grades.
If you would like to work in a group, you need to first find or contact other students willing to work with you. To do so, you need to post your information on the discussion board link ‘Looking for Project Partners’. Once you have contacted other students, and agreed to work together, SIGN-UP in any available Group# in the Group Sign-up List. Please, select a Group Number that is available and make sure to sign-up on the correct Group# (The Group# with your chosen team members)! Please, make sure that all members register in the same Group #, so look for your partners before signing up. Also, do not sign-up in a group without permission or agreement that you will work with the group. You must contact the members first.
The maximum number of members in each group should be 3. Keep in mind that the higher the number of members, the higher the expectations from the report.
Your next step will be to decide the company to analyze and begin your project proposal.
Tips for Writing this Plan:
⦁ All of the writing involved in the assignment should include the use of proper citations (APA) for sources quoted or used. This applies to both the powerpoint presentation as well as the accompanying complete report.
⦁ Grammar, spelling, and formatting are important. Just because the document has passed spell check doesn’t mean the word is correctly used in context or spelled correctly in context. Please use a traditional 12 pt. font.
⦁ Your powerpoint presentation is to be done from the vantage point of an executive presentation to senior management including the CEO, COO, CFO, etc.
⦁ Clearly identify the readers of this document. Then write the plan in a style that is easily understood by readers.
⦁ Remember that this plan is a working document that has the clear purpose of initiating focussed action and generating clear and measurable results. Avoid the excessive use of
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descriptive adjectives to ‘pad’ or over-sell the plan. Flowery, highly descriptive language can cloud key issues, blur the plan’s focus and slow/confuse its implementation
⦁ Keep the plan ‘tight’; ensure it remains concise, balanced, clear and logical. Where possible use quantitative rather than qualitative information. Remember the KISSS approach to planning; keep it simple, short and specific. Interlink all Sections, with the Market Analysis (SWOT) providing a clear focus for all subsequent sections.
⦁ Focus on facts and information from credible and reputable sources. Where possible avoid critical dependencies on one source of information. Build redundancy into information sources. Make sure to validate all key information used in the plan.
⦁ Always remember that faulty assumptions and faulty logic are some of the greatest hazards to business performance and business planning. Also remember that a good plan implemented today will always beat an excellent plan implemented sometime in the future. So, get the plan completed and into action as soon as is practicable. Also, plans must be adaptive to changing circumstances. If the plan is not performing be prepared to complete ‘major surgery’ on it.
⦁ If any information is overly repetitive between sections, skip it and note that that information has been covered and where to find it.
⦁ If any section doesn’t apply to your industry/company, skip it and note that it is irrelevant.
Project Format:
The format of the final report must be digitally submitted using a 12 pt. font in word (.DOC) document format. You must use the outline provided. The main document should include a minimum of 25 and a maximum of 40 double-spaced pages (if you go above this number, make sure that the information provided is necessary). Appendices may be located at the end the report, and are not included in your maximum page count. Your references may also appear at the end of the report, before the appendix. Organize the final report under section headings and subheadings as needed. Finally, as in most business writing, the paper should adequately convey and document what you want to say, but otherwise be no longer than necessary.
The final written report will be graded primarily on its content, however, format and presentation is important too. Grading will also consider the report’s organization (sequence of ideas), balance (evidence of comparable degree of analysis in sections of comparable importance), style (English usage, grammar and punctuation), and its implementation schedule.
If you are interested in modifying the plan, please ask. I am flexible and I want you to
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get as much out of your time in my class as possible.
Citations and References
⦁ You MUST use APA style. Please, look on the Internet or purchase the APA guides. In addition, Microsoft Word Software comes with these Citations styles functions embedded in the system. Please, do not use Chicago or Turabian styles.
⦁ It is very important that you use the proper in-text citations and reference style. Footnotes
Footnotes in the text must be numbered and typed at the bottom of the page where the footnote is made or on a separate page following the text (i.e., endnote). A footnote or endnote should be used to clarify the text, define terms, make comments, or to list additional sources. Footnotes provide additional information that would detract from the subject being discussed in the body of the text. Again, Microsoft Word software provides this function, which is easy to use!
Figures and Tables Captions
⦁ Search online for the APA and how to caption figures and tables. Then, look online for how to caption figures and tables using Microsoft. http://www.microsoft.com/education/AddCaption.aspx
⦁ Remember, if captioning Tables, the caption goes at the TOP of the Tables. However, if captioning figures or graph, the caption goes below the figures or graph and should include the source of the table (unless you have developed).
⦁ All Tables/Charts/Figures should have a descriptive title. Power Point
In addition to the written report each team/individual will prepare a POWERPOINT presentation. Assume this presentation will be displayed for a team of venture capitalists, entrepreneurs, and directors of the business you selected that may be in attendance to assist in the evaluation of your plan. It should be professional, but interesting. It should probably be between 15-25 slides, but that is not a requirement only a recommendation.
Expectations for the Capstone Project:
Your success in the business world will depend, to a large extent, on your ability to communicate. Courses during your first few years at the Business School provided the opportunity to hone your written and oral communication skills. This course will provide you with the opportunity to develop further both of these skills. You will be required to write a formal report, which might possibly be available for external judges at the end of the semester and try to convince them of the strength of your Project. The goal of this paper is to examine a company in depth to identify strategies that may have a positive impact on the firm. Remember that a strategic change is typically initiated in reaction to a triggering event and is rare, consequential, and directive.
Substance: You should substantiate what you are trying to convey with facts and data. In most cases, you will be asking the reader of your business report to commit substantial resources–financial, human, or physical–to a project. The decision-maker will not make
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the decision because you think is a good concept. Rather, you will need to convince the reader by providing hard facts and data with appropriate citations. Your rationale and reasoning should be explained logically and clearly. Effective business reports are not documents put together at the last minute—they take time to develop.
Style: The style of your business reports should be clear, concise, and to the point. The executive reading the report does not want to be entertained. He or she wants the information necessary to make a decision. Avoid flowery language with lots of adjectives and adverbs. I have high expectations. If you want to excel in the business world you should too.
Outline: You should follow the outline provided. However, most word processing software includes an outlining function. Use it. Begin your reports by developing an outline to organize your thoughts and the concepts you are trying to convey. The more comprehensive and detailed your outline, the easier it will be to write the report.
Proofread: Carefully proofread each draft of the report. You will probably need three or four drafts before you are satisfied with the report.
Exhibits/Tables/Appendices: I do not expect to receive exhibits or appendices with your handwriting on them. Instead, you should have typed exhibit numbers (let me know if you want some help). This includes copying exhibits from other sources. Unless you are using a photograph that cannot be reproduced in Word document, I expect you to make models, charts, spreadsheets on your own. This takes time but it is all part of being professional. Also, it is important to use captions for Figures or Graphs and Tables. If using Microsoft Word (or any word processor), you can select (highlight) the figure or table, then right click and select insert caption. This will insert automatically the caption (Figure 1 or Table 1) label and number. By doing this you will be able to use the captions as reference in the report. Finally, for Figures and Graphs the captions should be inserted below the graphs. For Tables, the captions should be inserted above the table. Check these in any of your textbooks, look how tables and graphs are reported.
Due dates: Reports are due on the dates assigned and there is no time in the schedule for the report to be turned in late because grades are due to the registrar just after the project due date.
Grading: Reports will be graded as if I were an executive trying to make a business decision based upon the written report. Grading will be competitive. That is, your reports will be graded relative to those turned in by your classmates. Proper spelling, syntax, grammar, punctuation, bibliography, citations, footnotes, and professional appearance are expected. Your grade may be lowered as much as two full letter grades if these areas are lacking.
Reviewing papers: I am willing to discuss the logical reasoning and proposed content of your reports. Before visiting my office, emailing or calling me, you should have made significant progress and should be well prepared.
Plagiarism: Don’t do it. Students are expected to adhere to the University policies regarding academic honesty as stated in the student handbook. Cheating or plagiarism will not be tolerated. Plagiarism includes taking exhibits or ideas from books or websites without giving credit to appropriate sources in addition to direct copy/paste instances. I am very strict about this and I will not hesitate to report academic dishonesty to the university. The work you submit MUST be your own thoughts and written in your own words. Written
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assignments will be run through TURNITIN.
If your submission is above that limit you may be asked to redo the assignment or depending on the severity of the infraction, you
may even receive an automatic 0 on the assignment (and therefore fail the course). In addition, you may also receive an academic dishonesty warning/report.
Suggested Section Topics:
The following is a simple, but effective planning format that will fit many of the sections in this plan. The format is not rigid and should be adapted to the requirements of individual sections as applicable. The four sub-sections that comprise the suggested format are as follows:
⦁ Current Situation
Clearly and concisely present the current situation with any contributing history, and any trends, cycles, changes or future developments that are relevant
⦁ Key Issues
Clearly define the most urgent and important issues as they relate to the current situation for this Section, and the overall purpose of this plan and the company’s Mission. Key issues are usually those strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats, capability gaps and impediments that impact on business performance
⦁ Strategies to Address the Key Issues
Formulate strategies using the SMAAART acronym to address the key issues. SMAAART (Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Achievable, Affordable, Relevant and Time-bound)
⦁ Key Performance Measures and Targets
Establish key performance measures/indicators, performance targets and time lines in conjunction with the strategies to assess and improve performance
For your capstone project there is no reason
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for the TURNITIN match to be any higher than 20%.
Final Report Outline:
Here is a detailed outline of what you should include in your report. You should use the headings and subheadings, but your paper should be in paragraph form. If any of the headings/subheadings do not apply to your project, just type does not apply or disregard the section.
Thus, at a minimum you must develop a strategic plan for the study entity that adequately covers:
⦁ i)  Title Page:
⦁ Strategic Business Plan for “Company Name”
⦁ Period of the Study (i.e. January 2018 to December 2019)
⦁ Team Members
⦁ Originality Statement
⦁ ii)  Summary:
The Summary is the last section written, but is placed in the front of the paper. It should be restricted to two to three pages in length. In essence the summary is a very effective distillation of the overall strategic plan into a ‘hard hitting’ summary of key performance initiatives and performance targets. Typically it would include a brief description of the company and then the following information about the proposed strategic plan:
⦁ Purpose:
⦁ The Business Opportunity
⦁ The Product
⦁ Main Findings:
⦁ The Market Strategy
⦁ The Management Team
⦁ Profit and Cash Projections
⦁ Investment Needs
⦁ Returns to Investors
⦁ Conclusions and Recommendations
⦁ iii)  Table of Contents
⦁ iv)  Body of the report:
1) Strategic Focus
⦁ The Aim of this Plan: What do we wish to achieve with this plan (start, grow,
consolidate, downsize, or exit)?
⦁ Our Mission: A Mission Statement clearly defines the primary purpose or
reasons for our existence. It is heavily focused on customer value. It is also vital to achieving organizational alignment. A mission statement typically provides clear and concise answers to the following questions:
Remember, I am flexible and I want this project to be as relevant to
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your situation as possible.
⦁ What products and services do we deliver?
⦁ Where and when do we deliver our products and services?
⦁ Which customer groups are our primary groups?
⦁ Where are our primary customers
⦁ What tangible value do our products and services deliver to customers?
⦁ What is our competitive advantage?
⦁ What additional community and environmental benefits do we generate?
⦁ Answers to the above questions provide a start-point for preparing a statement that clearly positions the company in the minds of key stakeholders and customers
⦁ Core Organizational Competencies: Which core organizational skills and competencies are vital to achieving our mission
⦁ Organizational Values: What core organisational values must be imbedded in our organisation to establish a culture capable of achieving our Mission?
⦁ Highest Priority Goals: List up to six of your highest priority goals in order of priority. These goals are formulated at Section 17. Section 17 shows how to use the SMAAART acronym to write clear, concise action-oriented goal statements. SMAAART Goals – are Specific, Measurable, Action-oriented, Achievable, Affordable, Time-bound. An example of a SMAAART Goal: By 30 June 2002 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.

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In essence strategic goals progressively take the company to its next level of performance and keep it there.
⦁ Goal One
⦁ Goal Two
⦁ Goal Three
⦁ Goal Four
⦁ Goal Five
⦁ Goal Six
⦁ Performance Objectives: The performance objectives below, in combination, form a performance scorecard for easily tracking the performance improvements generated by this plan. Section 17 provides the inputs for this scorecard. The planning team determines the composition of the performance scorecard.
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Performance Area Performance Measures Target Time Frame
Financial Performance
Customer and Market Performance
Internal Efficiency and Effectiveness
Long Term Development and Innovation
2) The Business:
Provide a concise overview of the business. Areas for consideration when preparing this section to include:
⦁ Owners/Directors/Shareholders/Shareholdings
⦁ A brief history of the business
⦁ Corporate and business cultures
⦁ Nature of the business and it main activities
⦁ Location
⦁ Current stage in its life cycle
⦁ Past performance and key achievements
⦁ Key business advisors – Solicitor, Banker, Accountant, and Consultants
⦁ Relationships with key stakeholders
⦁ Competitive strengths and weaknesses
3) Market Analysis
Conduct a detailed analysis across each of the following areas to identify and quantify key market opportunities/gaps, barriers to market entry, threats, compliance requirements, risks, performance multipliers, critical success factors, etc. that must be considered when developing high priority product development, marketing and business strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
⦁ Global/National Trends, Developments, Cycles and Changes of Relevance
⦁ Macro-environment (i.e. political, economic, legal, social/cultural,
demographics, technology)
⦁ Industry
⦁ Markets, Customers and Suppliers
⦁ Competitors and their Products
Questions typically asked during the analysis would include:
⦁ What are the industry’s economics, critical success factors, key risks,
competitiveness, compliance and standards requirements, emerging trends
and key technologies?
⦁ Who are the key customers and major competitors in each target markets?
⦁ What are the sizes of the target markets? Are they growing? If yes, at what
rate?
⦁ What market share does each major competitor hold in your primary markets
⦁ What are the strengths and weaknesses of major competitors and their
products?
⦁ What are the competitive price points for products in each market?
⦁ What competitive advantages must your products have to successfully enter
and compete in target markets?
⦁ How will you differentiate your products and add more-customer-value than
competitors?
Key questions about your primary customers:
⦁ Specifically what need or problem does your product target?
⦁ Who will make the decision to purchase your products?
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⦁ What are their decision criteria?
⦁ Where are the products bought?
⦁ How are the products bought?
⦁ When are the products bought?
⦁ Why are the products bought?
⦁ How well do you know your primary customers and key competitors?
⦁ How strong are your relationships with key customers and key stakeholders?
How do you involve them in product development? What factors will be
critical to building strong and enduring brands with them?
⦁ What levels of demand for your products are realistic across your primary
markets?
⦁ In order of priority what are your primary markets? Why?
⦁ How will your primary competitors react when you enter their markets, now
and over the next two years?
⦁ What are you going to do about their responses?
⦁ What are the major barriers to market entry?
⦁ What are the critical success factors for each market?
⦁ What key product distribution, product support and customer service issues
must be considered?
⦁ Which companies and products are likely to become competitors in the
future?

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⦁ What new or emerging technologies and substitute products are likely to
become threats in the future?
4) Products
Based on the findings of Section Three identify your product’s key strengths and weaknesses as they relate to key market opportunities and threats. Then develop strategies to address each issue (eg, build on strengths and correct weaknesses) for each product in your product portfolio. When preparing this section consider the following framework for clustering key issues and related strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
⦁ Describe your current and near-future products?
⦁ What gives your products a clear competitive advantage?
⦁ What are the benefits and value provided to customer as opposed to
‘features’?
⦁ What are the environmental and social impacts and implications?
⦁ What regulations, standards and codes must be complied with?
⦁ At what stage is each product in its life-cycle? For example:
⦁ Research completed
⦁ Prototype completed
⦁ In-house testing
⦁ Customer testing
⦁ Market ready
⦁ First up-grade completed
Also consider conducting the product analysis and planning for this section
across the following stages:
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⦁ Current Situation
⦁ Key Product and Market Issues
⦁ Key Strategies
⦁ Performance Measures and Targets
5) Marketing
Based on discussions at previous sections develop a concise set of highly focussed marketing strategies for your most attractive and highest priority markets. These strategies will guide your market entry, market development, and brand building activities. Establish budgets for these activities. Set realistic and measurable performance targets and time lines for each market entry/development strategy. These targets are critical to designing and building business and production capacities aligned with expected market demands on entry, and in to the future.
In essence marketing strategies in combination create the well differentiated, high value and compelling proposition to customers that persuades them to purchase from you rather then a competitor. These strategies should build on the competitive strengths of the company while exploiting the weaknesses of key competitors. A highly competitive, high-value proposition to customers is typically created around the following drivers of competitive advantage:
⦁ Product distribution eg, simple, speedy and easy customer-access to the product
⦁ Product benefits highly valued by the customer
⦁ Product promotion
⦁ Customer communication, interaction and feedback
⦁ Product support for the life of the product
⦁ Customer service
⦁ Product pricing and purchasing
⦁ Product presentation and packaging
⦁ Product compliance with all relevant legislation
6) Research and Development
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues (strength, weakness, gaps, threats and opportunities) and develop related strategies for addressing each key issues. Link the R&D effort to your market research, product development and marketing activities discussed in previous sections. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Areas to be analysed to include:
⦁ Sources of R&D
⦁ Current and planned
⦁ Strategic alliances for R&D
⦁ Intellectual Property Protection
⦁ Patents held plus the corporate entity that holds the patents
⦁ Shared intellectual property and its protection
⦁ Intellectual property being used, but not owned
⦁ Intellectual property protection currently being sort for new developments

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⦁ Current and planned R&D activities
⦁ Processes employed for the development and commercialisation of new
products and technologies
7) Production and Delivery
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in production capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the marketing requirements and targets, and R&D requirements developed in earlier sections. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively expand production capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints are factored in to this planning.
Key issues are typically identified following an evaluation of key production and delivery performance-drivers. Typical areas to be addressed during this evaluation include:
⦁ Plant design, location, size and site requirements
⦁ Access to key manufacturing technologies
⦁ Production capacity and capability requirements
⦁ Criteria for selecting contractors and suppliers
⦁ In-house versus out-sourcing of manufacturing requirements
⦁ The manufacturing and production standards, codes, regulations and
OH&S requirements that must be complied with
⦁ Equipment needs
⦁ Inventory management
⦁ Manufacturing processes – configurations and technologies
⦁ Product and production costings
⦁ Purchasing systems
⦁ Quality control systems
⦁ Manufacturing resources planning
⦁ Material requirements planning
⦁ Warehousing
⦁ Scheduling and dispatch
⦁ Material supplies and inventory
⦁ Critical/key inputs to all manufacturing and production processes
⦁ Risk management
⦁ Key staffing and skills requirements
⦁ Clear linkages to, and feedback loops with the company’s marketing,
product development, and R&D functions
⦁ Work systems and teams for staff
⦁ Designing, testing and improving all production and delivery systems
to meet market demands and expected growth
⦁ Key performance measures and targets for controlling and improving
all production and delivery systems to increase production efficiencies
and effectiveness.
⦁ Benchmarking and best-practice
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8) Supply Chains
Provide a background to current activities and list all key suppliers. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in supply chain capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the production and delivery requirements and targets developed at Section Seven. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively improve supply chain capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning. Supply chains assessments to include out-sourcing. For example any R&D that is out-sourced should be included in this assessment. Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
⦁ Current Situation
⦁ Key Supply Chain Issues
⦁ Key Strategies
⦁ Performance Measures and Targets
9) Business Systems and Processes
Based on the plans/strategies developed and performance targets established in sections One to Eight identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – within the business systems and processes that drive business performance. Then develop strategies to address these issues.
Performance reviews to improve internal business systems and processes typically include an assessment of the following performance areas:
⦁ Quality Management (eg, ISO 9001 – Quality Standard, AS 4269 – Complaints
Handling Standard)
⦁ Risk Management (eg, AS/NZS, Risk Management Standard)
⦁ Regulatory Compliance (Search for any Compliance Program Standard)
⦁ Information Management and Security (eg, Security Standard AS/NZS
ISO/IEC 17799:2000)
⦁ Financial management
⦁ Managing the environmental and social impacts of business operations
⦁ Performance improvement across the business, to include performance
indicators and targets
⦁ Future planning and ongoing innovation (eg, new product development &
process innovation)
⦁ Employee performance and morale
⦁ Stakeholder relationships
⦁ Board and management performance
10) Stakeholder Relationships and Alliances
Describe the current situation and list those key stakeholders that currently contribute to business performance. Identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – that relate to improving stakeholder relationships and alliances. Then develop strategies to address each key issue.
Stakeholder groups typically include shareholders/blockholders, customers,
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suppliers of good and services, employees, regulators, the environment, community, and government departments. Questions asked during the stakeholder analysis include:
⦁ Are all of our key stakeholders clearly identified?
⦁ Who will become key stakeholders in the near future?
⦁ Are their expectations and requirements clearly understood?
⦁ Are they regularly consulted?
⦁ Are they kept updated, and involved in those business decisions that will
affect them?
11) Organization and Management
Section Seven provides clear production and delivery projections and targets for the company. Current organisational structures and human resource capabilities will most likely require improvement to meet these increasing business demands.
Conduct an analysis of the current situation and growth projections for the company to identify the key organisational and human resource issues that must be addressed if these growth projections are to be realised. Then develop strategies with key performance measures and targets to address these key issues.
Areas to be addressed include:
⦁ Organizational Chart – show current structures and future structures
⦁ The Management team with brief resumes – show the situation now and in to
the future
⦁ Staffing requirements – now and in to the future
⦁ Job descriptions and work design for management and staff – now and in to
the future
⦁ Human performance standards, measurement and feedback – now and into
the future
⦁ Management and staff training and development – now and in to the future
⦁ Recruitment and induction – now and in to the future
⦁ Encouraging innovation across the company
⦁ Providing leadership and building morale
⦁ Training needs analysis – now and in to the future
⦁ Occupational health and safety
⦁ Industrial relations
⦁ Wages and on-costs
⦁ Other relevant human resource issues
12) Environmental and Social Impacts
Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
⦁ Current Situation
⦁ Key Environmental and Social Issues
⦁ Key Strategies
⦁ Performance Measures and Targets
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13) Risk Factors and Regulatory Compliance
⦁ Risk Management
Establish key risks to the overall business and its performance by identifying high priority risks within each performance area represented by the sections of this plan. Quantify these risks by assessing the gravity of their impacts on the business should they be realised, and determining the probability that they will be realised.
Following quantification of the risks establish an order of priority for their control. Then develop risk management strategies – with performance measures, targets and time lines – that address the highest priority risks.
⦁ Regulatory Compliance
Conduct an audit of regulatory compliance requirements across each area of the business as represented by the sections of this plan. Develop strategies to address regulatory gaps and weaknesses. Search for any Compliance Programs Standard that could provide a good framework for developing an effective compliance management system.
A regulatory compliance audit would typically embrace:
⦁ Corporate governance
⦁ Taxation
⦁ Superannuation
⦁ Employing staff
⦁ Health and safety
⦁ Trade Practices
⦁ Intellectual Property Rights
⦁ Environmental Issues
⦁ The Privacy Act
14) Corporate Governance
Areas to be addressed by this section typically would include:
⦁ Corporate Structures
⦁ Company Constitution
⦁ Board of Directors – Size and Composition
⦁ Duties and Responsibilities of the Board
⦁ Board Performance
⦁ Advisors to the Board
⦁ Shareholder Agreements
⦁ Major Shareholders and Their Representatives
15) Financials
Based on the strategies and plans formulated, costings calculated, and sales projected develop a set of financials for the duration of the plan. These financials should include cash flows, profit and loss, balance sheets, investment requirements, and key financial performance indicators (ratios), and related performance targets.
16) Application of Investment Funds
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This section should be linked to all prior planning and at minimum address the following:
⦁ What will be the total investment requirement across the duration of this plan
– when and how much?
⦁ Which investors will be involved; how much will they provide and when will
they provide it?
⦁ How will the funds be used at each round of investment?
⦁ What will the capital structure and ownership be after each round of
investment?
17) Strategic Action Plan
Primary Goals, Objectives and Strategies
The Aim of this section is to integrate all strategies developed across previous sections into a cohesive and balanced plan of highly focussed action that will achieve the overarching purpose of this Strategic Plan.
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Firstly…..High-priority, clear, action-orientated, time-bound and practicably achievable goals are formulated around clusters of ‘like’ strategies developed across the previous sections. Goals mark a clear and well-marked pathway for achieving the aim of this plan. To ensure the plan has a sharp focus the number of key goals should be restricted to six or less whenever possible. A clear time frame and performance target should be integrated in to each goal statement. An example of a goal statement: By 30 June 2018 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.
After each goal has been clearly formulated develop a set of supporting objectives and strategies. Objectives define the best pathway for achieving each goal. Strategies define the pathway for achieving each objective. Objectives and strategies are also written using the SMAAART acronym – Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Affordable, Achievable, and Time-bound. The final step in developing an interacting hierarchy/network of focussed action is the Task plan. This plan allocates people and resources to completing those tasks required for achieving each strategy. Vital budget and resource considerations are integrated in to the overall planning process to ensure all planned actions are affordable.
The interacting hierarchy/network of action for achieving the aim of the plan is illustrated below. The hierarchy/network of focussed action is not a rigid structure and, where possible, should be adapted to the each situation to ensure it provides fast, effective and relatively simple action pathways for delivering results of significance.
⦁ Key Strategic Goal
⦁ Objectives to achieve the strategic goal
⦁ Strategies to achieve each objective
⦁ Task Plans to achieve each strategy
⦁ Plan Implementation: Typically management in consultation with staff and
17
key stakeholders implements each Goal and its supporting objectives, strategies and action/task plans. Balanced teams can be effectively employed to implement strategies and supporting action/task plans.
18) Plan Improvement
⦁ Performance Measurement: The plan’s performance should be assessed
against its effectiveness in achieving its high priority goals and performance targets.
⦁ Plan Review and Up Date: To ensure the plan continues to provide a sharp focus and remain responsive to change it should be formally reviewed and updated every six months, at the achievement of a Strategic Goal and at any other time deemed necessary. Implementation of this plan is to be a fixed agenda item at meetings of the Board of Directors.
v) References vi) Appendices
18

Question 29: Law

Only do this assessment if you failed or have a deferral for the SECOND coursework (Client Advice)

Assessment Details

Assessment Length: 2000 (Two Thousand) Words

Note: The assessment length does not include footnotes, bibliography or tables of cases and statutes.

It is compulsory to use footnotes, a bibliography and tables of cases and statutes.

Question

Imran was the owner of a freehold property known as Soar Farm, title to which was unregistered when he purchased it in 1988. The purchase did not trigger first registration at the Land Registry as the area that Soar Farm was located in did not become a compulsory registration area until December 1990.

In 2015, Imran granted his son, Saleem, an option to purchase Ratae Cottage. Although the cottage was part of Soar Farm, it was set against the far boundary away from the main entrance and consequently shared the driveway to the main house on the farm.

The option was for a period of ten years from 2015. The option agreement was in writing and signed by both parties. The document provided that the option could be exercised by the service of a notice by Saleem to Imran at any time.

Almost immediately after the option was given, Imran and Saleem quarrelled and, without Saleem’s knowledge, in early 2016, Imran sold Ratae Cottage to his brother, Khalid. The purchase price Khalid paid for Ratae Cottage was about half its market value. Khalid was fully aware of the option granted in favour of Saleem. In late 2016, Khalid transferred Ratae Cottage back to Imran.

In 2017, Imran’s farming business got into difficulties and his other brother, Malik (who was working in Dubai), agreed to lend him a sum of money to help him out. He lent him the money on condition that he could have a share of the farm if it was sold. Malik also said that he was considering whether to move back to the United Kingdom. Pending that decision, he wanted to send his son, Rastam, to school in the United Kingdom and asked Imran if he could house Rastam. Imran agreed to let him occupy Ratae Cottage while he went to the nearby academy.

In late 2018, despite the funds from Malik’s loan, Imran’s business continued to struggle. Malik agreed to advance him more money as a loan, provided he agreed that, when Malik and his family eventually returned from Dubai, they could occupy Ratae Cottage. Malik has instructed his solicitor to draft the documents for a sale to take place. Documents have now been produced and are being discussed by Imran and Malik’s respective solicitors.

As Imran is still having financial difficulties, he has now decided to sell the farm to a neighbouring farmer, Rashid. He explains to Rashid all that has happened in relation to the land.

Rashid now seeks your advice as to whether he will be bound by any right or interest Saleem or Malik may have and, if he is, if there is any way he could avoid these.

Advise Rashid.

Further Considerations

You may wish to consider some of the following issues in your discussion of this scenario:

⦁ Initial Registration
⦁ The possible creation of easements
⦁ The creation or otherwise of equitable interests
⦁ The different treatment of equitable interests in registered and unregistered land
⦁ Effectiveness/validity of land transfer

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Question 30: Philosophy

Instruction
: Explain the family relationships you detailed. Describe what you have learned that might be helpful when working with families. Identify any substance use addictive disorders discovered in various family members. NOTE: Please do not use the actual names of your family members in order to protect their confidentiality. Utilize Smart Art or the drawing tools in Microsoft Word to complete the Genogram. Support your content with scholarly research. Utilize the GCU Library to locate a minimum of three scholarly sources. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. Explain the family relationships you detailed. Describe what you have learned that might be helpful when working with families. Identify any substance use addictive disorders discovered in various family members. NOTE: Please do not use the actual names of your family members in order to protect their confidentiality. Utilize Smart Art or the drawing tools in Microsoft Word to complete the Genogram. Support your content with scholarly research. Utilize the GCU Library to locate a minimum of three scholarly sources. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

Create a simple genogram for your own family, tracing your roots back three generations. Include this genogram in an essay between 300-600 words that addresses the following. Note: (I am a Black Female, with 5 siblings and I am the middle child and grew up in the mid-west (Iowa no substance abuse, but, both parents did drink occasionally loving family.). Any questions or concerns please advise.

Question 31: Religious Studies

Instruction

APA Style 5 pages 5 references/sources

Islam in USA. History of Islam. Numbers of muslims and mosques. percentage of Sunni, Sofi, Shia, and Ahmadiyya. when did Islam arrived and how did it arrived (by who). Muslim characters in USA, famous mosques, the statues of muslims in the region, any news or events happened in the last month (related to Islam), etc..

Question 32: Business

Instruction
Marketing Management Majors: Develop a business plan for a start-up company that provides some type of marketing product or service (e.g., advertising campaigns, sales, online promotions). Select the type of products or services that the company will offer. The products can be real or potential. A. Write an executive summary (suggested length of 1–2 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Identify the company’s name and location. 2. Describe the mission of the company. 3. Discuss two business goals in support of the company’s mission. 4. Discuss three keys to success for the company. B. Write a company summary (suggested length of 4–6 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Describe the history of the industry in which the company will operate. Note: Cite data and examples from your organization to support your analysis. 2. Identify the legal form that the company will take. 3. Describe the location and type of facilities needed for the company. 4. Describe the management structure, including key positions and specific responsibilities. 5. Describe the products and services offered by the company. C. Develop a market analysis (suggested length of 3–5 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Describe the target market for the company’s products and services, including the specific location, demographics, etc. Note: Cite data and examples from your organization to support your analysis. 2. Complete an industry analysis for the company, including current trends and statistics. 3. Complete a four-square SWOT analysis for the company in which you do the following: a. Identify three strengths, three weaknesses, three opportunities, and three threats. b. Explain each of the identified strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. D. Develop a market strategy (suggested length of 3–6 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Discuss each of the four Ps of marketing as they relate to the company’s products and services. 2. Develop a price list for the company’s products and services. 3. Develop a promotional strategy including
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specific tasks, target dates, and responsible parties. 4. Develop a monthly sales forecast for the first year of operations, including a discussion of expected market conditions. Note: The sales forecast will be used as the basis for your revenue in your financial statements. E. Develop an implementation strategy in which you do the following: 1. Summarize the overall strategy that will be utilized to launch your business, including target dates and goals for implementation. 2. Develop a post-launch monitoring plan (e.g., financial impact, quality control, customer satisfaction, monitoring schedule) to evaluate the success of the company in meeting milestones. F. Calculate and develop the financial statements and projections for the first year of business by doing the following: 1. Develop a month-by-month forecasted profit and loss statement using an estimate of revenues and operating costs based on the sales forecast. 2. Develop a forecasted balance sheet for the end of year one. G. Write a financial report (suggested length of 1–2 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Summarize the financial projections and the assumptions used in estimating the financial statements. 2. Describe the company’s financial position at the end of the first year. 3. Describe the company’s initial and future estimated capital/investment needs. H. When you use sources, include all in-text citations and references in APA format.

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Question 1: General Questions

Saint Leo COM590 Final Exam Latest
Saint Leo COM590 Final Exam Latest
Saint Leo COM590 Final Exam Latest

Question 2: General Questions

NSG6435 Week 5 Assignment 4 Midterm Exam / NSG 6435 Week 5 Midterm Exam -Family Health – Pediatrics- South University
NSG6435 Week 5 Assignment 4 Midterm Exam / NSG 6435 Week 5 Midterm Exam -Family Health – Pediatrics- South University

Question 3: General Questions

NR511 Week 8 Final Exam Latest 2019
NR511 Week 8 Final Exam Latest 2019
NR511 Week 8 Final Exam Latest 2019

Question 4: General Questions

HIEU 201 Chapter 2 quiz: Liberty University 1. The biblical account of the Exodus identifies ________ as leading the Hebrews out of Egypt 2. Under the rule of David’s son Solomon, 3. The Old Testament 4. The Hebrews thought of Yahweh as 5. Which of the following describes the Hebrews’ relationship with the natural world? 6. In the history of the Hebrew people, the covenant has served to 7. The historical significance of Israelite law was that it 8. The Hebrews regarded history as 9. During the flowering of the prophetic movement, the Hebrew prophets 10. All of the following is true of universalism in Hebrew thought EXCEPT 11. The first five books of the Old Testament are known as the 12. The Hebrews originated in 13. During the eleventh century B.C., the leadership of Saul united the ________ Hebrew tribes in Canaan. 14. After the fall of Israel to the Assyrians in 722 B.C. 15. The Hebrews’ concept of Yahweh 16. Which of the following is a fundamental Hebrew belief about the individual? 17. The Hebrews’ belief in moral responsibility resulted from 18. The Old Testament discussed slaves 19. Under Hebrew law, within the family 20. The legacy of the ancient Jews includes all of the following EXCEPT

Question 5: Business

State of Estates” is a national estate planning firm with 2,500 employees in eight states.

Research, as a team, three relevant court cases on age discrimination.
⦁ SUPREME COURT OF THE UNITED STATES GOMEZ-PEREZ v. POTTER, POSTMASTER GENERAL
⦁ Texas Roadhouse to Pay $12 Million to Settle EEOC Age Discrimination Lawsuit
⦁ Jury awards more than $800,000 in an age-discrimination case

Design a 2- to 3-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation with speaker notes for the senior management team at “State of Estates” to train them on the following topics:

⦁ The concept of “BFOQ” and how it applies to age

Give examples of how this concept has been applied to employment situations involving the age of the employee.

Question 6: Business

Strayer University – BUS 499BUS 499 Assignment 3 Business Level and Corporate Level Strategies ( IKEA )
In this assignment, you are to use the same corporation you selected and focused on for Assignments 1 and 2.
Research the company on its own website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions.
Write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:
Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor. Compare their strategies at each level and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice.
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets.

Question 7: Business

Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own
Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions.
Write a four to six (4-6) page paper in which you:
⦁ Assess how globalization and technology changes have impacted the corporation you researched.
⦁ Apply the industrial organization model and the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns.
⦁ Assess how the vision statement and mission statement of the corporation influence its overall success.
⦁ Evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of this corporation.
Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions.
Write a four to six (4-6) page paper in which you:

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Question 8: Business

CSIA 360 case 4 Public-Private Partnership

Cybersecurity Public-Private Partnership, participate or not participate?
CISA 360Cybersecurity in Government Organizations

Question 9: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
·         The age for full social security benefits is 67 today, with more than one-third of people working past the age of 70.  The ADEA was enacted to prevent discrimination against older workers.  Discuss some of the underlying situations that contribute to discrimination by age and what companies can do to avoid decisions based on age alone.

Question 10: Business

As a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm, your boss (Will N. Trusts) presents you with the following two scenarios:
Scenario 1
Ned was hired six weeks ago by “State of Estates” to supervise the call center on weekends. At the time of hire, Ned did not disclose that he is a follower of the “Weekend Warriors” religion. In observance of his religious practices, Ned may not work Saturday mornings before noon. Ned called out of work three Saturday mornings in a row, costing the company extra overtime costs. The company looked to re-arrange the schedule, but to pull in a more senior supervisor on the weekend would require time-and-a-half pay. In addition, call-center statistics indicate a drop in productivity when there is a change of supervisor mid-day. The company would like to terminate Ned’s employment.
⦁ Would Ned have an argument for religious discrimination against “State of Estates?” Why or why not?
⦁ If yes, would the company be able to assert any defenses under these circumstances?

Scenario 2
Ella works in the accounting department in the northern satellite office of the company. She has been employed for four years and performed her job well until recently when she was caught sleeping on the job numerous times. Ella explained to her supervisor that she suffers from sleep apnea and has not been sleeping well at night. She requested a special caffeine supplement, at $200 daily, to keep her focused on the spreadsheets.
⦁ What factors would a court consider in determining whether Ella’s sleep apnea qualifies her for protection under the ADA?
⦁ Would “State of Estates” have to provide the requested accommodation of the caffeine pills in this instance? Why or why not?

Create two 350-word memos in one document based on these two scenarios.

Format your memos, including citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

Question 11: Business

Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor. Compare their strategies at each level and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice.
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets.
Use at least three (3) quality references.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Identify various levels and types of strategy in a firm.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in business administration.
Write clearly and concisely about business administration using proper writing mechanics.

Week 8 Assignment 3
Student Full Name

Date

Everything in Blue below should be deleted
Due Week 8 and worth 150 points
Using the corporation you chose from Assignment 1, examine its industry. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. NOTE: Be sure to read Chapters 1 – 10 in the course textbook and complete the LEARN E-Activities for Weeks 1-8 as they set the foundation to this assignment. Be sure to cite your sources! Begin your paper on Page 2 and write a minimum of six (6) pages (does not include Title or Source pages).

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Week 8 Assignment 3
Write your brief introduction here: It should not be more than 1 good paragraph (about 5 complete sentences) to introduce the reader to your topic and it should explain in detail what your paper will be discussing. Much of your introduction may be taken from the assignment itself (in your own words). Read the scenario to get a feel for what the paper is about and explain what your paper will be discussing – so be sure to review the Assignment instructions AND Rubric for understanding. Finally, please ask me any questions about this assignment.
Business-Level Strategies
Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) business-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion. For background, be sure to research and explain the industry in which your selected corporation operates. You could also briefly (1 – 2 sentences) define the business-level strategy (cite your sources) you are writing about using the textbook/Learn, as an introduction to your analysis. Read Chapter 4 in the course textbook. Review the Week 4 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. In this section, you will want to research and identify the core competencies of your chosen firm. Demonstrate from your research how the firm uses its core competencies to create and sell its products in the marketplace. What actions & choices has the firm made to compete in individual product markets? Hint: “Every firm must form and use a business-level strategy.” (Hitt, Ireland, & Hoskisson, 2013, pp. 102). Review Chapters 4-9 for specifics on the business-level strategies.
Corporate-Level Strategies
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) corporate-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion.
You should briefly define (1 – 2 sentences) corporate-level strategy based upon the textbook/lectures (cite your sources) as part of your analysis. Read Chapter 6 in the course textbook. Review the Week 6 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content.
Competitive Environment
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor (this will require research/cite your sources). Compare their strategies at each level (market commonality, resource similarity, competitive behavior, and competitive dynamics/actions/responses) and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Market Cycles
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 (Competitive Environment section above) would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets. It would be a good idea to briefly (1 – 2 sentences) explain what the slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets are from the textbook (cite your sources) as a short introduction to your determination. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook with a special focus on the Competitive Dynamics section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Sources
Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.
List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.
Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course textbook to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.
Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.
The source page must include all sources used. All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.
Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic
source requires logging in).
When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:
Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)
The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.
Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.
⦁ Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
⦁ Have I deleted the blue font instructions in this template?
⦁ Did I leave the provided section headings in place, as provided in this template?
⦁ After deleting the blue fonts in this template, have I changed all font to black?
Additional things to keep in mind.
⦁ You will be graded on the content of your submission, the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills using the grading rubric.
⦁ Strayer uses SafeAssign – an automated plagiarism checker. It is advised that you do your own writing and use external resources to support what you have written in your own words.

Question 12: Health Care

NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Week 6 Quiz (2018)-Walden University Question 1 A 9-year-old male contracted influenza. Which of the following complications is of greatest concern to the nurse? Question 2 An 11-year-old female presents with a low-grade fever and cough. She is diagnosed with atypical pneumonia. What type of pneumonia does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing? Question 3 A 42-year-old male was involved in a motor vehicle accident during which he suffered a severe head injury. He died shortly after the accident from loss of respiration. The nurse suspects the area of the brain most likely involved is the: Question 4 A 50-year-old diabetic male did not take his medication and is now in metabolic acidosis. He is experiencing Kussmaul respirations. What type of breathing will the nurse observe upon assessment? Question 5 A 10-year-old female develops pneumonia. Physical exam reveals subcostal and intercostal retractions. She reports that breathing is difficult and she feels she cannot get enough air. What term should the nurse use to document this condition? Question 6 A 7-month-old male presents with cystic fibrosis (CF) accompanied by failure to thrive and frequent, loose, and oily stools. Sweat testing reveals increased chloride. Which of the following should the nurse observe for that would accompany this disease? Question 7 A 65-year-old female with emphysema presents to the ER for difficulty breathing. Physical exam reveals bluish skin and mucous membranes.

Question 13: Mathematics

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Question 13: Mathematics

⦁ Watch ⦁ this video (Links to an external site.) first.
⦁ Watch ⦁ this video (Links to an external site.) second.
⦁ Explain, in your words, what significance means in this experiment. How does probability play a role in determining significance?
⦁ Explain, in your words, what made the experiment in 2 statistically significant?

Question 14: Finance

As we discussed, there are four main factors that to go into loan pricing for financial institutions. As a bank manager, you are most concerned with the fourth factor that is the profit margin. Explain how the inflation and the interest rates are important when calculating the potential profit margin. Do any of these factors change if the loan is a fixed interest rate versus a variable interest rate? Your response must be at least 75 words in length.

Question 15: Finance

Deposit insurance is one safeguard that has been implemented against a potential bank run. After the financial crisis, the Federal Reserve increased the amount of money insured from $100,000 to $250,000. A bank customer has asked you why the increase was made and what this means for her money at your bank. Explain to the customer how the increase was a tool used by the Federal Reserve to help control the money supply, and discuss the benefits this brings to the customer. Your response must be at least 75 words in length

Question 16: Health Care

HER Security issue concerns

Assignment.

One of the best ways to learn about a subject is to discuss it with those who work in the industry. You can learn first-hand the real-world pros and cons of EHR security issues.

For this assignment, you will write a 1.5 – 2.0 page paper analyzing the issues surrounding what you discovered that are security concerns and issues are with EHR. In doing so the format should be written as if you gathered information from a manager of Health IT department.

Paper Topic:

⦁ What are the safety and security issues they see surrounding the use of electronic health systems technology?

Questions:

You are to create the questions and answer questions through research that revolve around password protections, internal information thefts, outside hacking, HIPAA concerns, ransomware, employee use of personal emails, PHI concerns, or any other avenues you care to explore.

Provide analysis and additional outside research to support the concerns. You will be graded on your strength of choice of interviewee, the depth of your questioning, outside research, and the structure of your write up.
.

Question 17: Engineering

Questions are on chegg website

https://www.chegg.com/homework-help/questions-and-answers/batch-production-unit-part-produced-result-6-operations-raw-material-cost-part-450-30-part-q39537037

Question 18: English

Argumentative essay on the immigration system of the US and if it works or doesn’t work 1,300 words

Question 19: Health Care

Instruction
A. Identify a current nursing practice within your healthcare setting that requires change. Note: You can describe your setting without identifying it by name and begin to introduce the specific problem that you will be addressing. 1. Describe the current nursing practice. Note: Describe the current practice and what may be wrong with the current practice that is resulting in the identified problem. 2. Discuss why the current nursing practice needs to be changed. B. Identify the key stakeholders within your healthcare setting who are part of the current nursing practice. 1. Describe the role each identified key stakeholder will play to support the proposed practice change. Note: These are the individuals who will make up the team to plan, implement and evaluate the change. C. Create an evidence critique table (see “Sample Evidence Critique Table”). Note: Insert your evidence critique table into your paper. 1. Identify five sources from scholarly peer-reviewed journals, which adhere to the following standards: a. Each source must be published within the past five years. b. Each source must relate to the change identified in part A. c. Each source must be listed in the table using APA format. 2. Identify the evidence strength of each chosen source, using the Strength of Evidence information in the study plan. 3. Identify the evidence hierarchy of each chosen source, using the Evidence Hierarchy information in the study plan. D. Develop an evidence summary based on the findings from part C that includes each of the five sources used (suggested length of 1–2 pages for all sources). Note: Create one well developed paragraph for each article which includes the purpose, methods or study design, results or conclusions and how the article supports the practice change recommendation. E. Recommend a specific best practice based on the evidence summary developed in part D. F. Identify a practice change model that is appropriate to apply to the proposed practice change. Note: Identify the model that you have chosen and give a brief description of how it is generally used. 1. Justify why you chose the practice change model and how it is relevant to the proposed practice change. 2. Explain how to apply the identified model to guide the implementation of the proposed practice change. Note: Clearly articulate how the model will be used to guide change and address each step individually and with specific detail. G. Discuss possible barriers to successful implementation of the proposed practice change. H. Discuss any possible ethical implications that may arise while planning or implementing the proposed practice change. Note: Describe which ethical principle(s) or ANA Code of Ethics provision(s) speaks to, or supports, your practice change and why. I. When you use sources, include all in-text citations and references in APA format.

Attention
If you want to edit this document,
go to the file tab (upper left), click download as, click Microsoft Word, and then save the document.

Title of Paper
Student Name (no credentials)
Western Governors University
Title of Paper – centered (no bolding or underlining) on 1st Page
SEE LAST PAGE FOR TEMPLATE NOTE

Professional Practice Description
Key Stakeholders
Evidence Critique Table
Full APA citation for 5 sources.
Include doi or url. Evidence Strength (I-VII) and
Evidence Hierarchy
Chan, H. Y., Dai, Y. T., & Hou, C. (2016).  Evaluation of a tablet-based instruction of breathing technique in patients with COPD.  International Journal of Medical Informatics, 94, 263-270.  https://doi-org.wgu.idm.oclc.org/10.1016/j.ijmedinf.2016.06.018
Level II, RCT
Piamjariyakul, U., Werkowitch, M., Wick, J., Russell, C., Vacek, J. L., & Smith, C. E. (2015). Caregiver coaching program effect: Reducing heart failure patient rehospitalizations and improving caregiver outcomes among African Americans.   Heart & Lung – The Journal of Acute and Critical Care, 44(6), 466-473.  Retrieved from:
http://www.sciencedirect.com.wgu.idm.oclc.org/science/article/pii/S0147956315001843
Level II, RCT

Evidence Summary
Evidence-Based Practice Recommendation
Practice Change Model
Potential Barriers
Ethical Considerations
References
Provide a reference in APA format for all in-text citations.
TEMPLATE NOTE:
This template provides a guide for graduate-level, scholarly papers that require APA style and formatting (American Psychological Association, 2010). The recommended font style is Times New Roman, and the font size is 12. Margins are set at one inch for top, bottom, left, and right.
Always begin your paper with an introductory paragraph or section that includes the purpose of your paper and what will be written in the paper – it may be helpful to write the paper first, then go back and write the introduction. The introduction should be included in the paper but does not require an introduction heading. Each content area/section of the paper should have a heading.
To follow is the recommended format for your title page and section headings consistent with APA format. The Title page is a separate page. Each section should include sufficient detail to meet the task requirements. All paragraphs should have at least three sentences. The References page is a separate page at the end of the paper.

Question 20: Other

Week 8- Assignment: Prepare a Revised Literature Review and Reflection

Instruction
This assignment has two components that will be submitted as one final comprehensive document: Part 1: Revise your literature review paper. Using the feedback and comments you received from your professor on the first draft of the literature review in Week 6, revise and edit the paper to reflect that feedback and incorporate all comments. Use the Track Changes option to indicate how you have incorporated the feedback, and use the Insert Comment option to indicate those areas where you have identified a need to revise further, where you have made recommended changes, and where you have made other adjustments based on what you have learned about scholarly writing throughout this course. Part 2: Prepare a reflection to include as an appendix to your literature review. Prepare a brief reflection paper in which you note any remaining questions and concerns that you may have about becoming an effective scholarly writer. Discuss areas of strengths and areas for further growth and development. Identify at least five resources available to NCU students to further enhance your writing skills and note how you will use them in the future. Part 1 Length: 12-15 pages Part 2 (appendix) Length: 2-3 pages Total Length: 14-18 pages, not including title and reference pages Your submission should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to the topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA style standards.

Question 21: Other

Week 7- Assignment: Present your Research Findings

Instruction

Using the topic from Weeks 1 and 2, prepare a PowerPoint presentation suitable for an introductory psychology course that would be offered to undergraduate students. Your presentation should include the following: Be sure to include a title slide. Introduce your audience to the topic. Provide an overview and background information on the topic. Explain at least three key points about the topic. Discuss at least two research findings presented in your research articles. Summarize the key points. Your final slide(s) should be your reference slide(s). Incorporate appropriate animations, transitions, and graphics as well as speaker notes for each slide. The speaker notes may be comprised of brief paragraphs or bulleted lists. Speaker’s notes are located underneath the slide itself (where you see “click to add notes”). Support your presentation with at least five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources may be included. Length: 12-15 slides (with a separate reference slide) Notes Length: 200-350 words for each slide Be sure to include citations for quotations and paraphrases on each slide with references in APA format and style where appropriate.

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Question 22: Other

Week 6- Assignment: Prepare a Literature Review

Instruction

Prepare a literature review that addresses the topic you have been working on throughout this course. Remember, you likely have prepared literature reviews, albeit probably as sections of previous papers in your studies. The challenge for you now is that you will apply a critical eye toward what is known about the research topic and what you can identify as possible gaps in past research. Your previous assignments will offer great help to you as you put your literature review together. Specifically, you will need to: Introduce the problem. Include a clear and concise thesis statement. Provide sufficient background to the reader. Identify similarities between various research findings on the topic. Provide examples to illustrate the similarities. Identify differences between various research findings on the topic. Provide examples to illustrate the differences. Synthesize the themes and relationships you have identified in your research into the topic. Summarize the key findings of previous research. Conclude with an assessment of the status of the problem being researched. Support your literature review with at least 10 references from scholarly resources. You may incorporate the 10 resources you have used in other assignments as well as include other resources you have located throughout the course. Length: 8-10 pages, not including title and reference pages Your assignment should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to the topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA style standards

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approximately normally distributed with mean 1387 grams and standard deviation 161 grams.

What proportion of broilers weigh between 1100 and 1200 grams?

What is the probability that a randomly selected broiler weighs more than 1500 grams?

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SHORT QUESTION (ESSAY / CASE STUDY / EXERCISE)
1. Read the two cases of Barbican Bank and Intermarket of Zimbabwe and answer the questions below
Barbican Bank (BB)
Barbican Bank was formed in the late 1990s at the height of a rush into the financial services sector by domestic investors. It was born out of an asset management company. The founder was a flamboyant businessman who was a public figure in the financial services sector. At formation the bank declared its focus would be the elite market. Its products were therefore targeted specifically at the top market. The bank also declared an intention to operate a very small branch network, no more than five branches. Barbican started experiencing liquidity problems in early 2003 and was placed under the curator in March 2003. Before being placed under the curator Barbican had been reporting fabulous profits most of them having come from non interest transactions. According to the Central Bank, Barbican ‘‘was experiencing serious liquidity problems as a result of imprudent banking behaviours. There was no clear separation between various related entities within the group which led to cross funding of operations and excessive risk taking among other shortcomings.’’ The Central Bank also noted that the bank was involved in ‘‘questionable cross-border foreign exchange activities.’’ The bank had shifted funds to South Africa from local operations with the object of establishing a new company in South Africa. During its operation the bank introduced the derivatives (junk bonds) market, which had been non-existent in the country’s financial sector. When liquidity problems besieged Barbican the Central Bank placed the banking division under the curator and the asset management company under liquidation. At the time of taking these measures the Central Bank had injected money into the bank as liquidity support but the bank appeared to be on a serious slide. The bank has since failed to repay on time the loan from the Central bank’s Troubled Bank Fund. On seeing his financial companies in difficulties, the Chief Executive (the founder) skipped the country. Despite problems in the home operations, the founding chief executive was trying to set up another financial services company in South Africa. During his tenure the Chief Executive is said to have been so dominant the board appeared clueless and powerless to restrain him. The bank has now been placed into
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PROGRAMME BACHELOR OF COMMERCE IN FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
MODULE FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT 3F
TOTAL MARKS 20 MARKS
liquidation by the Central Bank. It will be amalgamated into a merger of liquidated banks to form a new bank.
Intermarket (IM)
The founder established Intermarket Holdings during the late 1990s through acquisitions. At the time of inset of financial distress, the founder owned 72 percent of Intermarket Holdings through an investment company called Transnational Holdings. Transnational Holdings comprised companies in banking and insurance among others. Its influence in the financial services sector was in every sphere. Intermarket Banking Corporation one of the subsidiaries of the holding company started showing signs of liquidity problems in early 2004. This was during the period of a cash crisis in the country. Much as all banking institutions were affected by the cash crisis, Intermarket appeared completely outstretched by the crisis. In March 2004 the bank was placed under the management of a curator by the Central Bank when it appeared it could not pay its creditors and depositors on demand. On investigation, the Central Bank discovered that the Executive Chairman had loaned himself Z$90 billion of depositors’ money and the insider loans were not being serviced. The Executive Chairman was said to have been so dominant he had the veto power on everything that took place in the corporation. Investigations by the appointed curator have led to a rise in the figure for insider loans to Z$174 billion. The Executive chairman fled the country when authorities appeared to point at him as the main contributor to financial distress in the institution. Intermarket has been trying to enter into partnership with other banking institutions, in order to shore up its capital, without much success. Instead Finhold, another Zimbabwean financial institution whose banking subsidiary is owed Z$100 billion is positioning itself to take over major shareholding in Intermarket Bank through a combination of cash and debt swap. Finhold’s strategy is an attempt to protect possible collapse of Intermarket since it is a major creditor. Intermarket has to raise its capital base to Z$10 billion before 30 September 2004 as per regulatory authority requirements. Fraud by some IM employees taking advantage of weak management systems has exacerbated financial distress in Intermarket. The curator has however opened the banking division for limited services to depositors.
a)  The liquidity problems experience by Barbican Bank and Intermarket bank were as a result of poor risk management. Discuss? (6 marks)
b)  Identify the speculative risk that was taken by Barbican Bank? (2 marks)
c)  Lack of board independence inadvertently creates an epicentre for corporate governance failures. Discuss using the two cases and outline the ideal role of a board in corporate governance and risk management (4 marks)
Discuss the benefits of Enterprise Risk Management (ERM)? (4 marks)
Discuss how an audit committee would have to test the effectiveness of the risk management arrangements in place? (4 marks)

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The liquidity problems experience by Barbican Bank and Intermarket bank were as a result of poor risk management. Discuss?

Question 1
Explain how databases help ensure that organizations can maintain data integrity.
Your response should be at least 75 words in length.

Question 2

Compare how the data in transactional databases differs from that in data warehouses?

Your response should be at least 75 words in length.

Question 3
What is the relevance of data mining in organizations?

Your response should be at least 75 words in length.

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Imagine that you are hired as a CIO of a quickly growing retail chain with an online presence. You have growing transactional databases but want to build a business intelligence infrastructure. You also have various departments within your company with databases such as marketing, customer service, accounts payable, sales, and accounts receivable. What would your proposed business intelligence infrastructure consist of? Justify your decisions.

Course Learning Outcomes for Unit IV
Upon completion of this unit, students should be able to:
6. Compare and contrast databases and database management.
6.1  Explain the importance of maintaining data for IT professionals in organizations.
6.2  Describe the capabilities of databases and database management in organizations.
6.3  Explain the principle technologies and their uses when accessing information from databases.
Reading Assignment
Chapter 6: Foundations of Business Intelligence: Databases and Information Management

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Unit Lesson
Databases and Management
What do you think is an organization’s most important asset? Some people might argue that employees are the most important asset for any organization, while others would argue that an organization cannot function without its data. Imagine that an organization loses every server and database in its data centers. How would the business know which customers have ordered which products? How would they know what they currently have stocked in their warehouses? How would they know how much they paid for that product or how much they should charge for it going forward? How could they operate without any historical records at all? It would be like starting over as a completely new business, would it not?
Organizations have to be very protective of their data. As an additional point of complexity, organizations have to follow Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) laws, which require data to have integrity at a high level. This basically means that no one can touch a company’s data unless they have an expressed need for it and authorization to do so.
An organization’s data cannot have redundancy. Also, it must be consistent and have integrity. Integrity means that you are ensuring the quality of the data in your database. Integrity deals with the accuracy and reliability of the data. All of this is made possible by relational databases and database management systems (DBMS). Relational databases are designed to store data in a manner that will reduce redundancy and inconsistency. The word reduce is used here because the database engineer, or developer, has to make use of the rules and tools. Otherwise, there could be issues with bad data.
Consider the database as the foundation for business intelligence, data warehousing, and data mining. A DBMS includes the capabilities for organizing, managing, and accessing the data housed in the database (Laudon & Laudon, 2016). Information technology (IT) personnel can use queries and reports for accessing and manipulating that data. The design of the database should be such that it is normalized in order to enforce referential integrity. Data models should be created with relationships between columns in mind.
So, how is database data used for decision making? You may have had a database course before, or you may have had to pull data from a database at work. Your response may be just to query the data. However, doing that would just give you some data. How do you get the right data?
Let us assume you are trying to make decisions about what items to discount in one of your hundred company gas/markets. It would not be too hard to query the sales data from that store for the past hour. You might get a hundred transactions. What can you do with that information? What if you pull the information for the last week or month? You could get thousands to millions of rows of data. At what point do you have too much data to deal with in your database?
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MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 1
UNIT IV STUDY GUIDE
Databases, Information Management, and Business Intelligence
Data like this can be summarized as determining your sale of candy bars and UthNaItTyoxuSsTeUllDaYn GavUeIrDaEge of one hundred candy bars per day. But, how does that help you to make a decision about discounting candy bars?
What you need is a way to store the magnitudes of data in such a way that it is beneficial to the business.
What exactly is business intelligence? Now, go back to our previous example. Not only do you have one store to collect thousands of rows, but you have one hundred stores. There are millions of rows of records that are processed through your operational databases in a given month. You also want to collect data about pricing changes from the vendors and information about marketing trends. Then, you might want to collect information from external sources like your competitor data or demographic data.
How would you store this information? Well, you will store it in a data warehouse. Data warehouses are part of your business intelligence infrastructure. It is through this infrastructure that you can use tools like analytics and data mining to look for patterns in your data that you cannot see by just looking at query or report results.
The first analytical method is online analytical processing (OLAP), which allows the user to view data in different ways using different dimensions. This is commonly referred to as using a data cube. How could this be used for our example? Well, we could pull information on the best-selling candy bar, the average price, the day of the week that we sell the most, and the month of the year. Would that get us closer to knowing what kind of discount offers to put in our stores? Yes, but not close enough.
The next common analytical method is data mining. Data mining is more complex and looks for hidden patterns and relationships. Again, let’s apply this to our previous example. The results of our data mining could show us the best-selling candy bar, the average price, the day of the week, and the month that we sell the most candy bars. It may also tell us that the majority of the time that people buy candy bars is when they also buy a soda or coffee. Aha! Now, what can our marketing department do with that information? They can bundle products together and advertise them in the store windows and at the gas pumps: “Buy a soda and candy bar and get 50 cents off.”
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This is a simple example. Just imagine the rows of data that retailers like Amazon.com have stored in databases and data warehouses! Now, there are Web mining tools that help organizations understand customer’s Internet patterns, including which websites they frequent, what they buy, what they do not buy, and how long they spent on the websites. All of this is large data, and it is valuable data.
Organizations can make big decisions based on this data. They pay a huge amount of money to store and analyze the data that is collected. As an IT professional, it is your job to protect that data and to help ensure data quality and integrity. There are several concepts, other than the ones previously mentioned, that are also important to this field. The most important involve the need for organizations to set effective information policies and to have adequate data governance across the enterprise. We will cover more on these topics in a future lesson.
Reference
Laudon, K. C., & Laudon, J. P. (2016). Management information systems: Managing the digital firm [VitalSource Bookshelf version] (14th ed.). Retrieved from https://bookshelf.vitalsource.com/#/books/9780133898309/
Suggested Reading
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The following article presents practical information from top financial executives regarding how they use business intelligence in support of corporate strategies. You are highly encouraged to view this article.
In order to access the resource below, you must first log into the myCSU Student Portal and access the Business Source Ultimate database within the CSU Online Library.
Morio, J. (2014). Linking business intelligence to strategy. Financial Executive, 30(4), 66-69.
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 2
Title
Learning Activities (Nongraded)
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UNIT x STUDY GUIDE
Title
Complete the Management Decision Problem 6-8 on p. 247 in your textbook. Create a one page summary document addressing the question at the end of the problem. In addition to the textbook, you may use external sources or select sources from the CSU Online library. Be sure to reference and cite all sources used with proper APA formatting.
As this is a nongraded activity, this work cannot be uploaded to Blackboard. If you would like your professor’s feedback on your work, send this document to them in an email with a note that you would like to receive feedback on your non-graded activity.
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 3

Question 5: Finance

For this assignment, you will take the role of a business owner. As the business owner, you will create a case study that includes two parts.
Part I
Describe the type of business you own.
What products and/or services does the business offer?
How long has the business existed?
What kind of community does the business serve?
Part II
You are in an evaluation (or reevaluation) of your business’s needs. You see that you will need to reach out to the following financial institutions to meet their needs: insurance companies, pension funds, and finance companies. Define what each of these financial institutions will offer your business.
What are the major differences between the three financial institutions?
How could each one meet a need in your business? What financial institutions do you finally settle on? What services or products will you use?
Your responses should be submitted in one document and follow APA formatting.
You should have a minimum of three pages of content, one title page, and one reference page for this assignment. Be sure to include two scholarly sources in addition to your textbook.

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Health IT Breaking News Assignment

The ground underneath you in health care is changing hourly. As a manager, if you are not tapped into these changes, you will fall behind and not know of a new statute, regulation, or equipment. It is hard to do research every day, so why not have the information come to you?

For this assignment, you will review a minimum of five articles related to health IT and provide a summary of each. Really Simple Syndication (RSS) feeds bring news to you.

You will start by reviewing RSS feeds and scanning for relevant articles. Scan the articles daily for IT news related to electronic health records, HIPAA violations and medical record case reviews, rule changes, ethics, e-prescribing, documentation, billing, security, health IT safety, and many other concepts.

Here are some potential RSS feed addresses to sign up for, but there are many others you may use:

http://www.healthcareitnews.com/rss
http://www.modernhealthcare.com/section/RSS
https://www.healthitoutcomes.com/doc/rss-0001
http://managedhealthcareexecutive.modernmedicine.com/managed-healthcare-executive/content/rss-feeds
https://www.healthit.gov/buzz-blog/ (from Office of National Coordinator)

For this assignment, you will do the following:

Provide a cover page
Number your articles, and start with a reference in standard format to the article. Provide complete information, not just the URL.
Under each reference, provide a complete summary of the article. Do NOT cut and paste any of the article as part of your submission. ALL work must be your own writing.
Provide analysis. What does the article mean? How will this change things? In what way is this breaking news? Provide in-depth analysis. Superficial one-liner comments will not receive credit.
Double space your content

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It is expected that you will have a minimum of two complete pages of content. If you do not, then you have chosen insignificant articles, or not provided meaningful analysis.
Question 7: Biology

postulate a reason why so many aliphatic amino acids are “essential”

Question 8: Accounting

Prepare a process documentation that is prepared in a professional manner because it will be the desktop guide used by others.

Question 9: Business

What problem does your business solve?
How does your business generate income?
Which parts of your business are not profitable?
Question 10: Computer Science

I need 3-page paper on
Implementing Enterprise Risk Management (ERM), write a research paper on how ERM is leveraged to minimize risk and create opportunity in your chosen industry. Be sure to provide specific examples.

You can Pick IT industry and do like

1. ERM and IT industry
2.How ERM leverage risk in IT
3.How ERM create opportunity in IT

Question 11: Business

How does the information technology development for video-based businesses differ from traditional businesses?

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Question 12: Health Care

Management Plan Assignment

Setting up an EHR or comprehensive patient informatics system is not a one-time event. A person or a team of individuals must oversee getting new employees up to speed, maintain competence of existing employees, and make needed continuous changes to the system. It is a very dynamic process.

In this assignment, you are the head of a team implementing a new EHR system and must address the following areas. Use each one of the below items as a header, and describe how you would resolve issues in each area.

The Role of the Manager Implementing a New System. In this section of the paper, address the following issues related to implementing a new EHR system (10 points):

How the software selection process works
What contract negotiations should involve and include
What will be the role of the IT manager in the department
What role will a Strategic Planner take in the process
How will the system be financed?

Ongoing Maintenance and Upgrades to System. In this section of the paper you address the following issues that occur after the EHR system is up and running (10 points):
How will needed changes come about after the new system is up and running?
What will upgrades and new modules be added to the system?
How does the facility handle suggestions by staff that use the system?
How does the facility train new employees and provide ongoing training program for existing staff?

Use quality peer reviewed literature for each section to support each section and in-text citations. Write in third person only. It is expected this will be a minimum two pages. Have a complete reference page at the end (not just pasted URLs

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Question 13: Health Care

Descriptive Analysis Assignment

Many useful sources of statistical data are available in the public domain on the internet. The United States Center for Disease Control, for example, provides online access to their WONDER (Wide-ranging Online Data for Epidemiologic Research) databases of public health data.

For this assignment, you will be using the ad-hoc query and reporting tools provided on this site to summarize cancer mortality rates. Choose a state, and then collect and present information that answers the following questions:
Did cancer deaths in your chosen state increase or decrease from year to year between 1999 and 2005?
How do the 2005 cancer deaths in your chosen state compare to 2005 cancer deaths in four other U.S. states? (You may choose any four states you want for the comparison.)?
How do the 2005 cancer deaths in that state break down according to race?

You can use any state you wish, just use the same state throughout.

To answer each question:

Use the “Request Form” to specify suitable query criteria to get a result set that best answers the question.
Supply a title that accurately describes the data you’re requesting. Submit the query.
Browse the result set and capture screen shots of the:
Result set, and paste it into the assignment document you will be submitting.
Query criteria (at the bottom of the results page) and paste it into the document
Generate a map or a chart to visually present your results. You can select whatever type of chart (e.g. bar chart, pie chart, line chart, map, etc.) you think most clearly presents the data.
Capture a screen shot of the chart and paste it into the assignment document you will be submitting

Watch the video instructions for using the WONDER database. If you need help capturing screenshots, you can get instructions for Windows and Macintosh. You MUST submit ALL of the screenshots described (3 screenshots per question, 9 total) to get credit for each question.

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Step One: Select one of the following films to view based on the short descriptions provided below:
French-Language Films:
1. Intouchables (France, directed by Olivier Nakache and Eric Toledo, released 2011): Story of a young black Frenchman who is hired to take care of a wealthy quadriplegic.
2. Amelie (France, directed by Jean-Pierre Jennet, released 2001): Story of a naive girl in Paris who has her own way of helping those around her.
3. L’auberge espagnole (France, directed by Cedric Klapisch, released 2002): Story of a group of European exchange students who shared an apartment in Barcelona, Spain.
German-language Films:
1. The Lives of Others (Germany, directed by Florian Henckel von Donnersmarck, released 2006 ): Set in East Germany, it portrays the surveillance of a writer by the Stasi (state secret police).
2. The Edukators (Germany, directed by Hans Weingarten, released 2004): Set in reunified Germany in the early twenty-first century, it portrays some young people who develop a new form of protest against what they consider to be the evils of capitalism.
3. Run Lola Run (Germany, directed by Tom Tywer, released 1998)
Spanish-language Films:
1. The Skin I Live In (Spain, directed by Pedro Almodovar, released 2011): A thriller about a doctor who holds an apparently beautiful woman captive.
2. The Motorcycle Diaries (Argentina, directed by Brazilian director Walter Salles, released 2004): Narrates the life of the young Che Guevara who sets out on a road trip to discover the people of South America.
3. Amores Perros (Mexico, directed by Alejandro G. Inarritu, released 2000). A car accident in Mexico City connects the lives of three strangers who are struggling with the reality of daily life.

Step Two: After viewing the film, select a theme/topic addressed in the film that you would like to explore.
Step Three: Write a response to the film’s treatment of the theme or topic that you have selected. This should be in paragraph form, 2-3 pages. Refer to specific scenes, dialog, or images in the film that address your topic. Include questions that you have that you would like to explore further. Conclude your analysis with a restatement of the most important question that you would like to answer regarding the meaning of the film.
Step Four: Provide a tentative bibliography, USING ONLY SOURCES FROM THE MLA BIBLIOGRAPHY. Try to select the sources that match your topic most closely. Include at least 4 sources and utilize the MLA bibliography format.
Step Five:
1. Choose one secondary source from your bibliography to read, preferably an article directly related to the film you are exploring. Read the article carefully and summarize its argument in approximately one page (250-350 words).
2. State how the direction of your research project has changed since your first draft based on the secondary source you read. If you do not see any significant changes in your direction based on the secondary source, state why.

Step 6: Submit all of the above as a Word Document in the TurnItIn Assignment by no later than NOON EST on August 9th.
MAKE SURE YOU KEEP A COPY/FILE OF DRAFT ONE, SINCE DRAFT TWO WILL INVOLVE ADDING ON TO WHAT YOU HAVE ALREADY DONE IN DRAFT ONE.

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You need to include an introduction, primary discussion, and summary. Include graphs, tables, and images, as necessary, to improve the clarity of your discussion. Your project needs to be both correct and well written. Communication remains a critical component of our modern, technological society. A few notes about format: you MUST use MS Word for your project and use Equation Editor for all mathematical symbols, e.g. 𝑧(𝑡) = sin(𝑡) + 1 ln(𝑡) . Problem 1: Consider the following Initial Value Problem (IVP) where 𝑦 is the dependent variable and 𝑡 is the independent variable: 𝑦 ′ = sin(𝑡) ∗ (1 − 𝑦) with 𝑦(0) = 𝑦0 and 𝑡 ≥ 0 Note: the analytic solution for this IVP is: 𝑦(𝑡) = 1 + (𝑦0 − 1)𝑒 cos(𝑡)−1
Part 1A:
Approximate the solution to the IVP using Euler’s method with the following conditions: Initial condition 𝑦0 = − 1 2 ; time step ℎ = 1 16 ; and time interval 𝑡 ∈ [0,20] + Derive the recursive formula for Euler’s method applied to this IVP + Plot the Euler’s method approximation + Plot the absolute error between the approximation and the exact solution using a semi-log plot
Part 1B:
Approximate the solution to the IVP using the Improved Euler’s method with the following conditions: Initial condition 𝑦0 = − 1 2 ; time step ℎ = 1 16 ; and time interval 𝑡 ∈ [0,20] + Derive the recursive formula for the Improved Euler’s method applied to this IVP + Plot the Improved Euler’s method approximation + Plot the absolute error between the approximation and the exact solution using a semilog plot
Part 1C:
Approximate the solution to the IVP using the RK4 method with the following conditions: Initial condition 𝑦0 = − 1 2 ; time step ℎ = 1 16 ; and time interval 𝑡 ∈ [0,20] + Plot the RK4 method approximation + Plot the absolute error between the approximation and the exact solution using a semilog plot
Problem 2: Consider the following Initial Value Problem (IVP) where 𝑦(𝑡) is the dependent function:
𝑦 ′ = 𝑦 − 𝑦 2 + 1.14 cos(𝑒 𝑡/2 ) with 𝑦(0) = 𝑦0 and 𝑡 ≥ 0

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Part 2A:
Approximate the solution to the IVP using the Improved Euler’s method with the following conditions: Initial condition 𝑦0 = 1; time steps ℎ = 1 8 , 1 16 , 1 32 , 1 64 ; and time interval 𝑡 ∈ [0,20]
Plot the Improved Euler’s method approximation for all 4 time steps
Discuss the results of these approximations
Part 2B:
Approximate the solution to the IVP using the RK4 method with the following conditions:
Initial condition 𝑦0 = 1;
time steps ℎ = 1 8 , 1 16 , 1 32 , 1 64 ; and time interval 𝑡 ∈ [0,20]
Plot the RK4 approximation for all 4 time steps
Discuss the results of these approximations
Question 16: Business

Marketers rely heavily on demographics when purchasing media. IMC Perspective 10-1 (p. 350-351) talks about additional factors that may be important. Discuss some of these factors and why they might impact media usage. Explain and justify your viewpoints. (10 points)

Question 17: Biology

What is disease rating?

Question 18: Engineering

How to find the proportional limit of a reloaded bar

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A 6.881-g sample containing magnesium chloride and sodium chloride was dissolved in sufficient water to give 500 mL of solution. Analysis for the chloride content of a 50.0-mL aliquot resulted in the formation of 0.5923 g of AgCl. The magnesium in a second 50.0-mL aliquot was precipitated as MgNH⁴PO⁴; on ignition, 0.1796 g of Mg²P²O⁷ was found. Calculate the % of MgCl²•6H²O and of NaCl on the sample.

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Instruction
For this Signature Assignment, develop and present a proposal for your intended research using a quantitative design. While the most important elements in any proposal are the fundamentals of the problem, purpose, and research questions, the bulk of the assignment will be the methodology. You will want to organize this by subheadings. The actual headings and information that needs to be included in part depend on the method used to collect the data. In studies involving the collection of primary data, you want to be sure to include the details of your sampling plan, measurement of variables, the actual data collection procedure, plan of analysis, and justification for your decisions. Be sure to include the following information in your proposal: •Introduction •Statement of the Problem •Purpose Statement •Research Questions •Hypotheses: Null and Alternative for each research question •Methodology ◦Research Design: Specific quantitative method to be used and rationale (Ex. experiment, survey, etc.) ◦Operationalization of Variable: Specification of the concepts to be measured, the operationalization of the variable(s) to be used to measure the concepts, the question(s)/scale(s) to be used and the resulting level of measurement. ◦Sample design: Specification of the population, method, sample size, specific procedures, and justification. ◦Data collection procedure: Explanation of how the data will be collected. ◦Intended data analysis: How will you analyze the data to test the hypotheses and provide answers to the research questions, including descriptive and inferential statistics? Provide your rationale. •Limitations: Any recognized limitations of the proposed study. •References In this assignment, you are expected to incorporate all previous instructor feedback. Your prospectus must be in APA format and be of the quality expected of doctoral-level work. All research elements must be in alignment and reflect a cohesive and comprehensive research study. Length: Your paper should be between 13 -15 pages, not including title and reference page. References: Include a minimum of ten (10) scholarly sources. Your presentation should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course and provide new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

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Instruction
Instructions This assignment consists of three parts: (1) Recommend and justify a method of survey administration to be used to meet the quantitative research objectives listed below; (2) develop a list of questions to be used on a questionnaire to meet the objectives listed; (3) Explain the method of survey administration you would use if a survey was conducted in your intended research. a.To determine the effectiveness of advertising of a specific product during the Super Bowl on increasing consumer awareness of the product. b.To determine the level of satisfaction of patients who are admitted to a hospital during the past 6 months. c.To determine if there is a relationship between the decision to pursue a career in law enforcement and gender. d.To determine IT professional’s perceptions of the best preparation for an IT career. Length: Your paper should be between 7-9 pages, not including title and reference page. References: Include a minimum of five (5) scholarly sources. Your presentation should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course and provide new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards

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Instruction
Instructions In this assignment, you are being given a number of constructs. Conduct scholarly research that has been published within the past five years that measures each on these. Based on this, provide a conceptual and at least one operational definition of each construct listed below. Based on the operational definitions, provide a measurement for the variable and explain the level of measurement (nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio) that is generated. Once this is completed, provide a conceptual and operational definition of two constructs you will be measuring in your intended dissertation research. Rather than present a traditional paper, organize the document by the following construct. a.Attitude toward new technology b.Customer satisfaction c.Self-concept d.Leadership style e.Organizational commitment f.Constructs you intend to measure Length: Your paper should be between 6-7 pages, not including title and reference page. References: Include a minimum of eight (8) scholarly sources. Your presentation should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course and provide new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards

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COMM 480: Seminar: International Advertising (Summer 2019)
Research Proposal
You will work throughout the semester to create a research proposal, in which you propose what you are going to do to test your hypotheses. The purpose of this assignment is to give you the opportunity to demonstrate your understanding of social-scientific research. You are NOT going to collect data or analyze data, nor are you going to present results from your study. This paper can build from the research question and articles cited in the annotated bibliography OR you can generate a new research question and annotate relevant articles. The project consists of two parts: a research proposal paper and a research presentation.
Research paper (100 pts.):
Although I do not like to provide a definitive answer about how many pages you will have to write to complete this assignment (because quantity and quality are not inherently related and because the goal of any good paper is to make a compelling, well written argument [regardless of length]), I understand that providing a general estimation of the length of a typical research paper is helpful. Therefore, you can expect to turn in a final product that is somewhere between 12 and 15 pages long (including a title page, abstract, introduction, literature review, methods and discussion, and references) (double-spaced pages, in Times Roman 12 font size, 1 inch margins on all sides). Papers not meeting these formatting requirements will be sent back for revisions. The late submission will result in a 10% deduction per day.
Title page: This is a separate page that includes the title of your proposal (e.g., Identifying global and culture-specific dimensions of humor in advertising: A cross-cultural analysis) and your own name, the course number, and school affiliation.

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Abstract: This section should be in a separate page that summarizes the purpose of your study, theories and hypotheses, proposed method, and discussion.
Introduction: In this section, you should introduce your study, and state the significance and the purpose of your study.
Literature review: In this section, you are going to review the existing research on your topic, explain theories adopted for your study, define the variables in your study, provide the rationale behind the hypothesized relationships between variables, and suggest the hypotheses and/or research questions to be addressed.
Method: This section continues from Literature Review. In this section, you are going to state the proposed method (e.g., experiment, survey, content analysis) to test your hypotheses and/or research questions. You need to be specific about research sample (i.e., who will be in the study or what will be analyzed in the study), measures (i.e., what variables will be measured), and procedures of your study (i.e., what will be prepared prior to the study and what will happen in the study).

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COMM 480: Seminar: International Advertising (Summer 2019)
Discussion: This section should address what your expected results of research mean in relation to the theoretical body of knowledge on the topic and your profession, and for communication professionals in the field being examined. In other words, what are the study’s theoretical and practical implications? It may be one of the most important sections because it answers the “So what?” question. Also, in this section, you should suggest directions for future research investigations.
References: References should be placed in separate pages following the “Discussion” section. Includes a minimum of seven references of scholarly journals or books. All intext citations must appear in the reference list; likewise, each entry in the reference
list must be cited in your text.
Please consult the sample APA papers I posted on Blackboard and the Purdue site (https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/section/2/10/) for formatting questions. In
addition, to help you better understand what a research proposal is, I have post a
sample research proposal, as well as completed research papers, on Blackboard, which may provide you with some ideas as to what a research proposal is.
Research presentation (50 pts.): You will make a presentation of your paper at the end of the semester. Prepare for presentation slides that can be taken up to 15 minutes. Following your presentation, you will provide discussion questions. NO LATE PRESENTATION IS ACCEPTED WITHOUT A PROOF OF OFFICIAL EXCUSE.

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Instruction
Produce a report that details Research and recommend strategies the company can take to reduce power consumption An energy audit on two options of a PC, laser printer and server package estimating the CO 2 emissions for these devices in a year and provide a comparison report summarising potential energy savings and financial costs A policy for procurement of equipment from ‘Green Suppliers’, including a disposal plan Project implementation plan highlighting at what stages you will introduce short and long term solutions that will save power immediately and long term List these additions in priority order and approximate the cost of each change

Sustainability Integration: ICT Planning and Design
This assessment is designed to be completed after you have completed your design project and proposal. Ensure you have completed your design project and have had it assessed by your teacher and returned.
Ensure you have completed the Sustainability training before you attempt this assignment
Assignment
You have just designed a solution for an organisation. A late change request has come through from the CEO and she would like some additions to the proposal. She has been reading a lot about how ICT systems are having a large impact on the carbon footprint of business.
Revisit your design, using your new Green IT skills and integrate sustainability elements to it. These elements must include, but are not limited to the following:
Research and recommend strategies the company can take to reduce power consumption
An energy audit on two options of a PC, laser printer and server package estimating the CO 2 emissions for these devices in a year and provide a comparison report summarising potential
energy savings and financial costs
A policy for procurement of equipment from ‘Green Suppliers’, including a disposal plan
Project implementation plan highlighting at what stages you will introduce short and long term
solutions that will save power immediately and long term
List these additions in a priority order and approximate the cost of each change
To complete this assignment you will need access to the internet. Here are some useful links:
http://www.eu-energystar.org/en/en_008.shtml http://www.greenit.org.au/ http://2virtualize.com/index_files/greendatacenter.htm http://42u.com/
http://sustainabledirections.com.au/
Feel free to contact your teacher if you require any assistance.
Submission
Upload your completed documents on the Upskilled Student Portal.

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Create a chart with rows and columns to establish the following requirements of discrimination under the law in the following areas at the top:

Title VII Gender Discrimination in Employment Practices
Sexual Harassment Based on Hostile Work Environment
Quid-Pro-Quo Sexual Harassment
Sexual Orientation in the Workplace

Along the left side of the chart, create the following rows:

Requirements to Prove Under the Law
Ways Employers can Minimize Liability
Recent Case Example

Complete the chart for each section.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the requirements of each type of potential gender discrimination.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the specific ways employers can minimize liability for each type of gender discrimination.

Research and include a relevant case to illustrate each type of gender discrimination.

Format your citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

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week 3 discussion
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
How does one recognize sexual harassment?
Discuss the different types of sexual harassment?
what is required to support a case of sexual harassment in that situation?

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Ethical Issue Analysis

 

Instruction

 

Instructions are attached

 

Purpose:  In this project, you will assess how two start up companies have come under scrutiny for their actions in operating in today’s business environment.  How these companies are operating are pushing the limits or have exceeded the limits of what is considered ethical and legal.  In completing this project you will have the opportunity to research the two companies, identify stakeholders influenced by the organization’s decisions and develop and evaluate alternatives, recommend solutions to ensure appropriate business practices and accountability occur

Outcomes met by completing this project:

  1. identify ethical issues that arise in domestic and global business environments using an understanding of ethical concepts and of legal and business principles
  2. develop and evaluate alternatives to, and recommend solutions for, ethical dilemmas, taking into account ethical and legal requirements and the essential mission of the business enterprise
  3. effectively communicate to internal and external business stakeholders the complexities of ethical issues, suggesting and analyzing various solutions in order to ensure appropriate business practices and accountability

Instructions

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Use the following steps to complete the project.  You will demonstrate an understanding of ethical concepts and of legal business principles and are required to use the course material to support the ideas and conclusions presented.

Step 1:  Course Material and Research

You are required to research the two companies to provide a company overview, to identify identify the issues and to identify stakeholders.  You will be using the course to address the questions and support the ideas, reasoning and conclusions made.  Course material use goes beyond defining terms but is used to explain the ‘why and how’ of a situation.  Using one or two in-text citations from the course material and then relying on Internet source material will not earn many points on the project.  A variety of source material is expected and what is presented must be relevant and applicable to the topic being discussed.   Avoid merely making statements but close the loop of the discussion by explaining how something happens or why something happens, which focuses on importance and impact.  In closing the loop, you will demonstrate the ability to think clearly and rationally showing an understanding of the logical connections between the ideas presented in a case scenario, the course material and the question(s) being asked.

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1.      PayPal opted to deviate from industry standards and build their own custom technology that would better suit their needs. When is it a good idea for companies to take this alternative? What issues factor into that decision? Provide a discussion and some examples.
2.      Although the new system has been quite successful, Pay-Pal has chosen not to license this technology to others, forgoing a potentially important revenue stream given the lack of good solutions to this problem. Why do you think PayPal chose not to sell this technology? Do you really think this can be made into a strategic advantage over their competitors? How easy would it be for their competitors to imitate this accomplishment?
3.      One of the challenges that PayPal faces now that they have managed to overcome the polylingual obstacle is finding the best way to put this functionality in the hands of the business, so that they do not have to go through IT each time. How do you balance this need for responsiveness and flexibility versus IT’s need to keep some degree of control to make sure everything keeps working with everything else? Provide some recommendations to managers who find themselves in this situation.

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Most people perceive international public administration to be a set of state structures, institutions, and processes. Opponents of globalization argue that it weakens states, making it difficult for them to sustain social welfare and environmental policies, and create fiscal redistributive initiatives.
According to James Bovard, a libertarian author who focuses on writing about government, proponents and businesses seeking to expand abroad claim there is little or no evidence of national governments’ decline. Congress, along with many policy strategists, seems to think that whatever the effects of globalization on governments, they are likely to be beneficial for long-term economic growth (Bovard, 1987).
Analyze the claims laid out in this controversy, and try to argue the strongest case you can in favor of the view(s) you find most convincing. In doing so, be sure to seriously consider the case that your opponents might make against your position, and why you would reject it. Use the Internet and/or Strayer databases to research evidence that supports your opinion. Determine your point of view on the issue, and support your position with information from at least three reliable, relevant, peer-reviewed references.
Create a PowerPoint presentation that covers the following:
Provide a brief description of the issue. Present evidence that supports both sides of the argument. In the Notes section of each information slide, you must write a narrative of what you would say if presenting in person. Provide at least three reliable, relevant, peer-reviewed references.
Note: Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Your presentation should include a minimum total of 12 slides, with 10 information slides.
Format your assignment according to the following formatting requirements:
Typed, double-spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with 1-inch margins on all sides. Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page is not included in the required page length.
Include a reference page. Citations and references must follow the APA format. The reference page is not included in the required page length.

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South University NSG6435 Week 4 Quiz / South University NSG 6435 Week 4 Quiz

NSG6435:  Week 4 Quiz

Question 1                          1 / 1 point
A school-age client presents to the clinic to establish care. The child has autism, facial dysmorphia, and growth retardation. The provider suspects the child has what condition?
A.            Down Syndrome
B.            Fetal alcohol syndrome
C.            Prader- Willi syndrome
D.            Turner syndrome
Autism, facial dysmorphia, and growth retardation are differential diagnoses of fetal alcohol syndrome.

Question 2                          1 / 1 point
A 8-year-old client was recently discharged from the hospital following an episode of meningitis. The client presented to the clinic for a follow-up appointment post discharge. The provider understands that the client’s is at increased risk for which complication(s)? (check all that apply)
A.            Hearing Impairment
B.            Paralysis
C.            Loss of Speech
D.            Infertility

Question 3                          1 / 1 point
A client with history of bilateral tympanostomy tube insertion presents to the clinic c/o otorrhea. The provider confirms the complaint. What is the best treatment for this condition?
A.            Combination antibiotic and corticosteroid otic drops
B.            Anaglesics and watchful waiting
C.            Oral antibiotics and antifungal cream
D.            Corticosteroid otic drops

Question 4                          1 / 1 point
The gold standard in diagnosing acute otitis media is:
A.            Immobile ™
B.            Pearly gray TM
C.            Flat TM
D.            Perforated TM
The diagnosis of acute otitis media is based on presence of one or several of the following: bulging TM, decreased translucency of TM, absent or decreased mobility of the TM, air-fluid level behind the TM and otorrhea

Question 5                          1 / 1 point
A provider is caring for a new client whose had recurrent episodes of and failed treatment for acute otitis media. What is the next best intervention?
A.            Refer to audiologist
B.            Refer to an otolaryngology
C.            Prescribe a broad spectrum antibiotic for 30 days
D.            Prescribe an anti- inflammatory

Question 6                          1 / 1 point
A 16 year-old-client presents to your clinic c/o sore throat and 101°F temperature. The provider learns that the client had a sore throat approximately 1 week ago. On exam, client is positive for cervical lymphadenopathy, enlarged left tonsil, edematous pharynx and uvula displacement. What condition does this client most likely have?
A.            Acute uvulitis
B.            Infectious mononucleosis
C.            Mumps
D.            Peritonsillar abscess

Question 7                          1 / 1 point
A 5-year-old client presents to the clinic for an annual physical. While performing the physical exam, the provider attempts to examine the client’s ears. What does the provider do?
A.            Gently pull outer ear down and back **
B.            Gently pull outer ear up and back
C.            Gently pull outer ear down
D.            Gently pull outer ear back
To correctly examine the ear of a child older than 12 months gently pull outer ear down and back

Question 8                          1 / 1 point
What are the most common causes of bacterial pneumonia in neonates (select all that apply)?
A.            Staphylococcus Aureus
B.            Group B Streptococcus **
C.            Listeria Monocytogenes
D.            E. Coli **
The most common organisms responsible for bacterial pneumonia in neonates are still group B streptococcus and Escherichia coli. The next most common causes are coagulase negative Staph and Listeria in the early neonatal period. After four days of age, the differential needs to be expanded to include S. aureus, Enterobacter, Pseudomonas, Serratia, Candida, Acinetobacter, and anaerobes.
Question 9                          1 / 1 point
An ill appearing 3-month-old-infant is presented to your clinic. The parent reports that their child has a fever, persistent cough, rhinorrhea, wheezing, hypoxemia, and anorexia for 4 days. After the provider’s exam and work-up, the child is diagnosed with Bronchiolitis. What is the most likely treatment option for this infant?
A.            Refer patient for hospitalization
B.            Refer patient for Pulmonologist
C.            Refer patient for Bronchoscopy
D.            Refer patient for Chest X- ray

Bronchiolitis is the term used for an infant seen with wheezing for the very first time and is the leading cause of hospitalizations for infants. It presents with cough, fever, coryza, tachypnea, expiratory wheezing, air trapping, and inspiratory crackles. In mild cases, symptoms can last for 1 to 3 days. In severe cases, cyanosis, air hunger, retractions, and nasal flaring with symptoms of severe respiratory distress within a few hours may be seen. Apnea can occur and may require mechanical ventilation.

Question 10                        1 / 1 point
An ill-appearing child is presented to your clinic with a fever, sore throat, restless behavior, dysphagia, drooling, and inspiratory distress without stridor. The child tests positive for Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib). What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.            Tonsillitis
B.            Epiglottitis **
C.            Laryngotracheobronchitis
D.            Retropharyngeal abscess

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Write a four to six (4) page paper in which you:Give your opinion on the Mc Donalds greatest strengths and most significant weaknesses. Choose either a strategy OR tactic the corporation should select to take maximum advantage of its strengths, and the strategy OR tactic the corporation should select to fix its most significant weakness. Justify your choices.Determine the company’s tangible and intangible resources, core capabilities, and core competencies.Choose the two (2) segments of the general environment that would rank highest in their influence on the corporation you chose. Assess how these segments affect the corporation you chose and the industry in which it operates.Choose two (2) forces of competition that you estimate are the most significant for the corporation you chose. Evaluate how well the company has addressed these) forces in the recent past, going back no further than five (5) fiscal years.With the same two (2) forces in mind, predict what the company might do to improve its ability to address these forces in the near future.Identify what you consider to be the greatest external threat to this corporation. Discuss how the corporation should address this threat. Justify your explanation.Identify what you consider to be the greatest opportunity presented to the corporation, and discuss how the corporation should take advantage of this opportunity. Justify your explanationUse at least three (3) quality references.

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Week 6 Assignment 2
Student Full Name
BUS499 Business Administration Capstone
Due Week 6 and worth 125 points
Using the corporation you chose from Assignment 1, examine its industry. Research the company on its own website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other credible sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions.
Read chapters 1 -3 in the course textbook and complete the LEARN E-Activities for Weeks 1-3 as they set the foundation to this assignment. Be sure to cite your sources!
Begin your paper on Page 2 below and write a minimum of four (4) pages. The minimum page count does not include the Title or Source pages.
Week 6 Assignment 2
Write your introduction here. Include one (1) paragraph (not more than 6 lines of text) that explains what your paper will discuss. Much of your introduction may be taken from the assignment instructions (in your own words). Read all assignment resources to understand what should be included in your paper. Be sure to review the assignment instructions in Blackboard, the grading rubric, and the recorded writing workshop to understand the requirements. Do not exceed 6 lines of text in this introduction. There should be no direct quotes in this section.
General Environment
Choose the two (2) segments of the general environment that would rank highest in their influence on the corporation you chose. Assess how these segments affect the corporation you chose and the industry in which it operates. Hint: see table 2.1. Remember that to assess a concept, you will weigh all aspects to judge the importance or relevance of that concept. Do not simply define the segments.
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Your assessment should demonstrate that you have read, understand, and can apply the selected segments of the general environment concepts covered in the textbook and course resources. Your writing here should thoroughly assess how the selected segments influence your corporation. Do not write about the general environment in general terms. Your assessment should be directly related to your selected corporation. Do not assess all the segments—only assess the two (2) segments that rank highest in influencing your corporation. A thorough assessment is defined as providing a complete response that is not superficial or partial regarding every detail of the concepts as described in the course. You will need to apply and incorporate key concepts from the course material to your assessment. Do not Google “segments of the general environment” or provide high-level summaries. You must display, in specific detail, an understanding based on what is studied in this course and an ability to apply the concepts in a real-world assessment of a corporation. Read Chapter 2 in the course textbook. Review the Week 2 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. Cite all sources and limit the use of direct quotes.

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Five Forces of Competition
In this section you will consider the five (5) forces of competition and choose the two (2) that you estimate are the most significant for the corporation you chose. Hint: see figure 2.2 in the textbook. You will then, evaluate how well the company has addressed these two (2) forces in the recent past.
Item 1
Choose one (1) of the five (5) forces of competition that you estimate is the most significant for the corporation you chose. Provide a thorough assessment of why you think selected force is significant to your corporation. A thorough assessment is defined as providing a complete response that is not superficial or partial regarding every detail of the concept as described in the course. Do not Google “five forces of competition” or simply provide a definition. You will need to apply and incorporate key concepts from the course material in your evaluation. Specifically address the applicable key concepts from the textbook and course material for the selected force. You will need to read the chapters and listen to the lectures to understand the key concepts for each force. Read Chapter 2 in the course textbook and review the Week 2 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Hint: the five (5) forces of competition is the same as “Porters 5 Forces of Competition”. Cite all sources and limit the use of direct quotes.
Item 2
Choose another one (1) of the five (5) forces of competition that you estimate is the most significant for the corporation you chose. This should not be the same force assessed in Item 1 above. Provide a thorough assessment of why you think the selected force is significant to your corporation. A thorough assessment is defined as providing a complete response that is not superficial or partial regarding every detail of the concept as described in the course. Do not Google “five forces of competition” or simply provide a definition. You will need to apply and incorporate key concepts from the course material in your assessment. Specifically address the applicable key concepts from the textbook and course material for the selected force. You will need to read the chapters and listen to the lectures to understand the key concepts for each force. Read Chapter 2 in the course textbook and review the Week 2 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Hint: the five (5) forces of competition is the same as “Porters 5 Forces of Competition”. Cite all sources and limit the use of direct quotes.
Evaluation
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Evaluate how well the company has addressed these two (2) forces in the recent past. This will require some research. Remember that to evaluate a concept, you will break down all components to determine or analyze facts, value, or views. Your evaluation should demonstrate that you have read, understand, and can apply the concepts covered in the textbook and course resources. Do not write about the selected forces in general terms. Your evaluation should be directly related to your selected corporation and include a thorough evaluation of how the company has addressed the forces recently. You must display an understanding based on what is studied in this course and an ability to apply the concepts in a real-world evaluation of a corporation. Your writing here should provide a thorough evaluation of your chosen corporation. Cite all sources and limit the use of direct quotes.
Future Improvements
With the same two (2) forces assessed and evaluated in the sections above, predict what the company might do to improve its ability to address these forces in the near future. Your writing here should provide a thorough prediction of what the company should do to address impacts from the selected forces. Your prediction should be your own, not predictions from your sources or actions your corporation has taken or plans to take. Remember that a thorough response is defined as providing a complete response that is not superficial or partial regarding every detail of the concepts as described in the course. Read Chapter 2 in the course textbook as each chapter provides a solid background and clues that apply to this section. Review the Week 2 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite all sources and there should be no direct quotes in this section.
External Threats and Opportunities
Assess the external threats affecting this corporation and the opportunities available to the corporation. You will need to provide a thorough assessment of both the external threats and the opportunities available to your corporation. Do not choose one or the other. Both the external threats and the opportunities must be assessed. Keep in mind that most companies will have more than just one (1) external threat and more than just one (1) opportunity. Your thorough assessment should identify several of the threats and opportunities. Remember that threats and opportunities are external to the organization (i.e. the external environment). Read Chapter 2 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues for this section. Review the Week 2 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. Cite all sources and limit the use of direct quotes.
Threats and Opportunities Strategies
Give your opinions on how the corporation should deal with the most serious threat and the greatest opportunity. Justify your answer. You will need to provide opinions on both the most serious threat and greatest opportunity. Do not choose one or the other. Both the threat and opportunity must be addressed. Your opinion on what the company should do to address the threat and opportunity should be justified by a sound and thoroughly explained rationale. Your writing here should be your own opinions, not the opinions of your sources. Read Chapter 2 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues for this section. Review the Week 2 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. Cite all sources and limit the use of direct quotes.
Strengths and Weaknesses
Give your opinion on the corporation’s greatest strengths and most significant weaknesses. Keep in mind that strengths and weaknesses are internal to the organization (i.e. the internal environment) You will need to address both the greatest strengths and most significant weaknesses. Do not choose one or the other. Both the greatest strengths and most significant weaknesses must be addressed. Keep in mind that most companies will have more than just one (1) great strength and more than just one (1) significant weakness. Your thorough assessment should identify several of the great strengths and weaknesses. Read Chapter 2 and 3 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues for this section. Review the Week 2 and Week 3 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. Cite all sources and limit the use of direct quotes.
Strategy
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Choose the strategy or tactic the corporation should select to take maximum advantage of its strengths, and the strategy or tactic the corporation should select to fix its most significant weakness. Justify your choices. You will need to select a strategy/tactic for both the strengths and for the weakness. Do not choose one or the other. Both the strengths and weakness must be addressed. Your justifications should be sound and thoroughly explained. For example, do not simply state that the corporation should choose a selected strategy, but rather explain why the strategy is a good choice for your corporations’ specific strengths or weakness. Read Chapter 2 and 3 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues for this section. Review the Week 2 and Week 3 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. Cite all sources and limit the use of direct quotes.
Resources, Capabilities, and Core Competencies
Determine the company’s resources, capabilities, and core competencies. Your determination should include an explanation of the relevance of each resource, capability, and core competency. Do not simply list the resources, capabilities, and core competencies. Remember that a thorough determination will provide a complete response that is not superficial or partial regarding every detail of the concept as described in the course. Use your course materials to demonstrate your understanding of the key course concepts regarding resources, capabilities, and core competencies. Do not write in general terms. Your determination should display that you can apply the course concepts to your selected corporation. Read Chapter 3 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues that apply to this section. Review the Week 3 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. Cite all sources and limit the use of direct quotes.

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Sources
Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.

List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.
Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course textbook to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.
Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.
The source page must include all sources used. All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.
Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic
source requires logging in).
When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:
Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)
The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.
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Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.
Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
Have I deleted the blue font instructions in this template?
Did I leave the provided section headings in place, as provided in this template?
After deleting the blue fonts in this template, have I changed all font to black?
Additional things to keep in mind.
You will be graded on the content of your submission, the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills using the grading rubric.
Strayer uses SafeAssign – an automated plagiarism checker. It is advised that you do your own writing and use external resources to support what you have written in your own words.
Question 5: Business

Create a chart with rows and columns to establish the following requirements of discrimination under the law in the following areas at the top:

Title VII Gender Discrimination in Employment Practices
Sexual Harassment Based on Hostile Work Environment
Quid-Pro-Quo Sexual Harassment
Sexual Orientation in the Workplace

Along the left side of the chart, create the following rows:

Requirements to Prove Under the Law
Ways Employers can Minimize Liability
Recent Case Example

Complete the chart for each section.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the requirements of each type of potential gender discrimination.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the specific ways employers can minimize liability for each type of gender discrimination.

Research and include a relevant case to illustrate each type of gender discrimination.

Format your citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

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Question 6: Business

Week 3 Discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
How does one recognize sexual harassment?
Discuss the different types of sexual harassment?
what is required to support a case of sexual harassment in that situation?

Question 7: Business

Total Rewards Plan Worksheet

Instructions: There are 10 positions that have become vacant due to the retirement of the University President.  Your task is to recommend a salary range to post, list the benefits that will be provided for these positions, and include a list of perks that may be associated with these positions.

Complete the following table in a total of 525 to 700 words:
Explain in a total of 350 words how you determined the appropriate salary, benefits, and perks for each of these new roles.
Question 8: Business

Walden University NURS 6531 final exam (2019) | Updated
Walden University NURS 6531 final exam (2019) | Updated
Walden University NURS6531 final exam (2019) | Updated

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Question 9: Business

NURS 6531 midterm exam revised, NURS 6531 Practice Care of Adults

•             Question 1
0 out of 0 points

When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity?

•             Question 2
1 out of 1 points

The most common cancer found on the auricle is:

•             Question 3
0 out of 1 points

Which of the following medication classes should be avoided in patients with acute or chronic bronchitis because it will contribute to ventilation-perfusion mismatch in the patient?
•             Question 4
0 out of 1 points

A 47 year old male patient presents to the clinic with a single episode of a moderate amount of bright red rectal bleeding. On examination, external hemorrhoids are noted. How should the nurse practitioner proceed?

•             Question 5
0 out of 1 points

Which of the following patient characteristics are associated with chronic bronchitis?
Underweight, pink skin, and increased respiratory rate

•             Question 6
1 out of 1 points

A 65-year-old female with a past medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and polymyalgia rheumatica presents to urgent care with new onset left lower quadrant pain. Her current medications include omeprazole 20 milligrams po daily, lisinopril 20 milligrams po daily, simvastatin 20 milligrams po daily, and prednisone 12 milligrams po daily. The nurse practitioner suspects acute diverticulitis and possibly an abscess. The most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient at this time is:

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•             Question 7
1 out of 1 points

A patient reports “something flew in my eye” about an hour ago while he was splitting logs. If there were a foreign body in his eye, the nurse practitioner would expect to find all except:
Selected Answer:
Purulent drainage

•             Question 8
1 out of 1 points

A 21 year old college student presents to the student health center with copious, markedly purulent discharge from her left eye. The nurse practitioner student should suspect:

•             Question 9
0 out of 1 points

A 35 year old man presents with radicular pain followed by the appearance of grouped vesicles consisting of about 15 lesions across 3 different thoracic dermatomes. He complains of pain, burning, and itching. The nurse practitioner should suspect:
•             Question 10
0 out of 1 points

Which type of lung cancer has the poorest prognosis?
•             Question 11
1 out of 1 points

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An 83-year-old female presents to the office complaining of diarrhea for several days. She explains she has even had fecal incontinence one time. She describes loose stools 3–4 times a day for several weeks and denies fever, chills, pain, recent antibiotic use. The history suggests that the patient has:

•             Question 12
1 out of 1 points

Margaret, age 32, comes into the office with painful joints and a distinctive rash in a butterfly distribution on her face. The rash has red papules and plaques with a fine scale. What do you suspect?

•             Question 13
1 out of 1 points

Antibiotic administration has been demonstrated to be of little benefit to the treatment of which of the following disease processes?

•             Question 14
0 out of 1 points

Lisa, age 49, has daily symptoms of asthma. She uses her inhaled short-acting beta-2 agonist daily. Her exacerbations affect her activities and they occur at least twice weekly and may last for days. She is affected more than once weekly during the night with an exacerbation. Which category of asthma severity is Lisa in?
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•             Question 15
0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is the most appropriate therapeutic regimen for an adult patient with no known allergies diagnosed with group A B-hemolytic strep?

•             Question 16
0 out of 1 points

A cashier complains of dull ache and pressure sensation in her lower legs. It is relieved by leg elevation. She occasionally has edema in her lower legs at the end of the day. What is the most likely cause of these problems?
•             Question 17
1 out of 1 points

Which statement below is correct about pertussis?
•             Question 18
0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is the most important diagnosis to rule out in the adult patient with acute bronchitis?
•             Question 19
1 out of 1 points

A 70 year old patient presents with left lower quadrant (LLQ) abdominal pain, a markedly tender palpable abdominal wall, fever, and leukocytosis. Of the following terms, which correctly describes the suspected condition?

•             Question 20
1 out of 1 points

Sylvia, age 83, presents with a 3 day history of pain and burning in the left forehead. This morning she noticed a rash with erythematous papules in that site. What do you suspect?

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•             Question 21
0 out of 1 points

A 33-year-old female is admitted with acute pancreatitis. The nurse practitioner knows that the most common cause of pancreatitis is:
Selected Answer:

•             Question 22
1 out of 1 points

When a patient presents with symptoms of acute gallbladder disease, what is the appropriate nurse practitioner action?

•             Question 23
0 out of 1 points

A false-positive result with the fecal occult blood test can result from:

•             Question 24
0 out of 1 points

A 76-year-old male complains of weight loss, nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping and pain. Physical findings include an abdominal mass and stool positive for occult blood. The nurse practitioner pain suspects a tumor in the small intestine. The best diagnostic test for this patient is:
Selected Answer:
•             Question 25
1 out of 1 points

A patient presents to urgent care complaining of dyspnea, fatigue, and lower extremity edema. The echocardiogram reveals and ejection fraction of 38%. The nurse practitioner knows that these findings are consistent with:

•             Question 26
1 out of 1 points

Maxine, Age 76, has just been given a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which of the following is an indication that she should be hospitalized?

•             Question 27
0 out of 1 points

A 55 year old man is diagnosed with basal cell carcinoma. The nurse practitioner correctly tells him:

•             Question 28
1 out of 1 points

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Expected spirometry readings when the patient has chronic emphysema include:
•             Question 29
1 out of 1 points

An 80-year-old male admits to difficulty swallowing during the review of systems. The nurse practitioner recognizes the differential diagnosis for this patient’s dysphagia is:

•             Question 30
0 out of 1 points

A 40 year old female with history of frequent sun exposure presents with a multicolored lesion on her back. It has irregular borders and is about 11mm in diameter. What should the nurse practitioner suspect?

•             Question 31
1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a goal of treatment for the patient with cystic fibrosis?
•             Question 32
1 out of 1 points

The nurse practitioner is performing a physical exam on a middle-aged African-American man. Which of the following areas is a common site for melanomas in African-Americans and other dark-skinned individuals?

•             Question 33
1 out of 1 points

An adult presents with tinea corporis. Which item below is a risk factor for its development?
•             Question 34
0 out of 1 points

A patient has experienced nausea and vomiting, headache, malaise, low grade fever, abdominal cramps, and watery diarrhea for 72 hours. His white count is elevated with a shift to the left. He is requesting medication for diarrhea. What is the most appropriate response?
•             Question 35
1 out of 1 points

Janine, age 29, has numerous transient lesions that come and go, and she is diagnosed with urticaria. What do you order?

•             Question 36
0 out of 1 points
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Of the following signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure (CHF), the earliest clinical manifestation is:
•             Question 37
1 out of 1 points

A 16 year old male presents with mild sore throat, fever, fatigue, posterior cervical adenopathy, and palatine petechiae. Without a definitive diagnosis for this patient, what drug would be least appropriate to prescribe?
•             Question 38
1 out of 1 points

A 70 year old man who walks 2 miles every day complains of pain in his left calf when he is walking. The problem has gotten gradually worse and now he is unable to complete his 2 mile walk. What question asked during the history, if answered affirmatively, would suggest a diagnosis of arteriosclerosis obliterans?

•             Question 39
0 out of 1 points

Which of the following statements about malignant melanomas is true?
•             Question 40
1 out of 1 points

Sheila, age 78, presents with a chief complaint of waking up during the night coughing. You examine her and find an S3 heart sound, pulmonary crackles that do not clear with coughing, and peripheral edema. What do you suspect?

•             Question 41
0 out of 1 points

Which antibiotic would be the most effective in treating community acquired pneumonia (CAP) in a young adult without any comorbid conditions?
•             Question 42
1 out of 1 points

Which of the following dermatologic vehicles are the most effective in absorbing moisture and decreasing friction?
•             Question 43
1 out of 1 points

A 70 year old patient presents with a slightly raised, scaly, erythematous patch on her forehead. She admits to having been a “sun worshiper.” The nurse practitioner suspects actinic keratosis. This lesion is a precursor to:
•             Question 44
1 out of 1 points
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An elderly patient is being seen in the clinic for complaint of “weak spells” relieved by sitting or lying down. How should the nurse practitioner proceed with the physical examination?

•             Question 45
1 out of 1 points

What oral medication might be used to treat chronic cholethiasis in a patient who is a poor candidate for surgery?

•             Question 46
0 out of 1 points

A 46-year-old female with a past medical history of diabetes presents with a swollen, erythematous right auricle and is diagnosed with malignant otitis externa. The nurse practitioner knows that the most likely causative organism for this patient’s problem is:

•             Question 47
0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a symptom of irritable bowel syndrome?
•             Question 48
1 out of 1 points

A patient comes in complaining of 1 week of pain in the posterior neck with difficulty turning the head to the right. What additional history is needed?

•             Question 49
0 out of 1 points

Marvin, age 56, is a smoker with diabetes. He has just been diagnosed as hypertensive. Which of the following drugs has the potential to cause the development of bronchial asthma and inhibit gluconeogenesis?

•             Question 50
1 out of 1 points

The differential diagnosis for a patient complaining of a sore throat includes which of the following?
•             Question 51
0 out of 1 points

A patient presents to the primary care provider complaining of a rash on his right forehead that started yesterday and is burning and painful. The physical exam reveals an erythematous, maculopapular rash that extends over the patient’s right eye to his upper right forehead. Based on the history and examination, the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms is:
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•             Question 52
0 out of 1 points

Before initiating an HMG CoA-reductase inhibitor for hyperlipidemia, the nurse practitioner orders liver function studies. The patient’s aminotransferase (ALT) is elevated. What laboratory test(s) should be ordered?
•             Question 53
1 out of 1 points

A patient with elevated lipids has been started on lovastatin. After 3 weeks of therapy, he calls to report generalized muscle aches. The nurse practitioner should suspect:
•             Question 54
1 out of 1 points

Treatment of acute vertigo includes:

•             Question 55
1 out of 1 points

Treatment of H.pylori includes which of the following?
Question 56
1 out of 1 points

Carl, age 78, is brought to the office by his son, who states that his father has been unable to see clearly since last night. Carl reports that his vision is “like looking through a veil.” He also sees floaters and flashing lights but is not having any pain. What do you suspect?

•             Question 57
1 out of 1 points

In order to decrease deaths from lung cancer:
•    &nbs
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Question 10: Business

South University – NSG 6020 NSG 6420 MIDTERM
South University – NSG 6020NSG 6420 MIDTERM
South University – NSG 6020NSG 6420 MIDTERM
Question 11: Business

South University, Savannah  NSG 6020Week 6 PV Integ Study Guide
You are assessing a 59-year-old gas station owner for atherosclerosis in the lower extremities. In which of the following locations would the patient’s pain make you concerned for this disease process?

A 57-year-old maintenance worker comes to your office for evaluation of pain in his legs. He has smoked two packs per day since the age of 16, but he is otherwise healthy. You are concerned that he may have peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following is part of common or concerning symptoms for the peripheral vascular system?

A patient has bilateral pitting edema of the feet. While assessing the peripheral vascular system, the nurse’s primary focus should be:

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A patient has a positive Homans’ sign. The nurse knows that a positive Homans’ sign may indicate:

The major artery that supplies blood to arm

To assess the dorsalis pedis artery, the nurse would palpate
lateral to the extensor tendon of the great toe. The dorsalis pedis artery is located on the dorsum of the foot. Palpate just lateral to and parallel with the extensor tendon of the big toe.

The nurse is reviewing an assessment of a patient’s peripheral pulses and notices that the documentation states that the radial pulses are “2+.” The nurse recognizes that this reading indicates what type ofpulse?
A.Bounding
B.Normal
C.Weak
D.Absent

Which of the following assessment findings is most consistent with clubbing of the fingernails?
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During an assessment, the nurse notes that a patient’s left arm is swollen from the shoulder down to the fingers, with nonpitting edema. The right arm is normal. The patient had a mastectomy 1 year ago. The nurse suspects which problem?
Which of the following statements is true regarding the arterial system?

When assessing a patient the nurse practitioner documents the left femoral pulse as 0/0-4+. Which of the following findings would the nurse practitioner expect at the dorsalis pedis pulse?

Which of the following veins are responsible for most of the venous return in the arm?
1.Deep veins
2.Ulnar veins
3.Subclavian veins
4.Superficial veins

The nurse is performing a well-child assessment on a 3-year-old child. The child’s vital signs are normal. Capillary refill time is 5 seconds. The nurse would:
1.ask the parent if the child has had frostbite in the past.
2.suspect that the child has a venous insufficiency problem.
3.consider this a delayed capillary refill time and investigate further.
4.consider this a normal capillary refill time that requires no further assessment.
Normal capillary refill time is less than 1 to 2 seconds. Note that these conditions can skew your findings: a cool room, decreased body temperature, cigarette smoking, peripheral edema, and anemia.

Which of the following statements is true regarding assessment of the ankle-brachial index (ABI)?

A 70-year-old patient is scheduled for open-heart surgery. The surgeon plans to use the great saphenous vein for the coronary bypass grafts. The patient asks, “What happens to my circulation when the veins are removed?” The nurse should reply:

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A 57-year-old maintenance worker comes to your office for evaluation of pain in his legs. He has smoked two packs per day since the age of 16, but he is otherwise healthy. You are concerned that he may have peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following is part of common or concerning symptoms for the peripheral vascular system?

A 72-year-old teacher comes to your clinic for an annual examination. She is concerned about her risk for peripheral vascular disease and states that there is a place in town that does tests to let her know her if she has this or not. Which of the following disease processes is a risk factor for peripheral vascular disease?

A 68-year-old retired truck driver comes to your office for evaluation of swelling in his legs. He is a smoker and has been taking medications to control his hypertension for the past 25 years. You are concerned about his risk for peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following tests are appropriate to order to initially evaluate for this condition?

A 55-year-old secretary with a recent history of breast cancer, for which she underwent surgery and radiation therapy, and a history of hypertension comes to your office for a routine checkup. Which of the following aspects of the physical are important to note when assessing the patient for peripheral vascular disease in the arms?

You are a student in the clinic. You are asked to perform a physical examination on a patient with known peripheral vascular disease in the legs. Which of the following aspects is important to note when you perform your examination?

You are assessing a patient for peripheral vascular disease in the arms, secondary to a complaint of increased weakness and a history of coronary artery disease and diabetes. You assess the brachial and radial pulses and note that they are bounding. What does that translate to on a scale of 0 to 4?

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You are assessing a 59-year-old gas station owner for atherosclerosis in the lower extremities. In which of the following locations would the patient’s pain make you concerned for this disease process?

You are performing a routine check-up on an 81-year-old retired cotton farmer in the clinic. You note that he has a history of chronic arterial insufficiency. Which of the following physical examination findings in the lower extremities would be expected with this disease?

A 77-year-old retired nurse has an ulcer on a lower extremity that you are asked to evaluate when you do your weekly rounds at a local long-term care facility. All of the following are responsible for causing ulcers in the lower extremities except for which condition?

As the internal diameter of a blood vessel changes, the resistance changes as well. Which of the following descriptions depicts this relationship?

Mr. Edwards complains of cramps and difficulties with walking. The cramps occur in his calves consistently after walking about 100 yards. After a period of rest, he can start to walk again, but after 100 yards these same symptoms recur. Which of the following would suggest spinal stenosis as a cause of this pain?
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Asymmetric BPs are seen in which of the following conditions?

Diminished radial pulses may be seen in patients with which of the following?

When assessing temperature of the skin, which portion of your hand should be used?

You note a painful ulcerative lesion near the medial malleolus, with accompanying hyperpigmentation. Which of the following etiologies is most likely?
An 8-year-old girl comes with her mother for evaluation of hair loss. She denies pulling or twisting her hair, and her mother has not noted this behavior at all. She does not put her hair in braids. On physical examination, you note a clearly demarcated, round patch of hair loss without visible scaling or inflammation. There are

A mother brings her 11 month old to you because her mother-in-law and others have told her that her baby is jaundiced. She is eating and growing well and performing the developmental milestones she should for her age. On examination you indeed notice a yellow tone to her skin from head to toe. Her sclerae are white. To which area should your next questions be related?

You are examining an unconscious patient from another region and notice Beau’s lines, a transverse groove across all of her nails, about 1 cm from the proximal nail fold. What would you do next?

Dakota is a 14-year-old boy who just noticed a rash at his ankles. There is no history of exposure to ill people or other agents in the environment. He has a slight fever in the office. The rash consists of small, bright red marks. When they are pressed, the red color remains. What should you do?

A young man comes to you with an extremely pruritic rash over his knees and elbows which has come and gone for several years. It seems to be worse in the winter and improves with some sun exposure. On examination, you notice scabbing and crusting with some silvery scale, and you are observant enough to notice small “pits” in his nails. What would account for these findings?

Mrs. Anderson presents with an itchy rash which is raised and appears and disappears in various locations. Each lesion lasts for many minutes. What most likely accounts for this rash?

Which of the following is true regarding breast self-examination?
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Which of the following lymph node groups is most commonly involved in breast cancer?

51-year-old cook comes to your office for consultation. She recently found out that her 44-year-old sister with premenopausal breast cancer is positive for the BRCA1 gene. Your patient has been doing research on the Internet and saw that her chance of having also inherited the BRCA1 gene is 50%. She is interested in knowing what her risk of developing breast cancer would be if she were positive for the gene. She denies any lumps in her breasts and has had normal mammograms. She has had no weight loss, fever, or night sweats. Her mother is healthy and her father has prostate cancer. Two of her paternal aunts died of breast cancer. She is married. She denies using tobacco or illegal drugs and rarely drinks alcohol. Her breast and axilla examinations are unremarkable. At her age, what is her risk of getting breast cancer if she has the BRCA1 gene?

You ask a patient to draw a clock. He fills in all the numbers on the right half of the circle. What do you suspect?

A 67-year-old retired janitor comes to the clinic with his wife. She brought him in because she is concerned about his weight loss. He has a history of smoking 3 packs of cigarettes a day for 30 years, for a total of 90 pack-years. He has noticed a daily cough for the past several years, which he states is productive of sputum. He came into the clinic approximately 1 year ago, and at that time his weight was 140 pounds. Today, his weight is 110 pounds. Which one of the following questions would be the most important to ask if you suspect that he has lung cancer?

An 18-year-old college freshman presents to the clinic for evaluation of gastroenteritis. You measure the patient’s temperature and it is 104 degrees Fahrenheit. What type of pulse would you expect to feel during his initial examination?

A 25-year-old type 1 diabetic clerk presents with shortness of breath and states that his blood sugar was 605 at home. He was diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. What is the expected pattern of breathing?

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Mrs. Lenzo weighs herself every day with a very accurate balance-type scale. She has noticed that over the past 2 days she has gained 4 pounds. How would you best explain this?

Mr. Curtiss has a history of obesity, diabetes, osteoarthritis of the knees, HTN, and obstructive sleep apnea. His BMI is 43 and he has been discouraged by his difficulty in losing weight. He is also discouraged that his goal weight is 158 pounds away. What would you tell him?

You are seeing an older patient who has not had medical care for many years. Her vital signs taken by your office are: T 98.6, HR 78, BP 118/92, and RR 14, and she denies pain. You noticed that she had had some hypertensive changes in her retinas and mild proteinuria on a urine test on prior medical records. You expected the BP to be higher. She is not on any medications. What do you think is causing this BP reading, which doesn’t correlate with the other findings?

You are observing a patient with heart failure and notice that there are pauses in his breathing. On closer examination, you notice that after the pauses the patient takes progressively deeper breaths and then progressively shallower breaths, which are followed by another apneic spell. The patient is not in any distress. You make the diagnosis of:

Mr. Garcia comes to your office for a rash on his chest associated with a burning pain. Even a light touch causes this burning sensation to worsen. On examination, you note a rash with small blisters (vesicles) on a background of reddened skin. The rash overlies an entire rib on his right side. What type of pain is this?
Neuropathic pain

A patient presents with a left-sided facial droop. On further testing, you note that he is unable to wrinkle his forehead on the left and has decreased taste. Which of the following is true?
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Ms. Wright comes to your office, complaining of palpitations. While checking her pulse you notice an irregular rhythm. When you listen to her heart, every fourth beat sounds different. It sounds like a triplet rather than the usual “lub dup.” How would you document your examination?
A 37-year-old insurance agent comes to your office, complaining of trembling hands. She says that for the past 3 months when she tries to use her hands to fix her hair or cook they shake badly. She says she doesn’t feel particularly nervous when this occurs but she worries that other people will think she has an anxiety disorder or that she’s a drinker. She admits to having some recent fatigue, trouble with vision, and difficulty maintaining bladder control. Her past medical history is remarkable for hypothyroidism. Her mother has lupus and her father is healthy. She has an older brother with type 1 diabetes. She is married and has three children. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. On examination, when she tries to reach for a pencil to fill out the health form she has obvious tremors in her dominant hand.

unsteady hands. He says that for the past 6 months, when his hands are resting in his lap they shake uncontrollably. He says when he holds them out in front of his body the shaking diminishes, and when he uses his hands the shaking is also better. He also complains of some difficulty getting up out of his chair and walking around. He denies any recent illnesses or injuries. His past medical history is significant for high blood pressure and coronary artery disease, requiring a stent in the past. He has been married for over 50 years and has five children and 12 grandchildren. He denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. His mother died of a stroke in her 70s and his father died of a heart attack in his 60s. He has a younger sister who has arthritis problems. His children are all essentially healthy. On examination you see a fine, pill-rolling tremor of his left hand. His right shows less movement. His cranial nerve examination is normal. He has some difficulty rising from his chair, his gait is slow, and it takes him time to turn around to walk back toward you. He has almost no “arm swing” with his gait. What type of tremor is he most likely to have?

A 48-year-old grocery store manager comes to your clinic, complaining of her head being “stuck” to one side. She says that today she was doing her normal routine when it suddenly felt like her head was being moved to her left and then it just stuck that way. She says it is somewhat painful because she cannot get it moved back to normal. She denies any recent neck trauma. Her past medical history consists of type 2 diabetes and gastroparesis (slow-moving peristalsis in the digestive tract, seen in diabetes). She is on oral medication for each. She is married and has three children. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her father has diabetes and her mother passed away from breast cancer. Her children are healthy. On examination you see a slightly overweight Hispanic woman appearing her stated age. Her head is twisted grotesquely to her left but otherwise her examination is normal. What form of involuntary movement does she have?

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A 41-year-old real estate agent comes to your office, complaining that he feels like his face is paralyzed on the left. He states that last week he felt his left eyelid was drowsy and as the day progressed he was unable to close his eyelid all the way. Later he felt like his smile became affected also. He denies any recent injuries but had an upper respiratory viral infection last month. His past medical history is unremarkable. He is divorced and has one child. He smokes one pack of cigarettes a day, occasionally drinks alcohol, and denies any illegal drug use. His mother has high blood pressure and his father has sarcoidosis. On examination you ask him to close his eyes. He is unable to close his left eye. You ask him to open his eyes and raise his eyebrows. His right forehead furrows but his left remains flat. You then ask him to give you a big smile. The right corner of his mouth raises but the left side of his mouth remains the same. What type of facial paralysis does he have?

A 60-year-old retired seamstress comes to your office, complaining of decreased sensation in her hands and feet. She states that she began to have the problems in her feet a year ago but now it has started in her hands also. She also complains of some weakness in her grip. She has had no recent illnesses or injuries. Her past medical history consists of having type 2 diabetes for 20 years. She now takes insulin and oral medications for her diabetes. She has been married for 40 years. She has two healthy children. Her mother has Alzheimer’s disease and coronary artery disease. Her father died of a stroke and also had diabetes. She denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. On examination she has decreased deep tendon reflexes in the patellar and Achilles tendons. She has decreased sensation of fine touch, pressure, and vibration on both feet. She has decreased two-point discrimination on her hands. Her grip strength is decreased and her plantar and dorsiflexion strength is decreased. Where is the disorder of the peripheral nervous system in this patient?

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Question 12: Business

South University NSG 6020 Final exam study guide
South University NSG 6020Final exam study guide
A 65-year-old patient remarks that she just can’t believe that her breasts sag so much. She states it must
be from lack of exercise. What explanation should the nurse offer her?

The mother of a 10-year-old boy asks the nurse to discuss the recognition of puberty. The nurse should reply by saying:
“Puberty usually begins about age fifteen.”
“The first sign of puberty is enlargement of the testes.”
“Penis size does not increase until about the age of sixteen.”
“The development of pubic hair precedes testicular or penis enlargement.”

A patient has bilateral pitting edema of the feet. While assessing the peripheral vascular system, the nurse’s primary focus should be:
The correct answer is: Venous function of the lower extremities

During an examination, the nurse notes severe nystagmus in both eyes of a patient. Which of the following conclusions is correct?
1.This is a normal occurrence.
2.This may indicate disease of the cerebellum or brainstem.
3.This is a sign that the patient is nervous about the examination.
4.This indicates a visual problem and a referral to an ophthalmologist is indicated.
End-point nystagmus at an extreme lateral gaze occurs normally. Assess any other nystagmus carefully. Severe nystagmus occurs with disease of the vestibular system, cerebellum, or brainstem.

When performing a musculoskeletal assessment, the nurse knows the correct approach for the examination should be:
proximal to distal

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A 43-year-old woman is at the clinic for a routine examination. She reports that she has had a breast lump in her right breast for years. Recently, it has begun to change in consistency and is becoming harder. She reports that 5 years ago her physician evaluated the lump and determined that it “was nothing to worry about.” The examination validates the presence of a mass in the right upper outer quadrant at 1 o’clock, approximately 5 cm from the nipple. It is firm, mobile, nontender, with borders that are not well defined. The nurse’s recommendation to her is:
“Because of the change in consistency of the lump, it should be further evaluated by a physician.”

The nurse practitioner is examining a 3-month-old infant. While holding the thumbs on the infant’s inner–mid-thighs and the fingers outside on the hips, touching the greater trochanter, the nurse practitioner adducts the legs until the nurse practitioner’s thumbs touch and then abducts the legs until the infant’s knees touch the table. The nurse practitioner does not note any “clunking” sounds and is confident to record a:
Negative Ortolani’s sign.

A patient’s mother has noticed that her son, who has been to a new babysitter, has some blisters and scabs on his face and buttocks. On examination, the nurse notices moist, thin-roofed vesicles with a thin erythematous base and suspects:
Impetigo

The nurse is testing superficial reflexes on an adult patient. When stroking up the lateral side of the sole and across the ball of the foot, the nurse notices the plantar flexion of the toes. How would the nurse document this finding?
1.Positive Babinski sign
2.Plantar reflex abnormal
3.Plantar reflex present
4.Plantar reflex “2+” on a scale from “0 to 4+”
With the same instrument, draw a light stroke up the lateral side of the sole of the foot and across the ball of the foot, like an upside-down “J.” The normal response is plantar flexion of the toes and sometimes of the whole foot.
A woman is in the family planning clinic seeking birth control information. She states that herbreasts “change all month long” and that she is worried that this is unusual. What is the nurse’s bestresponse?
Tell her that, because of the changing hormones during the monthly menstrualcycle, cyclic breast changes are common.

A patient states during the interview that she noticed a new breast lump in the shower a few days ago. It was on her left breast near her axilla. The RN should plan to:
palpate the unaffected breast first

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A 16-yr-old girl is being seen at clinic for gastrointestinal complaints+weight loss. Nurse determines that many of her complaints may be related to erratic eating patterns, eating predominantly fast foods, + high caffeine intake. In this situation, which is most appropriate when collecting current dietary intake information?
•1.  Schedule a time for direct observation of the adolescent during meals.
•2.  Ask the patient for a 24-hour diet recall and assume this is reflective of a typical day for her.
3.  Have the patient complete a food diary for 3 days=2 weekdays + 1 weekend day
Fooddiaries require the individual to write down everything consumed for a certaintime period. Because of the erratic eating patterns of this individual,assessing dietary intake over a few days would produce more accurateinformation regarding eating patterns. Direct observation is best used withyoung children or older adults.

To assess the head control of a 4-month-old infant, the nurse lifts the infant up in a prone position while supporting his chest. The nurse looks for what normal response?
1.Raises head and arches back.
2.Extends arms and drops head down.
3.Flexes knees and elbows with back straight.
4.Holds head at 45 degrees and keeps back straight.
At 3 months of age, the baby raises the head and arches the back as if in a swan dive. This is the Landau reflex, which persists until 11/2 years of age.
A patient has a positive Homans’ sign. The nurse knows that a positive Homans’ sign may indicate:
deep vein thrombosis.

The nurse is discussing breast self-examination with a postmenopausal woman. The best time forpostmenopausal women to perform breast self-examination is:
A=the same day every month.

A 15-year-old boy is seen in the clinic for complaints of “dull pain and pulling” in the scrotal area. On examination the nurse palpates a soft, irregular mass posterior to and above the testis on the left. This mass collapses when the patient is supine and refills when he is upright. This description is consistent with:
varicocele

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The nurse is bathing an 80-year-old man and notices that his skin is wrinkled,thin, lax, and dry. This finding would be related to which factor?
An increased loss of elastin and a decrease in subcutaneous fat in the elderly

A woman who is 22 weeks pregnant has a vaginal infection. She tells the nurse that she is afraid that this infection will hurt the fetus. The nurse knows that which of these statements is true?
A thick mucus plug forms that protects the fetus from infection.

In assessment of 1-month-old, nurse notes a lack of response to noise or stimulation. mother reports that in the last week he has been sleeping all the time + when awake all he does is cry. nurse hears that infant’s cries are very high pitched and shrill. What would be nurse’s appropriate response?
1.Refer the infant for further testing.
2.Talk with the mother about eating habits.
3.Nothing; these are expected findings for an infant this age.
4.Tell the mother to bring the baby back in a week for a recheck.
A high-pitched shrill cry or cat-sounding screech occurs with central nervous system damage. Lethargy, hyporeactivity, hyperirritability, and parent’s report of significant change in behavior all warrant referral.

A female patient is 8 months pregnant.  She comments that she has noticed a change in posture and is having lower back pain.  The nurse tells her that during pregnancy women have a posture shift to compensate for the enlarging fetus.  This shift in posture is:
lordosis

A 14-year-old girl is anxious about not having reached menarche. When taking the history, the nurse should ascertain which of the following?The age:
she began to develop breasts

A 9-year-old girl is in the clinic for a sports physical. After some initial shyness she finally asks,“Am I normal? I don’t seem to need a bra yet, but I have some friends who do. What if I never getbreasts?” The nurse’s best response would be:
“I understand that it is hard to feel different from your friends. Breasts usually develop between 8 and 10 years of age.”

During an examination, the nurse notes a supernumerary nipple just under the patient’s left breast.The patient tells the nurse that she always thought it was a mole. Which statement about this findingis correct?
It is a normal variation and not a significant finding

The major artery that supplies blood to arm
brachial artery

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The nurse is testing the function of cranial nerve XI. Which of these best describes the response the nurse should expect if the nerve is intact? The patient
moves head and shoulder against resistance w/equal strength

In a person with an upper motor neuron lesion such as a cerebrovascular accident, which of the following physical assessment findings would the nurse expect to see?
1.Hyperreflexia
2.Fasciculations
3.Loss of muscle tone and flaccidity
4.Atrophy and wasting of the muscles
Hyperreflexia, diminished or absent superficial reflexes, increased muscle tone or spasticity can be expected with upper motor neuron lesions.

A few days after a summer hiking trip, a 25-year-old man comes to the clinic with a rash. On examination, the nurse notes that the rash is red, macular, with a bull’s eye pattern across his midriff and behind his knees. The nurse suspects:
Lyme Disease

To assess the dorsalis pedis artery, the nurse would palpate
lateral to the extensor tendon of the great toe.The dorsalis pedis artery is located on the dorsum of the foot. Palpate just lateral to and parallel with the extensor tendon of the big toe.

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The nurse is performing a neurologic assessment on a 41-year-old woman with a history of diabetes. When testing her ability to feel the vibrations of a tuning fork, the nurse notes the following: unable to feel vibrations on the great toe or ankle bilaterally; is able to feel vibrations on both patellae. Given this information, what would the nurse suspect?
1.Hyperalgesia
2.Hyperesthesia
3.Peripheral neuropathy
4.Lesion of sensory cortex
Loss of vibration sense occurs with peripheral neuropathy (e.g., diabetes and alcoholism). Peripheral neuropathy is worse at the feet and gradually improves as you move up leg, as opposed to a specific nerve lesion, which has a clear zone of deficit for its dermatome

The nurse is reviewing an assessment of a patient’s peripheral pulses and notices that the documentation states that the radial pulses are “2+.” The nurse recognizes that this reading indicates what type ofpulse?
A.Bounding
B.Normal
C.Weak
D.Absent

During an examination, you note that a male patient has a red, round, superficial ulcer with a yellowish-serous discharge on his penis. Upon palpation, you note a nontender base that feels like a small button between your thumb and fingers. At this point you suspect that this patient has:
syphilitic chancre

During an interview, a patient reveals that she is pregnant. She states that she is not sure whether shewill breastfeed her baby and asks for some information about this. Which of these statements by the nurse is accurate with regard to breastfeeding?
“Breastfeeding provides the perfect food and antibodies for your baby.”
or Breast-feeding may reduce the risk of breast cancer.

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To palpate the temporomandibular joint, the nurse’s finger should be placed in the depression of the ear.
anterior to the tragus

The nurse practitioner is examining only the rectal area of a woman and should place the woman in what position?
The nurse should place the female patient in lithotomy position if examining genitalia as well; use the left lateral decubitus position for the rectal area alone.
The nurse is performing a genitourinary assessment on a 50-year-old obese male laborer. On examination the nurse notices a painless round swelling close to the pubis in the area of the internal inguinal ring that is easily reduced when the individual is supine. These findings are most consistent with a(n) _____ hernia.
Direct inguinal

The nurse is conducting a class about breast self-examination (BSE). Which of these statementsindicates proper BSE technique?
C)The best time to perform BSE is 4 to 7 days after the first day of the menstrual
period.

A man found wandering in park at 2AM has been brought to emergency department for examination because he said he fell+hit head. During examination, nurse asks him to use his index finger to touch nurse’s finger, then own nose, then nurse’s finger again (moved to a different location). patient is clumsy, unable to follow the instructions, +overshoots mark, missing finger. nurse suspects…
1.Cerebral injury
2.Cerebrovascular accident
3.Acute alcohol intoxication
4.Peripheral neuropathy
During the finger-to-finger test, if the person has clumsy movement with overshooting the mark, either a cerebellar disorders or acute alcohol intoxication should be suspected.

Which of the following assessment findings is most consistent with clubbing of the fingernails?
An angle of the nail base of 180 degrees or greater with a nail base that feels spongy

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A 45-year-old mother of two children is seen at the clinic for complaints of “losing my urine when I sneeze.” The nurse documents that she is experiencing:
stress incontinence

A patient calls the clinic for instructions before having a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. The most appropriate instructions from the nurse are:
“Avoid intercourse, inserting anything into the vagina, or douching within 24 hours of your appointment.”

Which of the following statements is true regarding the penis?
The corpus spongiosum expends into a cone of erectile tissue called the glans

During an assessment, the nurse notes that a patient’s left arm is swollen from the shoulder down to the fingers, with nonpitting edema. The right arm is normal. The patient had a mastectomy 1 year ago. The nurse suspects which problem?
Lymphedema

When performing the bimanual examination, the nurse notices that the cervix feels smooth and firm, is round, and is fixed in place (does not move). When cervical palpation is performed, the patient complains of some pain. The nurse’s interpretation of these results should be which of these?
The cervix should move when palpated; an immobile cervix may indicate malignancy.

You are examining a 6 month old baby. You place the baby’s feet flat on the table and flex his knees up. you note that the right knee is significantly lower than the left. Which of the following is true of this finding?
This is a positive Allis sign and suggests hip dislocation

A 75-year-old woman who has a history of diabetes and peripheral vascular disease has been trying to remove a corn on the bottom of her foot with a pair of scissors. The nurse will encourage her to stop trying to remove the corn with scissors because:
the woman could be at increased risk for infection and lesions because of her chronic disease
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You are examining Mr. O, and when you ask him to bend forward from the waist, you notice lateral tilting; when you raise his leg straight up, he complains of a pain going down his buttock into his leg. You suspect:
herniated nucleus pulposus

The assessment of an 80-year-old patient, the nurse notes that his hands show tremors when he reaches for something and that his head is always nodding. There is no associated rigidity with movement. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
these findings are normal

Which of the following statements is true regarding the arterial system?
The arterial system is a high-pressure system.

A patient who is visiting the clinic complains of having “stomach pains for 2 weeks” and describes his stools as being “soft and black” for about the last 10 days. He denies taking any medications. The NP is aware that these symptoms are most indicative of:
occult blood resulting from gastrointestinal bleeding.

During an internal examination of a woman’s genitalia, the nurse will use which technique for proper insertion of the speculum?
Instruct the woman to bear down, turn the width of the blades horizontally, and insert the speculum at a 45-degree angle downward toward the small of the woman’s back.
During an internal examination of a woman’s genitalia, the nurse practitioner will use which technique for proper insertion of the speculum?
Insert the blades of the speculum on a horizontal plane, turning them to a 45-degree angle while continuing to insert them. Ask the woman to bear down to ease insertion.
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When assessing a patient the nurse practitioner documents the left femoral pulse as 0/0-4+. Which of the following findings would the nurse practitioner expect at the dorsalis pedis pulse?
0/0-4+Pulsations are graded on a four-point scale: 0, absent; 1+, weak; 2+, normal; 3+, increased; 4+, bounding. If a pulse is absent at the femoral site, one would expect the dorsalis pedis pulse to be absent also.

A 2-year-old boy has been diagnosed with “physiologic cryptorchidism.” Given this diagnosis, during assessment the nurse will most likely observe:
An absence of the testis in the scrotum, but the testis can be milked down

The nurse practitioner is doing an assessment on a 29-year-old woman who visits the clinic complaining of “always dropping things and falling down.” While testing rapid alternating movements, the nurse practitioner notices that the woman is unable to pat both her knees. Her response is very slow and she misses frequently. What might the nurse practitioner suspect?
Dysfunction of the cerebellum
In rapid, alternating movements, slow, clumsy, and sloppy response occurs with cerebellar disease.

The wife of a 65 year old man tells the nurse that she is concerned because she has noted a change in her husband’s personality and ability to understand. He also cries and becomes angry very easily. The nurse recalls that the cerebral lobe responsible for these behaviors is which of the following?
Frontal

A male patient with possible fertility problems asks the nurse where sperm is produced. The nurse knows that sperm production occurs in the:
testes.

Which of the following statements reflects the best approach to teaching a woman about breast self-examination (BSE)?
“BSE on a monthly basis will help you feel familiar with your own breasts and their normal variations.”
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When assessing a patient’s pulse, the nurse practitioner notes that the amplitude is weaker during inspiration and stronger during expiration. When the nurse practitioner measures the blood pressure, the reading decreases 20 mm Hg during inspiration and increases with expiration. This patient is experiencing:
pulsusparadoxus.

A patient has had a “terrible itch” for several months that he has been scratching continuously. On examination, the nurse might expect to find:
lichenification

During an annual physical exam, a 43-year-old patient states that she doesn’t perform monthly breast self-examination (BSE).  She tells the nurse that she believes that mammograms “do a much better job than I ever could to find a lump.”  The nurse should explain to her that:
BSEs may detect lumps that appear between mammograms./ mammography may not detect all palpable lumps.

A patient’s annual physical examination reveals a lateral curvature of the thoracic and lumbar segments of his spine; however, this curvature disappears with forward bending. This abnormality of the spine would be called:
Functional scoliosis
Assessment of a 60-yr-old patient has taken longer than anticipated. in testing pain perception nurse decides to complete the test as quickly as possible. When nurse applies sharp point of pin on his arm several times, he is only able to identify these as one ‘very sharp prick.’ most accurate explanation?
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1.has hyperesthesia as a result of aging process
2.most likely the result of the summation effect.
3.The nurse was probably not poking hard enough with the pin in the other areas.
4.The patient most likely has analgesia in some areas of arm and hyperalgesia in others.
ANS:  2Let at least 2 seconds elapse between each stimulus to avoid summation. With summation, frequent consecutive stimuli are perceived as one strong stimulus.

Assessing a 7-month-old infant you make a loud noise and note the following response: Abduction and flexion of arms and legs; fanning of fingers and curling of index finger and thumb in C-position; followed by infant bringing in arms and legs to body.  What do you know about this?
1.This could indicate brachial nerve palsy
2.This is an expected startle response at this age
3.This reflex should disappear between 1 and 4 months of age
4.It is normal as long as movements are symmetrical bilaterally

The nurse is assessing a 75-year-old man. As the nurse beings the mental status portion of the assessment, the nurse expects that this patient:
may take a little longer to respond, but his general knowledge and abilities should not have declined.

During an external genitalia examination of a woman, the nurse notices several lesions around the vulva. The lesions are pink, moist, soft, and pointed papules. The patient states that she is not aware ofany problems in that area. The nurse recognizes that these lesions may be:
HPV or genital WARTs

A 40-year-old woman reports a change in mole size, accompanied by color changes, itching, burning, and bleeding over the past month. She has a dark complexion and has no family history of skin cancer, but she has had many blistering sunburns in the past. The nurse would:
Refer the patient because of the suspicion of melanoma on the basis of her symptoms.

Which of the following veins are responsible for most of the venous return in the arm?
1.Deep veins
2.Ulnar veins
3.Subclavian veins
4.Superficial veins

A man who has had gout for several years comes to the clinic with a “problem with my toe.” On examination, the nurse practitioner notes the presence of hard, painless nodules over the great toe; one had burst open with a chalky discharge. This finding is known as:
Tophi are collections of sodium urate crystals resulting from chronic gout in and around the joint that cause extreme swelling and joint deformity. They appear as hard, painless nodules (tophi) over the metatarsophalangeal joint of the first toe and they sometimes burst with a chalky discharge
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The nurse is performing a well-child assessment on a 3-year-old child. The child’s vital signs are normal. Capillary refill time is 5 seconds. The nurse would:
1.ask the parent if the child has had frostbite in the past.
2.suspect that the child has a venous insufficiency problem.
3.consider this a delayed capillary refill time and investigate further.
4.consider this a normal capillary refill time that requires no further assessment.
Normal capillary refill time is less than 1 to 2 seconds. Note that these conditions can skew your findings: a cool room, decreased body temperature, cigarette smoking, peripheral edema, and anemia.
A 70-year-old patient is scheduled for open-heart surgery. The surgeon plans to use the great saphenous vein for the coronary bypass grafts. The patient asks, “What happens to my circulation when the veins are removed?” The nurse should reply:
“Because the deeper veins in your leg are in good condition, this vein can be removed without harming your circulation.”

When observing the vestibule, the nurse practitioner should be able to see the:
Urethral meatus and vaginal orifice

When the nurse is conducting sexual history from a male adolescent, which statement would be most appropriate to use at the beginning of the interview?
Often boys your age have questions about sexual activity

The nurse practitioner is palpating the abdomen of a woman who is 35 weeks’ pregnant and notes that the fetal head is facing downward toward the pelvis. The nurse practitioner would document this as:
B) Fetal presentation
Fetal presentation describes the part of the fetus that is entering the pelvis first. Fetal lie is orientation of the fetal spine to the maternal spine. Attitude is the position of the fetal parts in relation to each other, and fetal variety is the location of the fetal back to the maternal pelvis.

Which of the following factors is most likely to affect the nutritional status of an 82-year-old person?
Socioeconomic conditions frequently have the greatest effect on the nutritional status of the aging adult; these factors should be closely evaluated. Physical limitations, income, and social isolation are frequent problems and can obviously interfere with the acquisition of a balanced diet.

When performing a genital examination on a 25-year-old man, the nurse notices deeply pigmented, wrinkled scrotal skin with large sebaceous follicles. On the basis of this information the nurse would:
consider this a normal finding and proceed with the examination.
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Mrs. A has had arthritis for years and is starting to notice that her fingers are drifting to this side. This is commonly referred to as:
ulnar deviation

A nurse is assessing a patient’s risk of contracting a sexually transmitted infection (STI). An appropriate question to ask would be:
“Do you use a condom with each episode of sexual intercourse?”

A 14-year-old boy who has been diagnosed with Osgood-Schlatter disease reports painful swelling just below the knee for the past 5 months. Which response by the nurse practitioner is appropriate?
“Your disease is due to repeated stress on the patellar tendon. It is usually self-limited, and your symptoms should resolve with rest.”

Which of the following is considered a normal and expected finding when the nurse practitioner is performing a physical examination on a pregnant woman?

A 54-year-old woman who has just completed menopause is in the clinic today for a yearly physical examination. Which of these statements should the nurse include in patient education? “A postmenopausal woman:
should be aware that she is at increased risk for dyspareunia because of decreased vaginal secretions.”

The nurse practitioner has completed the musculoskeletal examination of a patient’s knee and has found a positive bulge sign. The nurse suspects:
Swelling from fluid in the suprapatellar pouch

Which of the following statements is true with regard to the history of a postmenopausal woman?

When performing a genital assessment on a middle-aged man, the nurse notices multiple soft, moist, painless papules in the shape of cauliflower-like patches scattered across the shaft of the penis. These lesions are characteristic of:
genital warts.

During a physical examination, a 45-year-old woman states that she has had a crusty, itchy rash on her breast for about 2 weeks. In trying to find the cause of the rash, which of these would beimportant for the nurse to determine?
Where did it first appear—on the nipple, the areola, or the surrounding skin?

Which of the following statements is true regarding assessment of the ankle-brachial index (ABI)?
ABI = highest ankle pressure divided by the highest brachial pressure

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The patient is in her first trimester of pregnancy. She complains of feeling nauseated and has vomited on occasion. She tells the nurse that she did not have this with her first pregnancy. She asks the nurse, “What is causing this and when will it end?” How should the nurse respond?

The nausea is caused by elevated levels of progesterone and estrogen, and the nausea should end once her body adjusts to the increased hormone levels.

A professional tennis player comes in complaining of a sore elbow. You suspect that he has tenderness at:
the medial and lateral epicondyle

During a bimanual examination, the nurse detects a solid tumor on the ovary that is heavy and fixed,with a poorly defined mass. This finding is suggestive of:
ovarian cancer

When doing the history on a patient with a seizure disorder, the nurse assesses whether the patient has an aura. Which of the following would be the best question for obtaining this information?
Do you have any warning sign before your seizure starts?

Feedback: Aura is a subjective sensation that precedes a seizure; it could be auditory, visual, or motor.

The nurse practitioner is assessing a 1-week-old infant and testing his muscle strength. The nurse practitioner lifts the infant with hands under the axillae and notes that the infant starts to “slip” between the hands. The nurse practitioner should:
Suspect that the infant may have weakness of the shoulder muscles

In examining a 70-year-old male patient, the nurse notices that he has bilateral gynecomastia. Whichof the following describes the nurse’s best course of action?
Explain that this condition may be the result of hormonal changes and recommendthat he see his physician.
While the nurse practitioner is taking the history of a 68-year-old patient who sustained a head injury 3 days earlier, he tells the nurse practitioner that he is on a cruise ship and is 30 years old. The nurse practitioner knows that this finding is indicative of:
Decreased level of consciousness.

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A woman has just been diagnosed with HPV, or genital warts. The nurse should counsel her to receive regular examinations because this virus makes her at a higher risk for _____ cancer.
cervical

During an annual check-up of a 55 y/o patient, the nurse discusses the early detection measures for colon cancer. The nurse should mention the need for a
colonoscopy every 10 years

What are the two main parts of the nervous system?
Central Nervous System (CNS) and Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

While obtaining a history of a 3-month old infant from the mother, the nurse practitioner asks about the baby’s ability to suck and grasp the mother’s finger. What is the nurse practitioner assessing?

The nurse practitioner auscultates a functional systolic murmur, grade II/IV, on a woman in week 30 of her pregnancy. The remainder of her physical assessment is within normal limits. The nurse practitioner would:

The nurse practitioner knows that classic symptoms associated with preeclampsia include:

Question 13: Business

Analyze the case study titled “Who’s the World’s Top Retailer? Walmart and Amazon Duke It Out” on pp.
116-118 of your textbook.
For this assignment, you will need to:
1. analyze the case study comparing Walmart and Amazon’s business models and business strategies,
2. explain the role that information technology plays in each of these businesses and describe the role of the various
IT professionals involved in this case,
3. explain how IT helps influence Walmart and Amazon’s organizational strategies, and
4. summarize your findings in a two- to three-page paper.

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Instructions
There are several standardized training events in large organizations that are required annually or biannually. One of these is often sexual harassment. For this assignment, write a training plan for all employees in your firm to educate and develop their awareness of sexual harassment and understanding of legal and organizational policies. Be sure to include training aspects of planning, design, implementation, and evaluation.
This plan should be in narrative form with a minimum requirement of 500 words. Discuss the following guidelines to complete your plan.
Planning: Should all employees be trained at once? If not, who should be trained first? What are the anticipated outcomes or terminal learning objectives of the training?
Design: In what format should the training be given, and why? What modalities will be used for employees on multiple shifts or in multiple locations? What are the core elements of the training that will align with the learning objectives?
Implementation: Who will lead the training, and how will it be implemented? Will you be training for knowledge or behavior change? How will you conduct the actual training to account for knowledge and/or behavioral change?
Evaluation: How will you know if the training was successful? What measures will you use to know if employees 1) learned from the training, 2) behaved differently after the training, and 3) the training has a bottom line impact to the firm?
Any sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations in APA format.

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“State of Estates” is a national estate planning firm with 2,500 employees in eight states.

Prepare a 10- to 15-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation with speaker notes for upper management at “State of Estates” to address the following areas:
An overview of Title VII as applied to race and national origin discrimination
Ways “State of Estates” can minimize liability for race and national origin discrimination in its employment practices
The three types of affirmative action
Whether any type of affirmative action is required or recommended for the firm

Include visual interest in the form of relevant photos, clip art, and/or graphics.

Format your presentation consistent with APA guidelines and include both an introduction slide and reference slide.

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Assignment #3: Inferential Statistics Analysis and Write up
Purpose: The purpose of this assignment is to develop and carry out an inferential statistics analysis plan and write up the findings. There are two main parts to this assignment: ● Part A: Inferential Statistics Data Plan and Analysis ● Part B: Write up of Results
Part A: Prepare Data Plan, Analyze Data, and Complete Part A of the Assignment #3 Template ➢ Task 1: Select Variables. Review the variables you used for assignments #1 and #2. Select your qualitative socioeconomic variable as your grouping variable and the two expenditure variables from the variables used in these previous assignments. Fill in Table 1: Variables Selected for Analysis with name, description, and type of variable (i.e., qualitative or quantitative). ➢ Task 2: Select and Run a One Sample Confidence Interval Analysis. For one expenditure
variable, select and run the appropriate method for estimating a parameter, based on a statistic
(i.e., confidence interval method). Complete Table 2: Confidence Interval Information and
Results, which follows the format outlined by Kozak and the course’s problem-solving approach,
including:
○ Random variable stated in words ○ Confidence interval method, including rationale and assumptions ○ Method used for analyzing data (i.e., web applets, Excel, TI calculator, etc.). ○ Results obtained ○ Interpretation
➢ Task 3: Select Two Sample Hypothesis Test. Using the second expenditure variable (with the
socioeconomic variable as the grouping variable), select and run the appropriate method for
making decisions about two parameters relative to observed statistics (i.e., two sample
STAT200: Assignment #3 – Inferential Statistics Analysis and Writeup – Instructions Page 2 of 5
hypothesis test method). Complete Table 3: Two Sample Hypothesis Test Analysis, which
follows the format outlined by Kozak and the course’s problem-solving approach, including:
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○ Hypotheses (null and alternative). ○ Two sample hypothesis testing method, including rationale and assumptions ○ Method used for analyzing data (i.e., web applets, Excel, TI calculator, etc.). ○ Results obtained. ○ Interpretation (i.e., Reject the null hypothesis OR Fail to reject null hypothesis)
Step 2: Write Up Results and Complete Part B of the Assignment #3 Template
For this 1 to 2 page section, refer to the inferential statistics data plan and computations done for Part A of this assignment. Address the following area: ➢ Introduction. Based on the scenario you submitted for the second assignment, provide a brief description of scenario, including the variables that were used in this analysis. Include a completed “Table 1: Variables Selected for Analysis to show the variables you selected for analysis. ➢ Data Set Description and Method Used for Analysis. Briefly describe the data set, using information provided with data set and write up in Assignment #2. Also describe what method(s) (i.e., free web applets, Excel, TI Calculator) you used to analyze the data. ➢ Results. In this section, you will report the results of your inferential statistics data analysis.
For the Confidence Interval Analysis, write one paragraph that includes: o Statistical method used, including rationale and whether assumptions were met. o Statistical Interpretation. The statistical interpretation is that the confidence interval has a probability (1−α, where α is the complement of the confidence level) of containing the population parameter. o Real World Interpretation. Explain the results in everyday language. Recommend reviewing the text and information from the classroom for examples on how to report results in everyday language.

STAT200: Assignment #3 – Inferential Statistics Analysis and Writeup – Instructions Page 3 of 5
For the Two Sample Hypothesis Test Analysis, write one paragraph that includes: o Hypotheses that were assessed. See below table for example format: Examples Format for Writing Null and Alternative Hypotheses, in Words
Null Hypothesis: There is no significant difference in [insert variable name] between [insert group 1 name] and [insert group 2 name] households.
Alternative Hypothesis:
➢ For two-tailed (≠): There is a significant difference in [insert variable name] between [insert group 1 name] and [insert group 2 name] households.
➢ For one-tailed (>): [Insert group 1 name] has statistically significantly higher [insert variable name] than [insert group 2 name].
➢ For one-tailed (<): [Insert group 1 name] has statistically significantly lower [insert variable name] than [insert group 2 name].
o Statistical method used, including rationale and whether assumptions were met. See below table for example format: Example Format for Writing Statistical Method with Rationale
To determine whether the there was a difference in [insert household expenditure]
between [insert names of two groups), a [insert name of hypothesis test used] was
used. It was the appropriate statistical method, because [insert rationale]. The
assumptions were assessed [insert information about the assumptions assessed and
whether they were met].
o Conclusion from the Results. This is where you state whether to reject Ho or fail to reject Ho including the p-value that was obtained. The rule is: if the p-value < α, then reject Ho. If the p-value ≥α, then fail to reject Ho.
STAT200: Assignment #3 – Inferential Statistics Analysis and Writeup – Instructions Page 4 of 5
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o Real World Interpretation. Explain, in everyday language, the results. If any of the assumptions were not met, describe how it might affect conclusions. Address issues of Type I and/or Type II Error, where appropriate. Recommend reviewing the text and information from the classroom for examples on how to report results in everyday language.
➢ Discussion– Write one paragraph that summarizes the results of your findings and how they may be helpful to the person described in the scenario, when making a household budget

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ECON 205 FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE

Exam #1

1. A resource is anything that:
A)can be used in production.
B) you pay for.
C) is in scarce supply.
D) can be consumed.

2. Scarcity in economics means:
A)not having sufficient resources to produce all the goods and service we want.
B) the wants of people are limited.
C) there must be poor people in rich countries.
D) economics are clearly not doing their jobs.

3. Opportunity cost is:
A) about half of the monetary cost of a product.
B) the dollar payment for a product.
C) the benefit derived from a product.
D)the value of the best alternative forgone in making any choice.

4. Margo spends $10,000 on one year’s college tuition. The opportunity cost of spending one year in college for Margo is:
A) $10,000
B) whatever she would have purchased with the $10,000 instead.
C) whatever she would have earned had she not been in college.
D)whatever she would have purchased with the $10,000 instead and whatever she would have earned had she not been in college.

5. We are forced to make choices because of:
A) exploitation.
B) efficiency.
C)scarcity.
D) the margin.

6. A choice made ________ is a choice whether to do a little more or a little less of something.
A) at the fringe
B) in the beginning
C)at the margin
D) after the fact

7. A production possibility frontier illustrates the ______ facing an economy that ______ only two goods.
A) prices; sells
B)trade-offs; produces
C) trade-offs; consumes
D) shortages; produces
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8. When moving along a production possibility frontier, the opportunity cost to society of getting more of one good:
A) is constant.
B) is measured in dollar terms.
C)is measured by the amount of the good that must be given up.
D) usually decreases.

Use the following to answer questions 9-11:
Figure: Guns and Butter

9.
(Figure: Guns and Butter) On this figure, points A, B, E,and F:
A)indicate combinations of guns and butter that society can produce using all of its factor efficiently.
B) show that the opportunity cost of more guns increases, but that of more butter decreases.
C) indicate that society wants butter more than it wants guns.
D) indicate constant costs for guns and increasing costs for butter.

10. (Figure: Guns and Butter) This possibility frontier is:
A)bowed out from the origin because of increasing opportunity costs.
B) bowed in toward the origin because of increasing  opportunity costs.
C) bowed in toward the origin because of constant  costs of guns and butter.
D) linear because of constant costs.

11. (Figure: Guns and Butter) If the economy were operating at point B, producing 16 units of guns and 12 units of butter per period, a decision to move to point E and produce 18 units of butter:
A) indicates you can have more butter and guns simultaneously.
B) makes it clear that this economy experiences decreasing opportunity costs.
C)involves a loss of 8 units of guns per period.
D) involves a loss of 4 units of guns per period.

12. An economy is said to have a comparative advantage in the production of one good if it:
A) can produce more of all goods than another country.
B) can produce less of all goods than another country.
C) has the highest opportunity cost for producing a particular good.
D)has the lowest opportunity cost for producing a particular good.

13. In one hour, the United States can produce 25 tons of steel or 250 automobiles. In one hour, Japan can produce 30 tons of steel or 275 automobiles. This information implies that:
A) Japan has a comparative advantage in the production of automobiles.
B) the Unites States has an absolute advantage in the production of steel.
C) Japan has a comparative advantage in the production of both goods.
D) the United States has a comparative advantage in the production of automobiles.

14. Free trade between countries:
A) should be based on absolute advantage.
B) will allow wealthy countries to exploit less developed nations.
C) will shift the domestic production possibility frontier to the right.
D)will allow for greater levels of consumption than without trade.

Use the following to answer questions 15-17:

Figure: Comparative Advantage
Eastland and Westland produce only two goods, peaches and oranges, and this figure shows each nation’s production possibility frontier for the two foods.

15. (Figure: Comparative Advantage) The opportunity cost of producing 1 unit of peaches for Westland is:
A) 1 unit of oranges.
B) ¼ unit of oranges.
C) 4 units of oranges.
D) 10 units of oranges

16. (Figure: Comparative Advantage) Westland has an absolute advantage in producing:
A) oranges only.
B)peaches only.
C) both oranges and peaches.
D) neither oranges or peaches.

17. (Figure: Comparative Advantage) Eastland has a comparative advantage in producing:
A)oranges only.
B) peaches only.
C) both oranges and peaches.
D) neither oranges or peaches.

18. The economy’s factors of production are not equally suitable for producing different types of goods. The principle generates:
A) economic growth.
B) technical efficiency.
C) resource underutilization.
D)the law of increasing opportunity cost.

19. Economists generally believe that a country should specialize in the production of a good or service if:
A) the production possibility frontier is larger than that of any other country.
B) the production possibility frontier is smaller than that of any other country.
C) the country can produce the product using fewer resources than any other country.
D)the country can produce the product while forgoing fewer alternative products than any other country.

20. The demand curve for videos has shifted to the right. What could have caused it?
A) a fall in the price of videos
B) an increase in the price of videos
C) an increase in the supply of videos
D)an increase in the incomes of buyers

21. The law of demand states other things equal:
A) as the price increases, the quantity demanded will increase.

B) as the price decreases, the demand curve will shift to the right.
C) as the price increases, the demand will decrease.
D)as the price increases, the quantity demanded will decrease.

22. A shift of the demand curve for Luis’s Pizza would not be caused by a change in the:
A) buyer’s incomes.
B)price of Luis’s Pizza.
C) price of Humberto’s Pizza.
D) popularity of Luis’s Pizza.

23. If goods A and B are substitutes, a decrease in the price of good B will:
A) increase the demand for good A.
B) increase the demand for good B.
C) decrease the demand for good A.
D) increase the demand for good B and decrease the demand for good A.

Use the following to answer questions 24-25:

Figure: Demand for Coconuts

24. (Figure: Demand for Coconuts) If a coconut is a normal good and the price of coconuts increases, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
A) A to B.
B) B to A.
C) C to A.
D) E to B.

25. (Figure Demand for Coconuts) If coconuts are considered a normal good and there is an expectation on the part of consumers that the prices of coconuts will rise significantly in the near future, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
A) C to A.
B) A to B.
C) B to E.
D)E to B.

26. When the price of gas goes up and the demand for tires goes down, this means tires and gas are:
A) substitutes.
B)complements.
C) both expensive.
D) both inexpensive.

27. Which of the following would shift the demand curve for new textbook to the right?
A) a decrease in the price of paper
B) a fall in the price of used textbooks
C)an increase in college enrollments
D) a fall in the price of new textbooks

28. A good is normal if:
A) when income increases, the demand remains unchanged.
B) when income increases, the demand decreases.
C)when income increases, the demand increases.
D) income and the demand are unrelated.

Exam #2

1. The typical supply curve illustrates that:
A) other things equal, the quantity supplied for a good is inversely related to the price of a good.
B) other things equal, the supply of the good created its own demand for the good.
C)other things equal, the quantity supplied for a good is positively related to the price of a good.
D)price and quantity supplied are unrelated.

2. Which of the following is not a determinant of supply?
A) expectations regarding future prices
B) the technology of production
C) the cost of production
D) consumer tastes

Use the following to answer questions 3-5:

Figure: Supply of Coconuts

3. (Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If the price of coconuts decreases, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
A)A to B
B) B to A
C) C to A
D) E to B
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4. (Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If the prices of inputs (e.g. labor, fertilizer, and fuel) used to produce and transport coconuts are increasing, then the movement in the model could be:
A) A to B
B) B to A
C)C to A
D) E to B

5. (Figure: Supply of Coconuts)If there is an improvement in the technology used to harvest coconuts (e.g. a faster, less expensive coconut picker), then the movement in the model could be:
A)A to C
B) B to A
C) C to A
D) Bto E

6. The market for soybeans is initially in equilibrium. Because of “mad cow disease,” cattle feed producers decided to replace bone meal with soybeans in cattle feed. The likely effect is that:
A)the equilibrium price and quantity of soybeans will rise.
B) the equilibrium price and quantity of soybeans will fall.
C) the equilibrium quantity of soybeans will rise, but we can’t determine what will happen to the equilibrium price.
D)the equilibrium price of soybeans will rise, but we can’t determine what will happen to the equilibrium quantity.

7. Excess supply occurs when:
A) the price is above the equilibrium price.
B) the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied.
C) the price is below equilibrium price.
D) the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied and when the price is below the equilibrium quantity.

8. The market for milk is initially in equilibrium. Milk producers now engage in a costly advertising program to encourage milk drinking. Assume that the advertising campaign succeeds in shifting consumer tastes toward drinking milk and that milk producers provide more milk to the market. More milk producers enter the market. Standard demand and supply analysis tells us that:
A) the equilibrium price and quantity of milk will rise.
B) the equilibrium price and quantity of milk will fall.
C)the equilibrium quantity of milk will rise, but we can’t determine how the equilibrium price will be affected.
D) )the equilibrium price of milk will rise, but we can’t determine how the equilibrium quantity will be affected.

Use the following to answer question 9:

Figure: DVD Market

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9. (Figure: DVD Market) At a rental price of $3, there will be
A) equilibrium in the rental market for DVDs.
B) an increase in demand.
C) an excess supply of 40 DVD rentals.
D)an excess demand of 40 DVD rentals.

10. In the market for corn tortilla chips, what would cause a price increase?
A) Your doctor tells you that you cannot have junk food anymore.
B) There is a technological advancement in the tortilla chip production process.
C) There is a fungus that kills much of the corn crop in Nebraska.
D) The price of salsa triples.

11. Consumer surplus for an individual buyer is equal to:
A)the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good, minus the marginal cost of producing the good.
B)the price of the good, minus the marginal cost od producing the good.
C)the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good, minus the price of the good.
D)the marginal cost of the good, minus the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good.

12. Along a given demand curve, an increase in the price of a good will cause consumer surplus to:
A)increase.
B)decrease.
C)not change.
D)cannot be determined without information about the supply curve.

Use the following to answer questions 13-14:

Figure: Consumer Surplus II

13. (Figure: Consumer Surplus II) At a price of P1, consumer surplus equals the area:
A) ABP2
B) AFP1
C) BGF
D) P1P2BF

14. (Figure: Consumer Surplus II) If the price rises from P1 to P2, consumer surplus decreases by the area:
A) ABP2
B) AFP1
C) BGF
D) P1P2BF

15. The price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of the change in:
A)quantity demanded to a change in price.
B)price to a change in quantity demanded.
C)the slope of the demand curve to a change in price.
D)the slope of the demand curve to a change in quantity demanded.

16. Suppose the price elasticity of demand for cheeseburgers equals 0.37. This means the overall demand for cheeseburgers is:
A)price elastic.
B)price inelastic.
C)price unit-elastic.
D)perfectly price inelastic.

Use the following to answer question 17:

Figure: Consumer Surplus III

17. (Figure Consumer Surplus III) If the price of the good is $2, consumer surplus will equal:
A) $30.
B) $45.
C) $60.
D) $90.

18. Suppose at a price of $10 the quantity demanded is 100. When the price falls to $8, the quantity demanded increases to 130. The price elasticity of demand between the priced of $10 and $8, using the midpoint method, is approximately:
A) 1.17
B) 1.50
C) 0.85
D) 1.00

19. The publisher of an economics textbook finds that when the book’s price is lowered from $70 to $60, sales rise from 10,000 to 15,000. Using the midpoint method, you can calculate that the price elasticity of demand is:
A) 500
B) 50%
C) 3.5
D) 2.6
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20. If total revenue goes down when price falls, the price elasticity of demand is said to be:
A)price-inelastic
B)price unit-elastic
C)price-elastic
D)positive

21. To say that two goods are complements, their cross-price elasticity’s of demand should be:
A)less than 0
B)equal to 0
C)positive, yet almost equal to 0
D)greater than 0

22. A perfectly elastic supply curve is:
A)horizontal
B)downward-sloping
C)upward-sloping
D)vertical

23. The income elasticity of demand of a normal good is:
A)between 1 and 0
B)less than 0
C)equal to 0
D) greater than 0

24. To maximize her grade in economics, Stacey should study until:
A)her marginal cost of studying begins to increase.
B)her marginal benefit of studying begins to decrease.
C)her marginal benefit of studying equals her marginal cost of studying.
D)her marginal cost of studying reaches zero.

25. According to the optimal output rule, if marginal benefit:
A)exceeds marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
B)is less than marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
C)is equal to marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
D)exceeds marginal cost, net benefit is maximized.

26. To maximize total net benefit, consumers and firms evaluate each activity at the:
A)average.
B)top.
C)margin.
D)end.
Use the following to answer question 27:

Figure: Marginal Cost Curve

27. (Figure: Marginal Cost Curve) Using the marginal cost curve in the figure provided, we can determine that the total cost of mowing five lawns is approximately:
A) $68.50
B) $100
C) $50
D) $10
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28. If the marginal benefit received from a good is greater than the marginal cost of production, then:
A)society’s well-being can be improved if production increases.
B)society’s well-being can be improved if production decreases.
C)society’s well-being cannot be improved by changing production.
D)the market is producing too much of the good.

Exam #3

1. The amount by which an additional unit of a good or service increases a consumer’s total utility, all other things unchanged, is:
A) marginal utility
B) maximum utility
C) average utility
D) required utility

2. The principle of diminishing marginal utility means that when Sarah eats pizza, her satisfaction from the second slice of pizza is probably:
A) greater than that from the first.
B) equal to that from the first.
C) less than that from the first.
D) not comparable to that of the first.

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3. Assume that the marginal utilities for the first three units of a good consumed are 200,150, and 125, respectively. The total utility when two units are consumed is:
A) 150
B) 200
C) 350
D) 475

4. Suzy knows she has maximized her utility, because she is on her budget constraint and:
A) consumption of Good X equals consumption of God Y
B) what is sent on Good X equals what is spent on Good Y
C) MUx/Px = MUy/Py
D) MUx = MUy

5. Joesph consumes pizza and soda. He is currently consuming three units of pizza and two units of soda. The price of pizza is $5 and the price of soda is $1. If he is consuming the optimal consumption bundle and his marginal utility of pizza is 50, then his marginal utility of soda is:
A) 50
B) 10
C) 5
D) impossible to determine unless you know Joseph’s income.

6. While at the grocery store, Sidney sees that the price of Grape-Nuts is twice that of Cheerios. If Sidney buys both goods, then Sidney must:
A) get twice as much marginal utility from Grape-Nuts as from Cheerios.
B) get twice as much marginal utility from Cheerios as from Grape-Nuts.
C) not be maximizing her utility.
D) buy twice as much Cheerios.

Use the following to anser questions 7-8:

Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples

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7. (Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples) For some time, Sylvester has had $5 per month to spend on oranges and apples. The price of an orange is $0.50 and the price of an apple is $.025. Which of the charts shows what will happen to his budget line if his income decreases to $2.50?
A) Chart A
B) Chart B
C) Chart C
D) Chart D

8. (Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples) For some time, Sylvester has had $5 per month to spend on oranges and apples. The price of an orange is $0.50 and the price of an apple is $.025. Which of the charts shows what will happen to his budget line if the price of an orange falls to $0.25?
A) Chart A
B) Chart B
C) Chart C
D) Chart D

Use the following to answer questions 9-10:

Table: Total Product and Marginal Product

9. (Table: Total Product and Marginal Product) The marginal product of the second worker is:
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 30

10. (Table: Total Product and Marginal Product) Negative marginal returns begin when the _______ worker is added.
A) fifth
B) sixth
C) seventh
D) eighth

11. A planning period during which all of a firm’s resources are variable is the:
A) long run
B) fixed run
C) short run
D) nominal run

Use the following to answer question 15:

Figure: Short-Run Costs

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15. (Figure: Short-Run Costs) A is the _______ cost curve.
A) average total
B) average variable
C) marginal
D) total

16. If marginal cost is greater than average total cost, then:
A) average total cost is increasing.
B) average total cost is decreasing.
C) average total cost is unchanged.
D) marginal cost is decreasing.

17. A firm’s marginal cost is:
A) the ratio of the change in fixed cost to the change in the quantity of output.
B) the slope of the total cost curve.
C) the slope of the average variable cost curve.
D) the ratio of the change in total output to the change in the quantity of labor.

18. When an increase in the firm’s output reduces its long-run average total cost, it experiences:
A) economies of scale
B) diseconomies of scale
C) constant returns to scale
D) variable returns to scale

19. In the model of perfect competition:
A) the consumer is at the mercy of powerful firms that can set prices wherever they prefer.
B) individual firms can influence the price, but only slightly.
C) no individual or firm has enough power to have any impact on price.
D) the price is determined by how many years are left in the product’s patent.

Use the following to answer question 20:

Figure: Short-Run Costs

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20. (Figure: Short-Run Costs) At the given price, the most profitable level of output occurs at quantity:
A) N
B) P
C) S
D) T

21. In perfect competition, the assumption of easy entry and exit implies that:
A) in the long run all firms in the industry will earn zero economic profits.
B) in the short run all firms in the industry will earn positive economic profits.
C) in the short run all firms in the industry will earn zero economic profits.
D) in the long run all firms in the industry will earn zero economic profits and in the short run all firms in the industry will earn positive economic profits.

22. If a perfectly competitive firm is producing a quantity that generates P > MC, then profit:
A) is maximized
B) can be decreased by increasing price.
C) can be increased by decreasing price.
D) can be increased by increasing production.

Use the following to answer question 23:

Figure: A Perfectly Competitive Firm in the Short Run

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23. (Figure: A Perfectly Competitive Firm in the Short Run) The firm’s total economic profit at its most profitable level of output is:
A) 0GHB
B) EFJS
C) EGHS
D) FGLK

24. If it produces, a perfectly competitive firm will maximize profits by producing at the quantity at which:
A) marginal revenue equals marginal cost.
B) marginal revenue equals price.
C) price equals average total cost.
D) price exceeds marginal cost.

25. Compared to a perfectly competitive market, a monopolist will produce _______ and change a _______ price.
A) less; higher
B) less; lower
C) more; higher
D) more; lower

Use the following to answer question 26:

Figure: Monopoly Model

26 (Figure: Monopoly Model) The profit maximizing quantity is the one indicated by the distance:
A) W
B) J
C) K
D) L

27. A natural monopoly exists whenever a single firm:
A) is owned and operated by the federal or local government.
B) is invertor-owned but has been granted the exclusive right by the government to operate in a market.
C) experiences economics of scale over the entire range of production that is relevant to its market.
D)has gained control over a strategic input of an important production process.

28. Compared to perfect competition:
A)monopoly produces more at a lower price.
B)monopoly produces where MR > MC and a perfectly competitively firm produces where P = MC.
C)monopoly may have economic profits in the long run, but in perfect competition in the long run economic profits are zero.
D)perfect competition may have zero economic profits in the long run, but in monopoly the long run economic profits are zero.

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Answer these questions in essay format, using the instructions provided in the Assignment Instructions folder. Review the Essay 3 Grading Rubric to see how your essay will be graded.

Each essay must be at least 2 pages—roughly half a page per question. Answer the questions using the concepts from the lessons and reading assignments. You may use any books, notes, or materials, but you must do the work alone. There is no need to retype the questions in your essay, but you should continually refer back to each to ensure that you stay on topic. APA format.

Discuss and contrast extrinsic versus intrinsic motivation. Give an example of each type of motivation from your personal experience.

2. Describe Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. Provide an example of a deficiency need overpowering the need for growth.

3. Attributions can be described in terms of Locus (“place”), temporal stability, and controllability. Give an example of a time you were not able to perform well on a difficult task (a race, a test, etc.). Analyze 2 attributions you made about the situation in terms of locus, stability, and controllability. Explain your answers.
4. List and define the 7 motivational strategies that are listed in the mnemonic TARGETS. Select 3 of these strategies and give an example of how a teacher would incorporate each into classroom practice to motivate s

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My reference page is attached. References need to be listed in alphabetical order.
You will write a Research Paper that will compare Behavioral Learning Theories and Cognitive Learning Theories. You will include a title page, a 150–250-word abstract, an 8-page body, and a reference page. The body will include an introduction, 6 sections, and a conclusion. The paper must be written in current APA format. Current APA Level 1 sub-headings must be used throughout the paper. The 6 main sections of the paper will address the following topics:

1.      Historical Development of Each Theory—For each theory, discuss prominent persons and their corresponding historic research. Include how the theory has been developed over time. Have there been significant changes from its development to what current researchers in the area believe?

2.      Key Concepts of Each Theory—This section will focus on the major points of each theory. How is new information acquired? What are the goals of learning? What is unique about each theory?

3.      Research Support for Each Theory—This section will include a review of 4 peer-reviewed scholarly research articles. The first 2 articles will address research in which Behavior Learning Theory has been applied. The other 2 articles will use Cognitive Learning Theory in the research. Each article must show the effectiveness of the learning theory it addresses.

4.      Educational Implications—This section will discuss the implications for how learning takes place in the classroom. Discuss the benefits and applications of each theory. How would each theory say people learn in a classroom setting? What are the benefits to teaching new information utilizing each theory?

5.      Biblical Worldview—Discuss what the Bible says regarding learning behavior in humans. How would a biblical worldview impact a learner? Include chapter and verse when citing the Bible.

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6.      Most Effective Theory of Learning—Select which theory of learning (Behavioral or Cognitive) you believe is most effective. Substantiate your decision with research support citing journal articles and your textbook.

Reference Requirements

Required sources for this paper include the Bible, your textbook, 4 peer-reviewed journal articles, and at least 2 additional scholarly sources. Remaining sources must address educational implications, historical context, and/or biblical worldview topics related to Behavioral and Cognitive Learning Theories. At least 4 of the sources (the peer-reviewed journal articles) must have been published within the last 10 years. Popular writing and web pages are NOT acceptable sources for this paper. Refer to the provided grading rubric to fully understand the requirements for this assignment.
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Behavioral and Cognitive Learning Theories

Liberty University
Behavioral and Cognitive Learning Theories
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Answer these questions in essay format, using the instructions provided in the Assignment Instructions folder. Review the Essay 2 Grading Rubric to see how your essay will be graded.

**************Make sure to include all labels, as per the instructions.)  Each response should be about a half-page in length*****************************

1.     Think of a class outside of your major. Using the Gestalt principle, “The whole is greater than the sum of the parts,” describe your preconceived perception of the class, 3 details that you now know are different from that initial perception, and your continuing perception in spite of the details.

2.     In church and in other settings, announcements are made that affect you. Label and describe 4 techniques covered in the textbook which the speaker could use to keep your attention.

3.     You have gone through stages of Piaget’s cognitive development, in your professional beliefs and in your theological beliefs. Name and trace the development of any 1 of your beliefs through all 4 stages. Give at least 1 specific characteristic for each stage and use terms from Piaget’s theory. Though you may not remember your cognitive development at every stage, trace what must have happened to you in each stage to allow your current functioning. In relation to this belief, what is the best stage for you to be in now, and why?

4.   Think of classes in your major. Name 3 concepts from Vygotsky’s theory and provide examples of how they could help to boost your zone of proximal development (ZPD) for learning in those classes.

This assignment is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.
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NSG6005 Final Exam South University | Complete Solution

An ACE inhibitor and what other class of drug may reduce proteinuria in patients with diabetes better than either drug alone?

A. Beta blockers
B. Diuretics
C. Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
D. Angiotensin II receptor blockers

Adam has type I diabetes and plays tennis for his university. He exhibits knowledge deficit about his insulin and his diagnosis. He should be taught that:

A. He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise.
B. Each brand of insulin is equal in bioavailability, so buy the least expensive.
C. Alcohol produces hypoglycemia and can help control his diabetes when taken in small amounts.
D. If he does not want to learn to give himself injections, he may substitute an oral hypoglycemic to control his diabetes.
Age is a factor in different responses to pain. Which of the following age-related statements about pain is not true?

A. Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways.
B. Painful experiences and prolonged exposure to analgesic drugs during pregnancy may permanently alter neuronal organization in the child.
C. Increases in pain threshold in older adults may be related to peripheral neuropathies and changes in skin thickness.
D. Decreases in pain tolerance are evident in older adults.
Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:

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A. Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses
B. Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses
C. Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses
D. Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses

Amiodarone has been prescribed in a patient with a supraventricular dysrhythmia. Patient teaching should include all of the following except:

A. Notify your healthcare provider immediately if you have visual change.
B. Monitor your own blood pressure and pulse daily.
C. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy.
D. Use a sunscreen on exposed body surfaces.
Anticholinergic agents, such as benztropine (Cogentin), may be given with a phenothiazine to:

A. Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.
B. Potentiate the effects of the drug.
C. Reduce the tolerance that tends to occur.
D. Increase CNS depression.
An appropriate drug for the treatment of depression with anxiety would be:

A. Alprazolam (Xanax)
B. Escitalopram (Lexapro)
C. Buspirone (Buspar)
D. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
Cara is taking levetiracetam (Keppra) to treat seizures. Routine education for levetiracetam includes reminding her:

A. To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due to the risk of withdrawal seizures
B. To wear a sunscreen due to photosensitivity from levetiracetam
C. To get an annual eye exam while on levetiracetam
D. To report weight loss if it occurs
Cecilia presents with depression associated with complaints of fatigue, sleeping all the time, and lack of motivation. An appropriate initial antidepressant for her would be:

A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
B. Paroxetine (Paxil)
C. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
Chemical dependency assessment is integral to the initial assessment of chronic pain. Which of the following raises a “red flag” about potential chemical dependency?

A. Use of more than one drug to treat the pain
B. Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill
C. Preferences for treatments that include alternative medicines
D. Presence of a family member who has abused drugs
Common mistakes practitioners make in treating anxiety disorders include:

A. Switching medications after an eight-week trial to a twelve-week trial
B. Maximizing dosing of antianxiety medications
C. Encouraging exercise and relaxation therapy before starting medication
D. Thinking a partial response to medication is acceptable
David presents to clinic with symptoms of allergic conjunctivitis. He is prescribed cromolyn sodium (Opticrom) eyedrops. The education regarding using cromolyn eyedrops includes which one of the following tips?
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A. He should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eyedrops.
B. Cromolyn drops are instilled once a day to prevent allergy symptoms.
C. Long-term use of the eyedrop may cause glaucoma.
D. He may experience bradycardia as an adverse effect.
The DEA:

A. Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances
B. Regulates NP prescribing at the state level
C. Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label
D. Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing
Diagnostic criteria for diabetes include:

A. Fasting blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl on two occasions
B. Postprandial blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl
C. Fasting blood glucose 100 to 125 mg/dl on two occasions
D. Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl
Disease states in addition to hypertension in which beta blockade is a compelling indication for the use of beta blockers include:

A. Heart failure
B. Angina
C. MI
D. Dyslipidemia
The drug of choice for type II diabetics is metformin. Metformin:

A. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver
B. Increases the release of insulin from beta cells
C. Increases intestinal uptake of glucose
D. Prevents weight gain associated with hyperglycemia
The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in men over seventy years is:

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A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
B. Ibandronate (Boniva)
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Raloxifene (Evista)

The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in women over seventy years old is:

A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
B. Ibandronate (Boniva)
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Raloxifene (Evista)
The drugs recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics for use in children with diabetes (depending upon type of diabetes) are:

A. Metformin and insulin
B. Sulfonylureas and insulin glargine
C. Split-mixed dose insulin and GLP-1 agonists
D. Biguanides and insulin lispro
Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:

A. Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
B. Bypass the hepatic circulation
C. Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
D. Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms
Dwayne has classic tinea capitis. Treatment for tinea on the scalp is:

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A. Rubbing in miconazole cream well for four weeks
B. Intake of oral griseofulvin for six to eight weeks
C. Shampooing with ketoconazole shampoo daily for six weeks
D. Using ciclopirox cream daily for four weeks
Dwayne was recently started on carbamazepine to treat seizures. He comes to see you, and you note that while his carbamazepine levels had been in the therapeutic range, they are now low. The possible cause for the low carbamazepine levels is:

A. Dwayne hasn’t been taking his carbamazepine because it causes insomnia.
B. Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance.
C. Dwayne was not originally prescribed the correct amount of carbamazepine.
D. Carbamazepine is probably not the right antiseizure medication for Dwayne.
Erik presents with a golden-crusted lesion at the site of an insect bite consistent with impetigo. His parents have limited finances and request the least expensive treatment. Which medication would be the best choice for treatment?

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A. Mupirocin (Bactroban)
B. Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment)
C. Retapamulin (Altabax)
D. Oral cephalexin (Keflex)
First-line therapy for hyperlipidemia is:

A. Statins
B. Niacin
C. Lifestyle changes
D. Bile acid-binding resins
First-line therapy for treating topical fungal infections such as tinea corporis (ringworm) or tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) would be:

A. OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)
B. Oral terbinafine
C. Oral griseofulvin microsize
D. Nystatin cream or ointment
Furosemide is added to a treatment regimen for heart failure, which includes digoxin. Monitoring for this combination includes:

A. Hemoglobin
B. Serum potassium
C. Blood urea nitrogen
D. Serum glucose
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Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including:

A. Poor metabolizers (PMs) that lack a working enzyme
B. Intermediate metabolizers (IMs) that have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele
C. Extensive metabolizers (EMs), with two normally functioning alleles
D. All of the above
Genetic testing for VCORC1 mutation to assess potential warfarin resistance is required prior to prescribing warfarin.

A. True
B. False
Goals of treatment when treating hypothyroidism with thyroid replacement include:

A. Normal TSH and free T4 levels
B. Resolution of fatigue
C. Weight loss to baseline
D. All of the above

Heart failure is a chronic condition that can be adequately managed in primary care. However, consultation with or referral to a cardiologist is appropriate when:

A. Symptoms markedly worsen or the patient becomes hypotensive and has syncope.
B. There is evidence of progressive renal insufficiency or failure.
C. The patient remains symptomatic on optimal doses of an ACE inhibitor, a beta blocker, and a diuretic.
D. All the above options are correct.
Hypoglycemia can result from the action of either insulin or an oral hypoglycemic. Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

A. “Fruity” breath odor and rapid respiration
B. Diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and hypertension
C. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia
D. Easy bruising, palpitations, cardiac dysrhythmias, and coma
If a patient with H. pylori positive PUD fails first-line therapy, the second-line treatment is:

A. A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days
B. Testing H. pylori for resistance to common treatment regimens
C. A PPI plus clarithromycin plus amoxicillin for fourteen days
D. A PPI and levofloxacin for fourteen days
In addition to methimazole, a symptomatic patient with hyperthyroidism may need a prescription for:

A. A calcium channel blocker
B. A beta blocker
C. Liothyronine
D. An alpha blocker
Inadequate vitamin D intake can contribute to the development of osteoporosis by:

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A. Increasing calcitonin production
B. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine
C. Altering calcium metabolism
D. Stimulating bone formation
Incorporating IT into a patient encounter takes skill and tact. During the encounter, the provider can make the patient more comfortable with the IT the provider is using by:

A. Turning the screen around so the patient can see material being recorded
B. Not placing the computer screen between the provider and the patient
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Infants with reflux are initially treated with:

A. Histamine 2 receptor antagonist (ranitidine)
B. A PPI (omeprazole)
C. Antireflux maneuvers (elevate the head of the bed)
D. Prokinetic (metoclopramide)
In five- to eleven-year-old children, mild-persistent asthma is diagnosed when asthma symptoms occur:

A. At nighttime one to two times a month
B. At nighttime three to four times a month
C. Less than twice a week
D. Daily
Jack, eight years old, has attention deficit disorder (ADD) and is prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin). He and his parents should be educated about the side effects of methylphenidate, which are:

A. Slurred speech and insomnia
B. Bradycardia and confusion
C. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension
D. Insomnia and decreased appetite
Janie presents to clinic with hard ear wax in both ear canals. Instructions regarding home removal of hard cerumen includes:

A. Moistening a cotton swab (Q-tip) and swabbing the ear canals twice daily
B. Instilling tap water in both ears while bathing
C. Squirting hydrogen peroxide into ears with each bath
D. Instilling carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until the ear canals are clear
Jim presents with complaints of “heart burn” that is minimally relieved with Tums (calcium carbonate) and is diagnosed with GERD. An appropriate first step therapy would be:

A. Omeprazole (Prilosec) twice a day
B. Ranitidine (Zantac) twice a day
C. Famotidine (Pepcid) once a day
D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) four times a day
Jim presents with fungal infection of two of his toenails (onychomycosis). Treatment for fungal infections of the nail includes:

A. Miconazole cream
B. Ketoconazole cream
C. Oral griseofulvin
D. Mupirocin cream
Josie is a five-year-old who presents to the clinic with a forty-eight-hour history of nausea, vomiting, and some diarrhea. She is unable to keep fluids down, and her weight is 4 pounds less than her last recorded weight. Besides intravenous (IV) fluids, her exam warrants the use of an antinausea medication. Which of the following would be the appropriate drug to order for Josie?
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A. Prochlorperazine (Compazine)
B. Meclizine (Antivert)
C. Promethazine (Phenergan)
D. Ondansetron (Zofran)

Kirk sprained his ankle and is asking for pain medication for his mild-to-moderate pain. The appropriate first-line medication would be __________.

A. ibuprofen (Advil)
B. acetaminophen with hydrocodone (Vicodin)
C. oxycodone (OxyContin)
D. oral morphine (Roxanol)

Liza is breastfeeding her two-month-old son, and she has an infection that requires an antibiotic. What drug factors influence the effect of the drug on the infant?

A. Maternal drug levels
B. Half-life
C. Lipid solubility
D. All of the above
Long-acting beta-agonists received a black box warning from the US Food and Drug Administration due to the:

A. Risk of life-threatening dermatological reactions
B. Increased incidence of cardiac events when long-acting beta-agonists are used
C. Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used
D. Risk for life-threatening alterations in electrolytes
Long-term treatment of moderate atopic dermatitis includes:

A. Topical corticosteroids and emollients
B. Topical corticosteroids alone
C. Topical antipruritics
D. Oral corticosteroids for exacerbations of atopic dermatitis
Medications used in the management of patients with COPD include:

A. Inhaled beta 2 agonists
B. Inhaled anticholinergics (ipratropium)
C. Inhaled corticosteroids
D. All of the above
Monitoring for a child on methylphenidate for ADHD includes:

A. ADHD symptoms
B. Routine height and weight checks
C. Amount of methylphenidate being used
D. All of the above
Narcotics are exogenous opiates. They act by ______.

A. inhibiting pain transmission in the spinal cord
B. attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P
C. blocking neurotransmitters in the midbrain
D. increasing beta-lipoprotein excretion from the pituitary
A nineteen-year-old male was started on risperidone. Monitoring for risperidone includes observing for common side effects, including:

A. Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation
B. Excessive weight gain
C. Hypertension
D. Potentially fatal agranulocytosis
Nonadherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of nonadherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:
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A. Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect
B. Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down
C. Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness
D. Must be taken no more than twice a day
Off-Label prescribing is:

A. Regulated by the FDA
B. Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces)
C. Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use
D. Regulated by the DEA
One goal of asthma management in children is:

A. They should independently manage their asthma.
B. They should participate in school and sports activities.
C. There should be no exacerbations.
D. The use of inhaled corticosteroids should be minimal.
The ongoing monitoring of patients over the age sixty-five years taking alendronate (Fosamax) or any other bisphosphonate is:

A. Annual dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans
B. Annual vitamin D level
C. Annual renal function evaluation
D. Electrolytes every three month
A patient has been prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) cream to treat burns on his or her leg. Normal adverse effects of silver sulfadiazine cream include:

A. Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve
B. Worsening of burn symptoms briefly before resolution
C. A red, scaly rash that will resolve with continued use
D. Hypercalcemia
Patients who are on or who will be starting chronic corticosteroid therapy need monitoring of __________.

A. serum glucose
B. stool culture
C. folate levels
D. vitamin B12
Patients who have angina, regardless of class, who are also diabetic should be on:

A. Nitrates
B. Beta blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Calcium channel blockers
Patients with psychiatric illnesses have adherence rates to their drug regimen between 35% and 60%. To improve adherence in this population, prescribe drugs:
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A. With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve
B. In oral formulations that are more easily taken
C. That do not require frequent monitoring
D. Combined with patient education about the need to adhere even when symptoms are absent
A patient with a COPD exacerbation may require:

A. Doubling of inhaled corticosteroid dose
B. Systemic corticosteroid burst
C. Continuous inhaled beta 2 agonists
D. Leukotriene therapy
Pharmacokinetics among Asians are universal to all the Asian ethnic groups.

A. True
B. False
A potentially life-threatening adverse response to ACE inhibitors is angioedema. Which of the following statements is true about this adverse response?

A. Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.
B. It appears to be related to a decrease in aldosterone production.
C. The presence of a dry, hacky cough indicates a high risk for this adverse response.
D. Because it takes time to build up a blood level, it occurs after being on the drug for about one week.
Prescribing for women during their childbearing years requires constant awareness of the possibility of:

A. Pregnancy unless the women is on birth control
B. Risk for silent bacterial or viral infections of the genitalia
C. High risk for developmental disorders in their infants
D. Decreased risk for abuse during this time
Prior to prescribing metformin, the provider should:

A. Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function.
B. Try the patient on insulin.
C. Tell the patient to increase iodine intake.
D. Have the patient stop taking any sulfonylurea to avoid dangerous drug interactions.
Progesterone-only pills are recommended for women who:

A. Are breastfeeding
B. Have a history of migraine
C. Have a medical history that contradicts the use of estrogen
D. All of the above
Sadie is a seventy-two-year-old who takes omeprazole for her chronic GERD. Chronic long-term omeprazole use places her at increased risk for:

A Megaloblastic anemia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Hypertension
D. Strokes
Sarah, a forty-two-year-old female, requests a prescription for an anorexiant to treat her obesity. A trial of phentermine is prescribed. Prescribing precautions include understanding that:

A. Obesity is a contraindication to prescribing phentermine.
B. Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should only be prescribed for six months.
C. Patients should be monitored for postural hypotension.
D. Renal function should be monitored closely while the patient is on anorexiants.
Scott is presenting for follow-up on his lipid panel. He had elevated total cholesterol, elevated triglycerides, and an LDL of 122 mg/dL. He has already implemented diet changes and increased physical activity. He has mildly elevated liver studies. An appropriate next step for therapy would be:

A. Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
B. Niacin (Niaspan)
C. Simvastatin and ezetimibe (Vytorin)
D. Gemfibrozil (Lopid)
Second-generation antihistamines such as loratadine (Claritin) are prescribed for seasonal allergies because they:

A. Are more effective than first-generation antihistamines
B. Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines
C. Are prescription products and, therefore, are covered by insurance
D. Can be taken with CNS sedatives, such as alcohol
Severe contact dermatitis caused by poison ivy or poison oak exposure often requires treatment with:

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A. Topical antipruritics
B. Oral corticosteroids for two to three weeks
C. Thickly applied topical intermediate-dose corticosteroids
D. Isolation of the patient to prevent spread of the dermatitis
Sitagliptin has been approved for:

A. Monotherapy in once-daily doses
B. Combination therapy with metformin
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
A sixty-six-year-old male was prescribed phenelzine (Nardil) while in an acute psychiatric unit for recalcitrant depression. The nurse practitioner managing his primary healthcare needs to understand the following regarding phenelzine and other monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs):

A. He should not be prescribed any serotonergic drug such as sumatriptan (Imitrex).
B. MAOIs interact with many common foods, including yogurt, sour cream, and soy sauce.
C. Symptoms of hypertensive crisis (headache, tachycardia, sweating, etc.) require immediate treatment.
D. All the above options are correct.

Six-year-old Lucy has recently been started on ethosuximide (Zarontin) for seizures. She should be monitored for:

A. Increased seizure activity as this drug may auto-induce seizures
B. Altered renal function, including renal failure
C. Blood dyscrasias, which are uncommon but possible
D. CNS excitement, leading to insomnia

Stage C patients usually require a combination of three to four drugs to manage their heart failure. In addition to ACE inhibitors and beta blockers, diuretics may be added. Which of the following statements about diuretics is not true?

A. Diuretics reduce preload associated with fluid retention.
B. Diuretics can be used earlier than Stage C when the goal is control of hypertension.
C. Diuretics may produce problems with electrolyte imbalances and abnormal glucose and lipid metabolism.
D. Diuretics from the potassium-sparing class should be used when using an ARB.
A stepwise approach to the pharmacologic management of asthma:

A. Begins with determining the severity of the asthma and assessing asthma control
B. Is used when the asthma is severe and requires daily steroids
C. Allows for each provider to determine his or her personal approach to the care of asthmatic patients
D. Provides a framework for the management of severe asthmatics but is not as helpful when patients have intermittent asthma
Studies have shown that control targets that reduce the hemoglobin A1c to less than 7% are associated with fewer long-term complications of diabetes. Patients who should have such a target include:

A. Those with long-standing diabetes
B. Older adults
C. Those with no significant cardiovascular disease
D. Young children who are early in their disease
Tiotropium bromide (Spiriva) is an inhaled anticholinergic:

A. Used for the treatment of COPD
B. Used in the treatment of asthma
C. Combined with albuterol for the treatment of asthma exacerbations
D. Combined with fluticasone for the treatment of persistent asthma
To reduce mortality, all patients with angina, regardless of class, should be on:

A. Aspirin 81 to 325 mg/d
B. Nitroglycerin sublingually for chest pain
C. ACE inhibitors or ARBs
D. Digoxin
The treatment for vitamin B12 deficiency is:

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A. 1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin
B. 2 gm/day of oral cobalamin
C. 100 mcg/day vitamin B12 IM
D. 500 mcg/dose nasal cyanocobalamin two sprays once a week
Treatment of a patient with hypothyroidism and cardiovascular disease consists of:

A. Levothyroxine
B. Liothyronine
C. Liotrix
D. Methimazole
The trial period to determine effective anti-inflammatory activity when starting a patient on aspirin for RA is _____.

A. forty-eight hours
B. four to six days
C. four weeks
D. two months
A twenty-four-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type __ ADR when he no longer requires the opioids.

A. A
B. C
C. E
D. G

The type of ADR that is the result of an unwanted but otherwise normal pharmacological action of a drug given in the usual therapeutic doses is:

A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D
Unlike most type II diabetics where obesity is a major issue, older adults with low body weight have higher risks for morbidity and mortality. The most reliable indicator of poor nutritional status in older adults is:

A. Weight loss in previously overweight persons
B. Involuntary loss of 10% of body weight in less than six months
C. Decline in lean body mass over a twelve-month period
D. Increase in central versus peripheral body adiposity
Vicky, age fifty-six years, comes to clinic requesting a refill of her Fiorinal (aspirin and butalbital) that she takes for migraines. She has been taking this medication for over two years for migraine and states one dose usually works to abort her migraine. What is the best care for her?

A. Switch her to sumatriptan (Imitrex) to treat her migraines.
B. Assess how often she is using Fiorinal and refill medication.
C. Switch her to a beta-blocker such as propranolol to prevent her migraine.
D. Request her to return to the original prescriber of Fiorinal as you do not prescribe butalbital for migraines
Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:

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A. Toxic levels of warfarin building up
B. Decreased response to warfarin
C. Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin
D. Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin
What impact does developmental variation in renal function has on prescribing for infants and children?

A. Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months
B. Higher doses of water-soluble drugs may need to be prescribed due to increased renal excretion
C. Renal excretion rates have no impact on prescribing
D. Parents need to be instructed on whether drugs are renally excreted or not
When a patient is on selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitors:

A. The complete blood count must be monitored every three to four months
B. Therapeutic blood levels must be monitored every six months after a steady state is achieved.
C. Blood glucose must be monitored every three to four months.
D. There is no laboratory monitoring required.
When obtaining a drug history from Harold, he gives you a complete list of his prescription medications. He denies taking any other drugs, but you find that he occasionally takes aspirin for his arthritis flare-ups. This is an example of:

A. His appropriately only telling you about his regularly prescribed medications
B. His hiding information regarding his inappropriate use of aspirin from you
C. A common misconception that intermittently taken OTC medications are not an important part of his drug history
D. A common misuse of OTC aspirin
When prescribing any headache therapy, appropriate use of medications needs to be discussed to prevent medication-overuse headaches. The clinical characteristics of medication-overuse headaches include ________.

A. headaches increasing in frequency
B. headaches increasing in intensity
C. headaches recurring when medication wears off
D. headaches beginning to “cluster” into a pattern
When Sam used clotrimazole (Lotrimin AF) for athlete’s foot, he developed a red, itchy rash consistent with a hypersensitivity reaction. He now has athlete’s foot again. What would be a good choice of antifungal for Sam?

A. Miconazole (Micatin) powder
B. Ketoconazole (Nizoral) cream
C. Terbinafine (Lamisil) cream
D. Griseofulvin (Grifulvin V) suspension
When starting a patient with hypothyroidism on thyroid replacement hormones, patient education would include the following:

A. He or she should feel symptomatic improvement in one to two weeks.
B. Drug-related adverse effects such as lethargy and dry skin may occur.
C. It may take four to eight weeks to get to euthyroid symptomatically and by lab testing.
D. Due to the short half-life of levothyroxine, its doses should not be missed.
Which of the following adverse effects may occur due to a dihydropyridine-type calcium channel blocker?

A. Bradycardia
B. Hepatic impairment
C. Increased contractility
D. Edema of the hands and feet
Which of the following classes of drugs is contraindicated in heart failure?

A. Nitrates
B. Long-acting dihydropyridines
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Alpha-beta blockers
Which of the following disease processes could be made worse by taking a nonselective beta blocker?

A. Asthma might worsen.
B. Diabetes might worsen.
C. Both might worsen.
D. Beta blockade does not affect these disorders.
Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen?

A. Complexity of the drug regimen
B. Patient’s perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Which of the following is the goal of treatment of acute pain?

A. Pain at a tolerable level where patient may return to activities of daily living
B. Reduction of pain with a minimum of drug adverse effects
C. Reduction or elimination of pain with minimum adverse reactions
D. Adequate pain relief without constipation or nausea from the drugs
Which of the following is the mechanism of action of oral combined contraceptives that prevent pregnancy?

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A. Estrogen prevents the LH surge necessary for ovulation.
B. Progestins thicken cervical mucous and slow tubal motility.
C. Estrogen thins the endometrium, making implantation difficult.
D. Progestin suppresses FSH release.
Which of the following statements is true about age and pain?

A. Use of drugs that depend heavily on the renal system for excretion may require dosage adjustments in very young children.
B. Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the preferred drug because of lower adverse effects profiles than other NSAIDs.
C. Older adults who have dementia probably do not experience much pain due to loss of pain receptors in the brain.
D. Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.

A woman who has migraine with aura:

A. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to the interaction between triptans and estrogen, limiting migraine therapy choices
B. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased incidence of migraines with the use of estrogen
C. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use
D. May be prescribed estrogen without any concerns
A woman with an intact uterus should not be prescribed:

A. Estrogen/progesterone combination
B. Intramuscular (IM) medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera)
C. Estrogen alone
D. Androgens
Question 22: Education

W3 Lab Prohibited Use
Overview:

You are the Information Security Officer of Mahtmarg Manufacturing a small manufacturing company worth approximately $5 Million who provides fiber

W3 Lab: “Prohibited Use”
Overview:

You are the Information Security Officer of Mahtmarg Manufacturing a small manufacturing company worth approximately $5 Million who provides fiber cable to local businesses, individual customers and to government organizations. In the course of the next eight weeks you will be creating your Information Security Plan (Issue-Specific Security Policy in Table 4-3 of the textbook) step by step using this scenario.
Your Task

Step 3: Develop the Prohibited Use section of your ISP
In this week’s Lab you will develop the section on Prohibited Use of your company’s information system (IS) in the Information Security Plan to include:
Prohibition of illegal conduct
System and Network Activity restrictions
Copyright infringement
Proprietary information disclosure
Unauthorized use for personal business
Malicious programs
Account disclosure
Email and Communication Activity restrictions
Unsolicited emails
Harassment
Chain letters
Spam
Blogging and Social Media Activity restrictions
Representation of the company on blogs or social media
Separation of personal and professional comments

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Assignment: Course Project: Assessment of Diversity Proficiencies
The Assignment for this module is an assessment of your diversity proficiencies. As local, state, national, and global communities continue to reflect increasing diversity, it is essential for effective leaders of learning to routinely assure active and effective responsiveness to the diverse needs represented. In the context of this course, active and effective responsiveness often takes the form of individuals pursuing constructive action to change ideas and attitudes through leadership, advocacy, policy, and law. To assist you in this process, your Walden University program has included diversity proficiencies to guide your development. For this Course Project, you must successfully demonstrate personal development and connection of your learning in this course about leadership, advocacy, policy, and law to each of the Walden Diversity Proficiencies, as well as the Council for Exceptional Children (CEC)’s Advanced Role Content Standards 1a, 1b, and 5a.
To prepare:
·         Review all Learning Resources for this module.
·         Review the Assessment of Diversity Proficiencies Guidelines.
·         Ask yourself the following: How have the concepts, resources, and activities of this course influenced my learning so that I might support the creation of educational opportunities that adapt to diverse learners and remove barriers that inhibit learning for students with diverse learning needs?
·         Think about examples from your educational and professional experiences that you can use to demonstrate your knowledge of the key diversity proficiencies. How might those experiences support the fact that you are a leader and advocate who is able to create educational opportunities that are adapted to diverse learners and that remove barriers that inhibit learning?
The components of your Module 6 Assignment are as follows: however, review the “Assessment of Diversity Proficiencies Guidelines” document in the Learning Resources for more details.
Section 1: Introduction (2–3 pages)
Interpret how EACH of the following course concepts support the creation of educational opportunities that are adapted to diverse learners and remove barriers that inhibit learning:
·         Leadership
·         Advocacy
·         Policy
·         Law
Section 2: Diversity Professional Development (9–12 slides plus title and reference slides inserted into the final paper)
Create a professional development presentation to inform the staff in your school building or district regarding how to meet the needs of learners from diverse backgrounds.
Using evidence based practices and course resources, create a PowerPoint presentation (a minimum of 3 or 4 slides on each topic) to inform your staff of ways to better meet the needs of diverse students. At least one of your slides must discuss technology. Your professional development should specifically address each of the three following Walden Diversity Proficiencies:
Understanding the Learner
Learning Environment
Planning, Instruction, and Assessment

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Section 3: Diversity Self-Reflection (3–4 pages)
Write a self-reflection paper that addresses the final two Walden Diversity Dispositions:
·         Awareness of Self
·         Professional Practice
Also, reference the Council for Exceptional Children (CEC) Standards, what you learned from the working with the Case Study of Jamal from the Grand City Community (West Ridge Middle School) , and Walden’s Mission and Vision Statement to help support your reflection.
·         Reflection Component 1: Using the bulleted points on Walden’s Diversity Proficiencies, personally reflect on your knowledge and skills for the “Awareness of Self” and “Professional Practice” indicators. Cite at least one relevant, research-based reading or media element to support this component.
·         Reflection Component 2: Connect your personal reflection, to course content, including the Case Study, CEC standards, and Walden’s mission for Social Change. Cite at least one relevant, research-based reading or media element to support each of these components.
Your final document must include the following:
·         Title Page
·         Section1: 2–3 pages
·         Section 2: 3–4 pages
·         Reference pages
Note: For this Assignment and all scholarly writing in this course and throughout your program, you will be required to use APA style (6th edition). Please use the Walden Writing Center as a resource as you complete assignments.
Required Readings
Council for Exceptional Children. (2012). CEC special education specialist advanced preparation standards. Retrieved from https://www.cec.sped.org/~/media/Files/Standards/Professional%20Preparation%20Standards/Advanced%20Preparation%20Standards%20with%20Elaborations.pdf
DeMatthews, D. (2014). Deconstructing systems of segregation: Leadership challenges in an urban school. Journal of Cases in Educational Leadership, 17(1), 17–31
Retrieved from the Walden Library databases.
This article gives a case study of a principal in an urban school who was charged with a directive to raise test scores and increase inclusion in a building with a history of segregation.
Document: Assessment of Diversity Proficiencies Guidelines (PDF)
Document: SMART Goals Graphic (PDF)
Document: Walden Diversity Proficiencies (PDF)
Document: Walden Professional Dispositions (PDF)
Walden University (2015). Social change. Retrieved from http://www.waldenu.edu/about/social-change
Media
Grand City Community
·         Laureate Education (Producer). (2012b). The teacher’s lounge [Video file]. Baltimore, MD: Author.
Go to the Grand City Community and click into West Ridge Middle School. Review the following scenario: The Teacher’s Lounge.

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Question 24: Health Care

Walden University NURSING 6650 final exam
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
In a group therapy session for adolescents, a 15-year-old patient says he has trouble making conversation with people he does not know well. Based on the principle of development of socializing techniques, what explicit approach might the PMHNP take?
·         Question 2
1 out of 1 points
One group member is identified by the PMHNP as the monopolist of the group. Which behavior does the PMHNP believe this member is most likely to display?
·         Question 3
1 out of 1 points
During a first group therapy session, a member is outgoing and participates actively. Based on this information, what is an appropriate prediction about this group member by the PMHNP?
·         Question 4
1 out of 1 points
A 21-year-old client with narcissistic traits is noted to continuously disrupt the group by speaking while others are speaking. It becomes evident that the client is purposely disrupting the group and decreasing the group’s productivity. What does the PMHNP identify as a cause of the client’s behavior?
·         Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Harold Wyman is a 74-year-old man who is trying to mend a relationship with his adult daughter. Based on his intake assessment, the PMHNP believes that the father has depression. The daughter and Harold meet with the PMNHP, and the daughter explains that her father always appears mopey and withdrawn and refuses to do anything about it. When asked, the father reports feeling sad all the time. Which action will the PMNHP employ with Harold using the interpersonal psychotherapy approach throughout the various sessions?
·         Question 6
1 out of 1 points
A PMHNP is leading a group therapy session for patients with substance abuse problems. After a productive session in which all members participated, the following week was not as productive. In order to help the group members assume responsibility for evaluating the meeting, what is an appropriate comment for the PMHNP to make?
·         Question 7
1 out of 1 points
During the “mid-group debrief” the clinical supervisor focused on the following areas with the two counselors except:
·         Question 8
1 out of 1 points
The social microcosm theory is a theory that relates to group composition. In accordance with this theory, the PMHNP is aware that the group must consist of which of the following?
·         Question 9
0 out of 1 points
Peter, a successful businessman, is introduced to the group during the twelfth week. Following Peter’s introduction, Joseph, a long-term member in the group, begins to lead the group and discuss all of the things that he has personally accomplished. In what way does the PMHNP correctly interpret Joseph’s behavior?
·         Question 10
0 out of 1 points
The PMHNP conducts a specialized individual interview with a patient named Sandy. During this interview, Sandy expresses her want of the other members to like her, and she has a deep dread for the first group meeting. How does the PMHNP correctly interpret Sandy’s interpersonal circumplex?
·         Question 11
1 out of 1 points
When discussing the role of the consultant in the parenting group session, Dr. Carlson explains that the consultant should use several skills in order to help keep the group going and should enable group members to become very engaged with one another. The consultant should use all of the following skills to achieve this, except:
·         Question 12
1 out of 1 points
A PMHNP is meeting with parents and their 10-year-old child. The child is having trouble paying attention at school and has been getting easily frustrated at home when doing homework, which often results in everyone arguing. What step might the PMHNP take as part of a family-centered, solution-oriented approach?
·         Question 13
0 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is meeting with an adult woman and her father, who is 85 years old. The father stays quiet most of the session. The daughter explains he is mad at her for “bringing him to a see a shrink.” The daughter reports that things have been tense in the house since her father moved in. The father has a history of depression, though he does not take any medication for it. In addition, lately the father seems to never sleep. “I hear him rummaging around in the kitchen, the garage, the living room, at all hours of the night. Sometimes he’ll nap during the day, but not much. This is putting a strain on my marriage, because my husband can’t sleep with all of this going on.” Which therapeutic approach does the PMHNP identify as most appropriate for the 85-year-old father?
·         Question 14
1 out of 1 points
During an initial meeting, a PMHNP spends time speaking with a patient who suffers from social anxiety. The therapist finds the patient extremely loud and overbearing. The PMHNP’s negative feelings continue no matter how hard he or she tries to feel differently toward the patient. What is the most appropriate next step by the PMHNP?
·         Question 15
1 out of 1 points
A patient has had a problem with substance use and has been receiving treatment for addiction. Which additional step might the PMHMP suggest to help the patient maintain abstinence from drugs during and after treatment?
Selected Answer:

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A.
Narcotics Anonymous
·         Question 16
0 out of 1 points
The leader begins a group meeting by doing the “names activity.” At the completion of the activity, the leader explains that the activity is useful for all of the following reasons, except:
·         Question 17
1 out of 1 points
A 36-year-old client attends group therapy regularly but is consistently tardy. The client explains that job and family obligations interfere with attendance to the group. What is the most appropriate intervention by the PMHNP?
·         Question 18
0 out of 1 points
Group participation is an important aspect of how successful group therapy will be. The PMHNP recognizes that the gender of group participants can play a role in the likelihood of group participation. Which statement about gender and group composition does the PMHNP take into account?
·         Question 19
0 out of 1 points
When the counselor discussed assertiveness with the group members, she began the session by providing definitions and asking group members to line up consistent with where they feel they are currently in terms of assertiveness. Why did she do this?
Selected Answer:
A.
To encourage individuals to adjust where they are in terms of assertiveness by having less assertive people change their spot in line
·         Question 20
1 out of 1 points
A patient in group therapy named Ted shares personal information for the first time. He seems nervous but continues to talk. How might the PMHNP use nonverbal positive reinforcement to support Ted’s feeling more comfortable?
Selected Answer:
C.
Leaning forward and nodding as Ted shares his story
·         Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Members of a therapy group have been meeting for several months. During group therapy, a patient is bossy and controlling. During this week’s session, she is confronted by another group member about her behavior and replies, “This is not how I normally act. You are not my family and friends. I don’t act the same way around them.” What can the PMHNP deduce from her behavior?
Selected Answer:
B.
She is displaying her true interpersonal behavior.
·         Question 22
1 out of 1 points
A PNHNP is holding a group therapy session for a father and his 10-year-old son, whom the father explains has been acting out lately. The son says, “He is always telling me what to do and never listens when I have an idea.” Which solution would the PMHNP most likely suggest as an approach to the problem?
·         Question 23
0 out of 1 points
A PMHNP is treating a patient in individual therapy and thinks the patient may be a good candidate for group therapy. The patient is motivated to start group therapy, which meets twice a month. Then the patient adds, “I can come to the first two meetings, but then will be away on business for at least a month, maybe longer. But then I can come to the at least one meeting before my next trip.” Based on this information, what is the most likely recommendation by the PMHNP?
·         Question 24
1 out of 1 points
Members of a therapy group have been meeting for several weeks. While a member named Margaret is talking about how her spouse ignores her when she tries to tell him what to do, another member named Nicole interrupts and says, “Maybe he thinks you are being bossy.” Margaret replies by saying, “At least I’m not an alcoholic like you are!” What is an appropriate response by the PMHNP?
·         Question 25
1 out of 1 points
A 9-year-old child who witnessed a fatal car accident has come to therapy with her parents to get treatment. The child has been irritable since the event and has not wanted to talk about it. Utilizing a trauma-focused cognitive behavior therapy (TF-CBT) approach, the PMHNP has reviewed skills that the parents may use to help their child at home. Based on the PMHNP’s suggestion, which is a statement the parents might make after the child has a temper tantrum?
·         Question 26
0 out of 1 points
During the first group meeting, a client states, “I am here because I am very shy. I don’t mesh well with others and I rarely get invitations to go anywhere.” Which statement about the client’s reason for seeking help and treatment best applies?
·         Question 27
1 out of 1 points
A client is observed discussing many problems and complaints during group therapy. However, when other group members attempt to offer advice, the client does not accept it. Based on this observation, what can the PMHNP determine about the client?
·         Question 28
1 out of 1 points
During a group therapy session, a member comments that another member named Ted had no compassion. Ted replies, “Why does it matter if I care one way or another. I can’t solve their problems.” The other member starts crying and blames Ted for this. He shrugs and answers, “I don’t understand why you are crying.” Based on this information, what is the most likely determination the PMHNP can make about Ted?
·         Question 29

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1 out of 1 points
Jane has been attending group therapy for the past year; she and the therapist have determined that she has met her goals. Jane has been arriving to group late or not coming to group at all. How does the PMHNP correctly interpret Jane’s behavior?
·         Question 30
1 out of 1 points
A PMHNP is treating an 8-year-old child who was at a cousin’s house during a domestic violence situation. Using a common factors model, the PMHNP wants to pay attention to cultivating the relationship with the parents and child. After the child talks about how nervous he or she has been since witnessing the trauma, what is an appropriate response by the PMHNP?
·         Question 31
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is meeting with a married couple. The husband is 81 years old, and the wife is 78 years old. They tell the PMHNP that many of their friends have passed away over the last couple of years, and it’s making them feel sentimental about their lives and the fact that they are getting older. Hearing this, the PMHNP uses a life review approach with the couple. What action will the PMHNP employ?
·         Question 32
0 out of 1 points
A patient in group therapy for people dealing with panic disorder is describing a recent panic attack. He says, “During this attack, I felt like I was dying.” What is an appropriate response by the PMHNP using didactic instruction?
·         Question 33
1 out of 1 points
A patient in group therapy discloses her concern about feeling suicidal again in the future. Using the principle of universality, what is an appropriate step by the PMHNP?
·         Question 34
0 out of 1 points
The PMHNP recognizes that extra group behavior involves behavior that occurs outside of the group or during subgrouping. Which statement best describes extra group behavior as it pertains to group therapy?
·         Question 35
1 out of 1 points
In a group therapy session for patients with anxiety problems, a patient named Eve was afraid to disclose to the other members that she was a victim of sexual abuse. She kept the secret for months, although she hinted at it to other members. During a meeting, another member tried to pressure Eve to disclose her secret, but she was flustered and not ready to share. What is an appropriate response by the PMHNP?
·         Question 36
1 out of 1 points
During his second group therapy session, a member, who was quiet the previous week, becomes very judgmental. He criticizes another member by saying, “Mary, you are always late because you don’t respect our group.” Then he adds, “In fact, all of you are disrespectful and uncaring.” What is an appropriate step by the PMHNP?
·         Question 37
1 out of 1 points
A patient who has been depressed is seeing a PMHNP for individual therapy. The patient explains that he has been avoiding most social activities for the past few months. He is divorced and has joint custody of his 10-year-old daughter. Based on this information, what recommendation by the PMHNP would most benefit the patient?
·         Question 38
1 out of 1 points
Following the PMHNP’s cancellation of a group session, he or she notices a decrease in compliance and attendance within the group. What does the PMHNP identify as the group’s reason for noncompliance?
·         Question 39
1 out of 1 points
A PNHNP is holding a group therapy session. Today, several members have expressed fears about being unlovable. Based on this information, what is an appropriate step by the PMHNP to raise the members’ self-esteem?
·         Question 40
0 out of 1 points
A patient named Tyrone was nervous sharing personal information with the group. To compensate, he makes comments on other members’ problems as if he were the therapist. Another member of the group asked him, “Do you think you’re better than everyone here?” What might the PMHNP help Tyrone gain from this exchange?
·         Question 41
0 out of 1 points

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A PMHNP is creating a therapy group and is including a patient with borderline personality disorder. Which action would most likely reduce the patient’s chance of separation anxiety?
·         Question 42
0 out of 1 points
The anticipation of the first meeting among psychotherapy group attendees may cause feelings of dread and uneasiness among clients. How does the PMHNP demonstrate awareness and promote the success of this first psychotherapy meeting?
·         Question 43
1 out of 1 points
For several months, a patient in group therapy always participated in conversation but only shared positive stories about her own life. During the next session, she finally confessed that she has been depressed and cutting herself. What is the best response by the PMHNP?
·         Question 44
0 out of 1 points
Two PMHNPs are in charge of a therapy group that has experienced several maladaptive interpersonal dramas lately. One of the patients has been described by other members as argumentative. After a particularly awkward session, one of the therapists feels that his own interpersonal distortion of the session may be clouding his observation. What is an appropriate step by that PMHNP?
·         Question 45
0 out of 1 points
A PMHNP is treating a 7-year-old child exhibiting signs of aggression and attention problems. Before suggesting an intervention using a common elements approach, what may the PMHNP consider?
·         Question 46
0 out of 1 points
The homogenous mode of composition involves a theory that relates to group composition. When applying this theory, the PMHNP is aware that the group will most likely consist of which of the following?
·         Question 47
0 out of 1 points
A patient has attended three group therapy sessions and has remained silent throughout each. The patient has, however, been listening to the other members. When the therapist makes eye contact with the patient, he or she forces a smile but has clenched fists. What is the most appropriate response by the PMHNP to help the patient?
·         Question 48
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is meeting with an older married couple. The couple reports having concerns about becoming dependent on their adult children someday, since several of their other friends have had to move in with their kids. They make it clear to the PMHNP that they aren’t keen on therapy or taking medicine but would be willing to try some alternative therapies. What does the PMHNP suggest for evidence-based CAM modalities?
·         Question 49
0 out of 1 points
The PMHNP explains during a discussion that subgrouping has the potential to make group therapy more complicated and less rewarding. Tara, a member of the group, angrily states, “Well, Jack and I have been meeting outside of the group for weeks now.” What is the PMHNP’s most appropriate response?
·         Question 50
0 out of 1 points
Gregory is a middle-aged veteran participant in a group led by the PMHNP. Since Gregory has been attending group, he frequently interrupts others and seems to take much of the group time for himself. The PMHNP identifies Gregory as a monopolist and confronts him. She explains that she does not want him to talk less; instead, she actually encourages him to talk more. What is the likely cause of the PMHNP’s explanation?
·         Question 51
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP understands that conflicts within the psychotherapy group can be troublesome for clients and have the potential to reduce the effectiveness of the group process. As it pertains to group meetings, the PMHNP understands which statement to be true about conflict?
·         Question 52
1 out of 1 points
One member of a therapy group had been quiet for the first several sessions. The member revealed to the other members feeling of depression and emptiness. This week, the member was full of energy and talking very quickly. The member became irritated with another member tried to interrupt, started yelling, and then broke into a fit of laughter. Based on the situation, what can the PMHNP determine about the member?
·         Question 53
1 out of 1 points
A group member who suffers from depression and anxiety says during the session, “I don’t see how any of this is going to help. I am still too anxious to leave the house and do the things I want to do.” What is an appropriate response by the PMHNP?
·         Question 54
0 out of 1 points
A PMHNP is leading a group therapy session for patients with substance abuse problems. After one member shares a problem, other members offer support, concern, and observations. The PMHNP points out that the group is offering many truthful reactions and helpful feedback. Which principle does this illustrate?
·         Question 55
0 out of 1 points
The PMHNP provides cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) to an older adult patient with depression. The patient’s 41-year-old daughter and 32-year-old son attend one of his sessions with the PMHNP so that they can learn more about how to help their father. What does the PMHNP say to the daughter and son about the goals of their father’s CBT?
·         Question 56
0 out of 1 points
The PMHNP recognizes that hostility is unavoidable in a group and acknowledges that a frequent source of hostility can be parataxic distortions. Which situation is likely to present a parataxic distortion within the group?
·         Question 57
1 out of 1 points
Members of group therapy have been meeting for several weeks. The PMHNP often starts sentences with a thank you or compliment such as, “Good observation.” The PMHNP notices that some of the group members having been starting their statements with compliments. To which principle can the PMHNP attribute this process?
·         Question 58
1 out of 1 points
A client diagnosed with depression has begun to feel despair and expresses a desire to leave the group because he or she does not believe it is helpful. Which action by the PMHNP will most likely contribute to the client staying in the group?
·         Question 59
1 out of 1 points
A 14-year-old girl named Laura and her parents are meeting with a PMHNP. The parents explain why they are there by saying, “Laura has been unhappy since she moved to a new school. She has been moody and often talks back to us.” Laura sits quietly and looks uncomfortable. Which is the best response by the PMHNP?
·         Question 60
1 out of 1 points
Many key principles assist with composing intensive interactional psychotherapy groups. When composing a psychotherapy group, utilizing the intensive interactional approach, which key principle does the PMHNP identify as being false?
·         Question 61
1 out of 1 points
A PMHNP notices that adolescents in a therapy group have not been getting along. They are divided into two main groups and each automatically dislikes members of the other group. What is an appropriate step for the PMHNP to take?
·         Question 62
0 out of 1 points
During an initial screening session, the PMHNP is considering a patient for group therapy. The patient is recently divorced and says he is lonely and depressed. What is the best referral by the PMHNP?
·         Question 63
0 out of 1 points
During an initial meeting, a patient who has been discussing suicide says to the PMHNP, “I’m so depressed that I don’t want to leave my house. All I want to do is stay in bed.” What type of therapy would the PMHNP most likely recommend to this patient?
·         Question 64
0 out of 1 points
A member in group therapy named Tom asked others for suggestions to a problem he was having. He did not think a suggestion by a member named Steve would work, and for the rest of session, the group took sides arguing why the idea would work or would not work. The session ended with Tom agreeing to try the suggestion and report back to the group the following week. Based on this session, what is an appropriate step by the PMHNP?
·         Question 65
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is working with an older adult woman and her adult children. The children report that the mother was diagnosed with dementia, and they are all concerned about her welfare. The plan is for the mother to move in with one of the children, but they are still worried about how the mother will manage during the day when she is left alone. What does the PMHNP identify as  the focus of the family therapy?
·         Question 66
1 out of 1 points
During a group session, a member turns to the PMHNP and says, “I need some advice. My manager asked me to take on an extra project, and now I’m overwhelmed. I don’t want to seem incompetent, so I agreed to the extra work. What do you recommend I do?” What is the best response by the PMHNP in order to shape group behavior?
·         Question 67
0 out of 1 points
During a group therapy session, a member shares that she often feels lonely and depressed. She has been turning down invitations to spend time with friends lately, because she does not want to leave the house. What is an appropriate step for the PMHNP to take?
Selected Answer:
A.
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Assign homework to have the patient work on improving interpersonal communication
·         Question 68
1 out of 1 points
Self-disclosure is a very important part of group therapy. Which of the following conditions does the PMHNP identify in his or her own life as a possible hindrance to self-disclosure?
·         Question 69
1 out of 1 points
A PMHNP is meeting with the mother of a 10-year-old boy named Malik, who has been depressed since his parents’ divorce. The mother explains that her goal for treatment is to help Malik feel better so he can become his “usual outgoing self.” She insists that she does not want him on medication. Which is the best response by the PMHNP?
·         Question 70
1 out of 1 points
A client has attended five group therapy sessions yet has not engaged verbally with others in the group. The PMHNP has identified the client as a “silent member.” Which statement is true about silent members as related to group therapy?
·         Question 71
1 out of 1 points
A narcissistic patient was unhappy that other members did not seem concerned about his or her dating problems, which the patient spent half the session talking about. The patient confronted the group by saying, “All of you are rude and uncaring!” When group members ignored this comment, the patient said, “And no one said anything nice about my new haircut either!” What is an appropriate response by the PMHNP?
·         Question 72
1 out of 1 points
According to Dr. Carlson, since Adler talked about how the social setting in which we live influences our lives, the best way parents can change their children’s behavior is to change:
·         Question 73
1 out of 1 points
In the parent consultation session, the parent discusses her son “Blake” who has changed since his 13th birthday. Dr. Carlson discusses the power conflict that the parent appears to be getting into with her son. When they discuss approaches they can use to help Blake experience increased responsibility, Dr. Carlson explains that the parent must make a commitment with her son by agreeing to:
·         Question 74
0 out of 1 points
A PMHNP is evaluating a patient who has problems with authority and has trouble accepting criticism. The patient is aware of these problems and wants to change. Based on this, what is an appropriate action by the PMHNP?
·         Question 75
1 out of 1 points
A PMHNP has a therapy group in which many members have been dropping out over the past several weeks. Members have complained that they do not feel part of the group. What is an appropriate step for the PMHNP to take?
·         Question 76
0 out of 0 points
When completing this exam, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity?

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NURS 6512 Week 6 Midterm Exam: Advanced Health Assessment: Walden University (Already Graded A)
NURS 6512 Week 6 Midterm Exam: Advanced Health Assessment: Walden University (Already Graded A)

Question 26: Health care.

NSG6435 Week 5 Assignment 4 Midterm Exam NSG 6435 Week 5 Midterm Exam

NSG6435 Week 5 Assignment 4 Midterm Exam NSG 6435 Week 5 Midterm Exam

Question 27: Health care

Walden University NURS 6531 6531 Wk6 midterm review questions

Walden University NURS 6531wk6 NURS 6531 Week 6 midterm review questions

WK6
Week 6- Quiz

Question 1
1 out of 1 points

A 25-year-old female presents to urgent care complaining of nausea, vomiting and diarrhea for 24 hours. Important physical exam components for this patient include

Question 2
1 out of 1 points

Which of the following disorders is associated with obesity, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia?

Question 3
1 out of 1 points

Which of the following disorders can be associated with anal fissures?

Question 4
1 out of 1 points

A 33-year-old female is admitted with acute pancreatitis. The nurse practitioner knows that the most common cause of pancreatitis is:

Question 5
1 out of 1 points

An AST that is more than twice the level of ALT is suggestive of:

Question 6
1 out of 1 points

A 65-year-old female with a past medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and polymyalgia rheumatica presents to urgent care with new onset left lower quadrant pain. Her current medications include omeprazole 20 milligrams po daily, lisinopril 20 milligrams po daily, simvastatin 20 milligrams po daily, and prednisone 12 milligrams po daily. The nurse practitioner suspects acute diverticulitis and possibly an abscess. The most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient at this time is:

Question 7
1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is considered a functional gastrointestinal disorder?

Question 8
1 out of 1 points

An 83-year-old female presents to the office complaining of diarrhea for several days. She explains she has even had fecal incontinence one time. She describes loose stools 3–4 times a day for several weeks and denies fever, chills, pain, recent antibiotic use. The history suggests that the patient has:

Question 9
1 out of 1 points

Potential causes of diarrhea include which of the following:

Question 10
0 out of 1 points

An 80-year-old male admits to difficulty swallowing during the review of systems. The nurse practitioner recognizes the differential diagnosis for this patient’s dysphagia is:

Choices: Chest pain; GERD; esophageal cancer; GERD & esophageal cancer; or all of the above
I chose all of the above (incorrect)
Possibly just A & C is the answer (GERD and cancer)

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week 6 quiz

question 1
Which of the following disorders is associated with obesity, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia?
A.            Autoimmune hepatitis
B.            Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis
C.            Hemochromatosis
D.            Wilson’s disease
Question 2
Which of the following is considered a functional gastrointestinal disorder?

A.            Crohn’s disease

B.            Ulcerative colitis

C.            Constipation

D.            Irritable bowel syndrome
Question 3
Which of the following describes a third degree internal hemorrhoid?

A.            Bulge, but not prolapsed through anal orifice

B.            Prolapsed during defecation requiring manual reinsertion

C.            Prolapsed during defecation and reduce spontaneously

D.            Less likely to bleed, but positive edema and pain
Question 4
A 65-year-old female with a past medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and polymyalgia rheumatica presents to urgent care with new onset left lower quadrant pain. Her current medications include omeprazole 20 milligrams po daily, lisinopril 20 milligrams po daily, simvastatin 20 milligrams po daily, and prednisone 12 milligrams po daily. The nurse practitioner suspects acute diverticulitis and possibly an abscess. The most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient at this time is:

A.            CBC/diff

B.            Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

C.            Abdominal ultrasound

D.            CT scan

Question 5
A 58-year-old man is diagnosed with Barrett’s esophagus after an endoscopy. He has no known allergies. Which of the following medications is MOST appropriate to treat this patient’s disorder?

A.            Omeprazole

B.            Ranitidine

C.            An antacid

D.            None of the above
Question 6
Risk factor(s) associated with inflammatory bowel disease include:

A.            Smoking

B.            Alcohol ingestion

C.            Greek heritage

D.            None of the above
Question 7
Treatment of H.pylori includes which of the following?

A.            Proton pump inhibitor

B.            Antibiotic therapy

C.            Bismuth subsalicylate

D.            A and B

E.            A, B, and C
Question 8
An AST that is more than twice the level of ALT is suggestive of:

A.            A hemolytic disorder

B.            Cholestasis

C.            Infiltrative liver disease

D.            Alcoholic liver injury
Question 9
Pruritus ani is related to

A.            Corynebacterium minutissimum

B.            Pinworm infestation

C.            Stahphylococcus aureus

D.            B only

E.            A, B, and C
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An 83-year-old female presents to the office complaining of diarrhea for several days. She explains she has even had fecal incontinence one time. She describes loose stools 3–4 times a day for several weeks and denies fever, chills, pain, recent antibiotic use. The history suggests that the patient has:

A.            Acute diarrhea

B.            Chronic diarrhea

C.            Irritable bowel

D.            Functional bowel disease

•Question 1
1 out of 1 points

An 80-year-old male admits to difficulty swallowing during the review of systems. The nurse practitioner recognizes the differential diagnosis for this patient’s dysphagia is:

GERD and Cancer

•Question 2
1 out of 1 points

Which of the following describes a third degree internal hemorrhoid?
A.            Bulge, but not prolapsed through anal orifice
B.            Prolapsed during defecation requiring manual reinsertion
C.            Prolapsed during defecation and reduce spontaneously
D.            Less likely to bleed, but positive edema and pain

•Question 3
1 out of 1 points

A 65-year-old female with a past medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and polymyalgia rheumatica presents to urgent care with new onset left lower quadrant pain. Her current medications include omeprazole 20 milligrams po daily, lisinopril 20 milligrams po daily, simvastatin 20 milligrams po daily, and prednisone 12 milligrams po daily. The nurse practitioner suspects acute diverticulitis and possibly an abscess. The most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient at this time is:

CT scan

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•Question 4
1 out of 1 points

A 76-year-old male complains of weight loss, nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping and pain. Physical findings include an abdominal mass and stool positive for occult blood. The nurse practitioner pain suspects a tumor in the small intestine. The best diagnostic test for this patient is:

Answer: short-bowel follow through

•Question 5
1 out of 1 points

Potential causes of diarrhea include which of the following:
All of the above: meds, infection, constipation

•Question 6
1 out of 1 points

Which of the following disorders is associated with obesity, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia?

Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis

•Question 7
1 out of 1 points

An 83-year-old female presents to the office complaining of diarrhea for several days. She explains she has even had fecal incontinence one time. She describes loose stools 3–4 times a day for several weeks and denies fever, chills, pain, recent antibiotic use. The history suggests that the patient has:

Chronic Diarrhea

•Question 8
1 out of 1 points

A 33-year-old female is admitted with acute pancreatitis. The nurse practitioner knows that the most common cause of pancreatitis is:

Gallstones

•Question 9
1 out of 1 points

Treatment of H.pylori includes which of the following?

A, B, C : bismuth, PPI, and antibiotic

•Question 10
1 out of 1 points

A 58-year-old man is diagnosed with Barrett’s esophagus after an endoscopy. He has no known allergies. Which of the following medications is MOST appropriate to treat this patient’s disorder?

Omeprazole

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Question 28: Health care

Esther Park Shadow Health Assignment
Esther Park Shadow Health Assignment
Esther Park Shadow Health Assignment

Question 29: Health care

NURS 6660 Final Exam Walden University
NURS 6660 Final Exam Walden University
NURS 6660 Final Exam Walden University

Question 30: Health Care

A baccalaureate nurse understands, relates, and values the fundamental elements of research, process, and designs as a foundation for an evidence-based practice (AACN, 2008; QSEN, 2018).
Purpose:
This assignment provides a learning activity for students to demonstrate understanding of quantitative and qualitative research, the purpose and importance of designs, and how research is critical for creating a credible evidence-based nursing practice.
Course Outcomes:
This assignment enables the student to meet the following Course Outcomes.
CO 1:  Examine the sources of evidence that contribute to professional nursing practice. (PO 7)
CO 2:  Apply research principles to the interpretation of the content of published research studies. (PO 4 & 8)
CO 5:  Recognize the role of research findings in evidence-based practice. (PO 7 & 8)
Due Date
Submit the completed Research Designs Assignment by Sunday, 11:59 p.m. MT at the end of Week 5.
Points
This assignment is worth 225 points.
Directions for Preparing the Scholarly Paper:
Read each of these instructions.
Read the assignment grading rubric criteria.
This assignment is completed as an APA paper. APA resources can be found in your Resources Tab. You are required to complete the paper using the productivity tools required by Chamberlain University, which is Microsoft Office Word 2013 (or later version), or Windows and Office 2011 (or later version) for MAC. You must save the file in the “.docx” format. Do NOT save as Word Pad. A later version of the productivity tool includes Office 365, which is available to Chamberlain students for FREE by downloading from the student portal at http://my.chamberlain.edu (Links to an external site.) . Click on the envelope at the top of the page.
You are required to use the grading rubric criteria to ensure you are meeting all grading requirements of the paper.
The guideline below is a recommended outline only and does not substitute for your assignment grading rubric; your paper will be graded using the assignment grading rubric criteria.
For the introduction paragraph section, summarize your learning using mostly your own words (see the grading rubric for details):
The need for nursing research.
The importance for nurses to understand the basic principles of research.
The purpose of your paper.
For the quantitative research section, summarize your learning using mostly your own words (see the grading rubric for details):
The importance of quantitative research.
One type of quantitative design; explain one important feature of this type of design.
How quantitative research can help improve nursing practice.
For the qualitative research section, your learning using mostly your own words (see the grading rubric for details):
The importance of qualitative research.
One type of qualitative design; explain one important feature of this type of design.
How qualitative research can help improve nursing practice.
For the research sampling section, your learning using mostly your own words (see the grading rubric for details):
What is sampling and why is sampling important.
One sampling strategy used in quantitative research.
One other sampling strategy that you learned.
For the credible nursing practice section, your learning using mostly your own words (see the grading rubric for details):
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search can help to make nursing practice safer.
Why research is critical for creating an evidence-based nursing practice.
For the conclusion section, summarize your learning using mostly your own words (see the grading rubric for details):
Short, concise, thorough summary of the main points of the paper.
Double check your work with the grading rubric to ensure you have met all grading criteria for this assignment.
Two or more supporting scholarly references are required.  Textbooks are not allowed and should not be used as a scholarly source.  Use the Chamberlain Library to locate relevant, scholarly sources.
No more than two direct quotes are allowed.  You should be using mostly your own words to demonstrate your understanding of the topics/criteria for this assignment.  Citations and references must be included.
This is a short, scholarly paper. The assignment should be 3-4 pages in length not including the title page and references page.
Submit the completed assignment on the Week 5: Assignment page.
**Academic Integrity Reminder**
Chamberlain College of Nursing values honesty and integrity. All students should be aware of the Academic Integrity policy and follow it in all discussions and assignments.
By submitting this assignment, I pledge on my honor that all content contained is my own original work except as quoted and cited appropriately. I have not received any unauthorized assistance on this assignment.
Note: Please use your browser’s File menu to save or print this page.
References
American Association of Colleges of Nurses (AACN). (2008). Executive summary: The essentials of baccalaureate education for professional nursing practice(2008). Retrieved from http://www.aacnnursing.org/Education-Resources/AACN-Essentials
Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN). (2018). QSEN knowledge, skills, and attitude competencies. Retrieved from http://qsen.org/competencies/pre-licensure-ksas/
Rubric

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NR439 Research Designs Assignment Rubric
NR439 Research Designs Assignment Rubric
Criteria
Ratings
Pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome Introduction
Write a paragraph introduction incorporating your learning and using mostly your own words to summarize: a) The need for nursing research. b) The importance for nurses to understand the basic principles of research. c) The purpose of your paper.
32.0 pts
Thoroughly summarizes criteria in the first column. Excellent details are provided.
28.0 pts
Mostly summarizes criteria in the first column or one criteria lacks details or is missing.
25.0 pts
Minimally summarizes criteria from first the column or two criteria lack details or is missing.
11.0 pts
Poorly summarizes criteria from the first column or all criteria lack details.
0.0 pts
All criteria from the first column are missing.
32.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome Quantitative Research
Write a paragraph incorporating your learning and using mostly your own words to summarize: a) The importance of quantitative research. b) One type of quantitative design; explain one important feature of this type of design. c) How quantitative research can help improve nursing practice.
34.0 pts
Thoroughly summarizes criteria in the first column. Excellent details are provided.
30.0 pts
Mostly summarizes criteria in the first column or one criteria lacks details or is missing.
27.0 pts
Minimally summarizes criteria from first the column or two criteria lack details or is missing.
13.0 pts
Poorly summarizes criteria from the first column or all criteria lack details.
0.0 pts
All criteria from the first column are missing.
34.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome Qualitative Research
Write a paragraph incorporating your learning and using mostly your own words to summarize: a) The importance of qualitative research. b) One type of qualitative design; explain one important feature of this type of design. c) How qualitative research can help improve nursing practice.
34.0 pts
Thoroughly summarizes criteria in the first column. Excellent details are provided.
30.0 pts
Mostly summarizes criteria in the first column or one criteria lacks details or is missing.
27.0 pts
Minimally summarizes criteria from first the column or two criteria lack details or is missing.
13.0 pts
Poorly summarizes criteria from the first column or all criteria lack details.
0.0 pts
All criteria from the first column are missing.
34.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome Research Sampling
Write a paragraph incorporating your learning and using mostly your own words to summarize: a) What is sampling and why is sampling important. b) One sampling strategy used in quantitative research. c) One other sampling strategy that you learned.
34.0 pts
Thoroughly summarizes all criteria in the first column. Thorough details are provided.
30.0 pts
Mostly summarizes criteria in the first column or one criteria lacks details or is missing.
27.0 pts
Minimally summarizes criteria from the first column or two criteria lack details or is missing.
13.0 pts
Vaguely summarizes all criteria from the first column or all criteria lack details.
0.0 pts
All criteria from the first column are missing.
34.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome Credible Nursing Practice
Write a paragraph incorporating your learning and using mostly your own words to summarize: a) How research can help to make nursing practice safer. b) Why research is critical for creating an evidence-based nursing practice.
34.0 pts
Thoroughly summarizes criteria in the first column. Thorough details are provided.
30.0 pts
Mostly summarizes criteria in the first column. Good details.
27.0 pts
Minimally summarizes criteria in the first column or one criteria lack details or is missing.
13.0 pts
Poorly summarizes criteria from the first column or both criteria lack details.
0.0 pts
Both criteria from the first column are missing.
34.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome Conclusion
Write a short, concise, thorough summary of the main points of the paper.
32.0 pts
Summarizes a short, concise, thorough summary of the main points of the paper.
28.0 pts
Mostly summarizes the main points of the paper. Good details.
25.0 pts
Writes a vague summary of the paper. Fair details.
11.0 pts
Writes a poor summary of the paper. Poor details.

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0.0 pts
Did not sufficiently provide any of the conclusion criteria or conclusion not discussed.
32.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome Scholarly Writing, Mechanics, Organization, Spelling, Sentence Structure, Grammar.
8.0 pts
Excellent scholarly writing, mechanics, organization, spelling, sentence structure, grammar. No errors noted.
6.0 pts
Good writing, mechanics, organization, spelling, sentence structure, grammar. A few errors.
3.0 pts
Fair writing, mechanics, organization, Spelling, sentence structure, grammar. Some errors noted.
2.0 pts
Poor writing, mechanics, organization, spelling sentence structure, grammar. Many errors noted.
0.0 pts
Very poor writing, mechanics, and organization. Errors throughout are noted. Writing is difficult to understand or follow.
8.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome APA Formatting
8.0 pts
Excellent APA formatting with no errors. Uses mostly own words. No more than 2 direct quotes used.
6.0 pts
Good APA formatting with a few errors noted. Three direct quotes used.
3.0 pts
Fair APA formatting with some errors noted. Four direct quotes used.
2.0 pts
Poor APA formatting with many errors noted. Five or more direct quotes used.
0.0 pts
Very poor APA with errors noted throughout.
8.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome Supporting Evidence
Uses 2 or more relevant scholarly sources to support writing. Textbooks should not be used.
9.0 pts
Uses 2 or more relevant scholarly sources to support writing. Textbooks are not used.
5.0 pts
Uses at least 1 relevant scholarly source to support writing.
0.0 pts
No relevant scholarly sources provided.
9.0 pts
Total Points: 225.0

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Step 2:  Silicon Valley Startup Companies

Read the following articles about Silicon Valley startup companies (Focus on Theranos and Zenefits ).  Each company discussed in the articles listed below eventually came under scrutiny for ethical and/or legal issues.

Griffith, E. (2017, December 16).  The other tech bubble.  Wired.  Retrieved fromhttps://www.wired.com/story/the-other-tech-bubble/

Griffith, E. (2017, December 28).  The ugly unethical underside of Silicon Valley.  Fortune.  Retrieved from https://venturebeat.com/2016/12/28/the-ugly-unethical-underside-of-silicon-valley/

Hartmans, A. (2018, September 5).  The rise and fall of Elizabeth Holmes, who started Theranos when she was 19 and became the world’s youngest female billionaire before it all came crashing down.   Business Insider  Retrieved from https://www.businessinsider.com/theranos-founder-ceo-elizabeth-holmes-life-story-bio-2018-4

Suddath, C. and Newcomer, E. (2016, May 9).  Zenefits was the perfect startup.  Then it self-disrupted.  Bloomberg.  Retrieved from https://www.bloomberg.com/features/2016-zenefits/

Step 3:  Overview of Companies

Provide a company overview for Zenefits and Theranos.  Describe the purpose(s) for the founding of the company; i.e., what problems was it formed to solve and/or opportunities it was formed to exploit, who are the founders, home country or state, management, etc.

Step 4:  Ethical or Legal Issues

You will research each company to establish the facts of each situation.  Once you have established the facts surrounding the decisions made by Theranos and Zenefits:

  • Identify and discuss the ethical issues associated with each company.
  • Identify and discuss the legal issues associated with each company.
  • Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/. This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/  . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

 

Step 5:  Stakeholders

  • Identify the stakeholders associated with each company and explain the impact of the company’s decisions on the specific stakeholders.
  • Discuss how the stakeholders reacted to the decision(s) made by each company.

Step 6:  Generate Alternatives

From what you have read, the startup culture poses a host of temptations creating a never-ending series of ethical choices and dilemmas.  Companies are faced with the challenges of venture investors who expect hyper-growth and quick results.  For privately-held companies, self-reporting, unaudited financials is an option as is not reporting, and the media serves to promote an attractive opportunity.  Lastly, it is easy to rationalize behavior when the expectation is that entrepreneurs set the world on fire with innovative, disruptive technologies that promote overlooking rules and one’s moral compass.

Like many business people, some Silicon Valley decision makers need help in recognizing the ethical dilemmas they face when doing business and understanding the need for following rules and setting ethical standards.  You will:

  • Generate and discuss at least three viable alternatives to help Silicon Valley startup companies operate and behave ethically.  In doing so, it is necessary to consider the ethical and legal requirements.

Step 7:  Evaluate Each Alternative

  • Examine the benefits and drawbacks of each proposed alternative.  Provide careful consideration to the factors that influence the outcome of each alternative.

Step 8:  Recommend the Best Alternative

  • Once you have evaluated each alternative, recommend the best alternative that ensure appropriate business practices and accountability.
  • Explain how Silicon Valley startup companies will effectively communicate this change to internal and external business stakeholders.

Step 9:  Review the Paper 

Read the paper to ensure all required elements are present.  Use the grading rubric to ensure that you gain the most points possible for this assignment.

Proofread the paper for spelling and grammatical issues, and third person writing.

  • Read the paper aloud as a first measure;
  • Use the spell and grammar check in Word as a second measure;
  • Have someone who has excellent English skills proofread the paper;
  • Consider submitting the paper to the Effective Writing Center (EWC).  The EWC will provide 4-6 areas that may need improvement.

Step 10:  Submit the paper in the Assignment Folder (The assignment submitted to the Assignment Folder will be considered the student’s final product and therefore ready for grading by the instructor.  It is incumbent upon the student to verify the assignment is the correct submission.  No exceptions will be considered by the instructor).

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How to Set Up the Paper

Create a Word or Rich Text Format (RTF) document that is double-spaced, 12-point font.  The final product will be between 6-8 pages in length excluding the title page and reference page.  Write clearly and concisely.

Completing the Paper 

In order to complete this project, you will want to first read the module, Learn How to Support What You Write, as this assignment requires you to use the course material to support what you write.  Also,

  • Read and use the grading rubric while completing the exercise to ensure all requirements are met that will lead to the highest possible grade.
  • Third person writing is required.  Third person means that there are no words such as “I, me, my, we, or us” (first person writing), nor is there use of “you or your” (second person writing).  If uncertain how to write in the third person, view this link:  http://www.quickanddirtytips.com/education/grammar/first-second-and-third-person.
  • Contractions are not used in business writing, so do not use them.
  • Paraphrase and do not use direct quotation marks.  Paraphrase means you do not use more than four consecutive words from a source document.  Instead put a passage from a source document into your own words and attribute the passage to the source document.  Not using direct quotation marks means that there should be no passages with quotation marks and instead the source material is paraphrased as stated above.  Note that a reference within a reference list cannot exist without an associated in-text citation and vice versa.   You may not use more than four consecutive words from a source document, as doing so would require direct quotation marks.  Changing words from a passage does not exclude the passage from having quotation marks.   If more than four consecutive words are used from source documents, this material will not be included in the grade and could lead to allegations of academic dishonesty.
  • You are expected to use the case scenarios and weekly course material to develop the analysis and support the reasoning.   There should be a robust use of the course material and case scenario facts.  Material used from a source document must be cited and referenced.  A reference within a reference list cannot exist without an associated in-text citation and vice versa.  Changing words from a passage does not exclude the passage from having quotation marks.   If more than four consecutive words are used from source documents, this material will not be included in the grade and could lead to allegations of academic dishonesty.
  • Use in-text citations and provide a reference list that contains the reference associated with each in-text citation.
  • The only book you may use is the course eBook.  You may not use a dictionary or Wikipedia.
  • Provide the page or paragraph number in every in-text citation presented.  If the eBook does not have pages, provide the chapter title and topic heading.

Self-Plagiarism: Self-plagiarism is the act of reusing significant, identical or nearly identical portions of one’s own work.  You cannot re-use any portion of a paper or other graded work that was submitted to another class even if you are retaking this course.   You also will not reuse any portion of previously submitted work in this class.  A zero will be assigned to the assignment if self-plagiarized.  Faculty do not have the discretion to accept self-plagiarized work.

 

 

 

https://www.thoughtco.com/kantian-ethics-moral-philosophy-immanuel-kant-4045398

 

 

This link, as well as the links that are attached inside of the instructions.

 

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This text was adapted by The Saylor Foundation under a Creative

Commons Attribution-NonCommercial-ShareAlike 3.0 License without

attribution as requested by the work’s original creator or licensee.

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Preface

Ethics is about determining value; it’s deciding what’s worth doing and what doesn’t matter so much.

Business ethics is the way we decide what kind of career to pursue, what choices we make on the job,

which companies we want to work with, and what kind of economic world we want to live in and then

leave behind for those coming after. There are no perfect answers to these questions, but there’s a

difference between thinking them through and winging it. The Business Ethics Workshop provides a

framework for identifying, analyzing, and resolving ethical dilemmas encountered through working life.

This text’s principles:

 It’s your call. Some of the book’s case studies ask for defenses of ethical positions that few agree with

(for example, the claim that a drug dealer’s job is better than a police officer’s). Exercises like this align

with the textbook’s aim: provoking reasoning freed from customary divisions between right and wrong. In

the end, no one completely resists their own habits of thinking or society’s broad pressures, but testing the

limits sharpens the tools of ethical analysis. These tools can be relied on later on when you face decisions

that you alone have to make. The aim of this book is to help make those decisions with coherent,

defensible reasoning.

 Keep it mostly real. Ethics is an everyday activity. It’s not mysterious, head-in-the-clouds ruminating

but determining the worth of things around us: Working at an advertising agency is exciting—actors,

lights, cameras, and TV commercials—but do I really want to hock sugary breakfast cereals to children?

Should I risk my reputation by hiring my college roommate, the one who’s habits of showing up late and

erratically to class have carried over to working life? These are the immediate questions of business ethics,

and while any textbook on the subject must address broad, impersonal questions including the

responsibilities of massive corporations in modern societies, this book’s focus stays as often as possible on

ordinary people in normal but difficult circumstances.

 Be current. The rules of ethical thinking don’t change much, but the world is a constant revolution. The

textbook and its cases follow along as closely as possible, citing from blog posts and recent news stories.

As a note here, to facilitate reading some of these citations have been slightly and silently modified.

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 Let’s talk about our problem. Case studies are the most important components of this text because it

was written for a discussion-intensive class. Ethics isn’t something we know; it’s something we do, and

trying out our reasoning is the best way to confirm that it’s actually working.

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Chapter 1

What Is Business Ethics?

Chapter Overview

Chapter 1 “What Is Business Ethics?” defines business ethics and sketches how debates within the field

happen. The history of the discipline is also considered, along with the overlap between business and

personal ethics.

1.1 What Is Business Ethics?

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

  1. Define the components of business ethics.
  2. Outline how business ethics works.

Captive Customers

Ann Marie Wagoner studies at the University of Alabama (UA). She pays $1,200 a year for books, which is

exasperating, but what really ticks her off is the text for her composition class. Called A Writer’s Reference

(Custom Publication for the University of Alabama), it’s the same Writer’s Reference sold everywhere

else, with slight modifications: there are thirty-two extra pages describing the school’s particular writing

program, the Alabama A is emblazoned on the front cover, there’s an extra $6 on the price tag (compared

with the price of the standard version when purchased new), and there’s an added sentence on the back:

“This book may not be bought or sold used.” The modifications are a collective budget wrecker. Because

she’s forced to buy a new copy of the customized Alabama text, she ends up paying about twice what she’d

pay for a used copy of the standard, not-customized book that’s available at Chegg.com and similar usedbook

dealers.

For the extra money, Wagoner doesn’t get much—a few additional text pages and a school spirit cover.

Worse, those extra pages are posted free on the English department’s website, so the cover’s the only

unambiguous benefit. Even there, though, it’d be cheaper to just buy a UA bumper sticker and paste it

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across the front. It’s hard to see, finally, any good reason for the University of Alabama English

Department to snare its own students with a textbook costing so much.

Things clear up when you look closely at the six-dollar difference between the standard new book cost and

the customized UA version. Only half that money stays with the publisher to cover specialized printing

costs. The other part kicks back to the university’s writing program, the one requiring the book in the first

place. It turns out there’s a quiet moneymaking scheme at work here: the English department gets some

straight revenue, and most students, busy with their lives, don’t notice the royalty details. They get their

books, roll their eyes at the cash register, and get on with things.

Wagoner noticed, though. According to an extensive article in the Wall Street Journal, she calls the cost

of new custom books “ridiculous.” She’s also more than a little suspicious about why students aren’t more

openly informed about the royalty arrangement: “They’re hiding it so there isn’t a huge uproar.” [1]

While it may be true that the Tuscaloosa University is hiding what’s going on, they’re definitely not doing

a very good job since the story ended up splattered across the Wall Street Journal. One reason the story

reached one of the United States’ largest circulation dailies is that a lot of universities are starting to get in

on the cash. Printing textbooks within the kickback model is, according to the article, the fastest growing

slice of the $3.5 billion college textbook market.

The money’s there, but not everyone is eager to grab it. James Koch, an economist and former president

of Old Dominion University and the University of Montana, advises schools to think carefully before

tapping into customized-textbook dollars because, he says, the whole idea “treads right on the edge of

what I would call unethical behavior. I’m not sure it passes the smell test.” [2]

What Is Business Ethics?

What does it mean to say a business practice doesn’t “pass the smell test”? And what would happen if

someone read the article and said, “Well, to me it smells all right”? If no substance fills out the idea, if

there’s no elaboration, then there probably wouldn’t be much more to say. The two would agree to

disagree and move on. Normally, that’s OK; no one has time to debate everything. But if you want to get

involved—if you’re like Wagoner who sounds angry about what’s going on and maybe wants to change it—

you’ll need to do more than make comments about how things hit the nose.

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Doing business ethics means providing reasons for how things ought to be in the economic world. This

requires the following:

 Arranging values to guide decisions. There needs to be a clearly defined and well-justified set of

priorities about what’s worth seeking and protecting and what other things we’re willing to compromise or

give up. For example, what’s more important and valuable: consumers (in this case students paying for an

education) getting their books cheaply or protecting the right of the university to run the business side of

its operation as it sees fit?

 Understanding the facts. To effectively apply a set of values to any situation, the situation itself must be

carefully defined. Who, for example, is involved in the textbook conflict? Students, clearly, as well as

university administrators. What about parents who frequently subsidize their college children? Are they

participants or just spectators? What about those childless men and women in Alabama whose taxes go to

the university? Are they involved? And how much money are we talking about? Where does it go? Why?

How and when did all this get started?

 Constructing arguments. This shows how, given the facts, one action serves our values better than other

actions. While the complexities of real life frequently disallow absolute proofs, there remains an absolute

requirement of comprehensible reasoning. Arguments need to make sense to outside observers. In simple,

practical terms, the test of an ethical argument resembles the test of a recipe for a cook: others need to be

able to follow it and come to the same result. There may remain disagreements about facts and values at

the end of an argument in ethics, but others need to understand the reasoning marking each step taken on

the way to your conclusion.

Finally, the last word in ethics is a determination about right and wrong. This actual result, however, is

secondary to the process: the verdict is only the remainder of forming and debating arguments. That’s

why doing ethics isn’t brainwashing. Conclusions are only taken seriously if composed from clear values,

recognized facts, and solid arguments.

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7

Bringing Ethics to Kickback Textbooks

The Wall Street Journal article on textbooks and kickbacks to the university is a mix of facts, values, and

arguments. They can be sorted out; an opportunity to do the sorting is provided by one of the article’s

more direct assertions:

Royalty arrangements involving specially made books may violate colleges’ conflict-of-interest

rules because they appear to benefit universities more than students.

A conflict of interest occurs when a university pledges to serve the interest of students but finds that its

own interest is served by not doing that. It doesn’t sound like this is a good thing (in the language of the

article, it smells bad). But to reach that conclusion in ethical terms, the specific values, facts, and

arguments surrounding this conflict need to be defined.

Start with the values. The priorities and convictions underneath the conflict-of-interest accusation are

clear. When university takes tuition money from a student and promises to do the best job possible in

providing an education to the student, then it better do that. The truth matters. When you make a

promise, you’ve got to fulfill it. Now, this fundamental value is what makes a conflict of interest

worrisome. If we didn’t care about the truth at all, then a university promising one thing and doing

something else wouldn’t seem objectionable. In the world of poker, for example, when a player makes a

grand show of holding a strong hand by betting a pile of chips, no one calls him a liar when it’s later

revealed that the hand was weak. The truth isn’t expected in poker, and bluffing is perfectly acceptable.

Universities aren’t poker tables, though. Many students come to school expecting honesty from their

institution and fidelity to agreements. To the extent these values are applied, a conflict of interest becomes

both possible and objectionable.

With the core value of honesty established, what are the facts? The “who’s involved?” question brings in

the students buying the textbooks, the company making the textbooks (Bedford/St. Martin’s in Boston),

and the University of Alabama. As drawn from the UA web page, here’s the school’s purpose, the reason it

exists in the first place: “The University of Alabama is a student-centered research university and an

academic community united in its commitment to enhancing the quality of life for all Alabamians.”

Moving to the financial side, specific dollar amounts should be listed (the textbook’s cost, the cost for the

non-customized version). Also, it may be important to note the financial context of those involved: in the

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case of the students, some are comfortably wealthy or have parents paying for everything, while others

live closer to their bank accounts edge and are working their way through school.

Finally, the actual book-selling operation should be clearly described. In essence, what’s going on is that

the UA English Department is making a deal with the Bedford/St. Martin’s textbook company. The

university proposes, “If you give us a cut of the money you make selling textbooks, we’ll let you make

more money off our students.” Because the textbooks are customized, the price goes up while the supply

of cheap used copies (that usually can be purchased through the Internet from stores across the nation)

goes way down. It’s much harder for UA students to find used copies, forcing many to buy a new version.

This is a huge windfall for Bedford/St. Martin’s because, for them, every time a textbook is resold used,

they lose a sale. On the other side, students end up shelling out the maximum money for each book

because they have to buy new instead of just recycling someone else’s from the previous year. Finally, at

the end of the line there is the enabler of this operation, the English department that both requires the

book for a class and has the book customized to reduce used-copy sales. They get a small percentage of

Bedford/St. Martin’s extra revenue.

With values and facts established, an argument against kickback textbooks at Alabama can be drawn up.

By customizing texts and making them mandatory, UA is forcing students to pay extra money to take a

class: they have to spend about thirty dollars extra, which is the difference between the cost of a new,

customized textbook and the standard version purchased, used. Students generally don’t have a lot of

money, and while some pass through school on the parental scholarship, others scrape by and have to

work a Mc Job to make ends meet. So for at least some students, that thirty dollars directly equals time

that could be spent studying, but that instead goes to flipping burgers. The customized textbooks,

consequently, hurt these students’ academic learning in a measurable way. Against that reality there’s the

university’s own claim to be a “student-centered” institution. Those words appear untrue, however, if the

university is dragging its own students out of the library and forcing them to work extra hours. To comply

with its own stated ideals—to serve the students’ interests—UA should suspend the kickback textbook

practice. It’s important to do that, finally, because fulfilling promises is valuable; it’s something worth

doing.

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Argument and Counterargument

The conclusion that kickback textbooks turn universities into liars doesn’t end debate on the question. In

fact, because well-developed ethical positions expose their reasoning so openly (as opposed to “it doesn’t

smell right”), they tend to invite responses. One characteristic, in other words, of good ethical arguments

is that, paradoxically but not contradictorily, they tend to provoke counterarguments.

Broadly, there are three ways to dispute an argument in ethics. You can attack the

  1. facts,
  2. values,
  3. reasoning,

In the textbook case, disputing the facts might involve showing that students who need to work a few

extra hours to afford their books don’t subtract that time from their studying; actually, they subtract it

from late-night hours pounding beers in dank campus bars. The academic damage done, therefore, by

kickback textbooks is zero. Pressing this further, if it’s true that increased textbook prices translate into

less student partying, the case could probably be made that the university actually serves students’

interests—at least those who drink too much beer—by jacking up the prices.

The values supporting an argument about kickback textbooks may, like the facts, be disputed. Virginia

Tech, for example, runs a text-customization program like Alabama’s. According to Tech’s English

Department chair Carolyn Rude, the customized books published by Pearson net the department about

$20,000 a year. Some of that cash goes to pay for instructors’ travel stipends. These aren’t luxury retreats

to Las Vegas or Miami; they’re gatherings of earnest professors in dull places for discussions that reliably

put a few listeners to sleep. When instructors—who are frequently graduate students—attend, they’re

looking to burnish their curriculum vitae and get some public responses to their work. Possibly, the trip

will help them get a better academic job later on. Regardless, it won’t do much for the undergraduates at

Virginia Tech. In essence, the undergrads are being asked to pay a bit extra for books to help graduate

students hone their ideas and advance professionally.

Can that tradeoff be justified? With the right values, yes. It must be conceded that Virginia Tech is

probably rupturing a commitment to serve the undergrads’ interest. Therefore, it’s true that a certain

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amount of dishonesty shadows the process of inflating textbook costs. If, however, there’s a higher value

than truth, that won’t matter so much. Take this possibility: what’s right and wrong isn’t determined by

honesty and fidelity to commitments, but the general welfare. The argument here is that while it’s true

that undergrads suffer a bit because they pay extra, the instructors receiving the travel stipends benefit a

lot. Their knowledge grows, their career prospects improve, and in sum, they benefit so much that it

entirely outweighs the harm done to the undergrads. As long as this value—the greatest total good—

frames the assessment of kickback textbooks, the way is clear for Tech or Alabama to continue the

practice. It’s even recommendable.

The final ground on which an ethical argument can be refuted is the reasoning. Here, the facts are

accepted, as well as the value that universities are duty bound to serve the interests of the tuition-paying

undergraduate students since that’s the commitment they make on their web pages. What can still be

debated, however, is the extent to which those students may actually be benefitted by customizing

textbooks. Looking at the Wall Street Journal article, several partially developed arguments are presented

on this front. For example, at Alabama, part of the money collected from the customized texts underwrites

teaching awards, and that, presumably, motivates instructors to perform better in the classroom, which

ends up serving the students’ educational interests. Similarly, at Virginia Tech, part of the revenue is

apportioned to bring in guest speakers, which should advance the undergraduate educational cause. The

broader argument is that while it’s true that the students are paying more for their books than peers at

other universities, the sequence of reasoning doesn’t necessarily lead from that fact to the conclusion that

there’s a reproachable conflict of interest. It can also reach the verdict that students’ educational

experience is improved; instead of a conflict of interest, there’s an elevated commitment to student

welfare inherent in the kickback practice.

Conclusion. There’s no irrefutable answer to the question about whether universities ought to get involved

in kickback textbooks. What is clear, however, is that there’s a difference between responding to them by

asserting that something doesn’t smell right, and responding by uniting facts, values, and reasoning to

produce a substantial ethical argument.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Business ethics deals with values, facts, and arguments.

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 Well-reasoned arguments, by reason of their clarity, invite counterarguments.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. What is the difference between brainwashing and an argument?

2. What does it mean to dispute an argument on the basis of the facts?

3. What does it mean to dispute an argument on the basis of the values?

4. What does it mean to dispute an argument on the basis of the reasoning?

[1] John Hechinger, “As Textbooks Go ‘Custom,’ Students Pay: Colleges Receive Royalties for School-Specific

Editions; Barrier to Secondhand Sales,” Wall Street Journal, July 10, 2008, accessed May 11,

2011,http://online.wsj.com/article/SB121565135185141235.html.

[2] John Hechinger, “As Textbooks Go ‘Custom,’ Students Pay: Colleges Receive Royalties for School-Specific

Editions; Barrier to Secondhand Sales,” Wall Street Journal, July 10, 2008, accessed May 11,

2011,http://online.wsj.com/article/SB121565135185141235.html.

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1.2 The Place of Business Ethics

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Distinguish the place of business ethics within the larger field of decision making.

2. Sketch the historical development of business ethics as a coherent discipline.

The Boundaries and History of Business Ethics

Though both economic life and ethics are as old as history, business ethics as a formal area of study is

relatively new. Delineating the specific place of today’s business ethics involves

 distinguishing morality, ethics, and meta-ethics;

 dividing normative from descriptive ethics;

 comparing ethics against other forms of decision making;

 sketching some inflection points in the histories of ethics and business ethics.

Morality, Ethics, and Meta-ethics: What’s the Difference?

The back and forth of debates about kickback textbooks occurs on one of the three distinct levels of

consideration about right and wrong. Morals occupy the lowest level; they’re the direct rules we ought to

follow. Two of the most common moral dictates are don’t lie and don’t steal. Generally, the question to ask

about a moral directive is whether it was obeyed. Specifically in the case of university textbooks, the

debate about whether customized textbooks are a good idea isn’t morality. It’s not because morality

doesn’t involve debates. Morality only involves specific guidelines that should be followed; it only begins

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when someone walks into a school bookstore, locates a book needed for a class, strips out the little

magnetic tag hidden in the spine, and heads for the exit.

Above all morality there’s the broader question about exactly what specific rules should be instituted and

followed. Answering this question is ethics. Ethics is the morality factory, the production of guidelines

that later may be obeyed or violated. It’s not clear today, for example, whether there should be moral rule

prohibiting kickback textbooks. There are good arguments for the prohibition (universities are betraying

their duty to serve students’ interests) and good arguments against (schools are finding innovative sources

of revenue that can be put to good use). For that reason, it’s perfectly legitimate for someone like Ann

Marie Wagoner to stand up at the University of Alabama and decry the practice as wrong. But she’d be

going too far if she accused university administrators of being thieves or immoral. They’re not; they’re on

the other side of an ethical conflict, not a moral one.

Above both morality and ethics there are debates about meta-ethics. These are the most abstract and

theoretical discussions surrounding right and wrong. The questions asked on this level include the

following: Where do ethics come from? Why do we have ethical and moral categories in the first place? To

whom do the rules apply? Babies, for example, steal from each other all the time and no one accuses them

of being immoral or insufficiently ethical. Why is that? Or putting the same question in the longer terms

of human history, at some point somewhere in the past someone must have had a light bulb turn on in

their mind and asked, “Wait, is stealing wrong?” How and why, those interested in meta-ethics ask, did

that happen? Some believe that morality is transcendent in nature—that the rules of right and wrong

come from beyond you and me and that our only job is to receive, learn, and obey them. Divine command

theory, for example, understands earthly morality as a reflection of God. Others postulate that ethics is

very human and social in nature—that it’s something we invented to help us live together in communities.

Others believe there’s something deeply personal in it. When I look at another individual I see in the

depth of their difference from myself a requirement to respect that other person and his or her

uniqueness, and from there, ethics and morality unwind. These kinds of meta-ethical questions, finally,

are customarily studied in philosophy departments.

Conclusion. Morality is the rules, ethics is the making of rules, and meta-ethics concerns the origin of the

entire discussion. In common conversation, the words morality and ethics often overlap. It’s hard to

change the way people talk and, in a practical field like business ethics, fostering the skill of debating

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arguments is more important than being a stickler for words, but it’s always possible to keep in mind that,

strictly speaking, morality and ethics hold distinct meanings.

What’s the Difference between Normative Ethics and Descriptive Ethics?

Business ethics is normative, which means it concerns how people ought to act. Descriptive ethics depicts

how people actually are acting.

At the University of Alabama, Virginia Tech, and anywhere kickback textbooks are being sold, there are

probably a few students who check their bank accounts, find that the number is low, and decide to mount

their own kickback scheme: refund the entire textbook cost to themselves by sneaking a copy out of the

store. Trying to make a decision about whether that’s justified—does economic necessity license theft in

some cases?—is normative ethics. By contrast, investigating to determine the exact number of students

walking out with free books is descriptive. So too is tallying the reasons for the theft: How many steal

because they don’t have the money to pay? How many accuse the university of acting dishonestly in the

first place and say that licenses theft? How many question the entire idea of private property?

The fields of descriptive ethics are many and varied. Historians trace the way penalties imposed for theft

have changed over time. Anthropologists look at the way different cultures respond to thievery.

Sociologists study the way publications, including Abbie Hoffman’s incendiary book titled Steal This

Book, have changed public attitudes about the ethics of theft. Psychologists are curious about the

subconscious forces motivating criminals. Economists ask whether there’s a correlation between

individual wealth and the kind of moral rules subscribed to. None of this depends on the question about

whether stealing may actually be justifiable, but all of it depends on stealing actually happening.

Ethics versus Other Forms of Decision

When students stand in the bookstore flipping through the pages of a budget buster, it’s going to cross a

few minds to stick it in the backpack and do a runner. Should they? Clear-headed ethical reflection may

provide an answer to the question, but that’s not the only way we make decisions in the world. Even in the

face of screaming ethical issues, it’s perfectly possible and frequently reasonable to make choices based on

other factors. They include:

 The law

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 Prudence (practicality)

 Religion

 Authority figures

 Peer pressure

 Custom

 Conscience

When the temptation is there, one way to decide whether to steal a book is legal: if the law says I can’t, I

won’t. Frequently, legal prohibitions overlap with commonly accepted moral rules: few legislators want to

sponsor laws that most believe to be unjust. Still, there are unjust laws. Think of downloading a text (or

music, or a video) from the web. One day the downloading may be perfectly legal and the next, after a bill

is passed by a legislature, it’s illegal. So the law reverses, but there’s no reason to think the ethics—the

values and arguments guiding decisions about downloading—changed in that short time. If the ethics

didn’t change, at least one of the two laws must be ethically wrong. That means any necessary connection

between ethics and the law is broken. Even so, there are clear advantages to making decisions based on

the law. Besides the obvious one that it’ll keep you out of jail, legal rules are frequently cleaner and more

direct than ethical determinations, and that clarity may provide justification for approving (or

disapproving) actions with legal dictates instead of ethical ones. The reality remains, however, that the

two ways of deciding are as distinct as their mechanisms of determination. The law results from the votes

of legislators, the interpretations of judges, and the understanding of a policeman on the scene. Ethical

conclusions result from applied values and arguments.

Religion may also provide a solution to the question about textbook theft. The Ten Commandments, for

example, provide clear guidance. Like the law, most mainstream religious dictates overlap with generally

accepted ethical views, but that doesn’t change the fact that the rules of religion trace back to beliefs and

faith, while ethics goes back to arguments.

Prudence, in the sense of practical concern for your own well-being, may also weigh in and finally guide a

decision. With respect to stealing, regardless of what you may believe about ethics or law or religion, the

possibility of going to jail strongly motivates most people to pay for what they carry out of stores. If that’s

the motivation determining what’s done, then personal comfort and welfare are guiding the decision more

than sweeping ethical arguments.

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Authority figures may be relied on to make decisions: instead of asking whether it’s right to steal a book,

someone may ask themselves, “What would my parents say I should do? Or the soccer coach? Or a movie

star? Or the president?” While it’s not clear how great the overlap is between decisions based on authority

and those coming from ethics, it is certain that following authority implies respecting the experience and

judgment of others, while depending on ethics means relying on your own careful thinking and

determinations.

Urges to conformity and peer pressure also guide decisions. As depicted by the startling and funny Asch

experiments (see Video Clip 1.1), most of us palpably fear being labeled a deviant or just differing from

those around us. So powerful is the attraction of conformity that we’ll deny things clearly seen with our

own eyes before being forced to stand out as distinct from everyone else.

Custom, tradition, and habit all also guide decisions. If you’re standing in the bookstore and you’ve never

stolen a thing in your life, the possibility of appropriating the text may not even occur to you or, if it does,

may seem prohibitively strange. The great advantage of custom or tradition or just doing what we’ve

always done is that it lets us take action without thinking. Without that ability for thoughtlessness, we’d

be paralyzed. No one would make it out of the house in the morning: the entire day would be spent

wondering about the meaning of life and so on. Habits—and the decisions flowing from them—allow us to

get on with things. Ethical decisions, by contrast, tend to slow us down. In exchange, we receive the

assurance that we actually believe in what we’re doing, but in practical terms, no one’s decisions can be

ethically justified all the time.

Finally, the conscience may tilt decisions in one direction or another. This is the gut feeling we have about

whether swiping the textbook is the way to go, coupled with the expectation that the wrong decision will

leave us remorseful, suffering palpable regret about choosing to do what we did. Conscience,

fundamentally, is a feeling; it starts as an intuition and ends as a tugging, almost sickening sensation in

the stomach. As opposed to those private sensations, ethics starts from facts and ends with a reasoned

argument that can be publicly displayed and compared with the arguments others present. It’s not clear,

even to experts who study the subject, exactly where the conscience comes from, how we develop it, and

what, if any, limits it should place on our actions. Could, for example, a society come into existence where

people stole all the time and the decision to not shoplift a textbook carries with it the pang of remorse? It’s

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hard to know for sure. It’s clear, however, that ethics is fundamentally social: it’s about right and wrong as

those words emerge from real debates, not inner feelings.

History and Ethics

Conflicts, along with everything necessary to approach them ethically (mainly the ability to generate and

articulate reasoned thoughts), are as old as the first time someone was tempted to take something from

another. For that reason, there’s no strict historical advance to the study: there’s no reason to confidently

assert that the way we do ethics today is superior to the way we did it in the past. In that way, ethics isn’t

like the physical sciences where we can at least suspect that knowledge of the world yields technology

allowing more understanding, which would’ve been impossible to attain earlier on. There appears to be, in

other words, marching progress in science. Ethics doesn’t have that. Still, a number of critical historical

moments in ethics’ history can be spotted.

In ancient Greece, Plato presented the theory that we could attain a general knowledge of justice that

would allow a clear resolution to every specific ethical dilemma. He meant something like this: Most of us

know what a chair is, but it’s hard to pin down. Is something a chair if it has four legs? No, beds have four

legs and some chairs (barstools) have only three. Is it a chair if you sit on it? No, that would make the

porch steps in front of a house a chair. Nonetheless, because we have the general idea of a chair in our

mind, we can enter just about any room in any home and know immediately where we should sit. What

Plato proposed is that justice works like that. We have—or at least we can work toward getting—a general

idea of right and wrong, and when we have the idea, we can walk into a concrete situation and correctly

judge what the right course of action is.

Moving this over to the case of Ann Marie Wagoner, the University of Alabama student who’s outraged by

her university’s kickback textbooks, she may feel tempted, standing there in the bookstore, to make off

with a copy. The answer to the question of whether she ought to do that will be answered by the general

sense of justice she’s been able to develop and clarify in her mind.

In the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, a distinct idea of fundamental ethics took hold: natural

rights. The proposal here is that individuals are naturally and undeniably endowed with rights to their

own lives, their freedom, and to pursue happiness as they see fit. As opposed to the notion that certain

acts are firmly right or wrong, proponents of this theory—including John Locke and framers of the new

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American nation—proposed that individuals may sort things out as they please as long as their decisions

and actions don’t interfere with the right of others to do the same. Frequently understood as a theory of

freedom maximization, the proposition is that your freedom is only limited by the freedoms others

possess.

For Wagoner, this way of understanding right and wrong provides little immediate hope for changing

textbook practices at the University of Alabama. It’s difficult to see how the university’s decision to assign

a certain book at a certain price interferes with Wagoner’s freedom. She can always choose to not

purchase the book, to buy one of the standard versions at Amazon, or to drop the class. What she

probably can’t justify choosing, within this theory, is responding to the kickback textbooks by stealing a

copy. Were she to do that, it would violate another’s freedom, in this case, the right of the university (in

agreement with a publisher) to offer a product for sale at a price they determine.

A third important historical direction in the history of ethics originated with the proposal that what you

do doesn’t matter so much as the effects of what you do. Right and wrong are found in the consequences

following an action, not in the action itself. In the 1800s John Stuart Mill and others advocated the idea

that any act benefitting the general welfare was recommendable and ethically respectable.

Correspondingly, any act harming a community’s general happiness should be avoided. Decisions

about good or bad, that means, don’t focus on what happens now but what comes later, and they’re not

about the one person making the decision but the consequences as they envelop a larger community.

For someone like Wagoner who’s angry about the kickback money hidden in her book costs, this

consequence-centered theory opens the door to a dramatic action. She may decide to steal a book from the

bookstore and, after alerting a reporter from the student newspaper of her plan, promptly turn herself

into the authorities as a form of protest. “I stole this book,” she could say, “but that’s nothing compared

with the theft happening every day on this campus by our university.” This plan of action may work out—

or maybe not. But in terms of ethics, the focus should be on the theft’s results, not the fact that she

sneaked a book past security. The ethical verdict here is not about whether robbery is right or wrong but

whether the protest stunt will ultimately improve university life. If it does, we can say that the original

theft was good.

Finally, ethics is like most fields of study in that it has been accompanied from the beginning by skeptics,

by people suspecting that either there is no real right and wrong or, even if there is, we’ll never have much

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luck figuring out the difference. The twentieth century has been influenced by Friedrich Nietzsche’s

affirmation that moral codes (and everything else, actually) are just interpretations of reality that may be

accepted now, but there’s no guarantee things will remain that way tomorrow. Is stealing a textbook right

or wrong? According to this view, the answer always is, “It depends.” It depends on the circumstances, on

the people involved and how well they can convince others to accept one or another verdict. In practical

terms, this view translates into a theory of cultural or contextual relativism. What’s right and wrong only

reflects what a particular person or community decides to believe at a certain moment, and little more.

The Historical Development of Business Ethics

The long philosophical tradition of ethical thought contains the subfield of business ethics. Business

ethics, in turn, divides between ethics practiced by people who happen to be in business and business

ethics as a coherent and well-defined academic pursuit.

People in business, like everyone else, have ethical dimensions to their lives. For example, the company

W. R. Grace was portrayed in the John Travolta movie A Civil Action as a model of bad corporate

behavior. [1] What not so many people know, however, is that the corporation’s founder, the man named

W. R. Grace, came to America in the nineteenth century, found success, and dedicated a significant

percentage of his profits to a free school for immigrants that still operates today.

Even though questions stretch deep into the past about what responsibilities companies and their leaders

may have besides generating profits, the academic world began seriously concentrating on the subject

only very recently. The first full-scale professional conference on academic business ethics occurred in

1974 at the University of Kansas. A textbook was derived from the meeting, and courses began appearing

soon after at some schools.

By 1980 some form of a unified business ethics course was offered at many of the nation’s colleges and

universities.

Academic discussion of ethical issues in business was fostered by the appearance of several specialized

journals, and by the mid-1990s, the field had reached maturity. University classes were widespread,

allowing new people to enter the study easily. A core set of ideas, approaches, and debates had been

established as central to the subject, and professional societies and publications allowed for advanced

research in and intellectual growth of the field.

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The development of business ethics inside universities corresponded with increasing public awareness of

problems associated with modern economic activity, especially on environmental and financial fronts. In

the late 1970s, the calamity in the Love Canal neighborhood of Niagara Falls, New York, focused

international attention on questions about a company’s responsibility to those living in the surrounding

community and to the health of the natural world. The Love Canal’s infamy began when a chemical

company dumped tons of toxic waste into the ground before moving away. Despite the company’s

warnings about the land’s toxicity, residential development spread over the area. Birth defects and similar

maladies eventually devastated the families. Not long afterward and on the financial front, an insider

trading scandal involving the Wall Street titan Ivan Boesky made front pages, which led John Shad,

former head of the Securities and Exchange Commission, to donate $20 million to his business school

alma mater for the purpose of ethics education. Parallel (though usually more modest) money infusions

went to university philosophy departments. As a discipline, business ethics naturally bridges the two

divisions of study since the theory and tools for resolving ethical problems come from philosophy, but the

problems for solving belong to the real economic world.

Today, the most glamorous issues of business ethics involve massively powerful corporations and

swashbuckling financiers. Power and celebrity get people’s attention. Other, more tangible issues don’t

appear in so many headlines, but they’re just as important to study since they directly reach so many of

us: What kind of career is worth pursuing? Should I lie on my résumé? How important is money?

The Personal History of Ethics

Moving from academics to individual people, almost every adult does business ethics. Every time people

shake their exhausted heads in the morning, eye the clock, and decide whether they’ll go to work or just

pull up the covers, they’re making a decision about what values guide their economic reality. The way

ethics is done, however, changes from person to person and for all of us through our lives. There’s no

single history of ethics as individuals live it, but there’s a broad consensus that for many people, the

development of their ethical side progresses in a way not too far off from a general scheme proposed by

the psychologist Lawrence Kohlberg.

Pre-conventional behavior—displayed by children, but not only by them—is about people calculating to

get what they want efficiently: decisions are made in accordance with raw self-interest. That’s why many

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children really do behave better near the end of December. It’s not that they’ve suddenly been struck by

respect for others and the importance of social rules; they just figure they’ll get more and better presents.

Moving up through the conventional stages, the idea of what you’ll do separates from what you want.

First, there are immediate conventions that may pull against personal desires; they include standards and

pressures applied by family and friends. Next, more abstract conventions—the law and mass social

customs—assert influence.

Continuing upward, the critical stages of moral development go from recognizing abstract conventions to

actively and effectively comparing them. The study of business ethics belongs on this high level of

individual maturity. Value systems are held up side by side, and reasons are erected for selecting one over

another. This is the ethics of full adulthood; it requires good reasoning and experience in the real world.

Coextensive with the development of ideas about what we ought to do are notions about responsibility—

about justifiably blaming people for what they’ve done. Responsibility at the lowest level is physical. The

person who stole the book is responsible because they took it. More abstractly, responsibility attaches to

notions of causing others to do a wrong (enticing someone else to steal a book) and not doing something

that could have prevented a wrong (not acting to dissuade another who’s considering theft is, ultimately, a

way of acting). A mature assignment of responsibility is normally taken to require that the following

considerations hold:

 The person is able to understand right and wrong.

 The person acts to cause—or fails to act to prevent—a wrong.

 The person acts knowing what they’re doing.

 The person acts from their own free will.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Morality is the set of rules defining what ought to be done; ethics is the debate about what the rules

should be; meta-ethics investigates the origin of the entire field.

 Normative ethics concerns what should be done, not what is done.

 Ethics is only one of a number of ways of making decisions.

 Business ethics as an academic study is a recent development in the long history of ethical reflection.

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 With respect to individuals, the development of ethical thought may be studied, as well as notions of

responsibility.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. List two basic questions belonging to the field of morality.

2. List two basic questions belonging to the field of ethics.

3. What is one basic question belonging to the field of meta-ethics?

4. What is an example of normative ethics? And descriptive ethics?

5. Explain the difference between a decision based on ethics and one based on the law.

6. Explain the difference between a decision based on ethics and one based on religion.

7. List two factors explaining the recent development and growth of business ethics as a coherent discipline.

[1] Steven Zaillian (director), A Civil Action (New York: Scott Rudin, 1998), film.

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1.3 Is Business Ethics Necessary?

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Articulate two extreme views of business ethics.

2. Describe the sense in which business ethics is inevitable.

Two Extreme Views of the Business World

At the boundaries of the question about whether business ethics is necessary, there are conflicting and

extreme perceptions of the business world. In graphic terms, these are the views:

 Business needs policing because it’s a dirty enterprise featuring people who get ahead by being selfish

liars.

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 Successful businesses work well to enrich society, and business ethicists are interfering and annoying

scolds threatening to ruin our economic welfare.

A 1987 New York Times article titled “Suddenly, Business Schools Tackle Ethics” begins this way:

“Insider-trading scandals in the last year have badly tarnished the reputations of some of the nation’s

most prominent financial institutions. Nor has Wall Street been the only area engulfed in scandal;

manufacturers of products from contraceptives to military weapons have all come under public scrutiny

recently for questionable—if not actionable—behavior.” [1]

Slimy dealing verging on the illegal, the message is, stains the economic world from one end to the other.

A little further into the article, the author possibly gives away her deepest feelings about business when

she cracks that business ethics is “an oxymoron.”

What will business leaders—and anyone else for that matter—do when confronted with the accusation of

sliminess? Possibly embrace it—an attitude facilitated by an infamous article originally published in

the Harvard Business Review. In “Is Business Bluffing Ethical?” the author suggests businessmen and

women should double down on the strategy of getting ahead through deceit because if you’re in business,

then everyone already knows you’re a liar anyway. And since that’s common knowledge, taking liberties

with the truth doesn’t even count as lying: there’s no moral problem because that’s just the way the

business game is played. In the author’s words, “Falsehood ceases to be falsehood when it is understood

on all sides that the truth is not expected to be spoken—an exact description of bluffing in poker,

diplomacy, and business.” [2]

The basic argument is strong. Ethically, dishonesty stops being reproachable—it stops being an attempt to

mislead—when everyone knows that you’re not telling the truth. If it weren’t for that loophole, it’d be

difficult to enjoy movies. Spiderman swinging through New York City skyscrapers isn’t a lie, it’s just fun

because everyone agrees from the beginning that the truth doesn’t matter on the screen.

The problem with applying this logic to the world of commerce, however, is that the original agreement

isn’t there. It’s not true that in business everyone knows there’s lying and accepts it. In poker, presumably,

the players choosing to sit down at the table have familiarized themselves with the rules and techniques of

the game and, yes, do expect others to fake a good hand from time to time. It’s easy to show, however, that

the expectation doesn’t generally hold in office buildings, stores, showrooms, and sales pitches. Take, for

example, a car advertisement claiming a certain model has a higher resale value, has a lower sticker price,

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or can go from zero to sixty faster than its competition. People in the market for a new car take those

claims seriously. If they’re prudent, they’ll check just to make sure (an economic form of “trust but

verify”), but it’s pretty rare that someone sitting in front of the TV at home chuckles and calls the claim

absurd. In poker, on the other hand, if another player makes a comparable claim (“I have the highest hand

at the table!”), people just laugh and tell the guy to keep drinking. Poker isn’t like business.

The argument that bluffing—lying—in business is acceptable because everyone does it and everyone

knows everyone’s doing it doesn’t hold up. However, the fact that someone could seriously make the

argument (and get it published in the Harvard Business Review no less) certainly provides heavy

ammunition for those who believe that most high-level businesspeople—like those who read the Harvard

Business Review—should have a hard time looking at themselves in the mirror in the morning.

Opposing the view that business life is corrupt and needs serious ethical policing, there’s the view that

economic enterprises provide wealth for our society while correcting their own excesses and problems

internally. How does the correction work? Through the marketplace. The pressures of demanding

consumers force companies into reputable behavior. If a car manufacturer lies about its product, there

may be a brief uptick in sales, but eventually people will figure out what’s going on, spread the word at the

water cooler and on Facebook, and in the end the company’s sales will collapse. Similarly, bosses that

abuse and mistreat subordinates will soon find that no one wants to work for them. Workers who cheat on

expense reports or pocket money from the till will eventually get caught and fired. Of course it must be

admitted that some people sometimes do get away with something, but over the long run, the forces of the

economic world inexorably correct abuses.

If this vision of business reality is correct, then adding another layer of academic ethics onto what’s

already going on in the real world isn’t necessary. More, those who insist on standing outside corporate

offices and factory buildings preaching the need for oversight and remedial classes in morality become

annoying nags. That’s especially true if the critics aren’t directly doing business themselves. If they’re

ensconced in university towers and gloomy libraries, there may even be a suspicion that what really drives

the call to ethics is a burning resentment of all the money Wall Street stars and captains of industry seem

to make, along with their flashy cars, palatial homes, and luxurious vacations.

An issue of the Cato Institute’s Policy Report from 2000 carries an article titled “Business Ethics Gone

Wrong.” It asserts that some proponents of business ethics aren’t only bothersome envious—their

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resentment-fueled scolding actually threatens our collective economic welfare. Business ethics, according

to the author, “is fundamentally antagonistic to capitalist enterprise, viewing both firm and manager as

social parasites in need of a strong reformative hand.”[3]

These reforms—burdensome regulations, prying investigations, and similar ethical interventions—

threaten to gum up the capitalist engine: “If the market economy and its cornerstone, the shareholderoriented

firm, are in no danger of being dealt a decisive blow, they at least risk death by a thousand

cuts.” [4]

There’s a problem with this perspective on the business world. Even if, for the sake of argument, it’s

acknowledged that economic forces effectively police commerce, that doesn’t mean business ethics is

unnecessary or a threat to the market economy. The opposite is the case: the view that the marketplace

solves most problems is an ethics. It’s a form of egoism, a theory to be developed in later chapters but with

values and rules that can be rapidly sketched here. What are most valued from this perspective is our

individual welfare and the freedom to pursue it without guilt or remorse. With that freedom, however,

comes a responsibility to acknowledge that others may be guided by the same rules and therefore we’re all

bound by the responsibility to look out for ourselves and actively protect our own interests since no one

will be doing it for us. This isn’t to confirm that all businesspeople are despicable liars, but it does mean

asserting that the collective force of self-interest produces an ethically respectable reality. Right and

wrong comes to be defined by the combined force of cautious, self-interested producers and consumers.

In the face of this argument defending a free-for-all economic reality where everyone is doing the best

they can for themselves while protecting against others doing the same, objections may be constructed. It

could be argued, for example, that the modern world is too complex for consumers to adequately protect

their own interests all the time. No matter how that issue gets resolved, however, the larger fact remains

that trusting in the marketplace is a reasonable and defensible ethical posture; it’s a commitment to a set

of values and facts and their combination in an argument affirming that the free market works to

effectively resolve its own problems.

Conclusion. It’s not true that doing business equals being deceitful, so it’s false to assert that business

ethics is necessary to cure the ills of commerce. It is true that the business world may be left to control its

own excesses through marketplace pressure, but that doesn’t mean business escapes ethics.

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Business Ethics Is Inevitable

Business ethics is not about scolding, moralizing, or telling people to be nice. Ethics doesn’t have to be

annoying or intrusive. On the other hand, it can’t just be dismissed altogether because ethics in business is

unavoidable. The values guiding our desires and aspirations are there whether they’re revealed or not.

They must be because no one can do anything without first wanting something. If you don’t have a goal,

something you’re trying to achieve or get, then you won’t have anything to do when you get out of bed in

the morning. Getting up in the morning and going, consequently, mean that you’ve already selected

something as desirable, valuable, and worth pursuing. And that’s doing ethics; it’s establishing values.

The only real and durable difference, therefore, between those who understand ethics and those who don’t

is that the former achieve a level of self-understanding about what they want: they’ve compared their

values with other possibilities and molded their actions to their decisions. The latter are doing the same

thing, just without fully realizing it. The question about whether ethics is necessary, finally, becomes a

false one. You can choose to not understand the ethics you’re doing (you can always drop this class), but

you can’t choose to not do ethics.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Views about the ethical nature of the business vary widely.

 Because ethics is the arrangement of values guiding our aspirations and actions, some form of ethics is

unavoidable for anyone acting in the economic world.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. Why might someone believe the business world needs exterior ethical monitoring and correction?

2. What is the argument that the business world can regulate itself, and why is that an ethics?

3. In your own words, why is business ethics unavoidable?

 [1] Sandra Salmans, “Suddenly, Business Schools Tackle Ethics,” New York Times, August 2, 1987, accessed May 11,

2011, http://www.nytimes.com/1987/08/02/education/suddenly-business-schools-tackle-ethics.html.

 [2] Albert Carr, “Is Business Bluffing Ethical?,” Harvard Business Review 46 (January–February, 1968), 143–53.

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[3] Alexei M. Marcoux, “Business Ethics Gone Wrong,” Cato Policy Report 22, no. 3 (May/June 2000), accessed May

11, 2011,http://www.cato.org/pubs/policy_report/v22n3/cpr-22n3.html.

[4] Alexei M. Marcoux, “Business Ethics Gone Wrong,” Cato Policy Report 22, no. 3 (May/June 2000), accessed May

11, 2011,http://www.cato.org/pubs/policy_report/v22n3/cpr-22n3.html.

1.4 Facebook and the Unavoidability of Business Ethics

L EARNING OBJECTIVE

1. Show how business ethics stretches beyond working life.

The Facebook Firing

Business ethics in some form is inescapable inside factories, office buildings, and other places where work

gets done. The application of business ethics principles and guidance doesn’t stop, though, when the

workday ends or outside the company door. Because our economic lives mingle so intimately with our

private existences, the decisions and reasoning shaping our laboring eventually shape our lives generally.

Business ethics, as the problems bedeviling Dawnmarie Souza show, provides a way to examine and make

sense of a large segment of our time, both on and off the job.

Souza’s problems started when the ambulance she worked on picked up a “17.” That’s code for a

psychiatric case. This particular 17, as it happened, wasn’t too crazy to form and submit a complaint about

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the treatment received from Souza. Since this was the second grievance the ambulance service had

received on Souza in only ten days, she sensed that she’d be getting a suspension. “Looks like,” she wrote

on her Facebook page later that day, “I’m getting some time off. Love how the company allows a 17 to be a

supervisor.” She also referred to her real supervisor with some choice four-letter words.

A number of coworkers responded to her post with their own supportive and agreeing comments.

Management responded by firing her.

The termination decision came easily to the ambulance service, American Medical Response of

Connecticut, since their policy explicitly prohibited employees from identifying or discussing the company

or other employees in the uncontrolled public forum that is the Internet. Around the water cooler, at

home, or during weekend parties, people can say what they like. Given the semi-permanent record that is

the web, however, and the ambulance service’s natural inclination to protect its public image, posting

there was out of bounds.

But, Souza responded, there’s no difference. If people can talk at the water cooler and parties, why can’t

they post on Facebook? She’s not claiming to speak for the company, she’s just venting with a keypad

instead of vocal chords.

The celebrity blogger and Facebook addict Perez Hilton came down on the company’s side: “We think

Dawnmarie should be fired, and we support the company’s decision to let her go. When you post things

online, it’s out there for the public to see, and it’s a sign of disloyalty and disrespect to deal with a workrelated

grievance in such a manner.” [1]

The Reach of Business Ethics

When someone like Perez Hilton—a blogger most comfortable deriding celebrities’ bad hair days—finds

himself wrapped in a business ethics debate, you’ve got to figure the discipline is pretty much

unavoidable. Regardless, the Souza episode displays many of the ways business ethics connects with our

nonworking existence, whether we like it or not:

 It doesn’t sound like Souza displayed any great passion about her job. Maybe she really doesn’t care that

she got fired. Or maybe she cares but only because it means a lost paycheck. On the other hand, it may

just have been a bad day; it’s possible that she usually gets up in the morning eager to mount the

ambulance. It’s hard to know, but it’s certain that this—the decision about what we want to do with our

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professional lives—is business ethics. When choosing a job, what has value? The money it provides?

Satisfaction from helping others? Status? Or do you just want something that gives you the most free time

possible? There are no rights or wrong answers, but these are all ethical decisions tangling your personal

and professional lives together.

 The mix between the personal and professional on the question of one’s job tends to link tighter as people

get older. Many of us define who we and others are through work. When finding out about someone new,

the question—embraced by some and dreaded by others—inevitably comes up. When meeting a woman at

a party, when being sent on a blind date, or when discussing old high school friends or the guy who just

moved into the next-door apartment, the question hums just below the surface, and it’s never long until

someone comes out and asks. Of course, for collegians and young people working part-time jobs, it

doesn’t matter so much because everyone knows that where you work isn’t where you’ll end up working.

Once someone hits the mid-twenties, though, the question “what do you do?” starts to press and it won’t

let up.

 Perez Hilton wrote that Souza displayed disloyalty to her company when she trashed the management on

Facebook. The following questions are raised: What is loyalty? What is it worth? When should you feel it?

When do you have a right to demand it from others? Is there any difference among loyalty to the

company, to family, and to friends?

 One of Hilton’s readers posted a pithy response to Hilton in the web page’s comments section: “I bet if she

were gay, and did the same exact thing, you would be singing a different tune!” Perez Hilton, it’s widely

known, is about as exuberantly gay as they come. As it happens, in his line of work that orientation isn’t

professionally harmful. For others, however, the revelation may be career damaging. Hilton, in fact, is

despised by some in Hollywood for his habit of outing gay celebrities, people who hide part of themselves

in the name of furthering their career. The business ethics question here is also a life one. Would you hide

who you are to facilitate things at work? Should you? Doesn’t everyone do that to some extent and in some

ways?

 Another reader posted this comment: “In the US, your employer owns you. I mean they can make you piss

in a cup to check and see what you did over the weekend.” Should employers be able to change what you

do over the weekend?

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 A number of readers defended Souza by upholding the right to free speech—she should be able to say

whatever she wants wherever she wants without fear of retribution. In response to those assertions, this

was posted, “Of course we have freedom of speech. Employers also have the freedom to employ whoever

they wish. Your decision is whether whatever is on your mind is more important than your job.” Does

freedom of speech—or any other basic liberty—end or get conditioned when the workday begins?

 One commenter wrote, “I’m going to have to agree with the company on this one. An employer expects

proper business demeanor even while off the clock.” What is “proper demeanor”? Who decides? On the

basis of what?

 Many people spend eight (or more) hours a day on the job. There’s no shortage of women who see their

boss more than their husband, of men who remember the birthday of the guy in the next cubicle before

their own child’s. Parties tend to include workmates; companies invite clients to ball games. The sheer

hours spent at work, along with the large overlaps between professional and social relationships, make

separating the ethics of the office and the home nearly impossible.

 This comment is aimed right at Perez Hilton and his Internet gossip column, which wins few points for

checking and confirming claims but definitely gets the juicy and embarrassing rumors out about the

private lives of celebrities: “Are you insane? All you did for God knows how long is put nasty stuff up

about people for the public to see as a sign of disloyalty and disrespect.” Assuming that’s a reasonable

depiction of Hilton’s work, the question his career raises is: what are you willing to do to the lives of

others to get yourself ahead at work?

Underlining all these questions is a distinction that’s easy to make in theory but difficult to maintain in

real life. It’s one betweeninstitutional business ethics and personal business ethics. Institutional ethics in

business deals with large questions in generic and anonymous terms. The rules and discussions apply to

most organizations and to individuals who could be anyone. Should companies be allowed to pollute the

air? What counts as a firing offense? The personal level, by contrast, fills with questions for specific people

enmeshed in the details of their particular lives. If Perez Hilton has gotten rich dishing dirt on others, is

he allowed to assert that others must treat their employers respectfully?

 

 

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KEY TAKEAWAY

 The questions pursued by business ethics cross back and forth between professional and personal lives.

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REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. What are two reasons business ethics decisions tend to affect lives outside work?

2. What are two ways business ethics decisions may affect lives outside work?

[1] “Facebook-Related Firing Sparks Legal Drama!,” PerezHilton.com (blog), accessed May 11,

2011, http://perezhilton.com/2010-11-09-woman-fired-over-comments- she-made-about-her-boss-on-facebookbrings-

about-court-case#respond.

1.5 Overview of The Business Ethics Workshop

This textbook is organized into three clusters of chapters. The first group develops and explains the main

theories guiding thought in business ethics. The goals are to clarify the theoretical tools that may be used

to make decisions and to display how arguments can be built in favor of one stance and against others.

The questions driving the chapters include the following:

 Are there fundamental rules for action that directly tell us what we ought to do? If so, are the imperatives

very specific, including dictates like “don’t lie”? Or are they more flexible, more like rules broadly

requiring fairness and beneficence to others?

 Are fundamental rights—especially the conviction that we’re all free to pursue the destinies we choose—

the key to thinking about ethics? If we have these rights, what happens when my free pursuit of happiness

conflicts with yours?

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 Could it be that what we do doesn’t matter so much as the effects of what’s done? How can a framework

for decisions be constructed around the idea that we ought to undertake whatever action is necessary

(even lying or stealing) in order to bring about a positive end, something like the greater happiness of

society overall?

 To what extent are perspectives on right and wrong only expressions of the particular culture we live in?

Does it makes sense to say that certain acts—say bribery—are OK in some countries but wrong in others?

The second cluster of chapters investigates business ethics on the level of the individual. The goal is to

show how the tools of ethical reasoning may be applied to personal decisions made in connection with our

nine-to-five lives. The questions driving the chapters include the following:

 What values come into play when a career path is selected?

 Can I justify lying on my résumé? How far am I willing to go to get a raise or promotion?

 Besides a paycheck, what benefits will I seek at work? Money from a kickback? An office romance?

 What do I owe my employer? Is there loyalty in business, or is there nothing more than the money I’m

paid and the duties I’m assigned according to my work contract?

 Do I have an obligation to report on someone else doing something I think is wrong?

 If people work for me, what responsibilities do I have toward them inside and outside the office?

 What values govern the way I hire, promote, and fire workers?

The third cluster of chapters considers institutional business ethics. These are general and sweeping

issues typically involving corporations, the work environments they promote, and the actions they take in

the economic world. Guiding questions include the following:

 What counts as condemnable discrimination in the workplace, and what remedies ought to be tried?

 Which attitudes, requirements, and restrictions should attach to sex and drugs in the workplace?

 Should there be limits to marketing techniques and strategies? Is there anything wrong with creating

consumer needs? What relationships should corporations form with their consumers?

 Do corporations hold ethical responsibilities to the larger community in which they operate, to the people

who aren’t employees or consumers but live nearby?

 Is there a corporate responsibility to defend the planet’s environmental health?

 Should the economic world be structured to produce individually successful stars or to protect the welfare

of laboring collectives?

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1.6 Case Studies

Gray Matters

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Source: Photo courtesy of Sasha Wolff, http://www.flickr.com/photos/sashawolff/3388815964.

To foster ethical discussion and understanding in the workplace, the Lockheed Martin Company

developed a quiz for employees called “Gray Matters.” The quiz is multiple choices, with a range of points

awarded (or subtracted) depending on the response. Subsequently, the approach has been adopted by a

wide range of corporations. Here’s a typical question matched with its possible answers and the

corresponding points:

Six months after you hired an assistant accountant who has been working competently and

responsibly, you learn that she departed from the truth on her employment application: she

claimed she had a college degree when she didn’t. You’re her manager; what should you do?

1. Nothing because she’s doing her job just fine. (–10 points)

2. Bring the issue to the human resources department to determine exactly how company policy

determines the situation should be handled. (10 points)

3. Fire her for lying. (5 points)

4. Carefully weigh her work performance, her length of service, and her potential benefit to the

company before informing anyone of what happened or making any recommendations. (0

points)

QUE STIONS

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1. The three principle components of business ethics are facts, values, and arguments. What are the facts

pertinent to an ethical evaluation of this case? Is there any information not contained in the question that

you’d like to have before making a decision about what should be done?

2. From the facts and information provided, can you sketch a set of values and chain of reasoning justifying

the answer that the quiz’s original authors sanctioned as the right one? (Leave the decision in the hands of

the HR department and existing company policy.)

3. You get some points for C (firing her). What values and reasoning may lead to that determination?

4. According to the quiz authors, the worst answer is A. Maybe they’re wrong, though. What values and

reasoning may lead to the conclusion that doing “nothing because she’s doing her job just fine” is an

excellent response?

5. One of the most important questions about a situation’s facts is “who’s involved?”

o Would it be reasonable to say that, ethically, this is an issue just between you and the woman who

you hired after she lied on her résumé?

o If you expand the answer about who’s involved to include other workmates at the company, as

well as the company’s clients and shareholders, does that change the ethical perspective you have

on what should be done with the lying (but capable) coworker?

6. What’s the difference between morality and ethics?

o Would you categorize response B (bring the issue to HR to determine exactly how company policy

determines the situation should be handled) as leading to a decision more based on morality or

more based on ethics? Explain.

o Would you categorize response D (carefully weigh her work performance, her length of service,

and her potential benefit to the company before informing anyone of what happened or making

any recommendations) as leading to a decision more based on morality or ethics? Explain.

Who made your iPhone?

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Source: Photo courtesy of Tobias Myrstrand Leander, http://www.flickr.com/photos/s8an/5207806926/.

Connie Guglielmo, a reporter for Bloomberg news services, begins an article on Apple this way: “Apple

Inc. said three of its suppliers hired 11 underage workers to help build the iPhone, iPod and Macintosh

computer last year, a violation it uncovered as part of its onsite audit of 102 factories.” [1]

Her story adds details. The underage workers were fifteen in places where the minimum legal age for

employment is sixteen. She wasn’t able to discover the specific countries, but learned the infractions

occurred in one or more of the following: China, Taiwan, Thailand, Malaysia, Singapore, South Korea, the

Czech Republic, and the Philippines.

Following the discovery, the employees were released, and disciplinary action was taken against a number

of the foreign suppliers. In one case, Apple stopped contracting with the company entirely.

The story closes with this: “Apple raised $2.62 to $204.62 yesterday in Nasdaq Stock Market trading. The

shares more than doubled last year.”

QUE STIONS

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1. The ethical question is whether Apple ought to contract (through suppliers) fifteen-year-olds to work on

factory floors. Is the fact that the stock price has been zooming up a pertinent fact, or does it not affect

the ethics? Explain.

2. From the information given and reasonable assumptions about these factories and the living conditions of

people working inside them, sketch an ethical argument against Apple enforcing the age workplace rule.

What fundamental values underwrite the argument?

3. From the information given and reasonable assumptions about these factories and the living conditions of

people working inside them, sketch an argument in favor of Apple enforcing the age workplace rule. What

fundamental values underwrite the argument?

4. Within the context of the Apple situation, what’s the difference between making a decision in terms of the

law and in terms of ethics?

5. Assume that in the countries where fifteen-year-olds were working, it’s customary for children

even younger to earn an adult-type living.

o What is an advantage of following the local customs when making economic decisions like the one

confronting Apple?

o Does the custom of employing young workers in some countries change your ethical consideration

of the practice in those places? Why or why not?

6. Attributing responsibility—blaming another for doing wrong—requires that the following

conditions hold:

o The person is able to understand right and wrong.

o The person acts to cause (or fails to act to prevent) a wrong.

o The person acts knowing what they’re doing.

o The person acts from their own free will.

Assuming it’s unethical for fifteen-year-olds to work factory shifts making iPhones, who bears

responsibility for the wrong?

o Do the fifteen-year-olds bear some responsibility? Explain.

o Does Steve Jobs, the CEO of Apple? Explain.

o Are shareholders guilty? Explain.

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o Do people who use iPhones bear responsibility? Explain.

I Swear

Since 2006, students at the Columbia Business School have been required to pledge “I adhere to the

principles of truth, integrity, and respect. I will not lie, cheat, steal, or tolerate those who do.”

This is a substantial promise, but it doesn’t sound like it’ll create too many tremendous burdens or require

huge sacrifices.

A somewhat more demanding pledge solidified in 2010 when a group of business school students from

Columbia, Duke Fuqua, Harvard, MIT Sloan, NYU Stern, Rensselaer Lally, Thunderbird, UNC Kenan-

Flagler, and Yale met to formalize the following MBA Oath:

As a business leader I recognize my role in society.

 My purpose is to lead people and manage resources to create value that no single individual can

create alone.

 My decisions affect the well-being of individuals inside and outside my enterprise, today and

tomorrow.

Therefore, I promise that:

 I will manage my enterprise with loyalty and care, and will not advance my personal interests at

the expense of my enterprise or society.

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 I will understand and uphold, in letter and spirit, the laws and contracts governing my conduct

and that of my enterprise.

 I will refrain from corruption, unfair competition, or business practices harmful to society.

 I will protect the human rights and dignity of all people affected by my enterprise, and I will

oppose discrimination and exploitation.

 I will protect the right of future generations to advance their standard of living and enjoy a

healthy planet.

 I will report the performance and risks of my enterprise accurately and honestly.

 I will invest in developing myself and others, helping the management profession continue to

advance and create sustainable and inclusive prosperity.

In exercising my professional duties according to these principles, I recognize that my behavior

must set an example of integrity, eliciting trust and esteem from those I serve. I will remain

accountable to my peers and to society for my actions and for upholding these standards. [2]

QUE STIONS

1. The second introductory clause of the MBA Oath is “My decisions affect the well-being of individuals inside

and outside my enterprise, today and tomorrow.” [3] What’s the difference between seeing this as a

positive ethical stand in favor of a broad social responsibility held by those in business, and seeing it as

arrogance?

2. Looking at the MBA Oath, can you list a set of values that are probably shared by those responsible for its

creation?

3. All this pledging and oathing suddenly popping up at business schools drew the attention of

the New York Times, and soon after, an article appeared: “A Promise to Be Ethical in an Era of

Immorality.”[4] Many of the readers’ comments at the end are interesting. The commenter paulnyc

writes that “most students go to MBA programs to advance their careers and to earn more

money, pure and simple, and there is nothing wrong with it.” [5]

o What values underlie paulnyc’s perspective?

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o How is paulnyc’s vision different from the one espoused in the oath?

4. The commenter JerryNY wrote, “Greed IS good as long as it is paired with the spirit of fairness.

Virtually all of the major advances in science and technology were made with greed as one of the

motivating factors. Gugliemo [sic] Marconi, Alexander Graham Bell, Bill Gates, Henry Ford and

Steve Jobs would not have given us the life changing technological advances of our time were it

not for personal greed. Remove that element, and your class is destined for mediocrity.” [6]

Is it plausible to assert that JerryNY shares most of the values of those who wrote the MBA Oath,

it’s just that he sees a different business attitude as the best way to serve those values? If so,

explain. If not, why not?

5. Eric writes,

I would refuse to take that oath…on principle. The idea that an individual’s proper motive

should be to serve “the greater good” is highly questionable. This altruistic ethic is what

supported the collectivist of communism and National Socialism. If my life belongs first and

foremost to “the greater good,” it follows that the greatest virtue is to live as a slave. A

slave’s existence, after all, is devoted primarily for the benefit of his master. The master can

be a plantation owner or a King or an oligarchy or a society that demands your servitude.

The only oath I’d be willing to take is, “I swear, by my life and my love of it, that I will never

live for the sake of another man, nor ask another man to live for mine.” [7]

In your own words, contrast the values the MBA Oath supporters espouse with the values the

commenter Eric espouses.

6. The commenter Clyde Wynant is skeptical. He writes this about those who take the MBA Oath:

“Call me hyper-cynical, but I can’t help wondering if a lot of these kids aren’t hoping that having

this ‘pledge’ on their résumé might help them look good.” [8]

Is it unethical to take the pledge without expecting to adhere to it simply because you think it will

help in your job search, or is that strategy just a different kind of ethics? Explain.

7. The commenter Mikhail is skeptical. He writes, “Give me a break…With the next upswing of the

economy, these leeches will be sucking the lifeblood out of our collective economies like the

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champions they truly are!!! Yes, perhaps opportunistic parasites every last one of them—but

really, it’s not their fault—they’re just programmed that way.” [9]

When he says business school students are programmed, what does he mean? If someone is

programmed to be an opportunistic parasite in business, can we blame them for what they do? If

so, how? If not, who should be blamed?

8. The commenter as is skeptical. He writes, “Don’t make me laugh. If they are so concerned about

the ‘greater good,’ go into teaching and nursing.” [10]

Assume the MBA Oath does stress the importance of the greater good, and you too are going into

the economic world with that as a privileged value. How could you respond to the argument that

you really should be doing nursing or something more obviously serving the general good?

9. According to the Times, B-schoolers aren’t lining up for the MBA Oath: only about 20 percent take the

pledge. How could you convince the other 80 percent to sign on?

I.M.P. (It’s My Party)

“Look at them!” he said, his eyes dancing. “That’s what it’s all about, the way the people feel. It’s

not about the sellout performances and the caliber of the bands that appear here. It’s about the

people who buy tickets, having a good time.” [11]

Source: Photo courtesy of Kevin Dooley, http://www.flickr.com/photos/pagedooley/4530723795/.

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That’s Seth Hurwitz quoted in the Washington Post, talking about his 9:30 Club, a small venue playing

over-the-hill bands on the way down, and fresh acts scratching their way up.

The story’s curious detail is that even though Hurwitz calls his company I.M.P. (It’s My Party), he doesn’t

spend much time at his club. In fact, he’s almost never there. Part of the reason is that his workday begins

at 6 a.m., so he’s actually back in bed preparing for the next day before his enterprise gets going in earnest

each night. His job is straightforward: sitting in the second floor office of his suburban DC home, he

scrutinizes the music publications and statistics, probing for bands that people want to see and that won’t

charge too much to appear. He told the Post that he won’t book an act as a favor, and he won’t flatter a

group into playing his club to keep them away from the competition by overpaying them. “I don’t

subscribe,” he says, “to doing shows that will lose money.”

Hurwitz has been connected with music in one way or another for almost as long as he can remember.

The Post relates some of his early memories:

He rigged a system to broadcast radio from his basement to his parents and brothers in the living

room. “I used to bring my singles into class and play them,” Hurwitz said. When he was 16, he

decided he wanted to be a deejay and got his chance when alternative rock station WHFS gave

him a spot. “It was from 7:45 to 8—fifteen minutes,” he said, laughing. “But that was okay

because I wanted to be on the radio, and I had my own show, as a high school student.” He said

he was fired “for being too progressive.” [12]

It’s a long way from getting fired for playing music too obscure for alternative radio to where Hurwitz is

now: putting on concerts by bands selected because they’ll make money.

QUE STIONS

1. Hurwitz is brutally honest about the fact that he’ll only contract bands capable of turning a profit.

When he was younger and a deejay, he insisted on playing the music he judged best no matter

how many people turned off the radio when his show came on (an attitude that cost him the job).

o What, if anything, is Hurwitz the older concert promoter compromising to get ahead? Is there an

ethical objection that could be raised here? If so, what? If not, why not?

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o When Hurwitz was a deejay, he played records that led people to change the station. Then the

station changed him. Is this an example of business regulating itself? Is there an ethical side to

this, or is it just the way money works? Explain.

o From the information given, would you judge that Hurwitz is successful in business? Why or why

not?

o Are all these questions part of institutional business ethics or personal business ethics? Explain.

2. Hurwitz says that he doesn’t book bands as favors. Presumably at least some of the favors he’s

talking about would be to friends.

o Do people who run their own company have an ethical responsibility to separate friends from

business?

3. One nice thing about Hurwitz working upstairs in his own house is that he can show up for work in the

morning in his pajamas. Should all places of business be like that—with people free to wear whatever they

want for work? Explain your answer from an ethical perspective.

4. Most of Hurwitz’s shows are on weeknights. Some concertgoers may have such a good time that

they can’t make it in to work the next day.

o If you go to a concert on a Wednesday and are too hung over to make it to work on Thursday,

what should you tell your boss on Friday? That you were hung over? That your car broke down?

Something else? Justify.

o Should Hurwitz accept some responsibility and blame for absent employees? Explain.

[1] Connie Guglielmo, “Apple Says Children Were Used to Build iPhone, iPod (Update1),” Bloomberg,

February 27, 2010, accessed May 11, 2011,

http://www.bloomberg.com/apps/news?pid=newsarchive&sid=aiEeeQNHkrOY.

[2] “The MBA Oath,” MBA Oath, accessed May 11, 2011, http://mbaoath.org/about/the-mba-oath.

[3] “The MBA Oath,” MBA Oath, accessed May 11, 2011, http://mbaoath.org/about/the-mba-oath.

[4] Leslie Wayne, “A Promise to Be Ethical in an Era of Immorality,” New York Times, May 29, 2009,

accessed May 11, 2011, http://www.nytimes.com/2009/05/30/business/30oath.html.

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[5] paulnyc, May 30, 2009 (10:58 a.m.), comment on Leslie Wayne, “A Promise to Be Ethical in an Era of

Immorality,” New York Times, May 29, 2009, accessed May 11, 2011,

http://community.nytimes.com/comments/www.nytimes.com/2009/05/30/business/30oath.html?sort

=oldest.

[6] JerryNY, May 30, 2009 (10:51 a.m.), comment on Leslie Wayne, “A Promise to Be Ethical in an Era of

Immorality,” New York Times, May 29, 2009, accessed May 11, 2011,

http://community.nytimes.com/comments/www.nytimes.com/2009/05/30/business/30oath.html?sort

=oldest.

[7] Eric, May 30, 2009 (10:35 a.m.), comment on Leslie Wayne, “A Promise to Be Ethical in an Era of

Immorality,” New York Times, May 29, 2009, accessed May 11, 2011,

http://community.nytimes.com/comments/www.nytimes.com/2009/05/30/business/30oath.html?sort

=oldest.

[8] Clyde Wynant, May 30, 2009 (10:55 a.m.), comment on Leslie Wayne, “A Promise to Be Ethical in an

Era of Immorality,” New York Times, May 29, 2009, accessed May 11, 2011,

http://community.nytimes.com/comments/www.nytimes.com/2009/05/30/business/30oath.html?sort

=oldest.

[9] Mikhail, May 30, 2009 (10:35 a.m.), comment on Leslie Wayne, “A Promise to Be Ethical in an Era of

Immorality,” New York Times, May 29, 2009, accessed May 11, 2011,

http://community.nytimes.com/comments/www.nytimes.com/2009/05/30/business/30oath.html?sort

=oldest.

[10] as, May 30, 2009 (10:35 a.m.), comment on Leslie Wayne, “A Promise to Be Ethical in an Era of

Immorality,” New York Times, May 29, 2009, accessed May 11, 2011,

http://community.nytimes.com/comments/www.nytimes.com/2009/05/30/business/30oath.html?sort

=oldest.

[11] Avis Thomas-Lester, “A Club Owner’s Mojo,” Washington Post, December 28, 2009, accessed May

11, 2011, http://views.washingtonpost.com/on-success/what-it-takes/2009/12/seth_hurwitz.html.

[12] Avis Thomas-Lester, “A Club Owner’s Mojo,” Washington Post, December 28, 2009, accessed May

11, 2011, http://views.washingtonpost.com/on-success/what-it-takes/2009/12/seth_hurwitz.html.

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Chapter 2

Theories of Duties and Rights: Traditional Tools for

Making Decisions in Business When the Means Justify

the Ends

Chapter Overview

Chapter 2 “Theories of Duties and Rights: Traditional Tools for Making Decisions in Business When the

Means Justify the Ends” examines some theories guiding ethical decisions in business. It considers ethics

defined by duties and rights.

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2.1 The Means Justify the Ends versus the Ends Justify the

Means

L EARNING OBJECTIVE

1. Distinguish ethical theory centered on means from theory centered on ends.

A Foundational Question

In business ethics, do the means justify the ends, or do the ends justify the means? Is it better to have a set

of rules telling you what you ought to do in any particular situation and then let the chips fall where they

may, or should you worry more about how things are going to end up and do whatever’s necessary to

reach that goal?

Until recently, Eddy Lepp ran an organic medicine business in Northern California. His herbal product

soothed nausea and remedied vomiting, especially as suffered by chemo patients. He had a problem,

though. While his business had been OK’d by California regulators, federal agencies hadn’t approved: on

the national level, selling his drug was breaking the law. On the other hand, not selling his remedy had a

significant downside: it was consigning his clients to debilitating suffering. So when federal agents came

knocking on his door, he had to make a decision.

If the means justify the ends—if you should follow the rules no matter the consequences—then when the

agents ask Lepp point blank whether he’s selling the medicine, the ethical action is to admit it. He should

tell the truth even though that will mean the end of his business. On the other hand, if the ends justify the

means—if your ethical interest focuses on the consequences of an act instead of what you actually do—

then the ethics change. If there are a law forcing people to suffer unnecessarily, it should be broken. And

when the agents ask him whether he’s selling, he’s going to have an ethical reason to lie.

Across the entire field of traditional ethics, this is a foundational distinction. Is it what you do that

matters, or the consequences? It’s hard to get oriented in ethics without making a preliminary decision

between these two. No one can make the decision for you, but before anyone can make it, an

understanding of how each works should be reached. This chapter will consider ethics as focusing on the

specific act and not the consequences. Theories of duties and rights center discussion.

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Chapter 3 “Theories of Consequence Ethics: Traditional Tools for Making Decisions in Business when the

Ends Justify the Means” is about ethics as looking at the consequences instead of the act.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 When the means justify the ends, ethical consideration focuses on what you do, not the consequences of

what you’ve done.

 Traditionally, focusing on means instead of ends leads to an ethics based on duties or rights.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. Your mother is ill with diabetes, and you can’t afford her medicine. In the pharmacy one day, you notice

the previous customer forgot that same prescription on the counter when she left. Why might the premise

that the ends justify the means lead you to steal the pills?

2. Why might the premise that the means justify the ends lead you to return the pills?

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2.2 Perennial Duties

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Define an ethical duty.

2. Distinguish specific duties.

3. Show how ethical duties work in business.

4. Consider advantages and drawbacks of an ethics based on duties.

Duties

“Should I steal that?”

“No, stealing’s wrong.”

Basic ethics. There are things that are right and others that are wrong, and the discussion ends. This level

of clarity and solidity is the main strength of an ethics based on duties. We all have a duty not to steal, so

we shouldn’t do it. More broadly, when we’re making moral decisions, the key to deciding well is

understanding what our duties are and obeying them. An ethics based on duties is one where certain rules

tell us what we ought to do, and it’s our responsibility to know and follow those rules.

The Madoff Family

If we’re supposed to obey our duties, then what exactly are they? That’s a question Andrew Madoff faced

in December 2008 when he learned that some—maybe most, maybe all—of the money he and his family

had been donating to the charitable Lymphoma Research Foundation and similar medical investigation

enterprises was, in fact, stolen.

It was big money—in the millions—channeled to dedicated researchers hot on the trail of a remedy for

lymphoma, a deadly cancer. Andrew, it should be noted, wasn’t only a cancer altruist; he was also a

victim, and the charitable money started flowing to the researchers soon after he was diagnosed.

It’s unclear whether Andrew knew the money was stolen, but there’s no doubt that his dad did. Dad—

Bernard “Bernie” Madoff—was the one who took it. The largest Ponzi scheme in history, they call it.

A Ponzi scheme—named after the famous perpetrator Charles Ponzi—makes suckers of investors by

briefly delivering artificially high returns on their money. The idea is simple: You take $100 from client A,

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promising to invest the money cleverly and get a massive profit. You spend $50 on yourself, and at the

end of the year, you send the other $50 back to the client along with a note saying that the original $100

investment is getting excellent results and another $50 should come in next year and every year from then

on. Happy client A recommends friends, who become clients B, C, and D. They bring in a total of $300, so

it’s easy to make good on the original promise to send a $50 return the next year to client A. And you’ve

now got $250 remaining from these three new clients, $150 of which you will soon return to them ($50

for each of the three new clients), leaving you with $100 to spend on yourself. The process repeats, and it’s

not long before people are lining up to hand over their money. Everyone makes off like bandits.

Bandit is the right term for Madoff, who ran his Ponzi empire for around fifteen years. So many people

handed over so much cash, and the paper trail of fake stock-purchase receipts and the rest grew so

complicated that it’s impossible to determine exact numbers of victims and losses. Federal authorities

have estimated the victims were around five thousand and the losses around $65 billion, which works out

to about $13 million squeezed from each client.

Madoff had, obviously, rich clients. He met them at his home in New York City; at his mansion

in hyperwealthy

Palm Beach, Florida; or on his fifty-five-foot yacht cleverly named Bull. He impressed them with a

calm demeanor and serious knowledge. While it’s true that he was mostly taking clients’ money and

sticking it in his wallet, the investments he claimed to engineer were actually quite sophisticated; they had

to do with buying stock in tandem with options to buy and sell that same stock on the futures market. He

threw in technical words like “put” and “call” and left everyone thinking he was either crazy or a genius.

Since he was apparently making money, “genius” seemed the more likely reality. People also found him

trustworthy. He sat on the boards of several Wall Street professional organizations and was known on the

charity circuit as a generous benefactor. Health research was a favorite, especially after Andrew’s cancer

was diagnosed.

Exactly how much money Madoff channeled to Andrew and other family members isn’t clear. By late

2008, however, Andrew knew that his father’s investment company had hit a rough patch. The stock

market was crashing, investors wanted their money back, and Madoff was having trouble rounding up the

cash, which explains why Andrew was surprised when his father called him in and said he’d decided to

distribute about $200 million in bonuses to family members and employees.

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It didn’t make sense. How could there be a cash-flow crisis but still enough cash to pay out giant bonuses?

The blunt question—according to the Madoff family—broke Madoff down. He spilled the truth: there was

little money left; it was all a giant lie.

The next day, Andrew reported the situation to the authorities.

Madoff sits in jail now. He’ll be there for the rest of his life. He claims his scheme was his project alone

and his children had no knowledge or participation in it, despite the fact that they were high executives in

his fraudulent company. Stubbornly, he has refused to cooperate with prosecutors interested in

determining the extent to which the children may have been involved. His estate has been seized. His

wife, though, was left with a small sum—$2.5 million—to meet her day-to-day living expenses. Bilked

investors got nearly nothing.

One of those investors, according to ABC News, was Sheryl Weinstein. She and her family are now looking

for a place to live because after investing everything with Madoff and losing it, they were unable to make

their house payments. At Madoff’s sentencing hearing, and with her husband seated beside her, she spoke

passionately about their plight and called Madoff a “beast.” The hearing concluded with the judge calling

Madoff “evil.” [1]

Weinstein was well remembered by Madoff’s longtime secretary, Eleanor Squillari. Squillari reported that

Weinstein would often call Madoff and that “he would roll his eyes and then they’d go meet at a hotel.”

Their affair lasted twenty years, right up until the finance empire collapsed.

What Do I Owe Myself? Historically Accumulated Duties to the Self

Over centuries of thought and investigation by philosophers, clergy, politicians, entrepreneurs, parents,

students—by just about everyone who cares about how we live together in a shared world—a limited

number of duties have recurred persistently. Called perennial duties, these are basic obligations we have

as human beings; they’re the fundamental rules telling us how we should act. If we embrace them, we can

be confident that in difficult situations we’ll make morally respectable decisions.

Broadly, this group of perennial duties falls into two sorts:

1. Duties to ourselves

2. Duties to others

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Duties to the self-begin with our responsibility to develop our abilities and talents. The abilities we find

within us, the idea is, aren’t just gifts; it’s not only a strike of luck that some of us are born with a knack

for math, or an ear for music, or the ability to shepherd conflicts between people into agreements. All

these skills are also responsibilities. When we receive them, they come with the duty to develop them, to

not let them go to waste in front of the TV or on a pointless job.

Most of us have a feeling for this. It’s one thing if a vaguely clumsy girl in a ballet class decides to not sign

up the next semester and instead use the time trying to boost her GPA, but if someone who’s really good—

who’s strong, and elegant, and a natural—decides to just walk away, of course the coach and friends are

going to encourage her to think about it again. She has something that so few have, it’s a shame to waste

it; it’s a kind of betrayal of her own uniqueness. This is the spot where the ethics come in: the idea is that

she really should continue her development; it’s a responsibility she has to herself because she really can

develop.

What about Andrew Madoff, the cancer sufferer? He not only donated money to cancer research charities

but also dedicated his time, serving as chairman of the Lymphoma Research Foundation (until his dad

was arrested). This dedication does seem like a duty because of his unique situation: as a sufferer, he

perfectly understood the misery caused by the disease, and as a wealthy person, he could muster a serious

force against the suffering. When he did, he fulfilled the duty to exploit his particular abilities.

The other significant duty to oneself is nearly a corollary of the first: the duty to do ourselves no harm. At

root, this means we have a responsibility to maintain ourselves healthily in the world. It doesn’t do any

good to dedicate hours training the body to dance beautifully if the rest of the hours are dedicated to

alcoholism and Xanax. Similarly, Andrew should not only fight cancer publicly by advocating for medical

research but also fight privately by adhering to his treatment regime.

At the extreme, this duty also prohibits suicide, a possibility that no doubt crosses Bernie Madoff’s mind

from time to time as he contemplates spending the rest of his life in a jail cell.

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What Do I Owe Others? Historically Accumulated Duties to Others

The duties we have to ourselves be the most immediate, but the most commonly referenced duties are

those we have to others.

Avoid wronging others are the guiding duty to those around us. It’s difficult, however, to know exactly

what it means to wrong another in every particular case. It does seem clear that Madoff wronged his

clients when he pocketed their money. The case of his wife is blurrier, though. She was allowed to keep

more than $2 million after her husband’s sentencing. She claims she has a right to it because she never

knew what her husband was doing, and anyway, at least that much money came to her from other

perfectly legal investment initiatives her husband undertook. So she can make a case that the money is

hers to keep and she’s not wronging anyone by holding onto it. Still, it’s hard not to wonder about

investors here, especially ones like Sheryl Weinstein, who lost everything, including their homes.

Honesty is the duty to tell the truth and not leave anything important out. On this front, obviously, Madoff

wronged his investors by misleading them about what was happening with their money.

Respect others are the duty to treat others as equals in human terms. This doesn’t mean treating everyone

the same way. When a four-year-old asks where babies come from, the stork is a fine answer. When adult

investors asked Madoff where the profits came from, what they got was more or less a fairy tale. Now, the

first case is an example of respect: it demonstrates an understanding of another’s capacity to comprehend

the world and an attempt to provide an explanation matching that ability. The second is a lie; but more

than that, it’s a sting of disrespect. When Madoff invented stories about where the money came from, he

disdained his investors as beneath him, treating them as unworthy of the truth.

Beneficence is the duty to promote the welfare of others; it’s the Good Samaritan side of ethical duties.

With respect to his own family members, Madoff certainly fulfilled this obligation: every one of them

received constant and lavish amounts of cash. There’s also beneficence in Andrew’s work for charitable

causes, even if there’s a self-serving element, too. By contrast, Madoff displayed little beneficence for his

clients.

Gratitude is the duty to thank and remember those who help us. One of the curious parts of Madoff’s last

chapter is that in the end, at the sentencing hearing, a parade of witnesses stood up to berate him. But

even though Madoff had donated millions of dollars to charities over the years, not a single person or

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representative of a charitable organization stood up to say something on his behalf. That’s ingratitude, no

doubt.

But there’s more here than ingratitude; there’s also an important point about all ethics guided by basic

duties: the duties don’t exist alone. They’re all part of a single fabric, and sometimes they pull against each

other. In this case, the duty Madoff’s beneficiaries probably felt to a man who’d given them so much was

overwhelmed by the demand of another duty: the duty to respect others, specifically those who lost

everything to Madoff. It’s difficult to imagine a way to treat people more disdainfully than to thank the

criminal who stole their money for being so generous. Those who received charitable contributions from

Madoff were tugged in one direction by gratitude to him and in another by respect for his many victims.

All the receivers opted, finally, to respect the victims.

Fidelity is the duty to keep our promises and hold up our end of agreements. The Madoff case is littered

with abuses on this front. On the professional side, there’s the financier who didn’t invest his clients’

money as he’d promised; on the personal side, there’s Madoff and Weinstein staining their wedding vows.

From one end to the other in terms of fidelity, this is an ugly case.

Reparation is the duty to compensate others when we harm them. Madoff’s wife, Ruth, obviously didn’t

feel much of this. She walked away with $2.5 million.

The judge overseeing the case, on the other hand, filled in some of what Ruth lacked. To pay back bilked

investors, the court seized her jewelry, her art, and her mink and sable coats. Those things, along with the

couple’s three multimillion-dollar homes, the limousines, and the yacht, were all sold at public auction.

The Concept of Fairness

The final duty to be considered—fairness—requires more development than those already listed because

of its complexity.

According to Aristotle, fairness is treating equals equally and un-equals unequally. The treat equals

equally part means, for a professional investor like Madoff, that all his clients get the same deal: those

who invest equal amounts of money at about the same time should get an equal return. So even though

Madoff was sleeping with one of his investors, this shouldn’t allow him to treat her account distinctly from

the ones belonging to the rest. Impartiality must govern the operation.

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The other side of fairness is the requirement to treat un-equals unequally. Where there’s a meaningful

difference between investors—which means a difference pertaining to the investment and not something

extraneous like a romantic involvement—there should correspond a proportional difference in what

investors receive. Under this clause, Madoff could find justification for allowing two distinct rates of

return for his clients. Those that put up money at the beginning when everything seemed riskier could

justifiably receive a higher payout than the one yielded to more recent participants. Similarly, in any

company, if layoffs are necessary, it might make sense to say that those who’ve been working in the

organization longest should be the last ones to lose their jobs. In either case, the important point is

that fairness doesn’t mean everyone gets the same treatment; it means that rules for treating people

must be applied equally. If a corporate executive decides on layoffs according to a last-in-first-out

process, that’s fine, but it would be unfair to make exceptions.

One of the unique aspects of the idea of fairness as a duty is its hybrid status between duties to the self

and duties to others. While it would seem strange to say that we have a duty of gratitude or fidelity to

ourselves, it clearly makes sense to assert that we should be fair to ourselves. Impartiality—the rule of no

exceptions—means no exceptions. So a stock investor who puts his own money into a general fund he runs

should receive the same return as everyone else. A poor investment that loses 10 percent should cost him

no more than 10 percent (he has to be fair to himself), and one that gains 10 percent shouldn’t net him

any more than what the others receive (he has to be fair to others).

Modern Fairness: Rawls

The recent American philosopher John Rawls proposes a veil of ignorance as a way of testing for fairness,

especially with respect to the distribution of wealth in general terms. For example, in society as Madoff

knew it, vast inequalities of wealth weren’t only allowed, they were honored: being richer than anyone else

was something to be proud of, and Madoff lived that reality full tilt. Now, if you asked Madoff whether

we should allow some members of society to be much wealthier than others, he might say that’s fair:

everyone is allowed to get rich in America, and that’s just what he did. However, the guy coming into

Madoff’s office at 3 a.m. to mop up and empty the trash might see things differently. He may claim to

work just as hard as Madoff, but without getting fancy cars or Palm Springs mansions. People making the

big bucks, the suggestion could follow, should get hit with bigger taxes and the money used to provide

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educational programs allowing guys from the cleaning crew to get a better chance at climbing the income

ladder. Now, given these two perspectives, is there a way to decide what’s really fair when it comes to

wealth and taxes?

Rawls proposes that we try to re-imagine society without knowing what our place in it would be. In the

case of Madoff, he may like things as they are, but would he stick with the idea that everything’s fair if he

were told that a rearrangement was coming and he was going to get stuck back into the business world at

random? He might hesitate there, seeing that he could get dealt a bad hand and, yes, end up being the guy

who cleans offices. And that guy who cleans offices might figure that if he got a break, then he’d be the rich

one, and so he’s no longer so sure about raising taxes. The veil of ignorance is the idea that when you set

up the rules, you don’t get to know beforehand where you’ll fall inside them, which is going to force you to

construct things in a way that is really balanced and fair.

As a note here, nearly all children know the veil of ignorance perfectly. When two friends together buy a

candy bar to split, they’ll frequently have one person break it, and the other choose a half. If you’re the

breaker, you’re under the veil of ignorance since you don’t know which half you’re going to get. The result

is you break it fairly, as close to the middle as you can.

Balancing the Duties

Duties include those to

 develop abilities and talents,

 do ourselves no harm,

 avoid wronging others,

 honesty,

 respect others,

 beneficence,

 gratitude,

 fidelity,

 reparation,

 fairness,

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Taken on their own, each of these plugs into normal experience without significant problems. Real

troubles come, though, when more than one duty seems applicable and they’re pulling in different

directions.

Take Andrew Madoff, for example. Lying in bed at night and taking his ethical duties seriously, what

should he do in the wake of the revelation that his family business was in essence a giant theft? On one

side, there’s an argument that he should just keep on keeping on by maintaining his life as a New York

financier. The route to justifying that decision starts with a duty to him:

 Develop abilities and talents. As an expert in finance, someone with both knowledge of and

experience in the field, Andrew should continue cultivating and perfecting his talents, at least those he

had acquired on the legitimate side of the family’s dealings.

Beyond the duty to himself, Andrew can further buttress his decision to keep his current life going by

referencing a duty to others:

 Beneficence. This may demand that Andrew continue along the lines he’d already established because

they enabled his involvement with cancer research. He’s got money to donate to the cause and his very

personal experience with the disease allows rare insight into what can be done to help sufferers. To the

extent that’s true, beneficence supports Andrew’s decision to go on living as he had been.

On the other side, what’s the duty-based argument in favor of Andrew taking a different path by breaking

away from his old lifestyle and dedicating all his energy and time to doing what he can for the jilted

investors the family business left behind?

 Respect. The duty to treat others as equals demands that Andrew take seriously the abilities and lives of

all those who lost everything. Why should they be reduced to powerlessness and poverty while he

continues maximizing his potential as a stock buyer and nonprofit leader? Respecting others and their

losses may mean leaving his profession and helping them get back on their feet.

 

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 Reparation. This duty advances as the proposal for Andrew to liquidate his assets and divide the money

as fairly as possible among the ruined investors. It may be that Andrew didn’t orchestrate the family Ponzi

scheme, but wittingly or not, he participated and that opens the way to the duty to repayment.

So which path should Andrew follow? There’s no certain answer. What duties do allow Andrew—or

anyone considering his situation—to achieve is a solid footing for making a reasonable and defendable

decision. From there, the ethical task is to weigh the various duties and choose which ones pull harder and

make the stronger demand.

Where Do Duties Come From?

The question about the origin of duties belongs to meta-ethics, to purified discussions about the theory of

ethics as opposed to its application, so it falls outside this book’s focus. Still, two commonly cited sources

of duties can be quickly noted.

One standard explanation is that duties are written into the nature of the universe; they’re part of the way

things are. In a sense, they’re a moral complement to the laws of physics. We know that scientists form

mathematical formulas to explain how far arrows will travel when shot at a certain speed; these formulas

describe the way the natural world is. So too in the realm of ethics: duties are the rules describing how the

world is in moral terms. On this account, ethics isn’t so different from science; it’s just that scientists

explore physical reality and ethicists explore moral reality. In both cases, however, the reality is already

there; we’re just trying to understand it.

Another possible source for the duties is humanity in the sense that part of what it means to be human is

to have this particular sense of right and wrong. Under this logic, a computer-guided robot may beat

humans in chess, but no machine will ever understand what a child does when mom asks, “Did you break

the vase? Tell me the truth.” Maybe this moral spark children are taken to feel is written into their genetic

code, or maybe it’s something ineffable, like a soul. Whichever, the reason it comes naturally is because

it’s part of our nature.

What Are the Advantages and Drawbacks of an Ethics Based on Duties?

One of the principal advantages of working with an ethics of duties is simplicity: duties are fairly easy to

understand and work with. We all use them every day. For many of us these duties are the first thing

coming to mind when we hear the word ethics. Straightforward rules about honesty, gratitude, and

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keeping up our ends of agreements—these are the components of a common education in ethics, and most

of us are well experienced in their use.

The problem, though, comes when the duties pull against each other: when one says yes and the other

says no. Unfortunately, there’s no hard-and-fast rule for deciding which duties should take precedence

over the others.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Duties include responsibilities to one self and to others.

 Duties do not exist in isolation but in a network, and they sometimes pull against each other.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. Bernie Madoff was a very good—though obviously not a perfect—fraudster. He got away with a lot for a

long time. How could the duty to develop one’s own abilities be mustered to support his decision to

become a criminal?

2. In the Madoff case, what duties could be mustered to refute the conclusion that he did the right thing by

engaging in fraud?

3. Madoff gave up most of his money and possessions and went to jail for his crimes. Is there anything else

he should have done to satisfy the ethical duty of reparation?

4. In your own words, what does it mean to treat equals equally and un-equals unequally?

[1] Brian Ross, Anna Schecter, and Kate McCarthy, “Bernie Madoff’s Other Secret: His Hadassah CFO

Mistress,” ABCNews.com, April 16, 2011, accessed May 11,

2011,http://abcnews.go.com/Blotter/Madoff/story?id=8319695&page=1.

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2.3 Immanuel Kant: The Duties of the Categorical Imperative

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Define Immanuel Kant’s categorical imperative.

2. Show how the categorical imperative functions in business.

3. Consider advantages and drawbacks of an ethics based on the categorical imperative.

Kant

 

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German philosopher Immanuel Kant (1724–1804) accepted the basic proposition that a theory of duties—

a set of rules telling us what we’re obligated to do in any particular situation—was the right approach to

ethical problems. What he set out to add, though, was a stricter mechanism for the use of duties in our

everyday experience. He wanted a way to get all these duties we’ve been talking about to work together, to

produce a unified recommendation, instead of leaving us confused between loyalty to one principle and

another. At least on some basic issues, Kant set out to produce ethical certainty.

Lying is about as primary as issues get in ethics, and the Madoff case is shot through with it:

 Bernie Madoff always claimed that the Ponzi scheme wasn’t the original idea. He sought money from

investors planning to score big with complicated financial maneuvers. He took a few losses early on,

though, and faced the possibility of everyone just taking their cash and going home. That’s when he

started channeling money from new investors to older ones, claiming the funds were the fruit of his

excellent stock dealing. He always intended, Madoff says, to get the money back, score some huge

successes, and they’d let him get on the straight and narrow again. It never happened. But that doesn’t

change the fact that Madoff thought it would. He was lying temporarily, and for the good of everyone in

the long run.

 Sheryl Weinstein had a twenty-year affair with Madoff. She also invested her family’s life savings with

him. When the Ponzi scheme came undone, she lost everything. To get some money back, she considered

writing a tell-all, and that led to a heart-wrenching decision between money and her personal life. Her

twenty-year dalliance was not widely known, and things could have remained that way: her husband and

son could’ve gone on without the whole world knowing that the husband was a cuckold and the son the

product of a poisoned family. But they needed money because they’d lost everything, including their

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home, in Madoff’s scam. So does she keep up the false story or does she turn the truth into a profit

opportunity?

What does Kant say about all this? The answer is his categorical imperative. An imperative is something

you need to do. A hypothetical imperative is something you need to do, but only in certain circumstances;

for example, I have to eat, but only in those circumstances where I’m hungry. A categorical imperative, by

contrast, is something you need to do all the time: there are ethical rules that don’t depend on the

circumstances, and it’s the job of the categorical imperative to tell us what they are. Here, we will consider

two distinct expressions of Kant’s categorical imperative, two ways that guidance is provided.

First Version of the Categorical Imperative

The first version or expression of the categorical imperative: Act in a way that the rule for your action

could be universalized. When you’re thinking about doing something, this means you should imagine

that everyone did it all the time. Now, can this make sense? Can it happen? Is there a world you can

imagine where everyone does this thing that you’re considering at every opportunity? Take the case of

Madoff asking himself, “Should I lie to keep investor money flowing in?” What we need to do is imagine

this act as universalized: everyone lies all the time. Just imagine that. You ask someone whether it’s sunny

outside. It is sunny, but they say, “No, it’s raining.” The next day you ask someone else. Again, it’s sunny,

but they say, “No, it’s snowing.” This goes on day after day. Pretty soon, wouldn’t you just give up listening

to what people say? Here’s the larger point: if everyone lies all the time, pretty soon people are going to

stop listening to anyone. And if no one’s listening, is it possible to lie to them?

What Kant’s categorical imperative shows is that lying cannot be universalized. The act of lying can’t

survive in a world where everyone’s just making stuff up all the time. Since no one will be taking anyone

else seriously, you may try to sell a false story but no one will be buying.

Something similar happens in comic books. No one accuses authors and illustrators of lying when Batman

kicks some bad guys into the next universe and then strips off his mask and his hair is perfect. That’s not a

lie; it’s fiction. And fictional stories can’t lie because no one expects they’ll tell the truth. No one asks

whether it’s real or fake, only whether it’s entertaining. The same would go in the real world if everyone

lied all the time. Reality would be like a comic: it might be fun, or maybe not, but accusing someone of

lying would definitely be absurd.

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Bringing this back to Madoff, as Kant sees it he has to make a basic decision: should I lie to investors to

keep my operation afloat? The answer is no. According to the categorical imperative, it must be no, not

because lying is directly immoral, but because lying cannot be universalized and therefore it’s immoral.

The same goes for Sheryl Weinstein as she wonders whether she should keep the lid on her familywrecking

affair. The answer is no because the answer is always no when the question is whether I should

lie. You might want to respond by insisting, “She’s already done the deed and Bernie’s in jail so it’s not

going to happen again. The best thing at this point would be for her to just keep her mouth shut and hold

her family together as

as best she can.” That’s a fair argument. But for Kant it’s also a loser because the

categorical imperative gives the last word. There’s no appeal. There’s no lying, no matter what.

One more point about the universalization of acts: even if you insist that a world could exist where

everyone lied all the time, would you really want to live there? Most of us don’t mind lying so much as

long as we’re the ones getting away with it. But if everyone’s doing it, that’s different. Most of us might

agree that if we had a choice between living in a place where everyone told the truth and one where

everyone lied, we’d go for the honest reality. It just makes sense: lying will help you only if you’re the sole

liar, but if everyone’s busy taking advantage of everyone else, then there’s nothing in it for you, and you

might just as well join everyone in telling the truth.

Conclusion. The first expression of the categorical imperative—act in such a way that the rule for your

action could be universalized—is a consistency principle. Like the golden rule (treat others as you’d like to

be treated), it forces you to ask how things would work if everyone else did what you’re considering doing.

Objections to the First Version of the Categorical Imperative

One of the objections to this ethical guidance is that a reality without lying can be awfully uncomfortable.

If your boss shows up for work on a Friday wearing one of those designer dresses that looks great on a

supermodel and ridiculous everywhere else, and she asks what you think, what are you going to say?

“Hideous”? Telling the truth no matter what, whether we’re at work or anywhere else, is one of those

things that sounds good in the abstract but is almost impossible to actually live by.

Then the problem gets worse. A deranged addict storms into your office announcing that he’s just received

a message from the heavens. While chewing manically on dirty fingernails, he relates that he’s supposed

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to attack someone named Jones—anyone named Jones. “What,” he suddenly demands, “is your name?”

Unfortunately, you happen to be named Sam Jones. Now what?

Second Version of the Categorical Imperative

The second expression of the categorical imperative is: Treat people as an end, and never as a means to an

end. To treat people as ends, not means is to never use anyone to get something else. People can’t be tools

or instruments; they can’t be things you employ to get to what you really want. A simple example of using

another as a means would be striking up a friendship with Chris because you really want to meet his wife

who happens to be a manager at the advertising company you desperately want to work for.

It’d be hard to imagine a clearer case of this principle being broken than that of Madoff’s Ponzi scheme.

He used the money from each new investor to pay off the last one. That means every investor was nothing

but a means to an end: everyone was nothing more than a way to keep the old investors happy and attract

new ones.

Madoff’s case of direct theft is clear cut, but others aren’t quite so easy. If Weinstein goes ahead and writes

her tell-all about life in bed with Madoff, is she using him as a means to her end (which is making

money)? Is she using book buyers? What about her husband and the suffering he would endure? It can be

difficult to be sure in every case exactly what it means to “use” another person.

Another example comes from Madoff’s son, Andrew, who donated time and money to the cause of treating

cancer. On one hand, this seems like a generous and beneficial treatment of others. It looks like he’s

valuing them as worthwhile and good people who deserve to be saved from a disease. On the other hand,

though, when you keep in mind that Andrew too had cancer, you wonder whether he’s just using other

peoples’ suffering to promote research so that he can be saved.

Summarizing, where the first of the categorical imperative’s expressions was a consistency principle (treat

others the way you want to be treated), this is a dignity principle: treat others with respect and as holding

value in themselves. You will act ethically, according to Kant, as long as you never accept the temptation

to treat others as a way to get something else.

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Objections to the Second Version of the Categorical Imperative

The principal objection to this aspect of Kant’s theory is that, like the previous, it sounds good in the

abstract, but when you think about how it would actually work, things become difficult.

Almost all businesses require treating people as means and not as ends. In the grocery store, the cashier

isn’t waiting there to receive your respectful attention. She’s there to run your items through the scanner

and that’s it. The same goes for the guy in the produce section setting up the banana display. Really,

just paying someone to do a job—no matter what the job might be—is treating them as a means to an end,

as little more than a way to get the work done.

If that’s right, then you’re not going too far by wondering whether the entire modern world of jobs and

money would unravel if we all suddenly became Kantians. Paying a janitor to clean up after hours, a

paralegal to proofread a lawyer’s briefs, a day-care worker to keep peace among children at recess, all

these treatments of others seem to fail Kant’s test.

Defenders of Kant understand all this perfectly and can respond. One argument is that providing someone

with a job is not treating them as a means to your ends; instead, by allowing them the opportunity to earn

a living, you’re actually supporting their projects and happiness. Seen this way, hiring people is not

denigrating them, it’s enabling. And far from being immoral in the Kantian sense, it’s ethically

recommendable.

 

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KEY TAKEAWAYS

 The first expression of Kant’s categorical imperative requires that ethical decisions be universalizable.

 The second expression of Kant’s categorical imperative requires that ethical decisions treat others as ends

and not means.

 Kant’s conception of ethical duties can provide clear guidance but at the cost of inflexibility: it can be hard

to make the categorical imperative work in everyday life.

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REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. Imagine Madoff lied to attain his clients’ money as he did, but instead of living the high life, he donated

everything to charity. For Kant, does this remove the ethical stain from his name? Why not?

2. Think back to your first job, whatever it was. Did you feel like you were used by the organization, or did

you feel like they were doing you a favor, giving you the job? How does the experience relate to the

imperative to treat others as an end and not a means?

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2.4 Rights

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Define an ethical right.

2. Distinguish specific rights.

3. Show how ethical rights work in business.

4. Consider advantages and drawbacks of an ethics based on rights.

Rights

An ethics based on rights is similar to an ethics based on duties. In both cases specific principles provide

ethical guidance for your acts, and those principles are to be obeyed regardless of the consequences

further down the line. Unlike duties, however, rights-based ethics concentrate their force in delineating

your possibilities. The question isn’t so much What are you morally required to do; it’s more about

defining exactly where and when you’re free to do whatever you want and then deciding where you need

to stop and make room for other people to be free too. Stated slightly differently, duties tend to be ethics

as what you can’t do, and rights tend to be about what you can do.

My Property, My Religion, My Nonprofit Organization, My Health Care, My

Grass

Charles Edward “Eddy” Lepp is in jail now, in a prison not too far away from the site of the business that

got him in trouble: Eddy’s Medicinal Gardens and Ministry. What was Eddy Lepp the gardener and

minister up to on his twenty-acre property near a lake in California, about a hundred miles north from

San Francisco? Here are the highlights:

 Ministry. Lepp claims—and there doesn’t seem to be anyone who disputes him—that he’s an authentic

Rastafarian reverend.

 Rastafarianism. Developed over the last century in Africa and the Caribbean, the religion works within

the basic structure of Christianity but contains important innovations. Haile Selassie I was the emperor of

Ethiopia from 1930 to 1974 and, according to the faith, was also the reincarnation of Jesus Christ.

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Further, marijuana—called ganja by believers—accompanies religious meetings and ceremonies; it brings

adherents closer to God.

 Lepp’s Medicinal Gardens. In fact, this wasn’t a garden so much as a collective farm. Lepp oversaw

the work of volunteers—their numbers totaling about two hundred—and did some harvesting and

planting himself. Many of the farm’s marijuana leaves were smoked by the 2,500 members of his zonkedout

church as part of Rastafarian celebrations and meetings, and the rest was, according to Lepp,

distributed to individuals with serious health problems.

 Marijuana and health care. Studies indicate that in some patients marijuana may alleviate nausea

and vomiting, especially as connected with chemotherapy. There’s also a list of further symptoms and

maladies the drug could relieve, according to some evidence. It should be noted here that many suspect

the persons conducting these studies (not to mention the patients receiving the testing) are favorably

predisposed toward marijuana in the first place, and the prejudice may contaminate conclusions. What’s

certain is that from a strictly medical perspective, the question about marijuana’s utility remains

controversial. Among those who are convinced, however, smoking is a good remedy. That’s why in

California patients have been granted a legal right to possess and use marijuana medicinally, as long as

they’ve got a doctor’s approval. Unfortunately for Lepp, California law can’t bar federal prosecutions, and

it was the US Drug Enforcement Administration from all the way out in Washington, DC, that eventually

came after him. [1]

About retirement age now, Eddy Lepp is one of those guys who never really left Woodstock. Before being

incarcerated, he slumped around in tie-dyes and jeans. He liked wearing a hat emblazoned with the

marijuana leaf. Out on his semirural farm, he passed the days smoking joints and listening to Bob Marley

music.

Everyone seems to like the guy. A longtime activist for the legalization of marijuana, he’s even something

of a folk hero in Northern California. At his sentencing, the crowd (chanting “free Eddy!”) spilled out into

the courthouse hallways. The judge didn’t seem to mind the spectacle, and she went out of her way to say

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she didn’t want to hit him with ten years of jail time, but federal guidelines gave her no choice. Now

there’s talk of a pardon.

Like Bernie Madoff, Lepp was touched by cancer. Madoff’s son Andrew was stricken and so was Lepp’s

wife. She died. Also, like Madoff, Lepp was a businessman. Madoff made millions and lived in luxury

while robbing investors; Lepp made enough to scrape by from his ministry and farming enterprises.

What’s a Right?

One definition of a right in ethics is a justified claim against others. I have the right to launch a gardening

business or a church enterprise or both on my property, and you’re not allowed to simply storm in and

ruin things. You do have the right, however, to produce your own garden company and church on your

property. On my side, I have the right to free speech, to say whatever I want no matter how outrageous

and you can’t stop me. You can, however, say whatever you want, too; you can respond to my words with

whatever comes into your head or just ignore me completely. A right, in sum, is something you may do if

you wish, and others are morally obligated to permit your action.

Duties tend to be protective in nature; they’re about assuring that people aren’t mistreated. Rights are the

flip side; they’re liberating in nature, they’re about assuring that you’re as free as possible.

Because rights theory maximizes choices in the name of ethics, it’s not surprising that Lepp built his court

defense on that ground. Lepp fought the law by maintaining that his medical gardens business and church

operations involved his land and his religion. It wasn’t that he had a right to grow pot or pray to a specific

God; that had nothing to do with it. The point is he had a right to do whatever he wanted on that land,

and believe in whatever he wanted in his mind. That’s what rights are about. As opposed to duties that fix

on specific acts, rights ethics declares that there are places (like my land) where the acts don’t matter. As

long as no one else’s rights are being infringed on, I’m free.

Finally, duties tend to be community oriented: they’re about how we get along with others. Rights tend to

center on the individual and what he or she can do regardless of whether anyone else is around or not.

That explains why a duty-based ethics coheres more easily with a scene like the one Madoff provoked, a

situation that involves winners and losers, criminals and victims. On the other side, an ethics based on

rights is more convenient for Lepp and his gardening and religious enterprises. Though he ended up in

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jail, there were no obvious victims of his crimes; at least no one complained that they’d been mistreated or

victimized as individuals.

What Are the Characteristics of Rights?

English philosopher John Locke (1632–1704) maintained that rights are

 Universal. The fundamental rights don’t transform as you move from place to place or change with the

years.

 Equal. They’re the same for all, men and women, young and old.

 Inalienable. They can’t be taken, they can’t be sold, and they can’t be given away. We can’t not have

them. This leads to a curious paradox at the heart of rights theory. Freedom is a bedrock right, but

we’re not free to sell ourselves into slavery. We can’t because freedom is the way we are; since freedom is

part of my essence, it can’t go away without me disappearing too.

What Rights Do I Have?

The right to life is just what it sounds like: Lepp, you, and I should be able to go through our days without

worrying about someone terminating our existence. This right is so deeply embedded in our culture that it

almost seems unnecessary to state, but we don’t need to stretch too far away from our time and place to

find scenes of the right’s trampling. Between the world wars, Ukraine struggled for independence from

Joseph Stalin’s neighboring Russia. Stalin sealed the borders and sent troops to destroy all food in the

country. Millions died from starvation. Less dramatically but more contemporaneously, the right to life

has been cited as an argument against capital punishment.

The right to freedom guarantees individuals that they may do as they please, assuming their actions don’t

encroach on the freedom of others. In a business environment, this assures entrepreneurs like Lepp and

Madoff that they may mount whatever business operation they choose. Lepp’s garden and ministry were

surely unorthodox, but that can’t be a reason for its prohibition.

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Similarly, within a company, the right to freedom protects individuals against abuse. No boss can demand

more from an employee than what that employee has freely agreed—frequently through a signed

contract—to provide.

On the other side, however, there are questions about how deeply this basic right extends through day-today

working life. For example, the freewheeling Lepp probably wasn’t too concerned about the clothes his

volunteer workers chose to wear out in the garden, but what about clothes in Madoff’s investment house?

He was serving wealthy, urban clients in suits and ties. What would their reaction be to a junior

investment advisor just out of college who shows up for a meeting in a tie-dye and jeans? Some clients, it’s

safe to say, would head for the exit. Now, what recourse does boss Madoff have when the casual employee

says, “Look, it’s a free country; I can wear whatever I want”? Within a rights theory of ethics, it must be

conceded that the employee is correct. It’s also true, however, that Madoff has rights too—specifically, the

freedom to fire the guy. What can be taken from this is that, as a general rule, the enabling side of a right

ethics is that you can do whatever you want, but the limiting and controlling side is that the same goes for

everyone else.

From the right to freedom, other rights seem to derive naturally. The right to free speech is tremendously

important in the commercial world. Lepp’s messages to his Rasta flock may have provoked skepticism in

some listeners, but no one doubts that he had a right to voice his ideas. The same goes for Madoff’s

exuberant claims concerning his investing strategy. Crucially, the same also goes for those on the other

side of Madoff’s claims; the same freedom Madoff enjoyed also allowed whistle-blowers to answer back

that it’s impossible to legitimately realize such constant and high profits. In fact, in the case of Madoff’s

investment company, whistle-blowers did say that, repeatedly. No one listened, though. The right of free

speech doesn’t guarantee a hearing.

The right to religious expression also follows from basic freedom. It guaranteed Lepp the space he needed

to pioneer his particular brand of gardening Rastafarianism in Northern California. His is, obviously, a

weird case, but the right works in more traditional workplaces, too. USA Today [2] reported a case where

Muslim workers were fired from their jobs in several meatpacking plants in the Midwest because they left

the production line in the middle of the day without authorization to go outside and pray. The workers’

response? They filed a lawsuit claiming their right to religious expression had been violated.

No doubt it had been.

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But the company’s response is also weighty. According to the article, “The problem with the Muslim

prayer request is that it’s not one day or annual, it’s every day and multiple times. Further, those times

shift over the course of the year based on the sun’s position.”

The result, according to the company, is that scheduling becomes very difficult, and those who aren’t

Muslim find it nearly impossible to keep working when they’re getting abandoned so frequently during

the day. Here we’re confronted with a very basic conflict of rights. While no one doubts that freedom

exists to practice a religion, isn’t it also true that the company—or the company owners if we want to cast

this in personal terms—have a right to set up a business in whatever manner they choose, with breaks

scheduled for certain times and worker responsibilities strictly defined? In the end, the question about

Muslim workers leaving the work floor to pray isn’t about one kind of religion or another; it’s not

Christians against Muslims or something similar. The question is about which right takes precedence: the

owners’ right to set up and run a company as they wish or the employees’ right to express their beliefs how

and when they choose.

From an ethical perspective—which doesn’t necessarily correlate with a legal one—the resolution to this

dilemma and any clash about conflicting rights runs through the question of whether there’s a way to

protect the basic rights of both groups. It runs that way because rights are fundamentally about that,

about maximizing freedom. In this case, it seems that firing the workers does achieve that goal. The

owners’ initiative inside their company is protected, and the workers are now able to pray when they

desire.

To be sure, other ethical approaches will yield different outcomes, but in the midst of rights theory where

individual liberty is the guiding rule and the maximization of freedom is the overriding goal, it’s difficult

for other concerns to get traction. So it may be that the community as a whole is better served by looking

for a solution that allows Muslims to maintain their prayer schedule while also allowing the plant to

continue functioning in a normal way. Even if that’s true, however, it’s not going to affect a rights-theory

resolution very much because this kind of ethics privileges what you and I can do over what we can do

together. It’s an ethics of individualism.

The right to pursue happiness sits beside the right to life and the right to freedom at the foundation of

rights ethics. The pursuit gives final direction and meaning to the broad theory. Here’s how: it doesn’t do

much good to be alive if you’re not free, so freedom orients the right to life. It also doesn’t do much good

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to be free if you can’t pursue happiness, so the right to pursue happiness orients freedom. That’s the

organizing reasoning of ethical rights; it’s how the theory holds together. This reasoning leaves behind,

however, the difficult question as to exactly where the pursuit of happiness leads.

In an economic context, one way of concretizing the pursuit of happiness is quite important: it’s

our right to possessions and the fruits of our work. What’s ours, along with what we make or earn, we

have a right to keep and use as we wish. Among rights theorists, this particular right attracts a staunch

group of advocates. Called libertarians, they understand liberty as especially reflected in the right to

dominion over what’s ours.

Libertarianism is arguably the most muscular area of rights theory, and it’s the one where most conflicts—

and most stands in the name of personal rights and the pursuit of happiness—take place. This is definitely

where Lepp made his stand. A frequently viewed YouTube video reveals exactly what standing up for

libertarian rights looks like. In the clip, police have been called to Lepp’s Medicinal Gardens. The squad

car pulls up the long dirt road, and Lepp goes out to stop it. This is their conversation:

Lepp:

I am demanding that if you do not have a warrant that you leave. You are illegally on my

property and I am demanding that you leave!

Police

officer: (Into his radio) Can I get some help up here?

Lepp: This is private property. This is a church function. Again, I am asking, if you do not—

Police

officer: You can ask all you want, Mr. Lepp, but I’m not leaving.

Lepp:

Please leave my property! Under what authority are you standing here? Sir, I am demanding

that you tell me under what authority are you violating my rights!

Police

officer:

Under no authority, Mr. Lepp. As soon as my sergeant gets here, he’ll advise you of whatever he

wants to advise you of.

Lepp: Fine, then I suggests you go down and wait for him at the bottom of my property!

The officer stands there silently.

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This is the kind of scene that makes libertarians’ blood boil. Lepp, decked out in a t-shirt emblazoned with

a marijuana leaf, actually stays fairly mellow, but he makes his point. He makes two points actually, and

they need to be distinguished. The first is a legal point; it’s the question about whether the officer has a

warrant. The officer doesn’t, but the second point—“under what authority are you violating my rights”—

goes beyond the legal and into the ethical. Lepp believes the land is his and he’s not infringing on anyone

else’s freedoms, and therefore, he can do what he wants and the police should leave him alone.

The officer isn’t quite sure how to reply to this, which is understandable. It is because this case displays a

clear separation between the law on one side and an ethical reality on the other. Moreover, the two appear

not only separate but also incompatible; it’s difficult to see any way to bring them together. With respect

to the law, the case is clear: Lepp was growing massive amounts of marijuana on his farm and growing it

for distribution. Federal law explicitly prohibits both the growing and the distributing. It’s unambiguous.

It’s also clear that Lepp was doing it since you could see the crop from the public highway passing by his

fields. Everyone saw that marijuana was growing, that people were harvesting it, and that they were

planting more. As far as the law goes, Lepp really had no leg to stand on. Once the DEA found out about

him, they didn’t have any choice but to bring him in. But ethically—and in terms of rights theory—there

seems to be equal clarity going in the other direction. There were few complaints about Lepp’s activities.

No one was hurt, and it was his land. It’s hard to see within a libertarian perspective any way to justify the

police harassment, the legal proceedings, or the jail term Lepp ended up getting. This doesn’t mean Lepp

was treated unjustly; it only means that whatever justice was served on him, it wasn’t libertarian.

Libertarianism in the Economic World

Lepp wasn’t a big-time businessman. His medicinal garden enterprise produced enough income to get

him through the day and little more. When he went to court, he needed a public assistance attorney (not

that it would’ve made any difference). But the issues he brings forward reverberate through the business

world. Here are a few hypothetical scenarios where libertarian ethics comes into play:

 A massive brewery is constructed upstream from farmland and soaks up most of the water to make beer,

leaving the downstream farms with almost nothing for irrigation. It’s the brewery’s land, so can’t the

owners do what they want with the water running through it?

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A strong libertarian argument offers a reason to say yes. Even though it’s true that others will be severely

harmed by the act, an ethics that begins with the freedom to have what’s mine doesn’t buckle before the

demands of others. Now, compare this outcome with the guidance offered by Kant’s categorical

imperative, the idea that any act must be universalized. Within this framework the opposite conclusion is

reached because if everyone just dammed up the water channeling through his or her land, then the

brewer wouldn’t even have the choice: no water would be flowing across the land in the first place. So a

duty-oriented ethics leads toward a solution that is more favorable for the larger community, where a

rights-based perspective leaves more room for individuality but at the cost of the interests of others.

 Bernie Madoff didn’t start off rich. His father was a plumber in Queens. Even before launching his Ponzi

scheme, he became wealthy by working hard, being smart, and investing wisely. He grew an investment

house from scratch to being among the most prominent in New York. His annual income hit the millions

even without the Ponzi stuff. Possibly, there was an administrative assistant of some kind there with him

from the beginning. She was hired at, say, $32,000 annually. Years later, Madoff is rich, and she’s at

$36,000. She still arrives at work in her beater car while Madoff gets the limousine treatment. Is this fair?

A strong libertarian position gives Madoff a reason to say yes. The wealth did accumulate from his efforts,

not hers. If Madoff hadn’t been there the money wouldn’t have come in, but, if she’d quit on the first day,

he would’ve hired someone else and the end result probably wouldn’t have been much different. The

money, in other words, grew because of Madoff’s efforts, therefore it’s his, and therefore there’s no ethical

obligation to spread it around.

On the other hand, a duty-based orientation would generate concerns about gratitude and respect. These

perennial duties leave room for wealth redistribution. The argument is that Madoff owes the assistant a

higher wage not because of her work performance but as a show of gratitude for her contribution over the

years. Similarly, the duty of respect for others doesn’t demand that everyone be treated equally. It doesn’t

mean everyone should get the same wage, but it does demand that people be respected as equals. This

implies taking into account that the assistant’s efforts were prolonged and significant, just like Madoff’s,

and therefore she should receive a salary more commensurate with his.

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Negative and Positive Rights

The ethics of rights can be categorized as negative rights and positive rights. Negative rights are

fundamental. They require others to not interfere with me and whatever I’m doing. The right to life is the

requirement that others not harm me, the right to freedom is the requirement that others not interfere

with me, the right to speech requires that others not silence me, the right to my possessions and the fruits

of my labors require that others let me keep and use what’s mine.

Positive rights, by contrast, are closer to traditional duties. They’re obligations others have to help protect

and preserve my basic, negative rights. For example, the right to life doesn’t only require (negatively) that

people not harm me, but it also requires (positively) that they come to my aid in life-threatening

situations. If I’m in a car wreck, my right to life requires bystanders to call an ambulance. So if an

individual with a rights-based philosophy and an individual with a duty-based philosophy both arrive on a

crash scene, they’ll do the same thing—just for different reasons. The rights person calls for help to protect

the victim’s right to life; the duties person calls to fulfill the duty to beneficence, the duty to look out for

the welfare of others.

Positive rights can be drawn out to great lengths. For example, the argument is sometimes made that my

basic right to freedom is worthless if I don’t have my health and basic abilities to operate in the world.

This may lead a rights theorist to claim that society owes its member’s health care, education, housing,

and even money in the case of unemployment. Typically, these positive rights are called welfare rights.

Welfare, in this context, doesn’t mean government handouts but minimal social conditions that allow the

members to fully use their intrinsic liberty and pursue happiness with some reasonable hope for success.

The hard question accompanying positive rights is: where’s the line? At what point does my responsibility

to promote the rights of others impinge on my own freedom, my own pursuit of happiness, and my own

life projects?

Rights in Conflict

The deepest internal problems with rights ethics arise when rights conflict. Abortion is a quick, hot-button

example. On one side (pro-life), support comes from the initial principle: a human being, born or not, has

a right to life, which may not be breached. On the other side (pro-choice), every person’s original freedom

over themselves and their bodies ends all discussion. Now, one of the reasons this debate is so intractable

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is that both sides find equally strong support within the same basic ethical framework. There’s no way to

decide without infringing on one right or the other.

A complementary case arose around Lepp’s Rasta religious gatherings. Though many of his neighbors

didn’t care, there were a few who objected to having what was essentially mini-Woodstock on the land

next door. It was impossible, of course, for Lepp to entirely contain the noise, the smoke from fires, the

traffic congestion, and the rest entirely on his property. The question is when does my right to do what I

want on my land need to be curtailed so that your right to dominion over yours isn’t soiled?

Broadening further, there’s the question about Lepp growing marijuana for medicinal purposes. On one

side, a rights theory supports his inclination to grow what he wants on his land and sell the fruits of his

labors to other adults for their consenting use. His is a farming business like any other. But on the other

side, a theory of rights can extend into the realm of positive requirements. The right to the pursuit of

happiness implies a right to health, and this may require government oversight of medical products so

that society as a whole may be protected from fraudulent claims or harmful substances. The question of

marijuana shoots up right here. What happens when socially sanctioned entities like the US Food and

Drug Administration decide that marijuana is harmful and should therefore be prohibited? Which rights

trump the others, the negative right to freedom or the positive right to oversee medical substances?

A similar question comes up between Madoff and his investors. A pure libertarian may say that

individuals have the unfettered right to do as they choose, so if Bernie Madoff lies about investing

strategies and his clients go along with it, well, that’s their problem. As long as they weren’t forced, they’re

free to do whatever they wish with their money, even if that means turning it over to a charlatan. Again

here, however, a broader view of rights theory answers that in the complex world of finance and

investment, the right to the pursuit of happiness is also a right to some governmental oversight designed

to make sure that everyone involved in the financial industry is playing by a single set of rules, ones

prohibiting Ponzi schemes and similar frauds.

Examples multiply easily. I have the right to free speech, but if I falsely yell “fire!” in a crowded theater

and set off a life-threatening stampede, what’s happening to everyone else’s negative right to life and

positive right to health? Leaving the specifics aside, the conclusion is that, in general, problems with

rights theory occur in one of two places:

1. I have negative rights to life, freedom, and my possessions but they infringe on your rights to the same.

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2. I have a right to freedom and to do what I want but that right clashes with larger, society-level protections

put into place to assure everyone a reasonable shot at pursuing their happiness.

What Justifies a Right?

One justification for an ethics of rights is comparable with the earlier-noted idea about duties being part

of the logic of the universe. Both duties and rights exist because that’s the way things are in the moral

world. Just like the laws of physics tell us how far a ball will fly when thrown at a certain speed, so too the

rules of rights tell us what ought to happen and not happen in ethical reality. The English philosopher

John Locke subscribed to this view when he called our rights “natural.” He meant that they’re part of who

we are and what we do and just by living we incarnate them.

Another justification for an ethics of rights is to derive them from the idea of duties. Kant reappears here,

especially his imperative to treat others as ends and not as means to ends. If we are ends in ourselves, if

we possess basic dignity, then that dignity must be reflected somehow: it must have some content, some

meaning, and the case can be made that the content is our possession of certain autonomous rights.

Advantages and Drawbacks of an Ethics Based on Rights

Because of its emphasis on individual liberties, rights theory is very attractive to open-roaders and

individualists. One of the central advantages of a rights ethics is that it clears a broad space for you and

me and everyone else to be ourselves or make ourselves in any way we choose. On the other side of that

strength, however, there’s a disadvantage: centering ethics on the individual leaves little space of

agreement about how we can live together. An ethics of rights doesn’t do a lot to help us resolve our

differences, it does little to promote tolerance, and it offers few guarantees that if I do something

beneficial for you now, you’ll do something beneficial for me later on.

Another strong advantage associated with an ethics of rights is simplicity in the sense that basic rights are

fairly easy to understand and apply. The problem, however, with these blunt and comprehensible rights

comes when two or more of them conflict. In those circumstances it’s hard to know which rights trump

the others. In the case of Lepp’s business—the Medicinal Gardens—it’s hard to be sure when his use of his

land infringed on the rights of neighbors to enjoy their land, and it’s difficult to know when the health

product he offered—marijuana—should be prohibited in the name of the larger right to health for all

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individuals in a society. Most generally, it’s difficult to adjudicate between claims of freedom: where does

mine stop and yours begin?

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Rights are universal and inalienable.

 Basic rights include those to life, freedom, and the pursuit of happiness.

 Rights theory divides negative from positive rights.

 Ethical rights provide for individual freedom but allow few guidelines for individuals living and working

together in a business or in society

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. How does the right to pursue happiness license Lepp’s Medicinal Gardens?

2. What is a libertarian argument against imprisoning Lepp?

3. One justification Lepp cited for his farm was the health benefits marijuana could provide. Assuming Lepp

was right about those benefits, how could they be combined with a rights-based ethics to justify his

activities?

4. How could the rights to freedom and the pursuit of happiness be set against Lepp’s business?

5. What are positive rights and how could they be mustered against Lepp’s farm?

6. If someone drives away from Lepp’s farm high as a kite and soon after drives off the road and into a tree,

does Lepp bear any ethical responsibility for this within a rights ethics?

 [1] Elizabeth Larson, “Lepp Sentenced to 10 Years in Federal Prison for Marijuana Case, “Lake County News, May

18, 2009, accessed May 11, 2011,http://lakeconews.com/content/view/8703/764/; Bob Egelko, “Medical Pot

Grower Eddy Lepp Gets 10 Years,” Cannabis Culture Magazine, May 18, 2009, accessed May 11,

2011,http://www.cannabisculture.com/v2/content/medical-pot-grower-eddy-lepp-gets-10-years.

 [2] Emily Bazar, “Prayer Leads to Work Disputes,” USA Today, October 16, 2008, accessed May 11,

2011, http://www.usatoday.com/news/nation/2008-10-15-Muslim_N.htm.

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2.5 Case Studies

Skin and Money

Source: Leslie Adams, http://www.ugo.com/the-goods/calculator-tattoo.

In the mid-1980s in Los Angeles, Somen “Steve” Banerjee and his friend Nick DeNoia pooled money to

start a new kind of strip club: men baring it for women. Since they had no idea what they were doing, it

didn’t go well. What finally helped were a couple of showmen from Las Vegas. Steve Merrit and his

partner (professional and romantic) Mark Donnelly came aboard and hatched the idea of a Vegas-type

song-and-dance show wrapped around the disrobing.

To find performers, they cruised the muscle beaches outside LA. They brought the guys back to a studio,

applied some Village People–style outfits (policeman, fireman, construction worker, and so on), and ran

the group through a line-dancing routine.

Their idea was simple but innovative: sex sells; but instead of making the show lustful, they made it

entertaining. Drawing on their Las Vegas experience, Merrit and Donnelly understood how to do it, how

to produce a fun theatrical fantasy instead of a crude flesh show. The general concept made sense and the

execution was professional, but on opening night, no one knew what would happen.

Chippendales exploded. Women went crazy for the performances, first in the United States, then Europe,

and then everywhere as Banerjee and DeNoia rushed to form multiple traveling versions of their

production. The time they didn’t spend together mounting the shows they spent in court fighting over who

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was entitled to how much of the profits and who really owned the suddenly very valuable Chippendales

name and concept. The dispute ended in 1987 after DeNoia was shot dead in his office.

One major problem Chippendales faced is that it wasn’t a hard show to copy. Get some muscled guys,

some uniform-store costumes, a pop music soundtrack, and pound it all together into a dance routine

with a little teasing; you don’t need a genius to do it. So others started.

Michael Fullington was a junior choreographer for Chippendales. He struck up a friendship with some of

the show guys, and they split away into a group called Club Adonis. The original choreographers—Merrit

and Donnelly—also got in on the act, forming their own traveling revue called Night Dreams.

Unhappy with these copycat acts, Banerjee hired a hit man to go around killing the whole bunch. The hit

man, it turned out, was an FBI informant. Banerjee ended up in jail. The ensuing investigation led to more

charges. There was arson (he’d burned down one of his own clubs for the insurance money some time

back) and also another count of conspiracy to murder since it was Banerjee who’d arranged to have his

original partner shot.

The case never got to trial. Banerjee agreed to plead guilty, absorb a twenty-six-year sentence, and give up

his rights to Chippendales along with nearly all his money and real estate holdings.

While the lawyers worked out the details, Banerjee’s wife Irene worked feverishly to organize a group of

character witnesses. By bringing a parade of people to testify about her husband’s good side at the

sentencing hearing, she was hoping to get the jail time reduced a little bit. Or maybe she was hoping to

hold on to more of the money and real estate they’d accumulated.

No one got the chance to testify. On the morning of the hearing, Banerjee hung himself in his cell.

Because the trial was never completed, the plea deal never went into effect. And because the guilty man

was dead, there was no one left to charge with any crime. Chippendales and all the money and property

associated with it went to Banerjee’s wife Irene.

 

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QUE STIONS

1. Is being a Chippendale’s dancer honorable work?

o How could the perennial ethical duties to the self—develop our abilities and talents and do

ourselves no harm—be mustered to support the idea that these men should be proud of what

they do?

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o Ethically, how does this job compare with working for the Metropolitan Opera in New York, an

outfit that calls itself “a vibrant home for the world’s most creative and talented artists working in

opera”?

2. Is hiring and training a Chippendale’s dancer honorable? Imagine you were one of the original

choreographers cruising California beaches in search of beefcake and dance talent. You bring the

guys in, choreograph their routine, and send them up on stage.

o Thinking just of the perennial duties to the self is hiring and training them honorable? Under what

conditions?

o Thinking just of the perennial duties to others—avoiding wrongful actions toward others, honesty,

respect, beneficence (promoting the welfare of others), gratitude, fidelity (keeping promises,

honor agreements), and reparation (compensating others when we harm them)—is hiring and

training them honorable? Why or why not?

3. With respect to the ethics of duties, is Chippendales a respectable company in terms of how it treats its

clients? How does this company compare with the Metropolitan Opera’s treatment of its clients (note that

the Met occasionally replaces the word clients with the more flattering patrons)?

4. Leaving aside the legal issues and using only the perennial duties, what ethical case could be made

in favor of Banerjee getting a hit man to eliminate the people who were copying his show?

o Should he have hired someone or done the job himself? Explain.

o What’s the difference between hiring a hit man and hiring a beefcake dancer?

o How would Kant respond to these questions?

5. The Club Adonis group worked for Chippendales before splitting to do the same thing elsewhere. Use

Kant’s categorical imperative to show that their action was wrong.

6. According to the perennial duties, did Banerjee do the right thing hanging him in the end?

7. According to Kant, did Banerjee do the right thing hanging him?

8. When Banerjee hung himself, he lost his life, but he did manage to preserves his life’s property and wealth

for his wife. Can a libertarian ethics be used to show that Banerjee did the right thing?

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Two at the Same Time

Source: Photo courtesy of Robert Fairchild, http://www.flickr.com/photos/coffeego/3545289824.

On a real estate discussion board, [1] someone with the sign-in name BriGuy23 asks, “Does anyone on here

find any issue with submitting two offers to buy two different apartments at the same time? My friend

thinks that it’s unfair due to the fact that one of the offers is definitely going to not go through which

means they’re tying up the seller’s time (and money in a way). From a seller’s standpoint I think I would

be annoyed but I really don’t see anything wrong with it from a buyer’s perspective. Thoughts?”

A response comes from middle-aged mom: “Sellers can negotiate multiple offers so there is no reason why

a buyer could not make multiple offers on different places. Assuming you are represented by a buyer’s

agent, I would use the same agent to make both offers. Make certain that your contract gives you an out in

the unlikely event both are accepted.”

QUE STIONS

1. What does BriGuy23 suspect might be unethical about submitting two offers to buy two different

apartments at the same time? Can you wrap this suspicion in the language of the duties?

2. Is middle-aged mom appealing to the concept of fairness to justify making multiple offers at the same

time? If she is, then how? If she isn’t, what is her reasoning?

3. If Kant decided to make a contribution to this discussion board, what do you think he would write?

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4. Middle-aged mom writes, “Make certain that your contract gives you an out in the unlikely event both are

accepted.” She means that when you make an offer to buy, you actually offer a signed contract to buy the

apartment; but there’s a catch, an escape clause that lets you pull out if you choose. Is that ethical,

offering a signed contract offering to buy a property that includes an “out”?

5. You need a date for Saturday night.

o Would you have any problem with inviting two different people at the same time (by, say, leaving

a message on both their phones)? Why or why not?

o Would you leave yourself an out in case both answers were yes? If not, why not? If so, what would

it be and how could it be justified ethically?

Working at American Apparel

Photo courtesy of Natalia Rivera, http://www.flickr.com/photos/96952704@N00/317531326/.

Dov Charney is an American immigrant success story, but he’s not exactly a “Give me your tired, your

poor” kind of immigrant. He’s a Canadian who came to America to attend an expensive private university.

He ended up founding American Apparel (AA), a clothing manufacturer producing trendy t-shirts and

basics selling mainly to a young, edgy crowd.

Based in Los Angeles, their factory is among the biggest clothes-making operations in the nation. It

employs almost five thousand workers. Those workers are well known for a number of reasons:

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 Just having workers sets AA apart. Nearly all US clothing manufacturers outsource their cutting and

sewing to poor countries. From Mexico to China, you can find factories paying locals fifty cents an hour to

do the same kind of work they do at AA. The difference is the sewers working in Los Angeles typically get

around fifteen dollars an hour. That’s not a lot in Southern California, but it’s enough to make them—

according to AA—the best paid garment workers in the world.

 The workers don’t report to bosses so much as each other. They organize as independent teams paid a

base wage of eight dollars an hour. On top of that they receive a bonus depending on how much they

produce. So they get together, set their own targets, and go for them. This liberating of the workforce led

to nearly a tripling of output and was matched by about a doubling of wages.

 The company features a generous stock options program to help workers buy shares in the enterprise.

 On its own initiative, the company provides basic health-care services through a clinic tucked into a

factory corner. It provides bikes to employees, helping them zip through the downtown traffic morass

without adding pollution to the infamous city smog. There are free telephones in the factory for employees

to use to call family members at home.

 Many of those employees’ family members are in other countries; AA has a very large immigrant

workforce.

 Many of those immigrants are in the country illegally, which partially explains why the company has been

on the forefront of amnesty campaigns, organizing public rallies and media events of all kinds for the

undocumented. Called Legalize LA, the campaign’s title references the fact that a tremendous number of

Southern Californians outside AA are also illegal immigrants.

 In 2009, the federal government indicated to AA that 1,800 of its workers were using Social Security

numbers and other identifying documents that had been purchased, stolen, or just plain invented. In any

case, they didn’t match up. The company was forced to fire the employees.

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QUE STIONS

1. Workers at Charney’s America Apparel are the highest-paid mass-production sewers in the world.

o In terms of Charney’s duties to the self, what ethical case can be made in favor of this high pay?

o In terms of Charney’s duties to others, what ethical case can be made in favor of this high pay?

o Are these wages fair? Why or why not?

2. In terms of duties—either the perennial duties or Kant’s categorical imperative—which is more

recommendable: keeping the AA plant where and how it is, or moving it to Mexico and cutting the

workers’ wages in half? Why is the decision you’ve made the better of the two?

A few factors to consider:

o In Mexico, the workers’ real pay in terms of local buying power would be much higher, even

though the actual amount is less than what they receive here.

o Many of the workers are illegal immigrants from Mexico; their legal situation would obviously be

remedied and proximity to family would increase.

o The national Mexican economy would benefit more from AA’s presence than does the US

economy.

3. Kant’s categorical imperative requires that others be treated as ends and never as means.

o In what way could the argument be made that the employees at AA are being treated as means,

and therefore Charney’s plant is unethical no matter how high his salaries may be?

o Besides high pay, the company provides workers with considerable freedom to set their own work

pace and schedule. The company also provides a stock purchase program. Do either or both of

these factors alleviate the charge that the workers are treated as means and not end? Why or why

not?

4. Eighteen hundreds of AA’s five thousand workers were using false papers and Social Security

numbers to get their job. Charney knew all about that but chose to overlook it.

o Leaving the law aside, how can that overlooking be justified ethically?

o Leaving the law aside, how can Kant are used to cast that action as ethically wrong in terms of

lying? In terms of stealing? In terms of using people as means instead of ends?

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o Charney and AA support illegal immigrants in two ways: by giving them jobs and by organizing

popular protests in favor of their legalization. Ethically, are these two activities recommendable or

not? Or is one recommendable and the other not?

5. Assuming it’s wrong for illegal immigrants to be working in America, who deserves the sterner ethical

reprobation, Charney or the illegal workers? Explain in ethical terms.

6. The basic and natural rights of mainstream rights theory include the following:

o Life

o Freedom

o Free speech

o Religious expression

o The pursuit of happiness

o Possessions and the fruits of our work

o How can these rights be mustered to support Charney’s hiring and keeping workers he knows are

in the country illegally?

o How can these rights be mustered to ethically denounce Charney for hiring and keeping workers

he knows are in the country illegally?

o Thinking about those workers, do these rights give them an ethical license to use false Social

Security numbers and identifying documents? Why or why not?

7. Eddy Lepp ended up in jail for his medicinal marijuana garden, yet Charney sleeps in a million-dollar beach

house. Is this fair?

Pirates

Source: Photo courtesy of Marco Gomes, http://www.flickr.com/photos/marcogomes/1346283989.

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The following is from an online discussion: [2]

overstand:

I’ve been having problems with copying cds and trying to burn them…when the copy process

gets to 4% the used read buffer will go down to zero and continue fluctuating…will someone

let me know the procedures on fixing this.

Retarded

chicken:

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May I ask what CDs are you copying? Usually big companies put copy protection on their CDs

so people don’t ILLEGALLY copy their CDs.

-=iNsAnE=-:

why do people post worthless crap like this? its none of your business what cd’s he’s

copying…don’t accuse him of making illegal copies of cd’s…maybe try posting something

useful next time

Flipside:

It’s not worthless crap mongloid…Copyright protection does prevent the copying of some

disks especially in main-stream programs such as Nero. Try using Clone CD—you may have

better luck with a pure duplication program (No fuss).

QUE STIONS

1. The unanswered question here is whether the CD being copied is copyright protected, in other words,

whether this is a piracy case. Assume it is. If retarded chicken had to fill out an ethical argument against CD

piracy that relied on either the perennial duties or Kant, what could he say?

2. While overstand may be pirating, no one doubts that the original disc is legitimately his. Maybe he bought

it or maybe someone gave it to him; either way, what’s the libertarian argument against retarded chicken?

How could a libertarian justify overstand’s copying?

3. Would a libertarian believe that the company producing the disc has a right to lace it with code that makes

duplication impossible? Explain.

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4. It sounds like Clone CD is specifically made to help pirates get around the copyright protections

manufacturers put on their discs.

o What’s the Kantian case for condemning Clone CD for their project?

o What’s the libertarian case for congratulating them?

Which of the two cases is stronger? Why?

5. Retarded chicken implies that overstand is a thief and -=iNsAnE=- calls retarded chicken’s post

“worthless crap.” Flipside calls -=iNsAnE=- a “mongloid.”

o Is there an ethical case that can be made against the tone of this discussion?

o Does online interaction foster this tone? If so, can an ethical case be made against the existence of

Internet discussion boards?

Gun Shop under Attack

Source: Photo courtesy of jaqian, http://www.flickr.com/photos/jaqian/478574894/.

The headline from a local Oakland newspaper reported that a gun shop is closing due to unfair

taxes. [3] The gun shop’s name was Siegle’s Guns. Closing was inevitable, according to owner Mara Siegle,

after Oakland residents passed Measure D, which levied a huge tax on gun dealers. They had to pay $24

for every $1,000 earned, in comparison to the $1.20 per $1,000 that all the other retailers in Oakland fork

over. “No one can stay in business paying that kind of tax,” Siegle said while preparing her going-out-ofbusiness

sale. “And that’s exactly what Oakland wanted.”

No one disputes the point.

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The disputes are about whether Oakland should want that and whether it’s fair for the city to use taxes as

a weapon.

 Tracy Salkowitz says yes to both. “Except for hunting rifles, the sole purpose of weapons is to kill people.”

Getting rid of gun shops, the logic follows, is a public welfare concern. And about the taxes that brought

the store down? She’s “delighted” by them.

 Mara Siegle’s opinion is that people who don’t hunt and shoot for recreation don’t understand that guns

are a legitimate pastime. “They don’t see this side,” she says, “because they don’t try to.” Further, she

asserts, over the years gun owners have told her that they own guns to defend themselves.

 Outside the store, mingling customers agreed with Siegle. They said closing gun stores was the wrong way

to fight crime and then cursed the city for the unjust taxes.

Amid the winners and losers, Mara Siegle certainly got the rottenest part of the deal. She has two sons,

fifteen and seventeen, and she doesn’t know what she’ll do for income. “I need a job,” she said.

A hand-lettered sign posted in the store’s backroom for the benefit of Siegle’s five full-time employees

displayed the phone number of the unemployment office. The sign said, “You paid for it, use it.”

QUE STIONS

1. With an eye on the concept of fairness, form an argument in favor of the drastically higher taxes imposed

on gun shops.

2. Kant’s categorical imperative prohibits killing. Can it be transformed into an argument against a gun shop

in Oakland?

3. Would an ethics of duties or an ethics of rights work better for Siegle as she defends her business? Why?

What might her argument look like?

4. Unemployment benefits are the result of unemployment insurance, which is not optional.

Workers are forced to pay a bit out of each paycheck to the federal government, and if they lose

their job, they get a biweekly check partially covering lost wages.

o Would a libertarian approve of the unemployment insurance program?

o Would it be right for a libertarian gun shop owner—someone defending her business on

libertarian grounds—to accept unemployment benefits after her shop is forced out of business by

extreme taxes? Explain.

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[1] “Ethical dilemma with submitting two offers at once? (contingency, clause, agent),” City-Data, accessed May

11, 2011, http://www.city-data.com/forum/real-estate/710433-ethical-dilemma-submitting-two-offers-once.html.

 [2] “My cd-burner won’t let me copy the cd…why…,” Hard forum, accessed May 11,

2011,http://www.hardforum.com/archive/index.php/t-711331.html.

 [3] Alexandra J. Wall, “Jewish Gun shop Owner Closing Store; Cites Unfair Taxes,” Jweekly, July 21, 2000, accessed

May 11, 2011,http://www.jweekly.com/article/full/13657/jewish-gunshop-owner-closing-store-cites-unfair-taxes.

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Chapter 3

Theories of Consequence Ethics: Traditional Tools for

Making Decisions in Business when the Ends Justify

the Means

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Chapter Overview

Chapter 3 “Theories of Consequence Ethics: Traditional Tools for Making Decisions in Business when the

Ends Justify the Means” examines some theories guiding ethical decisions in business. It considers ethics

that focuses on the consequences of what is done instead of prohibiting or allowing specific acts.

3.1 What Is Consequentialism?

L EARNING OBJECTIVE

1. Define consequentialism in ethics.

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Consequentialism Defined

What’s more important in ethics—what you do or what happens afterward because of what you did?

People who believe ethics should be about what happens afterward are labeled consequentialists. They

don’t care so much about your act; they want to know about the consequences.

If someone asks, “Should I lie?,” one answer is, “No, lying’s wrong. We all have a duty not to lie and

therefore you shouldn’t do it, no matter what.” That’s not the consequentialist answer, though.

Consequentialists will want to know about the effects. If the lie is about Bernie Madoff assuring everyone

that he’s investing clients’ money in stocks when really he plans to steal it, that’s wrong. But if a

defrauded, livid, and pistol-waving client tracks Madoff down on a crowded street and demands to know

whether he’s Bernie Madoff, the ethically recommendable response might be, “People say I look like him,

but really I’m Bill Martin.” The question, finally, for a consequentialist isn’t whether or not I should lie,

it’s what happens if I do and if I don’t?

Since consequentialists are more worried about the outcome than the action, the central ethical concern

is what kind of outcome should I want? Traditionally, there are three kinds of answers: the utilitarian,

the altruist, and the egoist. Each one will be considered in this chapter.

KEY TAKEAWAY

 Consequentialist ethicists focus on the results of what you do, not what you do.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. Under what scenario could a consequentialist defend the act of stealing?

2. Could a consequentialist recommend that a toy company lie about the age level a toy is designed for?

What would be an example?

3.2 Utilitarianism: The Greater Good

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Define utilitarian ethics.

2. Show how utilitarianism works in business.

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3. Distinguish forms of utilitarianism.

4. Consider advantages and drawbacks of utilitarianism.

The College Board and Karen Dillard

“Have you seen,” the blog post reads, “their parking lot on a Saturday?” [1] Its packed. The lot belongs to

Karen Dillard College Prep (KDCP), a test-preparation company in Dallas. Like the Princeton Review,

they offer high schoolers courses designed to boost performance on the SAT. Very little real learning goes

on in these classrooms; they’re more about techniques and tricks for maximizing scores. Test takers

should know, for example, whether a test penalizes incorrect answers. If it doesn’t, you should take a few

minutes at each section’s end to go through and just fill in a random bubble for all the questions you

couldn’t reach so you’ll get some cheap points. If there is a penalty, though, then you should use your time

to patiently work forward as far as you can go. Knowing the right strategy here can significantly boost

your score. It’s a waste of brain space, though, for anything else in your life.

Some participants in KDCP—who paid as much as $2,300 for the lessons—definitely got some score

boosting for their money. It was unfair boosting, however; at least that’s the charge of the College Board,

the company that produces and administers the SAT.

Here’s what happened. A KDCP employee’s brother was a high school principal, and he was there when

the SATs were administered. At the end of those tests, everyone knows what test takers are instructed to

do: stack the bubble sheets in one pile and the test booklets in the other and leave. The administrators

then wrap everything up and send both the answer sheets and the booklets back to the College Board for

scoring. The principal, though, was pulling a few test booklets out of the stack and sending them over to

his brother’s company, KDCP. As it turns out, some of these pilfered tests were “live”—that is, sections of

them were going to be used again in future tests. Now, you can see how getting a look at those booklets

would be helpful for someone taking those future tests.

Other stolen booklets had been “retired,” meaning the specific questions inside were on their final

application the day the principal grabbed them. So at least in these cases, students taking the test-prep

course couldn’t count on seeing the very same questions come exam day. Even so, the College Board

didn’t like this theft much better because they sell those retired tests to prep companies for good money.

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When the College Board discovered the light-fingered principal and the KDCP advantage, they launched a

lawsuit for infringement of copyright. Probably figuring they had nothing to lose, KDCP sued back. [2]

College Board also threatened—and this is what produced headlines in the local newspaper—to cancel the

scores of the students who they determined had received an unfair advantage from the KDCP course.

As Denton Record-Chronicle reported (and as you can imagine), the students and their families freaked

out. [3] The scores and full application packages had already been delivered to colleges across the country,

and score cancellation would have amounted to application cancellation. And since many of the students

applied only to schools requiring the SAT, the threat amounted to at least temporary college cancellation.

“I hope the College Board thinks this through,” said David Miller, a Plano attorney whose son was

apparently on the blacklist. “If they have a problem with Karen Dillard, that’s one thing. But I hope they

don’t punish kids who wanted to work hard.”

Predictably, the episode crescendo with everyone lawyered up and suits threatened in all directions. In the

end, the scores weren’t canceled. KDCP accepted a settlement calling for them to pay $600,000 directly to

the College Board and provide $400,000 in free classes for high schoolers who’d otherwise be unable to

afford the service. As for the principal who’d been lifting the test booklets, he got to keep his job, which

pays about $87,000 a year. The CEO of College Board, by the way, gets around $830,000. [4] KDCP is a

private company, so we don’t know how much Karen Dillard or her employees make. We do know they

could absorb a million-dollar lawsuit without going into bankruptcy. Finally, the Plano school district in

Texas—a well-to-do suburb north of Dallas—continues to produce some of the nation’s highest SAT score

averages.

One Thief, Three Verdicts

Utilitarianism is a consequentialist ethics—the outcome matters, not the act. Among those who focus on

outcomes, the utilitarian’s distinguishing belief is that we should pursue the greatest good for the

greatest number. So we can act in whatever way we choose—we can be generous or miserly, honest or

dishonest—but whatever we do, to get the utilitarian’s approval, the result should be more people happier.

If that is the result, then the utilitarian needs to know nothing more to label the act ethically

recommendable. (Note: Utility is a general term for usefulness and benefit, thus the theory’s name. In

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everyday language, however, we don’t talk about creating a greater utility but instead a greater good or

happiness.)

In rudimentary terms, utilitarianism is a happiness calculation. When you’re considering doing

something, you take each person who’ll be affected and ask whether they’ll end up happier, sadder, or it

won’t make any difference. Now, those who won’t change don’t need to be counted. Next, for each person

who’s happier, ask, how much happier? Put that amount on one side. For each who’s sadder, ask, how

much sadder? That amount goes on the other side. Finally, add up each column and the greater sum

indicates the ethically recommendable decision.

Utilitarian ethics function especially well in cases like this: You’re on the way to take the SAT, which will

determine how the college application process goes (and, it feels like, more or less your entire life). Your

car breaks down and you get there very late and the monitor is closing the door and you remember

that…you forgot your required number 2 pencils. On a desk in the hall you notice a pencil. It’s gnawed and

abandoned but not yours. Do you steal it? Someone who believes it’s an ethical duty to not steal will

hesitate. But if you’re a utilitarian you’ll ask: Does taking it serve the greater good? It definitely helps you

a lot, so there’s positive happiness accumulated on that side. What about the victim? Probably whoever

owns it doesn’t care too much. Might not even notice it’s gone. Regardless, if you put your increased

happiness on one side and weigh it against the victim’s hurt on the other, the end result is almost certainly

a net happiness gain. So with a clean conscience you grab it and dash into the testing room. According to

utilitarian reasoning, you’ve done the right thing ethically (assuming the pencil’s true owner isn’t coming

up behind you in the same predicament).

Pushing this theory into the KDCP case, one tense ethical location is the principal lifting test booklets and

sending them over to his brother at the test-prep center. Everything begins with a theft. The booklets do

in fact belong to the College Board; they’re sent around for schools to use during testing and are meant to

be returned afterward. So here there’s already the possibility of stopping and concluding that the

principal’s act is wrong simply because stealing is wrong. Utilitarian’s, however, don’t want to move so

quickly. They want to see the outcome before making an ethical judgment. On that front, there are two

distinct outcomes: one covering the live tests, and the other the retired ones.

Live tests were those with sections that may appear again. When students at KDCP received them for

practice, they were essentially receiving cheat sheets. Now for a utilitarian, the question is, does the

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situation serve the general good? When the testing’s done, the scores are reported, and the college

admissions decisions made, will there be more overall happiness then there would’ve been had the tests

not been stolen? It seems like the answer has to be no. Obviously those with great scores will be smiling,

but many, many others will see their scores drop (since SATs are graded on a curve or as a percentile). So

there’s some major happiness for a few on one side balanced by unhappiness for many on the other. Then

things get worse. When the cheating gets revealed, the vast majority of test takers who didn’t get the edge

are going to be irritated, mad, or furious. Their parents too. Remember, it’s not only admission that’s at

stake here but also financial aid, so the students who didn’t get the KDCP edge worry not only that maybe

they should’ve gotten into a better school but also that they end up paying more too. Finally, the colleges

will register a net loss: all their work in trying to admit students on the basis of fair, equal evaluations gets

thrown into question.

Conclusion. The theft of live tests fails the utilitarian test. While a few students may come out better off

and happier, the vast majority more than balances the effect with disappointment and anger. The greater

good isn’t served.

In the case of the theft of “retired” tests where the principal forwarded to KDCP test questions that won’t

reappear on future exams, it remains true that the tests were lifted from the College Board and it remains

true that students who took the KDCP prep course will receive an advantage because they’re practicing the

SAT. But the advantage doesn’t seem any greater than the one enjoyed by students all around the nation

who purchased prep materials directly from the College Board and practiced for the exam by taking old

tests. More—and this was a point KDCP made in their countersuit against the College Board—stealing the

exams was the ethically right thing to do because it assured that students taking the KDCP prep course

got the same level of practice and expertise as those using official College Board materials. If the tests

hadn’t been stolen, then wouldn’t KDCP kids be at an unfair disadvantage when compared with others

because their test practices hadn’t been as close to the real thing as others got? In the end, the argument

goes, stealing the tests assured that as many people as possible who took prep courses got to practice on

real exams.

Conclusion. The theft of the exams by the high school principal may conceivably be congratulated by a

utilitarian because it increases general happiness. The students who practiced on old exams purchased

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from the College Board can’t complain. And as for those students at KDCP, their happiness increases since

they can be confident that they’ve prepared as well as possible for the SAT.

The fact that a utilitarian argument can be used to justify the theft of test booklets, at least retired ones,

doesn’t end the debate, however. Since the focus is on outcomes, all of them have to be considered. And

one outcome that might occur if the theft is allowed is, obviously, that maybe other people will start

thinking stealing exam books isn’t such a bad idea. If they do—if everyone decides to start stealing—it’s

hard to see how anything could follow but chaos, anger, and definitely not happiness.

This discussion could continue as more people and consequences are factored in, but what won’t change is

the basic utilitarian rule. What ought to be done is determined by looking at the big picture and deciding

which acts increase total happiness at the end of the day when everyone is taken into account.

Should the Scores Be Canceled?

After it was discovered that KDCP students got to practice for the SATs with live exams, the hardest

question facing the College Board was, should their scores be canceled? The utilitarian argument

for not canceling is straightforward. Those with no scores may not go to college at all next year. This is

real suffering, and if your aim is to increase happiness, then counting the exams is one step in that

direction. It’s not the last step, though, because utilitarian’s at the College Board need to ask

about everyone else’s happiness too: what’s the situation for all the others who took the exam but has

never heard of KDCP? Unfortunately, letting the scores be counted is going to subtract from their

happiness because the SAT is graded comparatively: one person doing well means everyone getting fewer

correct answers sees their score drop, along with college choices and financial aid possibilities. Certainly

it’s true that each of these decreases will be small since there were only a handful of suspect tests. Still, a

descent, no matter how tiny, is a descent, and all the little bits add up.

What’s most notable, finally, about this decision is the imbalance. Including the scores of KDCP students

will weigh a tremendous increase in happiness for a very few against a slight decrease for very many.

Conversely, a few will be left very sad, and many slightly happier. So for a utilitarian, which is it? It’s hard

to say. It is clear, however, that this uncertainty represents a serious practical problem with the ethical

theory. In some situations you can imagine yourself in the shoes of the different people involved and,

using your own experience and knowledge, estimate which decision will yield the most total happiness. In

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this situation, though, it seems almost impossible because there are so many people mixed up in the

question.

Then things get still more difficult. For the utilitarian, it’s not enough to just decide what brings the most

happiness to the most individuals right now; the future needs to be accounted for too. Utilitarianism is a

true global ethics; you’re required to weigh everyone’s happiness and weigh it as best as you can as far into

the future as possible. So if the deciders at the College Board follow a utilitarian route in opting to include

(or cancel) the scores, they need to ask themselves—if we do, how will things be in ten years? In fifty?

Again, these are hard questions but they don’t change anything fundamental. For the utilitarian, making

the right decision continues to be about attempting to predict which choice will maximize happiness.

Utilitarianism and the Ethics of Salaries

When he wasn’t stealing test booklets and passing them on to KDCP, the principal in the elite Plano

school district was dedicated to his main job: making sure students in his building receive an education

qualifying them to do college-level work. Over at the College Board, the company’s CEO leads a

complementary effort: producing tests to measure the quality of that preparation and consequently

determine students’ scholastic aptitude. The principal, in other words, is paid to make sure high schoolers

get an excellent education, and the CEO is paid to measure how excellent (or not) the education is.

Just from the job descriptions, who should get the higher salary? It’s tempting to say the principal.

Doesn’t educating children have to be more important than measuring how well they’re educated?

Wouldn’t we all rather be well educated and not know it than poorly educated and painfully aware of the

fact?

Regardless, what’s striking about the salary that each of these two actually receives isn’t who gets more;

it’s how much. The difference is almost ten times: $87,000 for the principal versus the CEO’s $830,000.

Within the doctrine of utilitarianism, can such a divergence be justified?

Yes, but only if we can show that this particular salary structure brings about the greatest good, the

highest level of happiness for everyone considered as a collective. It may be, for example, that objectively

measuring student ability, even though it’s less important than instilling ability, is also much harder. In

that case, a dramatically higher salary may be necessary in order to lure high-quality measuring talent.

From there, it’s not difficult to fill out a utilitarian justification for the pay divergence. It could be that

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inaccurate testing would cause large amounts of unhappiness: students who worked hard for years would

be frustrated when they were bettered by slackers who really didn’t know much but managed to score well

on a test.

To broaden the point, if tremendous disparities in salary end up making people happier, then the

disparities are ethical. Period. If they don’t, however, then they can no longer be defended. This differs

from what a libertarian rights theorist might say here. For a libertarian—someone who believes

individuals have an undeniable right to make and keep whatever they can in the world, regardless of how

rich or poor anyone else may be—the response to the CEO’s mammoth salary is that he found a way to

earn it fair and square, and everyone should quit complaining about it. Generalized happiness doesn’t

matter, only the individual’s right to try to earn and keep as much as he or she can.

Can Money Buy Utilitarian Happiness? The Ford Pinto Case

Basic questions in business tend to be quantitative, and money is frequently the bottom line: How many

dollars is it worth? What’s my salary? What’s the company’s profit? The basic question of utilitarianism

is qualitative: how much happiness and sadness is there? Inevitably, it’s going to be difficult when

businesses accustomed to bottom-line number decisions are forced to cross over and decide about general

happiness. One of the most famous attempts to make the transition easier occurred back in the 1970s.

With gas prices on the rise, American car buyers were looking for smaller, more efficient models than

Detroit was manufacturing. Japanese automakers were experts in just those kinds of vehicles and they

were seizing market share at an alarming rate. Lee Iacocca, Ford’s president, wanted to rush a car into

production to compete. His model was the Pinto. [5]

A gas sipper slated to cost $2,000 (about $12,000 today); Ford rushed the machine through early

production and testing. Along the way, unfortunately, they noticed a design problem: the gas tank’s

positioning in the car’s rump left it vulnerable to rear-end collisions. In fact, when the rear-end hit came

faster than twenty miles per hour, not only might the tank break, but gasoline could be splattered all the

way up to the driver’s compartment. Fire, that meant, ignited by sparks or anything else could engulf

those inside.

No car is perfectly safe, but this very scary vulnerability raised eyebrows. At Ford, a debate erupted about

going ahead with the vehicle. On the legal end, the company stood on solid ground: government

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regulation at the time only required gas tanks to remain intact at collisions under twenty miles per hour.

What about the ethics, though? The question about whether it was right to charge forward was

unavoidable because rear-end accidents at speeds greater than twenty miles per hour happen—every day.

The decision was finally made in utilitarian terms. On one side, the company totaled up the dollar cost of

redesigning the car’s gas tank. They calculated

 12.5 million automobiles would eventually be sold,

 eleven dollars would be the final cost per car to implement the redesign.

Added up, that’s $137 million total, with the money coming out of Pinto buyers’ pockets since the added

production costs would get tacked onto the price tag. It’s a big number but it’s not that much per person:

$11 is about $70 today. In this way, the Pinto situation faced by Ford executives is similar to the test

cancellation question for the College Board: one option means only a little bit of suffering for specific

individuals, but there are a lot of them.

On the other side of the Pinto question—and, again, this resembles the College Board predicament—if the

decision is made to go ahead without the fix, there’s going to be a lot of suffering but only for a very few

people. Ford predicted the damage done to those few people in the following ways:

 Death by burning for 180 buyers

 Serious burn injuries for another 180 buyers

 Twenty-one hundred vehicles burned beyond all repair

That’s a lot of damage, but how do you measure it? How do you compare it with the hike in the price tag?

More generally, from a utilitarian perspective, is it better for a lot of people to suffer a little or for a few

people to suffer a lot?

Ford answered both questions by directly attaching monetary values to each of the injuries and damages

suffered:

 At the time, 1970, US Government regulatory agencies officially valued a human life at $200,000. (That

would be about $1.2 million today if the government still kept this problematic measure.)

 Insurance companies valued a serious burn at $67,000.

 The average resale value on subcompacts like the Pinto was $700, which set that as the amount lost after a

complete burnout.

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The math coming out from this is (180 deaths Å~ $200,000) + (180 injuries Å~ $67,000) + (2,100 burnedout

cars Å~ $700) = $49 million. The result here is $137 million worth of suffering for Pinto drivers if the

car is redesigned and only $49 million if it goes to the streets as is.

Ford sent the Pinto out. Over the next decade, according to Ford estimates, at least 60 people died in fiery

accidents and at least 120 got seriously burned (skin-graft-level burns). No attempt was made to calculate

the total number of burned vehicles. Shortly thereafter, the Pinto was phased out. No one has final

numbers, but if the first decade is any indication, then the total cost came in under the original $49

million estimate. According to a utilitarian argument, and assuming the premises concerning dollar

values are accepted, Ford made the right decision back in 1970.

If every Pinto purchaser had been approached the day after buying the car, told the whole Ford story, and

been offered to change their car along with eleven dollars for another one without the gas tank problem,

how many would’ve handed the money over to avoid the long-shot risk? The number might’ve been very

high, but that doesn’t sway a utilitarian conclusion. The theory demands that decision makers stubbornly

keep their eye on overall happiness no matter how much pain a decision might cause certain individuals.

Versions of Utilitarian Happiness

Monetized utilitarianism attempts to measure happiness, to the extent possible, in terms of money. As the

Ford Pinto case demonstrated, the advantage here is that it allows decisions about the greater good to be

made in clear, objective terms. You add up the money on one side and the money on the other and the

decision follows automatically. This is a very attractive benefit, especially when you’re dealing with large

numbers of individuals or complex situations. Monetized utilitarianism allows you to keep your happiness

calculations straight.

Two further varieties of utilitarianism are hedonistic and idealistic. Both seek to maximize human

happiness, but their definitions of happiness differ. Hedonistic utilitarian’s trace back to Jeremy Bentham

(England, around 1800). Bentham was a wealthy and odd man who left his fortune to the University

College of London along with the stipulation that his mummified body be dressed and present at the

institution. It remains there today. He sits in a wooden cabinet in the main building, though his head has

been replaced by a wax model after pranking students repeatedly stole the real one. Bentham believed

that pleasure and happiness are ultimately synonymous. Ethics, this means, seeks to maximize the

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pleasures—just about any sensation of pleasure—felt by individuals. But before dropping everything and

heading out to the bars, it should be remembered that even the most hedonistic of the utilitarian’s believe

that getting pleasure right now is good but not as good as maximizing the feeling over the long term.

(Going out for drinks, in others words, instead of going to the library isn’t recommendable on the evening

before midterms.)

A contemporary of Bentham, John Stuart Mill, basically agreed that ethics is about maximizing pleasure,

but his more idealistic utilitarianism distinguished low and highbrow sensations. The kinds of raw, good

feelings that both we and animals can find, according to Mill, are second-rate pleasures. Pleasures with

higher and more real value include learning and learnedness. These aren’t physical joys so much as the

delights of the mind and the imagination. For Mill, consequently, libraries and museums are scenes of

abundant pleasure, much more than any bar.

This idealistic notion of utilitarianism fits quite well with the College Board’s response to the KDCP

episode. First, deciding against canceling student scores seems like a way of keeping people on track to

college and headed toward the kind of learning that rewards our cerebral inclinations. Further, awarding

free prep classes to those unable to pay seems like another step in that direction, at least if it helps get

them into college.

Versions of Utilitarian Regulation

A narrow distinction with far-reaching effects divides soft from hard utilitarianism. Soft utilitarianism is

the standard version; when people talk about a utilitarian ethics, that’s generally what they mean. As a

theory, soft utilitarianism is pretty laid back: an act is good if the outcome is more happiness in the world

than we had before. Hard utilitarianism, on the other hand, demands more: an act is ethically

recommendable only if the total benefits for everyone are greater than those produced by any other act.

According to the hard version, it’s not enough to do well; you must do the most good possible. As an

example, think about the test-prep company KDCP under the microscope of utilitarian examination.

 When a soft utilitarian looks at KDCP, the company comes out just fine. High schoolers are learning testtaking

skills and tricks that they’ll only use once but will help in achieving a better score and leave behind

a sense that they’ve done all they can to reach their college goals. That means the general happiness level

probably goes up—or at worst holds steady—because places like KDCP are out there.

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 When a hard utilitarian looks at KDCP, however, the company doesn’t come off so well. Can we really say

that this enterprise’s educational subject—test taking—is the very best use of teaching resources in terms

of general welfare and happiness? And what about the money? Is SAT prep really the best way for society

to spend its dollars? Wouldn’t a hard utilitarian have to recommend that the tuition money collected by

the test-prep company get siphoned off to pay for, say, college tuition for students who otherwise wouldn’t

be able to continue their studies at all?

If decisions about businesses are totally governed by the need to create the most happiness possible, then

companies like KDCP that don’t contribute much to social well-being will quickly become endangered.

The demands of hard utilitarianism can be layered onto the ethical decision faced by the College Board in

their courtroom battle with KDCP. Ultimately, the College Board opted to penalize the test-prep company

by forcing it to offer some free classes for underprivileged students. Probably, the result was a bit more

happiness in the world. The result wasn’t, however, the most happiness possible. If hard utilitarianism

had driven the decision, then the College Board would’ve been forced to go for the jugular against KDCP,

strip away all the money they could, and then use it to do the most good possible, which might have meant

setting up a scholarship fund or something similar. That’s just a start, though. Next, to be true to hard

utilitarianism, the College Board would need to focus on itself with hard questions. The costs of creating

and applying tests including the SAT are tremendous, which makes it difficult to avoid this question:

wouldn’t society as a whole be better off if the College Board were to be canceled and all their resources

dedicated to, for example, creating a new university for students with learning disabilities?

Going beyond KDCP and the College Board, wouldn’t almost any private company fall under the threat of

appropriation if hard utilitarian’s ran the world? While it’s true, for example, that the money spent on

steak and wine at expensive Las Vegas restaurants probably increases happiness a bit, couldn’t that same

cash do a lot more for the general welfare of people whose income makes Las Vegas an impossibly

expensive dream? If it could, then the hard utilitarian will propose zipping up Las Vegas and rededicating

the money.

Finally, since utilitarianism is about everyone’s total happiness, don’t hard questions start coming up

about world conditions? Is it possible to defend the existence of McDonald’s in the United States while

people are starving in other countries?

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Conclusion. In theory, there’s not much divergence between soft and hard utilitarianism. But in terms of

what actually happens out in the world when the theory gets applied, that’s a big difference. For private

companies, it’s also a dangerous one.

Two further versions of utilitarian regulation are act and rule. Act utilitarianism affirms that a specific

action is recommended if it increases happiness. This is the default form of utilitarianism, and what

people usually mean when they talk about the theory. The separate rule-based version asserts that an

action is morally right if it follows a rule that, when applied to everyone, increases general happiness.

The rule utilitarian asks whether we’d all be benefitted if everyone obeyed a rule such as “don’t steal.” If

we would—if the general happiness level increases because the rule is there—then the rule utilitarian

proposes that we all adhere to it. It’s important to note that rule utilitarian’s aren’t against stealing

because it’s intrinsically wrong, as duty theorists may propose. The rule utilitarian is only against stealing

if it makes the world less happy. If tomorrow it turns out that mass stealing serves the general good, then

theft becomes the ethically right thing to do.

The sticky point for rule utilitarian’s involves special cases. If we make the rule that theft is wrong,

consider what happens in the case from the chapter’s beginning: You forgot your pencil on SAT test day,

and you spot one lying on an abandoned desk. If you don’t take it, no one’s going to be any happier, but

you’ll be a lot sadder. So it seems like rule utilitarianism verges on defeating its own purpose, which is

maximizing happiness no matter what.

On the other hand, there are also sticky points for act utilitarian’s. For example, if I go to Wal-Mart

tonight and steal a six-pack of beer, I’ll be pretty happy. And assuming I don’t get caught, no one will be

any sadder. The loss to the company—a few dollars—will disappear in a balance sheet so huge that it’s

hard to count the zeros. Of course if everyone starts stealing beers, that will cause a problem, but in

practical terms, if one person does it once and gets away with it, it seems like an act utilitarian would have

to approve. The world would be a happier place.

Advantages and Disadvantages of Utilitarian Ethics in Business

Basic utilitarianism is the soft, act version. These are the theory’s central advantages:

 Clarity and simplicity. In general terms, it’s easy to understand the idea that we should all act to

increase the general welfare.

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 Acceptability. The idea of bringing the greatest good to the greatest number coheres with common and

popular ideas about what ethical guidance is supposed to provide.

 Flexibility. The weighing of individual actions in terms of their consequences allows for meaningful and

firm ethical rules without requiring that everyone be treated identically no matter how different the

particular situation. So the students whose scores were suspended by the College Board could see them

reinstated, but that doesn’t mean the College Board will take the same action in the future (if, say, large

numbers of people start stealing test booklets).

 Breadth. The focus on outcomes as registered by society overall makes the theory attractive for those

interested in public policy. Utilitarianism provides a foundation and guidance for business regulation by

government.

The central difficulties and disadvantages of utilitarianism include the following:

 Subjectivity. It can be hard to make the theory work because it’s difficult to know what makes happiness

and unhappiness for specific individuals. When the College Board demanded that KDCP give free classes

to underprivileged high schoolers, some paying students were probably happy to hear the news, but

others probably fretted about paying for what others received free. And among those who received the

classes, probably the amount of resulting happiness varied between them.

 Quantification. Happiness can’t be measured with a ruler or weighed on a scale; it’s hard to know

exactly how much happiness and unhappiness any particular act produces. This translates into confusion

at decision time. (Monetized utilitarianism, like that exhibited in the case of the Ford Pinto, responds to

this confusion.)

 Apparent injustices. Utilitarian principles can produce specific decisions that seem wrong. A quick

example is the dying grandmother who informs her son that she’s got $200,000 stuffed into her mattress.

She asks the son to divide the money with his brother. This brother, however, is a gambling alcoholic

who’ll quickly fritter away his share. In that case, the utilitarian would recommend that the other

brother—the responsible one with children to put through college—just keep all the money. That would

produce the most happiness, but do we really want to deny grandma her last wish?

 The utilitarian monster is a hypothetical individual who really knows how to feel good. Imagine that

someone or a certain group of people were found to have a much greater capacity to experience happiness

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than others. In that case, the strict utilitarian would have no choice but to put everyone else to work

producing luxuries and other pleasures for these select individuals. In this hypothetical situation, there

could even be an argument for forced labor as long as it could be shown that the servants’ suffering was

minor compared to the great joy celebrated by those few who were served. Shifting this into economic and

business terms, there’s a potential utilitarian argument here for vast wage disparities in the workplace.

 The utilitarian sacrifice is the selection of one person to suffer terribly so that others may be pleasured.

Think of gladiatorial games in which a few contestants suffer miserably, but a tremendous number of

spectators enjoy the thrill of the contest. Moving the same point from entertainment into the business of

medical research, there’s a utilitarian argument here for drafting individuals—even against their will—to

endure horrifying medical experiments if it could be shown that the experiments would, say, cure cancer,

and so create tremendous happiness in the future.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Utilitarianism judges specific decisions by examining the decision’s consequences.

 Utilitarianism defines right and wrong in terms of the happiness of a society’s members.

 Utilitarian ethics defines an act as good when its consequences bring the greatest good or happiness to

the greatest number of people.

 There are a variety of specific forms of utilitarianism.

 Theoretically, utilitarianism is straightforward, but in practical terms it can be difficult to measure the

happiness of individuals.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. What is a utilitarian argument in favor of a college education? How does it differ from other reasons you

might want to go to college or graduate school?

2. How could a utilitarian justify cheating on an exam?

3. What is a “global ethics”?

4. What practical problem with utilitarianism is (to some degree) resolved by monetized utilitarianism?

5. What are two advantages of a utilitarian ethics when compared with an ethics of duties?

6. What are two disadvantages of a utilitarian ethics when compared with an ethics of duties?

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7. What’s an example from today’s world of a utilitarian monster?

8. What’s an example from today’s world of a utilitarian sacrifice?

 [1] “CB-Karen Dillard Case Settled-No Cancelled Scores,” College Confidential, accessed May 15,

2011, http://talk.collegeconfidential.com/parents-forum/501843-cb-karen-dillard-case-settled-no-cancelledscores.

html.

 [2] Paulina Mis, “College Board Sues Test-Prep Company, Countersuit Filed,” Scholarships.com, February 26, 2008,

accessed May 15, 2011,http://www.scholarships.com/blog/high-school/college-board-sues-test-prep-companycountersuit-

filed/161.

 [3] Staci Hupp, “SAT Scores for Students Who Used Test Prep Firm May Be Thrown Out, “Denton Record Chronicle,

February 22, 2008, accessed May 15, 2011.

 [4] “AETR Report Card,” Americans for Educational Testing Reform, accessed May 15,

2011, http://www.aetr.org/college-board.php.

[5] Case facts taken from Manuel Velasquez, Business Ethics, Concepts and Cases, 6th ed. (Upper Saddle River, NJ:

Pearson Prentice Hall, 2006), 60–61.

3.3 Altruism: Everyone Else

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Define altruistic ethics.

2. Show how altruism works in and with business.

3. Consider advantages and drawbacks of altruism.

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TOMS Shoes

There is no Tom at TOMS Shoes. The company’s name actually came from the title for its social cause:

Shoes for Tomorrow. Tomorrow shoes—TOMS Shoes. The shoes are given away to needy children in

Argentina at a one-to-one rate: for every pair bought in the United States, TOMS delivers a pair down

there.

They’re needed in Argentina’s poverty-stricken regions to prevent the spread of an infectious disease, one

that flourishes in the local soil and rises up through the feet. A pair of shoes is all that’s needed to block

the problem.

The project started when young Texan entrepreneur Blake Mycoskie vacationed in Argentina. Not the type

to luxuriate in the hotel pool, he got out and learned about the country, good and bad, the food, the

sweeping geography, the poverty and diseases. The foot infection, he discovered, was so devastating yet so

easy to block that, according to his company’s website, he decided he had to do something about

it. [1] Initially, he contemplated a charitable fund to buy shoes for the needy children, but that left his

project subject to the ebb and flow of others’ generosity. It’d be better and more reliable, he determined,

to link the community-service project with private enterprise and use revenues from a company to fund

the charity. Quickly, Mycoskie determined that he could make the whole machine work most efficiently by

starting a shoe company. Simultaneously, he could produce shoes for donation and shoes for sale to

finance the effort. So we have TOMS Shoes.

Next, a kind of shoe to produce and sell was required. Mycoskie found inspiration in Argentina’s

traditional alpargata. This is a cheap, workingman’s shoe, a slip-on made from canvas with rope

soles. [2] For the American adaptation, Mycoskie strengthened the sole, styled and colored the canvas, and

added a brand label. The price also got jacked up. The originals cost a few dollars in Argentina; the

adaptations cost about forty dollars here.

They’re a splashy hit. You find TOMS Shoes at trendy footwear shops, at Whole Foods grocery stores, and

all over the Internet. At last check, about half a million pairs have been sold and an equal number

donated. Total sales in seven figures aren’t far off, and the company was recently featured on a CNBC

segment as an American business success story. Notably, TOMS achieved recognition on national TV

sooner after its inception than almost any other enterprise in the program’s history. It all happened in

fewer than four years.

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Question: how did it get so big so fast? How did some guy transform from a wandering tourist to a captain

of the shoe industry in less time than it takes to get a college degree? Answer: celebrities.

Blake Mycoskie’s got a warm, round face and a perfect smile. He’s got money from his pre-shoe projects

and he’s smart too. He’s also got that contemporary bohemian look down with his bead necklace and

wavy, shoulder-length hair. There’s no letdown beneath the chin line either; he’s fit (he was a tennis pro

until nineteen). You get the idea. He commands attention from even Hollywood women, and he ended up

 

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coupled with the midrange star Maggie Grace. He introduced her to his TOMS Shoes concept, gave her a

few pairs to wear around and show friends, and the ball started rolling. [3]

A few parties later, Scarlett Johansson, Jessica Biel, Benicio Del Toro, Tobey Maguire, Sienna Miller, and

Karl Lagerfeld were parading around in TOMS Shoes. There was no stopping it. [4]

Today, when Blake Mycoskie introduces himself, it’s not as the CEO of his company; he says he’s the Chief

Shoe Giver at TOMS Shoes, reflecting the idea that charity drives the thriving business, not the other way

around.

Is TOMS Shoes Altruistic?

An action is morally right according to the altruist, and to the ethical theory of altruism, if the action’s

consequences are more beneficial than unfavorable for everyone except the person who acts. That means

the actor’s interests aren’t considered: the altruist does whatever can be done so that others will be

happier.

It’s common to imagine the altruist as poverty stricken and self-sacrificing. When you live for everyone

else as the altruist does, it’s no surprise that you can end up in pretty bad shape. You might get lucky and

run into another altruist like yourself, but if you don’t, there’s not going to be anyone particularly

dedicated to your well-being. On the positive side there’s nobility to the idea of dedicating everything to

everyone else, but the plain truth is not many of us would choose to live like Gandhi or Mother Teresa.

It doesn’t have to be that way, though. A suffering life may be an effect of altruism, but it’s not a

requirement. Living for others doesn’t mean you live poorly, only that there’s no guarantee you’ll live well.

You might, however, live well. Blake Mycoskie demonstrates this critical element at the heart of altruism:

it’s not about suffering or sacrificing; it’s about making clear-eyed decisions about the best way to make as

many others as happy as possible. If you happen to live the good life along the way—partying with Maggie

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Grace, Sienna Miller, and friends because that’s the fastest route to publicize the TOMS Shoes

enterprise—that doesn’t count against the project. It doesn’t count in favor either. All that matters, all that

gets tallied up when the question gets asked about whether the altruist did good, is how things ended up

for everyone else.

In the case of TOMS Shoes, the tallying is easy. The relatively wealthy shoe buyers in the United States

come off well; they get cool, politically correct footwear to show friends along with a psychological lift

from knowing they’re helping the less fortunate. On the other side, the rural Argentines obviously benefit

also.

Some Rules of Altruism

Altruism is a consequentialist ethics. Like utilitarianism, no specific acts are prohibited or required; only

outcomes matter. That explains why there aren’t lifestyle requirements for the altruist. Some live stoically

like Gandhi while others like Mycoskie get the high life, but they’re both altruists as long as the goal of

their lives and the reason for their actions is bringing happiness to others. Similarly, the altruist might be

a criminal (Robin Hood) or a liar (see Socrates’ noble lie).

Like the utilitarian, most of the hard questions altruists face concern happiness. They include:

 The happiness definition. Exactly what counts as happiness? In the case of TOMS donating shoes to rural

Argentines, the critical benefit is alleviation of disease and the suffering coming with it. Happiness, in

other words, is defined here as a release from real, physical pain. On the other hand, with respect to the

shoes sold in the States, the happiness is completely different; it’s a vague, good feeling that purchasers

receive knowing their shopping is serving a social cause. How do we define happiness in a way that ropes

in both these distinct experiences?

 Once happiness has been at least loosely defined, another question altruist’s face is the happiness

measure: how do we know which is worth more, the alleviation of suffering from a disease or the warm

happiness of serving a good cause? And even if the answer to that question is clear, how great is the

difference, how can it be measured?

 Another altruism difficulty is happiness foresight. Even if donating shoes helps in the short term, are the

recipients’ lives really going to be happier overall? Conditions are hard in the abandoned regions of the

third world, and alleviation of one problem may just clear the way for another. So TOMS Shoes saves

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poverty-stricken Argentines from suffering a debilitating foot disease, but how much good are you really

doing if you save people only so that they’re free to suffer aching hunger, miserable sickness in places

lacking antibiotics, and hard manual labor because there’s no other work?

Altruism is a variety of selflessness, but it’s not the same thing; people may deny themselves or they may

sacrifice themselves for all kinds of other reasons. For example, a soldier may die in combat, but that’s not

altruism; that’s loyalty: it’s not sacrificing for everyone else but for a particular nation. The same may go

for the political protestor who ends up jailed and forgotten forever. That’s self-sacrifice, but she did it for

the cause and not for all the others. The fireman may lose his life rescuing a victim, but this is because he’s

doing his job, not because he’s decided to live for the sake of others. All altruists, finally, are selfless, but

not all those who sacrifice themselves are altruists.

Personal versus impersonal altruism distinguishes two kinds of altruists: those who practice altruism on

their own and leave everyone else alone and those who believe that everyone should act only to benefit

others and without regard to their own well-being.

The Altruist in Business and the Business That Is Altruistic

TOMS Shoes shows that a business can be mounted to serve the welfare of others. A company aiming to

serve an altruistic purpose doesn’t have to be organized altruistically, however. An individual truly

dedicated to everyone else could start a more traditional company (a real estate firm, for example), work

like a dog, turn massive profits, and in the end, donate everything to charity. It may even be that during

the profit-making phase the altruist CEO is ruthless, exploiting workers and consumers to the maximum.

All that’s fine as long as the general welfare is served in the end when all the suffering is toted up on one

side and the happiness on the other. A business operation that isn’t at all altruistic, in other words, can be

bent in that direction by an altruistic owner.

Going the other way, the business operation itself may be altruistic. For example, this comes from the

College Board’s website, the About Us page: The College Board is a not-for-profit membership association

whose mission is to connect students to college success and opportunity. [5]

That sounds like a good cause. The company doesn’t exist to make money but to implement testing that

matches students with their best-fit colleges. It is, in other words, an altruistic enterprise, and the world,

the argument could be made, is a better place because the College Board exists. But—and this is the

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important distinction—that doesn’t mean everyone who works at the College Board is selfless. Far from it,

the CEO takes home $830,000 a year. That money would buy a lot of shoes for the poverty-stricken in

Argentina. So, there can be altruistic business organizations driven by workers who aren’t altruists.

A church is also a business organization with cash flows, budgets, and red and black ink. The same goes

for Goodwill. Here’s their mission statement: “Goodwill Industries International enhances the dignity and

quality of life of individuals, families and communities by eliminating barriers to opportunity and helping

people in need reach their fullest potential through the power of work.” [6] So, the Salvation Army fits into

the group of altruistic enterprises, of organizations that exist, like the College Board, to do public good.

It’s distinct from the College Board, however, in that a very healthy percentage of those working inside the

organization are themselves altruists—they’re working for the cause, not their own welfare. Think of the

Salvation Army red kettle bell ringers around Christmas time.

Conclusion. Altruism connects with business in three basic ways. There are altruists who use normal,

profit-driven business operations to do well. There are altruistic companies that do good by employing no

altruistic workers. And there are altruistic organizations composed of altruistic individuals.

Advocating and Challenging Ethical Altruism

The arguments for and against an altruistic ethics overlap to a considerable extent with those listed under

utilitarianism. The advantages include:

 Clarity and simplicity. People may disagree about exactly how much good a company like TOMS Shoes

is really doing, but the overall idea that the founder is working so that others can be happier is easy to

grasp.

 Acceptability. The idea of working for others grants an ethical sheen. No matter what you might think of

someone as a person, it’s very difficult to criticize them in ethical terms if they really are dedicating

themselves to the well-being of everyone else.

 Flexibility. Altruists have many ways of executing their beliefs.

The disadvantages of altruism include:

 Uncertainty about the happiness of others. Even if individuals decide to sacrifice their own welfare

for the good of others, how do they know for sure what makes others happy?

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 Shortchanging yourself. Even though altruism doesn’t require that the altruist live a miserable life,

there doesn’t seem to be any clear reason why the altruist shouldn’t get an at least equal claim to

happiness as everyone else (as in a utilitarian approach). Also, some critics suspect that altruism can be a

way of escaping your own life: if you spend all your time volunteering, could it be that deep down you’re

not a good soul so much as just afraid of going out into the competitive world and trying to win a good

place for yourself?

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Altruism defines ethically good as any act that ends up increasing net happiness (or decreasing net

unhappiness) when everything is taken into account except the actor’s increased or diminished happiness.

 Altruism doesn’t require living a miserable life.

 Altruism intersects with the business world in various ways.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. Theoretically, could the most devoted altruist in a society also be its richest and happiest member? How?

2. Does Blake Mycoskie have to be an altruist for TOMS Shoes to be considered an altruistic enterprise?

3. Does TOMS Shoes have to be an altruistic enterprise for Mycoskie to be considered an altruist?

4. What are some other motives that may lead someone to live the life of an altruist?

 [1] TOMS Shoes, “One for One Movement,” accessed May 15, 2011,http://www.toms.com/our-movement.

 [2] TOMS Shoes, accessed May 15, 2011,http://cdn2.tomsshoes.com/images/uploads/2006-oct-vogue.jpg.

 [3] Sharon_b, December 14, 2008 (5:24 p.m.), “Blake Mycoskie—he’s handsome, rich and helps children in the

 

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Third World,” Gossip Rocks, accessed May 15, 2011,http://www.gossiprocks.com/forum/news/90958-blakemycoskie-

hes-handsome-rich-helps-children-third-world.html.

 [4] Lesley M. M. Blume, “You Are What You Wear,” Huffington Post, July 30, 2008, accessed May 15,

2011, http://www.huffingtonpost.com/lesley-m-m-blume/you-are-what-you-wear_b_65967.html.

 [5] “About Us,” College Board accessed May 15, 2011, http://about.collegeboard.org.

[6] “Our Mission,” Goodwill Industries International, Inc., accessed May 15, 2011,http://www.goodwill.org/aboutus/

our-mission.

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3.4 Egoism: Just Me

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Define ethical egoism.

2. Show how egoism works in and with business.

3. Consider advantages and drawbacks of egoism.

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Ethical Egoism

Ethical egoism: whatever action serves my self-interest is also the morally right action. What’s good for

me in the sense that it gives me pleasure and happiness is also good in the sense that it’s the morally right

thing to do.

Ethical egoism mirrors altruism: If I’m an altruist, I believe that actions ought to heighten the happiness

of others in the world, and what happens to me is irrelevant. If I’m an egoist, I believe that actions ought

to heighten my happiness, and what happens to others is irrelevant.

Could someone like Blake Mycoskie—someone widely recognized as an altruistic, social-cause hero—

actually is an egoist? Yes. Consider things this way. Here’s a young guy and he’s out looking for money,

celebrity, good parties, and a jaw-dropping girlfriend. It wouldn’t be the first time there was a guy like

that.

Put yourself in his shoes and imagine you’re an ethical egoist: whatever’s good for you is good. Your

situation is pretty clear, your moral responsibility lists what you should be trying to get, and the only

question is how can I get it all?

That’s a tall order. Becoming a rock star would probably work, but there are a lot of people already out

there going for it that way. The same goes for becoming a famous actor. Sports are another possibility;

Mycoskie, in fact, made a run at pro tennis as a younger man, but like most who try, he couldn’t break into

the upper echelon. So there are paths that may work, but they’re hard ones, it’s a real fight for every step

forward.

If you’re smart—and Mycoskie obviously is—then you might look for a way to get what you want that

doesn’t force you to compete so brutally with so many others. Even better, maybe you’ll look for a way that

doesn’t present any competition at all, a brand new path to the wish list. The idea of a celebrity-driven

shoe company that makes a profit but that also makes its founder a star in the eyes of the Hollywood stars

is a pretty good strategy.

Obviously, no one can look deep into Mycoskie’s mind and determine exactly what drove him to found his

enterprise. He may be an altruist or an egoist or something else, but what’s important is to outline how

egoism can actually work in the world. It can work—though of course it doesn’t work this way every time—

just like TOMS Shoes.

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Egoism and Selfishness

When we hear the word egoist, an ugly profile typically comes to mind: self-centered, untrustworthy,

pitiless, and callous with respect to others. Some egoists really are like that, but they don’t have to be that

way. If you’re out to maximize your own happiness in the world, you might find that helping others is the

shortest and fastest path to what you want. This is a very important point. Egoists aren’t against other

people, they’re for themselves, and if helping others work for them, that’s what they’ll do. The case of

TOMS Shoes fits right here. The company improves the lives of many; it raises the level of happiness in

the world. And because it does that, the organization has had tremendous success, and because of that

success, the Blake Mycoskie we’re imagining as an egoist is getting what he wants: money, great parties,

and everyone loving him. In short, sometimes the best way to one’s own happiness is by helping others be

happier.

That’s not always the way it works. Bernie Madoff destroyed families, stole people’s last dimes, and lived

the high life all the way through. For an ethical egoist, the only blemish on his record is that he got caught.

Madoff did get caught, though, and this too needs to be factored into any consideration of egoists and how

they relate to others. Just as egoists may help others because that serves their own interests, so too they

may obey social customs and laws. It’s only important to note that they obey not out of deference to others

or because it’s the morally right thing to do; they play by the rules because it’s the smart thing to do. They

don’t want to end up rotting in jail.

 

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A useful contrast can be drawn in this context between egoism and selfishness. Where egoism means

putting your welfare above others’, selfishness is the refusal to see beyond yourself. Selfishness is the

inability (or unwillingness) to recognize that there are others sharing the world, so it’s the selfish person,

finally, who’s callous and insensitive to the wants and needs of others. For egoists, on the other hand,

because working with others cooperatively can be an excellent way to satisfy their own desires, they may

not be at all selfish; they may be just the opposite.

Enlightened Egoism, Cause Egoism, and the Invisible Hand

Enlightened egoism is the conviction that benefitting others—acting to increase their happiness—can

serve the egoist’s self-interest just as much as the egoist’s acts directly in favor of him or herself. As

opposed to altruism, which claims that it’s our ethical responsibility to serve others, the enlightened

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egoist’s generosity is a rational strategy, not a moral imperative. We don’t help others because we ought

to: we help them because it can make sense when, ultimately, we only want to help ourselves.

One simple and generic manifestation of enlightened egoism is a social contract. For example, I agree not

to steal from you as long as you agree not to steal from me. It’s not that I don’t take your things because I

believe stealing is morally wrong; I leave you alone because it’s a good way to get you to leave me alone.

On a less dramatic level, all of us form mini social contracts all the time. Just think of leading a group of

people through one of those building exits that makes you cross two distinct banks of doors. If you’re first

out, you’ll hold the door for those coming after, but then expect someone to hold the next door for you.

Sure, some people hold the door because it’s good manners or something like that, but for most of us, if no

one else ever held a door open for us, pretty soon we’d stop doing them the favor. It’s a trivial thing, of

course, but in the real world people generally hold doors open for others because they’ve agreed to a social

contract: everyone else does it for me; I’ll do it for them. That’s enlightened egoism, and it frequently

works pretty well.

TOMS Shoes can be understood as a more sophisticated version of the same mentality. It’s hard to discern

exactly what the contract would look like if someone tried to write it down, but it’s not hard to see the

larger notion of enlightened egoism. Shoes are donated to others not because of a moral obligation but

because serving the interests of others helps Blake Mycoskie serve his own. As long as shoe buyers keep

holding up their end of the bargain by buying his product, Mycoskie will continue to help them be

generous and feel good about themselves by donating pairs to people who need them.

Cause egoism is similar to, but also distinct from, enlightened egoism. Enlightened egoism works from the

idea that helping others is a good way of helping me. Cause egoism works from the idea that giving

the appearance of helping others is a promising way to advance my own interests in business. As opposed

to the enlightened egoist who will admit that he is out for himself but happy to benefit others along the

way, the cause egoist claims to be mainly or only interested in benefiting others and then leverages that

good publicity to help him. Stated slightly differently, enlightened egoists respect others while pursuing

their own interests, while cause egoists just fake it.

Adam Smith (1723–90) is known for making a connected point on the level of broad economic trade and

capitalism. In the end, it usually doesn’t matter whether people actually care about the well-being of

others, Smith maintains, because there exists an invisible hand at work in the marketplace. It leads

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individuals who are trying to get rich to enrich their society as well, and that enrichment happens

regardless of whether serving the general welfare was part of the original plan. According to Smith, the

person in business generally

Intends only his own gain, but is led by an invisible hand to promote an end which was no part of

the original intention. By pursuing his own interest he frequently promotes that of the society and

does so more effectively than when he directly intends to promote it. [1]

What’s the invisible hand? It’s the force of marketplace competition, which encourages or even requires

individuals who want to make money to make the lives of others better in the process.

The invisible hand is a central point defenders of egoism in business often make when talking about the

virtues of a me-first ethics. Egoism is good for me, but it frequently ends up being good for everyone else,

too. If that’s right, then even those who believe the utilitarian ideal of the general welfare should guide

business decisions may be forced to concede that we should all just become egoists.

Here’s a quick example. If you open a little takeout pizza shack near campus and your idea is to clear the

maximum amount of money possible to pay your tuition, what kind of business are you going to run?

Does it make sense to take a customer’s twelve dollars and then hand over an oily pie with cheap plastic

cheese and only three pepperonis? No, in the name of pursuing your own happiness, you’re going to try to

charge a bit less than Domino’s and give your customers something slightly better—maybe you’ll spread

richer cheese, or toss on a few extra pepperonis. Regardless, you’re not doing this for the reason an

altruist would; you’re not doing it because you sense an ethical obligation to make others’ lives better. As

an egoist, you don’t care whether your customers are happier or not. But if you want your business to

grow, you better care. And because you’re ethically required to help your business grow in order to make

tuition money and so make yourself happier, you’re going to end up improving the pizza-eating

experience at your school. Better food, less money. Everyone wins. We’re not talking Mother Teresa here,

but if ethical goodness is defined as more happiness for more people, then the pizza place is ethically

good. Further, anybody who wants to start up a successful pizza restaurant is, very likely, going to end up

doing good. If you don’t, if you can’t offer some advantage, then no one’s going to buy your slices.

Going beyond the quality-of-life benefits of businesses in society, Smith leaned toward a second claim

that’s far more controversial. He wrote that the entrepreneur trying to do well actually promotes society’s

well-being more effectively than when directly intending to promote it. This is startling. In essence, it’s

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the claim that for the most dedicated altruist the most effective strategy for life in business is…to act like

an egoist. Within the economic world at least, the best way for someone who cares only about the wellbeing

of others to implement that conviction is to go out and run a successful profit-making enterprise.

Clearly, this is a very powerful argument for defenders of ethical egoism. If it’s true that egoists beat

altruists at their own game (increasing the happiness of everyone else), then egoism wins the debate by

default; we should all become egoists. Unfortunately, it’s impossible to prove this claim one way or the

other. One thing is clear, however: Smith’s implicit criticism of do-gooders can be illustrated. Sometimes

individuals who decide to act for the good of others (instead of seeking profit for themselves) really do end

up making the world a worse place. Dr. Loretta Napoleoni has shown how attempts by Bono of U2 to help

the destitute in Africa have actually brought them more misery. [2] Bono threw a benefit concert and

dedicated the proceeds to Africa are most needy. The intention was good, but the plan wasn’t thought all

the way through and the money ended up getting diverted to warlords who used it to buy guns and bullets.

Still, the fact that some altruistic endeavors actually make things worse doesn’t mean they’re all doomed.

Just as surely as some fail, others succeed.

The same mixed success can be attributed to businesses acting only for their own welfare, only for profit.

If it’s true that the pizza sellers help improve campus life, what about the entrepreneurial honor student

who volunteers to write your term paper for a price? It’s hard to see how a pay-for-grades scheme benefits

students in general, even though the writer may make a tidy profit, and that one student who paid for the

work may come out pretty well.

The invisible hand is the belief that businesses out in the world trying to do well for themselves tend to do

good for others too. It may even be that they do more good than generous altruists. It’s hard to know for

sure, but it can be concluded that there’s a distance between ethical egoism in reality and the image of the

egoist as a ruthless destroyer of broad social happiness.

Some Rules of Egoism

Egoism, like altruism, is a consequentialist ethics: the ends justify the means. If an egoist were at the helm

of TOMS Shoes and he cared only about meeting beautiful people and making huge money, he’d have no

scruples about lying all day long. There’d be no problem with smiling and insisting that the reason TOMS

Shoes exists is to generate charitable shoe donations to the poor. All that matters for the egoist is that the

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lie works, that it serves the goal of making TOMS as attractive and profitable as possible. If it does, then

deviating from the truth becomes the ethically recommendable route to follow.

Personal egoism versus impersonal egoism distinguishes these two views: the personal egoist in the

business world does whatever’s necessary to maximize his or her own happiness. What others do,

however, is considered their business. The impersonal egoist believes everyone should get up in the

morning and do what’s best for themselves and without concern for the welfare of others.

An impersonal egoist may find comfort in the invisible hand argument that the best way for me to do right

with respect to society in general is to get rich. Of course it’s true that there’s something crude in

shameless money grubbing, but when you look at things with rational eyes, it is hard to avoid noticing

that the kinds of advances that make lives better—cars affordably produced on assembly lines; drugs from

Lipitor to Chap Stick; cell phones; spill-proof pens; whatever—often trace back to someone saying, “I want

to make some money for myself.”

Rational egoism versus psychological egoism distinguishes two reasons for being an ethical egoist. The

rational version stands on the idea that egoism makes sense. In the world as it is, and given a choice

between the many ethical orientations available, egoism is the most reasonable. The psychological egoist

believes that, for each of us, putting our own interests in front of everyone else isn’t a choice; it’s a reality.

We’re made that way. Maybe it’s something written into our genes or it’s part of the way our minds are

wired, but regardless, according to the psychological egoist, we all care about ourselves before anyone else

and at their expense if necessary.

Why would I rationally choose to be an egoist? Maybe because I figure that if I don’t look out for myself,

no one will. Or maybe I think almost everyone else is that way, too, so I better play along or I’m going to

get played. (The Mexicans have a pithy phrase of common wisdom for this, “O te chingas, o te chingan,”

which means “either you screw everyone else, or they’ll screw you.”) Maybe I believe that doing well for

myself helps me do well for others too. The list could be drawn out, but the point is that there are

numerous reasons why an intelligent person may accept ethical egoism as the way to go.

As for those who subscribe to the theory of psychological egoism, obviously there’s no end of examples in

business and history to support the idea that no matter how much we may want things to be otherwise,

the plain truth is we’re made to look out for number one. On the other hand, one problem for

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psychological egoists is that there do seem to be examples of people doing things that are irreconcilable

 

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with the idea that we’re all only trying to make ourselves happier:

 Parents sacrificing for children. Any mom or dad who works overtime at some grinding job for cash to pay

their children’s college tuition seems to be breaking the me-first rule. Here, the psychological egoist

responds that, when you really think about it, there may be something there for the parents after all: it

could be the pride in telling friends that their children are getting their degrees.

 Mother Teresa or similar religious-based advocates for the needy. Anyone spending their time and energy

making things better for others, while living painfully modestly, seems like a good candidate to break the

rule of psychological egoism. Here, the psychological egoist responds that perhaps they see a different

reward for themselves than earthly pleasures. They may believe, for example, that their suffering on this

earth will be more than compensated by paradise in heaven.

The Four Relations between Egoism and Business

Structurally, there are four possible relations between ethical egoism and business life:

1. You can have egoists in egoist organizations. This is mercenary capitalism. Individuals do whatever work

is required so long as it benefits them to the maximum. Naturally, this kind of person might find a good

home at a company entirely dedicated to maximizing its own health and success, which can mean one

looking to maximize profits without other considerations. A good example is executives at the

Countrywide mortgage firm. They OK’ed thousands of mortgages to clients who had no way to repay the

money. Then they bundled and sold these mortgages to banks and other financial institutions, making a

quick profit. When the loans later collapsed, those institutions fell into bankruptcy. The Countrywide

executives quickly formed a new company to buy those same loans back at pennies on the dollar, thus

once again turning millions in profits. [3]

2. You can have egoists in nonegoist organizations. Possibly, the CEO of the College Board fits into this

category. His salary of just under a million dollars annually sounds pretty good, especially when you

consider that he gets it working for a nonprofit company that exists to help high school students find the

college best fitted to them. It’s also possible that Blake Mycoskie of TOMS Shoes fits this profile: he lives

an extremely enviable life in the middle of a company set up to help people who almost no one envies.

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3. You can have nonegoists in egoist organizations. Somewhere in the Countrywide mortgage company we

could surely find someone who purchased shoes from TOMS because they wanted to participate in the

project of helping the rural poor in Argentina.

4. You can have nonegoists in nonegoist organizations. Think of the red kettle bell ringers popping up

outside malls around the holiday season.

Advocating and Challenging Ethical Egoism

The arguments for an egoistic ethics include the following:

 Clarity and simplicity. Everybody understands what it means to look out for them first.

 Practicality. Many ethical theories claim to protect our individual interests, but each of us knows

ourselves and our own interest’s best. So doesn’t it make sense that we as individuals take the lead?

Further, with respect to creating happiness for ourselves, there’s no one closer to the action than us. So,

again, doesn’t it make sense that each of us should be assigned that responsibility?

 Sincerity. For those subscribing to psychological egoism, there’s a certain amount of honesty in this

ethics not found in others. If our real motive beneath everything else is to provide for our own happiness

first, then shouldn’t we just recognize and say that? It’s better to be sincere and admit that the reason we

don’t steal is so that others don’t steal from us instead of inventing some other explanations which sound

nice but are ultimately bogus.

 Unintended consequences. In the business world, the concept of the invisible hand allows egoists to

claim that their actions end up actually helping others and may help them more than direct charity or

similar altruistic actions.

 Finally, there’s a broad argument in favor of egoism that concerns dignity. If you’re out in the world being

altruistic, it’s natural to assume that those benefiting from your generosity will be grateful. Sometimes

they’re not, though. Sometimes the people we try to help repay us with spite and resentment. They do

because there’s something condescending about helping others; there’s a message wrapped up in the aid

that those who receive it are incapable of taking care of them and need someone superior to look out for

them. This is especially palpable in the case of panhandlers. If you drop a dollar into their hat, it’s hard to

not also send along the accusation that their existence is base and shameful (you refuse to look them in

the eye; you drop the money and hurry away). To the extent that’s right, an egoism that expects people to

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look out for themselves and spurns charity may actually be the best way to demonstrate respect for others

and to acknowledge their dignity.

Arguments against ethical egoism include the following:

 Egoism isn’t ethics. The reason we have ethics is because there are so many people in the world and in

business who care only about themselves. The entire idea of ethics, the reasoning goes, is to set up some

rules for acting that rescue us from a cruel reality where everyone’s just looking out for number one.

 Egoism ignores blatant wrongs. Stealing candy from a baby—or running a company selling crappy

baby food—strikes most of us as unacceptable, but the rules of egoism dictate that those are

recommendable actions as long as you can be assured that they’ll serve your interests.

 Psychological egoism is not true. The idea that we have no choice but to pursue our own welfare

before anything else is demonstrated to be false millions of times every day; it’s wrong every time

someone makes an anonymous contribution to a cause or goes out of their way to help another without

expecting anything in return.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Egoism defines ethically good as any act that raises the actor’s overall happiness (or decreases

unhappiness) without counting anyone else’s increased or diminished happiness.

 Egoism does not mean ignoring the existence and welfare of others, though they are not necessarily

advocated either.

 Though egoists act in the name of their own happiness, others may benefit.

 Egoism intersects with the business world in various ways.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. What’s the difference between egoism and selfishness?

2. In what situation would an egoist decide that a lie is morally wrong?

3. In the real world, is there any way to distinguish an enlightened egoist from a cause egoist?

4. What are some reasons someone may become a rational egoist?

5. What is the invisible hand?

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6. If you were starting a small business, would you prefer that your partner is a utilitarian, an altruist, or an

egoist? Why?

 [1] Adam Smith, An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations (London: Strahan and Cadell,

1776), bk. 4, chap. 2.

 [2] Can Tran, “Celebrities Raising Funds for Africa End Up Making Things ‘Worse,’” Ground Report, May 14, 2008,

accessed May 15, 2011,http://www.groundreport.com/World/Celebrities-Raising-Funds-For-Africa-End-Up-

Making/2861070.

 [3] Eric Lipton, “Ex-Leaders of Countrywide Profit from Bad Loans,” New York Times, March 3, 2009, accessed May

15, 2011,http://www.nytimes.com/2009/03/04/business/04penny.html.

3.5 Case Studies

Cheaters

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Source: Photo courtesy of S. Brusseau.

KDCP is Karen Dillard’s company specialized in preparing students to ace the Scholastic Aptitude Test. At

least some of the paying students received a solid testing-day advantage: besides teaching the typical tips

and pointers, KDCP acquired stolen SAT tests and used them in their training sessions. It’s unclear how

many of the questions that students practiced on subsequently turned up on the SATs they took, but some

certainly did. The company that produces the SAT, the College Board, cried foul and took KDCP to court.

The lawsuit fell into the category of copyright infringement, but the real meat of the claim was that KDCP

helped kids cheat, they got caught, and now they should pay.

The College Board’s case was very strong. After KDCP accepted the cold reality that they were going to get

hammered, they agreed to a settlement offer from the College Board that included this provision: KDCP

would provide $400,000 worth of free SAT prep classes to high schoolers who couldn’t afford to pay the

bill themselves. [1]

QUE STIONS

1. Can you form a quick list of people who’d benefit because of this decision and others who’d end up on the

losing side? Then, considering the situation globally and from a utilitarian perspective, what would need to

be true for the settlement offer to be ethically recommendable?

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2. As for those receiving the course for free—it’s probably safe to assume that their happiness

increases. Something for nothing is good. But what about the students who still have to pay for

the course? Some may be gladdened to hear that more students get the opportunity, but others

will see things differently; they’ll focus on the fact that their parents are working and saving

money to pay for the course, while others get it for nothing. Some of those who paid probably

actually earned the money themselves at some disagreeable, minimum wage McJob. Maybe they

served popcorn in the movie theater to one of those others who later on applied and got a

hardship exemption.

o Starting from this frustration and unhappiness on the part of those who pay full price, can you

form a utilitarian case against the settlement’s free classes?

o From a utilitarian perspective, could the College Board have improved the settlement by adding

the stipulation that the settlement’s terms (and therefore the free classes) not be publicly

disclosed?

o Once word got out, could a utilitarian recommend that the College Board lie or that it release a

statement saying, “No free classes were part of the settlement”?

3. There was talk about canceling the scores of those students who took the SAT after benefitting from the

KDCP classes that offered access to the stolen exam booklets. The students and their parents protested

vigorously, pointing out that they’d simply signed up for test prep, just like students all across the nation.

They knew nothing about the theft and they presumably didn’t know they were practicing on questions

that might actually appear on their exam day. From the perspective of rule utilitarianism, what’s the case

for canceling their scores? From the perspective of act utilitarianism, what’s the case for reinstating the

scores?

4. The College Board CEO makes around $830,000 a year.

o What is a utilitarian case for radically lowering his salary?

o If you were a utilitarian and you had the chance—and you were sure you wouldn’t get caught—

would you steal the money from the guy’s bank account? Why or why not?

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5. It could be that part of what the College Board hoped to gain through this settlement requiring

free classes for the underprivileged was some positive publicity, some burnishing of their image as

the good guys, the socially responsible company, the ones who do the right thing.

o Outline the case for this being an act of an altruistic company.

o Outline the case for this being an act of an egoistic company.

UFC

 

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Source: Photo courtesy of Kaloozer, http://www.flickr.com/photos/kalooz/3942634378/.

Ultimate Fighting Championship (UFC) got off to a crushing start. In one of the earliest matches, Tank

Abbott, a six-footer weighing 280 pounds, faced John Matua, who was two inches taller and weighed a

whopping four hundred pounds. Their combat styles were as different as their sizes. Abbott called himself

a pit fighter. Matua was an expert in more refined techniques: he’d honed the skills of wrestling and

applying pressure holds. His skill—which was also a noble and ancient Hawaiian tradition—was the

martial art called Kuialua.

The evening went poorly for the artist. Abbott nailed him with two roundhouses before applying a skullcracking

head butt. The match was only seconds old and Matua was down and so knocked out that his

eyes weren’t even closed, just glazed and staring absently at the ceiling. The rest of his body was

convulsing. The referee charged toward the defenseless fighter, but Abbott was closer and slammed an

elbow down on Matua’s pale face. Abbott tried to stand up and ram another, but the referee was now close

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enough to pull him away. As blood spurted everywhere and medics rushed to save the loser, Abbott stood

above Matua and ridiculed him for being fat. [2]

The tape of Abbott’s brutal skills and pitiless attitude shot through the Internet. He became—briefly—

famous and omnipresent, even getting a guest appearance on the goofy, family-friendly sitcom Friends.

A US senator also saw the tape but reacted differently. Calling it barbaric and a human form of

cockfighting, he initiated a crusade to get the UFC banned. Media executives were pressured to not beam

the matches onto public TVs, and doctors were drafted to report that UFC fighters (like professional

boxers) would likely suffer long-term brain damage. In the heat of the offensive, even diehard advocates

agreed the sport might be a bit raw, and the UFC’s original motto—“There are no rules!”—got slightly

modified. Head butting, eye-gouging, and fish-hooking (sticking your finger into an opponent’s orifice and

ripping it open) were banned.

No matter what anyone thinks of UFC, it convincingly demonstrates that blood resembles sex. Both sell

and people like to watch. The proof is that today UFC events are among the most viewed in the world,

among the most profitable, and—this is the one part that hasn’t changed since the gritty beginning—

among the most brutal.

QUE STIONS

1. Two of the common arguments against ultimate fighting—and the two main reasons the US

senator argued to get the events banned—are the following:

o They’re brutal; UFC celebrates violence and hatred and injury, and therefore, it’s immoral.

o Besides the bumps, bruises, and broken bones—which usually heal up—the fighters also suffer

long-term and incurable brain damage. Therefore, the sport is immoral even though it might be

true that in their prime, the fighters make enough money to compensate the physical suffering

endured in the octagon.

How could a utilitarian defend the UFC against these two criticisms?

2. How could the concept of the utilitarian sacrifice apply to John Matua?

3. How would a hedonistic utilitarian’s reaction to UFC differ from an idealistic utilitarian’s reaction? Is there

anything at all in UFC that might convince an idealistic utilitarian to promote the sport as ethically

positive?

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4. How could a proponent of monetized utilitarianism begin portioning up the experiences of Abbott, Matua,

the UFC sponsors, and the spectators in order to construct a mathematical formula (like Ford did with the

Pinto) to decide whether UFC should be banned?

5. Think of UFC as a business, one compared to a biotech company that pioneers cutting-edge, life-saving

drugs. Now, how would a utilitarian decide which one of these two companies was the more ethically

respectable?

6. Why might an altruist sign up to be a UFC fighter? Why might an egoist sign up to be a UFC fighter?

Lottery

Source: Photo courtesy of Alan Levine, http://www.flickr.com/photos/cogdog/81199624.

In her blog Majikthise, Lindsay Beyerstein writes, “State lotteries are often justified on the grounds that

they raise money for social programs, especially those that target the neediest members of society.

However, the poorest members of society tend to spend (and, by design lose) the most on lottery tickets.

Some state lottery proceeds fund programs that benefit everyone, not just the poor. Often state lottery

money is being systematically redistributed upward—from lotto players to suburban schools, for

example.” [3]

QUE STIONS

1. How is the lottery an example of the utilitarian monster?

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2. How can you set yourself up to argue in favor of or against the ethical existence of the lottery in terms of

monetized utilitarianism?

3. Lotteries are about money and about fun—that is, even for the losers, there’s a benefit in the thrill of

watching the numbers turn up. Could the case be made that, from a hedonistic utilitarian standpoint, the

lottery is ethically recommendable because it serves the welfare not only of the winner but also of the

millions of losers?

4. One of Lindsay Beyerstein’s concerns is that the lottery tends to redistribute money from the poor

toward the rich.

o Does a utilitarian necessarily consider this redistribution unethical?

o What kinds of things would a utilitarian have to look into to decide whether the inverse Robin

Hooding is necessarily a bad thing?

5. The lotteries under discussion here are run by states, and Lindsay Beyerstein is not a big fan. She calls

these lotteries “a tax on idiocy” meaning, presumably, that people are just throwing their money away

every time they buy a ticket. Now, one of the arguments in favor of egoism as an ethical stance is that no

one knows what makes each of us happy better than each of us. So, it follows, we should all just try to get

what we want and leave other people alone. How can this view of egoism be fashioned to respond to the

idea that the lottery is a tax on idiocy?

Honest Tea

Source: Photo courtesy of Arnold Gatilao, http://www.flickr.com/photos/arndog/1210077306/.

Seth Goldman founded Honest Tea in 1998. He calls himself the Tea EO (as opposed to CEO) and his

original product was a bottled tea drink with no additives beyond a bit of sugar. Crisp and natural—that

was the product’s main selling point. It wasn’t the only selling point, though. The others aren’t in the

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bottle; they’re in the company making it. Honest Tea is a small enterprise composed of good people. As

the company website relates, “A commitment to social responsibility is central to Honest Tea’s identity

and purpose. The company strives for authenticity, integrity and purity, in our products and in the way we

do business…Honest Tea seeks to create honest relationships with our employees, suppliers, customers

and with the communities in which we do business.” [4]

Buy Honest Tea, the message is, because the people behind it are trustworthy; they are the kind of

entrepreneurs you want to support.

The mission statement also relates that when Honest Tea gives business to suppliers, “we will attempt to

choose the option that better addresses the needs of economically disadvantaged communities.” [5] They’ll

give the business, for example, to the company in a poverty-stricken area because, they figure, those

people really need the jobs. Also, and to round out this socially concerned image, the company promotes

ecological (“sustainability”) concerns and fair trade practices: “Honest Tea is committed to the well-being

of the folks along the value chain who help bring our products to market. We seek out suppliers that

practice sustainable farming and demonstrate respect for individual workers and their families.” [6]

Summing up, Honest Tea provides a natural product, helps the poor, treats people with respect, and saves

the planet. It’s a pretty striking corporate profile.

It’s also a profile that sells. It does because when you hand over your money for one of their bottles, you’re

confident that you’re not fattening the coffers of some money grubbing executive in a New York penthouse

who’d lace drinks with chemicals or anything else that served to raise profits. For many consumers, that’s

good to know.

Honest Tea started selling in Whole Foods and then spread all over, even to the White House fridges

because it’s a presidential favorite. Revenues are zooming up through the dozens of millions. In 2008, the

Coca-Cola Company bought a 40 percent share of Honest Tea for $43 million. It’s a rampantly successful

company.

Featured as part of a series in the Washington Post in 2009, the company’s founder, Seth Goldman, was

asked about his enterprise and his perspective on corporate philanthropy, meaning cash donations to

good causes. Goldman said, “Of course there’s nothing wrong with charity, but the best way for companies

to become good citizens is through the way they operate their business.” Here are two of his examples: [7]

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 Switching from Styrofoam to postconsumer waste might help a packaging company make a more

meaningful contribution to sustainability than a token donation to an environmental nonprofit.

 Investing in a local production facility or even a community bank could help support a local economy

more effectively than a donation to a nearby jobs program.

Organizations in the economic world, Goldman believes, can do the most good by doing good themselves

as opposed to doing well (making money) and then outsourcing their generosity and social responsibility

by donating part of their profits to charities. That may be true, or it may not be, but it’s certain that

Goldman is quite good at making the case. He’s had a lot of practice since he’s outlined his ideas not just

in the Post but in as many papers and magazines as he can find. Honest Tea’s drinks are always featured

prominently in these flattering articles, which are especially complimentary when you consider that

Honest Tea doesn’t have to pay a penny for them.

QUE STIONS

1. Make the case that Seth Goldman founded Honest Tea as an expression of his utilitarian ethics.

o What kinds of people are affected by the Honest Tea organization? Which groups might benefit

from Honest Tea and how? Which groups might not benefit?

o Would this be a hedonistic or idealistic utilitarianism? Why?

o Would it be possible to construe Honest Tea within a framework of monetized utilitarianism?

o Would this be a soft or hard utilitarianism?

2. Make the case that Seth Goldman founded Honest Tea as an expression of his ethical altruism.

o Altruists serve the welfare of others. How does Honest Tea serve people’s welfare?

o What would have to be true about Goldman in terms of his particular abilities and skills for this

enterprise to fall under the heading of altruism?

o Does Goldman sound more like a personal or an impersonal altruist?

3. Make the case that Seth Goldman founded Honest Tea as an expression of his ethical egoism.

o What are some of the benefits Goldman could derive from Honest Tea?

o Before running Honest Tea, Goldman was a big-time mutual fund manager. What kind of benefits

could Honest Tea have offered that he couldn’t find in the world of finance?

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o Does Goldman sound more like a personal or an impersonal egoist?

o In the real world, does it make any difference whether Goldman does enlightened egoism or

cause egoism?

4. In this case study, two kinds of drink manufacturers are contrasted: Honest Tea and the hypothetical drink

company run by some mercenary businessman lacing drinks with bad chemicals to maximize profits.

Looking at this contrast, how could a defender of egoism claim that the best way for healthy drinks to

make their way into the general public’s hands (in the medium and long term, anyway) is for

Goldman and the mercenary businessman and everyone else to all be egoists?

5. Assume that Seth Goldman is a cause egoist, someone faking concern for the general welfare in order to

provide for his own happiness and pleasure. How could the concept of the invisible hand be introduced to

make the claim that Goldman is actually doing more good for the general welfare than he would if he were

a utilitarian or even an altruist?

Your Business

Source: Photo courtesy of Paul Sapiano, http://www.flickr.com/photos/peasap/935756569.

Think about something you do with passion or expertise—a dish you like to cook and eat, a sport you play,

any unique skill or ability you’ve developed—and figure out a way to turn it into a small business. For

example, you like baking cookies, so you open a bake shop, or you like hockey and could imagine an

improved stick to invent and market.

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QUE STIONS

1. If your business is like most others, you’re going to need some money to get it up and going, more money

than you’ve got right now. That means you’ll need to find a partner for your venture, someone to help you

get the cash together and then run things afterward. Would you prefer a utilitarian, an altruist, or an

egoist for your partner? Why?

2. Do you think the invisible hand would be in effect for your business? Just by trying to make money, do you

imagine you’d end up improving people’s lives? If this business works, is it even possible that you’d help

others more than you would by volunteering time for a charity organization? Elaborate.

3. Assume that doing well in society and not just doing well (making money) is important to you.

Within the business you have in mind, with which of these three options do you suspect you’d

accomplish more general good?

o Just making money and trusting the invisible hand to take care of the rest

o Making money and donating part of it to charity—that is, to people specialized in serving the

general welfare

o Attempting to do good within your business by, for example, buying recycled materials or by

paying wages slightly above what people could get for the same work at other companies

4. Is there a potential cause egoism angle to your business? Could you set it up to make it seem like

the reason you’re running your enterprise is to help others when really you’re just trying to make money?

For a consequentialist, is there anything wrong with that?

 [1] missypie, April 29, 2008 (2:22 p.m.), “CB-Karen Dillard case settled-no cancelled scores,” College Confidential,

accessed May 15, 2011,http://talk.collegeconfidential.com/parents-forum/501843-cb-karen-dillard-case-settledno-

cancelled-scores.html.

 [2] David Plotz, “Fight Clubbed,” Slate, November 17, 1999, accessed May 15,

2011,http://www.slate.com/id/46344.

 [3] Lindsay Beyerstein, “Lotteries as Regressive Taxes,” Majikthise (blog), January 23, 2006, accessed May 15,

2011,http://majikthise.typepad.com/majikthise_/2006/01/lotteries_as_re.html.

 [4] “Our Mission,” Honest, accessed May 15, 2011,http://www.honesttea.com/mission/about/overview.

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[5] “Our Mission,” Honest, accessed May 15, 2011,http://www.honesttea.com/mission/about/overview.

 [6] “Our Mission,” Honest, accessed May 15, 2011,http://www.honesttea.com/mission/about/overview.

[7] “On Leadership: Seth Goldman,” Washington Post, accessed May 15,

2011,http://views.washingtonpost.com/leadership/panelists/2009/11/the-biggest-dollars.html.

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Chapter 4

Theories Responding to the Challenge of Cultural

Relativism

Chapter Overview

Chapter 4 “Theories Responding to the Challenge of Cultural Relativism” examines some theories guiding

ethical decisions in business. It considers reactions to the possibility that there are no universal

definitions of right and wrong, only different customs that change from one society to another.

4.1 What Is Cultural Relativism?

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

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1. Define cultural relativism.

2. Show how cultural relativism defies traditional ethics.

Nietzsche and the End of Traditional Ethics

“God is dead,” the declaration attributed to Friedrich Nietzsche, stands along with “I think, therefore I

am” (René Descartes, 1641) as philosophy’s most popularized—and parodied—phrases. The t-shirt

proclaiming “Nietzsche is dead, signed, God” is funny, but it doesn’t quite answer what Nietzsche was

saying in the late 1800s. What Nietzsche meant to launch was not only an assault on a certain religion but

also a suspicion of the idea that there’s one source of final justice for all reality. Nietzsche proposed that

different cultures and people each produce their own moral recommendations and prohibitions, and

there’s no way to indisputably prove that one set is simply and universally preferable to another. The

suspicion that there’s no final appeal—and therefore the values and morality practiced by a community

can’t be dismissed as wrong or inferior to those practiced elsewhere—is called cultural relativism.

Example: For most of us, the killing of a newborn would be among the most heinous of immoral acts; a

perpetrator would need to be purely evil or completely mad. The Inuit Eskimos, however, regularly

practiced female infanticide during their prehistory, and it was neither evil nor insane. Their brutal living

conditions required a population imbalance tipped toward hunters (males). Without that gender

selecting, the plain fact was the entire group faced starvation. At another place and time, Bernal

Diaz’s The Conquest of New Spain recounts the Spanish invasion of the Americas and includes multiple

reports of newborns sacrificed in bloody ceremonies that made perfect sense to the locals, but left

Spaniards astonished and appalled. The ethics of infanticide, the point is, differ from one culture and time

to another. Further, these differences seem irreconcilable: it’s extremely difficult to see how we could

convince the Inuit of the past to adopt our morality or how they could convince us to adopt theirs. And if

that’s right, then maybe it no longer makes sense to talk about right and wrong in general terms as though

there’s a set of rules applying to everyone; instead, there are only rights and wrongs as defined within a

specific society.

Finally, if you accept the cultural relativist premise, then you’re rejecting the foundation of traditional

ethics. You’re rejecting the idea that if we think carefully and expertly enough, we’ll be able to formulate

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rules for action that everyone—people in all times, places, and communities—must obey if they want to

consider themselves ethically responsible.

Cultural Relativism in Business Ethics

In the world of international business, Entrepreneur magazine introduces the pitfalls of ethical variation

across cultures with this statement from Steve Veltkamp, president of Biz$hop, an American importexport

business: “Bribery is a common way of doing business in a lot of foreign places.” [1]

If that’s true, then US businesses trying to expand into markets abroad—and competing with local

businesses already established there—are probably going to consider doing what everyone else is doing,

which means getting in on the bribery action. As the Entrepreneur article points out, however, this leads

to a problem: “While bribes are expected in many countries, the United States’ 1977 Foreign Corrupt

Practices Act prohibits payments made with the aim of gaining or maintaining business.”

So American hands are tied. If a construction company is bidding on the contract to build an airport in a

foreign nation, one where the local politicians will be expecting to get their palms greased, they’re at a

distinct disadvantage since they’re not allowed to play by the local rules. Still there is (as there almost

always is) a loophole: “Not all payments are prohibited by the act. Some payments are acceptable if they

don’t violate local laws. Gifts, for instance, to officers working for foreign corporations are legal.”

There’s no bribing, but gifting, apparently, gets a green light. There’s a problem here, too, however: “It can

be difficult to determine the difference between a gift and a bribe in a given situation. ‘If you give a gift to

someone and it leads to a business deal, is that a bribe or a gift?’ asks Veltkamp. ‘In some cultures, giftgiving

is an entrenched part of doing business. If you look at it in a certain sense, maybe it’s a bribe, since

they won’t talk to you until you’ve made that gesture.’”

Now what? Over there, cash changes hands and it’s called an acceptable gift, while those watching from

back here see an illegal bribe.

There are two ways of looking at this dilemma. One is to say, well, this has to be one or the other, either a

gift or a bribe; it has to be either moral or immoral. Given that, we need to take out our traditional tools—

our basic duties, the utilitarian doctrine that we should act to serve the greater good, and so on—and

figure out which it is. Nietzsche went the other way, though. He said that situations like this don’t show

that we need to use ethics to figure out which side is right; instead, the situation shows what moral

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rules really are: just a set of opinions that a group of people share and nothing more. In the United States

we believe it’s wrong to grease palms, and so it is. In some other places they believe it’s honorable to hand

money under the table, and so it is.

If that’s true, then specific convictions of right and wrong in business ethics will never be anything but

cultural fashions, beliefs some community somewhere decides to hold up for a while until they decide to

believe something else. Anything, the reasoning goes, may be morally good or bad in the economic world;

it just depends on where you happen to be, at what time, and who else is around.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Cultural relativism is the suspicion that values and morality are culture specific—they’re just what the

community believes and not the result of universal reason.

 For cultural relativists, because all moral guidelines originate within specific cultures, there’s no way to

dismiss one set of rules as wrong or inferior to those developed in another culture.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. Why do you imagine the term cultural relativism was chosen to mean what it does?

2. Do you believe cultures are irreconcilably different? Or is it that deep down people are people and we’re

really all the same? How does this distinction relate to the difference between cultural relativism and

traditional theories of ethics?

[1] Moira Allen, “Here Comes the Bribe,” Entrepreneur, October 2000, accessed May 12,

2011, http://www.entrepreneur.com/magazine/entrepreneur/2000/october/32636.html.

4.2 Nietzsche’s Eternal Return of the Same

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

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1. Define Nietzsche’s eternal return of the same.

2. Show how the idea of the eternal return provides guidance for professional life.

3. Consider the advantages and a drawback of the eternal return.

Responding to Cultural Relativism by Leaving Common Morality Behind

If, along with cultural relativists, you accept that rules distinguishing right from wrong shift around from

place to place and time to time, it becomes difficult to keep faith in morality. It’s difficult because verdicts

seem flimsy and impermanent, and because this hard question seems inescapable: Why should I go out of

my way to do the right thing today if what counts as the right thing might change tomorrow?

One response to the question is to give up on morality, disrespect the whole idea by labeling all the

customary regulations—don’t lie, don’t steal, strive for the greatest good for the greatest number—a giant

sham. Then you can live without the inhibiting limits of moral codes. You can go beyond any idea of good

and evil and lead an unconstrained life exuberantly celebrating everything you want to do and be.

Wallace Souza: TV Reporter, Politician, and Dealer

Some careers are more vivid and alive than others. TV crime reporting is intense work, especially the

action-type shows where the reporter races to the scene, interviews witnesses, and tracks down shady

characters. Politics is another throbbing life; the adrenalin of crime chasing isn’t there, but you get the

brimming confidence and energy that comes with power, with deciding what others can and can’t do.

Drug dealing excites too, in its way, with thrilling danger and the pleasures of fast money. People, finally,

who want to live exuberantly, who prefer risk to caution and find it easy to say things like “you only go

around once” are probably going to find something attractive in these lines of work and may opt for one or

another.

Then there’s Wallace Souza. He opted for all three. At the same time. The most visible of his roles—TV

reporter—also yielded the most visible success. His program aired from the Brazilian state of Amazonas, a

jungley place far from cosmopolitan São Paulo and touristy Rio de Janeiro. Known as a haven for cocaine

cartels, and as a training ground for revolutionary militants charging into neighboring Columbia and

Venezuela, it’s a natural spot to bring cameras and look for dramatic action. A number of reporters were

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stationed in the region, but none seemed so uncannily skilled at reaching scenes first and getting video

over the airwaves than Mr. Souza. In fact, on occasion, he even reached scenes before the police.

The dogged TV reporting, along with Souza’s editorializing complaints about the region’s jaded criminals,

made him a popular hero and sealed his bid for a seat in the local congress. He didn’t allow his state

capital work to interfere with his TV role, however. Actually, the two jobs fit together well: one day he was

reporting on the deplorable free-for-all in the jungle and the next he was in the capital meeting with highranking

police officers, reviewing their strategies and proposing laws to fix things.

The perfect image began to crack, though, when it was revealed that the reason Souza so frequently

reached the best crime scenes first is that he was paying hit men to assassinate local drug dealers. He

wasn’t, it turned out, just the first to know about the crimes, he knew even before they happened. In an

especially brazen move, during one of his last TV programs, he put up pictures of several notorious

criminals and asked his viewers to phone in and votes on which one they’d like to see killed.

At this point, Souza seemed like an overzealous crusader: he was drawing vivid attention to the crime

plague and doing something about it with his hit men. You could doubt his methods, but his dedication to

his community’s welfare seemed noble—until it was revealed that he was actually also a major drug

dealer. And the criminals getting killed and shown on his program weren’t just random outlaws; they were

Souza’s drug-trade competitors. [1]

What Is the Eternal Return of the Same?

One report on Souza’s exploits included the suggestion that his willingness to cross every moral line—to

lie, traffic drugs, order killings, whatever—fit him for the title of the Antichrist. [2]

That title, as it turns out, was one Nietzsche enjoyed assigning to himself. It’s definitely also a fit for Souza

in the sense that he seemed to live without shame, fear, or regard for good and evil. What’s notable about

Souza’s business ventures is that they pay no heed to the very idea of morals. It’s not that they skirt some

rules or follow some guidelines while disobeying others; it’s not like he’s trying to get away with

something—it’s much more like morality doesn’t exist. Now, bringing this back to Nietzsche, who shared

the sentiments, the question Nietzsche asked himself was, if morality really is canceled, then what? How

should we live? The answer was a thought experiment called the eternal return of the same.

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Imagine, Nietzsche proposed, that every decision you make and everything you feel, say, and do will have

to be repeated forever—that is, at the end of your life, you die and are immediately reborn right back in

the same year and place where everything started the time before, and you do it all again in exactly the

same way. Existence becomes an infinite loop. With that disturbing idea established, Nietzsche converted

it into a proposal for life: we should always act as though the eternal return were real. Do, Nietzsche says,

what you would if you had to live with the choice over and over again forever. The eternal return, finally,

gives us a reason to do one thing and not another: it guides us in a world without morals.

How Does the Eternal Return Work?

Start with the eternal return as it could be applied to an altruist, to someone dedicating life to helping

others. One way to do altruism would be by working for a nonprofit international organization that goes

to poverty-wrecked places like Amazonas and helps coca farmers (the coca leaf is the base for cocaine)

shift their farms to less socially damaging crops. This would be difficult work. You might figure on doing it

though, getting through it, and feeling like you’ve done some good in the world. But would you do it

infinitely? Would you be willing to suffer through that existence once and again forever? Remember, the

world would never get better; every time you’d just go back to being born on earth just the way it was

before. Obviously, people can make their own decisions, but it seems fairly likely that under the condition

of the eternal return there’d be fewer people dedicating themselves—and sacrificing their own comfort

and interests—to social well-being.

What about some other lines of work? Would there be fewer snowplow operators, long-haul pilots,

teachers willing to work in troubled schools? What kind of professional lives, Nietzsche forces us to ask,

would be too hellish, bothersome, or exhausting to be repeated forever? Those lives, whatever they are,

get filtered by the eternal return; they get removed from consideration.

If certain careers and aspirations are out, then what’s in? What kind of existence in the economic world

does the eternal return recommend? One possibility is Wallace Souza. The question is, why

would his career trajectory fit the eternal return?

The job of a reporter is fast and dramatic, the kind of thing many imagine themselves doing if they weren’t

tied down by other commitments. People with children frequently feel an obligation to get into a safe and

conservative line of work, one producing a steady paycheck. Others feel a responsibility toward their aged

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parents and a corresponding obligation to not stray too far just in case something goes wrong. So trekking

off into the Brazilian jungle in search of drug operations may well be exciting—most of us would probably

concede that—but it’d be irreconcilable with many family responsibilities. One thing the eternal return

does, however, is seriously increase the burden of those responsibilities. When you sacrifice something

you want to do because of a sense of obligation, you may be able to swallow the loss once, but Nietzsche is

demanding that you take it down over and over again. Family responsibilities may count, but at what

point do you say “enough”? Can anyone oblige you to sacrifice doing what you really want forever?

Taking the next step into Souza’s amoral but dramatic career, assuming you do decide to become a crime

reporter, and you’re inside the eternal return where everything will recur infinitely, then aren’t you going

to go about making your reporting work as exciting and successful as possible? Probably, yes. So why not

hire some hit men to fire things up a bit? Normally, of course, our moral compass tells us that killing

others to get ahead isn’t really an option. But with all morality canceled, it becomes an option, one just

like any other. Be a banker, be a reporter, be a killer, there’s no real difference. Just choose the one you’d

most like to do repeatedly without end.

Souza also chose to be a drug dealer. Again, this is one of those jobs many would find exciting and

satisfying. Thrills and easy money are attractive; that’s part of the reason Hollywood produces so many

films about traffickers and their lives. Most of us wouldn’t actually do something like that, though, at least

partially because dealing drugs feels morally wrong. But inside the eternal return, that shame factor falls

away; when it does, the number of people entering this field of work might well increase.

It’s critical to note that Nietzsche’s eternal return is not the idea that you should go off and be a crimereporting,

hit man–hiring drug dealer. Instead, Souza’s life just exemplifies one thing that could happen

in the world of your career if you accept Nietzsche’s proposal of living beyond any traditional moral limit.

Regardless, what the eternal return definitely does do is force you to make decisions about your

professional life in very different terms than those presented by traditional ethical theories. There’s no

consideration of sweeping duties; there’s just you and a simple decision: the life you choose now will be

repeated forever, so which will yours be?

What’s the Reward of Morality?

One of the strengths of Nietzsche’s idea is that it forces a very important question: Why should I want to

be morally responsible? Why should a salesman be honest when lying could win her a healthy

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commission? Why should a factory owner worry about pollution spewing from his plant when he lives in a

city five hundred miles away? Now, a full elaboration of this question would be handled in an airy

philosophy class, not an applied course in business ethics. Nietzsche, however, allows a taste of the

discussion by puncturing one of the basic motivations many feel for being virtuous: the conviction

that there’ll be a reward later for doing the right thing today.

The certainty of this reward is a critical element of many religious beliefs: when you die, there’ll be a final

judgment and you’ll enjoy heaven or suffer punishment at the other extreme, depending on how you

behaved on earth. A similar logic underwrites Hinduism’s concept of reincarnation: the life you are born

into next will be determined by the way you live now. This discussion could be drawn out in more

directions, but no matter what, Nietzsche spoils the idea that you take the moral high road because you’ll

be repaid for it later. Within the eternal return, there is no later; all that ever happens is exactly the same

thing again.

Advantages and a Drawback of the Eternal Return

One advantage of the eternal return is that it adds gravity to life. Forcing you to accept every decision you

make as one you’ll repeat forever is compelling you to take those decisions seriously, to think them

through. Another connected advantage of the eternal return is that it forces you to make your own

decisions. By getting rid of all guidelines proposed by ethics, and by making your reality the one that will

repeat forever, Nietzsche forces you to be whom you are.

The disadvantage of the eternal return is Wallace Souza. If everyone is just out there being themselves,

how are we going to live together? How can we make peaceful and harmonious societies when all anyone

ever thinks about is what’s best for themselves forever?

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 The eternal return is a thought experiment in which you imagine that the life you choose will repeat

forever.

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 According to the eternal return, when faced with a dilemma in the business world—what career should I

choose, should I kill (or maybe just lie or cheat) to get ahead?—you should imagine living the decision over

and over again forever.

 The eternal return maximizes individuality but does little to help individuals live together in a community.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. In your own words, what is the eternal return?

2. Why might the eternal return be considered a reasonable response to cultural relativism?

3. Write down some factors leading to a significant decision you’ve made. It could be about choosing a field

of study or a career path. Now, can you walk through each of the factors within the eternal return? Are

there any decisions you made that you’d take back and change?

4. If you knew the eternal return was true, could you still make the reasonable decision to choose an

altruistic profession? Why or why not?

 [1] Dom Phillips, “Brazil Crime Show Host ‘Used Murder to Boost Ratings,’” Times, August 13, 2009, accessed May

12, 2011,http://www.timesonline.co.uk/tol/news/world/us_and_americas/article6793072.ece.

 [2] Danny Gallagher, “Brazilian Crime Show Host Kills for Ratings?,” TV Squad, August 14, 2009, accessed May 12,

2011, http://www.tvsquad.com/2009/08/14/brazilian-crime-show-host-kills-for-ratings.

4.3 Cultural Ethics

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

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1. Define cultural ethics.

2. Consider how cultural ethics works in the business world.

3. Examine the truth of cultural ethics.

4. Consider advantages and drawbacks of a culturist’s ethics.

What Is Cultural Ethics?

Culturists embrace the idea that moral doctrines are just the rules a community believes, and they accept

that there’s no way to prove one society’s values better than another. Culturists don’t, however, follow

Nietzsche in taking that as a reason to turn away from all traditional moral regulation; instead, it’s a

reason to accept and endorse whichever guidelines are currently in effect wherever you happen to be. The

old adage, “when in Rome, do as the Romans do,” isn’t too far from where we’re at here.

Gift or Bribe or Both?

The Entrepreneur magazine article posed a problem for Americans going overseas to do business. In

some places, passing money under the table is necessary to spark negotiations and win contracts.

However, bribery is illegal in the United States, and US law makes it illegal for Americans to do that kind

of thing abroad. Gifts, on the other hand, are allowed. But, according to the Entrepreneur article, it can be

difficult to determine the difference between a gift and a bribe. In some cultures, a gesture may be seen as

a gift, and in others it looks like a bribe.

Looking at this uncertainty, what a culturist sees is not ambiguity about whether handing the money over

to a potential client is a legal gift or an illegal bribe. That’s not it at all. A culturist sees it as both a gift and

a bribe. In one culture—a nation overseas where the payment is occurring and where similar payments

always occur when business is getting done—there are no moral qualms. It’s right to give a cash gift

because that’s the rule of the country; it’s the way things are commonly and properly done there. By

contrast, from the perspective of American business culture, the conclusion that’s drawn with equal force

is that it’s an immoral bribe because that’s what US customs and normal practices tell us.

Cultural Ethics and International Bribery

Culturists see moral rules as fixed onto specific societies, but that doesn’t help anyone know what to do

when confronted with an unfamiliar set of beliefs. How, the really important question is, does a

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culturist act when forced to make decisions in a place and among people whose beliefs are different and

unfamiliar? The Entrepreneur interview with Steve Veltkamp provides one answer.

What can you do if your overseas associate demands a bribe? Veltkamp doesn’t recommend

asking embassies or consulates for assistance, as “they have to stick to the official line.” Instead,

he believes “the best resource in almost every country of the world is the U.S. Chamber of

Commerce, where you can find Americans who live in the country and understand how things

are done.” [1]

Immediately you can see how different the culturist approach is to moral dilemmas. The message is: get in

touch with the locals and try to do as they would in the same situation.

Most traditional ethical theories go in exactly the opposite direction. They say that it doesn’t necessarily

matter what people are actually doing. Stronger, the entire point of studying ethics has normally been

to escape conventional wisdom and ingrained habits; the idea of doing what we ought to do requires a

step away from those things and a cold, rational look at the situation. So, a morality based on duties sets

up guidelines including don’t lie, don’t steal and appeals to men and women in business to follow them.

Acting in an ethically responsible way in the world means obeying the dictates and refusing to be swayed

by what the guy in the next cubicle is up to. Handing someone money under the table, consequently, while

publicly insisting that everything’s on the up and up can’t be condoned no matter what anyone else does;

it can’t be right because it entails at least implicit lying.

More specifically for the culturist, Entrepreneur advises overseas business people to avoid seeking

guidance from embassies or consulates because those people have to stick to “the official line.” What’s the

official line? Presumably, it’s the set of practices delineated and approved by the State Department back in

Washington, DC. The strength of these practices is that they’re formed to be universal, to work at every

embassy everywhere in the world. A culturist, however, looks at that and says it’s silly. There are no

practices that work everywhere in the world. The advice government bureaucrats give is worthless; it’s

less than worthless because it departs from the error of conceiving ethics as a set of rules fitting a

transnational reality. What people in business should actually do is get in contact with people who really

know something about ethics, and that requires turning to the locals, including the chamber of commerce,

because they’re on the scene.

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Conclusion. The culturist deals with the question about whether a bribe is ethically respectable by

ignoring all dictates received from other places and obeying the customs and standard practices of those

who live and work where the decision is being made.

Cultural Ethics and the News Reporting of Wallace Souza

Another example of how culturist ethics works comes from the flamboyant TV reporter Wallace Souza.

Like many action crime reporters the world over, he raced to violent scenes hoping to get the first and best

video. What counts, however, as good video in Brazil is different from what typically gets shown in the

United States. Here’s a description of what Souza sent over the airwaves: “In one of Mr. Souza’s shows on

his Canal Livre programme, a reporter approached a still-smoldering body in a forest. ‘It smells like a

barbecue,’ he says. ‘It is a man. It has the smell of burning meat. The impression is that it was in the early

hours…it was an execution.’” [2]

This is not the kind of report we see in the US media, and one of the differences is the ethics. Typically in

the United States, a certain respect is accorded to the deceased, even if they’re criminals. It’s considered

an exploitation to directly show dead bodies, especially smoldering ones. There’s quite a bit of cultural

analysis that would go into this prohibition, but simplifying, it’s not just that reporters hold an ethical

responsibility to others to not exploit their deaths graphically; they also have a responsibility to viewers to

not show images that may be (or probably would be) disturbing. By contrast, and as the Souza report

shows, in Brazil the rules are different and this kind of visual makes it over the airwaves without raising

eyebrows or triggering moral objections.

More generally, the question about what you’re allowed to show on TV to boost the ratings and so make

more money is an extremely rich area of examples for cultural ethics. How graphic is the violence allowed

to be on CSI Miami? How far is the wardrobe malfunction allowed to go on the Real Housewives of

Orange County? These kinds of basic questions about decency and ratings (which means advertising

revenue) seem tailor made for those who believe the answers don’t depend on anything more than what

people in a certain culture will accept. They seem cut out for those believing that the value we call decency

is nothing more (or less) than the line drawn between the number of people who will watch and the

number who turn the TV off in disgust.

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Is Culturalist Ethics True?

If it’s true that there’s no ethics but the kind a culturalist proposes, then this book loses a good deal of its

usefulness. It’s lost because the main object is to help readers form and justify rules to guide their

professional lives. Conceding that the culturalists are right, however, is also admitting that there’s no

reason to carefully analyze problems: you’re far better served just checking around to see what most other

people are doing in similar situations. Ethics isn’t a test of your ability to think reasonably and

independently; it’s more a responsibility to follow the crowd.

Culturalism isn’t true, however, at least not necessarily. You can see that in the reasoning underneath the

cultural approach. The reasoning starts with an observation:

In certain societies, handing money under the table is commonly considered an appropriate,

ethically respectable part of business activity, and in others it’s considered both illegal and

unethical.

And moves quickly to a conclusion:

Right and wrong in the business world is nothing more than what’s commonly considered right

and wrong in a specific community.

On the surface, this argument looks all right, but thinking it through carefully leads to the conclusion that

it’s not valid. A valid argument is one where the conclusion necessarily follows from the premises. For

example, if you start from the definition that all unmarried men are bachelors, and then you observe that

your friend John is an unmarried man, you can, in fact, conclude that he’s a bachelor. You must conclude

that. But that’s not the situation with the culturalist argument because the conclusion doesn’t necessarily

follow from the premise. Just because no broad international agreement has been reached about what

counts as bribery doesn’t mean no agreement will ever be reached. Or making the same point more

generally, just because no trans-cultural theory based on universal reason has yet to conquer all local

beliefs and habits everywhere on the globe doesn’t mean no such theory will ever accomplish that goal.

Taking the same situation in the less ambiguous world of the physical sciences, there was a time when

some believed the earth centered the sun and planets, while others believed the sun was at the center, but

that didn’t mean the dispute would linger forever. Eventually, tools were found to convince everyone that

one side was right. So too in business ethics: one day an enterprising ethicist may find a way to

indisputably prove on the grounds of a universal and reasonable argument that greasing palms is a bribe

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and not a gift, and it’s immoral, not moral. We don’t know if that will happen, but it might. Consequently,

the fact that we’re unsure now as to whether any single ethics can deal with the whole world doesn’t

require shooting to the other extreme and saying there’ll never be anything but what people in specific

nations believe and that’s it. The culturalist argument, in other words, isn’t necessarily persuasive.

It is worrisome, though. And until someone can find a way to do for ethics what scientists did for the

question about the earth’s relation to the planets, there will always be individuals who suspect that no

such proof will ever come. Count Nietzsche among them. In the field of contemporary philosophy and

ethics, those who share the suspicion—those who doubt that no matter how hard we try we’ll never be able

to get beyond our basic cultural perspectives and disagreements—belong to a movement

named postmodernism.

What Are Some Advantages and Drawbacks of Culturalist Ethics?

One general advantage of a culturalist ethics is that it allows people to be respectful of others and their

culture. A deep component of any society’s existence, uniqueness, and dignity in the world is its signature

moral beliefs, what the people find right and wrong. A culturalist takes that identity seriously and makes

no attempt to change or interfere. More, a culturalist explicitly acknowledges that there’s no way to

compare one culture against another as better and worse. Though you can describe differences, you can’t

say one set of moral truths is better than another because all moral truths are nothing more than what a

society chooses to believe.

A more specific advantage of a culturalist ethics in the economic and business world is that it adapts well

to contemporary reality. Over the last decades we’ve seen an explosion of international commerce, of large

corporations tearing loose from specific nations and functioning globally. This economic surge has

outpaced the corresponding understanding surge: we have no trouble switching dollars for euros or for

yen, and we can buy Heineken beer from Germany and ride in a Honda made in Japan, but few of us

speak English, German, and Japanese. In that kind of situation, one where some dilemmas in business

ethics end up involving people we can’t really talk to, culturalism provides a reasonable way to manage

uncertainties. When we’re in the United States, we follow American customs. If we’re sent on an overseas

trade venture to Germany or Japan, we pretty much do as they normally do there. Just in practical terms,

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that may well be the easiest way to work and succeed in the world, and a

culturalist ethics allows a

coherent justification for the strategy.

The Disadvantages

The major disadvantage of a culturalist ethics is that it doesn’t leave any clear path to making things

better. If a community’s recommended ethical compass is just their customs and normal practices, then

it’s difficult to see how certain ingrained habits—say business bribery—can be picked up, examined, and

then rejected as unethical. In fact, there’s no reason why bribery should be examined at all. Since moral

right and wrong is just what the locals do, it makes no sense to try to change anything.

This view stands in stark contrast with what we usually believe—or at least would like to believe—about

ethics: there can be progress; we can become better. In science, we know progress occurs all the time. Our

collective knowledge about the sun’s position relative to the planets went from wrong to right with time

and effort, and we’d like the same to happen for moral uncertainties. That’s why it’s so easy to imagine

that bribery is a dirty, third-world practice, and part of our responsibility as a wealthy and developed

nation is to lead the way in cleaning it up. We clean the moral world of bad business ethics just like our

scientists rid the physical world of misperceptions. More, that’s a central aim of America’s anti-bribery

legislation as it applies to overseas acts: it’s to cure other cultures of their bad habits. If you’re a

culturalist, however, then the bad habit isn’t bribery; it’s one nation trying to impose a morality on

another.

However you may come down on the question about whether nations should be trying to improve ethical

customs in other places, what’s inescapable is that if you’re a culturalist, you don’t have any ground to

stand on when it comes to criticizing the moral practices of businessmen and women in foreign countries.

You don’t because what’s going on elsewhere is an independent and legitimate ethical system and can’t be

judged inferior to our own.

Another problem with a culturalist ethics is that it provides few routes to resolving conflicts within a

society. For example, should I be allowed to go into business for myself on the land I bought in the middle

of a residential neighborhood by opening a motorcycle bar? In Houston, the answer’s yes. There’s a

community consensus there that owning a piece of land allows you to do (almost) whatever you want with

it. In legal terms, that translates into Houston being the only major American city without zoning

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regulations. Up the road in Dallas, however, there’s a similar community consensus that the rights of

landownership are curtailed by the rights of nearby landowners. The result is strict zoning laws likely

prohibiting Harley conventions in the middle of family neighborhoods. At this point, a culturalist has no

problem; people in Houston have their codes of right and wrong and people in Dallas have theirs. What

happens, though, in Austin, Texas, which is about midway between Houston and Dallas? What if about

half the population believes in landowner rights at all costs and the other half goes for a more communityoriented

approach? A cultural ethics provides few tools for resolving the dispute beyond sitting and

waiting for one side or the other to take control of the town. This means ethics isn’t helping us solve

disagreements; it only arrives when, really, it’s no longer needed.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Proponents of cultural ethics embrace the idea that moral doctrines are just the rules, beliefs, and

customs of specific communities.

 Doing the right thing within a culturalist framework relies less on traditional ethical reasoning and more on

detecting local habits.

 The culturalist view of ethics is neither true nor false. It’s a reaction to the world as it is: a place with vastly

divergent sets of moral codes.

 A culturalist ethics respects other societies and their practices but loses solid hope for ethical progress.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. If you’re doing business overseas as a cultural ethicist, why would it make sense to consult the local

chamber of commerce? Who else might you consult for moral guidance? Why?

2. You go abroad to win a contract and discover that a cash gift is necessary, so you hand it over and win the

business. On returning to the United States, you put the $200 gift on your expense report. The boss is

infuriated, calls your act an “unethical, wrongheaded bribe” and says she won’t reimburse you the $200.

What arguments could you use to convince her that you did the right thing and should be reimbursed?

3. Souza’s bloody TV program is popular in Brazil, especially the parts where he shows video of horridly dead

bodies. How could a culturalist argue that the episodes should not be shown on American TV?

4. A cultural ethics is neither true nor false. Explain.

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[1] Moira Allen, “Here Comes the Bribe,” Entrepreneur, October 2000, accessed May 12,

2011, http://www.entrepreneur.com/magazine/entrepreneur/2000/october/32636.html.

 [2] Dom Phillips, “Brazil Crime Show Host ‘Used Murder to Boost Ratings,’” Times, August 13, 2009, accessed May

12, 2011,http://www.timesonline.co.uk/tol/news/world/us_and_americas/article6793072.ece.

4.4 Virtue Theory

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

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1. Define virtue ethics.

2. Elaborate basic virtues and show how they work in business.

3. Indicate how virtue is acquired.

4. Note an advantage and drawback of the theory.

What Is Virtue Ethics?

Contemporary virtue ethics is an updated version of a theory first proposed in ancient Greece. Today’s

proponents acknowledge that it’s very difficult to set up a list of moral rules that are going to solve ethical

dilemmas across cultural lines. Typically, they don’t go quite so far as the culturalists; they don’t believe

that basic regulations of right and wrong are completely independent from one community to another. In

practical terms, however, there’s agreement that the world is too diverse and changing to be controlled by

lists of recommendations and prohibitions. So proponents of virtue suggest that we change the focus of

our moral investigations. Instead of trying to form specific rules for everyone to follow—don’t bribe, don’t

exploit the deceased on TV—they propose that we build virtuous character. The idea is that people

who are good will do the good and right thing, regardless of the circumstances: whether they’re at home

or abroad, whether they’re trying to win new clients or making a decision about what kind of images are

appropriate for public TV.

In a vague sense, we all know what it means to have a virtuous character; we all know people who can be

counted upon to do the right thing. Think of a business situation where true character shines through. A

local TV station has seen advertising revenue plummet and layoffs have to be made. Who should go?

Should Jim get to stay because his wife just had their first child? Should Jane get to stay because she’s

fifty-seven and probably won’t be able to find another job? Should John—who’s a tireless worker and the

station’s best film editor—be laid off because he was hired only two months ago? It’s a hard choice and

there’s no way to know for sure what’s right. It is certain, however, that there are better and worse ways of

handling the situation.

One strategy is to not think too much about it, to just know that two employees have to go, so you take the

names that happen to come to mind, you send them an e-mail, and you instruct security to make sure

they’re escorted from the building. Then you go hide in the bathroom until they’re gone. In other words,

you weasel out. In the same situation, another person will draw up criteria for making the decision and

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will stand up and inform those who are being let go why the decision was made. The thoughts

(complaints, regrets, excuses) of those being released will be honored and heard attentively, but the

decision will stand. From the person in charge of deciding, there’ll be honesty, respect, and firmness. This

is virtue. You can’t read it in a book, you can’t memorize principles, and you can’t just follow some

precooked decision-making process. You have to have certain qualities as a person to do the right thing in

a hard situation.

Virtue ethics is the idea that we can and should instill those qualities in people and then let them go out

into the complex business world confident that they’ll face dilemmas well. What decisions will they make?

What will they do when faced with questions about who should be laid off or, in another case, whether to

hand over a bribe in a place where everyone is bribing? We don’t know. But we rely on their good

character to be confident they’ll do right.

Under this conception, these are the primary tasks of ethics:

 Delineate what the virtues are.

 Provide experience using the virtues.

The experience is especially important because virtue isn’t so much a natural characteristic like height or

hair color; it’s more of an acquired skill: something you need to work at, practice, and hone. Also, like

many acquired skills, doing it—once a certain level of mastery has been reached—is rewarding or

satisfying. Typically, a person driven by virtue has nurtured a moral instinct for acting in consonance with

the virtues. Doing right feels right. Conversely, not acting in consonance with the virtues is discomforting;

it leaves a bad taste in the mouth. At the risk of trivializing the subject, there’s a very limited comparison

that can be made between learning virtue and learning more rudimentary activities like golf or dancing.

When someone has acquired the skill, hitting a good shot or taking the right steps in perfect time feels

good. Conversely, missing a putt or stepping on your partner’s foot leaves you consternated.

What Are the Virtues and Vices?

Every advocate of virtue ethics will present a constellation of virtues that they believe captures the essence

of what needs to be acquired to be virtuous. Typically, there’ll also be a set of anti-virtues or vices to be

avoided to fill out the picture. Here’s a set of virtues overlapping with what most proponents will offer:

 Wisdom (both theoretical and practical)

 Fairness

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 Courage

 Temperance

 Prudence

 Sincerity

 Civility

On the outer edges, here’s a common pair of vices to be avoided. Notice that what counts as a vice here

isn’t synonymous with the common use of the word, which implies a weakness of the physical body

manifested as the inability to resist drunkenness, drugs, and similar:

 Cowardice

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nsensibility

How Do the Virtues and Vices Work in a Business Environment?

Wisdom as a virtue is frequently divided into theoretical and practical variations. Theoretical wisdom is

what you get reading books and hearing college lectures. It’s the acquired ability to concentrate and

understand sentences like the one you’re reading now, even though it’s not very exciting and allows

almost no cheap thrills—words like sex and drugs don’t come up much. Those possessing theoretical

wisdom know the scholarly rules of the world in the abstract but not necessarily in practice. In the world

of business, for example, someone may be able to explain the fine points of Immanuel Kant’s complicated

and dense ethical ideas, but that doesn’t mean they’ll be able to apply the lessons when sitting in

someone’s office in a foreign country.

Practical wisdom (sometimes called prudence) is the learned ability to take a deep breath and respond to

situations thoughtfully. For example, everyone feels like exploding sometimes, especially at work after

you’ve had too much coffee and you didn’t get the raise you wanted. After that, some guy in a meeting

takes a cheap shot and jokes about how you didn’t win an overseas account because you didn’t bribe the

right person. What do you do? Scream the guy’s head off? Talk about it quietly after the meeting? Let it

pass like nothing happened? Practical wisdom doesn’t give an answer, but in the heat of the moment, it’s

the virtue of making the decision coolly, of doing something you won’t regret later. Frequently, an

association is set between practical wisdom and finding a spot between extremes. In this case, perhaps it

would be excessive to go off right there in the meeting room (because the outburst would tend to confirm

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that you’re not real smart), but it might also be excessive to let the jab go as though nothing had happened

(because the same guy may feel emboldened to keep poking at you). So practical wisdom would be the

ability to navigate a middle, prudent, route—perhaps one leading to the decision to discuss the matter

quietly but sternly after the meeting.

Fairness is the virtue of judging people’s acts dispassionately, evenhandedly, and from all points of view.

When forming judgments about a potential client who seems to be asking for a bribe, the verdict is going

to partially depend on where the client is. If he’s in the United States, that’s one thing; if he’s in a country

where clients customarily get cash under the table, that’s another. No one is saying the first is wrong and

the second right, but the different contexts need to be considered, and fairness is the ability to consider

them, to make evenhanded judgments even in very different situations.

Courage is the virtue of moderate boldness. If you’re an action crime reporter, you won’t hide in a bush

while pushing your cameraman out into the open to try to get some exciting footage. You won’t, in other

words, be a coward. At the same time, you won’t be rash either, you’ll know that sometimes you need to

take a risk to get a good story, but it doesn’t make a lot of sense to stand up and film from the middle of a

gunfight.

Temperance is the virtue of self-control with respect to pleasure, especially the pleasures of the body and

the senses. Curiously, Wallace Souza stands as an embodiment of this skill. As a major league drug dealer,

he no doubt had constant access to good, cheap, feel-good substances. Even so, he managed to control his

intake, not letting it interfere with his day job as a TV reporter, and his other day job as a legislator.

More generally in the workplace, temperance mixes well with the learned ability to delay gratification. For

example, doing good work is frequently rewarded with a better job, but it’s hard to find someone who feels

as though they get everything they deserve every time. Temperance enters here as the ability to bear down

and keep trying. It’s also, on the other side, the ability to know when a larger change (perhaps looking for

work at another company) may be necessary to get ahead.

Sincerity is the ability to reveal yourself to others with confidence that you’ll be respected. It fits between

the extremes of frigidity and emoting. Souza or any TV reporter has to do more than just give cold facts;

some human, emotional component must be added to the mix. On the other hand, no one’s going to watch

a reporter who arrives at a crime scene, reports that he feels sad, and breaks down in tears. Similarly in

international business negotiations, to establish good contact across cultures, there has to be some

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sharing of humanity. You need to reveal what kind of food you like or something similar to the people on

the other side. You don’t want to go too far, though, and talk about how Japanese food reminds you of a

childhood vomiting episode (especially when doing business in Tokyo).

Civility is the virtue of showing consideration for others without humiliating yourself. As a virtue it

doesn’t mean eating with the right fork or remembering to say “thank you” to clients. Instead, it’s the

disposition to show others that you take them seriously while also respecting yourself. This means

establishing ground rules for behavior that are independent and neutral. In essence, the idea is, when

having lunch with your boss, you don’t eat like you’re sitting in front of the TV in your family room; you

respect her, and you expect the same from her. Civility is the virtue of habitually being and expressing

yourself in a way that establishes your presence solidly without threatening or impinging on others.

Vices

On the outside of the virtues, there are vices. Just as the accomplishment of a virtue—acting in harmony

with it—yields a sense of satisfaction and confidence that you’re living well, living a good life, so too the

vices produce a sensation of unease. It’s not exactly a sting of conscience (like a child feels when caught

stealing); it’s more a sense of weakness, deflation, and failure. Cowardice, for example, is a vice. It may

save your job if you mess up and don’t confess to the problem being your fault; but for the person trained

in virtue, the job will have lost its dignity. Insensibility is another vice. Had Souza understood that, he

may have thought twice about those people’s dead bodies he rolled out for television. He may have

thought of their living parents, their children. And even if he hadn’t, after he’d presented the images he

would’ve felt that he’d lapsed, that he hadn’t done as well as he could.

How Do I Become Virtuous?

Virtues aren’t a list of actions you can write on the back of your hand and refer to; they’re ways of living,

and the only route to becoming virtuous is to actually live those ways. Every society will have its own

institutions for instilling virtue, and within societies different institutions will seem more apt for some

than for others. In the United States, the kinds of groups that are sought out as instillers of virtue include

the family, churches, schools, sports teams, Boy and Girl Scouts, volunteer and community organizations,

the armed forces, AmeriCorps, and similar.

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Companies play a role, too. The virtuous organization will be led by individuals who are virtuous, and it

will reward workers—at least partially—based on their progress toward being good people. This kind of

organization won’t rely on employee handbooks and compliance rules to dictate behavior; instead, it will

devise strategies for nurturing the skills of a good life. They may include mentor programs, carefully

calibrated increases in responsibility and independence for employees, and job performance assessments

that not only measure numerical results but also try to gauge an individual’s moral contributions to the

organization’s undertaking.

Finally, when confronted with moral questions—“What kind of images should I broadcast on my TV

report?” or “Should I hand money under the table?”—the answer won’t be yes or no. It’s never a yes or no;

it’s always to do what my good character dictates.

An Advantage and Drawback of Virtue Ethics

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The principal advantage of virtue ethics is its flexibility, the confidence that those who are virtuous will be

equipped to manage unforeseeable moral dilemmas in unfamiliar circumstances. The principal drawback

is the lack of specificity: the theory doesn’t allow clear, yes-or-no responses to specific problems like

whether I should offer a bribe.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Virtue ethics concentrates on forming good character and then trusting people to do the right thing. At the

heart of ethics, the formation of good character replaces the defining of specific guidelines for action.

 A society’s institutions play a key role in instilling virtue.

 The basic virtues tend to stress moderation, the ability to avoid taking extreme action in the face of

dilemmas.

 Virtue ethics grants flexibility insofar as those who are virtuous should manage any situation well.

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REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. Would you call Souza’s colorful professional life a profile of the virtue of courage? Why or why not?

2. How might the virtue of civility come forward in the case of international bribery, in the case that you’ve

gone abroad in pursuit of a contract and the prospective client demands some cash under the table?

3. What are some societal institutions you’ve come in contact with that could be understood as teaching

virtue? What virtue(s) do they instill, and how?

4.5 Discourse Ethics

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Define discourse ethics.

2. Show how discourse ethics can function in a business context.

3. Note an advantage and drawbacks to the theory.

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What Is Discourse Ethics?

Proponents of discourse ethics reverse the order in which we normally address ethical uncertainties.

Instead of starting with one theory or another and then taking it out into the world to solve problems, they

start with a problem and try to create a moral structure to solve it. Ethical solutions become ad hoc,

custom generated to resolve specific conflicts. It doesn’t matter so much, therefore, that people come to an

issue like bribery from divergent moral terrains because that difference is erased by the key element of

discourse ethics: a foundational decision to cut away from old ideas and make new ones.

How Does Discourse Ethics Work?

When a dilemma is faced, those involved gather and try to talk it out. The discussion is constrained by two

basic limits: conversation must be reasonable and civil, and the goal is a peaceful and consensual

resolution. As long as these ideals control what we say, we can call the result ethically respectable.

Take the dilemma of international bribery: you’ve left your home office in New Jersey and gone to

Somalia seeking to win construction business on a new airport. As the recent Transparency

International Corruption Perception Index shows, [1] you’re going to discover that its customary to pass

some cash to a prospective client before he’ll be willing to do serious business. Company policy, however,

prohibits bribes.

What do you do? If you’re playing by hometown, American rules, your responsibility to company policy

and to broad honesty and fairness requires you to walk away. But if you’re playing Somali rules where

greasing a palm seems fair and acceptable, your obligation to win contracts for the company that’s paying

your salary requires you to pass some cash. Discourse ethics comes in here with this: instead of trying to

impose one side’s convictions on the other, the effort will be to overcome the divide by constructing a new

and encompassing moral framework through common agreement. American rules and Somali rules are

both thrown out, and new ones get sought. Here are steps on the way:

1. Define the immediate stakeholders—that is, those who’re most affected by the dilemma and may be

gathered to resolve it. In this case, they include you and your client. Since your responsibilities to the

company are reported through your supervisor, she too could be included.

2. Establish a language for discussion. In the international world this is actually a real problem. Sensibilities

must be respected, and if you’re in Somalia, just assuming that everyone will speak English might be a

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step backward. On the other hand, you probably don’t speak Somali. This step then becomes a rehearsal

for the larger problem—just as you’re separated by moral codes, so too you’re separated by languages—

and you’re going to have to find a solution. You may choose a third language, you may hire an interpreter,

or maybe your client will be able to speak English. In any case, an agreement must be reached.

3. Establish the goal, which in discourse ethics is always the peaceful and consensual resolution to the

dilemma.

4. Define the problem. Here, it’s that when cash passes from you to the client, you feel like you’re handing

over an illegitimate bribe, but he feels like he’s receiving a typical and acceptable gift. This stage of the

process would require fairly lengthy elaborations by all those involved of exactly what they understand

their obligations and interests to be. Your supervisor would need to explain the company policy, why it

exists and how she’s responsible for upholding it. Your client might point out that his salary is quite low,

and the reason for that is simple: everyone accepts that his income will be supplemented by gifts. (Here,

he might sound something like a waitress in New York City explaining to a foreign diner that her salary is

absurdly small, but everyone expects there’ll be some tipping, and it’ll be more than two shiny quarters.)

You, finally, explain how you’re being stretched between two obligations: the one to respect company

policy and the other to do the job of winning contracts.

5. Propose solutions. Discourse ethics is open, a kind of ethical brainstorming: those involved offer

solutions, modify each other’s’ proposals, and try to discern whether a common ground can be mapped. In

this case, someone may propose that the prospective client offer substantial evidence that money is

expected and customary for someone in his position in Somalia. If the evidence can be produced, if it

shows that payments are nearly universal, and it shows about how much they normally are, then perhaps

all parties can be satisfied. Your supervisor, seeing that the amount actually forms part of a normal salary

and isn’t some extraordinary payment, may be able to reason that the money isn’t a bribe because it’s not

doing what bribes typically do, which is afford an unfair advantage. In this case, if everyone’s paying, then

no advantage will be had. It’s important to note here that the logic isn’t if everyone does it then it’s all

right, because discourse ethics doesn’t generalize like that. All conversations and solutions are about

getting agreement on this one case. So your supervisor feels like handing cash over isn’t a bribe any more

than tipping a waitress is. Your client, having received the money, will obviously be satisfied. You, finally,

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will be free to fulfill your professional obligation to win the client without sacrificing your obligation to

respect company policy and your obligation to yourself to work in a way that’s honest.

If this—or any—solution is reached, then discourse ethics will have done what it promised: open a way for

concerned parties to reach agreements alleviating conflicts. Whatever the agreement is, it’s an ethically

recommendable solution because the definition of what’s ethically recommendable is just agreements

reached through discussion.

 

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existence in the suburb,

about two hundred people were struck by moving vehicles, and twenty were killed. From the

perspective of the ethics of care, can these numbers be used to form an argument against this

policy and in favor of a return to the previous, corrupted reality?

Money for Nothing

Source: Photo courtesy of Richard Riley, http://www.flickr.com/photos/rileyroxx/2969244149/.

In his blog the z spot, author Z raises two questions about people receiving unemployment paychecks.

Both are laced with suspicion of fraud. First, people who are collecting unemployment checks are required

to show they’re at least trying to get a job, but Z writes that some are “showing up for interviews in jeans

and t-shirts.” Then he asks, “Do these people really want the job, or are they just showing up to say that

they are actively seeking work?” [7]

He goes from there to a second critical point. “Some people,” Z says, “are collecting unemployment checks

even though they’re actually working.” What they do is turn in their unemployment form listing the days

they worked, and those are deducted from the check they receive. That sounds OK in the abstract, but, he

adds, “The problem is that these people who are ‘on call’ are not taking shifts that are offered to them.

Those shifts don’t get deducted from their unemployment. So, while there are people who are actually

unemployed, struggling and looking to find work, there are Union employees sitting at home deciding

when they do and don’t want to come in. And collecting unemployment.”

From the posting’s response section, here are two contributions:

1. It’s not easy for me to swallow that my taxes are supporting people who could be working.

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2. I have a question. I live in Wisconsin and I know of somebody who is collecting unemployment but is not

actually going to any job interviews or is even applying for jobs. Is this illegal? If so, how can I report this

without them knowing?

QUE STIONS

1. If you were using the eternal return to chart your way through life, would you have any problem “sitting at

home deciding when you do and don’t want to come in while collecting unemployment”? If you’re all right

with that, how would you respond to the complaint from the response section that someone is paying

taxes to support your lifestyle?

2. Thinking about the people showing up for job interviews in jeans and t-shirts, what might be lacking in

their character according to a virtue ethicist? If the government is one of those institutions proponents of

virtue look to for the instillation of good character, what might the government do in this situation in the

name of encouraging virtue?

3. The second cited response to Z is a question about how an unemployment cheat can be reported

“without them knowing.”

o About this silent reporting, why is this not what a proponent of discourse ethics would

recommend?

o How could the five-step process of discourse ethics be applied to the situation? Would the guy

complaining about paying taxes be included in the discussion? What kind of proposals might be

voiced to rectify the situation?

4. Starting from the ethics of care, is there a situation you could imagine that would justify the actions of

workers who take some shifts but decline others, and collect unemployment for those declined hours?

A Single Parent in the Army

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Source: Photo courtesy of US Army Africa, http://www.flickr.com/photos/usarmyafrica/4034104565/.

The post of cook in the mess hall is probably one of the Army’s least dangerous assignments, the closest

you get to actual battle is a food fight, but it’s still a military job where you go and do what your orders

command. For Specialist Alexis Hutchinson, a twenty-one-year-old Army cook, that meant catching a

flight to Afghanistan. She missed hers, though, intentionally. She regretted abandoning her unit, but felt

she had no choice. The single mother of a ten-month-old, she says she couldn’t find anyone to care for her

child during the absence; the only potential help, her mother, was already overwhelmed by caring for

three other relatives with health problems. Hutchinson’s fear, according to her lawyer, was that if she

showed up at the airport, the Army “would send her to Afghanistan and put her son with child protective

services.”

For its part, a military spokesman says, “the Army would not deploy a single parent who had nobody to

care for a child.”

The situation is under review, but for the present, just like anyone else who refuses deployment, she’s

under military arrest on her base in Georgia. [8]

QUE STIONS

1. Virtue ethics

o The military is cited by virtue ethicists as a potential character-building institution, one of the

places a society molds a good citizenry. What are some of the virtues the military could be

expected to instill? How are those reflected in this situation?

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o Families are a cited source of virtue. What values should we expect family life to instill? How are

those virtues reflected in this situation?

o Is there any way to bring the military virtues and the family virtues together for Hutchinson? If so,

what might it be? If not, why not and what should she do?

2. Proponents of discourse ethics walk through a five-step process on the way to reaching a negotiated

settlement to moral conflicts. What might the five steps look like here?

3. One of the objections to discourse ethics is that it can set up a slippery slope—that is, the people involved

can form a solution that bends the rules a little bit, and next someone else wants a little flexibility too, and

then someone wants a little more, and before long, the rules have completely disappeared and everyone’s

doing whatever they want. Could you sketch out how this process could happen here, with the end result

being the Army more or less losing the values at the core of its existence?

4. Ethics of care

o One of the key elements composing an ethics of care and distinguishing it from traditional ethical

theories is this: At the center of attention, independent actors are replaced by a web of

interrelated individuals. Ethics, in other words, isn’t about me and you, it’s about us. In

Hutchinson’s case, she finds herself in the midst of at least two networks of “us,” two

communities of people to whom she owes an allegiance and care. Describe these communities

and the links binding them.

o Another of the key elements composing an ethics of care and distinguishing it from traditional

ethical theories is this: The impartial application of abstract principles is replaced by the

maintenance and harmonizing of human relationships. Ethics, in other words, is less about the fair

imposition of rules and more about crafting social integration. Can you find an example of this

conflict between an ethics of rules on one side, and an ethics of relationships on the other, in

Hutchinson’s situation?

o Another of the key elements composing an ethics of care and distinguishing it from traditional

ethical theories is this: Tensions between the rights of individuals get replaced by conflicts of

responsibility to others in established relationships. Ethical tensions, in other words, aren’t my

rights versus yours, it’s me torn between those I care for. In the case of Hutchinson, how is she

torn?

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o In general, do you believe there’s a place for an ethics of care in the military? If so, where? If not,

why not?

 [1] “Tamica Tanksley, SCT ’00,” Temple University, accessed May 12,

2011,http://www.myowlspace.com/s/705/index.aspx?sid=705&gid=1&pgid=1021&cid=1612&ecid=

1612&ciid=3725&crid=0.

 [2] Business Ethics Workshop video, accessed May 12,

2011,http://businessethicsworkshop.com/Chapter_4/Mordida%20in%20the% 20booklet.html.

 [3] Business Ethics Workshop video, accessed May 12,

2011,http://businessethicsworkshop.com/Chapter_4/How_to_purchase_a_police_ officer.html.

 [4] Business Ethics Workshop video, accessed May 12,

2011,http://businessethicsworkshop.com/Chapter_4/Quick_mordida.html.

 [5] Alejandro Almazán, “Fin de la mordida,” El Universal, November 16, 2003, accessed May 12,

2011, http://www2.eluniversal.com.mx/pls/impreso/noticia.html?id_nota= 54910&tabla=ciudad.

 [6] Business Ethics Workshop video, accessed May 12,

2011,http://businessethicsworkshop.com/Chapter_4/Mordida%20in%20the% 20booklet.html.

 [7] Business Ethics Workshop, accessed May 12,

2011,http://businessethicsworkshop.com/Chapter_4/Unemployment_fraud.html.

[8] “Mother Refuses Deployment,” New York Times, November 16, 2009, accessed May 12,

2011, http://www.nytimes.com/2009/11/17/us/17soldier.html.

Chapter 5

Employee’s Ethics: What’s the Right Job for Me?

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Chapter Overview

Chapter 5 “Employee’s Ethics: What’s the Right Job for Me?” examines some ethical decisions facing

employees. It considers the values that underlie and guide choices about the kind of work you choose to

pursue.

5.1 Finding Jobs to Want

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Delineate ethical dilemmas and considerations in job seeking.

2. Discuss how values guide the search for a job.

3. Define job sequencing.

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What Kind of Work Is Out There?

A question posed on a web discussion board: What Is Your Nightmare Job? Here are some answers:

 Lung gunner (in a poultry processing plant: ram a nozzle down the chopped neck of a chicken and suck

out the lungs)

 Roofer (Miami, summertime)

 Urinalysis monitor (watch guys pee for eight hours, making sure no one’s switching their own for some

friends who hasn’t been using drugs)

 Toll booth operator (apparently evil drivers heat quarters with cigarette lighters and drop them into the

hands of unsuspecting operators) [1]

That last part about hot coins may be urban legend, but no matter what, there are jobs on the list that are

going to make you cringe.

The Wall Street Journal has a similar list, but theirs includes both a top and bottom twenty—the best and

worst jobs you can try to get or struggle to avoid.[2] Here are a few from one group:

 Child-care worker

 Lumberjack

 Butcher

 Seaman

 Nuclear decontamination tech

 Nurse

 Firefighter

And a few from the other group:

 Actuary

 Parole officer

 Accountant

 Medical laboratory technician

 Paralegal assistant

 Meteorologist

 Historian

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Can you tell which jobs belong in the twenty best and which are among the twenty worst? You might have

a fix on the answer, but probably there’s one or two on each list that don’t seem to fit. That’s because once

you get away from the extremes—the horribly bad and enviously good jobs—it’s difficult to define exactly

what counts as good work.

Let’s take a look at two jobs: child-care worker and actuary. It’s probably true that no one really likes

changing diapers at the day care center, and certainly it’s smellier and dirtier than being an actuary, which

is a statistical job. Actuaries take a calculator and reams of data and try to figure out how old people are

likely to be when they die. This is important information for companies selling life insurance since they’ve

got to make sure their clients live long enough—and pay long enough—to more than cover the lump sum

that gets doled out at the end. Now there’s a fair amount of money at stake here, and that’s why good

actuaries get paid big money. The money is one reason being an actuary gets ranked as one of the best

jobs by the Wall Street Journal. So the actuary advantages are the money, it’s not stinky work, and also

it’s worth noting that there’s not much stress since no one will know for sure whether your calculations

are right or wrong for decades. Add it all up and you’ve got a potentially desirable job and career path, the

kind you may want to put at the center of your working life.

Still, is it really better than a bottom-twenty job as a day care worker? If you do go the day care route, it’s

true that you’ve got to wash your hands constantly, but the rest of the day, being with excited children,

helping them take their first steps, recite the alphabet, and learn how to play with one another, that must

be worth something; there must be a human, emotional reward in it. Undeniably, when you punch out

from the day care center on Friday night you won’t have as much money to spend as your friend whose

charting future death rates, but it’s also true that when you come back on Monday you’ll be engaged with

young lives instead of death. You’ll be human for the day instead of a calculator.

On the other hand, no one likes poop under the fingernails. It’s hard to get away from that.

Finally, what’s really curious about that first list taken from the Internet discussion board is that for

almost all of them, there’s some lone voice speaking up in favor in the comments part of the web page. A

toll booth operator, for example, wrote in to say that he likes his job because there’s no boss staring over

his shoulder. And roads don’t go out of business, so he doesn’t have to worry too much about corporate

downsizing or economic recessions. Nearly every job, it seems, looks OK to someone. Even in the worlds

of lung gunners and urinalysis monitors, there are people who are decently happy with what they’re doing.

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Why Is a Career Decision Ethical Instead of Just a Personal Decision about Jobs?

Normally we think of ethics as providing guidelines for how to treat other people—don’t steal, don’t lie.

But ethics is also about how we treat ourselves and the responsibilities we have to ourselves. One of the

deepest of the responsibilities is making thoughtful and independent decisions about what’s worth doing

and what isn’t. Narrowing this to economic reality, the most tangible choice you’re going to have to make

is where am I going to go to work when I wake up in the morning? This decision—choosing a job and a

career path—is about value. Every time the alarm goes off, you affirm what definitely matters in your life

and what’s really not so important.

These value judgments are rehearsed in comparing the so-called bottom-twenty job in the day care center

with the so-called top-twenty job of an actuary. There are big advantages to being an actuary: money and

relatively fixed hours (no parents get stuck in traffic and leave you with a screeching three-year-old until

8:00 p.m.). But day care also has advantages: you work in a life-affirming profession while reaping the

human reward of helping children learn.

It’s true that on paper being an actuary probably looks better. But life doesn’t happen on paper. That’s

why, every day, people make the decision to go work at the day care center, despite everything. Or to be a

teacher at an inner-city junior high school. Or to be a lumberjack because the opportunity to work

outdoors outweighs the sore muscles. The possibilities are nearly endless.

In the end, you’re the only one who can decide what to do when the alarm goes off, and you have an

ethical responsibility to yourself to make the best decision you can.

Seven Values for Ranking Jobs

To start thinking about jobs in terms of the values they respond to, these questions are pivotal. For me,

how important is it that my work

1. is meaningful,

2. allows leisure time,

3. accumulates money,

4. bestows power,

5. radiates prestige,

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6. is comfortable,

7. provides security?

The question about meaningful work is the hardest to cleanly answer. Even defining exactly what counts

as “meaningful” isn’t easy. Definitely, its work that holds significance for you or the larger community

apart from how much you’re paid, how big your office is, how long your vacations stretch. Still, it’s

difficult to pin down exactly what counts as a meaningful job. Unlike money, which you can just add up,

meaning is more like a color: hard to describe, changes a bit depending on the light and people tend to

have their own palettes of good and bad.

On her blog, Kendra Kinnison writes that she “believes her purpose in life is to use her ability to discover

connections and present them in an innovative way to support the creation and building of healthy

businesses and to inspire others to accept Jesus Christ and to discover and utilize their gifts.” [3]

She’s got it down. There’s nothing about salary or how many employees she has working underneath her.

She does want to be in business; it’s not like her religion has led her off to be a missionary. But at the same

time she wants to work on her terms and within her priorities. Probably, there are career slots where she

wouldn’t fit too well (imagine her trying to help others and spread her faith while working at a used car

dealership), but maybe starting up a local day care center would suit her ideals. True, the Wall Street

Journal tells us that are a bad job, but it doesn’t sound like it would be a bad one for her.

Look at the Greenpeace recruitment page: http://greenpeace.org/international/about/jobs. Their job

openings read like anti-ads, like they’re trying to discourage your application. There are some uplifting

parts about “challenging work,” but nothing about the potential for huge, year-end bonuses, or rapid

advancement, or generous health insurance, or comfortable working conditions. In all those terms,

working for Greenpeace sounds pretty bleak. Which is part of the reason it’s so clear that this is a job for

people who want meaning in their professional lives, a purpose separate from their own comfort, and one

involving the environment?

Not all meaningful work has to be based on faith or tied to internationally known advocacy organizations.

Chances are there’s a woman not too far from where you live who’s in the music business at the grassroots

level: she offers piano lessons. Knock on her door and ask why she does it year after year; she may say she

believes in music, its beauty, and its contribution to what she considers a full life. Your college athletic

director might say something similar about sports. Or go to the nearest farmer’s market—you won’t find a

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lot of money changing hands; it’s definitely not big business, but you’ll probably run into someone eager

to discuss the virtues of organic food in terms that sound more like a crusade than a menu choice.

Actually, organic food is big business. Beyond seeds in the fields and the scattered crates of the farmers’

market, there’s a growing, and growingly profitable business in the massification of the organic. Anyone

walking through the local Whole Foods will see a lot of the color green. What won’t be seen—but what’s

definitely up above—is an impressive corporate structure with big-salary managers making million-dollar

stocking decisions every day. As far as money goes, they’re doing well for themselves—like any

multibillion-dollar corporation, Whole Foods pays its leading executives big money. [4] But hunched over a

desk and tapping on a keypad, hasn’t their work been bleached of the meaning and devotion that abides

with the vegan wearing dirty overalls and trying to sell strawberries in an empty parking lot Saturday

mornings? Maybe. Or maybe not. Meaningful work doesn’t require that the only jobs you’ll accept are low

paying.

More jobs and kinds of work could be added here, but whatever you believe in, you should be able to find

some employment that lets you approach it. As for how close you can get to truly meaningful work that

will probably depend to some extent on trade-offs, on how much you’re willing to give up in terms of

leisure time, job security, and other comforts. Regardless, the real key is that meaningful work sets a

specific purpose before everything else. With respect to lining up a career path, you don’t start with a list

of jobs and then find one that suits your interests; it’s the opposite: you start with your deep interest and

then find a job that lets you pursue it.

Finally, two cautionary points: While it’s true that people devoted to meaningful work frequently sacrifice

money, leisure time, and job security, the logic doesn’t work the other way. Most of the time, low pay,

short vacations, and a constant threat of unemployment don’t mean you’ve chosen a noble career; they

just mean you’ve got a crappy job.

And on the other side, there are the holy grails out there. Probably, some higher-ups at Whole Foods got

into the line of work because they find the promotion of organic food meaningful, and they ended up with

enviable salaries as well (in other words, they’re in it for the organic cause more than the money, but

they’re happy to get the money). In a different direction, Michael Jordan loved basketball and also ended

up getting paid handsomely to play. The photographer Annie Leibovitz loves and is dedicated to

photography, but she’s not making many sacrifices to do it: traveling to exotic places, living well, and

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meeting interesting people. Former vice president Al Gore believes in saving the planet as much as any

sweating deckhand on the Greenpeace boat; the difference is he wrote a book about it that sold millions of

copies and made him millions of dollars.

Conclusion about meaningful work: dedicating your professional life to a cause or activity that you believe

in doesn’t mean low wages and long hours. A lot of times it does, but that’s not the point.

Another question shaping job seeking is leisure time. How important is it? In a sense, this is the mirror

image of meaningful work. If you believe in something like promoting organic food, playing basketball,

taking pictures, saving the planet, or even watching game shows on TV, it’s perfectly reasonable to find a

job in some other field that provides the income you need in the fewest hours possible and then lets you

get out and do what you really want with the rest of your time. More or less, what you say here is I’m just

going to X out that part of my life where I’m working. In the extreme case, the attitude is, “I don’t care

how bad it is, I just want to get through it.”

The Discovery Channel series The Deadliest Catch about crab fishing in the Arctic shows how cold, smelly,

and ugly work can be; but a few months of it and you get a year’s worth of wages and the free time to

spend it. One important concept here is instrumentalism, which means that work becomes an

instrument—a tool allowing you to get or do something else.

The third question about jobs and values involves money. Like sacrificing hours of work to get leisure,

punching the clock to accumulate cash makes your job an instrument. Money is also the easiest way to

organize your professional life. You can count it; if one job pays more than another, its better.

But this easiness can also be a trap. For anyone just out of college and facing a hazy and unclear world

where all the decisions seem so difficult, it’s easy to get tempted by the smoothest route: just check the

possibilities out there and go for whatever pays the most. At least that way you know you’re not messing

things up completely. So there’s something to be said for going that safe route, but this also needs to get

underlined. From the perspective of your responsibilities to yourself, the better-paying job is only the

better job if you’ve already made the decision to value career options in terms of how much they pay.

There’s nothing necessarily wrong with that decision. Of course the Hollywood movies and the Habitat for

Humanity volunteers hanging around campus looking for recruits are all going to tell you that you’ve got

to follow your heart, do meaningful work, and contribute to society. And if you face them up and flat out

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say you’re just in it for the money, there are always going to be whispers about greed and accusations like

being a sellout.

In defense of money, though, dedicating your career to getting it makes a lot of sense, and it can do a lot of

good, too:

 If you’ve got student loans, it’s good to be able to pay them back, as it’s the fulfillment of a duty to fidelity.

 If you do feel a need to support causes like protecting the planet, most advocacy organizations will be

happy to receive a cash donation. The truth is, they’d probably rather have the money than a few

volunteer hours.

 

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 Making money means participating in an economy that’s getting richer, and doesn’t that end up making

life better for everyone? Faced with Habitat for Humanity volunteers who ask you to join them in building

shelter for the needy, couldn’t you even make the case that contributing to an economy that functions well

actually helps people more—at least in the long run—by producing jobs so they can purchase their own

home instead of relying on volunteers to build one?

 You may have children. Clothes are expensive. Summer camp is expensive. The holidays are expensive.

True, little ones might still be a long way off, but when they come, a new set of responsibilities arrive, too,

and just about the only way you can begin preparing for them now is by making sure that, on the money

side at least, the house is in order.

There’s more to this list, but when it comes to choosing a job with an eye on the salary factor, it’s

important to spend some time with this question: Why is it, exactly, that money has value for me?

If you’re looking for power, you could do a lot worse than being a judge. True, you spend your days

listening to lame excuses for shoplifting and the bogus assurances of repentance from drug dealers, but

with the pound of a (little wooden) hammer, you get a police officer to rumble over and haul people off to

jail. In court, even someone mouthing off is enough to slap them with contempt and assign them to a few

hours of lockup.

The military, politics, policing: all these fields will appeal to anyone who sets the possession of power as

one of the most valuable aspects of a job. Less directly, people in the news media can decide which issues

center popular attention by mentioning them on the radio broadcast, the TV news show, or the current

affairs blog. That’s serious influence, shaping what people are thinking and talking about in our shared

world.

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Obviously, bosses in most fields of work have power. Usually they like to say that they have

“responsibilities,” but frequently part of holding the responsibility to carry out a project is having the

ability to hire and fire the people participating. Advertising is also about power. It’s not as explicit as the

ability to get someone hauled off to jail or sent to the unemployment line, but masters of the craft can get

people to believe that they really need some electronic device that they didn’t even know existed thirty

seconds ago. There’s power in schools, too. If you’re in this class as a distribution requirement, that means

someone has decided for you what you’re supposed to know.

The bottom line is that power—and the various jobs that grant it—exist in many places, and some are

more transparent holders of force than others. So one of the keys to understanding power as a career

option is being sensitive to the different ways it works. Commanding a platoon of soldiers fits the bill, but

so does sending out an army of TV commercials.

Even more than money, power is vilified as a career goal. If you tell your friends that all you care about is

money, they might think you’re greedy, but they’ll probably keep in touch over the years, figuring you

could invite them to your Hamptons beach house for a great weekend. If you tell everyone that all you care

about is power, though, they’ll probably think you’re weird and drop you off their Facebook friends list.

The image we get from popular culture of a power-hungry careerist is a drooling madman with clenched

fists, too much caffeine, and maybe a copy of Machiavelli’s The Prince on the nightstand. And it’s not just

the movies. Deborah Gruenfeld, a professor in the Stanford Graduate School of Business and expert in the

psychology of power in the workplace believes: “Those in positions of power can be observed to act in a

manner that is peculiar and that often has no connection to reality.” [5]

Ouch.

There must be something there, though. If power were really so bad, we wouldn’t have to worry about it

since no one would want it. But people do want it; it’s just that hardly anyone wants to admit it.

In a sense, prestige is the opposite of power. Almost everyone says they’d love a job granting prestige, but

not many are willing to give up much for it. Going all the way back to the Wall Street Journal article,

“historian” is on the top-twenty list of desirable jobs, and “philosopher” is there, too, on the longer, uncut

version of the story. Salary isn’t the reason they’re included among the twenty best, and there’s not much

direct power to those jobs either. (Despite what you think, professors don’t get any rush out of failing

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people. Only rarely, anyway.) There is job security if you’re a tenured university professor, but the main

benefit of a prestigious job is the “wow” factor:

“What do you do for a living?”

“I’m a historian.”

“Wow.”

After a few minutes in which everyone in the conversation acknowledges that this is very interesting, the

talk switches back to more normal topics. Later on, people quietly wonder why anyone would choose to

spend more or less his or her entire life in school. That doesn’t detract from the prestige of the career

path, though.

Being a doctor is prestigious, and (even if we hate to admit it) being a lawyer is, too, although it’s also true

that part of the prestige accrues from the fact that you know people who have these jobs probably have

some money too.

The Paul Teutuls (father and son), along with Mikey Teutul, hold prestige jobs at Orange County

Choppers, and they were prestigious even before the TV show.

One of the thorny parts of prestige as a career goal is the difficulty in finding jobs that straight-out

specialize in that. Frequently, what makes this kind of job attractive isn’t purely prestige, usually there’s

something else mixed in. Being a judge is prestigious, but partially because you know there’s some real

power there. Being a struggling rock musician is pretty good in terms of prestige, but only if there’s some

sober hope that one day you’ll convert into a legitimate star and not just end up with no money and

damaged eardrums. On the other end of the musical spectrum, a jazz musician who tells people that’s

what he does for a living can usually count on getting a few people to say “that’s cool” or “that’s so

interesting,” but again, part of the reason is the mixing of the music with the sense that this person has

found meaningful work, something they’d probably be doing for free if no one was paying.

Finally, the signature difference between prestige and meaningful work is that prestigious jobs by

definition demand an audience. People dedicated to a meaningful cause like protecting the welfare of

animals can labor in obscurity all their lives doing simple things that virtually no one notices, like running

a kennel for out-of-town dog owners where the pets get treated with extraordinary levels of respect. But

for this work to cross from meaningful into prestige, someone at some point has to look and say, “Wow.”

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Comfort on the job comes in all forms, spanning from the size of your desk, to how often you need to

travel in cramped airplanes, to the clothes you need to wear while on the clock. The Wall Street

Journal article grades jobs to some extent on comfort, though they call the category “Environment.” Here

are some components of an (un)comfortable workday:

 Physical demands (crawling, stooping, bending, etc.)

 Work conditions (toxic fumes, noise, etc.)

 Physical environment extremes

 Stamina required

 Degree of confinement

This is a good list of factors that move the needle on the comfort scale, but there’s something very

important missing from it. On the comfort scale, Arctic fishermen aren’t going to score highly in terms of

physical working conditions; they’re cold and wet and living in a cramped space. The food’s bad. On the

other hand, it takes a certain type of person to sign up for a job like that—a very, very specific kind of

person. And if you’re seriously thinking about it, there’s a decent chance you’re going to hit it off with—

you’re going to feel comfortable with—the other people who are doing it. The boat, consequently, will be

uncomfortable, but the company of people you’re with may be comforting.

Looking not just at the physical characteristics of the job but the other characters that’ll be there doing it

with you is important for the obvious reason: you spend a lot of time at work. (“I spend more time with

you guys than with my husband/wife” is a constant refrain in some offices.) So if your sense of humor

works well with a bunch of people you happen to know, and it turns out that many of them are nurses,

which tell you something about how you’re going to feel about seeing them bright and early every

morning, Monday through Friday.

In his book Vital Friends: the People You Can’t Afford to Live Without, Tom Rath organizes data from

Gallup polls and studies to show that employees who have good friends in the office tend to stay longer in

a job. It’s difficult to prove things about happiness, of course. It’s even hard to know exactly what

happiness is, but it seems fair to suspect that there might be a connection between duration in a job and

happiness with the job. And if there is, then feeling comfortable with the people you work with—laughing

when they laugh, watching the same TV shows, whatever—should be a job consideration.

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Pushing the importance of workmates in a different direction, in a blog post, a woman calling herself

Penelope (she doesn’t give a last name) makes a point about flourishing at work: “You’ll learn the most on

a job by having a great mentor looking after you.” [6] If that’s true, then if you choose to work in a

profession that’s full of the kind of people you respect, admire, understand, and get along with, you’re

likely to do better for yourself than working with the kind of people you don’t take seriously (or who don’t

take you seriously).

Fitting in, the point is, with the people at work isn’t just a fringe benefit; it’s a critical value to factor into

the selection of one or another career line.

For the young, job security seems like a distant virtue, a fuddy-duddy aspiration for the over-the-hill

crowd. In fact, even for the not-so-young it’s fuddy-duddy. It’s also one of the most volatile of the values

you can assign to your job search, one of the most prone to surges and retreats.

When you wake up at 3 a.m. and then can’t get back to sleep because there’s a recession and you know

cutbacks are coming, all of a sudden holding a position that maybe isn’t too glamorous but is certainly

necessary—like being a day care worker—doesn’t seem so bad.

The day you learn your family will be growing by one is another of those moments when security’s

importance blows up. And the day your husband loses his job, that’ll be another security surge.

Then there’s age. It’s a delicate subject—for legal reasons no employer wants to go on record saying they

won’t hire people older than fifty—but there comes a point when years become a disadvantage for job

seekers, which explains why an entire subfield of the résumé-writing business has now sprung up to

manage the problem. Jeanne Knight, a certified career coach and résumé expert, says, “What candidates

can do to make themselves look younger in a résumé is only list ten to fifteen years of work experience.

Also, drop graduation dates and make sure you list any seminars or workshops that focus on new

technology.”[7]

So you can figure that if older people are going that far to camouflage their overabundant experience, it

must be hard to get hired after fifty. And if that’s true, you better have good job security at forty-nine.

Finally, the easiest way to define job security is just the confidence that you won’t be fired next week, but

the discussion broadens very naturally. For example, demographic trends tell us that the American

population is aging, so if you’re deciding between studying to be an athletic trainer or a nurse, you may

well figure that over the next twenty years it’s probably going to be easier to find work in the nursing

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home than the gymnasium, and that holds regardless of how secure any single job may appear right now.

Or again, computer technologies keep entering our lives faster and from more directions, and that’s a

good clue about future job prospects.

In any case, if you’re reading this, it’s possible that you’re what marketers are calling a millennial,

meaning someone born between 1980 and 1995, more or less. If you fit the category, the TV show 60

Minutes believes you think this: “We have options. We can keep hopping jobs. No longer is it bad to have

 

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four jobs on your résumé in a year. Whereas for our parents or even generation X, that was terrible. But

that’s the new reality for us. And we’re going to keep adapting and switching and trying new things until

we figure out what it is.” [8]

Probably, the value of job security arrives along with the realization that companies can say the same

thing about employees. A lot of them do.

Balancing the Values

One factor can be chosen to weigh more heavily than everything else combined when sorting out the

values for initiating a job search. The imbalance would go a long way toward efficiently filtering career

possibilities. For many, however, the priorities won’t sort out so easily: it’ll be necessary to balance

competing values, to trade one against another when considering specific jobs and career paths. Someone

may, for example, value both money and comfort, but that doesn’t help answer the question about

whether a job on an Alaskan crabbing ship is more or less attractive than a summer on the beach in the

lifeguard stand. In the longer term, holding the two values won’t help to decide between the career of an

undersea welder or an office worker.

How can individuals get a grip on what their own priorities are, and how much each weighs? In his essay

“Strategic Planning—For the Good Life,” Robert Solomon offers a provocative question: “Looking back

over your life from a rocking chair, what would you like to remember—and how would you like to be

remembered?” [9]

Of course, the idea isn’t to lock you into a life plan based on how things might look in the distant future.

You have no way of knowing how things will be, and if you’re a millennial, we know you don’t like life

plans anyway. Instead, the idea is to try to get a revealing angle on the question of what values in work

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really matter for you. The aim is to step away from everything and get a different perspective, a fresh look

at the problem.

That’s important because real life, moving along fast as it does, can narrow your perspective, get you

caught seeing things more or less the way everyone around you does. Faced with a career center job board

filled with interview schedules of visiting corporate recruiters, isn’t it easiest just to sign up for the ones

your friends are signing up for? If everyone in your sorority is talking about going to work at one agency

or another, or if half the people you know are getting teaching degrees, the temptation’s there to just

follow along.

When looking at things from extreme or unusual angles, those herding forces recede. At least for a bit you

can make yourself turn away from what everyone else is doing, leaving you no choice but to arrange your

own priorities for determining the kind of work you want to get involved with. Importantly, the idea isn’t

to eliminate other people from consideration but to eliminate consideration that just imitates what other

people are thinking. Here’s the beginning of a list of questions aiming to do that, aiming to shake up

thinking about the career choice and force some sorting of the basic values determining which way the

choice is going to go:

 Of the seven discussed values—meaning, leisure time, money, power, prestige, comfort, security—can you

rank them, or at least group them, from the most to least important for you? Can you take some of the

jobs or careers you’ve been considering and loosely rank them in terms of how well they fit with your list

of values?

 To make the list of values more manageable, can you cut it down by just eliminating some concerns that

you really don’t share?

 Are there any values you think should be added to the list?

 Can you make a short list of other people whose opinions are important to you, and then loosely imagine

how they would rank the seven values for evaluating jobs? If you can, is their ranking similar to yours or

different? If it’s similar, are you sure you’re thinking for yourself? If it’s different, are you sure your values

for work align with the kind of life that you respect?

 What would you like to tell your parents you’ve decided to do for a living?

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 Career day at the elementary school. You’re standing in front of your own child’s class talking about your

work. What kinds of things would you like to report and be proud to say? Looking back at your original

list of values for jobs, does it correspond with the classroom scene?

 You’ve got six months to live: what do you do? Is it something that might be related to work or is it a pure

leisure activity? (Can you imagine any job that would allow you to do that activity, whatever it is,

throughout your career?)

 You’ll live 600 years—and have to work during 550 of them—does that change your work priorities?

Should it?

 You’ll live 600 years—and have to work during 55 of them—does that change your work priorities? Should

it?

 For you, is the term couch potato a slur or just the name of a comfortable lifestyle? Are there anti–couch

potato and pro–couch potato career tracks?

 Your rich uncle dies and leaves you a sum of money and private instructions to use it to put poor children

through school in Mexico. It’s also enough to pay your college and leave a good amount left over for

whatever. No one’s watching—no one will ever know. What do you do? What does this tell you about the

place money have in your life?

 Madonna and Mick Jagger are among the world’s two richest rock stars. Imagine you could have all their

money, but be a complete unknown and have no sense of rhythm. Would you prefer that or would you

trade all the money to have their success, voice, and rhythm for one year on a world tour? Does the

decision correspond with your original ranking of the seven values?

 For you, which would be better: spending big money or having people know you’ve got big money to

spend? If it’s the second, is there a way to command respect from others that’s easier to achieve than

wealth?

 Friday night, you’re with a new group of people who know little about you. Would you rather tell them

you’ve been invited to a dinner at the White House for notable citizens or you’ll be having dinner

tomorrow at your own expansive beach house?

 You sign up for a blind dating service, hoping to meet someone to marry. The only thing you get to choose

about the man or woman you’ll be paired with is his or her job. What job would you choose to match you?

Next, imagine that you’re not ready for marriage, still exploring, and you go to the same service. What’s

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the job this time? If the two jobs are really different, does that reflect anything about where you’re at with

respect to the kind of work you want for yourself?

 Do you like being in charge, no one is telling you what to do, even telling other people what to do? Be

honest, no one’s listening. By the way, would your answer change if people were listening?

 A brutally long Friday at work comes to an end at 9 p.m. On the elevator ride down with some people in

the office, there’s a power outage. No one’s around to fix the machinery or let you out. What kind of

people would you like to have in the elevator with you? Is it possible to match these people up with the

kind of people frequently involved in one or another profession? (Alternatively, what kind of people would

lead you to investigate how your keys or the pen in your pocket could be used as a suicide implement?)

 If you could wear anything you wanted to work every day, nose rings included, what would it be? Is there

really an office anywhere where people do dress that way? What would you be willing to give up to work

there, and what does that tell you about the importance of environment (or comfort in the broad sense)

for your work?

 At the end of every month, your boss gives you a choice. You can have your $4,000 check or you can spin

a lottery wheel with a range of numbers from $1 to $8,000. Would you take the $4,000 check or spin?

Does this tell you anything about the importance of job security?

 If you’ve had time to read through this entire list of questions, do the answers you gave more or less

correspond with the ranking of the seven values—meaning, leisure time, money, power, prestige, comfort,

security—that you set up at the beginning?

Whose Job Is It, Anyway?

No one can decide for you what line of work to start down; it’s a decision only you can make and that you

have to make for yourself. This doesn’t mean, however, that your life is the only one involved in the

decision. Here’s a blog post: “I think people need to find the right job for them, the one that will make

them happy. My parents are always telling me to get a successful and well-paying job, however the job

that I really want to do probably isn’t the best paying job, but it would make me happy if I fulfill my

dream. I think people need to go out and do what they want and they will be successful in different

ways.”[10]

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Sounds good, but is it right? If you’ve adopted egoism (morality = self-interest) as your ethical compass,

then it is. Egoism makes the job search relatively easy; just find the one that will make you most happy.

On the other hand, if you think of yourself as more of a utilitarian—someone guided by the conviction that

the morally recommendable act is the one bringing the greatest good to the greatest number—then it’s not

clear whether this is the right way to go or not. On one side, it’s true that pursuing your dream of

professional satisfaction is good, but your parents’ satisfaction—everyone’s satisfaction—has to be

factored in too. It could be that your parents’ wishes—and the happiness they enjoy if you follow their

advice—outweigh the happiness and welfare you take from a career they recommend against.

Staying with the parents, and taking their side, what kind of ethical arguments can they launch against

your career choice? One of the strongest is going to be obligation in the sense of gratitude, in the sense

that we have a duty to repay those who’ve given to us. Most of us sense this as the courtesy of returning

favors. Sometimes we feel it in an inverted form as the desire to decline a gift that seems so great we won’t

be able to pay it back. The case could be made that this sense of obligation and gratitude is a virtue, the

result of a proper upbringing. Or it may be more like a duty, a sense of fairness inherent in the idea of

ethics in the first place. Regardless, it’s too late to go back now for you and your parents. All you can do is

add up everything they’ve done for you and everything you’ve done for them. It’s doubtful that there’s any

kind of balance.

In Portuguese, the word commonly used to say “thank you” is obligado, meaning I’m obligated, and there

aren’t many instances where the word is more apt than the parental relation with children. Faced with the

obligation, these are possible responses:

 I accept my obligation and will follow the career path my parents’ desire.

 I accept my obligation, but I’ll pay it off by bringing up my own children and letting them off the hook

when they hit adulthood (or through some other mechanism of repayment).

 I accept my obligation, but I won’t respect it.

Of course people are always free to pursue that last course, to say the obligation is there and I don’t care.

But if you want to continue acting ethically, that shifts the burden onto you to build a structure

for justifying walking away.

Moving from parents to others, what kind of ethical responsibilities do you hold to your spouse if you’re

married and to children if they arrive? There’s nothing wrong with being, say, a starving actor working for

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that one break on the way to fame. But it’s a different thing entirely when you’re asking someone else to

starve too so that you can go on trying to be the next Johnny Depp.

Do you owe anything to that math teacher who saw that you had exceptional ability with numbers and

used her own time after class to patiently tutor you on the subject? She probably wouldn’t have bothered if

she knew you were going to end up working at something that doesn’t involve math-related skills. She did

bother, though, so does that create a responsibility—even if it’s only a small one—to use that ability in

your professional life, to find a job that exploits your skill with numbers that she helped you acquire?

Finally, at the broadest level, what obligations do you have to the impersonal community around you, to

all those people you barely know or have never met—the woman behind the counter at the gas station, the

plant worker in Germany who helped assemble your car, some taxi driver in Thailand whose life will never

touch yours in any way? Do you owe anything to them when thinking about your long, eight-hour days?

This Is the Perfect Job for Me…Right Now

One way of dividing up the responsibility felt to yourself and to the others who share your world

is career sequencing—that is, defining zones of life and evaluating each separately in terms of work

priorities and aspirations. Meaningful labor—signing up for a rugged, low-paying trip on the Greenpeace

ship—may fit with your values right out of school. The trip allows a broad ethical vision of work, one

seeking to incorporate the welfare of others at a good time for you, while your own needs are limited.

Later on, lucrative work—signing up for a desk job administering a tourist cruise ship where the hours are

fewer and the pay higher—might prove the better fit.

Making the move from meaningful work to a more salary-centered vision of the workplace may simply

correspond to the realization that walking around in ripped jeans and a t-shirt doesn’t work with a

receding hairline. Or it may be that the others you hope to benefit with your time have come closer to

home: it’s not that you want to make the world a better place anymore so much as make the world better

for your family.

The Tuck School of Business has published a report on sequencing in today’s world. [11] Among the

findings: employees, led by women especially, are professionalizing the movement in and out of the

workplace. Exiting the daily grind to have a child is no longer understood so universally as leaving work

so much as a planned interruption to pursue personal goals. The difference between leaving and

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interrupting is that many women now step off the career track fully intending to return in the not-sodistant

future and to resume the professional trajectory already established. It’s not putting on the brakes

so much as taking a detour.

Men, the study finds, are following suit. Some are taking paternity leaves, more or less along the lines

pioneered by women, but the study also finds workers interested in professional detouring for the

following reasons:

 An avocation outside of work

 Stress and burnout

 Entrepreneurship

In all three cases, space along the career’s way is being pried open for different values to enter and at least

temporarily redefine the relation with work.

Why don’t people sequence? What keeps them in jobs they’d like to get away from, at least temporarily?

Fear that they won’t be able to get their jobs back leads the list. The study also shows, though, that many

employees in essence think that sequencing is wimpy, and it’ll mark them as unreliable and, therefore, unpromotable.

That perception may not be right, though. The study is a snapshot of a changing situation, so

it’s difficult to draw too many conclusions, but the authors do sense that that the direction of evolution

is toward sequencing, not away. More and more higher-level managers are willing to accommodate

employees who want to take detours; they’re willing to make space for them to come and go (as long as the

coming and going isn’t constant).

To the extent that’s right, the ethical relation with job selection transforms. It’s no longer the formation of

values for choosing a career track leading into the indefinite future; instead it’s a process. The ethical

question about your work, “What’s the right kind of job for me?,” is now a lingering concern, and

answering is a constant responsibility.

Do I Have to Decide?

Some millennial are big on job hopping, on experimenting with work first and then deciding on a path

instead of doing all the ethical considering up front. This is an attractive option.

There’s a risk here, though: it’s the trivialization of professional life. If you’re just going to take whatever

job comes along and see how it works out, then why bother even thinking about it at all? In fact, why

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bother switching? If you’re not going to do the work beforehand to get a grip on the kind of employment,

on the general direction of professional interest that supports the values you’ve decided to live by, then

how are you going to know the right job when you find it? Why switch jobs, in other words, when you

don’t know what you’re looking for?

This was one of Saint Augustine’s (AD 400) durable pieces of wisdom. It’s very simple: if you don’t know

what you’re seeking before you start looking, then how are you going to know when you’ve found it? Trial

and error, in other words, when you’re looking for the right kind of job (or the right romantic partner, or

the right beer, or whatever) only works if you already know what’s going to count as an error and what

counts as success.

Of course no one’s going to get everything down perfectly at the beginning. Ethically, there’s a kind of

bind here paralleling the first job and experience catch (you can’t get your first job without experience,

and you can’t get experience without your first job). Similarly, you can’t know exactly what kind of work

fits your values and outlook until you’ve learned how things really are out there in the nine-to-five world,

but that’s not a convincing reason to fall off the other extreme and just spin the wheel, take whatever

comes your way, and switch jobs without thinking.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Pursuing a specific job is an economic and also an ethical decision.

 Specific values shape the ethics of the job search.

 Job seekers hold ethical responsibilities both to themselves and to others.

 Job sequencing allows workers to manage shifting ethical responsibilities as their lives evolve.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. What are some of the differences between a job that provides meaningful work, and one that provides

prestige?

2. Can leisure time—maximizing it—be pursued on its own as a value in the job search, or does it need to be

combined with other values? If it needs to be combined, which values might work best?

3. If money is selected as the prime value a job seeker decides to pursue, what other values may become

easier to reach because of the money, and which values may be pushed further away?

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4. What’s the difference between power and prestige? Can you think of a job that grants power but little

prestige and one that grants prestige but little power?

5. For you, what are the components of comfort—do they include flexible hours, working in an office instead

of outside, something else? Can you rank the components as more and less important?

6. What responsibilities to others may a job seeker consider when looking for a job?

7. What is career sequencing? What are some reasons a person may choose to sequence, and what are some

reasons a person may choose not to be a sequencer?

 [1] Michael Froomkin, “What Is Your Nightmare Job?,” Discourse.net, July 19, 2007, accessed May 16,

2011,http://www.discourse.net/archives/2007/07/what_is_your_nightmare_job.html.

 [2] Sarah E. Needleman, “Doing the Math to Find the Good Jobs,” Wall Street Journal, January 6, 2009, accessed

May 16, 2011,http://online.wsj.com/article/SB123119236117055127.html.

 [3] About Kendra, accessed May 16, 2011,http://businessethicsworkshop.com/Chapter_5/Kinnison_bio.html.

 [4] Hannah Clark, “Whole Foods: Spinning CEO Pay,” accessed May 16,

2011,http://www.forbes.com/2006/04/20/john-mackey-pay_cx_hc_06ceo_0420wholefoods.html.

 [5] Psychology of Power, accessed May 16,

2011,http://businessethicsworkshop.com/Chapter_5/Power_in_business.html.

 [6] “How to Pick the People You Work With,” Penelope Trunk (blog), May 6, 2009, accessed May 16,

2011, http://blog.penelopetrunk.com/2009/05/06/how-to-pick-the-people-you-work-with.

 [7] Ric Romero, “‘Get the Job’ Pt. 4: De-Aging Resumes,” ABC7, September 3, 2008, accessed May 16,

2011, http://abclocal.go.com/kabc/story?section=news/7_on_your_side&id=6369394.

 [8] “The Millennial Are Coming,” 60 Minutes, CBS News.com, May 23, 2008, accessed May 16,

2011, http://www.cbsnews.com/stories/2007/11/08/60minutes/main3475200.shtml.

[9] Joanne B. Ciulla, Clancy Martin, and Robert Solomon, eds., “Strategic Planning—for the Good Life,” in Honest

Work: A Business Ethics Reader (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 2007), 106–7.

[10] Karen Sternheimer, “How Great Is Being a Sociologist?,” Everyday Sociology (blog), January 24, 2009, accessed

May 16, 2011,http://nortonbooks.typepad.com/everydaysociology/2009/01/how-great-is-being-asociologist.

html.

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[11] Tuck Executive Education, Changing the Career Ladder: Paving Flexible Pathways for Today’s Talent (Hanover,

NH: Dartmouth, 2011), accessed May 16, 2011,http://worklifefit.com/pdf/TuckSurveysummary.pdf.

5.2 Working for Ethically Complicated Organizations

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Define reasons why an organization’s work may be viewed as unethical.

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2. Consider how working for ethically troubling organizations can be managed.

The Psilocybin Project

The Harvard Psilocybin Project began in 1960 and included some of the university’s leading and most

innovative professors, especially from the psychology and related departments. One of their projects—the

Concord Prison Experiment—used the newly developed drug psilocybin on inmates. Professors wanted to

discover whether the medication could reduce antisocial behavior and recidivism. Another project, this

one carried out in tandem with the Harvard Divinity School, used the same drug to experiment with the

bond felt between young theology students and their chosen profession. In both cases, significant, even

mind-blowing success was initially reported.

The experiments didn’t last. Other Harvard professors raised questions about the ethics of using this drug

on humans. An intense conflict erupted in the university. The ethical propriety of the entire Psilocybin

Project, the decision came down, was, in fact doubtful. That quickly led to the project’s shuttering and

then to the dismissal of several well-known professors who protested too loudly in favor of their work and

its value, both scientific and moral.

Not all of those fired professors just went away. Outside the university some continued defending their

work with principled stands and meticulous arguments. One of those defenders, Dr. Leary, achieved such

broad public recognition that he ended up being mentioned in a song by The Who.

Not only did Timothy Leary defend the Psilocybin Project from outside university walls, he also continued

with his avid experimentation. Pretty soon the experiments weren’t only outside the university; they were

also outside the law because psilocybin, like its close relative LSD (lysergic acid diethylamide), was

categorized as an illegal substance.

Is it immoral to experiment on people—especially on prisoners who may feel pressured to participate—

with psychedelic drugs, concretely with magic mushrooms (the organic source of psilocybin)? Assume just

for the sake of argument that it is wrong and the experiments were immoral. Now who should feel guilty?

The leaders of the Psilocybin Project seem like good candidates since they knew exactly what was going

on, and they were the ones handing the doses over. What about the graduate students who followed their

professor’s lead and joined in the distribution and application of the drugs? Or the administrators at the

university who financed the project but maybe didn’t know exactly what the experiments involved? What

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about the undergrads whose tuition money paid for all this? What about the chemists who derived the

substance from mushrooms? Or the lab techs who actually made the stuff? What about the secretary who

happened to be assigned to work in the psych department and processed some of the paperwork? Where

do we draw the line?

One of the most difficult constellations of questions facing conscientious job seekers is: what kind of

organization is it OK to work for? Specifically, to what extent am I personally responsible for the things

my company does? There are the two questions here:

1. What makes a company’s work—or universities, or a nonprofit organization’s—unethical?

2. I’ve got an attractive job offer from an unethical organization: can I work there anyway?

What Makes an Organization’s Work Unethical?

In a world spattered with poverty and desperation, exploitation of workers is one of the most frequently

cited areas of corporate abuse. Advocacy organizations peopled by volunteers who enjoy traveling have

proven very effective at locating and drawing attention to overseas sweatshops. The Nike company pays

athletes millions to break a sweat for a few hours so they can get some good action video for commercials

selling athletic shoes, but they pay sewers in Asia only a few dollars to sweat all day long making those

shoes. And what about the cameraman hired to shoot the commercial? He’s earning a lot more than the

sewer, but his wages are still closer to the sweatshop level than the NBA star level.

In An Economic Analysis of a Drug-Selling Gang’s Finances, authors Steve Levitt and Sudhir Alladi

Venkatesh report on a drug gang studied over the course of several years. It turned out that the street

dealers weren’t even getting minimum wage for their dangerous efforts: about $200 a month for dealing.

Above them, however, the gang leader made between $4,000 and $11,000 a month. It’s unclear whether

he paid taxes. [1]

Questions about wages and sweatshops will be pursued more fully in later chapters, but here it’s enough

to note that vast discrepancies in wages throughout a company raise concerns that the organization is

exploiting employees. That may lead job seekers to think twice before signing on, even if they’re not the

ones being exploited.

Exploitation of consumers is another murky direction. It’s true that many immigrants from Asia, Latin

America, and elsewhere received interest-only home loans in the early 2000s with repayment schedules

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beginning low but later ballooning to monstrous levels. It’s also true that no one forced them to sign the

contract; they hold responsibility for their acts, no doubt. However, considering their imperfect English

and little knowledge of the American world, is it fair for the mortgage company to even offer these kinds

of loans, which seem more predatory than cooperative?

Tobacco companies selling addiction sticks, which sometimes become cancer sticks, aren’t clearly

removed from charges of exploiting their own buyers.

Breakfast cereals aimed at children frequently boast on the box that the nuggets or the puffs contain 100

percent of the recommended daily allowance of various vitamins and minerals. They don’t say anything

about sugar highs and crashes. In all these cases, questions about whether consumers are being respected

may lead potential employees to question whether they want to get involved in the operation.

Environmental exploitation is frequently invisible in the sense that few people suffer direct consequences

of pollution, deforestation, and poisoned water and soil. There are orange alert days in many cities now

when children are told not to play outside. But for the most part, companies that pollute may carry on

without being held directly responsible for harmful consequences. Of course there are extreme cases like

the Love Canal, the neighborhood constructed on a landfill covering thousands of rusting steel barrels of

industrial waste. Families living there reported acid slicks running down the street during rains, puddles

of rancid chemicals forming in their yards, and birth defects at astronomical levels. Whether, finally, an

organization exploits the environment in obvious or not-so-obvious ways, workers may ask if ethical

obstacles stand between them and continued employment.

Ethically dubious missions and connections is another category of corporate irresponsibility. The case of

Harvard experimenting with acid fits here. So too the drug gang studied by Levitt and Venkatesh.

Questions could also be directed toward organizations specializing in reuniting families across borders

(people smuggling).

Almost any social hot-button issue is going to double as a source of ethically challenged industries; there’ll

be people for it and others against it, but either way the questions are there. Circles of controversy

surround

 abortion doctors,

 judges sending inmates to death row,

 advocates of assisted suicide.

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One thing all these people, professions, and institutions have in common (besides inciting ethical debates)

is that they need to hire workers—telephone operators, assistants and administrators, marketers and

finance people—just like any other business. You can work for them.

You could also work for a specific kind of lawyering outfit, the one specializing in clients who are very

wealthy and very guilty: there’ll always be law firms—especially in the field of tax law—specializing in

raising a reasonable doubt where there really isn’t any.

Massage parlors need receptionists and janitors just like every other business. The horse racetrack hires a

small army of diverse workers to keep taking bets. The state lottery contracts actors, directors, film

editors, and media experts to make and run ads showing jubilant winners tossing money in the air; on the

other hand, they don’t spend much time hiring statisticians to explain to the public what the small print

on the back of their ticket means: “Really, the chances you’ll haul in the Super Magnum Jackpot are about

zero.”

Conclusion. Ethically conscientious individuals don’t have to look too hard to find jobs that make them

ask, am I participating in something that’s wrong?

I’ve Got a Job Offer at an Unethical Company; Can I Work There Anyway?

Yes. The question is how.

Ignore it all is one option, pretend like the ethical stain isn’t there or at least that you don’t see it. Here’s

an example of what that strategy can look like. Most cities have at least one free and local alternative

culture publication, usually published on newspaper-grade paper; it comes out on Thursdays and is called

The Observer or something like that. Their reporters hit the street to get the latest on the alternative

music scene and idealistic political grassroots operations and government abuses and, above all, altruistic,

principled causes. The Dallas Observer is the Dallas version. In the November 5, 2008, publication

there’s an article called “Pole Dancing—Good for the Body, But What About a Woman’s Soul?” It comes

with an honest and thoughtful objection to the caricature of femininity that was developed and mass

produced with the express goal of turning on a male audience. [2]

A few pages after the author finishes making a strong moral case against the exploitation of this

caricature, the full-page spread devoted to Debbie comes. She’s looking tight in her white bikini. She

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wants to talk to you, and her phone number’s right there on the page. In little print it says it costs $1.49

per minute. On the next page there’s Robert. He’s wearing even less. The phone call costs the same.

It’s not anybody’s fault that Debbie and Robert (or whatever their real names are) figure so prominently

on the advertising pages of a newspaper that’s so set against stereotypes like Debbie and Robert. It’s only

a fact that that’s where the money comes from to keep the otherwise idealistic and ethically elevated paper

in business. So what can the reporters do? They can object to the ads; but without them and their revenue,

there won’t be any publication left to print their articles decrying these kinds of ads. It’s a tough spot.

There’s no clear way out, which is why it’s understandable to go forward pretending you don’t see the

contradiction.

There are pacifists working for Boeing, the same company that makes warplanes. Somewhere there must

be a volunteer at the Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals who holds down a day job at L’Oreal,

a company vilified on Internet petitions for its animal testing. [3] There are parents working at General

Mills who’d die before giving their kids Cocoa Puffs. There are strict Catholics working for the

pharmaceutical company that manufactures birth control pills. The list will never end because it’s always

possible to pretend you don’t see the conflict between your own moral convictions on one side and the

actions of the company you work for on the other.

But the decision to remain blind is difficult because pretending you don’t see essentially means you’re

lying—lying to yourself. The question raised here is this: can that lying be justified ethically?

If you’re a strict believer in the standard duties, which normally include the duty to honesty, you’re going

to have problems. You can, however, argue that you have a still more compelling duty to provide for your

family and loved ones. So if the job you have is the best one you can get, and then you can make the case

that your responsibility to them is greater than your responsibility to be honest with yourself. Making a

similar argument but from a slightly different direction, a utilitarian can point out the benefits a paycheck

brings—not just for the worker but also for the family and the economy generally—and from there say that

lying to yourself is good because it produces a greater general good.

Of course there are arguments that could be raised against these justifications and so the debate rolls on.

What’s important is that pretending an ethical conflict between your convictions and your company

simply isn’t there may be justifiable.

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Explicitly Accepting Employment at an Ethically Difficult Workplace

Another option for accepting a job offer in an organization you consider to be morally stained is to

explicitly accept that I work at an ethically difficult company and go on to justify the decision. There are

two directions for consideration here:

1. How seriously wrong do I believe the company’s actions are?

2. How close is my work to those actions I believe wrong?

There’s a difference between working for a firm that experiments on animals (L’Oreal) and working for

one that experiments on humans (the Harvard psychedelic drug project). Most ethically challenged jobs

are more like the former than the latter. That’s not a license to simply discount the reality that the work

may participate in a larger and objectionable process, but it does open the way to a move from an absolute

to a balanced ethical stance: it’s not that “something’s going on there that’s wrong and therefore I can’t be

involved at all”; instead “something’s going on there that’s wrong, but things could be a lot worse, plus,

the right and good things I can achieve by taking this job are pretty significant.” So start with the idea that

even if you think experimenting on animals is wrong, it’s not as bad as experimenting on humans. Then

add the good things that could come from working for an animal-abusing company. Here are two

possibilities:

1. The post allows me to maximize the use of my personal strengths. Ethics isn’t only about duties to others;

there are also duties to you. Maximizing your own potential is one of them.

2. The post allows me to better equip myself to get an improved job further down the line. If you really want

to avoid touching unethical work, then your best option may be to do whatever’s necessary to build the

strongest résumé possible. Once you’ve done that, your options for working will increase and

correspondingly the possibilities for ethically satisfying employment.

Moving to the next question—how close is my work to those actions I believe are wrong?—there’s a

difference between experimenting on animals and preparing the tax return for a company that

experiments on animals. Making this point sharper, if you adamantly refused to participate

in any company that has anything to do with animal testing, then you’re not going to be able to

participate in anything. You’re not going to be able to buy paper from the company that sells paper to the

animal testers. You’re not going to be able to use Google because people at the animal testing company

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buy advertisements on Google search pages. The list is endless in an economy that’s totally interlinked,

and our economy is pretty close to totally interlinked.

Now, if that’s right, then the relationship between you and the immorality that indisputably exists in the

economic world—and probably in the company you work for in one way or another—isn’t an issue of right

and wrong so much as a question of distance. In other words, when you’re contemplating a job, the

question isn’t whether something bad is happening there; it’s “how close does the stink get to my office?”

More, it may even be that accepting a job at a company can be a route to changing that company’s policy.

Of course that’s going to be more than difficult at a giant concern like L’Oreal, but if you’re interested in

the environment, you may end up at a small local firm that sells plastic (not biodegradable) bottles of

water, and you can advocate the forming of a company recycling program. It’s a small thing. Almost

absurd. But it’s no closer to absurd than the other choice, which is the big thing: simply refusing to work

for any company that acts objectionably in the world in one way or another.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 There is a wide range of reasons why an organization’s work may be viewed as unethical.

 There are multiple strategies for managing concerns about working for ethically troubling organizations.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. What are four reasons an organization’s actions may be viewed as ethically troubling?

2. Ethically, how could you justify ignoring the fact that there’s a conflict between your convictions and the

actions of the company you work for?

3. Why might a potential employee of an ethically troubling organization ask how seriously wrong the

organization’s actions are?

4. Explain why working for almost any organization may be ethically troubling.

5. If someone were working for an organization involved in ethically troubling activities, what questions may

they ask themselves as they consider whether they should continue working there?

 [1] Steven D. Levitt and Sudhir Alladi Venkatesh, “An Economic Analysis of a Drug-Selling Gang’s

Finances,” Quarterly Journal of Economics 115 (August 3, 2000): 755–89.

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[2] Megan Feldman, “Pole Dancing—Good for the Body, but What about a Woman’s Soul?,” Dallas Observer,

November 6, 2008, accessed May 16, 2011,http://www.dallasobserver.com/2008-11-06/news/pole-dancingclasses-

mdash-good-for-the-body-but-what-about-a-woman-s-soul.

 [3] Cherry Marrone, “Stop L’Oreal’s Animal Testing,” Care 2 Petition Site, accessed May 16,

2011, http://www.thepetitionsite.com/1/stop-loreals-animal-testing.

5.3 Case Studies

The Ethics of Grunge Work

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Source: Photo courtesy of ictsan, http://www.flickr.com/photos/ictsan/3025080337/.

Jason Everman (b. 1967), Kodiak, Alaska

In February 1989, Jason Everman joined a new act called Nirvana as a backup guitarist. A few months

later the group’s first record, a raw and noisy effort titled Bleach, was recorded and released by an obscure

local distributor.

Everman played in the 1989 summer tour supporting Bleach, then was kicked out of the band: the rest of

the guys found him too show bizzy on stage and too introverted off it. Bleach scored a minor success on

the college radio circuit.

Nirvana’s 1991 follow-up, Never mind, is one of the more important and financially lucrative pieces of

recorded music in history.

In 1990, Everman joined Sound garden to play bass on their promotional tour for the EP Loudest Love.

Not meshing with the other band members, he was sent packing after the tour’s end.

Sound garden’s 1991 release Bad motor finger scored a moderate success with the indie crowd. The 1994

follow-up, Super unknown, debuted at number one on the Billboard 200 album chart. It stayed there.

In 1994, Everman joined the US Army Rangers and then a Special Forces unit. He toured in Afghanistan

and Iraq. He was honorably discharged in 2006.

Fifteen minutes of fame came to Everman on November 10, 2008, when he was featured in a New

Yorker piece titled “Theatre of War.” While being interviewed to provide a veteran’s perspective on war, a

friend of Everman’s breaks in to add that besides being a warrior, Everman had once been a musician. The

article’s author was skeptical. But, she writes, later investigation revealed that Everman had, in fact, been

a small-time rock star.

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During the interview Everman related that he’s a devotee of the Renaissance intellectual Benvenuto

Cellini, who believed that in order to live a full life, you must develop each of the soul’s three parts: the

artist, the warrior, and the philosopher. At the time of the interview, Everman—bearded and heavily

tattooed—was studying philosophy at Columbia University in New York City.

Kurt Cobain (b. 1967), Aberdeen, Washington

Cobain was born into a broken home and eventually lived with a born-again Christian family. He adopted

the religion. The faith didn’t last; soon he was spray painting “God is Gay” onto random pickup trucks in

the neighborhood.

In 1981, his uncle gave him a choice between a bike and a guitar for his birthday. He went for the guitar.

By March 1988, Cobain had formed a noisy outfit called Nirvana. They were playing dives around Seattle,

doing bad covers, and making up some of their own songs. They decided to make a record. No one wanted

to sponsor them. They decided to go ahead anyway and pay for it themselves. None of them had any

money.

In 1989, another local musician, Jason Everman, agreed to pay the $606.17 it cost to make the record if

they’d let him join the group. They did. They recorded Bleach. Though he’s named on the credits and

pictured (hazily) on the cover, Everman didn’t actually play on any of the tracks. Cobain said the credit

was a symbolic thanks to Everman for paying the $600 it cost to record the album. Everman never got his

money back.

The group took the music on the road, and when they returned home, they kicked Everman out.

The group’s next record, Never mind, knocked Michael Jackson’s disco sensation Dangerous off the top

of the charts in January 1992.

In 1991, Cobain met Courtney Love. They did massive drugs, got married, and she got pregnant.

While revolving through detox programs and heroin binges, Cobain wrote music for the next album. In

Utero debuted at number one in 1993.

In 1994, Cobain committed suicide with a shotgun. These are fragments of his note:

I haven’t felt the excitement of creating music for too many years now. For example when we’re

backstage and the lights go out and the roar of the crowds begins, it doesn’t affect me the way it

used to. The fact is, I can’t fool you, any one of you. It simply isn’t fair to you or me. The worst

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crime I can think of would be to rip people off by faking it and pretending as if I’m having 100%

fun. Sometimes I feel as if I should have a punch-in time clock before I walk out on stage.

I can’t stand the thought of the self-destructive death rocker I’ve become. I don’t have the passion

anymore, and so remember, it’s better to burn out than to fade away. [1]

QUE STIONS

1. Consider the seven values used for ethically defining jobs: meaningful work, leisure time, money,

power, prestige, comfort, and security.

o Just from what you’ve read about Everman and Cobain, which values do, they share? Where do

they diverge?

o Are there any values not on the list that could be added to apply to the careers of either Everman

or Cobain?

2. Everman worked to live; Cobain lived to work.

o What does that mean?

o Do you think it’s true? Explain.

o Does this split also divide up the seven values used for ethically defining jobs? If not, why not? If

so, what’s the split?

3. Everman is a sequencer; he wholeheartedly followed one career path, then a second, and a third.

He’s a different kind of sequencer than the more standard version: a man or woman following a

single main career path interrupts it to do something else (have a child, start a small company,

travel around the world) and then returns to the old job.

o What’s the difference between these two kinds of sequencing in terms of the value of work and

what it can give you?

o Would it be useful to have different names for these two types of sequencers, or would that be

splitting hairs?

4. According to Everman, Cellini believed that in order to live a full life, you must develop each of the soul’s

three parts: the artist, the warrior, and the philosopher. Assuming this is true; must it necessarily involve

one’s work life? Is it possible to define a full life that doesn’t include any reference to your gainful

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employment (in other words, is it possible to live fully without worrying about what your job is)? What

values for work are implied by your response?

5. Cobain comes to believe that he’s unethically exploiting consumers.

o In what sense is he unethically exploiting consumers?

o What does Cobain’s feeling reveal about the values he associates with his work life?

o Was Cobain’s response to his perceived failure justifiable? Explain.

6. Whose career would you rather have: Everman’s or Cobain’s? Why? What does that tell you

about your values?

7. In the career you’ve chosen for yourself (just pick one, if you haven’t), what would it mean to burn out?

What would it mean to fade away?

8. Is it better to burn out or fade away? Justify in terms of the values that can be attached to working life.

Cop or Drug Dealer?

Source: Photo courtesy of Todd Huffman, http://www.flickr.com/photos/oddwick/1954905403/.

Roberto Pulido, a ten-year veteran of the Boston Police Department, was arrested by the FBI and charged

with protecting drug dealers, cocaine dealing, identity theft, obstruction of justice, robbery, assault and

battery, and money laundering. [2]

QUE STIONS

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1. What are some of the advantages to being a policeman? What are some of the advantages to

being a drug dealer? Presumably, Pulido started out being an honest cop, and over the course of

ten years fell (or climbed) into the illegal drug business. Can you imagine how the seven values of

his work might have shifted as this transformation developed?

o Which values grew in importance?

o Which might have fallen away?

o Could any of the values have been maintained through the shift in professions?

2. Officer Pulido is a career sequencer, but it’s a unique kind of sequencing because his two careers actually

contradict each other. It’s not that he took time off to follow some outside interest, and it’s not that he

pursued various jobs that all fit into a larger plan. He did one thing and then the opposite. Is there a sense

in which he has canceled out his professional life? Explain.

3. Imagine that you are considering two career directions: joining the police academy or growing

some pot in the basement and getting a start in the drug-dealing business.

o Regardless of whether you’d ever actually do it, what ethical theory (duties, rights, utilitarianism,

some other) could be employed to justify the decision to go the drug route?

o What ethical theory (duties, rights, and utilitarianism, some other) could you employ to justify the

decision to go the police route?

4. Apply Nietzsche’s theory of eternal recurrence to the cop/drug-dealer choice. You would have to choose

one life and live it over and over forever. Which would you choose? Why? Does that tell you anything

about what you should do with the one and only life you have?

5. Doctors and pharmacists deliver powerful, addictive drugs that send waves of tremendous pleasure

through the users’ bodies (and sometimes those meds result in abuse and death). So that makes three

career directions that have something in common: doctor, pharmacist, and street drug dealer. Now, in

terms of the seven values of work, what do the jobs have in common, and where do they diverge?

6. From the newspaper report on the Pulido case, “Pulido bought a Hyde Park building where his

wife began teaching dance to children—and where once a month for the next several years Pulido

hosted and provided protection for drug-and-sex parties. Admittance ran from twenty to forty

dollars, and narcotics were often in open use. Lap dances in the “boom-boom room” cost an

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additional twenty dollars. As many as one hundred people attended on a given night, including

well-known felons, drug dealers, and law-enforcement officers—some in uniform.”

Compare and contrast Pulido’s wife’s job and Pulido’s. Which post is most desirable for the person

valuing prestige?

7. How could Pulido’s drug operation be characterized as unethical in terms of the exploitation of

consumers?

8. In a sense, Pulido’s wife worked for her husband. By running a dance school out of the building

where Pulido operated, she provided cover for his operation.

o How could the argument be made that she has an ethical responsibility to resign from her job by

shutting down the dance classes so that her husband could no longer use the space to sell drugs?

o In ethical terms, how could she justify pretending not to know what was going on in her building

once a month?

o In ethical terms, and assuming she explicitly recognizes and accepts that she’s providing space and

cover for her husband’s activities, how could she justify continuing to work for his operation?

9. Assuming you were a drug dealer, who would you sell to, and not sell to? Why? Does this tell you anything

about how willing you might be in the future to work for an ethically challenged corporation?

10.

Investigative Fashion Journalism

Source: Photo courtesy of Dave Bleasdale, http://www.flickr.com/photos/sidelong/4110738292/.

The blogger Dahlia (she doesn’t provide her last name) wants to invent a new career. She calls it

investigative fashion journalism. In condensed and slightly altered form, here’s what she writes:

Investigative Fashion Journalism is a different kind of job. When people talk investigative

journalism they think Watergate, Area 51, etc. Also, due to watching too many movies, there’s the

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fear that the consequences of investigative journalism include losing your job, your family, your

money, and on the very rare occasion—your life. (Though last I’ve heard, the fashion journalists

that I’ve admired are still very much alive.) Part of the fun is being your own detective by trying

to dig up evidence, to see what the big cover up is about. I mean, how many of you were actually

aware that illegal immigrants working long hours in manufacturing jobs were happy being paid

minimum wage in Europe?

We love scandals. And what better scandals can you uncover than the fashion industry? I mean I

know celebrity gossip is hot right now, but exposing a multi-billion dollar industry gives me a

bigger high, but that’s just me. Also, by exposing the corruption like those working illegal

immigrants, you can change how the industry works and perhaps enforce better practices for all

current and new companies coming into the mix. If you lead by good example others will follow,

right?

If local universities would offer such a program in journalism, I’d sign up for it in a heartbeat.

Unfortunately, for now, I’m resolved to my fashion blog. [3]

QUE STIONS

1. “Part of the fun,” she writes, “is being your own detective by trying to dig up evidence, to see what the big

cover up is about.” Is there a connection between “fun” and meaningful work? Where does fun fit in the

consideration of values to be weighed when considering a career track?

2. What career-related values do you suspect light up Dahlia and, more generally, the kinds of people who

try to make up jobs for themselves?

3. Ethically troubling exploitation in the fashion industry.

o Do you think she thinks there’s exploitation in the fashion industry? Where?

o If there is exploitation—if something ethically reproachable is going on—what’s her relation to

that blemish? Is she guilty too? Explain.

Octomom

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Source: Photo courtesy of mangpages, http://www.flickr.com/photos/mangpages/3701097713/.

In January 2009, the woman known as Octomom gave birth to octuplets. Her real name is Nadia

Suleman; she’s a single mother who’d split from her husband because they were unable to have children

together. She was on welfare when she conceived the children via in-vitro fertilization. She already had six

young ones at home.

All her children were implanted by Dr. Michael Kamrava.

The delivery required forty-six doctors, nurses, and attendants.

In 2009, she was offered $1 million to star in a pornographic movie. She refused, but later that year she

signed a contract for each of her children to earn $250 a day to star in a reality show.

QUE STIONS

1. Make the ethical case that a nurse should not seek employment in the office of Dr. Michael Kamrava, even

though he pays well.

2. Justify a nurse’s decision to work in the office of Dr. Michael Kamrava, because he pays well.

3. What alignment of work-related values may have led Nadia Suleman to reject work as a porn star but

accept the role of reality TV actress (along with her many children)?

Paralegal or Lawyer?

Source: Photo courtesy of Tami Vroma, http://www.flickr.com/photos/32314864@N02/3253051215/.

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Sally Kane, an attorney and writer, drew up a list comparing the practical realities of two careers,

paralegal and lawyer. Here’s a summary:

Paralegal: A few months training.

Lawyer: A few years of school after college.

Paralegal: Low-cost education.

Lawyer: Law school is EXPENSIVE.

Paralegal: Earning limit under $100,000 in most markets.

Lawyer: The sky.

Paralegal: A paralegal now is pretty much a paralegal forever.

Lawyer: Working as a lawyer opens doors to other careers.

Paralegal: One of the fastest-growing careers in United States.

Lawyer: Job outlook above average.

Paralegal: Limited responsibility and stress.

Lawyer: High responsibility and stress.

Paralegal: Overtime pay.

Lawyer: If there’s work until 11 pm, you work to 11 pm.

Paralegal: Once you’ve got the job, no more school.

Lawyer: You need to keep updating your knowledge (every year, if you’re a tax attorney).

Paralegal: Shorter learning curve and your work is routine and mundane.

Lawyer: Long learning curve and your work is intellectually challenging and varied.

Paralegal: Cubicle.

Lawyer: Private office. [4]

QUE STIONS

1. This comparison is a list of facts. Can you go through the list and attach ethical value to the facts?

In terms of what value(s) does each fact make a job more or less desirable?

o Make the ethical case that it’s better to go the paralegal route.

o Make the ethical case that it’s better to go the lawyer route.

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2. If you’ve developed a short list of career options, can you go through and make up a sort of career

decision spreadsheet that resembles the one just constructed for lawyers and paralegals? It would list the

two or three jobs you’re considering. Then one column would list the factual advantages and

disadvantages of each one, things about vacation time, salary, working conditions, and so on. Finally,

there’d be your unique part: the notation of which of those facts held value and importance in your life

and with respect to the role you imagine work to have for you in the coming years.

 [1] Wikipedia, “Death of Kurt Cobain,” accessed May 16,

2011,http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Death_of_Kurt_Cobain#Suicide_note.

 [2] David S. Bernstein, “Cop or Drug Dealer?,” Phoenix Boston, November 9, 2006, accessed May 16,

2011, http://thephoenix.com/Boston/News/26961-Cop-or-drug-dealer/?rel=inf.

 [3] Dahlia, “Investigative Fashion Journalism,” Dualité, July 7, 2008, accessed May 16, 2011.

 [4] Sally Kane, “Should You Become a Paralegal or Lawyer?,” About.com, accessed May 16,

2011, http://legalcareers.about.com/od/legalcareerbasics/a/paralegallawyer.htm.

Chapter 6

Employee’s Ethics: Getting a Job, Getting a Promotion,

Leaving

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Chapter Overview

Chapter 6 “Employee’s Ethics: Getting a Job, Getting a Promotion, Leaving” examines some ethical

decisions facing employees. It considers the values that underlie and guide choices about how you go

about getting a job, how you maneuver for a better one, and what the right moment is for leaving.

6.1 The Résumé Introduction

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Define ways job seekers may misrepresent themselves on a résumé.

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2. Construct an ethical framework for managing the dilemmas of crafting a résumé.

Robert Irvine’s Stretched Résumé

For many job seekers the first—and maybe the only—chance they get to impress a potential employer is a

résumé. What are the ethics of presenting your qualifications on a sheet of paper?

Robert Irvine is a muscled chef from England who you may have seen hosting the Food Network’s

popular Dinner: Impossible. It’s a good job. The TV show generates free publicity for his

cookbook Mission: Cook! and affords him the kitchen credibility to open his own restaurants. That was

the idea he brought to St. Petersburg, Florida, in 2008. His concept for south Florida, actually, was two

restaurants: Ooze and Schmooze. Ooze was going to be the accessible, entry-level place and Schmooze the

highbrow complement. His biography—the summary of his professional life and experiences that he

presented to potential investors—was impressive. According to the St. Petersburg Times, he advertised

his résumé as including:

 A bachelor’s of science degree in food and nutrition from the University of Leeds.

 Royal experience working on the wedding cake for Prince Charles and Princess Diana.

 He was a knight, as in Sir Robert Irvine, Knight Commander of the Royal Victorian Order, handpicked by

the Queen.

 For several consecutive years, he’d received the Five Star Diamond Award from the American Academy of

Hospitality Sciences.

 He’d served as a White House chef. [1]

Everything came to an end, though, at least temporarily, when Food Network fired him for résumé lies.

Here’s the truth about the listed items:

 The claimed BS degree? According to a press officer at the University of Leeds, “We cannot find any

connection in our records between Robert and the university.”

 The royal wedding cake? Well, he did help pick some of the fruit that went into it.

 The knighthood? No.

 The Five Star Diamond Award? True, but it’s not the AAA’s prestigious Five Diamond Award or Mobil’s

five stars. The American Academy of Hospitality Sciences is actually a guy’s apartment in New York, and

the award is granted to anyone who pays a fee.

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 White House chef? Kind of. But he didn’t prepare sophisticated dishes for the president or anything like

that; he cooked food for the cafeteria line, serving military workers at the White House.

Certainly, Robert Irvine isn’t the first guy to stretch his résumé, but he does an excellent job of exploring

the many ways people can misrepresent themselves when trying to get a job. Generally, there are two

kinds of résumé abuses. Positive résumé misrepresentations are those items on a résumé that simply

aren’t true. Examples include:

 False credentials. These are certificates of accomplishment that don’t exist. Irvine said he had a BS

degree. He didn’t. This kind of misrepresentation is especially tempting for job seekers who didn’t quite

finish their degree. One of the obvious practical problems is that claims like this can be verified or

disproven by human resource departments. (Or, as in Irvine’s case, by enquiring newspaper reporters.)

 False experience. Untruthfully claiming to have participated in projects. Irvine asserted that he’d been

a White House chef, meaning he’d planned sophisticated menus and prepared dishes for dignitaries. He

didn’t. He cooked assembly-line food in the cafeteria for White House staff workers.

 Embellished experience. This is the easiest kind of résumé misrepresentation. Irvine really did work

on the royal wedding cake, but only picking fruit, not actually making it. His claim, therefore, isn’t directly

false, but incredibly misleading. The same could be said about the Five Star Diamond Award. While

technically true, it’s not the meaningful award that people imagine it to be.

 False chronology. Anyone who’s suffered long periods of unemployment—or just been fired from a job

and taken a while to find another one—has surely been tempted to adjust the dates on their résumé to

make it seem as though they went smoothly from one post to another.

 False references. Listing someone to vouch for your experience who really won’t or can’t. Irvine said

he’d been selected by the Queen of England for a knighthood. It never got to the point where someone

actually called her to ask, but if they would’ve, she would’ve drawn a blank. Of course people don’t

normally list royalty as a reference, but in everyday life, it’s easy to commit the same misrepresentation.

One fraternity brother could list another as a former boss. A woman could list a brother-in-law.

Negative résumé misrepresentations are those items that would appear on a complete résumé, one listing

all your working experience, but that conveniently get left out of the one you submit to a potential

employer. If you were fired from your first job at McDonald’s years ago because you kept forgetting to take

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the fries out of the oil pit, no one’s going to object when you drop those months off your work history. On

the other hand, if, up until two months ago, you were in charge of the vehicle fleet for a hotel, and you

were fired for taking your girlfriend out in the company limo after hours, leaving that off your résumé is

misleading new prospective employers.

In the case of Irvine, things worked out for him in the end. After he publicly recognized the truth and

cleaned up the most outrageous resume claims, he got his TV show back.

The Ethics of Stretching the Résumé

It’s hard to define all the ethical lines dividing what should and shouldn’t be included in a job applicant’s

résumé, but steps can be taken to control the situation. If you’re sitting at your desk trying to figure out

whether there should be any deleting, fudging, or exaggerating, two questions can help get a hold of the

situation:

1. Who will be affected by my decision?

2. Does it matter what everyone else is doing?

The first person affected by your decision is you, and everyone’s closest ethical responsibility is the one

they hold to themselves, the responsibility to respect their own dignity and abilities. One way of taking

that responsibility seriously is to look back at the jobs you’ve held and ask what kinds of tasks they

entailed and how those experiences and the skills taken from them might be stated in a broad and

appealing way. Probably, Irvine went overboard when he translated the fact that he’d chosen fruit

included in a royal wedding cake into the claim that he participated in assembling and cooking it. But it

also seems like it’d be a mistake to say that he’d been a simple “fruit picker” on a wedding cake job. In the

culinary world, his was important fruit picking. Irvine’s mistake, in other words, wasn’t that he tried to

make himself look good, it’s that he couldn’t find a way to do it without essentially lying about his

experience.

The duty to present yourself positively to potential employers may also justify the decision to leave

certain, let’s say, unfortunate aspects of your professional life off the résumé. Irvine doesn’t talk much

about how his endeavor to create restaurants in St. Petersburg fell apart in a sorry mess. If tomorrow he

goes out and tries to stir up investors for a new pair of restaurants somewhere else, he has an obligation to

be honest with them about what happened last time. But if he’s looking for a job as a TV cook, or just as a

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cook in a restaurant, then he may be able to justify leaving that bad episode unmentioned. The reasoning?

The fact that he’s bad at mounting restaurants doesn’t mean he’s a bad TV personality or an error-prone

cook. The one job has little in common with the others. So if he’s applying to be a cook, he could possibly

leave the negative information about his other business ventures out based on the idea that it’s simply not

applicable to the employment being sought.

The duty to you, finally, points toward a résumé presentation that sets your accomplishments and skills in

boldface while not dwelling on extraneous shortcomings.

Another person affected by your résumé decisions—the choice about how much truth to tell and hide—is

the person doing the hiring. If you claim experience you don’t really have and skills you don’t possess, the

supervisor who oversaw your contracting won’t just be disappointed and angry as he watches you stumble

and trip over tasks that should be easy. The botched hiring will also reflect negatively on him when

superiors evaluate his performance and make decisions about pay raises and promotions. He’s going to

suffer because you lied. There is, in other words, a loser when you scam to get a job that you’re not really

qualified for. More, that harm accrues to the company as a whole. Maybe costs will increase because more

training than expected will be necessary. Maybe an account will be lost when you fumble an assignment

that should be automatic.

Your potential future workmates also have a stake in your application for a job. If you claim, as Irvine did,

to have worked on the Charles and Diana wedding cake, it seems fair for your boss to assume you’ll be

able to manage producing first-rate cakes for ordinary people. If you can’t, if you have no idea how to

serve up even a simple layer cake, someone else on the team is going to have to step in and do your work

for you. They probably won’t get your paycheck at the end of the month, however.

Other applicants for a job also have a stake in your own application. It’s a competitive world, and while

you’re the one who can best make the case for your ability, making false claims doesn’t just give you an

opportunity you may not otherwise receive: it takes an opportunity away from someone else.

What’s Everyone Else Doing?

The first step in getting control of your résumé’s relation with the hard truth is working through how any

particular decision affects those involved. The second step is determining whether it matters what

everyone else is doing. The question is important because applying for jobs doesn’t happen in a vacuum.

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If everyone stretches their qualifications to the extent Irvine demonstrated, then obviously you may want

to consider whether you need to do the same just to get a fair shake.

A web page with a very truthful URL, Fakeresume.com, and takes up the question about how much

fibbing is going on out there. Under the heading “The UGLY Truth About How People Are Outsmarting

You!” they assert,

Over 53% of job seekers lie on their résumés. Over 70% of college graduates admit to lying on

their résumés to get hired. Can you afford not to know the techniques, tricks and methods they

use? [2]

Fair question. Of course no one knows exactly how much cheating goes on, but as Irvine attests, there’s

definitely some out there. So should you get in on it? The argument in favor roughly corresponds with the

web page’s pitch. If everyone’s doing it—if exaggeration is expected—then employing the same

misrepresentations that guide everyone else isn’t really lying. Like driving sixty down a fifty-five-milesper-

hour highway when all the other cars are going that fast too, your exaggerations are following the

rules as everyone seems to understand them. From this point of view, you may even have a duty to

exaggerate because not doing so, as the web page claims, isn’t being an ethical hero, it’s just being

outsmarted. And in a competitive environment, you at least have the moral obligation to not let yourself

be snookered.

On the other side, where do these percentages—53 percent, over 70 percent—come from? The web page

doesn’t say, and if they’re not true, then doesn’t the whole argument—do it because everyone else is doing

it—reduce to an excuse to lie?

In the case of Fakeresume.com, it couldn’t be more obvious what’s going on. The site is offering you a way

to not tell the truth and not feel bad about it. Instead of offering moral guidance, it’s inventing a way for

you to justify taking the easy path, to justify padding the résumé without having to consider whether that’s

the right thing to do.

Conclusion. In the midst of résumé-stretching dilemmas, what other people are doing matters. Hiring is

relative; there’s hardly anyone who’s perfect for any job, recruiters take the applicant who’s best suited.

Your obligation—to yourself and to the recruiter—is to show why you may be the best suited of the

applicants. That may mean (using the language of Fakeresume.com) use the résumé-enhancing

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techniques commonly employed. It doesn’t mean, however, just imagining that everyone else is laying

their pants off and then using that as an excuse to lie yourself.

Résumé Verification and the Law

One problem Robert Irvine faced was his very public personality. To stir up interest in the restaurants he

planned for St. Petersburg, he had to stir up interest in himself. All the commotion drew the attention of a

local newspaper reporter who ended up blowing the whistle on the résumé exaggerations and concoctions.

More ordinarily, job applicants don’t need to worry about reporters prying into their claims. Most

medium and larger companies do, however, pass résumés through human resources departments and

they typically confirm the significant, objective claims of job seekers. Items like degrees obtained can

typically be verified. So too dates of previous employment and job titles. Every company will follow its

own internal guidelines, of course, so it’s impossible to make a table listing the misrepresentations that

will and won’t slip through, but it’s certain that objectively false information may come to light sooner or

later.

If false information does come to light, are there legal complications? Probably not. Because résumés

aren’t binding, signed agreements between the applicant and employer, they’re generally protected by

free-speech guidelines. In the case of Irvine, if he claimed he was Superman, there’s nothing the police

could do about it. That said, efforts have been made to take some action against the most extreme cases of

résumé misrepresentations. A number of legislative measures have been proposed to punish those who lie

about a military record and honors received. Also, in Washington State in 2006, legislation was advanced

to fine and briefly imprison applicants found guilty of claiming advanced degrees they didn’t actually

earn. The measure ultimately failed. [3]

Conclusion. Most résumé misrepresentations don’t cross into illegality. This is one of those areas in the

business world where legal right and wrong diverges clearly from ethical right and wrong.

Ethical Egoism and Résumé Misrepresentations

Ethical egoism means your moral responsibility is to act in your own interest no matter what that may

require. This provides a license for outright résumé invention (a false BS degree and imaginary

knighthood for Irvine). But, as is always the case with egoism, the question must be asked whether job

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seekers really serve their own interests when they claim things that may later be revealed to be false or

when they land jobs they later won’t be able to perform because their qualifications were fake.

One specific warning for the egoist comes from the admissions department at the Massachusetts Institute

of Technology. One of the world’s elite universities, the task of selecting each year’s freshman class is as

daunting as it is important for a school dedicated to preserving its reputation. The head of that office in

2007 was Marilee Jones. One of her central skills was the ability to distinguish high schoolers who’d truly

excelled from those who got great grades by taking easy classes. Her widely admired skill, in other words,

was filtering out grade sheets (which are students’ résumés) that misleadingly stretched the students’

classroom accomplishments. She went on using that skill until it was discovered that twenty-eight years

earlier, when she’d first applied to work at the school, she’d invented a few degrees for herself. She was

fired on the spot. [4]

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 There are multiple kinds of positive résumé misrepresentations and negative résumé misrepresentations.

 Managing the dilemmas of crafting a résumé requires accounting for obligations to all those who will be

affected by the résumé.

 Circumstances involving the specific post being sought, along with commonly accepted practice, may

determine the extent to which misrepresentations are ethically objectionable.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. Who are the people affected by résumé truth decisions?

2. What are five distinct ways you may choose to misrepresent yourself on your résumé?

3. What’s the difference between legal and ethical approaches to the question about padding the résumé?

4. Why might a job seeker have a duty to blur parts of his or her work history?

5. Why might an egoist lie on the résumé, and why not?

 [1] Ben Montgomery, “TV Chef Spiced Up His Past Exploits,” St. Petersburg Times, February 17, 2008, accessed May

17, 2011,http://www.sptimes.com/2008/02/17/Southpinellas/TV_chef_spiced_up_his.shtml.

 [2] Fakeresume.com accessed May 17, 2011, http://fakeresume.com.

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[3] Candace Heckman, “Lying on Résumé Could Land You in Jail,” SeattlePI, March 3, 2006, accessed May 17,

2011, http://www.seattlepi.com/local/261747_diplomamill04.html.

 [4] Marcella Bombardieri and Andrew Ryan, “MIT Dean of Admissions Resigns for Falsifying Resume,” Boston

Globe, April 26, 2007, accessed May 17,

2011,http://www.boston.com/news/globe/city_region/breaking_news/2007/04/mit_dean_of_adm.html.

6.2 What Am I Worth?

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L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Distinguish the free market from other methods for determining a just salary.

2. Consider the justification of wage demands.

Bogus Job Offer Converted into a Real Raise?

In her blog Female Science Professor, the author considers a problem. She’s got a lab research assistant

whom she calls post doc, which presumably means he got his PhD, but he’s still hanging around the

university and working for low pay. She wants to give him a raise. The higher-ups, however, won’t

approve it. So she writes,

I’m pretty sure I could get a colleague at another institution to send my post doc an e-mail

expressing an interest in hiring him away from my institution (but without any real intention of

doing so). With such a letter in hand, there’s a good chance I could get the raise approved.

Ethical? No. Should I do it anyway? [1]

Actually, the ploy may be considered ethical within a purely market-driven framework for setting salaries.

Cutting the details and reducing to the situation’s essence, the worker is in effect threatening to not show

up for work anymore unless there’s a larger paycheck. That means the employer is being forced to

determine if the employee is worth the extra money. The answer will follow from a survey of available

workers in the market, and an answer to the question as to whether another can be found to perform the

same duties equally well without demanding more pay. If not, then the increase will probably be granted.

If a replacement can be found, then things will get awkward as the lab assistant tries to walk back his

threat. The walking back is an etiquette problem, though, not an ethical one. From this perspective, in

terms of ethics, all that happened is the worker tried to get a raise and didn’t.

Obviously there’s a loose end here; there’s the question about whether the lying is ethical. It depends.

Placing the question in the context of organized labor, is it ethical for a union organization to bluff, to say

they’ll go on strike while knowing they really won’t? What about less direct lies? An employee that’s

actually satisfied with her salary may feign unhappiness in order to squeeze out a little extra. Further,

almost all hard-nosed business negotiation entails a bit of posturing. Not many cars have been sold

without the seller at least initially insisting, “Well, I can’t possibly go below x price for this fine

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automobile.” And then, after a visit with the manager or some other contrived breakthrough, the seller

decides, “Well, in this special case, maybe I can do a little better.”

In one form or another, a pure market economy occasionally (or maybe frequently) reduces to both sides

insisting that they can’t pay more or give less, and in the end, both sides meet somewhere in the middle.

As for the previous claims about other jobs or threats to go on strike or insisting that the price can’t

possibly come down or whatever, all that washes away when hands finally shake.

The ethical foundation undergirding and justifying participating in business this way is libertarian in

nature. It starts with the premise that we’re all independent actors out in the business world trying to

accrue the most for ourselves, and others are out to do the same thing. We all know the rules, we’re all

adults. When we negotiate a pay raise, we may exaggerate circumstances or say some things that aren’t

true. But at the end of the day, no one forces the employer to pay more; it’s the employer’s choice. As for

the employee, the empty threat to leave may be presented at the bargaining table, but it’s not so much a lie

as a commonly used negotiating technique, just a way of upping the pressure. It is, therefore, ethically

acceptable to invent another job offer but only within the confines of business negotiating and only

because everyone knows the give-and-take happens that way.

There is another side to this, however. If you don’t accept that negotiating in business is a kind of specialrules

game where posturing and exaggerating are customary, then you may want to argue that talking

about salaries isn’t any different from any other kind of conversation. If it’s not, then the ethical argument

against leveraging an imaginary job offer to force a pay raise finds a solid foundation on the bedrock duty

not to lie regardless of the circumstances. For anyone who begins from the ethical foundation that any

morally acceptable act must not breach certain ironclad principles—don’t lie, don’t steal, and similar—it

becomes impossible to justify making up a nonexistent job offer, even if that’s the way the game of

business is being played by others.

The Role of the Larger Community in Determining Wages

There are two broad ways to get a fix on your own economic worth. One operates within the open market:

economic free agents meet and sessions of no-holds-barred negotiations result in an answer. The other

broad approach to setting wages places the issue within the context of a larger community. Here, it’s not

so much that we’re bargaining individuals dealing to get the best possible result; instead, we’re part of a

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business organization and a larger society, and wages get distributed across it in accordance with

guidelines and norms. There are multiple kinds of guidelines. They include

 my value to the organization,

 the ability of the organization to pay,

 the community wage level,

 the wages paid to other employees in the organization,

 my experience and seniority relative to others in the organization,

 the future jobs a post may prepare me for.

Trying to determine what a fair salary would be for post doc in terms of his

value to the organization requires determining how much of the organization’s profit he actually

produces. A researcher in a science lab may, under this system, labor for years without any pay at all if his

investigative work fails to produce a marketable product. On the other hand, if after years of labor his

research finally yields a breakthrough, his wages conceivably shoot to astronomical levels.

Needless to say, this wage-determining structure won’t work very well for lab researchers or for any kind

of job that requires years of labor before any return may be anticipated. It does function, however, for

businesses like American Apparel. They pay their clothing sewers a small base wage, and then a large

secondary amount that rises or falls depending on their output, on the number of garments they add to

the inventory. In essence, each week workers bring home a paycheck corresponding with the value they’ve

added to the company. That means the relation between the sewers and American Apparel is

fundamentally cooperative; it’s not a worker negotiating against the organization but the two laboring

together and splitting the fruits of the efforts.[2]

Another broad context into which the wage question may be fitted is the organization’s ability to pay.

A lab assistant may choose, for example, to accept a pay cut to help the firm weather a period when no one

seems able to invent anything that can be sold. The hope would be that, later on, when someone finally

gets that breakthrough and profits zoom, everyone’s wages will shoot up too.

A third context for setting wages is the community wage level. Going back to American Apparel, their Los

Angeles factory pays workers more than twice the US minimum wage, plus benefits. That’s not a lot of

money for California, but it’s ten times more than what sewers in countries including China make for

similar work, which doesn’t mean, within this context, that those overseas workers are being abused, only

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that salaries should be comparable with what others in the immediate area make. Two employees may

receive, therefore, radically different paychecks for the same work, but that’s ethically appropriate if the

wage levels are initially set to correspond with local costs of living and standard practices.

Organizational wage level is another way of standardizing employee pay. In this case, a lab researcher

would base demands for a raise on the argument that others working in the same lab are being paid more

than he is. It doesn’t matter, it follows, and how much researchers are being paid at other, competing

locations. They may receive more, or possibly less. Regardless, the standard is set within that single

organization, and people with comparable experience doing comparable work should receive similar

checks.

Seniority relative to others in the organization also provides a salary framework. Here, the

emphasis doesn’t rest so much on abilities or contribution to the organization, it’s the amount of time an

employee has been doing it that counts most. In a research lab like the one Female Science Professor is

blogging about, her assistant’s demand for a raise would be based on the idea that he should be getting

more than those hired after him, and less than those who’ve been employed longer. There’s a comforting

sense of fairness here as the wages get aligned with factors that aren’t subjective; it’s much easier to tally

an employee’s time working than to determine how much he might get paid elsewhere or measure his

exact contribution to the organization. One drawback to this approach is that it allows little room for

rewarding exceptional ability or effort. Potentially, the only reward an employee receives for working

more efficiently than others is that he gets more work to do.

This particular drawback to a seniority system for determining wages is called a perverse incentive; it’s a

system of rewards that actually encourages workers to perform poorly or inefficiently. Take the case of

American Apparel’s sewers and imagine that wages were determined solely based on the length of their

employment. Sewers would have little reason to produce more garments than their workmates. They may

even feel like their main task at work each day is to find as many ways as possible to rest and not do

anything. Why not? Their wages won’t be affected. Obviously, in most private enterprises, slackers like

these find themselves out of a job. But in sectors where firing individuals is extremely difficult—

government jobs being a prime example—a seniority system for setting wage levels threatens to

incentivize glum, nonresponsive employees.

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Finally, pay may be calibrated by the future prospects the post creates. Here, the lab assistant may

complain about low pay, but the response may be that the particular lab where he’s working is quite

prestigious, and gaining experience there will allow an advantage against other candidates when he goes

out to find employment elsewhere later on. The wages lost now, the reasoning goes, will be more than

recouped in the future.

An extreme form of this future-prospects salary structure is an internship. This is a short-term job with

little pay and few benefits. Sometimes, there’s no pay at all. The upside is the experience. When it’s added

to the résumé, it should make a job seeker more attractive to employers. If everything works, the time may

be a good investment, a good way to get into a line of work, or get in at a higher level. The ethical problem,

however, lies in the possibility of abuse that’s unavoidable when someone is working essentially for

nothing. Here’s a snippet from an entry on Craigslist:

I agree that calling work for no pay an ‘internship’ is just a fancy spin for disrespecting the

talents and the person being ‘used’. Unfortunately, in this society…many people think it’s ok to

offer no pay for legitimate work. [3]

He might be right. This complaint is definitely right if the organization offering the internship knows

beforehand that the worker’s prospects in the market won’t really be improved by the experience

acquired. In that case, it seems like an internship really is just a “fancy spin for disrespecting the talents

and the person being used.”

There are two kinds of questions to ask about a worker who’s laboring for low (or no) wages with the idea

that the experience will pay off in the long run. The first involves employers implying there’ll be improved

job prospects while knowing there probably won’t be. The other is more prudential: assuming the

employer is acting in good faith, the worker still needs to ask, “Is it worth it?” It’s impossible to know the

answer beforehand, but by making the best judgment possible you can get a grip on the question about

whether a higher wage ought to be demanded.

Conclusion. For employees trying to measure their worth in business—how much they ought to be paid for

their work—the guiding question is, “What are the criteria used to measure whether a paycheck is too fat

or too lean?” Are wages set by the market, or is it my value to the organization or something else that

determines the pay scale?

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KEY TAKEAWAY

 An appropriate salary level may simply be the result of the hardest negotiating possible, or it may be

determined by broader guidelines.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. How can an employee ethically justify inventing a job offer in order to pressure the boss into granting a

raise?

2. From the employee’s perspective, in what line of work might value to the organization function not very

well as a gauge for setting salary levels?

3. How could a company justify paying accountants in its St. Louis office less than accountants in the New

York City office?

4. From the employee’s perspective, in what line of work might experience and seniority function well as a

gauge for setting salary levels?

5. Does an employer have an ethical responsibility to offer an intern a job at full pay once the internship is

successfully completed? Why or why not?

 [1] “Proposed Ethical Lapse,” Female Science Professor (blog), July 1, 2009, accessed May 17, 2011, http://scienceprofessor.

blogspot.com/2009/07/proposed-ethical- lapse.html.

 [2] Nick Schou, “The Low Cost of High Wages,” American Apparel, OC Weekly, December 28, 2005, accessed May

17, 2011,http://www.americanapparel.net/presscenter/articles/20051228ocweekly.html.

 [3] Craigslist San Diego, “Comments RE: internship posts& low pay,” January 5, 2010.

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6.3 Plotting a Promotion

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Distinguish two job promotion tracks.

2. Define ethical responsibilities of those seeking a job promotion.

Two Kinds of Job Promotions

Two major promotion tracks run through many organizations: one based on accomplishment, the other

on competition. Accomplishment promotions are those scheduled for workers attaining specific,

predetermined goals. For example, in an office of stockbrokers those who achieve a certain number of

clients or reach a level of total investment money under their direction may automatically be elevated.

An account executive could become a vice president of accounts after she’s gathered more than ninetynine

clients or has garnered accounts valued at more than a million dollars. Along with the new title, there

may come a pay raise and additional benefits.

The ethical questions rising around this system are fairly straightforward and tend to involve

transparency—that is, a clear explanation of the rules and rewards from the beginning. Does it count, for

instance, if a broker games the system by signing up one hundred clients who each invest only piddling

amounts? That could lead to a system where a vice president oversees one hundred clients but only $500

of assets, while a lowly account executive labors with ninety clients and $900,000 in assets.

Every industry and organization will have its quirks and ways of twisting the numbers to make things

appear better (or worse) than they really are. Keeping those angles under control is a manager’s concern,

however. Establishing a level playing field, that’s the kind of thing managers are paid to take care of, and

the dilemmas surrounding this subject, will be considered from their perspective in later chapters. From

the employee’s perspective, there aren’t many problems: if the goals are set, then you have every right to

try to meet them as best as you can to get the step up.

The stickier ethical territory comes with competitive promotions. These are situations where workers

within a group aren’t only teammates laboring to reach the organization’s goals but also competitors vying

for that one slot that comes open on the hierarchy’s next level up. In this situation, what are the ethics of

trying to get the promotion?

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Dirty Tricks

Colin Gautrey has written a book with a captivating title: 21 Dirty Tricks at Work. In a short article, he

summarizes two of the most commonly used by stealthy promotion seekers to either inflate them or

sabotage their coworker competitors.

 The creative magpie. This time-honored strategy of self-service is exaggerating involvement in

successful ideas—or flat out stealing credit for them—while steadfastly forgetting to mention others’

contributions.

 E-mail to the gods. A contemporary and clever scheme for ruining your colleagues’ advancement

chances, it entails writing an e-mail incidentally detailing a colleague’s work-related failure and

“accidentally” copying the message to supervisors and clients. [1]

The business of getting a promotion, if Gautrey’s tricks are any indication, can get pretty rough. One way

to determine what you’re willing to do is by separating and looking at each one of the ambitious worker’s

ethical responsibilities with respect to self-advancement. In broad strokes, those seeking promotion at the

cost of others in their work group are located at the center of four responsibilities: those to

 themselves,

 their coworkers,

 their managers,

 the organization in general.

The Four Responsibilities

What do ambitious employees owe themselves? Most ethical theories encourage those who desire to

advance at work to go after the success. Duty-based ethical structures, for example, include the

responsibility all of us should have to respect our own skills and dignity, and if professional excellence is

among them, then there’s a responsibility to excel, to do well at work. So if getting the promotion requires

acting to be sure superiors know when you’ve done a good job—and in competitive environments it does—

then there’s a moral imperative there to act, to ensure that credit is received. There’s no shame, in others

words, in at least discreetly blowing your own horn. Of course there’ll always be people in the workplace;

perhaps this is even the majority, whose ambitions for their lives aren’t about professional success so

much as having a fulfilling family life or pursuing an after-five interest. For these individuals, just

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avoiding the whole career advancement race—even if it means getting less money at the end of the month

than others—makes perfect sense.

What do ambitious employees owe their workmates? To begin, the same ethical framework of duties

requiring individuals to respect their own ability and dignity also demands that much for others. So while

it may be that singing your own praises and advertising your accomplishments as the creative magpie

does is respectable, it’s harder to justify obscuring the accomplishments of others. Further, if the respect

for yourself is balanced by the same respect for others, it seems like there’s an obligation to actively ensure

that superiors are aware of not only your own contributions but also those made by another. There is, in

essence, a good sportsmanship rule in effect. (And certainly, any ethics functioning from a base of respect

for ourselves and others will prohibit the outright stealing of others’ ideas and accomplishments.) On the

other hand, an ethical egoist—someone insisting that individuals are free agents and the world will work

out for the best if everyone steadfastly pursues their own interests—will see things somewhat differently.

From this point of view, the responsibility to trumpet the accomplishments of others falls to those others.

If they want to claim credit for a job well done, they may, but if they don’t, it’s no one else’s responsibility

to do it for them. Finally, what’s important to see is that there are different intermediate points between

trumpeting your own accomplishments and claiming the accomplishments of others as your own. Acting

ethically requires determining which point you’re at and justifying the stance.

The responsibilities workers hold to their superiors start with honesty. The basic problem with the

creative magpie strategy on this ethical front is that it means passing on to managers misleading or false

information about who contributed how much to a project. This affects managers negatively—

potentially very negatively—because next time something needs to get done urgently and at the highest

possible level, they may not aim the assignment at those employees most apt to produce the best results.

Their performance as a manager, it follows, will be adversely affected when the work performed under

their direction comes in at a quality level below expectations. The career prospects of a manager, finally,

will be hindered when a subordinate sacrifices honesty in the attempt to advance his or her own career.

The last responsibility that employees looking to be promoted ought to consider is their obligation to the

organization in general. Here, both the magpie strategy and the e-mail to the gods trick raise serious

questions. The worker’s central obligation to the organization is to help it flourish: they’re being paid to

help the enterprise reach its goals. The problem with the magpie strategy on this front is the same as the

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problem experienced by managers. When workers who do the best work see the credit stolen by others,

the organization loses some of its ability to produce at the highest possible level. Moving on to the e-mail

to the gods strategy (the appending of harmful information about other workers to e-mails and then

seeing that clients receive the information), this is especially damaging. Even if the information is true,

and should perhaps be shared with managers inside the organization, it’s nearly impossible to see how

any organization can benefit when clients find out the work being done is substandard.

Conclusion. For ambitious employees looking to advance quickly in a situation where they’re competing

against their own coworkers, the recipe for success is obvious: get credit for doing better work than the

others. One way to accomplish that is to actually do better work and make sure superiors know about it.

There are other ways too. Navigating the ethics of those ways requires workers to carefully evaluate their

obligations to themselves, their coworkers, their managers, and their organization.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Accomplishment promotions and competitive promotions are distinct and occur on different ethical

terrains.

 Those pursuing competitive promotions ought to consider their responsibilities to themselves, their

coworkers, their managers, and their organization.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. Who is hurt by the creative magpie strategy and in what specific ways?

2. You’re working on a project with another worker and he’s not doing well. His contributions need constant

correction. Does your obligation to the organization’s well-being provide ethical justification for informing

superiors about the shortcomings? Does the ethical situation change if you’re also competing with that

workmate for a promotion? If it changes, how and why? If not, why not?

[1] Colin Gautrey, “Dirty Tricks at Work—Five Ways to Protect Yourself,” EzineArticles.com, accessed May

17, 2011, http://ezinearticles.com/?Dirty-Tricks-at- Work—Five-Ways-to-Protect-Yourself&id=2703788.

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6.4 Looking for a Better Job Outside the Company

L EARNING OBJECTIVE

1. Consider ethical dilemmas confronting employees as they move from one organization to a competitor.

Ethical Issues along the Way to a New Job

Most people who leave one job for another make the transition smoothly; they learn of a new position,

apply, interview, and win the post. Notice is provided to the current employer. The split is amicable.

Everyone goes forward. On some occasions, however, ethical turbulence occurs because obligations to the

current employer are broken along the way out. These are some of the most commonly encountered

flashpoints:

 Time abuse. The use of company time to seek another job.

 Equipment-use abuse. Using the firm’s equipment as part of the effort to find a job elsewhere.

 Skill theft. Taking specific, job-related abilities acquired at one company to another.

 Client adoption. Moving to a new company and helping it appropriate part of the former company’s

client base.

 Market adoption. Moving to a new company and helping it appropriate part of the former company’s

market.

 Idea appropriation. Taking ideas belonging to the old company to the new one.

Musical Chair Stockbrokers

Successful stockbrokers share some basic skills. One is the ability to manage reams of information about

diverse investments. The options they need to organize run from humdrum treasury bills, which are safe

investments but don’t earn very much, to stock in companies like Google, which first went on sale in 2004

at a price of $85. By 2007, that same share cost more than $600. Other start-up companies also began

selling shares in 2004, but it’s harder to remember their names since they went broke. Now it’s not the

stockbrokers’ job to determine which investments are reliable and which more explosive; that’s handled

by specialized analysts. What stockbrokers do is arrange the possibilities into clear groups of more and

less speculative investments, then they provide options to their clients.

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Talking and helping clients choose good options is another key stock broking skill. To do that, brokers

need to understand clients’ situations and aspirations. If you’re a young client with some extra cash, you

may want to take a risk. But if you’re nearing retirement, you may figure it’s best to play it safe.

Regardless, the stockbroker-client relationship tends to be fairly sticky once it’s fully established because

they’ve spent real time talking seriously: to help their broker work, clients need to open up about

themselves, their current reality, and their hopes for the future. After that, it’s difficult to just switch out of

the relationship.

How do stockbrokers make money? They get a small percentage of every investment they oversee, and the

larger brokerage firm, say, Smith Barney, gets a cut too. At least that’s the way it works on a day-to-day

basis. There is, however, another option for brokers, at least for ones who’ve accumulated a good, trusting

client list. They can switch firms for money. For a lot of money because brokerage houses fall over

themselves rushing to offer large signing bonuses to those employees who can bring a long client list with

them.

After a deal to jump to another brokerage house has been struck, the stealth begins. One way or another,

the broker needs to get his or her client files. It’s a delicate operation; computers in most brokerages don’t

have USB drives, so you can’t just pull the information off the hard drive. You’ve got to print it all out or

find some way to access the mainframe with a thumb drive. Regardless, brokers need to get those files

because they hold each client’s investment history and notes brokers use to remember their clients’

stories, their family members, and all the little things that make the personal relationship work.

With the client information in hand, the broker prepares for the nail-biting day of the actual switch. A

letter is written to clients (though not yet sent) reporting the broker’s move to the new firm, and

explaining why it’s a good change—or just not bad—for the clients’ interests. Instructions and the

necessary forms are included for clients to transfer their accounts easily and fast. The day before the

change, the letters are delivered to the central post office. The next morning, the broker resigns and

hurries out of the office. With the first step outside, she hits the call button on her cell phone. A long and

frantic day has begun: starting with the largest investor and running down the list, she telephones to

explain what’s happening, and to ask each client to stick with her through the switch.

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Back at the old office, intense damage control begins. The manager rushes to divide up the ex-worker’s

client list among the remaining brokers, and they start phoning, pleading with the clients to stay with the

old, reliable firm.

Usually, most clients go.

For the moment, that’s the end of it. But the switching will fire up again because a brokerage house that’s

lost a rainmaker may go after one of the major brokers at another house. More, a broker who’s jumped

ship once for money might be tempted to do it again. Eventually, the wheel may get going so fast that no

one can keep straight who’s working where.

Facing the possibility that the whole thing could spin out of control, the poaching brokerage houses

mutually disarmed in 2004 by drawing up a protocol for broker recruiting. The legally binding

agreement—which all employees were asked to sign—allowed brokers to take their clients’ names and

contact information when changing jobs, but nothing else, none of the investment history. That made the

switch much more difficult since office-jumping brokers would need to rebuild their client relationships

almost from scratch.

Neither Bernadette Holland nor Amy Villani wanted to do the rebuilding when they jumped from the

Smith Barney brokerage house in Bethlehem, Pennsylvania, to Janney Montgomery Scott LLC of

Philadelphia in late 2008, so they took their client files with them. At least that’s what Smith Barney

maintained when they filed a lawsuit against the two women. Their complaint alleged, “The brokers took

with them customer files and information, despite their written assurances that they had complied with

the protocol for broker recruiting, which expressly prohibits them from taking such files.” [1]

Time Abuse

Time abuse is the use of company time to seek another job. On the surface, it’s unethical. We need to be

careful here, however, to distinguish exactly what “company time” means. Many jobs and work contracts

are task related instead of time defined. That is, workers are hired to accomplish certain goals. In the

construction business, a roofer may be signed up to get shingling done on a building before a certain

deadline. In a case like that, there is no such thing as company time. The roofer’s free to work whenever

and consequently to not work whenever. As long as the job gets done by the deadline, the obligation is

fulfilled. So if he wants to sit up on the roof and field calls for new jobs, it’s hard to see ethical problems.

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Problems do rise when workers are paid for their time. Most stockbrokers receive a base salary, a benefits

package, or both as part of their work agreement. In exchange, they’re supposed to use the working day to

pursue the brokerage’s interests, which means finding new clients and serving those already held. If

Holland and Villani sat in the office talking with competing brokerage houses, they were breaking their

obligation of fidelity—that is, their duty to honor their professional agreements. Of course they could

respond that all workers take breaks. They eat a snack, sneak out for a cigarette, extend lunch. All those

things are true. It’s also true, however, that the case can be made that those departures

actually help employees do their job by providing the refreshment that comes with the occasional break

from work. In the cases of Holland and Villani, it seems almost impossible for them to find a way to fold

conversations with competing brokerages into the obligation to their current one.

Could those conversations be justified even while recognizing that they breach the duty to fidelity? Yes.

The brokers could argue that another obligation simply outweighs their responsibility to maintain their

working agreement with Smith Barney. Scratching the surface a bit on the Smith Barney situation

provides an example. According to a story detailing the case in the Investment News,

Recruiters and executives from rival firms said the Smith Barney reps and advisers are

continuing to leave the firm this year as it prepares to take the minority stake in a joint venture

with Morgan Stanley, also of New York. Citigroup will exchange Smith Barney for a 49% stake in

the new firm, dubbed Morgan Stanley Smith Barney, and a $2.7 billion cash payment. [2]

Smith Barney, this means, was being taken over by Morgan Stanley, and Smith Barney brokers were

fleeing in droves.

Of course every ship-jumping broker will have unique reasons for leaving, but it does seem plausible that

at least some brokers believed this new management wouldn’t serve their interests well, and, by

extension, their clients’ interests. On this foundation, Holland and Villani could build an argument. Once

it became clear that the kind of service they’d been offering their clients would be impossible under the

new management, they could conclude that their service responsibility to clients outweighed their

responsibility to honor a commitment to Smith Barney. From there, the case may be made for the two to

use company time to pursue the possibility of working for another brokerage.

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Finally, it’s easier from an ethical perspective if the two could just isolate any discussions with potential

future brokerage houses to non-business hours, to lunch breaks, and after 5:00 p.m. If that’s not possible,

however, then the decision to impose on the working day will have to find an ethical justification.

Equipment-use abuse is occupying an employer’s computers, telephones, and similar as part of the effort

to find a job elsewhere. In the case of the two Smith Barney brokers, just as they may have used hours, so

too they may have used Smith Barney’s equipment to negotiate their moving to another firm. This isn’t a

strong form of theft (assuming Holland and Villani didn’t carry the machines out the door), but it’s a

betrayal of the obligation they received when they accepted the equipment—the obligation to use it to

serve Smith Barney’s interests. Or to at least to not subvert Smith Barney. Visiting Facebook once in a

while, in other words, is OK, but sending e-mails to competitors, not so much.

Skill Theft

Skill theft is taking specific, job-related abilities acquired at one company to another. Stock broking—like

many posts—requires extensive, job-specific training, and it can’t be picked up along the way: legally, you

can’t work in the field until you’ve completed the required courses and passed subsequent exams.

Typically, the company pays for the learning. The larger houses organize their own stock broking

universities: new recruits are gathered and privately hired teachers lead them through the materials.

What’s learned? Beyond the Wall Street knowledge about stocks and bonds, there are guidelines to master

about providing recommendations and specific rules to follow that ensure clients understand the risks

involved in creating a portfolio, especially on the more speculative side of the investment spectrum. Stock

broking is also a job in sales: brokers need to learn the delicate art of touting their own services without

making promises about returns that can’t necessarily be kept. Finally, there’s quite a bit of technical

knowledge that needs to be acquired so brokers can adeptly manage job-related and sometimes

complicated software programs. All of this is expensive. When a company hires, they’re making a major

commitment and incurring a real cost.

What obligations does the cost create? The answer divides onto a legal side and an ethical one. With

respect to the law, many hiring organizations incurring significant training costs write clauses into job

contracts protecting against the loss if a fresh employee comes aboard for the training and then tries to

leave and work elsewhere. Called a repayment clause, it stipulates that departing workers may be billed

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for their training. In a typical clause, the cost must be repaid completely if the employee leaves

immediately, and then a declining percentage are repaid if the departure occurs after three, six, nine

months, and so on. (Here’s an Internet board where workers discuss the clause and ways of getting out of

it: http://www.i-resign.com/uk/discussion/new_topic.asp?t=648. [3])

Frequently, ethics and the law fail to overlap. In this case, however, an ethical solution to the problem of

leaving an organization and taking your training with you may correspond with the strictly legal one. To

the extent it’s possible to monetize the investment an employer makes in an employee, returning the

money could satisfy several fundamental moral duties. The duty to not harm others is satisfied because

the recouped funds may be applied by the organization to hire and train another employee. The duty of

fidelity—keeping obligations—is satisfied insofar as the contract’s clauses are honored. Finally, the duty to

reparation—to repay others when we harm them—is explicitly satisfied. The conclusion is that a

stockbroker who takes a firm’s training and leaves may justifiably claim that the action was ethically

acceptable because the contractual obligation was honored.

What if the contractual obligation isn’t honored? Is there any way for an employee to build an ethical case

against repaying the company for training received? On the discussion board just mentioned, two routes

are indicated. The first works from a utilitarian ethics, from the idea that the right action is the one

bringing the greatest good to the greatest number. A contributor called there_are_many_questions

writes,

I recently took a promotion at my current job and part of this was to study a level 4 course they

had chosen. I had also applied to university, and due to the competitiveness of the course I wasn’t

sure that I would get in. Hence the reason I agreed to go for the promotion. As it happens I have

been accepted into university and I begin my course shortly. I knew that I would be required to

pay back the cost of the course fees but it turns out, that they were more then I was originally

told. To add, because I am becoming a full time student I am unlikely to have a permanent

income. [4]

So this person applied to a competitive university and wasn’t sure about getting in. Faced with the

uncertainty, he or she took a promotion at the current company, which required company-provided

training. In the end, as it turned out, there_are_many_questions got into the university and so left the

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company. Now the company wants the course fees back. As the writer notes, it’s probable that he or she

won’t be able to pay them while enrolled as a student.

Looking at this situation, there’s no doubt here that the abandoned company has a strong ethical case.

“Why is there_are_many_questions paying a university for classes when he or she already owes us for

classes taken?” Good question. Here’s a utilitarian response: when everyone’s interests are fully taken into

account, the decision to go to university and shaft the company does, in fact, serve the greater good. The

abandoned company is damaged, no doubt, but really, unless it’s a small company on the brink of

bankruptcy, it seems likely that they’ll absorb the loss and move on. Further, there_are_many_questions

had just been promoted by the company, so, obviously, he or she had been doing good work for them; it’s

not as though the entire professional relationship will be a pure loss. The jilted company, finally, will

suffer the employee’s abandonment, but probably get over it without suffering lasting damage.

There_are_many_questions, on the other hand, has a singular opportunity. The university is

competitive—so much so that there was real uncertainty about gaining admission. To leave that

opportunity behind simply to honor the clause of a contract seems like a choice causing real unhappiness,

one that will continue over the long term. There’ll always be that feeling of “what if?,” as in “What if I’d

just walked and gone to the university to learn to do what I really wanted?” In sum, when you weigh on

one side the damage caused to the company by a departing employee who doesn’t refund training costs,

and on the other side you weigh the damage done to there_are_many_questions if the university course is

abandoned to repay the company’s training, it feels like there’s an imbalance. When viewed

dispassionately from outside the situation, the greater good really is served by walking away from the debt

and going to the university. No one is saying that walking away from debts is ethical, but it would be

more unethical to let the university opportunity pass.

Another justification for walking away from the debt to the company could emerge along the lines of

ethical egoism indicated by a contribution coming from Suze. She says the employee should hand over a

bit of money and then “tell them to whistle for the rest, or else you will see them in court. I doubt they will

pursue it.” [5]

Solid ethical egoism. The right thing to do is the right thing for you, and that’s it. If you can get away with

not paying, Suze says, and then go for it. The reasoning is the company “probably won’t pursue it.” If they

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do, well then you might have to come up with the money. Until that happens, though, her advice is to

protect your own interests, let the company take care of theirs, and see where things end up.

Client Adoption

Client adoption is moving to a new company and helping it appropriate part of the former company’s

client base. Holland and Villani are perpetrators. In fact, this is the central idea behind their move: to

transfer clients along with them.

With respect to the law, Holland and Villani are completely free to take their clients. It’s a black-and-white

legal situation. All that’s in dispute is how much client information they can carry to their new office. And

the ethics? The situation here seems fairly clear also, at least with respect to the brokers and the

brokerage. There’s no doubt that both Holland and Villani on one side, and the Smith Barney brokerage

house on the other, have a certain claim on the clients. While it’s true that the brokers did most of the

work, the brokerage provided the infrastructure and opportunity. One way to adjudicate these competing

claims when the broker and brokerage split is to check whether any prior agreements regulate the

separation. In this case, an agreement does exist: the protocol for broker recruiting. The fact that the

agreement is there indicates that all parties involved accept that brokers transferring and taking clients is

part of the way things normally work: it’s fair. What needs to be settled, and what the protocol does

presumably settle, are the rules for the process.

One difference, however, between ethics and the law in this situation is that ethical considerations open a

broader scope onto the situation: the stakeholders increase. Where the law is concerned only with the

brokerage house and the brokers, an ethical evaluation incorporates the clients as important since they’re

tangibly affected by any decision. So what are the clients’ rights? How are they exposed by shifting

brokers? Their first clear right is to say “no.” They’re under no obligation to follow when a broker changes

firms, and there’s good reason to stay put. The paperwork involved in moving is significant. More, not all

houses offer the same investments instruments, so there may actually be a cost involved as items in the

portfolio are sold on one side so that a comparable product may be purchased from the new brokerage.

This means the client really loses when they move along with a broker.

The clients are in a tough spot, though. Typically, they’ve invested a good bit of their own energy and time

in fostering a broker-client trust and mutual understanding. There’s no guarantee—and this is especially

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true for longtime clients—that another broker would easily understand how the current portfolio fits

together with the client’s life. If that’s right, then any client choosing to remain with the old firm will more

or less have to start over by rebuilding their investments in consultation with whichever new stockbroker

gets assigned to their case. More complications could be added, but the point is, the clients aren’t just

bystanders. The brokers’ decision to change houses is going to affect them, and they may end up losing

either way.

How do the clients’ interests—and the ethical responsibility to consider them—fit into the stockbrokers’

job switching? One way to begin reasoning toward an answer comes from Immanuel Kant’s categorical

imperative, specifically the idea that we are to treat others as ends and never as means. Kant’s proposal is

that we’re obligated, regardless of circumstances, to not treat others as tools or instruments; treating

another as a “means” is just using them to get something else. So the question here for brokers when

considering whether they hold an ethical license to do all they can to carry clients to a new firm becomes

relatively simple. It would not be ethically recommendable if the change failed to serve the clients’

interests. If it doesn’t, if it turns out that the only people who come out ahead in all this are the brokers

because they get a nice bonus from the new brokerage house for bringing over a busload of new investors,

then what’s happening is the clients are reducing to mere means. They’re the tools the brokers use to get a

payoff for them.

On the other hand, if the change does serve the clients’ interests, then Holland and Villani can say that

they aren’t reducing the clients to nothing more than a payday, they’re actually treating the clients the way

they themselves would want to be treated in that situation. In Kant’s language, the clients become “ends,”

they’re no longer tools, and their interests can be considered a reason for Holland and Villani to make the

switch. Now, we know from the case that Smith Barney was in the process of being engulfed by Morgan

Stanley when Holland and Villani were making their move. If the brokers really believed that the services

they could provide would be harmed by the change in corporate structure as Smith Barney became

Morgan Stanley, and if they really believed their client services could be bettered by shifting over to the

new brokerage house, then there’s space for claiming that bringing the clients along is morally right.

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Market Adoption

Market adoption occurs when an employee moves from one company to another and helps the new

employer appropriate part of the former company’s market. On the surface, this resembles client

adoption. A firm’s market—the people to whom they deliver goods or services—is a collection of clients, a

set of people who pay for the company’s efforts. Even so, there are important differences between a

market and a client, and they result in radical changes to the ethical atmosphere.

The fundamental difference between a client and a market is that clients have names and markets have

definitions. Clients are individuals with whom a company has cultivated a relationship; markets are

aggregates of people at whom companies aim their products. When Holland and Villani changed

brokerage houses, they tried to take clients with them because they were people they’d really talked to;

they knew their phone numbers and life stories. A market, on the other hand, is composed of people you

don’t know; it’s just anyone who shares a set of characteristics. For example, a brokerage house may want

more business from middle-aged adults starting to think about retirement. So what do they do? They put

up TV ads showing a fiftyish husband and wife at the dinner table talking about something they’d like to

do together, say, visit China for a month. They can’t go now. They’re both working full time scraping

money to pay for the kids’ college and making mortgage payments. When they retire, though, they’ll have

the time; the kids will be done with school, the house will be paid for. What they need to do now is plan

the financial landscape. They have a question: what kind of investments guarantees their trip? The

commercial ends with a tagline: “Smith Barney: For the Journey of Your Life.” That’s a bad commercial,

but it shows what a market is. Smith Barney doesn’t care who shows up at their branch offices the next

day. They don’t care if it’s Sam Smith or Jane Jones; they just want fifty-year-olds with some money to

invest.

Many companies are constantly trying to convert markets into clients, trying to replace purely economic

relationships with personal ones because people tend to stick with their brands. Markets, by contrast,

shift easily; whichever company has the best TV commercial or the lowest prices, that’s the one that gets

the largest chunk.

Our economy is built on the idea of competition for markets: the premise that they’re open and may be

pursued by any organization is the basis for business activity. Obviously, there are islands of exception,

things like trash collection performed by the city government. But for the most part, it’s nearly impossible

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to form an ethical argument against employees leaving one company and going to another and then

chasing the same market. To be against it isn’t to be against one action or another on the part of an

employee; it’s to be against the entire economic structure in which we live. (It’s possible to be against that

structure, but that’s a different debate.)

Idea Appropriation

Idea appropriation occurs when an idea belonging to the old company is given over to the new one. If a

chemist at Coca-Cola accepts a job at Pepsi and promptly reveals Coke’s secret formula, that’s idea theft.

In the brokerage business at the level Holland and Villani worked, there probably weren’t too many

secrets to steal. Clients yes, but no shadowy formulas for stock picking or anything like that.

Higher up in Smith Barney, however, it’s perfectly possible that analysts responsible for selecting stock

winners (and weeding out losers) had developed an algorithm, a kind of recipe of numbers to produce

answers. In the finance industry, those who rely on numbers—share price, a company’s annual earnings,

and so on—to make stock predictions are called quants, which is short for quantitative data analyst. They

take these numbers, stick them into a secret mathematical formula, and out pops another number

presumably showing whether the stock is a good buy or not. These formulas are a brokerage’s concealed

idea and, presumably at least, a key to their success: clients are going to flock to those brokerages

consistently providing good stock-buying tips. Now if you happen to be a quant at Smith Barney, and

you’re offered a similar position at a competing firm, can you take the formula with you?

This is a knotted question, both legally and ethically. Starting with the law, a company’s ideas are broadly

divided into two categories: trade secrets and patented or copyrighted information. Trade secrets consist

of nonpublic information that

 concerns a company’s own activities and that if known by competitors would negatively affect the

company’s ability to compete against them;

 is owned by the company (though it may not be copyrighted or patented) because it was developed by the

company or purchased from another company;

 is meant to remain secret as is made clear by explicit directives, security measures, or contractual

agreements with employees. [6]

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Trade secrets (which are sometimes called proprietary data) are ideas a company develops and uses, and

that they don’t want anyone to know about. In the case of the quants at Smith Barney, a formula for

picking stock winners kept under lock and key would be a trade secret.

The other broad category of ideas belonging to companies is patented or copyrighted information. This is

more or less a trade secret but without the secret. It’s an idea a company develops that helps it compete,

but the strategy for protecting the idea from competitors is different. Instead of pretending like the idea

doesn’t exist, or doing everything possible to make sure the details don’t leak, what the company does is

make the idea public by registering it with the government, claiming thereafter the sole right to use the

idea. After registration, the idea’s no longer a secret, but that doesn’t matter since anyone else who tries to

use it is vulnerable to being sued.

So the recipe for Coke is a trade secret but not patented. If you can figure out what it is, you’re free to use

it. The word Coke, on the other hand, is copyrighted. Everyone knows what it is, but you’re not allowed to

use it, or at least not use it to label your own soft drink. The result of all this for an employee switching

companies is that the legal questions involving stolen ideas tend to involve trade secrets. You can’t steal

an idea that’s copyrighted because everyone knows that idea already. But a trade secret—the recipe for

Coke, the formula an investment house like Smith Barney uses to pick stocks—that definitely can be

stolen; it can be revealed to the new company.

The Economic Espionage Act of 1996 makes the theft of trade secrets a federal crime. The law is clear on

the issue. The problem is it’s hard to prove that a trade secret is stolen. If you steal the recipe for Coke,

you might disguise the theft by adding a tad more sugar to the version you make. Or, if you steal one of

Smith Barney’s quantitative stock-picking formulas, maybe you adjust the numbers slightly: not so much

that it effects the predictions, but enough to make the formula different. In these cases it’s going to be

hard to absolutely prove the formula is stolen. In broad strokes, finally, the law of intellectual property is

clear. When you get down into specific cases, however, things rapidly get twisted.

What are the ethics? If you’re a quant at Smith Barney and you get a call from your broker friends—

Holland and Villani—saying that they’re taking their clients to a new firm and they’d like you to come

along, bringing Smith Barney’s secret formula for stock picking as well, what kind of ethical responses are

possible?

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The “no” response is easily justified on moral grounds. The trade secret is company property, really no

different from a computer or a desk, and taking it—even if you’re taking it by memorizing it and carrying

it out in your mind—is theft just like stealing objects. Further support for the no answer comes from the

responsibility to fidelity, the responsibility to maintain agreements. Almost all companies that work with

trade secrets write a clause into employment contracts stipulating confidentiality on sensitive matters. So

the ethical obligations not to steal, and to keep our word, make a good case for declining the request to

steal an idea.

Going the other way, some situations allow a reasonable argument to be mounted in favor of leaving with

the trade secret or proprietary data. One justification is authorship. Someone who provides a company

with an invention can fairly expect to be rewarded by the company. Inventing an idea is labor like any

other, and in any field people who do exemplary work can expect promotions and rewards from the larger

organization. If, unfortunately, an inventor feels as though the company isn’t providing a reward—a

promotion, a healthy bonus, or similar—then he or she may feel justified in leaving with his or her work,

just as a good accountant may feel the need to look for employment elsewhere after being repeatedly

passed over for promotion. The basic argument here is one of fairness. If a quant at Smith Barney invents

an algorithm for stock picking that produces excellent results and then sits by and watches others who’ve

contributed less receive larger year-end bonuses, the conclusion may be reached that for balance to be

restored, it’s necessary to take the algorithm to another firm where a reward will be guaranteed.

Another ethical argument could be located in the difficulty that may exist in separating the skills an

employee gains on the job from an idea or a certain kind of knowledge developed on the job. A quant who

figures out a good algorithm may be able to claim that, as a skilled manipulator of numbers as they relate

to economic markets, his ability as an analyst allows him to take the strategy with him. Stated differently,

because of the unique skills possessed, when the quant is hired for a new brokerage, he would be able to

just reinvent the algorithm. That’s possible because of the rare analytic talents the quant possesses, not

because the old algorithm is being stolen. In general, it can be very difficult to separate skills as they relate

to ideas from the ideas themselves. And in this case, it may be that the quant’s skills provide a license to

regenerate the stock-picking algorithm for whatever firm is paying the salary.

Finally, an ethical case for the revelation of a trade secret may be made on humanitarian grounds. It’s

difficult to envision a good example of this is in the world of stock picking, but in the no-less-lucrative

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field of medical research, a humanitarian context for taking an idea easily comes into focus. If a cure for

cancer were invented by a private company, the stock value would blow through the roof, but only if they

kept the drug formula secret and sold the serum at a fairly high price. In this case, a worker in the

company may feel justified in taking a job with an international health nonprofit, and then revealing the

serum’s formula and the technique for its production so that it could be made and distributed at a low cost

to all those in need throughout the world. A theft would be committed and a wrong done, but an

obligation to the greater good, to the health benefits the theft would allow, may justify a departing

worker’s carrying a company’s secret out the door.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Using time and equipment paid for by a current employer to look for a new job is ethically problematic.

 Job skills provided by employers may create employee obligations.

 Employees transferring from one company to another—and asking established clients to follow—face a

broad range of ethical concerns.

 Ideas belonging to an organization may not be taken to another without raising ethical concerns.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. Ethically, is there a difference between a worker sitting at her desk during office hours and working on her

Facebook page and one who’s trolling Monster, looking to find a new job somewhere else? If not, why

not? If so, what’s the difference?

2. If a company pays for your job training, is there a way to calculate how long you need to work there to

satisfy the obligation to use the training for the company’s benefit?

3. In business terms, what’s the difference between trying to steal clients from your old employer and trying

to steal market share? In ethical terms, what’s the difference?

4. What’s the difference between a trade secret and a patented idea?

 [1] Bruce Kelly, “Smith Barney Seeks Restraining Orders against Four Ex-Reps,” investmentnews.com, accessed

May 17, 2011.http://www.investmentnews.com/article/20090224/REG/902249971.

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[2] Bruce Kelly, “Smith Barney Seeks Restraining Orders against Four Ex-Reps,” investmentnews.com, accessed

May 17, 2011.http://www.investmentnews.com/article/20090224/REG/902249971.

 [3] “Repayment of Course Fees,” I-resign.com, accessed May 17, 2011, http://www.iresign.

com/uk/discussion/new_topic.asp?t=648.

 [4] There_are_many_questions, April 4, 2009 (4:26 p.m.), “Repayment of Course Fees,” I-resign.com, accessed May

17, 2011, http://www.i-resign.com/uk/discussion/new_topic.asp?t=648.

 [5] Suze, January 6, 2005 (5:42 p.m.), comment to bradley, “Repayment of Course Fees,” I-resign.com, accessed

May 17, 2011, http://www.i-resign.com/uk/discussion/new_topic.asp?t=648.

 [6] Manuel Velasquez, Business Ethics: Concepts and Cases 6th Edition (Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson, 2006),

357. List adapted for this text.

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6.5 Take This Job and…

L EARNING OBJECTIVE

1. Define and consider ethical issues surrounding the decision to quit.

The Ethics of Quitting

There’s a difference between giving a few weeks’ notice that you’ve decided to leave your job in cold

Minneapolis to try your luck in Florida, and suddenly walking out three days before the year’s most

important presentation, the one your team was responsible for creating. The first scenario won’t cause

many objections, but the second raises this question: what do departing workers owe employers?

If the answer is sought through a prism of fairness—through the idea that justice in the workplace

requires equal treatment all around—the answer might be “not very much.” Since most work contracts

offer employment only at will, employers are typically positioned to let workers go at any time for any

reason that’s convenient. And they do.

When Ameritech was letting people go they would call them into a conference room and say their

services were no longer needed. They would then show them to the door. Any coats or personal

effects left at their desk would be shipped to them. [1]

Especially in larger organizations where layoffs can come massively, the employee’s pleading, “You

shouldn’t fire me because we just bought a house and had our first child,” isn’t going to persuade too

many CEOs. If it doesn’t, it’s going to be difficult to justify the demand that employees, no matter how

vital they may be to the company, come in to work when they plainly don’t want to.

It’s also true, however, that many employers extend benefits going beyond contractual obligations, and

yes, some bend over backward to keep their workers on, even when it doesn’t make strict business sense.

When Malden Mills burned to the ground, owner Aaron Feuerstein spent millions keeping all three

thousand employees on the payroll with full benefits for months. Some asked whether he was a

fool. [2] Maybe he was, but he proves that every situation is different: some employers are cutthroats,

others doggedly loyal when it comes to the people doing the work.

This is the important point for anyone thinking about leaving their organization in a lurch. If the ethical

justification for splitting is built on the idea of fairness—which in this case reduces to the principle that

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the employee owes the organization the same loyalty that the organization displays for the employee—

then it’s the worker’s responsibility to ask how the organization responds to employees’ needs.

It should be underlined that this ethical attitude isn’t quite a form of turnabout is fair play: the argument

isn’t so much that if a company has screwed (or not) people in the past, then they should get screwed (or

not) now. The argument from fairness is simply that the weight of self-interest when set against the

interests on the other side should be more or less balanced.

A different framework for considering the question of walking out on a job virtually without warning

comes from the utilitarian perspective, from the idea that in any situation the morally right act is the one

increasing happiness for all those involved. Looking at the question this way, workers considering leaving

need to weigh their benefit from walking out against the suffering incurred by everyone else.

The “everyone else” includes the worker’s fellow employees. If a presentation really does need to be done

and given in three days and you disappear, there’s just not going to be time to hire someone else and get

them up to speed; those who are already there and on the project are going to have to do your share. It’s

worth noting here that the concern about whether the company has previously demonstrated loyalty to its

workers doesn’t arise within this perspective. What matters is a calculation of what serves everyone’s best

interest now and going forward. So even if you feel no loyalty to the company—and even if the company

demonstrates no loyalty to its employees—you may still decide to stay on until a more convenient

separation time can be found just so that you don’t wrong those who work with you.

%$&^*#!

Everyone who’s ever worked anywhere has felt the temptation at one point or another to not just quit but

to go out in flames: march into the boss’s office, let loose an avalanche of %$&^*#!, and storm out. It

would feel good. But should it leave you feeling guilty afterward? Within a utilitarian scheme, the answer

is “maybe not.” If ethical justification is based on the idea that the right path is the one bringing the

greatest good to the greatest number, then it might just be that the release and clean break the outburst

allows is worth the scene and the discomfort (or maybe the private joy) others feel about the whole thing.

Of course, by the same reasoning, anyone standing outside that door and taking one last breath before

storming through better consider their own long-term happiness. Probably, bawling out the boss isn’t

going to help your future job-seeking prospects.

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KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Most ethical issues surrounding the quitting of a job gather around those cases where the leaving is

abrupt.

 The ethics of leaving a job involves a range of people and their interests.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. If you feel as though you’ve been mistreated at work, can an ethical justification be formed for walking

away at a moment of maximum pain for the company? Explain.

2. Can you think of a kind of job or line of work where any employee could walk off at any time without

ethical qualms? What characteristics of the job allow that freedom?

 [1] James Carlini, “Ready to Leave? Why You Shouldn’t Give Two Weeks’ Notice,” WTN News, April 27, 2005,

accessed May 17, 2011, http://wistechnology.com/articles/1757.

 [2] “Malden Mills: A Study in Leadership,” Organizational Productivity Institute, Inc. ,Quality Monitor Newsletter,

October 1996, accessed May 17, 2011, http://www.opi-inc.com/malden.htm.

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6.6 Case Studies

Cooking a Résumé

Source: Photo courtesy of cloudsoup, http://www.flickr.com/photos/cloudsoup/2762796137/.

Chef Robert Irvine’s résumé was impressive. According to the St. Petersburg Times, he advertised his

experience as including:

 A bachelor’s of science degree in food and nutrition from the University of Leeds.

 Royal experience working on the wedding cake for Prince Charles and Princess Diana.

 He was a knight, as in Sir Robert Irvine, Knight Commander of the Royal Victorian Order, handpicked by

the Queen.

 For several consecutive years, he’d received the Five Star Diamond Award from the American Academy of

Hospitality Sciences.

 He’d served as a White House chef.

The truth—when the newspaper revealed it on a splashy front-page article—wasn’t quite so overpowering:

 The claimed BS degree? According to a press officer at the University of Leeds, “We cannot find any

connection in our records between Robert and the university.”

 The royal wedding cake? Well, he did help pick some of the fruit that went into it.

 The knighthood? No.

 The Five Star Diamond Award? True, but it’s not the AAA’s prestigious Five Diamond Award or Mobil’s

five stars. The American Academy of Hospitality Sciences is actually a guy’s apartment in New York, and

the award is granted to anyone who pays a fee.

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 White House chef? Kind of. But he didn’t prepare sophisticated dishes for the president or anything like

that; he cooked food for the cafeteria line, serving military workers at the White House. [1]

After the truth came out, Chef Irvine was fired from his popular TV show on the Food Network, Dinner:

Impossible. A few months later, however, after the scandal blew over and he’d corrected his résumé, he

reapplied for his old job, was rehired, and he’s on TV today.

QUE STIONS

1. When Irvine first applied for the job as TV show chef, he had to consider whether he should “embellish”

his résumé, and if so, how far he should go. What ethical responsibilities should he have considered? To

whom?

2. The five types of positive résumé misrepresentations are

o false credentials,

o false experience,

o false chronology,

o embellished experience,

o false references.

Negative résumé misrepresentations have also been discussed. Looking back at Irvine’s résumé

adventure, can you label each of his transgressions?

3. Are some of the lies worse than others in the sense that they relate directly to his ability to be a successful

TV chef? Are others less objectionable because they don’t relate to the job he was applying for? Why or

why not?

4. It’s better to seek forgiveness than ask permission. In a sense, that’s what Irvine did. He lied on his résumé,

got the job, did well, got caught having lied on the résumé, got fired, sought forgiveness, got it, and got

back a TV show job he might never have received had he not lied in the first place. Ethically, how could

you go about justifying his course of action?

5. The Internet site Fakeresume.com includes the following advice for job seekers: “Hiring Managers

Think You’re Lying Anyway!! Yep that’s right, the majority of human resources managers assume

that EVERYONE embellishes, exaggerates, puffs up and basically lies to some extent on your

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résumé. So if you’re being totally honest you’re being penalized because they’re going to assume

that you embellished your résumé to a certain extent!” [2]

Assume you believe this is true; can you make the ethical case for being honest on your résumé

regardless of what hiring managers think?

6. Assume Fakeresume.com is right. Everyone “embellishes, exaggerates, puffs up and basically lies to some

extent on their résumé.” On the basis of the obligations you hold to others (hiring managers, coworkers,

and other applicants) and to yourself, could you form the argument that you have an ethical responsibility

to lie?

7. You have a friend you like and respect. You’ve spent a lot of time with him over the years in school and

you know he’s very responsible, a hard worker, and smart. He’d be good at almost any entry-level type

job; you’re sure of it. He comes to you and asks you to fake having been his boss for a pizza delivery

business. “I just want,” he says, “someone out there who I can count on to say I’m the good, responsible

type. You know someone who’s always on time for work, that kind of thing.” Would you do it? Justify your

answer.

Inmate Wages

Source: Photo courtesy of Tomáš Obšívač, http://www.flickr.com/photos/toob/38893762/.

An Internet posting carries a simple Q&A thread: someone’s searching for a good upholstery shop in

Maryland. An unexpected answer comes back from Fenny L: criminals. A local jail has a job-training

program for their inmates and they contract the men at $1.50 per hour. [3]

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The responses to the suggestion are intense and all over the place, but many circle around the ethics of the

numbingly low wage, leading Fenny L to introduce a new thread. Here are the three main points she

makes.

 While I object to slave labor…at the same time, I don’t see this as slave labor. If I wished to become a

professional uhhh…upholsterer (what do they call themselves?!?) I would need to spend money on the

classes and etc. The Dept. of Corrections doesn’t charge the inmates for these classes—thusly; I don’t see a

problem with only paying the inmates $1.50 for their work.

 Also, we use free/cheap labor ALL the time…in the form of Interns. Interns are often paid nothing, or

extremely little—because they want the job experience…that is their compensation. In turn, I feel that the

inmates are getting job experience so that they can earn an honest living once they get out.

 Finally, I think that the Dept. of Corrections has to make the wages obscenely low—because let’s be

honest…how many people would feel comfortable with having a convict in their home to do work? The

only way they can be competitive and offer the inmates this opportunity, is to make it worth the consumer

to utilize them—by having obscenely low wages. [4]

QUE STIONS

1. Suppose you made a mistake and ended up in jail for a few months. While there, you participated

in this program. Now you’re out and seeking an upholstering job.

o You’re considering leaving the jail part of this episode off your résumé. Whose interests should

you consider before going ahead? What ethical case could you make for leaving it off your

résumé?

o Given the kind of work you’d be doing—going into peoples’ homes and upholstering—does the

nature of your “mistake” (drunk driving versus shoplifting, for example) influence the ethical

consideration of whether you ought to acknowledge this part of your life on your résumé? How?

o Maybe for the first several years you should leave your prison training on your résumé, but is

there a kind of statute of limitations, a certain amount of time that, once passed, gives you an

ethical license to leave something negative off your résumé? How would you calculate the

amount of time and based on what factors?

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2. Sometimes a split opens between a community-wage level (what people in general in a certain

place are paid for certain labor) and an organizational-wage level (what people at a specific

organization are paid for the same labor). The split clearly opens here; the prisoners are paid

much less than other upholsterers in the larger community.

o Fenny L believes this split is justified by the ethics of a market economy. She makes the point that

most people really don’t want crooks wandering around their house, so in order to get business;

the prison needs to make its offer attractive by cutting labor prices. She’s probably right in terms

of economics, but in terms of ethics, do you find this reasoning convincing? Why or why not?

o Can you form an ethical argument in favor of the prisoners demanding a pay raise to make their

salary comparable with other upholsterers?

3. If you were an upholsterer and your company had a practice of hiring ex-convicts because they’d work for

lower wages, could you make the ethical argument that you deserve a higher wage than those other

workers with similar experience and skills because you’d never had trouble with the law? What would

your argument look like?

4. If you were an upholsterer looking to wiggle a pay hike, would you ask a friend to pose as the boss from a

competing outfit and offer you the same job at a higher salary? In considering the question, what are the

specific ethical obligations tugging one way or the other, and to whom do you have the obligations?

5. Fenny L. believes the workers are receiving a fair wage because they’re getting valuable training

and experience that will improve their future job prospects. That’s probably true, but the fact

remains that the workers are being paid much less money, for the same work, than others.

o Is an internship—or any post where you receive less than the community-wage level for a certain

kind of work—a humiliation? Why or why not?

o Is there an ethical objection to allowing you to be humiliated? Explain.

6. Many jobs require company-sponsored training, and frequently employees enrolling in corporate training

programs sign repayment clauses, promising to repay the training’s cost if they leave before a certain

amount of time has passed, say, one year. Is there an ethical argument here for the idea that repayment

clauses are a form of prison and therefore unethical? Why or why not?

7. Upholstering is not a job where experience counts very much. Yes you need some initial training and

practice, but once you’ve got that, ten years more experience isn’t going to make you a significantly better

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upholsterer of common items. Accepting that reality, if you were the upholsterer who’d been with the

company the longest, could you still translate your seniority into an ethical argument that you deserve a

higher wage than others who’ve been around less time? Explain.

Dirty Tricks

Source: Photo courtesy of Henk de Vries, http://www.flickr.com/photos/henkdevries/2662269430/.

In his book 21 Dirty Tricks at Work, author Colin Gautrey gives his readers a taste of how intense life at

the office can get. Here are two of his favorite tricks. [5]

QUE STIONS

1. The exposure trick. Coercing a coworker by threatening to make public a professional or personal

problem

If you’re angling for a raise, and you know something damaging about your supervisor, you may

be tempted by the tactic of exposure. Imagine you know that your supervisor has a prescription

drug habit and it’s getting worse. Her performance at the office has been imbalanced but not so

erratic as to raise suspicions. You plan to confront her and say you’ll spill the beans unless she gets

you a raise. Whose interests are involved here? What responsibilities do you have to each of

them? What ethical justification could you draw up to justify your threat?

2. The bystander trick. Knowing that someone is in trouble but standing on the sidelines and doing

nothing even when intervention is clearly appropriate and would be helpful to the business

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At an upholstering company you’re in competition for a promotion with a guy who learned the

craft in jail, through the Department of Corrections’ job-training course. He hadn’t revealed that

fact to anyone, but now the truth has come to light. You’ve worked with him on a lot of

assignments and seen that he’s had a chance to make off with some decent jewelry but hasn’t

taken anything. You could speak up to defend him, but you’re tempted to use the bystander trick

to increase the odds that you’ll win the duel. What ethical argument could you draw up to

convince yourself that you shouldn’t stand there and watch, but instead you should help your

adversary out of the jam?

The End of Destiny’s Child

Source: Photo courtesy of Alex Johnson, http://www.flickr.com/photos/89934978@N00/2997961865/.

The R&B group Destiny’s Child was composed of Beyoncé Knowles, Kelly Rowland, and Michelle

Williams. They started slow in 1990 (Beyoncé was nine), giving mini-concerts in crumbling dance halls

around Houston, and then kept at it through small-time talent shows, promised record deals that never

materialized, and the disintegration of Rowland’s family (Beyoncé’s parents took her into their home).

They finally got a crummy but real record deal in 1998 and made the most of it.

By 2002 they’d become a successful singing and dance act. But soon after, they broke up under the

pressure of Beyoncé’s solo career, which seemed to be speeding even faster than the group effort.

In 2004 they reunited for a new album, Destiny Fulfilled, which went triple platinum. On the European

leg of the subsequent world tour, Beyoncé quit more definitively. She took the fan base with her and began

evolving into the hugely successful Beyoncé we know now: pop music juggernaut, movie celebrity,

clothing design star…The other two members of the original group? Today they appear on B-list talk

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shows (when they can get booked) and are presented to viewers as Kelly Rowland, formerly of Destiny’s

Child, and Michelle Williams, formerly of Destiny’s Child.

According to the New York Times it shouldn’t be surprising that things ended up this way: “It’s been a

long-held belief in the music industry that Destiny’s Child was little more than a launching pad for

Beyoncé Knowles’s inevitable solo career.” [6]

Which leads to this question: Why did she go back in 2004 and do the Destiny Fulfilled album with her

old partners? Here’s what the New York Times reported: “Margeaux Watson, arts and entertainment

editor at Suede, a fashion magazine, suggests that the star does not want to appear disloyal to her former

partners, and called Beyoncé’s decision to return to the group a charitable one.” But “from Day 1, it’s

always been about Beyoncé,” Ms. Watson said. “She’s the one you can’t take your eyes off of; no one really

cares about the other girls. I think Beyoncé will eventually realize that these girls are throwing dust on her

shine.” [7]

QUE STIONS

1. Destiny’s Child rolled money in, and it needed to be divided up. Assume the three singers always

split money equally, going way back to 1990 when it wasn’t the profits they were dividing but the

costs of gasoline and hotel rooms, which added up to more than they got paid for performing.

About the money that finally started coming in faster than it was going out, here are two common

theories for justifying the payment of salaries within an organization: Money is apportioned

according to the worker’s value to the organization, and money is apportioned according to the

experience and seniority relative to others in the organization.

o How would these two distinct ways of divvying up the revenue change the salary assigned to the

three singers?

o When success came, how could Beyoncé ethically justify demanding a greater share of the pie?

o How could you justify experience and seniority as the ethically preferable route to follow when

paying the three singers making up Destiny’s Child?

2. There are a lot of rhythm and blues groups out there, singing as hard as they can most nights on

grimy stages for almost no audience, which means the organizational-wage level of Destiny’s Child

was way, way above the wage level of other organizations in the same line of work.

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o When the members of Destiny’s Child cash their paychecks, should they feel guilty about getting

so much more than others in their profession who work just as hard as they do, but in different

organizations where the pay is less? Why or why not?

o Cashiers at Whole Foods Market get paid more than cashiers at Wal-Mart. Should the Whole

Foods cashiers feel guilty? Why or why not?

3. Beyoncé didn’t break clean from Destiny’s Child. She rejoined the organization because, according to

Watson, “she didn’t want to appear disloyal to her former partners.” Beyoncé felt an ethical responsibility

to mind the interests of Kelly Rowland and Michelle Williams. As she thought about leaving the group

more definitively, what other people (if any) do you suppose she should have considered in order feeling

ethically justified in finally and permanently taking off on her own? What are the obligations she holds to

Rowland, Williams, and any others you have added to the list?

4. Destiny’s Child was a pop group; their hits included “Say My Name,” which isn’t too different from

Beyoncé’s smash “Single Ladies (Put a Ring on It).” The videos are pretty close, too: nearly

identical mixes of rhythm, dancing, fun, and sexy provocation. After comparing the video of “Say

My Name” [8] with “Single Ladies,” [9] it’s hard to deny that Beyoncé benefited from her time in

Destiny’s Child. Very possibly, she feels as though she owes Rowland and Williams part of her

success, and that’s why she did the reunion record and tour. Now, if you were Rowland or

Williams, could you form an ethical argument that Beyoncé owes you more than that based on

the following:

o Client appropriation. When Beyoncé left, she benefited from a group of devoted listeners

constructed by Destiny’s Child. Do you suppose these would be clients, a market, or some mix?

How do you imagine Beyoncé benefited from them and what should she do to repay the

obligation?

o Skill theft. When Beyoncé left, Destiny’s Child still had gas in its engine: the group was selling CDs

and touring successfully. It could do that because of the skills the three members learned years

earlier through tireless rehearsals and small-time concerts. During all those years they were

training for musical success, but when they got it, Beyoncé quickly left the organization. She went

out on her own and kept doing what she’d learned to do with Rowland and Williams. Given that,

use an ethical theory to make the case that Beyoncé is significantly obligated to the other two.

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What is her obligation? Is there some point—either after a certain amount of time has passed or

an amount of money has been paid or something else—where the obligation will have been

satisfied? Explain.

Stolen Intel

Source: Photo courtesy of ctitze, http://www.flickr.com/photos/ctitze/329928527/.

Biswamohan Pani, a low-level engineer at Intel, apparently stole trade secrets worth a billion dollars from

the company.

His plot was simple. According to a Business week article, he scheduled his resignation from Intel for

June 11, 2008. He’d accumulated vacation time, however, so he wasn’t actually in the office during June,

even though he officially remained an employee. That employee status allowed him access to Intel’s

computer network and sensitive information about next-generation microprocessor prototypes. He

downloaded the files, and he did it from his new desk at Advanced Micro Devices (AMD), which is Intel’s

chief rival. Pani had simply arranged to begin his new AMD job while officially on vacation from Intel.

Why did he do it? The article speculates that “Pani obtained Intel’s trade secrets to benefit himself in his

work at AMD without AMD’s knowledge that he was doing so, which is a fairly frequent impulse among

employees changing jobs: to take a bit of work product from their old job with them.”[10]

According to Nick Akerman, a New York lawyer who specializes in trade secret cases, “It’s amazing how

poorly most companies [protect their trade secrets].” [11]

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After being caught, Pani faced charges in federal court for trade secret theft, with a possible prison term of

ten years. He pleaded innocent, maintaining that he downloaded the material for his wife to use. She was

an Intel employee at the time and had no plans to leave.

QUE STIONS

1. Can the fact that Pani got the information so easily be used to build an ethical case that what he did

wasn’t wrong? If not, why not? If so, what does the case look like?

2. Ethically, does it matter whether Pani was a key author of the taken documents? Why or why not?

3. According to the article, a lot of people do what Pani did. Is that a justification for his action? Explain.

4. Did Pani have a responsibility to formally end his employment status with Intel before joining AMD, or is it

OK for him to be vacationing from Intel while working at AMD? Whose interests need to be considered to

answer this question thoroughly?

5. As James Carlini, a professor at Northwestern University, points out in an essay, [12] it is accepted wisdom

in the world of business ethics that employees leaving a company ought to provide two-week’ notice to

employers. Use the Pani case to make the argument that employees should notify employers that they’re

leaving only at the last moment.

6. Pani left Intel after receiving a poor job review. Probably he was mad about that. From a utilitarian

perspective—one that defines the ethical good as the greatest good for the greatest number over the long

haul—would Pani have acted more ethically had he stormed into his boss’s office and screamed at the guy

and quit instead of biting his tongue, getting a job elsewhere, and doing what he did? Explain.

 [1] Ben Montgomery, “TV Chef Spiced Up His Past Exploits,” St. Petersburg Times, February 17, 2008, accessed May

17, 2011,http://www.sptimes.com/2008/02/17/Southpinellas/TV_chef_spiced_up_his.shtml.

 [2] Fakeresume.com accessed May 17, 2011, http://fakeresume.com.

 [3] Fenny L., April 7, 2009, “Searching for good upholstery shop in MD,” accessed May 17,

2011, http://www.yelp.com/topic/gaithersburg-searching-for-good-upholstery- shop-in-md.

 [4] Fenny L., April 17, 2009, “Ethics of Inmate Wages,” accessed May 17,

2011,http://www.yelp.com/topic/washington-ethics-of-inmate-wages.

 [5] “21 Dirty Tricks,” The Gautrey Group, accessed May 17, 2011,http://www.siccg.com/fre/DirtyTricks.php.

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[6] Lola Ogunnaike, “Beyoncé’s Second Date with Destiny’s Child,” New York Times, November 14, 2004, accessed

May 17, 2011,http://www.nytimes.com/2004/11/14/arts/music/14ogun.html?_r=1.

 [7] Lola Ogunnaike, “Beyoncé’s Second Date with Destiny’s Child,” New York Times, November 14, 2004, accessed

May 17, 2011,http://www.nytimes.com/2004/11/14/arts/music/14ogun.html?_r=1.

 [8] “Destiny’s Child—Say My Name,” YouTube video, 4:00, posted by “DestinysChildVEVO,” October 25,

2009, http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=sQgd6MccwZc.

 [9] “Beyoncé—Single Ladies (Put a Ring on It),” YouTube video, 3:19, posted by “beyonceVEVO,” October 2,

2009, http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=4m1EFMoRFvY.

 [10] Michael Orey, “Lessons from Intel’s Trade-Secret Case,” Bloomberg Businessweek, November 18, 2008,

accessed May 17,

2011,http://www.businessweek.com/print/technology/content/nov2008/tc20081118_067329.htm.

 [11] Michael Orey, “Lessons from Intel’s Trade-Secret Case,” Bloomberg Businessweek, November 18, 2008,

accessed May 17,

2011,http://www.businessweek.com/print/technology/content/nov2008/tc20081118_067329.htm.

[12] James Carlini, “Ready to Leave? Why You Shouldn’t Give Two Weeks’ Notice,” WTN News, April 27, 2005,

accessed May 17, 2011, http://wistechnology.com/articles/1757.

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Chapter 7

Employee’s Ethics: Making the Best of the Job You

Have as You Get from 9 to 5

Chapter Overview

Chapter 7 “Employee’s Ethics: Making the Best of the Job You Have as You Get from 9 to 5” examines

some ethical decisions facing employees. It considers the values guiding choices made over the course of a

workday.

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7.1 Taking Advantage of the Advantages: Gifts, Bribes, and

Kickbacks

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Define a conflict of interest.

2. Show how gifts in the business world may create conflicts of interest.

3. Delineate standard practices for dealing with gifts.

4. Consider how receiving gifts connected with work may be managed ethically.

5. Define bribes and kickbacks in relation to gifts.

6. Show how the ethics of bribes and kickbacks can be managed inside the ethics of gifts.

Living the High Life

If you’re young, looking for work, and headed toward a big city (especially New York), then you could do a

lot worse than landing a job as a media buyer for an advertising agency. According to an article in New

York magazine, it’s working out well for twenty-four-year-old Chris Foreman, and it’s working out despite

a salary so measly that he can’t afford his own place, a ticket to a movie, or even to add meat to his

homemade spaghetti. [1]

This is what makes the job click for Foreman: as a media buyer, he oversees where big companies like

AT&T place their advertisements. And because those ads mean serious money—a full page in a glossy,

top-flight magazine costs about five times what Foreman earns in a year—the magazines line up to throw

the good life at him. Thanks to the generosity of Forbes magazine, for example, Foreman spends the

occasional evening on the company’s vast Highlander yacht; he drinks alcohol almost as old as he is,

munches exquisite hors d’oeuvres, and issues orders to white-suited waiters. While guests arrive and

depart by helicopter, Foreman hobnobs with people the rest of us see only on movie screens. A scan of the

Highlander guest book turns up not just celebrities but serious power too: Margaret Thatcher was a guest

once.

A night on the Highlander is a good one, but it’s far from the only event lighting up Foreman’s glitzy life. A

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expenses-paid ski weekend (worth almost $1,000, in Foreman’s estimation); tickets to see Serena

Williams at the US Open ($75 each); invites to the Sports Illustrated Swimsuit Issue party, where he

chatted with Heidi Klum and Rebecca Romijn-Stamos; prime seats for sold-out Bruce Springsteen

concerts ($500 each); dinners at Cité, Sparks, Il Mulino, Maloney & Porcelli, and Monkey Bar, to name a

few of his favorites ($100 a pop).

Foreman observes the irony of his life: “It’s kind of crazy, I had dinner at Nobu on Monday [the kind of

restaurant few can afford, even if they’re able to get a reservation], but I don’t have enough money to buy

socks.” [2]

The Highlander’s spectacularly wealthy owner is Steve Forbes. If he invites former British Prime Minister

Margaret Thatcher aboard for a holiday weekend, you can understand why: she’s not just an interesting

person; she’s living history. Serena Williams would be an interesting guest, too, in her way. The same goes

for Heidi Klum and Ms. Romijn-Stamos, in a different way. What they all have in common, though, is that

you know exactly what they’ve got, and why a guy with a big bank account would treat them to an evening.

But what, exactly, does Mr. Forbes expect to get in return for inviting media buyer Chris Foreman? The

answer: “We media buyers are the gatekeepers—no one at AT&T actually purchases the ads. If at the end

of a buying cycle, your budget has an extra $200,000, you’ll throw it back to the person who treated you

best.” [3]

The answer, in a word, is money.

What’s Wrong with Gifts and Entertainment?

The fundamental problem with the gifts Foreman received and the free entertainment he enjoyed is that

they create a conflict of interest, a conflict between professional obligations and personal welfare. As a

paid media buyer, it’s Foreman’s job and obligation to buy ads in the magazines that will do his clients the

most good, that’ll deliver the biggest bang for the buck. But against that, as a single twenty-four-year-old

guy in New York City, it’s in his personal interest to purchase ads in Forbes magazine since that probably

gets him invited back to the Highlander with its free drinks, exquisite dinners, and, if he’s lucky, some face

time with women he’s already seen quite a bit of in Sports Illustrated. This is a tough spot, and there are

two broad ways it can play out:

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1. Foreman can do the parties at night, go home, sleep, wake up with a clear head, and buy the best ads for

his client. Let’s say the advertising money he’s spending belongs to AT&T and they’re trying to attract new

clients in the forty-five to fifty-five demographic of heavy cell phone users. He takes that target, checks to

see what magazine those people like to read more than any other, and buys a full pager there. If the

magazine happens to be Forbes, great, if not, then Forbes doesn’t get anything back for its party. In this

case, Foreman knows he’s done right by AT&T and his employer. To the best of his ability, he guided

advertising money to the spot where it’ll do the most good. There remains a potential problem here,

however, which is the appearance of a conflict of interest. Even though Foreman didn’t let the parties

affect his judgment, someone looking at the whole thing from outside might well suspect he did if it

happens that Forbes gets the ad buy. This will be returned to later on in this chapter.

2. The darker possibility is that Forbes isn’t the best media buy, but they get the ad anyway because

Foreman wants to keep boarding the Highlander. In this case, Foreman is serving his own interest but

failing his obligations to his employer and to his client.

In pure ethical terms, the problem with the second possibility, with selling out the client, can be reduced

to an accusation of lying. When Foreman or any employee signs up for a job, shows up for work, and then

accepts a paycheck, they’re promising to be an agent for the organization, which is formally defined in

commercial law as someone acting on behalf of the organization and its interests. In some situations it

can be difficult to define exactly what those interests are, but in Foreman’s it’s not. He does well for his

employer when he gives the clients the best advice possible about spending their advertising dollars.

That’s his promise and he’s not fulfilling it.

Redoubling the argument, in the case of the typical media buyer, there’s probably also an explicit clause in

the employment contract demanding that all media advice be objective and uncorrupted by personal

interest. Even without that formal step, however, the shortest route to an ethical condemnation of buying

ads because a night on the Highlander (or some other gift) has been received is to underline that the act

turns the media purchaser into a liar. It makes him or her dishonest every time they come into work

because they’re not providing the objective and impartial advice they promise.

In discussing conflicts of interests, it’s important to keep in mind that those who find themselves caught

up in one haven’t necessarily been corrupted. Just because Foreman finds himself torn between giving

impartial advice to his client and giving the advice that gets him good parties doesn’t mean his judgment

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is poisoned. That said, it’s extremely difficult to walk away from a conflict of interest unstained: any time

serious gifts or rich entertainment gets injected into a business relationship, suspicious questions about

professionalism are going to seep in too.

Finally, there are two broad ways of dealing with gifts, especially those creating conflicts of interest. They

can be flatly refused, or rules can be formulated for accepting them responsibly.

Refusing Gifts and Entertainment

One way to avoid the gift and conflict of interest problem altogether for Chris Foreman or anyone in a

similar situation is to simply refuse any gifts from business partners. Far more frequently than private

businesses, government organizations take this route. The approach’s advantage, obviously, is that it

wipes out the entire question of wrongdoing. The disadvantage, however, is that it dehumanizes work; it

seems to forbid many simple and perfectly appropriate gestures of human interaction.

Here’s an example of what can happen when efforts to eradicate conflicting interests go to the extreme:

it’s from a New York Times front-pager about the state governor:

Governor David A. Paterson violated state ethics laws when he secured free tickets to the opening

game of the World Series from the Yankees last fall for himself and others, the New York State

Commission on Public Integrity charged on Wednesday. [4]

So, the governor is in trouble because he got some tickets to watch his home team play in the baseball

championship? That’s going to make Chris Foreman’s head swim. Without getting into the details of the

Paterson case, accepting these tickets doesn’t seem like a huge transgression, especially for someone

whose job pays well and is already packed with gala events of all kinds. It’s not as though, in other words,

Peterson’s going to be blown away by the generosity or become dependent on it. In the case of Foreman

who could barely afford to eat, it’s reasonable to suspect that he may come to rely on his occasional trip to

the Highlander, but it just doesn’t seem likely that the governor’s judgment and ability to fulfill

professional obligations are going to be distorted by the gift provided by the New York Yankees baseball

club. More, as the state’s elected leader, a case could probably be made that the governor actually had a

professional responsibility to show up and root for the home team (as long as the visitors aren’t the Mets).

As a final note, since the now former governor is legally blind, the value of the gift seems limited since he

couldn’t actually see the game he attended.

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Despite this case’s apparent frivolity, the general practice of eliminating conflict of interest concerns by

simply banning gifts can be justified. It can be because so many gifts, just by existing, create the

appearance of a conflict of interest. An appearance of conflict exists when a reasonable person looking at

the situation from outside (and without personal knowledge of anyone involved) will conclude from the

circumstances that the employee’s ability to perform his or her duties may be compromised by personal

interest. This is different from an actual conflict because when there’s really conflict, the

individual feels torn between professional obligations and personal welfare. Almost certainly, Foreman

was tempted to help out Forbes because he really liked the parties. But the case of Governor Paterson

presents only the appearance of a conflict of interest because we don’t know whether he even wanted the

tickets to the Yankees game. Given the fact that he’s blind, he may well have preferred staying home that

night. Still, for those of us who can’t know his true feelings, it does seem as though there might,

potentially, be some incentive for Paterson to return the Yankee favor and provide them some special

advantage. It’s almost certain that at some time in the future, the baseball club will have an issue up for

debate by the state government (perhaps involving the construction of a stadium or maybe just a license

to sell beer inside the one they currently have), and as soon as that happens, the appearance of conflict is

there because maybe Paterson’s response will be colored by the tickets he got.

Conclusion. Refusing to accept any gifts from business associates is a reasonable way of dealing with the

ethical dilemma of conflicting interests. By cutting the problem off at the roots—by eliminating not only

conflicts but the appearance of them—we can go forward with confidence that a worker’s promise to

represent the organization faithfully is uncorrupted by the strategic generosity of others.

What Other Remedies Are Available for Conflict of Interest Problems Stemming

from Gifts?

Categorically refusing gifts may be recommendable in some cases, but in most economic situations a total

ban isn’t realistic. People make business arrangements the same way they make friendships and romance

and most other social things—that mean invitations to the Highlander if you’re lucky, or just to a few

Budweiser’s in the hotel bar. And if you turn everyone down every time, it’s probably going to dampen

your professional relationships; you may even lose the chance to get things done because someone else

will win the contract between drinks.

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So where does the line get drawn for accepting gifts with ethical justification? Whether you happen to be a

renowned politician in a large state or someone just out of school trying to make a go of it in the world,

there are a number of midpoints between Governor Paterson’s obligation to refuse tickets to a game he

couldn’t see anyway and Chris Foreman’s raucous partying on the Highlander. Three of the most common

midpoints are

1. transparency,

2. recusal,

3. organizational codes.

REVIEW QUE STIONS
1. Why might someone’s social skills be considered a factor in receiving a promotion?
2. What are some advantages and disadvantages of seniority promotion?
3. Why might a promotion be based on projected performance?
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[1] Maya, “Alcohol: Income Booster?,” Monster (blog), September 20, 2006, accessed May 24,
2011, http://monster.typepad.com/monsterblog/2006/09/alcohol_ income_.html.
[2] Bethany L. Peters and Edward Stringham, “No Booze? You May Lose,” Reason Foundation, September 1, 2006,
accessed May 24, 2011,http://reason.org/news/show/127594.html.
[3] Bethany L. Peters and Edward Stringham, “No Booze? You May Lose,” Reason Foundation, September 1, 2006,
accessed May 24, 2011,http://reason.org/news/show/127594.html.
[4] Maya, “Alcohol: Income Booster?,” Monster (blog), September 20, 2006, accessed May 24,
2011, http://monster.typepad.com/monsterblog/2006/09/alcohol_ income_.html.
[5] Deloitte Consulting: WetFeet Insider Guide (San Francisco: WetFeet), accessed May 24,
2011, http://www.wellesley.edu/Activities/homepage/consultingclub/wetfeet%20-%20deloitte_consulting.pdf.
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8.4 Firing
L EARNING OBJECTIVE S
1. Define legal guidelines on firing employees.
2. Elaborate justifiable reasons for deciding to fire.
3. Set standards for the actual firing process.
4. Consider ways of limiting the need to terminate employees.
Optimal Level Firing
A study funded by the CATO Institute and titled “The Federal Government Should Increase Firing Rate”
concludes this way: “The rate of ‘involuntary separations’ is only about one-fourth as high in the federal
government as in the private sector. No doubt private-sector firing is below optimal as well since firms are
under threat of expensive wrongful discharge lawsuits.” [1]
There is, in other words, an optimal level for firing, and in both the public and private sectors it’s not
being met. People aren’t being fired enough.
The strictly economic question here is, “What is the optimal firing level?” No matter the answer, there’s an
ethical implication for the workplace: firing workers is a positive skill. For managers to perform well—for
them to serve the interest of their enterprise by maximizing workplace performance—the skills of
discharging employees must be honed and applied just like those of hiring and promoting.
On the ethical front, these are the basic questions:
 When can an employee be fired?
 When should an employee be fired?
 How should an employee be fired once the decision’s been made?
 What steps can management take to support workers in a world where firing is inevitable?
When Can an Employee Be Fired?
In the world of for-profit companies, most work contracts offer at-will employment. Within this scheme, a
clause is written into the contract offering employment only as long as the employer desires. Stated more
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aggressively, managers may discharge an employee whenever they wish and for whatever reason. Here’s a
standard version of the contractual language:
This is an “At Will” employment agreement. Nothing in Employer’s policies, actions, or this
document shall be construed to alter the “At Will” nature of Employee’s status with Employer,
and Employee understands that Employer may terminate his/her employment at any time for
any reason or for no reason, provided it is not terminated in violation of state or federal law.
The legal parameters for firing seem clear.
Things blur, however, once reality hits. As the Cato study authors note, simply the fear of a possible
lawsuit does impinge to some extent on the freedom to fire, especially when the discharged worker fits
into a protected group. This means older workers, foreigners, or disabled workers may protest that no
matter what reasons are given for termination—assuming some are given—the real reason is their age,
nationality, or disability. Further, gender protection may be claimed by women fired from largely male
companies and vice versa.
Another round of blurring occurs on the state level where legislation sometimes adds specific employee
protections, and so curtails employers’ rights. In Minnesota, for example, firing may not be based on a
worker’s participation in union activities or the performance of jury duty.
These varied and frequently changing legal protections are the reason managers are typically instructed to
keep detailed records of employee performance. If those can be produced to show a pattern of
incompetence or simply inadequate results, they can justify a dismissal before a judge, if it ever comes to
that.
Even though legal complexities mean managers are well advised to be careful about firing workers, and
it’s prudent to be sure that there are directly work-related reasons for the dismissal, none of that changes
the fact that at-will hiring gives wide latitude to the company, and fired workers are typically left with few
good avenues of protest. One way to see how tilted the table is toward the employer and away from the
employee is to compare the American at-will firing system with the European model, where a reasonable
cause for termination must be demonstrated. In the United States, employers may more or less fire
anyone for any reason, and the burden of showing the termination was illegal or unfair falls entirely on
the worker. In Europe, by contrast, the legal burden falls largely on the employer. Instead of the worker
having to show the firing was wrong, now the company has to show the firing was right. This is a big deal.
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It’s like the difference between innocent until proven guilty and guilty until proven
innocent. Just because firing means the company holds the burden of proof: it must demonstrate that the
worker wasn’t holding up his or her end of the employment contract. That’s a lot harder to do than just
producing some work evaluations to buttress the claim that she wasn’t fired because she’s Jewish or he
wasn’t let go because he’s Asian. As opposed to the European reality, the conclusion is, employees in the
United States hired at will have little recourse against a company that wants them out.
Finally, it’s worth noting that elements of just cause law have been working their way into the American
legal system in recent years.
When Should an Employee Be Fired?
Because the legal footing is usually more or less solid for American managers, the real hard questions
about terminating employees aren’t legal ones about what can’t be done but ethical ones about what
should be done.
Sometimes firing is unavoidable. Economic slowdowns frequently bring furloughs and terminations.
When the company’s books turn red, and after the entire easy cost cutting has been done, people need to
be cut. Who? There are three broad philosophies:
1. Inverted seniority
2. Workload
3. Recovery preparation
Inverted Seniority occurs when the last worker hired is the first released. This works especially well for
assembly-line-type labor where one worker can replace another easily. As long as replacement is possible,
dismissing the most recently hired allows clear and impersonal rules to make downsizing orderly.
Workload firings focus the pain of job cuts on that part of the company suffering most directly from a
falloff in business. An office furniture supply company may find its line of hospital products unaffected by
an economic downturn (people keep getting sick even if they don’t have a job) so layoffs are taken from
other divisions. This may mean losing workers with higher seniority or better job performance, but it
minimizes cash-flow disruption.
Recovery preparation takes the long view on an economic slowdown: firings and layoffs are executed not
so much to compensate for the present downturn but to sharpen the company for success when the
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economy bounces back. Staying with the office furniture supply company, the owner may see better longterm
opportunities for profits in the nonhospital units, so the downsizing may occur across the board. The
idea is to keep those slow-moving units at least minimally prepared to meet new demand when it
eventually comes.
Sometimes economic slowdowns don’t reflect a problem with the larger economy, they’re the result
of fundamental changes in the market, frequently brought on by technological advance. For example, the
popularization of digital photography has shrunk the market for old fashioned film. Seeing this coming,
what can a company like Kodak do? They’re probably going to let workers from the old film side go to
create room for new hires in the digital division. This is potentially unfair to terminated workers because
they may be doing exemplary work. Still, it would be unfair—and financially disastrous—to the company
as a whole to not change with the times.
Rank and yank is a management philosophy promoted by former General Electric Company CEO Jack
Welch. Every year, he counsels, the entire workforce should be ranked and the bottom 10 percent
(“There’s no way to sugarcoat this,” he says) should be fired to make room for new employees who may be
able to perform at a higher level. Here, the responsibility to the company is being weighed far heavier than
the one to the employee because, theoretically at least, those in the bottom 10 percent may be doing fine
on the job—fulfilling their responsibilities adequately—it’s just that others out there who could be hired to
replace them may do it better. In the hope they will, workers who’ve done nothing wrong are sacrificed. [2]
There are two main criticisms of this practice. First, it’s a betrayal of employees who are fulfilling their
contractual obligations (they’re just not over performing as well as others). Second, it’s counterproductive
because it lowers morale by drowning workers in the fear that even though they’re doing what’s being
asked, they may end up in that dreaded bottom 10 percent.
Employee misbehavior is the least controversial reason to fire a worker. Here, the ethics are relatively
clear. Employees aren’t being mistreated when they’re dismissed because it’s their own actions that lead
to their end. Standard definitions of misbehavior include
 rudeness toward clients or customers,
 drinking or drugs on the job,
 theft of company property or using company property for personal business,
 frequent and unexplained absences from work,
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 entering false information on records,
 gross insubordination,
 fighting or other physical aggression,
 harassment of others (sexual, sexual orientation, religious, racial, and similar).
How Should an Employee Be Fired Once the Decision’s Been Made?
At the Friday all-staff meeting the office manager stands up to announce, “The good news is the following
people have not been fired!” He reads a list of seventeen names. There are nineteen people at the meeting.
That’s from a (perhaps unemployed) comic’s stand-up routine. Unfortunately, people have written into
the CNNMoney.com with real stories that aren’t so far removed:
 An employee received news of her firing in a curt letter delivered to her home by FedEx.
 A man tells of being halted at the building door by security and being humiliatingly sent away.
 People report that they arrived at their office to find the lock changed and their stuff thrown in a box
sitting on the floor. [3]
All these are inhumane firings in the sense that no flesh and blood person took the trouble to present the
bad news.
It’s easy to understand why inhumane firings occur: not many people enjoy sitting down with someone
and telling them they’re out. So it’s tempting to yield to cowardice. Instead of facing the worker you’ve
fired, just drop a note, change the lock, and talk to security. On the ethical level, however, firing an
employee is no different from working with an employee: as a manager, you must balance your duties to
the company and the worker.
How can the manager’s duty to the organization be satisfied when terminating a worker? First, to the
extent possible, the fired person should leave with a positive impression of the organization. That means
treating the employee with respect. No mailed notices of termination, no embarrassing lockouts, just a
direct, eye-to-eye explanation are probably the most reliable rule of thumb.
Second, the terminated employee should not be allowed to disrupt the continued work of those who
remain. If deemed necessary, security personnel should be present to ensure the ex-worker leaves the
premises promptly. Also, if the worker is involved in larger projects, a time for severance should be found
when their contribution is minimal so that other members of the team will be able to carry on near
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normally. (It may be recommendable to arrange the termination to coincide with the finishing of a larger
project so that everyone may start fresh with the new, substitute employee.)
Third, the financial costs of the termination should be minimized. This means having clear reasons for the
termination and documents (pertaining to worker performance or behavior) supporting the reasons to
guard against lawsuits. Also, there should be clear understandings and prompt payment of wages for work
done, as well as reimbursements for travel expenses and the full satisfaction of all monetary obligations to
the employee. This will allow the human resources department to close the file.
With duties to the company covered, how can the manager’s duty to the employee be satisfied?
Consultants—both legal and ethical—typically share some bullet-point answers. First, the employee
should be addressed honestly and directly with a clear explanation for termination. Speak firmly, the
advice is; don’t waver or provide any kind of false hope. Further, the termination should not come as a
total surprise. Previous and clear indications should have been given concerning employee performance
along with specific directions as to what areas require improvement. Many companies institute a structure
of written warnings that clearly explain what the employee’s job is and why their work is not meeting
expectations.
Second, getting fired is embarrassing, and steps should be taken to minimize the humiliation. The
employee should be the first to know about the discharge. Also, the severance should occur in a private
meeting, not in view of other workers. To the extent possible, the employee should have an opportunity to
say good-bye to workmates or, if this is the preference, to leave discreetly. For this reason, a meeting late
in the day may be chosen as the appropriate time for notice to be given.
Third, to the extent possible and within the boundaries of the truth, an offer should be extended to
provide a recommendation for another job.
Fourth, make sure the employee gets all the money coming for work done, without having to jump
through hoops.
What Steps Can Management Take to Support Workers in a World Where Firing
Is Inevitable?
One response to the inescapable reality that firing happens is preemptive; it’s to reduce the moral
uncertainty and hardship before they arise. Two strategies serve this purpose: actions can be
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implemented to minimize the occasions when firing will be necessary, and steps can be taken to reduce
the severity of the firing experience for employees when it happens.
In her book Men and Women of the Corporation, Rosabeth Moss Kanter generates a list of measures that
corporations use to diminish firings, and reduce the professional impact for those who are let go. Here’s
an abbreviated selection of her recommendations, along with a few additions:
 Recruit for the potential to increase competence, not simply for narrow skills to fill today’s slots.
 Rotate assignments: allow workers to expand their competence.
 Retrain employees instead of firing them.
 Offer learning opportunities and seminars in work-related fields.
 Subsidize employee trips to work-related conferences and meetings.
 Provide educational sabbaticals for employees who want to return to school.
 Encourage independence and entrepreneurship: turn every employee into a self-guided professional.
 Keep employees informed of management decisions concerning the direction of the company: What units
are more and less profitable? Which ones will grow? Which may shrink?
 Ensure that pensions and benefits are portable. [4]
KEY TAKEAWAYS
 At-will firing grants employers broad legal latitude to discharge employees, but it does not erase ethical
concerns.
 Justifiable worker firings include cases where workers bear none, some, or all of the blame for the
discharge.
 The act of firing a worker requires managers to weigh responsibilities to the organization and to the exemployee.
 Steps can be taken to limit the need for, and effects of, employee discharge.
REVIEW QUE STIONS
1. What’s the difference between at-will and just cause firing?
2. How might fundamental changes in the marketplace require a company to fire workers?
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3. What is rank and yank?
4. When managers fire employees, what duties do they hold to the organization, and what are the duties to
the dismissed worker?
5. What are some steps organizations can take to protect their workers from the effects of discharge if firing
becomes necessary?
[1] Chris Edwards and Tad DeHaven, “Federal Government Should Increase Firing Rate,” Cato Institute, Tax and
Budget, no. 10 (November 2002), accessed May 24, 2011,http://www.cato.org/pubs/tbb/tbb-0211-10.pdf.
[2] Allan Murray, “Should I Rank My Employees?,” Wall Street Journal, accessed May 24,
2011, http://guides.wsj.com/management/recruiting-hiring-and-firing/should-i- rank-my-employees.
[3] “Worst Ways to Get Fired,” CNNMoney.com, September 6, 2006, accessed May 24,
2011, http://money.cnn.com/blogs/yourturn/2006/09/worst-ways-to-get-fired.html.
[4] List adapted from Rosabeth Moss Kanter, Men and Women of the Corporation (New York: Basic Books, 1993),
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8.5 Case Studies
Fashionable
Source: Photo courtesy of Ralph Aichinger, http://www.flickr.com/photos/sooperkuh/3275153928/.
In her blog Love This, MJ (full name not provided) relates that she’s been an aspiring clothes designer
since she started sewing tops for her Barbie dolls. Things weren’t going well, though, as she tries to break
into the industry. One thing she notices is that there aren’t a lot of female fashion designers out there—
Vera Wang, Betsey Johnson, and a few more. Not many. So she starts trying to figure it out with questions
like these:
 Do women want straight guy designers to dress them because they dress to please the men? It could make
sense: what that designer likes, the man in her life is going to love too.
 Do women prefer gay men to dress them because gay men are their new girlfriends? Gay men are usually
more receptive to trends and physical appearances too.
 Do women prefer women designers because she knows a woman’s body better?
 Do men have the same issue? Do some men prefer a lesbian designer? Would they balk at being dressed
by a gay designer? [1]
QUE STIONS
1. Assume MJ is right when she hypothesizes that most women like straight male designers because straight
guys are the ones they’re trying to impress, so they want clothes straight guys like. Now imagine you’ve
been put in charge of a new line of women’s clothes. Your number one task: sales success. You’ve got five
applicants for the job of designing the line. Of course you could just ask them all about their sexual
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orientation(s), but that might leave you open to a discrimination lawsuit. So could you devise a test for
new applicants that’s fair—that gives everyone an equal chance—but still meets your requirement of
finding someone who produces clothes that straight guys get excited about?
2. Four standard filters for job applicants are
o education level,
o high-risk lifestyle,
o criminal record,
o flamboyant presence in social media.
Which of these might be used to winnow out applications for a job as a clothes designer? Explain
in ethical terms.
3. MJ wonders whether women might prefer women designers because she knows a woman’s body better. Is
there a bona fide occupational qualification for a women’s fashion company to hire only women
designers? Is there a difference between a BFOQ based on sex and one based on sexual orientation?
4. MJ asks, “Do women prefer gay men to dress them because gay men are their new girlfriends?” Assume
you think there’s something to this. Could you design a few behavioral interview questions that test the
applicants’ ability to become girlfriends (in the sense that MJ means it) with their clients? Would these be
ethically acceptable interviews, or do you believe there’s something wrong and unfair about them?
God at Work
Source: Photo courtesy of Geoff Stearns, http://www.flickr.com/photos/tensafefrogs/1523795/.
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The University of Charleston is a private, nonreligious institution with a very particular job opening: the
Herchiel and Elizabeth Sims “In God We Trust” Chair in Ethics. According to the job description, the
successful candidate for this job as a professor “must embrace a belief in God and present moral and
ethical values from a God-centered perspective.” [2]
QUE STIONS
1. You’re in charge of getting applicants for this post and you’ve got a small advertising budget. What ethical
responsibilities should you consider when determining where to place the ad? How broadly should you
advertise the position?
2. According to Erwin Chemerinsky, a law professor at Duke University, “The description that
‘candidates must embrace a belief in God and present moral and ethical values from a Godcentered
perspective,’ violates the Civil Rights Act as religious discrimination in
employment.” [3] Imagine you’re in charge of every step of the process of filling this job. How
could you respond in terms of
o bona fide occupational qualifications (BFOQs),
o testing,
o interviewing?
3. You’re the university president. The person who currently holds the In God We Trust
Professorship has, by all accounts, been doing a mediocre to poor (but not directly unacceptable)
job. One day you happen to trip across the person’s blog page and notice that your professor
claims to be a sadist and practices a mild form of devil worship (also, the prof’s favorite movie
is The Omen). Right now the In God We Trust Professor of ethics is down the hall lecturing to
seventy-five undergrads. You sneak to the door and listen from outside. The professor sounds just
like always: dull and passionless, but the talk is about the Bible, and nothing’s being said that
seems out of line with the job description. Still, you decide to terminate the relationship.
o In a pure at-will working environment, you can just fire the professor. But imagine you want to
demonstrate just cause. How does this change the way you approach the situation? What would
your just causes be?
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o The professor’s classes are passionless because he doesn’t believe in what he’s teaching. Still, his
teachings are not directly wrong. Does this case show why a manager may be ethically required in
certain situations to implement a strategy of rank and yank? Explain.
Testing Baseball Players’ DNA
Source: Photo courtesy of katkimchee,http://www.flickr.com/photos/midwestkimchee/206762729/.
The New York Times reports that there’s a “huge difference between sixteen and nineteen years old,”
when you’re talking about prospects for professional baseball. A kid whose skills knock your socks off for a
sixteen-year-old just looks modestly good when he practices with nineteen-year-olds. [4]
This is a significant problem in the Dominican Republic, which produces excellent baseball players but
little in the way of reliable paperwork proving who people really are and when they were born. The
Cleveland Indians learned all about that when they gave a $575,000 bonus to a seventeen-year-old
Dominican named Jose Ozoria, only to later find out he was actually a twenty-year-old named Wally
Bryan.
This and similar cases of misidentification explain why baseball teams are starting to apply genetic tests to
the prospects they’re scouting. Typically, the player is invited to provide a DNA sample from himself and
his parents to confirm that he’s no older than he claims. The player pays for the test and is reimbursed if
the results show he was telling the truth.
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QUE STIONS
1. Many experts in genetics consider testing an unethical violation of personal privacy.
o What does it mean to “violate personal privacy”?
o Can a utilitarian argument (the greatest good for the greatest number should be sought) in favor
of DNA testing in the Dominican Republic be mounted? What could it look like?
2. In the baseball world, other tests that clearly are allowed as part of the hiring process include testing a
player’s strength and speed. Is there anything in the fair application of these tests that may ethically
allow—even require—that baseball teams extract DNA to confirm the age?
3. Assume you accept that testing a prospect’s age is a bona fide occupational qualification (after all,
the job is to be a prospect: a developing player, not an adult one). Once you accept that, how do
you draw the line? Couldn’t teams be tempted to use DNA facts for other purposes?
The Times article interviews a coach who puts it this way:
I know [the baseball teams taking the DNA samples] are looking into trying to figure out
susceptibility to injuries, things like that. If they come up with a test that shows someone’s
connective tissue is at a high risk of not holding up, can that be used? I don’t know. [5]
Can you formulate an ethical argument in favor of teams secretly using DNA tests to do just that,
check for as many yellow and red flags as possible in the young prospect’s genetic code?
4. Baseball scouting—the job of hiring excellent future players and screening out mediocre ones—is very
competitive. Those who do it well are paid well; those who don’t are cycled out quickly to make room for
someone else. You have the job, you have the DNA sample. What do you do? Why?
5. You decide to do the test in question four. The problem is people aren’t trees; you can’t age them
just by counting genetic rings—you also need to do some cross-testing with the parents’ DNA. You
do that and run into a surprise: it turns out that the young prospect’s father who’s so proud of his
athletic son isn’t the biological dad. Now what?
o Is there an argument here against DNA testing, period? What is it?
o Remember, the family paid for the test. Do you have a responsibility to give them these results?
Explain.
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6. Lou Gehrig was the first athlete ever to appear on a box of Wheaties. From 1925 to 1939 he played for the
Yankees in every game: 2,130 straight appearances, a record that lasted more than fifty years. He was
voted into the baseball Hall of Fame in 1939. He died in 1941 from a genetic disorder—yes, Lou Gehrig’s
disease—that today’s DNA tests would identify. Is there an ethical argument here against DNA testing of
prospects or one in favor? Or is the argument about this more theoretical—should the rules be decided
regardless of what has actually happened at some time or place? Explain.
7. In a different sport, the sprinter Caster Semenya won the world eight-hundred-meter challenge in 2009
with a time that few men could equal. She looked, in fact, vaguely like a man, which led the International
Athletics Federation to run a genetic gender test. She is, it turns out, neither a woman nor a man; she’s a
hermaphrodite: a little bit of both. Does the fact that genetic tests don’t always return clean, black-andwhite
results make their use less advisable from an ethical perspective? Why or why not?
Windfall at Goldman
Source: Photo courtesy of Manuel Cernuda, http://www.flickr.com/photos/melkorcete/180238980/.
Goldman Sachs is an expansive financial services company. Many clients are institutional: private
companies and government organizations wanting to raise cash seek Goldman’s help in packaging and
then selling stock or bonds. On the other side, private investors—wealthy individuals wanting to multiply
their riches—receive a hearty welcome at Goldman because they have the cash to purchase those stocks
and bonds. Ultimately, Goldman Sachs is a hub where large companies, governmental powers, and
wealthy people come and do business together.
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Executives at Goldman Sachs are among the world’s highest paid. According to a New York Times article,
“At the center of Goldman’s lucrative compensation program is the partnership. Goldman’s partners are
its highest executives and its biggest stars. Yet while Goldman is required to report compensation for its
top officers, it releases very little information about this broader group, remaining tightlipped about even
basic information like who is currently a partner.” [6]
The rest of the article investigates this shadowy partnership. The conclusions: “Goldman has almost 860
current and former partners. In the last 12 years, they have cashed out more than $20 billion in Goldman
shares and currently hold more than $10 billion in Goldman stock.”
This tally of accumulated wealth in Goldman stock doesn’t even include the standard salary and cash
bonuses the partners receive, but leaving that aside, here’s the math: $30 billion divided by 860 divided
by 12 should give some sense of the wealth each of these corporate stars is accumulating over the course of
a year. To give a provisional idea of how large the number of dollars is here, when you try plugging $30
billion into an iPhone calculator, you find the screen can’t even hold a number that long. Using a different
calculator yields this result: $2.9 million per partner every year.
The 2.9 million can be compared with the salary earned by the average American: $50,000 a year. The
Goldman partner gets that in less than a week. This huge money explains the clawing fight that goes on
inside Goldman to become a partner. The odds are long. Each time the books are opened to admit a new
class, only 1 of 330 Goldman employees makes the cut. It is, in the words of one former partner, “a very
Darwinian, survival-of-the-fittest firm.”
In the public comments section of the New York Times story about Goldman, a person identified as GHP
picks up on the firm’s characterization as a “Darwinian, survival-of-the-fittest” place. He wrote, “The
French revolution was also very Darwinian, let’s give that a try.” During the French Revolution, the
wealthy and powerful were rewarded with a trip to the guillotine.
Probably, GHP isn’t just annoyed about how much money executives at Goldman make, he, like a lot of
people, is peeved by the fact that the company was bailed out by the federal government during the 2008–
9 financial crisis. Had the taxpayers (people making $50,000) not kicked in, Goldman might’ve gone
bankrupt, and all that money its partners accumulated in stock would’ve vanished. As it happens, the US
government’s bailout was masterminded by US Treasury Secretary Henry Paulson. His previous job was
CEO (and partner) at Goldman.
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QUE STIONS
1. Goldman is dominated by a “Darwinian, survival-of-the-fittest” mentality. What does that mean?
o In ethical terms, how can this mentality be justified?
o Would a company dominated by this mentality, whether it’s Goldman or not, be more likely to
announce job openings to a limited public, or as a massive public announcement? Why?
2. Describe the advantages of a “behavioral interview.” If you were in charge of hiring for a company seeking
employees who flourish in a survival-of-the-fittest environment, what kind of question might you ask in a
behavioral interview? Why?
3. One contributor to the New York Times comments section writes, “There are sure to be lots of
pointed, angry posts about how unfair it is that these guys make so much money etc. But if we are
honest, there is a fair amount of envy and pure remorse that we weren’t bright enough to go
down that path! And these guys are very bright.”
How could these comments be construed to explain why high wages and big bonuses are used by
Goldman to motivate its workers? What is it that makes big money (or the possibility of big
money) function as a powerful motivator to encourage employees to work hard and well?
Ethically, how can this use of big money be justified?
4. One difference between offering an employee a wage increase and offering a bonus is that the
latter doesn’t come automatically the next year. The employee has to earn it from scratch all over
again.
o Why might managers at Goldman award their best workers with a bonus instead of a wage
increase?
o By appeal to an ethical theory, could you make the case that, in general, employees should be
paid mainly through a bonus system? How would the theory work at two extremes: wealthy
Goldman executives and waitresses at a corner diner?
5. Given the kind of work that’s done at Goldman—bringing wealthy people and powerful organizations
together to make deals—why might party aptitude (the ability to mix socially after hours) be considered
when deciding who does and who doesn’t make partner at Goldman? How could that decision be justified
ethically? How could it be criticized ethically?
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6. Make the case that in theoretical terms, managers at Goldman have an ethical responsibility to institute
the process of rank and yank.
The Five O’Clock Club
Source: Photo courtesy of C.P. Storm, http://www.flickr.com/photos/cpstorm/140115572/.
A Washington Post story about firing employees relates that some companies use “the surgical method:
terminations that last about 15 seconds, after which former employees are ushered off company
property.”[7]
It doesn’t have to be that way, though. For about $2,000 per fired employee, the outplacement company
Five O’Clock Club will help employers manage the actual termination moment more compassionately.
Later on, the fired worker receives a year of career coaching to help get back on track.
What do the Five O’Clock Club recommend managers do at the critical moment when giving the bad
news? To answer, according to the Post, they offer a booklet titled How to Terminate Employees While
Respecting Human Dignity, which “asks managers to approach layoffs with the understanding that,
‘unlike facilities and equipment, humans have an intrinsic worth beyond their contribution to the
organization.’” [8]
Then some catchphrases are provided for managers to use:
 George, you’ve been a trooper. I’m sorry that this organization has moved in a different direction.
 George, you have made many good friends here. We hope those friendships will continue.
 George, you have made considerable and long-lasting contributions and they are acknowledged and
appreciated. [9]
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Five O’Clock Club vice president Kim Hall—who downs a lot of Tylenol and coffee on the job—relates
several other phrases that may be helpful:
 I know this is hard, but you’ll get back on your feet.
 The timing could actually work in your favor. A lot of people take vacation in the summer. There’s no
competition for job hunters.
 Maybe this is a chance to begin your dream career. Follow your heart.[10]
In sum, the Five O’Clock Club helps workers feel better when they’re fired, and helps them get on with
their lives. Meanwhile, employers get a hedge against lawsuits. The outplacement service, according to the
Five O’Clock Club literature, “can redirect anger or anxiety away from the organization and…encourage
the newly-fired to sign their severance agreements so they can get on with their lives.” [11]
QUE STIONS
1. The Five O’Clock Club charges $2,000 per firing. If you were fired, would you prefer to receive the
compassionate end the Five O’Clock Club provides, or just get shown the door but also get to keep
that $2,000 for yourself?
o If you’re the boss, do you have the right to decide this for the fired employee? Why or why not?
o If you’re the boss, do you have the responsibility to decide this for the fired employee? Why or
why not?
2. According to the Five O’Clock Club, “Unlike facilities and equipment, humans have an intrinsic
worth beyond their contribution to the organization.”
o Does this sound like utilitarian ethical thinking to you, or is it more in line with the notion of an
ethics guided by basic duties and rights? Why?
o Probably, everyone agrees that humans aren’t just machines that can be installed and replaced.
But can an ethical argument be made to treat people in the workplace as machines—that is, to
abruptly hire them when they’re useful and fire them when they’re not? What ethical theory (or
theories) could help you make the case?
3. In general terms, here are three firing situations:
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o an economic downturn (good workers are sacked because the company can’t afford to keep
them)
o rank and yank (workers are fulfilling their duties but not as well as most of the others)
o misbehavior (a worker is fired directly because of something done or not done)
Looking at these three contexts and the Five O’Clock Club, do you think their services should be
hired in all three situations? Do the ethics of firing change depending on why the person is being
fired? Explain.
4. Recall some of the Five O’Clock Club’s pre-packed firing sentences:
o George, you’ve been a trooper. I’m sorry that this organization has moved in a different direction.
o George, you have made many good friends here. We hope….
o George, you…are acknowledged and appreciated.
o Maybe this is a chance to begin your dream career. Follow your heart.
The contrasting method of firing employees—the surgical method—is to look the person in the
eye, say you’re fired, and have security march the ex-employee out the door, all in less than a
minute.
o Is it possible to make the case that the surgical method is actually more compassionate and
respectful?
o Is there a place for compassion in business? From a manager’s perspective, how should
compassion be defined within a business context?
5. Maybe the Five O’Clock Club gets hired because a company really wants to help and support fired
employees. Or maybe the company doesn’t really care about them; all they want is to avoid wrongful
termination lawsuits. Ethically, does it matter why the company contracts the Five O’Clock Club? Explain.
[1] “Sexual Orientation in the Fashion Industry,” Love This! (blog), accessed May 24,
2011,http://lovethis.wordpress.com/2007/07/28/sexual-orientation-in-the-fashion-industry.
[2] Rob Capriccioso, “Divinely Inspired Bias?,” Higher Ed, March 1, 2006, accessed May 24,
2011, http://www.insidehighered.com/news/2006/03/01/charleston.
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[3] Rob Capriccioso, “Divinely Inspired Bias?,” Higher Ed, March 1, 2006, accessed May 24,
2011, http://www.insidehighered.com/news/2006/03/01/charleston.
[4] Michael S. Schmidt and Alan Schwarz, “Baseball’s Use of DNA Raises Questions,” New York Times, July 21, 2009,
accessed May 24, 2011,http://www.nytimes.com/2009/07/22/sports/baseball/22dna.html?hp.
[5] Michael S. Schmidt and Alan Schwarz, “Baseball’s Use of DNA Raises Questions,” New York Times, July 21, 2009,
accessed May 24, 2011,http://www.nytimes.com/2009/07/22/sports/baseball/22dna.html?hp.
[6] Susanne Craig and Eric Dash, “Study Points to Windfall for Goldman Partners,” New York Times, January 18,
2011, accessed May 24, 2011,http://dealbook.nytimes.com/2011/01/18/study-points-to-windfall-for-goldmanpartners/?
hp.
[7] Eli Saslow, “The Art of Letting Employees Go,” Washington Post, August 9, 2009, accessed May 24,
2011, http://www.washingtonpost.com/wpdyn/
content/article/2009/08/08/AR2009080802659.html?hpid=topnews.
[8] Eli Saslow, “The Art of Letting Employees Go,” Washington Post, August 9, 2009, accessed May 24,
2011, http://www.washingtonpost.com/wpdyn/
content/article/2009/08/08/AR2009080802659.html?hpid=topnews.
[9] Eli Saslow, “The Art of Letting Employees Go,” Washington Post, August 9, 2009, accessed May 24,
2011, http://www.washingtonpost.com/wpdyn/
content/article/2009/08/08/AR2009080802659.html?hpid=topnews.
[10] Eli Saslow, “The Art of Letting Employees Go,” Washington Post, August 9, 2009, accessed May 24,
2011, http://www.washingtonpost.com/wpdyn/
content/article/2009/08/08/AR2009080802659.html?hpid=topnews.
[11] Eli Saslow, “The Art of Letting Employees Go,” Washington Post, August 9, 2009, accessed May 24,
2011, http://www.washingtonpost.com/wpdyn/
content/article/2009/08/08/AR2009080802659.html?hpid=topnews.
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Chapter 9
Manager’s Ethics: Deciding on a Corporate Culture and
Making It Work
Chapter Overview
Chapter 9 “Manager’s Ethics: Deciding on a Corporate Culture and Making It Work” examines some
ethical decisions facing managers. It considers how leaders guide organizations by selecting and then
instilling the specific values and culture that define a workplace.
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9.1 What Is Corporate Culture?
LEARNING OBJECTIVES
1. Define the concept of corporate culture or, more broadly, organizational culture.
2. Learn to recognize and distinguish specific organizational cultures.
3. Consider ways that a culture may be instilled in an organization.
I’m a Mac, and I’m a PC
“I’m a Mac, and I’m a PC” is the first line from a set of advertisements produced for Apple. [1] Two guys
stand in front of a white screen, a step or two apart. The one pretending to be an Apple Macintosh
computer looks a lot like you’d expect the typical Apple computer user to look: casual, young, and cool;
he’s not stressed but certainly alert and thoughtful. He hasn’t had a haircut in a while, but the situation
isn’t out of control. He speaks up for himself without being aggressive. His t-shirt is clean, his jeans
reliable, and his tennis shoes stylish. The PC, on the other hand, can’t relax in a polyester suit that’s a half
size too small, especially for his inflated waistline. Bulky glasses slide down his greasy nose. Short, parted
hair glues to his head. He’s clean, shaven, and very earnest. In one of the commercials, the PC man talks
about the things he does well: calculation, spreadsheets, and pie charts. The Mac responds that he feels
more comfortable helping users make their own movies and organize their music collections.
Underneath these ads there are two very different corporate cultures, two very different kinds of
companies making two very different products even though both sell their machines in the store’s
computer section. Now, because this is advertising and it’s paid for by Apple, we should take the claims
being made with a grain of salt. And, obviously, Apple didn’t air these spots because they wanted to
exhibit their corporate culture. They wanted to sell computers (and hammer the competition in the
process). None of that, however, changes the fact that the commercials do a good job of displaying what a
difference between corporate cultures looks like. It looks like these two guys. They’re both capable and
dedicated, but everything about each of them makes the other one squirm; it’s hard to imagine they could
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work well together because their habits and comportments—everything from how they dress to the way
the talk—is so completely different.
The same can be said about workplaces. It’s easy to imagine a kind of office where PC fits nicely. People
there would wear ties and skirts. They’d be punctual. Their days and working styles would be regimented
and predictable. Employees would have their own cubicle offices, and anyone proposing an “informal
Friday” break from the dress code would be looked on with suspicion. By contrast, Mac would function
well in an open, warehouse-like space with a bike rack out front. Flextime would be common—that is,
people arriving earlier or later in the morning depending on their preference and on the circumstances of
their lives (whether they have children, when they can avoid rush-hour traffic). Regardless of when they
show up, they take responsibility for making sure they log a full workday. The attire would be casual and
diverse. Maybe the boss wears jeans. Some people would probably be annoying others with their loud
music, but everyone would force smiles and be tolerant.
One of the reasons the Apple ad works well is that it resists the temptation to simply say Apple is superior.
Yes, PC is dorky and Apple is cool, but Apple does admit that PC really is better at analytic-type activities
like producing clean spreadsheets. The same mixed findings apply to corporate culture. At the PC office,
the clothes aren’t nearly as comfortable as the ones you find at the Mac place, but at least there aren’t any
guys wearing jeans that fall a little too low over their back end. And the flextime scheduling at Apple may
make for a happier workforce, but only until it happens that a project suddenly arises and needs to be
executed immediately, and one of the key participants has flex-timed and already left for the day. The
other team members are left, that means, to do his share of the work. What about the bike racks outside?
Everyone agrees that it’s great that the Mac people are peddling to work, but only until a morning
thunderstorm pops up and no one can make it to the office. The point is there are advantages and
drawbacks to every corporate culture. It’s hard to say that one is better than another (just like Macs work
for some people while others prefer PCs), but it’s certainly true that there are different value systems
beneath the distinct cultures.
Anyone who has a management role in any organization will be expected to have a grip on what values
guide the enterprise and how they reflect in the day-to-day life of people on the job. Further, some
managers—and all entrepreneurs—will not only need to apply guiding values; they’ll have to select and
create them.
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Definitions of Corporate Culture
Corporate culture is easier to get intuitively than put into words. Because you can’t touch it, measure it, or
take its picture (even though you can show two people in an advertisement who obviously belong to
different corporate cultures), it’s not surprising that there’s no consensus definition attached to the term.
Here are three attempts to put the idea in words. A corporate culture is
 “the shared beliefs top managers have in a company about how they should manage themselves and other
employees, and how they should conduct their business”; [2]
 “the pattern of shared values and beliefs that gives members of an institution meaning and provides them
with rules for behavior in their organization”; [3]
 “a general constellation of beliefs, mores, customs, value systems and behavioral norms, and ways of
doing business that are unique to each corporation, that set a pattern for corporate activities and actions,
and that describe the implicit and emergent patterns of behavior and emotions characterizing life in the
organization.” [4]
There are common threads to these cited definitions and some points that may be added:
 Corporate culture is shared; it’s not like a regulation or a code that’s imposed from some specific place
outside the organization. The culture may begin that way, but once installed, it belongs to all those
participating in the workplace.
 Corporate culture provides guidance. It’s not a potted plant to be looked at; corporate culture tells an
employee that the Daffy Duck necktie is too far out there and should be left in the closet. The pumpkin
necktie, however, is OK as long as we’re coming up on Halloween. Analogously, though more significantly,
it tells a salesman whether it’s OK to flagrantly lie to a customer, to stretch the truth a little, or only to play
it straight.
 Corporate culture provides meaning in the organization; it tells members why they are there. At Goldman
Sachs, the bottom line really is the bottom line: people are there to make money. At Greenpeace, by
contrast, people arrive in the morning to protect the planet, and while it’s true that many receive a
paycheck for their efforts, that’s not the reason they show up for work.
 Corporate culture is top heavy; management carries the heaviest burden. Unlike simple office codes—such
as turning in your expense reports within a week of terminating travel—that apply to people more or less
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uniformly, the burden of understanding and promulgating the organization’s culture falls heavily, though
not exclusively, on the leaders.
 A corporate culture is a constellation of values, a set of ways of seeing the business world.
 The constellation of cultural values is dynamic; everyone involved every day stretches and pushes the
organization’s culture.
 An organization’s culture is organic; it’s born and grows with the organization. It dies there too.
 The organization’s culture includes life values, ones that cross beyond purely business concerns to touch
questions including, “Is it OK to date someone from work?” “Can I cry at my desk?” “Will anyone object if
I have a shouting match with my wife from the telephone in my cubicle?”
This list isn’t exhaustive. It does, however, show how thoroughly corporate culture penetrates the
workday.
What’s My Organization’s Culture?
Managers’ job responsibilities include protecting and promoting their organization’s culture. Fulfilling the
responsibility requires determining exactly what culture lives in the workplace. There’s no secret decoding
mechanism, but there are a number of indicating questions that may be asked. One of the most natural is
to brainstorm associated words. For example, imagine visiting two offices, one filled with people who look
like the Apple Mac from the commercial, and the other with those who’d fit naturally into the office where
PCs are bought and used. Just looking at the commercial and jotting words as they flow might lead to lists
beginning this way:
 On the Apple side: sloppy, fun, warm, loose, careless, resigned, informal, smart, creative, soft-spoken,
controlled, cool, and haughty.
 On the PC side: uptight, formal, reliable, demanding, uncomfortable, determined, perfectionist, detail
oriented, disciplined, unconcerned with appearances, and geeky.
These are short, rapidly composed lists, but they’re developed enough to observe two profiles of work-life
peeking out. You can see that that the Apple office is going to fit closely with values including comfort,
innovation, and independence, while the PC office will be more compatible with values including
reliability and responsibility. You can count on the PC office to get things done, but if you’re looking for
something outside the box, you may be better off going the Apple route.
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Other questions getting at the heart of an organization’s culture and basic values include these dealing
with the workplace time: How many hours are expected at work each week? Is there flextime? Is there
telecommuting? Is there a punch clock or some other kind of employee time-in-the-office monitoring? Is
it more important that the employee be present or that the work gets done? In some offices it’s the
former; in others, the latter.
Then there are questions about employee interaction. Is each worker situated in a private room or a more
open, common space? Do people tend to compete with each other or is teamwork a higher value? To the
extent there’s individual competition, how far does it go? Is it a good-natured jousting, or closer to hostile
blood sport? Of course different kinds of organizations are going to recommend themselves to one side or
the other of the spectrum. For example, a doctor’s office, an archeological dig, a construction company are
relatively good places to value teamwork. A stockbroking office, a pro basketball team, and an actors’
studio are spots where you may want to encourage individuals to outdo those around them.
What’s the workplace mood? Fun? Somber? Energetic? Modern? Traditional? Many Volkswagen
dealerships are remarkable for their huge windows and sunlight; it’s a kind of work environment for the
sales staff meant to encourage an open, airy feel conducive to car buying. Elevated heating and cooling
costs go along with all that glass, however, and different workplaces where money is valued more than
ambience may choose to cut operating costs with a drabber space. Going beyond the architecture,
different offices have different moods. It’s pretty rare that you see practical jokes or trash-basket
basketball games going on at the dentist’s office. On the other hand, anyone who’s ever operated a call
center telephone knows there’s a solid chunk of each workday dedicated to high jinks.
Is the workplace personalized? Some office cubicles burst with family snapshots and personal
memorabilia. Most assembly lines, on the other hand, are practically devoid of individual touches.
Are employee’s workers or people doing work? If the former—if the value the organization attributes to
those receiving paychecks is limited to what they do to earn the check—then few resources will be
dedicated to supplemental and benefits. On the other side, a corporate culture valuing its employees as
people may provide extra vacation time, health insurance, and retirement plans. Branching out further,
you can get an idea of a workplace culture by checking to see if a gym or exercise room is provided. Day
care for those with young children is another sign of the corporate culture that values workers as integral
people.
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Dress codes reflect the organization’s values. Is uniformity or individuality more highly prized? If
uniformity is the rule, what kind is it? In some advertising agencies, for example, the people who work in
the creative department conceiving the commercials at first appear to be a diverse collection of
independent-minded dressers, but get a few together and you’ll immediately perceive a uniform that’s as
binding as the most traditional office—it’s just that ratty jeans replace slacks and clever t-shirts replace
neckties.
Another cultural indicator runs through the employees’ leisure time. Where do people hang out? Do they
go to football games, the opera, and church? Do they spend their weekend mornings on family excursions
because they have spouses and children, or are they still in bed, sleeping off the night before? More, is
leisure time spent with coworkers? Do employees get together just because they enjoy each other’s
company? If they do, the social outings are more likely to occur in connection with organizations seeking a
harmonious workforce and expending resources to foster camaraderie on the job. They’re less likely to
occur at organizations where everyone is fiercely competing with everyone else, as sometimes happens,
for example, at stockbrokerages.
Healthy community interaction is a value emphasized in some corporate cultures. Everyone has seen the
“adopt a highway” signs indicating that a local firm or group has taken responsibility for keeping a stretch
of highway litter-free. The professional sports leagues have traditionally asked players to dedicate some
season and off-season time to community outreach. Other kinds of organizations, by contrast, may not
even have a local community. Telecommuting and cloud computing mean employees can easily form a
functioning organization with members living in different states, even different countries.
Social cause activism is another marker of corporate culture. The shoemaker TOMS Shoes fights rural
poverty in developing nations by donating shoes. Other companies focus entirely on doing well in the forprofit
marketplace.
Political action may (or may not) infuse a corporate culture. Many companies steer clear of overt or even
hints of political partisanship for fear of alienating one or the other half of the electorate. This is especially
true for larger enterprises spread across the entire country, drawing consumers from liberal corners of
San Francisco, conservative bastions of north Dallas, and the libertarian towns of New Hampshire. Local
businesses, however, especially those catering to relatively homogenous communities, may find no
downside to flipping the switch on political activism and breeding partisanship as a guiding value. The
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company Manhattan Mini Storage provides (obviously) storage for household items in Manhattan. Their
big competition comes from warehouses in New Jersey. The Manhattan Mini Storage billboard ads read,
“If You Store Your Things in New Jersey, They May Come Back Republican.” This appeal may work pretty
well in central New York City, but it won’t seem very funny most other places.
Like politics, religious belief and doctrine are rarely set at the center of the largest corporations, but
smaller outfits operating in a narrow social context may well embody a particular faith.
Conclusion. Taken together, these categories of values begin shaping the particular culture defining an
organization.
How Is Organizational Culture Instilled?
A specific culture may be instilled in an organization through a set of published rules for employees to
follow or by the example of leaders and employees already working inside the organization.
Instilling a culture through established rules typically means publishing an organizational code governing
behavior, expectations, and attitudes. The multinational firm Henkel—the company that invented laundry
detergent and today produces many cleaning and health products sold under different brand names
around the world—has published this kind of code. It’s quite long, but here’s an edited section:
Shared values form the foundation of our behavior and our actions throughout Henkel. Every
single person plays a key role here. It is the sum of our actions that makes Henkel what it is—a
lively corporate culture in which change is embraced as opportunity and everyone is committed
to continuous improvement.
Our Values
1. We are customer driven.
2. We develop superior brands and technologies.
3. We aspire to excellence in quality.
4. We strive for innovation.
5. We embrace change.
6. We are successful because of our people.
7. We are committed to shareholder value.
8. We are dedicated to sustainability and corporate social responsibility.
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9. We communicate openly and actively.
10. We preserve the tradition of an open family company. [5]
This statement sounds good in general. The stubborn problem, however, with trying to capture a
corporate culture with a string of dictates and definitions parallels the ones constantly faced in ethics
when trying to make decisions by adhering to pre-established rules and duties: frequently, the specific
situation is far more complicated than the written code’s clear application. So, in the case of Henkel, we
learn that they embrace change, but does that mean employees can change the dress code by showing up
for work in their pajamas? Does it mean managers should rank and yank: should they constantly fire the
lowest-performing workers and replace them with fresh, young talent in order to keep turnover going in
the office? There’s no way to answer those questions by just looking at the code. And that creates the
threat of an at least perceived cultural dissonance within the organization—that is, a sense that what
actually happens on the ground doesn’t jibe with the lofty principles supposedly controlling things from
above.
Social Conditioning
The second form of instilling a culture doesn’t work through rules but through social conditioning; it’s not
about written codes so much as the cues provided by the customs of the workplace, by the way people
speak and act in the organization. New employees, in other words, don’t read handbooks but look around,
listen, and try to fit in.
In his book Business Ethics, O. C. Ferrell lists some of the social ways a culture infiltrates the
organization. [6] Selecting a few of those and adding others yields this list:
1. The founder’s ethical legacy to the organization may contribute to its living culture. Wal-
Mart’s founder Sam Walton was a legend in austerity; he industriously minimized costs so in-store prices
could be lowered correspondingly. This is a continuing aspect of Wal-Mart’s cultural legacy, though it can
be controversial on other fronts. Some complain that Wal-Mart is in essence encouraging third world
sweatshop labor by ruthlessly granting contracts to lowest-cost providers.
2. Stories and myths embedded in daily conversations may indicate culturally appropriate
conduct. Warren Buffett, leader of the Berkshire Hathaway investment group is a kind of Yogi Berra of
the finance world, a highly skilled professional with a knack for encapsulating pieces of wisdom. Here’s a
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paraphrase of one of Buffett’s thoughts, “I’m rich because I’ve always sold too early and bought too late.”
Conservative investing, the lesson is, yields value for shareholders. It’s also a high ethical value within the
corporate culture he tries to nurture.
3. Heroes or stars in the organization may consistently communicate a common message
about the organization’s guiding values. There’s a difference between lists of values written up in a
handbook and a group of leaders who together consistently talk about guiding values and live by them.
4. The dress, speech, and physical work setting may be arranged to cohere with the
organization’s values. The United Nations threw a wrench into its own efforts to reduce global carbon
emissions by scheduling its thirteenth annual global warming meeting in Bali. The weather was nice there,
but since most participants came from the United States and Europe, it became difficult not to notice that
the values of the organization’s handbook (control of carbon emissions) didn’t jibe with the values of the
organization’s members (burn tons of jet fuel to work in a place with sunny beaches). On the other hand,
the UN Foundation—which advocates reduced greenhouse gas emissions and similar—recently moved
into an environmentally friendly building with cubicles formed from a biodegradable product and many
similar, environmentally friendly features. [7]
5. An organizational culture may reinforce itself through self-selective processes. A selfselective
process is one where individuals effectively select themselves into a group as opposed to being
chosen by others. Hiring presents a good example. Presumably, when an organization hires new
employees, certain filters are constructed to reduce the applicant pool to those most likely to succeed. The
process becomes self-selective, however, when job interviews are conducted as they are at Google. There,
perspective employees are faced with bizarre questions that have nothing to do with the typical “Why do
you want to work at Google?” and “Why would you excel at this job?” Instead, they get the following:
o You have five pirates, ranked from five to one in descending order. The top pirate has the right to propose
how a hundred gold coins should be divided among them. But the others get to vote on his plan, and if
fewer than half agree with him, he gets killed. How should he allocate the gold in order to maximize his
share but live to enjoy it? (Hint: One pirate ends up with 98 percent of the gold.)
o A man pushed his car to a hotel and lost his fortune. What happened?
o Explain the significance of “dead beef.”
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In response, some applicants will dive into the challenges excitedly, while others will find the whole
process really weird and prefer not to be caught within a mile of a place where job interviewers ask such
bizarre questions. In the end, those who enjoy and want to continue with the job application process are
precisely those who will fit in at Google. Perspectives, that means, select themselves.
Conclusion. Two ways a corporate culture may be instilled and nurtured in a workplace are a list of codes
to be followed and a set of social techniques that subtly ensure those sharing a workspace also share
values corresponding with the organization.
KEY TAKEAWAYS
 An organizational culture is the set of values defining how and why members live at work.
 Distinguishing an organizational culture requires observing a range of values from the way people dress
to the degree of cooperation and competition in the workplace.
 An organization’s culture may be instilled through codes and rules.
 An organization’s culture may be instilled through social cues and pressures.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. List five aspects of a corporate or organizational culture.
2. Describe two workplace decisions that may be determined by a corporate culture.
3. List some questions you could ask about a workplace that would start to give you a sense of its culture.
4. What are five ways that an organization may attempt to instill a culture through social conditioning?
5. In your own experience in a job or any organization, what’s an example of social conditioning that
enforced the place’s culture?
[1] “‘Get a Mac’ Collection,” YouTube video, 9:39, posted by “Aploosh,” February 26,
2007,http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=siSHJfPWxs8.
[2] “Can this Man Save Labor?” BusinessWeek, September 24, 2004, 84.
[3] Robert Kuttner, “Labor and Management—Will They Ever Wise-Up?” BusinessWeek, May 9, 1994, 16.
[4] Simon Head, “Inside the Leviathan,” New York Review of Books, December 16, 2004, 88.
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[5] Henkel North America, Vision and Values (Düsseldorf, Germany: Henkel AG & Co.,
2008),http://businessethicsworkshop.com/Chapter_9/images/HenkelNorthAmerica_ Vision_and_Values.pdf.
[6] O. C. Ferrell, John Fraedrich, and Linda Ferrell, Business Ethics, 7th ed. (Boston: Houghton Mifflin, 2008), 181.
[7] “UN Foundation Green Building,” YouTube video, 2:23, posted by “unfoundation,” February 14, 2008, accessed
May 25, 2011, http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=15_MdcSUlSY.
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9.2 The Relation between Organizational Culture and
Knowing the Right Thing to Do
LEARNING OBJECTIVES
1. Delineate an ethically questionable organizational culture.
2. Consider responses to an ethically questionable organizational culture.
3. Define compliance in the business world.
4. Discuss a way of measuring compliance.
Dishonesty in the Fish Market
A frequently recurring business ethics question involves dishonesty: when, if ever, is it OK to lie, to stretch
the truth, to not tell the whole truth? A simple scene of deceit goes like this: A fish dealer sells both
expensive salmon caught in the wild and relatively cheap farmed salmon. Occasionally, he switches the
farmed for the wild—a change that’s very difficult to detect through appearance or taste, even by expert
chefs—and pockets the difference. Randy Hartnell is a fish dealer in New York who suspected that a lot of
that kind of dishonest fish switching was going on among his competitors. He investigated and published
an Internet report. As he tells it, he visited the famed Fulton Fish Market in lower Manhattan and found
some dealers openly admitting that the fish they were selling as wild had actually come from a farm. [1]
This led the New York Times to do a follow-up story. Using sophisticated chemical tests,
the Times confirmed that, yes, at six of eight places sampled, fish being sold as wild for about thirty
dollars per pound was actually farmed salmon, which typically sells for about ten dollars a pound.
In the six bad cases, the person who actually made the switch participated in an organization where one or
both of two things were true about the culture:
1. Profit was understood as being more important than honesty.
2. Honesty was presumably important, but recalcitrant workers paid little attention and sacrificed the truth
to make a buck.
These are two very different situations, and they lead to distinct discussions: One has to do with choices
being made about what specific culture to instill in an organization. The other concerns compliance,
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which, in the business world, measures the distance between what an organizations says it believes and
what its members actually do.
An Ethically Questionable Corporate Culture
The first situation—one where a fish seller puts profit above honesty because that’s just the way things are
done in the company—is one which most outside observers would categorize as fundamentally corrupt.
Everyone inside the operation knows what’s going on—principal and peripheral members are lying to
bring in money—and newcomers are meant to pick up on and continue the practice. The organization
itself is dishonest.
What responses are available? First, we need to check whether a serious attempt is being made, or there’s
a real interest in making a serious attempt, to justify the deceitful actions. If there isn’t, if management
and leaders of a fish-selling business aren’t interested in ethical debates, there’s not much ethical
arguments can do about it. For those wishing to change a situation like this, the law (criminal and civil)
presents good venues for action. Bad publicity in the New York Times might do the trick too.
If, on the other hand, there is an interest on the organization’s part in justifying their actions from an
ethical viewpoint, we could ask, “Can institutionalized lying be justified and, if so, how?” Three possible
answers run through three distinct ethical theories: duty theory, consequentialist-utilitarian theory,
egoism:
1. Can basic duty theories justify putting profits above honesty? Probably not. Duty theories affirm that right
and wrong is determined by a set of unchanging rules, and they typically include don’t steal, don’t lie, and
similar. Because this kind of ethics starts from the proposition that dishonesty is wrong, it’s hard to see a
non-frivolous way of justifying the fish seller’s deceit.
2. Can a consequentialist-utilitarian theory justify putting profits above honesty? Utilitarian theory is
oriented by the common welfare. Acts in business—whether it’s lying or doing anything else—are defined
as acceptable or reproachable depending on whether they end up doing the most good for the most
people. Any act, the theory affirms, that ultimately makes more people happier is good.
In this case, we can imagine an organization promoting lying as a common operating principal and
making the case that the ethical stance is, in fact, good. Every Christmas, department stores deploy heavy
men in red suits to proclaim that they live at the North Pole and ride a sleigh pulled by reindeer. The
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stores promote these fictions—addressed to innocent children, no less—to make money. Almost no one
finds that ethically objectionable, however. One reason is that they’re implicitly accepting the affirmation
that an act making people happier in the end is good, even if it’s dishonest. Similarly, the CIA covert
operations branch (undercover spying, insofar as it truly exists) fits a utilitarian mold. In this
organization, lying is good because it ultimately serves the American national interest and the basic
principles of liberal democracies. Again here, the effects of what’s done matters more than what’s done.
Finally, can this reasoning be applied to the lying fish seller? Maybe. As the New York Times story notes,
the truth is that even the highest-level chefs and experts have a hard time distinguishing farmed from wild
salmon. There is, therefore, a kind of placebo effect for food. If the fake stuff tastes just as good as the real
thing, and the only real difference between selling one or the other is that the fish dealer makes out like a
bandit, then an argument could be formed that the double-dealing does, in fact, increase happiness (the
fish dealer’s) without hurting anyone else. Therefore, the dishonesty is ethically justifiable. In practical
terms, however, it’s difficult to see how this strategy could get too far. Sooner or later someone is going to
notice the difference, and as people begin to feel scammed (and therefore unhappy), the justification for
the double-dealing crumbles.
3. Can an ethical theory of egoism justify putting profits above honesty? Egoism is a coherent ethical
approach to the world that does offer some justification for a deceitful fish trader. On this account, the
ethical good for organizations and individuals in the economic world is defined as just whatever serves the
organization’s or individual’s interest. And switching in the farmed stuff in for the wild is good for the fish
sellers. (It’s hard to find any other explanation for the fact that, as the New York Times discovered, fully
75 percent of the places where fish was sold had some switching going on.) By definition, then, the dealing
is ethically justifiable under this theory. Of course, most proponents of egoism in the business world don’t
stop there. They go on to note that other, honest dealers who are pursuing their interests have a good
reason to reveal the fraud. And, as it turns out, that’s just what honest dealer Randy Hartnell did,
presumably helping his own business in the process.
Conclusion. Organizational cultures that incorporate lying as an acceptable part of day-to-day business do
exist. Whether or not these cultures are ethically justifiable depends on the deep theoretical stances
people adopt when going into business.
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The Ethics of Compliance
What happens when an organization’s principles are laudable, but they don’t get put into practice by the
people actually doing the work? What happens, the question is, when an enterprise (say, a fish-selling
operation) internally promotes basic values including honesty, but outside in the world where the
transactions happen, the lesson is lost and individual sellers are swapping farmed for wild salmon?
In the business world, this is called a breakdown in compliance. Of course there are different reasons for
compliance failure, everything from a bad-apple employee to a misunderstanding of directions, but the
broadest explanation is simply that key elements of the organization’s guiding philosophy aren’t getting
through to the members. One response to this possibility is a corporate culture ethics audit.
A corporate culture ethics audit attempts to loosely measure how open channels are between the ethical
values stationed at the top, and the actual practices down below, and one common way of doing the
measuring is with a questionnaire addressed to all an organization’s members. Strings of questions can be
answered simply yes/no or on a numerical scale from strongly agree (5) down to strongly disagree (0).
These questionnaires can be distributed and the responses coming back summed and compared with
previous samples in the same workplace or against results drawn from other workplaces. The goal is to get
a sense of where people are at in terms of putting company ideals into practice.
It goes without saying that a simple questionnaire can, at best, provide only a crude picture of what’s
actually going on inside an organization. The process must begin somewhere, however, and two attempts
at drawing up auditing questionnaires come from O. C. Ferrell’s Business Ethics [2] and Dr. Arthur Gross
Schaefer. [3] Combined, and with additions, subtractions, and modifications, the following corporate ethics
audit emerges. (As a quick note, this test could be nuanced by changing the responses from yes or no, to
agree or disagree on a one-through-five scale. Some audits also add a section for comments.)
A Corporate Culture Ethics Audit
Answer yes or no.
Part 1: Corporate Culture as Defined and Understood throughout the Organization
1. Are codes of ethics and business practices clearly communicated to employees?
2. Are there rules or procedures in company publications that may be consulted?
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3. Is there a value system and understanding of what constitutes appropriate behavior within the
organization that is shared by members at all levels of the organization?
4. Is there open communication going both ways between superiors and subordinates on questions
concerning ethics and organizational practices and goals?
5. Have employees ever received advice on how to bring behavior into closer alignment with the
organization’s values and norms?
6. Does the organization have methods for detecting ethical and behavioral concerns?
7. Are there penalties that are publicly discussed for transgressions of the organization’s rules and values?
8. Are there rewards for decisions corresponding with the organization’s culture (even if they don’t result in
a profit)?

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Air pollution is the most immediate form of environmental poison for most of us, but not the only
significant one. In China, more than 25 percent of surface water is too polluted for swimming or fishing. [4]
Some of those lakes may have been ruined in the same way as Onondaga Lake near Syracuse, New York.
Over a century ago, resorts were built and a fish hatchery flourished on one side of the long lake. The
other side received waste flushed by the surrounding cities and factories. Problems began around 1900
when the fish hatchery could no longer reproduce fish. Soon after, it was necessary to ban ice harvesting
from the lake. In 1940, swimming was banned because of dangerous bacteria, and in 1970, fishing had to
be stopped because of mercury and PCB contamination. The lake was effectively dead. To cite one
example, a single chemical company dumped eighty tons of mercury into the water during its run on the
coast. Recently, the New York state health department loosened restrictions slightly, and people are
advised that they may once again eat fish caught in the lake. Just as long as it’s not more than one per
month. Those who do eat more risk breakdown of their nervous system, collapse of their liver, and teeth
falling out. [5]
Like liquid poisons, solid waste can be dangerous. Paper bags degrade fairly rapidly and cleanly, but
plastic containers remain where they’re left into the indefinite future. The metal of a battery tossed into a
landfill will break down eventually, but not before dropping out poisons including cadmium. Cadmium
weakens the bones in low doses and, if exposure is high, causes death.
At the industrial waste extreme, there are toxins so poisonous they require special packaging to prevent
even minimal exposure more or less forever. The waste from nuclear power plants qualifies. So noxious
are the spent fuel rods that it’s a matter of national debate in America and elsewhere as to where they
should be stored. When the Chernobyl nuclear plant broke open in 1986, it emitted a radioactive cloud
that killed hundreds and forced the permanent evacuation of the closest town, Pripyat. Area wildlife
destruction would require an entire book to document, but as a single example, the surrounding pine
forest turned red and died after absorbing the radiation storm.
Finally, all the environmental damage listed so far has resulted from ruinous substance additions to
natural ecosystems, but environmental damage also runs in the other direction as depletion. Our cars and
factories are sapping the earth of its petroleum reserves. Minerals, including copper, are being mined
toward the point where it will become too expensive to continue digging the small amount that remains
from the ground. The United Nations estimates that fifty thousand square miles of forest are disappearing
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each year, lost to logging, conversion to agriculture, fuel wood collection by rural poor, and forest
fires.[6] Of course, most of those tree losses can be replanted. On the other hand, species that are driven
out of existence can’t be brought back. As already noted, current rates of extinction are running far above
“background extinction” rates, which are an approximation of how many species, would disappear each
year were the rules of nature left unperturbed.
Conclusion. Technically, there’s no such thing as preserving the environment because left to its own
devices the natural world does an excellent job of wreaking havoc on itself. Disruptions including floods,
combined with wildlife battling for territory and food sources, all that continually sweeps away parts of
nature and makes room for new species and ecosystems. Still, changes wrought by the natural world tend
to be gradual and balanced, and the worry is that our industrialized lifestyle has become so powerful that
nature, at least in certain areas, will no longer be able to compensate and restore any kind of balance. That
concerns has led to both legal efforts, and ethical arguments, in favor of protecting the environment.
The Law
Legal efforts to protect the environment in the United States intensified between 1960 and 1970.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) was established in 1970 to monitor and report on the state of
the environment while establishing and enforcing specific regulations. Well known to most car buyers as
the providers of the mile-per-gallon estimates displayed on the window sticker, the EPA is a large agency
and employs a workforce compatible with its mission, including scientists, legal staffers, and
communications experts.
Other important legal milestones in the field of environmental protection include:
 The Clean Air Act of 1963 and its many amendments regulate emissions from industrial plants and
monitor air quality. One measure extends to citizens the right to sue companies for damages if they aren’t
complying with existing regulations: it effectively citizenries’ law enforcement in this area of
environmental protection.
 The Clean Water Act, along with other, related legislation, regulates the quality of water in the geographic
world (lakes and rivers), as well as the water we drink and use for industrial purposes. Chemical
composition is important, and temperature also. Thermal pollution occurs when factories pour heated
water back into natural waterways at a rate sufficient to affect the ecosystem.
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 The Wilderness Act, along with other legislation, establishes areas of land as protected from development.
Some zones, including the Boundary Waters Canoe Area in northern Minnesota, are reserved for minimal
human interaction (no motors are allowed); other areas are more accessible. All wilderness and national
park areas are regulated to protect natural ecosystems.
 The Endangered Species Act and related measures take steps to ensure the survival of species pressed to
near extinction, especially by human intrusion. One example is the bald eagle. Subjected to hunting, loss
of habitat, and poisoning by the pesticide DDT (which caused eagle eggs to crack prematurely), a once
common species was reduced to only a few hundred pairs in the lower forty-eight states. Placed on the
endangered species list in 1967, penalties for hunting were increased significantly. Also, DDT was banned,
and subsequently the eagle made a strong comeback. It is no longer listed as endangered.
 The National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 requires that an environmental impact statement be
prepared for many major projects. The word environment in this case means not only the natural world
$223 million: enough to pay five thousand gas station attendants. The list goes on. Reality imitates
Hollywood: nearly every field of work has its stars. [5]
What Is the Star System?
The star system in the economic world is a winner-take-almost-all structure for distributing wealth: those
who are successful in any particular field take home a vastly disproportionate share of the revenue. This is
easy to see in the movies and some other places (big-time professional sports, for example), but what
makes the star system a pressing issue in business ethics is that it seems to be expanding through our
economic lives. To begin getting a sense of the expansion—exactly what it is and means—two distinctions

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may be drawn:
1. Individual worth versus salary (or income)
2. Vertical versus horizontal expansion of the star system
Individuals can separate from the larger population mass in terms of individual worth, and in terms
of salary. Loosely, the first is how much money someone would have if they sold everything they owned
and concentrated the dollars in a single bank account; the second is the amount an individual gets paid
each year to do something. These two measures may be very distinct—someone may be a star in one
category and ordinary in the other. Indra Tamang is a Nepalese immigrant who served a wealthy New
Yorker as butler for many years. In terms of salary, he could not be called a star. When his matron passed
away, however, she left him just under $10 million (and cut her own children out in the process). That
rocketed Tamang into the upper end of the net-worth scale, even while his always-modest salary went to
zero. [6]
At the other extreme, but still in New York, basketball player Eddy Curry received $10 million to play a
single year’s worth of basketball for the New York Knicks, clearly establishing him in the top echelon of
earners. Still, he’s not worth much. In fact, he’s worth around zero: his house is in foreclosure, and
creditors are suing for his cars. It’s not clear where all the money went, but a pretty good clue comes from
the fact that one of his creditors is charging a jaw-dropping 85 percent interest rate, and that’s only legal
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in Nevada. [7] Finally, it’s clear that the Nepalese butler and the high-rolling basketball player are extreme
cases. More typically, individual worth and salary dovetail: those who make a lot end up having a lot. Still,
the difference between them remains as two dimensions of a star system.
The second distinction to draw through an examination of gaping wealth differences is horizontal versus
vertical. Vertical wealth imbalances measure the distance between top earners and typical ones. It’s the
distance between the hyper rich, a Bill Gates in Seattle or a Carlos Slim in Mexico City, and the guy
pouring cement at a Seattle construction site or the waitress serving tamales in a Mexico City restaurant.
According to Internal Revenue Service’s tax returns, in the fifteen years from 1992 to 2007, the four
hundred wealthiest Americans have seen their average yearly income jump from about $50 million a year,
to $350 million. That’s about $300 million of extra space between the big earners and everyone else.[8] As
a parallel statistic, according to a Hofstra political science professor, “The ratio of executive salary to the
average paycheck during the mid-twentieth century was about thirty to one. In the last decade it has
ranged from three hundred to over five hundred to one.” [9]
Though there are many ways to measure the star system, there’s a common conclusion: in terms of pure
dollars, the rich are getting richer relative to everyone else.
As against the star system’s vertical measure, horizontal expansion refers to the number of fields of
activity where large wealth imbalances are prevalent. Some occupations fairly naturally lead to all or nearnothing
incomes: wildcat oil drilling, hedge-fund managing, movie acting. Other fields seem naturally
inclined to resist divergences. There aren’t many farmers on lists of the hyper wealthy. Plumbers
frequently earn a solid income, but rarely climb above that. The idea of the star system’s horizontal
expansion is that more and more careers resemble the first set of occupations, while fewer and fewer
resemble the second set. It’s difficult to find raw statistics to prove this expansion, but it’s not hard to
locate reasons for suspecting it.
One important reason the star system may be spreading is technological advancement. Justin Bieber, for
example, is a cute adolescent boy from Canada with a nice singing voice and good instincts for catchy pop
licks. Had he appeared forty years ago, he may have become known around his hometown of London,
Ontario. With a lot of long drives and late nights, he may have become a star in his Canadian province and
earned a nice concert income for a while. Thanks to YouTube, however, he was able to jump straight from
singing a few songs a few times in remote Canadian towns to international superstardom. Similarly,
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lawyers that may once have become successful in a single courthouse can now buy cheap, late-night
advertising on a cable network and set up branch offices around an entire state or even the nation. Anyone
sitting at home with a laptop can use the camera to film themselves pitching some product or service and
then display the commercial around the world using Google Ads for only a few pennies. What’s happening
is that people who have a good product or service or pitch are today able to scale up their success very
rapidly and inexpensively. No one is say
2. Define and consider the main ethical arguments reproaching a star system.
Justifying the Star System: Rights
In evaluating the ethics of the star system, three arguments are commonly mounted in favor of respecting
vast wealth disparities:
1. The rights argument
2. The social welfare argument
3. The fairness argument
The rights argument defends the respectability of wealth concentrations by affirming that not allowing
those accumulations is a violation of human freedom. From this perspective, all ethics centers on
individual opportunity: right and wrong is about guaranteeing that free individuals can pursue whatever
goals and as much money as they like on the way to finding their own happiness. Concerns about society’s
overall welfare become secondary and derivative.
Ethics that make freedom the highest value can be used in a thought experiment inspired by the
philosopher Robert Nozick to produce a substantial defense of an economic star system. It goes this way:
1. Imagine that everyone in our society has the same income, everything goes forward as perfect equality,
and no one complains.

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2. Next, imagine that NBA superstar Kobe Bryant proposes a new contract with his team. It stipulates that
the ticket price for every home game will go up five dollars, and that extra five bucks goes directly to him.
3. The team owners say, “No.”
4. Kobe says, “I’m going to quit, and go get a job as a gym teacher at the school near my house.”
5. The owners change their mind.
6. Some season ticket holders, angry at the new price, cancel their purchase, but most say, “Yeah, it’s worth
an extra five dollars to see Kobe.”
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7. A total of 17,500 people fit into the Forum, the Los Angeles basketball arena where Kobe Bryant plays,
and he plays forty-one games there each year.
8. Kobe pockets an extra $3,590,000. Annually.
Does anyone have a problem with this? Is there someone who didn’t agree to the arrangement, to this new
society where one guy—Kobe Bryant—is suddenly a lot richer than everyone else? Is there someone who’s
being forced to do something they don’t want to do? Is anyone else being denied the chance to renegotiate
their own contract or search for a different job? Are there any legitimate grounds someone can stand on
to launch a complaint?
title is there, and the lead actors’ names too. Sometimes the director gets big billing. The producer, the
studio, they’re easy to locate. You need to go a long way down the poster, though, and into the fine print,
to find the writer’s name.
Inside the industry’s day-to-day working life, writers don’t get much respect. Longtime agent Nancy
Nigrosh writes that frequently they’re not invited to the screening or any other film-opening festivity. She
paints the situation bleakly: “Unless you hire your own hardworking publicist you’ll be sitting at the kiddy
table and arguing politely with security at the star’s tent at the premier because here’s the other thing:
nobody cares.” [1]
The heart of the reason no one cares is the way films are composed. It’s not like a novel or a poem or even
journalism where one person more or less shepherds a work from beginning to end. Instead, scripts are
written and then rewritten by someone else. Then another author is called in for some further
adjustments and it’s all reworked while the filming actually happens, and by the time the movie’s done,
it’s almost impossible to figure out who deserves credit for which words. In that kind of situation, writers
find themselves in a bad spot when it comes to bargaining for money. It’s true that the studios need
writers, and that provides some leverage, but they don’t usually need any particular writer. There are
exceptions, but since movie scripting is usually an assembly-line process, substituting one with another
probably won’t affect the final product too much in most cases.
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One response to this reality is that workers organize and sell their labor collectively. Conceptually, the
idea is simple. When employers threaten to replace individual workers with others who’ll perform the
same services for even less credit and at a lower price, the other employees—seeing that they could be next
in line to face replacement—stand together in support of their colleague.
Whether the workers are Hollywood writers, Detroit autoworkers assembling cars, or hotel maids
cleaning the rooms and making up the beds, the strategy of forming an alliance to defend common
interests can work by reversing the star system. The star system promotes the general welfare by freeing
individuals to pursue their own interests. In labor unions, individuals promote their own interests by
defending the general welfare or, at least, the collective welfare of their fellow laborers.
Unions: Definition and Quick History
A labor union is an organization of wage earners formed to promote job-related interests, especially with
respect to wages and working conditions. A union can be as informal as a band of salespeople telling the
boss they’re not going to come in the next morning unless the coffeemaker is fixed. Most discussion,
however, surrounds larger and more formalized unions: members pay dues, hold elections to choose
leaders, and in the largest instances, hire a professional management team to advocate for the laborers’
common interests.
Two inflection points mark the history of labor unions in the United States. The Wagner Act (more
formally, the National Labor Relations Act) was approved in Washington, DC, in 1935. It blocked
employers from mistreating or firing workers attempting unionize a shop’s workforce. The act also
prohibited the summary firing of workers who’ve gone out on strike. The freedom to organize, along with
the power to strike effectively, quickly translated into more unions, more walkouts, and two large
organizations guiding the efforts of many smaller trade unions: the American Federation of Labor (AFL)
and the Congress of Industrial Organizations (CIO). While it’s true that in the years after World War II
business-damaging strikes grew more frequent, wages also rose and nourished a broad American middle
class. Organized labor came to play a central role in business life.
The maturation of organized labor in the United States harmonized with world events. Political parties
dedicated to workers—especially the hard labor sectors—swept the globe, frequently leading to socialist
and communist societies. Those movements eventually reached US shores. In 1947, communists eager to
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maximize their influence took control of sectors of the United Auto Workers Union, the Detroit collective
making nearly all the cars Americans drove. Pictures from the time—auto workers waving signs
announcing they’re for “Tommie the Commie” seem far out of sync with today’s reality but serve to
remind how quickly the world’s orienting values and ideologies can change. [2]
In that same heated year, 1947, congress responded to sweeping unionization and complaints that the
workers’ organizations had become too powerful with the Taft-Hartley Act. It prohibited the so-called
closed shop, which is a workplace where being hired carries with it the requirement to already be a union
member. It allowed, however, a union shop, a workplace where all employees are required to join or at
least pay the dues associated with joining. Later, the US Supreme Court ruled that even though striking
workers couldn’t be fired for walking off (in accordance with the Wagner Act), they could be permanently
replaced. Over time, this significantly diminished union strength since those going on strike were now
risking their jobs.
As decades rolled forward, the counter union tide on the legal front eventually replicated as important
changes in American industry. Many of the skilled and heavy laboring jobs involving cars, steel, and
similar industries that had responded well to organizational efforts began drying up for at least two
reasons. Increased international trade allowed companies to shift many labor-intensive tasks to other
countries with lower wages. Also, jobs that remained Stateside faced the threat of machines taking over
many functions. Detroit assembly lines formerly composed of blue-collar workers are now dominated by
sophisticated robots. Politically, organized labor also dimmed over the second half of the twentieth
century. In the 1980s, the nation’s air traffic controllers went on strike. President Reagan fired them all
and hired new ones. Reagan also challenged the world’s communist nations; the collapse of countries
explicitly guided by the collective welfare of laborers was rapid and nearly complete.
Today, organized labor unions play roles in most sectors of American economic life, but their influence is
limited, except in a few areas. Government workers continue to be very highly unionized: more than half
of all union laborers in the United States today have government jobs. Unions also remain in small fields
that resist marketplace forces. The National Football League players, for example, are unionized: you can’t
just send their jobs overseas. Also, workers in the health-care field have a fairly high unionization rate:
you can’t replace a nurse with a machine (at least, not yet). In political terms, and though diminished,
unions continue to be a notable force. The single largest outside spender in the 2010 election campaign
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was the American Federation of State, County and Municipal Employees. AFSCME spent a whopping $90
million (much coming from workers’ dues) to support candidates around the country. Still, with only 1.6
million members, the group is no larger than the United Auto Workers union back in 1970 when US
population was only two-thirds of today’s number. Currently, the UAW has about 400,000 active
members.
Three questions asked about unions in the field of business ethics are:
nearly all

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solidarity
with immigrants coming after him was to set up a free school where new arrivals could learn basic skills
helping them find employment in their new country. Called the Grace Institute, there’s an ethical
solidarity incarnated in the school, one uniting immigrants around their shared experiences and common
hardships. Broad social movements also provide abundant examples of the ethics of solidarity. A case
could be made, for instance, that women and African Americans have a special obligation to unite with
homosexuals seeking workplace equality because women and African Americans too know, and have
shared the suffering of discrimination.
It’s true that the case of Hollywood film writers isn’t so dramatic as immigration or broad job
2011,http://books.google.com/books?id=AUoEAAAAMBAJ&pg=PA31&dq=
uaw+membership+local+600+ford&hl=en&ei=5KbBTKbcNML98Ab01LGdBg&sa=
X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=6&ved=0CEoQ6AEwBQ#v=
onepage&q=uaw%20membership%20local%20600%20ford&f=false.
[3] Michael Cieply and Brookes Barnes, “Writers Say Strike to Start Monday,” New York Times, November 2, 2007,
accessed June 9, 2011,http://www.nytimes.com/2007/11/02/business/media/02cndhollywood.
html?pagewanted=all.
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15.5 Union Strikes
LEARNING OBJECTIVES

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1. Define a labor strike.
2. Consider ethical justifications for striking.
3. Weigh responsibilities set against striking.
4. Consider the rights of employers and strikebreakers.
The Hollywood Writers’ Strike
The most contentious area, both economically and ethically, of union action involves strikes: workers
collectively walking off the jobsite in an attempt to pressure employers to accede to their demands. The
Writers Guild of America (WGA) led one of the most publicized recent walkouts when Hollywood script
writers put down their pencils and closed their laptops—at least officially—in November of 2007. By the
time they returned in early 2008, the economic damage wrought in the Los Angeles basin was massive,
$3.5 billion according to some estimates, but the resolution ultimately satisfied most members of the
moviemaking community.
During the strike, two constellations of ethical issues came to the fore. First, questions involved
 the right for workers to not work,
 the right of employers to find someone who will work,
 the rights of third parties to go on with their lives and work.
The second set of questions involved responses to the strike:
 Who in Hollywood, if anyone, is obligated to support the writers?
 Is it OK to take a striker’s job?
Justifying Not Working
Some Hollywood writers are contracted by faceless studios to churn out rewrites for movies; others
generate TV dramas and soap operas. There’s work to be done inventing jokes for sitcoms like The Office,
and opening monologues for Jay Leno’s Tonight show need to be written a few days every week. As the
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writers’ strike extended, the walkout’s effects beamed into living rooms. Almost immediately, Leno went
into reruns. The Office, which had a few episodes in the can, lasted several weeks. The moviemakers—
many of whom live underneath piles of scripts submitted unsolicited by writers—kept going.
Out on the picket lines, Leno zipped around in his vintage sports car to support the stoppage, and
occasionally stopped to chat with the strikers and crack good-humored jokes. Of course Leno, who makes
millions a year, probably didn’t really need his paychecks. Others in Hollywood, however, live from day to
day and without much room for unemployment. Set designers, prop companies, on-site catering services,
all the people surrounding the now-halted industry saw their income wither. In the face of the injurious

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consequences, three arguments nonetheless favor and justify the writers’ walkout.
1. The rights argument in favor of the workers’ strike is direct and convincing for many: all individuals have
a right to not go to work in the morning. Whether we’re talking about a union action or just someone who
wakes up with a hangover, any ethical theory that takes its bearings from individual rights is generally
going to turn in a verdict in favor of the worker’s right to stay home.
2. The last resort argument affirms that workers are justified in striking when three conditions are met:
First, there must be a just cause. The driving issue cannot be petty angers or interpersonal conflicts of
some kind; instead, the motive must be wages or working conditions that are out of step with industry
norms or reasonable expectations. In the writers’ case, this condition may have been met because they
represented one of the few talent sectors not benefitting from payments for programming broadcast over
new media, especially the Internet. Second, there must be proper authorization, which means the workers
themselves must support the action, and have reached a well-deliberated decision. In the writer’s case,
most did support the action, which had been planned for months. Third, the strike must be a last resort,
meaning attempts to find solutions must’ve been fully explored. Here too writers met the condition as
long negotiations had explored most possible solutions.
3. The marketplace argument is the rawest of the justifications for striking, and it answers the ethical
question with economic facts. If workers can get away with striking, the reasoning goes, and then they’re
justified. The argument is less flippant than it sounds. If workers really are being underpaid for their
labors, then when an employer seeks others to replace those who’ve walked out, none will emerge, at least
none capable of doing the work well. On the other hand, if market conditions determine that the striking
workers are demanding more than they legitimately should within the current economic context, then
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when an employer tries to replace strikers with fresh hires, the cost of doing so will be less than the wage
increase the strikers are demanding.
On the other side, the kinds of arguments normally set up to obligate striking workers to return to their
stations involve responsibilities to the larger community:
1. The public safety argument applies only in selected situations. The famous air-traffic controllers’ strike in
the 1980s involved the safety of fliers. Similarly, police officers, firefighters, and similar may find it
difficult to justify a full-fledged strike given the serious suffering that may result. There are many
borderline cases, however. For example, in Tennessee some fire departments collect fees directly from
those they protect. In one case, a man who hadn’t paid found that his house was on fire and called the
department; they responded, but only to protect nearby homes from the fire’s spread. They watched the
flaming home burn to the foundation without intervening because the bill hadn’t been paid. Of course, the
situation would’ve been different had a person been trapped inside. In this case, however, the loss and
dispute was entirely about money. [1]
2. The public welfare argument against workers going on strike weighs in when strikes affect third parties,
people outside the initial dispute. The scriptwriters’ walkout, for example, left a large chunk of Hollywood
unemployed. The most rudimentary way to elaborate the argument is simply to note that the suffering
caused across the entire industry by the five-month writers’ strike almost surely outweighed the benefits
the writers finally obtained. It should also be remembered, however, that if some workers somewhere
don’t draw the line against owners and employers, those employers will have no incentive to not
push everyone’s wages down, ultimately affecting the welfare of most all the industry’s participants.
3. The immediate welfare argument against the writers’ strike finds support in an ethics of care. An ethics
of care values most highly an individual’s immediate social web; concern for those people who are nearest
outweighs abstract rules or generalized social concerns. In the case of the Hollywood writers’ strike, the
suffering incurred by families and friends related to particular strikers may be taken to outweigh any
benefits the broad union collective won from the action.
Finally, it’s important to note that strikes don’t need to be long-term walkouts. The dynamic and ethics
surrounding the refusal to work change when, for example, a union decides to go on strike for only a
single day as a way of pressuring management.
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Standing in Line and Crossing It: The Ethics of Supporting Strikes and
Breaking Them
The Hollywood writers’ strike featured some big-name backing. Jay Leno cruised around in his Bugatti;
Steve Carell, star of The Office, refused to cross the picket lines; and Sally Field mingled with writers in
the Disney Studios lot. These shows of support scored public relations points and provoked this question:
what obligation do workers in related fields hold to support strikers?
The range of responses corresponds well with those already outlined to justify the unionization of workers
in a particular shop.
 One way to oblige workers in related fields to support strikers is the argument from fairness. When
workers in a certain industry strike and win concessions, those gains may be cited by other workers as
justifying their own demands. In fact, in Hollywood the writers themselves had used this strategy in the
past: instead of going on strike, they’d waited for the directors union (Directors Guild of America) to
negotiate demands with the major studios and then used those results to make their own case for
concessions. The argument for supporting striking workers based on fairness is that all workers for a
particular company or across an industry may well benefit when one group makes gains, and if that’s so,
then those other groups also have a responsibility to support the strikers when they’re sacrificing.
 A second argument is based on solidarity, on the idea that an alliance between workers in an industry is
ethically natural: there’s an obligation to share in a struggle when facing similar challenges. Because other
members of the Hollywood community are uniquely positioned to understand the realities and hardships
of screenwriting life, they have a duty to act on that empathy.
As events transpired, the WGA did, in fact, receive wide support from across Hollywood, but the solidarity
was far from complete. As this outburst from a writer’s blog shows, some network studios tried to keep
their soap operas in production by hiring strikebreakers, or scabs, as they’re known to picketers:
The scab writer’s work under fake names, work from home and use different email addresses so
only the executive producer knows the real identities of the scabs. These tend to be experienced
soap writers who aren’t currently on a show. They are then promised employment after the
strike is over. While they’re scabbing, they get paid less than union writers. [2]
This under-the-table scripting captures a conflict inherent in the union’s attempt to use economic force
against employers. On one side, by cutting off their labor, strikers are trying to win concessions through
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economic force. But their success depends on the suspension of basic economic rules: as this blogger is
admitting, there are scriptwriters out there willing to work at current wages for the studios. It sounds like
they may even be willing to work for less.
For these secretive scriptwriters, what ethical justifications can be mounted for what is, in essence, picketline
crossing? The blog post decrying scab workers actually rallied some to post arguments in the
strikebreakers’ defense. One comes from a poster named Jake: “Maybe he [the blogger writing the original
post complaining about strikebreakers] has unlimited funds somewhere and can stay out of work forever,
but some need to support themselves now.” [3]
The argument here is that we all have fundamental duties to ourselves that must be served before
deferring to others. It’s not, in other words, that scriptwriters should feel no obligation to their colleagues,
but all of us have a deeper responsibility to our own welfare (and possibly to that of our family members
who may depend on us), and that responsibility takes precedence when the situation becomes extreme,
when going without work represents more than just an inconvenience.
Another argument wraps through the following exchange between two blog readers. The first, who
registers his comment anonymously, writes, “I’m a little amazed by some of these comments…Do you guys
[who support strikebreakers] not know about unions? Do you not understand what it means to cross a
picket line?…People need to work for just (as in fair) pay.” [4]
This response comes from a poster named Tim: “Anonymous said, ‘Do you not understand what it means
to cross a picket line?’ Yes, it means you are trying to work for someone who wants to pay you. In moral
terms, it’s just a voluntary mutually beneficial exchange that for the most part is no one else’s business.
Members of a union do and should have the right to refuse to provide a service, but they don’t have a right
to prevent others from providing the service.” [5]
Tim’s argument is based on the principle of free agency and the ethics of freedom. According to him, what
are morally right is any action particular scriptwriters and studio owners agree to undertake. The only
ethical obligation individuals have is to not violate the freedom of others and, according to Tim; everyone
involved in this strikebreaking is acting freely without stopping others from doing the same. The strikers,
like the strikebreakers, may go to work—or not go—whenever they like. To the extent that’s right, ethical
objections shouldn’t be raised against either choice.
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The key phrase in Tim’s response is that the strikebreaking writers’ actions are “no one else’s business.”
Those defending the union could choose to intervene here and assert that the claim is fundamentally
wrong. Ethics depends on compassionately taking account of others’ interests, and factoring them into
your own decisions: what writers decide to do must serve not only their own but also the general welfare.
Possibly, Tim could respond to this by asserting that in a market economy the best way to serve the
general welfare is for individuals to pursue their own success. There are responses to this argument too,
and the discussion continues.
KEY TAKEAWAYS

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 A rights argument and a marketplace argument may lend ethical support to workers’ decision to strike.
 Ethical arguments against striking may derive from broad social concerns, or justifiably privileging one’s
own interests.
 Arguments in favor of supporting strikers from outside the union may stand on conceptions of fairness
or solidarity.
 Both strikebreakers and employers may claim the right to bypass union demands based on economic
realities, or their rights as free agents.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. Explain the marketplace argument in favor of the right for workers to strike.
2. How could a union worker ethically justify not joining companions on the picket lines?
3. Outline an argument from fairness that could be made against strikebreakers.
4. Sketch two arguments that could be made in favor of independent writers swooping in and taking union
jobs when the SGA goes out on strike.
[1] Jason Hibbs, “Firefighters Watch as Home Burns to the Ground,” WPSD, September 29, 2010, accessed June 9,
2011, http://www.wpsdlocal6.com/news/local/Firefighters-watch-as-home-burns-to-the-ground-104052668.html.
[2] John Aboud, “Scabbing Doesn’t Pay (For Long),” United Hollywood (blog), November 8, 2007, accessed June 9,
2011, http://unitedhollywood.blogspot.com/2007/11/scabbing-doesn-pay-for-long.html.
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[3] Jake, November 8, 2007 (6:44 a.m.), comment on John Aboud, “Scabbing Doesn’t Pay (For Long),” United
Hollywood Blog, November 8, 2007,http://unitedhollywood.blogspot.com/2007/11/scabbing-doesn-pay-forlong.
html.
[4] Anonymous, November 8, 2007 (8:15 a.m.), comment on John Aboud, “Scabbing Doesn’t Pay (For
Long),” United Hollywood Blog, November 8, 2007,http://unitedhollywood.blogspot.com/2007/11/scabbingdoesn-
pay-for-long.html.
[5] Tim, November 8, 2007 (8:32 a.m.), comment on Anonymous, “Scabbing Doesn’t Pay (For Long),” United
Hollywood Blog, November 8, 2007,http://unitedhollywood.blogspot.com/2007/11/scabbing-doesn-pay-forlong.
html.
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15.6 Case Studies
Jim Webb’s Speech
Source: Photo courtesy of Mike Baird, http://www.flickr.com/photos/mikebaird/2202443907.
At the height of the American economic boom running from 2000 to 2008, a freshly elected senator from
Virginia gave a sobering speech. He said,
When one looks at the health of our economy, it’s almost as if we are living in two different
countries. The stock market is at an all-time high, and so are corporate profits. But these
benefits are not being fairly shared. When I graduated from college, the average corporate CEO
made 20 times what the average worker did; today, it’s nearly 400 times. In other words, it
takes the average worker more than a year to make the money that his or her boss makes in one
day. In short, the middle class of this country, our historic backbone and our best hope for a
strong society in the future, is losing its place at the table. Our workers know this, through
painful experience. [1]
QUESTIONS
1. What is the star system?
2. According to Senator Webb (and doing the math), when he was in college around 1966, a
corporate CEO had to labor eighteen days to make the money the average worker earned in
about a year. Now, CEOs only need a day to reach a worker’s yearly total.
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o What is vertical wealth imbalance?
o In terms of the days a CEO must labor to net the average worker’s yearly pay, where does the
star system line get drawn? Webb seems to think it’s somewhere between eighteen days and
one day, but where would you draw the distinction? How would you justify your decision?
3. Webb says the “middle class of this country” is disappearing. How does this claim relate to the idea of
horizontal wealth imbalances?
4. When Webb asserts that the benefits of a healthy economy aren’t being “fairly shared,” he’s making an
ethical claim, saying the wealth concentration is wrong. He was speaking on national TV and so didn’t
have time to flesh things out, but how could an argument be formulated to support his claim?
5. Jim Webb is a United States senator. When the United States was founded, there was about one
senator for every twenty-five thousand people. Today, it’s one in three million. The salary of a
US senator is $175,000; the salary of the average American worker is about $40,000.
o Besides money, what kinds of compensation do you imagine Webb gets for his job?
o Do you believe Webb’s compensation (salary plus other nonmonetary benefits) qualifies him as
a star? Why or why not?
o Does the fact that Webb represents more constituents than the original senators convert into a
case that Webb’s salary should be higher relative to his constituents than the salary granted to
senators two hundred years ago? Explain.
o Make the case that Webb has an ethical responsibility to donate a significant part of his salary to public service causes.

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6. Part of the reason Webb’s talk lacked specifics was that, as a US senator, he doesn’t want to
offend any particular person or large company. (He probably wants their money for his
reelection campaign, or at least he doesn’t want them funding his opponent.) Others, however,
who share his opinion about wage imbalances aren’t similarly constrained. One notable example
comes from the web page Daily Kos, a politically oriented site with a huge readership and
located on the left fringe of American politics, somewhere between rowdy and rabid. On that
page, the following point was added to Webb’s speech:
As an example of this inequality, look no further than Ford Motor Company. Just this
week, Ford announced a staggering $12.7 billion loss, the highest in company history.
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This came after a year in which the company announced that it was cutting more than
40,000 jobs (30,000 of them union jobs). So what to do in a company that’s failed to
deliver innovative products to the market, completely misjudged consumer trends, and
managed itself into a fiscal bind? You award bonuses to the top management. [2]
The web page went on to explain that Ford CEO Alan Mulally would be giving performance
bonuses to his top executives because, according to Mulally, “You have to keep the talented
people you really need.”
o Just from the provided facts, why might someone be suspicious that CEO Mulally participates in
crony capitalism? How might he respond to the charge?
o Justify the Daily Kos attack on Mulally’s bonuses in terms of general social welfare, and in terms
of the duty to beneficence.
o Make the case that the bonuses are justified in ethical terms with the language of rights.
o Through the language of rights, argue that those who criticize the bonuses—like writers at Daily
Kos—are ethically despicable.
7. Consider these four jobs: US senator, political commentator on a widely read web page
(regardless of whether it happens to tilt left or right), CEO of Ford, and union worker on a car
assembly line.
o Who do you expect would earn most and least were wages divided only by market forces?
Loosely, how would wages be apportioned? Would the differences reach star system
proportions?
o How would you rank their wage order in terms of value generated for society? Loosely, how
would wages be apportioned? Would the differences reach star system proportions?
o How would you rank their wage order in terms of effort? Loosely, how would wages be
apportioned? Would the differences reach star system proportions?
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First You Get the Money…
Source: Photo courtesy of xelusionx, http://www.flickr.com/photos/xelusionx/452851416.
The film Scarface cost $25 million to make and has earned back about $200 million so far. The story
follows Tony Montana as he enters the cocaine dealing business. His mentor tells him that to survive over
the long term you’ve got to fly under the radar and stay small. Comfortably wealthy, yes, but wildly rich,
no. Montana isn’t so sure. Later he decides the advice is directly bad, kills the mentor who gave it to him,
and expands his business as far and as fast as he can. As moviegoers learn at the film’s end, the mentor
was probably right.
QUESTIONS

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1. Though the initial reviews were mixed, time has proven the film’s popular appeal. More than
twenty years after its release, Scarface continues to be a rental favorite, a standard campus
feature, and a late-night TV standard.
o How can the notion of the general welfare be used to justify giving big bucks to the stars making
the film: actor Al Pacino, director Brian De Palma, and writer Oliver Stone?
o Can you form an argument against the concentration of money in the hands of a very few
people that would work equally well against Al Pacino’s (presumed) wealth and Tony
Montana’s?
2. Given the way Montana got wealthy, can the duty to beneficence argument against the star system still
be applied to him? Why or why not?
3. Possibly the movie’s most repeated line is Al Pacino as Tony Montana explaining that to be
successful in America, “First you get the money, then you get the power, then you get the
women.”
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o What is Aristotle’s theory of envy?
o Does the story the movie tells about Montana’s life—coming to America with nothing as an
immigrant and getting ahead by killing and drug dealing—make you more or less envious of his
success (at least the money and power parts), or does it not make any difference?
o How does envy factor into ethical considerations of the star system?
4. Amado Carrillo Fuentes—better known as Lord of the Skies—was a serious innovator before he
died in a Mexico City Hospital during a plastic surgery procedure to transform his appearance.
While everyone else in his profession was flying small Cessna-like aircraft around Latin America
and over the border into the States, he broke every limit by buying full-size Boeing passenger
planes, hollowing them out, filling them with cocaine, and flying multimillion-dollar shipments.
Though he never made the Forbes list of the world’s most powerful and wealthy (unlike other
traffickers from the same Mexican state of Sinaloa, including Joaquín Guzmán), there’s no doubt
that Carrillo Fuentes got extraordinarily wealthy by bringing innovation to the cocaine business.
Bill Gates got extraordinarily wealthy by bringing innovation to the software business. One
argument frequently presented in favor of outsized rewards in the business world is that it can
stimulate innovative ideas. Does the fact that creativity in the business world can do social
good and social harm weaken this argument in favor of the star system? Explain.
The Delta Vote
Source: Photo courtesy of Anthony Easton, http://www.flickr.com/photos/pinkmoose/2955932263.
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When Delta Airlines absorbed Northwest Airlines in 2008, the expanded Delta employed about twenty
thousand flight attendants or FAs as they’re called in the industry. The thirteen thousand Delta FAs
weren’t unionized; the seven thousand that came over from Northwest were.
The nation’s largest flight attendant union, the Association of Flight Attendants (AFA) saw the
opportunity to build membership numbers and lobbied the united workforce to unionize. The question
went to a vote and the results were excruciatingly close: votes in favor fell 328 short out of 18,760 cast.
Subsequently, the USA Today published a roundup of media reports and readers reactions. [3]

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QUESTIONS
1. One argument in favor of joining labor unions works from fairness, the idea that if workers
are benefitting from the work done by a collective, they should sign up and contribute their
share of the dues required to pay for the lawyers and the negotiators a major union needs to
operate.
o How does the following reaction to the “no” vote intersect with the fairness argument? Flight
attendant Cindy Hanks said, “I’m ecstatic. There is no reason for a union at Delta. I get paid
more than my co-workers [who worked for Northwest before the merger]. I have an open-door
policy with my management. Whenever I have a complaint, I am listened to, and there is always
a resolution. I’m not left in the dark.” [4]
2. One person added this comment below the story about the culture around Delta: “Nobody cares
about workers’ rights, including the workers.” [5]
One argument in favor of joining labor unions works from a notion of solidarity. With respect to
labor unions, what’s the solidarity argument for joining the FA union at Delta?
3. Delta spokeswoman Betsy Talton reacted this way to the “no” vote, “We have said all along that
we believe our direct relationship works well for our people and our company,”
o One argument against joining a labor union is the duty to individuality derived from the right to
free agency. What is the right to free agency? What is the derived duty to individuality?
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o How can Talton’s reaction be buttressed in ethical terms by reference to the right and derived
duty?
4. The vote at Delta was a secret ballot. What is card check legislation, and what does it do? How might
that law have changed the results at Delta?
5. Some of the responses to the Delta vote didn’t concern the specific FA union but the question of
unions generally. For example, one commenter believes a stigma attaches to union
membership, a bad one. As he puts it, “I have read pro union people are lazy and want
protection.” Another commentator adds that unions have, “basically destroyed the auto
industry and the steel industry.” [6]
How can this criticism of unions and union workers be converted into an ethical argument in
favor of an economic star system?
6. A person identified as dinstinctM wrote, “Labor unions BUILT the American middle class. The
middle class that is shrinking as unions have been decimated.” [7]
This is an economic claim. Assume it’s true. How can it be converted into an ethical claim in
favor of the FA union?
Responding to a Transit Strike
Source: Photo courtesy of Neilhooting, http://www.flickr.com/photos/neilhooting/2424703385.
The web page titled “How to Commute By Bicycle, All of a Sudden” begins this way: “There is a transit
workers’ strike in NYC today. If you need to get somewhere, consider riding your bike. Even though it’s 22
degrees right now (8:33 EST), this is not a crazy suggestion.” [8]
Saylor URL: http://www.saylor.org/books Saylor.org
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When you need to preface a suggestion with the assurance that it’s not crazy, you can be pretty sure that
the situation is bad.
The New York City transit strike began on December 20, 2005, and ran three days. Representing the
subway operators, bus drivers, and some related personnel, there was the Transport Workers Union,
Local 100 (TWU). On the other side, representing the city—and the traveling, tax-paying public—there
was the Metropolitan Transit Authority (MTA). Wages and retirement age were the main issues. The MTA
argued (correctly) that the transit workers’ wages were much higher than the national norm, and their
retirement age extremely low. The workers argued (correctly) that the job of driving in New York City was
more stressful than in most other places. When negotiations failed, public transportation stopped a few
days before Christmas, leaving millions of daily commuters stranded.
For some commuters, the bike became an option. In the abstract—sitting in a warm room reading about
it—the possibility doesn’t sound so bad, get some good exercise and brisk fresh air on the way to work and
back. There are real problems, though. The air can be dangerously cold and streets in winter are icy. It
also needs to be remembered that the sun goes down early in December, so people biking home at night
along the roadside are pedaling in the dark. Falls are common. Falls in front of oncoming cars are
especially bad.
QUESTIONS
1. The transit workers strike was actually illegal. After a similar walkout years before, the Taylor
Law had been enacted; it barred transportation workers from leaving their posts and
implemented arbitration methods for settling disputes. When the workers ignored the law, a
judge hit them with fines and sentenced their leaders to short jail terms.
o In the face of the strike’s illegality, how can a rights argument be mounted to ethically justify the
walkout?
o Is the rights argument affected by the fact that many commuters suffered?
2. The “last resort argument” justifying a workers strike is activated when three conditions are
met: (1) There must be a just cause; (2) there must be proper authorization; and (3) the strike
must be a last resort—that is, attempts to find solutions must’ve been fully explored.
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In this case, the transport workers national union actually ordered the local to go back to work.
The national union, in other words, didn’t authorize the strike, but the actual workers on the
scene did. Does this count as proper authorization? In a union organization, which, ultimately,
gets to decide whether a strike is appropriate, the organizing management selected to speak for
the collective, or the individual workers on the ground? Explain.
3. What is the public safety argument against a union going out on strike? From the information

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provided, how could it be implemented in this case?
o How would the public safety argument against the strike differ from the public welfare
argument?
o In general terms, is there public welfare argument that could be sketched in favor of the strike?
Air and Bus Traffic: Stars and Collectives
Source: Photo courtesy of Ekavet, http://www.flickr.com/photos/ekavet/3680866253.
The early 1980s were seismic years in American business. Newly elected President Reagan promoted
waves of deregulation legislation, and the openness loosed a breed of entrepreneurs bringing innovative
goods and services to the marketplace so rapidly that entire segments of business life erupted in disorder.
One especially affected area was transportation, and one very affected transporter was the venerable
Greyhound bus lines. This report from San Jose State University summarizes:
Deregulation of the transportation industry made the competition for passengers stiff. New
entrepreneurs who paid low wages entered the business and offered fare prices much lower
than the more established inter-city lines. The newly deregulated airline industry made things
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even worse for Greyhound. Low-cost passenger airline carriers sprang up. People Express, for
example, charged only $23 for a flight between New York City and Buffalo. Greyhound charged
$41 for the trip. A flight by Southwest Airlines from San Francisco to Phoenix was only $60,
compared to a Greyhound’s bus ticket to the same location costing $79. [9]
When a higher-quality service (a fast plane ride) actually costs less than a lower-quality service (a slow
bus trip), the simple rules of economics are, sooner or later, going to put the bus company out of its
misery.
To survive, Greyhound had to cut its prices, which meant cutting costs. The prices of buses and gasoline
and similar were fairly fixed, leaving wages to be targeted. Greyhound went to the workers collective, the
local Amalgamated Transit Union, and proposed a 9.5 percent wage cut.
The answer was no. Greyhound insisted. A strike ensued.
Greyhound was prepared. They’d already recruited more than a thousand new hires in anticipation of the
walkout, and agreed to pay them the salary the union had refused. A tremendous segment of business was
lost while the company struggled to bring still more drivers aboard but, eventually, it became clear that
the union would have to break, which it did.
In the aftermath, a stinging article was written: “Leave the Slave-Driving to Us.” That’s a play on the

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Greyhound advertising line “Leave the Driving to Us,” and it pretty clearly displays where the author
comes down on the ethics of labor walkouts broken by replacement workers. [10]
QUESTIONS
1. From the “Leave the Slave-Driving to Us” article: “After the strike got underway the Bus Lines
tried to run scab buses. In response, the striking Greyhound workers carried out militant actions
that were effective as far as they went. For example, pickets from Local 1225 in San Francisco,
together with some supporters, tried to block the departure of buses from the 7th Street depot
in downtown San Francisco. There was then a cop attack on the picket line and a melee ensued.
Only one bus left the station. It soon experienced a collision with another vehicle (the driver of
the other vehicle just happened to be a striking Greyhound driver) and it was forced to retreat
to the S.F. depot.”
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o When the striking Greyhound driver drove his car or pickup into the bus, he probably damaged
his own vehicle. Who should pay for the repairs? Justify.
o Is it possible to argue that, ethically, Greyhound should pay? Explain.
o Who should pay to repair the damaged Greyhound bus? Why?
o The “cop attack” was, presumably, police officers clearing strikers from the public road. The
police are frequently unionized. Do they have, as union workers, any responsibility to leave the
strikers alone?
2. From the “Leave the Slave-Driving to Us” article: “During any strike material pressures (rent or
house payments, utility bills, RV financing, etc.) may influence strikers’ decisions. Since
Greyhound is not merely a bus line, but a conglomerate with revenues from many lines of
business, its capacity to bear losses from a strike is much greater than that of individual strikers
to bear the loss of wages. Even those who have substantial savings may run short during a long
strike. To succeed, they had to convince other transport workers and their unions to strike in
sympathy with them. But of course, that’s illegal under existing contracts and laws. But that only
means that the ranks needed to take matters into their own hands from the very beginning. The

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rank and file did not have to respect the law.”
o What is Greyhound’s structural economic advantage over the workers?
o Does the Greyhound economic advantage provide an ethical justification for the workers to
illegally (in terms of contractual commitments) try to get others in related fields to strike in
support of the Greyhound workers? Explain.
3. The marketplace test showed the strike was, in purely economic terms of supply and demand,
not justified. The company was able to find workers at the wages it wanted to offer.
o Ethically, does the economic reality justify the strikebreakers’ actions in crossing the picket
lines? Explain.
o The “Leave the Slave-Driving to Us” author considers these strikebreakers to be slaves. What is
the ethical argument behind this insult?
4. From the “Leave the Slave-Driving to Us” article: “‘Greyhound Lines Chair Frank Nagotte pulled
down a hefty $447,000 in salary and benefits’ in 1983 [that’s 1,004,000 in today’s dollars]. In
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general, Greyhound management was slated to receive a 7–10% salary/benefit increase. Despite
the competition from lower air fares cited by Greyhound management, the Bus Lines division
alone earned a profit that has been estimated at $5 million in the first nine months of 1983.”
o The chairman’s salary and benefits was about one million in today’s dollars. In terms of basic
rights, how could he justify taking that mountain of money home after firing the drivers?
o In terms of the value his work generated for society, how could chairman Nagotte justify taking
the mountain of money home after firing the drivers?
o In terms of his responsibilities as chairman, how could Nagotte justify taking the mountain of
money home after firing the drivers?
o What ethical argument could the drivers use to justify demanding that the chairman take a
salary and benefit cut in line with the one he was asking from the drivers?
5. The fundamental cause of the Greyhound problem was competition from new transportation
companies providing better service at lower cost, including Southwest Airlines, founded by
Rollin King and Herb Kelleher. They’re both bright stars in the American economic star system.
o Make the case that King and Kelleher have an ethical obligation to support the Greyhound
drivers who lost their jobs. What is the case? What kind of support do they owe?
o Convert the Greyhound experience into an ethical argument that no employee at Southwest
should seek to unionize.
[1] Jim Webb, “Democratic Response of Senator Jim Webb to the President’s State of the Union Address,” New
York Times, January 23, 2007, accessed June 9, 2011,http://www.nytimes.com/2007/01/23/washington/23webbtranscript.
html?_r=1&oref=slogin.
[2] Mark Sumner, “Jim Webb and Economic Reform,” Daily Kos, January 26, 2007, accessed June 9,
2011, http://www.dailykos.com/storyonly/2007/1/26/295137/-Jim-Webb-and-Economic-Reform.
[3] Ben Mutzabaugh, “Delta Attendants Vote Against Union,” USA Today, November 4, 2010, accessed June 9,
2011, http://travel.usatoday.com/flights/post/2010/11/delta-attendants-vote/129933/1.
[4] Ben Mutzabaugh, “Delta Attendants Vote Against Union,” USA Today, November 4, 2010, accessed June 9,
2011, http://travel.usatoday.com/flights/post/2010/11/delta-attendants-vote/129933/1.
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[5] distinctM, November 4, 2010 (11:02 a.m.), comment on Ben Mutzabaugh, “Delta Attendants Vote Against
Union,” USA Today, November 4, 2010, accessed June 9,
2011,http://travel.usatoday.com/flights/post/2010/11/delta-attendants-vote/129933/1.
[6] Timatl2002, November 4, 2010 (10:08 p.m.), comment on Ben Mutzabaugh, “Delta Attendants Vote Against
Union,” USA Today, November 4, 2010, accessed June 9,
2011,http://travel.usatoday.com/flights/post/2010/11/delta-attendants-vote/129933/1.
[7] distinctM, November 5, 2010 (3:17 p.m.), comment on Ben Mutzabaugh, “Delta Attendants Vote Against
Union,” USA Today, November 4, 2010, accessed June 9,
2011,http://travel.usatoday.com/flights/post/2010/11/delta-attendants-vote/129933/1.
[8] “How to Commute By Bicycle, All of a Sudden,” Days of Leisure (blog), accessed June 9,
2011, http://www.daysofleisure.com/writing/How_to_commute_by_bicycle,_ all_of_a_sudden.html.
[9] Herbert Oestreich, “The Great Greyhound Strikes,” Mineta Transportation Institute College of Business, San
Jose State University, September 2001, 2001, accessed June 9,
2011, http://www.angelfire.com/al/silverball/strikes.html.
[10] Daniel, “1983: Leave the Slave-Driving to Us—Chris Fillmer,” Libcom.org, June 17, 2007, accessed June 9,
2011, http://libcom.org/library/1983-leave-slave-driving-us-chris-fillmer.
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Question 2: Mathematics

STUDENT NAME:

ST PATRICK’S COLLEGE, GYMPIE.

MATHEMATICS A
Year 12
Semester 2,
2018.

Item 4

EXTENDED MODELLING AND PROBLEM SOLVING
TASK

Summative

Topic:
14 Navigation.

TEACHER:

___________________
CONDITIONS:

This is an individual task.
Time allowed : 3•5 weeks.

Issue date : Week 3
Due date : Week 6
Two lessons per week will be allocated for individual work on this
assessment item. This time can be used for consultation with your
teacher.
It is the student’s responsibility to submit assessment no later than the
due date to ensure course completion and the awarding of a level of
achievement.
The St Patrick’s College Assignment Policy is detailed in the Student Diary
on page xiii.
The criteria and relevant standard assessed by each question appears in
brackets after the question.
All working must be shown, accompanied by justification or explanations
where necessary.
Students are to make and store a full copy (electronic or otherwise) of
their submission.

STANDARD AWARDED:

Knowledge and Procedures

Modelling and Problem Solving

Communication and Justification

CCEs:

5. Interpreting the meaning of pictures/illustrations.
6. Interpreting the meaning of tables, diagrams, maps or graphs.
7. Translating from one form to another.
57. Manipulating/operating/using equipment.
22. Structuring/organizing math argument.
33. Reaching conclusion consistent with a given assumptions.
35. Extrapolating.
48. Justifying.
20. Setting out/presenting/arranging/displaying.
37. Applying progression of steps to achieve required answer.

AUTHENTICATION STATEMENT:

I did not receive significant help in producing my final submission, from another student, an electronic source, a teacher and/or adult.

Signed: ___________________________________________________

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STANDARDS DESCRIPTORS: 12 MATHS A.
ITEM 4 : EXTENDED MPS TASK.
SEM 2, 2018.

CRIT STANDARD A

The student’s work has the following characteristics: STANDARD B

The student’s work has the following characteristics: STANDARD C

The student’s work has the following characteristics: STANDARD D

The student’s work has the following characteristics: STANDARD E

The student’s work has the following characteristics:
KP1 – accurate use of rules and formulae in simple through to complex situations – accurate use of rules and formulae in simple situations or use of rules and formulae in complex situations – use of rules and formulae in simple routine situations – use of given rules and formulae in simple rehearsed situations – attempted use of given rules and formulae in simple rehearsed situations
KP2 – application of simple through to complex sequences of mathematical procedures in routine and non-routine situations – application of simple sequences of mathematical procedures in non-routine situations or complex sequences in routine situations – application of simple sequences of mathematical procedures in routine situations – application of simple sequences of mathematical procedures in simple rehearsed situations – attempted use of simple sequences of mathematical procedures in simple rehearsed situations
MPS2 – investigation of alternative solutions and/or procedures to complex routine through to simple non-routine problems – investigation of alternative solutions and/or procedures to routine problems
MPS3 – informed decisions based on mathematical reasoning in complex routine through to simple non-routine situations – informed decisions based on mathematical reasoning in routine situations – informed decisions based on mathematical reasoning in simple routine situations
MPS4 – reflection on the effectiveness of mathematical models including recognition of the strengths and limitations of the model – recognition of the strengths and limitations of the model in simple situations
CJ1 – accurate and appropriate use of mathematical terminology and conventions in simple non-routine through to complex routine situations – accurate and appropriate use of mathematical terminology and conventions in simple non-routine and/or complex routine situations – appropriate use of mathematical terminology and conventions in simple routine situations – use of mathematical terminology and conventions in simple rehearsed situations – use of mathematical terminology and conventions in simple rehearsed situations
CJ2 – organisation and presentation of information in a variety of representations in simple non-routine through to complex routine situations – organisation and presentation of information in a variety of representations in simple non-routine and /or complex routine situations – organisation and presentation of information in a variety of representations in simple routine situations – presentation of information in simple rehearsed situations
CJ3 – analysis and translation of information displayed from one representation to another in complex routine situations – analysis and translation of information displayed from one representation to another in simple routine situations – translation of information displayed from one representation to another in simple routine situations
CJ4 – use of mathematical reasoning to develop logical sequences in simple non-routine through to complex routine situations using everyday and/or mathematical language – use of mathematical reasoning to develop logical sequences in simple non-routine and/or complex routine situations using everyday and/or mathematical language – development of logical sequences in simple routine situations using everyday and/or mathematical language
CJ5 – justification of the reasonableness of results obtained through technology or other means

The information below is to be used for Q1, Q2 and Q3, along with Map 1 – The Whitsundays.

A race course has been designed off the coast of the islands of the Whitsundays. The race is for small sailing boats capable of maintaining speeds of approximately 12knots in the weather conditions typical of this region. The information below describes the locations of the buoys that mark the start/finish line and the four buoys to be used to define the legs of the race.

the Start/Finish line is marked by two buoys. One buoy is located at the co-ordinates
(149° 51•0’ E, 20° 02•2’S) and the other is located at (149° 51•0’ E, 20° 02•6’S)

the Blue buoy is due west of the Hayman Radio Mast and on a transit line from
Mt Merkara and Pioneer Rocks

the Green buoy is located so that the Hook Is Lighthouse is on a bearing of 065°T and
Hannah Pt is on a bearing of 140°T.

the Yellow buoy is located so that the WKRP Radio Mast is on a bearing of 060°T and
Nara Light is on a bearing of 330°T.

the Red buoy is located so that Reef Pt is on a bearing of 110°T and South Head is on a
bearing of 210°T.

Q1 On Map 1 – The Whitsundays, locate all the buoys that define the race course.

Note : All construction lines must remain visible, including north lines.
: A meticulous approach is required, as errors of measurement will affect the
grades allocated to your solutions.

KP2 C D E CJ1 C D E CJ3 C

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Q2 The race committee decide on a race consisting of six legs:

Leg 1 : Start line to anticlockwise around the blue buoy.
Leg 2 : Blue buoy to anticlockwise around the green buoy.
Leg 3 : Green buoy to clockwise around the yellow buoy.
Leg 4 : Yellow buoy to clockwise around the red buoy.
Leg 5 : Red buoy clockwise around the blue buoy.
Leg 6 : Blue buoy to finish line.

For each leg of the course, determine a heading, a length and an estimate of the time
required for the completion of the leg.

Also, produce an estimate for the expected duration of the entire race and comment on
the reliability of this estimate.

Note : All construction lines must remain visible, including north lines.
: A meticulous approach is required, as errors of measurement will affect the
grades allocated to your solutions.

KP1 C D E MPS3 C

CJ1 C D E CJ2 C D

Q3 Before the race, a powered boat is taken out to investigate the direction of the
prevailing current in the region’s waters . The aim is to sail on a preset course and determine whether the boat has been taken off course by currents.

The starting point has South Reef Rocks on a bearing of 010°T and Hook Is Lighthouse on a bearing of 100°T. The Hook Is Radio Mast is clearly visible from the starting point and the timed run started at 10:30am.

The boat’s log indicates a course of 150°T and a speed of 8•8knots. At 11:15am, the Hook
Is Radio Mast is now visible on a bearing of 040°T.

By locating the boat’s final position on the map, determine how many degrees off-course the boat has been carried and calculate the direction and speed of the current. Justify your solutions.

Note : All construction lines must remain visible, including north lines.
: A meticulous approach is required, as errors of measurement will affect the
grades allocated to your solutions.

KP2 B C D E MPS3 B C MPS4 B

CJ1 B C D E CJ2 B C D CJ4 B C

The information below is to be used for Q4, Q5 and Q6, along with Map 2 – Hypothetical Bay.

Q4 Your location is currently : ________________________________

and you are travelling on a course of : ________________________________

You travel on this course for five nautical miles and during this short trip, you make regular and careful observations of the angle of elevation to the top of Critchley Peak (altitude 1 140m).

Produce a graph of “Angle of Elevation Vs Distance travelled along course” for your journey to identify largest angle of elevation that would be obtained.

Then identify the exact location(s) producing the greatest angle of elevation and clearly explain the reasons for those locations producing a maximum angle.

KP2 A B C D E MPS2 A B MPS3 A B C

CJ1 A B C D E CJ4 A B C CJ5 A

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Q5 A local yacht club is having its monthly race day and the race is already underway. Six boats are approaching the finish line – a straight line between Paula’s Light and Fairway Beacon.

At 3:00pm, the boats in first place through to sixth place report their positions, bearing
and speed to race headquarters by radio. The information is tabulated below:

Name Position
(True bearing) Course
(True Bearing) Current Speed
(Knots)
Astral Trent’s Light at 223°
Pamela’s Light at 120° 320° 12
Bumblebee Paula’s Light at 340°
Trent’s Light at 210° 320° 8
Calamity II Pamela’s Light at 020°
Reid Light at 260° 325° 15
Delight Reid Light at 205°
Pamela’s Light at 075° 330° 16
Empire II Paula’s Light at 020°
Pamela’s Light at 110° 000° 9
Fantasy Mark’s Light at 260°
Critchley Peak at 350° 338° 18

From this data, estimate the finishing time, and hence the placings, for the six boats.
Comment on the reliability of your answer.

Note : All construction lines must remain visible, including north lines.
: A meticulous approach is required, as errors of measurement will affect the
grades allocated to your solutions.

KP1 A B C D E MPS2 A B MPS3 A B C

CJ3 A B C CJ5 A

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Q6 As the boats are finishing the race, a storm that has been threatening to disrupt the day’s activities finally hits the region.

As the severity of the storm increases, the race control station receives two distress calls simultaneously. The captain of the Gregorian makes the following call:

“We have lost our sail and motor and most of our equipment in the storm. We
are in line with Gregory’s Light and Paula’s Light, and believe that we are on
a 240 bearing to Trent’s Light. We are drifting north at about 2½ knots. We
need help.”

The captain of the Hyperion calls in the following information:

“We have lost our rudder and motor. We cannot get our sails down and we
are stuck on a heading of 245T. We took a sighting of Trent’s Light at 274
and Reid Light at 233, 32 minutes ago. We now see that the angle on the bow
of Reid Light has about doubled. We need help.”

You have two rescue crews available, both based at Ryan Point. Both rescue vessels
have a top speed of 16 knots. The first rescue crew (Rescue #1) is able to leave immediately and the second rescue crew (Rescue #2) are able to leave in two minutes.

Determine whether both rescue vessels are required and devise a justified rescue plan to
deal with both distress calls.

KP1 A B C D E KP2 A B C D E MPS3 A B C

MPS4 A B CJ2 A B C D CJ5 A

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2 MATHS A
ITEM 4

Question 3: Business

PLEASE READ INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY ! THIS IS FOR A PORTION OF A GROUP PROJECT. PREVIOUS ASSIGNMENT AND TOPIC IS ATTACHED.

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Instruction
Present the company chosen and reasoning for your selection of that company using non narrated power point slides.] Corporation chosen addressing legal, ethical or political topic

Legal Issues: McDonalds Unethical Marketing
McDonald’s corporation deals with the selling of fast food in different regions of the world. The corporation runs more than 30, 000 restaurants in the six continents (Green 2015). The company operates in approximately a hundred countries in the world. Therefore, it has a lot of stakeholders, starting from employees, shareholders, partners, and customers. The company needs to maintain professionalism and ethical conducts with its significant stakeholders. This paper explores the legal issue which the McDonald’s Corporation faced regarding the advertisement of their food to children under 13 years in Quebec. The paper validates the statement that the McDonalds were guilty of breaking the Quebec law on the ad.
The case has it that a Canadian dad of three sued the McDonald for wrongfully advertising Happy Meals to kids, asserting that the organization violated laws in Quebec that oppose the advertisement of items to children under thirteen years of age (Olšanová, 2013). Court statement reads that Antonio Bramante has three youthful youngsters and goes to a McDonald’s café somewhere around like clockwork at their support. He is looking for payment from the chain for items made in recent years and needs to prevent the organization from advertising toys and glad dinners to kids coming up. Antonio’s claim expresses that the toys that accompany Happy Meals are promoted with the dispatch of kids’ motion pictures and are regularly part of an arrangement, inciting his family to come back to the café to finish the set. The court archives, interpreted from their unique French, likewise express that toys are shown in stands at the tyke’s eye level, which Bramante’s lawyer Joey Zukran cases infringe upon laws that are a piece of Quebec’s Consumer Protection Act (Olšanová, 2013).
A representative for McDonald’s Canada told CNBC by email that the organization had gotten the decision and will look at it cautiously (Olšanová, 2013). He asserted that the corporation knows about its commitments under Quebec’s laws regarding advertisement and emphasize that it does accept this class activity has to merit. Also, the representative held that the corporation appreciates the long partnership with the Quebecers and their families, who have been making the most of McDonald’s for over 45 years,” the representative included. Advertising to less than thirteen years of age has been prohibited in Quebec since the 1970s with three special cases: publicizing in kids’ magazines, publicizing kids’ stimulation occasions and promoting using store windows, shows, holders, bundling or marks (Olšanová, 2013). Zuckerman, a lawyer at LPC Avocet, told CNBC by telephone that McDonald’s toy showcases are not secured by this particular case, with the judgment expressing that the organization works cafés as opposed to stores. Regardless of whether they are viewed as stores, Zuckerman stated that must not “straightforwardly prompt a tyke to purchase products or administrations,” as indicated by the buyer security act.
Zuckerman claims that his firm has had an “immense” reaction from different buyers, as any individual who purchases a Happy Meal in Quebec since November 2013 can demand to be a piece of the activity (Olšanová, 2013). He would not give a number but instead asserts that the site smashed because of individuals’ advantage. He indicated the long-running “Mc-Label” instance of the 1990s in which McDonald’s sued activists who were a piece of the London Greenpeace society. The activists presented claims that McDonald exposed children to advertisement contrary to the demands of Quebec. The judge dismissed a lot of sued mistakes but held that the act of marketing to their products through manipulative ad was wrong.
Suffice it to mention that, since the McDonald Corporation embraces the utilitarian theory, it is wrong. It is because the adverts seduce young people, and it does not employ transparency, especially to its customers. Utilitarianism holds that an action is right if it directs pleasure to a maximum number of people; instead, they sell fast food, which brings about ill- health to the observers.

References
Green, S. (2015). McDonald’s. Bellwether Media.
Olšanová, K. (2013). FOOD MARKETING TO CHILDREN-REVIEW OF THE ISSUE FOR FURTHER EXPLORATION. Central European Business Review, 2(3).

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Question 4: Psychology

Instruction
Different due dates. LOOK AT ASSIGNMENT FOR DUE DATES
Problem Solving Template

Now that you have critically analyzed the problem/issue the next step is generating a solution. Please review the following steps in creating the problem resolution for your identified problem/issue

Step 1
Identify the goal in developing a resolution.

Using the evacuation plan example, the goal would be to prevent the Hurricane Katrina disaster from occurring again by creating an effective, well developed evacuation plan.

Step 2
List as many possible solutions as you can generate. They don’t all have to be effective, practical or realistic. You can consider what other states have done in similar situations.

A short list of possible solutions for the evacuation plan for New Orleans:
Have emergency management officials trained on a variety of evacuation plans from around the country prior to revising the plan for New Orleans

Develop evacuation plan drills for the city to practice the plan to ensure that it works properly.

Develop ways to educate/inform the entire city about the newly revised evacuation plan including how it works, maps on where people would go and how they would get there.

Step 3
For each possible solution discuss the advantages and disadvantages. Is it a realistic solution? Is it manageable? What are the costs and benefits of the solution? What are the challenges and barriers to the solution?

Using the example of evacuation drills for the city
This is probably not a realistic plan considering the size of the city. It would be financially costly to do evacuation drills as the emergency prepared staff would have to be paid, the National Guard troops would have to be alerted. It’s also probably unmanageable as it would require that the residents leave their jobs, and it would cause multiple traffic jams.

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Step 4
Choose the resolution that seems best suited to work in alleviating the problem/issue to include in the capstone document.

Assignment One Due July 24, 2019
Only a few paragraphs!!!
Post by Day 3 your thoughts on the importance of training trauma-response helping professionals prior to their engagement in trauma work. Then describe the trauma-response helping professional you selected in the media carousel. As a counselor, explain how you could help this individual prevent vicarious trauma prior to his or her exposure to trauma and why.

Assignment Two Due July 27, 2019
Debriefing is the opportunity to process thoughts and feelings related to trauma work and traumatic events. There are a number of debriefing models and selecting the type of model is dependant upon the type of trauma work being implemented. For example, many health care organizations adopt the critical incident stress debriefing model (originated from the military) because it has been the most effective method for large organizations (Morrissette, 2004). Think of what type of debriefing model might be effective in your organization or practice.
For this Application Assignment, you select two types of debriefing models and examine the effective elements of the models which aid to mitigate vicarious trauma.

The assignment: (2–3 pages)
⦁ Describe two types of debriefing models.
⦁ Compare the similarities and differences of each model. Be specific.
⦁ Explain how each debriefing model reviews the traumatic event, provides for emotional ventilation, and meets the intended outcome of the debriefing session.
⦁ Select a training element you would add to a debriefing session to maximize the potential to prevent vicarious trauma. Justify your selection by using the Learning Resources and current literature. Be specific.

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Question 5: Psychology

Will upload the 8 resolutions soon

⦁ Review the “Problem Solving Template” (located in the Resources area on the left navigation bar), paying particular attention to the section on analyzing the solution.
⦁ Review the list of potential resolutions generated in Week 8 and identify the resolution you deem most likely to address the identified problem.
⦁ Consider the following questions for the resolution you have selected:
⦁ Is the resolution realistic?
⦁ What are the consequences of the resolution, and who would be impacted?
⦁ What would be the challenges and barriers to implementing the resolution?

The assignment:

Submit a 1- to 2-page description of the selected resolution with its advantages and disadvantages. Also explain challenges and barriers to its implementation.

Problem Solving Template

Now that you have critically analyzed the problem/issue the next step is generating a solution. Please review the following steps in creating the problem resolution for your identified problem/issue

Step 1
Identify the goal in developing a resolution.

Using the evacuation plan example, the goal would be to prevent the Hurricane Katrina disaster from occurring again by creating an effective, well developed evacuation plan.

Step 2
List as many possible solutions as you can generate. They don’t all have to be effective, practical or realistic. You can consider what other states have done in similar situations.

A short list of possible solutions for the evacuation plan for New Orleans:
Have emergency management officials trained on a variety of evacuation plans from around the country prior to revising the plan for New Orleans

Develop evacuation plan drills for the city to practice the plan to ensure that it works properly.

Develop ways to educate/inform the entire city about the newly revised evacuation plan including how it works, maps on where people would go and how they would get there.

Step 3
For each possible solution discuss the advantages and disadvantages. Is it a realistic solution? Is it manageable? What are the costs and benefits of the solution? What are the challenges and barriers to the solution?

Using the example of evacuation drills for the city
This is probably not a realistic plan considering the size of the city. It would be financially costly to do evacuation drills as the emergency prepared staff would have to be paid, the National Guard troops would have to be alerted. It’s also probably unmanageable as it would require that the residents leave their jobs, and it would cause multiple traffic jams.

Step 4
Choose the resolution that seems best suited to work in alleviating the problem/issue to include in the capstone document.

Question 6: Health Care

Assignment #3: Major Research Paper

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Question 7: Science

Instruction
It requires for you to create a PowerPoint presentation reviewing a book that has been selected. The book is based upon environmental studies and is at least 250 pages long. The presentation has to be at least 18 slides long and meet certain criteria. There is no narration required. I will provide the complete rubric after assigning it. I will also provide the book information as well at that time.

Question 8: Business

Finance assignment in the MBA Program.

M004 (E04)
MANAGERIAL FINANCE (60%)
COURSEWORK 2 (Individual Work)

Individual End-of-module Report

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In the role of a management consultant, prepare a succinct and detailed business report for the Board of Directors of your chosen company. Extend your research from coursework 1 on financial analysis of the performance of your company to include financial and non-financial performance indicators and organizations KPIs and design a balanced scorecard and linked strategy map.

You are required to use the same company as in coursework 1 but permitted to choose a different company only in exceptional circumstances (for example if the company is no longer trading). Your seminar tutor will approve your choice of organization sub-unit for CW2.

The vision, strategy or goal that you identify can be published by the organization (e.g. in their Annual Report) or identified by yourself as appropriate for the organization.
Task:
⦁ Identify the vision and strategy of either:
⦁ The entire organization or
⦁ One unit of the organization or
⦁ One major long term financial and strategic investment that the company is involved with. (10 marks)

⦁ Critically discuss and evaluate balanced scorecards for performance management and monitoring. (20 marks)

⦁ Using published information and material from coursework 1, prepare a Balance Scorecard suitable for use by the directors and managers of the chosen organization to align business activities to identified vision and strategy, and to monitor performance against strategic goals. (20 marks)

⦁ Build a strategic map to describe and explain how each aspect of the balanced scorecard can assist your company in achieving its goals and targets.
(10 marks)
⦁ Summarize your recommendations of the balance scorecard and strategic map to the board. (20 marks)

⦁ Provide a meaningful executive summary of approximately 200 words at the beginning of your report. (10 marks)
⦁ Format your report professionally and acknowledge all sources according to CULC Harvard standard. (10 marks)

This assignment tests achievement of all our module learning outcomes:

⦁ Select and apply appropriate accounting techniques to critically analyze financial data in a variety of business decision making scenarios
⦁ Make informed financial judgments based on the outcome of such accounting analyses
⦁ Critically appraise the techniques used and the information to which they have been applied
⦁ Demonstrate an critical understanding to the internal, external and legal environments in which the judgments are being made

Report Format:

⦁ The maximum word count for the main text excluding tables is 2,500 words.
⦁ Exceeding the word count by more than 10% can result in a reduction of marks.
⦁ Only the main text excluding any tables and diagrams counts, also excluding the contents page, executive summary, list of references and appendix.
2. The assignment must have a front cover stating:
⦁ Module number and name and seminar group number
⦁ Title of the assignment
⦁ Student name and ID
⦁ Submission date
⦁ Word count as defined above

3. All pages must be numbered
4. An executive summary of approximately 200 words is required (not included in the overall word count).
5. A short introduction is required (and included in the word count), even if it is not explicit in the assessment criteria.
6. A reasonable number of appendices may be used for relevant supporting information and to demonstrate your calculations and analysis.

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Special plagiarism warning:

This warning is in addition to our general policy on academic practice:

1. Do not feel tempted to copy a Balanced Scorecard from the internet. The task is that you develop the Balanced Scorecard yourself.
2. Do not feel tempted to copy a Strategy Map from the internet. The task is that you develop a Strategy Map yourself based on your own Balanced Scorecard.
3. When you take ideas or information from Coursework 1, please make sure you acknowledge it like any other source in-text and in the reference list. Direct quotes must be marked with quotation marks. An appropriate entry in the reference list would look like:

Teekeng, N., Chongmankhong, Y. and Mwangi, H. (2012) Google Financial Analysis. Unpublished Coursework. London: Coventry University London Campus

Quoting your own material from previous coursework without acknowledgement is called “self- plagiarism” and a form of academic misconduct equal to other forms of plagiarism.
The rubric by which your report will be assessed follows on page 4. It is important that prior to you submitting your work, you read this and objectively assess your response against the rubric. This will ensure that you have done enough to attain the marks you wish to achieve.

Final submission date: displayed on Black Board M004 front page.

Use the CW2 submission link for Coursework 2 to upload your assignment

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Question 9: General

Business plan report on Starbucks. Partly completed and each section has questions to areas that need to be covered.

BADM690 Strategic Management Project Guidelines
Table of Contents
Required Submissions…………………………………………………………………………………………………2 Tips for Writing the Plan……………………………………………………………………………………………..3 Project Format……………………………………………………………………………………………………………4 Expectations ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………5 Suggested Section Topics ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 7 Full Outline………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..8
1
Required Submissions:
This project allows you to apply concepts learned in this class and your other graduate business courses. Make sure your report has been specifically prepared ONLY for this class. You must include a statement on your project cover page that the paper has NOT been submitted for credit in a previous class and will not be submitted for credit in any future class, either in whole or in part.
You may work either with a team (max 3 students) or independently on this project. You should identify a “real life” company that you can have enough access to in-depth financial and operational information to fully analyze the company’s strategic management situation. It would be best if you (or a group member) work in the company you want to analyze. This will facilitate the flow of information. This project has the following assignments or requirements:
⦁ (1)  A PROJECT PROPOSAL from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page proposal that describes the company you are using for the project and the plan you have for completion. Document how you plan to get relevant company information. Ideally, you will analyze the entire company and then focus on specific projects and initiatives. You should include a proposed timeline for completion. If you are working with a group, explain how you plan to work with group members (who, when, where, etc.). The proposal should be completed individually so that I can confirm that all students have a project that will work for this assignment. You will need to submit the proposal in the “Project Proposal” assignment dropbox available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade).
⦁ (2)  A PROJECT UPDATE from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page paper that describes your progress. Explain what problems you have run into and how you plan to overcome those. Specifically list which sections you have completed and what is still remaining. Include an updated completion timeline from your proposal. If you are working with a group, explain how your group members are collaborating (who, when, where, etc.). You will need to submit the update in the “Project Update” assignment drop box available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade)
⦁ (3)  A FINAL REPORT that includes all of the detailed data, sources of information and an in depth analysis as well as a more exhaustive discussion of all of the points contained in the outline provided below. You will need to submit the final report in the Turnitin link called “Final Report”, which is available under the Project tab. (15%-group/individual grade)
⦁ (4)  A POWERPOINT/PREZI describing the Final Report that is a professional presentation. The presentation should summarize the findings and recommendations. The submission must be placed in the drop-box called “Powerpoint” which is available under the Project tab. (4%-group/individual grade)
⦁ (5)  A COURSE REFLECTION PAPER that describes your experiences and learning in this course. You should describe the strengths and weaknesses in your capstone project. What did you feel that you did really well? What areas could you have improved on? If you worked in a group, specifically discuss the positive and/or negative contributions made by each individual. Also, please explain what new knowledge, skills, and/or abilities you have learned from the project and the case studies. Which case study did you enjoy most/least and why? In addition, please describe how the text material you
2
studied this this course relates to: (a) your project, (b) the case studies, and (c) your current/past/future workplace. Use specific examples/concepts from the chapters. Also, include your opinions on different aspects of the course. What was most helpful to you? What was least helpful? How could you have improved your course experience and how could I have improved your semester? Finally, please include a section describing what comes next for you. What will your life look like post-MBA? Will you look for a new job, get a promotion, get married, move, go back for another degree (i.e. DBA, JD, PhD), and/or just enjoy more free time? The reflection paper should be approximately 5 pages and should be submitted in the drop-box called “Course Reflection” which is available under the Project tab. (10%-individual submission and grade).
Your first step is to decide whether you want to work independently or in a group. If you want to work alone, you will need to sign-up in the ‘Solo Sign-up List’. To sign-up, select any available Solo#. You must sign-up in a Solo# so that the assignments will be available for you, and you will be able to access your grades.
If you would like to work in a group, you need to first find or contact other students willing to work with you. To do so, you need to post your information on the discussion board link ‘Looking for Project Partners’. Once you have contacted other students, and agreed to work together, SIGN-UP in any available Group# in the Group Sign-up List. Please, select a Group Number that is available and make sure to sign-up on the correct Group# (The Group# with your chosen team members)! Please, make sure that all members register in the same Group #, so look for your partners before signing up. Also, do not sign-up in a group without permission or agreement that you will work with the group. You must contact the members first.
The maximum number of members in each group should be 3. Keep in mind that the higher the number of members, the higher the expectations from the report.
Your next step will be to decide the company to analyze and begin your project proposal.
Tips for Writing this Plan:

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⦁ All of the writing involved in the assignment should include the use of proper citations (APA) for sources quoted or used. This applies to both the powerpoint presentation as well as the accompanying complete report.
⦁ Grammar, spelling, and formatting are important. Just because the document has passed spell check doesn’t mean the word is correctly used in context or spelled correctly in context. Please use a traditional 12 pt. font.
⦁ Your powerpoint presentation is to be done from the vantage point of an executive presentation to senior management including the CEO, COO, CFO, etc.
⦁ Clearly identify the readers of this document. Then write the plan in a style that is easily understood by readers.
⦁ Remember that this plan is a working document that has the clear purpose of initiating focussed action and generating clear and measurable results. Avoid the excessive use of
3
descriptive adjectives to ‘pad’ or over-sell the plan. Flowery, highly descriptive language can cloud key issues, blur the plan’s focus and slow/confuse its implementation
⦁ Keep the plan ‘tight’; ensure it remains concise, balanced, clear and logical. Where possible use quantitative rather than qualitative information. Remember the KISSS approach to planning; keep it simple, short and specific. Interlink all Sections, with the Market Analysis (SWOT) providing a clear focus for all subsequent sections.
⦁ Focus on facts and information from credible and reputable sources. Where possible avoid critical dependencies on one source of information. Build redundancy into information sources. Make sure to validate all key information used in the plan.
⦁ Always remember that faulty assumptions and faulty logic are some of the greatest hazards to business performance and business planning. Also remember that a good plan implemented today will always beat an excellent plan implemented sometime in the future. So, get the plan completed and into action as soon as is practicable. Also, plans must be adaptive to changing circumstances. If the plan is not performing be prepared to complete ‘major surgery’ on it.
⦁ If any information is overly repetitive between sections, skip it and note that that information has been covered and where to find it.
⦁ If any section doesn’t apply to your industry/company, skip it and note that it is irrelevant.
Project Format:
The format of the final report must be digitally submitted using a 12 pt. font in word (.DOC) document format. You must use the outline provided. The main document should include a minimum of 25 and a maximum of 40 double-spaced pages (if you go above this number, make sure that the information provided is necessary). Appendices may be located at the end the report, and are not included in your maximum page count. Your references may also appear at the end of the report, before the appendix. Organize the final report under section headings and subheadings as needed. Finally, as in most business writing, the paper should adequately convey and document what you want to say, but otherwise be no longer than necessary.
The final written report will be graded primarily on its content, however, format and presentation is important too. Grading will also consider the report’s organization (sequence of ideas), balance (evidence of comparable degree of analysis in sections of comparable importance), style (English usage, grammar and punctuation), and its implementation schedule.
If you are interested in modifying the plan, please ask. I am flexible and I want you to
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get as much out of your time in my class as possible.

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Citations and References
⦁ You MUST use APA style. Please, look on the Internet or purchase the APA guides. In addition, Microsoft Word Software comes with these Citations styles functions embedded in the system. Please, do not use Chicago or Turabian styles.
⦁ It is very important that you use the proper in-text citations and reference style. Footnotes
Footnotes in the text must be numbered and typed at the bottom of the page where the footnote is made or on a separate page following the text (i.e., endnote). A footnote or endnote should be used to clarify the text, define terms, make comments, or to list additional sources. Footnotes provide additional information that would detract from the subject being discussed in the body of the text. Again, Microsoft Word software provides this function, which is easy to use!
Figures and Tables Captions
⦁ Search online for the APA and how to caption figures and tables. Then, look online for how to caption figures and tables using Microsoft. http://www.microsoft.com/education/AddCaption.aspx
⦁ Remember, if captioning Tables, the caption goes at the TOP of the Tables. However, if captioning figures or graph, the caption goes below the figures or graph and should include the source of the table (unless you have developed).
⦁ All Tables/Charts/Figures should have a descriptive title. Power Point
In addition to the written report each team/individual will prepare a POWERPOINT presentation. Assume this presentation will be displayed for a team of venture capitalists, entrepreneurs, and directors of the business you selected that may be in attendance to assist in the evaluation of your plan. It should be professional, but interesting. It should probably be between 15-25 slides, but that is not a requirement only a recommendation.
Expectations for the Capstone Project:
Your success in the business world will depend, to a large extent, on your ability to communicate. Courses during your first few years at the Business School provided the opportunity to hone your written and oral communication skills. This course will provide you with the opportunity to develop further both of these skills. You will be required to write a formal report, which might possibly be available for external judges at the end of the semester and try to convince them of the strength of your Project. The goal of this paper is to examine a company in depth to identify strategies that may have a positive impact on the firm. Remember that a strategic change is typically initiated in reaction to a triggering event and is rare, consequential, and directive.
Substance: You should substantiate what you are trying to convey with facts and data. In most cases, you will be asking the reader of your business report to commit substantial resources–financial, human, or physical–to a project. The decision-maker will not make
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the decision because you think is a good concept. Rather, you will need to convince the reader by providing hard facts and data with appropriate citations. Your rationale and reasoning should be explained logically and clearly. Effective business reports are not documents put together at the last minute—they take time to develop.
Style: The style of your business reports should be clear, concise, and to the point. The executive reading the report does not want to be entertained. He or she wants the information necessary to make a decision. Avoid flowery language with lots of adjectives and adverbs. I have high expectations. If you want to excel in the business world you should too.
Outline: You should follow the outline provided. However, most word processing software includes an outlining function. Use it. Begin your reports by developing an outline to organize your thoughts and the concepts you are trying to convey. The more comprehensive and detailed your outline, the easier it will be to write the report.
Proofread: Carefully proofread each draft of the report. You will probably need three or four drafts before you are satisfied with the report.
Exhibits/Tables/Appendices: I do not expect to receive exhibits or appendices with your handwriting on them. Instead, you should have typed exhibit numbers (let me know if you want some help). This includes copying exhibits from other sources. Unless you are using a photograph that cannot be reproduced in Word document, I expect you to make models, charts, spreadsheets on your own. This takes time but it is all part of being professional. Also, it is important to use captions for Figures or Graphs and Tables. If using Microsoft Word (or any word processor), you can select (highlight) the figure or table, then right click and select insert caption. This will insert automatically the caption (Figure 1 or Table 1) label and number. By doing this you will be able to use the captions as reference in the report. Finally, for Figures and Graphs the captions should be inserted below the graphs. For Tables, the captions should be inserted above the table. Check these in any of your textbooks, look how tables and graphs are reported.
Due dates: Reports are due on the dates assigned and there is no time in the schedule for the report to be turned in late because grades are due to the registrar just after the project due date.
Grading: Reports will be graded as if I were an executive trying to make a business decision based upon the written report. Grading will be competitive. That is, your reports will be graded relative to those turned in by your classmates. Proper spelling, syntax, grammar, punctuation, bibliography, citations, footnotes, and professional appearance are expected. Your grade may be lowered as much as two full letter grades if these areas are lacking.
Reviewing papers: I am willing to discuss the logical reasoning and proposed content of your reports. Before visiting my office, emailing or calling me, you should have made significant progress and should be well prepared.
Plagiarism: Don’t do it. Students are expected to adhere to the University policies regarding academic honesty as stated in the student handbook. Cheating or plagiarism will not be tolerated. Plagiarism includes taking exhibits or ideas from books or websites without giving credit to appropriate sources in addition to direct copy/paste instances. I am very strict about this and I will not hesitate to report academic dishonesty to the university. The work you submit MUST be your own thoughts and written in your own words. Written
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assignments will be run through TURNITIN.

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If your submission is above that limit you may be asked to redo the assignment or depending on the severity of the infraction, you
may even receive an automatic 0 on the assignment (and therefore fail the course). In addition, you may also receive an academic dishonesty warning/report.
Suggested Section Topics:
The following is a simple, but effective planning format that will fit many of the sections in this plan. The format is not rigid and should be adapted to the requirements of individual sections as applicable. The four sub-sections that comprise the suggested format are as follows:
⦁ Current Situation
Clearly and concisely present the current situation with any contributing history, and any trends, cycles, changes or future developments that are relevant
⦁ Key Issues
Clearly define the most urgent and important issues as they relate to the current situation for this Section, and the overall purpose of this plan and the company’s Mission. Key issues are usually those strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats, capability gaps and impediments that impact on business performance
⦁ Strategies to Address the Key Issues
Formulate strategies using the SMAAART acronym to address the key issues. SMAAART (Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Achievable, Affordable, Relevant and Time-bound)
⦁ Key Performance Measures and Targets
Establish key performance measures/indicators, performance targets and time lines in conjunction with the strategies to assess and improve performance
For your capstone project there is no reason
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for the TURNITIN match to be any higher than 20%.
Final Report Outline:
Here is a detailed outline of what you should include in your report. You should use the headings and subheadings, but your paper should be in paragraph form. If any of the headings/subheadings do not apply to your project, just type does not apply or disregard the section.
Thus, at a minimum you must develop a strategic plan for the study entity that adequately covers:
⦁ i)  Title Page:
⦁ Strategic Business Plan for “Company Name”
⦁ Period of the Study (i.e. January 2018 to December 2019)
⦁ Team Members
⦁ Originality Statement
⦁ ii)  Summary:

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The Summary is the last section written, but is placed in the front of the paper. It should be restricted to two to three pages in length. In essence the summary is a very effective distillation of the overall strategic plan into a ‘hard hitting’ summary of key performance initiatives and performance targets. Typically it would include a brief description of the company and then the following information about the proposed strategic plan:
⦁ Purpose:
⦁ The Business Opportunity
⦁ The Product
⦁ Main Findings:
⦁ The Market Strategy
⦁ The Management Team
⦁ Profit and Cash Projections
⦁ Investment Needs
⦁ Returns to Investors
⦁ Conclusions and Recommendations
⦁ iii)  Table of Contents
⦁ iv)  Body of the report:
1) Strategic Focus
⦁ The Aim of this Plan: What do we wish to achieve with this plan (start, grow,
consolidate, downsize, or exit)?
⦁ Our Mission: A Mission Statement clearly defines the primary purpose or
reasons for our existence. It is heavily focused on customer value. It is also vital to achieving organizational alignment. A mission statement typically provides clear and concise answers to the following questions:
Remember, I am flexible and I want this project to be as relevant to
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your situation as possible.
⦁ What products and services do we deliver?
⦁ Where and when do we deliver our products and services?
⦁ Which customer groups are our primary groups?
⦁ Where are our primary customers
⦁ What tangible value do our products and services deliver to customers?
⦁ What is our competitive advantage?
⦁ What additional community and environmental benefits do we generate?
⦁ Answers to the above questions provide a start-point for preparing a statement that clearly positions the company in the minds of key stakeholders and customers
⦁ Core Organizational Competencies: Which core organizational skills and competencies are vital to achieving our mission
⦁ Organizational Values: What core organisational values must be imbedded in our organisation to establish a culture capable of achieving our Mission?
⦁ Highest Priority Goals: List up to six of your highest priority goals in order of priority. These goals are formulated at Section 17. Section 17 shows how to use the SMAAART acronym to write clear, concise action-oriented goal statements. SMAAART Goals – are Specific, Measurable, Action-oriented, Achievable, Affordable, Time-bound. An example of a SMAAART Goal: By 30 June 2002 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.
In essence strategic goals progressively take the company to its next level of performance and keep it there.
⦁ Goal One
⦁ Goal Two
⦁ Goal Three
⦁ Goal Four
⦁ Goal Five
⦁ Goal Six
⦁ Performance Objectives: The performance objectives below, in combination, form a performance scorecard for easily tracking the performance improvements generated by this plan. Section 17 provides the inputs for this scorecard. The planning team determines the composition of the performance scorecard.
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Performance Area Performance Measures Target Time Frame
Financial Performance
Customer and Market Performance
Internal Efficiency and Effectiveness
Long Term Development and Innovation
2) The Business:
Provide a concise overview of the business. Areas for consideration when preparing this section to include:
⦁ Owners/Directors/Shareholders/Shareholdings
⦁ A brief history of the business
⦁ Corporate and business cultures
⦁ Nature of the business and it main activities
⦁ Location
⦁ Current stage in its life cycle
⦁ Past performance and key achievements
⦁ Key business advisors – Solicitor, Banker, Accountant, and Consultants
⦁ Relationships with key stakeholders
⦁ Competitive strengths and weaknesses

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3) Market Analysis
Conduct a detailed analysis across each of the following areas to identify and quantify key market opportunities/gaps, barriers to market entry, threats, compliance requirements, risks, performance multipliers, critical success factors, etc. that must be considered when developing high priority product development, marketing and business strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
⦁ Global/National Trends, Developments, Cycles and Changes of Relevance
⦁ Macro-environment (i.e. political, economic, legal, social/cultural,
demographics, technology)
⦁ Industry
⦁ Markets, Customers and Suppliers
⦁ Competitors and their Products
Questions typically asked during the analysis would include:
⦁ What are the industry’s economics, critical success factors, key risks,
competitiveness, compliance and standards requirements, emerging trends
and key technologies?
⦁ Who are the key customers and major competitors in each target markets?
⦁ What are the sizes of the target markets? Are they growing? If yes, at what
rate?
⦁ What market share does each major competitor hold in your primary markets
⦁ What are the strengths and weaknesses of major competitors and their
products?
⦁ What are the competitive price points for products in each market?
⦁ What competitive advantages must your products have to successfully enter
and compete in target markets?
⦁ How will you differentiate your products and add more-customer-value than
competitors?
Key questions about your primary customers:
⦁ Specifically what need or problem does your product target?
⦁ Who will make the decision to purchase your products?
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⦁ What are their decision criteria?
⦁ Where are the products bought?
⦁ How are the products bought?
⦁ When are the products bought?
⦁ Why are the products bought?
⦁ How well do you know your primary customers and key competitors?
⦁ How strong are your relationships with key customers and key stakeholders?
How do you involve them in product development? What factors will be
critical to building strong and enduring brands with them?
⦁ What levels of demand for your products are realistic across your primary
markets?
⦁ In order of priority what are your primary markets? Why?
⦁ How will your primary competitors react when you enter their markets, now
and over the next two years?
⦁ What are you going to do about their responses?
⦁ What are the major barriers to market entry?
⦁ What are the critical success factors for each market?
⦁ What key product distribution, product support and customer service issues
must be considered?

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⦁ Which companies and products are likely to become competitors in the
future?
⦁ What new or emerging technologies and substitute products are likely to
become threats in the future?
4) Products
Based on the findings of Section Three identify your product’s key strengths and weaknesses as they relate to key market opportunities and threats. Then develop strategies to address each issue (eg, build on strengths and correct weaknesses) for each product in your product portfolio. When preparing this section consider the following framework for clustering key issues and related strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
⦁ Describe your current and near-future products?
⦁ What gives your products a clear competitive advantage?
⦁ What are the benefits and value provided to customer as opposed to
‘features’?
⦁ What are the environmental and social impacts and implications?
⦁ What regulations, standards and codes must be complied with?
⦁ At what stage is each product in its life-cycle? For example:
⦁ Research completed
⦁ Prototype completed
⦁ In-house testing
⦁ Customer testing
⦁ Market ready
⦁ First up-grade completed
Also consider conducting the product analysis and planning for this section
across the following stages:
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⦁ Current Situation
⦁ Key Product and Market Issues
⦁ Key Strategies
⦁ Performance Measures and Targets

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5) Marketing
Based on discussions at previous sections develop a concise set of highly focussed marketing strategies for your most attractive and highest priority markets. These strategies will guide your market entry, market development, and brand building activities. Establish budgets for these activities. Set realistic and measurable performance targets and time lines for each market entry/development strategy. These targets are critical to designing and building business and production capacities aligned with expected market demands on entry, and in to the future.
In essence marketing strategies in combination create the well differentiated, high value and compelling proposition to customers that persuades them to purchase from you rather then a competitor. These strategies should build on the competitive strengths of the company while exploiting the weaknesses of key competitors. A highly competitive, high-value proposition to customers is typically created around the following drivers of competitive advantage:
⦁ Product distribution eg, simple, speedy and easy customer-access to the product
⦁ Product benefits highly valued by the customer
⦁ Product promotion
⦁ Customer communication, interaction and feedback
⦁ Product support for the life of the product
⦁ Customer service
⦁ Product pricing and purchasing
⦁ Product presentation and packaging
⦁ Product compliance with all relevant legislation
6) Research and Development
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues (strength, weakness, gaps, threats and opportunities) and develop related strategies for addressing each key issues. Link the R&D effort to your market research, product development and marketing activities discussed in previous sections. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Areas to be analysed to include:
⦁ Sources of R&D
⦁ Current and planned
⦁ Strategic alliances for R&D
⦁ Intellectual Property Protection
⦁ Patents held plus the corporate entity that holds the patents
⦁ Shared intellectual property and its protection
⦁ Intellectual property being used, but not owned
⦁ Intellectual property protection currently being sort for new developments
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⦁ Current and planned R&D activities
⦁ Processes employed for the development and commercialisation of new
products and technologies
7) Production and Delivery
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in production capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the marketing requirements and targets, and R&D requirements developed in earlier sections. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively expand production capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints are factored in to this planning.
Key issues are typically identified following an evaluation of key production and delivery performance-drivers. Typical areas to be addressed during this evaluation include:
⦁ Plant design, location, size and site requirements
⦁ Access to key manufacturing technologies
⦁ Production capacity and capability requirements
⦁ Criteria for selecting contractors and suppliers
⦁ In-house versus out-sourcing of manufacturing requirements
⦁ The manufacturing and production standards, codes, regulations and
OH&S requirements that must be complied with
⦁ Equipment needs
⦁ Inventory management
⦁ Manufacturing processes – configurations and technologies
⦁ Product and production costings
⦁ Purchasing systems
⦁ Quality control systems
⦁ Manufacturing resources planning
⦁ Material requirements planning
⦁ Warehousing
⦁ Scheduling and dispatch
⦁ Material supplies and inventory
⦁ Critical/key inputs to all manufacturing and production processes
⦁ Risk management
⦁ Key staffing and skills requirements
⦁ Clear linkages to, and feedback loops with the company’s marketing,
product development, and R&D functions
⦁ Work systems and teams for staff
⦁ Designing, testing and improving all production and delivery systems
to meet market demands and expected growth
⦁ Key performance measures and targets for controlling and improving
all production and delivery systems to increase production efficiencies
and effectiveness.
⦁ Benchmarking and best-practice
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8) Supply Chains
Provide a background to current activities and list all key suppliers. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in supply chain capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the production and delivery requirements and targets developed at Section Seven. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively improve supply chain capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning. Supply chains assessments to include out-sourcing. For example any R&D that is out-sourced should be included in this assessment. Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
⦁ Current Situation
⦁ Key Supply Chain Issues
⦁ Key Strategies
⦁ Performance Measures and Targets
9) Business Systems and Processes
Based on the plans/strategies developed and performance targets established in sections One to Eight identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – within the business systems and processes that drive business performance. Then develop strategies to address these issues.
Performance reviews to improve internal business systems and processes typically include an assessment of the following performance areas:
⦁ Quality Management (eg, ISO 9001 – Quality Standard, AS 4269 – Complaints
Handling Standard)
⦁ Risk Management (eg, AS/NZS, Risk Management Standard)
⦁ Regulatory Compliance (Search for any Compliance Program Standard)
⦁ Information Management and Security (eg, Security Standard AS/NZS
ISO/IEC 17799:2000)
⦁ Financial management
⦁ Managing the environmental and social impacts of business operations
⦁ Performance improvement across the business, to include performance
indicators and targets
⦁ Future planning and ongoing innovation (eg, new product development &
process innovation)
⦁ Employee performance and morale
⦁ Stakeholder relationships
⦁ Board and management performance
10) Stakeholder Relationships and Alliances
Describe the current situation and list those key stakeholders that currently contribute to business performance. Identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – that relate to improving stakeholder relationships and alliances. Then develop strategies to address each key issue.
Stakeholder groups typically include shareholders/blockholders, customers,
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suppliers of good and services, employees, regulators, the environment, community, and government departments. Questions asked during the stakeholder analysis include:
⦁ Are all of our key stakeholders clearly identified?
⦁ Who will become key stakeholders in the near future?
⦁ Are their expectations and requirements clearly understood?
⦁ Are they regularly consulted?
⦁ Are they kept updated, and involved in those business decisions that will
affect them?

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11) Organization and Management
Section Seven provides clear production and delivery projections and targets for the company. Current organisational structures and human resource capabilities will most likely require improvement to meet these increasing business demands.
Conduct an analysis of the current situation and growth projections for the company to identify the key organisational and human resource issues that must be addressed if these growth projections are to be realised. Then develop strategies with key performance measures and targets to address these key issues.
Areas to be addressed include:
⦁ Organizational Chart – show current structures and future structures
⦁ The Management team with brief resumes – show the situation now and in to
the future
⦁ Staffing requirements – now and in to the future
⦁ Job descriptions and work design for management and staff – now and in to
the future
⦁ Human performance standards, measurement and feedback – now and into
the future
⦁ Management and staff training and development – now and in to the future
⦁ Recruitment and induction – now and in to the future
⦁ Encouraging innovation across the company
⦁ Providing leadership and building morale
⦁ Training needs analysis – now and in to the future
⦁ Occupational health and safety
⦁ Industrial relations
⦁ Wages and on-costs
⦁ Other relevant human resource issues
12) Environmental and Social Impacts
Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
⦁ Current Situation
⦁ Key Environmental and Social Issues
⦁ Key Strategies
⦁ Performance Measures and Targets
15

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13) Risk Factors and Regulatory Compliance
⦁ Risk Management
Establish key risks to the overall business and its performance by identifying high priority risks within each performance area represented by the sections of this plan. Quantify these risks by assessing the gravity of their impacts on the business should they be realised, and determining the probability that they will be realised.
Following quantification of the risks establish an order of priority for their control. Then develop risk management strategies – with performance measures, targets and time lines – that address the highest priority risks.
⦁ Regulatory Compliance
Conduct an audit of regulatory compliance requirements across each area of the business as represented by the sections of this plan. Develop strategies to address regulatory gaps and weaknesses. Search for any Compliance Programs Standard that could provide a good framework for developing an effective compliance management system.
A regulatory compliance audit would typically embrace:
⦁ Corporate governance
⦁ Taxation
⦁ Superannuation
⦁ Employing staff
⦁ Health and safety
⦁ Trade Practices
⦁ Intellectual Property Rights
⦁ Environmental Issues
⦁ The Privacy Act
14) Corporate Governance
Areas to be addressed by this section typically would include:
⦁ Corporate Structures
⦁ Company Constitution
⦁ Board of Directors – Size and Composition
⦁ Duties and Responsibilities of the Board
⦁ Board Performance
⦁ Advisors to the Board
⦁ Shareholder Agreements
⦁ Major Shareholders and Their Representatives
15) Financials
Based on the strategies and plans formulated, costings calculated, and sales projected develop a set of financials for the duration of the plan. These financials should include cash flows, profit and loss, balance sheets, investment requirements, and key financial performance indicators (ratios), and related performance targets.
16) Application of Investment Funds
16
This section should be linked to all prior planning and at minimum address the following:
⦁ What will be the total investment requirement across the duration of this plan
– when and how much?
⦁ Which investors will be involved; how much will they provide and when will
they provide it?
⦁ How will the funds be used at each round of investment?
⦁ What will the capital structure and ownership be after each round of
investment?
17) Strategic Action Plan
Primary Goals, Objectives and Strategies
The Aim of this section is to integrate all strategies developed across previous sections into a cohesive and balanced plan of highly focussed action that will achieve the overarching purpose of this Strategic Plan.
Firstly…..High-priority, clear, action-orientated, time-bound and practicably achievable goals are formulated around clusters of ‘like’ strategies developed across the previous sections. Goals mark a clear and well-marked pathway for achieving the aim of this plan. To ensure the plan has a sharp focus the number of key goals should be restricted to six or less whenever possible. A clear time frame and performance target should be integrated in to each goal statement. An example of a goal statement: By 30 June 2018 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.
After each goal has been clearly formulated develop a set of supporting objectives and strategies. Objectives define the best pathway for achieving each goal. Strategies define the pathway for achieving each objective. Objectives and strategies are also written using the SMAAART acronym – Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Affordable, Achievable, and Time-bound. The final step in developing an interacting hierarchy/network of focussed action is the Task plan. This plan allocates people and resources to completing those tasks required for achieving each strategy. Vital budget and resource considerations are integrated in to the overall planning process to ensure all planned actions are affordable.
The interacting hierarchy/network of action for achieving the aim of the plan is illustrated below. The hierarchy/network of focussed action is not a rigid structure and, where possible, should be adapted to the each situation to ensure it provides fast, effective and relatively simple action pathways for delivering results of significance.
⦁ Key Strategic Goal
⦁ Objectives to achieve the strategic goal
⦁ Strategies to achieve each objective
⦁ Task Plans to achieve each strategy
⦁ Plan Implementation: Typically management in consultation with staff and
17
key stakeholders implements each Goal and its supporting objectives, strategies and action/task plans. Balanced teams can be effectively employed to implement strategies and supporting action/task plans.
18) Plan Improvement
⦁ Performance Measurement: The plan’s performance should be assessed
against its effectiveness in achieving its high priority goals and performance targets.
⦁ Plan Review and Up Date: To ensure the plan continues to provide a sharp focus and remain responsive to change it should be formally reviewed and updated every six months, at the achievement of a Strategic Goal and at any other time deemed necessary. Implementation of this plan is to be a fixed agenda item at meetings of the Board of Directors.
v) References vi) Appendices
18

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Question 10: Mathematics

Q. At Ahmed’s Birth day party,5/7 part of the total cake was distributed. find how much cake is left?

Question 11: Psychology

we are as a imperfect! Do you think That There is a Perfect ? and Why?

Question 12: Finance

Review the article below, which is also in the required reading section of this unit.
Miralles-Quirós, M. d. M., & Miralles-Quirós, J. (2017). Improving diversification opportunities for socially responsible investors. Journal of Business Ethics, 140(2), 339-351. Retrieved from https://libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/login?url=http://search.ebscohost.com/login.aspx?direct=true&db=bth&AN=120928035&site=ehost-live&scope=site
Your article review should include an accurate identification of the article’s premise, significant points in support of the premise, and the significance of these to the course and/or field. Be sure that you present an insightful and thorough analysis with strong arguments and evidence of interpretation.
Your case study analysis should address the components listed below.
⦁ Discuss who socially responsible investors are and how they use U.S. Treasury bills (T-bills), mutual funds, and hedge funds to diversify their portfolios.
⦁ Analyze the results of the T-bills listed and the net asset value (NAV) results for the mutual funds and hedge funds.
⦁ Examine the volatility linkage and the pricing of the three investment options.
⦁ Identify further research needed based on the article.
Your article review should be a minimum of three pages in length, not counting the title and reference pages. You must use a minimum of three sources, which should be properly cited. All references should be formatted in APA style.

Question 13: Biology

If a patient presents to you post ischemic stroke on warfarin and their INR is therapeutic. Do you reverse it?

Question 14: Chemistry

You are asked to prepare a 1.000 L solution of 4.5 M C6H12O6 (glucose; molar mass = 180.16 g/mol) in a lab by dissolving 811.0 g of glucose in water. Consider the following two scenarios in which you commit a user error while preparing this solution.
Prepared in a volumetric flask Prepared in a beaker
Assumed volume 1.000 L 1.000 L
Volumetric error Added water 2.0 cm above the line, which corresponds to 6.3 mL (0.0063 L) additional solution volume 811.0 g takes up 526 mL of space rather than 500 mL of space
Preparation details You add the glucose to a volumetric flask and then add water until it dissolves. The water bottle you are using has a worn tip, and you inadvertently add too much water such that the meniscus is above the line. The diameter of the neck of the volumetric flask is 2.29 cm . You prepare the solution by adding glucose to a large beaker and approximated the volume of the glucose to be 500 mL . Therefore, you add 500. mL of water to the 526 mL in the beaker using a graduated cylinder.
You decide to evaluate and compare the errors you made while preparing the solutions using the different methods. Calculate the actual concentrations of the intended 4.5 M glucose solutions prepared by each method based on their actual final volumes.

Question 15: Engineering

Chemical engineering thermodynamics

Propane gas at 100 °C is compressed isothermally from an initial pressure of 1 bar to a final pressure of 10 bar. Estimate ?H a

Question 16: Law

find and review a scholarly article  on the topic of Management.
Compose a substantive post where you discuss two or more facts/ideas/concepts/etc. covered in the article then explain how those facts/ideas/concepts/etc. relate to your organization or an organization with which you are familiar.

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Question 17: Computer Science

Java Programming
ITEC1620 Assignment#3
⦁ Due: July 31, 11 PM; Late submissions will be rejected.
⦁ Submission upload must be in plain text format; all others will be rejected.
⦁ Name your file with your full name, e.g., peggy_carter.txt.
⦁ Programs/codes must compile – resolve all syntax errors.
⦁ Include appropriate comments describing significant parts of the program.
1.
The program features include:
a) b) c) d) e) f)
AdjustMarks
Marker
Write a Java program called
that gets a set of test scores and uses the
class that calculate
the mean of an array of test scores with the lowest score dropped. See UML diagram provided below.
asking the user for the number of test scores;
creating the scores array to hold the test scores;
creating a Marker object passing the scores array as a parameter;
displaying the lowest score;
adjusting the mean by annulling (dropping) the lowest score and
displaying the adjusted mean; if there is less than 2 scores, the adjusted mean is 0.0 and the user is
informed of the ERROR.
Hint: the getLowestScore method needs to hold the lowest score; get the first test score in the array and step through the rest of the array; when a value less than lowest is found, assign it to lowest; then return the lowest test score.
Sample Output:
How many test scores do you have? 4
Enter score #1: 90
Enter score #2: 80
Enter score #3: 70
Enter score #4: 60
Your adjusted mean is 80.0
Your lowest test score was 60.0

Question 18: Law

1. Describe the importance of integrating the work of experts in college writing
2.summarize the importance of learning to conduct and properly credit the work of experts in college writing. How will doing so help you on your academic journey?
3.Define emotional intelligence. What are the benefits of emotional intelligence? Why should
emotional intelligence be taught to children at a very young age. (Your response should be a
minimum of 150 words)
4.Discuss in detail the role of self awareness in becoming emotionally intelligent. What is self
awareness and how do we become self aware? What role does honesty and transparency play
in this process? (Your response should be a minimum of 200 words)
5 .Discuss in detail the role of self management in becoming emotionally intelligent. What is self
management and what does it look like when we self manage our lives? Explain how this might
be the area of emotional intelligence where we most often fail. (Your response should be a
minimum of 200 words)
6. Discuss in detail the role of social awareness in emotional intelligence. What is social
awareness. How can we become more socially aware? How does this step indicate a move
outside of ourselves and begin our interaction with others? (Your response should be a
minimum of 200 words)
7.Discuss in detail the role of social awareness in emotional intelligence. What is social
awareness. How can we become more socially aware? How does this step indicate a move
outside of ourselves and begin our interaction with others? (Your response should be a
minimum of 200 words)

Question 19: Business

https://www.chegg.com/homework-help/questions-and-answers/case-7-chipotle-mexican-grill-inc-conscious-capitalism-serving-food-i

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Question 20: Computer Science

Operating System

Suppose there are two users A and B on the same system and both running different programs on the same system.
Suppose there are two users A and B on the same system and both running different programs on the same system. User A plans to change the password of the system. As soon as he was changing the password on the system, User B also opened the necessary interface for changing the password of the system and begins changing the password at exactly the same time.
⦁ What flaws do you find in such a system?
⦁ How to solve problems? Give solution

Question 21: Engineering

Assignments in Numerical Methods for Mechanics
1) The maximum distance up an inclined plane (of an inclination ) reached by an object of mass m, taking the air resistance proportional to the instantaneous velocity (constant of proportionality K) into account is
Show that as → 0,
a) Find the inclination of the plane of a 5 kg object moved through a maximum distance of 2 m with an initial velocity of 10 m/s. If K = 2 s/kg.
constant of proportional being K is given by
b) If the maximum height attained by a body of mass m when thrown upward with an initial velocity (air resistance is proportional to its instantaneous velocity, the
0
00 =
At what initial velocity will a body of mass 3 kg be thrown so as to attain a maximum height of 5m. Given that K = 2s/kg. What happens as → 0
2) A rocket has mass M, which includes a mass m of a fuel mixture. During the burning process, the combustion products are discharged at a velocity q > 0 relative to the rocket. This burning involves a loss per second of a mass p of the final mixture. Neglecting all external forces except a constant gravitational force, the maximum theoretical height attained rocket is given by
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2
= + ln − + 2 ln − 2
(if the rocket starts radially from the earth’s surface with velocity of zero) Find the mass of the rocket if for = 1.4, p= 1.0, and = 1080 .
3) An object is projected vertically upward from the earth’s surface with an initial velocity 0 of magnitude less than the escape velocity. If the earth’s influence is taken into account, the time for the projectile to reach the maximum height is
2 2 2 − 2 = (arcsin0+0 0
(2 − 2)2 2 2 3
a) Show, by series or otherwise, that if 02 ≪ 2 (i.e initial velocity much smaller than escape velocity), then the time to reach the maximum height is approximately 0/
4) An object falls y distance from the center of the earth (radius ). Show that it hits the
earth’s surface with a speed equal to 2 (1 − )
2 − = ( − ) + arccos
If the object reaches the earth’s surface in a time given by
2 2 2
3
= 6378.11 , = 384.467 ∗ 10
(assuming that air resistance is negligible). Find the time to reach the earth surface if
5) A horizontal simply supported, uniform beam of length L and negligible weight bends under the influence of a concentrated load of P N, distance L/3 from one end. If the equation of the elastic curve is given by 2 3
⎧ (5 −9 ) 0≤ ≤ /3
= ⎨ 81 27 3
⎩81 (5 2 − 9 3 + 2 − 3 3 ≤ ≤
6) From the immemorial, mankind has gazed at the moon, wondering about many things, one of them being whether a day might come when men could be there.
Following the Newton’s law of universal gravitation which shows the possibility of firing a projectile (rocket) out of the earth (or a huge cannon) with an escape velocity of
= 2 − 2 0 2 + 2 2 − 2 0 2
0
+ + + 9( + + )
where , are the acceleration and the radius of the moon. L is the distance between the earth’s surface and the moon’s surface. is the radius of the earth. g is the acceleration
due to gravity on the earth.

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If a rocket is fired vertically upward from the earth’s surface with an initial velocity
Find the initial velocity of the rocket if it reaches a maximum distance of 240,000 miles in
= 1737.41 , = 6378.11 , = 384.467 ∗ 103
7. At the last conference of Nigeria Society of Engineers (NSE), a mechanical engineer presented a paper on the “Effects of Noise on Machine Operator”. In the work, he developed a mathematical model using Taylor’s series and carried out all the computations to four decimal places.
i. identity the possible types of numerical error that might have been committed by the engineer during the computations.
(less than that of escape velocity). And it reaches the maximum height at a time
0
50 hrs.
= 2 2 arcsin 0 + 0 2 − 02 (2 − 02)32 2 2
ii. Define the errors and state how they can be minimized.
b The relationship between the applied pressure, P and the radius of the plastic front, rf in the elasto-plastic analysis of thick-walled cylindrical pressure vessel is given as
P= 2 +1− 2
√3 2
where σo is the yield stress of the cylinder material, ri and ro are the inner and outer radius of
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the cylinder, respectively. Given that σo=220 N/mm2, ri = 320 mm and ro=450 mm, use Newton- Raphson’s method, find the radius of the plastic front when the applied pressure is 81.29 N/m2.
8. Fig. Q1 shows a wind tunnel with a suspended object. The force measured for various levels of wind velocity are given in the Table below.
Fig. Q1: A wind tunnel with a suspended object.
v(m/s) 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 F (N) 25 70 380 550 610 1220 830 1450
⦁ Use the data above, develop an empirical model for the relationship between the force and the wind velocity.
⦁ With the aids of Simpson’s 1/3rd rule and Newton-Gregory forward difference scheme, find power developed by the wind tunnel. Compare your results and establish the relative difference between them.
(i) (ii) (iii)
9. The dynamic mechanical spring-mass system with aid of Newton’s second law of motion is given by
( − )+ ( − )− = ̈ 2213311111
− 2( 2 − 1) + 4( 3 − 2) = 2 2̈ − 3( 3 − 1) − 4( 3 − 2) − 5 3 = 3 3̈
10). Solve equation 2 − 1 1/2
2 − 1 1/2 = 1/2 tan−1 2 −tan−1 1
− ((tan−1( 2 − 1)1/2) − (tan−1( 12 − 1)1/2))
using the Newton-Raphson’s method. Construct a table of M vs for = 1.4 and 1 = 1.0, for 0 ≤ δ ≤ 40 , in increments Δ = 1.0 , let 0 = 1.06 and 1 = 1.08. For subsequent values of , let 0 be the previous solution value and 1 = 1.01 0.
11). The van der Waal equation of state for a vapor is
+ ( − ) = 223
Where P is the pressure (Pa = N/m ), v is the specific volume (m /kg), T is the temperature (K), R is the gas constant (J/kg-K), and a and b are empirical constants. Consider water vapor, for which R = 461.495 J/kg-K, a = 1703.28 Pa-(m3/kg)3, and b = 0.00169099 (m /kg). Equation (F) can be rearranged into the form
3 3 − ( + ) 2 + − = 0
Calculate the specific volume v for P = 10,000 kPa and T = 800K. Use the ideal gas law, Pv = RT, to obtain the initial guess (or guesses). Present the results in the format illustrated in the examples
12. When an incompressible fluid flows steadily through a round pipe, the pressure drop due to the effects of wall friction is given by the empirical formula:
Δ = −0.5 2
Where Δ is the pressure drop, is the density, V is the velocity, L is the pipe length, D is the pipe diameter, and f is the D’Arcy friction coefficient. Several empirical formulas exist for the friction coefficient f as a function of the dimensionless Reynolds number, = / , where is the viscosity. For flow in the turbulent regime between completely smooth pipe surfaces and wholly rough pipe surfaces, Colebrook (1939) developed the following empirical relation for the friction coefficient f:
1 =−2log / + 2.51 1/2 10 3.7 1/2
where is the pipe surface roughness. Develop a procedure to determine f for the specified values of / and Re. Use the approximation proposed by Generaux (1939) to determine the initial approximation(s):
= 0.16 −0.16
Solve for f for a pipe having / = 0.001 for = 10 , for n = 4, 5, 6, and 7.
13. Consider quasi-one-dimensional isentropic flow of a perfect gas through a variable-area
channel. The relationship between the Mach number M and the flow area A, derived by
12 −1 ε= ∗= +1 1+ 2 2
( +1)/2( −1)
Zucrow and Hoffman [1976, Eq. (4.29)], is given by
where ∗ is the choking area (i.e., the area where M = 1) and is the specific heat ratio of the flowing gas. For each value of , two values of M exist, one less than unity (i.e,. subsonic flow) and one greater than unity (i.e., supersonic flow). Calculate both values of
M for = 10.0 and = 1.4 by Newton’s method. For the subsonic root, let 0 = 0.2. For the supersonic root, let 0 = 5.0.
14. Consider isentropic supersonic flow around a sharp expansion corner. The relationship between the Mach number before the corner (i.e., M1) and after the corner (i.e., M2), derived by Zucrow and Hoffman [1976] is given by
−1 1/2 −1 1/2 = 1/2 tan−1 2 −tan−1 12
− ((tan−1( 2 − 1)1/2) − (tan−1( 12 − 1)1/2))
where = ( + 1)/( − 1) and is the specific heat ratio of the gas. Develop a procedure to solve for M2 for specified values of , , 1. For = 1.4, solve for M2 for the following combinations of M1and : (a) 1.0 and 10.0 deg, (b) 1.0 and 20.0 deg, (c) 1.5 and
10.0 deg, and (d) 1.5 and 20.0 deg. Use 2(0) = 2.0 and 2(1) = 1.5.
15. An emf of 0 volts, where 0, are constants, is applied at t = 0 to a series circuit
)
= ( + − 222
consisting of R ohms and C farad where R and C are constant. If Q = 0 at t = 0 and at t > 0
0 + 1
If = 20Ω, C = 0.01 farad, = 5 / , 0 = 10
− /
i) At what time in the circuit the charges reaches 0.075 coulomb ii) At what time in the circuit is the charge maximum.
16. When an ideal gas flows in a variable-area passage in the presence of friction and heat transfer, the Mach number M is governed by the following Ode [see Eq. (9.112) in Zucrow and Hoffman, Vol. 1 (1976)}:
= [1 + (( − 1) 2)/2] − 1 + 1 2 4 + 1 (1 + 2) 1
1− 2 2 2
where x is the distance along the passage (cm), is the ratio of specific heats (dimensionless), A is the cross-sectional flow area (cm2), f is the friction coefficient (dimensionless), D is the diameter of the passageway (cm), and T is the stagnation temperature (K). For a conical flow passage with a circular cross section, = 2/4, where ( ) = 1 + , where D1 is the inlet diameter. Thus,
= = ( + ) = ( + ) = 424 1 221 2
The stagnation temperature T is given by
( )= + ( ) 1
where Q(x) is the heat transfer along the flow passage (J/cm) and C is the specific heat (kJ/kg-K). Thus,
For a linear heat transfer rate, = + , and
= 1 ( + ) =
= 1
The friction coefficient f is an empirical function of the Reynolds number and passage
conditions. Consider a problem where = = 0.0, = 0.25 / , = 1.4, and =
surface roughness. It is generally assumed to be constant for a specific set of flow
1.0 . Calculate M(x) for x = 0.0 to 5.0 cm for (a) Mi = 0.7 and (b) Mi = 1.5 17. The governing equation for a projectile shot vertically upward is
2 = − − | | (0) = 0 ′(0) = 2 0
where m is the mass of the projectile (kg), y(t) is the height (m), g is the acceleration of gravity (9.80665 m/s2),
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C is an aerodynamic drag parameter, and V = dy/dt is the velocity. For m = 10.0kg, C = 0.1 N-s2/m2, and V0 = 500.0 m/s, calculate (a) the maximum height attained by the projectile, (b) the time required to reach the maximum height, and (c) the time required to return to the original elevation.
18. A machine of mass m (kg) rests on a support that exerts both a damping force and a spring force on the machine. The support is subjected to the displacement ( ) = . From
Newton’s second law of motion,
0 2
2 = − − − ( − )
where (y – Y) is the relative displacement between the machine and the support, C is the damping coefficient, and K is the spring constant. Determine the motion of the machine during the first cycle of oscillation of the support for m = 1,000.0 kg, C = 5,000.0 N-s/m, K = 50,000.0 N/m, Y0 = 1.0 cm, = 100.0 / and y(0) = y’(0) = 0.0.
+ +1 = ( ) (0)= (0)=
19. The current i(t) in a series L-R-C circuit is governed by the ODE
00
where i is the current (amps), q is the charge (coulombs), dq/dt = I, L is the inductance (henrys), C is the capacitance (farads), and V is the applied voltage (volts). Let L = 100.0 mH, R = 10.0 ohms, C = 1 mf, V = 10.0 volts, i0 = 0.0, and q0 = 0.0. Calculate i(t) and q(t) for t = 0.0 to 0.05 s. What is the maximum current, and at what time does it occur?
equation
20. The angular displacement ( ) (radians) of a frictionless pendulum is governed by the
2 + =0 (0)= ′(0)= ′ 2 0 0
where g is the acceleration of gravity (9.80665 m/s2) and L is the length of the pendulum (m). For small , the governing equation simplifies to
2 + = 0 2
Solve for ( ) for one period of oscillation for (0.0) = 0.1 0.5 , ′(0.0) = 0.0, and L = 0.1, 1.0, and 10.0 m, using the simplified equation.
21. The population of two species competing for the same food supply can be modeled by the pair of ODEs: 1 = ( − − ) (0) =
111112 1 1,0 2 = ( − − ) (0) =

where AN is the birthrate, BN models the death rate due to disease, and 1 2 models
222221 2 2,0
2
the death rate due to competition for the food supply. If (0.0)= (0.0)=
12 100,000, 1 = 0.1, 1 = 0.0000008, and 2 = 0.0000001, calculate 1( ) 2( )
for t = 0.0 to 10.0 years.
22. Consider a projectile of mass m (kg) shot upward at the angle (radians) with respect to the horizontal at the initial velocity 0 (m/s). The two ODEs that govern the displacement, x(t) and y(t) (m), of the projectile from the launch are ′
2 = − | | (0) = 0 (0) = (0) = 2 0
2 = − | | − (0) = 0 ′(0) = (0) = 2 0
where the vector velocity V = iu + jv, u = dx/dt and v = dy/dt, C is a drag parameter, = tan−1( / ), and g is the acceleration of gravity (9.80665 m/s2). For m = 10.0 kg, C = 0.1 N-s2/m2, V0 = 500.0 m/s, = 1.0 radian, and a level terrain, calculate (a) the maximum height attained by the projectile, (b) the corresponding time, (c) the maximum range of the projectile, (d) the corresponding time, and (e) the velocity V at impact.
23. The temperature distribution in a cylindrical rod made of a radioactive isotope is governed

2 + 1 = 1 + 2 (0) = 0 ( ) = 0
by the ordinary differential equation
2
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Solve this problem for T(r), where R = 1.0 and A = -100.0.
24. The velocity distribution in the laminar boundary layer formed when an incompressible fluid flows over a flat plate is related to the solution of the ordinary differential equation
′′
3 + 2 =0 (0)=0, (0)=0, ( )→1 →∞
3 2
where f is a dimensionless stream function, the velocity u is proportional to ′( ), and is proportional to distance normal to the plate. Solve this problem for ( ).

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25. The deflection of a simply supported and uniformly loaded beam is governed by the ordinary differential equation (for small deflections)
2 = − + 2 (0) = 0 ( ) = 0 2 2 2
where q is the uniform load per unit length, L is the length of the beam, I is the moment of inertia of the beam cross section, and E is the modulus of elasticity. For a rectangular beam, = h3/12, where w is the width and h is the height. Consider a beam (E = 200 GN/m2) 5.0m long, 5.0 cm wide, and 10.0 cm high, which is subjected to the uniform load q = – 1,500 N/m on the 5.0 cm face. Solve for the deflection y(x)
26. When the load on the beam described in problem 120 is applied on the 10.0 cm face, the deflection will be large. In that case, the governing differential equation is
( 2 / 2) = − + 2 [1 + ( / )2]3/2 2 2
For the properties specified in problem 120, determine y(x).
27. The angular displacement ( ) of a frictionless pendulum is governed by the ODE ′ ′ + = 0 ( 0 ) = 0 ′ ( 0 ) = 0′

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Reduce this second-order ODE to a pair of first-order ODEs and use Fourth-order Runge-
Kutta Method to solve the equation using L=0.56 m.
28. The governing equation for the displacement y(t) of a projectile shot vertically upward is
′′ + | | = − (0) = 0, ′(0) = (0) = 0
where V = dy/dt is the projectile velocity, C is the drag parameter, and g is the acceleration of gravity. Reduce this second-order ODE to a pair of first-order ODEs and use Fifth-order Runge-Kutta Method to solve the equation using C=0.0278 N/kg.
29. The governing ODEs for the position, x(t) and y(t) of a projectile shot at an angle with
′′ + | | = 0 (0) = 0, ′′(0) = (0) = 0
respect to the horizontal are
′′ + | | = − (0) = 0, ′(0) = (0) = 0
where = ( 2 + 2)1/2, = tan−1( / ), u = dx/dt, v = dy/dt, C is a drag parameter, and
g is the acceleration of gravity. Reduce this pair of coupled second-order ODEs to a set of four first-order ODEs and use Fourth-order Runge-Kutta Method to solve the equation using C=0.0278 N/kg..
.
30. When a fluid flows over a surface, the shear stress ( / 2) at the surface is given by the
expression
= where is the viscosity (N-s/m2), is the velocity parallel to the surface (m/s), and y is the distance normal to the surface (cm). Measurements of the velocity of an air stream flowing above a surface are made with an LDV (laser Doppler-velocimeter). The values given in Table 3 were obtained.
Table 1. Velocity Measurements
At the local temperature, = 0.00024 − / 2. Calculate (a) the difference table for u(y), (b) du/dy at the surface based on first-, second-, and third-order polynomials, (c) the corresponding values of the shear stress at the surface, and (d) the shear force acting on a flat plate 10 cm long and 5 cm wide.
y u y u
0.0 0.00 2.0 88.89
1.0 55.56 3.0 100.00

Question 22: Health Care

Marguerite M and the Angiogram Case

Answer the case questions found at the end of the case narrative; be sure to respond using well-thought-ot and well-written statements being mindful of spelling, grammar and clarity of statements. Each question must be answer with a minimum of 300-350 words.
A grading rubric is also provided

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Case Study Grading Rubric
Purpose: Discussion Cases are based on real-life occurrences and offer practical application of information discussed within chapters. These cases are used to stimulate and draw upon the student’s critical-thinking skills and problem-solving ability.
Five Criteria for each question Focus Specificity Support Throughtfulness Use of Language
Excellent
(40 – 50 points) Responses may vividly clear and accurate references to each specific question. Majority of responses include specific details. Response are well- supported. Responses are articulate and show a high-level of thought. Writing is well- organized, unified, and error-free.
Good
(31 – 39 points) Responses make some references to questions but do not address each of them in a clear and accurate manner. Some responses include specific details. Responses are somewhat well- supported. Responses show some thought. Writing is somewhat organized and unified, with some errors.
Fails to meet expectations (0 – 30 points) Responses make very few clear and accurate references to questions posed. No responses include specific details. Responses are not supported. Comments show no thought. Writing is not organized or unified; errors impair communication.

CASE STUDY #3 (CHAPTER 13)
THE CASE OF MARGUERITE AND THE ANGIOGRAM
Marguerite M., an 89-year-old widow, was admitted into the cardiac intensive care unit in Chicago’s Memorial Hospital at 3:00 A.M. on a Sunday morning with a massive heart attack (myocardial infarction). Her internist, Dr. K., who is also a close family friend, has ordered an angiogram to determine the status of Marguerite’s infarction (heart attack). Dr. K. has found that the angiogram and resulting treatment need to be done within the first six hours after an infarction in order to be effective. Therefore, the procedure is going to be done as soon as the on-call surgical team can set up the angiography room. The radiologist, who lives 30 minutes from the hospital, must also be in the hospital before the procedure can begin. At 4:30 A.M. the team is ready to have Marguerite, who is barely conscious, transferred from the intensive care unit (ICU) to the surgical suite.
Coincidentally, at 4:30 A.M. Sarah W., an unconscious 45-year-old woman, is brought in by ambulance with a massive heart attack. The emergency room (ER) physicians, after conferring with her physician by phone, conclude that she will need a balloon angiography (dilating an obstructed vessel by threading a balloon-tipped catheter into the vessel) to save her life. When they call the surgical department to have the on-call angiography team brought in, they are told the room is already set up for Dr. K’s patient. They do not have another team or surgical room for Sarah. A decision is made that since Sarah needs the balloon angiography in order to survive, they will use the angiography team for her.
Dr. K. is called at home and told that his patient, Marguerite, will not be able to have the angiogram. The hospital is going to use the angiography team for Sarah, since she is younger than Marguerite and has a greater chance for recovery. Unfortunately, it took longer than expected to stabilize Sarah before and after the procedure and the six-hour “window” when the procedure could be performed on Marguerite passed. Marguerite expired (died) the following morning.
Case Questions
⦁ Do you believe that this case presents a legal or ethical problem, or both?
⦁ What do you believe should be the criteria for a physician to use when having to choose between a solution that benefits one patient at the expense of another?
⦁ How can Dr. K. justify this decision when speaking to the family of Marguerite M.?
⦁ What options does a member of the angiography team or caregiver for Marguerite have if he or she disagrees with this decision?

Question 23: Mathematics

1Find g(p) given g(x)=-x^2+4x+4

Question 24: Business

Business Policy/Strategic Planning Assignment 2

Bed Bath and Beyond
Prepare the following section for this assignment (note: the purpose of this assignment is to ensure successful progress is being made toward completion of the final Company/Case Analysis and to provide a continued review by the professor of the APA requirements):
⦁ Cover page
⦁ What is this organization’s strategy to compete? Is the strategy working? Perform a complete, fully developed with explanations, SWOT analysis. (A minimum of eight components for element of SWOT, along with the identification and justification of the UT: Ultimate Threat is required: 8 components for each SWOT element=C, 11=B, 14=A).

Question 25: Business

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Business Policy/Strategic Planning Essay questions

⦁ What is meant by the term “Corporate Culture?” Summarize the “Golfer” article, include each of the “key” concepts from this article, and then provide a comparison of each of these “keys” to your current or last job.  Can play and fun interfere with constructive employee efforts? Explain. Discuss how to incorporate (and then implement) “fun” into the strategic planning process.

2. List and explain four key, core competencies that will assist any organization in developing an employee-based, sustainable competitive advantage?  Many organizations are faced with the human resource problem: “the right people aren’t in the right jobs.” Should the leaders of the organization in your case (or place of employment, current or immediate past) spend more time selecting, appraising, and developing people? Why? Is this the solution to strategy execution? Why?
3.Discuss these statements from your point of view (agree or disagree and why):
⦁ “In creating a strategy-supportive reward structure it is important to define jobs and assignments in terms of the results to be accomplished, not just in terms of the duties to be performed.”
⦁ “The use of incentives and rewards is the simple most powerful tool at management’s disposal to win strong employee commitment to carrying out the strategic plan.?
4. Summarize each of the following three models and then compare and contrast each:
⦁ BCG Model
⦁ GE Model
⦁ Product Lifecycle

5. Discuss the differences between a vision and a mission. Why are organizations finding it difficult to execute the strategies that they design? Discuss in detail (with three examples from the Bed Bath, and Beyond) how an organization implements strategies effectively.
6. What is the value of a SWOT analysis? What are the key considerations to performing this analysis? How does it contribute to the task of crafting strategy? Why is it appropriate to argue that good strategy-making and good strategy-implementing are valid signs of good management?
7. Using the industry from Bed Bath and Beyond, explain the major factors that enter into an assessment of whether an industry does or does not have long-term attractiveness? Can an industry be attractive to one company and unattractive to another? Why? How does a company develop a competitive capability and then the ultimate competitive advantage?
8. Perform a SWOT Analysis on/for Indiana Tech, listing four examples for each component of the SWOT, along with the UT (ultimate threat).
9. Discuss the relationship of a continuous improvement program to the strategic planning process. How can a total quality culture be the ultimate strategic competitive advantage? Explain through three examples.
10. Explain the following quote and provide a plan of action with four examples, in regards to “what it takes to get it done.”   “Implementing and executing strategy is the ultimate task of strategic management.  It involves seeing what it will take to ‘make it happen,’  then getting it done in a manner that achieves the targeted results.”
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Question 26: Business

Business Policy/Strategic Planning

Company Analysis and Questions: Bed Bath & Beyond
⦁ Cover page
⦁ Historical background of the company (3-5 pages)
⦁ Discuss the distinguishing features (Market size, Market growth rate, Industry strength, etc.) of the industry that the company is in.

Question 27: Accounting

Financial Derivative

Mr Yong is an investor who is always wavering in his decisions. On day 1, he went long 3 SIF contracts of June maturity. On day 2, he shorted 2 June SIF contracts. A few days later, he sold a June index call option and simultaneously bought a June index put option. Assuming all contracts were bought/sold at the same exercise/strike prices, what is Mr Yong’s net position now?

Question 28: Finance

In the textbook, we learned about the CAMELS system for rating banks. For this assignment, research and provide specific information on what CAMELS measures. Below is the recommended format for your assignment.
⦁ Include a title page (page 1).
⦁ Find the CAMELS rating for one of the top five banks (JPMorgan Chase, Bank of America, Wells Fargo, Citigroup, or Goldman Sachs) on the FDIC website  ⦁ here. Provide an analysis of their scores. What do they mean for the bank (page 2)?
⦁ Chart the risks associated with each financial institution (page 3).
⦁ Include a reference page (page 4).
Your submission should be a minimum of two pages in length, not counting the title and reference pages. All sources must be properly cited; all references should be formatted in APA style.

Question 29: Business

Four types of questions that can help a business studies teacher to gauge how effectively learners are learning

Question 30: Business

Activities that can be used by Enterpreneurship teachers to effectively assess learners formatively during

Question 31: Sociology

Assignment: You are to observe, record & interpret a social situation (the environment, material culture, people, what they do, say, feel, how it smells- use all of your senses!). (6 pages including reference).

Instruction
I. Introduce your topic: what are you going to write about and why did you choose it? You might provide some background to tell me about this. II. Record and describe a social situation to the fullest you can. Do not leave out details but describe it to the fullest you can, do not evaluate it yet. III. Analyze it: that is evaluate the social situation based on criteria you select This means you are going to evaluate the social situation in which you observed people doing something….according to criteria you find interesting. It can be social status, rank, economics, reciprocity, political situation, descent, kinship, status, as a form of religious practice, etc. You can use Erving Goffman’s dramaturgical model to explain your setting and its social interaction. Examples: a) You might consider looking at your social situation for evidence of status or political preference, ethnicity, community. b) You might analyze a celebration you attend in your community. How is this social event a representation of American culture? IV. Interpret: Finally, explain why your observations are important given the context of the situation

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Questions 1: General Questions

NSG 6435 Week 8 Quiz/ NSG6435 Week 8 Quiz (Latest): South University (Already graded A)
NSG 6435 Week 8 Quiz/ NSG6435 Week 8 Quiz (Latest): South University (Already graded A)

Question 2: Business

HRM 530 Week 6 Dismal Meeting Imagine that you are an office manager and you have been tasked with the job of coordinating and heading the dismissal meeting for an employee layoff. Write a six to eight (6-page paper in which you:
PROPOSE THREE (3) WAYS THAT A MANAGER CAN COPE WITH ANY NEGATIVE EMOTIONS THAT MAY ACCOMPANY AN EMPLOYEE LAYOFF.
DESCRIBE A STEP-BY-STEP PROCESS OF CONDUCTING THE DISMISSAL MEETING
DETERMINE THE COMPENSATION THAT THE FICTITIOUS COMPANY MAY PROVIDE TO THE SEPARATED EMPLOYEE.
CREATE A CHART THAT DEPICTS THE TIMELINE OF THE DISBURSEMENT OF THE COMPENSATION.
PREDICT THREE (3) WAYS THAT THIS LAYOFF MAY AFFECT THE COMPANY.
3-REFERENCES

Question 3: Business

Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. Use Under Armour Company
Write a four to six (4-6) page paper in which you:
⦁ Assess how globalization and technology changes have impacted the corporation you researched.
⦁ Apply the industrial organization model and the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns.
⦁ Assess how the vision statement and mission statement of the corporation influence its overall success.
⦁ Evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of this corporation.
⦁ Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
⦁ This course requires use of Strayer Writing Standards (SWS). The format is different than other Strayer University courses. Please take a moment to review the SWS documentation for details.
⦁ Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
⦁ Determine ways in which the vision, mission, and stakeholders of a firm impact that firm’s overall success.
⦁ Use technology and information resources to research issues in business administration.
⦁ Write clearly and concisely about business administration using proper writing mechanics.

Question 4: Business

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1) Explain the connection between the US trade deficit and financial capital flows.
2) Explain how comparative advantage determines the pattern of trade. Use an example to aid in your explanation.
3) Explain how the Stolper-Samuelson theorem indicates that free trade will (likely) worsen income inequality in the US, but (likely) narrow it for Mexico.
4) Show the effects on US welfare from each of the following events. a. Imposition of a tariff on a small, perfectly competitive market b. Imposition of a tariff on a small, imperfectly competitive market c. Imposition of a tariff on a large, perfectly competitive market
5) Show the effects on US welfare from each of the following events. a. Imposition of a quota on a small, perfectly competitive market b. Imposition of a quota on a small, imperfectly competitive market
6) If the US is a large importing country and imposes a tariff on the import of a good, what will the welfare effect on the exporting country be?
7) Assume that the US is a large country in the semi-conductor market. If the US is an exporter of the good and experiences a technological improvement, will the US always be better off? Show and explain why or why not.
8) National security demands have made it imperative for the US to close the toilet paper trade gap (just think what would happen in times of war if we couldn’t produce our own!). The government has decided to reduce our imports from 100 million units to 90 million units. As the supreme TP czar, which of the following policies should be chosen? Show and explain why. a. A production subsidy b. A consumption tax c. An import tariff
9) Show why in a competition between the Boeing and Airbus that autarky may be the preferred welfare situation to free trade. Explain how you draw this conclusion. 10) Explain why a VER is likely to generate lower welfare than a quota.
10) Explain why a VER is likely to generate lower welfare than a quota.
11) Explain what constraints the WTO places on US government actions.
12) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of fixed and flexible exchange rates. In your answer, consider the ramifications for fiscal and monetary policy.
13) Explain how trade may reduce pressure for immigration.
14) For each of the following cases indicate the expected change in the equilibrium exchange rate (€/$). Use supply and demand analysis (no credit without the graph). a) an increase in EU interest rates b) a fall in the price level in the US c) an increase in US barriers to imports from the EU
15) Explain why labor unions may wish to oppose international trade. Does this entail that this is a “good” government policy? Explain.
16) Explain why “dumping” is considered to be unfair trade. Does dumping – if unfair or not – cause harm in the dumped upon country? What condition is required for harm to accrue?
17) What is a senescent industry? How is protection for international trade supposed to aid this industry? How is it supposed to aid the country? Under what conditions will the aid actually accrue to the industry and the country?
1) Explain what is meant by “dollarization.” What might lead a country to make this choice for managing its money supply?
2) Explain how a managed float differs from a freely floating (flexible) exchange rate.
3) What are the relative advantages and disadvantages of fixed v. flexible exchange rate systems?
4) For each of the following cases, explain that is the “best” tool for the goal trying to be achieved. Clearly demonstrate why this is the “best” tool. a) The US wishes to contain pollution generated by the consumption of widgets. b) The US wishes to protect jobs in the widgets sector. c) The US wishes to restrain imports in the widgets sector to reduce the trade imbalance with Widgeria.
5) How does the existence of “3-way trades” undermine the usefulness of the supply and demand model of the exchange rate for precisely predicting what the exchange rate will be?
1) Explain how a fixed exchange rate may contribute to a currency crisis? Is any fixed exchange rate subject to this risk?
2) Given the following information where should you invest in order to maximize your return? e = 0.001 $/peso f = 0.0011 $/peso Nominal interest rate in the US = 8% Nominal interest rate in Mexico = 10% Given your investment pattern, how do you expect the variables to evolve over time?
3) What is the Law of One Price? Under what assumptions does the Law of One Price lead to the Purchasing Power Parity model of exchange rates?
4) Suppose that the money supply in the US falls. What will happen to the value of the dollar in the foreign exchange markets? Justify your answer using at least two (2) models of the exchange rate.
1) For each of the following changes, show the direction of shift (if any) for the IS curve. a) An increase in the foreign price level b) A fall in foreign income levels c) An increase in domestic tax rates d) A strengthening of the dollar in the foreign exchange markets e) A collapse in business confidence f) An increase in the money supply
2) For each of the following changes, show the direction of shift (if any) for the LM curve. a) An increase in the domestic price level b) A decrease in the money supply c) A fall in the precautionary demand for money d) A strengthening of the dollar in the foreign exchange markets

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Question 5: Business

Finite Mathematics

⦁ 1.  Why is it important to represent data with graphing
tools?

2. What are the similarities and differences between a histogram and a frequency table?

3. What is the difference between a frequency polygon and a cumulative frequency polygon? Explain.

4. In a given frequency table, if represents the total sum of the frequencies and if denotes a frequency of a class, then what is the relative frequency of that class in terms of and? Explain.

5. What is the difference between the relative frequency and the cumulative relative frequency?

6. In constructing the ogive, do we need to know what is the frequency of each class, or knowing the cumulative for each class is sufficient? Explain.

7. A given frequency table has 3 classes, Class1, Class2, and Class3. To total number of frequencies is 10 and Class1 and Class2 have frequencies 2 and 3 respectively. What is the relative frequency of Class3?

8. Compute the mean of the following data: 4, 3, 6, 6, 6. Explain your work.

9. Given the following data: 3, 3, 4, 5, 7, 7, 7. What is the mode, median, and the mean? Explain.

10. A fair die is rolled 300 times and each time the result is recorded. What would you expect the mean of the formed data set be? Explain.

11. A data set is formed by recording the sums on a 100 rolls of a pair of a fair dice. What would you expect the mean of the data set be?

12. Construct a set of four numbers that have mean 10, mode 8, and median 9. Explain.

13. Suppose we have a data of size two, say x1 and x2 whose mean is 5. If , compute the value of x2.

14. Suppose that we have the data {x1, x2, …, xn} such that =…. What is the mean of the data? What is the standard deviation?

15. In the formula for the mean of the grouped data, what do you get when you have all group frequencies equal to 1?

16. Compute the standard deviation of the following data: 3, 3, 4, 6.

17. Suppose we have a data of size two, say x1 and x2. What is the standard deviation?

18. Explain why the variance is never negative.

19. Suppose we have a data whose standard deviation is zero. What conclusion can you derive about the data?

20. Two data sets of the same size have standard deviations s1 and s2. If s1<s2, then how do these data sets compare?

21. A data set is formed by recording the sums in 200 rolls of a pair of a dice. A second data set is formed by recording the results of 200 draws of a ball from a box containing 11 balls numbered 2 through 12. Which of the data sets would you expect to have a smaller standard deviation? Explain.

22. Assume that we have a data of size 3 with mean 5 and mode 3. Compute the standard deviation.

Question 6: Mathematics

Finite Mathematics
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⦁ 1.  Why is it important to represent data with graphing
tools?

2. What are the similarities and differences between a histogram and a frequency table?

3. What is the difference between a frequency polygon and a cumulative frequency polygon? Explain.

4. In a given frequency table, if represents the total sum of the frequencies and if denotes a frequency of a class, then what is the relative frequency of that class in terms of and? Explain.

5. What is the difference between the relative frequency and the cumulative relative frequency?

6. In constructing the ogive, do we need to know what is the frequency of each class, or knowing the cumulative for each class is sufficient? Explain.

7. A given frequency table has 3 classes, Class1, Class2, and Class3. To total number of frequencies is 10 and Class1 and Class2 have frequencies 2 and 3 respectively. What is the relative frequency of Class3?

8. Compute the mean of the following data: 4, 3, 6, 6, 6. Explain your work.

9. Given the following data: 3, 3, 4, 5, 7, 7, 7. What is the mode, median, and the mean? Explain.

10. A fair die is rolled 300 times and each time the result is recorded. What would you expect the mean of the formed data set be? Explain.

11. A data set is formed by recording the sums on a 100 rolls of a pair of a fair dice. What would you expect the mean of the data set be?

12. Construct a set of four numbers that have mean 10, mode 8, and median 9. Explain.

13. Suppose we have a data of size two, say x1 and x2 whose mean is 5. If , compute the value of x2.

14. Suppose that we have the data {x1, x2, …, xn} such that =…. What is the mean of the data? What is the standard deviation?

15. In the formula for the mean of the grouped data, what do you get when you have all group frequencies equal to 1?

16. Compute the standard deviation of the following data: 3, 3, 4, 6.

17. Suppose we have a data of size two, say x1 and x2. What is the standard deviation?

18. Explain why the variance is never negative.

19. Suppose we have a data whose standard deviation is zero. What conclusion can you derive about the data?

20. Two data sets of the same size have standard deviations s1 and s2. If s1<s2, then how do these data sets compare?

21. A data set is formed by recording the sums in 200 rolls of a pair of a dice. A second data set is formed by recording the results of 200 draws of a ball from a box containing 11 balls numbered 2 through 12. Which of the data sets would you expect to have a smaller standard deviation? Explain.

22. Assume that we have a data of size 3 with mean 5 and mode 3. Compute the standard deviation.

Question 7: Business

Assignment 1: Madoff Securities
Review the Madoff Securities case.
Write a four to five (4-5) page paper in which you:
⦁ Determine the regulatory oversight that was in place while the Ponzi scheme was operating, and speculate on the main reasons why they did not discover the scheme.
⦁ Assume you are an auditor for a firm that had $10 million dollars invested in Madoff Securities.
⦁ Determine the fundamental audit procedures that you should have applied to this investment.
⦁ Predict the way in which a peer review of Friehling and Horowitz would have uncovered the scheme related to Madoff Securities.
⦁ Pretend you are Harry Markopolos and suggest one (1) strategy, different from that of the case study, to expose the potential fraud. Provide a rationale to support the suggestion.
⦁ Analyze the role of the audit committee for Madoff Securities in regard to the discovery of Ponzi scheme, and suggest one (1) action the audit committee could have taken in order to prevent or detect the fraud. Provide a rationale to support the suggestion.
⦁ Use at least two (2) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar type Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

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Question 8: Business

Assignment: Course Project: Assessment of Diversity Proficiencies
The Assignment for this module is an assessment of your diversity proficiencies. As local, state, national, and global communities continue to reflect increasing diversity, it is essential for effective leaders of learning to routinely assure active and effective responsiveness to the diverse needs represented. In the context of this course, active and effective responsiveness often takes the form of individuals pursuing constructive action to change ideas and attitudes through leadership, advocacy, policy, and law. To assist you in this process, your Walden University program has included diversity proficiencies to guide your development. For this Course Project, you must successfully demonstrate personal development and connection of your learning in this course about leadership, advocacy, policy, and law to each of the Walden Diversity Proficiencies, as well as the Council for Exceptional Children (CEC)’s Advanced Role Content Standards 1a, 1b, and 5a.
To prepare:
·         Review all Learning Resources for this module.
·         Review the Assessment of Diversity Proficiencies Guidelines.
·         Ask yourself the following: How have the concepts, resources, and activities of this course influenced my learning so that I might support the creation of educational opportunities that adapt to diverse learners and remove barriers that inhibit learning for students with diverse learning needs?
·         Think about examples from your educational and professional experiences that you can use to demonstrate your knowledge of the key diversity proficiencies. How might those experiences support the fact that you are a leader and advocate who is able to create educational opportunities that are adapted to diverse learners and that remove barriers that inhibit learning?
The components of your Module 6 Assignment are as follows: however, review the “Assessment of Diversity Proficiencies Guidelines” document in the Learning Resources for more details.
Section 1: Introduction (2–3 pages)
Interpret how EACH of the following course concepts support the creation of educational opportunities that are adapted to diverse learners and remove barriers that inhibit learning:
·         Leadership
·         Advocacy
·         Policy
·         Law
·         Section 2: Diversity Self-Reflection (3–4 pages)
Write a self-reflection paper that addresses the final two Walden Diversity Dispositions:
·         Awareness of Self
·         Professional Practice
Also, reference the Council for Exceptional Children (CEC) Standards, what you learned from the working with the Case Study of Jamal from the Grand City Community (West Ridge Middle School) , and Walden’s Mission and Vision Statement to help support your reflection.
·         Reflection Component 1: Using the bulleted points on Walden’s Diversity Proficiencies, personally reflect on your knowledge and skills for the “Awareness of Self” and “Professional Practice” indicators. Cite at least one relevant, research-based reading or media element to support this component.
·         Reflection Component 2: Connect your personal reflection, to course content, including the Case Study, CEC standards, and Walden’s mission for Social Change. Cite at least one relevant, research-based reading or media element to support each of these components.
Your final document must include the following:
·         Title Page
·         Section1: 2–3 pages
·         Section 2: 3–4 pages
·         Reference pages
Note: For this Assignment and all scholarly writing in this course and throughout your program, you will be required to use APA style (6th edition). Please use the Walden Writing Center as a resource as you complete assignments.
Required Readings
Council for Exceptional Children. (2012). CEC special education specialist advanced preparation standards. Retrieved from https://www.cec.sped.org/~/media/Files/Standards/Professional%20Preparation%20Standards/Advanced%20Preparation%20Standards%20with%20Elaborations.pdf
DeMatthews, D. (2014). Deconstructing systems of segregation: Leadership challenges in an urban school. Journal of Cases in Educational Leadership, 17(1), 17–31
Retrieved from the Walden Library databases.
This article gives a case study of a principal in an urban school who was charged with a directive to raise test scores and increase inclusion in a building with a history of segregation.
Document: Assessment of Diversity Proficiencies Guidelines (PDF)
Document: SMART Goals Graphic (PDF)
Document: Walden Diversity Proficiencies (PDF)
Document: Walden Professional Dispositions (PDF)
Walden University (2015). Social change. Retrieved from http://www.waldenu.edu/about/social-change
Media
Grand City Community
·         Laureate Education (Producer). (2012b). The teacher’s lounge [Video file]. Baltimore, MD: Author.
Go to the Grand City Community and click into West Ridge Middle School. Review the following scenario: The Teacher’s Lounge.

Question 9: Psychology

Behavioral and Cognitive Learning Theories paper

Question 10: Psychology

Research Paper: Reference Page Instructions
You will submit a reference page in current APA format for your Research Paper. In addition to the textbook and the Bible, your reference page must contain at least 6 scholarly sources, 4 of which must be peer-reviewed journal articles. For the 4 peer-reviewed journal articles, 2 of these must support/use Behavioral Learning Theory and 2 must support/use Cognitive Learning Theory. Remaining sources must address educational implications, historical context, and/or biblical worldview topics related to Behavioral and Cognitive Learning Theories. At least 4 of the sources (the peer-reviewed journal articles) must have been published within the last 10 years. Popular writing and web pages are NOT acceptable sources for this paper.

Developing the Reference Page
Although the reference page is one of the last things included in the organization of your paper, finding your sources is one of the first things you must do to write a research paper.

Review a current APA style guide in order to ensure your outline and citations are correctly formatted. If you are having particular trouble with current APA formatting, visit one of these helpful resources available to Liberty University Online students: Liberty’s Online Writing Center or tutor.com.

Finding Appropriate Sources
Familiarize yourself with the basic information surrounding your topic by accessing the Liberty University Library Research Portal. When you are searching for resources, think of several surrounding issues and several synonyms for those issues. Then enter various combinations of those terms into the research database. You can follow a number of links found within the Liberty University Research Portal to access multiple research guides and tutorials to assist you in your search. If you need further assistance, click here for resources that will help guide you as you navigate through the Liberty University Online Library. Additionally, you may use the “Ask a Librarian” service by filling out the e-Form found here.

Question 11: Psychology

Topic: Retrieval

Question/Prompt: Memory and knowledge are especially important in the retrieval of academic subject content. The book lists several general principles of retrieval for instructional settings (see Ormrod, 2016, Chapter 8). Select 1 of these general principles and give an example of how you could use it to learn a specific concept in this course. Include clear biblical principles in your response.

Ormmrod, J. E., (2016). Human Learning (7th ed.). New York, N. Y. Pearson Education

Question 12: Health Care

Liberty Bus 311 DB 3

n what ways can you, as a manager, contribute to the management and execution of your organization’s strategy? How is strategic planning a dynamic versus linear process, and why? Next, summarize the purpose of the SWOT analysis and how it is best used in the healthcare planning process? Are there any differences related to strategic planning in healthcare versus planning in another organization? Can quality of care initiatives be linked to the strategic planning process? If so, how?

Discussion boards are collaborative learning experiences. Therefore, you are required to create a thread in response to the provided prompt for each forum. Each thread must be at least 300 words and demonstrate course-related knowledge. In addition to the thread, you are required to reply to 2 other classmates’ threads. Each reply must be at least 250 words. Each thread and reply must include a biblical integration and at least 2 peer reviewed source citations in current APA format (in addition to the textbook).

Question 13: Health Care

NUR 1172 Nutrition Exam 1/ NUR1172 Nutrition Exam one (Latest): Rasmussen College (Already graded A)

Question 14: Health Care

NUR 460 review-exam-spring-semester-2018(893 questions)

Question 15: Health Care

Informational Memo Assignment

EHRs have many components, functions, and attributes.  Administrative staff must be educated comprehensively about all the factors that make up the EHR system.

You are the Chief Information Officer of your hospital. Write a memo addressed to the senior departmental staff. Any memo format may be used.

⦁ In this informational memo you will discuss, with outside literature support for each section, the following EHR components found in your textbook: PLEASE SEE ATTACHED DOCUMENT FOR EHR COMPONENTS!!!!!
⦁ Administrative Processes
⦁ Communication & Connectivity
⦁ Decision Support
⦁ Dentistry/Optometry
⦁ Health Information & Data
⦁ Order Entry Management
⦁ Patient Support, Results Management
⦁ Population Health Management.
⦁ Research and describe what each of these components do, and why it is important for your facility to incorporate these. How does each affect reimbursement?
⦁ Support your position with solid peer reviewed research and make sure any facts in the paper receive in-text citations.
⦁ Your memo should be at least two full pages to fully explain to the managers all the various components of the hospital’s new EHR system.

Make sure to use credible journal articles or .gov websites in your research. Provide a cover page and references page as well.

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Summary of the Electronic Health Record Essential Components and Functions for Care Delivery
Component Essential Functions Application Examples
Administrative processes Ability to conduct all financial and administrative functions associated with institutional operations and patient management Admissions/registration
Scheduling
Claims processing
Administrative reporting
Communication and connectivity Provides a medium for electronic communication between healthcare providers and patients E-mail
Mobile devices
Text/web messaging
Integrated health records
Telemedicine
Decision support Provides reminders, alerts, and resource links to improve the diagnosis and care of the patient Medication dosing, allergies
Risk screening/prevention
Clinical guidelines
Resource links
Dentistry and optometry Ability to incorporate dental records and vision prescriptions Dental records
Vision records
Health information and data Ability to enter and access key information needed to make clinical decisions Patient demographics
Problem lists
Medical/nursing diagnoses
Medications/allergies
Results reporting
Order-entry management Ability to enter all types of orders via the computer system Laboratory
Pharmacy
Radiology
Other orders
Patient support Provides patient education and self-monitoring tools Discharge instructions
Computer-based learning
Telemonitoring
Results management Provides the ability to manage current and historical information related to all types of diagnostic reports Laboratory tests
Radiology reports
Other procedures
Population health management Provides data collection tools to support public and private reporting requirements Public health system
Disease surveillance
Bioterrorism
Adapted from Institute of Medicine, Committee on Data Standards for Patient Safety: Board of Health Care Services. Key Capabilities of an Electronic Health Record System: Letter Report. Washington, DC: The National Academies Press; 2003.
In addition to the various components and functions, there are 12 key attributes prescribed by the IOM14 as the gold standard components of an EHR. These attributes serve as guidelines to organizations and vendors involved in the design and implementation of EHRs and include the information shown in Box 6.1.
Box 6.1
The Institute of Medicine’s Key Attributes of an Electronic Health Record
1. Provides active and inactive problem lists for each encounter that link to orders and results; meets documentation and coding standards.
2. Incorporates accepted measures to support health status and functional levels.
3. Ability to document clinical decision information; automates, tracks, and shares clinical decision process/rationale with other caregivers.
4. Provides longitudinal and timely linkages with other pertinent records.
5. Guarantees confidentiality, privacy, and audit trails.
6. Provides continuous authorized user access.
7. Supports simultaneous user views.
8. Access to local and remote information.
9. Facilitates clinical problem solving.
10. Supports direct entry by physicians.
11. Cost measuring/quality assurance.
12. Supports existing/evolving clinical specialty needs.

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Question 16: Mathematics

NAME:
Instructions:
Due : Wed, 11/15 11:00 AM
save this file as: Lastname_firstname Example: Shone_Hailemichael
send the file directly to my email address : hashone@iupui.edu (don’t send it through Canvas)

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Important hint about computing p-value for a test statistic with a t-distribution:
When n > 30, you can approximate the tail area under the t-curve by using the probabilities in the z-table.

1 Which of the following statements about Type I and Type II errors is correct
a Type I: Reject a true alternative hypothesis. Type II: Do not reject a false alternative.
b Type I: Do not reject a false null hypothesis. Type II: Reject a true null hypothesis.
c Type I: Reject a true null hypothesis. Type II: Do not reject a false null hypothesis.
d Type I: Reject a false null hypothesis. Type II: Reject a true null hypothesis.

2 You are reading a report that contains a hypothesis test you are interested in. The writer of the report writes that the p-value for the test you are interested in is 0.0664, but does not tell you the value of the test statistic. From this information you:

a Do not reject H₀ at a Probability of Type I error = 0.10; do not reject H₀ at a Probability of Type I error = 0.05

b Reject H₀ at a Probability of Type I error = 0.10; reject H₀ at a Probability of Type I error = 0.05

c Do not reject H₀ at a Probability of Type I error = 0.10; reject H₀ at a Probability of Type I error = 0.05

d Reject H₀ at a Probability of Type I error = 0.10; do not reject H₀ at a Probability of Type I error = 0.05

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Question 3-9 are based on the random sample below which is obtained to test the following hypothesis about the population mean.

80 91 74 88 75 75 82 76
82 81 85 79 76 73 77 72
84 81 83 73 77 79 77 71
81 77 96 80 67 77 85 87
85 86 90 81 79 80 68 79
79 78 76 75 81 81 70 69
77 83 79 81 85 71 79 78
77 81 78 91 89 88 78 93
77 80 82 95 78 80 81 77
80 79 83 82 74 76 85 72
79 72 80 77 77 68 66 60
85 84 93 76 70 78 84 85
82 79 76 81 74 87 73 76
75 79 83 77 76 77 88 71
79 79 73 72 82 82 75 78

H₀: μ ≥ 80
H₁: μ < 80 n = 120

3 This hypothesis test is,
a a two-tail test because the null hypothesis is H₀: µ ≥ 80.
b an upper tail test because the alternative hypothesis is H₁: µ < 80.
c a lower tail test because the alternative hypothesis is H₁: µ < 80.
d an upper tail test because the null hypothesis is H₀: µ ≥ 80.

4 The estimated mean is,
a 83.968
b 82.322
c 80.708
d 79.125

5 The estimated standard deviation is,
a 6.054
b 6.175
c 6.299
d 6.425

6 The value of the test statistic is (if negative use the absolute value):
a 1.583
b 1.630
c 1.679
d 1.729

7 Given α = 0.05, the critical value for the test is,
a 1.812
b 1.759
c 1.708
d 1.658

8 The approximate p-value for the test is,
a 0.096
b 0.074
c 0.057
d 0.048

9 Based on the p-value in the previous question,
a Do not reject H₀ at α = 0.10; do not reject H₀ at α = 0.05
b Reject H₀ at α = 0.10; reject H₀ at α = 0.05
c Do not reject H₀ at α = 0.10; reject H₀ at α = 0.05
d Reject H₀ at α = 0.10; do not reject H₀ at a α = 0.05

To test the hypothesis that the average daily visit to a state park is 120, a random sample of 30 days yielded the following data (number of vehicles).

137 126 198 64 114 236
98 97 244 100 141 154
14 158 180 60 133 150
89 186 259 137 160 297
159 60 276 69 70 141

Write H₀ and H₁ and answer the following ______questions:
10 The sample standard deviation is,
a 69.124
b 67.050
c 65.039
d 63.088

11 The value of the test statistic is,
a 2.057
b 1.870
c 1.683
d 1.515

12 Using a 5 percent level of significance, the critical value for the test is,
a 2.045
b 1.943
c 1.846
d 1.754

13 Based on the test statistic and the critical value in the previous two questions,
a Reject the null hypothesis. Do not conclude the mean is different from 120.
b Do not reject the null hypothesis. Conclude the mean is different from 120.
c Reject the null hypothesis. Conclude the mean is different from 120.
d Do not reject the null hypothesis. Do not conclude the mean is different from 120.

In a recent study, a major fast food restaurant had a mean drive through service time of 225 seconds. The company embarks on a quality improvement effort to reduce the service time and has developed improvements to the service process. The new process will be tested in a sample of stores. The new process will be adopted in all of its stores, if it reduced mean service time by more than 40 seconds compared to the current mean service time. To perform the hypothesis test, the sample of 25 stores yields the following data (seconds).

162 185 184 178 181
167 191 198 184 179
170 161 181 183 191
189 190 178 180 167
177 198 179 176 183

14 We are testing the hypothesis that,
a H₁: µ < 185
b H₀: µ < 185
c H₁: µ ≥ 185
d H₀: µ ≤ 185

15 The sample mean is,
a 180.48
b 178.68
c 176.89
d 175.12

16 The standard error of the mean is,
a 2.078
b 2.017
c 1.958
d 1.762

17 The test statistic is,
a 2.042
b 2.127
c 2.216
d 2.308

18 Find the critical value at a 5% level of significance, and select the appropriate conclusion below:

a 1.711 Do not reject H₀. Adopt the new process.
b 1.711 Reject H₀ and adopt the new process.
c 2.093 Do not reject H₀. Adopt the new process.
d 2.093 Reject H₀ and adopt the new process.

The 2014 mean annual salary of graduates with engineering degrees was $63,500. In a follow-up study in June 2015, a sample of n = 95 graduating engineering majors yielded a sample mean of $65,450 and standard deviation of $10,245. Does the 2015 survey provide a significant proof that the mean salary in 2015 is greater than the 2014 mean? Perform this test of hypothesis at a 5% level of significance.

19 We are testing the hypothesis that,
a H₁: µ ≥ 63,500
b H₀: µ > 63,500
c H₁: µ > 63,500
d H₁: µ ≤ 63,500

20 The p-value for the test is approximately _______.

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a 0.07 Do not reject H₀. Conclude the mean is greater than 63,500.
b 0.07 Reject H₀. Conclude the mean is not greater than 63,500.
c 0.03 Do not reject H₀. Conclude the mean is greater than 63,500.
d 0.03 Reject H₀. Conclude the mean is greater than 63,500.

One of the different statistics reported by the Centers for Disease Control regarding incidence of obesity among adults in the United States provides that 28% of men with college degree are obese. The study also reports that 31.5% of men without a college degree are obese. Assume the latter statistic is based on a sample of 1040 men without a college degree.

Does the data provide statistically significant evidence that the incidence of obesity among men without a college degree is greater than among those with a college degree?

21 This involves which of the following hypotheses?
a H₀: π ≥ 0.28
b H₀: π ≤ 0.28
c H₁: π < 0.28
d H₁: π > 0.28
e Both b and d are correct.

22 The standard error of p̅ is,
a 0.0139
b 0.0167
c 0.0197
d 0.0232

23 The value of the test statistic is,
a 2.27
b 2.52
c 2.77
d 3.05

24 The p-value for the test is,
a 0.0059
b 0.0115
c 0.0132
d 0.0152

25 Based on p-value in the previous question, at a 5 percent level of significance,
a The evidence is not statistically significant. Do not reject H₀.
b The evidence is not statistically significant. Reject H₀.
c The evidence is statistically significant. Do not reject H₀.
d The evidence is statistically significant. Reject H₀.

Question 17: Biology

If a patient presents to you post ischemic stroke on warfarin and their INR is therapeutic. Do you reverse it?

Question 18: Economics

Case Study You need to listen to the Planet Money podcast titled

Question 19: Psychology

Part 1: Choose one of the nine areas of biopsychosocial assessment outlined in the text. Develop assessment questions for that knowledge area. In doing so, consider the impact of each question on the client, the appropriate timing, and the effect on the development of empathy and a treatment alliance. For example, in the area of family and friends, you might ask, “Who was important to you as you grew up?” “Who could you turn to in your life?” “Who were you close to?” “Who did you have a problem or conflict with?” “Have you lost someone important to you?” “What are some good memories you have of your childhood/ teen years?” Part 2: To practice writing treatment goals, write three treatment objectives you might have for a client. Discuss the following questions in a 500 word essay: Would the client take ownership of the objective? When in the treatment process would it be appropriate to address the goal? How would you or the client know when the objective is accomplished?

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Question 20: General

Automated plastic Bottle Compactor I want to do an introduction for this topic between one to two page mix

Question 21: Other

Research Paper

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Q1. Workforce Planning

Imagine you are the Talent Management Director of an organization.

 

Create a 12- to 15-question organizational development needs survey using Microsoft® Word. Then fill out the Workforce Planning Worksheet and each of the two boxes.

 

Include questions that ask leaders to evaluate their teams and team members, as well as to rate themselves. Questions could include items referring to:

  • specific job skills and competencies
  • employee qualifications
  • the breadth of training offered and available

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Complete the Workforce Planning Worksheet and paste the Questions from the Word document

 

Q2. Week 4 discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 225 words each:

 

  • Compare the pros and cons of developing talent in-house versus soliciting outside talent.

 

  • Assess as an HR leader how you can help ensure training programs are relevant to business needs.

Include specific examples and/or substantiating evidence

Include in-text citations and references in APA format

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Q3. ETH/321 week 5 CEO of Bonner

You are the CEO of Bonner, a U.S.-based farm equipment corporation. Bonner recently announced the release of an innovative new tractor with technology based on a patented invention developed by Bonner’s engineers. Bonner’s vice president, who is aware of the upcoming product offering, bought 100,000 shares of Bonner stock prior to the announcement. You found out about the vice president’s stock purchase on the day of the announcement.

One week after the announcement, Bonner received a letter from a German farm equipment corporation, accusing Bonner of patent infringement based on the new tractor’s technology.

Bonner’s board of directors asked you to assess the vice president’s liability for the stock purchase and the company’s options for resolving the German corporation’s patent infringement claim.

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Prepare an infographic for the board (e.g., Piktochart®, Publisher, Glogster®, Microsoft® PowerPoint®, etc.) in which you discuss the following:

  • Compare the resolution of the patent dispute in a U.S. court with the resolution of the dispute using the World Intellectual Property Organization’s (WIPO) dispute resolution program. Search the internet to review WIPO’s dispute resolution program. (Information about WIPO’s dispute resolution program may be located on their website by searching the Internet for WIPO).
  • Assess the liability of Bonner’s vice president for purchasing the corporation’s stock prior to the announcement of the new tractor.
  • Assess whether Bonner has any legal or ethical duties to disclose the stock purchase, and if so, to whom?
  • Discuss risk management procedures Bonner can adopt to avoid or reduce situations like these from happening in the future.

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Create a 350- to 525-word letter in response to the German farm equipment company in which you:

  • Explain why Bonner is the owner of the invention
  • Discuss the intellectual property rights owned by Bonner in the invention
  • Suggest a method of dispute resolution (e.g., arbitration, mediation, litigation, WIPO dispute resolution), why that method would be desirable for resolving the dispute, and how and where the dispute resolution should be held (United States, foreign country, online, etc.).

 

Cite a minimum of two references.

Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.

 

Q4. ETH/321 week 4 Futuretek sells high-tech

Read the following scenario. 

Futuretek sells high-tech computer chips and software to smartphone manufacturers worldwide. Futuretek maintains two software databases: one containing Futuretek’s customer list with nonpublic contact information for key personnel, and the other containing customer purchasing trends. The information in the two databases is available for employees to view and use in connection with their job duties.

Dana is a computer programmer for Futuretek. Dana plans to run her own company one day and design and sell her own computer chips to smartphone companies. As an employee, she has access to the two databases containing Futuretek’s key purchaser and purchasing trends information.

Dana decides to leave Futuretek and start her own computer chip business. Before she leaves, she makes a copy of the two databases on a portable hard drive. Dana uses the information to contact Futuretek’s customers and offer them cheaper, but comparable, computer chips manufactured by Dana’s new company, SmartChip.

Futuretek becomes aware of Dana’s actions and asks you, the chief operations officer, for advice and recommendations on what to do.

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In a 5- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® or Prezi® presentation, complete the following:

  • Determine whether Dana has taken Futuretek’s intellectual property (IP), and if so, describe the type(s) of IP that was taken.
  • Explain any civil actions in tort or criminal actions that may be brought against Dana or SmartChip.
  • Assume Futuretek sues SmartChip, and Futuretek wins the lawsuit. Recommend ethical policies that SmartChip can put into place to prevent future legal claims and litigation against the company.
  • Recommend risk management procedures that Futuretek can implement to avoid or limit this type of activity from happening to the company in the future.

 

Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.

 

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ETH/321 week 3 Dream Massage

 

 

Read the following scenario.

Janice was hired by Dream Massage to be a massage therapist. She is engaged as an independent contractor and, therefore, receives no tax withholding or employment benefits. Dream Massage requires Janice to work a set schedule, provides her with clients and all her massage products, and exercises complete control over how Janice does her work. In addition, when Janice shows up to work the first day, she is informed by Dream Massage that she cannot wear her hijab as it violates the company’s dress code policy.

The owner of Dream Massage comes to you, a human resources (HR) consultant, to find out if Janice is properly classified as an independent contractor and if there is potential liability concerning the hijab.

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Create a 700- to 1,050-word HR report for Dream Massage in which you examine the employment issues presented in the scenario.

 

Include the following:

  • Analyze whether Janice qualifies as an employee or should be classified as an independent contractor.
  • Discuss whether Dream Massage has potentially violated any employment discrimination laws.
  • Analyze ethical considerations associated with the maintenance of a rigid company dress policy.

 

Cite a minimum of three references.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

 

Q6. ETH/321 week 2 Fitzgerald foods

Fitzgerald Foods is a food processing corporation. In the past year, three directors were forced to leave Fitzgerald Foods after it was discovered the directors breached their legal duties to the corporation. Two of the directors were also officers of the corporation. The chairman of the board at Fitzgerald Foods is concerned that the remaining directors don’t understand their legal duties to the corporation and that new directors won’t understand their duties either.

You are the chief executive officer (CEO) of the corporation. The chairman of the board asked you to work with the corporation’s legal counsel to create a company policy document for directors and officers about their legal duties to the corporation.

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Develop a 700- to 1,050-word company policy (template provided) for Fitzgerald Foods’ directors and officers completing the following:

  • Legal Duties of Directors and Officers (a heading from policy document)
  • Explain the legal duties of directors and officers to the corporation, including the “business judgment rule.”
  • Benefits of Compliance (a heading from policy document)
  • Discuss the benefits of compliance for Fitzgerald Foods.
  • Consequences of Noncompliance (a heading from policy document)
  • Analyze how unethical activity by a director or officer can lead to a violation of a legal duty owed to the corporation.
  • Provide a brief example from a news article or court case within the last three years that demonstrates corporate director or officer liability in the United States.
  • Recommend separately (not a heading on the policy document) to the chairman of the board in 45 to 90 words at least two business risk management procedures that Fitzgerald Foods can adopt in the future to avoid violations of legal duties by its directors and officers.

 

Use the Fitzgerald Foods Company Policy template as a guide for your policy document.

 

Search the internet for examples of completed policy documents using the following search parameters: policy document example, policy document template, policy document format, policy document sample, or any variation you choose. An example may assist you to complete your policy document.

 

Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.

Q7. Case Study 1 Transforming the Organization

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Congratulations! The executives are taking your information system proposal seriously. In fact, they think it has the potential to transform the way the organization works. The CIO asked you to read Connelly (2016) to think about what resources you’ll need to get your new information system up and running. Please also review the five case studies in (Basu 2015, p. 32-35) so you can recommend a change management pattern for your company to follow. Write a memo to the CIO that describes how to implement your information system into the organization. Please focus on these topics:

  1. How much of the implementation work can you handle? What additional resources (people, information, time, money, etc.) will expedite the process so you don’t end up like Susie Jeffer? 2. Outline a change management strategy: What new equipment and software are necessary? What training and support will the staff need? How will the staff complete their work during the transition period? Do you anticipate other areas of resistance? 3. The CIO is very skeptical, so provide evidence that your assessment is accurate and complete. It can be difficult to admit to personal limitations! Your memo should be 3–5 pages long.

 

Q8. QUANTITATIVE RESEARCH METHODS

Week 8: Prepare a Mock Prospectus (replaces Concept Paper)

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This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®.

Instructions

Write your mock Prospectus (replaces Concept Paper) using the Prospectus template found in the week Books and Resources. Follow the template guidelines for each section.

  1. Write an Introduction describing your topic.
  2. Write the Statement of the Problem section.
  3. Describe the Purpose of the Study. Include the results of your power analysis.
  4. State your Research Question and your null and alternative hypotheses. Be sure that your question aligns with your purpose.
  5. Write a Brief Review of the Literature.
  6. Complete the Research Methods section (including the Operational Definition of Variables, Constructs, and Measurement sub sections). Follow the instructions in the template. Be sure to:
  7. Identify the strengths and weaknesses of your envisioned design and methods.
  8. Identify threats to validity and how your design will address them.
  9. Justify why your chosen design and methods are more appropriate for your research question than alternatives you have considered.
  10. Define the constructs you will measure and what you will do in order to determine how to operationalize them.
  11. Describe the sample you propose to study and its characteristics; this should include, but is not limited, to: 1) age; 2) gender; 3) ethnicity; 4) additional cultural factors; and 5) education level. Justify your choice of sample.
  12. Describe your method of sampling.
  13. Describe the type of data you need to collect and how you will collect it.
  14.  Briefly describe any ethical issues you foresee with your study. Make a preliminary assessment of the level of risk associated with participation in your study that might need to be raised with the Institutional Review Board.
  15. Describe and justify how you will analyze your data and the descriptive statistics you will present.
  16. Explain how you conducted your power analysis.
  17. Describe how you will handle your data, check for accuracy etc.
  18. What problems do you foresee in implementing the design? How might you prevent them?

Support your paper with a minimum of 7 resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included.

Length: 12-15 pages not including title and reference pages
References: Minimum of 7 scholarly resources.

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Q9. Assignment 1: The CEO Challenge

You’ve just left an all – hands meeting at your company * The CEO was very upset at the rise of shadow IT projects – a major indicator that the company’s internal information system has failed to meet its needs.

Because the current information system is inadequate, inefficient, and outdated, the CEO is inviting everyone in the organization to propose a new operational, decision support, or enterprise information system to replace it. The executives have allocated $5 million to fund the most promising idea

This is your chance to make a difference in the company (not to mention your own career). Write your proposal as a memo that the entire C – suite will review. Include at least these points, in your own words, to be persuasive:

  1. Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business.
  2. Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured.
  3. Explain how the old information system handles the functions you mentioned, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better.
  4. Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.

The executives are busy, so keep your memo to 1-4 pages and avoid any extraneous content.

*You may use a current or former employer, but do not disclose anything confidential. Or, you can pick another organization if you are familiar with their internal (not customer – facing) information systems. You can disguise the organization and populate it with famous names. Made – up companies are problematic because of the amount of detail and realism they require.

 

Q10. Wk 2 – Apply: HR Processes

Consider your career or interests. Using a company you have worked for (or want to work for based on research) give examples of how those companies are using their HR processes to help the company achieve its strategic goals. Include workforce planning and change.

  • Writea minimum 1,050-word paper with APA format and citations.

 

 

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Q11. Wk 2 Discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each :

 

  • What is strategic human resources management and how can it be instrumental in helping a company create a competitive advantage in organizational change? What are the examples? 

 

  • What is the workforce planning process? What does it include? Why is it important?

Q12. Wk 2 Discussion

 

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each :

 

  • What is strategic human resources management and how can it be instrumental in helping a company create a competitive advantage in organizational change? What are the examples? 

 

  • What is the workforce planning process? What does it include? Why is it important?

 

Q13. Original Work Only

Referring to a FITNESS AND APPREAL COMPANY write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:

  1. Conduct a feasibility analysis in which you research:
  2. Industry and Market Feasibility
  3. Product or Service Feasibility
  4. Financial Feasibility
  5. Entrepreneurial Readiness
  6. Based on your assessment, does the business idea need to be modified, changed significantly, or abandoned?

 

 

Q14. Discussion question

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each:

  • What is human resources management, and why is it important to organizational success? Give examples.
  • Employment Law: Name and explain 2 employment laws and why they are important.

 

Q15. Washingtons Farewell Address Analysis GOVT 200

 

Washington’s Farewell Address Analysis Instructions

For this assignment, you will analyze the major points of George Washington’s “Farewell Address” and write a 3-page analysis, considering contemporary government and including differing points of view. Be sure to adhere to the format specified in the Course Style Guidelines document.

 

Your analysis must adhere to the following specifications:

  • No more than 3 double-spaced pages (12-point font with 1-inch margins).
  • Must include a title page (not counted in total page number) that contains:

o A title,

o Your name,

o Your section (GOVT 200-S02),

o Your instructor’s name, and

o The date the assignment is due (all single-spaced in the footer of the cover page).

  • No page number is necessary for the cover page or for the first page in the body of the paper.
  • Pay particular attention to the grading rubric for how your paper will be graded.

 

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.

 

 Q16. Discussion Board Post Help Alcohol Abuse

 

Alcohol abuse continues to be the most serious drug problem on college campuses throughout the United States. Every year, drinking kills more than 1,700 students and injures about 500,000 more; it is also a factor in 600,000 assaults and 100,000 rapes on college campuses. Enzyme-mediated metabolic pathways break down the toxic ethanol in alcoholic beverages. Ethanol kills liver cells and interferes with normal metabolic processes. Long-term heavy drinking causes alcoholic hepatitis, inflammation and destruction of liver tissue, and cirrhosis. Cirrhosis prevents the liver from removing drugs and other toxins from the blood, so they accumulate in the brain where they impair mental functioning and alter personality. Restricted blood flow through the liver increases susceptibility to diabetes, liver cancer and death.

 

Important Concepts from Chapter 3:

  • Introduction: Ethyl Alcohol Liver cells detoxify most of the alcohol a person drinks, but in the long run this process may lead to alcohol-related hepatitis and cirrhosis. Long term heavy use also damages memory, reflexes, and other functions. Binge drinking can stop the heart.
  • Section 3.13: Metabolism Series of enzymatic reactions in cells (metabolism) help cells acquire and use energy as they build, break down, or remodel organic molecules. Metabolism requires enzymes. Each kind of enzyme recognizes specific reactants, or substrates, and alters them in a specific way. Each enzyme functions best in a particular range of conditions that reflect the environment in which it evolved. Metabolic pathways can involve thousands of molecules and be quite complex.

 

Assignment:

  1. Visit WebMD to find out about 12 health risks of chronic heavy drinking.
  2. Visit Healthline.com to read about the effects of alcohol on the body: http://www.healthline.com/health/alcohol/effects-on-body
  3. Visit the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) website to find the Alcohol-Related Disease Impact (ARDI) for your area.
  4. Research what the Bible has to say about drinking.
  5. References should be provided in initial thread and replies.

 

Prompt: Briefly describe three health risks and/or negative physical effects of heavy drinking.  Is it a sin for a Christian to drink excessively? Why or why not (provide Biblical references)?

 

Q17. Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions

Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions about the ethics of space travels with his crew. Do you think character has any role in business ethics? Why or why not? How does character and personal integrity pertain to you in your profession or future profession?
Your journal entry must be at least 200 words.

Q18. The first step of the EBP process is to develop a question from the nursing practice problem

Details:

The first step of the EBP process is to develop a question from the nursing practice problem of interest.

Select a practice problem of interest to use as the focus of your research.

Start with the patient and identify the clinical problems or issues that arise from clinical care.

Following the PICOT format, write a PICOT statement in your selected practice problem area of interest, which is applicable to your proposed capstone project.

The PICOT statement will provide a framework for your capstone project (the project students must complete during their final course in the RN-BSN program of study).

Conduct a literature search to locate research articles focused on your selected practice problem of interest. This literature search should include both quantitative and qualitative peer-reviewed research articles to support your practice problem.

Select six peer-reviewed research articles which will be utilized through the next 5 weeks as reference sources. Be sure that some of the articles use qualitative research and that some use quantitative research. Create a reference list in which the six articles are listed. Beneath each reference include the article’s abstract. The completed assignment should have a title page and a reference list with abstracts.

Suggestions for locating qualitative and quantitative research articles from credible sources:

  1. Use a library database such as CINAHL Complete for your search.
  2. Using the advanced search page check the box beside “Research Article” in the “Limit Your Results” section.
  3. When setting up the search you can type your topic in the top box, then add quantitative or qualitative as a search term in one of the lower boxes. Research articles often are described as qualitative or quantitative.

To narrow/broaden your search, remove the words qualitative and quantitative and include words that narrow or broaden your main topic. For example: Diabetes and pediatric and dialysis. To determine what research design was used, review the abstract and the methods section of the article. The author will provide a description of data collection using qualitative or quantitative methods.

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

You are not required to submit this assignment to Lopes Write.

 

Q19. This is a literature Question kindly assist

List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen

 

 

 

Q20. week 5 Starbucks

Create a 2- to 3-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation for a Mini-Strategy using the Mini-Strategy Outline.

Organization (Starbucks)

  • Assess the organization’s current status:

o    Leadership

o    Board members

o    Structure

o    Number of employees

  • Conduct a basic SWOTT analysis and discuss the implications of those results.

 

Q21. role of sport in education

role of sport in education. You may select to focus on either high school or college sports and their role in education. Provide your educated opinion and use sources to support your beliefs. Make sure you cite your sources in-text and with a reference page. You may use APA or MLA.

 

Q22. Strategic Choice and Evaluation

 

Answer the following questions No Intro or conclusion…

  1. What is the relationship between a firm’s customers and its business level strategy in terms of who, what and how?  Why is this relationship important?
  2. How can each of the business-level strategies be used to position the firm relative to the five forces of competition in a way that helps the firm earn above-average returns?
  3. What motives might encourage managers and leaders to over diversify their firm?
  4. What might encourage diversification?
  5. What are some trends in the global environment that might impact the choice of international strategies, particularly international corporate-level strategies?
  6. What are two important issues that can potentially affect a firm’s ability to successfully use international strategies?
  7. Why do firms use suborder’s strategic alliances?
  8. What risks are firms likely to experience if they use cooperative strategies?

 

Q23. how motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.

 

Write a 1500–2000 word essay explaining how motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.

 

Define how modern fire research has impacted fire science as it relates to each of the following:

Infrared imaging

GPS

Water mist

Compressed air foam

Explain how each of the above has had an impact on fire science.

 

Use examples to support your discussion.

 

Include an introductory and conclusion paragraph.

 

Format your work consistent with APA guidelines.

 

Include a title page and reference page and cite all sources

Q24. Mini-Strategy Week Three

Create a 3- to 4 – slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation

Include the following in your outline: 

  • Organizations(Apple Inc)
  • Evaluate the organization’s mission statement, vision statement and values’ statement.
  • Discuss the organization’s current goals and objectives.

 

Q25. Internal Capabilities and Resources

  1. Why is it important for a firm to study and understand its internal organization?
  2. What is value chain analysis? What does the firm gain by successfully using this tool?
  3. What factors affect the likelihood a firm will take a competitive action?
  4. What factors affect the likelihood that your organization will initiate a competitive response to a competitor’s actions?
  5. What is outsourcing? How do you see the future of outsourcing in your own industry? Do you see it growing, declining & why?
  6. What does it mean to say that each core competence could become a core rigidity?
  7. How do you see the relationship between an organization’s “org” structure and its strategy? Discuss what it means to say that structure and strategy have a reciprocal relationship
  8. How do firms identify internal strengths and weaknesses? Why is it vital that managers have a clear understanding of their firm’s strengths and weaknesses?

 

 

 

 

 

Q26. MGT 279 Assignment 4

  1. In summary, what does the report’s author blame for the problems encountered on the Big Dig project?
  2. As an expert, to what extent do you think the author has got things right? Based on your knowledge of what it takes to manage major programs, how wouldyousummarize what went wrong with this project?
  3. To what extent do you feel that if the Big Dig had followed the US Department of Defense approach to managing major programs it would have been more successful? What problems might arise in trying to employ the US DoD approach?
  4. What lessons can be derived from the Big Dig experience that can be shared with individuals and organizations that are about to begin work on a major program?

 

   Q27. Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific

Assignment Steps 

Resources: Microsoft Excel®, Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific 

Review the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific and the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific data set.

Prepare a 1,050-word managerial report for your boss.

Use the following questions for guidelines and directions on what to include in the report:

  1. What is the type of data (Quantitative or Qualitative) for each of the columns (variables) in the dataset? If quantitative, is the data discrete or continuous? Neatly summarize your response in a table for all the columns (variables).
  2. Using Excel®, find the mean, median, standard deviation, minimum, maximum, and the three quartiles for each of the quantitative variables identified in part 1 above. Neatly summarize in a table on this document. Comment on what you observe.
  3. What are the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments? Which schools have the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments?
  4. What is the average number of students per faculty member? Is this low or high? What does this mean to prospective applicants who are interested in pursuing an MBA in one of the leading international business schools?
  5. What are the mean, median, and modal ages? What does this mean to prospective applicants?
  6. What is the mean percentage of foreign students? How many and which schools have 1% and 0% foreign students? Which schools have highest percentage of foreign students? Please state these percentages.
  7. What percentage of schools require the GMAT test?
  8. What percentage of schools require English tests such as Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL)?
  9. What percentage of schools require work experience? From this percentage, does this appear to be a significant factor in gaining admissions?
  10. What are the mean and median starting salaries? Which schools have the minimum and maximum starting salaries? How much are these minimum and maximum salaries?
  11. What are the mean tuition for foreign students and for local students? Does there appear to be a significant difference? What is the difference between the two means?
  12. How many schools require work experience and how many of them don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring work experience? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no work experience?
  13. How many schools require English tests and how many don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring English tests? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no English tests?
  14. Comment on the skewness for the data on starting salaries:
  15. Plot a histogram and determine the skewness.
  16. Find the mean, median, and mode for starting salaries and compare the three measures to determine skewness.
  17. Finally, use Empirical Rule on the starting salaries and determine whether the salaries follow the Empirical Rule.

Format your assignment consistent with APA format. 

 

Q28. New hire for job position

 

You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position.  Both have similar educational backgrounds and certifications.  However, the first candidate has 20 years of related experience while the second candidate has 6 years of similar experience.

The first candidate is asking for competitive base salary plus one week of extra vacation as part of the benefits package.  The second candidate is asking for a competitive base salary plus a company smart phone (upgraded each year), paid internet service at home.  The first candidate is willing to work a flexible schedule (nights, weekends, etc), while the second candidate prefers to work remotely from home.  Both are requesting to be included in the company’s annual bonus plan.

Write a 700-1100 paper that includes the following:

Compare the direct and indirect compensation requests for each candidate.

As an HR professional, what do you think is the best hiring decision for the company and why?

Use APA format and references

 

 Q29. Research paper Outline on “Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization”

Hi,

I’m writing a reserach paper on “Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization”  So I need help with developing an outline that will guide our writing process

Course textbook:

Worth, M. J. (2017). Nonprofit management: Principles and practice (4th ed.). Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage Publications.

 

 

Q30. For Contemporary Decision Making.

Consider  how the type of variable (qualitative and quantitative) and the level of measurement used influence the presentation of the data collected for the variable and the  statistics that can be calculated for the variable. Provide your own examples.

  • consider the following situation: You are standing on the bank of a river.

Assume the current is not a factor and you only have the mean  as the information for the depth of the river posted on the river bank.  Is this sufficient information to allow a person who is 5 ft 7in tall to safely cross the river?

  • Provide an example of empirical probability ?

 

 

 

 

BUSINESS.
Q1. Week 4 discussion
Respond to the following in a minimum of 225 words each:
• Compare the pros and cons of developing talent in-house versus soliciting outside talent.
• Assess as an HR leader how you can help ensure training programs are relevant to business needs.
Include specific examples and/or substantiating evidence
Include in-text citations and references in APA format
Q2. ETH/321 week 5 CEO of Bonner
You are the CEO of Bonner, a U.S.-based farm equipment corporation. Bonner recently announced the release of an innovative new tractor with technology based on a patented invention developed by Bonner’s engineers. Bonner’s vice president, who is aware of the upcoming product offering, bought 100,000 shares of Bonner stock prior to the announcement. You found out about the vice president’s stock purchase on the day of the announcement.
One week after the announcement, Bonner received a letter from a German farm equipment corporation, accusing Bonner of patent infringement based on the new tractor’s technology.
Bonner’s board of directors asked you to assess the vice president’s liability for the stock purchase and the company’s options for resolving the German corporation’s patent infringement claim.

Prepare an infographic for the board (e.g., Piktochart®, Publisher, Glogster®, Microsoft® PowerPoint®, etc.) in which you discuss the following:
• Compare the resolution of the patent dispute in a U.S. court with the resolution of the dispute using the World Intellectual Property Organization’s (WIPO) dispute resolution program. Search the internet to review WIPO’s dispute resolution program. (Information about WIPO’s dispute resolution program may be located on their website by searching the Internet for WIPO).
• Assess the liability of Bonner’s vice president for purchasing the corporation’s stock prior to the announcement of the new tractor.
• Assess whether Bonner has any legal or ethical duties to disclose the stock purchase, and if so, to whom?
• Discuss risk management procedures Bonner can adopt to avoid or reduce situations like these from happening in the future.
Create a 350- to 525-word letter in response to the German farm equipment company in which you:
• Explain why Bonner is the owner of the invention
• Discuss the intellectual property rights owned by Bonner in the invention
• Suggest a method of dispute resolution (e.g., arbitration, mediation, litigation, WIPO dispute resolution), why that method would be desirable for resolving the dispute, and how and where the dispute resolution should be held (United States, foreign country, online, etc.).
Cite a minimum of two references.
Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.
Q3. ETH/321 week 4 Futuretek sells high-tech
Read the following scenario.
Futuretek sells high-tech computer chips and software to smartphone manufacturers worldwide. Futuretek maintains two software databases: one containing Futuretek’s customer list with nonpublic contact information for key personnel, and the other containing customer purchasing trends. The information in the two databases is available for employees to view and use in connection with their job duties.
Dana is a computer programmer for Futuretek. Dana plans to run her own company one day and design and sell her own computer chips to smartphone companies. As an employee, she has access to the two databases containing Futuretek’s key purchaser and purchasing trends information.
Dana decides to leave Futuretek and start her own computer chip business. Before she leaves, she makes a copy of the two databases on a portable hard drive. Dana uses the information to contact Futuretek’s customers and offer them cheaper, but comparable, computer chips manufactured by Dana’s new company, SmartChip.
Futuretek becomes aware of Dana’s actions and asks you, the chief operations officer, for advice and recommendations on what to do.
In a 5- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® or Prezi® presentation, complete the following:
• Determine whether Dana has taken Futuretek’s intellectual property (IP), and if so, describe the type(s) of IP that was taken.
• Explain any civil actions in tort or criminal actions that may be brought against Dana or SmartChip.
• Assume Futuretek sues SmartChip, and Futuretek wins the lawsuit. Recommend ethical policies that SmartChip can put into place to prevent future legal claims and litigation against the company.
• Recommend risk management procedures that Futuretek can implement to avoid or limit this type of activity from happening to the company in the future.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.
Q4. ETH/321 week 3 Dream Massage
Read the following scenario.
Janice was hired by Dream Massage to be a massage therapist. She is engaged as an independent contractor and, therefore, receives no tax withholding or employment benefits. Dream Massage requires Janice to work a set schedule, provides her with clients and all her massage products, and exercises complete control over how Janice does her work. In addition, when Janice shows up to work the first day, she is informed by Dream Massage that she cannot wear her hijab as it violates the company’s dress code policy.
The owner of Dream Massage comes to you, a human resources (HR) consultant, to find out if Janice is properly classified as an independent contractor and if there is potential liability concerning the hijab.
Create a 700- to 1,050-word HR report for Dream Massage in which you examine the employment issues presented in the scenario.

Include the following:
• Analyze whether Janice qualifies as an employee or should be classified as an independent contractor.
• Discuss whether Dream Massage has potentially violated any employment discrimination laws.
• Analyze ethical considerations associated with the maintenance of a rigid company dress policy.
Cite a minimum of three references.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q5. ETH/321 week 2 Fitzgerald foods
Fitzgerald Foods is a food processing corporation. In the past year, three directors were forced to leave Fitzgerald Foods after it was discovered the directors breached their legal duties to the corporation. Two of the directors were also officers of the corporation. The chairman of the board at Fitzgerald Foods is concerned that the remaining directors don’t understand their legal duties to the corporation and that new directors won’t understand their duties either.
You are the chief executive officer (CEO) of the corporation. The chairman of the board asked you to work with the corporation’s legal counsel to create a company policy document for directors and officers about their legal duties to the corporation.
Develop a 700- to 1,050-word company policy (template provided) for Fitzgerald Foods’ directors and officers completing the following:
• Legal Duties of Directors and Officers (a heading from policy document)
• Explain the legal duties of directors and officers to the corporation, including the “business judgment rule.”
• Benefits of Compliance (a heading from policy document)
• Discuss the benefits of compliance for Fitzgerald Foods.
• Consequences of Noncompliance (a heading from policy document)
• Analyze how unethical activity by a director or officer can lead to a violation of a legal duty owed to the corporation.
• Provide a brief example from a news article or court case within the last three years that demonstrates corporate director or officer liability in the United States.
• Recommend separately (not a heading on the policy document) to the chairman of the board in 45 to 90 words at least two business risk management procedures that Fitzgerald Foods can adopt in the future to avoid violations of legal duties by its directors and officers.
Use the Fitzgerald Foods Company Policy template as a guide for your policy document.
Search the internet for examples of completed policy documents using the following search parameters: policy document example, policy document template, policy document format, policy document sample, or any variation you choose. An example may assist you to complete your policy document.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.

Q6. ETH/321 Dazzling Dough Co. sells pizza dough to local pizza restaurants.
Read the following scenario:
Dazzling Dough Co. sells pizza dough to local pizza restaurants. Most of the restaurants buy at least 150 pounds of pizza dough from Dazzling Dough Co. in each order. Jerry’s Pizza contacted Dazzling Dough Co. to purchase 200 pounds of pizza dough, along with some other items. Dazzling Dough Co. sent Jerry’s Pizza a written contract, prepared by Dazzling Dough Co.’s lawyer, stating that “Jerry’s Pizza agrees to purchase 200 pounds of pizza dough, pizza toppings, desserts and soft drinks for $30,000.” Jerry’s Pizza signed and returned the contract.
A few days later, Dazzling Dough Co. sent Jerry’s Pizza 125 pounds of pizza dough and 75 pounds of pizza toppings, desserts, and soft drinks. Jerry’s Pizza contacted Dazzling Dough Co. about the error in the contract and demanded an extra 75 pounds of pizza dough. Dazzling Dough Co. said there was no error, that Jerry’s Pizza signed the contract so they agreed to the terms, and it was not sending the extra pizza dough.
After several attempts to resolve the dispute and a pressing need for dough, Jerry’s Pizza terminated the contract and sent Dazzling Dough Co. a check for $15,000 for the 125 pounds of pizza dough, pizza toppings, desserts and soft drinks. Jerry’s Pizza immediately purchased 75 pounds of pizza dough from another company for $12,000. Both parties are threatening to sue each other for breach of contract. They prefer to resolve the dispute out of court because the contract contains a clause that awards reimbursement of attorney’s fees to the winning party.
The board of directors of Jerry’s Pizza scheduled a meeting with you and other senior management at the company to discuss the dispute. You’ll need to prepare a strategic plan overview (an abbreviated strategic plan, not a full plan) for the board that explains why there is a dispute, suggests various settlement proposals, and provides recommendations on how Jerry’s Pizza can avoid this kind of dispute in the future.
Prepare a 525- to 875-word strategic plan overview to resolve the legal dispute for the board (use the bullet point headings provided below to format your overview) addressing the following:
• Summary of Dispute
• Identify the source of the dispute.
• Identify each party’s interpretation of the contract language.
• Identify whether each party’s interpretation is reasonable.
• Identify any missing facts that would be helpful to know in order to resolve the dispute.
• Proposed Revisions to Contract Language
• Recommend specific revisions to the contract’s language so that it is clear what Jerry’s Pizza expected to buy and what Dazzling Dough Co. is required to deliver.
• Ethical Considerations
• Explain the ethical considerations for a company to enforce specific terms of a contract against another company if the other company is mistaken about what was agreed to. Discuss the factors that should be considered.
• Recommendations
• Two to three possible settlement options (e.g., pay for the disputed dough, reduce the amount of dough to be purchased, split the difference, refuse to pay, etc.)
• Two to three methods of dispute resolution (e.g., negotiation, mediation, arbitration, litigation, etc.) that Jerry’s Pizza can propose to Dazzling Dough Co.
Create a one-page visualization to represent the information you provide in this assignment.
• Use the Table, SmartArt, or Chart visual representation options available in Microsoft® Word by clicking on the Insert tab located on the ribbon at the top of the window. Locate the Word Help function in the version of Microsoft® Word that is installed on your computer for assistance.
Q7. Comparison between Japan and Germany’s Economic Stimulus Policies
Topic: Economic Growth Case Study: Cross-Country Comparison
• Project Proposal Due: Oct. 20 (one-sheet of paper including student names, countries selected, and a brief outline of work distribution for each group member. This proposal will not be graded, but is required to keep everyone on track.)
• Group Presentations: Nov. 15, or Nov. 17 (must be scheduled in advance.)
• Research Paper Submission: Nov. 17 (email to: rchou@Laverne.edu )
Paper Length: Approximately 10 pages (include all graphs, data, and List of reference).
Report Format: -Intro (Brief Country History & Outlook) -Literature Review -Data/Graph Analysis (Your own interpretations) -Conclusion (Your policy recommendation for that country) -Bibliography (References)
Research Instruction: 1) Select any two countries for comparison; 2) Identify the key economic indicators (Examples: GDP per Capita, GDP growth rate,
Unemployment rate, Inflation, etc.) 3) Apply one of the economic theories or analysis you learned in class.
(Examples: Aggregate Demand and Aggregate Supply Graph, Fiscal Policy Analysis,
Monetary Policy Analysis, etc.) 4) Conclude with your economic policy recommendations for each of these countries.
More Examples of economic theories or market analysis to choose from:
-GDP components, and graph interpretation/
analysis;
• Unemployment and Fiscal Policy;
• Inflation, Money Supply, and Monetary Policy;
• Economic Policy Objective, and Trade-offs;
• Aggregate Demand & Supply Analysis;
• Economic stimulus policy;
• International Trade Policy, Exchange Rate Policy;

Q8. CUR 528 Week 6 Individual Assignment The Evaluation Process
CUR 528 Week 6 Individual Assignment The Evaluation Process
Resources: The needs assessment you created in Week 4 that measures specific objectives for evaluation.
Create the data for each of the questions you used in your needs assessment in Week 4 that measured your objectives. Your fictitious data must show what the objectives measured and the analysis of data on a spreadsheet of at least 25 employees where 45% of the employees show a need for additional reinforcement or training.
Prepare an evaluation report of 1,225 to 1,400 words by using your needs assessment from Week 4 that includes the following:
Program description
Description of the problem
Purpose of the evaluation
Data collection procedures
Procedures for analyzing the data
Results/findings
Summarize in 525 to 700 words how your findings may be used to improve a course, training or the program that you evaluated.
Submit your Microsoft® Excel® spreadsheet with data, your report and your summary.
Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.
Q9. Write a 1,050- to 1,400- word paper discussing how and why statistical data should be used by
Write a 1,050- to 1,400- word paper discussing how and why statistical data should be used by criminal justice leadership. A few examples include:
• Statistical support to criminal justice policy making
• Criminal justice research in support of community policing
• Criminal justice research in support of community engagement
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q10. The purpose of this assignment is for students to apply the framework of a job aid to document
The purpose of this assignment is for students to apply the framework of a job aid to document the training process outcomes. The student will review a task and then document all the steps to be completed for other’s to be successful when using the instructions. A job aid is produced to reduce the number of mistakes or errors while helping the employee remember by following the directions. In addition, the student will provide a summary of how to deploy the new job aid, how they will train end-users on the job aid, will there be change management involved, what type of technology will be used to train/roll-out the new job aid, and a discussion of the benefit of the job aid will be included.
Create a job aid that can be used to improve team performance within your organization.
Create a 700- to 1,050-word job aid that includes the following:
• Assess how it will be deployed.
• Determine what type of training methodology you will use.
• Evaluate whether or not there is a change management component to its roll-out.
• Analyze the type of training technology that will be utilized with your aid.
• Summarize what employees will be able to do after they complete training.

ENGLISH
Q1. Liberty University ENGL 102 test 2 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University ENGL 102 test 2 complete solutions correct answers A+ work
More than 7 different versions

When my mother died I was very young, And my father sold me while yet my tongue, Could scarcely cry weep weep weep weep, So your chimneys I sweep and in soot I sleep. There’s little Tom Dacre, who cried when his head That curled like a lamb’s back was shav’d, so I said. Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair And so he was quiet and that very night. As Tom was a sleeping he had such a sight That thousands of sweepers Dick, Joe, Ned, and Jack Were all of them lock’d up in coffins of black, And by came an Angel who had a bright key And he open’d the coffins and set them all free. Then down a green plain leaping, laughing, they run And wash in a river and shine in the Sun. Then naked and white, all their bags left behind. They rise upon clouds, and sport in the wind. And the Angel told Tom, if he’d be a good boy, He’d have God for his father and never want joy. And so Tom awoke and we rose in the dark And got with our bags and our brushes to work. Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm. (“The Chimney Sweeper” by William Blake)

Question 1
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
Question 2
In lines 7-8, the narrator is trying to ________ Tom when he tells him, “Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, / You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair.”
Question 3
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
Question 4
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 5
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
Question 6
Hazlitt defined poetry as “The universal language which the heart holds with nature and itself.”
Question 7
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
Question 8
“Ode to a Nightingale” speaks of two scenes.
Question 9
Ulysses is a mythological hero.
Question 10
A poem’s sound structure is its rhyme scheme and systematic and repeated use of similar sounds.
Question 11
In “Fern Hill” time is shown to pass via the stages of a plant’s life.
Question 12
The question of “The Tiger” is: “Did GOD create evil?”
Question 13
In order to understand meter, divide each line into feet and scan the feet.
Question 14
_____ argues that poems are tropological, not logically propositional in nature
Question 15
“Eight O’Clock” comments that innocence is short-lived.
Question 16
Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves.”
Question 17
A hyperbole is simply exaggeration, but exaggeration in the service of truth.
Question 18
When we understand all the conditions and circumstances involved in a paradox, we find that what at first seemed impossible is actually entirely plausible and not impossible at all.
Question 19
In “Songs of Innocence” the hollow reed is the poet’s pen.
Question 20
“Design” notes the impact of what insect?
Question 21
William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
Question 22
A metaphor is a comparison using “like” or “as.”
Question 23
The theme of a poem is the major concept or idea that a poet/writer implicitly or explicitly conveys in a poem.
Question 24
In this poem, the poet or persona asks that God “o’erthrow” him, reclaim him as His own, and “marry” him.
Question 25
Typically, paradoxes require some mental gymnastics in order to analyze intent.
Question 26
“Dover Beach” alludes to Horace.
Question 27
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
Question 28
McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
Question 29
What happens versus what the reader knows to be true is
Question 30
A couplet is two successive lines that have the same rhyme.
Question 31
The following is an excerpt from Tennyson’s “Ulysses”: “I cannot rest from travel; I will drink/Life to the lees…”
Question 32
Lyrical poetry differs from other writing in the fairly small emotional response that it generates.
Question 33
In the poem “Honor” by Herbert, only the sweet and virtuous soul that has survived the Judgment lives.
Question 34
Sometimes a poem such as “Fern Hill” simply functions to communicate an emotion.
Question 35
Irony of situation results from the incongruity between the actual and the anticipated circumstance in “Ozymandias.”
Question 36
Dactylic is two unstressed syllables followed by a stressed syllable.
Question 37
The first line of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads, “I met a traveler from an antique land.” Antique here best means: __________.
Question 38
Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 39
Which poem mentions prison?
Question 40
Internal rhyme has one or both of the rhyme-words within the line.
Question 41
The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
Question 42
Lines 9-12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death-bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 43
Understatement downplays or intentionally minimizes something.
Question 44
Onomatopoeia is the use of words that supposedly mimic their meaning in their sound.
Question 45
The first picture mentioned in “Ode on a Grecian Urn” is of a street scene in Athens.
Question 46
Lines 5-8 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the twilight of such day / As after sunset fadeth in the west, / Which by and by black night doth take away, / Death’s second self, that seals up all in rest.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 47
This poem by T. S. Eliot makes an allusion to the Gospel of Matthew, 2:1-12.
Question 48
Hopkins’ poem, “Spring,” uses sensory perceptions to underscore the theme of the importance of innocence.
Question 49
Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
Question 50
“Nothing beside remains” is a significant phrase in what poem?

• Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
• Question 2
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
• Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
• Question 4
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
• Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
• Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “There is no Frigate like a Book.”
• Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
• Question 9
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Keats died of polio.
• Question 10
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The major figure of speech often used to interpret Shelley’s “Ozymandias” is irony of situation.
• Question 11
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In this sonnet, _____, the octave introduces a series of images, and the sestet presents two significant symbols.
• Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Dover Beach” begins with an idyllic scene that soon changes to a fierce attack.
• Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The last 5 lines of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads: “My name is Ozymandias, king of kings: / Look on my works, ye Mighty, and despair!” / Nothing beside remains. Round the decay / Of that colossal wreck, boundless and bare / The lone and level sands stretch far away.” The crumbling statue, “decay,” “colossal wreck,” “boundless and bare
/…lone and level sands” all communicate thematic ideas of __________.
• Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The variation of a poem’s sentence structure is referred to as its syntactical structure.
• Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lyrical poetry differs from other writing in the fairly small emotional response that it generates.
• Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In the poem “Honor” by Herbert, only the sweet and virtuous soul that has survived the Judgment lives.
• Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.
• Question 18
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first three stanzas of “Virtue” show that all of nature is ephemeral.
• Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for rhymes that occur at the ends of lines is
• Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
• Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
• Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves,” Dickinson compares snowfall to God’s righteousness covering the earth.
• Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In which poem does the child inspire the poet to write?
• Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Chimney Sweeper” uses a dichotomy between the horror that the children experience and what is said.
• Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Monometer is a metrical line containing one foot.
• Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
• Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The speaker of “The Chimney Sweeper” is a dead boy.
• Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Dover Beach overlooks Norway.
• Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The phrase “frigate like a book” is an example of a metaphor.
• Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points
When we understand all the conditions and circumstances involved in a paradox, we find that what at first seemed impossible is actually entirely plausible and not impossible at all.
• Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poem, “Ozymandias,” was written by Percy Bysshe Shelley.
• Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The theme of the poem, “Barter,” is that “loveliness is the most important thing is life.”
• Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The three major types of irony are verbal irony, dramatic irony, and irony of situation.
• Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for words in a rhyming pattern that have some kind of sound correspondence but are not perfect rhymes (example push- rush).
• Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The images in _____ create an impression of autumn.
• Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A metaphor is a comparison using “like” or “as.”
• Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points
According to the work-text/textbook, _____ is a writer’s or speaker’s attitude toward the subject, the audience, or herself or himself.
• Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The English sonnet is sometimes called Shakespearean sonnet.
• Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
• Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In “Fern Hill” time is shown to pass via the stages of a plant’s life.
• Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poem, “Ulysses,” was written by William Blake.
• Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points
An octave is a ten-line stanza or the first ten lives of a sonnet.
• Question 43
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A poem can be organized without stanza breaks, refrain, or rhythm.
• Question 44
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A poem’s sound structure is its rhyme scheme and systematic and repeated use of similar sounds.
• Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A paradoxical statement is a figure of speech in which an apparently self-contradictory statement is nevertheless found to be true.
• Question 46
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The question of “The Tiger” is: “Did GOD create evil?”
• Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In what poem does a boy lose a hand?
• Question 48
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Tropes create meaning that cannot be expressed any other way.
• Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Since “all truth is God’s truth,” we may freely go to poetry to find truth instead of using God’s revelation to us in the Bible to judge poetry.
• Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points
What animal is mentioned in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening”?

• Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
• Question 2
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
• Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
• Question 4
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
• Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
• Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.
• Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Connotation is a word’s overtones of meaning.
• Question 9
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Dover Beach” begins with an idyllic scene that soon changes to a fierce attack.
• Question 10
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Assonance is the close positioning of the same or similar vowel sounds.
• Question 11
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“To strive, to seek, to find, and not to yield” is from what poem?
• Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which of the following poem was written by Robert Frost
• Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “That time of year thou mayst in me behold / When yellow leaves, or none, or few, do hang / Upon those boughs which shake against the cold, / Bare ruin’d choirs, where late the sweet birds sang.”
In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
• Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first line of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads, “I met a traveler from an antique land.” Antique here best means: __________.
• Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Image structure is the order in which images appear in a poem.
• Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points
McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
• Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Not all poems have a theme.
• Question 18
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Line 7 of George Herbert’s “Virtue” reads: “Thy root is ever in its grave.” The word “grave” is metonymy for __________.
• Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points
William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
• Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
• Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
• Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Line 3 of George Herbert’s “Virtue” reads: “The dew shall weep thy fall tonight.” The word “fall” means __________.
• Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A foot in poetry usually contains one accented syllable and one or two unaccented syllables.
• Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
• Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which of the following poem uses two similes to create meaning and emotion, and two metaphors to complete the poem?
• Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The speaker in Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year” compares himself to autumn/winter, night, and a burnt-out fire.
• Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Frost uses direct methods to communicate his theme in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening.”
• Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Rhyme scheme could be relied upon to trace a poet’s thought patterns.
• Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A character expresses great pride. In which poem does he appear?
• Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Onomatopoeia is the use of words that supposedly mimic their meaning in their sound.
• Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points
An imagistic poem gives the verbal representation of a sense experience, as of sight, touch, taste, smell, and hearing.
• Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A trope is a figure of speech.
• Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points
M. H. Riken proposes six tools or substructures of the art form, poem. These include paraphrase, rational, image, metric, sound, and syntax.
• Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A metaphor is the imaginative identification of two dissimilar objects or ideas.
• Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In what poem does a boy lose a hand?
• Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points
William Butler Yeats wrote the poem, “Sailing to Byzantium.”
• Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 9-12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death-bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
• Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Images evoke the senses.
• Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for rhymes that occur at the ends of lines is
• Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A trope is a device in which one object or idea is compared with a dissimilar object or idea.
• Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Barter” makes extensive use of verbs such as raps, deals, and makes.
• Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “That time of year thou mayst in me behold / When yellow leaves, or none, or few, do hang / Upon those boughs which shake against the cold, / Bare ruin’d choirs, where late the sweet birds sang.” These lines emphasize __________.
• Question 43
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Image is a verbal representation of a series of experiences as of sight, touch, smell, and hearing.
• Question 44
1.6 out of 1.6 points
One possible theme of _____ is that responsibilities are more important than the beauties of life.
• Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Scansion is the process of measuring verse.
• Question 46
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The theme of a poem is the major concept or idea that a poet/writer implicitly or explicitly conveys in a poem.
• Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
• Question 48
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony of situation results from the incongruity between the actual and the anticipated circumstance in “Ozymandias.”
• Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Assonance, according to the Power Point presentation, emphasizes ideas and slows pace.
• Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which famous critic said that it was vital to know the Bible if one is to understand literature.

Question 1 In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 2 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
Question 3 In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 4 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
Question 5 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13¬14) represents __________.
Question 6 The poem, “Ulysses,” was written by William Blake.
Question 7 This poem by Robert Frost makes an allusion to Shakespeare’s play Macbeth.
Question 8 “Fern Hill” followed upon the Industrial Revolution which ushered in major changes in thought.
Question 9 Lines 1¬4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
Question 10 All poems have an end rhyme scheme.
Question 11 Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
Question 12 “Dover Beach” alludes to Horace.
Question 13 Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves.”
Question 14 According to the work¬text/textbook, _____ is a writer’s or speaker’s attitude toward the subject, the audience, or herself or himself.
Question 15 Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
Question 16 Monometer is a metrical line containing one foot.
Question 17 A metaphor may have one of four forms.
Question 18 The bald eagle represents freedom, majesty, and strength. This is an example of a(n)
Question 19 Lines 9¬12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death¬bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 20 Dactylic is two unstressed syllables followed by a stressed syllable.
Question 21 Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is entitled
Question 22 A poem may be unified by a theme, one of the tropes, or by
Question 23 Emily Dickinson authored “Ozymandias.”
Question 24 William Blake wrote “The Tiger.”
Question 25 Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 26 As literature, the Bible contains an organized view of life that comprehends and subsumes even man’s artistic creations.
Question 27 McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
Question 28 “Ode to a Nightingale” speaks of two scenes.
Question 29 A metaphor is the imaginative identification of two dissimilar objects or ideas.
Question 30 The major figure of speech often used to interpret Shelley’s “Ozymandias” is irony of situation.
Question 31 According to Emily Dickinson, “[Poetry] makes my body so cold that no fire can warm me … and makes me feel as if the top of my head were taken off”
Question 32 The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
Question 33 The English sonnet is sometimes called Shakespearean sonnet.
Question 34 Keats died of polio.
Question 35 According to Plato, poetry should be for art’s sake, and not interpreted, analyzed, and dissected.
Question 36 “A poem,” according to M. H. Riken, “is produced by a poet, takes its subject matter from the universe of men, things, and events, and is addressed to, or made available to, an audience of hearers or readers.”
Question 37 Edwin Arlington Robinson authored the poem, “Nothing Gold Can Stay.”
Question 38 A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.
Question 39 _____ is a descriptive¬meditative lyric.
Question 40 Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.
Question 41 The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
Question 42 The first three stanzas of “Virtue” show that all of nature is ephemeral.
Question 43 The tiger in Blake’s poem of the same name symbolizes
Question 44 The rhyme scheme of Gerard Manley Hopkins’s “God’s Grandeur” is abba abba cd cd cd.
Question 45 This poem by T. S. Eliot makes an allusion to the Gospel of Matthew, 2:1¬12.
Question 46 In the poem “Virtue” by George Herbert, the line “The dew shall weep thy fall tonight” exemplifies __________.
Question 47 A foot is the basic unit used in the scansion of verse; it usually contains one accented syllable and one or two unaccented syllables.
Question 48 A poem’s meter helps to convey the tone, which then helps to establish meaning.
Question 49 “Journey of the Magi” maintains that Christ’s birth was a “hard and bitter agony.”
Question 50 The phrase “frigate like a book” is an example of a metaphor.

Question 1 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
Question 2 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
Question 3 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13¬14) represents __________.
Question 4 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
Question 5 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line represents __________.
Question 6 The allusion in the poem “Out, Out ¬ ¬” is from
Question 7 The tropes in _____ relate to the childhood of the speaker.
Question 8 The poem, “Fern Hill,” was written by Dylan Thomas.
Question 9 Not all poems have a theme.
Question 10 The bald eagle represents freedom, majesty, and strength. This is an example of a(n)
Question 11 “A poem,” according to M. H. Riken, “is produced by a poet, takes its subject matter from the universe of men, things, and events, and is addressed to, or made available to, an audience of hearers or readers.”
Question 12 All poems have an end rhyme scheme.
Question 13 Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is entitled
Question 14 Assonance, according to the Power Point presentation, emphasizes ideas and slows pace.
Question 15 What happens versus what the reader knows to be true is
Question 16 When Alexander Pope wrote that a literary critic of his time would “damn with faint praise,” he was using a verbal paradox.
Question 17 The speaker of “The Chimney Sweeper” is a dead boy.
Question 18 This poem by Robert Frost makes an allusion to Shakespeare’s play Macbeth.
Question 19 Which of the following poem uses two similes to create meaning and emotion, and two metaphors to complete the poem?
Question 20 “Eight O’Clock” comments that innocence is short¬lived.
Question 21 William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
Question 22 The three major types of irony are verbal irony, dramatic irony, and irony of situation.
Question 23 In this sonnet, _____, the octave introduces a series of images, and the sestet presents two significant symbols.
Question 24 Stressed and unstressed syllables are indicated by diacritical marks.
Question 25 Which of the following poem was written by John Donne
Question 26 Internal rhyme has one or both of the rhyme¬words within the line.
Question 27 Image is a verbal representation of a series of experiences as of sight, touch, smell, and hearing.
Question 28 Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 29 Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
Question 30 The author of “Ode on a Grecian Urn” is Frost.
Question 31 A Shakespearean Sonnet has this rhyme scheme: ACAC, BDBD, EFEF, GG.
Question 32 The metrical structure of a poem is its rhythm pattern of stressed and unstressed syllables.
Question 33 The phrase “Death’s second self, that seals up all in rest” (line 8) in William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” is a metaphor for __________.
Question 34 The variation of a poem’s sentence structure is referred to as its syntactical structure.
Question 35 Frost uses direct methods to communicate his theme in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening.”
Question 36 Lines 1¬4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
Question 37 “Life has loveliness to sell” is an excerpt from “Last Duchess.”
Question 38 In “Ars Poetica,” _____ argues that poems are tropological, not logically propositional, in nature.
Question 39 Three analytical approaches are (1) focus, (2) content, and (3) style.
Question 40 In this poem, the poet or persona asks that God “o’erthrow” him, reclaim him as His own, and “marry” him.
Question 41 The poem, “God’s Grandeur,” was written by Emily Dickinson.
Question 42 A trope is a device in which one object or idea is compared with a dissimilar object or idea.
Question 43 “In the forests of the night, /What immortal hand or eye/ Dare frame thy fearful symmetry” is from what poem?
Question 44 Samuel Johnson defined poetry as “The art of uniting pleasure with truth by calling imagination to the help of reason.”
Question 45 Assonance is the close positioning of the same or similar vowel sounds.
Question 46 In order to understand meter, divide each line into feet and scan the feet.
Question 47 The following is an excerpt from Tennyson’s “Ulysses”: “I cannot rest from travel; I will drink/Life to the lees…”
Question 48 In the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves,” Dickinson compares snowfall to God’s righteousness covering the earth.
Question 49 The tiger in Blake’s poem of the same name symbolizes
Question 50 A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.

The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
In lines 7-8, the narrator is trying to ________ Tom when he tells him, “Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, / You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair.”
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Tropes demand intellectual involvement on the part of the reader.
The poem “Ode To A Nightingale” was written by
Emily Dickinson authored the poem,

Q2. Liberty University ENGL 102 test 3 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University ENGL 102 test 3 complete solutions correct answers A+ work
Time limit: 1 hour and 30 minutes
50 multiple-choice, true/false, matching and reading comprehension questions
Open-book/open-notes
Do not hit the BACK button as this will lock you out of the test.
The timer will continue if you leave this test without submitting it.
Please use the following passage to answer the first 5 questions:
Reading Comprehension Question from the play Everyman (lines 22-79).
GOD: I perceive here in my majesty,
How that all the creatures be to me unkind,
Living without dread in worldly prosperity:
Of ghostly sight the people be so blind,
Drowned in sin, they know me not for their God;
In worldly riches is all their mind.
They fear not my righteousness, the sharp rod.
My law that I showed, when I for them died,
They forget clean, and shedding of my blood red;
I hanged between two, it cannot be denied;
To get them life I suffered to be dead;
I healed their feet, with thorns hurt was my head.
I could do no more than I did, truly;
And now I see the people do clean forsake me.
They use the seven deadly sins damnable,
As pride, covetise, wrath, and lechery
Now in the world be made commendable;
And thus they leave of angels the heavenly company.
Every man liveth so after his own pleasure,
And yet of their life they be nothing sure:
I see the more that I them forbear
The worse they be from year to year.

I hoped well that every man
In my glory should make his mansion,
And thereto I had them all elect;
But now I see, like traitors deject,
They thank me not for the pleasure that I to them meant,
Nor yet for their being that I them have lent;
I proffered the people great multitude of mercy,
And few there be that asketh it heartily;
They be so cumbered with worldly riches
That needs on them I must do justice,
On every man living without fear.
Where art thou, Death, thou mighty messenger?
[Enter Death]
DEATH: Almighty God, I am here at your will,
Your commandment to fulfill.
GOD: Go thou to Everyman,
And show him, in my name,
A pilgrimage he must … take

And that he bring with him a sure reckoning
DEATH: Lord, I will in the world go run overall,
And cruelly outsearch both great and small;
Everyman will I beset that liveth beastly
Out of God’s laws, and dreadeth not folly.
He that loveth riches I will strike with my dart,
His sight to blind, and from heaven to depart–
Except that alms be his good friend–
In hell for to dwell, world without end

Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In context, the phrase “Everyman … liveth beastly” means that
Selected Answer:
Question 2
0 out of 1.6 points

According to the excerpt, __________.
Selected Answer:
.
Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In context, the excerpt depicts Everyman as __________.
Selected Answer:
.
Question 4
0 out of 1.6 points

Choose one word that best explains why the people have rejected the “multitude of mercy” offered by the speaker?
Selected Answer:
Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Death’s vow to search for “both great and small,” never to relax at any point, means that
Selected Answer:
.
Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Aristotle, the Greek critic, said that a tragic hero should be a nobleman.
Selected Answer:
Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Oedipus asks Kreon to kill him, since suicide would be blasphemy against the gods.
Selected Answer:
Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points

“Quem Quoeritis” includes an exchange between Holy Women and Jesus.
Selected Answer:
Question 9
0 out of 1.6 points

Kreon and Teiresias (in the play Oedipus Rex) are a good example of the use of mute actors in ancient Greek drama.
Selected Answer:
Question 10
0 out of 1.6 points

According to Aristotle, a hero is not responsible for any criminal act he commits as long as he is not aware of its criminal nature.
Selected Answer:
Question 11
0 out of 1.6 points

Richard Caxton printed Everyman in English in the early 1600’s.
Selected Answer:
Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points

One of Sophocles’ contributions was the inclusion of female actors.
Selected Answer:
Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The Greek stage was limited in the use of props and scenery.
Selected Answer:
Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Which is not one of the Three Unities?
Selected Answer:
Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Goods states in the play Everyman: “Who calleth me? Everyman? What hast thou hast! / I lie here in corners, trussed and piled so high, / And in chest I am locked so fast, / Also sacked in bags, thou mayst see with thine eye, / I cannot stir; in packs low I lie. / What would ye have, lightly me say.” In context, this best satirizes
Selected Answer:
Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The major characters in Shakespeare’s tragedies are influenced by Aristotle’s concept of tragic hero.
Selected Answer:
Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Sophocles is noted for his clear and logical action that used political, religious, and personal elements.
Selected Answer:
Question 18
0 out of 1.6 points

The Greeks were a war-like culture and enjoyed seeing bloodshed on the stage.
Selected Answer:
Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In 1210, Pope Innocent III moved drama from the wagon processionals into the church buildings.
Selected Answer:
Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to Plato, a Greek critic, a tragic hero must fall from high to low estate.
Selected Answer:
Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Elizabethan drama held to the single day theory of Classical drama.
Selected Answer:
Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Messenger speaks in Everyman saying: “I pray you all give your audience, / And here [hear] this matter with reverence, / By figure a moral play- / The Summoning of Everyman called it is,”
In context, the statement that the play is “By figure a moral play” means that
Selected Answer:
Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The name “Oedipus” means swollen hand.
Selected Answer:
Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points

A messenger tells Oedipus that the king’s (Oedipus’s) father, _____, is dead.
Selected Answer:
Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The Greek play began with the parados.
Selected Answer:
Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Everyman states in the play Everyman: “ O gracious God, in the high seat celestial, / Have mercy on me in this most need; / Shall I have no company from this vale terrestrial / Of mine acquaintance that way to me lead?”
In this excerpt, Everyman pleads to God to allow help from ________.
Selected Answer:
Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In the play Oedipus the Chorus make this remark about Oedipus: “Your splendor is all fallen / O naked brow of wrath and tears,/ O change of Oedipus!” In context, what has happened to Oedipus?
Selected Answer:
Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points

With the decline and fall of Rome, drama – either as an institution or a literature – ceased to exist.
Selected Answer:
Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Greek theatre was limited to three actors, although a dramatist could use as many mute actors as he wished.
Selected Answer:
Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Aeschylus was a student of Sophocles.
Selected Answer:
Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The end of a Greek play is called Exodos.
Selected Answer:
Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Aeschylus introduces a second character to the performances.
Selected Answer:
Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to the messenger in Everyman, the actual title of the play is:
Selected Answer:
The Summoning of Everyman
Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In a carefully crafted Greek play, no god ever actively impacts the outcome of a hero’s challenges.
Selected Answer:
Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to Everyman, there are _____ sacraments.
Selected Answer:
Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Greek actors used giant masks to indicate their character types or emotions.
Selected Answer:
Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The plot of Oedipus Rex has been called one of the most perfect dramatic plots ever conceived.
Selected Answer:
Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Dionysus was the god of dance.
Selected Answer:
Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to the “Three Unities,” action was restricted to one main action with few or no subplots.
Selected Answer:
Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Which character in Everyman says to Everyman: “Fear not; I will speak for thee.”
Selected Answer:
Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Othello is known to be honest, open, sincere, and overly trusting.
Selected Answer:
Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The play Everyman opens with a statement by Messenger that the “intent” of the play is “gracious / And sweet to bear away.” This means the purpose of the play is
Selected Answer:
.
Question 43
0 out of 1.6 points

According to Fellowship in Everyman, what is duty?
Selected Answer:
Question 44
0 out of 1.6 points

The play Oedipus opens with the following speech by Oedipus: “My children, generations of living / In the line of Kadmos, nursed at his ancient hearth: / Why have you strewn yourself before these altars / In supplication, with your boughs and garlands? / The breath of incense rises from the city / With a sound of prayer and lamentation.” What is Oedipus’ attitude and tone in his speech?
Selected Answer:
Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Strength speaks in Everyman saying: “You spend your speech and waste your brain.” In context, this means that
Selected Answer:
Question 46
0 out of 1.6 points

In the play Oedipus the Chorus say: “Alas the seed of men./…/ That breathe on void and are void / And exist and do not exist?” In context, what do lines 2-3 — “That breathe on void and are void / And exist and do not exist?”—mean?
Selected Answer:
.
Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The name of the blind seer in Oedipus is Kreon.
Selected Answer:
Question 48
0 out of 1.6 points

Greek tragedy encouraged the use of comedy and tragedy in the same play to show the duality of human nature.
Selected Answer:
Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The play Oedipus opens with the following speech by Oedipus: “… Children,/ I would not have you speak trough messengers, / And therefore I have come myself to hear you- / I, Oedipus, who bear the famous name. / (To a Priest.) You, there, since you are the eldest in the company, / Speak for them all, tell me what preys upon you.” The “Priest” may be described as
Selected Answer:
Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Arion added an actor to the chorus’ music and dancing.
Selected Answer:

Q3. Professional Experience #4
Steps to Complete Professional Experience Four
Step one: Click on the link in the “Link to OneDrive” section above. The link will take you to a OneDrive folder titled Week 7. Review the sample outline document provided in this folder.
Step two: Create an outline (Refer to the Outline Guidelines, below, for details) for your Week 8 presentation based on Week 6’s “Social Media” PowerPoint presentation (a video preview is available under the Week 7 tab in Blackboard). https://cdnapisec.kaltura.com/index.php/extwidget/preview/partner_id/956951/uiconf_id/38285871/entry_id/1_1yd1tq3f/embed/dynamic
• You may use the provided Presentation Outline Sample posted below or develop a different outline on your own.
Step three: Save your file to your desktop using the following file name format: Your_Name_Presentation_Outline.
• Example file name: Ed_Buchanan_Presentation_Outline
• Make sure that you leave the “Comments” column blank.
Step four: After you have completed your presentation outline, upload it to the “Completed Outlines” folder on OneDrive.

Step five: Submit your completed outline for your instructor’s review using the Professional Experience #4 link in the Week 7 tab in Blackboard.
Outline Guidelines
• Use Microsoft Word or Excel only to complete your outline.
• Use short bullet points, rather than long paragraphs.
• Focus only on the key points in your Week 6 presentation; avoid discussing less important details
• Refer to the example outline posted for you in the Week 7 OneDrive folder
• Base your submission on the outline format in the example or create your own for this Professional Experience
In order to earn your points for completing this task, you must do the following:
• Use the proper naming convention: Your_Name_Presentation_Outline
• Leave the “Comments” column blank
• Follow the outline guidelines above
• Upload your outline to the “Completed Outlines” folder on OneDrive
• Submit your completed outline to Blackboard using the Professional Experience #4 link in the Week 7 tab

Q4 Social Psychology assignment
Details:
Visit the website of The Random Acts of Kindness Foundation, an organization dedicated to altruistic pursuits.
Review the information, literature, and downloadable documents.
Design your own assignment in which you implement five acts of kindness (prosocial behavior). Use your discretion, common sense, and modesty at all times. Do not put yourself in an environment of potential danger or harm.
Write a paper of 500-750 words, in which you:
1. Describe your implementation of kindness: what did you do, how did you approach the idea, where did you implement it and to whom?
2. Describe the reactions you perceived from others and yourself.
3. Describe what you learned about prosocial behavior from this exercise. Compare the actual application of the behavior relative to this topic material.
4. If you are a faith-based person, explain how your faith helped you implement your helping behavior. If you are not a faith-based person, explain what philosophy, belief system, or values you connected to helping behavior.
When writing in APA style, it is important that your analysis is written in third person. Writing in third person helps with clarity and conciseness throughout your paper. However, some instances writing in first person is acceptable and should be used sparingly. Solid academic writing is expected, and documentation of sources should be presented using APA formatting guidelines.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.

Q5. English 102 Test 2
English 102 Test 2 Questions and Answers
Examples:
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.

Selected Answer: *****
Lines 7-8 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: And wears man’s smudge and shares man’s smell: the soil / Is bare now, nor can foot feel, being shod.” “The soil / Is bare” because __________.
Selected Answer: *****

Q6. ESSAY 1 INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST Proposal Argument

In preparation for Essay 1 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 3 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).

ESSAY 1 INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST
Proposal Argument
In preparation for Essay 1 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 3 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).

Assignment

In Module/Week 3, you will write a 1,000–1,200-word proposal argument essay from the thesis/outline that you submitted in Module/Week 2. Please note the word count does not include citations.

Proposal Argument Prompt

Write a proposal argument about what the government should do to relieve the student loan burden. Use the readings on pages 569–585 to support your thesis statement and provide opposing viewpoints. Be sure to integrate a total of 4 quotations, summaries and/or paraphrases from the readings. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (Current APA, MLA, or Turabian).

As you compose your essay, be sure to:

• Include all parts identified in “Structuring a Proposal Argument” found on page 561 in your Practical Argument textbook.
• Include at least 4 quotations, summaries, and/or paraphrases from the readings on pages 569–585 to support your thesis statement and provide opposing argument(s).
• Follow the appropriate formatting style for your degree program (Current MLA, APA, or Turabian).
• Use signal phrases and proper in-text citations; make sure you include a references (Current APA), bibliography (Current Turabian) or works cited (Current MLA) page.
• Use the Essay 1 Grading Rubric and the proofreading checklist (provided below) to draft and revise your essay. Please note the essay proofreading checklist is not exactly the same as the outline proofreading checklist, so be sure to review it carefully.
• Type your degree program and which style of writing you are using (current MLA, APA, or Turabian) in the title of the saved document and in the “Submission Title” field on the submission link in Blackboard.

IMPORTANT: Fully cite all quotations, summaries, and paraphrases used within your essay, or those excerpts will be regarded as plagiarism and will result in a “0” on your essay and possible course failure.
Proofreading Checklist
Part 1

Read through your paper and check the appropriate boxes on the chart below. If any area of your paper needs revision, make sure you correct it before submitting your essay. One of the best ways to proofread your writing is to read it backwards to forwards, sentence-by-sentence. This helps you to see words and ideas that you may have missed. Another very successful tool for proofreading is to read your work out loud to someone else. Individuals often think that handing their paper to someone and asking him or her to read it is the same thing, but it is not. Instead, ask someone to listen while you read your own words. You will immediately hear what you missed or will want to improve in your writing.
Reading & Study Application Successful Needs Revision
1. Introduction: Establishes the context of the proposal and presents the essay’s thesis
2. Explanation of the problem: Identifies the problem and explains why it needs to be solved
3. Explanation of the solution: Proposes a solution and explains how it will solve the problem
4. Evidence in support of the solution: Presents support for the proposed solution. Integrates a total of at least 4 quotes, summaries, and/or paraphrases from the reading assignments.
5. Benefits of the solution: Explains the positive results of the proposed course of action
6. Refutation of opposing arguments: Addresses objections to the proposal
7. Conclusion: Reinforces the main point of the proposal; includes a strong concluding statement
8. Contains pathos (emotional) appeals, ethos (values/belief) appeals, and/or logos (factual) appeals as appropriate
9. Title reflects issue and proposal information
10. Uses only third person pronouns (all first and second person pronouns have been removed)
11. If using current APA format, contains properly formatted, title, abstract, and References page.
If using MLA format, contains a properly formatted Works Cited page
If using Turabian format, contains a properly formatted title page and Bibliography page
12. Double spaced
13. Font is 12-point Times New Roman
14. References/Works Cited/ Bibliography page includes all sources cited within the body of the essay
15. Checked spelling, grammar/mechanics

Part 2
When you are satisfied with the quality of your essay, post it to Blackboard via the SafeAssign link for grading. Do not forget to write your degree program and whether you are using current MLA, APA, or Turabian on the title page and in the “Submission Title” field when submitting your paper.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

Q7. Thinking Critically 1

For this assignment, you will choose and answer 3 questions based on the reading and viewingassignments listed below.

Each answer should be a minimum of 3 paragraphs that are 3–5 sentences in length.
Read Chapter 1 of the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. Describe what convergence has meant in your life and how it affects you.
2. Does the SMCR model adequately explain social media?
3. Is social media a fundamentally new type of communication or not? Justify.
Read Chapter 2 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. How has the hegemony of ideas affected you personally?
Read Chapter 3 of the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. Which culture should receive the most credit for the invention of printing? Explain.
2. Debate the following proposition: Books are an obsolete medium.
Read Chapter 4 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. What is the proper role of a free press in a democratic society?
2. Go through your local newspaper—in print, on the Internet, or mobile device—and describe the objective of each section. How do local newspapers differ from national ones in content?
3. What does it mean for journalists to be the watchdogs?
Read Chapter 5 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. How do conglomerates affect print publishing? What are the positives and negatives associated with conglomerates?
View the videos The Future of Journalism and Hate the media? So do I and I’m a reporter.
1. Discuss your position on the place for investigative journalism in the future. Explain how you either agree or disagree with Tom Rosenstiehl when he says digital technology caused the problems in current journalism BUT that digital technology will also solve the problems?
2. If you agree with Abbie Boudreau about the problems in media today, give some examples of what you might do to repair the problems and restore respect to journalistic endeavors.

Submit Thinking Critically 1 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 1.
Q8. ENG 101 THESIS/OUTLINE

ESSAY 2 THESIS/OUTLINE INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST
Ethical Argument

In preparation for Essay 2 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 4 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).

In Module/Week 4, you will write a thesis statement and outline for the ethical argument essay that you will write in the next module/week.

Develop an outline for your ethical argument essay that includes a clear thesis statement and a plan of support. Be sure to include all parts identified in “Structuring an Ethical Argument” on page 599 in your Practical Argument textbook. In addition, include at least 4 quotations, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase (6 total) into your essay from at least 3 outside sources to support your thesis statement and provide opposing arguments. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (APA, MLA, or Turabian). Your outside sources can include scholarly sources and the Bible. (Note: Wikipedia is NOT an acceptable source for academic writing.)

Ethical Essay Prompt

Write an ethical argument in which you consider the topic, “How far should scientists go to modify humans through genetic engineering?” Use the websites included in the Reading & Study folder, your own academic research, and the Bible to include at least 4 quotations, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase (6 total) from at least 3 sources. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (current APA, MLA, or Turabian).

Instructions

After reading pages 599–607 in your Practical Argument textbook and the 5 websites in the Module/Week 4 Reading & Study folder, you will be prepared to plan your own ethical argument about the topic, “How far should scientists go to modify humans through genetic engineering?”

When planning your outline, review the reading assignment with special attention to page 590—What is Ethical Argument?, page 591—Stating and Ethical Principle, and page 599—Structuring an Ethical Argument.

Next, do some preliminary research about your topic including the websites in the Module/Week 4 Reading & Study folder and scholarly resources such as those found on the Jerry Falwell Library. In addition, you are encouraged to use the Bible as a resource for your ethical argument development.

Finally, create an outline that includes a clear thesis statement and a plan of support. Be sure to include all of the parts identified in “Structuring an Ethical Argument” found on page 599 in your Practical Argument textbook.

Review the Outline Suggestions and Proofreading Checklist (below) and the Essay 2 Thesis/Outline Grading Rubric before submitting your thesis/outline in Blackboard.

Proofreading Checklist

Part 1

Read through your outline and check the appropriate boxes on the chart below. If any area of your outline needs revision, make sure you correct it before submitting your assignment. Taking the time to construct a complete and thorough outline will help you save time when you write the actual essay.

Reading & Study Application Successful Needs Revision
1. Thesis statement: Clearly states your argument (claim) about the topic.
2. Background: Gives an overview of the situation.
3. Ethical analysis: Explains the ethical principle and analyzes the particular situation on the basis of this principle.
4. Evidence: Presents points that support the thesis (Integrates at least 4 quotes, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase from at least 3 outside sources).
5. Refutation of opposing arguments: Addresses arguments against the thesis.
6. Conclusion: Restates the ethical principle as well as the thesis (not in the exact words); includes a strong concluding statement.
7. Contains pathos (emotional) appeals, ethos (values/belief) appeals, and/or logos (factual) appeals as appropriate.
8. Title reflects issue and proposal information.
9. Uses only third person pronouns (all first and second person pronouns have been removed).
10. If using current APA format, contains properly formatted, title, abstract, and References page.
If using MLA format, contains a properly formatted Works Cited page.
If using Turabian format, contains a properly formatted title page and Bibliography page.
11. Double-spaced.
12. Font is 12-point Times New Roman.
13. References/Works Cited/ Bibliography page includes all sources cited within the body of the essay.
14. Checked spelling, grammar/mechanics.

Part 2

When you are satisfied with the quality of your outline, submit it to Blackboard. Do not forget to write your degree program and whether you are using current MLA, APA, or Turabian on the title page and in the “Submission Title” field when submitting your paper.

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.
Q9. Fallacies and Rhetoric
Choose an advertisement that contains at least three or four rhetorical devices or fallacies (but more would be better!), from a newspaper or a magazine (in which case you should scan the ad, save it as a PDF, and submit it with your assignment) or an online source (in which case you should include the EXACT URL with your assignment, pasted as a link with the assignment). You CANNOT use video ads for this assignment if you plan to complete the extra credit opportunity associated with this assignment (explained below). So, if you plan to do the extra credit, you must choose an ad that is an image, not a video.
• The advertisement must be made after 1990 (no ads produced before 1990).
• The advertisement must be in ENGLISH. Otherwise, your analysis cannot be graded.
Analyze the ad for uses of rhetorical devices or fallacies. Explain which devices you see in the ad, making sure to be specific in your analysis. You must clearly identify the specific parts of the advertisement that you find rhetorical or fallacious.
In addition to identifying any rhetorical devices and fallacies, analyze the ad in terms of the following:
Who is targeted in the ad (who is the target audience?)?
What psychological effect does the ad have on the audience?
What subconscious needs or desires among the audience does the ad seem to be playing upon?
The written analysis must be at least 1000 words (to earn minimum credit for this assignment). Of course, paste your analysis into the “Submission” portion of this assignment page.
WANT SOME EXTRA CREDIT POINTS?!? Then, create a new ad (actually make the new ad) for the product advertized in the original ad. Your new ad should be targeted toward a critical thinker. Therefore, your new ad should not use any rhetorical devices or fallacies to persuade the audience. Instead, your new ad should present a well-reasoned, well-supported argument for why a critical thinker should buy the product. You will probably have to do research to create the argument. You may also need to change the visual images or pictures from the original add (feel free to use pictures from whatever source you like….just be sure that the images you choose do not have any manipulative rhetorical effect on the audience.). The goal of the new ad should be to present an argument, not to persuade! Scan your new ad, save it as a PDF and send it as an attachment, or create your new ad on your computer, save it as a PDF, and attach it to your assignment. You can earn anywhere up to 25 points, depending on the quality of the argument in the new ad, and the quality of the ad itself

Q10. topic analysis help needed
RESEARCH PAPER: TOPIC ANALYSIS INSTRUCTIONS
You will choose a topic related to the field of mass communication that you wish to analyze for your Topic Analysis Paper and submit it to the instructor for approval through the Research Paper Approval assessment.
Once your topic is approved, you may begin your research. You will compose a research paper in current APA format that includes a single introduction and conclusion paragraph as well as a title and reference page. The paper must be at least 6 pages, not including the title page and reference page.
The body of your paper will be split up in APA level headings according to sub points of your topic and analysis. You will be required to cite a minimum of 6 peer-reviewed sources that are less than 5 years old both in-text and list them on your reference page. Your textbook may be used as a reference in this paper; however, it does not count as one of the 6 required resources. Wikipedia may not be used as a source.
Submission
Review the Topic Analysis Grading Rubric before submitting this assignment. Attach your research paper as a Word file to Blackboard via the assignment submission link. Do not copy and paste your paper in the textbox. You must attach your paper as a file attachment.

Submit your topic for instructor approval by indicating it in the Research Paper Approval assessment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the Module/Week 4.

Submit this Topic Analysis assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.

1. Topic is : How is social media changing family relationships? (definition)

Topic Analysis Presentation Instructions
The student will prepare a presentation based on the content of his/her Topic Analysis paper. The presentation will be a visual and auditory presentation of the important points of the Topic Analysis Paper.
The student may choose the presentation method from Power Point, prezi or video.
The presentation will be created as one of the following:
a powerpoint with voice narration (6-10 slides),
OR
a prezi presentation with voice narration, (6-10 minutes in length)
OR
a video presentation (6-10 minutes in length) created with a webcam, laptop camera or cellphone.

HISTORY
Q1. Washingtons Farewell Address Analysis GOVT 200

Washington’s Farewell Address Analysis Instructions
For this assignment, you will analyze the major points of George Washington’s “Farewell Address” and write a 3-page analysis, considering contemporary government and including differing points of view. Be sure to adhere to the format specified in the Course Style Guidelines document.

Your analysis must adhere to the following specifications:
• No more than 3 double-spaced pages (12-point font with 1-inch margins).
• Must include a title page (not counted in total page number) that contains:
o A title,
o Your name,
o Your section (GOVT 200-S02),
o Your instructor’s name, and
o The date the assignment is due (all single-spaced in the footer of the cover page).
• No page number is necessary for the cover page or for the first page in the body of the paper.
• Pay particular attention to the grading rubric for how your paper will be graded.

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.

Q2. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 7: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following best represents the link between the Renaissance and the Protestant Reformation?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following best explains why the Renaissance first originated when and where it did?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” the Hundred Years War was fundamentally a struggle over
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” a major difference between the Renaissance in the north and the Italian Renaissance was that northern humanism emphasized
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following is the best description of Renaissance humanism?
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” the Hundred Years’ War was a conflict between which two groups?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
An image from the period was used to introduce “Italian and Northern Renaissance.” Which painting was used and why?
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following is NOT true of Erasmus?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” which of the following was listed as important conditions and causes of the Black Death?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Late Middle Ages,” while the French victory resulted in a weaker monarchy, their opponents formed a stronger monarchy after the war.

Q3. RLGN 104 Test 1: Religion: Liberty University / Liberty University RLGN104 Quiz 1 (Already Graded A)

RLGN 104 Test 1: Religion: Liberty University / Liberty University RLGN104 Quiz 1

• Question 1

This course (Apologetics 104) will be approaching the issue of “worldview” ….
• Question 2

When Jesus presented the gospel most people accepted it the first time they heard it.
• Question 3

Christian faith is simply a personal preference, a function of how one was raised, and a worldview that is only supported by emotional considerations.
• Question 4

When presenting the gospel to people Christians should be:
• Question 5

Apologetics for some is not discovered or understood until after they make a profession of faith. However, apologetics is important for all Christians to engage the culture.
• Question 6
A translation of the Bible is most accurate when translated by one, highly educated, highly qualified individual.
• Question 7

Hermeneutics is the method of interpreting the Bible.
• Question 8

When Jesus spoke as “one who had authority”:
• Question 9

The church fathers showed that they understood the importance of Jesus’ historicity when they crafted the _______________ Creed
• Question 10

According to Powell, the majority of Christian apologetics takes place in academic classrooms.
• Question 11

Because of the respect that people had for the Apostle Paul his message of Jesus Christ was accepted by almost everyone who heard him.
• Question 12

In describing “truth”, Powell states:
• Question 13

Preaching “the Word” only refers to the Old Testament since the writing of II Timothy 4:2 was before the New Testament was completed.
• Question 14

A Biblical Worldview is a perspective or viewpoint based upon the teachings of the Bible.
• Question 15

According to Powell, “reason” is not the enemy of “faith”.
• Question 16

Upon returning to the Decapolis region a second time after healing the crazed man who had been cutting himself with rocks, Jesus:
• Question 17

One of the first tasks of Christian apologetics is to provide information.
• Question 18

According to Powell, Christianity can be understood as an “antidote” rather than a lifestyle choice or part of a well-balanced religious view.
• Question 19

When Jesus healed the crazed man who lived in a graveyard near Decapolis the people of the city:
• Question 20

According to Dr. Weider the Christian faith is both reasonable and defendable.

Q4. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 8: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 8: Liberty University
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Age of Discovery,” what factors listed below contributed to European expansion?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Protestant Reformation,” there were important links between the Renaissance and the Reformation. Which of the following was part of that connection?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following best represents the significance of the Peace of Augsburg of 1555?
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Age of Discovery,” Prince Henry the Navigator:
• Question 5

According to “Reformation in Europe,” Reformation in France was characterized by
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “The Age of Discovery,” one of the most important economic theories that contributed to European expansion was mercantile capitalism.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” the early Jesuits viewed themselves as
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” which of the following most accurately reflects the history of the Catholic Church prior to 1650?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” there were two major developments that strengthened the movement in the 1500s. They were
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” while historians disagree over which events were most important, most agree that the changes in the Catholic Church in the 16th century were almost exclusively a reaction to the Protestant Reformation.

1. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT included in the discussion of Luther’s teachings in the lecture presentation on the Protestant Reformation?

2. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following contributed to the papal crisis of credibility?

3. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following does NOT accurately describe Martin Luther?

4. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT part of the context for reform?

5. According to “Reformation in Europe,” who started the teachings of the Reformation in Switzerland?

6. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT true of John Wycliffe and Jan Hus?

7. According to “The Age of Discovery,” which of the following was an effect of European expansion?

8.
According to “Catholic Reformation,” Cardinal Cisneros of Spain believed that the key to improving the quality of the clergy was

Q5. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 3: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Philip II
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Roman Republic,” Rome’s origins are obscured by myth.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander defeated this Persian king.
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander died in this city.

• Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” the worst military defeat in Roman history occurred at
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” in the early Roman Republic, the chief magistrates were
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” this man became the first emperor of Rome.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Roman Republic,” Rome’s origins are obscured by myth.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Rome fought the Punic Wars against Carthage.
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?

Question 1 1.5 out of 1.5 points True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.

Question 2 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander’s army went as far east as

Question 3 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?

Question 4 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” this group sacked Rome early in the republic period.

Question 5 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” the First Punic War involved a dispute over this territory.

Question 6 1.5 out of 1.5 points True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.

Question 7 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with

Question 8 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?

Question 9 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander died in this city.

Question 10 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?

1. According to your textbook, Cleopatra was the last Ptolemaic ruler in Egypt.
2. Alexander’s tutor was
3. When Roman armies defeated Carthage, Rome ordered all of the following except
4. According to your textbook, Alexander’s conquests extended from his homeland down into Egypt and as far east as India.
5. According to the textbook, Rome became a Republic when the plebians overthrew the ruling patricians and began determining law for themselves.
6. According to your textbook, Rome, conqueror of the Mediterranean world, rejected the universalist tendencies of the Hellenistic Age.
7. The First Punic War began because
8. The textbook characterizes Tiberius and Gaius Gracchus as moderate reformers trying to deal with real social problems.
9. Rome’s military advantages over their opponents can best be summed up by which of these phrases?
10. According to your textbook, in the Hellenistic Age, the intermingling of Greeks and peoples from the Near East caused Greeks to think of themselves as members of a world community.

1. The Roman Struggle of the Orders involved
2. According to your textbook, as a result of the spread of Greek civilization, local customs and languages disappeared in the East.
3. According to your textbook, the three phases of Greek civilization are the Dark Age, the Golden Age, and the Hellenistic Age.
4. According to your textbook, the conflict between Rome and Carthage was primarily a result of the competition between the two nations for trade in the western Mediterranean.
5. According to the textbook, what aspects of Hellenism facilitated the rise of Christianity?
6. Examples of Hellenistic influence on some Jews include all of the following except
7. According to your textbook, the Struggle of the Orders was finally settled when wealth was distributed more evenly between patricians and plebeians.
8. For the most part, the Romans responded to Greek culture
9. The achievements of Hellenistic scientists
10. The culture that had the earliest notable influence on Rome was _____ culture.

1. True or False: According to the lecture, “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
2. According to the lecture, “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?
3. According to the lecture, “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander defeated this Persian king.
4. According to the lecture, “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?
5. According to the lecture, “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with
6. True or False: According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews,” Darius was defeated by Alexander the Great and his mother, wife and children taken captive by the Macedonians.
7. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who was responsible for the expenditure of public funds?
8. True or False: According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews” Alexander the Great conquered Jerusalem and put the high priest, Jaddua, to death.
9. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who was responsible for trying crimes, such as treason, conspiracy, poisoning, etc?
10. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” which of the following offices was in charge of all public affairs?

1. According to the textbook, the Roman constitution was

2. Among the scientific work of the Greeks during the Hellenistic age, one may find

3. Historians divide Roman history into two broad periods:

4. According to your textbook, the Romans treated the Italian peoples they conquered as potential allies, to be integrated into Roman society.

5. According to your textbook, Hellenistic cosmopolitanism was characterized by both an increased movement of peoples and an expansion of trade.

6. The composition of the Twelve Tables was a political victory for the plebeians because

7. For the most part, the Romans responded to Greek culture

8. According to your textbook, Hellenistic philosophy was more concerned with politics and the state than with an individual’s peace of mind.

9. According to your textbook, at least one Hellenistic geographer estimated the circumference of the earth with remarkable accuracy.

10. According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews” upon entering and staying at Jerusalem, which prophetic book was shown to Alexander, signifying, to him, the success of his mission to defeat Persia?

11. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who has authority of ther ratifying of laws?

Q6. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 1: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to the lecture, “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which seafaring people, mentioned in the Old and New Testaments, gave us the writing system based on sound, rather than pictures?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who were considered a “deadly force of ruthless attackers”?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which empire brought conflict to Egypt and were the first to fashion iron weapons?
• Question 4
0 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which of the following peoples contributed the greatest legacy to Western civilization?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who was the greatest Chaldean ruler, who sacked Jerusalem and took many Israelites into captivity?
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which of the following is NOT one of the legacies of the Persian Empire?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” the purpose of this course is to consider all important civilizations from around the world.
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who built the very first, world empire?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” where did most civilizations rise up?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” Sumer, the foundation for Mesopotamian culture, was located in which region?

Q7. HIEU 201 Chapter 15 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Chapter 15 quiz: Liberty University

1.
European expansion in the fifteenth and sixteenth centuries was promoted by

2.
Columbus’s discovery made Spain a wealthy and powerful nation, because

3.
Hidalgos were

4.
Convertible husbandry

5.
Fifteenth-and sixteenth-century innovations in business methods included all of the following EXCEPT

6.
Commercial development in Spain was inhibited by

7.
The development of capitalism was encouraged by

8.
The traditional relationship between elite and fold cultures changed in the sixteenth century when

9.
The principal reason why France was not as well placed as England to benefit from commercial expansion was

10.
Thomas Mun was among the first Europeans to discern the virtues of

11.
The high demand for armaments was sustained in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries by

12.
Prince Henry the Navigator was associated with the expansion efforts of

13.
Francisco Pizarro was

14.
The European traffic in African slaves

15.
The price revolution of the sixteenth century resulted primarily from

16.
Enclosure was the process by which

17.
The domestic system contributed to the growth of capitalism because it

18.
The price revolution may have resulted partially from the influx of ______ from New Spain

19.
Over the centuries leading up to the early modern period

20.
The church’s view of witchcraft was that

Q8. HIEU 201 Chapter 14 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Chapter 14 quiz: Liberty University

1.
With respect to religiosity and women

2.
Luther’s propositions for reform of Christianity include the idea that

3.
The German peasants’ revolt of 1524-1526

4.
In Geneva, Calvin established a form of government that is best described as

5.
Catherine de’ Medici

6.
The policies of the Catholic Church during the Counter-Reformation include all of the following EXCEPT

7.
The Council of Trent met to

8.
Luther wrote all of the following EXCEPT

9.
First and foremost, Lutheranism was a

10.
Swiss reformer Ulrich Zwingli

11.
The millenarians believed that

12.
Luther’s attack on indulgences was prompted primarily by

13.
The doctrine of predestination is based on the premise that

14.
Nobles were motivated to support the Reformation because

15.
Calvin’s concept of predestination influenced his followers to

16.
The Huguenots

17.
During the reign of Henry VIII, the English Reformation

18.
The beliefs of radical Protestants such as the Anabaptists

19.
The Jesuits were a

20.
The Reformation influenced the development of the modern world indirectly by

Q9. HIEU 201 Chapter 12 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

1.
Among the consequences of the Black Death were

2.
In the Late Middle Ages

3.
Peasant rebellions broke out when

4.
Joan of Arc (1412-1431)

5.
Unam Santa (1302)

6.
In his The Defender of the Peace, Marsiglio of Padua

7.
The Babylonian Captivity (1309-1377) refers to a period when

8.
The Conciliar Movement

9.
The Lollards were

10.
William of Ockham’s main purpose in writing that reason could not prove the existence of God was to

11.
Feudal traditions

12.
Feudalism contributed to the development of free political institutions because

13.
Which of the following statements concerning social unrest in the Late Middle Ages is true?

14.
All of the following is true of the Late Middle Ages EXCEPT

15.
The outcome of the conflicts between Boniface VIII and Philip IV of France

16.
The Great Schism came to an end

17.
Wycliffe and Hus

18.
Duns Scotus (1265-1308) held that human reason

19.
Late medieval technology was influenced by Christianity in that

20.
Which of the following events occurred last?

Q10. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 6: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 6: Liberty University
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the study of theology and philosophy in the university was based on three kinds of sources. Which of the following was NOT one of those sources?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to the broad definition of crusade given in “The Crusades,” which of the following best describes the most distinctive characteristic of a crusade?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the goal of scholasticism was to
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to ”Power Struggle,” which of the following best describes the result of the failure of the Islamic Empire to spread to the West?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “The Crusades,” there is significant support for the view that the Crusades initiated Muslim animosity toward Christians.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Crusades,” which of the following was the earliest example of crusading fervor?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the primary motivation for the development of the new style of architecture called Gothic was to
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the most significant development in the area of learning in the High Middle Ages was
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” which of the following was NOT one of the areas of achievement covered in the lecture presentation on the High Middle Ages?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to ”Power Struggle,” which of the following countries remained largely disunified throughout the Middle Ages?

1. All of the following occurred in the High Middle Ages EXCEPT that

2. According to the lecture presentation, “High Middle Ages,” the two earliest examples of the university were at

3. According to “The Crusades,” which of the following is NOT a feature of a crusade from the 11th century?

4. According to “Power Struggle,” which of the following was an important bulwark against the pressing tide of the Islamic Empire in the East, allowing Western Europe to stabilize:

5. According to “Power Struggle,” under which pope did papal power reach its zenith?

6. The Crusades were

7. The Crusades can be described as all of the following except

8. According to the lecture, ”Power Struggle,” the Islamic Empire

9. According to “High Middle Ages,” the most notable literary development of the High Middle Ages was the

GEOGRAPHY
Q1. Marketing Pan Justify the value of ma
Please respond to the following: “Marketing Plan”
• Justify the value of marketing plans as instruments that compel marketers to think about upcoming periods, perform routine marketing analyses and audits, and set marketing goals and objectives such as Return on Investment (ROI), etc. Provide one (1) example of the use of marketing plans in this fashion to support your rationale.
• Decide whether or not you believe Philip Kotler’s Marketing Plan Model provides a useful framework for developing an effective marketing plan. Provide at least two (2) specific examples of the Philip Kotler’s Marketing Plan Model that apply within a health care organization with which you are familiar.


• Based on your review of the Learnscape scenario titled “Learnscape 4: How Are We Doing”, justify the value of marketing plans as instruments that compel marketers to think about upcoming periods, perform routine marketing analyses and audits, and set marketing goals and objectives such as Return on Investment (ROI), etc. Provide one (1) example of the use of marketing plans in this fashion to support your rationale.

Q2. Consider a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the
Consider a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the stock price is $40, the strike price is $40, the risk-free rate is 4% per annum, the volatility is 30% per annum, and the time to maturity is six months.
1. Calculate , , and for a two step tree
2. Value the option using a two step tree.
3. Verify that DerivaGem gives the same answer
Use DerivaGem to value the option with 5, 50, 100, and 500 time steps.

Q3. Identify a health care organization for ization’s strategic
Identify a health care organization for which a significant amount of information is available, in books, journals, reports, or on the Internet. Conduct an audit of the organization’s strategic assets based on the information you are able to gather from various sources. The audit you conduct will not be as thorough and detailed of an audit as the organization itself might conduct as you will not have access to the same inside information as internal auditors. Do your best to gather and report the following information.
Start with a general description of the service that the healthcare organization provides. Include the mission statement for the organization. If there is not one, create one you believe would best describe the mission of the organization.
The first part of your audit should address the organization’s historical financial performance and its current financial condition, as described in your textbook. A lot of the necessary data can be found in the organization’s annual report and its filings with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) and state-level government regulatory agencies. Research sources such as business journals, magazines, and other media that report on these types of organizations.
The second part of the audit should describe in as much detail as possible what you consider to be the major resources and competencies of the organization. Use a SWOT chart to categorize the most relevant points (these may be more narrative than quantitatively analytical). Try to identify assets that appear to be unique to the organization and that give it some competitive advantage over its rivals. Also make a note of areas in which the organization is weak, which might be the target of strategic attacks by those rivals.
Now consider the activities that are described in the value chain for this organization. Which do you believe cost the most to perform? What factors do you base your opinion on? What do you believe can be done to reduce the costs, thereby giving this organization a competitive edge?
Finally, consider that this organization would like to set up a satellite office in a nearby city. In this satellite office they will make changes to their processes to address their strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats. Develop a mission statement for this satellite office. Create four strategic goals for this office, one for each SWOT category.

Q4. HCS 490 Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system
Research the following in your community or surrounding area:
• One walk-in clinic, such as urgent care
• One retail clinic in your local grocery store or drug store
• No appointment physician’s office
Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper that includes the above centers and addresses the following:
• Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system.
o Differentiate the various places health care is delivered.
• Analyze what impact cultural demographics have on the health care market.
o Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on cultural demographics.
o Analyze the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various cultures.
o Analyze the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different cultural demographics.
• Differentiate what effect different generations have on the health care market.
• Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on generational demographics.
o Differentiate the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various generations.
o Differentiate the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different generations.
• Analyze the impact of media and social networking on consumer choices
Research the following in your community or surrounding area:
• One walk-in clinic, such as urgent care
• One retail clinic in your local grocery store or drug store
• No appointment physician’s office
• Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper that includes the above centers and addresses the following:
• Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system.
o Differentiate the various places health care is delivered.
• Analyze what impact cultural demographics have on the health care market.
o Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on cultural demographics.
o Analyze the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various cultures.
o Analyze the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different cultural demographics.
• Differentiate what effect different generations have on the health care market.
• Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on generational demographics.
o Differentiate the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various generations.
o Differentiate the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different generations.
• Analyze the impact of media and social networking on consumer choices

Q5. Choose companies or industries for which JIT would be totally inappropriate
Part 1
Choose companies or industries for which JIT would be totally inappropriate? Explain your reasoning with examples in 200-250 words.

Part 2
Categorize different scheduling procedures for various types of service operations, such as restaurants, hospitals, and airlines. Your initial post should include explanations and examples and be 200-250 words.

Q6. A narrative, a storyboard, and a business Website. You must submit all three (3) sections
Technical Project: Sample Website Project
Due Week 10 and worth 200 points

This assignment consists of three (3) sections: a narrative, a storyboard, and a business Website. You must submit all three (3) sections for the completion of this assignment. The assignment is to be submitted in a single compressed folder (zip file) to the online course shell. Section 3 must contain all .htm files, along with any other files that may be necessary for your project to run (ex: text files, images, etc.). When saving the compressed folder (zip file), it should be saved as Techincal Project_Last name_First initial.zip. For example, if your name is Mary Smith, the file for submission should be saved as Techincal Project_Smith_M.htm

Select a business that you are interested in. (e.g., pet store, travel site, fishing gear, appliances, automobiles, housewares, furniture, etc.). Imagine that you have just been hired to create a four (4) page hierarchical Website for the business you selected.

Section 1: Narrative
Write a half (½) page paper in which you:
1. Create a narrative that describes the site to your prospective client.

Section 2: Storyboard
Imagine that your narrative has been approved. Use Word, Visio, or Dia to:
2. Create a storyboard diagram depicting the layout of your Website.

Section 3: Business Website
In order to receive full credit for this section, you will need to submit:
• One (1) screen shot of your emailed data from the guestbook.
• One (1) CSS style sheet.
• Four (4) Web pages.
3. Create your Website based on the following requirements:
a. Create a Cascading Style Sheet (.css) for all pages, which:
i. Applies a background color.
ii. Applies style to font.
iii. Changes the ordered list markers to anything other than the default.
iv. Changes the unordered list markers to anything other than the default.
v. Applies style to a copyright footer.
b. Include:
i. A graphic or logo on the home page.
ii. A navigation bar with links to every other page on the home page.
iii. A guestbook registry on the home page using the mailto: tag with an entry field for:
a. A person’s name.
b. An email address.
iv. A piece of JavaScript on the home page.
c. Create a submit button for the guestbook registry that will email the information to your email address. Note: Test the function and take a screen shot of the emailed information you receive. You must submit the screen shot in your zipped file of deliverables as proof.
d. Create three (3) sub pages that include:
i. The same graphic / logo.
ii. A navigation bar with links to every other page.
iii. An ordered list of at least two (2) items, and then at least two (2) unordered list entries under each ordered list item where one (1) of the items must be a hyperlinked to a Website (the hyperlink should not show the address printed on the page).
Note: Each of the three pages should have unique lists.
Example:
A. Food
• Dry food
• Wet food
• Canned food
B. Toys
• Indoor
• Outdoor

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Describe the structure of the World Wide Web as interconnected hypertext documents.
• Create and validate HTML documents.
• Create presentations using Cascading Style Sheets and DHTML.
• Write clearly and concisely about Web design and development using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.

Q7. Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important
Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important? Select two of the theories examined in Unit III, and discuss the main points of the theories. How can each theory explain delinquency and help us understand possible deterrent and prevention methods for juveniles? Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important? Select two of the theories examined in Unit III, and discuss the main points of the theories. How can each theory explain delinquency and help us understand possible deterrent and prevention methods for juveniles?

Q8. Assignment 2 Required Assignment 2—Motivating Staff

Assignment 2: Required Assignment 2—Motivating Staff
An important aspect of talent management is identifying and rewarding quality employees. There are many methods to recognize and retain these ideal workers.
Description
In this assignment, you will research and discuss new ways for a technology firm to help motivate and retain its current employees.
Using the Argosy University online library resources and the Internet, research best practices and innovative methods of increasing employee morale and retention. Select approximately 6–8 scholarly sources for use in this assignment.
Scenario
You work in the HR department of a large and successful technology company. The firm has been the market leader of the industry for years and potential employees seek the prestige of working for the company. Due to a recent staff reorganization, many current employees are now unfulfilled and some are even seeking employment with the firm’s biggest competitor. You have been assigned the task of researching new ideas so that a plan can be developed to increase employee morale and retention.
Instructions
Prepare a report in which you describe current best practices for employee retention, illustrate how they could benefit this organization, and provide strategies on how to incorporate these practices within the company. Further, you will need to provide an outline of how to successfully execute a staff reorganization should it need to be performed again in the future.
Your document should specifically address the following:
• Research and analyze recent best practices for employee retention within the technology industry.
• Identify methods to assess compensation amounts for multiple positions.
• Evaluate successful training and career development plans.
• Analyze current methods of employee motivation within the technology industry.
• Outline the procedure for the incorporation of these new plans. Explain how your plans support the company’s overall goal to prevail as the market leader.

Q9. Earth Science Lab 8
Part 1: Spectrometer
Please follow the instructions to construct a refractometer and answer the corresponding questions.
The instructions below describe how to build a spectrometer. Here is a link if you wish to view the site where the instrcutions are from. Spectroscope
How to make a spectroscope
What we will need:
1. A CD or DVD that can be sacrificed to this project. We won’t damage it, but getting it back will involve destroying our spectroscope. Old software CDROMs work great, and some can be had for free from internet service providers like AOL.
2. A cardboard box. An 8 inch cube works fine, but any size that can hold a CD or DVD disk will do.
3. Two single edged razor blades. These can be found in paint or hardware stores.
4. A small cardboard tube, the kind used as a core to wrap paper on.
5. Some cellophane tape.
6. Some aluminum tape (found in hardware stores), or some aluminum foil and glue.
Our spectroscope has three main parts. There is a slit made from two razor blades, a diffraction grating made from a CD disk, and a viewing port, made from a paper tube.
To make sure that all three parts are lined up properly, we will use the CD disk as a measuring device, and mark the spots where the slit and the viewing port will go.
1. Set the CD disk on top of the box, about a half inch from the left edge, and close to the box’s bottom, as shown in the photo. Use a pen to trace the circle inside the CD disk onto the box. This mark shows us where the paper tube will go.
2. Now place the paper tube on the box, centered over the circle we just drew. Draw another circle on the box by tracing the outline of the paper tube.
3. Move the paper tube over a little bit. A half-inch is probably fine — in the photo I placed it much farther to the right than necessary, but the aluminum tape covered up the mistake nicely. Trace another circle around the paper tube. These circles will tell us where to cut the box.
4. Now cut an oval out of the box with a sharp knife. The oval will allow the paper tube to enter the box at an angle.
5. The next step is to make the slit. Turn the box one quarter turn so the oval we just cut is to the right. Using the CD disk again, draw another small circle close to the left side of the box.
6. The slit will be on the far left of the box. Cut a small rectangle out of the box at the height marked by the small circle we made with the CD disk. The rectangle should be about a half inch wide, and two inches high.
7. Carefully unwrap the two razor blades, and set them over the rectangular hole. Make their sharp edges almost touch. Tape the razor blades to the box, being careful to leave a gap between the sharp edges that is nice and even, and not wider at the top or bottom.
8. Next, set the box right-side-up, with the slit towards you. Now tape the CD disk onto the back wall of the box. The rainbow side should face you, with the printed side touching the cardboard. The photo shows the disk a little too far to the left. The left edge of the disk should be the same distance from the left of the box as the slit is.
9. Now seal up any places on the box where light might leak in. Use the aluminum tape for this. You can also use aluminum foil for this purpose if you don’t have any aluminum tape.
10. The last step is to use the aluminum tape to attach the paper tube. The aluminum tape will make a light-tight seal around the tube. To make sure the angle is correct, hold the slit up to a light, and look through the paper tube, adjusting it until you can see the full spectrum from red to purple.
Once you have assembled your spectrometer with the instructions in the lecture and above, use it to examine the spectra of three different light sources. Make sure that at least one of them is the sun or moon, but the others can be incandescent lights, compact fluorescent bulbs, LED lights, halogen or xenon bulbs, televisions, computer screens, candles, fireplaces, etc.
Then, answer the following questions in a separate document:
1. Describe the differences in appearance among the three spectra.
2. What feature of the light source do the spectra represent? In other words, what is it that you are actually analyzing?
3. Why do you think spectrometers are so valuable for studying celestial objects?
Part 2: Estimating the Number of Visible Stars in the Night Sky
For this, you will need an empty toilet roll and a clear, dark night. Before you start, jot down the number of stars that you think you can see in the night sky.
Aim your toilet roll at a part of the sky well above the horizon to avoid any haze pollution. Hold your roll steady and allow your eyes to get used to the light for a few seconds. Count the number of stars that you can see within through the roll. Do this four more times in other parts of the sky, and average the five counts.
The viewing diameter of a toilet roll is about 1/135th of the entire sky, at least for a relatively flat area. Mountains, buildings or large trees will obscure some of the sky. To determine the number of visible stars, multiply your average by 135.
Answer the following questions:
4. How similar is this to your original estimation?
5. What percentage of our galaxy do you think that we can see with the naked eye from Earth?
Part 3: Solar System

Please answer the following questions:
6. Why do you think that the inner planets are relatively close together, but the outer planets are spaced so widely apart?
7. Why do you think that the gaseous planets are gaseous, but the inner planets are not?
Q10. Assignment 2 Hacking the AIS In t
Assignment 2 Hacking the AIS In today’s technology environment, hackers present a substantial risk to a firm’s accounting orbusiness system. As the result of these attacks, firms suffer huge losses, ranging from financial losses to losses in confidence by consumers, creditors, and suppliers. Firms may have made a significant investment in financial and non-financial resources to secure these systems. For this assignment, research the Internet and select a company whose database systems have been hacked.
Write a five to seven (5-7) page paper in which you:
1. Based on the information you researched, evaluate the level of responsibility of the company in terms of the effectiveness of the response to the security breach. Provide support for your rationale. 2. Imagine that the company that you researched uses a third-party accounting system. Assess the level of responsibility of the software provider to both the business and its clients. Provide support for your rationale. 3. Create an argument for additional regulation as a preventative measure against businesses being hacked. Provide support for your argument. 4. Provide at least three (3) recommendations for businesses to secure their systems and assets from hackers. Provide support for your recommendation. 5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources. Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements: • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions. • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length. THE QUESTIONS THAT ARE BEING ASKED NEEDS TO BE THE BEGINNING SENTENCE FOR EACH NEW SECTION PERTAINING TO THE QUESTION. (APA Style) The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are: • Examine control and security concepts related to accounting information systems to ensure data integrity and safety. • Use technology and information resources to research issues in accounting information systems. • Write clearly and concisely about accounting information systems using proper writing mechanic

URBAN PLANNING AND POLICY.
Q1. Strategic Plan Forecasting, Evaluation, and Assessment
Review the Strategic Plan from Scottsdale Police Department Strategic Plan Analysis, and the 2015 Crime Statistics Documents.
Write a 700-1,050-word paper that evaluates the Strategic Plan from the Scottsdale Police Department. Determinewhether the strategic plan includes all necessary components of the SWOT analysis.
Include the following in your evaluation:
• Identify any additional suggestions that would make the strategic plan more comprehensive.
• Explain whether the justifications and assumptions for the chosen strategies are adequately articulated.
• Assess whether the plan includes enough measures to ensure the successful follow-through and full implementation of the chosen strategies.
Format your paper consistent with APA formatting.
CJA/475

Q2. Group Behavior and Processes Paper CJA/444
Answer Question 2 of Learn by Doing in Ch. 3 in Justice Administration.

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper answering the following questions. Elaborate on your answers and explain your reasoning.
• What kinds of information would you collect to address problems such as drugs, prostitution, and vandalism?
• What kinds of responses might be considered?
• What types of assessment would you perform?
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Securing Low Income Housing

Q3. Multi-agency Emergency Event Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL Internet, University Library
Utilize the unified emergency response to the plane landing in the Hudson event on January 15, 2009. The paper should focus on first responders, not the unilateral actions of the flight crew.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper where you:
• Give a summary of the event
• Outline the response by police and fire agencies
• Detail roles within the structured incident command
• Outline crisis response objectives
• Discuss structured and unstructured decision making strategies by leaders and first responders during the emergency event
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
The Miracle on the Hudson: The Response

Q4. Emergency Management Communication Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library

Write a 700 to 1,050 word paper in which you explain:
• the five components of multi agency interoperability for emergency management
• technology systems that further enhance multi-agency communication
• support technology requirements for multi-agency preparedness
• describe DHS’s system for continued evaluation and assessment of current communication capabilities
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library

Write a 700 to 1,050 word paper in which you explain:
• the five components of multi agency interoperability for emergency management
• technology systems that further enhance multi-agency communication
• support technology requirements for multi-agency preparedness
• describe DHS’s system for continued evaluation and assessment of current communication capabilities
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.

Q5. Emergency Management Response Paper CJA/375
Resources: Week 1 Course Materials; Attached Case Study
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper in which you discuss and address the following from the Case Study NIMS In Action: A Case Study of the System’s Use and Utility:
• Discuss the nature and background of the emergency response
• Outline terms and authorities highlighted in the case as they relate to the week 1 course material.
• Discuss the dynamics and challenges between the use of Incident Command System over the National Incident Management System as it relates to the case study.
• The overall outcome of the situation
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
The Response and Recovery of City “X”

Q6. The Safety of Urban Air Mobility
Reasearch and discuss the safety of Urban Air Mobility with an emphasis on Safety Management Systems(SMS), Economics, Technology, Noise, Infrastructure and Regulations.

Q7. Multi Criterion Evaluation Technique for Optimization of Municipal Solid Waste Management
The complete paper is attached (Environmental_science_final). I need a new section with Results and conclusion. Also, need to add more references (10-15 reference papers) across the paper. Please refer Pistelok_1-2016.pdf for paper format, alignment and numbering, etc.,
Please edit the whole paper as required.

Q8. Causes of Global warming and its effects on climate change.
An analysis of global warming, what is means, the causes and effects. The answers includes academic references

Q9. Assignment 2 Attentional Blink There
Assignment 2 Attentional Blink

There are many stimuli in your environment of which you are not aware. You use attention to filter out unimportant stimuli and focus on relevant stimuli. However, there are circumstances under which you cannot perceive stimuli, regardless of how hard you “pay attention.” One situation is when visual stimuli are presented in quick succession. If the interval between the two stimuli is short enough, you do not perceive the second stimulus. This lapse in attention is known as attentional blink. In this assignment, you will experience the attentional blink for yourself and will also read about practical implications of the phenomenon.
Access the CogLab demonstrationAttentional Blink. Follow the instructions to complete the demonstration.
• Explain how the attentional blink relates to attention. Analyze how the variation in time influences the probability of seeing the second target letter. Explain the circumstances under which the attentional blink can be eliminated.
• In the CogLab demonstration, letters were used as targets. The target used can influence the duration of one’s attentional blink and whether the attentional blink even occurs. Complete the following tasks:
• Propose at least two other targets that could be used to induce the attentional blink.
• Predict the effect each of your suggested targets would have on the duration of one’s attentional blink as compared to the CogLab activity you completed.
• Explain the reasoning behind your predictions.
• Present and discuss at least three occupations in which workers’ performance could be adversely affected by attentional blink. Identify and explain the types of problems or mistakes that might occur in such occupations due to the attentional blink.
• Several years ago, some vehicle models came with a heads-up display (HUD). Instead of looking down at a panel on the dashboard, speed, distance traveled, fuel level, and time appeared to be displayed over the hood of the car. Discuss this design in terms of divided attention and attentional blink. Do you think the design was a good idea?

ART

Q1. Museums Virtual Tours Review

For this Essay, you will visit an art museum of your choice. You may visit one in person or take a virtual tour via the Internet. Below is a list of museums that offer virtual tours that you may want to review for this assignment. Please note that you are not limited to this list:
• Louvre
• National Gallery of Art
• The National Gallery
You may select a virtual tour from this list above. Please include the name and location of your museum in your introductory paragraph.
For this essay, write about two artworks from the periods: Renaissance, Baroque, Impressionist, or Post-Impressionist periods.
For each piece, address the following:
• Include the title, artist, date, medium, and scale.
• Describe the artwork.
• Describe the artist’s role in his or her society/community.
• What do you think is the artist’s message?
• What are the cultural significances of this piece?
• What historical elements are included in this piece?
Formatting: Your essay will be at least five pages in length and include the following:
• Title page (1 page)
• Written Essay (2 pages)
• Image(s) (1 page)
• References (1 page)
• Use Times New Roman 12- point font.
• Double space all lines, and indent the first line of each paragraph.
• Your title page should be correctly formatted with a Running Head and page number listed in the Header area.
• Include your title, name, and school centered on the title page.
• Your written essay should contain at least three paragraphs (including an introductory and conclusion).
• Your last page will have the word References centered at the top.
All sources used, including the museum, must be cited in APA Style and included on the reference page.

Q2. For example you following his news from the begin of the season
Hi there
I want someone to write for me about the score player Wayne Rooney. During this season, For example you following his news from the begin of the season till the end of it. I will give you some links that contained his most important news. I want it to be 4 pages double spaced. I will attach also a file that is for the order details.
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/01/30/19840852/rooney-closing-in-on-manchester-united-scoring-record?’
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/02/11/20255242/sooner-or-later-we-will-see-ronaldo-messi-and-rooney-in?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/02/17/20440712/rooney-out-for-at-least-a-month-with-knee-injury?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/69/transfer-zone/2016/02/18/20475302/rumors-man-utd-weighing-up-selling-rooney-to-china?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/03/08/21120782/hodgson-rooney-guaranteed-a-euro-2016-spot-but-not-as-a?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/04/24/22740182/rooney-fa-cup-glory-can-start-something-special-at-man-utd?

Q3. ETH 445 N Week 6 CASE STUDY ANALYSIS | Complete Solution
Examine the Case Study for your analysis about professional responsibilities and decision-making during a crisis called “Command at Sea.” In teams or partners, discuss the decision possibilities within the case study and write a report of your findings. Be sure to read and understand the case thoroughly.

Our Case Study:

The weather would be turning bad overnight, but late on a sunny afternoon in gentle seas, the Commanding Officer (the CO) had a fresh cup of coffee in hand and enjoyed what little was left of the day in his designated chair on the bridge. It was an older ship, but she could still perform in an award-winning way, even if she could not land helicopters like the newer ones. They had just secured a helicopter from “flight quarters.” The aircraft carrier had delivered the mail and some repair parts by lowering them by winch while still flying over the stern. The coffee was good, and all was well on board.
Most of the planned work for the day had been accomplished as well, and crewmembers not on watch had some time for themselves. A young seaman was getting his physical fitness training by lifting free weights with friends. Unexpectedly, the restraining collar on the barbell came loose and the weights on that end fell off–the heavy end came straight down on the seaman’s foot and broke some bones. After a quick check by Doc, a senior enlisted Hospital Corpsman, it was clear that the seaman needed a medical evacuation to the aircraft carrier, where higher levels of diagnosis and care were available. The CO would surely not be pleased!
Only the helicopter flight crew was certified to fly after dark, and twilight was coming soon. The seaman’s needs were beyond the capability of the medical staff on board. No further helicopter operations were scheduled for the day. The aircraft carrier was a significant flying time away, and it was unclear whether an unscheduled mission could be completed before dark. The weather conditions would be too bad for flying tomorrow–probably the next day as well. If the flight was to happen, the CO would need to arrange it with the Carrier Air Group Commander right away.
Meanwhile, the injured seaman was in much pain and in significant need of care. He had never flown in a helicopter and was afraid of flying. He had not received the training for being hoisted from the deck into a flying helicopter or training in emergency egress procedures, and the broken bones in his foot were causing lots of pain anyway.
A decision was needed, and there was little time to make it. If the medical evacuation mission were to be conducted, the conditions were less than great. Good advice was to be had from the Corpsman and others in the command, but the final assessment of the risks involved and the decision of what to do would rest with the CO alone. There was nothing else to be done on the ship for the injured seaman except to sedate him.

Q4. Plays are meant to be performed, rather than read | Complete Solution
Plays are meant to be performed, rather than read. The purpose of dramatic arts often extends far beyond the words written on a page; staging, lighting, costumes intonation, expression, and audience experience are all part of the experience of a theatrical production. To help develop your understanding of The Tempest and the cultural role of the dramatic arts, you will view a production of the play this week and need a two-page word document reflection to explain your viewing experience.

Below, please find several classic interpretations and modern adaptations of The Tempest:

Classic Interpretations:

For this assignment, you will view one of the above and write reflection that addresses the following:

Identify the performance that you have selected.
Describe the staging, lighting, costumes, and characters of the performance. How do these match or revise the written version of the play?
What type of mood and tone does the performance create? How?
What parts of the play are easier to understand through performance? What are some details that stood out through performance?
What does the performance suggest about the role of theater in contemporary culture?

Q5. Components of a Marketing Plan Assignment 2 | Complete Solution
Components of a Marketing Plan Part 2: Price, Promotion, Environment, and the Concept to Commercialization Process

Purpose of Assignment
The purpose of this assignment is to continue to have students place themselves in the role of a marketing research and planning team leader while completing the last half of the team’s project that was started in Week 3. Students will be researching and making decisions on price setting, promotion strategies, environmental forces/scanning, and steps to bringing their company’s product from concept to commercialization.

Assignment Steps
Resources: Marketing: Ch. 1: pg. 4-10; Ch. 3: pg. 72-92; Ch. 8: pg. 210-223; Ch. 10: pg. 274-281; Ch. 13: pg. 350-352; Chapter 17: pg. 472-475; Ch. 18: pg. 519-526; Ch. 19: pg. 556-558
Scenario: Using the same organization and product/service you used in the Week 3 learning team assignment and the same scenario, you will be presenting the following analyses to the board of directors and stakeholders. They will be using these analyses to make their final decision on how, and if, to launch your company’s new and unique product/service.

Develop a minimum 1,050-word analysis addressing the following:
• Conduct an environmental scan for your company focusing on which of the five external forces the company is likely to be impacted by and what actions they will need to take to overcome them.
• Select and describe the price strategy your company will use to launch its product/service. Why is that strategy the best choice and will it need to be adjusted over the duration of the Product Life Cycle (PLC)? Why or why not?
• Select four of the following methods and explain how they should be used by your company. Explain the reasoning why they align best with your target segment and product:
o Advertising
o Public relations
o Traditional Digital marketing
o New Digital marketing techniques (describe)
o Sales promotion
o Direct marketing
o Event marketing
o Outdoor
• Analyze how your company will implement the New-Product Development Process (seven stages) to bring your product/service from concept to commercialization.
Cite a minimum of three peer-reviewed sources.At least one source should be from the course materials and at least one source from the University Library.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Q6. Week 1: Personality Analysis and Job Consideration Report | Complete Solution
Week 1: Personality Analysis and Job Consideration Report

This document contains the template you will use to complete this assignment. Save the file by adding your last name to the filename:
Week1_Personality_Analysis_and_Job_Consideration_Report_Template.docx _Smith.docx.
Be sure to proofread and spell-check your work before you submit it.
There are FOUR parts to this assignment.
Part 1: Analyzing the Results
Reflect on your results from 16 Personalities Assessment and compare them to the Keirsey Temperament Sorter. (12 points)
16 Personalities Assessment Results
1. What were your specific results according to the assessment?
• 2. What are the strengths and weaknesses associated with your results?

Turn to the Keirsey Temperament Sorter.
Keirsey Temperament Sorter Comparison
3. Refer to Exhibit 3.5 in your text. What is your two-letter equivalent in comparison to your 16 Personalities Assessment results?
• 4. According to Exhibit 3.6 in your text, what characteristics are associated with your Keirsey’s temperament type?
Make the link of your personality to the job market.
Putting This All Together
• 5. Provide three examples of instances where you can, or have, demonstrated any of these skills in your professional life.

• 6. How can you utilize this knowledge into your job search or current employment situation (if you are already established within your chosen field)?

Part 2: Describing the Ideal Job
Describe your ideal job. (6 points)
My Ideal Job
In my ideal job, I would be . . . (state what you see yourself doing as part of your ideal job)

Part 3: Linking Your Goals to the Job
Identify your one-, two-, and five-year career goals; create a list of possible employers of choice in your career field (minimum of three); possible job titles for your one-, two-, and five-year goals (one for each goal); and current salary ranges for those job titles. (57 points)
Career Goals
Career Goals Potential Employers (minimum of one per stated yearly career goal) Possible Job Titles (minimum of three per stated yearly career goal) Current Salary Ranges (for each job title)
My one-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)
1.1.
2.1
3.1.
2.1
3.1
My two-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)

1.1.
2.
3.1.
2
3.
My five-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)
1. 1.
2.
3. 1.
2.
3.

Part 4: Reflection Summary
Provide a summary of what you have learned about yourself and the characteristics of your dream job as a result of the reflection and research you have done as part of this assignment (minimum of 100 words). (15 points)
What I Have Learned

Q7. CSIS 100 Quiz 4 Liberty University 2018
CSIS 100 Quiz 4 Liberty University 2018, full quest answers and solutions list. All 100% correct answers! All questions are from 2018 if more than a year away they could be updated but they stay in the same general format and based on the same knowledge.

Q8. 1.What is the difference between quoting, paraphrasing, and summarizing?
Read the Quoting, Paraphrasing, and Summarizing article provided by the Purdue Online Writing Lab (OWL) and the Academic Misconduct Policy (policy 2.3.11), and answer the following questions in essay format. (https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/563/01/) (http://www.maricopa.edu/publicstewardship/governance/adminregs/students/2_3.php#academic)
1.What is the difference between quoting, paraphrasing, and summarizing?
2.What type of citation is required for each?
3.Why is properly citing sources important?
4.What are the possible consequences of improperly citing references?

Q9. Function and determining the type of HRIS application necessary
HR Technology Case Scenario: Three-Stage Project
Objective |Guidelines for All Papers |Case Scenario: Fictitious Business Description |Grading Rubrics

Objective
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Apply the theories reviewed in class related to analyzing an HR function and determining the type of HRIS application necessary to automate and create a strategic alliance for this HR department. Students will have an opportunity to apply theoretical concepts to a professional business application.
Guidelines for All Papers
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• This project is completed in three stages.
• The first two assignments (Stages I and II of the project) are worth 100 points each.
• The final project (Stage III) is worth 280 points.
• Stage I is due Week 2.
• Stage II is due Week 5.
• Stage III, the Final Project, is due Week 7.
• Theory : There should be theory provided throughout all stages of this business plan to substantiate decisions made. All theory must be cited following APA format guidelines (APA Manual, fifth or sixth edition). Anything copied word for word must be inside quotes and properly cited in text and on the reference list according to APA format guidelines. Any information that is not your own thought (theory) must also be cited. There should be no more than 5% of quoted material (information copied word for word) in any of these three assignments.
• Introduction : The purpose is to (a) introduce the subject and its importance, and (b) preview the main ideas and the order in which they will be covered.
• Conclusion : summarizes the main ideas and major support points from the body of your paper. This is not simply rephrasing the introduction or reviewing what was shared in the paper, but also providing a closing paragraph for the reader.
• All papers must follow the following formatting guidelines.
o Double spaced
o One-inch margins (on all sides)
o Times New Roman or Arial font, size 12
o Spelling, grammar, punctuation, and sentence structure should be correct.
o The title page includes (1) title of the document, (2) your name, and (3)DeVry University , all centered and double spaced.
o Headers are helpful throughout the paper to ensure that all assignment criteria are included, and they help with topical flow and keep the paper organized.
Case Scenario: Fictitious Business Description
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Castle’s Family Restaurant has eight restaurants in the northern California area with approximately 300–340 employees. Most of the employees are part time, with approximately 40% of them full time. The operations manager, Jay Morgan, also acts as the HR manager and travels to each location each week to take care of scheduling, recruiting, hiring, and answering questions for the employees as needed. He also takes care of payroll using an Excel spreadsheet and has a computer application to print payroll checks. Mr. Morgan approaches you, an HR consultant, for a proposal. Due to the increase in gasoline costs, he would like to greatly reduce his travel time for visiting each location each week and wonders if there is anything you can suggest to him to help him complete his HR tasks in a cost-effective manner. He hopes there is some way he can do part of his HR tasks from his office instead of traveling to each location.
Stage I (due Week 2)
Using the case scenario above, provide an assessment of the current business. Describe the company in terms of size, type of business, and so on. Explain why you think an HRIS is needed. As the owner of your own HR consulting firm, write a 2–4-page paper that includes the following paper headings, which are denoted in all caps.
• INTRODUCTION: provides sufficient background on the topic and previews major points.
• BUSINESS ASSESSMENT: the name, type, and size of business you’re assisting. Make assumptions in your business description using theory as needed and include the information in your paper for this case scenario. These assumptions would include background about a restaurant work environment and industry.
• IDENTIFIED PROBLEMS: Review all HR problems identified. I recommend making a list of HR functions that you believe could be more efficient based on the information provided in the scenario. From that list, choose one HR function for analysis, which will be the main focus for your business plan. You want to explain why you chose that HR function as your first item, and substantiate with theory.
• HRIS NEEDS ASSESSMENT: Explain how automation might create a more efficient process from the HR function chosen. How might an HRIS application assist the business?
• CONCLUSION: The conclusion is logical, flows from the body of the paper, and reviews the major points.

Q10. 1), you think your company should be offering internships. With all
Persuasive Communication
Case Assignment 2 pertains to the Purdue’s OWL site on memos (2013), Bowman (2002), Beason (2001), and Reddy (2010).
As a manager at your company (the same one we used in Case 1), you think your company should be offering internships. With all the colleges in the Los Angeles area, you would have a large group of people who should be interested in an internship program. In addition, your company could use the extra help and creativity of about-to-graduate college students.
You recently read about Nickerson PME1, a 10-person Boston area marketing and public relations firm. Owner Lisa Nickerson offers a year-round internship program. She calls participants “associates” to make them feel less like “lowly interns” and more like members of the staff. Her interns receive course credit and work experience, but do not earn a paycheck. Instead, Nickerson teaches them to perform tasks like preparing press releases and promoting the company to clients. The arrangement results in valuable help around the office without draining the budget. Nickerson says, “If you take the time to put together a good program, you don’t have to pay the student. An abundance of students want that type of hands-on client experience.”
You believe that Los Angeles college students would be eager to gain experience at a real company, and fill in their résumés with solid work experience. The problem is that your boss resists internship programs because he has heard that interns are really employees who must be paid. He told you in a recent conversation that he is unsure of the fine line that separates employees from interns, and he doesn’t want to violate any labor laws.
Write a persuasive memo message to Dick Elders, Senior General Manager of your company. Explain to him how interns are different from employees. Use the Internet to research the topic, and learn what six requirements help the government determine whether an intern is a paid employee. Use persuasive strategies you have studied, but stay focused on the conviction that interns do not have to be paid as employees. You are on a first-name basis with Dick.
1This is a fictitious case.
Assignment Expectations
In your memo, you are expected to apply the persuasion concepts to demonstrate your ability to craft an effective persuasive memo. Please use proper English. Sentences must be properly constructed and free of grammatical and typographical errors. No citations are needed in the memo.
Write a summary explaining why you used the principles you used in writing your memo. Your explanation should make use of at least two sources from the required readings. It should be analytical and sufficiently rigorous to demonstrate synthesis of the concepts. The summary is to be prepared as an academic essay. Content should be clearly presented with a logical flow. Formal citations are required, along with a formal bibliography.
Case General Expectations
In the Case Assignments, students will assume the role of a Manager in Employee Communications at a large service firm, such as a bank, or an advertising or consulting firm. Students will assume this role throughout the Case Assignments and be challenged with different scenarios, requiring written and verbal communication.
Formal citations and a bibliography are required unless otherwise stated.

ECONOMICS.
Q1. ECON Week 8 Research Paper
Write a paper 5-7 pages in length with 12 point font and one inch margins. In addition to drawing on readings assigned or recommended in this course, you should cite an additional 3-5 academic sources.
For this project you will need to identify a nation (China, Venezuela, Saudi Arabia, etc..) or other political economy (European Union, etc…) of interest. For the country of your choice, make a thesis assertion which you will defend with critical analysis applying a socio-economic theory, law, model or policy, backed by research.
The following paragraph is taken from page 5-23 of the Political Military Analysis Handbook dated April 20, 2006.
While economics or any other single political military analytical system cannot tell the whole story, its pervasive impact on domestic politics, foreign policy, defense policy, and diplomacy dictates its prominent place in the analyst’s repertoire of tools. Decisions always incur costs, and in today’s intricate international system, they often have both an economic impetus and an economic impact. As such, foreign policy can neither be understood nor predicted without consideration of the economic dimension (p. 5-23, Political Military Analysis Handbook).

*****Notes to Tutor*****
Quality and Original work needed.
No plagiarism, APA format, 12 font, Times New Roman, 3-4 scholary references, 1-3 other references, 5-7 pages (not counting the cover & references pages, but they are needed as well).

Q2. ECON Week 5 Primary Report
Choose a country in South America; Find the GDP/GNI per capita ranking for your chosen country and then do independent research to craft a portrait of its economic state, some analysis of the influences on its relative prosperity, or lack thereof, and give a sense of its future economic prospects. Write a 2-3 page report on your chosen subject nation.

***Notes to Tutor***
APA format, 12 font, Times New Roman, 2-3 pages (cover & reference pages dont count but are needed)
Readings of the week are provided, so you have an understanding what was covered during this week but it not needed for the report.
Required Readings:
• Diversity Amid Globalization: Chapter 4 (Latin America)
• Miller, M. (2001, July). The poor man’s capitalist.New York Times Magazine. (Library link)
(Note: This is a dated article, except for the unpleasant reality that property rights have progressed little and in many nations regressed over the past two decades.)
• Boseley, S. (2016). Heartbreak and hardship for women in Brazil as Zika crisis casts deep shadow. The Guardian.
• OECD. (2010). Chile signs up as first OECD member in South America. OECD.
(Note: Also scan the country data for Chile and other South American Economies.)
• McParland, K. (2016). How socialism turned oil-rich Venezuela into a basket case. Canada: The National.
Recommended Readings
• Transparency International, the Global Coalition Against Corruption. (2016). 2015 Corruption Perceptions Index. TIGCAC.
(Note: Click on What We Do, then scan Our Research.)
• Central Intelligence Agency. (n.d.). World fact book: South America. CIA.
• Heritage Foundation in Partnership with the Wall Street Journal. (2016). Index of Economic Freedom. Heritage Foundation.
• U.S. Department of State. (n.d.). Diplomacy in Action. USDOS.
(See Countries and Regions at this link.)

Q3. ECON Week 6 Primary Report
Develop a comparative analysis of the growth patterns and growth strategies of India and China, bringing in the question as to whether or not democracy and demographics will give India an edge. The resources on the Required Readings list should give you a good foundation for this report, which should be of approximately three pages in length.

Notes to tutor:
APA format, size 12 font, Times New Roman, three pages (cover sheet and references do not count but need to be included)
Required readings do not need to be references, this just provides you the tutor an idea of what was covered during this week.
Required Readings:
• Diversity Amid Globalization: Chapter 12 (South Asia)
• Bureau of South and Central Asian Affairs. (2015). U.S. Relations With India. U.S. Department of State.
• Matsumura, M. (2016). Democracy as Economic Strategy India’s Strength over China.Carnegie Council – Policy innovations.
• Fox, J. (2015). Why ‘The Population Bomb’ Bombed. Bloomberg, View.
Copyright permission applied for.
• Zhong, R. (2016). India’s Economic Growth May Have Already Peaked, RBI Paper Says. Wall Street Journal.
Copyright permission applied for.
Recommended Readings
• World Bank. (2016). Urbanization Reviews. World Bank.
(Note: Urbanization is a global population megatrend worth noting. Globalization appears to accelerate urbanization. Scan the World Bank Review for India, and keep the link handy for China and Africa in the coming weeks.)

Q4. ECO 561 Final Exam Guide New 2018…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK

1. Which of the following have substantially equivalent effects on a nation’s volume of exports and imports?
Exchange rate appreciation and domestic deflation
Exchange rate depreciation and domestic inflation
Exchange rate appreciation and a decrease in the domestic supply of money
Exchange rate depreciation and domestic deflation
2. Which of the following statements best describes the 12 Federal Reserve Banks?
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic goal is to earn profits for their owners.
They are privately owned and privately controlled central banks whose basic goal is to provide an ample and orderly market for U.S. Treasury securities.
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic function is to minimize the risks in commercial banking in order to make it a reasonably profitable industry.
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic goal is to control the money supply and interest rates in promoting the general economic welfare
3. Buyers will opt out of markets in which:
there are only foreign sellers
there is inadequate information about sellers and their products
there are significant negative externalities
standardized products are being produced
4. Pure monopolists may obtain economic profits in the long run because:
of advertising
marginal revenue is constant as sales increase
of rising average fixed costs
of barriers to entry
5. All else equal, a large decline in the real interest rate will shift the:
investment demand curve rightward
investment demand curve leftward
investment schedule upward
investment schedule downward
6. In order for mutually beneficial trade to occur between two otherwise isolated nations:
each nation must be able to produce at least one good relatively cheaper than the other
each nation must face constant costs in the production of the good it exports
one nation’s production must be labor-intensive while the other nation’s production is capital-intensive
each nation must be able to produce at least one good absolutely cheaper than the other
7. If the Federal Reserve System buys government securities from commercial banks and the public:
the money supply will contract
commercial bank reserves will decline
it will be easier to obtain loans at commercial banks
commercial bank reserves will be unaffected
8. Normal profit is:
the average profitability of an industry over the preceding 10 years
determined by subtracting explicit costs from total revenue
the return to the entrepreneur when economic profits are zero
determined by subtracting implicit costs from total revenue
9. The term “recession” describes a situation where:
an economy’s ability to produce is destroyed
output and living standards decline
inflation rates exceed normal levels
Government takes a less active role in economic matters
10. If an unintended increase in business inventories occurs at some level of GDP, then GDP:
is too low for equilibrium
entails a rate of aggregate expenditures in excess of the rate of aggregate production
is too high for equilibrium
may be either above or below the equilibrium output
11. The fact that international specialization and trade based on comparative advantage can increase world output is demonstrated by the reality that:
a nation’s production possibilities and trading possibilities lines coincide
the production possibilities curves of any two nations are identical
a nation’s trading possibilities line lies to the right of its production possibilities line
a nation’s production possibilities line lies to the right of its trading possibilities line
12. In the theory of comparative advantage, a good should be produced in that nation where:
its cost is least in terms of alternative goods that might otherwise be produced
its absolute cost in terms of real resources used is least
its absolute money cost of production is least
the production possibilities line lies further to the right than the trading possibilities line
13. Why are economists concerned about inflation?
Inflation lowers the standard of living for people whose income does not increase as fast as the price level
Real GDP is necessarily falling when there is inflation
Inflation generally causes unemployment rates to rise
Inflation increases the value of peoples’ saving and encourages overspending on goods and services
14. Two major virtues of the market system are that it:
results in an equitable personal distribution of income and always maintains full employment
results in price level stability and a fair personal distribution of income
allocates resources efficiently and allows economic freedom
eliminates discrimination and minimizes environmental pollution
15. Suppose you have a limited money income and you are purchasing products A and B, whose prices happen to be the same. To maximize your utility, you should purchase A and B in such amounts that:
the income and substitution effects associated with each are equal
their marginal and total utilities are proportionate
their total utilities are the same
their marginal utilities are the same
16. Macroeconomics approaches the study of economics from the viewpoint of:
governmental units
the entire economy
individual firms
the operation of specific product and resource markets
17. Mrs. Arnold is spending all her money income by buying bottles of soda and bags of pretzels in such amounts that the marginal utility of the last bottle is 60 utils and the marginal utility of the last bag is 30 utils. The prices of soda and pretzels are $.60 per bottle and $.40 per bag respectively. It can be concluded that:
Mrs. Arnold should spend more on soda and less on pretzels
Mrs. Arnold is buying soda and pretzels in the utility-maximizing amounts
the two commodities are substitute goods
Mrs. Arnold should spend more on pretzels and less on soda
18. The simple circular flow model shows that:
households are on the selling side of the resource market and on the buying side of the product market.
businesses are on the selling side of both product and resource markets.
households are on the buying side of both product and resource markets.
businesses are on the buying side of the product market and on the selling side of the resource market.
19. Assume the reserve ratio is 25 percent and Federal Reserve Banks buy $4 million of U.S. securities from the public, which deposits this amount into checking accounts. As a result of these transactions, the supply of money is:
directly increased by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by an additional $16 million.
not directly affected, but the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by $12 million.
directly increased by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by an additional $12 million.
directly reduced by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is decreased by an additional $12 million.
20. As output increases, total variable cost:
increases at a constant rate
increases at a decreasing rate and then at an increasing rate
increases continuously at a decreasing rate
increases more rapidly than does total cost
21.The two basic markets shown by the simple circular flow model are:
product and resource
free and controlled
household and business
capital goods and consumer goods
22. Countercyclical discretionary fiscal policy calls for:
surpluses during both recessions and periods of demand-pull inflation
deficits during both recessions and periods of demand-pull inflation
surpluses during recessions and deficits during periods of demand-pull inflation
deficits during recessions and surpluses during periods of demand-pull inflation
23. Because the federal government typically provides disaster relief to farmers, many farmers do not buy crop insurance even through it is federally subsidized. This illustrates:
the moral hazard problem
the special interest effect
the adverse selection problem
logrolling
24. A monopolistically competitive industry combines elements of both competition and monopoly. The monopoly element results from:
the likelihood of collusion
mutual interdependence
product differentiation
high entry barriers
25 Research for industrially advanced countries indicates that:
the more independent the central bank, the higher the average annual rate of unemployment.
the more independent the central bank, the higher the average annual rate of inflation
the more independent the central bank, the lower the average annual rate of inflation
there is no relationship between the degree of independence of a country’s central bank and its inflation rate.
26. The business cycle depicts:
short-run fluctuations in output and employment
the phases a business goes through from when it first opens to when it finally closes
fluctuations in the general price level
the evolution of technology over time
27. The primary gain from international trade is:
increased employment in the domestic export sector
increased employment in the domestic import sector
more goods than would be attainable through domestic production alone
tariff revenue
28. Contractionary fiscal policy is so named because it:
necessarily reduces the size of government
is aimed at reducing aggregate demand and thus achieving price stability
involves a contraction of the nation’s money supply
is expressly designed to expand real GDP
29. If the prices of all goods and services rose, but the quantity produced remained unchanged, what would happen to nominal and real GDP?
Real GDP would rise, but nominal GDP would be unchanged
Nominal and real GDP would both be unchanged
Nominal GDP would rise, but real GDP would be unchanged
Nominal and real GDP would both rise
30. Which of the following will generate a demand for country X’s currency in the foreign exchange market?
Charitable contributions by country X’s citizens to citizens of developing nations
The imports of country X
The desire of foreigners to buy stocks and bonds of firms in country X
Travel by citizens of country X in other countries

Q5. ECO 365 Final Exam New…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1) Which of the following statements is true about a downward-sloping demand curve that is a straight line?
The slope remains the same, but elasticity falls as you move down the demand curve.
The slope and the elasticity fall as you move down the demand curve.
The slope remains the same, but elasticity rises as you move down the demand curve.
The slope and elasticity are the same at all points.
2) The best example of positive externality is:
Roller coaster rides
Pollution
Education
Alcoholic beverages
3) Suppose that college tuition is higher this year than last and that more students are enrolled in college this year than last year. Based on this information, we can best conclude that:
despite the increase in price, quantity demanded rose due to some other factors changing.
this situation has nothing to do with the law of demand.
the law of demand is invalid.
the demand for a college education is positively sloped.
4) Suppose foreign shrimp prices drop by 32 percent and importers gain a 90 percent market share. From this information, what would economists strongly suspect about this industry?
The large sales of foreigners indicate they are better strategic business bargainers than Americans are.
Foreign sellers probably are colluding on price to maximize profits.
Americans have a comparative advantage in shrimping.
Foreigners have a comparative advantage in shrimping.
5) The theory that quantity supplied and price are positively related, other things constant, is referred to as the law of:
supply
opportunity cost
profit maximization
demand
6) At one time, sea lions were depleting the stock of steelhead trout. One idea to scare sea lions away from the Washington coast was to launch fake killer whales, which are predators of sea lions. The cost of making the first whale is $16,000 ($5,000 for materials and $11,000 for the mold). The mold can be reused to make additional whales, and so additional whales cost $5,000 each. Based on these numbers, the production of fake killer whales exhibits:
Increasing returns to scale
Decreasing returns to scale
Diminishing marginal product
Constant returns to scale
7) Using 100 workers and 10 machines, a firm can produce 10,000 units of output; using 250 workers and 25 machines, the firm produces 21,000 units of output. These facts are best explained by:
Economies of scale
Diseconomies of scale
Diminishing marginal productivity
Economies of scope
8) Cartels are organizations that:
Coordinate the output and pricing decisions of a group of firms.
Use predatory pricing to monopolize industries.
Keep markets contestable.
Encourage price wars.
9) Price elasticity of demand is the:
Percentage change in quantity of a good demanded divided by the percentage change in the price of that good.
Change in the quantity of a good demanded divided by the change in the price of that good.
Percentage change in price of that good divided by the percentage change in the quantity of that good demanded.
Change in the price of a good divided by the change in the quantity of that good demanded.
10) For a monopolist, the price of a product:
Equals the marginal revenue.
Equals the marginal cost.
Is less than the marginal revenue.
Exceeds the marginal revenue.
11) A perfectly competitive firm facing a price of $50 decides to produce 500 widgets. Its marginal cost of producing the last widget is $50. If the firm’s goal is to maximize profit, it should:
Produce more widgets
Produce fewer widgets
Continue producing 500 widgets
Shut down
12) Microeconomics is the study of:
business cycles
a firm’s pricing policies
unemployment
inflation
13) When Ross Perot ran for president as a third party candidate in 1992, he argued that free trade with Mexico would result in massive job losses in the United States because Mexican wages were so low. Which of the following is the best explanation of why few economists agreed with Perot?
Economists did not believe any jobs would be lost in the United States.
Economics believed that the U.S. unemployment would rise.
Although economics predicted that unemployment would rise, the increased profits of corporations would raise stock prices enough to compensate for the lost jobs.
Although economists believed that in some areas the United States would lose jobs, they expected the United States would gain jobs in other areas.
14) Suppose OPEC announces it will increase production. Using supply and demand analysis to predict the effect of increased production on equilibrium price and quantity, the first step is to show the:
demand curve shifting to the left.
demand curve shifting to the right.
supply curve shifting to the left.
supply curve shifting to the right
15) The law of diminishing marginal productivity implies that the marginal product of a variable input:
Eventually declines
Is constant
Never declines
Always declines
16) In 1997, the federal government reinstated a 10 percent excise tax on airline tickets. The industry tried to pass on the full 10 percent ticket tax to consumers but was able to boost fares by only 4 percent. From this you can conclude that the:
Supply of airline tickets is perfectly inelastic.
Supply elasticity of airline tickets is less than infinity.
Demand for airline tickets is perfectly inelastic.
Demand elasticity for airline tickets is greater than zero in absolute value.
17) Graphically, a change in price causes:
a movement along a given supply curve, not a shift.
the supply curve to shift.
both supply and demand to shift.
the demand curve to shift
18) Microeconomics and macroeconomics are:
Not related because they are taught separately.
Interrelated because both are often taught by the same instructors.
Interrelated because what happens in the economy as a whole is based on individual decisions.
Virtually identical, though one is much more difficult than the other.
19) Suppose people freely choose to spend 40 percent of their income on health care, but then the government decides to tax 40 percent of that person’s income to provide the same level of coverage as before. What can be said about deadweight loss in each case?
Taxing income results in deadweight loss, and purchasing health care on one’s own doesn’t result in deadweight loss.
There is no difference between goods that are purchased in the market in either case.
There is no difference because the total spending remains the same and the health care purchased remains the same.
Taxing income results in less deadweight loss because government knows better what health care coverage is good for society.
20) Mr. Woodward’s cabinet shop is experiencing rapid growth in sales. As sales have increased, Mr. Woodward has found it necessary to hire more workers. However, he has observed that doubling the number of workers has less than doubled his output. What is the likely explanation?
The law of diminishing marginal utility
The law of demand
The law of diminishing marginal productivity
The law of supply
21) The DeBeers company is a profit-maximizing monopolist that exercises monopoly power in the distribution of diamonds. If the company earns positive economic profits this year, the price of diamonds will:
Exceed both the marginal cost and the average total cost of diamonds.
Exceed the marginal cost of diamonds but equal to the average total cost of diamonds.
Be equal to the average total cost of diamonds.
Be equal to the marginal cost of diamonds
22) Oligopoly is probably the best market for technological change because:
The typical oligopoly keeps price very close to average total cost because it fears the entry of new rivals if its profits are excessively high.
The typical oligopoly has the funds to carry out research and development and believe that its competitors are innovating, which motivates it to conduct research and development.
Research and development occurs only if government subsidizes such activity, and government tends to subsidize oligopolies.
The typical oligopoly lacks the funds to carry out research and development and therefore will use basic research from universities
23) A monopoly firm is different from a perfectly competitive firm in that:
There are many substitutes for a monopolist’s product whereas there are no substitutes for a competitive firm’s product.
A monopolist’s demand curve is perfectly inelastic whereas a perfectly competitive firm’s demand curve is perfectly elastic.
A monopolist can influence market price whereas a perfectly competitive firm cannot.
A competitive firm has a u-shaped average cost curve whereas a monopolist does not.
24) Many call centers that provide telephone customer services for U.S. companies have been established in India, but few or none have been established in China. Why?
Indian labor costs are equal to Chinese labor costs.
Chinese labor lacks the specific language skills needed to make call centers profitable in China.
China is at a more advanced stage of economic development than India.
China lacks the political infrastructure to support call centers.
25) Other things held constant in a competitive labor market, if workers negotiate a contract in which the employer agrees to pay an hourly of $17.85 while the market equilibrium hour rate is $16.50, the:
Quantity of workers supplied will exceed the quantity of workers demanded.
Demand for labor will increase until the equilibrium wage rate is $17.85.
Supply of labor will decrease until the equilibrium wage rate is $17.85.
Quantity of workers demanded will exceed the quantity of workers supplied.
26) Alex is playing his music at full volume in his dorm room. The other people living on his floor found this to be a nuisance, but Alex doesn’t care. Alex’s music playing is an example of:
Positive externality
Negative externality
Pareto externality
Normative externality
27) In 2011, the Department of Justice sued AT&T to block its merger with the cell phone service provider T-Mobile. To defend itself against the charge, AT&T argued that the:
Merger would improve and expand cellular service to consumers.
Government had guaranteed it exclusive control of cell phone service.
Combined company could raise prices, allowing it to survive in a rapidly changing market.
Government had no authority to block mergers in the telephone industry
28) A reduction in the supply of labor will cause wages to:
Decrease and employment to decrease.
Decrease and employment to increase.
Increase and employment to decrease.
Increase and employment to increase.
29) There are many restaurants in the city of Raleigh, each one offering food and services that differ from those of its competitors. There is also free entry of sellers into the market, and each seller serves a very small fraction of the total number of meals served each day. The restaurant industry in Raleigh is best characterized as:
A pure monopoly.
Perfectly competitive.
Monopolistically competitive.
An oligopoly
30) Strategic decision making is most important in:
Oligopolistic markets.
Competitive markets.
Monopolistically competitive markets.
Monopolistic markets.

Q6. ECO 365 Final Exam Guide New…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1.Because you can only obtain more of one good by giving up some of another good, the shape of a production possibility curve is _______________.
downward-sloping
perfectly vertical
perfectly horizontal
upward-sloping
2. Refer to the table shown. The average product when eight workers are employed is _6____
Number of workers Total Output
1. 4
2. 10
3. 18
4. 28
5. 35
6. 41
7. 45
8. 48
9. 50
10. 49
3. A resource is said to have a comparative advantage if
it is equally suited to the production of all goods.
its suitability to the production of one good changes as it produces more of that good.
its suitability to the production of one good does not change as it produces more of that good.
it is better suited to the production of one good than to the production of an alternative good.
4 Refer to the graph shown. Initially, the market is in equilibrium with price equal to $3 and quantity equal to 100. Government imposes a tax on suppliers of $1 per unit. The effect of the tax is to
lower the price consumers pay from $3 to $2.
lower the price sellers keep after paying the tax.
raise the price consumers pay from $3 to $4.(Not confirm)
raise the price sellers keep after paying the tax.
5 Refer to the table shown. Diminishing marginal productivity begins when the
fourth worker is hired.
sixth worker is hired.
third worker is hired.
fifth worker is hired
6 Refer to the graph shown. If this monopolistically competitive firm maximizes profit, it will
charge $45 per dress.
charge $85 per dress.
charge $78 per dress.
shut down because it cannot cover its opportunity costs
7 The price of a ticket to a rock concert is set at $35. All the tickets for the concert sell out 1 hour after they go on sale and there are still 1,000 fans who want to buy tickets. It follows that
the quantity of tickets demanded is equal to the quantity supplied at the $35 price.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is less than $35.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is more than $35.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is $35.
8 Which of the following statements is true?
Many different production processes can be economically efficient, but only the method that involves the lowest possible cost is technically efficient.
Many different production processes can be technically efficient, but only the method that involves the lowest possible cost is economically efficient.
There are many production processes that are both technically and economically efficient, but only one of these involves the lowest possible cost.
There is only one production process that is technically efficient, and this process is also economically efficient.
9 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: Samsung and Sony become partners in a flat screen manufacturing company.
Joint venture
Conglomerate
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
10 Suppose a firm finds that an additional dollar spent on labor increases output more than does an additional dollar spent on machines. Under these conditions, the firm
should substitute machines for labor if it wants to increase economic efficiency
is economically efficient
is technically efficient
should substitute labor for machines if it wants to increase economic efficiency
11 Economists and laypeople see the pros and cons of international trade in different ways. Which of the following is one of those ways?
Laypeople enjoy the benefits of trade in terms of lower consumer prices.
Laypeople recognize that the United States has a comparative advantage in services.
Laypeople tend to think of foreign trade only in terms of manufactured goods.
Laypeople believe in the law of one price and economists do not.
12 The morel is a prized mushroom that is often abundant in the Western United States in years after forest fires. Suppose two companies are buying morels from workers willing to find them. One company offers to pay workers $5.00 per pound, and the other company will pay workers only $4.00 per pound. Economists would say that
the lower-paying company will attract the more creative and innovative pickers and the higher-paying company will attract the others.
this situation violates the law of one price and is not likely to persist.
the higher-paying company will attract the more creative and innovative pickers and the lower-paying company will attract the others.
the company willing to pay only $4.00 has a comparative advantage in selling morels.
13 Which of the following is the best example of a macroeconomic externality?
One person saving less without considering the effect on their retirement needs
One person starting a business without knowing whether the goods will sell
Many people saving more without considering the effect on unemployment
One person spending more in order to help stimulate the economy
14 If MR < MC, a monopolist should:
maintain the same level of production.
stop producing.
decrease production.
increase production.
15 Opponents of government intervention in the economy argue that externalities
may not be effectively corrected by the government.
are themselves the inevitable result of government policies.
do not create problems for the model.
should be corrected with regulations rather than subsidies.
16 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: IBP meat processing firm buys American Cattle, a very large cattle ranch.
Joint venture
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
Conglomerate
17 Refer to the graph shown. At which point is elasticity zero?
B
D
C
A
18 A Wall Street Journal headline reads: “Cigar Shortage Draws New Brands into Market.” The shortage resulted from a renewed interest in smoking cigars. What best describes the facts behind the headline?
Price is too low, quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied.
The cigar market is in equilibrium.
Price is too low, demand exceeds supply.
A shift in supply has equilibrated supply and demand.
19. Refer to the graph shown. If hamburger dinners are produced by a perfectly competitive industry with a market demand D:
price will equal marginal cost.
output will be the same as it would be under monopoly.
price will equal $6.
price will be greater than marginal revenue.
20 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: Golf Smith, a golf supply retailer buys its competitor, Vango golf.
Horizontal merger
Conglomerate
Joint venture
Vertical merger
21 According to the text, Microeconomics, Colander (2013), economics is the study of how
government policies can be used to meet individuals’ wants and desires.
human beings coordinate their wants and desires.
scarce resources are allocated to their most productive uses.
governments allocate resources while facing constraints.
22 Oligopoly is characterized by
low market concentration.
inability to set price.
no barriers to entry.
few sellers.
23 When Ross Perot ran for president as a third party candidate in 1992, he argued that free trade with Mexico would result in massive job losses in the United States because Mexican wages were so low. Which of the following is the best explanation for why few economists agreed with Perot?
Although economists agreed that in some areas the United States would lose jobs, they expected that the United States would gain jobs in other areas.
Economists believed that the U.S. unemployment rate would rise.
Although economists predicted that unemployment would rise, the increased profits of corporations would raise stock prices enough to compensate for the lost jobs.
Economists did not believe that any jobs would be lost in the United States
24 Refer to the graph shown. The figure shows the demand and supply curves for eggs and shows two equilibrium points, E1 and E2. An increase in demand from D1 to D2would cause
price to decline from $1.25 to $1.00 a dozen and a shortage of 2,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to rise from $1.00 to $1.25 a dozen and a surplus of 2,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to rise from $1.00 to $1.25 a dozen and equilibrium quantity to be 3,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to remain at $1.00 a dozen and a shortage of 2,000 dozen eggs per week
25 Germany restricts the use of nonrefillable bottles and cans. The European Union argues that the rules aren’t just protecting the environment; they also are protecting German beverage makers from competition. The EU sees Germany’s environmentalism as _____________________.
a quota
a tariff
a regulatory trade restriction
an embargo
26 Oligopoly is probably the best market for technological change because
funds for research and development are available in an oligopoly due to innovation, which motivates the need for research and development.
the typical oligopoly lacks the funds for research and development and therefore will use basic research from universities.
pricing within the typical oligopoly tends to be very close to average total cost because of the entry of new rivals if its profits are excessively high.
research and development occurs only if government subsidizes such activity, and government tends to subsidize oligopolies
27 George Davis and Michael Wohlgenant estimate that for every 1 percent increase in the price of Christmas trees, quantity demanded falls by 0.6 percent. The demand for Christmas trees is __________________.
perfectly inelastic
inelastic
elastic
unit elastic
28 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: A tobacco producer buys a carbonated beverage plant.
Joint venture
Conglomerate
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
29 Suppose the minimum possible price of constructing homes is $50 per square foot. As a result of a sharp drop in the demand for home construction, the equilibrium price of home construction falls to $40 per square foot. Assuming the home construction industry is perfectly competitive and there are no specialized inputs, firms will
exit the industry, and the price will remain at $40 in the long run.
enter the industry as the price rises above $40 in the long run.
exit the industry, and the price will rise above $40 in the long run.
exit the industry, and the price will fall below $40 in the long run.
30 Refer to the table shown. At what level of employment is the marginal product of labor seven?
7
5
2
4

Q7. Case Study 2: Cases Analysis of Risk, Uncertainty and Managing Incentives
Case Study 2: Cases Analysis of Risk, Uncertainty and Managing Incentives
Select a company of your choice, any company but Southwest Airlines, and write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:
Evaluate a company’s recent (with in the last year) actions dealing with risk and uncertainty.
Offer advice for improving risk management.
Examine an adverse selection problem your company is facing and recommend how it should minimize its negative impact on transactions.
Determine the ways your company is dealing with the moral hazard problem and suggest best practices used in the industry to deal with it.
Identify a principal-agent problem in your company and evaluate the tools it uses to align incentives and improve profitability.
Examine the organizational structure of your company and suggests ways it can be changed to improve the overall profitability.
Use at least five (5) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: One of your references regarding your should have been published within the last 6 months. Note: Wikipedia does not qualify as an academic resource.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

Q8. ECO 372 Week 4 Individual Federal Reserve Presentation
ECO 372 Week 4 Individual Federal Reserve Presentation(13 slides)

Q9. ECO 365 Week 4 Team Assignment The Economics Of Labor Markets
ECO 365 Week 4 Team Assignment The Economics of Labor Markets(15 slides )

Q10. ECO 365 Week 3 Current Market Conditions Competitive Analysis
ECO 365 Week 3 Current Market Conditions Competitive Analysis(7 pages word paper)

FOREIGN LANGUAGES.
Q1. You are the principal consultant for a c
You are the principal consultant for a community based Charity. The Charity is involved in locating and providing accommodation, mental health services, training and support services to disadvantaged people in the community.
The Charity currently runs a small data centre that has some 50 x86 64 bit servers running mainly Windows Server 2008 R2 for desktop services, database and file services. It also has 10 Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5 servers to service public facing Web pages, Web services and support.
The Charity is considering joining a community cloud provided by a public cloud vendor in order to provide a number of applications to all 500 support staff and administrative users. A small number of the Charity’s applications are mission critical and the data that those applications use is both confidential and time sensitive.
The community cloud would also be used to store the Charity’s 200TB of data. The data would be held in a SaaS database run by the public cloud vendor. The Charity’s data contains a considerable amount of confidential information about the people to whom the Charity provides services.
The Charity collects PII data on the clients who use its services so that it can assist them to manage their different service requirements. This PII data also includes holding some digital identity data for some of the more disadvantaged clients, particularly if they also have mental health issues.
The cloud vendor has made a presentation to management that indicates that operational costs will drop dramatically if the cloud model is adopted. However, the Board of the Charity is concerned with the privacy and security of the data that it holds on the people that it provides services to in the community. It is concerned that a data breach may cause considerable damage to substantially disadvantaged people in the community.
The Board asks that you prepare a report that proposes appropriate privacy and security policies for the Charity’s data.
The charity has also decided to:
• Purchase a HR and personnel management application from a US based company that provides a SaaS solution.
o The application will provide the charity with a complete HR suite, which will also include performance management. The application provider has advised that the company’s main database is in California, with a replica in Dublin, Ireland. However, all data processing, configuration, maintenance, updates and feature releases are provided from the application provider’s processing centre in Bangalore, India.
o Employee data will be uploaded from the charity daily at 12:00 AEST. This will be processed in Bangalore before being loaded into the main provider database.
o Employees can access their HR and Performance Management information through a link placed on the Charity intranet. Each employee will use their internal charity digital ID to authenticate to the HR and Performance management system. The internal digital ID is generated by the charity’s Active Directory instance and is used for internal authentication and authorisation.
• Move the charity payroll to a COTS (Commercial Off The Shelf) application that it will manage in a public cloud;
• Move the charity Intranet into a Microsoft SharePoint PaaS offering so that it can provide Intranet services to all agencies in the WofG.
Tasks
You have been engaged to provide a risk assessment for the planned moves to SaaS application offerings.
You are to write a report that assesses the risks to the charity for just their planned moves in the HR area:
1. Consider the data and information that the charity holds on its employees in the current HR system.
1. Establish the existing threats and risks to the security of that data and information contained in the in-house HR database. (10 marks)
2. Are there any additional risks and threats to employee data that may arise after migration to an SaaS application? (10 marks)
3. Assess the resulting severity of risk and threat to employee data. (10 marks)
2. Consider the privacy of the data for those employees who will move to an SaaS application.
1. Establish the existing threats and risks to the privacy of that data and information contained in the in house HR database. (10 marks)
2. Are there any additional risks and threats to the privacy of the employee data after migration to an SaaS application? (10 marks)
3. Assess the resulting severity of risk and threat to the privacy of employee data. (10 marks)
3. What are the threats and risks to the digital identities of charity employees from the move to SaaS applications? (10 marks)
4. Consider the operational solution and location(s) of the SaaS provider for HR management. Does either the operational solution, or the operational location, or both, increase or mitigate the threats and risks identified for the security and privacy of employee data? (20 marks)
5. Are there any issues of ethics, data sensitivity or jurisdiction that should be considered by the charity? (10 marks)
You are to provide a written report with the following headings:
• Security of Employee Data
• Privacy of Employee Data
• Digital Identity Issues
• Provider Solution Issues
• Data Sensitivity

Q2. Describe and define the primary comp
The purpose of this assignment is to help students understand strategic business terminology (vision, mission, goals, objectives, specific objectives, internal and external scanning), to recognize the components of a strategic plan and to be familiar with the core information and steps needed to create a strategic plan. Furthermore, this assignment allows students to recognize the difference between strategic planning and strategic management.
Assignment Steps
Write a 700-word analysis in which you complete the following:
• Describe and define the primary components of the Strategic Management Process.
• Describe and define internal and external analysis.
• Describe and define the responsibilities and duties of the Strategic Manager.
• Explain why companies need strategic management planning.
Cite 3 scholarly references, including at least two peer-reviewed references from the University Library.

Q3. Social Media can be updated from a v
Week 4 Discussion Initial Response 1:

Social Media can be updated from a variety of devices and connectivity methods. In many situations, this has made social media the digital tool of choice for coordinating illegal activity. How can investigators keep up with the sheer volume of information and speed with which things can happen?

Q4. Age Is Relative The question of age can be applied
Age Is Relative The question of age can be applied to humans, clothing, food, furniture and fossils. Doctors study how humans age and can observe how hair turns grey and skin becomes wrinkled. Rocks and other organic materials do not always provide observers the same outward changes. In order to determine the age of a material; including human bones, radiometric dating can be applied. Determining the amount of radioactive isotopes in a geological or archeological specimen can help decipher its relative age. Since all rocks and minerals contain radioactive elements, the decay process is like a clock that a geologist can read since different radioactive elements have independent âclocksâ or half-lives.
For this unit, answer the following questions:

1. Pick TWO of the following and describe how radiometric dating has been utilized to determine their age:Earth
2. Moon
3. Meteorites
4. Fossils
5. Early man
6. Historic relics (i.e., Dead Sea Scrolls, Shroud of Turin)
7. Volcanic eruptions
8. Identify one element used to date rocks and minerals. How long is its half-life?
9. How can radioactivity be measured?
10. Rocks, minerals, and even food we eat can contain radioactive material. Why doesnât this radioactive material comprise a threat to humans?
11. What is an alternative method to radiometric dating? What are the strengths and weaknesses to this type of dating process?
Be sure to review the Discussion Board Grading Rubric provided under course home.
For help with citations, refer to the APA Quick Reference Guide .
Use this reference when referring to your text:
Trefil, J., & Hazen, R.M. (2013). The sciences: An integrated approach. Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons, Inc.

Q5. The analysis of current strategy and co
Create a Feasibility Study for Harley-Davidson using the following outline
Part I: Differentiation Strategies
The analysis of current strategy and competitor analysis you conducted last module impressed the senior vice president. She now needs you to delve into the brands and analyze them by conducting a business unit analysis and presenting your findings in a three-part PowerPoint presentation.
Research the Harley-Davidson (H-D) Web site for each brand, and review the annual report for relevant details of the size, scope, target market, services and amenities, and other salient points of differentiation. Include these details in Part I of your PowerPoint presentation.
From the research and analysis of the business units, identify:
• A description of each brand that provides a clear picture of the brand and its place in the overall portfolio of Harley-Davidson.
• The target market of each brand.
• How the brands are alike and how they differ.
• A preliminary analysis of any gaps that exist in the portfolio that might lead to opportunities to add to the brands.
• Your analysis of possible merger/acquisition/joint venture possibilities and what would be achieved or accomplished through the merger/acquisition/joint venture.
Part II: SWOT Analysis
Perform a SWOT analysis for Harley-Davidson and include this information in Part II of your PowerPoint presentation.
• Based on the internal analyses of the SWOT analysis, assess the functional areas, resources, capabilities, and strengths H-D possesses. Please be sure to cover the following functional areas in your assessment:

• Marketing: New product development, integrated marketing planning, marketing communications, and building customer loyalty.
• Operations: Quality, service, and consistent execution.
• Human Resources: Hiring, training, developing talent, and performance planning. Avoided lawsuits and bad PR due to its hiring practices. Is ethical in its HR practices.
• Executive Leadership: Industry knowledge and experience, vision about where the industry is heading, and strategy execution.
• Supply Chain Optimization: Strategic sourcing of input, vendor management, integrated IS, and joint forecasting with suppliers.
• Corporate Responsibility and Ethics: Concern for corporate citizenship and the environment. Present any potential ethical concerns as well.
• Safety and Quality: How the motorcycle industry is dealing with safety and quality issues.
• Part III: Growth and Profitability Strategies
In addition, the executive board is interested in your ideas about bold strategies for the future. The strategies you recommend will have to contribute to growth and profitability, as outlined in the Annual Report.
You will want to pay special attention to exploring vertical integration, strategic alliances, and the internal growth of new brands entering new geographic markets, and/or additional acquisitions.
Consider the following:

• Is Harley-Davidson, Inc., (H-D) competing in the right businesses, given the opportunities and threats present in the external environment? If not, how can H-D realign its diversification strategy to achieve a competitive advantage?
This may include additional diversification to take advantage of opportunities such as further vertical integration.
• Is the corporation managing its portfolio in a way that creates synergy among its businesses? If so, what additional businesses should it consider adding to its portfolio?

Q6. Imagine you are the HR manager at a Company.
Imagine you are the HR manager at a company. You need to hire three (3) new people. One employee will work at the front desk as a customer service assistant, and the other two (2) will work on the production line. Give at least five (5) places you would recruit for each position and explain why each place would be a viable option.
Write a one (1) page paper in which you:
1. Select at least five (5) places you would recruit for a customer service assistant and at least five (5) places you would recruit for production line workers.
2. Explain why each place you selected would be a viable option for recruiting employees.
3. Format your assignment according to the following formatting requirements:
1. Typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
2. Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, your name, your professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page is not included in the required page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Analyze effective recruiting and selection strategies that can be used to meet organizational requirements.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in human resource management.
• Write clearly and concisely about human resource management using proper writing mechanics

Q7. Amy is cooking dinner for her family. She moves to pull
For this assignment you will respond to three case studies.
What is a Case Study?
“A case study is a narrative used to help you practice real-life analysis and communication skills. It is a learning tool that provides readers with “enough detail…to understand the nature and scope of the problem, and…serve as a springboard for discussion and learning” (O’Rourke, 2007, p. 391).
Use your textbook and academic resources from the Library to support your responses.
Access the Library directly from Course Resources for this class, or through the student portal. Be sure to cite and reference all your sources. The Library has a feature that allows you to automatically create an APA formatted reference.
Your completed case study should be between 750–1000 words, and all sources must be properly cited using APA format.
1. Amy is cooking dinner for her family. She moves to pull a pot off the stove and accidently touches the burner. She reflexively pulls her finger away from the stove and immediately feels the pain.
1. Which receptor neuron is responsible for sending information from her finger to her peripheral nervous system?
2. Is this receptor neuron, an afferent or efferent neuron?
3. Explain where the information from the receptor neuron is sent and how does it result in Amy moving her finger away from the stove.
4. How many neurons are typically involved in this response? What are the names of these neurons?
5. Evolutionarily, why do you think the human body has this system in place?
6. What might happen if we did not have this response?
2. Glen, who is 45 years old, begins to notice that his hands shake (tremors) when he is performing everyday tasks such as signing his signature. His family members have noticed that he also has muffled speech and tends to shuffle when he walks. He is diagnosed with Early Onset Parkinson’s disease.
1. What is Early Onset Parkinson’s disease?
2. What specific cell type is affected in Parkinson’s disease?
3. What is dopamine? What effects does dopamine have on the body?
4. Explain the structure of a synapse and why Glen’s neurologist would prescribe him a dopamine agonist?
5. Glen has genetic testing performed and it is determined that he does carry an autosomal dominant mutation in the SNCA gene associated with Early Onset Parkinson’s disease. Glen has three children. Would you advise his children to have genetic testing performed to determine if they also carry the disease mutation? Why or why not?
3. Patricia, who is 37 years old, discusses with her physician recent symptoms that she has experienced including blurred vision, numbness in her fingers and face, dizziness, fatigue and weakness. The physician performs multiple neurological tests and she is diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS).
1. What is MS?
2. Is MS a disease of the central or peripheral nervous system?
3. What is the main cell structure affected in MS?
4. How is the action potential of a neuron affected in MS?
5. The origins of MS are not clear. What do scientists hypothesize to be the causes of MS?
Your assignment should be written in an essay format. The assignment requires you to include details from research including the course materials and sources you locate on your own. Remember to use APA format to cite your sources of information, both within parenthetical citations and also within a reference page at the end of the project.

Q8. Describe the criteria leaders should
What is critical thinking?
Develop a two-page essay that addresses the following:
Create your own definition of creative thinking.
Describe the criteria leaders should use to determine whether they are employing creative-thinking techniques.
Explain the difference between creative and status quo behaviors.
Briefly describe a professional situation you have been involved with that could have benefited from creative thinking. Discuss how the situation meets the criteria you established in your definition. Also, explain how a creative and innovative approach to the issue would have changed the outcome.

Q9. DISCUSSION 1 Company Description
DISCUSSION 1 Company Description Throughout this course, you will develop a series of written papers projects that you will later combine into a complete business plan for a Non-Alcoholic Beverage company. For this discussion, you must first review the “NAB Company Portfolio”. The mentioned portfolio contains the company parameters and details you must follow when developing your company. Provide the following information to set the foundation for your non-alcoholic beverage (NAB) business plan.
Please respond to the following:
✔ Create your NAB company name and explain its significance.
✔ Develop your company’s Mission Statement and provide a rationale for its components.

Q10. BUS 499 Strategic Management and S
BUS 499 Strategic Management and Strategic Competitiveness- globalization and technology- Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. Write a four page paper in which you: 1. Assess how globalization and technology changes have impacted the corporation you researched. 2. Apply the industrial organization model and the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns. 3. Assess how the vision statement and mission statement of the corporation influence its overall success. 4. Evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of this corporation. 5. Use at least two (2) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.

GEOLOGY.
Q1. PHSC 210 Quiz 1
Question 1
Which of the following minerals is a silicate?
Selected Answer: Quartz
Question 2
A naturalistic evolution position holds that
Selected Answer: Earth is 4.5 billion years old and all life is connected by
evolution, not guided by God
Purchase for remaining 23 Answers

Q2. MKT 571 Week 1 Assignment Researching Marketing Questions
Purpose of Assignment
This assignment is designed to help students analyze and interpret primary and/or secondary data and research. Students will be provided with a marketing report that allows for preparing basic executive level data insights. This assignment will help prepare students for the development of their marketing plan.
Assignment Steps
Analyze the Week 1 Business Growth Overview dataset. This is a marketing report generated by an analyst for the Senior Vice President (SVP) of Marketing at a large corporation. The analyst is new and has provided summary data but no insights or commentary for the SVP.
Construct a 1-2 page (san title page) memorandum for the SVP providing insights and commentary. The memorandum should include your analysis of the following:
• Major areas of increase and decrease in revenue or type and/or category of business
• Trends that are evident in terms of revenue or type and/or category of business
• Insights that would help formulate marketing strategies to either continue growth or reverse decline
• Additional analysis you (if you were SVP) would like to build a marketing goal and strategy or strategies (and why)

Format your assignment consistent with APA guidelines.

Q3. ENVIRONMENT SCIENCE PAPER
You are the project manager of an environmental company that was hired to cleanup a historical arsenic contamination site. Soil sampling results indicated the area impacted with arsenic above action levels is 30 feet by 55 feet. The depth of the arsenic plume is three feet below ground surface. The land owner wanted to clean this site for future development. Using your textbook, answer the questions below to help you prepare a cost estimate for this portion of the project. Your solutions and any assumptions to justify your estimate must be shown.
What is the chemical symbol of arsenic, and what group/family does it belong to?
Solve for the minimum volume of soil that will be excavated in cubic yards?
If each dump truck can transport 18 cubic yards, determine how many dump trucks loads will be transported? For calculation purposes, add a 15% �fluff factor� (add to the volume that will be transported).
If the bulk density of soil is 1350 kg/m3 (84.3 lb/ft3), solve for the weight of the soil that will be transported to a disposal site in kilograms?

Your total response to parts a-d must be at least 200 words in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced. Paraphrased and/or quoted material must have accompanying citations in APA format.

book: Meyer, E. (2014). Chemistry of Hazardous Materials (6 ed.). Upper Saddle River, New Jersey: Pearson Education Inc.

citation: page 115, figure 4.3 arsenic, As, semi metal

Q4. CostLeadershipStrategy–What are th
What are the characteristics of a firm that is successfully pursuing a cost leadership strategy?

Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations
What are the characteristics of a firm that is successfully pursuing a cost leadership strategy?

Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations

In a BCG Matrix, all divisions are classified as either Question Marks, Stars, Cash Cows or Dogs. Define each of these terms and briefly discussion how you would apply the terms to strategic planning.

Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.

In a BCG Matrix, all divisions are classified as either Question Marks, Stars, Cash Cows or Dogs. Define each of these terms and briefly discussion how you would apply the terms to strategic planning.

Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.

Q5. Cloud Computing and Web 2.0
Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Your paper should be 3-5 pages in length
and explain the business uses of each. Using the internet, research the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0..
When you do the research, pay particular attention to how cloud computing and Web 2.0 are used in organizations and
the technology required for them. Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Be sure to address the following in your
assignment:
• Explain cloud computing and Web 2.0.
• Explain how organizations use these tools.
• Describe the technology required to use these tools.
• Discuss the benefits of each.
• Discuss the limitations of each.
CSU requires that students use the APA style for papers and projects. Therefore, the APA rules for formatting, quoting,
Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Your paper should be 3-5 pages in length
and explain the business uses of each. Using the internet, research the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0..
When you do the research, pay particular attention to how cloud computing and Web 2.0 are used in organizations and
the technology required for them. Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Be sure to address the following in your
assignment:
• Explain cloud computing and Web 2.0.
• Explain how organizations use these tools.
• Describe the technology required to use these tools.
• Discuss the benefits of each.
• Discuss the limitations of each.
CSU requires that students use the APA style for papers and projects. Therefore, the APA rules for formatting, quoting,

Q6. What is the U.S. Global Leadership
What is the U.S. Global Leadership?
• What is the process for International Affairs in your organization? Provide examples.
• How do you provide your organization with the fundamental tools to meet the global challenges of the 21st century?

Q7. GEOL 1021: Assignment #1
GEOL 1021: Assignment #1 Fall 2013
Answer all the following Questions
1. The length of recorded history for humankind is about 5000 years. Clearly, most people view this span as being very long. How does it compare to the length of geologic time? Calculate the percentage or fraction of geologic time that is represented by recorded history. To make calculations easier, round the age of Earth to the nearest billion. 5 marks
2. After entering a dark room, you turn on a wall switch, but the light does not come on. Suggest at least three hypotheses that might explain this observation. Once you have formulated your hypotheses what is the next logical step? 10
3. How is the Earth’s inner core different from its outer core? 5
4. The Earth is considered a dynamic planet, compared to the Moon or Mercury. Why? 10
5. The moon has virtually no magnetosphere. Why? 10
6. Explain how the principle of uniformitarianism allows for catastrophic events. 8
7. The concentric layer that makes up most of Earth’s volume— is it? 2
A. the inner core B. outer core C. mantle D. Asthenosphere E. crust

Note:
• Read all questions carefully
• Answers must be type-written
• You require a cover page. The cover page should have the following: course code and assignment number, name of student (s), and date of submission.
• Use the class notes, textbook, and any other referenced source to answer the questions. (Some of your answers may come from critical analyses more than direct answers from a source.)
• You may work in groups. The maximum number of students in a group is three. You may elect to work alone.
• This assignment is due by the close of Friday, October 18, 2013.
• Use the assignment drop box.
• Assignments submitted after midnight, Friday, October 18, will not be accepted (without prior permission from the instructor).
• This is not an essay assignment.
Total Marks: 50

Q8. Volkswagen Organizational Structure F
Volkswagen Organizational Structure For the Assignment, you will apply what you have learned concerning organizational structure and conduct research on Volkswagen (VW). You will respond to the three (3) questions listed below the Assignment instructions in an APA formatted 2–3 page paper .
Case: If one were to chart the growth spurts of Volkswagen over the past three decades, the chart would look like a roller coaster. Plans were for former BMW boss Bernd Pischetsrieder to fix ailing VW when he came aboard in 2002. However, best-laid plans often go astray. VW’s share price is down almost 50% and profits fell by 36%. What is wrong at VW? First, VW has always been able to charge more for its cars because of quality, innovation, styling, and an implied lifetime guarantee. In recent years, however, consumers have decided that the company is going to have to come up with more value for the dollar if loyalty is to be retained. Second, sales in China’s booming market (VW was one of the first car makers on the scene in this giant economy) have plummeted and GM has driven VW from its number one ranking. Third, cost-cutting moves have not worked. Fourth, VW uncharacteristically has labor pains. The CEO has had little luck in reversing these problems because his consensus management techniques are having little impact on VW’s change-resistant bureaucracy. Over half of the company’s 100 managers are not used to making their own decisions. This spells even more trouble for the company in the year ahead.
Checklist:
Address the following questions in your 2—3 page essay adding an additional title and references page:
1- Using a search engine of your own choosing, investigate Volkswagen’s performance over the past two years. Write a brief summary of their fortunes and misfortunes.
2- Visit the Volkswagen Investor Relations Web site, then use the search box on the right and search for “organizational structure”. In particular be sure to look at the Corporate Governance Report. Alternately, you can perform an internet search for “Volkswagen organizational structure.” From information supplied, characterize the company’s existing structure.
3- Based on what you have observed in “1” and “2” above; suggest a new organizational structure for the company. Cite any assumptions that you made when you developed your structure.
Source:
Robbins, S. P., & Judge, T. A. (2013). Organizational behavior (15th ed.). Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson Prentice Hall.

Q9. Using the weather map given:
Using the weather map given:
• Fill in the data table provided based on the weather map. For “Current Weather,” use the data provided in the chart to determine the current conditions for each station.
• Create the warm and cold fronts on the Weather Map. While this map will not need to be turned in, it will assist you in filling out the information in the data table.
• Based on the weather scenario in this lab assignment, predict what tomorrow’s weather will be at the locations listed below if the system continues due east at 300 miles/day. Be sure to include wind direction, temperature, cloud cover and precipitation in your forecast. The position of the warm and cold fronts will help you with this.
Locations:
Bangor, ME
Birmingham, AL
Dallas, TX
Denver, CO
Jacksonville, FL
Louisville, KY
Minneapolis, MN
New York, NY
Pittsburgh, PA

Q10. GEO EARTH SCIENCE PAPER A+
Using the geologic map of Virginia, answer the following questions:
1. Is the region in the extreme northwest corner to the Potomac River strongly folded or strongly faulted?
2. Is the region from the southeast corner to Harrison Island along the Potomac strongly folded or strongly faulted?
3. In the southwestern part of the map, along the Shenandoah River, the sediments are only Quaternary in age, yet they are surrounded by much older Cambrian sediments. How do you explain this?
4. In the southeastern corner of the map, locate Rockville and Gaithersburg. Notice that they are separated by the Plummer’s Island Fault. Is Rockville moving atop Gaithersburg or is Gaithersburg moving atop Rockville?
5. Find Martinsburg, WV, in the extreme northwest corner. Now locate Martinsburg, MD, which is just to the to the east of Harrison Island and Mason Island along a bend in the Potomac in the south central area of the map. Which is surrounded by the older rock?
6. Locate Long Marsh Run just south of the West Virginia/ Virginia border on the southwestern side of the map. Which way is it flowing?

How many different ages of rock would you encounter along its course?
7. In the middle image at the bottom, to the far right, you see that the younger Prettyboy Schist lies beneath the older Mather Gorge Formation. How can older rock be found atop younger rock?
8. Locate the oval, brown rocks near the center of the map. What geologic feature is this?

LINGUISTICS.
Q1. PSY 201 Quiz 2-Phonetics

PSY 201 Quiz 2-Phonetics

Correct Answers Marked
Quiz Submissions –
Top of Form
Submission View

Quiz 2 Phonetics

Quiz 2 Phonetics

Question 5

1 / 2 points
Please select all that apply.
Nasal consonants are produced:
with a constriction of the pharynx below the velum.

with air coming out through the mouth rather than the nose.
by lowering your velum.
with air coming out through the nose rather than the mouth.

Question 7
0 / 2 points
Which of the following words contain at least one voiced fricative?
Select all that apply.
Phase
Plasma

Warp

Ship

Star
Question 8
0 / 2 points
Which of the following descriptions is correct for the vowel /i/?
Check all that apply.
unrounded
high
tense

back
Question 9
0 / 2 points
The number of sounds in the word “taught” is:

2

5
3

none of these answers.
Question 10
1.2 / 2 points
What speech sound properties are shared by the sounds [t], [n], and [d]?
Choose all that apply.

They are all velar

They are all nasal
They are all consonants
They are all alveolar

They are all voiced
Question 14
0 / 2 points
What speech sound properties are shared by the sounds [u], [oʊ], and [ɑ]?
Choose all that apply.

rounded
tense

high
back
Question 15
0 / 2 points
Vowels are typically characterized by the parameters of:

voicing, tongue height, and lip-rounding.

voicing, tongue tension, and lip-rounding.

none of these answers.
tongue height, tongue backness, lip-rounding and tongue tension.
Question 16
0 / 2 points
The glottis is the conduit for air between the lungs and the mouth.

True

False
Question 18
0 / 2 points
The sound /g/ is a voiced velar stop.

True

False
Question 19
0 / 2 points
The word “sing” contains which of the following?

Voiceless velar oral stop

Voiceless velar nasal stop

Voiced alveolar plosive
None of these answers
Question 20
0 / 2 points
Please match the state of the glottis with its description by typing the corresponding number in the box.
__3__
(3)
Breathy
__4__
(4)
Creaky
__1__
(1)
Voiceless
__2
(2)
Voiced
1.
Vocal folds are pulled apart so that air flows freely through the glottis.
2.
Vocal folds are close together but not quite shut.
3.
Vocal folds are closed at the anterior end and open at the other.
4.
Vocal folds are open at the anterior end and closed at the other.
Question 21
0 / 2 points
A midsagittal view of our speech system is one that shows a top-down view of the vocal folds, as if you had a mirror in your mouth pointing straight down the larynx.

True

False
Question 22
0 / 2 points
Which of the following descriptions is FALSE?

Nasal sounds cannot be made if a person has a cold.

None of these are false.

There are at least three different nasal consonants in English.
In making a nasal sound, the velum (soft palate) has to be raised.

In making the nasal sound [m], there is complete closure in the oral cavity.
Question 23
0 / 2 points
A diphthong is a vowel that begins with one place of articulation and ends with another.

True

False
Question 24
0 / 2 points
Which of the following words can be pronounced without the velum being lowered at any point during the word?

none of these answers

China
Cute

Bamboo

Panda
Question 25
0 / 2 points
The Bernoulli Effect is caused by:

An increase in air pressure behind a point of closure.

A decrease in air pressure when the pathway of the airflow is unimpeded.
Cycles of increasing and decreasing air pressure that causes rapid vibration.

None of these answers.

The neural commands sent by the brain to the vocal folds.
Quiz Submissions – Quiz 2-Phonetics
Top of Form

Quiz 2 Phonetics

Quiz 2 Phonetics

Question 1
0 / 2 points
Which of the following is NOT a property of the sound of the sound [l] (the sound that starts the word ‘like’)?
none of these answers

alveolar

approximant

lateral
Question 2
0 / 2 points
Which of the following statements is FALSE?

All the parts of the vocal tract can be used to make speech sounds.

The nasal tract is used to make nasal sounds.

None of these answers are false.
Teeth are not articulators.

The tongue is used to produce vowel sounds.
Question 8
0 / 2 points
In English we use breathy voice in any word that contains an /h/.

True

False
Question 9
0 / 2 points
The vowel in the word “cook” is /ʊ/.

True

False
Question 12
0 / 2 points
Which of the following is NOT part of the three systems of speech?

None of these answers.
The nasal system.

The vocal tract system.

The respiratory system.

The laryngeal system.
Question 13
0 / 2 points
The first sound in the word “though” is:

none of these answers.

/θ/
/ð/

/t/
Question 15
0 / 2 points
Match the vowels and their descriptions
__1__
(1)
high front unrounded lax vowel
__4
(4)
mid central unrounded lax vowel
__3__
(3)
mid front unrounded lax vowel
_2__
(2)
high back rounded tense vowel
1.
[ɪ]
2.
[u]
3.
[ɛ]
4.
[ə]
Question 16
0 / 2 points
Which of the following statements about an ejective sound is correct?
Choose all that apply.
An ejective sound is made using the glottalic airstream mechanism.

An ejective sound is made with a rapid downward movement of the glottis.

An ejective sound is made by a quick inhalation of breath into the lungs.
An ejective sound is made with a rapid upward movement of the glottis.
Question 17
1 / 2 points
Phoneticians study:
Please select all that apply.
how sounds are made in the vocal tract.

how to break up words into smaller units of meaning.
how sounds are transmitted.

the mental organization of speech sounds in our minds.
Question 18
0 / 2 points
Affricates are:

the same thing as fricatives, but the air travels faster through the oral cavity.
A combination of a stop followed immediately by a fricative.

none of these answers

fricatives that have vowel quality because of the vowel that follows immediately after it.
Question 21
0 / 2 points
X-Ray imaging is one of the more common tools used today to study aspects of articulatory phonetics.

True

False
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Bottom of Form

Q2. Star Wars Poem about a Dark Jedi
Contemplate the universe and write a lovely poem about whatever you can think of during your contemplation. Poem must be at least 12 lines long and can be any format as long as it meets the line length requirement.

If you are unsure of Dark Jedi in Star Wars, take a look at

Q3. ENG 115 Assignment 1 Summary and Personal Response
Se Habala Espanol: Summary and Personal Response
Se Habala Espanol is a short story by Tanya Barrientos, born Latina. In this narrative, she has craftily presented her struggle to relate to her society and fit in. According to Barrientos, it is crucial for people to be able to relate to their true ethnic self. Pretending to be someone else, hiding your true ethnicity is not beneficial, when it comes to discover one’s true inner self. Culture and language give people their identity, as they become at peace with their conscience when they are same inside out…

PERFORMING ARTS.
Q1. Drive: A Film Noir Experience
Research paper on the film Drive (2011).
Trailer: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CWX34ShfcsE

, the research paper will talk about Drive as a film noir experience, by referencing and providing tribute to both classical 50s film noir as well as neo-noir films of the 70s.
. I have written some notes after watching the film.

Drive is a film noir, we can infer that from
the expressive lighting in dark area
the hard-boiled crime story
local and urban setting, which is Los-Angeles and its neighborhoods.
Anxiety in the film, the driver is having a relationship with a married woman, dealing with corrupt individuals

Shannon serves as a mentor figure to the driver, similar to Barton Keyes from Double Indemnity

Irene is the love interest of the character and serves as a femme fatale figure but with a modern take to it, she is not as sexualized or glamorous as femme fatales have been portrayed

Bernie Ross is one of the threats that the protagonist faces, he is cold blooded and a man of principle similar to Mr Brown in the film The Big Combo

The super market scene is a reference to the market scene in the film Double Indemnity, where the protagonist Walter meets with Phyllis.

Drive market scene
https://youtu.be/QwLmVBv6sO4?t=19m43s

Double Indmnity market scene
50:20

LA river is an iconic set piece through out Hollywood film history
The scene where the driver kills Nino happens on a beach, reminiscent of the final scene in Kiss Me Deadly
Drive beach death scene
https://youtu.be/QwLmVBv6sO4?t=1h52m49s

Kiss me deadly beach scene

Drive is inspired by another film called The Driver (1978), as a tribute to car chase movies

Q2. Things to consider before buying a hybrid bike (2000 words)
Introduction
All types of hybrid bikes
Tips on how to choose the best hybrid bikes.
Choosing the most suitable Bike frames
The difference between hybrid bikes for women and those for men.

PSYCHOLOGY.
Q1. Personal Gun Use Graded A
Unit 3: Public Argument
Purpose:
You will practice communicating in the world beyond academia by transforming your
controversy analysis paper into a public argument. You will also create multiple drafts and
respond to the work of other writers.
Assignment:
Drawing on our discussions of rhetorical situation and analysis from Unit 1 and the
original research you performed in the Controversy analysis for Unit 2, create a specific
rhetorical situation (purpose, audience, and context) and create a rhetorically effective public
argument (either a TED talk with slides, video, infographic, or a website) to communicate in
that situation. You will present your public argument to the class in a 4-6 minute time slot. An
accompanying verbal speech is required for TED Talks, infographics, and websites, but not for
videos (other than recorded speech within the video).
Explicitly reference a minimum of 3 sources from your controversy research paper (use
“quote” and “end quote” or language such as “according to” and a signal phrase- See Rules for
Writers 58b). All images/audio/sources other than those in Paper 2 should be documented in a
final Works Cited slide.
Detailed description, examples, sound, music, color, props, and/or conversational
language are tools that you can use to convey ideas effectively. If you choose the TED talk,
video, or infographic, use alphabetic-based writing minimally, in accordance with the
conventions for these mediums. Images and short phrases are much stronger choices. Visual
elements should strengthen the piece and be clearly seen by the audience.
• The cover letter and the presentation should both communicate the specific rhetorical
situation (this counts as part of the time).
• For videos, consider recording audio using a headset or a USB microphone instead of
through your laptop’s speakers for clarity (see Resources section below).
• Your public argument will be evaluated in part for delivery– pace, conversational style
(avoid merely reading information), timing, volume, eye contact, and credibility
(preparation and back ups).
• Your own audience for this assignment is an educated, college audience. The audience
members may not be familiar with your sources or your ideas. Communicate your main
claim in the introduction section, and make this especially clear to audience members.
Utilize verbal/visual transitions between points, and provide the significance of your
argument at the end.
Resources:
• Multimedia Zone –1st floor of the main library–1-on-1 technology help
o There are other labs such as the Multimedia Learning Lab (Music) and the
Multimedia Classroom in Aerospace and Mechanical Engineering, but they have
classes in them during the day (see staff schedules here).
• Rent equipment (such as headsets or microphone USBs for recording) at the main library
Information Commons desk (1st floor) or at OSCR Gear to Go in the UITS Computer
Center. You can check out headsets/ microphone USB for 6 hours. Consider scheduling
an individual study room to record, or record from home. The MLL Sound Room is also
an option.
• Consider bringing your draft to the Writing Center in the Bear Down Gym—it’s free!
Make sure to bring this sheet. Appointments are best.

Q2. Myers-Briggs Personality Test online
Project 1 Instructions
This project requires that you complete the Myers-Briggs Personality Test online, and then complete Steps 1 and 2 (see below). Read all of the instructions for this assignment before beginning any of your work.
Step 1
1. Open the following website to complete the assessment: Jung Typology Test.
2. Once complete, click on “Score it” to retrieve your four-letter type.
3. Next, go to The Four Temperaments and investigate the various buttons for descriptions of your Type and data on relationships, careers, etc.
4. Using The Four Temperaments link, explore Keirsey’s Temperaments as well. Go back to the Jung Typology test site to explore the Sixteen Personality Types using the tabs at the top to locate the description of your type. You may also research beyond these suggested links as long as you cite them properly.
5. Once there, click on links for The Four Preferences, Keirsey’s Temperaments, and Overview of the Sixteen Personality Types to locate the description of your type.
6. This personality test will reveal your 4-letter type and your 2-letter temperament. Discuss the validity of each letter of your type and temperament. Provide your statistical/percentage results for comparison of letters within your discussion. Any adverse personal opinions on the assessment tools must be respectful and scholarly with supportive research.
7. Include a separate section for each letter of your personality type, as well as a section for discussing how the different aspects of your personality (represented by the letters) work together. For example, if you scored with the letter “I,” then that letter with your type will be a heading: I-Introverted.
• You must have separate sub-headings for each section.
• Give specific examples from your life—especially your work life—and discuss the weaknesses of your personality type as well. Refer to the Presentation: “Lesson 1–A Worldview Perspective on Organizational Behavior,” found in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder.
Step 2
1. Apply the Type Talk at Work textbook, which focuses on how various personality types relate at work. The book must be evident within the discussion, not simply cited, with specific, applied topics.
2. Using the Type Talk at Work textbook as your guide, discuss the things you have learned about yourself that will help you understand your organization and your role within it. In a new section in your paper (labeled Step 2), answer the following questions with specific correlation to the book:
• In general, what have you learned from these personality tests about organizational behavior that will help you be a better employee, coworker, and/or manager?
• In particular, what have you learned about yourself from this personality test that will help you be a better employee, coworker, and/or manager? Provide specific examples.
Formatting
1. Use current APA format for every element of the paper. Be sure to include the current APA-formatted cover page, abstract, and reference page. Refer to your APA manual for help or this site for assistance: https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/18/
2. Write in first person—this is allowed due to the personal nature of the assignment.
3. To facilitate the instructor’s grading of these assignments, you must have major headings for Steps 1 and 2. Additionally, under the major heading of Step 1, you must have subheadings for each separate letter of your Meyers-Briggs type. There must also be a subheading describing your entire Meyers-Briggs personality to round out the discussion with your Temperament. You will need a total of 5 subheadings for Step 1.
4. The exact number of paragraphs that you include in each section is your decision; your instructor will not be grading you on how many paragraphs you used per section, but rather the extent to which you specifically addressed each of the areas above.
5. The minimum of 6 required pages of content does not include the title page, abstract page, or reference page. Those must be counted as additional pages. You will likely find that it will be difficult to address all of these things in only 6 pages, but that constraint is part of the exercise itself. Learning to write succinctly and efficiently will improve your communication skills, regardless of the setting. Because you only have 6 pages to discuss all these components, be concise.
6. Be sure to double-space, using Times New Roman 12-point font only; use 1-inch margins, and avoid bold font (except for headlines, per current APA format), underlining, and contractions.
7. The reference page must include a minimum of the 5 following references in current APA format (all sources must be evident within the paper and less than 5 years old):
• Presentation: Lesson 1 – A Worldview Perspective on Organizational Behavior (in Module/Week 1),
• Type Talk at Work textbook,
• Organizational Behavior textbook,
• Jung Typology Test, and
• www.personalitypage.com.
Note: For further questions regarding current APA format, visit Liberty University’s Online Writing Center.
Submit Project 1 to the appropriately labeled SafeAssign link first to provide your percentage of originality. Then submit Project 1 to the appropriate link for grading by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 2. Both submission steps must be completed in order to receive full points.

Q3. PSYC 255 B-07 LUO Quiz 7
1. The general form of a regression equation is _____. – Y = a + bX
2. Which of the following statements is true about effect size? – It is a statistic that describes how strongly variables are related to one another. –
Which of the following is a measure of central tendency? – Median

Q4. SPSS CUMULATIVE ASSESSMENT
The following five research questions can be answered using one of the eight tests you have learned this term, including: independent-samples t-test, paired-samples t-test, one-way ANOVA, two-factor ANOVA for independent measures, Pearson correlation coefficient, linear regression, the chi-square test for goodness of fit, and the chi-square test for independence. Note that this means that three tests will not be used. Use the information in the tables to construct your SPSS data file, just as you have been doing in each homework assignment. There is only 1 correct choice of analysis for each question. Remember to account for whether the test is 1-tailed or 2-tailed. The assessment is open-book/open-notes.
Your answer must include: A) SPSS output, and B) Results section in current APA style with the appropriate graph included as an APA-style figure.
For ANOVA problems (if applicable): Report statistical findings and make statements for all main effects and interaction effects. Use Tukey’s test for any analyses requiring post hoc tests.

SPSS CUMULATIVE ASSESSMENT
80 POINTS
The following five research questions can be answered using one of the eight tests you have learned this term, including: independent-samples t-test, paired-samples t-test, one-way ANOVA, two-factor ANOVA for independent measures, Pearson correlation coefficient, linear regression, the chi-square test for goodness of fit, and the chi-square test for independence. Note that this means that three tests will not be used. Use the information in the tables to construct your SPSS data file, just as you have been doing in each homework assignment. There is only 1 correct choice of analysis for each question. Remember to account for whether the test is 1-tailed or 2-tailed. The assessment is open-book/open-notes.
Your answer must include: A) SPSS output, and B) Results section in current APA style with the appropriate graph included as an APA-style figure.
For ANOVA problems (if applicable): Report statistical findings and make statements for all main effects and interaction effects. Use Tukey’s test for any analyses requiring post hoc tests.

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 8.

ASSESSMENT BEGINS ON NEXT PAGE

Pain before
treatment Pain after
treatment
9
5
6
4
3
10
9
9
7
5
2
5
8
3
6
7 8
6
4
3
3
8
6
7
8
4
4
4
5
5
3
8

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

2. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Visual Attention Test Scores Number of Errors in Multitasking
3 25
8 18
9 18
4 26
15 6
6 19
18 3
17 4
19 6
6 16
5 14
20 2
17 5
5 23

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

3. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Region

Political
Party Urban Rural
Republican 16
32
29
18
18 19
28
29
37
26
Democrat 35
36
27
39
22 24
19
14
26
30
Libertarian 12
16
10
27
19 9
13
7
25
12
Independent 27
17
23
21
12 15
16
26
25
13

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

4. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Hours Spent in After-School Programs Number of Arrests After Age 17
3 2
41 1
68 1
29 0
7 5
12 4
121 0
54 1
19 3
134 0
106 1
67 1
25 3
73 1
38 4
110 0
31 3

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

5. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Alcohol Opioids Cocaine/
Crack Cocaine

8

10
5

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

6. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Q5. SPSS Homework 7- help!!
Need help ASAP!!! I cannot afford much, so please work with me. Thank you in advance.
SPSS HOMEWORK 7
40 POINTS

Less likely to support No change More likely to support

25
12
9

7. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)

8. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your bar chart as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE

Morning Afternoon TOTAL
Engineering
3 7 10
Psychology
6 4 10
Business
5 5 10
TOTAL
14 16 30

1. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)

2. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your clustered bar chart as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 7.

Q6. Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
50 answers

Q7. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
50 answers

Result A+

Q8. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3

Q9. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
50 questions with correct answers

Q10. PSYC2012 – PSYCHOLOGY: AN EVIDENCE-BASED APPROACH 2
PSYC2012 – PSYCHOLOGY: AN EVIDENCE-BASED APPROACH 2
ASSESSMENT 2: Data Analysis Assignment
You have been provided with the data for this assignment as an SPSS file. The data file has been provided with generic variable names (V1, V2, etc.), which you should change. You will need to provide more detailed VARIABLE LABELS and VALUE LABELS in the data file.
The hypothetical study examines the relationship between body mass index (BMI), sex, and different measures of response inhibition, delay of gratification, and positive/negative affect. The researchers recruited 120 adults and recorded their sex (V1: 1 = female; 2 = male) and BMI (V2: 1 = underweight; 2 = normal; 3 = overweight). Participants reported their level of hunger (V3) – at the start of the study – on a Likert scale ranging from 1 = “not hungry at all” to 9 = “extremely hungry”.
Participants then completed a range of self-report measures:
• Kirby Monetary Choice Questionnaire: 27 items, each presenting two choices: either an immediate reward (e.g., “$55 today”) or a larger delayed reward (e.g., “$75 in 61 days”). The higher the overall score (V4), the more likely is the person to choose the smaller, immediate rewards.
• Brief Sensation Seeking Scale: 8 items, scored on a Likert scale from 1 = “strongly disagree” to 5 = “strongly agree”. Example item: “I like wild parties”. The higher the overall score (V5), the more likely is the person to seek novel and stimulating experiences.
• The Tightwad-Spendthrift Scale: 4 items, scored using either a 1-11 (item no.1) or 1-5 (items 2-4) ratings. The higher the score (V8), the more difficultly people have in controlling their spending. Tightwads (i.e., those with low scores), on the other hand, tend to become anxious and experience pain when they have to spend money.
• The Positive and Negative Affect Schedule – Expanded form (PANAS-X): Participants are presented with a list of 60 adjectives (e.g., confident, joyful, upset, angry), and are asked to indicate the degree to which they feel each of these positive and negative emotional states in general. Items are scored on a Likert scale ranging from 1 = “very slightly or not at all” to 5 = “extremely”. V9 includes positive and V10 negative affect scores. High scores on V9 and V10 represent high levels of positive and negative affect, respectively.

ASIANS STUDIES
Q1. Teacher account
Teacher account registering i have student account but i want to teacher account

Q2. Creating a Compelling Vision Leaders
3: Creating a Compelling Vision
Leaders today must be able to create a compelling vision for the organization. They also must be able to create an aligned strategy and then execute it. Visions have two parts, the envisioned future and the core values that support that vision of the future. The ability to create a compelling vision is the primary distinction between leadership and management. Leaders need to create a vision that will frame the decisions and behavior of the organization and keep it focused on the future while also delivering on the short-term goals.
To learn more about organizational vision statements, do an Internet search and review various vision statements.
In this assignment, you will consider yourself as a leader of an organization and write a vision statement and supporting values statement.
Select an organization of choice. This could be an organization that you are familiar with, or a fictitious organization. Then, respond to the following:
Provide the name and description of the organization. In the description, be sure to include the purpose of the organization, the products or services it provides, and the description of its customer base. Describe the core values of the organization. Why are these specific values important to the organization? Describe the benefits and purpose for an organizational vision statement. Develop a vision statement for this organization. When developing a vision statement, be mindful of the module readings and lecture materials. In the vision statement, be sure to communicate the future goals and aspirations of the organization. Once you have developed the vision statement, describe how you would communicate the statement to the organizational stakeholders, that is, the owners, employees, vendors, and customers. How would you incorporate the communication of the vision into the new employee on-boarding and ongoing training? Write your response in approximately 3–5 pages in Microsoft Word. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.

Q3. Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper
Research Paper – Topic Instructions
Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper. The topic that you choose must address a particular element of a social problem (e.g., drug addiction and pregnancy). For this paper, a good topic will:
• Have plenty of available scholarly research that you can access.
• Be specific enough to be described in detail.
• Allow you to discuss the different roles of the church, the family, and the community with ample examples and support for each area.
• Allow you to incorporate biblical examples in your paper.
When choosing your research topic, be sure to keep in mind that you will need plenty of available scholarly research for your final paper. You might wish to explore the Liberty University Online Library databases for APA journal articles and/or books. In addition, research articles must have been published within the last 7 years. Government and University sites for some topics can additionally be used, as these are considered primary resources. Be sure to avoid Wikipedia, which is a secondary resource.
Research Paper – Topic Instructions
Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper. The topic that you choose must address a particular element of a social problem (e.g., drug addiction and pregnancy). For this paper, a good topic will:
• Have plenty of available scholarly research that you can access.
• Be specific enough to be described in detail.
• Allow you to discuss the different roles of the church, the family, and the community with ample examples and support for each area.
• Allow you to incorporate biblical examples in your paper.
When choosing your research topic, be sure to keep in mind that you will need plenty of available scholarly research for your final paper. You might wish to explore the Liberty University Online Library databases for APA journal articles and/or books. In addition, research articles must have been published within the last 7 years. Government and University sites for some topics can additionally be used, as these are considered primary resources. Be sure to avoid Wikipedia, which is a secondary resource.

Q4. Assignment 1 Discussion Effective P
Assignment 1 Discussion Effective Punishment One aspect of raising healthy children is understanding how to best provide correction when they make poor choices or behave in unacceptable ways. Over the years, there has been much debate over the most effective form of punishment for children. As part of this debate, you have to take into consideration operant conditioning as this is the basis for how effective correction works. Operant conditioning should be considered when choosing how to best administer corrective actions whether the parents choose to use corporal punishment, time outs, or loss of privileges.
• Discuss the differences between negative and positive punishment. What are the factors that make punishment effective?
• Discuss the effectiveness of corporal punishment and elaborate upon when you think it should be used.
• Discuss how culture affects the type of punishment used.
• Give reasons in support of your responses based on your readings and personal experiences.
Write your initial response in 1-2 paragraphs. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.

• Have your peers accurately identified the differences between negative and positive punishment? Explain your answer.
• Can you suggest any other factors that make punishment effective? If so, state them.

Q5. HLT 310 V Healing Hospital A Da
(Benchmark Assignment) HLT 310 V Healing Hospital: A Daring Paradigm Consider how the paradigm of a healing hospital might influence your philosophy of caregiving Describe the components of a healing hospital and their relationship to spirituality.
1. What are the challenges of creating a healing environment in light of the barriers and complexities of the hospital environment?
2. Include biblical aspects that support the concept of a healing hospital.
Prepare this assignment according to the APA guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.

Q6. Titan Mining Corporation has 10.0 mill
Titan Mining Corporation has 10.0 million shares of common stock outstanding, 440,000 shares of 4 percent preferred stock outstanding, and 230,000 8.8 percent semiannual bonds outstanding, par value $1,000 each. The common stock currently sells for $48 per share and has a beta of 1.50, the preferred stock currently sells for $98 per share, and the bonds have 10 years to maturity and sell for 115 percent of par. The market risk premium is 8.8 percent, T-bills are yielding 5 percent, and Titan Mining’s tax rate is 40 percent.

a.
What is the firm’s market value capital structure? (Round your answers to 4 decimal places. (e.g., 32.1616))

Market value
Debt
Preferred stock
Equity

b.
If Titan Mining is evaluating a new investment project that has the same risk as the firm’s typical project, what rate should the firm use to discount the project’s cash flows? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your final answer to 2 decimal places. (e.g., 32.16))
Q7. Read Menendez v. ONiell – Cheeseman Read Smith v. Van Gorkom – Cheeseman text page 348-349.
Unit VI

Question 1
• Read the Call-of-the-Question carefully, and follow the instructions for each subject. Prepare four Briefing Papers using the APA Format for Research Papers, and upload them as one document for responses.
• Briefing Paper 1: Critical Legal Thinking
Instructions:
Read Menendez v. ONiell – Cheeseman text page 331-332.
Respond to the three Case Questions found in Cheeseman Text page 332.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions as noted in the Critical Legal Thinking, Ethics, and Contemporary Business questions. Argue both sides of all issues.

• Briefing Paper 2: Law Case with Answers
Instructions:
Read Smith v. Van Gorkom – Cheeseman text page 348-349.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on what effect should the fact that Jerome W. Van Gorkom owned 75,000 shares of Trans Union ($55.00 x 75,000 = $4,125,000.00).
Provide convincing arguments for both sides of your recommendations.

• Briefing Paper 3: Critical Legal Thinking Cases
Instructions:
Read Sections 16.6 Dividends (p. 350); 17.5 Section 10(b) (p. 371); 26.3 Forum-Selection Clause; (p. 550); and 16.3 Corporation (p. 349-350).
Check the decisions of the highest appellate courts, if a case is cited, for each fact pattern.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on whether each of the four subjects affect business in the United States and if so, provide the worst and best case scenarios.

• Briefing Paper 4: Ethics Case
Instructions:
Read Section 16.9 Ethics – Cheeseman text page 351.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on the 3 questions found at the end of Section 16.9. Argue both sides of all issues.

Q8. Often, there can be conflict between c
For this week’s second assignment, you will write a one page essay about role conflict. Be sure to address all prompts and cite your sources in APA format. This is worth 60 points, so be thorough and give your best effort.
Often, there can be conflict between competing or conflicting roles of police officers.What is role conflict What impact does role conflict among police officers have on police community relations?

Q9. COM 425 Week 1 Article Critique – Do

Article Critique – Does Communication Matter in ALL Fields?

Read the article, A tool kit for the real world. In this article, the author discusses the importance of communication skills within a field that many people may not believe strong communication skills are necessary. Write a paper about your thoughts on this article. In your paper, be sure to also address the following:
Argue for or against the necessity of strong communication skills in every type of organization.
• Discuss the type of organization that you want to work for in the future and why.
• Evaluate how having strong communication skills will help you within that field.

Please make sure to reference the article and at least one other article in your paper. This can be your textbook, one of the recommended articles, or another article that you have located.

Q10. MKT 500 Week 6 Discussion From th
From the scenario, evaluate the capacity of the most common distribution channels available for the new product launch to provide consumers with easier access to the product. Speculate on the extent to which Golds Reling, Inc. could use each channel to meet profit goals. Choose the most beneficial distribution strategies, and suggest two (2) ways in which this selection could potentially affect consumer adoption of the new product. Provide a rationale for your response.

EDUCATION.
Q1. American Public University SEJPME Final Exam 100% Result
American Public University SEJPME Final Exam
100% Result
SEJPME Final Exam | Complete Solution | Scored 100%
1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially atomic
battlefield? [objective81]
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
tentative landings
fleet dispersion

2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper Fideles”
“Semper Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”

3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32)
mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard

4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council?
[objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security

5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact

6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces

7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan

8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law

9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)

10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness

11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False

12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard?
[objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security

13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False

14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the
following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination

15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training

16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True

17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that
apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night

18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve
Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False

19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression

20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10

21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and
then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True

23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline,
flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations

25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed,
and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine

26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the
commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams.
[objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors

27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton

28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the
Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war

29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security

30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force development
force planning
force training
doctrine

31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.

32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective

33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join
Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S.
embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State.
[objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)

34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving
organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving
authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all
aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the
command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)

35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess?
[objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment

36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which
of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find
themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable

38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds
to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships

39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part
of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent

40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to
collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not
normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning
the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance

41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____
to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task
Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more
than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager

42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know
what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint
intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support
of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate

43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars

44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank

45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes:
(Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military

46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war

47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False

48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command

49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams

50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and
concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective

1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30

2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical

3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization

4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True

5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service

6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a
person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each
other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice

7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions

8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture

9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True

10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian
assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control

11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan

12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False

13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches

14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the
Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include
policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff

15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD

16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False

17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of
multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability

18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7

19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)

20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to
U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force

22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence

23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence

24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces

25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises

26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver
Pre Test
Here is the test result.Correct answers are shown by * next to the choice or given below the question.
The highlighted questions are the questions you have missed.
Remediation Accessed shows whether you accessed those links.’N’ represents links not visited and ‘Y’
represents visited links.
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contains 50 Questions

1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment (correct)
3rd Combat Aviation Brigade

2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information (correct)
economics (correct)
diplomacy (correct)
the military (correct)

3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True (correct)

4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force (correct)
subordinate unified command

5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____
and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences
– both positive and negative.
critically think about (correct)
acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts

6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational (correct)
intermediate

7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe (correct)
maritime safety (correct)
maritime security (correct)

8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare (correct)
a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17 (correct)
clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation

9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy (correct)

10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members (correct)
media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints

11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service (correct)
Life-Saving Service (correct)
Bureau of Navigation

12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True (correct)
False

13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war (correct)
when directed by the President (correct)

14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea” (correct)
Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy

15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process (correct)

16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system (correct)
initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system

17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct (correct)
network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct

18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve (correct)

19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent (correct)
60 percent
40 percent
30 percent

20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine (correct)
Law of warfare

21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities (correct)
major combat operations
forcible entry operations

22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects (correct)
assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction

23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True (correct)
False

24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador (correct)
Secretary of State

25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage (correct)

26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience (correct)
opposition
vulnerability
indifference

27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council (correct)
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council

28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True (correct)
False

29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem (correct)

30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment (correct)
beachhead assault

31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort (correct)
command and control authority
unity of command

32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess (correct)
as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done

33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True (correct)
False

34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence (correct)
prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line

35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit (correct)
effort
workload

36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability (correct)

37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF) (correct)
Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)

38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True (correct)

39) Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought
onboard to combat the rat population, the practice continued to help keep the crew’s morale high.
False
True (correct)

40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically.
False
True (correct)

41) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you
are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning,
Sir,” in the case of an officer.
False
True (correct)

42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA) (correct)
Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)

43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries (correct)
cyberspace operations
major combat operations (correct)
humanitarian assistance (correct)

44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True (correct)

45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II (correct)
Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War

46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation (correct)
situational awareness
influence

47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage (correct)
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests

48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic (correct)
ill-prepared
segregated

49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True (correct)

50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being. (correct)
Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”
100% Result

Q2. BSC2347 Module 3 Quiz 2018
Question 1
The cardiac conduction system causes the right atrium and right ventricle of the heart to contract at the same time, and then the left atrium and left ventricle contract at that same time?

Q3. Synthesis Essay WRTG 394
Synthesis Essay WRTG 394
Synthesis Essay WRTG 394
Synthesis Essay WRTG 394

Q4. CIS 498 Project Deliverable 3: Database and Programming Design| A+ work

CIS 498
Project Deliverable 3: Database and Programming Design
Due Week 6 and worth 150 points

This assignment consists of two (2) sections: a design document and a revised Gantt chart or project plan. You must submit both sections as separate files for the completion of this assignment. Label each file name according to the section of the assignment for which it is written. Additionally, you may create and / or assume all necessary assumptions needed for the completion of this assignment.
One (1) of the main functions of any business is to transform data into information. The use of relational databases has gained recognition as a standard for organizations and business transactions. A quality database design makes the flow of data seamless. The database schema is the foundation of the relational database. The schema defines the tables, fields, relationships, views, indexes, and other elements. The schema should be created by envisioning the business, processes, and workflow of the company.

Section 1: Design Document
1. Write a five to ten (5-10) page design document in which you:
a. Create a database schema that supports the company’s business and processes.
b. Explain and support the database schema with relevant arguments that support the rationale for the structure. Note: The minimum requirement for the schema should entail the tables, fields, relationships, views, and indexes.
c. Create database tables with appropriate field-naming conventions. Then, identify primary keys and foreign keys, and explain how referential integrity will be achieved.
d. Normalize the database tables to third normal form (3NF).
e. Create an Entity-Relationship (E-R) Diagram through the use of graphical tools in Microsoft Visio or an open source alternative such as Dia. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length but must be included in the design document appendix.
f. Explain your rationale behind the design of your E-R Diagram.
g. Create a Data Flow Diagram (DFD) through the use of graphical tools in Microsoft Visio or an open source alternative such as Dia. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length but must be included in the design document appendix.
h. Explain your rationale behind the design of your DFD.
i. Create at least two (2) sample queries that will support the organizational reporting needs.
j. Create at least two (2) screen layouts that illustrate the interface that organizational users will utilize.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
• Include charts or diagrams created in MS Visio or Dia as an appendix of the design document. All references to these diagrams must be included in the body of the design document.

Section 2: Revised Gantt Chart / Project Plan
Use Microsoft Project or an open source alternative, such as Open Project, to:
2. Update the Gantt chart or project plan (summary and detail) template, from Project Deliverable 2: Business Requirements, with all the project tasks.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Describe the various integrative functions and processes within the information systems area, including databases, systems analysis, security, networking, computer infrastructure, human computer interaction, and Web design.
• Demonstrate the ability to evaluate organizational issues with integrative technological solutions.
• Apply integrative information technology solutions with project management tools to solve business problems.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in information technology.
• Write clearly and concisely about strategic issues and practices in the information technology domain using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.

Q5. Disability exceptionality book Human Exceptionality: School, Community, and Family
M4 Discussion 2: Special Schools
Special Schools
In Module 4, you read about the different types of disabilities: language and speech disorders, developmental disabilities, learning disabilities, and Megan’s story on dyslexia. (Text book chapters and Module 4’s e-book: Cognitive and Communicative Exceptionalities).
Based on the types of disabilities as well as services and support needed by students with multiple disabilities, do you think special schools for students with disabilities can be justified? Why or why not? Please pick one of the disabilities discussed in the Module 4’s e-book: Cognitive and Communicative Exceptionalities, and provide an example of why or why not, a special school can be justified.

REQUIREMENTS
Disability exceptionality book Human Exceptionality: School, Community, and Family

Q6. Social Workers and Human Services degreed professionals as HeadStart Teachers
Please improve and finish the attached rational paper.
Show how we can use Human Services and Social Work Degrees as a related degree to Early Childhood Education Degree that is required by the HeadStart Performance Standards found on https://eclkc.ohs.acf.hhs.gov/policy/45-cfr-chap-xiii as a requirement for Teachers hired in HeadStart Classrooms.
Attached is another paper titled Early Childhood Education and Care as a Social Work Issue. It can be used as another reference if needed.

 

Social Workers and Human Services degreed professionals as HeadStart Teachers and why they are desperately needed

This rationale will show the need for Social Work and Human Services educated Teachers in the Head Start Primary Teachers role, and the positive effect it has on the children attending Head Start and their families. This will also show why social work and human services degreed teachers contribute to early childhood education classrooms.
Children that attend Head Start are income base selected. The children must be below the state poverty level to be accepted. The 2018 poverty guidelines for Head Start for a family of four is $25,100. The Santa Fe New Mexican reported that the N.M. poverty rate is down but is still among the worst in the U.S. The New Mexico population is 2,044,187 and the number in Poverty is 401,755. Almost 25% of the State is below the poverty line.
Head Start has over 100 children enrolled in Carlsbad, Artesia, Hagerman, Dexter, Roswell and Loving. At least 90% of these children come from poverty and have been exposed to social exclusion and inequality as do their family. Teachers with a Social Work or Human Services Degree have the knowledge to help with parental problems, emotional and behavioral problems, needed child protection, and working with other agencies or within the agency to help with other issues. Social work and Human Services educated teachers are especially needed in Head Start schools because of the economic status that the Head Start children live in.
Social workers and human service professionals usually help high school drop outs, teen parents, pregnant teens, prisoners or those just released into society and public recipients. Although help is needed in these areas, early prevention is a tool used to curb these situations and minimize the occurrences. Therefore, social workers and human service professionals should be employed in fields of practice of early childhood education and care such as Head Start, an organized care program. “Given the duties that early childhood education and care workers are charged with, “it becomes clear that staff in many settings need knowledge of child psychology, learning theory, adult education and social work.” However, the Head Start performance standards require a Teacher have an AA in Early Childhood Education or related degree. Southeast NM Community Action Corporation (SNMCAC) believes that social work and human services degreed professionals have a related degree based on these facts:
1. Social workers or Human Services degreed professional can add a unique perspective to the effects that Early childhood Education needs to have on children living in poverty and can contribute to practice, policy, and research related to early childhood education and care.
2. Head Start helps young children from low-income families prepare to succeed in school through local programs and promote children’s development through services that support early learning, health, and family well-being.
3. Head Start is a US Dept of Health and Human Services program for early childhood education, health, and nutrition for low income children and their families.
4. Human Services and Social Work degreed professionals too often deal with clients and program at the wrong end of the educational timeline.
5. Head Start programs are staffed by pre-professional and not entirely with employees with even a BA. Social workers with the additional

social workers are or should be employed in various settings and fields of practice affected by early childhood education and care itself or arising from it. Even with less ‘‘problematic’’ client populations, the changing roles of mothers and fathers and the need for substitute care as parents are in the workforce makes early childhood education and care a concern for our clients.

Among the poorest
Poverty rate
Percent of state population below poverty line in 2015:
50) Mississippi: 22
49) New Mexico: 20.4
48) Louisiana: 19.6
47) Arkansas: 19.1
46) Kentucky: 18.5
45) Alabama: 18.5
United States: 14.7
Child poverty rate
50) Mississippi: 31.3
49) New Mexico: 28.6
48) Louisiana: 28.4
47) Arkansas: 27.2
46) Alabama: 26.6
Income growth
From 2014 to 2015:
50) New Jersey: 0.3 percent
49) Idaho: 0.8
48) New Mexico: 1.2
U.S. average: 3.8
Source: U.S. Census Bureau

http://www.santafenewmexican.com/news/local_news/n-m-poverty-rate-down-but-is-still-among-worst/article_5da80fa0-d4cd-5fe7-b0c8-3e05f44a7daf.html pulled 11/27/2018

New Mexico Report – 2018


2018 Poverty Guidelines for the 48 Contiguous States and the District of Columbia
Early Childhood Education and Care as a Social Work Issue
Kahn, Jessica M.Child & Adolescent Social Work Journal: C & A; New York Vol. 31, Iss. 5, (Oct 2014): 419-433. DOI:10.1007/s10560-014-0332-x https://search-proquest-com.contentproxy.phoenix.edu/docview/756481664?accountid=134061&pq-origsite=summon
Retrieved 11/28/18

Q7. Learning Activity 3 EDUC 606

Learning Activity 3 Student Instructions
This learning activity consists of a variety of problems from Chapters 13–15. Spaces for answers are provided; please type your answers directly in the document. Consider highlighting, starring*, or changing the font color of answers for ease of instructor grading.
1. (20 Pts, 1 Pt each). Calculate the mean, median, mode, standard deviation, and range for the following sets of measurements (fill out the table):
a. 13, 7, 6, 6, 3
b. 14, 12, 11, 10, 8
c. 65, 65, 65, 65, 65
d. 12, 10, 9, 8, 6, 51
2. (20 Pts, 5 pts each) Answer the following questions.
a. Why is the SD in (d) so large compared to the SD in (b)?
b. Why is the mean so much higher in (d) than in (b)?
c. Why is the median relatively unaffected?
d. Which measure of central tendency best represents the set of scores in (d)? Why?
3. (24 pts, 2 pts each) Fill in the blanks on the table with the appropriate raw scores, z-scores, T-scores, and approximate percentile ranks. You may refer to the distribution curve below.
4. (20 pts, 2 pts each) The Graduate Record Exam (GRE) has a combined verbal and quantitative mean of 1000 and a standard deviation of 200. Scores range from 200 to 1600 and are approximately normally distributed. For each of the following problems:
(a) Indicate the percentage or score called for by the problem.
(b) Select the appropriate distribution curve (from below) that relates to the problem.
a. What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 800? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
b. Above what score do the top 6.68% of the test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
c. Above what score do 84.13% of the test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
d. What percentage of the persons who take the test score above 1168? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
e. What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 1200? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
5. (16 pts, varied) Refer to the following data and scatterplots to respond to questions 5a-5f.

Individual
Age
Score on Popular Music Test
Figure A represents a scatterplot constructed from the data; Figure B represents a regression line drawn through the scatterplot that “fits” the data points reasonably well; Figure C represents an ellipse drawn around the data points.

a. (2 pts.) Estimate the direction of the correlation:

b. (2 pts.) Estimate the strength of the correlation coefficient:

Consider Figure D (below).
c. (2 pts.) Using only the data points associated with age of 50 and above; what effect does this have on the direction and strength of the correlation coefficient?
d. (4 pts.) Explain why this is the case.
e. (2 pts.) Explain in words what a truncated scatterplot means.
f. (4 pts.) Identify how likely it is that a causal relationship has been indicated.

Q8. Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 7 complete answers A+

BIBL 104 – Quiz 7

• Question 1

In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”

• Question 2

According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.

• Question 3

In Philippians, Paul asserts that he is pursing Christ as passionately as a runner would
pursue the goal and prize of winning a race.

• Question 4

In Galatians Paul says the Galatian Christians have gone to a completely different kind
of gospel.

• Question 5

In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He makes this conclusion by allegorically linking Christians to Sarah rather than ___________.

• Question 6

The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with
different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.

• Question 7

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the
idea that the minister, in response, endures many hardships in order not to discredit the ministry.

• Question 8

1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.

• Question 9

Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.

• Question 10

According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.

• Question 11

In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.

• Question 12

Paul uses the phrase “in Christ” 170 times in his writings to refer to church-age
believers to whom the mystery of the God’s grace was already revealed.

• Question 13

__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.

• Question 14

One of Paul’s principal achievement was that he was the main leader in extending the
church into Asia Minor and Greece, becoming known as the premier apostle to the Gentiles.

• Question 15

2 Timothy was written by Paul to Timothy just before Paul’s martyrdom.

• Question 16

In Galatians, Paul exhorts his readers to “carry one another’s burdens” but at the same
time exhorts each to “carry his own load.”

• Question 17

In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.

• Question 18

The task that Paul gives Titus is to appoint elders and reprove the rebellious.

• Question 19

Paul tells Timothy in 2 Timothy to “preach the word.” It’s not Timothy’s opinion that
he is to preach; it’s what God commands.

• Question 20

In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of

• Question 21

In First Corinthians, Paul encouraged these believers to examine their attitudes before
partaking in this ordinance of the church.

• Question 22

According to Paul in Romans, the presence of the indwelling Holy Spirit has set
believers free from the law and the rule of sin and death.

• Question 23

The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul
was seeking to correct.

• Question 24

In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.

• Question 25

Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is
perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.

• Question 26

In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to

• Question 27

Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good
Christian behavior.

• Question 28

In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.

• Question 29

According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary
death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.

• Question 30

1 Thessalonians is filled with Old Testament quotations as Paul seeks to answer some
of the questions currently troubling the believers at Thessalonica.

• Question 31

According to Paul in Colossians, Christ has made the Father knowable, available, and
approachable to all believers at all times.

• Question 32

In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.

• Question 33

The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.

• Question 34

In First Corinthians, Paul asserted that the Corinthians were operating as immature,
baby Christians, still using the wisdom of the world and this resulted in divisions among them.

• Question 35

In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.

• Question 36

According to Paul in Galatians, the law cannot give life, but it does have the purpose of
revealing our sinful character before God.

• Question 37

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of

• Question 38

The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.

• Question 39

According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and
gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.

• Question 40

In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.

• Question 41

While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s
apostolic authority.

• Question 42

In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until
they had corrected their three current issues.

• Question 43

_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.

• Question 44

Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after
ministering in Ephesus.

• Question 45

In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”

• Question 46

According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.

• Question 47

Throughout 2 Corinthians Paul includes the story of _____________.

• Question 48

In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.

• Question 49

Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the

• Question 50

The church at Corinth was the ideal model for a first-century apostolic church.

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

The church in Rome probably consisted of at least five household churches rather than

one large church.

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Colossians, Christ has made the Father knowable, available, and

approachable to all believers at all times.

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers

who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.

Question 5

0 out of 1 points

In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He makes this conclusion by allegorically linking Christians to Sarah rather than ___________.

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with

different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

Spiritual warfare takes place both in heaven and on earth. Because believers have

victory in Christ in heaven, they should and can have victory on this earth. So, Paul exhorts believers in Ephesians to prepare for spiritual battle on this earth.

Question 8

0 out of 1 points

In _______________, Paul cites an early Christian hymn in order to explain the preeminence

of Christ.

Question 9

0 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in

and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for

both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary

death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

In Philemon, Paul makes himself personally responsible for the amount stolen by

Onesimus. He tells Philemon to “Charge that to my account.”

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

In Ephesians, Paul uses the figure of a temple to describe the church as a spiritual

building in which all the different elements are welded together into a collective unity.

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church

ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s letters to Timothy and Titus are collectively known as the Pastoral Epistles.

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the

resurrection of believers.

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of

love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.

Question 19

0 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they

should have dealt with this sin problem.

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

The church at Corinth was the ideal model for a first-century apostolic church.

Question 22

0 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s

righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.

Question 23

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and

gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s hope in Philippians was to offer practical encouragements to his friends at

Philippi so they would not be tempted to doubt God’s faithfulness even in dire circumstances.

Question 25

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue

Question 26

0 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of

Question 27

0 out of 1 points

In Philippians, Paul asserts that he is pursing Christ as passionately as a runner would

pursue the goal and prize of winning a race.

Question 28

0 out of 1 points

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the

idea that the minister accepts his weakness because of the opportunities it affords.

Question 29

0 out of 1 points

The task that Paul gives Titus is to appoint elders and reprove the rebellious.

Question 30

1 out of 1 points

__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

Paul removed any obstacle Timothy might have had to ministry among Jews by

having the young man circumcised.

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

One of Paul’s principal achievement was that he was the main leader in extending the

church into Asia Minor and Greece, becoming known as the premier apostle to the Gentiles.

Question 33

0 out of 1 points

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the

idea that knowing the fear of God moves the minister to persuade unsaved people to become Christians.

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul

was seeking to correct.

Question 35

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is

that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He

breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.

Question 37

0 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 1 Thessalonians that because of the promise

of the rapture, believers will not suffer the wrath of the Day of the Lord.

Question 38

0 out of 1 points

Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are

“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s epistle to the Romans is not Paul’s most extensive theological writing. That claim

belongs to Galatians – Paul’s epistle to the church in Galatia.

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is

perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.

Question 41

1 out of 1 points

Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the

Question 42

1 out of 1 points

In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is

the Bridegroom.

Question 43

1 out of 1 points

While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s

apostolic authority.

Question 44

1 out of 1 points

In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law

is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”

Question 45

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord

will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.

Question 46

0 out of 1 points

Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have

been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”

Question 47

0 out of 1 points

Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good

Christian behavior.

Question 48

1 out of 1 points

In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament

truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.

Question 49

0 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, to keep him from exalting himself, God gave him a thorn in

the flesh.

Question 50

1 out of 1 points

Paul tells the Philippians that they should live in unity, humility, and selflessness. He

then gives himself as the example for believers to follow when he claims, “follow me as I follow Christ.”

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s apostolic authority.

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the

idea that the minister, in response, endures many hardships in order not to discredit the ministry.

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

Spiritual warfare takes place both in heaven and on earth. Because believers have

victory in Christ in heaven, they should and can have victory on this earth. So, Paul exhorts believers in Ephesians to prepare for spiritual battle on this earth.

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

For Paul in Ephesians, the answer to unity is the fact that we are “in Christ” and all of us are members of “the body of Christ.”

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the idea that the ministry is an opportunity to display the glory of God.

Question 8

1 out of 1 points

Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the

Question 9

0 out of 1 points

In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

Paul reminds Titus that since people were saved “not by works of righteousness that

we had done, but according to His mercy” and justified by God’s grace, they should live a life of good works toward all men.

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of doctrine and the second section is a section on

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

In _______________, Paul cites an early Christian hymn in order to explain the preeminence

of Christ.

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

Paul wanted Timothy to see four generations of ministry duplication. The first

generation was Paul who preached the gospel. The second generation was Timothy who received the gospel from Paul. The third generations were the people converted when Timothy preached. The fourth generation includes the “others” who were taught by faithful men from the third generation.

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.

Question 19

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the

resurrection of believers.

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

Paul uses the phrase “in Christ” 170 times in his writings to refer to church-age believers to whom the mystery of the God’s grace was already revealed.
Question 22

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Galatians, the law cannot give life, but it does have the purpose of revealing our sinful character before God.

Question 23

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, the presence of the indwelling Holy Spirit has set believers free from the law and the rule of sin and death.

Question 25

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Timothy was probably converted to Christianity as a youth when Paul visited his home in Lystra on the first missionary journey with Barnabas.

Question 26

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of

Question 27

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s hope in Philippians was to offer practical encouragements to his friends at

Philippi so they would not be tempted to doubt God’s faithfulness even in dire circumstances.

Question 28

1 out of 1 points

__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church

ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.

Question 29

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and

God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.

Question 30
1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers

who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

In 1 Timothy Paul describes the qualifications of a bishop. He lists both jobs within the church that they must undertake as well as inner character they must possess.

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.

Question 33

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Galatians, Christ redeemed us by becoming a _________ for us when

He hung on the cross.

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good Christian behavior.

Question 35

1 out of 1 points

In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.

Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.

Question 37

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile culture.

Question 38
1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, ___________ is the most personal of all Paul’s letters as he

reveals his own heart for this church and his ministry in general.

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on

Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a piece of the Christian’s spiritual armor

Question 41

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.

Question 42

1 out of 1 points

In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own good works, with or without the law.

Question 43

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a piece of the Christian’s spiritual armor.

Question 44

0 out of 1 points

_______________ contains the earliest instructions for church leaders and orderly

arrangement of the local church.

Question 45

1 out of 1 points

In 1 Timothy Paul identified two acts of heresy: forbidding marriage and abstinence from food.

Question 46

1 out of 1 points

__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.

Question 47

1 out of 1 points

The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul

was seeking to correct.

Question 48

1 out of 1 points

The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.

Question 49

1 out of 1 points

The Galatian Christians were being influenced by Judaizers who would have Gentile believers circumcised and live by the law.

Question 50

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.

Q9. Chapter 19 Palliative Care and End-of-Life Care Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
Chapter 19 Palliative Care and End-of-Life Care

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Hospice care differs from palliative care in that:
A.
It is not covered by insurance
B.
Supports patients and families through both the dying and the bereavement process
C.
It cannot be provided in the nursing home
D.
The majority of those admitted to hospice die within 7 days

____ 2. Evidence reflects the primary obstacle to implementing palliative care in the long-term care setting include all of the following except:
A.
Inadequate communication between decision makers
B.
Failure to recognize futile treatments
C.
Lack of advance directives
D.
Lack of sufficient staff

____ 3. The most prevalent symptom in end-of-life care includes all of the following except:
A.
Lower extremity weakness
B.
Pain
C.
Dyspnea
D.
Delirium

____ 4. Pain at the end of life is most often due to all of the following except:
A.
Musculoskeletal disorders
B.
Headache
C.
Cancer pain
D.
Neuropathic pain

____ 5. The strongest level of evidence reflects the absolute contraindication for NSAID use exists with:
A.
Chronic kidney disease
B.
Peptic ulcer disease
C.
Heart disease
D.
Liver disease

____ 6. The drug specific for severe opioid-induced constipation is:
A.
Lactulose
B.
Ducolax
C.
Mineral oil
D.
Methylnaltrexone

____ 7. Pharmacological interventions for dyspnea include all of the following except:
A.
Antitussives
B.
Inhaled anesthetics
C.
Sedatives
D.
Anxiolytics

____ 8. Delirium is typically characterized by all of the following except:
A.
Inattention
B.
Hyperactive level of psychomotor activity
C.
Disorganized thinking
D.
Altered level of consciousness

____ 9. The first step in treating delirium is to:
A.
Give low-dose Haldol if the patient has psychosis
B.
Identify the cause
C.
Provide reality orientation
D.
Use side rails and/or wrist restraints to keep the patient safe

____ 10. The majority of patients enrolled in hospice care die:
A.
In a nursing home
B.
In the hospital
C.
In an inpatient hospice facility
D.
At home

____ 11. A drug that can be used to treat two very common symptoms in a dying patient (pain and dyspnea) is:
A.
Morphine
B.
Methadone
C.
Gabapentin
D.
Lorazepam

____ 12. The tasks of grieving include all of the following except:
A.
Acknowledge the reality of death
B.
Work through the pain of grief
C.
Begin to disengage
D.
Restructure relationships

____ 13. The best description of complicated grief is:
A.
Chronic, delayed, exaggerated, masked, or disenfranchised
B.
Experience of shock during notification of the death
C.
When grief is actually experienced before the death of a loved one
D.
A physical illness develops soon after death of a loved one

____ 14. All of the following statements are true about interventions in working with the bereaved except:
A.
Allow the active expression of grief
B.
There is strong evidence behind recommended interventions
C.
Staff attending memorial services support the family
D.
Provide both emotional and spiritual support

____ 15. The highest level of evidence to support interventions at the end of life is with:
A.
Opioids for pain control
B.
Hyocsyamine for respiratory secretions
C.
Stimulant laxatives for treating constipation
D.
Opioids for dyspnea

____ 16. The highest level of evidence with the use of adjuvant analgesics is with:
A.
Tricyclic antidepressants avoided due to high adverse events
B.
Therapeutic trials before discontinuing drugs
C.
Patient with fibromyalgia are candidates for adjuvant analgesics
D.
Neuropathic pain patients are candidates for adjuvant analgesia

Q10. Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers

Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s Gospel is the most universal Gospel because the good news about Jesus is for the whole world, not for the Jews only.

• Question 2

1 out of 1 points

Matthew gives special attention to the rejection of Jesus by the Jewish leaders.

• Question 3

1 out of 1 points

The New Testament consists of twenty-seven books that were written in Koine Greek or common Greek.

• Question 4

1 out of 1 points

The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

• Question 5

1 out of 1 points

The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.

• Question 6

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

• Question 7

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, the original audience for the Gospel of John seems to be Greek-speaking Jews who were living outside of Israel.

• Question 8

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

• Question 9

1 out of 1 points

According to early church tradition, Mark was a close disciple of James, the brother of Jesus. So, he heard James tell and retell the stories about Jesus everywhere they went.

• Question 10

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.

• Question 11

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.

• Question 12

1 out of 1 points

In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.

• Question 13

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _______ includes more personal details about Jesus than any other Gospel.

• Question 14

1 out of 1 points

Jesus first miracle was healing a man in Canaan who had leprosy.

• Question 15

0 out of 1 points

John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”

• Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?

• Question 17

1 out of 1 points

John’s portrait of Christ is that of

• Question 18

1 out of 1 points

The book of Hebrews belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

• Question 19

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s audience was familiar with Jewish customs and geography. Thus, he uses them frequently without providing further explanation.

• Question 20

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

• Question 21

1 out of 1 points

All of Jesus’ activity in Mark focus on His Judean ministry with the final week focused exclusively on activities in Jerusalem.

• Question 22

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.

• Question 23

0 out of 1 points

The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.

Selected Answer:
False

• Question 24

1 out of 1 points

John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.

• Question 25

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _________, the travel companion of Paul and Peter, writes for the Roman mind.

• Question 26

0 out of 1 points

The book of Acts ends with a final “update” as Paul awaits his trial before Caesar and the gospel message continues spreading as the church continues to grow.

• Question 27

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Luke’s Gospel puts a good deal of emphasis on prayer, reporting that Jesus prayed eleven times, much more than any other Gospel.

• Question 28

1 out of 1 points

John’s Gospel concludes by noting that while Jesus did many other things, no one could possibly write them all down. If anyone did, even the whole world could not contain all of the books that would have to be written.

• Question 29

1 out of 1 points

The New Testament begins with the first coming of Christ and ends with the promise of His Second Coming.

• Question 30

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

• Question 31

1 out of 1 points

The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.

• Question 32

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books is a General Epistle?

• Question 33

1 out of 1 points

The writer of the Gospel of John identifies himself only as “the disciple Jesus loved.”

• Question 34

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s purpose is to give “an orderly sequence” of the events about Christ’s birth, life, and sacrificial death followed by His resurrection and ascension back to heaven.

• Question 35

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books are Pauline Epistles?

• Question 36

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

• Question 37

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of __________ places an emphasis on the individual person.

• Question 38

1 out of 1 points

Jesus’ seven miraculous “signs” in the Gospel of John were intended to affirm Jesus’ message and confirm His claims.

• Question 39

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.

• Question 40

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books are General Epistles

• Question 41

0 out of 1 points

Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of

• Question 42

1 out of 1 points

Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”

• Question 43

1 out of 1 points

During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.

• Question 44

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.

• Question 45

1 out of 1 points

Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles of Jesus.

• Question 46

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.

• Question 47

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.

• Question 48

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.

• Question 49

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

• Question 50

1 out of 1 points

In order to speed up Jesus’ death so that it did not conflict with the Sabbath, the Jesus legs were broken at the request of the religious leaders.

Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers
Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Because Luke was a physician, there seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

___________ references more historical events in the Roman Empire during the life of Jesus than the other Gospels

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

The book of Philemon belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.

Question 6

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following books is a General Epistle?

Question 7

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?

Question 8

1 out of 1 points

John views the soldiers’ division of Jesus’ clothes is viewed as a prophetic fulfillment.

Question 9

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _______ includes more personal details about Jesus than any other Gospel.

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Luke’s Gospel stresses the role of women more than the other Gospels.

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s purpose is to give “an orderly sequence” of the events about Christ’s birth, life, and sacrificial death followed by His resurrection and ascension back to heaven.

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old Testament.

Question 13

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.

Question 17

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following people did not write a letter included in the New Testament canon.

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books are General Epistles

Question 19

0 out of 1 points

In Matthew, the Parables of the Kingdom contrasts the righteousness of the kingdom of heaven with the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees.

Question 20

0 out of 1 points

The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

Selected Answer:

Question 22

1 out of 1 points

Luke is the longest book in the New Testament and gives a full picture of the life of Christ.

Selected Answer:

Question 23

1 out of 1 points

The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

In John 3 Jesus met _______________, a Jewish ruler in Jerusalem, to whom He explains what it means to be “born again.”

Question 25

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of John can be divided into two sections. The first section is the _____________ and the second section is the Book of Glory.

Question 26

1 out of 1 points

Jesus’ seven miraculous “signs” in the Gospel of John were intended to affirm Jesus’ message and confirm His claims.

Question 27

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.

Question 28

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.

Question 29

1 out of 1 points

A slave’s birth was unimportant, so Mark does not include the birth of Christ.

Question 30

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

A slave is expected to rush from task to task and to do any job immediately so a key word in Mark is “immediately.”

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

John’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 33

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.

Question 35

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.

Question 37

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 38

1 out of 1 points

The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.

Question 41

1 out of 1 points

John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.

Question 42

0 out of 1 points

John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”

Question 43

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

Question 44

1 out of 1 points

John sees prophetic fulfillment in the fact that when they pierced Jesus’ side with a spear both blood and water came out at once.

Question 45

1 out of 1 points

The book of Hebrews belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Question 46

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, the original audience for the Gospel of John seems to be Greek-speaking Jews who were living outside of Israel.

Question 47

1 out of 1 points

All of Jesus’ activity in Mark focus on His Judean ministry with the final week focused exclusively on activities in Jerusalem.

Question 48

1 out of 1 points

Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”

Question 49

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 50

1 out of 1 points

The book of Titus belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Thursday, June 14, 2018 6:05:21 PM EDT

GENDER STUDIES.

Q1. HR MANAGEMENT DISCUSSION
Watch the video titled “Fruit Guys ─ Strategy,”* also located in the Learn section of Week 3 of your Blackboard course. Identify two or three (2-3) businesses that could use the five (5) questions the Fruit Guys used to determine effectiveness. Provide a rationale for your answer. Reply to at least one (1) of your classmate’s posts.
Considering the Impact of Competition on HRM Within a Real Business (10 Points)
Pick an organization that you are familiar with and do a competitive environmental scan for it. Then answer and discuss the following questions:
• How does the competitive environment for the company affect the organization’s HR function?
• Which strategy would be best suited to address the effects discussed?
Provide a rationale for your answers. Reply to at least one (1) of your classmate’s posts.
*Note: Flash Player must be enabled in your browser to view this video.

Q2. HR MANAGEMENT Assisgnment 1
Imagine you are the HR manager at a company, and a female employee came to you upset because she felt a male coworker was creating a hostile work environment by repeatedly asking her out on dates even after she said “no”. What would you do?
Write a one (1) page paper in which you:
1. Formulate the conversation you would have with the employee, based the concepts found in Chapter 2 in your textbook.
2. Summarize the conversation you would have with the employee’s male co-worker, based on the concepts found in Chapter 2 of your textbook.
3. Format your assignment according to the following formatting requirements:
1. Typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
2. Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, your name, your professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page is not included in the required page length.

Q3. Discussion Board Forum
Discussion Board Forum Instructions
Discussion boards are collaborative learning experiences. Therefore, the student is required to provide a thread in response to the provided prompt for each forum. Each thread must be 250–300 words, demonstrate course-related knowledge, include 1 citation is current APA format, and include 1 biblical integration. In addition to the thread, the student is required to reply to two (2) other classmates’ threads. Each reply must be 175–200 words, include 1 citation in current APA format, and must reference the textbook readings.

Q4. Thinking Critically
all instructions in the attachment below

THINKING CRITICALLY 3
For this assignment, you will pick 3 questions from among the video and the chapter readings and answer each with a minimum of 3 paragraphs that are 3–5 sentences per paragraph.
NOTE: You will answer 3 questions total.
Read Chapter 16 of the Straubhaar et al. text. Select 1 question from the list below to answer:
1. Justify governmental interventions into the media marketplace in terms of preserving competition.
2. Define network neutrality.
3. Distinguish vertical integration from horizontal integration and cross-ownership.
4. Choose one of the organizations listed here and discuss their role in regard to media regulations: the FCC, the Department of Commerce, NTIA, the judicial system, and Congress.
Read Chapter 17 of the Straubhaar et al. text. Select 1 question from the list below to answer:
1. Define the terms “morality” and “ethics” and discuss the differences between them.
2. Describe how the morality and ethics of those participating in various media outlets might have an impact on your life. Include social media like FaceBook, Twitter and Instagram effects in your discussion.

View the Media Law Videos in this Module/Week.
1. Choose one topic presented by Attorney Nancy Kippanhan in the media law videos and discuss how this issue impacts you or your family.
Submit Thinking Critically 3 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on FRIDAY of Module/Week 8.
THINKING CRITICALLY INSTRUCTIONS
During module/weeks 2,4, and 8, you will select critical thinking questions to answer based on the assigned textbook readings and/or video presentations. A minimum of 3 paragraphs each made up of 3-5 sentences is required per question/answer. You will select a total of 3 questions from those provided in the Thinking Critically document for each respective module/week.
Submission:
The question/answers must be submitted in a Microsoft Word document to the assignment submission link on Blackboard. Do not copy and paste the text into the text box. When typing your questions and answers in Word, it must be clear to the reader where the questions and answers begin and end. For example, format your question/answers like this:
1. Q: State the question.
A. Write your answer.
2. Q: State the question.
A. Write your answer.

Submit Thinking Critically assignments 1and 2 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the assigned module/week.

Submit Thinking Critically 3 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 8.

Q5. Discussion Board Forum:

pretty easy all instructions are in an attachment below

DISCUSSION BOARD FORUM: AMERICAN EVENTS INSTRUCTIONS

Statement of Purpose or “Why Am I Doing This?”
One of the goals of the discussion boards is to encourage student community learning, and to help you gain valuable experience with analyzing evidence and presenting sound arguments based on you read and know. To this end, your Discussion Board Forum assignment will require you to examine events from a variety of perspectives and construct an argument that supports a specific point of view based on the supplied prompt.

Participation:
• To support the stated goals, you must participate fully in Discussion Board Forum: American Events (the “Editorial” and the “Letters to the Editor”) to receive full credit. You must also submit all work on time.

Response to the Prompt – Editorial (First Submission)
• You must select 1 topic from the “Discussion Board Forum Topic Selection” document.
• Read the information associated with the topic provided in the appropriate Discussion Board Readings folder in Blackboard.
• Submit your 400–500-word response to the prompt to the Discussion Board Forum in the form of a newspaper editorial article. Your Editorial must address 1 point of view presented in the thread for the topic you choose. Use the materials you read to write, assuming you are living in the time in which the event occurred and are writing to a contemporary audience who wants the news and your point of view on it. Your work must be clearly supported by your readings and biblical principles; however, you must use no more than 2 short quotations of course materials. You must take a definite position on the question asked.
• Your Editorial must be submitted directly as a reply to the appropriate thread. Do not attach your Editorial as a Microsoft Word document or PDF file.
• Appropriate citations must be made using parenthetical references in proper and current Turabian format (these must be complete citations including page numbers when applicable).
• First person is allowed.

Replies – Letters to the Editor (Second Submission)
• Be aware that the replies portion of your Discussion Board Forum is worth more than your thread. Review your grading rubric for more details.
• Replies must be considered as “Letters to the Editor,” assuming you are the reader of this newspaper and want to respond to what you have read.
• Substantive replies of 150–250 words are required. Comments such as “You have a good point,” “I like what you said,” or “I agree (or disagree) with you” are not adequate replies. Letters to the Editor must show some analytical thought and encourage more dialogue. Ask questions, give a different point of view, bring up another aspect of the topic your classmates did not cover, and so on.
• At least 5 Letters to the Editor are required, 3 in response to classmates’ Editorials and 2 in response to classmates’ responses to Editorials (to either the student’s own Editorial or to the Editorials of their classmates). Keep in mind that not everyone has the same opinions, ideas, or backgrounds. Differing opinions are welcome, but must always be stated in a respectful and professional manner. Personal attacks, profanity, or insulting behavior will not be tolerated. Behavior of this type will result in a ban from the Discussion Board Forum and a loss of all points for the Discussion Board Forum assignments. It will also be reported to Student Affairs as a violation of the Honor Code.

Assessment:
• The grading rubric clearly indicates how your work will be graded in terms of point value. Review it carefully to ensure you earn maximum potential points for your efforts.

Submit your Editorial by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Thursday and your Letters to the Editor by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.
Q6. Week 5 discussion What are the rele
Discuss the pros and cons of firewall deployments by answering the following questions:
• What are the relevant issues surrounding firewall deployments How does one balance security requirements with usability requirements?
Summarize your thoughts in a Microsoft Word document checking for spelling and grammar, then submit it directly (cut & paste) into the discussion thread. Respond to at least two other students’ views to engage in a meaningful debate regarding their posts or to defend your post.
Required Resources
• Textbook and Internet
• Handout: Firewall Implementation Planning
Submission Requirements
• Format: Please enter directly into the Discussion Question window
• Citation Style: Follow APA

Q7. Define public community health. How
HA560-1: Identify the role of assessment in public health.
HA560-5: Evaluate information used to make public health decisions.
PC-5.1: Use language that is clear, concise, and organized.
This is Part 1 to the assignments throughout this course. All of your assignments tie into each other, so read ahead to Units 4, 6 & 8 to understand what is expected of you for each assignment.
Instructions:
Answer the following questions concerning the role of assessment of public health:
1. Define public community health. How does this differ from personal health What are the benefits of public health assessments? What are the disadvantages, if any? Give an example of a potential conflict within the community that could arise as a result of public health assessments. How can public health advocates and policy makers prevent and/or manage such a conflict?
2. How can public health assessments be used to form public policy?
3. Choose one health concern and cite legislation that has been passed to address this concern. Discuss how this legislation has affected or could affect your
You may choose one of the following or one of your own choosing:
• Smoking in public places
• Accessibility for physically handicapped populations
• Legalization of marijuana for medicinal purposes
• Youth violence
• Domestic violence
• Child abuse
• Elder abuse

Q8. CIS 110Technical Paper Object-orient

CIS110 Week 10 Technical Paper Object-oriented Programming (OOP) / Event-Driven Programming (EDP) versus Procedural Programming (PP)

1. Identify at least two (2) advantages to using OOP as compared to using only PP.
2. Create one (1) original example of a class with at least one (1) attribute and one (1) method. Identify what the class in question represents, the attributes the class stores, and the purpose of the related method. Next, examine the relationship between the class, attributes, and methods that you have identified.
3. Describe at least one (1) feature of object-oriented programming that Visual Logic lacks.
4. Identify at least one (1) advantage to using event-driven programming, as compared to using purely procedural programming.
5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

Q9. Conduct some independent research
Researchers are increasingly looking for answers as allergic diseases continue to rise in the population. The predominant explanation, coined the “hygiene hypothesis” by Professor David Strachan in 1989, states that a lack of early childhood exposure to microbes and other infectious agents increases susceptibility to allergic diseases by suppressing the natural development of the immune system. The idea was widely reported by the media that developed societies, like the United States, have become “too clean”.
Read the following article about the hygiene hypothesis to learn more, then answer the questions below in your initial post:
Bradford, A. (2016). What is the Hygiene Hypothesis? Live Science. Accessed at http://www.livescience.com/54078-hygiene-hypothesis.html on September 14, 2016.
1. Conduct some independent research on the hygiene hypothesis. What contradictory evidence against the hypothesis can you find?
2. Have any new hypotheses been proposed to explain the increase in allergic conditions? How does it support the original hygiene hypothesis?
Do you think the hygiene hypothesis needs to be renamed? Why or why not?

Q10. Find an article on the Internet, outline
Find an article on the Internet, outline a security breach or cyberattack. Provide a link to the article and suggest a control that would mitigate against that attack. Clearly explain why that control would be an effective mitigation strategy.

HEALTH CARE.
Q1. NURSING 212 Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
Before donning gloves to perform a procedure, proper hand hygiene is essential. The nurse understands that the most important aspect of hand hygiene is the amount of
A nurse is demonstrating postoperative deep breathing and coughing exercises to a client about to undergo emergency abdominal surgery for appendicitis. The nurse realizes the client may be unprepared to learn if the client
A client comes to the emergency department reporting that he has had diarrhea for 4 days and is urinating less than usual. When assessing the client’s skin turgor, the nurse should
A nurse is planning interventions for a group of
clients who are obese. What can the nurse do to
improve their commitment to a long term goal of weight loss?
When admitting a client, the nurse records which information in the client’s record first?
StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
Friction
reports severe pain.
grasp a fold of skin on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note if it springs back.
Attempt to develop the clients’ self-motivation.
Assessment of the client
1/27 5/25/2019
StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
A nurse tells a client that the provider has prescribed IV fluids. The client appears to be upset about the IV catheter insertion, but says nothing to the nurse. Which of the following of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
A client who is unstable and requires frequent vital signs has an electronic blood pressure machine automatically measuring his blood
pressure every 15 min. However, the machine is reading the client’s blood pressure at more frequent intervals, and the readings are not similar. The nurse checks the machine settings and observes the additional readings, but the problem continues. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action?
A nurse is caring for a client just diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client is resistant to learning self injection of insulin and asks the nurse to administer all the injections. The nurse explains the importance of learning self care and appropriately adds which of the following statements?
An assistive personnel (AP) says to the nurse, “This client is incontinent of stool three or four times a day. | get angry, and | think that the client is doing it just to get attention. | think we should put adult diapers on her.” Which is the appropriate nursing response?
A nurse’s neighbor is scheduled for elective surgery. The neighbor’s provider indicated that a moderate amount of blood loss is expected during the surgery, and the neighbor is anxious about acquiring an infection from a blood transfusion. Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to suggest?
“Is there something about this procedure that concerns you?”
Disconnect the machine, and measure the blood pressure manually every 15 min.
“Tell me what | can do to help you overcome your fear of giving yourself injections.”
“It is very upsetting to see an adult client regress.”
Donating autologous blood before the surgery
2/27 5/25/2019
At a mobile screening clinic, a nurse is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur due to aortic stenosis. To auscultate the aortic valve, the nurse should place the stethoscope at which location?
A client is admitted to the hospital with decreased circulation in the left leg. During the admission assessment, which is the most important nursing action initially?
A nurse is caring for a client who requires rectal temperature monitoring. Available at the client’s bedside is a thermometer is with a long, slender tip. Which of the following is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A nurse is teaching a client who has cardiovascular disease how to reduce his intake of sodium and cholesterol. The nurse understands that the most significant factor in planning dietary changes for this client is the
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is confused and continually grabs at the nurses. Which of the following is an nursing action?
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Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum.
Evaluate the pedal pulses.
Obtain a thermometer with a short, blunt insertion end.
involvement of the client in planning the change.
Firmly tell him to not grab
3/27 5/25/2019
An assistive personnel (AP) tells the nurse, “I am unable to find a large blood pressure cuff for a client who is obese. Can | just use the regular cuff if | can get it to stay on?” The nurse replies
that taking the blood pressure of a morbidly obese client with a regular blood pressure cuff will result in a reading that is
Which of the following should the nurse do first when preparing to provide tracheostomy care?
A 3 year old child has had multiple tooth extractions while under general anesthesia. The client returns from the postanesthesia care crying, but awake, from the recovery room. Which approach is likely to be successful?
A nurse admits a client to a same-day surgery center for an exploratory laparotomy procedure this morning. The client’s surgeon asks the nurse to witness the signing of the preoperative consent form. In signing the form as a witness, the nurse affirms that
To use proper body mechanics while making an occupied bed for a client on bed rest, the nurse should
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high
Perform hand hygiene.
Examine the mouth last.
the signature on the preoperative consent form is the client’s.
place the bed in a high horizontal position.
4127 5/25/2019
Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?
When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), the nurse must confirm which of the following assessment findings prior to beginning chest compressions?
A nurse on a rehabilitation unit is transferring a client from a bed to a chair. To avoid a back injury, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?
An older adult client appears agitated when the nurse requests that the client’s dentures be removed prior to surgery and states, “| never go anywhere without my teeth.” Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
To use the nursing process correctly, the nurse must first
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Elimination of the exposure
Absence of pulse
Bend at the knees while maintaining a wide stance and a straight back, with the client’s hands on the nurse’s shoulders, and the nurse’s hands under the client’s axillae.
“You seem worried. Are you concerned someone may see you without your teeth?”
obtain information about the client.
5/27 5/25/2019
A postoperative client has been diagnosed with paralytic ileus. When performing auscultation of the client’s abdomen, the nurse expects the bowel sounds to be
While starting an intravenous infusion (IV) for a client, the nurse notices that her gloved hands get spotted with blood. The client has not been diagnosed with any infection transmitted via the bloodstream. Which of the following should the nurse do as soon as the task is completed?
A nurse is precepting a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to help a client perform tracheostomy care. The nurse should intervene if the equipment the preceptee gathered included
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a terminal illness. The client asks several questions about the nurse’s religious beliefs related to death and dying. An appropriate nursing response is to
When assessing a client’s heart sounds, the nurse hears a scratching sound during both systole and diastole. These sounds become more distinct when the nurse has the client sit up and lean forward. The nurse should document the presence of a(n)
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Absent
Throw gloves away, perform hand hygiene
Cotton balls
encourage the client to express his thoughts about death and
dying.
pericardial friction rub.
6/27 5/25/2019
A client admitted with abdominal pain tells the nurse that her father died recently, and she begins crying while talking about him. The nurse determines that the client’s temperature is 39.2° C (102.6° F), her abdomen is soft without tenderness, and her menses is overdue by 2 days. To which observation should the nurse give priority attention?
At the surgical scrub sink, a surgical nurse demonstrates the proper surgical handwashing technique by scrubbing
A client scheduled for a hysterectomy has not yet signed the operative consent form. When the nurse approaches the client and asks that she review and sign the form, the client says she no longer wants to have the surgery. At this time, which action should the nurse take?
A nurse prepares to admit a client who is immediately postoperative to the unit following abdominal surgery. When transferring the client from the gurney to the bed, the nurse should
A client is admitted to the hospital in the terminal stage of cancer. The nurse enters the client’s room to administer medications and finds the client crying. The appropriate nursing action is
to
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The client’s temperature
with her hands held higher than her elbows
Ask the client why she has changed her mind.
lock the wheels on the bed and stretcher.
sit and hold the client’s hand.
7/127 5/25/2019
A nurse is performing an abdominal assessment of an adult client. Identify the correct sequence of steps used for this assessment.
While measuring a client’s vital signs, the nurse notices an irregularity in the heart rate. Which nursing action is appropriate?
A nurse is caring for a client who has hypertension. Which approach is the priority when the nurse is measuring the client’s blood pressure?
A hospitalized client needs a chest x ray. The radiology department calls the nursing unit and says that they are sending a transporter for the
client. When entering the client’s room, the priority action is to
An older adult client just diagnosed with colon cancer asks the nurse what the primary care provider is going to do. The provider will be making rounds within the hour. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?
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Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
Count the apical pulse rate for 1 full min, and describe the rhythm in the chart.
Obtain the blood pressure under the same conditions each time.
check the client’s identification bracelet.
Help the client write down the questions to ask the provider, so that the client doesn’t forget.
8/27 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
5/25/2019 A nurse is teaching a client with a new wg: . . . colostomy about how to irrigate the ostomy. The positions the irrigating solution nurse realizes that the client needs further i teaching when the client bag 30 inches above the stoma. When replacing a client’s surgical dressing, the nurse don clean Bessa une
should
When a nurse makes an initial assessment of a
client who is postoperative following a gastric
resection, the client’s nasogastric tube is not draining. The nurse’s attempt to irrigate the tube ;
with 10 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride is Notify the surgeon. unsuccessful, so she determines that the tube is obstructed. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A client returning from the surgical suite
following a vaginal hysterectomy is awake and “| am going to listen to
asking for something to drink. her postoperative diet prescription reads: Clear liquids; advance “W diet as tolerated. Which of the following is You ra bdomen = appropriate for the nurse to tell the client?
The mother of a toddler calls to the nurse, “Help! vps My baby is choking on his food.” The nurse Inability of the toddler to cry OF determines that the Heimlich maneuver is speak
necessary based on which finding?
9/27 5/25/2019 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
A nurse is caring for a client who is 3 days postoperative following a cholecystectomy. The nurse suspects a wound infection because the
drainage on the dressing is yellow and thick. The nurse identifies this type of drainage as
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for tube feeding. The nurse understands that the provider prescribed tube feeding because the client
A nurse takes an older adult client who has dysphagia following a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) to the dining room for dinner. When assisting the client at mealtime, the nurse should
A nurse is collecting a urine specimen for a client to test via urine dipstick the urine’s specific gravity. The nurse knows the result will indicate the amount of
While changing the linen on a client’s bed, the nurse should
purulent.
is unable to swallow foods by mouth.
solutes tn the urine.
hold the linen away from his body and clothing.
10/27 5/25/2019
Which nursing action prevents injury to a client’s eye during the administration of eye drops?
A client returns from surgery with two Penrose drains in place. Anticipating frequent dressing changes, what should the nurse use around the incision area?
A nurse is performing an eye irrigation for a client who has been exposed to smoke and ash. Which of the following nursing actions should receive the highest priority during the irrigation?
A client develops a fecal impaction. Before
digital removal of the mass, which type of
enema should the nurse give to loosen the feces?
When communicating with a client who is hearing impaired the nurse should
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Holding the tip of the container above the conjunctival sac
Montgomery straps
Wearing gloves during the procedure
Oil retention
face the client and speak slowly.
11/27 5/25/2019
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) has been
initiated for a client in the emergency room. The
nurse understands that a critical concept related
to effective cardiac (chest) compressions is the need to
A client is admitted for evaluation and control of hypertension. Several hours after the client’s admission, the nurse discovers the client supine on the floor, unresponsive to verbal or painful stimuli. The nurse’s first action at this time should be to
When ambulating a frail, older adult client, the nurse should
A nurse is caring for a client who is incontinent of loose stool and is reporting a painful perineum. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
A client being discharged following abdominal surgery will be performing his own dressing changes at home. It is most important for the nurse to include which of the following in the discharge plan?
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push hard and deep on the chest.
establish an airway.
use a transfer belt if the client is unsteady.
Check the client’s perineum.
Demonstration of appropriate hand hygiene
12/27 5/25/2019
When obtaining a urine specimen for a culture and sensitivity from an indwelling catheter, the nurse should
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous infusion (IV) that has infiltrated. Which of the following would be an unexpected finding when the nurse assesses the client’s infusion line and insertion site?
A client’s provider has ordered that a sputum
specimen be collected for culture and sensitivity.
The nurse plans to collect this specimen
A postoperative client has an indwelling urinary
catheter in place to gravity drainage. The nurse
notes that the client’s urinary drainage bag has
been empty for 2 hr. The first action the nurse should take is to
A client is hospitalized for an infection of a surgical wound following abdominal surgery. To promote healing and fight wound infection the nurse plans to arrange to increase the client’s intake of
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cleanse the entry port prior to withdrawing urine.
The area around the injection site feels warm when touched.
in the morning, on arising.
check to see if the tubing is kinked.
vitamin C and zinc.
13/27 5/25/2019
An older adult client has been hospitalized on bed rest for 1 week. The client reports elbow pain. Which of the following is an appropriate initial action for the nurse caring for this client to take?
A nurse is caring for a client who has just had a mastectomy and has a closed wound suction device (Hemovac) in place. Which nursing action will ensure proper operation of the device?
A client is recovering from gallbladder surgery performed under general anesthesia. The nurse should encourage the client to use the incentive
spirometer how many times per hour?
A nurse is in a public building when someone cries out, “Help! | think he’s having a heart attack!” The nurse responds to the scene and finds an unconscious adult lying on the floor. Another bystander has obtained an automated external defibrillator (AED). The nurse’s first action, after making certain someone has called for emergency medical services (EMS), should be to
A nurse is caring for several clients who are receiving oxygen therapy. Which client should the nurse assess most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity? The client receiving
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Examine the elbow.
Collapsing the device whenever it’s one half to two thirds full of air
Four to five
administer cardiac compressions.
100% oxygen via a partial rebreathing mask.
14/27 5/25/2019
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a partial colectomy. The client has a nasogastric tube set to low continuous suction. The client tells the nurse that his throat is sore and asks the nurse when the nasogastric tube will be taken out. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate at this time?
In planning care for a client with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention, the nurse can anticipate that the client will
A client recovering from an appendectomy for a ruptured appendix has a surgical wound healing by secondary intention. When changing the client’s dressing, which observation should the nurse report to the client’s surgeon?
The nurse is caring for an adult client who has fluid volume excess. When weighing this client, the nurse should
A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube for a client admitted with a bowel obstruction. Which of the following should the nurse do first?
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“When your gastrointestinal tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.”
be at an increased susceptibility for infection.
A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin
weigh the client on arising.
Explain the procedure to the client.
15/27 5/25/2019 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
A nurse is planning to collect a liquid stool specimen from a client for ova and parasites. Inaccurate test results may result if the nurse
A nurse has inserted an indwelling urinary catheter for a male client. Where should the nurse tape the catheter to prevent pressure on the client’s urethra at the penoscrotal junction?
A nurse is assisting a client with a meal. The client suddenly grabs at her neck with both hands and appears frightened. The appropriate nursing action is to
A client who is postoperative following a laparotomy is reporting pain and a dry mouth. The client has morphine sulfate ordered to control the pain. Before administering the morphine sulfate prescribed for the client the nurse should first
A nurse is assessing a client admitted with a sudden onset of severe back pain of unknown origin. Which statement would be most effective for the nurse use to elicit further information from this client about his pain?
refrigerates the collected specimen.
Lower abdomen
ask the client if she is choking.
measure the client’s vital signs.
“Tell me how you are feeling right now.”
16/27 5/25/2019 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following thoracic surgery. Which of the following manifestations should alert the
nurse to the possibility of early hypovolemic shock?
Which nursing action demonstrates safe principles of administering a routine immunization to an infant?
A nurse is caring for a female client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse determines that the assistive personnel (AP) performing hygiene care for the client requires further education about the care of indwelling catheters when she observes the AP
A nurse caring for a client who is immobilized knows that, without interventions to prevent constipation and fecal impaction, this client is at risk for
A nurse has organized a discussion session for assistive personnel (AP) at an extended care facility about cultural and religious traditions and rituals at the time of death. The nurse determines that one of the participants has a misconception when the AP states that
Irritability
Inject the vaccine into the vastus lateralis muscle.
hanging the collection bag at the level of the bladder.
intestinal obstruction.
organ donation is strictly forbidden by the Baptist Church.
17/27 5/25/2019
A nurse is caring for a client on strict bed rest. When entering the client’s room, the nurse notices flames in the waste basket. The nurse’s priority action is to
While preparing a client for discharge, the nurse teaches the proper position for postural drainage. The nurse knows that to achieve success in this teaching program, the information about the client that is most important is the
A right handed client is admitted with a fractured right arm and contusions of the left wrist following a motor vehicle crash. Which intervention should the nurse use when
assisting the client with feeding?
When transcribing the orders for a client admitted with an exacerbation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a newly licensed nurse notes that the provider has prescribed a medication with which the nurse is unfamiliar. The nurse should
A client is 2 days postoperative following an appendectomy. While changing the linens on the client’s bed, the nurse notes drainage from an infected wound has soiled the bed sheet. The appropriate nursing action is to
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pull the client out into the hall in the bed.
client’s goal concerning his ability to be self-sufficient.
Offer small bites of food.
consult the medication reference book available on the unit.
carefully place the soiled sheet in a moisture-resistant plastic laundry bag.
18/27 5/25/2019
Following an accidental fall while playing volleyball, a client is sent home in a lower leg cast due to a hairline fracture of the tibia and
must use crutches. When teaching the client the four-point gait, the nurse explains that the client should
A client is prescribed a hypothermia blanket. When caring for the client, the nurse
A client is ambulating in the hallway in bare feet. What is the priority nursing action at this time?
A client is about to have a nasogastric tube (NG) inserted. The nurse explains the procedure and is ready to begin the insertion when the client says, “No way! You are not putting that hose down my throat. Get away from me.” Which of the following statements is an appropriate nursing response?
A nurse is teaching a client recovering from a cerebrovascular accident how to dress. The client has residual hemiplegia, so the nurse
instructs the client to do which of the following
when putting on a shirt?
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be able to bear weight on both legs.
places a layer of cloth between the client and the blanket.
Get the client’s slippers and have him put them on.
“| can see that this is upsetting you.”
“Slide your weaker arm through its sleeve first.”
19/27 5/25/2019
While eating, a client suddenly coughs a few times then attempts to cough and makes a whistling sound on inhalation. The nurse recognizes that the client is choking. When performing the Heimlich maneuver on a conscious client, which nursing action is effective?
A provider has prescribed restraints for a client who

Q2. NURSING N637: Chapter 32: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
What is the initiating event that leads to the development of atherosclerosis?
What is the effect of oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) in atherosclerosis?
Which inflammatory cytokines are released when endothelial cells are injured?
When endothelia cells are injured, what alteration contributes to atherosclerosis?
Which factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension?
What pathologic change occurs to the kidney’s glomeruli as a result of hypertension?
What effect does atherosclerosis have on the development of an aneurysm?
Regarding the endothelium, what is the difference between healthy vessel walls and those that promote clot formation?
What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?
Which factor can trigger an immune response in the bloodstream that may result in an embolus?
Which statement best describes thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)?
Which statement best describes Raynaud disease?
What change in a vein supports the development of varicose veins?
Superior vena cava syndrome is a result of a progressive increase of which process?
What term is used to identify when a cell is temporarily deprived of blood supply?
The risk of developing coronary artery disease is increased up to threefold by which factor?
Which risk factor is associated with coronary artery disease (CAD) because of its relationship with the alteration of hepatic lipoprotein?
Nicotine increases atherosclerosis by the release of which neurotransmitter?
Which substance is manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein?
Which elevated value may be protective of the development of atherosclerosis?
Which laboratory test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?
Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for how many minutes?
Which form of angina occurs most often during sleep as a result of vasospasms of one or more coronary arteries?
When is the scar tissue that is formed after a myocardial infarction (MI) most vulnerable to injury?
An individual who is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase–isoenzyme MB (CK-MB), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) is exhibiting indicators associated with which condition?
What is the expected electrocardiogram (ECG) pattern when a thrombus in a coronary artery permanently lodges in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?
How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
A patient reports sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. These clinical manifestations describe:
Ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure, characterize which form of cardiomyopathy?
A disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum is the hallmark of which form of cardiomyopathy?
Amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, or glycogen storage disease usually causes which form of cardiomyopathy?

Which condition is a cause of acquired aortic regurgitation?
Which predominantly female valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, as well as being associated with connective tissue disease?
Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?
What is the most common cause of infective endocarditis?
What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which form of heart failure may result from pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance?
What cardiac pathologic condition contributes to ventricular remodeling?
In systolic heart failure, what effect does the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) have on stroke volume?
What is the cause of the dyspnea resulting from a thoracic aneurysm?
Which statement is true concerning the cells’ ability to synthesize cholesterol?
What is the trigger for angina pectoris?
Individuals being effectively managed for type 2 diabetes mellitus often experience a healthydecline in blood pressure as a result of what intervention?
Which statements are true regarding fatty streaks? (Select all that apply.) Fatty streaksprogressively damage vessel walls.
Fatty streaks are capable of producing toxic oxygen radials.
When present, inflammatory changes occur to the vessel walls.
Oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) are involved in their formation.
What factors contribute to the development of orthostatic hypotension? (Select all that apply.)
Altered body chemistry
Drug action of certain antihypertensive agents
Prolonged immobility
Effects of aging on postural reflexes
Which assessment findings are clinical manifestations of aortic stenosis? (Select all that apply.)
Which risk factors are associated with infective endocarditis? (Select all that apply.)
Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
A. Impairs flow from left atrium to left ventricle
B. Impairs flow from the left ventricle
C. Backflow into left atrium
D. Backflow into right atrium
E. Backflow into left ventricle
Aortic stenosis
Aortic regurgitation

Mitral stenosis
Tricuspid regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation

Q3. NURS 545/BIOLOGY 4344: Patho Exam 2 Review: 100%
101. The level of TSH in Graves’ disease is usually:
a.
high.
b.
low.
c.
normal.

____ 102. Upon palpation of the neck of a patient with Graves’ disease, what would the nurse expect to find?
a.
Normal-sized thyroid
b.
Small discrete thyroid nodule
c.
Multiple discrete thyroid nodules
d.
Diffuse thyroid enlargement

____ 103. What are clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism?
a.
Intolerance to heat, tachycardia, and weight loss
b.
Oligomenorrhea, fatigue, and warm skin
c.
Restlessness, increased appetite, and metrorrhagia
d.
Constipation, decreased heat rate, and lethargy

____ 104. Diagnosing thyroid carcinoma is best done with:
a.
measurement of serum thyroid levels.
b.
radioisotope scanning.
c.
ultrasonography.
d.
fine-needle aspiration biopsy.

____ 105. Renal failure is the most common cause of _____ hyperparathyroidism.
a.
primary
b.
secondary
c.
exogenous
d.
inflammatory

____ 106. What is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism?
a.
Pituitary hyposecretion
b.
Parathyroid adenoma
c.
Parathyroid gland damage
d.
Autoimmune parathyroid disease

____ 107. An adult female had a thyroidectomy this morning. She develops muscle spasms, increased deep tendon reflexes, and laryngeal spasm. What is the most common cause of these findings?
a.
Calcium deficit due to reduced parathormone
b.
Overuse of radioactive iodine given pre-operatively
c.
A history of insufficient dietary intake of iodine
d.
An increase in serum phosphorous caused by reduced calcitonin

____ 108. What is the most probable cause of low serum calcium following thyroidectomy?
a.
Hyperparathyroidism secondary to Graves’ disease
b.
Myxedema secondary to surgery
c.
Hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury
d.
Hypothyroidism caused by lack of thyroid replacement

____ 109. A male patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20; serum glucose 500 mg/dl; urine glucose and ketones positive; serum K+ 2 mEq/L; serum Na+ 130 mEq/L. He reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for 1 week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?
a.
Increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space.
b.
Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresis.
c.
Increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis.
d.
Decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss.

____ 110. What is a description of diabetes mellitus type 2?
a.
There is a resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues.
b.
The patient uses lispro instead of regular insulin.
c.
There is an increased glucagon secretion from -cells of the pancreas.
d.
There are insulin autoantibodies that destroy ß-cells in the pancreas.

____ 111. A patient with diabetes mellitus type 1 experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?
a.
Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration
b.
Dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bed time
c.
Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise
d.
Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity

____ 112. Which clinical finding occurs first in metabolic acidosis of the patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus?
a.
Ketones in the urine
b.
Palpitations, anxiety, and confusion
c.
Hyperlipidemia
d.
Kussmaul respirations

____ 113. Why does hyperkalemia develop in diabetic ketoacidosis?
a.
Because sodium is low, which stimulates aldosterone to retain sodium and potassium
b.
Because hydrogen shifts into the cell in exchange for potassium to compensate for metabolic acidosis
c.
Because phosphorus shifts into the cell in exchange for potassium due to the lack of insulin
d.
Because the blood is concentrated due to the loss of water from polyuria

____ 114. What is a difference in clinical manifestations between diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar non-ketosis syndrome?
a.
Fluid loss
b.
Glycosuria
c.
Increased serum glucose
d.
Kussmaul respirations

____ 115. Hypoglycemia followed by rebound hyperglycemia is seen in:
a.
the Somogyi effect.
b.
the dawn phenomenon.
c.
diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
d.
hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketosis syndrome (HHNKS).

____ 116. What is the first lab test that indicates a patient with type 1 diabetes is developing nephropathy?
a.
Dipstick test for urine ketones
b.
Increase in serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c.
Protein in the urinalysis
d.
Cloudy urine on the urinalysis

____ 117. Why do patients with diabetes mellitus develop hyperlipidemia?
a.
Because they have increases in low density lipoproteins (¬LDL) and triglycerides (-TG)
b.
Because they have decreased low density lipoproteins (¯LDL) and increased triglycerides (¬TG)
c.
Because they have decreased low density lipoproteins (¯LDL) and increased high density lipoproteins (¬HDL)
d.
Because they have increased high density lipoproteins (¬HDL) and decreased triglycerides (¯TG)

____ 118. What causes the microvascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?
a.
The capillaries contain plaques of lipids that obstruct blood flow.
b.
There is increased pressure within capillaries as a result of the elevated glucose attracting water.
c.
The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia.
d.
Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries.

____ 119. What causes the macrovascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?
a.
The capillaries contain plaques of lipids that obstruct blood flow.
b.
There is increased pressure within capillaries caused by the elevated glucose attracting water.
c.
The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia.
d.
Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries.

____ 120. Which chronic complication of diabetes mellitus is caused by microvascular complications?
a.
Nephropathy
b.
Coronary artery disease
c.
Neuropathy
d.
Peripheral vascular disease

____ 121. Why does retinopathy develop in patients with type 2 diabetes?
a.
Because there are plaques of lipids within the retinal vessels
b.
Because of an increased pressure within the retinal vessels from the increased osmotic pressure
c.
Because ketones cause microaneurysms within the retinal vessels
d.
Because of increased retinal capillary permeability and microaneurysm formation

____ 122. A patient has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder?
a.
Hyperthyroidism
b.
Hypoaldosteronism
c.
Diabetes insipidus (DI)
d.
Cushing disease

____ 123. Which statement about the pericardium is false?
a.
It is a double-walled membranous sac that encloses the heart.
b.
It is composed of connective tissue and a layer of squamous cells.
c.
It protects the heart against infection and inflammation from the lungs and pleural space.
d.
It contains pain and mechanoreceptors that can elicit reflex changes in blood pressure and heart rate.

____ 124. During the cardiac cycle, what makes the mitral and tricuspid valves close after the ventricles are filled with blood?
a.
The chordae tendineae relax, which allows the valves to close.
b.
The increased pressure in the ventricles pushes the values to close.
c.
The trabeculae carneae contract, which pulls the valves closed.
d.
The reduced pressure in the atria creates a negative pressure that pulls the valves closed.

____ 125. What is the significance of the “atrial kick”?
a.
It is the contraction of the right atria that is necessary to open the tricuspid valve.
b.
It is the contraction of the right atria that is necessary to increase the blood volume from the venae cavae.
c.
It is the contraction of the left atria that increases the blood volume into the ventricle.
d.
It is the contraction of the left atria that is necessary to open the mitral valve.

____ 126. Occlusion of the left anterior descending artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which part of the heart?
a.
To portions of the left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum
b.
To the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle
c.
To the upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex
d.
To the posterior interventricular sulcus and smaller branches of both ventricles

____ 127. Occlusion of the circumflex artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which part of the heart?
a.
To portions of the left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum
b.
To the posterior interventricular sulcus and smaller branches of both ventricles
c.
To the upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex
d.
To the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle

____ 128. Where are the coronary ostia located?
a.
Left ventricle
b.
Medial to the aortic valve
c.
Coronary sinus
d.
Aorta

____ 129. The coronary sinus empties into the:
a.
right atrium.
b.
left atrium.
c.
superior vena cava.
d.
aorta.

____ 130. Which statement about development of collateral arteries in the heart is false?
a.
The incidence of aneurysm formation after a myocardial infarction is reduced in individuals who develop significant collateral circulation.
b.
The incidence of myocardial regeneration after a myocardial infarction increases in individuals who develop significant collateral circulation.
c.
The risk of dysrhythmias after a myocardial infarction is reduced in individuals with well-developed collateral circulation.
d.
Collateral circulation may extend the “window of time” to benefit reperfusion therapy after a myocardial infarction, resulting in greater improvement in cardiac function.

____ 131. What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells?
a.
1:1 (1 capillary per 1 muscle cell)
b.
1:2 (1 capillary per 2 muscle cells)
c.
1:4 (1 capillary per 4 muscle cells)
d.
1:10 (1 capillary per 10 muscle cells)

____ 132. What is the function of P cells found in the sinoatrial node and Purkinje fibers?
a.
They are receptors for pain stimuli, such as the pain that occurs during infarction.
b.
They prolong the refractory period before the next contraction.
c.
They are assumed to be the site of impulse formation.
d.
They initiate repolarization of the myocardium.

____ 133. Depolarization of a cardiac muscle cell occurs as the result of a:
a.
decrease in the permeability of the cell membrane to potassium.
b.
rapid movement of sodium into the cell.
c.
rapid movement of calcium into the cell.
d.
slow movement of sodium out of the cell.
e.
slow movement of calcium out of the cell.

____ 134. What occurs during phase 1 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization?
a.
Repolarization when potassium moves out of the cells
b.
Repolarization when sodium rapidly enters into cells
c.
Early repolarization when sodium slowly enters cells
d.
Early repolarization when calcium slowly enters cells

____ 135. Phase 0 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with which part of the electrocardiogram (EKG)?
a.
QRS complex
b.
P-R interval
c.
Q-T interval
d.
U wave

____ 136. Which phase of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with diastole?
a.
Phase 0
b.
Phase 1
c.
Phase 2
d.
Phase 3
e.
Phase 4

____ 137. _____ nerves can shorten the conduction time of action potential through the atrioventricular (AV) node.
a.
Parasympathetic
b.
Sympathetic
c.
Vagal
d.
Glossopharyngeal

____ 138. If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, at what rate can the atrioventricular (AV) node polarize?
a.
60 to 70 per minute
b.
40 to 60 per minute
c.
30 to 40 per minute
d.
10 to 20 per minute

____ 139. What, if any, is the effect of epinephrine on b2-receptors of the heart?
a.
None, b1-receptors are the only b-receptors in the heart.
b.
Dilate coronary arterioles
c.
Increase the strength of myocardial contraction
d.
Increase the heart rate

____ 140. Where are the receptors for neurotransmitters located in the heart?
a.
Semilunar and atrioventricular valves
b.
Endocardium and sinoatrial node
c.
Myocardium and coronary vessels
d.
Epicardium and atrioventricular node

____ 141. Within a physiologic range, an increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume (preload) leads to a(n):
a.
increased force of contraction.
b.
decrease in refractory time.
c.
increase in afterload.
d.
increase in repolarization.

____ 142. Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures results in which disorder?
a.
Mitral regurgitation
b.
Mitral stenosis
c.
Pulmonary edema
d.
Jugular vein distention

____ 143. The Bainbridge reflex is thought to be initiated by sensory neurons in the:
a.
atria.
b.
aorta.
c.
atrioventricular node.
d.
ventricles.

____ 144. What is the correct sequence of events that occur after the baroreceptor reflex is stimulated?
a.
From the carotid artery to the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity
b.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase sympathetic activity and decrease parasympathetic activity
c.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity
d.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the hypothalamus to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity

____ 145. Reflex control of total cardiac output and total peripheral resistance is controlled by:
a.
parasympathetic stimulation of heart, arterioles, and veins.
b.
sympathetic stimulation of heart, arterioles, and veins.
c.
autonomic control of the heart only.
d.
somatic control of the heart, arterioles, and veins.

____ 146. Myogenic regulation of blood vessel diameter and subsequent blood flow through a vessel is an example of _____ of blood vessels.
a.
autonomic regulation
b.
somatic regulation
c.
autoregulation
d.
metabolic regulation

____ 147. In assessing for allergies before coronary angiography, the nurse will be particularly concerned if the patient he has an allergy to:
a.
technetium.
b.
iodine.
c.
penicillin.
d.
warfarin sodium (Coumadin).

____ 148. What is an expected change in the cardiovascular system that occurs with aging?
a.
Arterial stiffening
b.
Decreased left ventricular wall tension
c.
Decreased aortic wall thickness
d.
Arteriosclerosis

____ 149. Which statement is false about the way in which substances pass from capillaries and the interstitial fluid?
a.
Substances pass through junctions between endothelial cells.
b.
Substances pass through pores or oval windows.
c.
Substances pass through vesicles by active transport across the endothelial cell membrane.
d.
Substances pass through by osmosis across the endothelial cell membrane.

____ 150. Which natriuretic peptide inhibits antidiuretic hormone by increasing urine sodium loss?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)

____ 151. Which natriuretic peptide complements nitric oxide to mediate vasodilation?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)

____ 152. Which natriuretic peptide is proposed to be a biochemical marker to screen for left ventricular dysfunction?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)

____ 153. What is the primary mechanism of atherogenesis?
a.
The release of the inflammatory cytokines tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-), interferon gamma (IFN-), and interleukin 1 (Il-1)
b.
The release of the growth factor granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
c.
The release of toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
d.
The release of the inflammatory cytokines interferon beta (IFN-ß), interleukin 6 (Il-6), and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)

____ 154. What is the effect of oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDL) in atherosclerosis?
a.
It causes smooth muscle proliferation.
b.
It causes regression of atherosclerotic plaques.
c.
It increases levels of inflammatory cytokines.
d.
It directs macrophages to the site within the endothelium.

____ 155. Which inflammatory cytokines are released when endothelial cells are injured?
a.
Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
b.
Beta-interferon (ß-IFN), interleukin 6 (Il-6), and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF).
c.
Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-), gamma interferon (-IFN), and interleukin 1 (Il-1).
d.
Interferon alpha (IFN-), interleukin 12 (Il-12), and macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF)

____ 156. What are the vasoconstricting factors regulated by endothelium?
a.
Thromboxane A and endothelin
b.
Norepinephrine and acetylcholine
c.
Bradykinin and leukotriene
d.
Serotonin and prostacyclin

____ 157. What alteration occurs in injured endothelial cells that contributes to atherosclerosis?
a.
They release toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDL).
b.
They are unable to make the normal amount of vasodilating cytokines.
c.
They produce an increased amount of antithrombic cytokines.
d.
They develop a hypersensitivity to homocystine and lipids.

____ 158. What factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension?
a.
Increased norepinephrine
b.
Adducin
c.
Angiotensin II
d.
Insulin resistance

____ 159. What pathologic change occurs in kidneys of people with hypertension that leads to dysfunction of the glomeruli?
a.
Compression of the renal tubules
b.
Ischemia of the tubule
c.
Increased pressure from within the tubule
d.
Obstruction of the renal tubule

____ 160. Cerebral aneurysms frequently occur in the:
a.
vertebral arteries.
b.
basilar artery.
c.
circle of Willis.
d.
carotid arteries.

____ 161. How does atherosclerosis cause aneurysms?
a.
A reduction in oxygen causes ischemia of the intima.
b.
An increase in endothelin increases nitric oxide.
c.
Plaque formation erodes the vessel wall.
d.
The vessel is obstructed by plaques and thrombus formation.

____ 162. What are the differences in arterial walls versus vs. walls that promote clot formation?
a.
There is inflammation of the endothelium of the artery and roughing of the endothelium of the vein.
b.
There is vasoconstriction of the endothelium of the artery and hypertrophy of the endothelium of the vein.
c.
There is excessive clot formation of the endothelium of the artery and lipid accumulation of the endothelium of the vein.
d.
There is roughening of the endothelium of the artery and inflammation of the endothelium of the vein.

____ 163. What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?
a.
Deep vein thrombosis
b.
Endocarditis
c.
Valvular disease
d.
Left heart failure

____ 164. Which source of emboli introduces antigens, cells, and protein aggregates that trigger an immune response within the bloodstream?
a.
Amniotic fluid
b.
Fat
c.
Bacteria
d.
Air

____ 165. Which is a description of thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)?
a.
An inflammatory disorder of small- and medium-sized arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands
b.
A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly the toes
c.
An autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities
d.
A neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities

____ 166. Which is a description of Raynaud phenomenon and disease?
a.
An inflammatory disorder of small- and medium-sized arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands.
b.
A neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities.
c.
A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly the toes.
d.
An autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities.

____ 167. What changes in veins occur to create varicose veins?
a.
An increase in osmotic pressure
b.
Damage to the valves with veins
c.
Damage to the venous endothelium
d.
An increase in hydrostatic pressure

____ 168. Superior vena cava syndrome is a progressive _____ of the superior vena cava that leads to venous distention of the upper extremities and head.
a.
inflammation
b.
occlusion
c.
distention
d.
sclerosis

____ 169. Coronary artery disease can diminish the myocardial blood supply until deprivation impairs myocardial metabolism enough to cause _____, a local state in which the cells are temporarily deprived of blood supply.
a.
infarction
b.
ischemia
c.
necrosis
d.
inflammation

____ 170. Of the following risk factors for coronary artery disease, which is responsible for a twofold to threefold increase in risk?
a.
Diabetes mellitus
b.
Hypertension
c.
Obesity
d.
High alcohol consumption

____ 171. Which of the following risk factors is associated with a twofold increase in the risk for coronary artery disease death and up to a sixfold risk for stroke?
a.
Diabetes mellitus
b.
Hypertension
c.
Obesity
d.
High alcohol consumption

____ 172. How does nicotine increase atherosclerosis?
a.
By the release of histamine
b.
By decreasing nitric oxide
c.
By the release of angiotensin II
d.
By the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine

____ 173. _____ are manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein.
a.
Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
b.
Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
High-density lipoproteins (HDL)
d.
Triglycerides (TG)

____ 174. Which value may be protective for the development of atherosclerosis?
a.
High values of very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
b.
High values of low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
High values of high-density lipoproteins (HDL)
d.
High values of triglycerides (TG)

____ 175. Which lab test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?
a.
Homocysteine
b.
Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
d.
C reactive protein (CPR)

____ 176. Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for _____ minutes.
a.
10
b.
15
c.
20
d.
25

____ 177. _____ angina occurs because of vasospasms of one or more coronary arteries and often during sleep.
a.
Unstable
b.
Stable
c.
Silent
d.
Prinzmetal

____ 178. When scar tissue replaces the myocardium after a myocardial infarction (MI), the forming scar tissue is very mushy and vulnerable to injury at about day _____ after MI.
a.
5 to 9
b.
10 to 14
c.
15 to 20
d.
20 to 30

____ 179. An individual is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase (CK), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH). These elevated levels indicate:
a.
myocardial ischemia.
b.
hypertension.
c.
myocardial infarction.
d.
coronary artery disease.

____ 180. What is the expected electrocardiogram pattern for a patient when a thrombus in a coronary artery lodges permanently in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?
a.
Prolonged Q-T interval
b.
ST elevation (STEMI)
c.
ST depression (STDMI)
d.
Non-ST elevation (non-STEMI)

____ 181. How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction?
a.
By increasing the peripheral vascular resistance
b.
By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia
c.
By reducing the contractility of the myocardium
d.
By stimulating the sympathetic nervous system

____ 182. What is the significance of pulsus paradoxus that occurs in a pericardial effusion?
a.
It reflects impairment of the diastolic filling pressures of the right ventricle and reduction of blood volume in both ventricles.
b.
It reflects impairment of the blood ejected from the right atria and reduction of blood volume in the right ventricle.
c.
It reflects impairment of the blood ejected from the left atria and reduction of blood volume in the left ventricle.
d.
It reflects impairment of the diastolic filling pressures of the left ventricle and reduction of blood volume in all four heart chambers.

____ 183. A patient complains of sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. What is causing these clinical manifestations?
a.
Myocardial infarction
b.
Pericardial effusion
c.
Restrictive pericarditis
d.
Acute pericarditis

____ 184. Biventricular dilation is the result of _____ cardiomyopathy.
a.
hypertrophic
b.
restrictive
c.
congestive
d.
inflammatory

____ 185. _____ cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure.
a.
Dilated
b.
Hypertrophic
c.
Septal
d.
Dystrophic

____ 186. The hallmark of _____ cardiomyopathy is a disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum.
a.
dystrophic
b.
hypertrophic
c.
septal
d.
dilated

____ 187. _____ cardiomyopathy is usually caused by an infiltrative disease of the myocardium, such as amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, or glycogen storage disease.
a.
Infiltrative
b.
Restrictive
c.
Septal
d.
Hypertrophic

____ 188. What are clinical manifestations of aortic stenosis?
a.
Jugular vein distension
b.
Bounding pulses
c.
Peripheral edema
d.
Dyspnea on exertion

____ 189. Aortic and mitral regurgitation and mitral stenosis are all caused by which of the following?
a.
Congenital malformation
b.
Cardiac failure
c.
Rheumatic fever
d.
Coronary artery disease

____ 190. Which valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, to be associated with connective tissue disease that tends to bemost prevalent in young women?
a.
Mitral valve prolapse
b.
Tricuspid stenosis
c.
Tricuspid valve prolapse
d.
Aortic insufficiency

____ 191. Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?
a.
Fat emboli
b.
Rheumatic fever
c.
Bacterial endocarditis
d.
Myocarditis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

____ 192. Infective endocarditis is most often caused by:
a.
a virus.
b.
a fungus.
c.
a bacteria.
d.
rickettsiae.

____ 193. For which disorder are the risk factors genitourinary instrumentation, dental procedure, hemodialysis, and intravenous drug use?
a.
Rheumatic fever
b.
Infective endocarditis
c.
Mitral regurgitation
d.
Aortic regurgitation

____ 194. What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) resulting from myocarditis and infective endocarditis?
a.
Inflammatory cardiomyopathy
b.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c.
Dilated cardiomyopathy
d.
Restrictive cardiomyopathy

____ 195. A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which of the following heart failures may result from this condition?
a.
Right heart failure
b.
Left heart failure
c.
Low-output failure
d.
High-output failure

____ 196. Ventricular remodeling is a result of:
a.
left ventricular hypertrophy.
b.
right ventricular failure.
c.
myocardial ischemia.
d.
contractile dysfunction.

____ 197. In systolic heart failure, what effect does angiotensin II have on stroke volume?
a.
Increases preload and decreases afterload
b.
Increases preload and increases afterload
c.
Decreases preload and increases afterload
d.
Decreases preload and decreases afterload

Matching

Match the description with its corresponding term.
a.
Loss of differentiation:
b.
Cancer cells secrete growth factor for their own growth
c.
Cells that vary in size and shape
d.
Unaltered normal allele
e.
Responsible for maintenance of genomic integrity

____ 198. Proto-oncogene

____ 199. Pleomorphic

____ 200. Anaplasia

____ 201. Caretaker gene

____ 202. Autocrine stimulation

Match the intracardiac pressures with their description.
a.
a wave
b.
v wave
c.
c wave
d.
x descent
e.
y descent

____ 203. An early diastole peak caused by filling of the atrium from peripheral veins

____ 204. Reflects rapid flow of blood from the great veins and right atrium into the right ventricle

____ 205. Generated by the atrial contraction

____ 206. Produced because of descent of the tricuspid valve ring and by ejection of blood from both ventricles

____ 207. May represent bulging of the mitral valve into the left atrium during early systole

Match th

Q4. NUR 2115: xam 1 review: Focus Points for First WebEx: 100%
What precautions does the nurse take when giving any type of Chemo medications 2. What is Superior vena cava syndrome and what are the symptoms associated with this syndrome 3. What will the nurse do for a patient following a prostatectomy and what should be done for dark red urine output? 4. What post-op care should be provided after a mastectomy 5. What labs should the nurse be concerned with when caring for the cancer patient. Ex: Neutropenia, Thrombocytopenia, etc… 6. Know all signs/symptoms of Neutropenia and Thrombocytopenia 7. What kind of education would you give someone receivingexternal radiation 8. Know the stages of cancer development; malignant transformation occurs through… 9. Know how to interpret the TNM staging system 10. What drug does the physician order for the chemo patient with low hemoglobin levels 11. What the normal ranges for platelet counts and what nursing intervention should the nurse do for a low platelet count 12. What intervention/education should the nurse suggest to the early diagnosed cancer patient concerning memory problems 13. What is mucositis and what interventions does the nurse do to treat it 14. What is the difference between Basal Cell and Squamous cell carcinomas 15. What type of behavior does cancer cells exhibit 16. What interventions are used for nausea/vomiting associated with cancer treatment 17. What education would the nurse give to lessen the impact on the development of cancer 18. What is Tumor lysis syndrome 19. What interventions would the nurse incorporate for the patient diagnosed with a brain tumor 20. What type of education will the nurse teach the patient who takes herbal medications when receiving treatment for cancer 21. Ginger helps the cancer patient with what? 22. What herbal supplement should the patient avoid when taking estrogen 23. Why should the surgical patient stop taking ginger, bilberry, feverfew, and garlic 24. What is the association between cancer and T’ai Chi 25. What types of interventions can the nurse provide for cancer comfort 26. What is Palliative care and what purpose does treatment do for this type of patient 27. What is Hospice and the role of the nurse working with the patient and family 28. What is the difference between agonal breathing, apneustic breathing, and cheyne-stokes respiration 29. What are signs/symptoms of impending death and which sign does the nurse determine is showing nearing death 30. What is the most important treatment the nurse does for the dying patient 31. What are advance directives and what education does the nurse provide the patient/family 32. What is actions should the nurse take for the death of the patient and their families 33. What is the difference between hospice and palliative care 34. How does one identify pain in the cancer patient 35.What task are unlicensed staff allowed to do for the dying patient 36. What interventions does the nurse do for “death rattle” 37. What are the catholic custom associated with death and dying 38. What is terminal dehydration 39. What is the purpose of proportional palliative sedation [Show less]

Q5. NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing
NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing
Project Milestone 1

Directions: Prior to completing this template, carefully review Course Project Milestone 1 Guidelines paying particular attention to how to name the document and all rubric requirements. After saving the document to your computer, type your answers directly on this template and save again. This assignment is due by Sunday end of Week 1 by 11:59 p.m. Mountain Time.
Your Name:__________________________
Assignment Criteria
Your Answers:
NOTE: See Milestone 1 Rubric for details required in each area.
Q6. NURS 6560 Midterm Exam (Latest): Walden University (Already graded A)
NURS 6560 Midterm Exam (2018): Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings: Walden University
Question 1
S. is a 59-year-old female who has been followed for several years for aortic regurgitation. Serial echocardiography has demonstrated normal ventricular function, but the patient was lost to follow-up for the last 16 months and now presents complaining of activity intolerance and weight gain. Physical examination reveals a grade IV/VI diastolic aortic murmur and 2+ lower extremity edema to the midcalf. The AGACNP considers which of the following as the most appropriate management strategy?
A. Serial echocardiography every 6 months
B. Begin a calcium channel antagonist
C. Begin an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
D. Surgical consultation and intervention
Question 2
An ascending thoracic aneurysm of > 5.5 cm is universally considered an indication for surgical repair, given the poor outcomes with sudden rupture. Regardless of the aneurysm’s size, all of the following are additional indications for immediate operation except:
A. Comorbid Marfan’s syndrome
B. Enlargement of > 1 cm since diagnosis
C. Crushing chest pain
D. History of giant cell arteritis
Question 3
Jasmine is a 31-year-old female who presents with neck pain. She has a long history of injection drug use and admits to injecting opiates into her neck. Physical examination reveals diffuse tracking and scarring. Today Jasmine has a distinct inability to turn her neck without pain, throat pain, and a temperature of 102.1°F. She appears ill and has foul breath. In order to evaluate for a deep neck space infection, the AGACNP orders:
A. Anteroposterior neck radiography
B. CT scan of the neck
C. White blood cell (WBC) differential
D. Aspiration and culture of fluid
Question 4
Mr. Draper is a 39-year-old male recovering from an extended abdominal procedure. As a result of a serious motor vehicle accident, he has had repair of a small bowel perforation, splenectomy, and repair of a hepatic laceration. He will be on total parenteral nutrition postoperatively. The AGACNP recognizes that the most common complications of parenteral nutrition are a consequence of:
A. Poorly calculated solution
B. Resultant diarrhea and volume contraction
C. The central venous line used for infusion
D. Bowel disuse and hypomotility
Question 5
Mr. Mettenberger is being discharged following his hospitalization for reexpansion of his second spontaneous pneumothorax this year. He has stopped smoking and does not appear to have any overt risk factors. While doing his discharge teaching, the AGACNP advises Mr. Mettenberger that his current risk for another pneumothorax is:
A. < 10%
B. 25-50%
C. 50-75%
D. > 90
Question 6
One of the earliest findings for a patient in hypovolemic shock is:
A. A drop in systolic blood pressure (SBP) < 10 mm Hg for > 1 minute when sitting up
B. A change in mental status
C. SaO2 of < 88%
D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) < 9 g/dL and 27%
Question 7
Traumatic diaphragmatic hernias present in both acute and chronic forms. Patients with a more chronic form are most likely to be present with:
A. Respiratory insufficiency
B. Sepsis
C. Bowel obstruction
D. Anemia
Question 8
The AGACNP is managing a patient in the ICU who is being treated for a pulmonary embolus. Initially the patient was stable, awake, alert, and oriented, but during the last several hours the patient has become increasingly lethargic. At change of shift, the oncoming staff nurse appreciates a profound change in the patient’s mental status from the day before. Vital signs and hemodynamic parameters are as follows: BP 88/54 mm Hg Pulse 110 bpm Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute SaO2 93% on a 50% mask Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) 1600 dynes ∙ sec/cm5 Cardiac index 1.3 L/min Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) 8 mm Hg This clinical picture is most consistent with which shock state?
A. Hypovolemic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Distributive
D. Obstructive

Question 9
When counseling patients to prevent postoperative pulmonary complications, the AGACNP knows that with respect to smoking cessation, the American College of Surgeons and National Surgical Quality Improvement Program guidelines are clear that patients who stop smoking _____ weeks before surgery have no increased risk of smokingrelated pulmonary complications.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Question 10
Mitch C. is a 39-year-old male who is brought to the ED by paramedics. According to the report of a neighbor, Mitch was distraught over a breakup with his fiancée and attempted to commit suicide by mixing some chemicals from under his kitchen sink and drinking them; afterward he changed his mind and knocked on his neighbor’s door asking for help. Mitch is awake but stuporous, and the neighbor has no idea what he drank. Visual inspection of his mouth and oropharynx reveals some edema and erythema. He is coughing and has large amounts of pooling saliva. Mitch is not capable of answering questions but he appears in pain. Endoscopy reveals full thickness mucosal injury with mucosal sloughing, ulceration, and exudate. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate course of treatment must include:
A.At least 6 hours of observation in the emergency department
B. Periodic esophagram
C. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
D.Esophagogastrectomy
Question 11
Jared V. is a 35-year-old male who presents for evaluation of a dry cough. He reports feeling well overall but notices that he gets out of breath more easily than he used to when playing soccer. A review of systems yields results that are essentially benign, although the patient does admit to an unusual rash on his legs. Physical examination reveals scattered erythematous nodules on both shins. There is no drainage, discomfort, or itch. Additionally, diffuse, mildly enlarged lymph nodes are appreciated bilaterally. Results of a comprehensive metabolic panel and complete blood count are within normal limits. Twelve-lead ECG reveals sinus bradycardia at 58 bpm. Chest radiography reveals bilateral hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy. The AGACNP suspects:
A.Bronchiectasis
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Sarcoidosis
D.Lung carcinoma
Question 12
Mrs. Miller is a 44-year-old female who is on postoperative day 1 following a total abdominal hysterectomy. Her urine output overnight was approximately 200 mL. The appropriate response for the AGACNP would be to order:
A.A urinalysis and culture
B. 1 liter of NSS over 8 hours
C. Encourage increased mobility
D.Liberalize salt in the diet
Question 13
All of the following are risk factors for spontaneous pneumothorax except:
A.Connective tissue disease
B. Scuba diving
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
D.Central line insertion
Question 14
The AGACNP is going over preoperative information and instructions with a patient who is having a major transverse abdominal procedure tomorrow morning. The patient is very nervous and is asking a lot of questions. The AGACNP prescribes a sleeping agent because he knows that anxiety and sleeplessness may:
A.Lead to hypoxia due to hyperventilation
B. Increase the physiologic stress response postoperatively
C. Contribute to risk of delirium and prolonged length of stay
D.Decreasep.o. intake and produce nutritional risk
Question 15
In a patient with thyroid nodules, which of the following is the diagnostic study of choice to rule out thyroid cancer?
A.Radioiodine scanning
B. Percutaneous needle biopsy
C. CT scan
D.Ultrasound
Question 16
When counseling a patient about treatment modalities for achalasia, the AGACNP advised that which of the following is the treatment of choice?
A.Calcium channel antagonists
B. Intrasphincter botulinum injection
C. Pneumatic dilation
D.Myotomy and partial fundoplication

Question 17
Mr. Liu is a 52-year-old male who has a history of thyroidectomy. He presents complaining of numbness and tingling in his legs and feet and generalized fatigue. Physical examination reveals a positive Chvostek’s sign. Which of the following laboratory studies should be ordered first?
A.Renal function tests
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Calcium
D.Magnesium
Question 18
V. is a 75-year-old male patient who, during a recent wellness evaluation, was found to have a new onset grade II/VI crescendo-decrescendo cardiac murmur at the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border. He is symptom free and reports no limitations to his usual daily activity. He specifically denies activity intolerance or near syncope, and he is very active physically. Echocardiography reveals a mild aortic calcification. The AGACNP knows that ongoing management for R. V. must include:
A.Annual or biannual serial echocardiography
B. Modification of activity level
C. Baseline cardiac catheterization
D. Statin therapy
Question 19
The lower esophageal sphincter is characterized by periods of intermittent relaxation called transient lower esophageal sphincter relaxations. These relaxations are independent of the relaxation triggered by swallowing and are the most common cause of:
A. Physiologic reflux
B. Symptomatic esophagitis
C. Barrett’s metaplasia
D.Esophageal carcinoma
Question 20
While reviewing morning labs on a postoperative patient, the AGACNP notes that the patient’s basic metabolic panel is as follows: Na+ 132 mEq/L K+ 4.6 mEq/L Cl- 87 mEq/L CO2 25 mEq/L A normal saline infusion is ordered in an attempt to avoid:
A.Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D.Metabolic acidosis
Question 21
W. is a 49-year-old man who presents for evaluation. He has a long history of alcohol and tobacco use, with a 65-year pack history and an admitted 14-drink-per-week alcohol habit. He is getting worried because he can no longer swallow his bourbon. He is not a good historian but he does admit to a 1+ year history of bloating, heartburn, and progressive difficulty swallowing food. He didn’t worry too much about his symptoms until he stopped being able to swallow bourbon. He thinks he has lost approximately 15 lbs in the last year. He denies any blood in his stool and has not had any vomiting. The AGACNP knows that the most likely diagnosis is:
A.Zenker’s diverticulum
B. Achalasia
C. Esophageal carcinoma
D.Hiatal hernia
Question 22
Which of the following treatment modalities has no role in the treatment of shock?
A.Lactated Ringer’s
B. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
C. Vasopressors
D.Colloid solutions
Question 23
The development of coronary artery disease (CAD) and, ultimately, plaque formation is a multifactorial process that includes endothelial injury from hypertension, cigarette smoking, and dyslipidemia. These events lead to endothelial cell dysfunction, which is theorized to result in:
A.Decreased nitric oxide production
B. Smooth muscle cell atrophy
C. Collagen degradation
D.Enlarged arterial lumen
Question 24
Mr. Comstock is a 71-year-old male who presents with a general sense of feeling weak and unwell; he thinks he has the flu even though he received a flu vaccination this year. He describes a vague collection of symptoms, including weakness, nausea, dizziness, and “getting out of breath” very easily. He says he can barely climb the steps anymore without stopping to rest. Of the possible differential diagnoses, coronary artery disease (CAD) is high among the probabilities because of his age and gender. His physical examination is unremarkable except that he appears weak. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 98.0°F, pulse 100 bpm, respiratory rate 16 b.p.m., and BP 178/100 mm Hg. A chest radiograph is within normal limits with no acute pulmonary infection. A 12-lead ECG reveals inverted T waves in leads V1 to V5. The AGACNP is suspicious that most of his symptoms are:
A. Psychosomatic
B. Early congestive heart failure (CHF)
C. Anginal equivalents
D.Normal age-related changes
Question 25
Mrs. Carpenter is a 59-year-old female who presents with an acute myocardial infarction. She is acutely short of breath and has coarse rales on auscultation. Physical examination reveals a grade V/VI systolic murmur, loudest at the point of maximal impulse with radiation to the midaxillary line. The AGACP recognizes:
A. Acute mitral valve regurgitation
B. Acute aortic valve regurgitation
C. Acute cardiac tamponade
D. Acute pulmonary embolus
Question 26
Mr. Nelson is a 65-year-old male who has been advised that he is a candidate for coronary artery bypass grafting. He has been doing some internet research and is asking about whether or not he should have a “beating heart” bypass. Regarding off-pump coronary bypass grafting, the AGACNP advises Mr. Nelson that:
A.There is a slightly higher risk of neurologic complications
B. Long-term results suggest that the grafts do not stay open as long as those in traditional bypass grafting
C. The incidence of off-pump bypass grafting has increased significantly in the last 10 years
D.The off-pump procedure is considerably more expensive but is correlated with better long-term outcomes
Question 27
Mrs. McCallum is a 48-year-old female who presents for evaluation of a vague set of gastrointestinal symptoms. She feels generally well and has always been healthy, but lately she has had a lot of heartburn and a sense of reflux in her throat. Most recently she has had a recurring sense of food getting stuck in her throat. The AGACNP knows that which diagnostic study should be performed first?
A.Barium swallow
B. Upper endoscopy
C. Esophageal manometry
D.Ambulatory pH monitoring
Question 28
Mr. Key is a 53-year-old male patient who developed empyema following a serious bout of bacterial pneumonia. He presented as septic and was started immediately on intravenous antibiotics and drainage of the sinus cavity. Forty-eight hours later, he is much improved clinically and drainage has receded. The next step in his care would be:
A.A CT scan
B. Eloesser’s procedure
C. Decortication
D.Reexpansion
Question 29
Mrs. Bowers is a 41-year-old patient who requires surgical management of osteomyelitis. She has a long history of methamphetamine use and has a BMI of 17.9 kg/m2 . She clearly is nutritionally depleted and volume contracted, but she has no clear chronic medical history except for unmedicated hypertension, which may be due to her chronic stimulant use. She denies alcohol use but admits to a 1½ pack a day cigarette habit. A primary postoperative concern for Mrs. Bowers is:
A.Excess bleeding
B. Thromboemboli development
C. Poor wound healing
D.Renal failure
Question 30
The congenital diaphragmatic hernia that occurs more often in women and does not usually produce symptoms until midlife is known as:
A.Zenker’s hernia
B. Bochdalek’s hernia
C. Morgagni’s hernia
D.Atraumatic hernia
Question 31
B. is a 67-year-old male who is being discharged following inpatient management for unstable angina. S. B. did not know that he had coronary artery disease (CAD) and in fact had not seen a health care provider for many years. While reviewing his lifestyle habits, he admits that he is obese, has poor eating habits, does not engage in any purposeful physical activity, and smokes two packs of cigarettes daily. He verbalizes that he is grateful that this was not a “real” heart attack and does not seem receptive to lifestyle management strategies. The AGACNP advises him that it is important to take this “warning” attack seriously because:
A. 10% of patients with unstable angina will die of cardiovascular disease within 6 months
B. 25% of patients with unstable angina will develop congestive heart failure within 6 months
C. 65% of patients with unstable angina will have an ST elevation MI within 1 year
D. 90% of patients with unstable angina will have cerebrovascular symptoms within 1 year
Question 32
According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS), who among the following patients should have a chest radiograph as part of preoperative assessment?
A.All patients > 40 years of age
B. All patients who smoke cigarettes
C. All patients having thoracic procedures
D.All patients with cardiac disease
Question 33
According to the Carpentier classification scheme of mitral valve regurgitation, a type I regurgitation is most likely due to:
A.Cardiomyopathy
B. Excessive leaflet motion
C. Ruptured papillary muscles
D.Rheumatic heart disease
Question 34
V. is a 37-year-old female who is admitted via the emergency room after her roommate called emergency medical services (EMS). She has no significant medical history and does not know what is wrong with her. She has been feeling generally unwell for the last few days, and today she had an episode of confusion that scared her roommate to the extent that the roommate called EMS. Her physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.9°F, pulse of 110 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg. A comprehensive metabolic panel reveals a slightly elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine but otherwise is normal. A white blood cell differential reveals a leukocyte count of 14,000 cells/µL with neutrophils of 83%. The AGACNP knows that these values are consistent with:
A. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
B. High-output septic shock
C. Neurogenic shock
D.Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)
Question 35
Which shock state is worsened in the setting of mechanical ventilation?
A. Septic
B. Cardiac compressive
C. Neurogenic
D.Cardiogenic
Question 36
B. is a 41-year-old male being admitted for surgical reduction of an open femur fracture sustained in a multiple vehicle collision. Preoperative assessment reveals that he is on beta-adrenergic antagonists after having been diagnosed with coronary artery disease approximately 1 month ago. He admits that he feels a little better but says he still gets pain in his chest when he exerts himself. He is pain free now. Vital signs are as follows: temperature 98.1°F, pulse 88 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 142/86 mm Hg. The AGACNP knows that which of the following is the most important action before R. B. goes to the operating room?
A.A cardiology consultation
B. Blood pressure control
C. Resuming beta-adrenergic antagonists
D. Pain control
Question 37
Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by a collection of desquamated keratin leading to bony erosion in the ossicular chain and inner ear. The goal of surgery in cholesteatoma is:
A. Production of a dry ear
B. Preservation of sensorineural hearing
C. Debridement of infection
D.Restoration of the tympanic membrane
Question 38
The AGACNP knows that when managing a patient with acute cardiogenic shock after myocardial infarction, all of the following pharmacologic agents may be used except:
A.Opioids
B. Diuretics
C. Beta-adrenergic antagonists
D.Anticholinergics
Question 39
Mr. Baer is a 79-year-old man who is being admitted for a carotid endarterectomy. While performing his preoperative evaluation, the AGACNP appreciates two positive answers to the CAGE screening questionnaire. This is an indication for:
A. Perioperative benzodiazepines for withdrawal syndrome
B. Daily multivitamin and 100 mg of thiamine perioperatively
C. Further diagnostic evaluation for alcoholism
D.Delay of operation until completion of detoxification
Question 40
According to the American College of Cardiology Foundation and the American Heart Association (ACCF/AHA), the recommendation regarding antiplatelet therapy in patients with cardiovascular disease preoperatively is that:
A.Antiplatelet therapy should be held for 10 days preoperatively
B. Cardiac consultation is required before an operation in patients who are on antiplatelet therapy
C. Medications should be continued unless concerns about hemostasis are significant
D.Antiplatelet therapy should be initiated in all high-risk cardiac procedures
Question 41
Mr. Austin is a 64-year-old male who has a long history of mitral valve stenosis. His condition has developed to the extent that he has symptomatic congestive heart failure, and due to a variety of comorbidities he is not a candidate for surgery. Ongoing medical therapy for Mr. Austin should include:
A.Anticoagulants
B. Diuretics
C. Antibiotics
D.Inotropes
Question 42
The progression of coronary artery plaque formation can lead to a variety of pathologic conditions. When subtotal plaque disruption occurs resulting in vasoconstriction, platelet activation, and embolization, it most commonly causes which clinical phenomenon?
A.Endothelial cell dysfunction
B. Prinzmetal’s angina
C. Transmural myocardial infarction
D.Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction
Question 43
D. is a 29-year-old male who presents with a chief complaint of profound dizziness for the past 2 to 3 days. Further clarification reveals that he is having brief but intense episodes of a sense of the room spinning. He denies any history of head injury or discharge from the ear. The vertigo is reproduced easily with cervical rotation. The AGACNP knows that the most likely cause is:
A.Cerebral tumor
B. Ménière’s disease
C. Adverse drug effect
D.Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
Question 44
P.T. is a 61-year-old male who is seen in follow-up. He was initially seen for evaluation of dysphagia. An endoscopy was negative for malignancy and subsequent esophageal manometry supported a diagnosis of esophageal achalasia. While discussing implications and treatment options with P.T., the AGACNP tells him that the primary complication of achalasia is:
A. Progressive esophageal discomfort
B. Aspiration pneumonia
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D.Long-term malabsorption problems
Question 45
R. is a 51-year-old female who presents in shock following a penetrating injury to the spinal cord—her boyfriend reportedly stabbed her in the back with an unidentified kitchen utensil. The patient’s mental status is deteriorating, and her vital signs are as follows: temperature 97.2°F, heart rate 131 bpm, respirations 14 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 79/49 mm Hg. The AGACNP presumes neurogenic shock, with the injury likely:
A.Not fully transecting the spinal cord
B. At the level of T10
C. Precipitating sepsis
D. Producing cardiovascular decompensation
Question 46
Janet is a 34-year-old female with no significant medical history who is being evaluated for a planned uterine ablation. She has significant history of menorrhagia and has been unresponsive to a variety of medical therapies to try to stop the bleeding. Her history and physical examination are within normal limits. The AGACNP knows that Janet will require which one of the following preoperative diagnostic studies?
A. Urinalysis
B. Complete blood count
C. 12-lead electrocardiogram
D.Chest radiography
Question 47
Best practices for assessing diseases of the thyroid gland include a thorough but targeted history, systematic physical examination, and selective use of appropriate diagnostic evaluation. The AGACNP knows that although serum T3 and T4 are not indicated routinely, a free T4 test is most useful in evaluating patients:
A.With profound symptoms of hypothyroidism
B. Following treatment for Graves’ disease
C. To rule out autonomous toxic nodule
D. At risk for thyroid cancer

Question 48
Evaluation of cardiac valve disease must include:
A.Chest radiography
B. 12-lead ECG
C. Echocardiography
D.Chemical stress test
Question 49
Jolene L. is a 36-year-old female who presents for an emergent cholecystectomy; she has had progressive acute pain for almost 1 week and now there is concern about gangrenous tissue. Of particular concern is the fact that she has Graves’ disease and has not been adherent to treatment. On admission, her temperature is 102.7°F, pulse is 158 bpm, and blood pressure is 180/114 mm Hg. She is tremulous and anxious. A 12-lead ECG reveals uncontrolled atrial fibrillation. Before cholecystectomy, Jolene must be treated with:
A.Digitalis for heart rate control
B. Radioactive ablation
C. Beta-adrenergic antagonists
D.Reserpine
Question 50
W. is discussing his postoperative hip replacement expectations. He is advised that although he will have some discomfort, he should be vocal about asking for pain medication, because it is essential that he get out of bed and begin ambulating as soon as possible after his surgery. He expresses some fear and is concerned that his hip won’t heal properly if he walks on it. The AGACNP reassures him that he must begin ambulating quickly in order to decrease risk for:
A.Decubitus ulcers
B. Scar tissue formation
C. Pneumonia
D.Anxiety
Question 51
H. is a 71-year-old male with small cell lung cancer; he has been treated with chemotherapy. Initially he had symptom improvement but now appears to have had a recurrence. On examination today, he is quite edematous and has gained 12 lbs since his office visit 1 week ago. A metabolic panel reveals a serum Na+ of 119 mEq/dL. The AGACNP knows that J. H. likely has:
A.Brain metastasis
B. Congestive heart failure (CHF)
C. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
D.Metabolic alkalosis
Question 52
According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS) and the National Surgical Quality Improvement Program (NSQIP) guidelines for preoperative evaluation of the geriatric patient, the preoperative evaluation should include all of the following except:
A.Cognitive ability
B. Functional status
C. Competency assessment
D. Frailty score
Question 53
Improvements in both equipment and technique have led to the evolution of video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) as being used most commonly for:
A.Mediastinal lymph node dissection
B. Resection of malignant tumor
C. Metastasectomy
D.Thoracic vertebral discectomy
Question 54
Which of the following is a normal finding on postoperative day 8 of a carotid endarterectomy?
A.A temperature of 100.5°F
B. Serosanguinous drainage with some tenderness
C. A flesh-colored induration along the entire length of the incision
D.A fluctuant collection of milky fluid
Question 55
Mrs. Evans is an 82-year-old female who is on postoperative day 3 following resection of a small bowel tumor. She is alert today and her nasogastric tube is removed. The AGACNP knows that if the recovery proceeds normally, Mrs. Evans may begin clear liquids:
A.Immediately
B. In 24 hours
C. When bowel sounds return
D.After a negative swallow study
Question 56
When writing the initial postoperative progress note, the AGACNP should be sure to include all of the following except:
A.A summary of the procedure and any significant deviations from normal
B. An outline of the plan for postoperative management and follow-up
C. The plan for ongoing monitoring
D. Mechanism of DVT prophylaxis
Question 57
T. is a 39-year-old male who presents to the hospital emergency room with a chief complaint of profound substernal chest pain. Results of the 12-lead ECG and cardiac enzymes test are normal. Vital signs are as follows: temperature 101.9°F, pulse 129 bpm, respirations 26 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg. The patient is pale and clearly unwell, and physical examination reveals a systolic pericardial crunching sound. Which of the following additional pieces of history would make the AGACNP suspect acute mediastinitis?
A.A 48 pack year smoke history
B. A 2-day history of vomiting
C. Aortic valve regurgitation
D.Cardiac tamponade
Question 58
Mrs. Van Doern is being examined on postop day 3 following surgical resection following a bowel obstruction. The postoperative course been unremarkable. Upon removal of the dressing, the incision is dry with staples intact. There is an approximately 0.5 cm erythema around the incision. There is no exudate. The patient demonstrates some discomfort on palpation of the site. The most appropriate approach to this patient includes:
A.Leaving the wound open to air and medicating for pain
B. Ordering a topical antibiotic, replacing the dressing with a nonadherent dressing, and following up in 2 days
C. Beginning systemic antibiotics to cover skin flora
D.Obtaining a white blood cell differential, redress the wound and reassess in the a.m.

Question 59
K.T. is a 38-year-old female with a BMI of 39 kg/m2 who needs surgical reduction of a hiatal hernia. She is asking about the recovery process and says that she has read about something called the obesity paradox. She wants to know what that means with respect to her healing. The AGACNP explains that the paradox refers to the fact that:
A. Obesity correlates with poor outcomes for some surgical procedures but not others.
B. There is an inverse relationship between weight and surgical outcomes.
C. Underweight patients have more surgical complications than obese patients.
D. Planned weight loss preoperatively is indicated only when the BMI is > 40 kg/m2 .
Question 60
Esophageal motility disorders are sometimes a consequence of systemic diseases such as scleroderma, Raynaud’s disease, and systemic lupus erythematosus. When patients with these diseases have gastroparesis, which medication should be added to the regimen?
A. A proton pump inhibitor
B. A histamine 2 receptor antagonist
C. A calcium channel antagonist
D. A promotility agent
Question 61
S. is a 46-year-old female with metastatic breast cancer. She is currently off cycle for chemotherapy and generally is feeling well. Today, however, she presents feeling acutely unwell. She says that she has had coldlike symptoms over the last few days, including cough, nasal congestion, headache, and a hoarse voice in the mornings. Today she became acutely concerned because she feels as though her face and even shoulders look swollen and a bit discolored—bluish. She denies any nausea or vomiting but admits to feeling generally fatigued; she attribute it to her cancer. Recognizing the likely diagnosis, the AGACNP knows that treatment will likely include:
A.Radiation
B. Surgery
C. Fibrinolytics
D. Expansile stents
Question 62
D. is a 61-year-old female patient who complaints of pleuritic chest pain and cough. During the history, she indicates that she occasionally has seen a little bit of blood in her sputum, but she thought it was from coughing so hard. What finally prompted her to come in was that she coughed up a “stone.” Recognizing that the patient might have broncholithiasis, the AGACNP asks about exposure to:
A.Cigarettes
B. Asbestos
C. Bird excrement
D. Swimming pools
Question 63
Heart transplant is the surgical option for patients with congestive heart failure for whom medical therapies have failed. All of the following are contraindications to transplant except:
A.New York Heart Association (NYHA) class IV status
B. Obesity
C. Elevated pulmonary vascular resistance
D.Recent malignancy
Question 64
Kelly T. is a 49-year-old female who is being admitted for aortic valve replacement. Her preoperative evaluation revealed an ascending thoracic aneurysm of 4.8 cm in diameter. Kelly has not had any aneurysm symptoms and is generally considered a very strong surgical candidate. The AGACNP knows that the standard of care dictates:
A. Postponing her valve surgery due to the aneurysm
B. Annual imaging of the aneurysm after her valve replacement
C. Surgical repair of the aneurysm at the same time as valve replacement
D. Surgical repair of the aneurysm after successful recovery from valve replacement
Question 65
K. is a 39-year-old female who was admitted for evaluation of progressive activity intolerance, and chest radiography revealed a large right lower lobe pleural effusion. A pleural fluid tap was performed, but fluid analysis results were inconclusive and the cause of the effusion could not be identified. The AGACNP knows that which diagnostic study is most appropriate to identify the cause of pleural effusion when fluid analysis is inadequate?
A. Scalene biopsy
B. Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS)
C. Pleural needle biopsy
D.Open surgical biopsy
Question 66
While on call, the AGACNP is asked to evaluate a deteriorating patient. The patient was admitted for exacerbation of pneumonia and congestive heart failure (CHF). The systolic blood pressure is < 90 mm Hg, and the urine output is < 10 mL/hr. A 12-lead ECG reveals no acute processes but reveals previously noted changes that are consistent with bilateral atrial and ventricular enlargement and a marked left axis deviation. You insert a pulmonary artery (PA) line and anticipate which of the following pressures? (CI, cardiac index; PAOP, pulmonary artery occlusion pressure ; RAP, right atrial pressure)
A.CI 1.3 L/min, PAOP 27 mm Hg, RAP 18 mm Hg
B. CI 1.9 L/min, PAOP 12 mm Hg, RAP 6 mm Hg
C. CI 2.4 L/min, PAOP 18 mm Hg, RAP 8 mm Hg
D.CI 1.4 L/min, PAOP 7 mm Hg, RAP 4 mm Hg
Question 67
A critically ill patient with multiple traumatic injuries sustained during a motor vehicle accident has had a pulmonary artery line inserted to follow cardiac pressures. Which of the following sets of pressures would be consistent with hypovolemic shock? (CI, cardiac index; CVP, central venous pressure; PCWP, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure)
A.CI 1.3 L/min, PCWP 27 mm Hg, CVP 18 mm Hg
B. CI 1.3 L/min, PCWP 6 mm Hg, CVP 4 mm Hg
C. CI 2.3 L/min, PCWP 12 mm Hg, CVP 8 mm Hg
D.CI 2.9 L/min, PCWP 16 mm Hg, CVP 6 mm Hg
Question 68
Aggressive fluid resuscitation is indicated in all of the following shock states except:
A.Hypovolemic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Obstructive
D.Distributive
Question 69
The risk-benefit ratio always is considered when evaluating patients with mitral valve disease as surgical candidates for valve correction. Who among the following patients is not considered a good operative candidate?
A. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and endocarditis with systemic embolization
B. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and left ventricular dysfunction
C. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and normal ventricular function
D. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and pulmonary hypertension
Question 70
T. is a 29-year-old male who is recovering from an open fixation of a femur fracture sustained in a diving accident. He has an order for Dilaudid 1 mg IV q2h p.r.n. for pain. He is still having pain and requests more medication. The AGACNP considers that:
A.This is the maximum dose for Dilaudid and nonpharmacologic measures should be maximized
B. The dose may be increased to 2 mg and response assessed
C. He may be opiate addicted, and this should be explored before the dose is increased
D.An adjunct medication such as ibuprofen should be added to his regimen
Question 71
Mrs. Saraceno is a 71-year-old female who had an episode of acute pulmonary edema following an endovascular aneurysm repair. She was managed successfully with a loop diuretic and is ultimately discharged on furosemide 60 mg daily and instructed to follow up with cardiology. She is seen in the office postoperatively 2 weeks after discharge. She has not yet seen a cardiologist but has continued all discharge medications. Her metabolic panel is as follows: Na+ 126 mEq/L K+ 4.0 mEq/L Cl- 93 mEq/L CO2 28 mEq/L BUN 40 mg/dL Cr 1.3 mg/dL The AGACNP recognizes that the patient likely has which abnormality as a consequence of diuretic overuse?
A.Hyponatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Metabolic acidosis
D.Intrarenal failure
Question 72
Mrs. Hoffman is an 82-year-old female who is on postoperative day 4 following mastectomy for breast cancer. This morning her vital signs include a temperature of 101.2°F, pulse of 110 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg. The incisions look good and there is no physical finding or symptom of incision infection. The only abnormal physical finding is a significant tender edema on the right cheek and neck. In addition to ordering increased intravenous hydration and parenteral antibiotics to target Staphylococcus aureus, the AGACNP orders:
A. Loop diuretics
B. Chewing gum
C. Ambulation
D.Incentive spirometry
Question 73
Kelly is a 50-year-old female who had chest radiography as part of a preoperative history and physical examination before an elective cosmetic procedure. She has no significant medical history and takes no daily medications except hormone therapy for menopausal symptoms. The radiology report of her chest film includes a 4-mm coin lesion in the right middle lobe. Kelly reports her health as excellent and has no clear risk factors for malignancy. The AGACNP knows that the next step in her management should be:
A.Repeat radiography in 6 months
B. CT scan of the chest
C. Needle biopsy of the lesion
D.A pulmonology consult
Question 74
Which of the following esophageal foreign objects should not have endoscopic removal attempted? A.Impacted meat
B. Pointed nail
C. Button battery
D.Cocaine packet
Question 75
Mrs. Glasgow is a 55-year-old female who is day 4 post open cholecystectomy. She has had some unanticipated postoperative ectopy and remains hospitalized. This morning her temperature is 100.9°F. While assessing her for infection, the AGACNP knows that which finding would be most consistent with an infectious process?
A.Neutrophilia of 82% of the white blood cell differential
B. A blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio of > 20
C. Pain to palpation at the incision site
D.A significant decrease in appetite
Question 76
L. is a 48-year-old female who has suffered with profound GERD symptoms for several years. She has had aggressive trials of medical therapies and has been adherent to nonpharmacologic interventions. She is now in the aggressive diagnostic phase of evaluation and is preparing for 24-hour ambulatory pH monitoring. The AGACNP advises that in preparation for this test, M. L. should:
A.Continue her current proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy consistent with the way she has been taking it
B. Eat consistently with her normal eating habits up until the procedure
C. Avoid straining for a bowel movement while the monitor is in place
D.Not do anything differently as compared with her normal daily life
Question 77
Mr. Rowley is a 79-year-old male patient who is having a surgical repair of a thoracic aneurysm. He has significant underlying chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and coronary artery disease (CAD), and his early postoperative course will require ventilator support, nutritional support, and a variety of drains and other apparatuses. His wife has asked that he not be told about the ventilator because he is afraid of it—he watched his brother struggle with ventilator therapy. The best approach would be to tell Mrs. Rowley that:
A.The patient will be sedated and will not remember the ventilator after he recovers
B. Her wishes will be respected and the ventilator specifically will not be discussed
C. Being prepared for his postoperative treatment will lessen his anxiety and fear
D.Every effort will be made to avoid ventilator support

Question 78
Ludwig’s angina is a potentially fatal condition characterized by neck pain, neck edema, edema of the base of the mouth, and tongue displacement. The AGACNP knows that the underlying cause is a consequence of:
A.Arteriolar constriction
B. Hypersensitivity
C. Infection
D.Adverse drug effect
Question 79
When counseling a 41-year-old female patient who requires mitral valve surgery for severe mitral stenosis, the AGACNP helps differentiate among options. She advises the patient that in most circumstances, given her age, she is likely to do best with which type of procedure?
A.Bioprosthetic valve replacement
B. Mechanical valve replacement
C. Native valve debridement
D.Catheter-based balloon valvotomy
Question 80
Alan is a 14-year-old male who has been referred for evaluation of a previously undiagnosed cardiac murmur. According to his parents, Alan has no significant medical history and has always been a healthy child. His growth and development have been within normal limits and his well-child checks have been normal. His cardiac murmur was identified during a soccer preparticipation physical examination. During today’s exam, he denies any cardiopulmonary symptoms. He admits that he gets out of breath when he is running during soccer but assumed it was just because he was running. Physical examination reveals a grade III/VI systolic murmur at the 2nd intercostal space, left sternal border, and a clearly fixed split S2 heart sound. The AGACNP knows that this murmur is probably:
A.Mitral regurgitation
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Atrial septal defect
D. Still’s murmur
Question 81
The AGACNP is evaluating a patient who he believes has fungal pneumonia. The patient says she has just relocated to Pennsylvania from Scottsdale, Arizona. When considering specific types of fungal etiology, the AGACNP knows that which type is endemic to the Arizona desert?
A.Histoplasmosis
B. Blastomycosis
C. Coccidioidomycosis
D.Aspergillosis P
Question 82
With respect to management of chronic illness on the morning of surgery, which of the following is a true statement?
A. Patient with diabetes should be started on an insulin gtt to maintain serum glucose < 150 mg/dL
B. Patients with coronary artery disease should have antiplatelet agents held
C. Patients on beta adrenergic antagonists should continue therapy
D. Patients with Hgb < 9 mg/dL should be transfused with packed red blood cells
Question 83
Mr. Mireya is a 66-year-old male who is admitted for palliative surgery for a glioblastoma. He has borderline stage III-IV chronic kidney disease. The AGACNP realizes that he is at increased risk in the perioperative period for:
A.Hypercalcemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D.Eosinophilia
Question 84
Barrett’s esophagus is best described as:
A.A symptomatic condition of gastric reflux
B. A condition that occurs more commonly in women of childbearing age
C. A metaplastic adaptation to repeated irritation
D.A secondary motility disorder
Question 85
Ms. Carson is a 71-year-old female who presents with significant pleuritic-type chest pain. She has no known cardiopulmonary history and does not smoke cigarettes. Her history is significant only for an upper endoscopy this morning for evaluation of severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). She tolerated the procedure well and was discharged home. Over the afternoon she developed worsening pain on the left side of her chest and finally had to come to the emergency department. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 100.0°F, pulse 116 bpm, respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 96/60 mm Hg. The AGACNP orders which of the following diagnostic studies to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
A.Chest radiograph
B. 12-lead ECG
C. Upper endoscopy
D.Esophagram
Question 86
Lilly M. is a 44-year-old female who is transferred to the emergency department following a severe fall. She had been standing on the balcony of a four-story building and tried to balance on the railing. She fell and sustained numerous internal and external injuries. In the emergency room she was in profound hypovolemic shock. Bleeding appears to have been stopped, and rapid infusion of 2 L of normal saline has just been completed. The AGACNP knows that the next step in fluid resuscitation includes:
A.Transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) based on hematocrit
B. Infusion of 1 L of lactated Ringer’s
C. 1 more liter of normal saline solution (NSS) over 10 minutes
D.No additional fluid unless the systolic blood pressure (SBP) is < 90 mm Hg
Question 87
W. is a 67-year-old male with a history of significant coronary artery disease, who now presents in acute cardiogenic shock. His blood pressure is 82/50 mm Hg, and the pulse is in sinus bradycardia at 44 bpm. He is awake and oriented but lethargic and says he feels lightheaded. The treatment of choice for this patient is:
A. Transvenous pacing
B. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
C. Atropine 0.5 mg q2min × 4
D. Epinephrine 1 mg IV
Question 88
Jeff Z. is a 49-year-old male who is on the heart transplant list due to myocarditis-related end stage congestive heart failure. While counseling Jeff about bridge devices that allow him to be discharged from the hospital, the AGACNP tells Jeff that the most frequently used device is:
A.Ideal for smaller-framed patients
B. Implanted below the diaphragm
C. Independent of external power for up to 24 hours
D.Good for up to 2 years
Question 89
Mrs. Brownlee is a 63-year-old female who is admitted for surgical replacement of her aortic valve. She has a history of symptomatic aortic stenosis, osteoarthritis, and hypothyroidism. She has always been very thin, and her admitting height and weight are 5’4” and 110 lbs. In considering her postoperative nutritional needs, the AGACNP recognizes that:
A. Postoperative calorie requirements are higher than baseline because of the hypermetabolic response to physiologic stress
B. The parasympathetic response to thoracic surgery requires a proportionally greater increase in protein calories
C. Calorie requirements will not change postoperatively, as the increased stress response is balanced by bedrest and decreased activity calorie use.
D.Nutritional requirements are individualized postoperatively, and it is not possible to predict postoperative needs in

Question 90
Mr. Cortez is a 41-year-old male with a long history of chronic allergic rhinitis. He has not had health insurance for most of his adult life, so he has self-treated his nasal symptoms with a combination of over-the-counter agents including antihistamines, decongestants, and nasal sprays. He recently obtained coverage under the Affordable Care Act and presents more regularly for care of his chronic nasal symptoms; he cannot go longer than a few

Q7. NURS 6512 FINAL EXAM: WALDEN UNIVERSITY (Already graded A)

NURS 6512 FINAL EXAM: WALDEN UNIVERSITY
1. Costovertebral angle tenderness should be assessed whenever you suspect the patient may have: –
2. In older adults, overflow fecal incontinence is commonly due to:
3. A 1 month old boy has been vomiting for 2 weeks. How is this symptom of GERD and pyloric stenosis further differentiated in this child’s assessment?
4. Auscultation of borborygmi is associated with:
5. When auscultating the abdomen, which finding would indicate collateral circulation between the portal and systemic venous systems? –
6. Conversion of fat-soluble wastes to water-soluble material for renal excretion is a function of the: –
7. The major function of the large intestine is: –
8. Which structure is located in the hypogastric region of the abdomen? –
9. A 45 year old man relates a several week history of severe intermittent abdominal burning sensations. He relates that the pain is relieved with small amounts of food. Before starting the physical examination, you review his laboratory work, anticipating a (n): –
10. You are caring for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. During the assessment, the patient would describe the pain as: –
11. Your 85 year old patient is complaining of right knee pain. She has a history of osteoarthritis for which she is given anti-inflammatory medication. To assess her right knee pain, you should ask her if: – 12. A 5 year old is complaining of nondescriptive “belly pain.” Your next action should be to ask him to: – 13. The perception of pain: –
14. Patients presenting with ascites, jaundice, cutaneous spider veins, and nonpalpable liver exhibit signs of: –
15. A patient presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The patient sustained blunt trauma to the abdomen and complains of pain in the upper left quadrant that radiates to the left shoulder. What organ is most likely injured?
16. Imaging studies reveal that a patient has dilation of the renal pelvis from an obstruction in the ureter, what condition will be documented in this patient’s health record? –
17. Visible intestinal peristalsis may indicate: –
18. Infants born weighing less than 1500g are at higher risk for:
19. Which of the following factors is not known to affect patient compliance with his or her treatment regimen? –
20. One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: –
21. The sequence of the physical examination should be individualized to:
22. As you greet the patient, which examination technique is first implemented? –
23. Which of the following is most likely to enhance examiner reliability?
24. A 7 year old boy is brought to your office with a chief complaint of possible fracture to his left third finger. He jammed it while playing basketball 2 days ago. The mother states that she really does not think it is broken because he can move it. What is your best response? –
25. A patient presenting for the first time with typical low back pain should receive which of the following diagnostic tests?
26. Skeletal changes in older adults are the result of: –
27. A positive straight leg raise test usually indicates: –
28. What technique is performed at every infant examination during the first year of life to detect hipdislocation? –
29. Expected normal findings during inspection of spinal alignment include-
30. Temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by:-
31. When palpating joints, crepitus may be caused when: –
32. A 3 year old is brought to the clinic complaining of a painful right elbow. He is holding the right arm slightly flexed and pronated and refuses to move it. the mother states that symptoms started right after his older brother had been swinging him around by his arms. This presentation supports a diagnosis of: –
33. Light skin and thin body habitus are risk factors for: –
34. Risk factors for sports-related injuries include: –
35. Injuries to long bones and joints are more likely to result in fractures than in sprains until: –
36. Ligaments are stronger than bone until: –
37. The family history for a patient with joint pain should include information about siblings with: –
38. The Thomas test is used to detect: –
39. A goniometer is used to assess: –
40. During a football game, a player was struck on the lateral side of the left leg while his feet were firmly planted. He is complaining of left knee pain. To examine the left knee you should initially perform the ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬________ test. –
41. You note that a child has a positive Gower Sign. You know that this indicates generalized: –
42. The dowager hump is: –
43. What temporary disorder may be experienced by pregnant women during the third trimester because of fluid retention?–
44. A common finding in markedly obese and pregnant women is: –
45. A 45-year-old laborer presents with low back pain, stating that the pain comes from the right buttock and shoots down and across the right anterior thigh, down the shin to the ankle. Which examination finding is considered more indicative of nerve root compression?A 45 year old laborer presents with low back pain, stating that the pain comes from the right buttock and shoots down and across the right anterior thigh, down the shin to the ankle. Which examination finding is considered more indicative of nerve root compression? –
46. Mrs. Bower is a 57 year old patient who comes in for an office visit. Which of the following disorders is known to be hereditary? –
47. Testing of cranial nerve ¬¬¬¬________ is not routinely performed unless a problem is suspected. – I
48. The patient is able to rapidly touch each finger to his thumb in rapid sequence. What does this finding mean? –
49. Which question asked by the examiner may hellp to determine prevention strategies for seizures that a patient is experiencing? –
50. A patient has a complaint of dizziness. The patient makes the following statement: “I sometimes feel as if the whole room is spinning.” What type of neurologic dysfunction should the examiner suspect? –
51. The examiner asks the patient to close her eyes, then places a vibrating tuning fork on the patient’s ankle and asks her to indicate what is felt. What is being assessed? –
52. Which of the following findings should an examiner consider a normal finding if associated with pregnancy? – –
52. Jack is a 52 year old obese man with a history of poorly controlled diabetes. He also smokes. Based on the above data, the examiner should recognize that Jack has several risk factors for: – –
53. Mrs. Jones is a 24 year old patient who presents to your office 2 days postpartum. She complains that she is experiencing foot drop. Which of the following problems should the examiner consider? –
54. The examiner is assessing deep tendon reflex response in a 12 year old boy. The response is an expected reflex response. Which of the following scores should be documented? –
55. A 68 year old patient presents to your office for follow-up. He tells you, “I have a hard time finding the right words when I am talking;” he also is experiencing numbness. On examination, you note postural instability. This symptom may be: –
56. Motor maturation proceeds in an orderly progression from: –
57. The thalamus is the major integration center for perception of: –
58. The examiner should be concerned about neurologic competence if a social smile cannot be elicited by the time a child is ________old. –
59. Normal changes of the aging brain include: – –
60. When interviewing a 70 year old female clinic patient, she tells you that she takes ginkgo biloba and St. John’s Wort. You make a short note to check for results of the: —
61. The area of body surface innervated by a particular spinal nerve is called a: – –
62. If a patient cannot shrug the shoulders against resistance, which cranial nerve (CN) requires further evaluation? – –
63. The finger-to-nose test allows assessment of: – –
64. You ask the patient to follow a series of short commands to assess: – –
65. As Mr. B. enters the room, you observe that his gait is wide based and he staggers from side to side while swaying his trunk. You would document Mr. B.’s pattern as: –
66. When is the mental status portion of the neurologic system examination performed? –
67. An aversion to touch or being held, along with delayed or absent language development, is a characteristic of: —
68. The autonomic nervous system coordinates which of the following? –
69. The major function of the sympathetic nervous system is to: – –
70. The parasympathetic nervous system maintains the day-to-day function of: –
71. Cerebrospinal fluid serves as a: – –
72. You are performing a two-point discrimination test as part of a well physical examination. The area with the ability to discern two points in the shortest distance is the: —
73. Which type of hallucination is most commonly associated with alcohol withdrawal? – –
74. On a scale of 0 to 4+, which deep tendon reflex score is appropriate for a finding of clonus in a patient? –
75. Which statement is true regarding mental status changes in older adults? – –
76. A characteristic related to syphilis or diabetic neuropathy is testicular: —
77. When collecting personal and social history data from a woman complaining of breast discomfort, you should question her regarding: – –
78. What risk factor is associated with cervical cancer? – –
79. A 23 year old female presents with severe right lower quadrant tenderness. All of the following should be considered in the differential except: – –
80. What is the initial diagnostic radiology test that should be ordered if you suspect a ruptured ovarian cyst? – –
81. A 17 year old male was brought into the emergency room with testicular/scrotal pain. The differential diagnosis should include all except: –
82. The nursing mother complains that her breasts are tender. You assess hard, shiny, and erythremicbreasts bilaterally. You should advise the patient to: – –
83. A normal vas deferens should feel: – –
84. In a woman complaining of a breast lump, it is most important to ask about: – –
85. The finding of a painless indurated lesion on the glans penis is most consistent with: – –
86. Thrombosed hemorrhoids are: – –
87. Pregnancy-related cervical changes include: –
88. You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should: – –
89. An adolescent male is being seen for acute onset of left testicular pain. The pain started 3 hours ago. He complains of nausea and denies dysuria or fever. Your prioritized assessment should be to: –
90. A 23 year old white woman has come to the clinic because she has missed two menstrual periods. She states that her breasts have enlarged and that her nipples have turned a darker color. Your further response to this finding is: – –
91. What accommodations should be used in the position of a hearing-impaired woman for a pelvic examination? – –
92. Sexual differentiation in the fetus has occurred by ¬¬¬_______weeks gestation. – –
93. You are performing a clinical breast examination for a 55 year old woman. While palpating the supraclavicular area, you suspect that you felt a node. In order to improve your hooked technique, you should: —
94. If a firm, transverse ridge of compressed tissue is felt bilaterally along the lower edge of a 40 year old patient’s breast, you should: —
95. A therapeutic technique for dealing with grieving individuals is to: –
96. The examination of the newborn should begin with: – –
97. Which one of the following patient characteristics is most likely to limit patient reliability during history taking? – –
98. In crying infants, it is often difficult to: – –
99. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the sensitivity and specificity of laboratory tests? –-
100. Which medical condition would exclude one from sports participation? – –
101. Your 15 year old patient is athletic and thin. Radiography of an ankle injury reveals a stress fracture. You question this patient about her: – –
102. Which of the following are examined with the patient in a reclining 45 degree position? –-
103. Functional assessment is most important during the examination of a(n): —
104. The best way to ease the apprehension of a 3 year old child before a physical examination is to: – –
105. An ophthalmoscopic eye examination involves: – –
106. When conducting a geriatric assessment, basic activities of daily living (ADLs) include: –
107. The checkout station for preparticipation physical evaluation (PPE) is critical because at this point: –
108. Which of the following is true regarding the relationship between the examiner and the patient? –
109. Which of the following factors is not known to affect patient compliance with his or her treatment regimen? –
110. One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: –
111. As you greet the patient, which examination technique is first implemented? –
112. Which portion of the physical examination is best done with the patient standing? –
113. Which patient position facilitates inspection of the chest and shoulders? –
114. The least reliable indicator of newborn distress is: –
115. Proprioception should be assessed while the patient is: –
116. Part of the screening orthopedic component of the examination includes evaluating the person while: –

Q8. NSG 6005 Chapter 1 to Chapter 53 Test Question Bank (Latest)
Chapter 1: The Role of the Nurse Practitioner as Prescriber

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by:
A.
The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
B.
The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration
C.
The State Board of Nursing for each state
D.
The State Board of Pharmacy

____ 2. Physician Assistant (PA) prescriptive authority is regulated by:
A.
The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
B.
The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration
C.
The State Board of Nursing
D.
The State Board of Medical Examiners

____ 3. Clinical judgment in prescribing includes:
A.
Factoring in the cost to the patient of the medication prescribed
B.
Always prescribing the newest medication available for the disease process
C.
Handing out drug samples to poor patients
D.
Prescribing all generic medications to cut costs

____ 4. Criteria for choosing an effective drug for a disorder include:
A.
Asking the patient what drug they think would work best for them
B.
Consulting nationally recognized guidelines for disease management
C.
Prescribing medications that are available as samples before writing a prescription
D.
Following U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) guidelines for prescribing

____ 5. Nurse practitioner practice may thrive under health-care reform due to:
A.
The demonstrated ability of nurse practitioners to control costs and improve patient outcomes
B.
The fact that nurse practitioners will be able to practice independently
C.
The fact that nurse practitioners will have full reimbursement under health-care reform
D.
The ability to shift accountability for Medicaid to the state level

Chapter 2: Review of Basic Principles of Pharmacology

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. A patient’s nutritional intake and lab work reflects hypoalbuminemia. This is critical to prescribing because:
A.
Distribution of drugs to target tissue may be affected
B.
The solubility of the drug will not match the site of absorption
C.
There will be less free drug available to generate an effect
D.
Drugs bound to albumin are readily excreted by the kidney

____ 2. Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:
A.
Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
B.
Bypass the hepatic circulation
C.
Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
D.
Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms

____ 3. The route of excretion of a volatile drug will likely be:
A.
The kidneys
B.
The lungs
C.
The bile and feces
D.
The skin

____ 4. Medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) is prescribed IM to create a storage reservoir of the drug. Storage reservoirs:
A.
Assure that the drug will reach its intended target tissue
B.
Are the reason for giving loading doses
C.
Increase the length of time a drug is available and active
D.
Are most common in collagen tissues

____ 5. The NP chooses to give cephalexin every 8 hours based on knowledge of the drug’s:
A.
Propensity to go to the target receptor
B.
Biological half-life
C.
Pharmacodynamics
D.
Safety and side effects

____ 6. Azithromycin dosing requires the first day’s dose be twice those of the other 4 days of the prescription. This is considered a loading dose. A loading dose:
A.
Rapidly achieves drug levels in the therapeutic range
B.
Requires four to five half-lives to attain
C.
Is influenced by renal function
D.
Is directly related to the drug circulating to the target tissues

____ 7. The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of a therapeutic effect is the:
A.
Minimum adverse effect level
B.
Peak of action
C.
Onset of action
D.
Therapeutic range

____ 8. Phenytoin requires a trough level be drawn. Peak and trough levels are done:
A.
When the drug has a wide therapeutic range
B.
When the drug will be administered for a short time only
C.
When there is a high correlation between the dose and saturation of receptor sites
D.
To determine if a drug is in the therapeutic range

____ 9. A laboratory result indicates the peak level for a drug is above the minimum toxic concentration. This means that the:
A.
Concentration will produce therapeutic effects
B.
Concentration will produce an adverse response
C.
Time between doses must be shortened
D.
Duration of action of the drug is too long

____ 10. Drugs that are receptor agonists may demonstrate what property?
A.
Irreversible binding to the drug receptor site
B.
Up-regulation with chronic use
C.
Desensitization or down-regulation with continuous use
D.
Inverse relationship between drug concentration and drug action

____ 11. Drugs that are receptor antagonists, such as beta blockers, may cause:
A.
Down-regulation of the drug receptor
B.
An exaggerated response if abruptly discontinued
C.
Partial blockade of the effects of agonist drugs
D.
An exaggerated response to competitive drug agonists

____ 12. Factors that affect gastric drug absorption include:
A.
Liver enzyme activity
B.
Protein-binding properties of the drug molecule
C.
Lipid solubility of the drug
D.
Ability to chew and swallow

____ 13. Drugs administered via intravenous (IV) route:
A.
Need to be lipid soluble in order to be easily absorbed
B.
Begin distribution into the body immediately
C.
Are easily absorbed if they are nonionized
D.
May use pinocytosis to be absorbed

____ 14. When a medication is added to a regimen for a synergistic effect, the combined effect of the drugs is:
A.
The sum of the effects of each drug individually
B.
Greater than the sum of the effects of each drug individually
C.
Less than the effect of each drug individually
D.
Not predictable, as it varies with each individual

____ 15. Which of the following statements about bioavailability is true?
A.
Bioavailability issues are especially important for drugs with narrow therapeutic ranges or sustained release mechanisms.
B.
All brands of a drug have the same bioavailability.
C.
Drugs that are administered more than once a day have greater bioavailability than drugs given once daily.
D.
Combining an active drug with an inert substance does not affect bioavailability.

____ 16. Which of the following statements about the major distribution barriers (blood-brain or fetal-placental) is true?
A.
Water soluble and ionized drugs cross these barriers rapidly.
B.
The blood-brain barrier slows the entry of many drugs into and from brain cells.
C.
The fetal-placental barrier protects the fetus from drugs taken by the mother.
D.
Lipid soluble drugs do not pass these barriers and are safe for pregnant women.

____ 17. Drugs are metabolized mainly by the liver via Phase I or Phase II reactions. The purpose of both of these types of reactions is to:
A.
Inactivate prodrugs before they can be activated by target tissues
B.
Change the drugs so they can cross plasma membranes
C.
Change drug molecules to a form that an excretory organ can excrete
D.
Make these drugs more ionized and polar to facilitate excretion

____ 18. Once they have been metabolized by the liver, the metabolites may be:
A.
More active than the parent drug
B.
Less active than the parent drug
C.
Totally “deactivated” so that they are excreted without any effect
D.
All of the above

____ 19. All drugs continue to act in the body until they are changed or excreted. The ability of the body to excrete drugs via the renal system would be increased by:
A.
Reduced circulation and perfusion of the kidney
B.
Chronic renal disease
C.
Competition for a transport site by another drug
D.
Unbinding a nonvolatile drug from plasma proteins

____ 20. Steady state is:
A.
The point on the drug concentration curve when absorption exceeds excretion
B.
When the amount of drug in the body remains constant
C.
When the amount of drug in the body stays below the MTC
D.
All of the above

____ 21. Two different pain meds are given together for pain relief. The drug-drug interaction is:
A.
Synergistic
B.
Antagonistic
C.
Potentiative
D.
Additive

____ 22. Actions taken to reduce drug-drug interaction problems include all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
Reducing the dose of one of the drugs
B.
Scheduling their administration at different times
C.
Prescribing a third drug to counteract the adverse reaction of the combination
D.
Reducing the dosage of both drugs

____ 23. Phase I oxidative-reductive processes of drug metabolism require certain nutritional elements. Which of the following would reduce or inhibit this process?
A.
Protein malnutrition
B.
Iron deficiency anemia
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B

____ 24. The time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50% is called:
A.
Steady state
B.
Half-life
C.
Phase II metabolism
D.
Reduced bioavailability time

____ 25. An agonist activates a receptor and stimulates a response. When given frequently over time the body may:
A.
Up-regulate the total number of receptors
B.
Block the receptor with a partial agonist
C.
Alter the drug’s metabolism
D.
Down-regulate the numbers of that specific receptor

____ 26. Drug antagonism is best defined as an effect of a drug that:
A.
Leads to major physiologic psychological dependence
B.
Is modified by the concurrent administration of another drug
C.
Cannot be metabolized before another dose is administered
D.
Leads to a decreased physiologic response when combined with another drug

____ 27. Instructions to a client regarding self-administration of oral enteric-coated tablets should include which of the following statements?
A.
“Avoid any other oral medicines while taking this drug.”
B.
“If swallowing this tablet is difficult, dissolve it in 3 ounces of orange juice.”
C.
“The tablet may be crushed if you have any difficultly taking it.”
D.
“To achieve best effect, take the tablet with at least 8 ounces of fluid.”

____ 28. The major reason for not crushing a sustained release capsule is that, if crushed, the coated beads of the drugs could possibly result in:
A.
Disintegration
B.
Toxicity
C.
Malabsorption
D.
Deterioration

____ 29. Which of the following substances is the most likely to be absorbed in the intestines rather than in the stomach?
A.
Sodium bicarbonate
B.
Ascorbic acid
C.
Salicylic acid
D.
Glucose

____ 30. Which of the following variables is a factor in drug absorption?
A.
The smaller the surface area for absorption, the more rapidly the drug is absorbed.
B.
A rich blood supply to the area of absorption leads to better absorption.
C.
The less soluble the drug, the more easily it is absorbed.
D.
Ionized drugs are easily absorbed across the cell membrane.

____ 31. An advantage of prescribing a sublingual medication is that the medication is:
A.
Absorbed rapidly
B.
Excreted rapidly
C.
Metabolized minimally
D.
Distributed equally

____ 32. Drugs that use CYP 3A4 isoenzymes for metabolism may:
A.
Induce the metabolism of another drug
B.
Inhibit the metabolism of another drug
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B

____ 33. Therapeutic drug levels are drawn when a drug reaches steady state. Drugs reach steady state:
A.
After the second dose
B.
After four to five half-lives
C.
When the patient feels the full effect of the drug
D.
One hour after IV administration

____ 34. Up-regulation or hypersensitization may lead to:
A.
Increased response to a drug
B.
Decreased response to a drug
C.
An exaggerated response if the drug is withdrawn
D.
Refractoriness or complete lack of response

Chapter 3: Rational Drug Selection

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. An NP would prescribe the liquid form of ibuprofen for a 6 year old because:
A.
Drugs given in liquid form are less irritating to the stomach
B.
A 6 year old may have problems swallowing a pill
C.
Liquid forms of medication eliminate the concern for first-pass effect
D.
Liquid ibuprofen does not have to be dosed as often as tablet form

____ 2. In deciding which of multiple drugs used to use to treat a condition, the NP chooses Drug A because it:
A.
Has serious side effects and it is not being used for a life-threatening condition
B.
Will be taken twice daily and will be taken at home
C.
Is expensive, and is not covered by health insurance
D.
None of these are important in choosing a drug

____ 3. A client asks the NP about the differences in drug effects between men and women. What is known about the differences between the pharmacokinetics of men and women?
A.
Body temperature varies between men and women
B.
Muscle mass is greater in women
C.
Percentage of fat differs between genders
D.
Proven subjective factors exist between the genders

____ 4. The first step in the prescribing process according to the World Health Organization is:
A.
Choosing the treatment
B.
Educating the patient about the medication
C.
Diagnosing the patient’s problem
D.
Starting the treatment

____ 5. Treatment goals in prescribing should:
A.
Always be curative
B.
Be patient-centered
C.
Be convenient for the provider
D.
Focus on the cost of therapy

____ 6. The therapeutic goals when prescribing include(s):
A.
Curative
B.
Palliative
C.
Preventive
D.
All of the above

____ 7. When determining drug treatment the NP prescriber should:
A.
Always use evidence-based guidelines
B.
Individualize the drug choice for the specific patient
C.
Rely on his or her experience when prescribing for complex patients
D.
Use the newest drug on the market for the condition being treated

____ 8. Patient education regarding prescribed medication includes:
A.
Instructions written at the high school reading level
B.
Discussion of expected adverse drug reactions
C.
How to store leftover medication such as antibiotics
D.
Verbal instructions always in English

____ 9. Passive monitoring of drug effectiveness includes:
A.
Therapeutic drug levels
B.
Adding or subtracting medications from the treatment regimen
C.
Ongoing provider visits
D.
Instructing the patient to report if the drug is not effective

____ 10. Pharmacokinetic factors that affect prescribing include:
A.
Therapeutic index
B.
Minimum effective concentration
C.
Bioavailability
D.
Ease of titration

____ 11. Pharmaceutical promotion may affect prescribing. To address the impact of pharmaceutical promotion, the following recommendations have been made by the Institute of Medicine:
A.
Conflicts of interest and financial relationships should be disclosed by those providing education.
B.
Providers should ban all pharmaceutical representatives from their office setting.
C.
Drug samples should be used for patients who have the insurance to pay for them, to ensure the patient can afford the medication.
D.
Providers should only accept low-value gifts, such as pens and pads of paper, from the pharmaceutical representative.

Chapter 4: Legal and Professional Issues in Prescribing

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulates:
A.
Prescribing of drugs by MDs and NPs
B.
The official labeling for all prescription and over-the-counter drugs
C.
Off-label recommendations for prescribing
D.
Pharmaceutical educational offerings

____ 2. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval is required for:
A.
Medical devices, including artificial joints
B.
Over-the-counter vitamins
C.
Herbal products, such as St John’s Wort
D.
Dietary supplements, such as Ensure

____ 3. An Investigational New Drug (IND) is filed with the FDA:
A.
When the manufacturer has completed Phase III trials
B.
When a new drug is discovered
C.
Prior to animal testing of any new drug entity
D.
Prior to human testing of any new drug entity

____ 4. Phase IV clinical trials in the United States are also known as:
A.
Human bioavailability trials
B.
Post-marketing research
C.
Human safety and efficacy studies
D.
The last stage of animal trials before the human trials begin

____ 5. Off-label prescribing is:
A.
Regulated by the FDA
B.
Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces)
C.
Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use
D.
Regulated by the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

____ 6. The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA):
A.
Registers manufacturers and prescribers of controlled substances
B.
Regulates NP prescribing at the state level
C.
Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label
D.
Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing

____ 7. Drugs that are designated Schedule II by the DEA:
A.
Are known teratogens during pregnancy
B.
May not be refilled; a new prescription must be written
C.
Have a low abuse potential
D.
May be dispensed without a prescription unless regulated by the state

____ 8. Precautions that should be taken when prescribing controlled substances include:
A.
Faxing the prescription for a Schedule II drug directly to the pharmacy
B.
Using tamper-proof paper for all prescriptions written for controlled drugs
C.
Keeping any pre-signed prescription pads in a locked drawer in the clinic
D.
Using only numbers to indicate the amount of drug to be prescribed

____ 9. Strategies prescribers can use to prevent misuse of controlled prescription drugs include:
A.
Use of chemical dependency screening tools
B.
Firm limit-setting regarding prescribing controlled substances
C.
Practicing “just say no” to deal with patients who are pushing the provider to prescribe controlled substances
D.
All of the above

____ 10. Behaviors predictive of addiction to controlled substances include:
A.
Stealing or borrowing another patient’s drugs
B.
Requiring increasing doses of opiates for pain associated with malignancy
C.
Receiving refills of a Schedule II prescription on a regular basis
D.
Requesting that only their own primary care provider prescribe for them

____ 11. Medication agreements or “Pain Medication Contracts” are recommended to be used:
A.
Universally for all prescribing for chronic pain
B.
For patients who have repeated requests for pain medication
C.
When you suspect a patient is exhibiting drug-seeking behavior
D.
For patients with pain associated with malignancy

____ 12. A prescription needs to be written for:
A.
Legend drugs
B.
Most controlled drugs
C.
Medical devices
D.
All of the above

Chapter 5: Adverse Drug Reactions

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Which of the following patients would be at higher risk of experiencing adverse drug reactions (ADRs):
A.
A 32-year-old male
B.
A 22-year-old female
C.
A 3-month-old female
D.
A 48-year-old male

____ 2. Infants and young children are at higher risk of ADRs due to:
A.
Immature renal function in school-age children
B.
Lack of safety and efficacy studies in the pediatric population
C.
Children’s skin being thicker than adults, requiring higher dosages of topical medication
D.
Infant boys having a higher proportion of muscle mass, leading to a higher volume of distribution

____ 3. The elderly are at high risk of ADRs due to:
A.
Having greater muscle mass than younger adults, leading to higher volume of distribution
B.
The extensive studies that have been conducted on drug safety in this age group
C.
The blood-brain barrier being less permeable, requiring higher doses to achieve therapeutic effect
D.
Age-related decrease in renal function

____ 4. The type of adverse drug reaction that is the result of an unwanted but otherwise normal pharmacological action of a drug given in the usual therapeutic doses is
A.
Type A
B.
Type B
C.
Type C
D.
Type D

____ 5. Digoxin may cause a Type A adverse drug reaction due to:
A.
Idiosyncratic effects
B.
Its narrow therapeutic index
C.
Being a teratogen
D.
Being a carcinogen

____ 6. Changes in the individual pharmacokinetic parameters of adsorption, distribution, or elimination may result in high concentrations of the drug in the body, leading to which type of adverse drug reaction?
A.
Type A
B.
Type C
C.
Type D
D.
Type E

____ 7. According to the World Health Organization Classification, Type B adverse reactions are:
A.
When a drug is a teratogen
B.
When a drug is carcinogenic
C.
A delayed ADR, such as renal failure
D.
An allergic or idiosyncratic response

____ 8. Sarah developed a rash after using a topical medication. This is a Type __ allergic drug reaction.
A.
I
B.
II
C.
III
D.
IV

____ 9. A patient may develop neutropenia from using topical Silvadene for burns. Neutropenia is a(n):
A.
Cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
B.
Immune complex hypersensitivity
C.
Immediate hypersensitivity reaction
D.
Delayed hypersensitivity reaction

____ 10. Anaphylactic shock is a:
A.
Type I reaction, called immediate hypersensitivity reaction
B.
Type II reaction, called cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
C.
Type III allergic reaction, called immune complex hypersensitivity
D.
Type IV allergic reaction, called delayed hypersensitivity reaction

____ 11. James has hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression from chronic prednisone (a corticosteroid) use. He is at risk for what type of adverse drug reaction?
A.
Type B
B.
Type C
C.
Type E
D.
Type F

____ 12. The treatment for a patient who experiences hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression while taking the corticosteroid prednisone, a Type C adverse drug reaction, is to:
A.
Immediately discontinue the prednisone
B.
Administer epinephrine
C.
Slowly taper the patient off of the prednisone
D.
Monitor for long-term effects, such as cancer

____ 13. The ACE inhibitor lisinopril is a known teratogen. Teratogens cause Type ____ adverse drug reaction.
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D

____ 14. Cardiac defects are a known Type D adverse drug reaction to lithium. Lithium causes a Type D adverse drug reaction because it is:
A.
An immunosuppressant
B.
A carcinogen
C.
A teratogen
D.
An antiseizure medication

____ 15. Immunomodulators such as azathioprine may cause a delayed adverse drug reaction known as a Type D reaction because they are known:
A.
Teratogens
B.
Carcinogens
C.
To cause hypersensitivity reactions
D.
Hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis suppressants

____ 16. A 24-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type __ adverse drug reaction when he no longer requires the opioids.
A.
A
B.
C
C.
E
D.
G

____ 17. Drugs that may cause a Type E adverse drug reaction include:
A.
Beta blockers
B.
Immunomodulators
C.
Antibiotics
D.
Oral contraceptives

____ 18. Unexpected failure of drug therapy is a Type __ adverse drug reaction, commonly caused by____.
A.
B; cytotoxic hypersensitivity
B.
B; idiosyncratic response
C.
C; cumulative effects of drug
D.
F; drug-drug interaction

____ 19. Clopidogrel treatment failure may occur when it is co-administered with omeprazole, known as a Type __ adverse drug reaction.
A.
A
B.
C
C.
E
D.
F

Chapter 6: Factors that Foster Positive Outcomes

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. A comprehensive assessment of a patient should be holistic when trying to determine competence in drug administration. Which of the following factors would the NP omit from this type of assessment?
A.
Financial status
B.
Mobility
C.
Social support
D.
Sexual practices

____ 2. Elena Vasquez’ primary language is Spanish and she speaks very limited English. Which technique would be appropriate to use in teaching her about a new drug you have just prescribed?
A.
Use correct medical terminology since Spanish has a Latin base
B.
Use a family member who speaks more English to act as interpreter
C.
Use a professional interpreter or a reliable staff member who can interpret
D.
Use careful, detailed explanations

____ 3. Rod, age 68, has hearing difficulty. Which of the following would NOT be helpful in assuring that he understands teaching about his drug?
A.
Stand facing him and speak slowly and clearly
B.
Speak in low tones or find a provider who has a lower voice
C.
Write down the instructions as well as speaking them
D.
If he reads lips, exaggerate lips movements when pronouncing the vowel sounds

____ 4. Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen?
A.
Complexity of the drug regimen
B.
Patient perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B

____ 5. The health-care delivery system itself can create barriers to adherence to a treatment regimen. Which of the following system variables creates such a barrier?
A.
Increasing copayments for care
B.
Unrestricted formularies for drugs including brand names
C.
Increasing the number of people who have access to care
D.
Treating a wider range of disorders

____ 6. Adverse drug reactions and patients’ perceptions of them are likely to produce non-adherence. Which of the following ADRs are least likely to produce non-adherence?
A.
Severe hypotension and anaphylaxis
B.
Constipation and diarrhea
C.
Headache and dizziness
D.
Nausea and vomiting

____ 7. Ralph’s blood pressure remains elevated despite increased doses of his drug. The NP is concerned that he might not be adhering to his treatment regimen. Which of the following events would suggest that he might not be adherent?
A.
Ralph states that he always takes the drug “when I feel my pressure is going up.”
B.
Ralph contacts his NP to discuss the need to increase the dose.
C.
Ralph consistently keeps his follow-up appointments to check his blood pressure.
D.
All of the above show that he is adherent to the drug regimen.

____ 8. Non-adherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of non-adherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:
A.
Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect
B.
Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down.
C.
Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness.
D.
Must be taken no more than twice a day.

____ 9. Factors in chronic conditions that contribute to non-adherence include:
A.
The complexity of the treatment regimen
B.
The length of time over which it must be taken
C.
Breaks in the usual daily routine, such as vacations and weekends
D.
All of the above

____ 10. While patient education about their drugs is important, information alone does not necessarily lead to adherence to a drug regimen. Patients report greater adherence when:
A.
The provider spent a lot of time discussing the drugs with them
B.
Their concerns and specific area of knowledge deficit were addressed
C.
They were given written material, such as pamphlets, about the drugs
D.
The provider used appropriate medical and pharmacologic terms

____ 11. Patients with psychiatric illnesses have adherence rates to their drug regimen between 35% and 60%. To improve adherence in this population, prescribe drugs:
A.
With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve
B.
In oral formulations that are more easily taken
C.
That do not require frequent monitoring
D.
Combined with patient education about the need to adhere even when symptoms are absent

____ 12. Many disorders require multiple drugs to treat them. The more complex the drug regimen, the less likely the patient will adhere to it. Which of the following interventions will NOT improve adherence?
A.
Have the patient purchase a pill container with compartments for daily or multiple times per day dosing.
B.
Match the clinic appointment to the next time the drug is to be refilled.
C.
Write prescriptions for new drugs with shorter times between refills.
D.
Give the patient a clear drug schedule that the provider devises to fit the characteristic of the drug.

____ 13. Pharmacologic interventions are costly. Patients for whom the cost/benefit variable is especially important include:
A.
Older adults and those on fixed incomes
B.
Patients with chronic illnesses
C.
Patients with copayments for drugs on their insurance
D.
Patients on public assistance

____ 14. Providers have a responsibility for determining the best plan of care, but patients also have responsibilities. Patients the provider can be assured will carry through on these responsibilities include those who:
A.
Are well-educated and affluent
B.
Have chronic conditions
C.
Self-monitor drug effects on their symptoms
D.
None of the above guarantee adherence

____ 15. Monitoring adherence can take several forms, including:
A.
Patient reports from data in a drug diary
B.
Pill counts
C.
Lab reports and other diagnostic markers
D.
All of the above

Chapter 7: Cultural and Ethnic Influences in Pharmacotherapeutics

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Cultural factors that must be taken into account when prescribing include(s):
A.
Who is the decision maker in the family regarding health-care decisions
B.
The patient’s view of health and illness
C.
Attitudes regarding the use of drugs to treat illness
D.
All of the above

____ 2. Ethnic differences have been found in drug:
A.
Absorption
B.
Hepatic metabolism
C.
Filtration at the glomerulus
D.
Passive tubular reabsorption

____ 3. The National Standards of Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services (CLAS) are required to be implemented in all:
A.
Hospitals
B.
Clinics that serve the poor
C.
Organizations that receive federal funds
D.
Clinics that serve ethnic minorities

____ 4. According to the National Standards of Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services (CLAS), interpreters for health care:
A.
May be a bilingual family member
B.
May be a bilingual nurse or other health-care provider
C.
Must be a professionally trained medical interpreter
D.
Must be an employee of the organization

____ 5. According to the U.S. Office of Minority Health, poor health outcomes among African Americans are attributed to:
A.
The belief among African Americans that prayer is more powerful than drugs
B.
Poor compliance on the part of the African-American patient
C.
The genetic predisposition for illness found among African Americans
D.
Discrimination, cultural barriers, and lack of access to health care

____ 6. The racial difference in drug pharmacokinetics seen in American Indian or Alaskan Natives are:
A.
Increased CYP 2D6 activity, leading to rapid metabolism of some drugs
B.
Largely unknown due to lack of studies of this population
C.
Rapid metabolism of alcohol, leading to increased tolerance
D.
Decreased elimination of opioids, leading to increased risk for addiction

____ 7. Pharmacokinetics among Asians are universal to all the Asian ethnic groups.
A.
True
B.
False

____ 8. Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:
A.
Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses
B.
Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses
C.
Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses
D.
Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses

____ 9. Asians from Eastern Asia are known to be fast acetylators. Fast acetylators:
A.
Require acetylization in order to metabolize drugs
B.
Are unable to tolerate higher doses of some drugs that require acetylization
C.
May have a toxic reaction to drugs that require acetylization
D.
Require higher doses of drugs metabolized by acetylization to achieve efficacy

____ 10. Hispanic native healers (curanderas):
A.
Are not heavily utilized by Hispanics who immigrate to the United States
B.
Use herbs and teas in their treatment of illness
C.
Provide unsafe advice to Hispanics and should not be trusted
D.
Need to be licensed in their home country in order to practice in the United States

Chapter 8: Pharmacogenomics

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including:
A.
Poor metabolizers (PMs) who lack a working enzyme
B.
Intermediate metabolizers (IMs) who have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele
C.
Extensive metabolizers (EMs), with two normally functioning alleles
D.
All of the above

____ 2. Up to 21% of Asians are ultra-rapid 2D6 metabolizers, leading to:
A.
A need to monitor drugs metabolized by 2D6 for toxicity
B.
Increased dosages needed of drugs metabolized by 2D6, such as the SSRIs
C.
Decreased conversion of codeine to morphine by CYP 2D6
D.
The need for lowered dosages of drugs, such as beta blockers

____ 3. Rifampin is a nonspecific CYP450 inducer that may:
A.
Lead to toxic levels of rifampin and must be monitored closely
B.
Cause toxic levels of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, when co-administered
C.
Induce the metabolism of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, leading to therapeutic failure
D.
Cause nonspecific changes in drug metabolism

____ 4. Inhibition of P-glycoprotein by a drug such as quinidine may lead to:
A.
Decreased therapeutic levels of quinidine
B.
Increased therapeutic levels of quinidine
C.
Decreased levels of a co-administered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination
D.
Increased levels of a co-administered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination

____ 5. Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:
A.
Toxic levels of warfarin building up
B.
Decreased response to warfarin
C.
Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin
D.
Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin

____ 6. Genetic testing for VCORC1 mutation to assess potential warfarin resistance is required prior to prescribing warfarin.
A.
True
B.
False

____ 7. Pharmacogenetic testing is required by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) prior to prescribing:
A.
Erythromycin
B.
Digoxin
C.
Cetuximab
D.
Rifampin

____ 8. Carbamazepine has a Black Box warning recommending testing for the HLA-B*1502 allele in patients with Asian ancestry prior to starting therapy due to:
A.
Decreased effectiveness of carbamazepine in treating seizures in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele
B.
Increased risk for drug interactions in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele
C.
Increased risk for Stevens-Johnson syndrome in Asian patients with HLA-B*1502 allele
D.
Patients who have the HLA-B*1502 allele being more likely to have a resistance to carbamazepine

____ 9. A genetic variation in how the metabolite of the cancer drug irinotecan SN-38 is inactivated by the body may lead to:
A.
Decreased effectiveness of irinotecan in the treatment of cancer
B.
Increased adverse drug reactions, such as neutropenia
C.
Delayed metabolism of the prodrugirinotecan into the active metabolite SN-38
D.
Increased concerns for irinotecan being carcinogenic

____ 10. Patients who have a poor metabolism phenotype will have:
A.
Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to accumulation of prodrug
B.
Accumulation of inactive metabolites of drugs
C.
A need for increased dosages of medications
D.
Increased elimination of an active drug

____ 11. Ultra-rapid metabolizers of drugs may have:
A.
To have dosages of drugs adjusted downward to prevent drug accumulation
B.
Active drug rapidly metabolized into inactive metabolites, leading to potential therapeutic failure
C.
Increased elimination of active, nonmetabolized drug
D.
Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to accumulation of prodrug

____ 12. A provider may consider testing for CYP2D6 variants prior to starting tamoxifen for breast cancer to:
A.
Ensure the patient will not have increased adverse drug reactions to the tamoxifen
B.
Identify potential drug-drug interactions that may occur with tamoxifen
C.
Reduce the likelihood of therapeutic failure with tamoxifen treatment
D.
Identify

Q9. NSG 6005 Final Exam / NSG6005 Final Exam (Latest): South University (Already graded A)
NSG 6005 Final Exam / NSG6005 Final Exam (Latest): South University

An ACE inhibitor and what other class of drug may reduce proteinuria in patients with diabetes better than either drug alone?

A. Beta blockers
B. Diuretics
C. Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
D. Angiotensin II receptor blockers
C. Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers

Adam has type I diabetes and plays tennis for his university. He exhibits knowledge deficit about his insulin and his diagnosis. He should be taught that:

A. He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise.
B. Each brand of insulin is equal in bioavailability, so buy the least expensive.
C. Alcohol produces hypoglycemia and can help control his diabetes when taken in small amounts.
D. If he does not want to learn to give himself injections, he may substitute an oral hypoglycemic to control his diabetes.
A. He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise.

Age is a factor in different responses to pain. Which of the following age-related statements about pain is not true?

A. Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways.
B. Painful experiences and prolonged exposure to analgesic drugs during pregnancy may permanently alter neuronal organization in the child.
C. Increases in pain threshold in older adults may be related to peripheral neuropathies and changes in skin thickness.
D. Decreases in pain tolerance are evident in older adults.
A. Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways.

Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:

A. Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses
B. Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses
C. Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses
D. Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses
A. Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses

Amiodarone has been prescribed in a patient with a supraventricular dysrhythmia. Patient teaching should include all of the following except:

A. Notify your healthcare provider immediately if you have visual change.
B. Monitor your own blood pressure and pulse daily.
C. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy.
D. Use a sunscreen on exposed body surfaces.
C. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy.

Anticholinergic agents, such as benztropine (Cogentin), may be given with a phenothiazine to:

A. Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.
B. Potentiate the effects of the drug.
C. Reduce the tolerance that tends to occur.
D. Increase CNS depression.
A. Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.

An appropriate drug for the treatment of depression with anxiety would be:

A. Alprazolam (Xanax)
B. Escitalopram (Lexapro)
C. Buspirone (Buspar)
D. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
B. Escitalopram (Lexapro)

Cara is taking levetiracetam (Keppra) to treat seizures. Routine education for levetiracetam includes reminding her:

A. To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due to the risk of withdrawal seizures
B. To wear a sunscreen due to photosensitivity from levetiracetam
C. To get an annual eye exam while on levetiracetam
D. To report weight loss if it occurs
A. To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due to the risk of withdrawal seizure

Cecilia presents with depression associated with complaints of fatigue, sleeping all the time, and lack of motivation. An appropriate initial antidepressant for her would be:

A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
B. Paroxetine (Paxil)
C. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Chemical dependency assessment is integral to the initial assessment of chronic pain. Which of the following raises a “red flag” about potential chemical dependency?

A. Use of more than one drug to treat the pain
B. Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill
C. Preferences for treatments that include alternative medicines
D. Presence of a family member who has abused drugs
B. Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill

Common mistakes practitioners make in treating anxiety disorders include:

A. Switching medications after an eight-week trial to a twelve-week trial
B. Maximizing dosing of antianxiety medications
C. Encouraging exercise and relaxation therapy before starting medication
D. Thinking a partial response to medication is acceptable
D. Thinking a partial response to medication is acceptable

David presents to clinic with symptoms of allergic conjunctivitis. He is prescribed cromolyn sodium (Opticrom) eyedrops. The education regarding using cromolyn eyedrops includes which one of the following tips?

A. He should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eyedrops.
B. Cromolyn drops are instilled once a day to prevent allergy symptoms.
C. Long-term use of the eyedrop may cause glaucoma.
D. He may experience bradycardia as an adverse effect.
A. He should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eyedrops.

The DEA:

A. Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances
B. Regulates NP prescribing at the state level
C. Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label
D. Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing
A. Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances

Diagnostic criteria for diabetes include:

A. Fasting blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl on two occasions
B. Postprandial blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl
C. Fasting blood glucose 100 to 125 mg/dl on two occasions
D. Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl
D. Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl

Disease states in addition to hypertension in which beta blockade is a compelling indication for the use of beta blockers include:

A. Heart failure
B. Angina
C. MI
D. Dyslipidemia
C. MI

The drug of choice for type II diabetics is metformin. Metformin:

A. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver
B. Increases the release of insulin from beta cells
C. Increases intestinal uptake of glucose
D. Prevents weight gain associated with hyperglycemia
A. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver

The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in men over seventy years is:

A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
B. Ibandronate (Boniva)
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Raloxifene (Evista)
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)

The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in women over seventy years old is:

A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
B. Ibandronate (Boniva)
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Raloxifene (Evista)
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)

The drugs recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics for use in children with diabetes (depending upon type of diabetes) are:

A. Metformin and insulin
B. Sulfonylureas and insulin glargine
C. Split-mixed dose insulin and GLP-1 agonists
D.Biguanides and insulin lispro
A. Metformin and insulin

Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:

A. Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
B. Bypass the hepatic circulation
C. Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
D. Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms
C. Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action

Dwayne has classic tinea capitis. Treatment for tinea on the scalp is:

A. Rubbing in miconazole cream well for four weeks
B. Intake of oral griseofulvin for six to eight weeks
C. Shampooing with ketoconazole shampoo daily for six weeks
D. Using ciclopirox cream daily for four weeks
B. Intake of oral griseofulvin for six to eight weeks

Dwayne was recently started on carbamazepine to treat seizures. He comes to see you, and you note that while his carbamazepine levels had been in the therapeutic range, they are now low. The possible cause for the low carbamazepine levels is:

A. Dwayne hasn’t been taking his carbamazepine because it causes insomnia.
B. Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance.
C. Dwayne was not originally prescribed the correct amount of carbamazepine.
D. Carbamazepine is probably not the right antiseizure medication for Dwayne.
B. Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance.

Erik presents with a golden-crusted lesion at the site of an insect bite consistent with impetigo. His parents have limited finances and request the least expensive treatment. Which medication would be the best choice for treatment?

A. Mupirocin (Bactroban)
B. Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment)
C. Retapamulin (Altabax)
D. Oral cephalexin (Keflex)
B. Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment)
First-line therapy for hyperlipidemia is:

A. Statins
B. Niacin
C. Lifestyle changes
D. Bile acid-binding resins
C. Lifestyle changes

First-line therapy for treating topical fungal infections such as tinea corporis (ringworm) or tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) would be:

A. OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)
B. Oral terbinafine
C. Oral griseofulvin microsize
D. Nystatin cream or ointment
A. OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)

Furosemide is added to a treatment regimen for heart failure, which includes digoxin. Monitoring for this combination includes:

A. Hemoglobin
B. Serum potassium
C. Blood urea nitrogen
D. Serum glucose
B. Serum potassium

Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including:

A. Poor metabolizers (PMs) that lack a working enzyme
B. Intermediate metabolizers (IMs) that have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele
C. Extensive metabolizers (EMs), with two normally functioning alleles
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Genetic testing for VCORC1 mutation to assess potential warfarin resistance is required prior to prescribing warfarin.

A. True
B. False
B. False

Goals of treatment when treating hypothyroidism with thyroid replacement include:

A. Normal TSH and free T4 levels
B. Resolution of fatigue
C. Weight loss to baseline
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Heart failure is a chronic condition that can be adequately managed in primary care. However, consultation with or referral to a cardiologist is appropriate when:

A. Symptoms markedly worsen or the patient becomes hypotensive and has syncope.
B. There is evidence of progressive renal insufficiency or failure.
C. The patient remains symptomatic on optimal doses of an ACE inhibitor, a beta blocker, and a diuretic.
D. All the above options are correct.
D. All the above options are correct.

Hypoglycemia can result from the action of either insulin or an oral hypoglycemic. Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

A. “Fruity” breath odor and rapid respiration
B. Diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and hypertension
C. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia
D. Easy bruising, palpitations, cardiac dysrhythmias, and coma
C. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia

If a patient with H. pylori positive PUD fails first-line therapy, the second-line treatment is:

A. A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days
B. Testing H. pylori for resistance to common treatment regimens
C. A PPI plus clarithromycin plus amoxicillin for fourteen days
D. A PPI and levofloxacin for fourteen days
A. A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days

In addition to methimazole, a symptomatic patient with hyperthyroidism may need a prescription for:

A. A calcium channel blocker
B. A beta blocker
C. Liothyronine
D. An alpha blocker
B. A beta blocker

Inadequate vitamin D intake can contribute to the development of osteoporosis by:

A. Increasing calcitonin production
B. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine
C. Altering calcium metabolism
D. Stimulating bone formation
B. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine

Incorporating IT into a patient encounter takes skill and tact. During the encounter, the provider can make the patient more comfortable with the IT the provider is using by:

A. Turning the screen around so the patient can see material being recorded
B. Not placing the computer screen between the provider and the patient
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B

Infants with reflux are initially treated with:

A. Histamine 2 receptor antagonist (ranitidine)
B. A PPI (omeprazole)
C. Antireflux maneuvers (elevate the head of the bed)
D. Prokinetic (metoclopramide)
C. Antireflux maneuvers (elevate the head of the bed)

In five- to eleven-year-old children, mild-persistent asthma is diagnosed when asthma symptoms occur:

A. At nighttime one to two times a month
B. At nighttime three to four times a month
C. Less than twice a week
D. Daily
B. At nighttime three to four times a month

Jack, eight years old, has attention deficit disorder (ADD) and is prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin). He and his parents should be educated about the side effects of methylphenidate, which are:

A. Slurred speech and insomnia
B. Bradycardia and confusion
C. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension
D. Insomnia and decreased appetite
D. Insomnia and decreased appetite

Janie presents to clinic with hard ear wax in both ear canals. Instructions regarding home removal of hard cerumen includes:

A. Moistening a cotton swab (Q-tip) and swabbing the ear canals twice daily
B. Instilling tap water in both ears while bathing
C. Squirting hydrogen peroxide into ears with each bath
D. Instilling carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until the ear canals are clear
D. Instilling carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until the ear canals are clear

Jim presents with complaints of “heart burn” that is minimally relieved with Tums (calcium carbonate) and is diagnosed with GERD. An appropriate first step therapy would be:

A. Omeprazole (Prilosec) twice a day
B. Ranitidine (Zantac) twice a day
C. Famotidine (Pepcid) once a day
D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) four times a day
B. Ranitidine (Zantac) twice a day

Jim presents with fungal infection of two of his toenails (onychomycosis). Treatment for fungal infections of the nail includes:

A. Miconazole cream
B. Ketoconazole cream
C. Oral griseofulvin
D. Mupirocin cream
C. Oral griseofulvin
Josie is a five-year-old who presents to the clinic with a forty-eight-hour history of nausea, vomiting, and some diarrhea. She is unable to keep fluids down, and her weight is 4 pounds less than her last recorded weight. Besides intravenous (IV) fluids, her exam warrants the use of an antinausea medication. Which of the following would be the appropriate drug to order for Josie?

A. Prochlorperazine (Compazine)
B. Meclizine (Antivert)
C. Promethazine (Phenergan)
D. Ondansetron (Zofran)
D. Ondansetron (Zofran)

Kirk sprained his ankle and is asking for pain medication for his mild-to-moderate pain. The appropriate first-line medication would be __________.

A. ibuprofen (Advil)
B. acetaminophen with hydrocodone (Vicodin)
C. oxycodone (OxyContin)
D. oral morphine (Roxanol)
A. ibuprofen (Advil)

Liza is breastfeeding her two-month-old son, and she has an infection that requires an antibiotic. What drug factors influence the effect of the drug on the infant?

A. Maternal drug levels
B. Half-life
C. Lipid solubility
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Long-acting beta-agonists received a black box warning from the US Food and Drug Administration due to the:

A. Risk of life-threatening dermatological reactions
B. Increased incidence of cardiac events when long-acting beta-agonists are used
C. Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used
D. Risk for life-threatening alterations in electrolytes
C. Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used

Long-term treatment of moderate atopic dermatitis includes:

A. Topical corticosteroids and emollients
B. Topical corticosteroids alone
C. Topical antipruritics
D. Oral corticosteroids for exacerbations of atopic dermatitis
A. Topical corticosteroids and emollients

Medications used in the management of patients with COPD include:

A. Inhaled beta 2 agonists
B. Inhaled anticholinergics (ipratropium)
C. Inhaled corticosteroids
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Monitoring for a child on methylphenidate for ADHD includes:

A. ADHD symptoms
B. Routine height and weight checks
C. Amount of methylphenidate being used
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Narcotics are exogenous opiates. They act by ______.

A. inhibiting pain transmission in the spinal cord
B. attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P
C. blocking neurotransmitters in the midbrain
D. increasing beta-lipoprotein excretion from the pituitary
B. attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P

A nineteen-year-old male was started on risperidone. Monitoring for risperidone includes observing for common side effects, including:

A. Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation
B. Excessive weight gain
C. Hypertension
D. Potentially fatal agranulocytosis
A. Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation

Nonadherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of nonadherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:

A. Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect
B. Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down
C. Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness
D. Must be taken no more than twice a day
C. Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness

Off-Label prescribing is:

A. Regulated by the FDA
B. Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces)
C. Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use
D. Regulated by the DEA
C. Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use

One goal of asthma management in children is:

A. They should independently manage their asthma.
B. They should participate in school and sports activities.
C. There should be no exacerbations.
D. The use of inhaled corticosteroids should be minimal.
B. They should participate in school and sports activities.

The ongoing monitoring of patients over the age sixty-five years taking alendronate (Fosamax) or any other bisphosphonate is:

A. Annual dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans
B. Annual vitamin D level
C. Annual renal function evaluation
D. Electrolytes every three month
C. Annual renal function evaluation

A patient has been prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) cream to treat burns on his or her leg. Normal adverse effects of silver sulfadiazine cream include:

A. Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve
B. Worsening of burn symptoms briefly before resolution
C. A red, scaly rash that will resolve with continued use
D. Hypercalcemia
A. Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve

Patients who are on or who will be starting chronic corticosteroid therapy need monitoring of __________.

A. serum glucose
B. stool culture
C. folate levels
D. vitamin B12
A. serum glucose

Patients who have angina, regardless of class, who are also diabetic should be on:

A. Nitrates
B. Beta blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Calcium channel blockers
C. ACE inhibitors

Patients with psychiatric illnesses have adherence rates to their drug regimen between 35% and 60%. To improve adherence in this population, prescribe drugs:

A. With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve
B. In oral formulations that are more easily taken
C. That do not require frequent monitoring
D. Combined with patient education about the need to adhere even when symptoms are absent
A. With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve

A patient with a COPD exacerbation may require:

A. Doubling of inhaled corticosteroid dose
B. Systemic corticosteroid burst
C. Continuous inhaled beta 2 agonists
D. Leukotriene therapy
B. Systemic corticosteroid burst

Pharmacokinetics among Asians are universal to all the Asian ethnic groups.

A. True
B. False
B. False

A potentially life-threatening adverse response to ACE inhibitors is angioedema. Which of the following statements is true about this adverse response?

A. Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.
B. It appears to be related to a decrease in aldosterone production.
C. The presence of a dry, hacky cough indicates a high risk for this adverse response.
D. Because it takes time to build up a blood level, it occurs after being on the drug for about one week.
A. Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.

Prescribing for women during their childbearing years requires constant awareness of the possibility of:

A. Pregnancy unless the women is on birth control
B. Risk for silent bacterial or viral infections of the genitalia
C. High risk for developmental disorders in their infants
D. Decreased risk for abuse during this time
B. Risk for silent bacterial or viral infections of the genitalia

Prior to prescribing metformin, the provider should:

A. Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function.
B. Try the patient on insulin.
C. Tell the patient to increase iodine intake.
D. Have the patient stop taking any sulfonylurea to avoid dangerous drug interactions.
A. Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function.

Progesterone-only pills are recommended for women who:

A. Are breastfeeding
B. Have a history of migraine
C. Have a medical history that contradicts the use of estrogen
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Sadie is a seventy-two-year-old who takes omeprazole for her chronic GERD. Chronic long-term omeprazole use places her at increased risk for:

A Megaloblastic anemia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Hypertension
D. Strokes
B. Osteoporosis

Sarah, a forty-two-year-old female, requests a prescription for an anorexiant to treat her obesity. A trial of phentermine is prescribed. Prescribing precautions include understanding that:

A. Obesity is a contraindication to prescribing phentermine.
B. Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should only be prescribed for six months.
C. Patients should be monitored for postural hypotension.
D. Renal function should be monitored closely while the patient is on anorexiants.
B. Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should only be prescribed for six months.

Scott is presenting for follow-up on his lipid panel. He had elevated total cholesterol, elevated triglycerides, and an LDL of 122 mg/dL. He has already implemented diet changes and increased physical activity. He has mildly elevated liver studies. An appropriate next step for therapy would be:

A. Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
B. Niacin (Niaspan)
C. Simvastatin and ezetimibe (Vytorin)
D. Gemfibrozil (Lopid)
B. Niacin (Niaspan)

Second-generation antihistamines such as loratadine (Claritin) are prescribed for seasonal allergies because they:

A. Are more effective than first-generation antihistamines
B. Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines
C. Are prescription products and, therefore, are covered by insurance
D. Can be taken with CNS sedatives, such as alcohol
B. Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines

Severe contact dermatitis caused by poison ivy or poison oak exposure often requires treatment with:

A. Topical antipruritics
B. Oral corticosteroids for two to three weeks
C. Thickly applied topical intermediate-dose corticosteroids
D. Isolation of the patient to prevent spread of the dermatitis
B. Oral corticosteroids for two to three weeks

Sitagliptin has been approved for:

A. Monotherapy in once-daily doses
B. Combination therapy with metformin
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B

A sixty-six-year-old male was prescribed phenelzine (Nardil) while in an acute psychiatric unit for recalcitrant depression. The nurse practitioner managing his primary healthcare needs to understand the following regarding phenelzine and other monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs):

A. He should not be prescribed any serotonergic drug such as sumatriptan (Imitrex).
B. MAOIs interact with many common foods, including yogurt, sour cream, and soy sauce.
C. Symptoms of hypertensive crisis (headache, tachycardia, sweating, etc.) require immediate treatment.
D. All the above options are correct.
D. All the above options are correct.

Six-year-old Lucy has recently been started on ethosuximide (Zarontin) for seizures. She should be monitored for:

A. Increased seizure activity as this drug may auto-induce seizures
B. Altered renal function, including renal failure
C. Blood dyscrasias, which are uncommon but possible
D. CNS excitement, leading to insomnia
C. Blood dyscrasias, which are uncommon but possible

Stage C patients usually require a combination of three to four drugs to manage their heart failure. In addition to ACE inhibitors and beta blockers, diuretics may be added. Which of the following statements about diuretics is not true?

A.Diuretics reduce preload associated with fluid retention.
B. Diuretics can be used earlier than Stage C when the goal is control of hypertension.
C. Diuretics may produce problems with electrolyte imbalances and abnormal glucose and lipid metabolism.
D. Diuretics from the potassium-sparing class should be used when using an ARB.
D. Diuretics from the potassium-sparing class should be used when using an ARB.

A stepwise approach to the pharmacologic management of asthma:

A. Begins with determining the severity of the asthma and assessing asthma control
B. Is used when the asthma is severe and requires daily steroids
C. Allows for each provider to determine his or her personal approach to the care of asthmatic patients
D. Provides a framework for the management of severe asthmatics but is not as helpful when patients have intermittent asthma
A. Begins with determining the severity of the asthma and assessing asthma control

Studies have shown that control targets that reduce the hemoglobin A1c to less than 7% are associated with fewer long-term complications of diabetes. Patients who should have such a target include:

A. Those with long-standing diabetes
B. Older adults
C. Those with no significant cardiovascular disease
D. Young children who are early in their disease
C. Those with no significant cardiovascular disease

Tiotropium bromide (Spiriva) is an inhaled anticholinergic:

A. Used for the treatment of COPD
B. Used in the treatment of asthma
C. Combined with albuterol for the treatment of asthma exacerbations
D. Combined with fluticasone for the treatment of persistent asthma
A. Used for the treatment of COPD

To reduce mortality, all patients with angina, regardless of class, should be on:

A. Aspirin 81 to 325 mg/d
B. Nitroglycerin sublingually for chest pain
C. ACE inhibitors or ARBs
D. Digoxin
A. Aspirin 81 to 325 mg/d

The treatment for vitamin B12 deficiency is:

A. 1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin
B. 2 gm/day of oral cobalamin
C. 100 mcg/day vitamin B12 IM
D. 500 mcg/dose nasal cyanocobalamin two sprays once a week
A. 1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin

Treatment of a patient with hypothyroidism and cardiovascular disease consists of:

A. Levothyroxine
B. Liothyronine
C. Liotrix
D. Methimazole
A. Levothyroxine

The trial period to determine effective anti-inflammatory activity when starting a patient on aspirin for RA is _____.

A. forty-eight hours
B. four to six days
C. four weeks
D. two months
B. four to six days

A twenty-four-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type __ ADR when he no longer requires the opioids.

A. A
B. C
C. E
D. G
C. E

The type of ADR that is the result of an unwanted but otherwise normal pharmacological action of a drug given in the usual therapeutic doses is:

A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D
A. Type A
Unlike most type II diabetics where obesity is a major issue, older adults with low body weight have higher risks for morbidity and mortality. The most reliable indicator of poor nutritional status in older adults is:

A. Weight loss in previously overweight persons
B. Involuntary loss of 10% of body weight in less than six months
C. Decline in lean body mass over a twelve-month period
D. Increase in central versus peripheral body adiposity
B. Involuntary loss of 10% of body weight in less than six months

Vicky, age fifty-six years, comes to clinic requesting a refill of her Fiorinal (aspirin and butalbital) that she takes for migraines. She has been taking this medication for over two years for migraine and states one dose usually works to abort her migraine. What is the best care for her?

A. Switch her to sumatriptan (Imitrex) to treat her migraines.
B. Assess how often she is using Fiorinal and refill medication.
C. Switch her to a beta-blocker such as propranolol to prevent her migraine.
D. Request her to return to the original prescriber of Fiorinal as you do not prescribe butalbital for migraines
B. Assess how often she is using Fiorinal and refill medication.

Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:

A. Toxic levels of warfarin building up
B. Decreased response to warfarin
C. Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin
D. Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin
B. Decreased response to warfarin

What impact does developmental variation in renal function has on prescribing for infants and children?

A. Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months
B. Higher doses of water-soluble drugs may need to be prescribed due to increased renal excretion
C. Renal excretion rates have no impact on prescribing
D. Parents need to be instructed on whether drugs are renally excreted or not
A. Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months

When a patient is on selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitors:

A. The complete blood count must be monitored every three to four months
B. Therapeutic blood levels must be monitored every six months after a steady state is achieved.
C. Blood glucose must be monitored every three to four months.
D. There is no laboratory monitoring required.
D. There is no laboratory monitoring required.

When obtaining a drug history from Harold, he gives you a complete list of his prescription medications. He denies taking any other drugs, but you find that he occasionally takes aspirin for his arthritis flare-ups. This is an example of:

A. His appropriately only telling you about his regularly prescribed medications
B. His hiding information regarding his inappropriate use of aspirin from you
C. A common misconception that intermittently taken OTC medications are not an important part of his drug history
D. A common misuse of OTC aspirin
C. A common misconception that intermittently taken OTC medications are not an important part of his drug history

When prescribing any headache therapy, appropriate use of medications needs to be discussed to prevent medication-overuse headaches. The clinical characteristics of medication-overuse headaches include ________.

A. headaches increasing in frequency
B. headaches increasing in intensity
C. headaches recurring when medication wears off
D. headaches beginning to “cluster” into a pattern
C. headaches recurring when medication wears off

When Sam used clotrimazole (Lotrimin AF) for athlete’s foot, he developed a red, itchy rash consistent with a hypersensitivity reaction. He now has athlete’s foot again. What would be a good choice of antifungal for Sam?

A. Miconazole (Micatin) powder
B. Ketoconazole (Nizoral) cream
C. Terbinafine (Lamisil) cream
D. Griseofulvin (Grifulvin V) suspension
C. Terbinafine (Lamisil) cream

When starting a patient with hypothyroidism on thyroid replacement hormones, patient education would include the following:

A. He or she should feel symptomatic improvement in one to two weeks.
B. Drug-related adverse effects such as lethargy and dry skin may occur.
C. It may take four to eight weeks to get to euthyroid symptomatically and by lab testing.
D. Due to the short half-life of levothyroxine, its doses should not be missed.
C. It may take four to eight weeks to get to euthyroid symptomatically and by lab testing.

Which of the following adverse effects may occur due to a dihydropyridine-type calcium channel blocker?

A. Bradycardia
B. Hepatic impairment
C. Increased contractility
D. Edema of the hands and feet
D. Edema of the hands and feet

Which of the following classes of drugs is contraindicated in heart failure?

A.Nitrates
B. Long-acting dihydropyridines
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Alpha-beta blockers
C. Calcium channel blocker

Which of the following disease processes could be made worse by taking a nonselective beta blocker?

A. Asthma might worsen.
B. Diabetes might worsen.
C. Both might worsen.
D. Beta blockade does not affect these disorders.
C. Both might worsen.

Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen?

A. Complexity of the drug regimen
B. Patient’s perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B

Which of the following is the goal of treatment of acute pain?

A. Pain at a tolerable level where patient may return to activities of daily living
B. Reduction of pain with a minimum of drug adverse effects
C. Reduction or elimination of pain with minimum adverse reactions
D. Adequate pain relief without constipation or nausea from the drugs
C. Reduction or elimination of pain with minimum adverse reactions

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of oral combined contraceptives that prevent pregnancy?

A. Estrogen prevents the LH surge necessary for ovulation.
B. Progestins thicken cervical mucous and slow tubal motility.
C. Estrogen thins the endometrium, making implantation difficult.
D. Progestin suppresses FSH release.
B. Progestins thicken cervical mucous and slow tubal motility.

Which of the following statements is true about age and pain?

A. Use of drugs that depend heavily on the renal system for excretion may require dosage adjustments in very young children.
B. Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the preferred drug because of lower adverse effects profiles than other NSAIDs.
C. Older adults who have dementia probably do not experience much pain due to loss of pain receptors in the brain.
D. Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.
D. Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.

A woman who has migraine with aura:

A. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to the interaction between triptans and estrogen, limiting migraine therapy choices
B. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased incidence of migraines with the use of estrogen
C. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use
D. May be prescribed estrogen without any concerns
C. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use

A woman with an intact uterus should not be prescribed:

A. Estrogen/progesterone combination
B. Intramuscular (IM) medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera)
C. Estrogen alone
D. Androgens

Q10. Abdominal assessment | abdominal pain assessment
Are you experiencing abdominal pain?
How would you describe the pain? How bad is the pain(severity) on a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being the worst?
How did (does) the pain begin?
Where is the pain located? Does it move or has it changedfrom the original location?
When does the pain occur (timing and relation to par-ticular events, such as eating, exercise, bedtime)?
What seems to bring on the pain (precipitating factors),make it worse (exacerbating factors), or make it better (alle- viating factors)?
Do you have any abdominal issues?
Do you have any abdominal pain?
How often do you have a bowel movement?
When was your last bowel movement?
Have you…

LITERARY STUDIES
Q1. This is a literature Question kindly assist

List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen

Q2. Quiz 4.2 Using Sources
Brook, R. H. (2012). Two years and counting: How will the effects of the Affordable Care Act be
monitored? JAMA: Journal of the American Medical Association, 41–42. doi:10.1001/jama.2011.1948

article title

volume and issue information

journal title

author

Q3. Quiz 4.1 Incorparating Sources
To some, Facebook serves as more of a distraction than a learning tool (Wise, Skues & Williams, 2011), which is not an unreasonable deduction since Facebook’s primary use is as a social connection tool, and not an academic one.
How are Magro et al. using the work of Wise, Skues & Williams in this example?

paraphrase

hanging quote

direct quote

Q4. Annabel Lee Poem by Edgar Allan
The review of Annabel Lee Poem by Edgar Allan

Q5. Models of sustainability integration within the construction industry
I need literature review on sustainability integration within the construction industry.
Models of sustainability.
types of models.
Integration process
Detailed study of the current literature within sustainability integration within the construction industry, Good collection of peer reviewed articles(i.e Journals/conference;(no wikipedia), new models and any relevant informations regarding sustainability integration
ATTENTION:
Please make sure you check on how to write a literature review.
Please make sure all the resources are peer-reviewed
Read a sample to fully understand what is required of you.

Q6. UMUC LIBS 150 – Final Exam 96.67% final score latest test
University of Maryland University College – UMUC
Fall 2016 LIBS 150 Final exam Final quiz – 96.67% score

Latest test
Q7. UMUC LIBS 150 – Research Log Project Part 2 – 100%
University of Maryland University College
Research Log Project Part 2
Final score 100%

Q8. UMUC LIBS 150 – Research Log Project Part 1
UMUC LIBS 150
University of Maryland University College LIBS 150
Research Log Project Part 1
9/10 90% final score
Full document
Q9. Quiz 3.2: Determining if a Source Is Relevant for an Information Need
September 2016 – Latest
University of Maryland University College (UMUC)
LIBS 150 Introduction to Research Quiz 3.2: Determining if a Source Is Relevant for an Information Need
Final score: 100%
Q10. Quiz 3.1: Elements of a Citation
September 2016 – Latest
University of Maryland University College (UMUC)
LIBS 150 Introduction to Research Quiz 3.1: Elements of a Citation
Final score: 100%

PHILOSOPHY.
Q1. Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 5 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 5 complete solutions correct answers A+ work.
More than 9 different versions

Question 1
By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 2
The view in which the basing relationship between beliefs is deductive:
Question 3
Rene Descartes was a:
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 6
For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 7
Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 8
The virtue of studiousness does not take into account the proper kinds of motives for seeking knowledge.
Question 9
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 10
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 11
What is the point of Descartes’ evil demon argument?
Question 12
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13
To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 14
When Larry claims definitely and dogmatically that he knows we cannot know anything at all, he is expressing:
Question 15
Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 16
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 17
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 18
Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 19
My belief is a justified belief if and only if it is, in fact, a true belief.
Question 20
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.

• Question 1
3 out of 3 points
The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
• Question 3
3 out of 3 points
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
• Question 4
3 out of 3 points
The answers to the skeptical challenge suggested in the pointecast presentation include:
• Question 5
3 out of 3 points
Noetic structure refers to:
• Question 6
3 out of 3 points
Humility helps us fight against intellectual vices like pride and vanity that keep us from seeing the truth.
• Question 7
3 out of 3 points
Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
• Question 8
3 out of 3 points
For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.

• Question 9
3 out of 3 points
The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
• Question 10
• 3 out of 3 points
Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
• Question 11
3 out of 3 points
Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
• Question 12
3 out of 3 points
If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
• Question 13
3 out of 3 points
One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
• Question 14
3 out of 3 points
It is a commonly accepted fact that it is impossible to be certain about any belief
• Question 15
3 out of 3 points
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
• Question 16
3 out of 3 points
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own
Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
• Question 17
If a person thinks she has a moral responsibility to determine that any belief she holds is based on sufficient evidence, that is, evidence that strikes her as being based on indisputably good reasons or arguments, she is likely representing the epistemological position of
• Question 18
The problem with W. K. Clifford’s statement “It is wrong always, everywhere and
for anyone, to believe anything upon insufficient evidence” is that:

Question 1
Christopher Columbus was convinced that he discovered a route to the East Indies because it lined up with his maps and the current beliefs of his day. However, he was wrong. This example demonstrates a problem with:
Question 2
Noetic structure refers to:
Question 3
The doxastic assumption is:
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 6
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 7
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 8
Intellectual virtue is best described as:
Question 9
Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 10
Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 11
When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 12
When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 13
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 14
Which of the following is NOT commonly given by philosophers as a reason for adopting some form of skepticism:
Question 15
To say that it is impossible to have knowledge is itself a claim to knowledge, and is for that reason a selfdefeating assertion.
Question 16
Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 17
Externalism in epistemology is an approach to rationality which argues that
Question 18
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 19
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 20
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.

Question 1
When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 2
The motivation behind externalism is:
Question 3
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
The view in which the basing relationship between beliefs is deductive:
Question 6
Intellectual virtue is best described as:
Question 7
Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 8
The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
Question 9
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 10
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 11
When Larry claims definitely and dogmatically that he knows we cannot know anything at all, he is expressing:
Question 12
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13
One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 14
If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 15
Robert is a scientist who firmly believes in empirical truths and the physical laws of causality (e.g. when he builds a fire in his fireplace, it will produce heat), but he expresses serious reservations about the rational credibility of whether there are objective moral virtues, such as goodness, or whether such a being as the traditional God of theism does in fact exist. In such a case, Robert is expressing a form of
Question 16
Coherentism in epistemology is a position which holds that a particular belief is justified for a person so long as that belief is consistent with everything else that person holds to be true.
Question 17
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 18
Suppose a person is deeply concerned about whether her belief in God is rational. In order to make this determination, she reflects on the kind of evidence she thinks she has for God’s existence (e.g., the apparent design and beauty of the universe, the existence of other sentient beings, the almost universal acceptance of some degree of objective morality, etc.). In light of her awareness of, and access to, this potential evidence, she would be considered:
Question 19
If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 20
Coherentism is a position in epistemic justification which holds that

Question 1 3 out of 3 points
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 2 3 out of 3 points
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 3 3 out of 3 points
The motivation behind internalism is:
Question 4 3 out of 3 points
The motivation behind externalism is:
It seems intuitively to be the way we normally form beliefs
Question 5 3 out of 3 points
The answers to the skeptical challenge suggested in the pointecast presentation include:
Question 6 3 out of 3 points
Aristotle said that virtue is the “mean between two vices, one of excess and one of deficiency.”
Question 7 3 out of 3 points
Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
Question 8 3 out of 3 points
Virtue epistemologists think that intellectual virtues might helps us with the Gettier problem by:
Question 9 3 out of 3 points
Aristotle’s notion of happiness focused on:
Question 10 3 out of 3 points
The intellectual virtue of studiousness leads one to seek knowledge with the right kind of motives and desires.
Question 11 3 out of 3 points
When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 12
3 out of 3 points
Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 13 3 out of 3 points
One reason why certainty in knowledge is not likely a reasonable alternative to unmitigated skepticism is because
Question 14 3 out of 3 points
Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 15 3 out of 3 points
Sextus Empiricus adopted a version of Pyhrro’s skepticism mainly because he believed that
Question 16 3 out of 3 points
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 17 3 out of 3 points
If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and finetuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 18
Coherentism is a position in epistemic justification which holds that
Question 19
Select the one below that does NOT belong : The justification of one’s beliefs is a matter that deals with
Question 20 3 out of 3 points
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.

Question 1 The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 2 Clifford was a:
Question 3 Karen says she doesn’t believe that you can ever have real knowledge. When asked if she claims to know that as a fact, she says no, but she believes that is the case. What category would you place her in:
Question 4 A major criticism that internalism raises against externalism is:
Question 5 David Hume was a:
Question 6 Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 7 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 8 Intellectual courage helps us to:
Question 9 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 10 Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 11 If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 12 Robert is a scientist who firmly believes in empirical truths and the physical laws of causality (e.g. when he builds a fire in his fireplace, it will produce heat), but he expresses serious reservations about the rational credibility of whether there are objective moral virtues, such as goodness, or whether such a being as the traditional God of theism does in fact exist. In such a case, Robert is expressing a form of
Question 13 To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 14 When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 15 Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 16 If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine¬tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 17 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 18 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 19 Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 20 While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a self¬defeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.

Question 1 Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 2 A major criticism that internalism raises against externalism is:
Question 3 Clifford was a:
Question 4 When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 5 To say that a belief is defeasible is to say;
Question 6 The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
Question 7 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 8 Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 9 Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
Question 10 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 11 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 12 According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13 When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 14 Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
Question 15 One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 16 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 17 Coherentism in epistemology is a position which holds that a particular belief is justified for a person so long as that belief is consistent with everything else that person holds to be true.
Question 18 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 19 Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 20 According to reliabilism, in order for a person’s belief to be rational, that person must at least:

Question 1 Christopher Columbus was convinced that he discovered a route to the East Indies because it lined up with his maps and the current beliefs of his day. However, he was wrong. This example demonstrates a problem with:
Question 2 The doxastic assumption is:
Question 3 When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 4 By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 5 The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 6 Intellectual courage helps us to:
Question 7 Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
Question 8 Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
Question 9 Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 10 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 11 One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 12 If Robert thinks that the only way in this world for a person to know whether God exists is to have some kind of sensory experience of God, along with an active mind that is able to process, structure and arrange ones experiences in a way that makes sense to him, then Robert would be following Kant in thinking that:
Question 13 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 14 Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
Question 15 When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 16 According to reliabilism, in order for a person’s belief to be rational, that person must at least:
Question 17 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 18 Select the one below that does NOT belong: To suggest that a person’s approach to justification is internalist is to suggest that
Question 19 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 20 It is a commonly accepted fact that it is impossible to be certain about any belief

Question 1 By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 2 To say that a belief is defeasible is to say;
Question 3 Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 4 David Hume was a:
Question 5 The doxastic assumption is:
Question 6 Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 7 Aristotle’s notion of happiness focused on:
Question 8 Humility helps us fight against intellectual vices like pride and vanity that keep us from seeing the truth.
Question 9 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 10 Virtue epistemologists think that intellectual virtues might helps us with the Gettier problem by:
Question 11 To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 12 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 13 When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 14 If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 15 What is the point of Descartes’ evil demon argument?
Question 16 Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 17 If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine¬tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 18 Select the one below that does NOT belong: To suggest that a person’s approach to justification is internalist is to suggest that
Question 19 If a person thinks she has a moral responsibility to determine that any belief she holds is based on sufficient evidence, that is, evidence that strikes her as being based on indisputably good reasons or arguments, she is likely representing the epistemological position of
Question 20 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism

Q2. 201820 Spring 2018 PHIL 201-B08 LUO
• Question 1
3 out of 3 points
If love is regarded as a _________________ principle, then it needs to ground the principle of _________________ on more than simply utility.
Selected Answer:
Consequentialist; Distributive Justice
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
The Ten Commandments are an example of:
Selected Answer:
Moral Rules

Q3. PHIL 201 Quiz 4 Liberty University
• Question 1
0 out of 3 points
Which of the following represents the key difference in thought from Descartes to Bacon?
Selected Answer:
critique of Aristotle
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
Epicureans held to empiricism because:
Selected Answer:
They believed all of reality was composed of atoms

Q4. PHIL 201 Quiz 7 Answers Liberty University
Question 1 The most severe version of the problem of horrendous evil is
Question 2 The view advanced by C. S. Lewis in The Great Divorce is
Question 3 The argument that there is probably pointless suffering that renders God’s existence unlikely is called
Question 4 Criticisms of mild hell include that
Question 5 The problem of evil comes about when we try to reconcile
Question 6 The Bible tells us everything we need to know and can benefit from ethically.
Question 7 Ethics is about the ________ and about the _________:
Question 8 All religions are concerned with the promulgation of certain values and the cultivation of specific virtues except Christianity.
Question 9 Where in the Bible can one find ethical material?
Question 10 Which of the following is a way Scripture does NOT contribute to philosophical ethics?
Question 11 For virtues ethics the “good” is located in the:
Question 12 In the end, Dr. Martin appealed to what factor in answering the question of gratuitous evil:
Question 13 The pointecast presentation on why be moral would support the idea that each individual should be free to formulate his/her own ethical norms.
Question 14 Natural Law theory comes under the category of
Question 15 When I ask “Why am I doing this?” I am seeking the ___________ behind my action:
Question 16 The dependency thesis states that morality is a matter of independent, rational judgment.
Question 17 According to emotivism, moral language is basically ___________, because it is not empirical or analytic.
Question 18 Which thesis holds that morality is not a matter of independent rational judgment but is causally dependent on cultural context:
Question 19 Moral practices and beliefs do not vary from culture to culture; they are universal.
Question 20 What is really at stake in the dependency thesis is the question of __________ and ___________.

Q5. PHI 210 Assignment 2 Problem Solving(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
PHI 210 Assignment 2 Problem Solving(6 pages word paper)

Q6. Responce paper Phil 201
Having completed the unit of philosophy of religion, you are now ready to respond to an article written by an actual atheist. This article titled “On Being an Atheist,” was written by H. J. McCloskey in 1968 for the journal Question. McCloskey is an Australian philosopher who wrote a number of atheistic works in the 1960s and 70s including the book God and Evil (Nijhoff, 1974). In this article, McCloskey is both critical of the classical arguments for God’s existence and offers the problem of evil as a reason why one should not believe in God. Please note the following parameters for this paper:

1. Your assignment is to read McCloskey’s short article found in the Reading & Study folder in Module/Week 7 and respond to each of the questions below. Your instructor is looking for a detailed response to each question.
2. The response paper is to be a minimum of 1,500 words (not including quotes) and must be written as a single essay and not just a list of answers to questions.
3. The basis for your answers must primarily come from the resources provided in the lessons covering the philosophy of religion unit of the course (Evans and Manis, Craig, and the presentation) and these sources must be mentioned in your paper. You are not merely to quote these sources as an answer to the question—answer them in your own words.
4. You may use other outside sources as well, as long as you properly document them. However, outside sources are not necessary. Each of the questions can be answered from the sources provided in the lessons.
5. While the use of the Bible is not restricted, its use is not necessary and is discouraged unless you intend to explain the context of the passage and how that context applies to the issue at hand in accordance with the guidelines provided earlier in the course. You are not to merely quote scripture passages as answers to the questions. Remember this is a philosophical essay not a biblical or theological essay.
6. While you may quote from sources, all quotations must be properly cited and quotes from sources will not count towards the 1,500 word count of the paper.
7. You may be critical of McCloskey, but must remain respectful. Any disparaging comment(s) about McCloskey will result in a significant reduction in grade.
8. Please note that this paper will be submitted through SafeAssign, which is a plagiarism detection program. The program is a database of previously submitted papers including copies of papers that have been located on the Internet. Once submitted, your paper will become part of the database as well. The program detects not only exact wording but similar wording. This means that if you plagiarize, it is very likely that it will be discovered. Plagiarism will result in a 0 for the paper and the likelihood of you being dropped from the course.

Specifically, you must address the following questions in your paper:

1. McCloskey refers to the arguments as “proofs” and often implies that they can’t definitively establish the case for God, so therefore they should be abandoned. What would you say about this in light of Foreman’s comments in his “Approaching the Question of God’s Existence” presentation?
2. On the Cosmological Argument:
a. McCloskey claims that the “mere existence of the world constitutes no reason for believing in such a being [i.e., a necessarily existing being].” Using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the non-temporal form of the argument (on pp. 69–77), explain why the cause of the universe must be necessary (and therefore uncaused).
b. McCloskey also claims that the cosmological argument “does not entitle us to postulate an all-powerful, all-perfect, uncaused cause.” In light of Evans and Manis’ final paragraph on the cosmological argument (p. 77), how might you respond to McCloskey?
3. On the Teleological Argument:
a. McCloskey claims that “to get the proof going, genuine indisputable examples of design and purpose are needed.” Discuss this standard of “indisputability” which he calls a “very conclusive objection.” Is it reasonable?
b. From your reading in Evans and Manis, can you offer an example of design that, while not necessarily “indisputable,” you believe provides strong evidence of a designer of the universe?
c. McCloskey implies that evolution has displaced the need for a designer. Assuming evolution is true, for argument’s sake, how would you respond to McCloskey (see Evans and Manis pp. 82–83)?
d. McCloskey claims that the presence of imperfection and evil in the world argues against “the perfection of the divine design or divine purpose in the world.” Remembering Evans’ comments about the limitations of the conclusion of the cosmological argument, how might you respond to McCloskey’s charge about the teleological argument?
4. On the Problem of Evil:
a. McCloskey’s main objection to theism is the presence of evil in the world and he raises it several times: “No being who was perfect could have created a world in which there was avoidable suffering or in which his creatures would (and in fact could have been created so as not to) engage in morally evil acts, acts which very often result in injury to innocent persons.” The language of this claim seems to imply that it is an example of the logical form of the problem. Given this implication and using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the logical problem (pp. 159–168, noting especially his concluding paragraphs to this section), how might you respond to McCloskey?

b. McCloskey specifically discusses the free will argument, asking “might not God have very easily so have arranged the world and biased man to virtue that men always freely chose what is right?” From what you have already learned about free will in the course, and what Evans and Manis says about the free will theodicy, especially the section on Mackie and Plantinga’s response (pp. 163–166) and what he says about the evidential problem (pp. 168–172), how would you respond to McCloskey’s question?
5. On Atheism as Comforting:
a. In the final pages of McCloskey’s article, he claims that atheism is more comforting than theism. Using the argument presented by William Lane Craig in the article “The Absurdity of Life without God,” (located in Reading & Study for Module/Week 6), respond to McCloskey’s claim.

Q7. Essay for KEVIN
Essay Instructions
Plato, Descartes, and The Matrix
In this unit, we have been discussing how we “know.” The modern American philosopher, Hilary Putnam, popularized a well-known thought experiment highlighting the problem of skepticism and our knowledge of reality. To understand Putnam’s experiment, we need to consider how we normally obtain knowledge of reality. Our knowledge of reality usually begins with sensory input. While each of our five senses perceives the world according to their individual means, we will use seeing as an example. Light is reflected off of objects and enters through our eyes, which focus an image of these objects to the back of our eyeball, where it hits our optic nerve. Our nerve transforms this image into electrical/neural impulses that travel through the optic nerve up to where it is plugged into the brain. The brain then processes these impulses where they are transformed into an image in our mind. What our minds experience is an image of the outside world, similar to how a television projects an image captured by a television camera.

In Putnam’s thought experiment, you imagine that your brain has been severed from the nerves connecting it to your senses (eyes, ears, nose, etc.) and has been removed from your skull and placed in a vat filled with the nutritional fluid necessary to keep your brain alive and functioning. Electrical wires have been spliced into your sensory nerves that are connected to the sensory inputs in your brain. The other ends of these wires are connected to the outputs of a giant super computer. A man sits at the keyboard of this super computer, inputting data. This data is transformed into electrical/neural impulses that travel through the spliced wire/sensory nerves and into your brain. The brain processes this information as if it were from your senses. Hence, you have whatever image the man at the keyboard wants you to have. Suppose he inputs data that you are sitting in a café in France, drinking an espresso. He includes all the usual sensory data, including the smell and taste of the coffee, the hardness of the chair and table, the cool breeze blowing by, the sounds of the traffic, and the view of the Eiffel Tower. You experience all of this exactly as if you are really there. In such a situation, you would have no idea that you (or at least your brain) are actually sitting in some vat in some laboratory.

In 1999, Putnam’s thought experiment became the basis of a megahit movie, The Matrix. However, Putnam was not the first to suggest that there may be a problem with perceiving and knowing reality. A number of philosophers have wrestled with this problem. This brings us to your assignment, described below.

In Module/Week 5’s Reading & Study folder, there are 3 short readings. Your assignment is to read them and then write an essay of at least 600 words (in current MLA, APA, or Turabian format) addressing some of the questions listed below (in the “Questions to Consider” section). You must address the first question; then, choose 1 of the other questions to address also.

While you are free to quote from sources, quotations will not count towards the minimum word count. Plagiarism of any kind will result in a 0 for the assignment and may result in being dropped from the course.

A note about the readings: The first reading is a synopsis of The Matrix. If you have seen the movie, this will function as a review for you. If you have not seen the movie, you may choose to do so. However, you should know that the movie is rated R for language and violence. It is not necessary to view the movie to fulfill the assignment, as the synopsis is enough to consider the questions. The second reading comes from Plato’s classic work, The Republic. It is in the form of a dialogue between Socrates and Glaucon, a brother of Plato, and contains the famous cave allegory. The third and final reading is a section from Meditation I, from Meditations on First Philosophy by Rene Descartes, who offers some reasons to doubt his senses.

Questions to Consider

1. Compare and contrast The Matrix with the readings from Plato and Descartes. What are some similarities and differences?

2. Can we prove that the world we are experiencing is real? How do we know we are not dreaming, living in a Platonic cave, or trapped in some sort of matrix?

3. At the end of the cave allegory, Socrates implies that most men would want to escape the cave and see reality as it really is. However, in his betrayal of Morpheus, Cypher implies that it is better to live in the artificial world of the Matrix. Which is better: the harshness of reality, or the “ignorance is bliss” of illusion? Defend your answer.

4. Since much of our knowledge is based on sensory experience, and since our senses are imperfect and can be deceived, can we ever be certain that our beliefs are true? Defend or explain your answer.

Q8. Organizational and Strategic leadership
Question:
Discuss about the case study Organizational Leadership and strategic leadership roles in American history

Q9. Critical Writing Assignment
Writing assignment (critical) 10-12 pt. double spaced 3-5 pages. Defend a thesis and proceed according to the following format: Thesis, Arument, Objective(S), Response (S), Conclusion.
Clifford’s evidentialist argument from module 2 and then contrast Clifford’s position with one of the non evidentialist positions encountered Module 6. Deciding which position, evidentialism or nonevidentialism, more closely aligns with your own point of view and argue for that position.
Citations and any additional sources must be properly cited using MLA format.
Due Sunday 8/5/18 by 11:59

Q10. PHIL 201 Quiz 8 Liberty University | Complete Solution
PHIL 201 Quiz 8 Answers Liberty University | Complete Solution

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

Question 1 What is one of the two alternatives to the consequentialist response to moral dilemmas of trying to minimize the bad and maximize the good, do deontologists provide?
Question 2 Which ethic presupposes that no universal and lasting structures to human life exist:
Question 3 If love is regarded as a _________________ principle, then it needs to ground the principle of _________________ on more than simply utility.
Question 4 Which of these is not one of Holmes’ aspects of moral reasoning for Christians?
Question 5 What is the highest end for Christians?
Question 6 Which of these is not an example of how Aristotle viewed virtues as relative to excess and deficiency?
Question 7 Which one of the below is NOT what Eudaimonia means:
Question 8 Which of the following is not one of Plato’s four cardinal virtues:
Question 9 Stanley Hauerwas has stressed the crucial role of Christian ____________ in moral formation.
Question 10 According to Aristotle, the less virtuous are simply weak¬willed people who act out of ignorance and need education.
Question 11 Ethical egoism seeks a social order where conflicting self¬interests can be brought together in a peaceable and orderly way.
Question 12 The fact that we cannot logically derive ethical conclusions from merely empirical observations is called:
Question 13 A person wants to attend seminary to become more knowledgeable about the Scriptures and theology than others while earning a prestigious graduate degree. But this person also wants to become a pastor and be able to serve others with their education. Which philosopher would be most supportive of this desire?
Question 14 Holmes states that a non¬consequential decision is needed as to the _______ of consequence we are to seek.
Question 15 What process did Jeremy Bentham propose to quantify pleasure versus pain with regards to which action one should take:
Question 16 Pragmatic means:
Question 17 Some deontologists equate the right with the good.
Question 18 That which has value in and of itself:
Question 19 According to deontology, what justifies the means:
Question 20 Consequentialism is not interested in keeping rules at all.

RELIGIOUSN STUDY
Q1. 2019 Answer key BIBL 104 Quiz 8 Final complete solutions correct answers A+
BIBL 104 Quiz 8 Final
• Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Jude wants believers to contend actively and aggressively for the fundamentals of the Christian faith.
Selected Answer:

• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Almost half of the twenty-five verse in Jude share a similar thought, idea, or example with material from 2 Peter.
Selected Answer:

• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
According to the author of Hebrews, In light of what Jesus has done, believers are encouraged to:
Selected Answer:

• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Peter believers are identified as
Selected Answer:

• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
In Jesus’ priestly duties, he offered his own blood once and for all.
Selected Answer:

• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
In the seven seal judgments the black horse stands for bloodshed
Selected Answer:

• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not something John claimed about love in 1 John?
Selected Answer:

• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to 1 Peter, Christ is the
Selected Answer:

• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
James believes that those who only hear the Word of God deceive themselves
Selected Answer:

• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
James uses two Old Testament illustrations to show the works of people who were saved by faith. One of these is
Selected Answer:

• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
______________ was one of the three people in the inner circle of our Lord’s disciples
Selected Answer:

• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the emphasis of Revelation is to assure us that Jesus is indeed, coming again.
Selected Answer:

• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
___________ was the persevering church
Selected Answer:

• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
James warns believers about
Selected Answer:

• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
The author of Hebrews explains what it means for Jesus to be the Mediator of a better covenant.
Selected Answer:

• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
In 1 John, John reminds his audience that those who profess to know Jesus yet do not keep His commandments are liars and the truth is not in them.
Selected Answer:

• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
According to 1 Peter, Christians viewed themselves “as God’s slaves.” This meant that they were truly free from the dominion of the world.
Selected Answer:

• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
Jude directs his readers to “contend for the church that was instituted for the communion of the saints and the salvation of the world.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
Hebrews compares Jesus’ priesthood with ___________ priesthood.
Selected Answer:

• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
According to the writer of Hebrews, believers should stand firm in their confession because they have something those following Moses did not have. They have Jesus, the Son of God, as their Great High Priest.
Selected Answer:

• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
In 1 John, John remind his audience what they already know, specifically that God hears and grants their prayer requests.
Selected Answer:

• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
As a sinless priest, Jesus did not have to offer sacrifices for Himself as Aaron did.
Selected Answer:

• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
In the new eternal city eternal city sin, rebellion, sorrow, sickness, pain, and death are eliminated.
Selected Answer:

• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not one of the new things found in the eternal state?
Selected Answer:

• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In the seven trumpets of judgment the sun is darkened through air pollution.
Selected Answer:
True
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Jude describes false teachers as
Selected Answer:

• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, some feel that James’ teaching on faith and works runs counter to the teachings of
Selected Answer:

• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not one of the sevens that form the outline for the book of Revelation?
Selected Answer:

• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the book of Revelation ends with a dramatic postscript which describes the millennium in which Satan is bound in the abyss and Christ and His saints rule the world with a “rod of iron.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
James teaches that God is waiting to give wisdom to anyone who asks for it
Selected Answer:

• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, some scholars view Hebrews as a sermon or even as a series of sermons.
Selected Answer:

• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In light of what Jesus has done, the author encourages his audience to:
Selected Answer:

• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is
Selected Answer:

• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to the author of Hebrews, Jesus’ priestly duties were not performed in an earthly sanctuary, a mere copy of the heavenly, but in the heavenly sanctuary itself.
Selected Answer:
True
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
_____________ was the powerless church
Selected Answer:

• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Jude uniquely ties together doctrinal error with the immoral lifestyle of false teachers suggesting immorality leads to heresy.
Selected Answer:

• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In 3 John, John acknowledges that Diotrophes refusal to be corrected will lead to his exposure when John arrives.
Selected Answer:

• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
According to 1Peter, believers should submit to every Christian institution in order to
silence the unfounded criticism of unbelievers.
Selected Answer:

• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Jude’s reference to both Old Testament examples and those of Jewish non-canonical books indicate his readers were Jewish Christians.
Selected Answer:

• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the author of 2 John is most likely not the same author as 1
John.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
____________ was the prosperous church
Selected Answer:

• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
In James’ discussion on hearing and doing he uses the example of
Selected Answer:

• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
Jude describes false teachers as
Selected Answer:
fruitless trees
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
Hebrews begins by asserting that Jesus is greater than
Selected Answer:

• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
____________ was the persecuted church.
Selected Answer:

• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
In 2 John, John expresses the joy he felt when he learned that some members of the recipient’s church body were following the Father’s command to walk in truth.
Selected Answer:

• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
The rock of refuge represents the church and believers everywhere and is one of the seven symbolic players in the eschatological drama of the book of Revelation.
Selected Answer:

• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
The author of Hebrews list several personal examples of faith. From this list select the one Biblical character that is not mentioned by the author of Hebrews in Hebrews 11:1-40.
Selected Answer:

• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The author of 2 John and 3 John calls himself
Selected Answer:

Q2. 2019 Answer key Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 7
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
Selected Answer:

• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.
Selected Answer:

• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.
Selected Answer:

• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.
Selected Answer:

• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, of all the cities where Paul ministered, perhaps the __________
had more evidence of Satanic activity and demonic oppression than any other place.
Selected Answer:

• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord
will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.
Selected Answer:

• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have
been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in
and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
Selected Answer:

• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of
Selected Answer:

• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He
makes this conclusion through allegorically explaining the stories of
Selected Answer:

• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Timothy Paul argues that pastors should get paid but should not be appointed
until they have proven they are of godly character.
Selected Answer:

• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and
God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.
Selected Answer:

• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
Selected Answer:

• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
First Corinthians is a pastoral letter to a local church from a father addressing his
spiritually erring children
Selected Answer:

• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
At the bottom of all the problems addressed in First Corinthians was a self-serving,
indulgent attitude. This attitude stood in contrast to the death of Christ as a self-giving sacrifice for the sins of others.
Selected Answer:

• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
Selected Answer:

• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Some scholars believe that the absence of personal greetings in Ephesians suggests that
neither did Paul found the church in Ephesus nor did he know anyone in the church.
Selected Answer:

• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after
ministering in Ephesus.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.
Selected Answer:

• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
One of Paul’s principal achievements was that he wrote thirteen books of the New
Testament, which are a primary source of theological information
Selected Answer:

• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.
Selected Answer:

• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of
Selected Answer:

• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Paul founded the church in Rome on his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.
Selected Answer:

• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that the whole world is under sin and therefore guilty before
God.
Selected Answer:

• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
_____________, a wealthy businessman who lived in Colossae, owned slaves, and the
church met in his house.
Selected Answer:

• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament
truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.
Selected Answer:

• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of
love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.
Selected Answer:

• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own
good works, with or without the law.
Selected Answer:

• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile
culture.
Selected Answer:

• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
Selected Answer:

• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
Selected Answer:

• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.
Selected Answer:

• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
Selected Answer:

• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
Selected Answer:

• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of
doctrine and the second section is a section on
Selected Answer:

• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.
Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.
Selected Answer:

• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.
Selected Answer:

• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until
they had corrected their three current issues.
Selected Answer:

• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesian, Paul pictures believers as being “in Christ.” This is a special relationship
with God because they are perfect in Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s
righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the
resurrection of believers.
Selected Answer:

• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.
Selected Answer:

• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul seems to sum up the Colossian heresy of gnosis calling it,
“Philosophy and empty deceit based on human tradition, based on the elemental forces of the world.”
Selected Answer:

Q3. 2019 Answer key Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 4
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
Selected Answer:

• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.
Selected Answer:

• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.
Selected Answer:

• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.
Selected Answer:

• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, of all the cities where Paul ministered, perhaps the __________
had more evidence of Satanic activity and demonic oppression than any other place.
Selected Answer:

• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord
will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.
Selected Answer:

• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have
been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in
and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
Selected Answer:

• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of
Selected Answer:

• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He
makes this conclusion through allegorically explaining the stories of
Selected Answer:

• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Timothy Paul argues that pastors should get paid but should not be appointed
until they have proven they are of godly character.
Selected Answer:

• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and
God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.
Selected Answer:

• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
Selected Answer:

• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
First Corinthians is a pastoral letter to a local church from a father addressing his
spiritually erring children
Selected Answer:

• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
At the bottom of all the problems addressed in First Corinthians was a self-serving,
indulgent attitude. This attitude stood in contrast to the death of Christ as a self-giving sacrifice for the sins of others.
Selected Answer:

• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
Selected Answer:

• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Some scholars believe that the absence of personal greetings in Ephesians suggests that
neither did Paul found the church in Ephesus nor did he know anyone in the church.
Selected Answer:

• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after
ministering in Ephesus.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.
Selected Answer:

• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
One of Paul’s principal achievements was that he wrote thirteen books of the New
Testament, which are a primary source of theological information
Selected Answer:

• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.
Selected Answer:

• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of
Selected Answer:

• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Paul founded the church in Rome on his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.
Selected Answer:

• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that the whole world is under sin and therefore guilty before
God.
Selected Answer:

• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
_____________, a wealthy businessman who lived in Colossae, owned slaves, and the
church met in his house.
Selected Answer:

• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament
truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.
Selected Answer:

• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of
love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.
Selected Answer:

• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own
good works, with or without the law.
Selected Answer:

• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile
culture.
Selected Answer:

• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
Selected Answer:

• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
Selected Answer:

• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.
Selected Answer:

• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
Selected Answer:

• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
Selected Answer:

• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of
doctrine and the second section is a section on
Selected Answer:

• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.
Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.
Selected Answer:

• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.
Selected Answer:

• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until
they had corrected their three current issues.
Selected Answer:

• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesian, Paul pictures believers as being “in Christ.” This is a special relationship
with God because they are perfect in Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s
righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the
resurrection of believers.
Selected Answer:

• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.
Selected Answer:

• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul seems to sum up the Colossian heresy of gnosis calling it,
“Philosophy and empty deceit based on human tradition, based on the elemental forces of the world.”
Selected Answer:

Q4. 2019 Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 6 complete solutions
• Question 1
2 out of 2 points
______________ became the first Christian martyred for preaching the gospel.
Selected Answer:

• Question 2
0 out of 2 points
The author of Acts is clearly not an eyewitness of much of what he writes about.
Selected Answer:

• Question 3
2 out of 2 points
Who did Paul take with him on his second missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 4
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, the Acts of the Apostles” isn’t a survey of the ministry of all twelve disciples; rather it is about ____________ and _____________.
Selected Answer:

• Question 5
2 out of 2 points
The book of Acts includes twenty-three ___________ which make up one-third of the book.
Selected Answer:

• Question 6
2 out of 2 points
The book of Acts is filled with gospel preaching, including sermons by Peter, __________, and Paul.
Selected Answer:

• Question 7
2 out of 2 points
While at Perga on his first missionary journey, _____________ left and returned to Jerusalem while Paul and Barnabas went on.
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
2 out of 2 points
The Holy Spirit was poured out on the believers at _______________.
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
2 out of 2 points
__________, pastor of the Jerusalem church, presided over the council.
Selected Answer:

• Question 10
2 out of 2 points
Church leadership in Acts consisted of deacons but not elders.
Selected Answer:

• Question 11
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, there are five key ideas in the book of Acts. _____________ is one of these ideas.
Selected Answer:

• Question 12
2 out of 2 points
What member of the Jewish Sanhedrin was converted to Christ on the road to Damascus.
Selected Answer:

• Question 13
2 out of 2 points
The birth and growth of the church in Acts reveals God’s plan to take the gospel to the world as an extension of the Jewish messianic hope from its beginning in Jewish Jerusalem to the heart of the Gentile world in Rome.
Selected Answer:

• Question 14
0 out of 2 points
Paul begins his third missionary journey from
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
2 out of 2 points
On Paul’s first missionary journey he took ___________ and ___________ with him.
Selected Answer:
Barnabas/ John Mark
• Question 16
2 out of 2 points
Jewish authorities finally arrested Paul at __________ where he defended himself before the Sanhedrin.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
2 out of 2 points
On his second missionary journey, Paul receives a vision at ________ that encourages him to travel to Macedonia.
Selected Answer:

• Question 18
2 out of 2 points
In ______________ on their first missionary journey, Paul and Barnabas were mistaken for gods.
Selected Answer:

• Question 19
2 out of 2 points
Paul asked ________________ to join him in his work at Lystra while on his second missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 20
2 out of 2 points
While ministering ______________ during his first missionary journey, a Jewish magician was struck blind and a Roman proconsul was converted.
Selected Answer:

• Question 21
2 out of 2 points
The convert Saul would eventually exchange his Jewish name for the Greco-Roman name ___________, as he expanded his ministry to the Gentiles.
Selected Answer:

• Question 22
2 out of 2 points
A serious disagreement arose at Antioch as to whether the new Gentile converts
Selected Answer:

• Question 23
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, the birth of the church to place in Jerusalem at _____________.
Selected Answer:

• Question 24
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, there are five key ideas in the book of Acts. _____________ is one of these ideas.
Selected Answer:

• Question 25
2 out of 2 points
In __________ on his second missionary journey, Paul speaks to the Areopagus.
Selected Answer:

Q5. 2019 Answer key to Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 5

42 out of 50 points
Time Elapsed
55 minutes out of 1 hour and 30 minutes
Instructions
• Time limit: 1 hour and 30 minutes
• 50 true/false and multiple-choice questions
• Open-book/open-notes
• Do not hit the BACK button as this will lock you out of the quiz.
• The timer will continue if you leave this quiz without submitting it.
Results Displayed
Submitted Answers, Feedback
• Question 1
1 out of 1 points
John views the soldiers’ division of Jesus’ clothes is viewed as a prophetic fulfillment.
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of John can be divided into two sections. The first section is the _____________ and the second section is the Book of Glory.
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
The book of Mark belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s portrait of Christ is that of
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel describes five extended teaching sessions, which are arranged in five major discourses. This was done so that readers could better follow what Jesus said about specific subjects.
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In order to speed up Jesus’ death so that it did not conflict with the Sabbath, the Jesus legs were broken at the request of the religious leaders.
Selected Answer:
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
The New Testament begins with the first coming of Christ and ends with the promise of His Second Coming.
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
All the authors of the New Testament were Jews, with the possible exception of the Roman citizen Paul.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
The content of the New Testament Letters is doctrinal and personal.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
The book of Philemon belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Selected Answer:
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
According to early church tradition, Mark was a close disciple of James, the brother of Jesus. So, he heard James tell and retell the stories about Jesus everywhere they went.
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?
Selected Answer:
• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.
Selected Answer:
Mark
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Jesus was buried in a new tomb by Nicodemus and Joseph of Arimathea.
Selected Answer:
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
The book of Revelation was written by John on the island of
Selected Answer:
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
Because Luke was a physician, there seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old Testament.
Selected Answer:

• Question 31
0 out of 1 points
In Matthew, the Parables of the Kingdom contrasts the righteousness of the kingdom of heaven with the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees.
Selected Answer:

• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.
Selected Answer:

• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.
Selected Answer:

• Question 34
0 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
Selected Answer:

• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
The Mark who authored the Gospel of Mark is not the John Mark that Paul did not want to take with him on his second missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
At his crucifixion Jesus asked for a drink. John view this as a prophetic fulfillment.
Selected Answer:

• Question 38
0 out of 1 points
Jesus asked James three times, “Do you love Me?” Upon Peter’s positive confession Jesus recommissioned him to service.
Selected Answer:

• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Selected Answer:

• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel names no audience for its message other than that which is implied in its Great Commission. Its message was ultimately intended to go to “all nations.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
John’s portrait of Christ is that of
Selected Answer:

• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of Matthew is the most comprehensive of the four Gospels.
Selected Answer:

• Question 43
0 out of 1 points
Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles of Jesus.
Selected Answer:

• Question 44
0 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.
Selected Answer:

• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.
Selected Answer:

• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.
Selected Answer:

• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
The New Testament Epistles are personal letters written to churches and individuals.
Selected Answer:

• Question 48
0 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
Selected Answer:

• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s Gospel is the most universal Gospel because the good news about Jesus is for the whole world, not for the Jews only.
Selected Answer:

• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The last twelve verses of Mark are included in the KJV but modern translations like the NASB, NKJV, ESV, HCSB, and NIV usually use footnotes or a combination of footnotes and brackets to indicate that some manuscripts lack the verses.
Selected Answer:

Q6. 2019 Answers to Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 4

Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 4 Answers 2019
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
In Haggai’s final message the Lord promised to bless Zerubbabel who was the weak governor of Judah and a member of the house of David.
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Amos opened his book of prophecies with the startling image of God as a ___________. Rather than protecting them, Yahweh would roar out in judgment against them.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
According to Lamentations, Jerusalem’s fate was worse than that of Sodom.
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy depicts one whose government is marked by grace and truth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
In Malachi, God denounces His people by raising the question of
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
Habakkuk’s message is a personal one in which the prophet laments and dialogues with the Lord over the justice of His ways in using the Babylonians to punish Judah’s sins.
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
In Malachi, the Lord promised that He would send the prophet _________ prior to the future Day of the Lord to restore His people.
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to Micah, because the rich deprived the poor of their land, the Lord would now do the same to them.
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
_________ is the shortest book in the Old Testament.
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
Hosea charged Israel with three separate indictments. One of these indictments indicated that “They have broken the covenant; they were unfaithful to me there.” (Hos. 6:7)
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the key word(s) for the book of Lamentations is Faithful love which means chêsêd in Hebrew.
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah makes clear that this is not a typical human child because he is described as a “Might Savior.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
Edom was lifted up because of excessive pride. They trusted in their political and military advisors for their security.
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
Like a con artist, Nineveh had seduced other nations into alliances and then had
betrayed them because of her greed and lust for wealth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
0 out of 1 points
The book of Ezekiel is structured around seven visions of the Lord.
Selected Answer:
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
Luke 22:37 quotes from Isa 53:12 (“And he was numbered with the transgressors”) as evidence that Jesus is Isaiah’s suffering servant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In his first vision, Zechariah saw a flying scroll that measured thirty feet by fifteen feet and was covered with written curses against those who had broken God’s commandments
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
Amos’ prophecies of judgment demanded a response because they were not absolute predictions of what must happen in the future as much as they were warnings of what would happen if Israel did not repent and change its ways.
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
______________ is the central theme of the book of Zephaniah.
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the New Testament explains that John the Baptist is the fulfillment of the messenger prophesied by Malachi.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Edom was lifted up because of excessive pride. They believed their mountain fortresses made them invulnerable to enemy attack.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
The book of Malachi is structured around disputations in which the Lord dialogues with His people in a series of questions and answers.
Selected Answer:
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy depicts one whose government is from the throne of David.
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
Amos concluded his prophecies of unrelenting judgment with a message of hope concerning Israel’s future restoration. God promised:
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Zephaniah’s ministry reminds us of the importance of preaching which confronts evil, calls for repentance, and leads to revival.
Selected Answer:
True
• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
Lamentations reveals that, as the Divine Warrior, the Lord poured out His anger on the city of Jerusalem. However, He would not abandon the Temple for it was His own sanctuary.
Selected Answer:
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
The ultimate fulfillment of the Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah was the virgin birth of Jesus Christ, who was literally God incarnate and who would preserve the line of David forever.
Selected Answer:
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
Ezekiel’s vision of _____________ confirmed the Lord’s promise to restore and spiritually renew the people of Israel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah makes clear that this is not a typical human child because he is described as an “Everlasting Father.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
Daniel was thrown into a lion’s den because he refused to stop praying.
Selected Answer:
• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
Nebuchadnezzar built a golden statue and required Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, as well all of his government officials to worship this statue when certain music played.
Selected Answer:
• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
The book of Lamentations is a series of five separate laments over the fall of Jerusalem to the __________.
Selected Answer:
• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
The Babylonians allowed Jeremiah to remain in the land of Judah, and he ministered there until he and his scribe Baruch were kidnapped by a faction of Jews and taken away as hostages to Egypt.
Selected Answer:
• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
The enormity of the temple rebuilding process, economic hardships, and opposition from the surrounding peoples stalled the project for sixteen months.
Selected Answer:
• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Nahum, God’s justice demanded the Assyrians experience the suffering and degradation they inflicted on others.
Selected Answer:
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
Hosea compared Israel’s unfaithfulness to spoiled grapes, a wild vine, a trained heifer, and a rebellious daughter.
Selected Answer:
• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
Zephaniah began his ministry at approximately the same time as Ezekiel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
The ____________ were descendants of Esau and had a stormy relationship with Israel throughout their history.
Selected Answer:
• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
The book of Lamentations is an anonymous composition but early tradition identifies ___________ as the author of the book.
Selected Answer:
• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Peter cites and quotes from Isa 53:4–5, 9, 11–12 (“He committed no sin, and no deceit was found in his mouth,” and “by his wounds you have been healed”) in 1 Peter 2:21-25 as evidence that Jesus is Isaiah’s suffering servant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
The story of Jonah is a reminder that the Lord’s plan of salvation extends beyond Israel to include all the nations, even those who were Israel’s greatest enemies.
Selected Answer:
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
In Isaiah, Christ is pictured as a suffering servant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah makes clear that this is not a typical human child because he is described as a “Wonderful Counselor”
Selected Answer:
• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
One lament in Lamentations features a beleaguered individual who probably is the personification of the city of Jerusalem.
Selected Answer:
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In the final section of the book of Micah, God’s relationship to His people is presented as
Selected Answer:
• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
In Malachi, God denounces His people by raising the question of
Selected Answer:
• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
The judgment of the Edomites is a reminder that God stands opposed to all forms of human arrogance and pride.
Selected Answer:
• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In Isaiah, Christ is pictured as the bread of life.
Selected Answer:
• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
Habakkuk’s third question was:
Selected Answer:
• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy depicts one whose reigns forever.
Selected Answer:

Q7. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 10
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 10
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 10

Q8. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9

Q9. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8

Q10. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7

CHEMISTRY.

Q1. Citric Acid Cycle

 

Balance Sheet for the Citric Acid Cycle The citric acid cycle has eight enzymes: citrate synthase, aconitase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, succinyl-CoA synthetase, succinate dehydrogenase, fumarase, and malate dehydrogenase. (a) Write a balanced equation for the reaction catalyzed by each enzyme. (b) Name the cofactor(s) required by each enzyme reaction. (c) For each enzyme determine which of the following describes the type of reaction(s) catalyzed: condensation (carbon–carbon bond formation); dehydration (loss of water); hydration (addition of water); decarboxylation (loss of CO2); oxidation-reduction; substrate-level phosphorylation; isomerization. (d) Write a balanced net equation for the catabolism of acetyl-CoA to CO2

 

Q2. Chapter 17 – Acid-Base (Proton Transfer) Reactions

 

Chapter 17 – Acid-Base (Proton Transfer) Reactions

 

According to the Arrhenius definition, what is the substance that provides hydroxide ions in solution?

Solvent

Precipitate

Base

Acid

Salt

 

According to Arrhenius theory, what is an acid?

  1. A substance that contains a high concentration of hydrogen ions in solutions with water.
  2. A substance that will lower the hydrogen ion concentration when placed in water.
  3. A substance that has an H in its formula.
  4. An electron pair donor.
  5. An electron pair acceptor.

 

Which of the following is not capable of acting like a Brønsted–Lowry base?

  1. H2O()
  2. NH4+ion
  3. Clion
  4. HNO3(aq)
  5. H2PO4(aq)

 

Which of the following cannot act as a Brønsted–Lowry acid?

  1. HCO3(aq)
  2. HOH()
  3. NH3(g)
  4. CO32–(aq)
  5. CH3OH()

Consider the following generalized reaction.

 

For this reaction, which of the following is correct?

  1. A is proton source.
  2. B is a proton remover.
  3. A is an electron pair donor.
  4. B is an electron pair acceptor.
  5. This a Lewis acid-base reaction.

 

Which of the following is a Lewis acid but not a Brønsted–Lowry acid?

  1. OH
  2. HPO42–
  3. HCl
  4. NH4+
  5. Fe3+

 

 

Which one of the following pairs does not represent a conjugate acid-base pair?

H3PO4 / HPO42-

H2O / OH

HBr / Br

NO3 / HNO3

HClO2 / ClO2

 

Choose the pair that does not constitute a conjugate acid-base pair.

CH3CO2H / CH3CO2

H3O+ / H2O

HSO4 / SO42-

H3PO4 / HPO42-

None. All of these are conjugate acid base pairs.

 

Which one of the following is a strong acid?

nitric acid, HNO3

phosphoric acid, H3PO4

hypobromous acid, HOBr

bromic acid, HBrO3

carbonic acid, H2CO3

 

Given the following relative acid strengths, starting with the weakest: HCO3 < HNO3 < HBr, what is the relative strength of each conjugate base, starting with the weakest?

  1. CO32–< NO3< Br
  2. Br< CO32–< NO3
  3. NO3< Br< CO32–
  4. Br< NO3< CO32–
  5. CO32–< Br< NO3

 

 

Which of the following is the correct net ionic equation for the reaction between nitrous acid and hydrogen sulfide ion?

  1. HNO2+ HSH2NO2+ + S2–
  2. HNO2+ HSNO2 + H2S
  3. HNO2+ HSO4H2NO2+ + SO42–
  4. HNO2+ HSO4NO2 + H2SO4
  5. HNO3+ HSO4NO3 + H2SO4

 

Which is the correct net ionic equation for the reaction between HC2O4 and HPO42–? (Note: H2C2O4 is a stronger acid than H2PO4.)

  1. HC2O4+ HPO42–H+ + H2O42– + HPO42–
  2. HC2O4+ HPO42–H+ + HC2O4 + PO43–
  3. HC2O4+ HPO42–C2O42– + H2PO4
  4. HC2O4+ HPO42–H2C2O4 + PO43–
  5. HC2O4+ HPO42–H2 + C2O42– + PO43–

 

Which one of the following chemical equations illustrates the ionization of perchloric acid, HClO4, when it dissolves in water?

2 HClO42 ClO4 + H2

HClO4 + H2O H3O+ + ClO4

HClO4 + OH H2O + ClO4

3 HClO4 + 2 H2O 2 H2O+ + 3 HClO4

HClO4 + H2O H2ClO4+ + OH

 

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. Acid-base reactions involve a transfer of protons; redox reactions involve a transfer of electrons.
  2. In both redox and acid-base reactions, the reactants are given special names to indicate their roles in the transfer process.
  3. Just as certain species can either donate or accept protons and thereby behave as an acid in one reaction and a base in another, certain species can either accept or donate electrons, acting as an oxidizing agent in one reaction and a reducing agent in another.
  4. Just as acids and bases may be classified as “strong” or “weak” depending on how readily they donate or accept protons, the strengths of oxidizing and reducing agents may be compared according to their tendencies to attract or release electrons.
  5. Unlike most acid-base reactions in solution, which reach a state of equilibrium, most aqueous redox reactions do not reach a state of equilibrium and proceed entirely either in the forward or reverse direction.

 

The autoionization of water, as represented by the below equation, is known to be endothermic. Which of the following correctly states what occurs as the temperature of water is raised? H2O(l) + H2O(l) H3O+(aq) + OH(aq)

The pH of the water does not change, and the water remains neutral.

The pH of the water decreases, and the water remains neutral.

The pH of the water increases, and the water becomes more acidic.

The pH of the water decreases, and the water becomes more acidic.

The pH of the water increases and the water remains neutral.

 

Which of the following statements is incorrect?
i. Kw = [H+][OH] = 1.0 × 10–14 at 25°C.
ii. Water or water solutions in which [H+] = [OH] = 10–7 M are neutral solutions, neither acidic nor basic.
iii. A solution in which [H+] > [OH] is basic.
iv. A solution in which [OH] > [H+] is acidic.

  1. i and ii
  2. iii and iv
  3. ii, iii, and iv
  4. All statements are correct.
  5. All statements are incorrect.

 

At 55°C, the ion-product constant of water, Kw, is 7.05 × 10-14. The pH of pure water at 55°C is

4.384

7.000

3.804

4.484

None of these choices are correct.

 

Carbonic acid is a diprotic acid, H2CO3, with Ka1 = 4.2 × 10–7 and Ka2 = 4.8 × 10–11 at 25°C. The ion product for water is Kw = 1.0 × 10–14 at 25°C. What is the OH concentration of a solution that is 0.15 M in Na2CO3?

2.7 × 10-6 M

6.0 × 10-5 M

5.6 × 10-3 M

2.1 × 10–4 M

2.5 × 10-4 M

 

What is the [ OH ] in a solution that has a pH of 10.15 ?

1.41×10-4 M

0.213 M

1.41×10-5 M

7.08×10-10 M

7.08×10-11 M

 

Which of the following is true for a basic solution?

[ H+ ] < [ OH ]

Kw = [ H+ ]

[ OH ] = [ H+ ]

[ H+ ][ OH ] = 1

[ OH ] < [ H+ ]

 

What is the pH of a solution when [OH] = 5.0×10-2 mol/L?

12.70

7.00

13.70

0.30

1.30

 

What is the [ H+ ] of a solution that has a pH of 7.37?

4.27×106

2.34×10-7

4.27×10-8

2.34×107

 

Which one of the following is not characteristic of a acid?

Producing a solution with a pH less than 7

Tasting sour

Producing hydrogen ions in solution

Turning red litmus blue

 

If the pH of a solution is equal to 7.00, the solution is _____.

basic

amphoteric

neutral

acidic

 

The pH of a solution is 5.330. Find [OH].

  1. [OH] = 2.14 × 10–9molar
  2. [OH] = 4.70 × 10–11molar
  3. [OH] = 5.33 × 10–7molar
  4. [OH] = 4.70 × 10–6molar
  5. [OH] = 5.33 molar

 

A solution is made by dissolving 12.50 g of NaOH, a strong base, in water to produce 2.0 liters of solution. What is the pH of this solution?

  1. 13.50
  2. 13.19
  3. 11.74
  4. 0.81
  5. 0.31

 

The following three equations represent equilibria that lie to the right.

HNO3(aq) + CN(aq) HCN(aq) + NO3 (aq)

HCN(aq) + OH(aq) H2O(l) + CN(aq)

H2O(l) + CH3CH2O(aq) CH3CH2OH(aq) + OH(aq)

Identify the strongest base.

  1. CH3CH2O
  2. NO3
  3. CN
  4. CH3CH2OH
  5. H2O

 

Carbonic acid is a diprotic acid, H2CO3, with Ka1 = 4.2 × 10–7 and Ka2 = 4.8 × 10–11 at 25°C. The ion product for water is Kw = 1.0 × 10–14 at 25°C. What is the OH concentration of a solution that is 1.15 M in Na2CO3?

7.4 × 10-6 M

1.7 × 10-4 M

2.1 × 10–4 M

6.9 × 10-4 M

1.5 × 10-2 M

 

As water is heated, its pH decreases. This means that

the dissociation of water is an endothermic process.

the water has a lower [OH] than cooler water.

the Kw value is decreasing.

the water is no longer neutral.

None of these choices are correct.

 

Calculate the pH of a 8.22×10-2 M NaF solution (Kb = 1.4 x 10-11).

11.94

2.06

5.97

3.15

8.03

 

At 65°C, the ion-product constant of water, Kw, is 1.20 × 10-13. The pH of pure water at 65°C is

3.727

7.000

4.307

4.407

None of these choices are correct.

 

Calculate the hydroxide concentration in a 3.0 M HCl aqueous solution.

3.0*10^-14 M

7.0*10^-13 M

1.0*10^-7 M

3.4*10^-15 M

3.0*10^14 M

 

 

 

 

Q3. Chapter 16 – Solutions

 


Chapter 16 

 

  1. Consider the following beaker which has had its contents (KBr and water) mixed until no further change occurs.

 

Which of the following best describes the contents of the beaker?

  1. KBr – solute and water – solvent.
  2. Saturated solution.
  3. Addition of enough water would produce an unsaturated solution.
  4. A heterogeneous mixture.
  5. All of the above correctly describe the contents of the beaker.

 

2.

Which of the following correctly applies to the term “solution”?

  1. heterogeneous mixture
  2. variable composition
  3. constant properties
  4. dissolved particles can are usually larger than about 10–7cm
  5. exist only in the liquid and gas state

3.

A solution that has a relatively large amount of solute dissolved in it at a particular temperature is said to be _____.

unsaturated

oversaturated

dilute

supersaturated

concentrated

 

4.

Suppose you are given a beaker containing a solution. None of the solute is on the bottom. You drop a small crystal of the solute into the solution, and it readily dissolves into the solution. Which one of the following terms best describes the solution?

concentrated

supersaturated

unsaturated

static

saturated

 

5.

Which of the following substances should be the most soluble in ethanol (CH3CH2OH)?

CH4

NaCl

Mg3(PO4)2

CH2Cl2

O2

 

6.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. The roles ofsoluteand solvent are not always clearly defined in the solution of one liquid in another.
  2. When water and carbon tetrachloride are in the same test tube, a denser layer of carbon tetrachloride forms beneath a less dense layer of water. The liquids are said to be miscible.
  3. A solution of a given concentration that is saturated at one temperature may be unsaturated at another temperature.
  4. Dilute nitric acid and dilute sulfuric acid may or may not have the same concentration.
  5. The concentration of solute in a supersaturated solution is greater than the normal solubility limit.

 

7.

“Like dissolves like” essentially means:

Solids won’t dissolve in liquids.

Ionic compounds will only dissolve in molten salts.

Ionic compounds won’t vaporize easily.

Polar solutes will dissolve in polar solvents.

 

8.

In carbon steel, carbon is the _____ and iron is the _______.

solute, solution

solvent, solute

solute, solvent

solution, solute

 

9.

dentify the incorrect statement about events that occur between the time excess solid solute is first introduced to a liquid solvent and the time when the solution becomes saturated. Assume that the surface area of the solute remains constant throughout the process.

  1. The rate of concentration change is zero when the solution is saturated.
  2. The net rate of concentration change is greatest at the beginning of the process.
  3. The rate of dissolving is greater than the rate of crystallization when the solution is one-half saturated.
  4. If temperature remains constant, the rate of dissolving is constant.
  5. If temperature remains constant, the rate of crystallization remains constant.

 

10.

When a saturated solution is in equilibrium with undissolved solute, …

  1. the solution separates into layers.
  2. dissolving and crystallization stop.
  3. the quantity of dissolved solute equals the quantity of undissolved solute.
  4. the concentration of the solution remains constant.
  5. the temperature increases until more solute dissolves.

 

  1. Which of the following will always cause the greatest increase in the solubility of a gas in a liquid?

increasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and lowering the liquid temperature

decreasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and lowering the liquid temperature

increasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and raising the liquid temperature

decreasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid with no temperature change of the liquid

decreasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and raising the liquid temperature

  1. Rank the following compounds according to increasing solubility in water.
  2. CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3
  3. CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3
  4. CH3–CH2–OH
  5. CH3–OH

I < III < IV < II

I < II < IV < III

III < IV < II < I

I < II < III < IV

None of these is correct.

 

13.

The structures of cyclohexane and benzene are shown below.

cyclohexane

benzene

It is logical to expect that these liquids are…

  1. miscible because of their similar structures and sizes.
  2. miscible because they contain the same number of carbon atoms.
  3. immiscible because benzene, with half as many hydrogen atoms, has less hydrogen bonding than cyclohexane.
  4. immiscible because one molecule is polar and the other nonpolar.
  5. immiscible because both molecules have ring structures

 

 

14.

Consider the graph shown below.

 

Which substance shows the smallest increase in solubility as the temperature is increased?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. E

 

15.

To determine the mass percent of a solution’s composition, what do you need to know?

Mass of solute and mass of solution

Volume of solute and mass of solution

Volume of solute and volume of solution

Mass of solute and volume of solution

 

16.

 

Find the mass percent of CuSO4 in a solution whose density is 1.30 g/mL and whose molarity is 1.36 M.

2.66%

16.7%

1.77%

83.3%

None of these choices are correct.

 

17.

If 8.73 g Ca(NO3)2 is dissolved in enough water to make 0.750 L of solution, what is the molar concentration of Ca(NO3)2?

11.6 M

1.16×10-2 M

7.09×10-2 M

25.1 M

0.114 M

 

18.

What is the concentration of chloride ions in a 0.20 M FeCl3 solution?

6.7×10-2 M

0.80 M

0.60 M

0.20 M

0.40 M

 

19.

What concentration unit is necessary for the calculation of vapor pressure lowering of a solvent?

mass fraction of solvent

molarity of solute

mole fraction of solvent

molality of solvent

mole fraction of solute

 

20.

 

75.0 mL of water is added to 12.9 mL of 0.250 M KMnO4. What is the concentration of the diluted solution?

  1. 1.70 M
  2. 1.45 M
  3. 0.0581 M
  4. 0.0430 M
  5. 0.0367 M

 

21.

 

What volume of hydrogen gas, measured at STP, is produced in the reaction of excess aluminum with 50.0 mL of 0.935 M hydrochloric acid?

  1. 0.531 L
  2. 1.06 L
  3. 2.12 L
  4. 0.0474 L
  5. 0.0237 L

 

22.

Write the balanced equation for the reaction of aluminum chloride with silver nitrate and determine what volume of 0.107 M silver nitrate is required to precipitate all the chloride from 15.00 mL of 0.0500 M aluminum chloride.

  1. 45.0 mL
  2. 7.01 mL
  3. 21.0 mL
  4. 63.1 mL
  5. 15.0 mL

 

23.

Potassium hydrogen phthalate is used as a primary standard in finding the concentration of a solution of sodium hydroxide by the reaction KHC8H4O4 + NaOH → NaKC8H4O4 + H2O. What is the molarity of the base if 32.75 mL is required to titrate 1.732 g of the primary standard?

  1. 0.5189 M
  2. 0.2590 M
  3. 1.732 M
  4. 3.861 M
  5. 3.275 M

 

24.

The citric acid in a lemon juice sample was neutralized by titration with NaOH solution. If 5.00 mL of lemon juice required 47.8 mL of 0.121 M NaOH for neutralization, what was the molarity of the citric acid in the lemon juice? The reaction is 3 NaOH + H3C6H5O7 → 3 H2O + Na3C6H5O7.

  1. 1.16 M
  2. 3.47 M
  3. 0.110 M
  4. 0.386 M
  5. 0.329 M

 

25.

A 50.0 mL hydrochloric acid sample is analyzed for its concentration by titration. Determine the concentration of the sample, given that it requires 21.50 mL of 0.102 M sodium hydroxide solution to neutralize the acid.

  1. 0.105 M
  2. 1.05 M
  3. 22.8 M
  4. 0.0439 M
  5. 0.237 M

 

How many of the following help determine whether or not a solution forms?

  1. the polarities of the solute and solvent
  2. the densities of the solute and solvent
  3. the probability of the mixed state (of the solution)
  4. the energies needed for the solution formation to occur
  5. the state of matter of the solute (solid, liquid, gas)

h

3

1

2

5

4

 

Which of the following statements concerning the solubility of a solute is/are correct?

(1) The dissolution of a gas in a liquid is an endothermic process.
(2) The solubility of a gas in a liquid decreases with increasing temperature.
(3) The dissolution of a gas in a liquid is an exothermic process.

2 and 3

1 and 2

3 only

2 only

1 only

 

The solubility of a gas usually increases with increasing temperature.

True

False

 

How many of the following help determine whether or not a solution forms?

  1. the polarities of the solute and solvent
  2. the densities of the solute and solvent
  3. the probability of the mixed state (of the solution)
  4. the energies needed for the solution formation to occur
  5. the state of matter of the solute (solid, liquid, gas)

 

 

 

 

Q4. Chapter 15 – Gases, Liquids, and Solids

 

Chapter 15 – Gases, Liquids, and Solids

1.

 

Dalton’s law of partial pressures states that:

equal amounts of gases occupy the same volume at constant temperature and pressure.

the volume of a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its temperature in Kelvin at constant pressure.

the volume of a fixed amount of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure at constant temperature.

the total pressure of a mixture of gases is the sum of the partial pressure of all of the gaseous compounds.

the rates of effusion of gases are inversely proportional to the square roots of their molar masses.

 

2.

Hydrogen gas can be collected by water displacement when magnesium reacts with hydrochloric acid. When the container is filled with the hydrogen gas, which of the following is true of the total pressure (P) inside the container?

 

 

3.

 

What is the phase change from liquid to solid called?

Fusion

Freezing

Condensation

Sublimation

Evaporation

 

4.

 

Which of the following properties of liquids is the least affected by the strength of intermolecular forces?

  1. vapor pressure
  2. boiling point
  3. heat of vaporization
  4. density
  5. viscosity

 

5.

 

Arrange the following molecules, CH3CHO, SO2, and H2O, in order of increasing strength of intermolecular forces.

CH3CHO, SO2, H2O

SO2, CH3CHO, H2O

H2O, SO2, CH3CHO

H2O, CH3CHO, SO2

CH3CHO, H2O, SO2

 

6.

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Intermolecular forces are weaker in liquids than in gases because the particles are closer to each other.
  2. Smaller intermolecular distances in liquids result in stronger intermolecular forces, when compared to intermolecular distances and forces in gases.
  3. Compared to liquids, large distances between gaseous molecules yield large intermolecular attractions.
  4. The smaller the distance between molecules the smaller the intermolecular attractions, therefore attractions are weaker in liquids than gases.
  5. All statements are correct.

 

7.

The kinetic molecular theory as applied to liquids differs in two major ways from the theory as applied to gases. One of these is that…

  1. Matter no longer appears to be made up of discrete particles
  2. Energy changes result from intermolecular collisions
  3. Attractive forces between molecules are significant
  4. Molecules are no longer in motion relative to each other
  5. Forces between molecules are no longer electrostatic in character

 

8.

Considering the molecular mass and polarity influences on physical properties, which of the following predictions about the boiling points of elemental bromine and chlorine fluoride is most apt to be correct?

  1. Both molecular mass and polarity predicts Br2has the lower boiling point.
  2. Both molecular mass and polarity predicts Br2has the higher boiling point.
  3. Molecular mass predicts Br2has the lower boiling point, but molecular polarity predicts it has the lower boiling point.
  4. Molecular mass predicts Br2has the higher boiling point, but molecular polarity predicts it has the lower boiling point.
  5. Molecular mass and polarity have an insignificant influence on the physical properties of these molecules.

 

9.

 

The normal boiling point of liquid X is less than that of Y, which is less than that of Z. Which of the following is the correct order of increasing vapor pressure of the three liquids at STP?

 

10.

 

The vapor pressure of water at 80°C is

 

 

11.

 

Which of the following molecules will have the highest boiling point?

CH4

I2

SiH4

SO2

O2

 

12.

 

Select from the following the statement that is incorrect or contrary to the generalizations that you’ve learned.

  1. The strength of induced dipole forces depends on the ease with which electron distributions can be polarized.
  2. Dipole forces are present in NF3, but not in CF4.
  3. The principal intermolecular forces in a straight chain hydrocarbon such as C8H18are induced dipole forces.
  4. Intermolecular forces are usually stronger for substances that exhibit hydrogen bonding than for otherwise similar substances lacking hydrogen bonds.
  5. Induced dipole forces exist in both polar and nonpolar molecular substances, but they are essentially the only attractions in polar compounds.

 

 

13.

Which of the species below would you expect to show the least hydrogen bonding?

HF

NH3

CH4

H2O

all the same

 

14.

 

The elements of group 5A, the nitrogen family, form compounds with hydrogen having the boiling points listed below:

SbH3 –17°C, AsH3 –55°C, PH3 –87°C, NH3 –33°C

The first three compounds illustrate a trend where the boiling point decreases as the mass decreases; however, ammonia (NH3) does not follow the trend because of:

dipole-dipole attraction.

hydrogen bonding.

metallic bonding.

London dispersion forces.

ionic bonding.

 

 

 

15.

 

Which substance involves no bonding forces except London dispersion forces?

NaCl(l)

N2(s)

HF(l)

H2O(l)

K(s)

 

16.

 

Draw the Lewis diagrams of CH3OH and water, then from the Lewis diagrams, identify the statement among the following that is most apt to be incorrect.

  1. Hydrogen bonds are probably the principal intermolecular force in both compounds.
  2. Both compounds have both hydrogen bonding and induced dipole forces.
  3. Both molecules being polar, dipole-dipole forces are present in both compounds.
  4. Induced dipole forces are present in CH3OH, but not water.
  5. Induced dipole forces are probably the least significant intermolecular forces in both compounds.

 

17.

 

There is 250 mL of water stored in a 500-mL sealed container. As the temperature increases from 298 K to 308 K:

the number of water molecules in the vapor phase increases indefinitely.

the number of water molecules in the liquid phase decreases.

the number of water molecules in the vapor phase decreases.

the number of water molecules in the vapor phase remains constant.

the number of water molecules in the vapor phase decreases indefinitely.

 

18.

 

What would happen to the average kinetic energy of the molecules of a gas sample if the temperature of the sample increased from 20°C to 40°C?

It would decrease.

It would double.

It would become half its value.

It would increase.

Two of these choices are correct.

 

19.

 

Among the following, identify the incorrect statement about a boiling liquid:

  1. Boiling temperature may be increased by raising surrounding pressure.
  2. The temperature of the liquid must be greater than that of the gas above the liquid.
  3. Boiling in an open beaker occurs at a lower temperature at higher altitudes.
  4. Equilibrium vapor pressure at boiling temperature equals, or is slightly higher than, surrounding pressure.
  5. All statements are correct.

 

20.

Among the following, identify the correct statement about a boiling liquid:

  1. The temperature of a liquid boiling in an open beaker is equal to the temperature of the gas space above the liquid.
  2. Equilibrium vapor pressure at the boiling temperature is higher than the surrounding pressure.
  3. Vapor pressure in a bubble in the liquid is equal to or slightly greater than the equilibrium pressure at boiling temperature.
  4. Boiling temperature can be increased by boiling in a vacuum.
  5. All statements are incorrect.

21.

Although both are readily soluble in water, why does table salt (NaCl) conduct an electric current when dissolved in water but table sugar (C12H22O11) does not?

Because table salt has a simpler formula than table sugar.

Because sugar contains carbon atoms which do not conduct electricity.

Because sugar has a larger mass than salt.

Because salt forms ions of Na+ and Cl in water which are free to move about to conduct an electric current whereas sugar does not form ions in water.

22.

Why does ice float on liquid water?

  1. It is a compound without carbon atoms that exists in the liquid state at room temperature and pressure.
  2. The linear structure of the water molecule allows ice molecules to pack together tightly enough to allow ice to float.
  3. Ice is structurally similar to wood, so ice floats on water in a manner similar to wooden ships where air becomes trapped in cells within the solid structure.
  4. Oxygen’s low electronegativity leads to the collapse of the crystal structure, allowing the molecules to become closer together in water.
  5. Water molecules in the solid form are held in a crystal pattern that has voids between the molecules.

23.

In which of the following processes will energy be evolved as heat?

vaporization

sublimation

melting

crystallization

None of these choices are correct.

24.

 

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. There is long-range order in a crystalline solid
  2. Graphite is an example of an amorphous solid.
  3. Glass, rubber, and plastic are examples of crystalline solids
  4. Particles in an amorphous solids are arranged in a distinct geometric order
  5. In a crystalline solid particles can move past the closest neighboring particles.

 

25.

 

Which of the following is an example of an ionic solid?

White phosphorus

Calcium fluoride

Sulfur hexafluoride

Carbon dioxide

Silver

 

26.

 

Which of the following substances is most likely to be a solid at room temperature?

NH3

MgCl2

Cl2

H2S

CH4

 

27.

 

The heat of fusion of gold is 63 joules per gram. Once a 25.0 g sample of gold has been heated to its melting point, 1063°C, how much additional heat is required to melt it?

  1. 89 kJ
  2. 39 kJ
  3. 2.7 kJ
  4. 2.6 kJ
  5. 1.6 kJ

 

28.

Calculate the heat of fusion of an unknown pure substance if 5.33 × 103 kJ of heat is required to melt a 17.2 kg sample.

  1. 1.09 × 10–5J/g
  2. 3.23 × 10–3J/g
  3. 3.10 × 102J/g
  4. 9.17 × 104J/g
  5. 3.10 × 105J/g

29.

Calculate the enthalpy of vaporization of C4H10. This compound has vapor pressures of 492 mmHg and 355 mmHg at -12.0 °C and -20.0 °C, respectively. (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)

-81.4 kJ/mol

30.7 kJ/mol

9.73*10^3 kJ/mol

2.24*10^4 kJ/mol

22.4 kJ/mol

30.

Calculate the specific heat of an unknown metal if a 123 gram sample requires 8.8 kJ of heat to change from 16°C to 97°C.

  1. 0.88 J/g · °C
  2. 1.1 J/g · °C
  3. 5.8 × 103J/g · °C
  4. 1.3 × 104J/g · °C
  5. 8.8 × 107J/g · °C

31.

The graph below represents a temperature versus energy plot for a pure substance.

Identify the point(s) where…
(i) only gas exists
(ii) both solid and liquid exist

  1. (i) 7 (ii) 2 and 3
  2. (i) 7 (ii) 5 and 6
  3. (i) 1 (ii) 2 and 3
  4. (i) 4 (ii) 5 and 6
  5. (i) 4 (ii) 2 and 3

 

What is the total heat flow if 27 grams of steam at 143°C is cooled to become water at 34°C? The specific heat of water is 4.18 J/g · °C; the specific heat of steam is 2.0 J/g · °C. The heat of vaporization of water is 2.26 kJ/g, and the boiling point of water is 100°C.

  1. 2.3 kJ
  2. 7.4 kJ
  3. 61 kJ
  4. 71 kJ
  5. 9.8 × 103kJ

 

A gaseous mixture containing 1.5 mol Ar and 3.5 mol CO2 has a total pressure of 9.4 atm. What is the partial pressure of CO2?

6.6 atm

With all other factors being equal, which of the following correctly lists intermolecular forces in order of increasing strength?

  1. Dipole forces < Induced dipole forces < Hydrogen bonds
  2. Induced dipole forces < Dipole forces < Hydrogen bonds
  3. Hydrogen bonds < Dipole forces < Induced dipole forces
  4. Dipole forces < Hydrogen bonds < Induced dipole forces
  5. Induced dipole forces < Hydrogen bonds < Dipole forces

The normal boiling point of bromine is 58.8 °. Using the heat of vaporization of bromine (30.0 kJ/mol), calculate the vapor pressure of bromine at 28.5 °C. (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)

226 torr

680 torr

760 torr

505 torr

255 torr

 

Which of the following is not a postulate of the kinetic molecular theory?

The moving particles undergo perfectly elastic collisions with the walls of the container.

The forces of attraction and repulsion between the particles are insignificant.

Gas particles have most of their mass concentrated in the nucleus of the atom.

The average kinetic energy of the particles is directly proportional to the absolute temperature.

All of these are postulates of the kinetic molecular theory.

 

 

Among the following, identify the correct statement about a boiling liquid:

  1. The temperature of a liquid boiling in an open beaker is equal to the temperature of the gas space above the liquid.
  2. Equilibrium vapor pressure at the boiling temperature is higher than the surrounding pressure.
  3. Vapor pressure in a bubble in the liquid is equal to or slightly greater than the equilibrium pressure at boiling temperature.
  4. Boiling temperature can be increased by boiling in a vacuum.
  5. All statements are incorrect.

 

What is the total heat flow if 28 grams of water at 12°C is cooled to become ice at –19°C? The specific heat of liquid water is 4.18 J/g · °C; the specific heat of ice is 2.1 J/g · °C. The heat of fusion of ice is 333 J/g, and the freezing point of water is 0.0°C.

  1. 1.1 kJ
  2. 1.4 kJ
  3. 9.4 kJ
  4. 10.8 kJ
  5. 11.8 kJ

 

The normal boiling point of bromine is 58.8 °. Using the heat of vaporization of bromine (30.0 kJ/mol), calculate the vapor pressure of bromine at 24.5 °C. (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)

543 torr

669 torr

266 torr

217 torr

760 torr

 

 

Q5. i a need diagrams

 

Using the notation scheme for defining manipulator configurations (Section 8.1.2), draw diagrams (similar to Figure 8.1) of the following robots: (a) TRT, (b) VVR, (c) VROT.

 

Q6. Non-profit organization Propose two te

 

Non-Profit Organizations

Please respond to the each and every single requested information following in 2-3 thorough paragraphs: (Please provide your resources)

  • 1. Propose two (2) techniquesthat a nonprofit can use to measure management and employee efficiency within its organization.
  • —Speculate on the major benefitsthat these techniques may have on the organization.
  • 2. Determine whether or not traditional financial and management evaluation ratios such as return on assets (ROA), return on equity (ROE), economic value added (EVA), and market value added (MVA)apply to nonprofits.

 

Q7. One argument in the debate surround

 

  1. One argument in the debate surrounding globalization is about the inequality between nations. Discuss the major points of the inequality between nations argument and describe how falling barriers to trade and investment might help reduce the inequality between nations. In three paragraphs

 

  1. Globalization’s impact on jobs and wages is an important topic for debate. Discuss the major points for globalization in the jobs and wages debate, and describe how the actions of large multinational corporations affect the issues in the jobs and wages debate. In three paragraphs

 

  1. Identify the World Trade Organization’s (WTO) three main goals and explain how the WTO differs from the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).

 

  1. Summarize each benefit a company might obtain from the globalization of markets.

 

  1. Explain globalization of production and its benefits. 3 benefits

 

 

 

 

One argument in the debate surrounding globalization is about the inequality between nations. Discuss the major points of the inequality between nations argument and describe how falling barriers to trade and investment might help reduce the inequality between nations.

 

Q8. Stoichiometry Answer

8.39 grams of Zinc (MW=65.39 g/mole) and 12.2 grams of AgNO3 (169.87g/mol) are placed in a flask and react to form zinc (II) nitrate. how many grams of zinc nitrate will form?

 

Q9. The appraisal process is one step involved in i

 

The appraisal process is one step involved in identifying potential improvements on individual performances. What is the most difficult part in determining the dimensions to be appraised? What is most helpful on a job analysis for designing an appraisal tool?

The appraisal process is one step involved in identifying potential improvements on individual performances. What is the most difficult part in determining the dimensions to be appraised? What is most helpful on a job analysis for designing an appraisal tool?

 

Q10. Assess the value of branding in health

 

Module 3 – Case

Branding & Online Marketing

Case Assignment

Your assignment is to write a 4- to 5-page scholarly position essay in which you assess the value of branding in health care. Specifically, under what circumstances do you feel that it is beneficial for health care organizations to use branding?

  1. Can the use of branding have unexpected negative consequences? Explain in detail.

 

 

COMMUNICATIONS.

Q1. ASSIGNMENT 8 EN360 Technical Communication

 

ASSIGNMENT 8

EN360 Technical Communication

ASSIGNMENT 8

EN360 Technical Communication

Directions:  Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.

 

Part A: Email/Text Problems

 

What are some of the problems that you have experienced when writing or receiving poorly, perhaps hastily, written emails/texts? Describe at least five (5) types of issues.

 

Part B: Writing a Process Description

 

Select a specialized process that you understand well and that has several distinct steps. Using the process description discussed in Chapter 19 of your textbook as a model, write a one page description of this process.

 

Part C: Difficult to Follow Instructions

 

Find a short set of instructions or some other technical document from work or the Internet that is hard to follow. Replicate or download those instructions at the top of a one-page analysis. Assume that you are the Associate Director of Communications for the company that produced this document and that you are doing a final review before the document is released. Using the “Checklist for Instructions and Procedures”on the following page (also found in Chapter 20 of your textbook), identify what, specifically, makes the document difficult to use, providing a specific reference for each problem area.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q2. technical commumications

ASSIGNMENT 8

EN360 Technical Communication

Directions:  Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.

 

Part A: Email/Text Problems

 

What are some of the problems that you have experienced when writing or receiving poorly, perhaps hastily, written emails/texts? Describe at least five (5) types of issues.

Part B: Writing a Process Description

 

Select a specialized process that you understand well and that has several distinct steps. Using the process description discussed in Chapter 19 of your textbook as a model, write a one page description of this process.

 

Part C: Difficult to Follow Instructions

 

Find a short set of instructions or some other technical document from work or the Internet that is hard to follow. Replicate or download those instructions at the top of a one-page analysis. Assume that you are the Associate Director of Communications for the company that produced this document and that you are doing a final review before the document is released. Using the “Checklist for Instructions and Procedures” on the following page (also found in Chapter 20 of your textbook), identify what, specifically, makes the document difficult to use, providing a specific reference for each problem area.

 

 

 

Part D: Ted Talk Lecture Evaluation

 

Watch a 10-20 minute TED Talks lecture online (www.ted.com). There are 27 evaluation criteria on the “Checklist for Oral Presentations” below (also found in Chapter 24 of your textbook). Select 10 among them that you believe are most salient for this speaker. Identify strong areas and areas that could have been better. Provide an example for each. (These are skilled speakers, so you’ll probably be highlighting more strengths than weaknesses.)

 

Grading Rubric

 

Please refer to the rubric below for the grading criteria for this assignment.

 

 

 

 

This is the end of Assignment 8.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q3. EN 360 technical communications 

 

 

ASSIGNMENT 8

EN360 Technical Communication

Directions:  Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.

Part A: Email/Text Problems

 

What are some of the problems that you have experienced when writing or receiving poorly, perhaps hastily, written emails/texts? Describe at least five (5) types of issues.

Part B: Writing a Process Description

Select a specialized process that you understand well and that has several distinct steps. Using the process description discussed in Chapter 19 of your textbook as a model, write a one page description of this process.

Part C: Difficult to Follow Instructions

Find a short set of instructions or some other technical document from work or the Internet that is hard to follow. Replicate or download those instructions at the top of a one-page analysis. Assume that you are the Associate Director of Communications for the company that produced this document and that you are doing a final review before the document is released. Using the “Checklist for Instructions and Procedures” on the following page (also found in Chapter 20 of your textbook), identify what, specifically, makes the document difficult to use, providing a specific reference for each problem area.

 

Q4    COMS 101 Reading Analysis 3: Liberty University (Latest) (Already Graded A)

 

Question 1

40 out of 40 points

Match the term with the description to which it correctly links.

o

Question

Selected Match

According to one early researcher, we can recall about what percent of a speech immediately after a speech.

According to one early researcher, we recall about what percent of a speech after several days.

The first of Lyman Steil’s progressive stages of listening.

The fourth of Lyman Steil’s progressive stages of listening.

The number of decibels created by the normal speaking voice.

The phase of listening in which you attach meaning to words.

The phase of listening in which you assess the worth of the speaker’s ideas and determine their importance.

Changing an attitude or behavior to eliminate an inconsistency.

Listeners have the ability to process about this many words per minute.

Most people use about this many words per minute when talking.

  • Question 2

10 out of 10 points

Match the term to the description to which it correctly links.

o

Question

Selected Match

The background noise we encounter in communication situations.

The attitudes, emotions, beliefs, assumptions, and biases that, as noise, condition our responses in communication situations.

For most serious special-occasion speeches, you should use this style of language?

Speeches that honor and highlight events, institutions, and individuals.

A speech in which demonstrates interest in and enthusiasm about his or her speech.

 

Q5. COMS 101 Reading Analysis 2: Liberty University (Latest) (Already Graded A

 

Question 1

30 out of 30 points

Match the term with the description to which it correctly links.

o

Question

Selected Match

Goals that center around specific tasks to be performed.

Goals that relate to the individual’s personal needs and ambitions.

As groups grow in number, the need for this increases.

In this small group format, group members have an informal interchange on the issues in front of an audience.

In this structured small group format, speakers who have expertise in the particular areas give prepared speeches on specified topics.

In this audience-centered small group format, group members respond to audience questions but do not interact with each other.

Making sure group members understand and agree on the problem is part of the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

The ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Proces is to analyze the problem.

Determining criteria for an acceptable solution is the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

Generating possible solutions is the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

Choosing the best solution to the problem is the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

Putting the best solution into effect is the ___ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

Evaluating your group’s success or the lack thereof is the ___ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

He stated that the ideal group size is 5-7 members.

He devised a theory of reflective thinking.

  • Question 2

20 out of 20 points

Match the term to the description to which it correctly links.

o

Question

Selected Match

In the Johari Window, information known to self and to others.

In the Johari Window, information known to others but not to self.

In the Johari Window, information known to self but not to others.

In the Johari Window, information known neither to self nor to others.

The relational dialectic that concerns our need to relate to others yet independent.

The relational dialectic that concerns our needs to share information yet be private.

The relational dialectic that concerns our needs for excitement and uncertain yet stable.

The lose/lose approach to conflict management that is characterized by withdrawal.

The win/lose approach to conflict management in which parties strive to be on the top.

The win/win approach to conflict management in which each person leaves the conflict satisfied with the outcome.

 

Q6. COMS 101 Reading Analysis 1: Liberty University (Latest) (Already Graded A)

 

COMS 101 Reading Analysis 1: Liberty University (Latest)

Liberty University COMS 101 Reading Analysis 1

  • Question 1

10 out of 10 points

Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.

o

Question

Selected Match

The use of volume, pitch, tone, accent, speaking pace, and silence to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

The use of gestures, facial expressions and eye contact to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

The use of space to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

The sender’s use of touch to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

The sender’s use of time or timing to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

The sender’s use of material objects to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

Social interaction among two or more people, usually in a face-to-face environment, but possibly also in real-time virtual environments.

Interaction among three or more people who come together for a common purpose.

When a speaker formally addresses a group of typically 10 or more individuals in a face-to-face environment where interactivity is possible but generally not practiced.

When people use a media technology to distribute information to a large group of physically detached people.

  • Question 2

10 out of 10 points

Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.

o

Question

Selected Match

A figurative form identifies one thing in a way that symbolically stands for another thing, such as when Martin Luther, in his great hymn, describes God as a mighty fortress

A figurative form explicitly compares two otherwise dissimilar things, usually via the modifiers like or as, such as when the poet Robert Burns wrote, “My love is like a red, red rose.”

A figurative form that alludes to something by either highlighting only one aspect of it or something broader that includes it, such as when journalists use the term Washington as a reference to America’s federal government.

The figurative use of a mild term in place of a harsh term to relay the same basic idea in a more tasteful form, such as when we say that someone “passed into God’s presence” rather than that this someone died.

The figurative use of a harsh term instead of a mild term for an intended effect, such as when one calls a lawyer an “ambulance chaser.”

The figurative ascription of human qualities to something that is not human, such as the Old Testament prophet Isaiah, in his book’s 55th chapter, anticipates the day when the trees of the field will clap their hands.

A statement that appears to be self-refuting but that is, in fact, true or possibly true, such as the statement, “The more things change, the more they stay the same.”

A combination of words that means something different than the words’ literal meaning, such as “You will do well if you play your cards right.”

Words that are used indirectly to signify a secondary meaning that is not patently obvious when the words are taken at face value.

Words that are used forthrightly to signify the person, place, thing, idea, action, or state of being that the words or combination of words evidently symbolize.

  • Question 3

Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.

o

Question

Selected Match

A composite of your beliefs about human origin (where we came from), human nature (what makes us human), human purpose (why we are here), and human destiny (where we are going).

Someone who is aware of and content to live with an inconsistency between the belief system he or she professes and the one he or she practices

Someone who does not know that such an inconsistency exists because he or she chooses to disbelieve in its existence, even though this person has reason for believing that it does exist.

Someone who does not know that such an inconsistency exists because he or she has no reason to know it exists.

A person’s history of interactions with people whose input helps to shape the way he or she sees and acts toward the world.

A truth standard which holds that a belief, feeling, or behavior is acceptable if it promotes the greatest good not for the individual, but for humanity as a whole.

A truth standard which holds that a belief, feeling, or behavior is acceptable if it simply “works” for the person who holds it, regardless of whether it logically consists with anyone else’s experiences and standards.

Systems of belief that people develop on their own, primarily in response to what human standards have taught them to deem believable or acceptable.

Recognizes that God, the timeless, changeless source and sustainer of the universe and the source of all knowledge, discloses otherwise indiscernible foundational truths through Scripture, and that these otherwise hidden disclosures rightly frame and give direction to human questions to make sense of anything, including communication.

A truth standard which holds that a belief, feeling, or behavior is unacceptable if it is illogical or if it is at odds with what common human observations tell us is true.

  • Question 4

10 out of 10 points

Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.

o

Question

Selected Match

Sees the universe as a self-created, self-sustaining machine, consisting of material processes and particles and nothing more than these, that invariably follow the course that physics has blindly programmed it to follow.

Holds that although we come to see the world as we do by the people who influence us through socialization, this neither has to be nor should be so.

Social constructionists who aim to show how social influencers can impact what people become and how privileged groups use this to promote themselves at others’ expense.

The attempt to make sense of human communicative behavior and specific human communications in the light of divine revelation.

Verbal and/or nonverbal behavior manifest God’s love to others in a way that promotes what God values in the world.

 

Q 7. COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4 (Already Graded A)


COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4

 

Question 1

 

 

An organizational pattern that focuses on relationships in time is referred to as:

Question 2

 

 

____________ function as a reminder of what you plan to say and the order in which you plan to say it and are used during the presentation.

Question 3

 

 

Organization refers to the placement of lines of reasoning and supporting materials in a pattern that helps to achieve your specific purpose.

Question 4

 

 

All of the sub-points in a speech do not have to be logical extensions from preceding points.

Question 5

 

 

Which verbal connection follows a main point and acts to remind the audience of what a speaker has just expressed?

Question 6

 

 

“To explain to the class how participating in an athletic sport can bring psychological as well as physical benefits” is an example of a(n):

Question 7

 

 

If you were presenting a speech about traveling to Europe and deciding to start with places in Northern Europe, then moved to Eastern Europe, Southern Europe, and Western Europe, this speech would have what type of organizational pattern?

Question 8

 

 

A speech discussing the relationship of industrial pollution to higher cancer rates in the general population would be most effective in what order?

Question 9

 

 

Mood is the emotional disposition of the speaker as the speech is being delivered whereas tone refers to the overall feeling you hope to create in your audience.

Question 10

 

 

Which of the following WAS NOT listed as one of the three things you need to do when you “focus attention on topic and speaker”?

Question 11

 

 

One of the guidelines for introductions is to prepare the introduction after preparing the body of the speech.

Question 12

 

 

Quotations can be interwoven into the fabric of the speech without telling your listeners that you are speaking the words of another, but it’s important that you use the quote exactly and attribute it to the writer.

Question 13

 

 

Physically involving your audience in your introduction is not an appropriate introductory technique.

Question 14

 

 

According to Professor John Baird, “Summaries may be effective when presented at the conclusion of a speech (because) they provide the audience with a general structure under which to subsume the more specific points of the speech.”

Question 15

 

 

“This morning I will discuss the scientific, therapeutic, physiological facts and myths about the effects and the effectiveness of alternative medicine” is an example of which function of a speech introduction?

Question 16

 

 

Telling the audience what you’re planning to discuss during your speech is called:

 

Question 17

 

 

The characteristic of spoken language that refers to how ideas are arranged in a sentence is called:

Question 18

 

 

Imagery involves creating a vivid description through the use of one or more of our five senses.

Question 19

 

 

Which of the following phrases is NOT considered a signal?

Question 20

 

 

Often the best humor for speeches comes from your own experiences.

Question 21

 

 

Jesse Jackson’s line, “We cannot be what we ought to be if we push dope in our veins, rather than hope in our brains,” is an example of antithesis.

Question 22

 

 

The arrangement of a series of words, phrases or sentences in a similar form is referred to as:

Question 23

 

 

Your audience is more likely to agree on the connotative definition of a word than it’s denotative definition.

Question 24

 

 

Putting too much information on note cards can result in:

Question 25

 

 

Which of the following is a guideline for EMPHASIS?

Question 26

 

 

Which of the following IS NOT true regarding rate of speech?

Question 27

 

 

Which of the following is a guideline for physical movement?

 

 

Question 28

 

 

According to your text, no other aspect of nonverbal communication is more important than:

Question 29

 

 

Which of the following is an aspect of physical delivery?

Question 30

 

 

What should a speaker avoid doing when she or he wishes to engage in effective eye contact during a speech?

 

Q8. COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4 (Already Graded A)

 

COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4

 

  • Question 1

 

The ____________ outline is also known as the full-content outline.

  • Question 2

 

If you were presenting a speech about traveling to Europe and deciding to start with places in Northern Europe, then moved to Eastern Europe, Southern Europe, and Western Europe, this speech would have what type of organizational pattern?

  • Question 3

 

The first step in organizing your speech is:

  • Question 4

 

Which verbal connection follows a main point and acts to remind the audience of what a speaker has just expressed?

  • Question 5

 

If I’m giving a speech about participating in Living History, I may talk about choosing a character, researching the person, developing the speech, and presenting to the various classrooms.  The organization of this speech would be considered:

  • Question 6

 

Outlining is regarded by our authors as:

  • Question 7

 

When presenting a speech on the evaluation of jazz as a musical art form in America, Betsy first spoke about Dixieland jazz, the period of swing followed by be-bop. She concluded her remarks with comments on progressive and fusion sounds. Betsy used which organizational pattern in her speech?

  • Question 8

 

Organization refers to the placement of lines of reasoning and supporting materials in a pattern that helps to achieve your specific purpose.

  • Question 9

 

According to your authors, the first few minutes are critical to the success of the entire speech.

  • Question 10

 

An effective speaker will quickly establish a reason for audience members to listen.  This part of the introduction is referred to as:

  • Question 11

 

According to Professor John Baird, “Summaries may be effective when presented at the conclusion of a speech (because) they provide the audience with a general structure under which to subsume the more specific points of the speech.”

  • Question 12

 

One of the guidelines for introductions is to prepare the introduction after preparing the body of the speech.

  • Question 13

 

Never use your conclusion to connect your speech topic to a broader context or societal issue.

  • Question 14

 

According to your authors, which of the following is not considered a technique to use in the introduction of a speech?

  • Question 15

 

Which of the following WAS NOT listed as one of the ten introduction techniques?

  • Question 16

 

Telling the audience what you’re planning to discuss during your speech is called:

  • Question 17

 

The arrangement of a series of words, phrases or sentences in a similar form is referred to as:

  • Question 18

 

Using signals when writing is just as important as using signals in a speech.

  • Question 19

 

Your audience is more likely to agree on the connotative definition of a word than it’s denotative definition.

  • Question 20

 

Parallel structure refers to the arrangement of a series of words, phrases or sentences in a similar form.

  • Question 21

 

Jargon can be used effectively if you are sure the members of your audience understand your references.

  • Question 22

 

If I’m talking about my cat, and instead of saying, “I have a cat,” I say, “I have a white, long-haired, 12-year-old cat that weighs 20 pounds,” I am following what guideline regarding language usage?

  • Question 23

 

Which of the following phrases is NOT considered a signal?

  • Question 24

 

A(n) ______________ speech involves the least amount of preparation.

  • Question 25

 

The most appropriate mode of delivery for students in a public speaking class is memorization.

  • Question 26

 

According to your text, no other aspect of nonverbal communication is more important than:

  • Question 27

 

Which of the following is a characteristic of a manuscript speech?

  • Question 28

 

All of the following are relevant aspects of speech preparation.  However, the key to successful manuscript speaking is ___________.

  • Question 29

 

One of the performance guidelines for memorizing speeches is to memorize small sections of your speech at a time.

  • Question 30

 

Which of the following is TRUE about gestures?.

 

Q9. COMS 101 quiz 2: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 2 (Already Graded A)

 

COMS 101 quiz 2: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 2

  • Question 1 

 

Which is not included in the body of the speech?

  • Question 2 

 

Plagiarism involves using another’s work, words, or ideas without adequate acknowledgement.

  • Question 3 

 

A _________________ expresses your speech’s main point in one complete sentence.

  • Question 4 

 

Which of the following strategies will help to reduce speech tension most effectively?

  • Question 5 

 

The most effective way to organize your speech is to divide your message into four parts: opening remarks, thesis, body, and conclusion.

  • Question 6 

 

Jessie referred to an study, reported on ScienceDaily, in which communication professors Amy Nathanson and Eric Rasmussen found that early TV exposure harms parent-child communication. Jessie offered a quote from Nathanson and Rasmussen state this point. This is an example of which kind of support?

  • Question 7 

 

Which of the following is a literal analogy?

  • Question 8 

 

The specific purpose of your speech is ____________.

  • Question 9 

 

Which of the following is an example of a specific purpose?

  • Question 10 

 

____________ involves using other people’s works, words or ideas without adequate acknowledgement.

  • Question 11 

 

Burt, attending a Midwestern university, delivered his first speech in his public speaking class on the growing numbers of automobile accidents in Italy. The problem with his speech, however, essentially was:

  • Question 12 

 

“Ornate ambiguity” is the term used for a speaker who plans to be vague, sketchy, and considerably abstract.

  • Question 13 

 

Which of the following IS NOT one of the types of informative speaking?

  • Question 14 

 

“Show trends” is one of the suggestions provided when discussing which goal of informative speaking?

  • Question 15 

 

This type of speech deals with abstract subjects such as ideas, theories, and principles.

  • Question 16 

 

The notion of avoiding information overload refers to which goal of informative speaking?

  • Question 17 

 

Saying “first, “second,” “third,” as you cover your three main points is an example of:

  • Question 18 

 

A speech that paints a picture of an event, person, concept, and so on.

  • Question 19 

 

Which of the following is the definition of a speech of description?

  • Question 20 

 

Guidelines for the informative speaking goal of ____________ include questioning the source of the information, considering the timeliness of the information.

  • Question 21 

 

___________________ is the process of preparing and delivering messages through verbal and nonverbal symbols to individuals or groups in order to alter, strengthen, or maintain attitudes, beliefs, values, or behaviors.

  • Question 22 

 

The two overall persuasive goals are:

  • Question 23 

 

“Consider now how you can enjoy retirement lounging in the sunshine of a warm climate, secure financially, and with both a mind and a soul for pleasure and comfort from making good investments during your working years.” This statement is found in which step in the motivated sequence?

  • Question 24 

 

In the satisfaction step of the motivated sequence, you describe the problem you will address in your speech.

  • Question 25 

 

In all cases of inductive reasoning, you can never be sure that your conclusions are absolutely accurate.

  • Question 26 

 

Of the three parts of an argument, the most difficult part to understand is often the:

  • Question 27 

 

The statement, “Malnutrition is a growing problem worldwide, especially in Asia,” is:

  • Question 28 

 

Staging refers to the sequence of interlinking claims that establish the content and force of your position.

  • Question 29 

 

“Dynamism” in credibility studies refers to logical precision.

  • Question 30 

 

The part of an argument that links the evidence with the statement (claim) is called the:

 

 

Q10. COMS 101 quiz 3: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 3 (Already Graded A)

 

COMS 101 quiz 3: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 3

 

Question 1 Which of the following is not true regarding occupation as a demographic characteristic? 

Question 2 Which of the following was not listed as one ofthe five variables related to “Who are my listeners?‘ 

Question 3 questions limit responses to several choices, yielding valuable information about such demographic factors a age, education, and income. 

Question 4 Which question is NOT a key question the text indicates is essential in audience analysis? 

Question 5 Audience expectations are rarely defined for you by the speaking invitation. 

Question 6 The first step in using a questionnaire is designing specific questions that are likelyto get you the information you need. 

Question 7 Attitudes are predispositions to act in a particular way that influence individuals responses to objects, events, and situations. 

Question 8 Which of the following is true about “avoid the age gap” when ma kingthe speaker—audience connection? 

Question 9 When trying to influence listeners, it is easier to change their attitudes than their beliefs or values. 

Question 10 A spea ker must be inclusive to avoid unfairly categorizing or stereotyping members of the audience. 

Question 11 If you were interested in discovering material from a comprehensive source on art and artists in your preparation for an informative speech. which of the fol lowing sou rces is most likely to provide you with the best information? 

Question 12 Identifi’ the best description of what research is: 

Question 13 An effective library search strategy moves you from the most specific information to be located in governmental sources to the very general information found in encyclopedias. 

Question 14 A credible speaker is perceived as a fan 

Question 15 lf you use a diagram, illustration, or graph from some source, you need to cite that source during your speech. 

Question 16 If you decide to interview, make sure you contact the person in advance, prepare questions in advance, develop questions in a logical order, and: 

Question 17 Message credibility is the extent to which a speaker is perceived as a competent spokesperson. 

Question 18 Which of the following IS NOT one of the four steps in developing a research strategy? 

Question 19 A website that is(has) is reliable and error-free. 

Question 20 Message credibility is defined as 

Question 21 A study bythe University of Minnesota and the 3M Corporation found that speakers who integrate visuals into their talks are 60 percent more likelyto persuade their audiences than speakers who rely solely on verbal images. 

Question 22 Which ofthe following WAS NOT identified as a function of presentational aids? 

Question 23 A key advantage in using presentational aids in a speech is: 

Question 24 Visual aids fall into four categories. Which of the following is not one of these categories? 

Question 25 While other aspects of your speech should be audience-centered. the presentational aid is designed specifically to help the speaker. 

Question 26 Research has shown that three days after an event, people retain ‘IU percent of what they heard from an oral presentation, but they retain 35 percent of a visual presentation. Question 27 If you see audiences looking at your presentational aid as though asking, “What does THAT mean?” then you have violated which of the criteria for a presentational aid? 

Question 28 When using two-dimensional presentational aids, you want to ask yourself what its purpose is and if it will make the speech better. This question relates to which criteria for using two—dimensional presentational aids? 

Question 29 A study bythe University of Minnesota and the 3M Corporation found that speakers who integrate visuals into their talks are more likelyto persuade their audiences than speakers who rely solely on verbal images. 

Question 30 Which ofthe following WAS NOT identified as one ofthe general criteria for using presentational aids?

 

 

 

 

 

 

ARCHITECTURE

Q1. Architecture, Building and Planning-

Get creative. Write about what inspires you. Add photo to support your idea.

 

Q2. Elizabeth is a Fundamentalist living

Elizabeth is a Fundamentalist living in the 1930s. Your task is to go back in time and interview Elizabeth. The focus of your interview is twofold. First, you are to discern from Elizabeth what it meant to be a Fundamentalist in the 1930’s, how that shaped her worldview, and how America understood fundamentalism at the time. Second, you are to learn from Elizabeth how American religion has changed over time. How is being a Fundamentalist in the 1930’s the same and/or different from being a Puritan in the Colonial period? What, if anything, has changed? Again, your goal is to help the modern reader to understand the religious milieu and fervor that would have shaped Elizabeth’s world.
The script of your interview should be written in full; showing both the questions you would ask and the responses Elizabeth might provide. You must ask a minimum of 5 questions. Insert citations in the interview script so the modern reader might go and learn more about life as a Puritan and/or the religious setting of the period. You should list those sources at the end of your interview document. Your interview should use a minimum of 3 sources and should be between 2-3 pages long.

 

Q3. ACC-281-Week-5-Final-Paper

Focus of the Final Paper

Write an 8 to 10 page Case Analysis of the following article (which can be found in the Ashford Online ProQuest database):

Souza, M. & McCarty, B. (2007). From bottom to top: How one provider retooled its collections [electronic version]. Healthcare Financial Management, 61(9), 67-73.

Include the following:

1) Complete summary of the case study that identifies the key problems and issues, provides background information, relevant facts, the solution employed, and the results achieved.

2) Identify and explain the accounting practices California Sutter Health used in defining and solving its collection problems. Develop an alternative solution based on your own research using 3 to 5 academic sources from journals, professional organizations, and websites.

3) State your informed opinion of the approach used by California Sutter Health, and provide support using concepts from your research and personal experience.

 

Q4. BCOM 230 Week 1 Individual Assign

Reviewthe chosen organization’s philosophy, mission, vision, and values statements. This statement identifies the organization’s espoused values. Research the University Library or the Internet to locate articles about the organization’s enacted values.

Writea 350- to 700-word paper based on your review and research. Complete the following in your paper:
Describe the culture of the organization.
Discuss the types of communication this organization uses for internal and external communication.
The extent to which communication in an organization is determined by the organization’s culture.
Do the espoused values of the selected organization align with its enacted values?

 

Q5. Go to YouTube, and search for an epis

Go to YouTube, and search for an episode of UnderCover Boss. Imagine you are the CEO of the company in the selected episode.Compare two (2) job positions from the episode and perform a job analysis of each position.

  1. Describe your method of collecting the information for the job analysis (i.e., one-on-one, interview, survey, etc.).
  2. Create a job description from the job analysis.
  3. Justify your belief that the job analysis and job description are in compliance with state and federal regulations.
  4. Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

 

Q6. Parkway Distributors is a wholesale fi

Smith Construction is building a warehouse for Raymond. The construction firm routinely leaves certain construction equipment at the building site overnight and on weekends. Late one night, Fred, age 10, began playing on some of Smith’s construction equipment. Fred accidentally released the brakes of a tractor on which he was playing, and the tractor rolled down a hill and smashed into the building under construction. Fred was severely injured in the accident. Fred’s parents sue both Smith Construction & Raymond for the injury.

  • What legal doctrine is applicable in this case? Explain.

Parkway Distributors is a wholesale firm that employs several outside salespersons. Emily, a salesperson employed by Parkway Distributors, was involved in an accident with another motorist while she was using her car to make regular sales calls for Parkway distributors. Emily and the motorist are seriously injured in the accident. The motorist sues both Emily and Parkway Distributors for the injury based on negligence.

  • Is there a legal basis for Parkway Distributors to be held legally liable for the injury to the motorist? Explain.

 

 

 

  1. Whirlwind Mowers manufactures and sells power lawn mowers to the public and distributes the products through its own dealers. Andrew is a homeowner who has purchased a power mower from an authorized dealer on the basis of the dealer’s recommendation that “the mower is the best one available to do the job.” Andrew was cutting his lawn when the mower blade flew off and seriously injured his leg.
  • Andrew sues Whirlwind Mowers and asks for damages based on negligence in producing the power mower. Is Whirlwind Mowers guilty of negligence? Explain.

 

Q7. HLT 362 Module 5 Correlation Regression and Chi Square Excel Worksheet

HLT 362 Module 5 Correlation Regression and Chi Square Excel Worksheet

SYSTOLIC AND DIASTOLIC BLOOD PRESSURE OF FEMALES

The following table represents systolic and diastolic blood pressure measurements of 40 females.

 

  1. A) Use the Excel Analysis ToolPak to find the linear correlation coefficient for the systolic and diastolic measurements.

 

  1. B) Use the Excel Analysis ToolPak to determine the linear regression equation that uses the systolic pressure to predict the diastolic pressure.

 

  1. C) What is the best predicted value for diastolic pressure given that a woman has a systolic level of 100?

 

 

 

Q8. HLT 310V A Spirituality Assessment

HLT 310V A Spiritualit

HLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality Assessment

 

 

 

Q9. Hlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 W

hlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T scorehlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T scorehlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T scorehlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T score

 

Q10. Who is an Entrepreneur Where do

Who is an Entrepreneur Where do Entrepreneurs find opportunities to seize upon Describe what some of these opportunities are?  And, describe the creative destruction process.Who is an Entrepreneur Where do Entrepreneurs find opportunities to seize upon Describe what some of these opportunities are?  And, describe the creative destruction process.Who is an Entrepreneur Where do Entrepreneurs find opportunities to seize upon Describe what some of these opportunities are?  And, describe the creative destruction process.

 

BIOLOGY.

Q1. NURS 545/BIOLOGY 4344: Patho Exam 2 Review: 100%

True/False

Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false. (T/F, ANSWERS AT THE END OF THE PAPER)

 

____    1.   Anaplasia is recognized by loss or organization and a marked increase in nuclear size.

 

____    2.   A hallmark of cancer cells is their immortality.

 

____    3.   For the function of tumor suppressor genes to be lost, only one chromosome (allele) of the gene must be inactivated.

 

____    4.   Most cancers must acquire mutation in six distinct areas: growth signals, antigrowth signals, evading apoptosis, replicating ability, angiogenesis, and invasion and metastasis.

 

____    5.   There is no current evidence that associates obesity with cancer formation.

 

____    6.   The term “neoplasm” can refer to a benign tumor.

 

____    7.   The brain does not require insulin for glucose uptake.

 

____    8.   Somatostatin produced by the hypothalamus inhibits the release of growth hormone and thyroid stimulating hormone.

 

____    9.   Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) directly affects melanocyte stimulation.

 

____  10.   Aldosterone secretion is stimulated by angiotensin I.

 

____  11.   Antidiuretic hormone has no direct effect on electrolyte levels.

 

____  12.   A person with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) usually craves cold drinks.

 

____  13.   Pituitary adenomas are malignant tumors.

 

____  14.   Abnormal immunologic mechanisms producing autoantibodies are responsible for both Graves’ disease and hypothyroidism.

 

____  15.   Thyroid carcinoma, although rare, is the most common endocrine malignancy.

 

____  16.   The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is damage to the glands during surgery.

 

____  17.   Individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus have a greater degree of pancreatic changes than individuals with type 1 diabetes.

 

____  18.   Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by increased levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

 

____  19.   Glucose levels are considerably lower in hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketosis syndrome (HHNKS) than in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).

 

____  20.   When the myocardium hypertrophies, the capillaries of the heart become more extensive and numerous.

 

____  21.   Veins are less compliant than arteries.

 

____  22.   Autoregulation ensures constant coronary blood flow despite normal shifts in perfusion pressure.

 

____  23.   Metabolic or hormonal agents produce changes in the heart and circulatory system faster than autonomic neural transmission.

 

____  24.   While both produce vasoconstriction, the effects of norepinephrine are quantitatively more vasoconstrictive than the effects of epinephrine.

 

____  25.   Decreasing low-density lipoproteins (LDL) can cause regression of atherosclerotic lesions and improve endothelial function.

 

____  26.   Once fatty streaks accumulate, they form foam cells that cause immunologic changes that damage the endothelium.

 

____  27.   Even though air is lighter than blood, it can form an embolism and cause the occlusion of a blood vessel.

 

____  28.   Raynaud disease is characterized by vasospasms of large peripheral arteries.

 

____  29.   Many people with diabetes mellitus type 2, who were treated with drugs that increased insulin sensitivity, experienced a decline in their blood pressure without taking antihypertensive drugs.

 

____  30.   Chronic venous insufficiency can progress to varicose veins and valvular incompetence.

 

____  31.   Although cholesterol can be easily obtained via dietary intake, most body cells are also capable of synthesizing cholesterol.

 

____  32.   In high output failure, the heart increases its output, but the body’s metabolic needs are still not met.

 

____  33.   When fluid collects gradually in a pericardial effusion, the pericardium stretches to accommodate large quantities of fluid without compressing the heart.

 

____  34.   Acute rheumatic fever can develop only as a sequel to pharyngeal infection by group A -streptococcus.

 

____  35.   An increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume in diastolic heart failure may lead to pulmonary edema.

 

____  36.   Many cases of mitral valve prolapse are completely asymptomatic.

 

____  37.   Chorea or St. Vitus dance is the most definitive sign of rheumatic fever.

 

____  38.   Atrial and brain natriuretic peptides are increased in congestive heart failure and may have some protective effect in decreasing preload.

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____  39.   Which are cancers arising from connective tissue tissues?

a.

Osteogenic sarcoma

b.

Basal cell carcinoma

c.

Multiple myeloma

d.

Adenocarcinoma

 

 

____  40.   Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?

a.

Blood vessels

b.

Epithelium cells

c.

Connective tissue

d.

Glandular tissue

 

 

____  41.   What are characteristics of cancer in situ?

a.

Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.

b.

Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.

c.

Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells.

d.

Cellular and tissues changes indicate dysplasia.

 

 

____  42.   Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of:

a.

dysplasia.

b.

hyperplasia.

c.

myoplasia.

d.

anaplasia.

 

 

____  43.   What are tumor cell markers?

a.

Hormones, enzymes, antigens, and antibodies produced by cancer cells

b.

Receptor sites on tumor cells that can be identified and marked

c.

Cytokines produced against cancer cells

d.

Identification marks used in administering radiation therapy

 

 

____  44.   How are tumor cell markers used?

a.

To provide a definitive diagnosis of cancer

b.

To treat certain types of cancer

c.

To predict where cancers will develop

d.

To screen individuals at high risk for cancer

 

 

____  45.   Intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in development of colon cancer. These findings support the notion that:

a.

cancers of the colon are more easily diagnosed in the benign form because they can be visualized during colonoscopy.

b.

an accumulation of mutations in specific genes is required for the development of cancer.

c.

tumor invasion and metastasis progress more slowly in the gastrointestinal tract.

d.

apoptosis is triggered by diverse stimuli including excessive growth.

 

 

____  46.   What is autocrine stimulation?

a.

The ability of cancer cells to stimulate angiogenesis to create their own blood supply

b.

The ability of cancer cells to stimulate secretions that turn off normal growth inhibitors

c.

The ability of cancer cells to secrete growth factors that stimulate their own growth

d.

The ability of cancer cells to divert nutrients away from normal tissue for their own use

 

 

____  47.   Many cancers create a mutation of ras. What is ras?

a.

A tumor suppressor gene

b.

A growth promoting gene

c.

An intracellular signaling protein that regulates cell growth

d.

A cell surface receptor that allows signaling to the nucleus about cell growth

 

 

____  48.   What are oncogenes?

a.

Genes that have undergone mutation that direct the synthesis of protein to accelerate the rate of tissue proliferation

b.

Genes that direct synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and provide necessary replacement of tissue

c.

Genes that encode proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to show or halt replacement of tissue

d.

Genes that have undergone mutation to direct malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph nodes for metastasis

 

 

____  49.   Burkitt lymphomas designate a chromosome that has a piece of chromosome 8 fused to a piece of chromosome 14. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?

a.

Point mutation

b.

Chromosome translocation

c.

Gene amplification

d.

Chromosome fusion

 

 

____  50.   In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?

a.

Point mutation

b.

Chromosome fusion

c.

Gene amplification

d.

Chromosome translocation

 

 

____  51.   What aberrant change causes the abnormal growth in retinoblastoma?

a.

Proto-oncogenes are changed to oncogenes.

b.

The tumor suppressor gene is turned off.

c.

Genetic amplification causes the growth.

d.

Chromosomes 9 and 21 are fused.

 

 

____  52.   Why are two “hits” required to inactivate tumor suppressor genes?

a.

Because each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent

b.

Because the first “hit” stops tissue growth and the second “hit” is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth

c.

Because they are larger than proto-oncogenes requiring two “hits” to effect carcinogenesis

d.

Because the first “hit” is insufficient to cause sufficient damage to cause a mutation

 

 

____  53.   By what process does the ras gene convert from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene?

a.

By designating a chromosome that has a piece of one chromosome fused to a piece of another chromosome

b.

By duplicating a small piece of a chromosome repeatedly making numerous copies

c.

By alternating one or more nucleotide base pairs

d.

By promoting proliferation of growth signals by impairing tumor suppressor genes

 

 

____  54.   What are characteristics of benign tumors?

a.

They invade local tissues.

b.

They spread through lymph.

c.

They cause systemic symptoms.

d.

They have a low mitotic index.

 

 

____  55.   Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?

a.

Liposarcoma, lipoma

b.

Lipoma, liposarcoma

c.

Adisarcoma, adipoma

d.

Adipoma, adisarcoma

 

 

____  56.   Most human cancers appear to arise via:

a.

autosomal recessive gene inheritance.

b.

spontaneous gene mutations.

c.

X-linked recessive gene inheritance.

d.

autosomal dominant gene inheritance.

 

 

____  57.   Smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except:

a.

lung.

b.

skin.

c.

bladder.

d.

kidney.

e.

pancreas.

 

 

____  58.   The major virus involved in cervical cancer is:

a.

herpes simplex virus type 6.

b.

herpes simplex virus type 2.

c.

human papillomavirus.

d.

human immunodeficiency virus.

 

 

____  59.   The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer?

a.

Ovarian

b.

Uterine

c.

Cervical

d.

Vaginal

 

 

____  60.   Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?

a.

Papovaviruses, adenoviruses, and herpesviruses

b.

Retroviruses, papovaviruses, and adenoviruses

c.

Adenoviruses, herpesviruses, and retroviruses

d.

Herpesviruses, retroviruses, and papovaviruses

 

 

____  61.   Which characteristic among women correlates with a high morbidity of cancer of the colon, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, breast, uterus, and kidney?

a.

Women over 45 years

b.

Women who never had children

c.

Women who had a high body mass index

d.

Woman who smoked for more than 10 years

 

 

____  62.   Which cancers are associated with chronic inflammation?

a.

Skin, lung, and pancreatic

b.

Colon, liver, and lung

c.

Bone, blood cells, and pancreatic

d.

Bladder, skin, and kidney

 

 

____  63.   How does chronic inflammation cause cancer?

a.

By vasodilation and increased permeability that alter cellular response to DNA damage

b.

By liberating lysosomal enzymes when cells are damaged, which initiates mutations

c.

By releasing compounds such as reactive oxygen species that promote mutations

d.

By increasing the abundance of leukotrienes that are associated with some cancers

 

 

____  64.   Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene?

a.

Proto-oncogenes

b.

Oncogenes

c.

Tumor suppressor genes

d.

Growth promoting genes

 

 

____  65.   Regulation of the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla is an example of _____ regulation.

a.

negative-feedback

b.

positive-feedback

c.

neural

d.

physiologic

 

 

____  66.   Hormones are effective communicators because they:

a.

are regularly synthesized in response to cellular and tissue activities.

b.

increase their secretion in response to rising hormone levels.

c.

are rapidly degraded once they enter the cell.

d.

decrease their secretion in response to rising plasma hormone levels.

 

 

____  67.   Which of the following is a protein hormone that is water soluble?

a.

Thyroxine (T4)

b.

Aldosterone

c.

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

d.

Insulin

 

 

____  68.   How are most protein hormones transported in the bloodstream?

a.

Bound to a lipid-soluble carrier

b.

Free in an unbound, water-soluble form

c.

Bound to a water-soluble binding protein

d.

Free because of their lipid-soluble chemistry

 

 

____  69.   Which second messenger is stimulated by epinephrine binding to a ß-adrenergic receptor?

a.

Calcium

b.

Inositol triphosphate (IP3)

c.

Diacylglycerol (DAG)

d.

Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)

 

 

____  70.   Which of the following hormones acts on its target cell via a second messenger?

a.

Angiotensin II

b.

Thyroxine

c.

Estrogen

d.

Testosterone

e.

Aldosterone

 

 

____  71.   Calcium is rigidly controlled within cells. It is highly regulated because it:

a.

is controlled by the calcium negative-feedback loop.

b.

is continuously synthesized.

c.

acts as a second messenger.

d.

carries lipid-soluble hormones in the bloodstream.

 

 

____  72.   Under what circumstances does antidiuretic hormone act to cause vasoconstriction?

a.

When urine output is less than 20 ml per hour

b.

When serum osmolality is increased

c.

When osmotic and oncotic pressures are increased

d.

When vasopressin is given pharmacologically

 

 

____  73.   What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor?

a.

Hypothalamus

b.

Anterior pituitary

c.

Mammary glands

d.

Posterior pituitary

 

 

____  74.   Where is oxytocin synthesized?

a.

Hypothalamus

b.

Paraventricular nuclei

c.

Anterior pituitary

d.

Posterior pituitary

 

 

____  75.   Norepinephrine stimulates the release of which hormone?

a.

Thyroxine

b.

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

c.

Growth hormone

d.

Insulin

 

 

____  76.   What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?

a.

It increases serum calcium.

b.

It decreases serum calcium.

c.

It decreases serum magnesium.

d.

It increases serum magnesium.

 

 

____  77.   Which electrolyte does insulin transport in the cell?

a.

Potassium

b.

Calcium

c.

Sodium

d.

Magnesium

 

 

____  78.   Which lab value would be expected for the patient with hypothyroidism?

a.

Increased triiodothyronine (T3)

b.

Increased thyroxine (T4)

c.

Increased thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

d.

Increased calcitonin

 

 

____  79.   Target cells for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located in the:

a.

tubules of nephrons.

b.

thyroid gland.

c.

glomeruli of nephrons.

d.

smooth and skeletal muscles.

 

 

____  80.   A surgical patient just arrived on the unit from the post-anesthesia care unit. This patient’s respirations are 4 per minute and shallow. As the nurse calls for assistance, the patient suddenly feels jittery and breathing quickens. Which of the following feedback loops is operating for the nurse in this situation?

a.

The central nervous system stimulates hypothalamus-releasing factor, which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to secrete thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and stimulates the release of thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3).

b.

The central nervous system directly stimulates the release of insulin, which reduces blood glucose levels.

c.

The central nervous system directly stimulates the adrenal medulla to secrete epinephrine and stimulates hypothalamus-releasing factor, which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to secrete adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH), stimulating the release of cortisol.

d.

The central nervous system stimulates the hypothalamus to synthesize oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone, which are secreted by the posterior pituitary, activating uterine contraction and renal absorption of water.

 

 

____  81.   What are actions of glucocorticoids?

a.

Protein catabolism and liver gluconeogenesis

b.

Fat storage and glucose use

c.

Decreased blood glucose and fat mobilization

d.

Fat, protein, and carbohydrate anabolism

 

 

____  82.   What are the effects of high levels of aldosterone?

a.

Hypokalemia and alkalosis

b.

Hyperkalemia and alkalosis

c.

Hyperkalemia and acidosis

d.

Hypokalemia and acidosis

 

 

____  83.   What effect does aldosterone have on fluid and electrolyte imbalances?

a.

It directly increases magnesium reabsorption.

b.

It directly increases calcium reabsorption.

c.

It directly increases sodium reabsorption.

d.

It directly increases water reabsorption.

 

 

____  84.   Which of the following is an expected change in an older patient?

a.

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) secretion below normal

b.

Triiodothyronine (T3) level below normal

c.

Cortisol level above normal

d.

Adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH) level above normal

 

 

____  85.   Cell surface receptors include all of the following except:

a.

G-protein–linked.

b.

ion channel.

c.

second messenger.

d.

tyrosine-kinase linked.

 

 

____  86.   What are the effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

a.

Solute retention and water retention

b.

Solute retention and water loss

c.

Solute dilution and water retention

d.

Solute dilution and water loss

 

 

____  87.   The nurse is evaluating a patient with oat cell adenocarcinoma of the lung for syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following laboratory values would the nurse expect to find if the patient had SIADH?

a.

Hypernatremia and urine hypo-osmolality

b.

Serum K5 and urine hyperosmolality

c.

Serum Na120 and serum hypo-osmolality

d.

Hypokalemia and serum hyperosmolality

 

 

____  88.   A patient with a closed head injury secondary to a motorcycle accident has a urine output of 6 to 8 L/day and electrolytes are within normal limits. The nurse draws a serum ADH level and conducts a water deprivation test. With no intake for 4 hours, there is no change in the patient’s polyuria. The serum ADH level is low. These are an indication of:

a.

neurogenic diabetes insipidus.

b.

syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH).

c.

psychogenic polydipsia.

d.

osmotically induced diuresis.

 

 

____  89.   Which is a cause of diabetes insipidus (DI)?

a.

Organic lesion of the anterior pituitary

b.

Organic lesion of the thalamus

c.

Organic lesion of the posterior pituitary

d.

Organic lesion of the renal tubules

 

 

____  90.   If the target cells for ADH do not have receptors, the result is _____ diabetes insipidus (DI).

a.

neurogenic

b.

nephrogenic

c.

psychogenic

d.

ischemic

 

 

____  91.   Which laboratory value is consistent with diabetes insipidus (DI)?

a.

Urine specific gravity is low.

b.

Serum sodium is low.

c.

Urine protein is low.

d.

Serum total protein is low.

 

 

____  92.   The type of diabetes insipidus that is most likely to be treatable with exogenous ADH is:

a.

neurogenic.

b.

psychogenic

c.

nephrogenic.

d.

ischemic.

 

 

____  93.   Hyperpituitarism is generally caused by:

a.

a pituitary adenoma.

b.

hypothalamic hyposecretion.

c.

autoimmune disorder of the pituitary.

d.

a neurohypophysial tumor.

 

 

____  94.   What is the term used to describe a patient who experiences cortisol deficiency from lack of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), thyroid deficiency from lack of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), and gonadal failure with loss of secondary sex characteristics from the absence of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)?

a.

Panhypopituitarism

b.

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) deficiency

c.

Hypopituitarism

d.

Anterior pituitary failure

 

 

____  95.   How does a primary adenoma cause thyroid and adrenal hypofunction?

a.

The tumor metastasizes to the thyroid and adrenal glands through the lymphatic system causing reduce secretion of necessary hormones.

b.

The tumor has a paradoxical effect on adjacent cells, which results in hyposecretion of other anterior pituitary hormones.

c.

The tumor invades the hypothalamus adjacent to it and causes a reduction in the amount of hormones produced.

d.

The tumor releases tumor markers that occupy the hormone receptor sites of other endocrine organs.

 

 

____  96.   Which disorder is caused by hypersecretion of the growth hormone in adults?

a.

Cushing syndrome

b.

Acromegaly

c.

Gigantism

d.

Myxedema

 

 

____  97.   What tumor causes amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism, and osteopenia?

a.

Posterior pituitary adenoma

b.

Thymoma

c.

Prolactinoma

d.

Growth hormone adenoma

 

 

____  98.   How does Graves’ disease develop?

a.

A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormones

b.

A chronic autoimmune process in which thyroid tissue is replaced by lymphocytes and fibrous tissue

c.

A development of thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins that causes overproduction of thyroid hormones

d.

An ingestion of goitrogens or foods that inhibits synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing a goiter

 

 

____  99.   What are signs of thyroid crisis from Graves’ disease?

a.

Weight gain to 155 lb with height of 5’8″

b.

Heart rate 90 beats/min and respiratory rate 16 breaths/min

c.

Hot and moist skin with protrusion of eyeballs

d.

Constipation and amenorrhea

 

 

____ 100.   What pathologic changes occur in Graves’ disease?

a.

High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins

b.

Stimulation by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)

c.

Stimulation by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

d.

Stimulation of thyroid-binding globulin

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q2 DDBA 8151: Organizational Leadership: Doctoral Theory and Practice

To prepare for this Assignment, review this week’s Learning Resources and select four leadership theories. Search the Walden Library for additional peer-reviewed, scholarly resources about your selected leadership theories. You should use both the articles in the Learning Resources and additional scholarly resources in your evaluation.

Submit an evaluation of at least four leadership theories in the form of a properly formatted, APA-compliant taxonomy table. For each of the theories you select, you should include the following:

  • The name of the theory
  • The year the theory was introduced
  • The theorist/author
  • Key components of the theory

For each theory presented, be sure to include a minimum of two references to peer-reviewed, scholarly resources, as well as appropriate in-text citations.

Note: Be sure to use the Leadership Theory Taxonomy Template to complete this Assignment. Also, refer to the Week 3 Assignment Rubric for specific grading elements and criteria.

The assignment will be submitted to SafeAssign.

 

Q3. Need help with DB post

 

Topic: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs

Psychoactive drugs alter brain function by acting at synapses in the brain, where they may mimic, enhance, or block the effects of natural signaling molecules (neurotransmitters). The neurotransmitter dopamine plays a particularly important role in creating the dependency aspect of both drug and behavioral addictions. Natural behaviors which enhance survival and/or reproduction, such as eating or engaging in sex, result in a surge of dopamine. Normally, this response helps individuals learn to repeat beneficial behaviors. However, when an addict uses a drug or behavior to cause dopamine release, they are using this learning pathway to teach themselves that this behavior is essential to their well-being. These circuits become a lifelong plague which makes the addict more prone to relapse.

 

Brain imaging studies from drug-addicted individuals show physical changes in areas of the brain that are critical to judgment, decision-making, learning and memory, and behavior control. Psychoactive drugs affect signal transmission in the brain by encouraging or inhibiting release of a neurotransmitter, blocking or mimicking its action, or affecting its reuptake. The effect of a particular neurotransmitter on a postsynaptic cell depends on the type of neurotransmitter and the type of receptor it binds to. The neurotransmitter ACh affects alertness and plays a role in memory. Norepinephrine and epinephrine (adrenaline) prepare the body to respond to stress or excitement. Dopamine influences reward-based learning and acts in fine motor control. Serotonin influences mood and memory. Glutamate is the main excitatory signal in the central nervous system. Endorphins are the body’s natural pain relievers.

 

Important Concepts from Chapter 13:

  • Section 13.3: How Neurons Communicate The region where an axon terminal sends chemical signals to a neuron, a muscle fiber, or a gland cell is a chemical synapse. Axon terminals have synaptic vesicles filled with neurotransmitter, a signaling molecule that relays messages between cells at a synapse. The plasma membrane of a postsynaptic cell has receptor proteins that reversibly bind neurotransmitter. How a receiving cell responds depends on the type and amount of the neurotransmitter, the kinds of receptors, and other factors. Certain drugs can block reuptake of neurotransmitters.
  • Section 13.13: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs Drugs such as morphine and heroin mimic a neurotransmitter’s effect on a postsynaptic cell; they bind to receptors for endorphins (natural pain relievers), and elicit pain relief and feelings of well-being. Caffeine binds and inactivates receptors for adenosine, a neurotransmitter that causes drowsiness. Alcohol encourages drowsiness by releasing adenosine. Other drugs interfere with reuptake of neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft. For example, cocaine slows reuptake of several neurotransmitters, including dopamine.

 

Assignment:

  1. Visit the NIH National Institute on Drug Abuse and read the article Drugs, Brains and Behavior: The Science of Drug Addiction.
  2. Go to Indiana University and read an article on Addictive Behaviors.

 

Prompt : – Using the sources provided, briefly describe one factor that can increase the risk of drug addiction, and one protective factor that can reduce the risk of drug addiction. – Why do you think Americans use so many legal drugs (e.g., alcohol, tobacco, and OTC drugs)?

 

 

Topic: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs

Psychoactive drugs alter brain function by acting at synapses in the brain, where they may mimic, enhance, or block the effects of natural signaling molecules (neurotransmitters). The neurotransmitter dopamine plays a particularly important role in creating the dependency aspect of both drug and behavioral addictions. Natural behaviors which enhance survival and/or reproduction, such as eating or engaging in sex, result in a surge of dopamine. Normally, this response helps individuals learn to repeat beneficial behaviors. However, when an addict uses a drug or behavior to cause dopamine release, they are using this learning pathway to teach themselves that this behavior is essential to their well-being. These circuits become a lifelong plague which makes the addict more prone to relapse.

Brain imaging studies from drug-addicted individuals show physical changes in areas of the brain that are critical to judgment, decision-making, learning and memory, and behavior control. Psychoactive drugs affect signal transmission in the brain by encouraging or inhibiting release of a neurotransmitter, blocking or mimicking its action, or affecting its reuptake. The effect of a particular neurotransmitter on a postsynaptic cell depends on the type of neurotransmitter and the type of receptor it binds to. The neurotransmitter ACh affects alertness and plays a role in memory. Norepinephrine and epinephrine (adrenaline) prepare the body to respond to stress or excitement. Dopamine influences reward-based learning and acts in fine motor control. Serotonin influences mood and memory. Glutamate is the main excitatory signal in the central nervous system. Endorphins are the body’s natural pain relievers.

Important Concepts from Chapter 13:

  • Section 13.3: How Neurons Communicate The region where an axon terminal sends chemical signals to a neuron, a muscle fiber, or a gland cell is a chemical synapse. Axon terminals have synaptic vesicles filled with neurotransmitter, a signaling molecule that relays messages between cells at a synapse. The plasma membrane of apostsynaptic cell has receptor proteins that reversibly bind neurotransmitter. How a receiving cell responds depends on the type and amount of the neurotransmitter, the kinds of receptors, and other factors. Certain drugs can block reuptake of neurotransmitters.
  • Section 13.13: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs Drugs such as morphine and heroin mimic a neurotransmitter’s effect on apostsynaptic cell; they bind to receptors for endorphins (natural pain relievers), and elicit pain relief and feelings of well-being. Caffeine binds and inactivates receptors for adenosine, a neurotransmitter that causes drowsiness. Alcohol encourages drowsiness by releasing adenosine. Other drugs interfere with reuptake of neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft. For example, cocaine slows reuptake of several neurotransmitters, including dopamine.

Assignment:

  1. Visit the NIH National Institute on Drug Abuse and read the article Drugs, Brains and Behavior: The Science of Drug Addiction.
  2. Go to Indiana University and read an article on Addictive Behaviors.

Prompt : – Using the sources provided, briefly describe one factor that can increase the risk of drug addiction, and one protective factor that can reduce the risk of drug addiction. – Why do you think Americans use so many legal drugs (e.g., alcohol, tobacco, and OTC drugs)?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q4. PAPER ON DISEASE PROCESS MUST BE PLAGIARISM FREE

PAPER CAN BE ON BREAST CANCER, LYME DIESEASE OR OVERIAN CANCER

 

This paper must be 900–1,200 words. Do not exceed this word limit. The title page and reference page do not count toward this word total.

You must use current APA formatting. Papers must be double-spaced with 1-inch margins. Font is to be 12-point Times New Roman. Include a title page with your name, instructor’s name, course number and title (i.e., BIOL101, Human Biology), date, and paper title. There is no need to include an abstract in your paper. APA Style Central http://ezproxy.liberty.edu/login?url=http://APAStyleCENTRAL.apa.org

 

Paper on Disease Process Instructions

The focus of this course has been the structure and function of the human body. A disease process results when there is a disorder of this structure or function.This paper will be a 900-1,200-word research-based paper in current APA format focusing on a disease process of your choice. The paper must include at least 2 scholarly references in addition to the course textbooks and materials. The disease chosen must involve at least three organ systems and the effect of the disease on these systems must be detailed in the paper. If you choose a broad disease process like cancer, you will need to specify the type, such as pancreatic cancer. The body is interrelated and the effects of a given disease will often present with common symptoms. The effect of the disease on the body’s efforts to maintain homeostasis should be addressed, as should all other given parameters.

 

Content and Outline

Use the following headings when writing your paper. Each point on the outline below must be a separate section (with the section heading in APA format) within your paper.

 

  1. Introduction
  • Indicate the disease to be discussed
  • Indicate the organ systems affected
  • Provide a brief overview of disease

 

  1. Description
  • Describe disease process
  • Explain disease effect on organ systems
  • Discuss effect on homeostasis and the body as a whole

III.                Diagnosis

  • Outline how the disease is diagnosed
  • Include common symptoms
  • Discuss the main causes of the disease

 

  1. Treatment
  • Discuss treatment and management of the disease
  • Outline steps for prevention of diseasae (if possible)
  1. Conclusion
  • Provide a summary statement for your paper.
  • Do not introduce new material in your conclusion.

 

Length

This paper must be 900–1,200 words. Do not exceed this word limit. The title page and reference page do not count toward this word total.

Format

You must use current APA formatting. Papers must be double-spaced with 1-inch margins. Font is to be 12-point Times New Roman. Include a title page with your name, instructor’s name, course number and title (i.e., BIOL101, Human Biology), date, and paper title. There is no need to include an abstract in your paper. APA Style Central http://ezproxy.liberty.edu/login?url=http://APAStyleCENTRAL.apa.org

 

Sources

Your papaer must include at least 2 scholarly sources in addition the course textbooks and materials.

Acceptable sources include journal articles, manuscripts, scholarly textbooks, and/or internet sites from .edu or .gov sources. Avoid internet sites from .com, .net, .org, etc. as the information contained therein is not often peer reviewed.

 

Citation

Be sure to cite your sources in the body of your paper using current APA formatting. Examples of current APA formatting rules can be found here. Also, a presentation about current APA formatting is provided in Module/Week 6.

 

Plagiarism

Plagiarism is a serious academic infringement. Avoid it at all costs. To learn more about plagiarism and how to avoid it, visit this website. Note that you are fully responsible for any plagiarism detected by the instructor of this course. Cases of plagiarism will be dealt with according to current policies established by Liberty University Online.

 

Submission

Submit your work to Blackboard as a Microsoft Word document. Do not paste your paper in the submission box in Blackboard, only upload the Word document.

 

Submit your Disease Essay by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.

 

 

 

Q5. Liberty University CJUS330 Test 3

Liberty University CJUS330 Test 3

Liberty University CJUS330 Test 3

 

 

Q6. BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (3 Latest versions): Liberty University (Already Graded A)

BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University

 

  • Question 1

 

Baleen whales use _______ to prey on herring fish.

  • Question 2

 

The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in

  • Question 3

 

The microbe, Paramecium aurelium belongs to the large “Group” Alveolata because it

  • Question 4

 

Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as

  • Question 5

 

The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the

  • Question 6

 

Interspecific competition is defined as

  • Question 7

 

Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by

  • Question 8

 

The large eukaryote, Amoeba proteus belongs to the large “Group” Amoebozoa because

  • Question 9

 

Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 10

 

The phytoplankton of a lake would be found in highest numbers in the ________ zone.

  • Question 11

 

A good example of commensalism would be the relationship between

  • Question 12

 

Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 13

 

An area providing cool, moist conditions with rocks and decaying logs at an appropriate elevation and rainfall level constitutes a good ________ for the Peaks of Otter salamander.

  • Question 14

 

The term “systematics” refers to

  • Question 15

 

Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 16

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

  • Question 17

 

A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because

  • Question 18

 

The microbe, Euglena gracilis belongs to the large “Group” Discicristates because it

  • Question 19

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

  • Question 20

 

A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group

  • Question 21

 

In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by

  • Question 22

 

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .

  • Question 23

 

The large eukaryote, Zonotrichialeucophrys belongs to the large “Group” Opisthokonta because it

  • Question 24

 

During the springtime, a light wind blowing across a lake will foster the process of lake overturn. This timely event will bring together ___________ with _____________.

  • Question 25

 

The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it

 

 

 

 

BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University

 

  • Question 1 

 

Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by

  • Question 2 

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

  • Question 3 

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

  • Question 4 

 

Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as

  • Question 5 

 

Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 6 

 

The convention used for representing scientific names for newly discovered species is that ___________ root words are used in order to name the organism’s ___________.

  • Question 7 

 

In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by

  • Question 8 

 

At which of the following levels of organization can the Peaks of Otter salamander be studied?

  • Question 9 

 

The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the

  • Question 10 

 

The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in

  • Question 11 

 

In the mind of evolutionary theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from

  • Question 12 

 

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .

  • Question 13 

 

The best term to describe the species-species interaction between Pseudomyrmex ants and the bullhorn acacia plant would be

  • Question 14 

 

Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 15 

 

Young Balanus barnacles cannot compete with Chthamalus barnacles in higher intertidal regions because

  • Question 16 

 

A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group

  • Question 17 

 

Interspecific competition is defined as

  • Question 18 

 

When a species of fly has a bold coloration very similar to that of an unpalatable (stinging) Yellowjacket, the fly’s “strategy” is termed

  • Question 19 

 

Which of the following choices reflects a currently accepted classification scheme resulting from the state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exist?

  • Question 20 

 

A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because

  • Question 21 

 

The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it

  • Question 22 

 

Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 23 

 

Which of the following defense tactics do plants use to keep from being preyed upon?

  • Question 24 

 

The functional role of a species within its habitat is referred to as its

  • Question 25 

 

A relationship between individuals of two species in which members of one species are benefited and members of the other species are unaffected is termed

 

 

 

BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University

 

  • Question 1 

 

The large eukaryote, Pisum sativum belongs to the large “Group” Plants because it

  • Question 2 

 

From the species level upwards toward higher levels of classification, which of the following choices gives the correct order?

  • Question 3 

 

From the Family level upwards toward higher levels of classification, which of the following choices gives the correct order?

  • Question 4 

 

Which of the following choices names one of the various zones found in a lake?

  • Question 5 

 

Species of organisms are collected into a Genus by

  • Question 6 

 

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .

  • Question 7 

 

Young Balanus barnacles cannot compete with Chthamalus barnacles in higher intertidal regions because

  • Question 8 

 

Which of the following defense tactics do plants use to keep from being preyed upon?

  • Question 9 

 

Studying competition between the Peaks of Otter salamander and the Eastern Redback salamander would be an example of studying ecology at the _______ level.

  • Question 10 

 

A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group

  • Question 11 

 

A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because

  • Question 12 

 

A good example of commensalism would be the relationship between

  • Question 13 

 

Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 14 

 

The convention used for representing scientific names for newly discovered species is that ___________ root words are used in order to name the organism’s ___________.

  • Question 15 

 

When a species of fly has a bold coloration very similar to that of an unpalatable (stinging) Yellowjacket, the fly’s “strategy” is termed

  • Question 16 

 

Which of the following choices reflects a currently accepted classification scheme resulting from the state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exist?

  • Question 17 

 

The microbe, Paramecium aurelium belongs to the large “Group” Alveolata because it

  • Question 18 

 

The microbe, Pyrodictiumoccultum belongs to the large “Group” Archaea because it

  • Question 19 

 

Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 20 

 

In the mind of evolutionary theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from

  • Question 21 

 

The large eukaryote, Amoeba proteus belongs to the large “Group” Amoebozoa because

  • Question 22 

 

At which of the following levels of organization can the Peaks of Otter salamander be studied?

  • Question 23 

 

Your textbook describes two sequential _________ of interaction between organisms and their environments that have existed since God’s creative work began.

  • Question 24 

 

The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it

  • Question 25 

 

In the minds of design theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from

 

 

Q7. BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University (Already Graded A)

BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University

 

  • Question 1 

 

Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by

  • Question 2 

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

  • Question 3 

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

  • Question 4 

 

Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as

  • Question 5 

 

Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 6 

 

The convention used for representing scientific names for newly discovered species is that ___________ root words are used in order to name the organism’s ___________.

  • Question 7 

 

In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by

  • Question 8 

 

At which of the following levels of organization can the Peaks of Otter salamander be studied?

  • Question 9 

 

The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the

  • Question 10 

 

The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in

  • Question 11 

 

In the mind of evolutionary theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from

  • Question 12 

 

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each ot

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .

·         Question 13 

 

The best term to describe the species-species interaction between Pseudomyrmex ants and the bullhorn acacia plant would be

·         Question 14 

 

Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

·         Question 15 

 

Young Balanus barnacles cannot compete with Chthamalus barnacles in higher intertidal regions because

·         Question 16 

 

A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group

·         Question 17 

 

Interspecific competition is defined as

·         Question 18 

 

When a species of fly has a bold coloration very similar to that of an unpalatable (stinging) Yellowjacket, the fly’s “strategy” is termed

·         Question 19 

 

Which of the following choices reflects a currently accepted classification scheme resulting from the state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exist?

·         Question 20 

 

A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because

·         Question 21 

 

The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it

·         Question 22 

 

Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

·         Question 23 

 

Which of the following defense tactics do plants use to keep from being preyed upon?

·         Question 24 

 

The functional role of a species within its habitat is referred to as its

·         Question 25 

 

A relationship between individuals of two species in which members of one species are benefited and members of the other species are unaffected is termed

 

Q8. BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University (Already Graded A)

BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University

 

·         Question 1

 

Baleen whales use _______ to prey on herring fish.

·         Question 2

 

The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in

·         Question 3

 

The microbe, Paramecium aurelium belongs to the large “Group” Alveolata because it

·         Question 4

 

Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as

·         Question 5

 

The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the

·         Question 6

 

Interspecific competition is defined as

·         Question 7

 

Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by

·         Question 8

 

The large eukaryote, Amoeba proteus belongs to the large “Group” Amoebozoa because

·         Question 9

 

Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

·         Question 10

 

The phytoplankton of a lake would be found in highest numbers in the ________ zone.

·         Question 11

 

A good example of commensalism would be the relationship between

·         Question 12

 

Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

·         Question 13

 

An area providing cool, moist conditions with rocks and decaying logs at an appropriate elevation and rainfall level constitutes a good ________ for the Peaks of Otter salamander.

·         Question 14

 

The term “systematics” refers to

·         Question 15

 

Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

·         Question 16

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

·         Question 17

 

A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because

·         Question 18

 

The microbe, Euglena gracilis belongs to the large “Group” Discicristates because it

·         Question 19

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

·         Question 20

 

A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group

·         Question 21

 

In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by

·         Question 22

 

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .

·         Question 23

 

The large eukaryote, Zonotrichialeucophrys belongs to the large “Group” Opisthokonta because it

·         Question 24

 

During the springtime, a light wind blowing across a lake will foster the process of lake overturn. This timely event will bring together ___________ with _____________.

·         Question 25

 

The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it

 

Q9. BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (3 Latest versions): Liberty University (Already Graded A)

BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University

·         Question 1

 

The sentence, “O you, who look on this our machine, do not be sad that with others you are fated to die, but rejoice that our Creator has endowed us with such an excellent instrument as the intellect” was first spoken by

·         Question 2

 

Directional selection

·         Question 3

 

Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by

·         Question 4

 

To a Darwinist, a beneficial mutation

·         Question 5

 

“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that

·         Question 6

 

Which of the following organisms were not observed by Charles Darwin while reading and voyaging the world?

·         Question 7

 

Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as

·         Question 8

 

Could RNA have been the original site of information storage in the primitive cell? A difficult problem with this possibility is that

·         Question 9

 

Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:

·         Question 10

 

Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?

·         Question 11

 

Charles Darwin believed that whole new species originated as a result of

·         Question 12

 

Which of the following is a basic evolutionary advance needed to convert a down-like feather into a primary flight feather.

·         Question 13

 

Mycoplasma genitalium is well known for the _________ infections it causes.

·         Question 14

 

One popular evolutionary model for the origin of flight in vertebrates is that flight evolved in

·         Question 15

 

The term _________ represents a predictive theory of how a species might change with time, whereas the term ________ assumes that nature can create whole new structures and organisms.

·         Question 16

 

Charles Darwin’s view of the species was

·         Question 17

 

Directional selection has been used to

·         Question 18

 

Stabilizing selection

·         Question 19

 

One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to

·         Question 20

 

To a design theorist a beneficial mutation

·         Question 21

 

Which stage of life history implied in the early pages of the Genesis record appears least likely to involve any biological change in populations with time?

·         Question 22

 

Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?

·         Question 23

 

The Design theorist comes to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because

·         Question 24

 

In the evolutionary model, mutation ______ genes that will develop a better organism while natural selection ______ genes that will develop a better organism.

·         Question 25

 

Which of the following represents an observation Charles Darwin made while reading and voyaging the world?

 

 

 

 

 

BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University

 

·         Question 1 

 

In the early pages of the Genesis record, the first stage of life history could best be described as

·         Question 2 

 

Charles Darwin’s view of the species was

·         Question 3 

 

Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:

·         Question 4 

 

Darwin interpreted his observations of nature to mean that

·         Question 5 

 

One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to

·         Question 6 

 

Could RNA have been the original site of information storage in the primitive cell? A difficult problem with this possibility is that

·         Question 7 

 

Mycoplasma genitalium is well known for the _________ infections it causes.

·         Question 8 

 

Which of the following classes of mutations accumulate silently in the DNA having no obvious effect on one’s ability to reproduce?

·         Question 9 

 

Sometimes a force within the environment reduces the reproductive ability of one variety of individual in a species compared to that of another variety. This force is termed

·         Question 10 

 

Stabilizing selection

·         Question 11 

 

Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?

·         Question 12 

 

“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that

·         Question 13 

 

Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?

·         Question 14 

 

To a design theorist a beneficial mutation

·         Question 15 

 

In physical size, Mycoplasma genitalium is

·         Question 16 

 

One advantage associated with viewing RNA as the original site of information storage in the primitive cell is that RNA

·         Question 17 

 

Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by

·         Question 18 

 

Directional selection has been used to

·         Question 19 

 

Which of the following is a basic evolutionary advance needed to convert a down-like feather into a primary flight feather.

·         Question 20 

 

Natural selection is an “expensive” process. This is true because

·         Question 21 

 

Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as

·         Question 22 

 

Directional selection

·         Question 23 

 

The Design theorist comes to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because

·         Question 24 

 

Which of the following organisms were not observed by Charles Darwin while reading and voyaging the world?

·         Question 25 

 

The genome of Mycoplasma genitalium is about _______ genes in size.

 

 

 

 

 

BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University

 

·         Question 1 

 

Which of the following represents an observation Charles Darwin made while reading and voyaging the world?

·         Question 2 

 

Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:

·         Question 3 

 

In the evolutionary model, mutation ______ genes that will develop a better organism while natural selection ______ genes that will develop a better organism.

·         Question 4 

 

Which of the following represents three classes of mutations, each of which affects the evolutionary process differently?

·         Question 5 

 

Both the theist and the naturalist come to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because

·         Question 6 

 

The potential power of directional selection cannot be demonstrated in a real population if

·         Question 7 

 

The term _________ represents a predictive theory of how a species might change with time, whereas the term ________ assumes that nature can create whole new structures and organisms.

·         Question 8 

 

Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?

·         Question 9 

 

Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by

·         Question 10 

 

Which of the following classes of mutations accumulate silently in the DNA having no obvious effect on one’s ability to reproduce?

·         Question 11 

 

In the early pages of the Genesis record, the first stage of life history could best be described as

·         Question 12 

 

One problem associated with evolving a system in which RNA bases code for amino acids is that

·         Question 13 

 

Sometimes a force within the environment reduces the reproductive ability of one variety of individual in a species compared to that of another variety. This force is termed

·         Question 14 

 

Directional selection

·         Question 15 

 

Stabilizing selection

·         Question 16 

 

The sentence, “O you, who look on this our machine, do not be sad that with others you are fated to die, but rejoice that our Creator has endowed us with such an excellent instrument as the intellect” was first spoken by

·         Question 17 

 

Natural selection is an “expensive” process. This is true because

·         Question 18 

 

“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that

·         Question 19 

 

The genome of Mycoplasma genitalium is about _______ genes in size.

·         Question 20 

 

The third stage of life history implied in the early pages of the Genesis record could best be described as

·         Question 21 

 

One important value that disruptive selection can have to a natural population is that it

·         Question 22 

 

Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?

·         Question 23 

 

One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to

·         Question 24 

 

Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as

·         Question 25 

 

The role of the barbule in the primary flight feather is to

 

 

Q10. BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University (Already Graded A)

BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University

 

·         Question 1 

 

In the early pages of the Genesis record, the first stage of life history could best be described as

·         Question 2 

 

Charles Darwin’s view of the species was

·         Question 3 

 

Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:

·         Question 4 

 

Darwin interpreted his observations of nature to mean that

·         Question 5 

 

One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to

·         Question 6 

 

Could RNA have been the original site of information storage in the primitive cell? A difficult problem with this possibility is that

·         Question 7 

 

Mycoplasma genitalium is well known for the _________ infections it causes.

·         Question 8 

 

Which of the following classes of mutations accumulate silently in the DNA having no obvious effect on one’s ability to reproduce?

·         Question 9 

 

Sometimes a force within the environment reduces the reproductive ability of one variety of individual in a species compared to that of another variety. This force is termed

·         Question 10 

 

Stabilizing selection

·         Question 11 

 

Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?

·         Question 12 

 

“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that

·         Question 13 

 

Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?

·         Question 14 

 

To a design theorist a beneficial mutation

·         Question 15 

 

In physical size, Mycoplasma genitalium is

·         Question 16 

 

One advantage associated with viewing RNA as the original site of information storage in the primitive cell is that RNA

·         Question 17 

“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that

·         Question 13 

 

Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?

·         Question 14 

 

To a design theorist a beneficial mutation

·         Question 15 

 

In physical size, Mycoplasma genitalium is

·         Question 16 

 

One advantage associated with viewing RNA as the original site of information storage in the primitive cell is that RNA

·         Question 17 

 

Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by

·         Question 18 

 

Directional selection has been used to

·         Question 19 

 

Which of the following is a basic evolutionary advance needed to convert a down-like feather into a primary flight feather.

·         Question 20 

 

Natural selection is an “expensive” process. This is true because

·         Question 21 

 

Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as

·         Question 22 

 

Directional selection

·         Question 23 

 

The Design theorist comes to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because

·         Question 24 

 

Which of the following organisms were not observed by Charles Darwin while reading and voyaging the world?

·         Question 25 

 

The genome of Mycoplasma genitalium is about _______ genes in size.

 

 

COMPUTER SCIENCE.

 

Q1. CIS 210 Assignment 2: Use Cases

Prepare a 5-6 page paper in which you:

·         Describe (in a one to two (1-2) page narrative) a use case, complete with typical and alternate courses, that documents the event of a bank customer withdrawing money from an ATM.

·         Illustrate the use case using Visio or a similar product.

·         Describe (in a one to two (1-2) page narrative) a use case dependency for making an account deposit. Illustrate this use case with Visio or a similar product.

·         Describe (in a one to two (1-2) page narrative) a use case dependency for making an account transfer. Illustrate this use case with Visio or a similar product.

·         Identify and explain at least one (1) ethical issue that the use case exposes in connection with the development or use of the ATM system.

·         Research and cite at least three (3) authoritative academic sources.

 

Q2. Network Planning Assignment

Network Planning Assignment

 

Overview

The main objectives of this assignment are:

·         To help students gain a good understanding of the IP (Internet Protocol), which is the major underlying technology of the Internet. 

·         To help students to understand the importance of subnet and routing of IP address.

·         To encourage students to conduct an independent investigation into IP related topics from books, the Internet and through practical investigation.

                                                                                      

Engagement with this assignment should help students to understand the major underlying concepts of the Internet world.

Scenario

You have been appointed as a Network System Administrator by the Australian government to allocate public IP Version 4 (IPv4) addresses and build a routing table for edge routers to connect the Australian states as shown in Figure 1.

                          

The IPv4 is an exhaustive list of IPv4 addresses for current Internet users in the world. However, in this scenario you have the liberty to use the entire available unreserved public IPv4 addresses for the Internet users in Australia.

 

 

 

 

R2

 

 

 

R1

 

 

QLD

NT

 

 

 

 

WA

 

 

R4

 

 

R3

SA

 

 

 

NSW

 

 

 

R5

 

 

 

VIC

 

 

 

 

R6

 

 

TAS

 

 

 

 

Figure 1: Edge routers R1 – R6 connecting different Australian states.

Tasks                                                  

The major task is to allocate the unreserved public IPv4 addresses to different states in Australia based on the Internet users in those states. The number of Internet users for Australian states are given below:

 

New South Wales (NSW)                                              : 6 Million

Victoria (VIC)                                                                : 4 Million

Queensland (QLD)                                                        : 3 Million

Western Australia (WA)                                                 : 2 Million

South Australia (SA)                                                     : 1 Million

Tasmania (TAS)                                                            : 300 Thousand

Northern Territory (NT)                                                 : 150 Thousand

 

The task needs to be completed based on the following constraints and assumptions:

 

§  Only unreserved public IPv4 address should be used for allocation.

§  Each state should have unique set of addresses – no address or set of addresses can be reassigned for any other state.  

§  You should use only the classless IPv4 addressing in the assignment.

§  The number of allocated addresses for each state should not exceed by 20% of the specified Internet users for that particular state. For instance, the allocated addresses for Tasmania should not exceed 360 Thousand addresses.

§  It is allowed to use one or more subnets to achieve the number of required address for a given state.

 

The minor task is to create a routing table for edge routers only for the state NT, WA and SA. The task needs to be completed based on the following constraints and assumptions:

 

§  The routing table should be minimal with no redundant routes in the table.

§  Any packets from the source (NT or WA or SA) should take minimal route to reach the destination (NT or WA or SA).

§  Identify the Network Interface Card Address to connect NT, WA and SA.

 

Recommended Readings

The required materials for this assignment are covered from Week 4 onwards. It is highly recommended to read the following resources to complete the assignment:

§  Topic 5 – IP settings and configuration in Moodle resource

§  Topic 5 – Network Layer (IPv4 & IPv6 address format) in Moodle resource

§  Subnetwork (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Subnetwork)

§  IP address (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IP_address)

§  Routing concepts: How to read the Routing Table (https://www.ictshore.com/free-ccna-course/ routing-table-fundamentals/

 

 

 

Learning Outcomes Assessed

The following course learning outcomes are assessed by completing this assessment:

·       K1. Describe and explain the role and function of network connectivity in current computing.

·       K2. Describe and explain the principles of communication in networks.

·       K3. Describe the role and functionality of hardware and software entities that contribute to the network
communications.

·       K4. Describe and explain the protocols and interactions that implement network communications.

·       K6. Describe fundamental aspects of cloud computing.

·       A1. Apply networking architecture knowledge to analyze the networking needs of business.

Assessment Details

 

All works submitted must be authored by the individual student submitting the work or where material from other sources is included it must be referenced using APA referencing.

 

Please note it is highly unlikely two students can have the same set of addresses allocated for a given state. Students found to have plagiarised will be dealt with according to university plagiarism policy (https://federation.edu.au/current-students/learning-and-study/online-help-with/ plagiarism).

Submission

 

Students are required to use the template, along with references, given in the Appendix A to complete the assignment. The completed template with your name and student number (3 pages plus reference page only) should be submitted through Turnitin in Moodle by Week 10 – refer course description for exact due date and time.

Marking Guidelines

 

IP address for each state (7 x 9 marks)

63 Marks

Subnet mask for each state (7 x 4 marks)

28 Marks

Allocation not more than 20% (7 x 2 marks)

14 Marks

Routing Table for each 3 edge routers (3 x 11 marks)  

33 Marks

Router Link (NIC) address for 3 edge routers (12 x 1 mark)

12 Marks

Total marks

150 Marks

 

The total marks for this assignment is 150 (15% Weighting for the course).

 

The marks will be available in Moodle and in FDLMarks by the end of week 12 of the semester.

 

 

IP Address (NT)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

Appendix A                                                                                                                                             

IP Address (SA)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

IP Address (TAS)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

Page 1: Insert IP address and the Subnet Mask in the box provided for each state

 

 

WA

NT

NSW

QLD

VIC

TAS

SA

IP Address (WA)

 

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

 

IP Address (QLD)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

IP Address (NSW)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

IP Address (VIC)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

 

Destination Network

Interface

Next Hop

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Page 2: Insert routing table entry in the box for 3 edge routers

 

Routing Table for R1 

 

Destination Network

Interface

Next Hop

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

WA

NT

NSW

QLD

VIC

TAS

SA

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Routing Table for R2 

 

 

R1

 

 

R2

 

 

 

 

 

Routing Table for R3 

R3

 

 

Destination Network

Interface

Next Hop

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

WA

NT

NSW

QLD

VIC

TAS

SA

Page 3: Insert the IP address for the Network Interface Card (NIC) to connect NT, WA and SA

 

 

Router

NIC 

IP Address

R1

#5

 

R1

#8

 

R1

#6

 

R1

#7

R1

#7

 

R2

#4

 

R2

#2

 

R2

#3

 

R2

#1

 

R3

#9

 

R3

#10

 

R3

#11

 

R3

#12

 

 

R2

R3

R1

NIC #6

NIC #1

NIC #2

NIC #3

NIC #4

NIC #5

NIC #8

NIC #11

NIC #12

NIC #9

NIC #10

NIC #7

 

Q3. Application 7: Johari Window Reflection

The Johari Window is a model that we use to understand and frame some of the important skills explored in HD205, including self-disclosure, feedback, self-awareness and self-management. The ultimate goal of using this model is to appropriately enlarge the open area by disclosing information or asking for feedback. Remember that the open pane includes all information known to self and known to others. When we expand our open pane and decrease our hidden and blind panes, this allows us to make deeper connections with those around us and we will be more productive, cooperative, and effective when working together. People who have a large open pane are usually easier to talk to, practice open and honest communication and get along well with others.

 

The open pane expands into the hidden pane through self-disclosure about ourselves. Expansion could be through sharingThis could be one of your deepest dreams, life goals, fears, challenges or aspirations.  Really it is sharing anything about yourself with someone who doesn’t already know those stories.  Remember to moderate your level of self-disclosure to a level that is appropriate for the relationship and the environment.

 

The open pane also expands into the blind pane whenever we receive feedback about ourselves about something we were previously unaware of. This can be done by asking someone about their observations of you.  You may be interested in knowing what someone notices about your communication style, your unconscious patterns, filler words that you habitually use, or the positive and not-so-positive ways you interact around people.

 

Part 1 – Focus on Decreasing the Hidden Pane or the Blind Pane: The purpose of this stretch is for you to mindfully expand the open area of your Johari Window and thereby skillfully shrink the blind or hidden panes. You have the option to choose eitherfrom the hidden or blind pane as an area in which you wishwork.

 

  • If you wish to expand your open pane by decreasing your hidden pane, this is done through self-disclosure to another person. Find someone in your life that you know and trust and tell them something that you typically keep hidden. Expansion could be through sharing one of your deepest dreams, life goals, fears, challenges or aspirations.  Really it is sharing anything about yourself with someone who doesn’t already know those stories.  Remember to moderate your level of self-disclosure to a level that is appropriate for the relationship and the environment; yRemember that you are at choice about the appropriate level of disclosure.  Make the stretch meaningful and powerful by choosing someone to work with that deserves to know more about you.

 

ü   The open pane also expands into the blind pane whenever we receive feedback about ourselves about something we were previously unaware of. This can be done by asking someone about their observations of you. .

  • If you choose to expand your open pane through decreasing your blind pane, please fthis happens by asking for feedback. Find someone in your life that you know and trust and ask them for feedback about some aspect of yourself.  This could be about your contribution to a work team, class project, study group or living situation.  It could be about how you show up in a personal or professional relationship.  You could choose to speak with a parent, sibling or professor or someone else.    You may be interested in knowing what someone notices about your communication style, your unconscious patterns, filler words that you habitually use, or the positive and not-so-positive ways you interact around people. Choose someone that you really value their opinion and ask them about their perspective on some area of your life that is important for you to gain information about.  When asking for feedback, use the active listening skills that have been previously discussed in class. This should be meaningful conversation rather than a quick “drive-by” feedback session.

 

Part 2 – Stretch Reflection: Please spend time reflecting on the questions below and answer each of the following prompts. A recommendation is that the length of your responses should be approximately 500 – 600 words in length, total.

Prompts: 

  1. In your own words define and describe the four panes of the Johari Window.
  2. During this stretch, which pane did you choose to decrease? Describe your experience during the stretch and how it relates to that specific pane.
  3. From the six principles of ACT (expansion, defusion, observer self, connection, committed action, and values), which one(s) supported you in expanding your open pane? How specifically did you implement this principle during the stretch and how did practicing this concept assist you?

 

Q4. Assignment 1: The CEO Challenge

 

 

You’ve just left an all – hands meeting at your company * The CEO was very upset at the rise of shadow IT projects – a major indicator that the company’s internal information system has failed to meet its needs.

Because the current information system is inadequate, inefficient, and outdated, the CEO is inviting everyone in the organization to propose a new operational, decision support, or enterprise information system to replace it. The executives have allocated $5 million to fund the most promising idea

This is your chance to make a difference in the company (not to mention your own career). Write your proposal as a memo that the entire C – suite will review. Include at least these points, in your own words, to be persuasive:

  1. Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business.
  2. Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured.
  3. Explain how the old information system handles the functions you mentioned, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better.
  4. Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.

The executives are busy, so keep your memo to 1-4 pages and avoid any extraneous content.

*You may use a current or former employer, but do not disclose anything confidential. Or, you can pick another organization if you are familiar with their internal (not customer – facing) information systems. You can disguise the organization and populate it with famous names. Made – up companies are problematic because of the amount of detail and realism they require.

 

 

 

 

To:  Replace with name

From: Replace with name

Date: Replace with date

Subject: Replace with subject of memo

Introduction

Lorem i psum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Vestibulum et nisl ante. Etiam pulvinar fringilla ipsum facilisis efficitur. Maecenas volutpat risus dignissim dui euismod auctor. Nulla facilisi. Mauris euismod tellus malesuada dolor egestas, ac vulputate odio suscipit.

Sed pellentesque sagittis diam, sit amet faucibus diam lobortis quis. Sed mattis turpis ligula, in accumsan ante pellentesque eu. Quisque ut nisl leo. Nullam ipsum odio, eleifend non orcinon, volutpat sollicitudin lacus. (Beetle Baily Cartoon)

Proposed Information System

Donec tincidunt ligula eget sollicitudin vehicula. Proin pharetra tellus id lectus mollis sollicitudin. Etiam auctor ligula a nulla posuere, consequat feugiat ex lobortis. Duis eu cursus arcu, congue luctus turpis. Sed dapibus turpis ac diam viverra consectetur. Aliquam placerat molestie eros vel posuere.

 

Figure 1.  Title (Source: www.source-of-graphic.edu

Functions Important to Business

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Figure 2. Title (Source of data citation)

Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Vestibulum et nisl ante. Etiam pulvinar fringilla ipsum facilisis efficitur. Maecenas volutpat risus dignissim dui euismod auctor. Nulla facilisi. Mauris euismod tellus malesuada dolor egestas, ac vulputate odio suscipit.

 Data Management

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Data Types

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Storage Methods

Sed facilisis, lacus vel accumsan convallis, massa est ullamcorper mauris, quis feugiat eros ligula eget est. Vivamus nunc turpis, lobortis et magna a, convallis aliquam diam. Lorem ipsudolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.

Data Quality

Sed facilisis, lacus vel accumsan convallis, massa est ullamcorper mauris, quis feugiat eros ligula eget est. Vivamus nunc turpis, lobortis et magna a, convallis aliquam diam. Lorem ipsudolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.

Transition of System Functions

Sed facilisis, lacus vel accumsan convallis, massa est ullamcorper mauris, quis feugiat eros ligula eget est. Vivamus nunc turpis, lobortis et magna a, convallis aliquam diam. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.

Evidence of Feasibility

Sed facilisis, lacus vel accumsan convallis, massa est ullamcorper mauris, quis feugiat eros ligula eget est. Vivamus nunc turpis, lobortis et magna a, convallis aliquam diam. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.

 

 

References

American Psychological Association. (2001). Publication manual of the American Psychological Association (5th ed.). Washington, DC: Author.

Cuddy, C.M. (2002). Demystifying APA style. Orthopaedic Nursing, 21(5), 35-42. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from EBSCOhost database.

Daniels, C. (2004, July 28). 50 Best companies for minorities. Fortune, 149(13), 136-

  1. Retrieved October 19, 2004, from ProQuest database.

Lawton. K. A., Cousineau, L., & Hillard, V.E. (2001). Plagiarism: Its nature and consequences. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Duke University Guide to Library Research Web site: http://www.lib.duke.edu/libguide/plagarism.htm

Proofreading for commas. (n.d.). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Purdue University Online Writing Lab Web site: http://owl.english.purdue.edu/handouts/grammar/g_commaproof.html

Sterngold, A. (2004). Confronting plagiarism: How conventional teaching invites cyber-cheating. Change, 36(3), 16+. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from ProQuest database

Strunk, W., Jr. (1999). Omit needless words. In The elements of style (chap. 3). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from http://www.bartleby.com/141/strunk5.html#13

Venes, D. (2001). Taber’s cyclopedic medical dictionary (19th ed.). Philadelphia: F.A. Davis Company.

 

 

Q5. Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox Hierarchy Charts

Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox

Hierarchy Charts

In this assignment, you will learn how hierarchy charts are used to represent program design.

  • you will create a hierarchy chart.

Creating a Hierarchy Chart

Using the South University Online Library or the Internet, research on hierarchy charts.

Based on your research and using one of the appliances that you chose in W1 Assignment 2, complete the following tasks:

  • Using Microsoft Word, Microsoft PowerPoint, or Microsoft Visio, create a hierarchy chart that reflects the appliance’s modules and how the modules call each other. Keep in mind that a hierarchy chart is different from a flowchart or pseudocode.
  • In about 2 paragraphs, describe what your hierarchy chart represents.

Support your responses with appropriate examples.

Cite any sources in APA format on a separate page.

 

Submission Details

Based on the tool you chose to create the hierarchy chart, name your deliverable as:

  • SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.doc if it is a Microsoft Word document.
  • SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.ppt if it is a Microsoft PowerPoint presentation.
  • SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.vsd if it is a Microsoft Visio document.

Submit your hierarchy chart and the Alice World file to the W1 Assignment 3 Dropbox

 

 

Q6. ITECH7201 Software Engineering: Analysis and Design


Assignment 1   

2018 Sem01

Overview

You are required to design and develop a small Java console application. Completion of this assignment  requires an understanding of:

  • Analysis and design techniques, including development of use cases and UML diagrams – specifically, use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams
  • Object-oriented programming, focusing on polymorphism and the use of interfaces

Timelines and Expectations

Percentage Value of Task: 20%

Due: Sunday, September (Week 7)

Minimum time expectation: 20 hours

Learning Outcomes Assessed

The following course learning outcomes are assessed by completing this assessment:

  • Understand the significance of detailed project planning and control, good communication and documentation and the use of appropriate tools in order to provide a quality product
  • Understand the distinction between software engineering and programming, and thus the distinction between a software configuration and a program
  • Understand the methods and techniques involved in designing, implementing and maintaining an information system, in particular using an object-oriented approach
  • Demonstrate skills in designing and implementing an information system

Assessment Details

FedHire is a car hire company that offers vehicle rentals to its clients. Clients are able to hire vehicles according to availability and preference. FedHire offers 10% loyalty discount on the rental fees to members of its loyalty club. No discount is offered to standard clients who are not members of the loyalty club. A special discount of 20%, is offered to clients who are also employees of the company.

You have been hired to design and develop a Java application for FedHire employees to manage the car rental system. The application should have an interactive menu, allowing the user to select the type of client (standard, loyalty member or staff member) making the booking and determine and track the appropriate discounts. The menu should also provide different other options, such as, displaying clients list, generating a report to display the current payments received, and quitting the execution. In the report the payments should be broken down into different categories of bookings such as standard, loyalty and staff, and the total discounts given in each category (using the discounted values where appropriate). At this stage there is no need for data to persist once the program finishes execution.

FedHire wants the system to be flexible so that users can include additional functionality at a later date without having to rewrite the entire program. This means you will need to use an interface for processing payments, and polymorphism for the various payment classes, so that new, different payment types may be added at a later date with minimal updates to the code.

FedHire asked that you provide it with some documentation before you commence coding, so that the manager is able to verify that the program you intend to code will address the business requirements. The manager would like to see use cases that summarizes the requirements in written format, as well as use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams.

Startup codes (AD_asgn01.zip) are provided herewith for your convenience. You are free to use, update and build your program on this. A sample expected output of an execution of a complete program is also attached. Notice in the sample output the clients 1, 2, and 3 are hard coded in the program; clients 4, 5, and 6 are entered at execution. Similarly, your program should include hard coded clients, at least one client in each category.

Submission

You are required to submit the assignment before the due date consisting of:

  • A Zip file containing the following (submitted via Moodle under the Assignment 1 link) o A written report comprising:
  • Use Cases summarizing the requirements
  • Copy of UML Diagrams, created in Enterprise Architect, comprising:
  • a Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking
  • a Class Diagram of the intended system
  • a Sequence Diagram showing how a new car rental booking is processed
  • A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and object- oriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism. As an example, if you found that you would change your initial UML diagrams after you had commenced coding, you should explain what these changes would be and explain what you learnt that led to these changes.

o    Enterprise Architect file(s) containing your UML Diagrams for the Use Case, Class Diagrams and Sequence Diagrams

o    Your complete Java program, addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment

Details.

Marking Criteria/Rubric

Task

Max Marks

Obtained Marks

Requirements Analysis and Design

 

 

  • Use Cases summarizing the requirements of the program

10

 

  • A Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking

10

 

  • A Class Diagram of the intended system

10

 

  • A Sequence Diagram for processing a loyalty client’s car rental booking.

10

 

Development of Code

 

 

A complete Java program addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment Details section of this specification, including:

 

 

  • Functionality to process standard (non-member) client’s payments

5

 

  • Functionality to process loyalty and employee payments, including display of the total sales amount with a 10% or 20% discount removed.

10

 

  • A payments received option that displays the total standard booking amount, the total loyalty booking amount, the total employee booking amount, the total discounts given and the total amount (all types of booking taking discounts into account where appropriate)

5

 

  • Code demonstrating the use of an interface and polymorphism to handle payments and the various payment options available

25

 

  • Code validating all inputs and adhering to Java conventions

5

 

Reflection on Learning

 

 

  • A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and objectoriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism.

10

 

Total

100

 

Scaled to 20 

20

 

Feedback

Marks will be uploaded in fdlGrades and a complete marking sheet will be provided in Moodle.

Plagiarism:

This is an individual assignment. You are not to attempt this assignment (or any part thereof) in conjunction with any other parties. All work handed in for marking should be your own and any help received should be explicitly acknowledged.

It is important to learn from the work of others and you are encouraged to explore the library, World Wide Web resources and have discussions with other students. However, work for assessment must be entirely your own work.

Plagiarism is the presentation of the expressed thought or work of another person as though it is one’s own without properly acknowledging that person. You must not allow other students to copy your work and must take care to safeguard against this happening. More information about the plagiarism policy and procedure for the university can be found at http://federation.edu.au/students/learning-and- study/online-help-with/plagiarism.

 

Q7. Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

IT Infrastructure Practical Assignment 2 Instructions

Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

Hypertext Transfer protocol is known as the mechanism for delivering web pages. The JASPER applet supports the simulation of HTTP. URLs (Universal Resource Locators) are abstract represented as URL1, URL2… URLn, and likewise for DATA which represents web pages.

Below are some experiments you can go through to understand HTTP and its commands. The first two experiments will give a feel to using the simulator and simply relate to real scenarios. Subsequent experiments will be complex, yet still relating to real events.

Launching the HTTP Simulator

  • Ensure that your default browser supports Java applets. Note that you may need to run Java in low security for the Java applets in this exercise to work properly.
  • For access to all simulations, click on the rotating globe at this book’s Companion Web site at http://williamstallings.com/BusinessDataComm/BDC7e-student/.
  • Click the spinning globe icon, and then click on the link to the HTTP Simulator.
  • This will launch the HTTP Simulator applet along with a description of the main commands we will be using for our experiments.

Main Commands Description

HTTP supports a relatively modest suite of commands. The protocol simulator supports the following, most frequently used, HTTP commands.

 

Command

Description

GET

Get data for URL

HEAD

Get header for URL

POST

Append data to URL

PUT

Send data to URL

Response Codes

HTTP provides a range of response codes, each uniquely indicating the response to the corresponding command previously received. The protocol simulator here supports a limited range of HTTP response codes, as described below.

 

Code

Description

200 OK

Command completed successfully

301 MOVED

Requested URL has moved to another location

400 ERROR

The command encountered an error

Applet Interface

The applet graphical interface consists of the control panel (bottom left corner), the commands panel (bottom right), and the simulation view (top half).

The control panel consists of several buttons. Run will perform an automatic simulation of the protocol. Stop will halt the automatic simulation. Undo will revert back one step from the latest command. Redo will revert what undo does. Clear will clear off the current simulation, resulting in a clean simulation view. Load,Save and Print buttons are only available when the protocol simulator is launched in standalone mode, which are not available as we are using the applet mode.

The command panel displays the available commands at the current point of simulation. Clicking on one of the commands will progress the simulation seen in the simulation view.

 

Continue to Experiment #1 Instructions on the following page…

 

 

EXPERIMENT #1: RETRIEVING A WEB PAGE SUCCESSFULLY

This is the simplest example: fetching the data (which is the web page contents) of a particular URL (location). To do this the client will send a GET(url) command to the server, which will respond with a 200 response code along with the contents of the location specified in the GET command.

 

  1. Click the Clearbutton to start a fresh simulation.

2.      In the command panel, click on Client: GET(URL1) – get data for URL. You should be able to see in the simulation view a corresponding flow of this command

[SR1]Remove all comments in paper before submitting. One way to do this, right click on each comment, select ‘Delete Comment’.

 

[SR2]The CEO challenge is for an internal employee provide recommendation of new IT system to remove or bring the Shadow IT projects under the IT department.

Include how this assignment will communicate how your project proposal satisfied the CEO’s concern.

[SR3]Replace Latin text with your writing for this assignment.

[SR4]Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business.

[SR5]Add diagrams when applicable

[SR6]Include source if applicable, remove when diagram is original)

[SR7]Add Charts when applicable.

[SR8]Include source if applicable, remove when diagram is original).

[SR9]Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured.

[SR10]Explain how the functions you mentioned are being handled by the old information system, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better.

[SR11]Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.

[SR12]Reference Page Notes: Use a separate references page and double space. Note that throughout the paper and reference list, titles of non-periodicals and the names of journals, book titles, and volume are set in italics rather than being underlined. See APA Manual, pages 239-281 for examples of various references.  In addition, please read pages 215-232 for basic reference guidelines.

 

Remove References in example that you do not use.

American Psychological Association. (2001). Publication manual of the American Psychological Association (5th ed.). Washington, DC: Author.

Cuddy, C.M. (2002). Demystifying APA style. Orthopaedic Nursing, 21(5), 35-42. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from EBSCOhost database.

Daniels, C. (2004, July 28). 50 Best companies for minorities. Fortune, 149(13), 136-

  1. Retrieved October 19, 2004, from ProQuest database.

Lawton. K. A., Cousineau, L., & Hillard, V.E. (2001). Plagiarism: Its nature and consequences. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Duke University Guide to Library Research Web site: http://www.lib.duke.edu/libguide/plagarism.htm

Proofreading for commas. (n.d.). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Purdue University Online Writing Lab Web site: http://owl.english.purdue.edu/handouts/grammar/g_commaproof.html

Sterngold, A. (2004). Confronting plagiarism: How conventional teaching invites cyber-cheating. Change, 36(3), 16+. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from ProQuest database

Strunk, W., Jr. (1999). Omit needless words. In The elements of style (chap. 3). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from http://www.bartleby.com/141/strunk5.html#13

Venes, D. (2001). Taber’s cyclopedic medical dictionary (19th ed.). Philadelphia: F.A. Davis Company.

 

 

Q5. Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox Hierarchy Charts

Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox

Hierarchy Charts

In this assignment, you will learn how hierarchy charts are used to represent program design.

  • you will create a hierarchy chart.

Creating a Hierarchy Chart

Using the South University Online Library or the Internet, research on hierarchy charts.

Based on your research and using one of the appliances that you chose in W1 Assignment 2, complete the following tasks:

  • Using Microsoft Word, Microsoft PowerPoint, or Microsoft Visio, create a hierarchy chart that reflects the appliance’s modules and how the modules call each other. Keep in mind that a hierarchy chart is different from a flowchart or pseudocode.
  • In about 2 paragraphs, describe what your hierarchy chart represents.

Support your responses with appropriate examples.

Cite any sources in APA format on a separate page.

 

Submission Details

Based on the tool you chose to create the hierarchy chart, name your deliverable as:

  • SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.doc if it is a Microsoft Word document.
  • SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.ppt if it is a Microsoft PowerPoint presentation.
  • SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.vsd if it is a Microsoft Visio document.

Submit your hierarchy chart and the Alice World file to the W1 Assignment 3 Dropbox

 

 

Q6. ITECH7201 Software Engineering: Analysis and Design


Assignment 1   

2018 Sem01

Overview

You are required to design and develop a small Java console application. Completion of this assignment  requires an understanding of:

  • Analysis and design techniques, including development of use cases and UML diagrams – specifically, use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams
  • Object-oriented programming, focusing on polymorphism and the use of interfaces

Timelines and Expectations

Percentage Value of Task: 20%

Due: Sunday, September (Week 7)

Minimum time expectation: 20 hours

Learning Outcomes Assessed

The following course learning outcomes are assessed by completing this assessment:

  • Understand the significance of detailed project planning and control, good communication and documentation and the use of appropriate tools in order to provide a quality product
  • Understand the distinction between software engineering and programming, and thus the distinction between a software configuration and a program
  • Understand the methods and techniques involved in designing, implementing and maintaining an information system, in particular using an object-oriented approach
  • Demonstrate skills in designing and implementing an information system

Assessment Details

FedHire is a car hire company that offers vehicle rentals to its clients. Clients are able to hire vehicles according to availability and preference. FedHire offers 10% loyalty discount on the rental fees to members of its loyalty club. No discount is offered to standard clients who are not members of the loyalty club. A special discount of 20%, is offered to clients who are also employees of the company.

You have been hired to design and develop a Java application for FedHire employees to manage the car rental system. The application should have an interactive menu, allowing the user to select the type of client (standard, loyalty member or staff member) making the booking and determine and track the appropriate discounts. The menu should also provide different other options, such as, displaying clients list, generating a report to display the current payments received, and quitting the execution. In the report the payments should be broken down into different categories of bookings such as standard, loyalty and staff, and the total discounts given in each category (using the discounted values where appropriate). At this stage there is no need for data to persist once the program finishes execution.

FedHire wants the system to be flexible so that users can include additional functionality at a later date without having to rewrite the entire program. This means you will need to use an interface for processing payments, and polymorphism for the various payment classes, so that new, different payment types may be added at a later date with minimal updates to the code.

FedHire asked that you provide it with some documentation before you commence coding, so that the manager is able to verify that the program you intend to code will address the business requirements. The manager would like to see use cases that summarizes the requirements in written format, as well as use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams.

Startup codes (AD_asgn01.zip) are provided herewith for your convenience. You are free to use, update and build your program on this. A sample expected output of an execution of a complete program is also attached. Notice in the sample output the clients 1, 2, and 3 are hard coded in the program; clients 4, 5, and 6 are entered at execution. Similarly, your program should include hard coded clients, at least one client in each category.

Submission

You are required to submit the assignment before the due date consisting of:

  • A Zip file containing the following (submitted via Moodle under the Assignment 1 link) o A written report comprising:
  • Use Cases summarizing the requirements
  • Copy of UML Diagrams, created in Enterprise Architect, comprising:
  • a Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking
  • a Class Diagram of the intended system
  • a Sequence Diagram showing how a new car rental booking is processed
  • A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and object- oriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism. As an example, if you found that you would change your initial UML diagrams after you had commenced coding, you should explain what these changes would be and explain what you learnt that led to these changes.

o    Enterprise Architect file(s) containing your UML Diagrams for the Use Case, Class Diagrams and Sequence Diagrams

o    Your complete Java program, addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment

Details.

Marking Criteria/Rubric

Task

Max Marks

Obtained Marks

Requirements Analysis and Design

 

 

  • Use Cases summarizing the requirements of the program

10

 

  • A Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking

10

 

  • A Class Diagram of the intended system

10

 

  • A Sequence Diagram for processing a loyalty client’s car rental booking.

10

 

Development of Code

 

 

A complete Java program addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment Details section of this specification, including:

 

 

  • Functionality to process standard (non-member) client’s payments

5

 

  • Functionality to process loyalty and employee payments, including display of the total sales amount with a 10% or 20% discount removed.

10

 

  • A payments received option that displays the total standard booking amount, the total loyalty booking amount, the total employee booking amount, the total discounts given and the total amount (all types of booking taking discounts into account where appropriate)

5

 

  • Code demonstrating the use of an interface and polymorphism to handle payments and the various payment options available

25

 

  • Code validating all inputs and adhering to Java conventions

5

 

Reflection on Learning

 

 

  • A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and objectoriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism.

10

 

Total

100

 

Scaled to 20 

20

 

Feedback

Marks will be uploaded in fdlGrades and a complete marking sheet will be provided in Moodle.

Plagiarism:

This is an individual assignment. You are not to attempt this assignment (or any part thereof) in conjunction with any other parties. All work handed in for marking should be your own and any help received should be explicitly acknowledged.

It is important to learn from the work of others and you are encouraged to explore the library, World Wide Web resources and have discussions with other students. However, work for assessment must be entirely your own work.

Plagiarism is the presentation of the expressed thought or work of another person as though it is one’s own without properly acknowledging that person. You must not allow other students to copy your work and must take care to safeguard against this happening. More information about the plagiarism policy and procedure for the university can be found at http://federation.edu.au/students/learning-and- study/online-help-with/plagiarism.

 

Q7. Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

IT Infrastructure Practical Assignment 2 Instructions

Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

Hypertext Transfer protocol is known as the mechanism for delivering web pages. The JASPER applet supports the simulation of HTTP. URLs (Universal Resource Locators) are abstract represented as URL1, URL2… URLn, and likewise for DATA which represents web pages.

Below are some experiments you can go through to understand HTTP and its commands. The first two experiments will give a feel to using the simulator and simply relate to real scenarios. Subsequent experiments will be complex, yet still relating to real events.

Launching the HTTP Simulator

  • Ensure that your default browser supports Java applets. Note that you may need to run Java in low security for the Java applets in this exercise to work properly.
  • For access to all simulations, click on the rotating globe at this book’s Companion Web site at http://williamstallings.com/BusinessDataComm/BDC7e-student/.
  • Click the spinning globe icon, and then click on the link to the HTTP Simulator.
  • This will launch the HTTP Simulator applet along with a description of the main commands we will be using for our experiments.

Main Commands Description

HTTP supports a relatively modest suite of commands. The protocol simulator supports the following, most frequently used, HTTP commands.

 

Command

Description

GET

Get data for URL

HEAD

Get header for URL

POST

Append data to URL

PUT

Send data to URL

Response Codes

HTTP provides a range of response codes, each uniquely indicating the response to the corresponding command previously received. The protocol simulator here supports a limited range of HTTP response codes, as described below.

 

Code

Description

200 OK

Command completed successfully

301 MOVED

Requested URL has moved to another location

400 ERROR

The command encountered an error

Applet Interface

The applet graphical interface consists of the control panel (bottom left corner), the commands panel (bottom right), and the simulation view (top half).

The control panel consists of several buttons. Run will perform an automatic simulation of the protocol. Stop will halt the automatic simulation. Undo will revert back one step from the latest command. Redo will revert what undo does. Clear will clear off the current simulation, resulting in a clean simulation view. Load,Save and Print buttons are only available when the protocol simulator is launched in standalone mode, which are not available as we are using the applet mode.

The command panel displays the available commands at the current point of simulation. Clicking on one of the commands will progress the simulation seen in the simulation view.

 

Continue to Experiment #1 Instructions on the following page…

 

 

EXPERIMENT #1: RETRIEVING A WEB PAGE SUCCESSFULLY

This is the simplest example: fetching the data (which is the web page contents) of a particular URL (location). To do this the client will send a GET(url) command to the server, which will respond with a 200 response code along with the contents of the location specified in the GET command.

 

  1. Click the Clearbutton to start a fresh simulation.
  2. In the command panel, click on Client: GET(URL1) – get data for URL. You should be able to see in the simulation view a corresponding flow of this command from the client to the server via the medium. Notice that the available choices in the command panel change as the request is received at the server.
  3. Now click the Server: 200 OK(DATA1) – send requested data. Similarly the simulation view reflects the response from server to the client.

 

The simulation is now complete for URL1. Observe the interaction between the client and server.

Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.

Q1: In reality, what does the client represent? Relate the client/server interaction you observed in this experiment to a regular activity that occurs on the Internet.

 

 

EXPERIMENT #2: UNSUCCESSFUL RETRIEVAL OF A WEB PAGE

 

Repeat Experiment 1 again, but this time selecting Server: 400 Error(Code) – report requested data unavailable at the last step.

The simulation is now complete for URL1. Observe the interaction between the client and server.

Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.

Q2: Identify a real scenario when this client and server interaction would occur.

 

 

Continue to Experiment #3 Instructions on the following page…

EXPERIMENT #3: REDIRECTION OF REQUESTED DATA

 

Repeat Step 1 and 2 of Experiment One, and then do the following

  1. In command panel, select Server: 301 MOVED(URL2) – report moved URL.
  2. Select Client: GET(URL2) – get data for new URL.
  3. Select Server: 200 OK(DATA2) – send requested data.

 

Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.

 

Q3: Observe the simulation and compare with the results in Experiment One. What is the difference in the flow, and what does it mean?

 

 

EXPERIMENT #4: POST INFORMATION TO WEB PAGES

 

It should be obvious that there are many types of interactions that a client might have with a web server. One such interaction is when a client appends data to the URL to be received by the server.

Start a new simulation similar to Experiment #1, but this time choose Client: POST(URL1, DATA1) for step 2.

Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.

Q4: What is the key difference that you observe in the interaction?

Q5: Relate the client/server interaction you observed in this experiment to a regular activity that occurs on the Internet.

 

 

Submitting your work

In a new Word document, include your screenshots of the simulations for each experiment, along with your answers for each of the five questions. Save the file as Lastname_Firstname_Assignment #. Include your name in the assignment file itself and submit your file to Blackboard. Any assignment with screenshots that do not include a visible date and timestamp or a unique desktop element to identify the student’s work will not be accepted.

 

Q8. Reference Figure 1.  Friendly Care Hospital is one of the biggest hospitals in D

IT INFRASTRUCTURE PROJECT PHASE I INSTRUCTIONS

Project Background

Reference Figure 1.  Friendly Care Hospital is one of the biggest hospitals in DC. You have recently bought the hospital, naming it [Your Firstname Lastname] Hospital.  For example, Jane Doe Hospital.  Jane Doe Hospital owns a 5-story building and houses many departments that span multiple floors. Its Radiology department is spread across the first and second floors, connected by a dedicated LAN. The department has recently deployed a new “Radiology Images” application as part of their initiative to digitize patient records.  However, the department staff sometimes faces long application delays during busy hours. It also experiences regular delays in Internet connectivity, FTPS services, web services, and email services.

Their original design, depicted in Figure 1, was categorized as a small network, providing services for up to 200 devices.  They have well surpassed this.  You, as their senior network engineer, are tasked with the job of a complete re-design.  This design must support a mediumsize network for 200 to 1,000 devices.

 

Figure 1. Friendly Care Hospital Network Design                                                  

Project Overview

This project along with the Phase II IT Infrastructure Project will help you understand how a network administrator improves network performance in wired and wireless local area and wide area networks, using the application Cisco Packet Tracer. To learn more about Packet Tracer please read the Cisco Packet Tracer DS PDF.

In this project, you will study performance improvements in a congested, wired LAN/WAN environment that can be solved to varying degrees by a new IT infrastructure design and fully functional implementation in Packet Tracer. Later, in Phase II of the project, you will scale this design to a larger enterprise IT infrastructure.

To begin the projects, you will complete a review of related literature to identify what is appropriate to improve system feasibility, RAS (reliability, availability, serviceability), security, and disaster recovery of the existing IT infrastructure and model of your hospital.  Once this review of literature is complete, you will use the outcomes and research results to advance and improve the IT infrastructure.  Proper data analysis, comparison, and contrast will be summarized within in-text tables and figures as well as appendixes to explain the results of the IT infrastructure re-design and improvement.

 

Project Requirements

  • Take screenshots demonstrating your network, servers, configurations, and protocols properly functioning in the new design.  Screenshots must include a unique piece of information identifying the student’s computer along with a proper operating system date/time.  Submit these as appendices in the Word document.
  • Submit a working Packet Tracer lab, typically this file has a .pkt file extension.

o        This will include the fully operational new IT infrastructure design o All devices in the lab must be named with your first name and last name

  • Example: Jane_Doe_Router_1 o All hardware and software should be configured properly and should be able to communicate securely using optimized networking designs, configurations, and protocols
  • IT Infrastructure Design Requirements o You must start with a blank/new Packet Tracer file, existing labs or modified labs of existing solutions will receive a zero without exception

o        Include the existing hospital services and systems but optimized/improved o Design a medium-size network for 200 to 1,000 devices

  • For example, an N-Tier design or superior supported by research
  • Add appropriate routers and switches to support this new design
  • Design and configure at least one appropriate networking protocol,

IPv4 or IPv6

  • Design IP addressing that will scale to 1,000 devices
  • Use proper network address translation (NAT)

o   Add an Internet Service Provider (ISP) into the design o Add appropriate security into the design

o   Add sufficient modularity, resiliency, and flexibility into the design

o   Design and implement the following new services and servers

  • A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server that automatically assigns working IP addresses to new workstations that allows them to connect to all network devices properly
  • A name server that manages the Domain Name System (DNS) and allows workstations to communicate with a web server external to the local area network
  • An external web server that hosts your favorite website, accessible via the ISP
  • Two new user workstations in eachbuilding that uses the new services and services properly
  • Show these services working on each workstation in your project (e.g. a website from the web server, DHCP, etc)
  • Written Requirements (Introduction, Literature Review, and Conclusion) o Submit a properly formatted APA paper in Microsoft Word o Here is an example paper: https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/18/

o   Table of Contents that automatically adjusts page numbers of the main headings

o   Introduction

  • Introduce the primary goals and objectives of the project o Review of literature that supports the new system simulation, model, and design
  • Include appropriate IT frameworks and standards in which to design the new system
  • Address system feasibility, RAS (reliability, availability, serviceability), security, and disaster recovery
  • Include at least 10 scholarly journal articles focusing on relevant research on the problems being addressed

o   Packet Tracer design explanation

  • Explain each of the additions and improvements
  • Reference the primary configurations and how these were developed
  • Include running configurations from routers/switches as appendices o Conclusion
  • Highlight any limitations, managerial implications, and conclusions of the project deliverables and outcomes
  • Save the file as Lastname_Firstname_ProjectPhaseI. Include your name in the assignment file itself and submit your file to Blackboard.
  • Any assignment without working Packet Tracer files or without screenshots that do not include a visible date and timestamp from the operating system and a unique desktop element to identify the student’s work will not be accepted.· To copy screenshots to Microsoft Word:

o   Press the “Print Screen” key on your keyboard. The key is usually located at the upper right corner of a keyboard.

o   You can also use the “snipping tool” in Windows

o   For Windows users, open application “Paint” and paste the screen shot over.

“Paint” usually can be accessed this way: Start à All Programs à

Accessories. For users of other operating systems, use a similar application.

o   In “Paint”, select the graph or area needed and copy it. You need to click this icon  in order to be able to select an area. The icon is listed on the left side of the window.

o   Paste the selected area to a word processor.

o   Save the file as Lastname_Firstname_ProjectPhaseI 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q9. Week 8 Assignment

Create a spreadsheet that includes a list of the students.

 

  1. a) Import the data from the spreadsheet to the table student; you need to create a query (Week8-del-students)to Delete the existing records.

 

  1. b) Link the spreadsheet. Create a report from the linked spreadsheet.

 

2) You are going to create the following queries

List the content of each table using condition (criteria) of your choice, you MUST explain each condition

 

You are going to add your name (Lewis Ministrelli) as student too,

Try to use criteria (condition) for the following (explain each condition)

 

Create at least one update query

Create at least one insert query

Create at least one delete query

 

Create a query and use it in a report to show the schedule of courses

Create a query and use it in a report to the list of students per class

Create a query and use it in a report to list the courses per instructor

 

3) Create a form with a custom navigation buttons (command button) to open each form and report.

 

Do the following tasks

The name of each Object should start with Week8

 

1) Create a spreadsheet that includes a list of the students.

 

  1. a) Import the data from the spreadsheet to the table student; you need to create a query (Week8-del-students) to Delete the existing records.

 

  1. b) Link the spreadsheet. Create a report from the linked spreadsheet.

 

2) You are going to create the following queries

List the content of each table using condition (criteria) of your choice, you MUST explain each condition

 

You are going to add your name (Lewis Ministrelli) as student too,

Try to use criteria (condition) for the following (explain each condition)

 

Create at least one update query

Create at least one insert query

Create at least one delete query

 

Create a query and use it in a report to show the schedule of courses

Create a query and use it in a report to the list of students per class

Create a query and use it in a report to list the courses per instructor

 

3) Create a form with a custom navigation buttons (command button) to open each form and report.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q10. Network Penetration Testing (CIS or SEC 435)

Week 1 Lab 1 submission

tudents, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” in the Student Center.
Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.

If you have not logged into the iLabs environment yet, use your access code emailed to you by the bookstore when you purchased the books to register.

Lab Assignments

Submit each lab based on the following:

  1. Log into the EC-Council iLab environment.
  2. Complete the weekly lab assignment described below using EC-Council iLab.
  3. Submit the screenshots for the steps specified in each lab assignment.
  4. Write a short answer in Word format and include with the assignment submission link the following:
  5. Summarize the technical experiences in completing the lab assignment.
  6. Identify the commands that were of greatest benefit to you.
  7. Provide general comments on the overall lab assignment experience.
    Note:This is an academic writing assignment. Correct punctuation, grammar, and spelling are necessary. Points may be deducted for poor writing.

 

Lab Assignment 1

Due Week 1 and worth 30 points

Complete the following EC-Council Labs.

Note: Lab 1 contains deliverables that are partially derived from the following course required textbook: EC-Council Press. (2017). Ethical Hacking and Countermeasures: Web Applications and Data Servers (2nd ed.). Cengage Learning.

 

Lab Version

Module Title

Location

Lab #: Title

Deliverable(s) for Submission

Strayer

SEC435

(CEHv.9)

Session Hijacking

iLab

Module 1o

Lab 1:  “Session Hijacking Using Zed Attack Proxy.”

  1. Screenshots after Steps 8 and 22.

Q1. Artificial Neural Network

 

1). What would happen if Artificial Neural Networks (ANN) did not have any bias (fixed input)? For instance, suppose that ‘y’ must be 5 when all inputs are 0.

2). What are the main similarities and differences between the functions ‘logsig’ and ‘tanh’?

3). Indicate whether the next statements are true or false and explain:

  • When the neutrons of an artificial neural network (ANN) use the LOGSIG function, the output values of the network cannot exceed a value of one no matter what input is applied tot he network. A value outside the range [0 1] is impossible to attain at the output of the ANN. If the required range is bigger than zero to one, then the output signal must be scaled appropriately.
  • When the neutrons of an artificial neural network (ANN) use the TANH function, it is very important to note that the output signal is limited to the range from -1 to 1. The ‘tanh’ function has a shape very similar to the shape of the ‘logsig’ function. However, the lower range for the ‘logsig’ function is zero when compared with the lower range of the ‘tanh’ which is -1.

 

Q2. Master-Slave J-K Flip-Flop using NAND gages with explanation of Truth Table with arbitrary clock

 

Question: Find the output using the input sequences of the J-K Master-Slave flipflop using NAND gates. Follow the input sequences. Observe and record the output sequences.

 

Q3. Frequency Modulation (FM) demodulation

 

Find an expression for the instantaneous frequency of FM modulation

Find the followings expression for the signals z(t), w(t), of an FM demodulation as shown in the diagram. Determine the bandwidth of the signal w(t) according to Carson’s rule.

The received signal passes through a square law device, DC blocker, again a square law device, again a DC blocker.

w(t) is the output of the final DC blocker

z(t) is the output of the first DC blocker

x(t) is the output of the first square law device and x2(t) is the output of the second square law device.

 

Q4. Principle and Operation of Quadrature Phase Shift Keying (QPSK) receiver

 

 

The QPSK receiver, like the BPSK receiver, can create a synchronous carrier when the received signal has a phase shift. Show that even if the signal s(t) is shifted by an angle, the output of the frequency divider produces cosine and sin carrier wave synchronous to the received signal.

Q5. Electrical Hazards, potential severity, the extent of severity and consequences, Safe Practices

 

identify the type of hazard, the potential severity and potential consequences for the plant employee due to the application of insulating tape to the exposed high-voltage wire

 

Q6. Find the Standing Wave Ratio of a Transmission Line

 

Given a lossless Transmission line with Z0=50ohm, terminated at a resistive load RL>Z0. The plot of voltage standing wave ratio is given with vmax=6volt, vmin=2volt.

(a) Determine the standing wave ratio on the line terminated (resistive).

(b) Determine RL.

(c) Determine the voltage magnitude of the incident wave.

(d) Determine the wavelength of the line if the distance between the consecutive maxima and minima is given.

 

Q7. Write an essay (1,250-1,500 words)

 

 

Many theories and intervention techniques in performance psychology have a cognitive-behavioral approach. The interactional model of personality which describes behavior as the sum of personality (p), the environmental situation (s), and the interaction (i.e., Behavior = P + S + P x S) is generally a better predictor of success than the environmental situation or the personality alone. However, in many situations the environmental conditions are so influential that the stable personality characteristics will have little effect. This is known as the personality paradox. In this assignment, you will discuss the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining both the personality paradox and how a performer’s personality interacts with the environment to produce a behavioral response.

General Requirements:

Use the following information to ensure successful completion of the assignment:

  • Instructors will be using a grading rubric to grade the assignments. It is recommended that learners review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment in order to become familiar with the assignment criteria and expectations for successful completion of the assignment.
  • Doctoral learners are required to use APA style for their writing assignments. The APA Style Guide is located in the Student Success Center.
  • This assignment requires that at least two additional scholarly research sources related to this topic, and at least one in-text citation from each source be included.

Directions:

Write an essay (1,250-1,500 words) in which you will discuss the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining both the personality paradox and how a performer’s personality interacts with the environment to produce a behavioral response. In your paper, include the following:

  1. An explanation of how the personality paradox might occur.
  2. A discussion of the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining the personality paradox.
  3. A discussion of the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining how the performer’s personality interacts with the environment.

 

Q8. Monostable or one-shot multi-vibrator

 

  •  Explain the conditions that the trigger signal that you will apply at trigger input (pin No.2) should have in order to trigger the monostable multivibrator. Explain your result.

Or

  • Explain the principle of working of mono-stable multi-vibrator (One-shot multi-vibrator)

Or

  • Give the pin description of IC 555 timer or mono-stable multi-vibrator and explain its principle of operation.

 

Q9. Binary Phase Shift Keying

 

What is the need to use the synchronous carrier in BPSK demodulation?

Can a non-synchronos carrier such as cos(w0t) be used instead?

What is the use of the square-law device, the band-pass filter, and the frequency divider?

What is the function of the bit synchronizer?

How the integrate-and-dump circuit is used to recover the original signal? Show it mathematically.

Mathematically prove how the effect of 2wcan be eliminated.

 

Q10. python programming

The assessment requires the student to incorporate all the learned technologies in single testbed/simulation. All the students are required to communicate their project that they are working on as Coursework Testbed implementation/Simulation.

 

Example projects that could be undertaken as Coursework Project include the following:

  • Manage Cloud resources: The proposed solution is to run Apache Mesos/DCOS which is a cluster management solution that is typically deployed in data centres, it manages and monitors resources and combines the resources of servers such as CPU, RAM, STORAGE and serves software applications through its framework called Marathon, it enables various applications and frameworks to share cluster resources affectively as well as in isolation.
  • VM Tool Comparisons: The purpose of this purpose is to evaluate the scalability (VM set-up and termination) using two of the most commonly used VIMs Eucalyptus, and OpenNebula.
  • Test-driven and Object-Oriented Implementation of 5G architecture: While NFV has an ETSI defined reference architecture, its beneficial to implement a pure software representation of architecture. The purpose of this project is to design Class, Interaction, State Chart, Component, Deployment Diagrams for 5G architecture using UML software such as IBM Rational Rose / MagicDraw / Lucidchart. The project requires good practice and documentation.
  • Cloud based Multimedia Streaming and Transcoding (Student may use a VMware Hypervisor to create VMs to transcode and stream multimedia contents using FFMPEG to support HLS based http streaming, this project can also be developed as Virtual Network functions.
  • Datacentre Implementation using VMware Hypervisor: Student may design and implement a data centre using VMWARE Hypervisor to meet the needs of a particular organisation.
  • Docker Management Platform: This project requires to design and develop a docker management platform using python.

The above listed are just an example projects, student may choose any one of them or may also propose a project that helps him to implement the cloud and virtualisation concepts that he has learned in this module. This would be required an approval from the Module leader.

 

Coursework Specification

  1. Each group must provide a report comprising: abstract, introduction, experimentation objectives and experimental results and conclusions
  2. Please use the appendix to provide a logbook with the contributions of each member of the group
  3. The minimum length of the report is 3500 words with at least 6 screenshots from experimental development-testing.

 

The assessment requires the student to incorporate all the learned technologies in single testbed/simulation. All the students are required to communicate their project that they are working on as Coursework Testbed implementation/Simulation.

 

Example projects that could be undertaken as Coursework Project include the following:

  • Manage Cloud resources: The proposed solution is to run Apache Mesos/DCOS which is a cluster management solution that is typically deployed in data centres, it manages and monitors resources and combines the resources of servers such as CPU, RAM, STORAGE and serves software applications through its framework called Marathon, it enables various applications and frameworks to share cluster resources affectively as well as in isolation.
  • VM Tool Comparisons: The purpose of this purpose is to evaluate the scalability (VM set-up and termination) using two of the most commonly used VIMs Eucalyptus, and OpenNebula.
  • Test-driven and Object-Oriented Implementation of 5G architecture: While NFV has an ETSI defined reference architecture, its beneficial to implement a pure software representation of architecture. The purpose of this project is to design Class, Interaction, State Chart, Component, Deployment Diagrams for 5G architecture using UML software such as IBM Rational Rose / MagicDraw / Lucidchart. The project requires good practice and documentation.
  • Cloud based Multimedia Streaming and Transcoding (Student may use a VMware Hypervisor to create VMs to transcode and stream multimedia contents using FFMPEG to support HLS based http streaming, this project can also be developed as Virtual Network functions.
  • Datacenter Implementation using VMware Hypervisor: Student may design and implement a data center using VMWARE Hypervisor to meet the needs of a particular organisation.
  • Docker Management Platform: This project requires to design and develop a docker management platform using python.

The above listed are just an example projects, student may choose any one of them or may also propose a project that helps him to implement the cloud and virtualisation concepts that he has learned in this module. This would be required an approval from the Module leader.

 

Coursework Specification

  1. Each group must provide a report comprising: abstract, introduction, experimentation objectives and experimental results and conclusions
  2. Please use the appendix to provide a logbook with the contributions of each member of the group
  3. The minimum length of the report is 3500 words with at least 6 screenshots from experimental development-testing.

 

 

PHYSICS

Q1. Calculate the magnetic field in a Toroidal ring

3.5. A laminated toroidal iron core has a mean magnetic path of diameter 15 cm and relative permeability 1000. The core has a circular cross-section of diameter 2 cm and a coil with 100 turns. The flux density in the core is 1T. Calculate

(a)the value of magnetic field strength H in the core
(b)the required coil mmf.
(c)the coil current
(d)the coil flux
(e)the coil flux linkage
(f) the coil inductance from the coil flux-linkage

 

Q2. What are the inductive and deductive methods of science? How they are involved in technology?

  • Discuss the differences between inductive and deductive methods of science
  • Elaborate on how they are involved in technology.
  • What is grounded theory?
  • The general rules to follow to apply the inductive and deductive method to technology
  • Approaches to follow to make the inductive and deductive methods successful

 

Q3. PHSC 210 Comparative Essay

Comparative Essay Instructions

Selection of Topic

Choose 1 of the following topics for your Comparative Essay:

  1. Age of the earth (radioisotope dating vs. alternative methods)
  2. Origin of coal (swamp forests vs. marine deposition)
  3. Dating the rock layers seen in the Grand Canyon (old earth vs. young earth)
  4. The fossil record (evidence of: long periods of time vs. short periods of time)
  5. Mass extinctions in the fossil record (old-earth vs. young-earth)

 

Content and Outline

Use the following outline when writing your paper. Each point on the outline below must be a separate section (with the section heading, as indicated) within your paper.

  1. Introduction
  • Indicate which topic you chose from the list above.
  • Indicate the purpose of your paper (i.e., to compare old-earth and young-earth viewpoints on your chosen topic).
  1. Old-Earth Secular View
  • What is the old-earth secular viewpoint and the evidence supporting that viewpoint on your chosen topic? Are there assumptions that are part of this viewpoint?

o   Do not discuss the old-earth creationist viewpoint on your chosen topic. For a description of old-earth creationism, go to http://www.icr.org/article/4535/.

III.                Young-Earth View

  • What is the young-earth viewpoint and the evidence for that viewpoint on your chosen topic? Are there assumptions that are part of this viewpoint?
  1. Comparison of the Viewpoints
  • Comparison is articulating similarities between the 2 viewpoints. What are the similarities (if any) in time, sequence, and processes involved?
  • Be sure to provide at least 2 similarities (comparisons) between the viewpoints.
  1. Contrast of the Viewpoints
  • Contrast is articulating differences between the 2 viewpoints. What are the differences (if any) in time, sequence, and processes involved?
  • Be sure to provide at least 2 differences (contrasts) between the viewpoints.
  1. Conclusion
  • Provide a summary statement for your paper.
  • Be sure to restate your purpose.
  • Do not introduce new material in your conclusion.

 

Avoid using first person throughout the paper. Use of “I” or “we” should be avoided.

 

Length

This paper must be 1,000–1,500 words. Do not exceed this word limit. The title page and reference page do not count toward this word total.

 

Format

You must use current APA formatting. Papers must be double-spaced with 1-inch margins. Font is to be 12-point Times New Roman. Include a cover or title page with:

Ø  paper title

Ø  your name

Ø  instructor’s name

Ø  course number, section number and course name (i.e., PHSC 210 B21, Elements of Earth Science)

Ø  date

There is no need to include an abstract in your paper.

 

Sources

Your Comparative Essay must include at least 4 scholarly sources in addition the course textbook and the Bible. Of these required sources, 2 must be from an old-earth perspective and 2 from a young-earth perspective. Acceptable sources include journal articles, manuscripts, scholarly textbooks, and/or internet sites from .edu or .gov sources. Avoid internet sites from .com, .net, .org, etc. as the information contained therein is not often peer reviewed. There are exceptions to this rule (e.g., the Institute for Creation Research site is a .org site, but it has been judged a reputable site by those in the young-earth community. Answers in Genesis is also acceptable.). In particular, avoid Wikipedia. Study Bibles are also not appropriate for this assignment.

 

Citation

Be sure to cite your sources in the body of your paper using current APA formatting. Examples of current APA formatting rules can be found here. Also, a presentation about current APA formatting is provided in Module/Week 6.

 

Plagiarism

Plagiarism is an academic infringement and a violation of Liberty’s Honor Code. To learn more about plagiarism and how to avoid it, visit this website. All submitted essays are subject to a SafeAssign review. This will compare your paper against thousands of other submissions.   Cases of plagiarism will be dealt with according to current policies established by Liberty University Online.

Submission

Submit your work to Blackboard as a Microsoft Word document. Do not paste your paper in the submission box in Blackboard, only upload the Word document. Do not submit as .pdf file.

Submit your Comparative Essay by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.

 

Title [This should be one of the 5 options from the instructions.)
Student name

PHSC 210-[Section]

Date

Instructor

Introduction

Old-Earth Secular View

Young-Earth View

Comparison of the Viewpoints

Contrast of the Viewpoints

Conclusion

[Content needs to be a bit more than 1,000 words and less than 1,500 words full credit. The Cover and Reference pages do not count in this word total. Delete all blank lines. Left align all text except headings and always indent the first line of each paragraph. ]

 

 

References

[At least 4 sources are required – at least 2 from each side of the debate – in the format below.]

Author(s) (year). Title. Publication. DOI or Retrieved from [url] [Use hanging indent format where the second line is indented as shown on this line and the line following. Please include an adequate number of sources for this essay other than your course texts (see assignment Instructions).]

 

 

Q4. PHSC 210 dISCUSSION 2

Discussion Board Forum 2 Prompt

Topic: Current Young-Earth Research

 

Thread:

In this 350 word (minimum) discussion board thread, you will choose from 1 of 10 current young-Earth Institute for Creation Research articles based on your interest. Follow these steps:

  1. Choose ONE of the following a current young-Earth articles from the list below.
    1. Oil, Fracking and Recent Global Flood (http://www.icr.org/article/oil-fracking-recent-global-flood/)
    2. Dinosaur Fossils in Late Flood Rocks (http://www.icr.org/article/dinosaur-fossils-late-flood-rocks)
    3. The Ice Age and Scattering of the Nations (http://www.icr.org/article/ice-age-scattering-nations/)
    4. Dinosaur Soft Tissues: They’re Real! (http://www.icr.org/article/4819)
    5. World’s Most Catastrophic Extinction (http://www.icr.org/article/worlds-most-catastrophic-extinction)
    6. Is there Geological Evidence for the Young Earth? (http://www.icr.org/article/there-geological-evidence-for-young-earth)
    7. The Ice Age: Causes and Consequences (http://www.icr.org/article/4788)
    8. Dinosaur Fossils Found in Marine Rocks…Again (http://www.icr.org/article/dinosaur-fossils-found-marine-rocksagain)
    9. One-Hour Oil Production? (http://www.icr.org/article/one-hour-oil-production/)
    10. Radioactive Decay Rates Not Stable (http://www.icr.org/article/radioactive-decay-rates-not-stable)

 

  1. Read the article by clicking on the matching link to the article in the Reading and Study Folder > Discussion Board 2 Article Links for this module (or copy and paste a link above into your browser).
  2. In 3 to 5 paragraphs, include the following in your thread:
    1. The author and title of the article.
    2. A summary the main finding(s) of the article.
    3. A discussion the significance of the findings.
    4. Your reasons for choosing this article.
    5. A short concluding sentence or two.
    6. (No bibliography is needed unless other sources are included. Cite using APA formatting. Also, provide in-text citations, as appropriate.).

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Replies: (Two 100-word replies are required)

After reading a classmate’s thread, answer the following questions in a minimum of 100 words:

  1. What most interested you about your classmate’s thread?
  2. Is there anything you want to add to your classmate’s thread?
  3. Are there any unanswered questions in the thread?

 

Submit your thread by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Thursday of the Module/Week of the assignment and submit your replies by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the same module/week.

 

Q5. PHSC 210 DISCUSSION 1

Discussion Board Forum 1 Prompt

 

Topic: Earth Science in Action

 

Thread:

Complete the following step-by-step process:

  1. Watch the presentation entitled “How to Find Articles for the ‘Earth Science in Action’ Assignment” in the Reading & Study folder for Module/Week 4.
  2. Explore the following 3 websites which are also available in the Reading & Study folder for Module/Week 4:

http://www.sciencedaily.com/news/earth_climate/geology/

http://geologytimes.com/

http://geology.com/news

  1. Find 1 article that interests you from 1 of the links above. Do NOT choose 1 article from each link.
  2. Read the article and take notes.
  3. Write a thread that addresses the following questions related to your chosen article:
  4. What is the title of the article?
  5. What is the web address for the article?
  6. Who is(are) the author(s)?
  7. What is(are) the topic(s) covered in the article?
  8. What new information have scientists found?
  9. Why is this new information important?
  10. What impact will this new information have on mankind and/or on science?
  11. What drew you to this article? That is, why did you find this article interesting?

 

Notes:

  1. The article chosen must have been written within the last 5 years.
  2. If you cannot answer all of the questions above, then you must choose another article.
  3. Do not look for the shortest article as it will most likely not contain sufficient information for this assignment.
  4. Be sure you do not merely list and answer the questions above. You must construct a well-written thread in narrative format with an introduction and conclusion. The following outline is recommended:
  5. Introductory paragraph (include article title, web address, author(s), and topic(s) covered)
  6. Paragraph discussing the new information found, why this information is important, and how this information will impact mankind and/or science
  7. Paragraph discussing your interest in the article
  8. Concluding paragraph
  9. Be sure to reference your article in a bibliography using current APA format. Also, provide in-text citations, as appropriate.

 

Replies:

After reading a classmate’s thread and reviewing the article at the hyperlink provided by the classmate, answer the following questions:

  1. What most interested you about the classmate’s thread and article?
  2. Is there anything fascinating about the article that the classmate did not identify?
  3. Would you recommend this article to someone else? Why or why not? Provide at least 2 reasons.

 

Submit your thread by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Thursday of Module/Week 4 and your replies by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the same module/week.

Q6. Flight Performance and Compressibility Effects Exercise

 

Complete the Aircraft Performance Exercise linked below. Review the Examples and Tutorials before you start solving the problems. Make sure that it is your own work and show work with references.

 

 

Exercise 7: Maneuvering & High Speed Flight

 

For this week’s assignment you will research a historic or current fighter type aircraft of your choice (options for historic fighter jets include, but are not limited to: Me262, P-59, MiG-15, F-86, Hawker Hunter, Saab 29, F-8, Mirage III, MiG-21, MiG-23, Su-7, Electric Lightning, Electric Canberra, F-104, F-105, F-4, F-5, A-6, A-7, Saab Draken, Super Etendard, MiG-25, Saab Viggen, F-14, and many more)

 

As previously mentioned and in contrast to formal research for other work in your academic program at ERAU, Wikipedia may be used as a starting point for this assignment. However, DO NOT USE PROPRIETARY OR CLASSIFIED INFORMATION even if you happen to have access in your line of work.

 

Notice also that NASA has some great additional information at: http://www.hq.nasa.gov/pao/History/SP-468/contents.htm.

 

  1. Selected Aircraft:

 

  1. Aircraft Gross Weight [lbs]:

 

  1. Aircraft Wing Area [ft2]:

 

  1. Positive Limit Load Factor (LLF – i.e. the max positive G) for your aircraft:

 

  1. Negative LLF (i.e. the max negative G) for your aircraft:

 

  1. Maximum Speed [kts] of your aircraft. If given as Mach number, convert by using Eq. 17.2 relationships with a sea level speed of sound of 661 kts.

 

 

For simplification, assume the CLmax for your aircraft was 1.5 (unless you can find a different CLmax in your research).

 

 

  1. Find the Stall Speed [kts] at 1G under sea level standard conditions for your aircraft (similar to all of our previous stall speed work, simply apply the lift equation in its stall speed form from page 44 to the above data):

 

 

  1. Find the corresponding Stall Speeds for 2G, 3G, 4G, and so on for your selected aircraft (up to the positive load limit from 4. above), using the relationship of Eq. 14.5. You can use the table below to track your results.

 

 

  1. Add the corresponding Stall Speeds for -1G, -2G, and so on for your selected aircraft (up to the negative load limit from 5. above) to your table. Assume that your fighter wing has symmetrical airfoil characteristics, i.e. that the negative maximum CL value is equal but opposite to the positive one. (Feel free to use specific airfoil data for your aircraft, but please make sure to use the correct maximum positive and negative Lift Coefficients in the correct places, i.e. CLmax in the positive part and highest negative CL in the negative part of the table and curve, and indicate your changes to the given example.)

 

Explanation: Making the assumption of symmetry simplifies your work, since the stall curve in the negative part of the V-G diagram becomes a mirror image of the positive side. Notice also that the simplified form of Eq. 14.5 won’t work with negative values; however, if using the G-dependent stall equation in the middle of page 222, it becomes obvious that negative signs cancel out between the negative G and the negative CLmax, and Stall Speeds can actually be calculated in the same way as for positive G, reducing your workload on the negative side to only one calculation of the stall speed at the negative LLF, if not a whole number.)

 

 

  1. Track your results in the V-G diagram below by properly labeling speeds at intercept points. Add also horizontal lines for positive and negative load limits on top and bottom and a vertical line on the right for the upper speed limit of your aircraft at sea level from 6. above. (Essentially you are re-constructing the V-G diagram by appropriately labeling it for your aircraft. Notice that the shape of the diagram and the G-dependent curve relationship is essentially universal and just the applicable speeds will change from aircraft to aircraft. Make sure to reference book Fig. 14.8 for comparison.)

 

 

 

G

VS

(kts)

PLL:
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
0
-1
-2
-3
-4
-5
NLL:

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Find the Ultimate Load Factor (ULF) based on your aircraft’s Positive Limiting Load Factor (LLF). (For the relationship between LLF and ULF, see book discussion p. 226 and Fig. 14.9):

 

 

  1. Find the Positive Ultimate Limit Load [lbs] based on the ULF in E. above and the Gross Weight from 2.?

 

 

  1. Explain how limit load factors change with changes in aircraft weight. Support your answer with formula work and/or calculation example.

 

 

  1. What is the Maneuvering Speed [kts] for your aircraft?

 

 

  1. At the Maneuvering Speed and associated load factor, find the Turn Radius ‘r’ [ft] and the Rate of Turn (ROT) [deg/s].

 

  1. I) Use Eq. 14.3 to find bank angle ‘f’ for that load factor (i.e. G). (Remember to check that your calculator is in the proper trigonometric mode when building the arccos).

 

 

  1. II) With bank angle from I) above and maneuvering speed from H., use Eq. 14.15 to find turn radius ‘r’.

 

 

III) With bank angle from I) above and maneuvering speed from H., use Eq. 14.16 to find             ROT. (Make sure to use the formula that already utilizes speed in kts and gives results in             degree per second).

 

 

  1. For your selected aircraft, describe the different features that are incorporated into the design to allow high-speed and/or supersonic flight. Explain how those design features enhance the high-speed performance, and name additional features not incorporated in your aircraft, but available to designers of supersonic aircraft.

 

 

  1. Using Fig. 14.10 from Flight Theory and Aerodynamics, find the Bank Angle for a standard rate (3 deg/s) turn at your aircraft’s maneuvering speed. (This last assignment is again designed to review some of the diagram reading skills required for your final exam; therefor, please make sure to fully understand how to extract the correct information and review book, lecture, and/or tutorials as necessary. You can use the below diagram copy to visualize your solution path by adding the appropriate lines, either via electronic means, e.g. insert line feature in Word or Acrobat, or through printout, drawing, and scanning methods.)

 

 

 

From: Dole, C. E. & Lewis, J. E. (2000). Flight Theory and Aerodynamics. New York, NY: John Wiley & Sons Inc.

 

 

Example Problems Module 8

GIVEN:

W= 25,000lb

Stall Speed @1G Level Flight = 125 KEAS= Vs1

S= 314.5 ft2

CLmax = 1.5

Sea Level Standard Day (σ = 1.0)

Utility Certification (+4.4G to -2.0G)

 

Find stall speed (KEAS) at 4.0 G (Vs2)

From the Lecture Notes and Dole & Lewis-page 222

VsKEAS =  =  =250 KEAS

or

Equation 14.5  Vs2 = Vs1   = 125 KEAS   = 250 KEAS

 

 

 

Find Va (Maneuvering Speed) (KEAS)

Equation 14.9  Va = Vs   = 125 KEAS   = 262 KEAS

 

Find Stall speed (KEAS), level flight  at 0.5 G

Equation 14.5  Va = Vs   = 125 KEAS   = 88.4 KEAS

 

 

Find Stall speed (KEAS) , level flight 60 deg bank angle

 

Equation 14.6  Vs2 = Vs1   = 125  = 176.8 KEAS

 

 

Find turn radius (r) and Rate of Turn (ROT) at 250KEAS and 70 deg bank angle level turn

 

Equation 14.15            r =    =  == 2020 ft

 

Equation 14.16            ROT() =     =  = 11.98 deg/sec

or approximated graphically using Figure 14.10

(Note: The figure has two scales for Bank Angle.  One you use for Rate of Turn (ROT) and the other you use for Radius of Turn (r).The example lines are for 70 degrees bank angle

 

 

Q7. Pecha Kucha Presentation on aging aircraft inspection and documentation

 

Please find the attachment for an abstract for your research paper on aging aircraft inspection and documentation. In this activity, you will prepare a Pecha Kucha presentation based on your topic proposal. Provide 10 slides, with a 20 second presentation for each slide, either in audio or caption format.

Important: Be sure to properly cite and reference sources for all content. Citations and references are required and must be in APA style/format. Make sure it is own work not from other sources.

Refer to the  Pecha Kucha Presentation Guidelines  for content and delivery format and guidelines.

Content Format Guidelines

This course uses a modified Pecha Kucha approach, in which each of the three Pecha Kucha Presentation activities require a varying number of slides presented in varying time frames. See each activity for specific content format guidelines. Discussion may be in either audio or caption format for the activities, with audio formats requiring an accompanying transcript.

  • Important: Be sure to properly cite and reference sources for all content. Citations and references are required and must be in APA style/format. Review the evaluation rubric to make sure that your presentation aligns to the grading standard.

Delivery Format Guidelines

The recommended presentation format for Pecha Kucha presentations in this course is a screencast, which records your slides and audio together in a single video file. However, you may also use a lower-tech approach, such as a traditional Microsoft® Office PowerPoint or Apple Keynote, combined with captions to convey your message. There are a variety of presentation software and authoring tools available online for you to develop your presentation. Review the document linked below for a list of some of the more popular tools. All of these tools offer either a free version or free 30-day trial. Examples/tutorials are often included on the product websites. Note: ERAU does not provide technical support on any products external to the Canvas learning management system.

Again, there is no specific presentation format requirement other than the guidelines outlined above. Think outside the box and be creative in your presentation!

Note: View the evaluation rubric in the each Pecha Kucha activity. Please read these instructions for information on accessing the rubric.Links to an external site.

Tips: Since this may be your first Pecha Kucha, ensure you understand what the concept is and how it works, then build your presentation and practice presenting it before recording, should you plan to create a screencast. When available, please also use streaming video links for any video recordings, as opposed to uploading complete video files to the course which are usually very large.

Accessibility Support: If your presentation uses audio, please include a written transcript. Some of the presentation authoring tools, such as Camtasia, affords the opportunity to convert its transcription files to Microsoft® Office Word format.

 

ABSTRACT

This paper is going to discuss about aging aircraft inspection and what documentation is required of aircraft in the general aviation industry that are past two decades. It would start out with the publication of the FAA produced entitled “Best Practices for Aging General Aviation Airplanes.” (Federal Aviation Administration, 2003).  This article published by the FAA was endorsed by three non-government aircraft organizations. This paper will get the source from the Hunt Library, internet researches, and utilize those sources to present information. Also would include feedbacks from pilots that operate and maintenance crews on the Civil Air Patrol Aircraft.

And some of the questions that will be brought up in this research paper would be what inspection approach existed before the Aging Aircraft Inspection criteria established by the FAA? What differences in approach did the international aviation community take and what are the differences from the domestic industry? Are they more or less comprehensive and if so how? If I would not be able to get the answer to the questions, I would focus on the requirements of the aging aircraft maintenance documentation.

 

Reference

Federal Aviation Administration (01/09/2015). Advisory Circular 120-84 Aging Aircraft Inspections and Record Reviews. Retrieved October 05, 2017, from www.faa.gov/documentLibrary/media/Advisory_Circular/AC_120-84.pdf

Parr, N. (1970, January 01). Aging Aircraft. Retrieved October 05, 2017, from http://parr-agingaircraft.blogspot.com/2014/07/documentation-for-aging-aircraft.html

Q8. Drag Exercise (Answer the questions on word file)

Complete the Drag Exercise with showing work. Need to be answered on the attached word file.

Make sure its own work and with showing work for the solution.

 

Exercise 4: Drag and Applications

 

The first part of this week’s assignment is to revisit our reciprocating engine powered (i.e. propeller type) aircraft from last week.

 

  1. Selected Aircraft (from last week’s module):

 

 

Make sure to review your data and results from last week and any feedback that you may have received on your work, in order to prevent continuing with faulty data.

 

 

 

  1. Main Wing Airfoil type & on-line database designator (from last week’s module):

 

 

  1. Aircraft Maximum Gross Weight [lbs] (from last week’s module):

 

 

  1. Wing Span [ft] (from last week’s module):

 

 

  1. Average Chord Length [ft] (from last week’s module):

 

 

  1. Wing Area ‘S’ [ft2] (from last week’s module):

 

 

  1. Find the Aspect Ratio ‘AR’ for your selected aircraft wing. (Use the wing span and average chord length from last week’s module/from above. See also page 63 in your textbook.):

 

 

  1. CLmax for your airfoil (from last week’s module):

 

 

  1. Standard sea level Stall Speed ‘Vs’ for your aircraft [kts] (from last week’s calculation):

 

 

Find the appropriate drag polar curve for your airfoil selection (2. above; from last week’s module). You can utilize any officially published airfoil diagram for your selected airfoil or use again the Airfoil Tool at http://airfoiltools.com/search .

 

 

 

 

 

 

Concentrate for this exercise on the Cl/Cd (coefficient of lift vs coefficient of drag) plot, i.e. the so called drag polar. Use again only the curve for the highest Reynolds-number (Re) selected (i.e. remove all checkmarks, except the second to last, and press the “Update plots” tab).

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. From the polar plot, find the CDmin value for your airfoil, i.e. the lowest value that the coefficient of drag ‘Cd’ (bottom scale in the online tool depiction) reaches. (Tip: for a numerical breakdown of the plotted curve, you can again select the “Details” link and directly read the lowest CD value in the table – third column, labeled “CD”):

 

What we’ve just found (…with some degree of simplification…) is the parasite drag coefficient for our airfoil, i.e. the drag that exists due to skin friction and the shape of our airfoil, even when little or no lift is produced. However, this value will only represent the airfoil, i.e. main wing portion of our aircraft; therefore, let us for the remainder of our calculations assume that our aircraft is a Flying Wing type design and the total CDP for the aircraft is the same as the CDmin that we’ve just found.

 

Let us also assume that we are at standard sea level atmospheric conditions and that our wing has an efficiency factor of e = 0.82.

 

  1. Prepare and complete the following table for your aircraft (with the data from 1. through 8. above). Start your first row with the Stall Speed ‘Vs’ (from 7. above) and start the second row from the top with the next higher full twenty knots above that stall speed. Then increase speed with every subsequent row by another 20 knots until reaching 300 kts. You are again encouraged to utilize MS® Excel as shown in the tutorial video and can also increase your table detail. However, the below depicted, and above described, interval is the minimum required for this assignment.

 

V

(KTAS)

q

(psf)

CL  

CDP

 

CDI

CD CL / CD DP

(lb)

DI

(lb)

DT

(lb)

VS
60
80
100
120
140
160
180
200
220
240
260
280
300

 

Equations for Table:

 

q =                                    CL =                   CDi =[1/ (πeAR)] CL 2                      

CD = CDP + CDi                       CD = CDP + [1/ (e AR)] CL 2                                  Dp = CDp q S

Di = CDi q S = [1/ (e AR)] CL2 q S                                   Dt = Di + Dp = CD q S

 

Answer the following questions from your table.

 

  1. I) Determine the minimum total drag ‘Dmin[lbs] (i.e. the minimum value in the total drag ‘DT’ column):

 

 

  1. II) Determine the airspeed at which this minimum drag occurs ‘VDmin[kts] (i.e. the speed associated with the row in which ‘Dmin’ was found):

 

 

III) Compare parasitic ‘DP’ and induced ‘DI’ drag at VDmin. What is special about this point          in your table?

 

 

  1. IV) Determine the maximum CL/CD value in your table (i.e. the maximum value in the CL/CD column) and the speed at which it occurs.

 

 

  1. V) Compare your results in IV) with II) and comment on your findings.

 

 

  1. VI) Explain which values in your table will directly allow glide performance prediction and how (Tip: Reference again the textbook discussion pp. 61-63).

 

  1. If the gross weight of your aircraft is decreased by 10% (e.g. due to fuel burn), how would the stall speed change? Support you answer with calculation as well as written assessment. (Remember, stall speed references and discussions can be found pp. 43-45 in your textbook.)

 

 

 

For the second part of this assignment use the given figure below (Figure 1.13 from Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators [1965]) to answer the following questions. (This assignment is designed to review some of the diagram reading skills required for your midterm exam; therefore, please make sure to fully understand all the diagram information and review book, lecture, and/or tutorials if necessary.):

 

Figure 1.13 from Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators (1965).

  1. What is the Angle of Attack at Stall for the aircraft in Figure 1.13?

 

 

  1. What Angle of Attack is associated with Best L/D?

 

 

  1. What would be the best Glide Ratio for this aircraft?

 

 

  1. What is the maximum coefficient of lift (CLmax) value?

 

Q9. Lift and Airfoils Exercise

Complete the Lift and Airfoils Exercise linked below. This exercise requires you to complete some on-line research on airfoil profiles and lift curves, which will familiarize you with another type of data depiction: charts and graphs.

Must show work and references.

Answers need to be added in the attached word file

Exercise 3: Lift and Airfoils

 

The first part of this week’s assignment is to choose and research a reciprocating engine powered (i.e. propeller type) aircraft. You will further use your selected aircraft in subsequent assignments, so be specific and make sure to stay relatively conventional with your choice in order to prevent having trouble finding the required data during your later research. Also, if you find multiple numbers (e.g. for different aircraft series, different configurations, and/or different operating conditions), please pick only one for your further work, but make sure to detail your choice in your answer (i.e. comment on the condition) and stay consistent with that choice throughout subsequent work.

 

In contrast to formal research for other work in your academic program at ERAU, Wikipedia may be used as a starting point for this assignment. However, DO NOT USE PROPRIETARY OR CLASSIFIED INFORMATION even if you happen to have access in your line of work.

 

  1. Selected Aircraft:

 

For the following part of your research, you can utilize David Lednicer’s (2010) Incomplete Guide to Airfoil Usage at http://m-selig.ae.illinois.edu/ads/aircraft.html or any other reliable source for research on your aircraft.

 

  1. Main Wing Airfoil (if more than one airfoil is used in the wing design, e.g. different between root and tip, pick the predominant profile and, as always, stay consistent):

Please note also the database designator in the following on-line tool (see picture below):

 

Find the appropriate lift curve for your Airfoil from 4. You can utilize any officially published airfoil diagram for your selected airfoil or use the Airfoil Tool at http://airfoiltools.com/search and text search for NACA or other designations, search your aircraft, or use the library links to the left of the screen. Once the proper airfoil is displayed and identified, select the “Airfoil details” link to the right, which will bring up detailed plots for your airfoil similar to the ones in your textbook.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Concentrate for this exercise on the Cl/alpha (coefficient of lift vs angle of attack) plot. Start by de-cluttering the plot and leaving only the curve for the highest Reynolds-number (Re) selected (i.e. remove all checkmarks, except the second to last, and press the “Update plots” tab).

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. From the plot, find the CLmax for your airfoil (Tip: for a numerical breakdown of the plotted curve, you can select the “Details” link and directly read the highest CL value, i.e. the highest number within the second column, and associated AOA in the table, i.e. the associated number in the first column):

 

 

  1. Find the Stall AOA of your airfoil (i.e. the AOA associated with CLmax in 3.):

 

 

  1. Find the CL value for an AOA of 5° for your selected airfoil:

 

 

  1. Find the Zero-Lift AOA for your airfoil (again, the numerical table values can be used to more precisely interpolate Zero-Lift AOA, i.e. the AOA value for which CL in the second column becomes exactly 0):
  2. Compare your researched airfoil plot to the given plot of NACA 4412 (http://airfoiltools.com/airfoil/details?airfoil=naca4412-il).

 

  1. a) How do the two CLmax compare to each other? Describe the differences in airfoil characteristics (i.e. camber & thickness) between your airfoil and the given NACA 4412,            and how those differences affect CLmax. (Use your knowledge about airfoil designation          together with the airfoil drawings and details in the on-line tool to make conclusions about )

                                                         

 

  1. b) How do the two Stall AOA compare to each other? Explain how the differences in airfoil characteristics (i.e. camber & thickness) between your airfoil and the given NACA           4412 affect Stall AOA.

 

 

  1. c) How do the two Zero-Lift AOA compare to each other? Evaluate how the differences in airfoil characteristics between your airfoil and the given NACA 4412 affect Zero-Lift AOA.

 

 

  1. Compare your researched airfoil plot to the NACA 0012 plot.

 

  1. a) How do the two Zero-Lift AOA compare to each other? Evaluate how the differences in airfoil characteristics between your airfoil and the given NACA 0012 affect Zero-Lift AOA.

 

 

  1. b) What is special about the design characteristics of NACA 0012? How and where could this airfoil design type be utilized on your selected aircraft? Describe possible additional       uses of such airfoil in aviation.

 

 

For the second part of this assignment use your knowledge of the atmosphere and the Density Ratio, (sigma), together with Table 2.1 and the Lift Equation, Equation 4.1, in your textbook (remember that the presented equation already contains a conversion factor, the 295, and speeds should be directly entered in knots; results for lift will be in lbs):

 

L = CL *  * S * V2 / 295

 

Additionally, for your selected aircraft use the following data when applying Equation 4.1:

 

  1. Research the Wing Span [ft]:
  2. Find the Average Chord Length [ft]:

      Note: Average Chord = (Root Chord + Tip Chord) / 2          (if no Average Chord is directly found                                                                                         in your research)

 

  1. Find the Maximum Gross Weight [lbs] for your selected aircraft:

 

  1. Calculate the Wing Area ‘S’ [ft2] based on your aircraft’s Wing Span (from 9.) and Average Chord Length (from 10.):

 

  1. Use the CL value for an AOA of 5° for your airfoil found in 5. above to simulate cruise conditions in the following exercise B. (Note it here for easier reference):

 

  1. Prepare and complete a table of Lift vs. Airspeed at different Pressure Altitudes utilizing the given Lift Equation and your previous data. (For the calculation of Density Ratio ‘ you can assume standard temperatures and neglect humidity.)

You can utilize MS® Excel (ideal for repetitive application of the same formula) to populate table fields and examine additional speeds and altitudes, but as a minimum, include six speeds (0, 40, 80, 120, 160, & 200 KTAS) at three different altitudes (Sea Level, 10000, 40000 ft), as shown below:

 

Calculate LIFT (lb) Pressure Altitude (PA) ft
Airspeed: 0 10,000 40,000
0 KTAS
40 KTAS
80 KTAS
120 KTAS
160 KTAS
200 KTAS

 

 

  1. I) What is the relationship between Airspeed and Lift at a constant Pressure Altitude? Evaluate each Altitude column of your table individually and describe how changes in       Airspeed affect the resulting Lift. Be specific and mathematically precise, and support   your answer with the relationships expressed in the Lift Equation.

 

 

  1. II) What is the relationship between Altitude and Lift at a constant Airspeed? Evaluate each Airspeed row of your table individually and describe how changes in         Altitude affect the resulting Lift. Be specific and mathematically precise, and support       your answer with the relationships expressed in the Lift Equation.

 

 

III) Estimate the Airspeed required to support the Maximum Gross Weight of your           selected airplane (from 11. above) at an Altitude of 10000 ft and flying at the given AOA    of 5°. (As initially indicated, a   more detailed table/Excel worksheet is beneficial to     precision for this task. To support the Weight of any aircraft in level flight, an equal    amount of Lift has to be generated – therefore, you can also algebraically develop the lift equation to yield a precise Airspeed result, i.e. substituting L=W and solving for V in the lift equation. Remember that conditions in this question are not at sea level.)

 

 

  1. In B.III) above, we noted that lift has to equal weight in order to sustain level flight. Using the same Maximum Gross Weight (from 11.), and the same Wing Area (from A.), calculate required AOA for level flight at the different airspeeds in your table under standard, sea level conditions (i.e. =1). You can start a new table or expand your existing one. (See also step by step instructions below the table.):

 

Airspeed (KTAS) Required Lift = Weight Required CL Corresponding AOA for your airfoil
0
40
80
120
160
200

 

First and similar to the note in B.III) above, develop the lift equation algebraically to yield CL results based on Airspeed inputs (i.e. substitute Lift with the aircraft Weight and solve the Lift Equation for the Coefficient CL; then insert the different Airspeeds into V, calculate the corresponding CL values, and note them in your table).

 

Finally, use your researched airfoil Cl/alpha plot (from 3. through 8.) to find corresponding AOA to your calculated CL values (enter the plot in the left scale with each calculated CL value, trace horizontally to intercept the graph for that CL value, then move down vertically to find the corresponding AOA and note it in your table (alternatively, you can also look up values in the detailed table):

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. I) Comment on your results. Are there airspeeds for which you could not find useful results? Describe where in the step by step process you’ve got stuck and why. Explain     what it aerodynamically means for your airfoil if a required CL value is greater than the          CLmax that you found in 3.

 

 

  1. II) What is the standard sea level Stall Speed for your selected aircraft at its Maximum Gross Weight? (Utilize above data and the Stall Speed Equation on page 44 of “Flight   Theory and Aerodynamics”).

 

Q10. Assignment 1: Applications of the Scientific Method

 

Assignment 1: Applications of the Scientific Method
The scientific method is useful in problem solving and decision-making in a wide variety of fields. In this assignment, you will demonstrate how to use the scientific method to make decisions and solve problems in your field of study or everyday life.

Identify a specific problem often faced in your field of study or everyday life. Research your problem and assess your data / research. Examples of such problems could be:

  1. Business
  2. Developing a new product that is superior to competitor’s brands; or
  3. Establishing a price for a new product using the law of supply and demand;
  4. Information Systems and Technology
  5. The use of personal electronic devices for work purpose, or
  6. Determining in the most cost-effective computer for your business;
  7. Criminal Justice
  8. The reliability of eyewitness testimony, or
  9. Determining what evidence reveals to you about a crime;
  10. Everyday Life
  11. Selecting a particular brand of detergent, or
  12. Determining the most cost-efficient transportation / route for your commute.

Write a three to five (3-5) page paper in which you:

  1. Explain the scientific method and describe the overall manner in which you would apply it in your field of study or everyday life.
  2. Propose one (1) testable hypothesis to explain / solve the problem you have selected. State the expected outcomes of your actions and include criteria for determining whether or not these actions would succeed. Note:Your hypothesis should be stated very precisely.
  3. Describe the main actions that you intend to put into place to test the hypothesis that you proposed in Question 2. Describe the way in which you would evaluate the success of your program. Include the results that you would deem as a success and the results that would be considered a failure.
  4. Discuss the wisdom behind the strategy you would use to test the hypothesis from Question 3, and describe the additional steps you might take, depending on the results of your test. Note:These additional steps might be to revise your original hypothesis (if the results were unsatisfactory) or to propose new hypotheses. The goal is to continuously improve your understanding of the factors influencing your outcomes, to be able to achieve greater results over time.
  5. Use at least two (2) quality resources / references in this assignment. Note:Wikipedia and personal blogs do not qualify as quality resources.

Your report must follow these formatting requirements:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Apply concepts in physical sciences to evaluate current trends and issues in the modern world.
  • Describe the physical processes influencing climate and weather.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in physical sciences.
  • Write clearly and concisely about physical sciences using proper writing mechanics.

 

MUSIC

 

Q1. Music homework assignment A grade

Until this January, few researchers did, either. In the largest-ever study of how parental involvement affects academic achievement, Keith Robinson, a sociology professor at the University of Texas at Austin, and Angel L. Harris, a sociology professor at Duke, mostly found that it doesn’t. The researchers combed through nearly three decades’ worth of longitudinal surveys of American parents and tracked 63 different measures of parental participation in kids’ academic lives, from helping them with homework, to talking with them about college plans, to volunteering at their schools. In an attempt to show whether the kids of more-involved parents improved over time, the researchers indexed these measures to children’s academic performance, including test scores in reading and math.

 

 

Q2. Using Music to Manage Duties

“pretend you are a pediatrican, a pre game football coach, and the owner of an expensive and sophisticated restaurant. Choose music for each of these duties keeping the role of music as physical and emotional stimulus in mind. Give detailed reasons why you programmed what you did for each and list your objectives”

 

 

Q3. Watch the film The Agony and the Ecstasy

Watch the film The Agony and the Ecstasy (1965) (dir. Carol Reed)

link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-LnVqkwSRbc

Finish the following questions

  1. The “Prologue”: Although the opening 12-13 minutes of the film appear to simply give a biographical account of Michelangelo’s life and a kind of inventory of his work, please consider why this feature film bio-pic opens with a kind of documentary-type introduction to the man – and to his (sculptural) work. Who is the target audience of this opening sequence? Is there any kind of rivalry or tension between the story of Michelangelo the man and Michelangelo the artist mapped out here, and how does the opening sequence either anticipate or differ from the shape of the rest of the film in this respect? How does the film art / the film as art compete with the ‘real’ art that is showcased in the “Prologue”? How does Michelangelo’s art in the film(the Sistine Chapel frescoes) compare to Michelangelo’s art as it appears in the “Prologue”?

 

  1. Charlton Heston and Rex Harrison were major mid-twentieth century actors. (Please note that they nevertheless appear not to have been the first casting choices for this film!). As it turns out, they did not get along during the making of the film. Think about the film as a star vehicle and the need for there to be (plot-driven) tension between the characters of Michelangelo and Pope Julius II, but also eventual resolution. Do you think the two men’s actual dislike for one another helped the character development in the film? How does Rex Harrison represent Julius II – as generous, as militaristic, as proud, as a believer? How does Charlton Heston portray Michelangelo – as proud, driven, a loner, a believer? How does the cinematography capture these traits in both cases? (HINT: Harrison as Julius II on his horse and the Papal throne vs. Heston as Michelangelo silhouetted against the sky in the mountains around Carrara (at 59 minutes). Finally: What do you make of the camera angle and sweeping view of the completed Sistine Chapel at 2 hours, 9 min.? Does the ceiling – rather than the actors – end up being the star of the show?

 

  1. The post-“Prologue” parts of Reed’s film are elaborately ‘choreographed’; its two parts (before and after the “Intermission”) contain multiple parallel scenes that ask the viewer to assess what kinds of developments occur as the story unfolds. Please consider the following patterns:
  2. The opening sequence of Part I in the quarry (carving out the marble that is headed for Rome to become a sculpture by Michelangelo) that then erupts into a battle scene vs. / and the opening sequence of Part II as Michelangelo (the artist) bursting into Julius II’s camp. Has anything changed in the status of the art object? What about the sequence near the end of the film when Michelangelo seeks out the (defeated) Pope in a military camp to as to be able to finish the ceiling? Or the very brief scene of cannons firing just before the final scene of the crowds gathered in the completed Sistine Chapel (at 2 hours, 7 min.). What is the relation between war / military activity and art in this film?
  3. The two entries of the Pope into Rome in Parts I and II – once in triumph, the second time in defeat.
  4. The multiple scenes when Pope Julius II is celebrating mass in the Sistine Chapel with negotiations about the ceiling / the actual painting of the ceiling interrupting the religious services. What is the relation between religious belief / faith, religious ritual, and art in this film?
  5. The multiple scenes between Michelangelo and the Contessina de Medici. Is there a development in their relationship? NB: Please note that it was and is well known that Michelangelo was homosexual. Why does Reed emphasize the relationship with the Contessina the way he does? Is there any subtle / indirect evidence of Michelangelo’s homosexuality in the film? (HINT: The scene in the brothel when the Pope’s men are searching for Michelangelo and the dark-haired young male apprentice who seems to be ever present in Part II…).
  6. The multiple scenes of direct conflict, but then also clever manipulation of Michelangelo by Julius II and vice versa. How does Julius II succeed in getting Michelangelo to go back to work after he has fallen from the scaffolding? How does Michelangelo provoke Julius II to recover from what appears to be his near death after his defeat in battle in Part II? Consider carefully the scene in Part II when the two of them meet up on the scaffolding and discuss the central fresco of the Creation of Adam (1 hour, 57 min. to 2 hours, 2 min.). What does Julius II see in Michelangelo’s depiction of God and Adam? Does he believe what Michelangelo believes? How does their final conversation in the Sistine Chapel relate to the conversation on the scaffolding? Is this some kind of buddy film?

 

  1. There are two main locations of the action of this film: the city of Florence and the city of Rome. Who and what are the main focus of attention in the respective cities? Who (what classes and / or institutions) sponsor art in these two locations? There are of course other unnamed cities in the film, and the quarry at Carrara; what do these locations represent? Consider especially the class politics of the quarry and the workers’ support of Michelangelo vs. the skepticism – at least in Part I – of the people of Rome vis-à-vis the Pope.

 

  1. Pay careful attention to the politics of the film – which are pretty accurate! What / against whom is Pope Julius II fighting and why? Who are his “enemies” (both locally in Italy and in the rest of Europe) and what countries / leaders are characterized as his friends. Why is he concerned to get the Papal States back under his control? NB: The clearest statement of the politics that Reed would have us think were at stake for Julius II are voiced by the Medici duke at 2 hours, 3 min. to 2 hours, 7 minutes.

 

  1. We see three of Renaissance Italy’s most famous artists depicted in this film: Bramante, Michelangelo, and Raphael. What pieces / kinds of art is each man most clearly identified with in the film? Where does Michelangelo stand on the matter of the relation of ‘modern’ Renaissance art to the art of the ancient Greeks (at 1 hour, 20 minutes to 1 hour, 24 min.)? What about Raphael (please note that what we see Raphael painting is his famous “School of Athens” in the Vatican Stanze at 1 hour, 31 min.)? Are there rivalries between the various artists? Do we see these artists producing alone (as great geniuses) or are they part of a team? Consider Raphael’s speech about patronage at 1 hour, 45 min. Does he accurately describe the situations of patronage depicted in / referred to in the film? Consider the ways that Julius II and Michelangelo constantly bicker about money.

 

Some more specific questions:

 

  • What was the original design for the Sistine Chapel ceiling, and what is the overall story of the final design? Why does Michelangelo destroy the first version?
  • What is the difference between Bramante’s scaffolding and Michelangelo’s scaffolding?
  • Describe what is (more or less accurately) shown to be the way that frescoes are designed and painted (at 43 minutes and at 1 hour, 9 minutes).
  • Where is Michelangelo considering fleeing to – and to do what – after he destroys the first version of the Sistine frescos?
  • Why does Michelangelo fall from the scaffolding?
  • Why does Julius II order the scaffolding taken down at 1 hour, 40 min.?
  • How does Julius II eventually pay for Michelangelo to finish the Sistine Chapel ceiling (at 1 hour, 55 min.)?

 

Q4. A Man for all Seasons

A Man for all Seasons all thing is available character and all scene describe 

 

Q5. The movie “A Man for All Season” and finish the viewing questions

the movie “A Man for All Season” and finish the viewing questions

Q1. SOC 205 Week 9 Case Study 2 I Pledge Allegiance To The Flag(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Case Study 2: I Pledge Allegiance to the Flag

Due Week 9 and worth 200 points

Religion and Politics have traditionally been highly debated topics in our society. Recently, the Pledge of Allegiance has added to this debate.

American citizens have generally recited the Pledge of Allegiance at important ceremonies ranging from presidential inaugurations to the beginning of the school day. The pledge has a great deal of sentimental value to many Americans, but also creates a great deal of controversy for others.

Review the Supreme Court case Elk Grove Unified School District v. Newdow, which highlights the debate.

Write a five to eight (5-8) page paper in which you:

  1. Summarize the salient points of the Supreme Court case Elk Grove Unified School District v. Newdow.
  2. Discuss the levels of the court through which the case evolved before it reached the Supreme Court.
  3. Explain the decision of the Supreme Court in this case in brief.
  4. Explain the fundamental impact that the court decision in question has had on American society in general and on ethics in American society in particular. Provide a rationale for the response.
  5. Discuss whether you believe that the recitation of the Pledge of Allegiance is a religious issue or a sign of respect for the United States.
  6. Discuss whether or not you think public schools should be allowed to recite the pledge.
  7. Use at least three (3) quality academic resources. Note:Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

  • This course requires use of Strayer Writing Standards (SWS). The format is different than other Strayer University courses. Please take a moment to review the SWS documentation for details.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Examine the current ethical issues inherent throughout the criminal and civil justice systems.
  • Describe the dispensation of justice through the criminal and civil justice systems.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in the criminal court and the judicial process in America.
  • Write clearly and concisely about the American court system using proper writing mechanics and SWS style conventions.

 

Q2. POLI 330 Week 2 Quiz Latest 2018…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK

Question 1

 

(TCO 6) Aristotle said that extreme democracies, pure oligarchies, or tyrannies can develop from what cause?

 

Communities where some possess much

 

Communities where some have nothing

 

All of the above

 

None of the above

 

Question 2

 

(TCO 6) Hobbes, Locke, and Rousseau would likely agree on which of the following?

 

Individuals join and stay in civil society.

 

Life is nasty and brutish.

 

Power resided with the proletariat.

 

Empirical research is important.

 

Question 3

 

3 / 3 pts

 

(TCO 6) Social contracts, the state of nature, and civil society are phrases that are best associated with _____.

 

the contractualists

 

Marxists

 

behavioralism

 

systems theory

 

Question 4

 

(TCO 6) Karl Marx used the term _____ to refer to everything built on top of the economy.

 

the social contract

 

institutions

 

behavioralism

 

superstructure

 

Question 5

 

(TCO 6) Which statement best supports Marxist theories?

 

The United States provides ample opportunities for all who work hard.

 

Similarities exist between economies in both Europe and the United States.

 

Tax breaks will often create jobs, benefiting the working class.

 

Uneven benefits to corporations with few benefits for workers led to the economic crises in the early 2000s.

 

Question 6

 

(TCO 6) Which of the following best describes classical liberalism and modern conservatism?

 

Classical liberalism is the opposite of modern conservatism.

 

Classical liberalism is similar to modern conservatism.

 

Neither classical liberalism, nor modern conservatism continues to exist.

 

Classical liberalism and modern conservatism were developed by Karl Marx.

 

Chapter 3, page 37

 

Question 7

 

(TCO 6) Thomas Hill Green might agree with which of the following?

 

No one is forced to take a job he or she doesn’t like.

 

Unions are necessary to protect workers against business owners.

 

Taxes should benefit business owners because they allow owners to hire more workers.

 

Markets regulate themselves.

 

Question 8

 

(TCO 6) Where do modern conservatives diverge from Adam Smith?

 

Adam Smith was resolute in his belief that markets produced fair outcomes, whereas modern conservatives are not.

 

Adam Smith believed government could help regulate market, but modern conservatives do not.

 

Modern conservatives believe government can help regulate markets, but Adam Smith did not.

 

Modern conservatives are resolute in their beliefs that markets are fair, but Adam Smith acknowledged that they could be unfair.

 

Question 9

 

(TCO 6) _____ prefer virtually no government involvement in anything.

 

Liberals

 

Conservatives

 

Marxists

 

Libertarians

 

Question 10

 

(TCO 6) _____ is an extreme form of nationalism.

 

Liberalism

 

Conservatism

 

Socialism

 

Fascism

 

Q3. PAD 515 Assignment 1 Theories Of Leadership(USE AS A GUIDE)

Assignment 1: Theories of Leadership
Due Week 4 and worth 150 points

For all assignments, assume that the City Manager has hired you as the Chief of Staff for your local government. The City Manager has tasked you with developing and implementing the government’s new million dollar grant funded Public Leadership Academy. The mission of the Public Leadership Academy is to provide ongoing training and development of the local government’s current and prospective public leaders. This program was developed in an effort to build and sustain world class public leadership that exemplifies exceptional leadership traits and skills, while fostering long-term relationships internal and external stakeholders and constituents. In the upcoming weeks, you will deliver your first presentation to the government’s local councilpersons, in which you address the type of public leadership model(s) that is both needed within the local government for its public leaders and required to fulfil the mission of the Public Leadership Academy.

After careful review and analysis of the steps needed to meet your goal, your first assignment is to revisit the theories and styles of leadership. You will examine the theories and styles that support the role of the public leader.

You may use the Internet and / or Strayer databases to complete any additional research.

Note: You may create and / or make all necessary assumptions needed for the completion of this assignment.

Use the basic outline below to draft your paper. Organize your responses to each question (except Question 4) under the following section headings:

  • Defining The Public Leader (for Question 1)
  • Leadership Theories (for Question 2)
  • Leadership Styles (for Question 3)

Write a four to five (4-5) page paper in which you:

  1. Determine two (2) leadership theories and two (2) leadership styles that support the definition of a public leader. Provide a rationale for your response.
  2. Assess the effectiveness of the two (2) leadership theories from Question 1. Provide two (2) examples for each leadership theory.
  3. Assess the effectiveness of the two (2) leadership styles from Question 1. Provide two (2) examples for each leadership style.
  4. Include at least four (4) peer-reviewed references (no more than five [5] years old) from material outside the textbook. Note: Appropriate peer-reviewed references include scholarly articles and governmental Websites. Wikipedia, other wikis, and any other websites ending in anything other than “.gov” do not qualify as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Evaluate the theories and models of public leadership.
  • Differentiate among the styles of public leadership.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in public leadership and conflict resolution.
  • Write clearly and concisely about issues in public leadership and conflict resolution using proper writing mechanics.

 

Q4. Discuss one effect that the two-party system of the USA

Third Party Candidates – Please respond to the following:

  • Discuss one effect that the two-party system of the United States has on the political interests of American citizens. Suggest one reason or strategy used by the two-party system to keep third party candidates from successfully running for president.

 

 

2pgs

 

Q5. SCI 110 Assignment 2 Global Warming Cause And Mitigation(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

SCI 110 Assignment 2 Global Warming Cause and Mitigation(6 pages word paper)

 

Q6. SEJPME Final Exam (Already graded A+)

 

SEJPME Final Exam

1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially       atomic                        battlefield?    [objective81]              vertical           envelopment beachhead    assault            tentative         landings        fleet dispersion

 

2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper         Fideles”
“Semper         Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”

 

3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32) mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard

4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council? [objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security

 

5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact

6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces

7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan

8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law

9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)

10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness

11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False

12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security

13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False

14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination

15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training

16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True

17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night

18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False

19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression

20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10

21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True

23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline, flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations

25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine

26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams. [objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors

27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton

28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war

29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security

30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force   development
force   planning
force training
doctrine

31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.

32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective

33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S. embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State. [objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)

34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)

35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess? [objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment

36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable

38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships

39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent

40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance

41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____ to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager

42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate

43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars

44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank

45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes: (Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military

46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war

47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False

48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command

49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams

50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective

 

Post Test
1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30

2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical

3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization

4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True

5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service

6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice

7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions

8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture

9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True

10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control

11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan

12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False

13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches

14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff

15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD

16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False

17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability

18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7

19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)

20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force

22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence

23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence

24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces

25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises

26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver

 

Pre Test (contains 50 Questions)

1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment

3rd Combat Aviation Brigade

2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information

economics

diplomacy

the military

3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True

4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force

subordinate unified command

5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences- both positive and negative.
critically think about

acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts

6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational

intermediate

7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe

maritime safety

maritime security

8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare

a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17

clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation

9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy

10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members

media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints

11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service
Life-Saving Service

Bureau of Navigation

12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True
False

13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war

when directed by the President

14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea”

Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy

15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process

16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system

initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system

17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct

network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct

18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve

19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent

60 percent
40 percent
30 percent

20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine

Law of warfare

21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities

major combat operations
forcible entry operations

22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects

assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction

23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True

False

24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador

Secretary of State

25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage

26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience

opposition
vulnerability
indifference

27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council

28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True
False

29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem

30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment

beachhead assault

31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort

command and control authority
unity of command

32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess

as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done

33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True
False

34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line

35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit

effort
workload

36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability

37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF)

Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)

38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True

39) Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought
onboard to combat the rat population, the practice continued to help keep the crew’s morale high.
False
True
40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly and ethically.
False
True

41) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you
are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning,
Sir,” in the case of an officer.
False
True
42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA)

Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)

43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries

cyberspace operations
major combat operations

humanitarian assistance

44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True

45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II

Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War

46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation

situational awareness
influence

47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests

48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic

ill-prepared
segregated

49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True

50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being.

Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”

 

Q7. POLI 330 Final Exam (Already graded A+)

POLI 330 Final Exam 

  1. (TCO 1) Which best explains the differences between historians and political scientists? (Points : 2)

Historians look for generalizations, and political scientists are reluctant to generalize.
Historians are reluctant to generalize, and political scientists look for generalizations.
Historians are more likely to look for comparisons than political scientists.
Historians tend to focus on nature-based explanations, and political scientists focus on nurture-based explanations.

 

Question 2. 2. (TCO 1) The notion that politicians think practically and political scientists think abstractly is indicative of which of the following? (Points : 2)

Political scientists often train politicians.
Politicians often train political scientists.
Political scientists and politicians are different in that the former studies the latter.
Political scientists and politicians are often indistinguishable.

 

Question 3. 3. (TCO 1) When people base their views on beliefs that may not be based in reality, they are behaving _____. (Points : 2)

irrationally
rationally
politically
legitimately

 

Question 4. 4. (TCO 1) A political leader’s ability to command respect and exercise power is known as _____. (Points : 2)

sovereignty
corruption
authority
legitimacy

 

Question 5. 5. (TCO 1) Despite a disputed 2000 presidential election, once President George W. Bush took office, few people doubted his _____. (Points : 2)

charisma
control
legitimacy
sovereignty

 

Question 6. 6. (TCO 1) Relating concepts in a way that connects them in an empirical manner is the basis of _____ building. (Points : 2)

scholarship
theory
power
culture

 

Question 7. 7. (TCO 1) A(n) _____ is an initial theory a researcher starts with to be proved with evidence. (Points : 2)

quantification
hypothesis
qualification
empirical

 

Question 8. 8. (TCO 4) Unlike natural law, positive law uses _____. (Points : 2)

the spirit of the law to make determinations
books to reach conclusions
judicial sentencing to determine case outcomes
jury selection to manipulate judgment

 

Question 9. 9. (TCO 4) Under which of the following circumstances might a case be pursued as both a criminal and a civil case? (Points : 2)

The federal government accuses investment houses of wrongdoing and investors who lost money sue them.
Drug traffickers violate property and federal law by moving drugs across state borders.
Burglars violate federal property and the state sues them for damages.
A state accuses banks of mortgage fraud in mortgages sold to investors elsewhere in the nation.

 

Question 10. 10. (TCO 4) Describe the significance of Marbury v. Madison. (Points : 2)

The ruling laid precedent for judicial review.
The ruling stated that the president is subject to the court’s decisions.
The ruling decreed that current administrations must honor the appointments of previous administrations.
The ruling claimed that federal taxes could not be levied on the states.

 

Question 11. 11. (TCO 4) What legal agency in the United States generates reputation-based ratings of prospective federal judges? (Points : 2)

Judicial Ratings Bureau
Federal Bureau of Judicial Review
American Bar Association
Office of Legal Assessment

 

Question 12. 12. (TCO 4) When was judicial review granted to the Supreme Court within the United States? (Points : 2)

It was granted during the Constitution Convention of 1787.
It was granted in the Bill of Rights.
It was the result of the Marbury v. Madison decision of 1803.
It was never officially adopted but is an unofficial practice.
 

 

Question 13. 13. (TCO 4) Which of the following best articulates the stance of judicial restraint advocates? (Points : 2)

Judicial review is the best and only true method of checking legislative power.
The court should practice restraint in cases in which legislative acts are presented for interpretation.
Only the executive branch can restrain the court, keeping the power of judicial review in balance with the other governing branches.
Only Congress should make public policy and, unless a legislative act clearly violates the Constitution, the law should stand.

 

Question 14. 14. (TCO 4) The Supreme Court’s decision in _____ (1954) triggered a revolution in American race relations, an area Congress had been unwilling to touch. (Points : 2)

Miranda v. Arizona
Dred Scott v. Sandford
Brown v. Board of Education
Gibbons v. Ogden

 

Question 15. 15. (TCO 5) Which systems demonstrate the clearest separation of power between the executive and legislative branches? (Points : 2)

Parliamentary
Presidential
Monarchies
Ministerial

 

Question 16. 16. (TCO 5) How often does the cabinet change in a parliamentary system? (Points : 2)

Every 4 years
Every 6 years
Every 8 years
When the cabinet is voted out or resigns

 

Question 17. 17. (TCO 5) Voters receive the most direct representation in which system? (Points : 2)

Parliamentary
Presidential

Electoral
Coalition

 

Question 18. 18. (TCO 5) The head of ministry is equivalent to the _____ in the United States. (Points : 2)

chief of government
head of state
departmental secretary
premier

 

Page 2 – Multiple Choice

  1. (TCO 5) The only political system that could guarantee the cooperation between the legislative and executive branches is _____. (Points : 2)

a monarchy
a dictatorship
a democracy
an oligarchy

 

Question 2. 2. (TCO 5) In the case of both parliamentary and presidential systems, examine the reason democracies will not vanish, even though the executive seems to be receiving more and more power. (Points : 2)

Checks and balances keep the chief executive from gaining too much power.
Chief executives will eventually have to face reelection, which depends greatly on the approval of voting citizens.
Both systems have methods by which to oust chief executives.
Subordinates carry out some of the workload of the chief executive.

 

Question 3. 3. (TCO 5) Explain which type of candidate parliamentary systems seek out to become ministers. (Points : 2)

Those who have experience winning elections and serving on a parliamentary committee
Newcomers who can bring in a fresh perspective to the ministry
Individuals who possess a great knowledge of the specific ministry’s area
Those who have political experience regardless of whether or not they have been elected in the past

 

Question 4. 4. (TCO 7) Radicals use the term political economy instead of _____,”which is a hard sell these days. (Points : 2)

late capitalism
Marxism
pure market system
utilitarianism

 

Question 5. 5. (TCO 7) Early 20th-century European governments subscribed to _____ doctrines, generally keeping their hands away from the economy. (Points : 2)

classic liberal
inflationary
neoclassical
Smithian

 

Question 6. 6. (TCO 7) Between 1965 and 1973, the percentage of Americans living below the poverty line _____. (Points : 2)

doubled
greatly decreased
slightly increased
rapidly increased

 

Question 7. 7. (TCO 7) Which of the following is an increasing financial concern of the Medicare program? (Points : 2)

The proportion of older people in American society is increasing steadily.
Every American citizen on reaching 65 obtains Medicare, regardless of class.
Economic inequality renders Medicare more necessary for some than for others.
Wealthy Americans are taking advantage of the Medicare system.

 

Question 8. 8. (TCO 7) Why are many politicians wary about limiting Social Security and Medicare expenses? (Points : 2)

Many would be left without enough to support them.
Caps to these programs would undermine the welfare state.
It can cost them votes.
Both are primary social safety nets.
 

 

Question 9. 9. (TCO 7) How does the American welfare state compare to those of other industrialized nations? (Points : 2)

Much less is allocated to welfare in the United States.
Other nations allocate less to welfare than the United States.
The United States allocates about the same to welfare.
Few nations besides the United States maintain funds for welfare.

 

Question 10. 10. (TCO 7) Theoretically, what are the consequences if the government assumes the burden of bad loans? (Points : 2)

Citizens will default on their mortgages.
Banks will learn from their mistakes and pay back the burden with interest.
Ultimately, the government will profit.
Firms will be encouraged to continue their risky behavior.

 

Question 11. 11. (TCO 9) _____ is a small or moderate change that essentially leaves the system intact. (Points : 2)

Mass discontent
Reform
Dramatic system change
A coup d’etat

 

Question 12. 12. (TCO 9) Describe what can often happen in a changing society when, during times of prosperity, some people get rich faster than others. (Points : 2)

Jealousy is aroused.
Politicians pay more attention to poverty.
The very poor revolt.
Economists become confused.

 

Question 13. 13. (TCO 9) What is likely to happen if the people are unhappy and there is no organization to focus their discontent? (Points : 2)

They will almost surely turn to violence.
Not much will happen.
The people will organize themselves, regardless.
They will eventually find other means of achieving contentedness.

 

Question 14. 14. (TCO 9) What about U.S. agencies such as the Department of Homeland Security, the FBI, and the CIA make them so ill prepared to fight terrorism? (Points : 2)

They have extremely different missions when it comes to terrorism.
They are poorly funded.
They have a great deal of red tape to get through in order to be able to communicate.
They are often unwilling to communicate with each other.

 

Question 15. 15. (TCO 9) According to Hannah Arendt, the American struggle was indeed a revolution, perhaps history’s only complete revolution, _____. (Points : 2)

because it alone ended with democratic institutions.
because it became an example for other nations.
because it managed to route what was then the great world power.
because it alone ended with a new foundation of liberty instead of the tyranny that came after other revolutions.

 

Question 16. 16. (TCO 9) Does terrorism work? (Points : 2)

Rarely, and seldom without political and/or economic pressure
Rarely, but primarily when brought against democratic nations
Often, and without much need for political pressure to aid it
Often, but only with the assistance of economic and/or political pressure

 

Question 17. 17. (TCO 9) Hannah Arendt pointed out that rage is the fuel of revolution, but what is now the greatest cause of rage? (Points : 2)

The low level of education in developing nations
The enormous economic mismanagement in industrialized nations
The extreme violence utilized by industrialized nations against developing nations
The massive corruption now found in developing lands

 

 Page 3 – Essay

 

  1.  Evaluate Aristotle’s six types of government. In doing so, please be sure to list and define the categorizations. Please then assess how these classifications can be useful today to someone analyzing current governmental structures. (Points : 40)
  2. Explain the relationship between electoral systems and party systems. Answers should be sure to assess this question from the perspective of both proportional representation and single-member districts and provide examples to support your points. (Points : 40)
  3. The United States has utilized multiple forms of liberalism throughout its history. Please distinguish the specific characteristics of classical and modern liberalism and outline the evolution of these forms of liberalism within the United States. Please be sure to include specific historic examples to support your points. (Points : 40)
  4. Today’s world seems to be moving beyond sovereignty and toward supranational leadership to cooperate on issues of global importance. What are some of these issues? How might they be solved through supranational cooperation? Does such cooperation impede the sovereignty of independent nations? Please sure to include specific examples in supporting your points. (Points : 40)

 

 

 

Q8. POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elec

POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elections Multimedia

POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elections Multimedia Presentation

Create a multimedia presentation of 10 to 12 content slides on political parties, political participation, and the American campaign and election process.  Address the following in your multimedia presentation:

  • Describe the purpose and functions of political parties in the United States and the various ways American citizens can participate in the campaign and election process.
  • What are the function and purpose of caucuses and primary elections in political campaigns, particularly in the presidential election process?
  • What role do national political party conventions play in the presidential election process?
  • Describe the presidential general election campaign and the important factors and events that influence it.
  • What role does the media (TV, radio, the Internet) play in modern political campaigns?
  • What is the role and influence of money in the modern political campaign?

 

Include photos, illustrations, videos, or audio clips, as appropriate. Document the source of each media item you include in your presentation.

Note: A content slide does not include the presentation’s title slide and any slide(s) containing references.

Format your references consistent with APA guidelines. Include any citations in the speaker notes.

Submit your presentation using the Assignment Files tab

  • For Local Campus students, be prepared to deliver in-class a 10- to 12-minute oral presentation accompanied by your slides or multimedia enhancements.
  • For Online Campus students, provide detailed speaker notes for each content slide in the presentation file or in a separate Word document.

 

Q9. POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet

POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet

Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet.

Submit your assignment using the Assignment Files tab.

Electoral College Simulation Exercise

Please review the following chart which contains the Electoral College votes assigned to each state and the District of Columbia, and the popular vote results for each state and the District of Columbia in a simulated American presidential election.  Based on information contained in the chart determine the following

  1. The total popular vote won by Candidate A and Candidate B in the election
  2. Which presidential candidate, A or B, won the Electoral College vote for each state and the District of Columbia, and how many total Electoral College votes did Candidate A and Candidate B receive?. Assume for this simulation that all 50 states and the District of Columbia award their Electoral College votes on a “winner-take-all” basis

Name of StateNumber of Electoral College Votes assigned to statePopular vote for Candidate A cast in the statePopular Vote for Candidate B cast in the stateWhich Candidate, A or B, won the state’s Electoral College vote?

Alabama91,159,245749,948

Alaska3195,227112,878

Arizona111,089,449975,674

Arkansas6554,724478,912

California555,976,0486,350,244

Colorado91,076,1241,055,465

Connecticut7714,368824,202

Delaware3184,348190,229

District of Columbia390,108125,978

Florida294,129,9973,784,259

Georgia161,740,7761,508,254

Hawaii4200,454224,728

Idaho4376,989245,774

Illinois202,529,4272,615,226

Indiana111,257,0701,148,334

Iowa6740,291752,882

Kansas6645,822512,678

Kentucky8997,244878,421

Louisiana81,002,124924,855

Maine4332,427368,399

Maryland101,029,2781,257,722

Massachusetts111,284,5891,596,331

Michigan162,414,7772,391,872

Minnesota101,346,6761,431,624

Mississippi6649,442502,292

Missouri101,245,9781,440,356

Montana3259,129174,434

Nebraska5499,927276,321

Nevada6398,727412,012

New Hampshire4340,492332,638

New Jersey141,792,4421,874,209

New Mexico5369,284370,544

New York293,688,4213,828,477

North Carolina151,745,2281,628,476

North Dakota3197,245110,289

Ohio182,829,6872,777,421

Oklahoma7845,779624,552

Oregon7901,244904,100

Pennsylvania202,797,4942,840,542

Rhode Island4200,440210,402

South Carolina9850,050714,846

South Dakota3230,727154,786

Tennessee111,242,7971,096,385

Texas383,789,4593,598,334

Utah6500,450401,290

Vermont3122,774182,104

Virginia131,547,9941,607,747

Washington121,390,2241,420,462

West Virginia5364,449367,429

Wisconsin101,492,4211,477,202

Wyoming3130,757100,527

 

 

 

Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate A: _________

 

Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate B: _________

 

Total Popular Votes won by Candidate A: _________________________

 

Total Popular Votes won by Candidate B: _________________________

 

 

Q10. Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

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Click the link above to submit your assignment.

Students, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” in the Student Center.
Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.

Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

Research, review and analyze Korb v. Raytheon, 707 F.Supp. 63 (D.Mass. 1989). Based on your research and the case, write a 5-6 page paper in which you:

  1. Analyze and evaluate each case independently by providing the following (about two paragraphs per case):
  • Facts of the case
  • Issues
  • Rule
  1. Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech.
  2. Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information.
  3. Analyze and explain any challenges with employment law.
  4. Analyze and discuss the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
  5. Analyze and discuss any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
  6. Provide at least four (4) additional court cases that support your analysis.

Your assignment must:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Recommend how the legal system addresses critical issues faced by public officials to include freedom of the press, funding of government contracts, separation of church and state, public ethics law, hiring lawyers, and handling civil litigation.
  • Evaluate legal subjects relevant to public administration to include property, government contracts, employment, and torts.
  • Relate the administrative process, constitutional and statutory requirements, to the scope of judicial review of administrative agency decisions.
  • Assess legal decisions related to the administration of public goods.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in constitution and administrative law.
  • Write clearly and concisely about issues in constitution and administrative law using proper writing mechanics.

Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic/organization of the paper, and language and writing skills, using the following rubric found here.

 

Rubric:

Name: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

Description: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

 

  • Grid View
  • List View

 

Unacceptable Below 70% F

Fair 70-79% C

Proficient 80-89% B

Exemplary 90-100% A

PAD525-A3-1
1. Analyze and evaluate case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

PAD525-A3-2
2. Analyze and evaluate case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

PAD525-A3-3
3. Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

PAD525-A3-4
4. Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

PAD525-A3-5
5. Analyze and explain any challenges with employment law. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

PAD525-A3-6
6. Analyze and discuss the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense. Weight: 13%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 33.63 (9.09%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

Points Range:33.67 (9.1%) – 38.44 (10.39%)

Partially analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

Points Range:38.48 (10.4%) – 43.25 (11.69%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

Points Range:43.29 (11.7%) – 48.1 (13%)

Thoroughly analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

PAD525-A3-7
7. Analyze and discuss any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

PAD525-A3-8
8. Clarity and writing mechanics Weight: 10%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 25.86 (6.99%)

More than 6 errors present

Points Range:25.9 (7%) – 29.56 (7.99%)

5-6 errors present

Points Range:29.6 (8%) – 33.26 (8.99%)

3-4 errors present

Points Range:33.3 (9%) – 37 (10%)

0-2 errors present

PAD525-A3-9
9. Research and cite at least four (4) court cases that support the analysis. Weight: 5%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 12.91 (3.49%)

Researched and cited no court cases that support the analysis.

Points Range:12.95 (3.5%) – 14.76 (3.99%)

Researched and cited one or two (1 or 2) court cases that support the analysis.

Points Range:14.8 (4%) – 16.61 (4.49%)

Researched and cited three (3) court cases that support the analysis.

Points Range:16.65 (4.5%) – 18.5 (5%)

Researched and cited at least four (4) court cases that support the analysis.

Name:PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

Description:PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

 

LAW

 

Q1. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 3

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 3

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 3

Q2. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 4

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 4

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 4

 

 

Q3. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 2

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 2

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 2

 

 

Q4. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 1

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 1

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 1

 

Q5. Lexis Uni Supreme Court Research Search

Lexis Uni Supreme Court Research Search
Sign in to the Lexis Uni website and navigate to the Criminal Justice Home page. Under “Recent Supreme Court Decisions”, click on “View all Supreme Court Decisions for Criminal Justice”. Then, narrow your search by “violent crimes”
Locate two U.S. Supreme Court cases that discuss various types of criminal defenses.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word case analysis in which you identify and examine the types of criminal defenses that were used. Include the following:
Explain the nature and types of defenses used in the cases. What evidence was used to demonstrate the defense?
Explain the similarities and differences between justification and excuse. Describe how justification and excuse play a role in the cases.
Describe the outcome of each case.
Format your case analysis consistent with APA guidelines.

 

Q6. The significant role of agencies in the budget process in 813 words with APA Style

Question: Agencies implement policy through various methods. Either they enforce laws and regulations, manage programs or manage and/or disburse public funds. What roles do agencies in your state play in the budget process?

 

Q7. The significant roles that agency play in rulemaking in 553 words APA

Question: “Rulemaking is probably the most important political activity of bureaucracy. In fact, it is a large lawmaking operation that citizens do not even know exists.” (Smith, 2008) What specific roles do agencies play in your state in the rulemaking process? Hint: Research your state’s own administrative procedures act.

 

Q8. CJS 241 Week 3 Individual Assignment Police Personnel and the Community Paper(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper in which you address the following:  •  How do police agencies at the local, state, and federal level recruit, hire, and train employees?

?

  • How can agencies ensure they are promoting diversity by hiring women and minorities?
  • How significant is stress in police training? Why should it be included in training programs?
  • How does proper recruitment and selection assist with implementation of community policing by local agencies?
  • Include a summary of the discussion on the improper hiring practices article located by your collaborative group.
  • A minimum of three (3) references are required Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines. Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.

 

Q9. CPSS 210 Week 3 Correctional Support Staff Response Paper

Assume the role of correctional support staff dedicated to assisting prisoners with reaching personal goals for probation and inclusion into society. A university counseling professor has asked you to speak to her class about your experiences. To prepare for the visit, she has sent you the questions that the students will ask you.

Write a 750- to 1,050-word response paper in which you answer the following questions:

Describe the different types of cultures and subcultures you might face in prison.
Does the prison cultural influence the prison management culture?
Does the prison culture influence the way you determine treatment in prison?
How are mental health programs delivered in prison?
In your opinion, does prison help prepare prisoners to become law-abiding citizens?
List each question and your response to the question. Your paper’s format does not need to be consistent with APA guidelines.

 

Q10. LAW 531 Final Exam…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK

1) Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of a common law legal system?

  1. Requiring guilt be proven beyond a reasonable doubt
  2. The sole source of law is a comprehensive civil code
  3. An appeal process
  4. The making of law by the judges and the following of precedent

2) Which best describes the types of agency authority held by officers of a corporation?

  1. Vicarious authority
  2. Express and obvious authority
  3. Implied and apparent authority only
  4. Express, implied, and apparent authority

3) If an LLC fails to follow formalities such as keeping minutes of meetings, which of the following is true?

  1. Only the managers of a manager-managed LLC will lose limited liability.
  2. All members will lose their limited liability.
  3. This failure will not result in imposing personal liability on any member.
  4. Only the parties responsible for the failure will lose limited liability.

4) Martha started a flower shop as a sole proprietor. After 1 year, she was forced to close the shop because business was so bad. At that time, the business assets totaled $50,000, but the business liabilities totaled $125,000. Which of the following statements is true?

  1. Martha is personally liable for the additional $75,000.
  2. Martha’s business creditors can collect only the $50,000 of business assets.
  3. Martha’s business creditors can collect only the $50,000 now, but if Martha ever goes into business again, they can get the assets of the new business.
  4. Once Martha terminates the sole proprietorship; the business creditors cannot even get the $50,000

5) Partners of a general partnership

  1. Are protected from litigation against the partnership by statute
  2. Are liable for the obligations of the partnership only to the extent of their capital contributions
  3. Do not have to pay taxes on the profits of the partnership that are distributed to them
  4. Are liable for all the obligations of their partnership

6) Which of the following forms of alternative dispute resolution allows both parties to see the strengths and weaknesses of both sides of the case through the presentation of evidence?

  1. Negotiated settlement
  2. Mini-trial
  3. Mediation
  4. Conciliation

7) A ___________ is a court-appointed party who conducts a private trial and renders a judgment

  1. Fact-finder
  2. Arbitrator
  3. Judicial referee
  4. Negotiator

8) What is a form of alternative dispute resolution that is often used when the parties involved do not want to face one another?

  1. Arbitration
  2. Fact-finding
  3. Mini-trial
  4. Conciliation

9) Which of the following is true regarding mediation?

  1. A mediator often meets with both parties at the same time
  2. A settlement agreement is never reached with a mediator.
  3. A mediator does not make a decision or award
  4. If a settlement agreement is not reached in mediation, then the parties hire a new mediator

10) There are no accountants on the board of the Oriole Corporation, a privately held corporation. The board routinely relies on a Certified Public Accountant (CPA) to explain the financial situation of the corporation. Law 531 final exam. The board does not do an independent analysis of the CPA’s report. In these circumstances, the board is

  1. Violating a duty of loyalty
  2. Violating a duty to exercise due care
  3. Violating the business judgment rule
  4. Not violating any duty

11) Self-dealing by a director of a corporation can best be described as

  1. A breach of a director’s duty of notification
  2. A breach of a director’s duty of care
  3. A breach of the Business Judgment Rule
  4. There was no breach of duty

12) Which of the following is likely to be a breach of a corporate officer or director’s duty of care?

  1. Failing to anticipate a precipitous drop in consumer demand of the company’s product
  2. Failing to make a reasonable investigation of relevant facts
  3. Failing to predict the unexpected startup of a new competitor
  4. Failing to foresee a sudden rise in the interest rate

13) In what ways may officers and directors be protected by the corporation from liability for actions taken as an officer or director?

  1. The officer or director must purchase personal liability insurance to cover such losses.
  2. Have the corporation purchase liability insurance and indemnify the officers and directors
  3. Officers and directors cannot be protected from liability
  4. Officers and directors are automatically protected from liability by virtue of corporate

14) If a plaintiff voluntarily participates in a risky activity that results in injury, what is the most likely defense to a claim that the plaintiff assumed the risk?

  1. Contributory negligence
  2. Defendant was negligent per se
  3. Defendant assumed the risk under the “danger invites rescue” doctrine
  4. Comparative negligence

15) Mark is the treasurer of Sky-Hi Tech Corporation and, as such, he is responsible for protecting the assets of the corporation. One of Mark’s subordinates, Jill, is in charge of reconciling the monthly corporate bank statements. Law/531 week 5 final. Over a period of several months, Jill embezzled a large amount of money from Sky-Hi Tech, covering up the theft using her bank reconciliations. If Mark had adequately supervised Jill, she could not have embezzled this money. Mark’s actions (or inactions) constitute a breach of his duty of

  1. Due care
  2. Obedience
  3. Loyalty
  4. Good business judgment

16) Barry buys a new sports car. The car sits low to the ground and because of the styling; visibility to the rear is limited. About a month after Barry buys the car, he backs over his pet poodle as he is leaving for work. In his strict liability suit against the car manufacturer, Barry will

  1. Win because driving a sports car is an inherently dangerous activity
  2. Win on the basis of design defect
  3. Win on the basis of packaging defect because the car could have been packaged in a differently styled body
  4. Lose because he assumed the risk of backing up in a car when he could not see to the rear

17) If a judge rules that a party lost its case because of the Statute of Frauds, the judge has essentially stated which of the following?

  1. The losing party purposely deceived the other party about a material fact.
  2. The losing party will not be allowed to introduce evidence to contradict a written agreement
  3. The losing party cannot enforce an oral contract that should have been in writing
  4. The losing party was found by the court to have lied, and therefore will lose the case

18) What does the parole evidence rule do?

  1. It limits the ability of parties to written contracts from introducing certain evidence related to the contract.
  2. It sets the rules for admissibility of evidence relating to releasing a criminal from a prison term
  3. It sets the general rules for the admissibility of evidence in criminal actions
  4. It determines which contracts are required to be in writing

19) ABC LLC and XYZ Corp. entered into a contract whereby ABC is to supply XYZ with widgets. After receiving the first shipment of widgets, XYZ finds that the widgets, while meeting the physical standards specified in the contract, do not perform as XYZ anticipated. The contract is silent as to performance specifications, but XYZ suspects that ABC knew that it was manufacturing and supplying widgets that would not perform according to industry standard. XYZ initiates a lawsuit against ABC, alleging that ABC knowingly supplied defective widgets. What process will XYZ use to help it develop its case against ABC?

  1. Pleadings
  2. Motion for summary judgment
  3. Discovery
  4. Trial

20) Under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA), an employee’s benefits must vest

  1. Within 10 years
  2. By the time of the employee’s retirement
  3. In total within 5 years or gradually within 7 years
  4. Only as provided in the pension plan

21) Which of the following statutes provides that it is legal for employees to organize a union?

  1. The Norris-LaGuardia Act
  2. The National Labor Relations Act
  3. The Labor-Management Relations Act
  4. The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act

22) William was a factory worker at the Spruce Industries plant. When management found out that William is gay, he was fired. The plant’s action is

  1. Not prohibited under federal law
  2. A violation of Title VII
  3. A violation of the Equal Pay Act
  4. A violation of the Americans with Disabilities Act

23) Janet is manager of a bank. She has all the qualifications to be promoted to bank manager. In fact, she is better qualified than any of the men being considered for the position. However, the owner of the bank believes that bank customers will LAW/531 not accept a woman as bank manager, so the owner promotes one of the males. The owner’s actions would best be described as what?

  1. Quid pro quo
  2. Hostile work environment
  3. Gender discrimination
  4. Pregnancy discrimination

24) Which one of the following statutes allows a prevailing party to recover attorney’s fees in an action against the government for an action of an agency?

  1. The Freedom of Information Act
  2. The Government Compensation Act
  3. The Administrative Procedure Act
  4. The Equal Access to Justice Act

25) Which of the following would prevent someone from acquiring land by adverse possession?

  1. The person never had to fight the original owner to remain on the land
  2. The person lived on the land secretly so that the original owner would not find out he or she was there
  3. The person lived on the land without the original owner’s permission
  4. The person was the only person who lived on the land in question

26) Which of the following would be classified as tangible personal property, as opposed to other property categories, such as fixtures or intangible property?

  1. A freestanding desk
  2. Built-in cabinets in an office
  3. A copyright to a literary work
  4. A field of corn

27) As the CEO of a high tech company, you become aware that your chief competitor is working on a new computer program that will revolutionize your industry. You know that if you can find out several key functions about the new product, LAW/531 final exams your own programmers will be able to duplicate the function of the program without actually copying its code. Which of the following actions can you ethically take?

  1. Paying the garbage company to deliver the competitor’s garbage to you
  2. Hiring a former employee of the competitor and paying her a bonus to tell you the competitor’s secrets
  3. Hiring a researcher to review all available information about the competitor, including patents, types and names of employees hired, reports by the competitor, including all SEC filings
  4. Hacking into the competitor’s computer systems to find out what you need

28) From a practical perspective, what are some of the elements of Sarbanes-Oxley?

  1. Ensuring transparency, accountability and internal controls
  2. Ensuring companies are profitable
  3. Ensuring that CEOs do not make more than 10 times the lowest paid employee
  4. Ensuring that large shareholders do not have board representation

29) Under Title IX of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, the penalty for someone who certifies “any statements as set forth in subsections (a) and (b) of this section knowing that the periodic report accompanying the statement does not comport . . .” is. Law 531 final exam answer

  1. No more than $1,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 10 years, or both
  2. No more than $500,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 6 months, or both
  3. No more than $2,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 3 years, or both
  4. No more than $5,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 20 years, or both

30) Which is prohibited under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?

  1. High salaries for corporate executives
  2. Using an independent accounting firm for audit purposes
  3. Public companies making personal loans to their directors and executives
  4. Directors and executives attending board meetings on a regular basis

ANTHROPOLOGY.

 

Q1. ACBS 160D section 1: Should Animals Be Used For The Sport(S) In Rodeo. Graded A

 

ACBS 160D section 1:Should Animals Be Used For The Sport(S) In Rodeo. Graded A

 

ACBS 160D: Human and Animal Interrelationships

 

Term Paper Topics

 

Select one of these questions to answer:

  1. Should animals be used in medical research (e.g., research on cancer)?
  2. Should animals be kept in factory farms for human consumption?
  3. Should it matter how animals are housed and treated if they are going to be killed for consumption later? (e.g., Should it matter how animals are treated in slaughterhouses before they are killed for consumption? Should it matter how chickens or pigs are kept in factory farms if they are going to be killed for meat? )
  4. Should wildlife protection have a higher priority than commercial interests (e.g., Should the pygmy owl have a higher priority than the development of housing and businesses around Tucson?  Should wildlife be protected and hinder logging or oil pipelines?)
  5. Should animals be kept for human food consumption (i.e., should humans eat other animals)?
  6. Should animals be kept in zoos or aquaria?
  7. Should animals be used in circuses?
  8. Should horses be used for the sport of racing?
  9. Should animals be used for the sport(s) in rodeo (e.g., bull riding, bronc riding, calf roping)?
  10. Should animals be hunted (e.g., commercial big game hunting, state license hunting)?
  11. Should animals be used in modern warfare?
  12. Should children/adolescents raise animals for slaughter in youth programs such as 4H or FFA? (Is this desensitization or education?)
  13. Should elderly care facilities be requiredto allow the residents to keep pets?
  14. Should animals be used in religion?

 

 

Think of all the possible perspectives that might answer the question in different ways. Put yourself in their shoes of different people and answer the topic question. Examples of different perspectives:

 

o    Animal welfare proponents

o    Animal rights advocates

o    Food security proponents

o    Ethicists, philosophers

o    National and local economic / employment interests

o    Educators

o    Medical researchers

o    Parents

o    Small business owners

o    Family ranchers or farmers

o    Large-scale agriculturalists /factory farmers

o    Wildlife managers

o    Conservationists

 

EXAMPLE:

 

The question I selected is:

 

  1. Should animals be used in medical research (e.g., research on cancer)? 

 

My Thesis statement might be:

 

In this paper I will present alternative position on the topic of animal use for medical research, considering a variety of perspectives, and concluding with a position on animal testing that seems most justifiable.

 

The body of my paper would include these sections:

 

PRO: PERSPECTIVES IN FAVOR:

Yes- animals should be used in medical research

(Include at least 1 of these perspectives)

  • Some Medical researches hold this perspective because …

o   evidence, references

  • Some Parents may also hold this perspective because ….

o   evidence, references

  • Some Animal welfare proponents may also hold this perspective because ….

o   evidence, references

  • Some Ethicists / Philosophers hold this perspective because…

o   evidence, references

 

 

CON: PERSPECTIVES AGAINST

No- animals should not be used in medical research

(Include at least 1 of these perspectives)

  • Animal rights advocates hold this perspective because…

o   evidence, references

  • Other Medical researches hold this perspective because …

o   evidence, references

  • Some Ethicists / Philosophers hold this perspective because…

o   evidence, references

 

Q2. AnthropologyWhy is it inappropriate tKINDLY BE BRIEF AND STRAIGHT FOWARD IN YOUR ANSWER

WHY IS IT NOT APPROPRIATE TO DEPOSIT NON-WESTERN ARTIFACTS IN THE NATURAL COLLECTION OF HISTORY?

 

Writea 1,050- to 1,400-word paper in which your team compares the Normal Accident Theory to the Culture of Safety model.

Include the following in your paper:

  • Explain what factors can play a role in organizational accidents similar to the one highlighted in the scenario.
    • How do organizational processes give rise to potential failures?
    • How can certain conditions influence errors and violations within the workplace (e.g., operating room, pharmacy, intensive care unit)?

Q3. The red carpet cleaning

This is a bank statement of the evidence is well taken care of. I ensured that the drive would not be scratched, bent or even slightly destroyed. the container in which I placed the evidence was well labelled. the hand drive should be cushioned from any potential shock Potential Use of the Evidence This kind.

 

Q4. ANT208H5S FINAL STUDY QUESTIONS, 2016

ANT208H5S  FINAL STUDY QUESTIONS, 2016

 

Final exam is scheduled for April 20th from 1-4 pm in Gym A/B. Please check the Registrar website for updates or changes, and for which ROOM you will write in. If there is a room split, you must write the exam in the room location you have been assigned based on your last name.

 

These are SHORT ANSWER questions, which means about a paragraph or half a page, at most. Each questions is different, and some answers require more detail than others. Thus, read each question carefully so you understand the components of the question, and make sure to answer fully (all parts). Be concise but clear.

To help you study for the exam, it is a good idea to answer these questions completely in full, as you would on the final exam. However, it is suggested that you then come up key points or words to help you remember each answer, rather than try to memorize an answer in its entirely.  Good luck!

 

 

  1. What is popular culture? Define the concept in detail, and list two examples of popular culture.

 

  1. What is cultural anthropology and two of its guiding principles? Based on the reading and lecture (week 2), also provide two detailed examples of how cultural anthropologists are represented in horror films.

 

  1. Define semiotics and hermeneutics. Using one example from the Cormack article, explain how Tim Horton’s coffee (through its commercials) is a symbol of Canadian identity.

 

  1. Define discourse and colonial discourse. Provideone example of a colonial discourse and briefly describe what that discourse consists of.

 

  1. According to the readings and lecture (week 4), what is the national discourse produced at the Vancouver Olympics and why is this problematic? Please describe and explain your answer clearly and succinctly.

 

  1. Drawing from the “What is a Nation? The Appropriation of First Nations as Canadian” readings and/or lecture, provide an example of how either First Nations and other marginal members of society contested power (representations and discourses) at the Vancouver Olympics. Explain your example in some detail.

 

  1. Some scholars argue that the spread of Hollywood films globally is a form of cultural imperialism. What does cultural imperialism mean? Define and explain the concept in detail. 

 

  1. While Bollywood has achieved international success, many filmmakers wish to expand their market globally (i.e. to the U.S, Canada, and Britain). Briefly discuss two of the issues surrounding the question “can Bollywood go global?”

 

  1. How is managing your facebook profile like neoliberalism (use a neoliberalism logic)? Explain and provide two examples (week 5)

 

  1. Based on the article by Gershon (2011) or lecture (week 5), describe two ways facebook influences social relationships.

 

  1. Soap operas such asForbidden Love produce hegemonic discourses and reproduce societal norms. However, fans have edited and remade this soap into ‘webisodes,’ Christian & Oliver, as a form of resistance. Describe the changes made and how these changes subvert dominant norms.

 

  1. The lifestyle reality television show What Not to Wear (WNTW) is a space where identity is produced and remade. The authors argued that this is achieved through governmentality. Define governmentatity and explain how it works in the show WNTW to remake identity. 

 

  1. In his article about blackness in science fiction films, Russell (week 7) argues that blackness appears as avatarism. Define avatarism and provide two examples of avatarism in film. Describe your examples.

 

  1. In her article (week 8), Abu-Lughod (2002) discusses how Egyptian melodramatic serials are embedded with political and moral messages. What are these messages and how are these messages received by the lower economic classes? Explain in detail.

 

  1. Stuart Hall (week 8) argues that audiences read, rather than passively consume, popular culture. Although audiences actively construct meaning and interpret messages, this does not mean that they can construct ANY meaning. Identify and define the three possible reading positions.

 

  1. Based on the article Luo and Sun (2015) and lecture in week 10, explain two ways in which the Chinese dating showFei Cheng Wu Rao (“If You the One?”) produces sociocultural gender norms. In your answer, identify what gender norm is being produced.

 

  1. Jhally (2002) writes that we live in an “image based culture,” which has skewed our views of gender. According to his article, how can society reveal more of the “real world of substance?” Outline his four points and explain you answer using the Dove Campaign as an example (film: The Beauty Backlash, reading and film from week 11).

 

 

 

Q5. Please remember that you may utilize LIRN

PART I

Directions: Read the questions below and formulate a response to each that is at least one hundred words in length.  Please cite the textbook and external resources to support your answer (Wikipedia sources are not permitted).  List each resource used at the end of paper in the reference list section.  Please remember that you may utilize LIRN to help you search for resources.  You can visit the Academic Resource Center for a guide on how to utilize LIRN successfully
PART II: Journal

Using a minimum of three resources (Wikipedia.com is not an option) write a 1 to 2 page paper in APA format to discuss and review your own work, school, and life experiences in which the use of participant observation to gather data would have provided unique insights.  Identify the sides in the conflict.  Where did the “data” or information used by each side in the situation originate?  How, specifically, might the data gathered by a trained anthropologist, who adheres to the anthropological code of ethics, help each side understand the other?

 

 

Q6. Hlt 362v Exercise 36 The researchers

The researchers found a significant difference between the two groups (control and treatment) for change in mobility of the women with osteoarthritis (OA) over 12 weeks with the results of F(1, 22) = 9.619, p = 0.005. Discuss each aspect of these results.

The F-value is high enough at the 5% level of significance to suggest a significant difference between the control and treatment groups. The p-value 0.005 < 0.05, so this recommends a rejection of the null hypothesis, meaning that the control and treatment groups are found to be different.

State the null hypothesis for the Baird and Sands

 

Q7. Article The Real Legacy of Steve Jo

article The Real Legacy of Steve Jobs and the case about Jobs and Apple. If we consider the five functions of management, in which of the functions do you think that Jobs excelled??

Which of the five functions were his weakest??

 

article The Real Legacy of Steve Jobs and the case about Jobs and Apple. If we consider the five functions of management, in which of the functions do you think that Jobs excelled??

Which of the five functions were his weakest??

 

Q8. CJA 344 Police Influence on Society W

Public Opinions of Police and the Justice System Police Influence on Society Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper that describes how the historical development of policing in the United States relates to the current relationship between police and different
ethnic groups and social classes. • Support your discussion with examples from law enforcement practices, court procedures, corrections populations, or all three. • Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines. Please note that utilizing popular internet

Q9. How might you use probability theory in everyday living?

Week 2 DQ1

How might you use probability theory in everyday living?

 

Q10. Assignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity Constraints

Assignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity Constraints

 

 

 

ASTRONOMY.

 

Q1. Self-esteem in the work environment is

Unit II PowerPoint Presentation

 

Self-esteem in the work environment is crucial to the overall success of everyday business operations and functions for the employee and employer; therefore, it is important to identify healthy self-esteem development and how to overcome communication barriers.

Create a PowerPoint presentation (minimum of 10 slides) on how to overcome communication barriers—verbal and nonverbal (identify and explain with supported data and illustrations). You must use at least two sources with one being the textbook. Be sure to cite any sources used in a reference slide with proper APA formatting. The cover and reference slides do not count toward the total slide requirement. Also, use the speaker notes function to explain the content in detail for each of the slides.

Note: Keep in mind the 6×6 PowerPoint rule: slides should only include six to seven lines of content with no more than six to seven words per line. Also, illustrations should relate to the content being discussed—be creative.

Refer to the following tutorial from the Success Center on developing good PowerPoint presentations:

https://columbiasouthern.adobeconnect.com/_a1174888831/powerpointbestpractices/

Information about accessing the grading rubric for this assignment is provided below.

 

This Unit covers Chapters 3, 4, & 5 in the textbook on “Building Self-Esteem & Self-Confidence, Interpersonal Communications, & Interpersonal Skills for the Digital World”.   There is a PowerPoint presentation paper due and a Journal entry that centers on self-esteem and ways to improve it in the workplace.   The PowerPoint presentation is on communications flow and barriers that get in the way of quality communications.  Keep in mind that just providing slides with bullets and data doesn’t demonstrate that the student actually understands the information in the bullets so approach this assignment from the perspective that you and I are in the classroom alone and you are doing this presentation for me knowing that I have zero knowledge of the topics addressed on the slides.   Read the syllabus instructions carefully and be sure to comply with all the requirements.  Keep in mind that originality, presentation, graphics, and quality will be part of the grade along with your speaker notes.  This unit is a good next step from what was covered in unit one because interacting with employees and interpersonal skills require high self-esteem and confidence as well as good communications flow that are the focus of this unit.  In Unit three we will focus on developing quality teams and decision-making skills all of which are tied to what was covered in the first two units.

Let me know if you have a question.

 

DuBrin, A. J. (2015). Human relations: Interpersonal job-oriented skills (12th ed.). Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson.

 

 

Q2. What kind of information do you think

Based on Walmart’s success in the United States, many expected the company to quickly dominate the British market after it bought the Asda grocery chain in 1999. That did not happen; Walmart’s market share in groceries grew to a little more than half that of its biggest competitor, Tesco. Initially, Tesco’s sales and net income rose significantly while Walmart’s sales and net income increased at a much slower rate. More recently, Walmart has made small gains in market share, and Tesco has had small decreases. Walmart found out that Tesco is a formidable worldwide competitor. Tesco operates almost 2,400 stores in Britain in four different formats. It has a very successful operation in Central Europe, and it expanded to the United States with Fresh & Easy stores. In Korea, Tesco’s 174 stores thrived while Walmart gave up after an eight-year effort to succeed and sold its 16 stores. One of the biggest reasons for Tesco’s success is its use of technology. In 1995, Tesco started a loyalty card program, called Clubcard, and over 80% of its shoppers are members. Shoppers fill out an application in the store and receive a plastic card and a key fob in the mail that is scanned before they make a purchase. Tesco gathers massive amounts of data about its customers’ 15 million purchases each week. Sales data are analyzed and turned into information that provides Tesco with a significant competitive advantage. As traditional advertising loses effectiveness, these large stores of data allow Tesco to find new and creative ways to market its products.

REQUIRED • a.What kind of information do you think Tesco gathers .How do you think Tesco has motivated over 22 million customers to sign up for its Clubcard program? • c.What can Tesco accomplish with the Clubcard data it collects? Think in terms of strategy and competitive advantage. • d.What are some of the disadvantages to the Clubcard program? • e.Do an Internet search to find out how Tesco is doing in comparison to Walmart and other grocers and retailers. Write a few paragraphs explaining your findings.

 

Q3. Being a small-business owner such a

Being a small-business owner such as a custom framing store, a restaurant, a garage, or a specific small local business of your choice, apply the basic supply management principles to the acquisition of services.

  • Discuss the trade-offs of quantity, quality, and cost in a small business such as a custom framing store, a restaurant, a garage, or a specific small local business of your pick.
  • Planning systems such as MRP and CRP might be overkills for a small-business owner. Devise a simplified version of an MRP and/or CRP such as a supply planning chart or a supply planning template for a small local business. A local small business could be a custom framing store, a restaurant, a garage, or a specific small local business of your pick.

 

Q4. Internet Research: Cabin Environmental Control Systems

In this second Internet Research assignment, find an article in an aviation related journal or other current resource focused on cabin environmental control systems. Some examples of topics that could be used in your search would be aircraft pressurization systems, oxygen systems, air conditioning systems, and aircraft heating systems. Explain the design of the cabin environmental system, how it affects human physiology, and what would happen if the system malfunctioned. This is a general assignment, but intended to get you familiar with the resources available pertaining to aviation maintenance as well as to broaden your knowledge of cabin environmental control systems. Below are some recommended resources to get you started:

  • General Aviation News (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. https://generalaviationnews.com/
  • Aviation Week (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.http://aviationweek.com/
  • AVM Magazine (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. https://www.avm-mag.com/
  • DOM Magazine (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. http://www.dommagazine.com/
  • Hunt Library (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

After conducting your research, write a one to two page synopsis of your findings. Page requirements does not include your cover page and reference page.  Your submission is expected to be grammatically sound, free of spelling errors, and formatted according to the current APA Edition. Provide at least one in-text citation and separate reference page to support your research.

 

Q5. Review Questions

These review questions will broaden your application of a few key topics from the chapters and the Module 3 objectives . Answer all four questions. All references are required to be in current APA format.

  1. Discuss the importance of integrating the voice of the customer into all decisions under the concept of Quality Function Deployment (QFD).
  2. Describe service process design and the service encounter design.
  3. What is Design for Reliability?  Why is reliability important? Describe series and parallel systems?
  4. Describe Throughput and explain why the identification and elimination of bottlenecks are key to improving productivity.

Module Report Guidelines

  • 750-word minimum, not including Reference or Cover Page
  • Current APA format
  • Double Spaced
  • A minimum of 3 references, in the Reference section at the end of the paper, are required.

o    Two references must be scholarly, peer-reviewed, and from reputable sources.

o    One textbook reference is acceptable.

Module Review Guidelines

  • Current APA format

 

Q6. Airline Service Delivery

How do the service delivery requirements of a passenger airline provider differ from the service delivery requirements of a cargo airline service?

Requirements

Discussion Board Posting Requirements

  • Create a primary response on the discussion topic. This response should be 400 words minimumfor each question and with a minimum of two references. You are welcome to write more if you feel it is warranted. It is highly recommended that you post your initial responses no later than the fourth night of the module week so that your classmates have a good chance to read and reply before the end of the week.
  • Respond to at least twoof your peers. Provide cogent responses by either supporting or debating your fellow students’ posts, and explain your viewpoint(s) clearly. Be sure to justify your responses. Your responses should be at least 100 words each. You are welcome to write more if you feel it is warranted.
  • All references must be in current APA format.

 

Below are the two peers postings

 

There are two main “servicescapes” in the aviation world (Collier & Evans, 2015). Those of us who have flown/worked with cargo on a regular basis know that doing so is a lot easier than dealing with customers and human lives all day. The cargo world operates on the “lean servicescape” which basically means that it requires less human (and financial) input to operate efficiently. Although there are still deadlines for cargo and a lot of logistics that go into flight planning, cargo involves less work and less planning to ensure a successful, profitable and safe flight. Cargo airlines don’t need to spend extra money and time to deck their aircraft out with creature comforts, put good-looking customer service staff out at the check-in’s in the terminals, or maintain a corporate social presence like passenger airlines do. Passenger airlines operate on the “elaborate servicescape”, which, in essence, means that they have to do a lot more to maintain their business and keep customers happy. While passenger airlines have to deal with ticketing, meals, accommodations for disabled passengers, planning recurring flights, angry passengers when flights are canceled or delayed, and all of the other things that come with providing a service to humans over inanimate objects, cargo airlines just have to make sure that their flights are safe, on-time, and able to generate a profit. They still have a human operating component (employees such as load masters, pilots, managers, flight planners, MX personnel, etc) but it doesn’t need to be anywhere near as developed as a passenger airline’s.

 

Collier, D. A., & Evans, J. R. (2015). OM5 (5th ed.). Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.

 

How do the service delivery requirements of a passenger airline provider differ from the service delivery requirements of a cargo airline service?

The biggest difference, in my opinion, is that for all the people who fly for fun or business it’s that they will never get to see the cargo operations side.  Spending my entire military career in and around passenger and cargo aviation I have much experience dealing with both.  For example, Lockheed Martin developed the C-5 Galaxy and its primary mission is moving cargo, people, and equipment on a global scale.  Or it can be converted into one huge passenger jet by palletizing airline seats to the cargo floor.  In its “air-bus configuration the C-5 can carry 270 passengers” (Lockheed Martin C-5 Galaxy, 2017).

So quite frankly the simplest answers are passenger aircraft move people and cargo aircraft move cargo.  However, there are air carriers which have aircraft that move people and cargo as a combination.  As we compare the two, cargo and people air carriers our textbook says that “integrating all of the elements (for both) is necessary to design a service that provides value to customers and can create a competitive advantage” (Collier D., Evans J., 2015, p. 121).  In your spare time, if you have any, look up an airline, any airline and they will most likely have passenger flights and cargo flights with aircraft designated to each.

For example, I have researched a United States air carrier by simply searching U.S. Airlines cargo and came up with American Airlines.  Punch up the website and it states that “American Airlines provides more than 100 million pounds of weekly cargo lift to major cities in the United States, Europe, Canada, Mexico, the Caribbean, Latin America and Asia Pacific” (About AACargo, 2016).  The website also discusses facilities, services, and processes.

On the other hand, at the American Airlines passenger travel site, it is geared towards personal travel, vacation packages and incentives to fly with American Airlines.  The travel site supports passenger travel such as “Black Friday Savings, Connect Your World, and Relax Before the Runway” (Plan Travel, 2017).  Both websites however different are basically the same type of layout and relatively easy to use in my opinion.  They both provide their own unique “service-delivery system design” (Collier D., Evans J., 2015, p. 121) by focusing on the customer’s wants and needs.

Cargo air services provide cargo space to customers for personal and business applications to deliver goods and products to destinations where needed. Additionally, cargo air carriers utilize technology to track freight and provide customers tracking information as a service to follow their products throughout the shipping process.  Passenger air services deliver people from one place to another.  They also provide online service to plan, make, and purchase a person’s travel arrangements.

v/R

Ken

References

About AACargo. (2016). Retrieved from American Airlines Cargo: https://www.aacargo.com/about/aacargo.html

Collier D., Evans J. (2015). Operations Management. Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.

Lockheed Martin C-5 Galaxy. (2017). Retrieved from The Aviation Zone: http://www.theaviationzone.com/factsheets/c5.asp

Plan Travel. (2017). Retrieved from American Airlines: https://www.aa.com/homePage.do

 

Q7. You Tube Video Analysis Report

You Tube Video Analysis Report

Must be own works and with references

Please go to YouTube Video site and find a video that pertains to one of the following topics:

  • Computer Aided Design (CAD)
  • Computer Aided Manufacturing (CAM)
  • Computer Aided Engineering (CAE)
  • Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM)

In your paper write the following:

  • Describe the topic and specify what you learned from the video
  • Explain the pros and cons of this approach
  • Compare manual operations vs. the new computer-aided technology
  • Find at least two additional references to support your paper

 

 

Q8. Pecha Kucha Presentation: Aircraft Instrument

Every instrument has two parts, the sensing mechanism and the display mechanism. For this activity, choose one instrument from the three basic instrument classifications. The three classifications are the: flight instrument, engine instrument, and navigation instrument. Explain how the instrument works, what flight input it measures and is a glass cockpit (digital flight instrument display) beneficial, why or why not? Your Pecha Kucha should be no more than 15 slides of 20 seconds each. Be creative and think how you can incorporate other visual aids to add to your presentation!

 

Q9. Fuel System internet research paper

For this first Internet Research assignment, find an article in an aviation related journal or other current resource focused on an aircraft fuel system or subsystem. Explain the design of the fuel system or subsystem and how it affected the aircraft and any type of problems associated with this fuel system (e.g. fuel imbalance). This is a general assignment, but intended to get you familiar with the resources available pertaining to aviation maintenance as well as to broaden your knowledge of aircraft fuel systems. Below are some recommended resources to get you started:

  • General Aviation News (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.https://generalaviationnews.com/
  • Aviation Week  (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. http://aviationweek.com/
  • AVM Magazine  (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. http://www.avm-mag.com/
  • DOM Magazine  (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.http://www.dommagazine.com/
  • Hunt library  (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

After conducting your research, write a one to two page synopsis of your findings. Page requirements does not include your cover page and reference page. document. Your submission is expected to be grammatically sound, free of spelling errors, and formatted according to the current APA Edition. Provide at least one in-text citation and separate reference page to support your research.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q10. Order Winners and Order Qualifiers Report

Order Winners and Order Qualifiers Report

Make sure it is your own works and with references. 

Evaluate the two requirements for understanding your customers’ requirements:

Order Qualifiers:

  • Why must companies understand this requirement?
  • What can you do as an operations manager to improve this requirement?

Order Winners:

  • What is the main definition and why is it different than Order Qualifiers?
  • As a professional operations manager, what can you do to differentiate your company from the competition? Please provide examples.

Module Report Guidelines

  • 750-word minimum, not including Reference or Cover Page
  • Current APA format
  • Double Spaced
  • A minimum of 3 references, in the Reference section at the end of the paper, are required.

o    Two references must be scholarly, peer-reviewed, and from reputable sources.

o    One textbook reference is acceptable.

 

GENERAL QUESTIONS

 

Q1. HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019

 

Q2. HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019

 

Q3. HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019

 

Q4. PSYC305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019

psyc305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019

psyc305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019

psyc305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019

 

Q5. HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019

 

Q6. HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019

 

Q7. HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019

 

Q8. South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)

South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)

South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)

South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)

 

 

Q9. South university nsg5003 midterm exam 2019

Why is nasal congestion a serious threat young infants

How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult?a.An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s.b.An adult’s chest wall compliance is higher than an infant’s.c.An adult’s chest wall compliance is the same as an infant’s.d.An adult’s chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant’s

 

Q10. South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)

South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)

South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)

South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)

 

 

 

MATHEMATICS.

 

  1. Need help in Acct 211

 

I need some assistance with several of my accounting assignments.  Is anyone available to assist me with this?

Q2. MATH Week 7 – HT of Two Population Means and Proportions

 

Confidence Interval and Significance Test Problems for Two Population Means and Proportions

 

*****Notes to Tutor*****

Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.

 

 

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 1  of 3

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

Guidelines

  • Your work must be organized neatly and typed
  • Clearly indicate your name and the assignment number in the file name
  • Electronic copies of your work can be submitted as an attachment to the drop box
  • You need to hand in individual work. You may talk with each other about the problems
  • However, everything in the assignment must be your own work. You are not allowed to use

classmate’s Minitab Express output. Using Minitab Express output that is not your own is a

violation of academic integrity

  • No late assignments will be accepted

Instructions

The key steps to tests of significance are to state H0 and HA, calculate the test statistic, compute the pvalue,

and make a conclusion based on the given significance level. If you input the hypotheses and the

summary statistics into Minitab Express, Minitab Express will output the test statistic and p-value and

you will not have to do any complex calculations. Keep in mind that the results obtained from software

are not meaningful unless the correct null and alternative hypotheses are determined.

If the question requires a test of significance, your solution should clearly show the four steps to the

test. In addition, you should show that you have checked that the conditions for inference are met.

Step 1: State the null and alternative hypothesis. (Use “mu” or the symbol μ.)

Step 2: Calculate the test statistic.

Step 3: Find the p-value.

Step 4: State your conclusion in the context of the problem.

(Do not just say “Reject H0” or “Do not reject H0.”)

If the question requires a confidence interval, be sure to make a statement about the confidence

interval in context of the problem.

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 2  of 3

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

  1. (4 points) Professor Handy measured the time in seconds required to catch a falling meter stick for

12 randomly selected students’ dominant hand and nondominant hand. The Minitab Express file

contains these measurements. Professor Handy claims that the reaction time in an individual’s

dominant hand is less than the reaction time in their nondominant hand. Assuming that the

differences follow a normal distribution, test the claim at the 5% significance level.

  1. (4 points) The New England Patriots. The 2017 roster of the New England Patriots, winners of the

2017 NFL Super Bowl included 12 defensive linemen and 9 offensive linemen. The Minitab Express

file for this problem contains the weights in pounds of the offensive and defensive linemen. Use

this data set to test the claim that the defensive linesmen weigh less that the offensive linemen at

the 5% level of significance.

  1. (4 points) Stress and weight in rats. In a study of the effects of stress on weight in rats, 71 rats were

randomly assigned to either a stressful environment or a control (nonstressful) environment. After

21 days, the change in weight (in grams) was determined for each rat. The table below summarizes

the data on weight gain. Test the claim that stress effects weight. (Use a 10% significance level.)

Group n Sample mean Sample Standard Dev.

Stress 20 26 13.4

No stress 51 32 14.2

  1. (4 points) A study was conducted to investigate the effectiveness of hypnotism in reducing pain.

Results for randomly selected subjects are given below. At the 1% level of significance, test the claim

that the sensory measurements are lower after hypnotism (scores are in cm. on a pain scale). Assume

sensory measurements are normally distributed. Note: You do not need to type these values into

Minitab Express; the data file has been created for you.

Before 6.6 6.5 9.0 10.3 11.3 8.1 6.3 11.6

After 6.8 2.4 7.4 8.5 8.1 6.1 3.4 2.0

  1. (4 points) Nicotine patches are often used to help smokers quit. Does giving medicine to fight

depression help? A randomized double-blind experiment assigned 244 smokers who wanted to

stop to receive nicotine patches and another 245 to receive both a patch and the antidepressant

drug bupropion. After a year, 40 participants in the nicotine patch group and 87 in the patch-plusdrug

group had abstained from smoking.

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 3  of 3

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

Count that Abstained From Smoking Sample Size

Patch + bupropion 87 245

Patch Only 40 244

Is there a significantly higher proportion of the patients that receive the patch plus bupropion

abstaining from smoking than the patch only group? Carry out a test of significance at the 5%

significance level.

  1. (4 points) A random sample of individuals participating in a survey in 2000 was asked “Do you

favor or oppose the death penalty for murder?” The results were 130 out of 200 females favored

capital punishment and 188 out of 250 males favored capital punishment. Find an approximate

95% confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of females and males that

favor capital punishment. Based upon your confidence interval do you believe the proportion of

males that favor capital punishment is greater than the proportion of females that favor capital

punishment? Justify your answer.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Number Name Position Weight Line
97 Branch, Alan NT 325 Defensive Line
99 Buchanan, Michael DE 255 Defensive Line
74 Easley, Dominique DE 290 Defensive Line
98 Forston, Marcus DT 305 Defensive Line
95 Jones, Chandler DE 265 Defensive Line
94 Jones, Chris DT 309 Defensive Line
90 Moore, Zach DE 275 Defensive Line
50 Ninkovich, Rob DE 260 Defensive Line
96 Siliga, Sealver DT 325 Defensive Line
90 Smith, Will DE 282 Defensive Line
72 Vellano, Joe DT 300 Defensive Line
75 Wilfork, Vince DT 325 Defensive Line
61 Cannon, Marcus G 335 Offensive Line
63 Connolly, Dan G 305 Offensive Line
65 Devey, Jordan G 317 Offensive Line
71 Fleming, Cameron G 325 Offensive Line
67 Kline, Josh G 295 Offensive Line
77 Solder, Nate T 320 Offensive Line
66 Stork, Bryan C 310 Offensive Line
76 Vollmer, Sebastian T 320 Offensive Line
62 Wendell, Ryan G 300 Offensive Line

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Name

Course

Professor

Date

QUESTION 1

Differences as normally distributed.

Dominant Non dominant d
1 0.177 0.179 -0.002
2 0.21 0.202 0.008
3 0.186 0.208 -0.022
4 0.189 0.184 0.005
5 0.198 0.215 -0.017
6 0.194 0.193 0.001
7 0.16 0.194 -0.034
8 0.163 0.16 0.003
9 0.166 0.209 -0.043
10 0.152 0.164 -0.012
11 0.19 0.21 -0.02
12 0.172 0.197 -0.025
d-bar -0.0132
sd= 0.0164

Paired t test:

Let d =dominant-non dominant

Test statistic:

t=(-0.0132-0)/(0.0164/SQRT(12))

t=-2.78

df=12-1=11

p-value=tdist(2.78,11,1)=0.0090

As,p-value<0.05,we reject the null hypothesis.

There is sufficient evidence to support the claim that reaction time for dominant hand is less than non dominant hand.

 

 

 

 

 

 

QUESTION 2

The test statistic and critical point has been found by running the following R code:

off <- c(335,305,317,325,295,320,310,320,300)
def <-c(325,255,290,305,265,309,275,260,325,282,300,325)t.test(off,def,alternative=”greater”,var.equal=TRUE)
qt(0.95,19)

QUESTION 3
Hypotheses.
 The first step is to state the null hypothesis and an alternative hypothesis.

Null hypothesis: uStress> uNo Stress
Alternative hypothesis: uStress < uNo Stress

An analysis plan: The significance level is 0.10. Using sample data, we will conduct a two-sample t-test of the null hypothesis.

Analyze sample data. Using sample data, we compute the standard error (SE), degrees of freedom (DF), and the t statistic test statistic (t).

SE = sqrt[(s12/n1) + (s22/n2)]
SE = 3.6342
DF = 69

t = [ (x1 – x2) – d ] / SE

t = – 1.65

where s1 is the standard deviation of sample 1, s2 is the standard deviation of sample 2, n1 is thesize of sample 1, n2 is the size of sample 2, x1 is the mean of sample 1, x2 is the mean of sample 2, d is the hypothesized difference between population means, and SE is the standard error.

The observed difference in sample means produced a t statistic of – 1.65.

P-value is 0.052

Conclusion: Since the P-value (0.052) is less than the significance level (0.10), we have to reject the null hypothesis.

From the above test we have sufficient evidence in the favor of the claim that stress effects weight.

 

QUESTION 4

QUESTION 5

QUESTION 6

 

 

 

Before After
6.6 6.8
6.5 2.4
9 7.4
10.3 8.5
11.3 8.1
8.1 6.1
6.3 3.4
11.6 2

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Student Dominant Hand Non-dominant Hand
1 0.177 0.179
2 0.21 0.202
3 0.186 0.208
4 0.189 0.184
5 0.198 0.215
6 0.194 0.193
7 0.16 0.194
8 0.163 0.16
9 0.166 0.209
10 0.152 0.164
11 0.19 0.21
12 0.172 0.197

 

 

 

Q3. MATH Week 7 – HT of Two Population Means and Proportions

See Attachments

 

Confidence Interval and Significance Test Problems for Two Population Means and Proportions

 

*****Notes to Tutor*****

Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.

 

 

 

 

 

 

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 1  of 3

 

 

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

Guidelines

  • Your work must be organized neatly and typed
  • Clearly indicate your name and the assignment number in the file name
  • Electronic copies of your work can be submitted as an attachment to the drop box
  • You need to hand in individual work. You may talk with each other about the problems
  • However, everything in the assignment must be your own work. You are not allowed to use

classmate’s Minitab Express output. Using Minitab Express output that is not your own is a

violation of academic integrity

  • No late assignments will be accepted

Instructions

The key steps to tests of significance are to state H0 and HA, calculate the test statistic, compute the pvalue,

and make a conclusion based on the given significance level. If you input the hypotheses and the

summary statistics into Minitab Express, Minitab Express will output the test statistic and p-value and

you will not have to do any complex calculations. Keep in mind that the results obtained from software

are not meaningful unless the correct null and alternative hypotheses are determined.

If the question requires a test of significance, your solution should clearly show the four steps to the

test. In addition, you should show that you have checked that the conditions for inference are met.

Step 1: State the null and alternative hypothesis. (Use “mu” or the symbol μ.)

Step 2: Calculate the test statistic.

Step 3: Find the p-value.

Step 4: State your conclusion in the context of the problem.

(Do not just say “Reject H0” or “Do not reject H0.”)

If the question requires a confidence interval, be sure to make a statement about the confidence

interval in context of the problem.

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 2  of 3

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

  1. (4 points) Professor Handy measured the time in seconds required to catch a falling meter stick for

12 randomly selected students’ dominant hand and nondominant hand. The Minitab Express file

contains these measurements. Professor Handy claims that the reaction time in an individual’s

dominant hand is less than the reaction time in their nondominant hand. Assuming that the

differences follow a normal distribution, test the claim at the 5% significance level.

  1. (4 points) The New England Patriots. The 2017 roster of the New England Patriots, winners of the

2017 NFL Super Bowl included 12 defensive linemen and 9 offensive linemen. The Minitab Express

file for this problem contains the weights in pounds of the offensive and defensive linemen. Use

this data set to test the claim that the defensive linesmen weigh less that the offensive linemen at

the 5% level of significance.

  1. (4 points) Stress and weight in rats. In a study of the effects of stress on weight in rats, 71 rats were

randomly assigned to either a stressful environment or a control (nonstressful) environment. After

21 days, the change in weight (in grams) was determined for each rat. The table below summarizes

the data on weight gain. Test the claim that stress effects weight. (Use a 10% significance level.)

Group n Sample mean Sample Standard Dev.

Stress 20 26 13.4

No stress 51 32 14.2

  1. (4 points) A study was conducted to investigate the effectiveness of hypnotism in reducing pain.

Results for randomly selected subjects are given below. At the 1% level of significance, test the claim

that the sensory measurements are lower after hypnotism (scores are in cm. on a pain scale). Assume

sensory measurements are normally distributed. Note: You do not need to type these values into

Minitab Express; the data file has been created for you.

Before 6.6 6.5 9.0 10.3 11.3 8.1 6.3 11.6

After 6.8 2.4 7.4 8.5 8.1 6.1 3.4 2.0

  1. (4 points) Nicotine patches are often used to help smokers quit. Does giving medicine to fight

depression help? A randomized double-blind experiment assigned 244 smokers who wanted to

stop to receive nicotine patches and another 245 to receive both a patch and the antidepressant

drug bupropion. After a year, 40 participants in the nicotine patch group and 87 in the patch-plusdrug

group had abstained from smoking.

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 3  of 3

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

Count that Abstained From Smoking Sample Size

Patch + bupropion 87 245

Patch Only 40 244

Is there a significantly higher proportion of the patients that receive the patch plus bupropion

abstaining from smoking than the patch only group? Carry out a test of significance at the 5%

significance level.

  1. (4 points) A random sample of individuals participating in a survey in 2000 was asked “Do you

favor or oppose the death penalty for murder?” The results were 130 out of 200 females favored

capital punishment and 188 out of 250 males favored capital punishment. Find an approximate

95% confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of females and males that

favor capital punishment. Based upon your confidence interval do you believe the proportion of

males that favor capital punishment is greater than the proportion of females that favor capital

punishment? Justify your answer.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Number Name Position Weight Line
97 Branch, Alan NT 325 Defensive Line
99 Buchanan, Michael DE 255 Defensive Line
74 Easley, Dominique DE 290 Defensive Line
98 Forston, Marcus DT 305 Defensive Line
95 Jones, Chandler DE 265 Defensive Line
94 Jones, Chris DT 309 Defensive Line
90 Moore, Zach DE 275 Defensive Line
50 Ninkovich, Rob DE 260 Defensive Line
96 Siliga, Sealver DT 325 Defensive Line
90 Smith, Will DE 282 Defensive Line
72 Vellano, Joe DT 300 Defensive Line
75 Wilfork, Vince DT 325 Defensive Line
61 Cannon, Marcus G 335 Offensive Line
63 Connolly, Dan G 305 Offensive Line
65 Devey, Jordan G 317 Offensive Line
71 Fleming, Cameron G 325 Offensive Line
67 Kline, Josh G 295 Offensive Line
77 Solder, Nate T 320 Offensive Line
66 Stork, Bryan C 310 Offensive Line
76 Vollmer, Sebastian T 320 Offensive Line
62 Wendell, Ryan G 300 Offensive Line

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Before After
6.6 6.8
6.5 2.4
9 7.4
10.3 8.5
11.3 8.1
8.1 6.1
6.3 3.4
11.6 2

 

 

Student Dominant Hand Non-dominant Hand
1 0.177 0.179
2 0.21 0.202
3 0.186 0.208
4 0.189 0.184
5 0.198 0.215
6 0.194 0.193
7 0.16 0.194
8 0.163 0.16
9 0.166 0.209
10 0.152 0.164
11 0.19 0.21
12 0.172 0.197
 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q4. MATH Week 5 CI One Mean & Proportion

 

See attachment.

 

*****Notes to Tutor*****

Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.

 

 

 

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 1  of 2

MATH232 Week 05 Assignment

Confidence Intervals for One Population Mean and

Proportion

Guidelines

  • Your work must be organized neatly and typed
  • Clearly indicate your name and the assignment number in the file name
  • Electronic copies of your work can be submitted as an attachment to the drop box
  • You need to hand in individual work. You may talk with each other about the problems
  • However, everything in the assignment must be your own work. You are not allowed to use

classmate’s Minitab Express output. Using Minitab Express output that is not your own is a

violation of academic integrity

  • No late assignments will be accepted

Example Solution

You measure the weights of a random sample of 24 male runners 18 to 24 years old. The sample

mean is 60kg and sample standard deviation is 5kg. A local gym advertises that the mean weight

for this group of men is 62kg. Calculate a 95% confidence interval for the mean weight for male

runners 18 to 24 years old.

WORK YOU NEED TO SUBMIT:

I am 95% confident that the true mean weight for male runners 18 to 24 years old is between

57.9 and 62.1 kgs.

1) (5 points) The increasing cost of health care is an important issue today. Suppose that a

random sample of 36 small companies that offer paid health insurance as a benefit was

selected. The mean health insurance cost per worker per month was $124 with a

standard deviation of $32. Construct a 99% confidence interval for the average health

cost per worker per month for all small companies.

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 2  of 2

MATH232 Week 05 Assignment

Confidence Intervals for One Population Mean and

Proportion

2) (5 points) Salmon Farming. Researchers tested 150 farm-raised salmon for organic

contaminants. They found the mean concentration of the carcinogenic insecticide mirex to

be 0.0913 parts per million, with standard deviation 0.0495 ppm. As a safety

recommendation to recreational fishers, the Environmental Protection Agency’s (EPA)

recommended “screening value” for mirex is 0.08 ppm. Calculate a 99% confidence interval

for the mean concentration of mirex. Based upon your confidence interval, are farmed

salmon contaminated beyond the level permitted by the EPA? Justify your answer.

3) (5 points) In a survey of 284 smokers, 197 smokers reported that they wanted to quit smoking.

Compute a 90% confidence interval for the true proportion of smokers that want to quit smoking.

(Adapted from the American Lung Association)

4) (5 points) When 460 junior college students were surveyed, 100 said they have a passport. Construct

a 95% confidence interval for the proportion of junior college students that have a passport. Round

to the nearest thousandth.

5) Housing Starts The attached data set represents the number of housing starts predicted for the

2nd quarter of 2014 for a random sample of 40 economists.

  1. a) Draw a histogram of the data. Comment on the shape of the distribution.
  2. b) Draw a boxplot of the data. Are there any outliers?
  3. c) Discuss the need for a large sample size in order to use the Student’s t-distribution to obtain a

confidence interval for the population mean forecast of the number of housing starts in the

second quarter of 2014.

 

 

 

Housing Starts
984
1260
1009
992
975
993
1025
1164
1060
992
1100
942
1050
1047
1000
938
1035
1030
964
970
1061
1067
1100
1095
976
1012
1038
929
920
996
990
1095
1178
1017
980
1125
964
888
946
1004

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q5. Math Week 8 Assignment

For the test of significance questions, clearly indicate each of the formal steps in the test of significance.
Step 1: State the null and alternative hypothesis.
Step 2: Calculate the test statistic.
Step 3: Find the p-value.
Step 4: State your conclusion. (Do not just say “Reject H0” or “Do not reject H0”, state the conclusion
in the context of the problem.)

  1. A market research group is interested in comparing the mean weight loss for two different popular diets.
    The researcher chooses two random samples of participants for the two diet programs. For Diet A, the
    mean weekly weight loss for 10 participants was 1.5 pounds with standard deviation 0.4 pounds. For Diet
    B, the mean weekly weight loss for 12 participants was 1.2 pounds with standard deviation 0.6 pounds. At
    a 5% significance level, does this indicate that Diet A is better than Diet B?
  2. Random samples of 50 women and 50 men are taken at Norwich University. They are asked their reaction
    to increased tuition fees. Of the women, 23 favored the increase. Of the men, 19 favor the increase. At a
    10% significance level, does this indicate that a larger proportion of women favor the increase than men?
  3. A method currently used by doctors to screen patients for a certain type of cancer fails to detect cancer in
    15% of the patients who actually have the disease. A new method has been developed that researchers hope
    will be able to detect cancer more accurately. A random sample of 80 patients known to this type of cancer
    is screened using the new method and the method failed to detect the cancer in 8 patients. At the 5% level
    of significance, can the researchers conclude that the new method is better than the one currently in use?
    (Can they conclude that the new method fails to detect cancer in less than 15% of the patients who actually
    have the disease?)
  4. Beetles in oats. In a study of leaf beetle damage on oats, researchers measured the number of beetle larvae
    per stem in small plots of oats after randomly applying one of two treatments: no pesticide or malathion at
    the rate of 0.25 pound per acre. Below are the summary statistics. Compute a 95% confidence interval for
    the difference in the mean number of beetle larvae per stem for the no pesticide group and malathion group.

Group Treatment Mean, St. Dev,  n
1 no pesticide        3.47, 1.21, 13
2 malathion           1.36, 0.52, 14

  1. A coffee shop claims that its fresh-brewed drinks have a mean caffeine content of 80 milligrams per 5
    ounces. A city health agency believes that the coffee shop’s fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine
    content. To test this claim the health agency takes a random sample of 100 five-ounce servings and found
    the average mean caffeine content of the sample was 87 milligrams with standard deviation of 25
    milligrams. Does this provide enough evidence at the 1% significance level to claim that the coffee shop’s
    fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine content? (Adapted from Reader’s Digest Eating for Good
    Health.)
    6. In a recent survey of county high school students, 100 males and 100 females, 66 of the male students and
    47 of the female students sampled admitted that they consumed alcohol on a regular basis. Find a 90%
    confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of male and female students that consume
    alcohol on a regular basis. Can you draw any conclusions from the confidence interval?
    7. Does using premium gas increase your miles per gallon? A study was conducted with nine vehicles that can
    run on regular gas to see if using premium gas will get better gas mileage. Each car in our sample was
    randomly filled first with either regular or premium gasoline, and the mileage for that tankful recorded. The
    mileage was recorded again for the same cars for a tankful of the other kind of gasoline. Is there evidence to
    suggest that using premium gas will increase your miles per gallon? (Use 10% significance level.)
    Gas Mileage (mpg)
    Premium, Regular, Difference
    Vehicle 1: 19, 20, -1
    Vehicle 2: 35, 32, 3
    Vehicle 3: 34, 33, 1
    Vehicle 4: 18, 19, -1
    Vehicle 5: 40, 37, 3
    Vehicle 6: 26, 27, -1
    Vehicle 7: 36, 33, 3
    Vehicle 8: 28, 29, -1
    Vehicle 9: 34, 31, 3
    Mean:      30, 29, 1
    St Dev: 7.7, 6.1, 2.0
  2. Suppose the mean salary for full professors in the United States is believed to be $71,650. A sample of 15
    full professors revealed a mean salary of $74,250 with a standard deviation of $5,000. Can it be concluded
    that the average salary has increased using a 1% level of significance?

 

*****Notes to Tutor*****

Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Elementary Statistics

Week 08 – Part 2 of the Final Exam

Each question is worth 13.75 points.

For the test of significance questions, clearly indicate each of the formal steps in the test of significance.

Step 1: State the null and alternative hypothesis.

Step 2: Calculate the test statistic.

Step 3: Find the p-value.

Step 4: State your conclusion. (Do not just say “Reject H0” or “Do not reject H0”, state the conclusion

in the context of the problem.)

On your written assignment copy and paste the following statement. Please state that you agree with the

following academic honesty statement.

I pledge that all of the following work is my own and I am following the rules of conduct

consistent with Norwich University’s Academic Honesty Policy stated in the Student’s

Academic Regulations.

I have not and will not receive help from any outside source on this final exam. I have not

and will not use any resources such as classroom notes, previous quizzes, or any other course

material, other than a calculator, the hypothesis testing flow chart provided, the normal

table, and Minitab Express.

I will not aid any other student on this exam. I am aware that it is a violation of academic

honesty to share or receive any information about the exam with any other student.

  1. A market research group is interested in comparing the mean weight loss for two different popular diets.

The researcher chooses two random samples of participants for the two diet programs. For Diet A, the

mean weekly weight loss for 10 participants was 1.5 pounds with standard deviation 0.4 pounds. For Diet

B, the mean weekly weight loss for 12 participants was 1.2 pounds with standard deviation 0.6 pounds. At

a 5% significance level, does this indicate that Diet A is better than Diet B?

  1. Random samples of 50 women and 50 men are taken at Norwich University. They are asked their reaction

to increased tuition fees. Of the women, 23 favored the increase. Of the men, 19 favor the increase. At a

10% significance level, does this indicate that a larger proportion of women favor the increase than men?

  1. A method currently used by doctors to screen patients for a certain type of cancer fails to detect cancer in

15% of the patients who actually have the disease. A new method has been developed that researchers hope

will be able to detect cancer more accurately. A random sample of 80 patients known to this type of cancer

is screened using the new method and the method failed to detect the cancer in 8 patients. At the 5% level

of significance, can the researchers conclude that the new method is better than the one currently in use?

(Can they conclude that the new method fails to detect cancer in less than 15% of the patients who actually

have the disease?)

  1. Beetles in oats. In a study of leaf beetle damage on oats, researchers measured the number of beetle larvae

per stem in small plots of oats after randomly applying one of two treatments: no pesticide or malathion at

the rate of 0.25 pound per acre. Below are the summary statistics. Compute a 95% confidence interval for

the difference in the mean number of beetle larvae per stem for the no pesticide group and malathion group.

Group Treatment Mean St. Dev n

1 no pesticide 3.47 1.21 13

2 malathion 1.36 0.52 14

  1. A coffee shop claims that its fresh-brewed drinks have a mean caffeine content of 80 milligrams per 5

ounces. A city health agency believes that the coffee shop’s fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine

content. To test this claim the health agency takes a random sample of 100 five-ounce servings and found

the average mean caffeine content of the sample was 87 milligrams with standard deviation of 25

milligrams. Does this provide enough evidence at the 1% significance level to claim that the coffee shop’s

fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine content? (Adapted from Reader’s Digest Eating for Good

Health.)

  1. In a recent survey of county high school students, 100 males and 100 females, 66 of the male students and

47 of the female students sampled admitted that they consumed alcohol on a regular basis. Find a 90%

confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of male and female students that consume

alcohol on a regular basis. Can you draw any conclusions from the confidence interval?

  1. Does using premium gas increase your miles per gallon? A study was conducted with nine vehicles that can

run on regular gas to see if using premium gas will get better gas mileage. Each car in our sample was

randomly filled first with either regular or premium gasoline, and the mileage for that tankful recorded. The

mileage was recorded again for the same cars for a tankful of the other kind of gasoline. Is there evidence to

suggest that using premium gas will increase your miles per gallon? (Use 10% significance level.)

Gas Mileage (mpg)

Premium Regular

Difference

Vehicle 1 19 20 -1

Vehicle 2 35 32 3

Vehicle 3 34 33 1

Vehicle 4 18 19 -1

Vehicle 5 40 37 3

Vehicle 6 26 27 -1

Vehicle 7 36 33 3

Vehicle 8 28 29 -1

Vehicle 9 34 31 3

Mean 30 29 1

St Dev 7.7 6.1 2.0

  1. Suppose the mean salary for full professors in the United States is believed to be $71,650. A sample of 15

full professors revealed a mean salary of $74,250 with a standard deviation of $5,000. Can it be concluded

that the average salary has increased using a 1% level of significance?

 

Q6. Statistics Review

These terms include (i) population vs. sample; (ii) parameter vs. statistic; and (iii) margin of error (and how to apply it to determine the range of values –

Know the types of sampling methods (e.g., random, simple random, systematic, convenience, stratified, and cluster).

Know the difference between an observational study versus an experimental one (and related terminology, like retrospective, cross-section, prospective/longitudinal, treatment group vs control group, and placebo).

(i) qualitative/categorical vs. quantitative; (ii) continuous vs. discrete; and (iii) the four levels of measurement (nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio). The questions you will be asked will be fill-in-the-blank.

Know how to convert a number between scientific notation and standard notation

Given a graphical/pictorial representation of data (e.g., histogram, stem-and-leaf, frequency polygon, ogive, pie chart, and so on), be prepared to answer a question or two that will demonstrate your understanding of the picture/chart

 

 

Q7 Derive the formula to find sums of integers, squares, cubes, fourth power of integers

Derive or Evaluate the formula for

  • the sum of ‘n’ positive integers
  • the sum of the squares of ‘n’ positive integers
  • the sum of the cubes of ‘n’ positive integers
  • the sum of the fourth power of ‘n’ positive integers
  • the sum of consecutive even numbers
  • the sum of consecutive odd integers

 

 

 

Q8. Derive the formula for the sum of positive integers and sum of the square of positive integers

Explain/ walk through the concept by deriving the formula for

  • The sum of positive integers
  • the sum of the square of positive integers

 

Q9. Derive the formula for Sum of cubes and the sum of the fourth power of ‘n’ positive integers

Evaluate the sum of the square of positive integers

Evaluate the sum of ‘n’ positive integers of the fourth power.

 

 

Q10. Stats of Psyc help needed

 

 

 

Please see the attached file with my assigement. This for Statistics of Psychology. Thank you!

 

SPSS HOMEWORK 1

 

40 POINTS

 

 

Factual Informative Scenario Anecdotal “Identifiable Victim” Scenario
25

10

25

15

10

20

32

15

10

15

15

35

30

50

45

30

 

  1. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)

 

  1. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

 

 

 

 

Cooperation Competition
88

91

73.5

82

84

92.5

76

95

98

81.5

92

87

85

79

91

95.5

72.5

74

63

 

 

  1. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)

 

  1. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

 

 

 

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 1.

 

SOCIOLOGY

Q1. 1. According to Robert Putnum, a scholar of social capital discussed in Chapter 5 of the Conley

Write a 4-6 page essay on two of the following questions. Your total assignment should be 4-6 pages long, plus an additional bibliography page. Please be very careful to cite your resources, including the textbook and/or films carefully and correctly.

  1. According to Robert Putnum, a scholar of social capital discussed in Chapter 5 of the Conley text, people have less connection and trust in their neighbors and communities today than in the past, resulting in a decline in civic (public) engagement. Conduct research on his claim. Based on data you locate from academic sources, explain how and why people are being less engaged with their communities OR conversely argue that Putnam is incorrect and that civic engagement is occurring in other spaces (the internet for example). Avoid using anecdotal or personal experience for this essay and focus on and creating a persuasive academic argument.
  2. The United States has the highest incarceration rate in the world and about 1 in 34 Americans is under correctional supervision. Based on the theories and data presented in Chapter 6 of the Conley text, consider why this might be the case. What is causing the high incarceration rate? What role does racism, poverty, and masculinity play in this pattern? Next, evaluate the rehabilitative vs. punishment approach to crime reduction. Which one does the US employ? How effective is this approach and why might this be the case?
  3. Pascoe identifies a number of social issues or problems in her book, including, gender inequality, masculine dominance and violence/homophobia in schools. Choose an issue or concern that Pascoe raises and discuss her analysis of the issue.

o    Why is it a problem?

o    Where does the problem or issue come from?

o    How have those issues been discussed in our other readings?

o    What are some possible solutions?

 

Q2. SOC 110 Week 2 Creating an Agenda

Instructions:

Resource: Ch. 11 & 12 of Working in Groups

Create an agenda for a virtual team meeting on a topic of your choice.

Draw from your own experience working within a group with the goal of achieving a specific task. You may use your experience as a student working in a group, or develop a plan for a future learning team. Your agenda should include specific items requiring group discussion and

Consensus.

In addition to the agenda, write a 200- to 350-word summary of the following:

  • In a virtual meeting, how can you ensure a group is communicating effectively?
  • How can you ensure that each team member understands what the next steps are required to achieve the meeting’s goals?

Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your agenda and summary.

 

Q3. Caste systems in India

How does the caste culture in India work? Is it still being used? Bad effects of the caste system. Good effects of the caste system

 

Q4. Programs to counter teen age smoking

What are the various programs conducted by the National Cancer Institute (NCI) and Media Campaign Resource Centers to prevent teenage cigarette smoking?

 

 

 

Q5. What is the story of social mobility in your family?

What is the story of social mobility in your family? To what extent have there been shifts both across and within generations? What factors, such as family connections or historical events, contributed to the occurrence of your social mobility? Your journal entry must be at least 200 words. No references or citations are necessary.

 

220 words

 

think as american

 

Q6. SOC 100 Week 9 Assignment 3 Obesity In America(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

SOC 100 Week 9 Assignment 3 Obesity in America(4 pages word paper)

 

Q7. Comparing Factors that Lead to Underdevelopment

This assignment calls for you to select two Less Developed Countries (LDCs) and assess if there are any factors that are common to both as far as their development is concerned. Your two countries must come from the following list:

Burundi

Benin

Cameroon

Nigeria

Nicaragua

Guatemala

Central African Republic

North Korea

Angola

Ghana

Chad

Yemen

Eritrea

Cuba

Congo

Thailand

Egypt

Iran

Equatorial Guinea

Zimbabwe

Zambia

Oman

Ethiopia

Philippines

Congo

Liberia

Gabon

Bahrain

Tanzania

India

Guyana

Mexico

El Salvador

Lebanon

Honduras

Pakistan

Syria

Guinea

Kenya

Sri Lanka

Algeria

Gambia

Mozambique

Senegal

Malawi

Indonesia

Namibia

Vietnam

Morocco

Myanmar

Rwanda

Haiti

Sudan

Bolivia

Somalia

Kuwait

Mauritania

Mali

South Africa

Iraq

Botswana

Bangladesh

Tunisia

Niger

Libya

Malaysia

Uganda

Panama

 

Source: United Nations, 2014

It may help you to be familiar with the concept of poor governance, because this often plays a significant part in why a country is underdeveloped. According to the World Bank, governance is defined as how power is exercised in the management of a country’s economic and social resources for development. Therefore, if good governance is synonymous with sound development management, then poor governance means a government has failed to deliver desirable outcomes for its people. This could mean that officials are corrupt, not transparent with their decisions, unqualified to make decisions in the first place, or prone to make decisions based on racism, tribalism or ethnicity — all of which are very common practices in LCDs.

The most common factor used to decide whether countries are underdeveloped nations is through the Human Development Index. Countries that are underdeveloped in nature offer poor health care, few educational opportunities, a low average life expectancy, a low number of job opportunities, few recreational facilities, poor economic growth, a low standard of living and a poverty-stricken life.

Instructions:

Write at least a six-page paper, in which you:

  1. Identify the two LDCs (from the list above), which you will compare and assess. Explain why you chose these two countries.
  2. Analyze the features that the LDCs have in common using at least five of the following nine factors(clearly label the five factors using headings):
  3. geography
  4. extractive institutions
  5. governmental corruption
  6. internal or external conflicts
  7. shaky financial systems
  8. unfair judicial systems
  9. ethnic, racial or tribal disparities
  10. lack or misuse of natural resources
  11. closed (statist) economies
  12. Use at least seven credible sources. Wikipedia, encyclopedias, dictionaries, blogs and other material that does not qualify as reputable academic source work at the college level. Do not use sources that are older than seven years.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

  • Be typed, double-spaced (no extra spacing between paragraphs), using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
  • Citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date (do not include an abstract).
  • The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length. Graphs, tables and photographs are notcounted toward the length of the paper; only what you have written as text itself.

 

 

Q8. SOCS 185 Week 4 quiz (Already graded A+)

SOCS 185 Week 4 quiz

Question 1

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 4) Swedish Attorney, Bjorn Liar has been asked to lead a group that will decide which of his firm’s associates will be offered partner status. He’s been asked to be more expressive and to include everyone in the decision-making process. What leadership style should Bjorn use?

 

Authoritarian

 

 

Democratic

 

Laissez-faire

 

Bureaucratic

 

Political

Chapter 5

 

Question 2

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 4) Select the appropriate conclusion from Stanley Milgram’s experiment on authority and the infliction of suffering.

 

The results of sociological investigation can be shocking.

 

Thresholds of physical pain differ substantially.

 

 

People are surprisingly likely to follow not only the directions of legitimate authority figures, but also groups of “ordinary individuals.”

 

The conclusions from Solomon Asch’s study of conformity were incorrect.

 

During times of war, values toward authorities and violence change markedly.

Chapter 5

 

Question 3

0 / 2 pts

(TCO 4) A group of businesswomen meet on a monthly basis to assist one another in advancing their careers. They give each other job leads and advice. This group is an example of _____.

You Answered

 

a role connection

 

impression management

 

status assistance

 

a network

 

LinkedIn individuals

Chapter 5

 

Question 4

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 4) By working at a specific task, people are more likely to become highly skilled and carry out a job with maximum efficiency. This is the rationale for the bureaucratic characteristic of _____.

 

employment based on technical qualifications

 

hierarchy of positions

 

 

specialization

 

rules and regulations

 

impersonality

Chapter 5

 

Question 5

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 4) Which statement is true concerning intersexual people?

 

They are sexually attracted to both sexes.

 

They are attracted to neither sex.

 

 

They have both female and male characteristics.

 

They have no gender.

 

They are in the middle of gender reassignment surgery.

Chapter 6

 

Question 6

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 6) Pat Rearc argues that without norms controlling sexual behavior and thus giving the forces of sexual passion free reign, family life and the raising of children would be threatened. To which paradigm would Pat be aligned?

 

 

Structural Functional Theory

 

Symbolic Interaction Theory

 

Social Conflict Theory

 

Queer Theory

 

Exchange Theory

Chapter 6

 

Question 7

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 6) Emile Durkheim proposed several functions of deviance. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

 

Deviance affirms cultural values and norms.

 

 

Deviance provides employment for a large segment of the work force.

 

Responding to deviance clarifies moral boundaries.

 

Deviance encourages social change.

 

Deviance promotes social unity.

Chapter 7

 

Question 8

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 6) Travis Hirschi’s approach to deviance and control proposes that

 

Hirschi is a deviant spelling of Hershey.

 

deviance results from differential access to wealth.

 

deviance is a frustration of ambition.

 

individualism inhibits the deviance.

 

 

everyone finds at least some deviance tempting.

Chapter 7

 

Question 9

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 6) Which of the following is NOT a reason researchers have given for decline in violent crime?

 

 

Increased use of the death penalty

 

Reduction in the youth population

 

Changes in policing

 

Better economy

 

Declining drug trade

Chapter 7

 

Question 10

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 3) While a _____ system is social stratification based on ascription; a _____ system is social stratification based on both birth and individual achievement.

 

caste; crass

 

caste; classless

 

cask; class

 

mobility; closed

 

 

caste; class

Chapter 8

 

Question 11

0 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) According to the Davis-Moore thesis:

You Answered

 

Equality is functional for society.

 

World inequality results from the activities of global multinationals.

 

The greater the functional importance of a position, the more rewards a society attaches to it.

 

Stratification ultimately will be eliminated in the U.S., due to our meritocracy.

 

Viola Davis and Demi Moore are same actress.

Chapter 8

 

Question 12

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) _____ is the term for earnings from work or investments and _____ is the term for the total value of money and other assets, minus outstanding debts.

 

Income; personal property

 

Profit; income

 

Wealth; income

 

 

Income; wealth

 

Rent; net worth

Chapter 8

 

Question 13

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) _____ refers to the deprivation of some people in relation to those who have more, while _____ refers to a deprivation of resources that is life-threatening.

 

 

Relative poverty; absolute poverty

 

Absolute poverty; comparative poverty

 

Normative deprivation; non-normative deprivation

 

Comparative deprivation; incomparable deprivation

 

Absolute poverty; relative poverty

Chapter 8

 

Question 14

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 5) Marx claimed social stratification would end with the creation of a socialist economy. What was Weber’s view?

 

 

Weber thought socialism would reduce economic differences but also create a political elite, increasing differences in power.

 

Weber thought capitalism could not be changed.

 

Weber thought socialism would create a new high-prestige nobility.

 

Weber agreed with Marx.

 

Weber thought social stratification would only increase as the world became more industrialized.

Chapter 8

 

Question 15

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) Accounts Payable Administrator Imelda Czechs works for a small international corporation. This category of work can be described as _____

 

blue-collar work.

 

 

white-collar work.

 

pink-collar work.

 

fur collar work.

 

no-collar work.

Chapter 8

 

Question 16

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) Which type of slavery consists of employers holding workers by paying them too little to cover their debts?

 

Chattel slavery

 

Child slavery

 

 

Debt bondage

 

Debit slavery

 

Revolving credit slavery

Chapter 9

 

Question 17

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) Which of the following gives the correct order of stages of modernization according to W. W. Rostow?

 

High mass consumption, traditional, drive to technological maturity, and take-off

 

Traditional, drive to technological maturity, take-off, and high mass consumption

 

High mass consumption, traditional, take-off, and drive to technological maturity

 

 

Traditional, take-off, drive to technological maturity, and high mass consumption

 

Take-off, drive to traditional maturity, technological, and consume mass quantities

Chapter 9

 

Question 18

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) A social theorist who contributed to the development of dependency theory by tracing the growth of the capitalist world economy is

 

Max Weber.

 

Emile Durkheim.

 

Walt Rostow.

 

Oliver Clozov

 

 

Immanuel Wallerstein.

Chapter 9

 

Question 19

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) The model of the capitalist world economy is

 

Karl Marx’s view that the bourgeois nations, such as England, would dominate the proletarian nations, such as India.

 

Erving Goffman’s view that world peace would result from many types of nations interacting with one another.

 

Talcott Parsons’s view that the inequality that exists among nations is necessary for world stability.

 

 

Immanuel Wallerstein’s view of the global economic system as divided between certain industrialized nations that control wealth, and developing countries that are controlled and exploited.

 

Gerhard Lenski’s view that, as countries gain more technology, they move through levels of development.

Chapter 9

 

Question 20

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 5) _____ is a model of economic and social development that explains global inequality in terms of technological and cultural differences between nations and _____ is a model of economic and social development that explains global inequality in terms of the historic exploitation of poor nations by rich ones.

 

Dependency theory; modernization theory

 

Destiny; manifest destiny

 

Neocolonialism; colonialism

 

 

Modernization theory; dependency theory

 

Colonialism; neocolonialism

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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1.HIUS 221 American History Opposing Viewpoints Research Project: Part III – Research Paper

The topic I chose for this was the Boston Massacre and the project needs to be on “Could the Boston Massacre Have Been Prevented?” 

American History Opposing Viewpoints Research Project: Part III Instructions

Statement of Purpose or “Why Am I Doing This?”

The ability to perform solid research is a key to success in academics and professional life, but communicating that research in a clear and concise manner is equally as important. This part of the assignment provides you with the opportunity to develop writing skills—specifically in the areas of organization and use of proper grammar, mechanics, and style—and to show your ability to use sources with integrity.

Completing This Assignment:

For the topic selected in Module/Week 2 of the course and utilized again in Module/Week 4, you will complete in the actual body content at least an 800 word 3-page paper that presents the research conducted during the term.

The paper must be well organized and developed and provide a concise examination of the subject.

Utilizing the sources from Module/Week 4 that were closely connected to your original topic choice from Module/Week 2 give an extended paper overview of the event? Discuss your own arguments. Include opposing viewpoints you discovered in your research. As a result, did your opinions change? How?

Citations must conform to current Turabian citation style with properly formatted footnotes and bibliography for the 3 or more scholarly sources you use.

The title page and reference page do not count towards the total page count.

When you are finished, your assignment must be:

In a Microsoft Word (or compatible) document

Formatted, including:

12-point Times New Roman font

double-spaced

1-inch margins

Page numbers placed at the bottom center of each page of text (not including the title page)

Proofread carefully to ensure it is written in scholarly language with no grammar, spelling, or punctuation errors and conforms to the standards of mechanics and style expected at the university level

You must use the template for the assignment provided in Assignment site.

2.Psychology


Instructions
Research the psychological state of active shooters who enter an active shooter location.
Research the psychological state of police officers who enter an active shooter location.

Discuss in detail (3-5 well-developed paragraphs) the psychological state of active shooters versus the police officers who enter an active shooter location to neutralize them.  

3. Classical v. Bureaucratic Modles

Description

Compare and contrast the classical and the bureaucratic models of an organization. What values do they both rely on and why is this important for understanding government processes?

 Does the class think that the bureaucratic model will continue to have support as, the number of agencies and services the state provides continue to grow? Explain  

4. Unit 2 Discussion question

Description

The following summarizes the advice of one governor to his cabinet members as guidelines to give to their agency heads concerning the decisions they make: (1) stay within the budget, (2) avoid negative press coverage, and (3) abstain from actions that would start conflict between agencies. What if any directives or direction has the governor of your state provided to his/he cabinet secretaries that are consistent with or inconsistent with the admonitions listed above? Cite the sources which support your response including any policy statements, press conferences, press releases, newspaper articles or legislative commentaries. Hint: Online videos of press conferences are particularly informative.

5. Examining the Legal Environment

Description

Overview

Write a 4–5 page report in which you analyze data concerning CapraTek’s hiring and promotion practices.


Many U.S. laws, ordinances, and guidelines directly impact the hiring and selection process. 

Context

Organizations use several methods to find job candidates. The Assessment 2 Context document contains information about the complexities involved in recruiting, hiring, retaining, and promoting employees.

Questions to Consider

To deepen your understanding, you are encouraged to consider the questions below and discuss them with a fellow learner, a work associate, an interested friend, or a member of your professional community.

* How should organizations respond to allegations of workplace discrimination?
* What are significant legal issues that you need to be cognizant of during the recruiting and selection process? How would these issues affect the recruiting process for CapraTek’s regional sales representatives?
* As social media becomes a growing hiring influence because of its reach and information prospective applicants freely share, how can organizations protect themselves against charges of invasion of privacy?

Preparation

To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:

Read Chapter 6 of Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book


Read the scenario below.
Scenario
While planning for expansion, CapraTek is also concerned about its hiring and promotion practices at existing facilities. Management has asked for an analysis of the workforce in its flagship manufacturing facility. As the Recruiting Director for CapraTek’s major manufacturing facility you are concerned about the company’s hiring posture relative to women and minorities. Your manufacturing plant in a nearby major city especially worries you. You recently checked the latest statistics for the SMSA the plant is in and found the following:

* Females in the labor force: 35%
* Blacks in the labor force: 10%
* Hispanics in the labor force: 5%
* All other groups are 0%


To address your concerns you first looked at the selection statistics for the past 12 months. Note: This plant hires mostly unskilled laborers and then trains them. Here is what you found:

Hiring Statistic

  Total Females Black Hispanic
Number Applied 80 20 10 5
Number Hired 20 6 3 1

Next you looked at your existing work force and found the following:

* Total: 450
* Females: 50
* Blacks: 22
* Hispanics: 20

Finally, you looked at how protected classes are being moved up in the plant. While workers are hired as unskilled laborers, that is not the whole story. There are two higher paying options open to them: they can become skilled machine operators (by passing an in-depth company run training program) and from there they can become line supervisors (this pays even more than the skilled jobs). You are concerned about how that program works also; the statistics are as follows:

Positions Within the Company

  Total Females Black Hispanic
Unskilled Workers 350 45 20 15
Skilled Operators 50 1 2 3
Line Supervisors 25 2 1 1

Note: The above totals do not add up to 450 or the work force totals because there are other jobs in the plant not used in this analysis.

Requirements

Using what you know about CapraTek’s hiring and promotion practices, prepare a report for top management addressing the following: 

* Analyze the data for evidence of adverse impact using the 4/5ths rule. Consider the applicant flow.
* Analyze the data for evidence of adverse impact of employee utilization based on the relevant labor market for the state you chose in Assessment 1.
* Analyze the data for evidence of adverse impact on any protected class concentrated in lower-paying jobs.
* Assess CapraTek’s hiring and promotion practices to support its growth strategy.

Additional Requirements

* Write 4–5 typed, double-spaced pages (not including title page or references).
* Use Times New Roman font, 12 point.
* Include a title page and, if needed, a reference page.

References

* Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapter 6.

* Davison, H., Maraist, C., Hamilton, R., & Bing, M. (2012). To screen or not to screen? Using the Internet for selection decisions. Employee Responsibilities & Rights Journal, 24(1), 1–21.

* Houtenville, A., & Kalargyrou, V. (2012). People with disabilities: Employers’ perspectives on recruitment practices, strategies, and challenges in leisure and hospitality. Cornell Hospitality Quarterly, 53(1), 40–52.

6. Health Care Analytics

Description

Discussion Resources

The following resources are provided to help you complete this discussion and may be useful in completing your course assignments:

  • Marr, B. (2010). The intelligent company: Five steps to success with evidence-based management. Hoboken, NJ: Wiley.
    • Chapter 5, “Analyze the Data and Gain Insights,” pages 101–132.
    • The “Action Checklist” for Chapter 5, pages 202–204.
  • Bernard Marr & Co. (n.d.). The 6 best hadoop vendors for your big data project. Retrieved from https://www.bernardmarr.com/default.asp?contentID=1418
  • EHR Intelligence. (n.d.). Retrieved from https://ehrintelligence.com
    • Note: you may need to sign up with an e-mail address in order to have full access to this site.
  • Healthcare IT News. (2018). Analytics. Retrieved from https://www.healthcareitnews.com/category/resource-topic/analytics
  • Health Data Management. (n.d.). Retrieved from https://www.healthdatamanagement.com

Discussion Instructions

In 2010, Marr stated, “Most organizations are still more focused on simply collecting and distributing data than in doing any meaningful analysis” (p. 202). Since that time, technology has continued to rapidly advance. Support for health care leaders related to collection and analysis options for data and information has expanded as well.

Prepare for this discussion by researching the websites provided in the resources to increase your awareness of the current state of data collection and analysis in health care management. Then, locate and study a current article, blog, webcast, interview, or other source of information that addresses an issue, expert opinion, tool, new development, or future trend related to data analysis in the health care industry.

For your initial discussion post, address the following:

  • Provide the APA citation and URL (if applicable) of the source and summarize its content.
  • Explain how this information offers value to leaders managing in health care organizations.
    • Consider your investigation of the websites linked in the Resources.
  • Based on this research and examination of information, do you think Marr’s statement above is still valid today in the health care industry? Explain your position.

Support your ideas with references from the resources and your own research. Follow APA Style and Format guidelines for references and citations

7. Analyzing Researched Information

Description

Overview

For this assignment, you will use the same method for reading a scholarly, published article that was introduced and practiced in Unit 4, to help you analyze the information and discuss insights about its value in addressing the business management issue you have identified as a step in the EbM process.

My Business Management Issue is: Employee Job Satisfaction Problems.

Instructions

For this assignment:

  • Locate and read an article that reports on a research study related to the business management issue, key performance questions (KPQs), and key analytic questions (KAQs) you have discussed in previous units. Note: You may use one of the two articles in your annotated list from the Unit 7 assignment if it is applicable. 
  • Complete the Analyzing Researched Information Template, linked in the Resources. Follow the instructions in the template, save it, and then submit it to this assignment

8. Conducting a Job Analysis

Description

Overview

Write a 3–4 page memo outlining O*Net findings used to prepare a CapraTek regional sales representative job description.

Context

Job analysis can be seen as the foundation on which the entire staffing process is built. An effective job analysis informs which knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) are needed to effectively perform the job.

Preparation

To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:

Read Chapters 5 and 7 and review Chapter 6 in Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book.

Read the scenario below.

Scenario
Alfred! will be produced in a new manufacturing facility. Groundbreaking on the new facility will begin this summer with full operations to be accomplished in three phases over the next two years. Distribution of the Alfred! device and components will be through existing distributors and retail outlets. While most of the new hires associated with this product line will be at the new manufacturing facility, four regional sales representatives will be hired to support the new product line.

Requirements

You have been asked to develop a job analysis, job specifications, and a job description for the four regional sales representative positions. To develop the initial information for this assessment, use O*Net OnLine, a U.S. Department of Labor-sponsored Web site of occupational information containing a database of both standardized and occupation-specific descriptors, linked in the Resources.

Hint: Begin your search by clicking Find Occupations. Then, under the Career Cluster heading, go to Marketing, Sales, and Service. From there, you can search for a sales representative in any of the technical fields.

Write a memo to your supervisor outlining your findings, and explain why a job analysis is required for any recruiting and selection process. In addition, address the following:

A tentative wage plan and the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed for this job.
The job duties, qualifications, education, work experience, and job competencies required.
Wage information and employment trends for this position in your chosen state.
Additional Requirements

Required length is 3–4 pages. Use Times New Roman font, 12 point.
Double space your memo.

Resources

Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapters 5–7.

U.S. Department of Labor, Employment & Training Administration. (n.d.). O*NET online. Retrieved from http://www.onetonline.org/

9. Cloud Computing Security

Question

The topic I chose for my research paper is Cloud Computing Security. Cloud computing services have been provided by major vendors such as Google and Microsoft, until Apple announced iCloud for their customers. There were many issues with hackers gaining access private cloud storage of celebrities, particularly female. In my essay, I will use technology and information resources to research issues in information systems and technology. I will also focus on discussing the issues, vulnerabilities, problems, etc., and conduct an analysis, and provide recommendations.

10. Manipulating the Minitab Output

Question

Use the graphs and tables from W2 Assignment.

Create a brief Microsoft PowerPoint presentation describing your sample. Be sure to give an accurate and complete description, taking your instructor’s feedback from W2 Assignment into consideration.

11. Science Says that Protectionism wont Work

Question

Read the link below Answer the questions below 

https://www.forbes.com/sites/patrickwwatson/2019/02/06/science-says-protectionism-wont-work/#3864e00873b4

Do you all feel that we should use protectionism as a foreign trade policy? How do you see it harming or benefiting our trade deficit or economy?

12. Search the Internet for information regarding the interaction between web browser and web server using HTTPS

Question

Search the Internet for information regarding the interaction between web browser and web server using HTTPS from initial handshake to close of the session. Create a detailed drawing of the steps and also annotate each step with additional detail.

13. How to Integrate Climate Change Risks and Opportunities into Supply Chain Management

Question

Read the link above focusing on a news article discussing supply chain issues

https://www.supplychain247.com/article/how_to_integrate_climate_change_risks_and_opportunities_into_scm

14. Discussion Topic need 8 different answers for post

Question

Students need to contribute eight substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies. Here are our topics!

1. The visual system is very complex, as you can tell from this week’s reading! It would be great if you could discuss an element of the visual system that you find interesting and explain why (e.g., rods and cones, the retina, etc). 

2. We have a few sensory systems to discuss in this chapter! Please describe a phenomenon associated with the auditory (hearing), somatosensory (touch), or gustatory (taste) system. Why is the system you choose to discuss unique?  

3. As you will read, there are multiple brain regions that control sensorimotor function. What makes these regions important for how we move and balance our body?

15. In a lottery daily game, a player picks four num

Question

In a lottery daily game, a player picks four numbers from 0 to 9 without repetition. How many different does the player have

16. Creative Writing Poem

Question

ASSIGNMENT #3 DUE: Stanley Kunitz Imitation poem. Write another free-verse poem, but again with and focus on eliminating sentimentality and cliché. Try to write a poem that captures a moment, imitating Stanley Kunitz’s, “The Portrait”.  The idea is to NARROW your poem down to a focused moment, or a specific experience that illustrates an emotional moment withOUT naming that emotion. Work on SHOWING through detail and imagery. But remember to ZOOM IN. Use the moment the way Kunitz does in The Portrait. Using a “WE” or “I” speaker, write about a specific shared/experience that captures the nuances of everyday relationships of loved ones. Feel free to LIE! This poem should be written in FREE VERSE (no rhyming). Try to follow the line and stanza patterns of the Kunitz poem. 

17. Math question about combination safes

You are tasked with opening a safe without knowing the combination. Beginning with the dial at zero, the dial must be turned counterclockwise to the first combination number, then clockwise back to zero), and clockwise to the second combination number, (then counterclockwise back to zero), and counterclockwise again to the third and final combination number, whereupon the door will open immediately. There are 40 numbers of the dial, including the zero.

Without knowing the combination numbers, what is the maximum number of trials required to open the safe? (One trial means one attempt to dial a full three-number combination)

18. Coastline question math, hard concept

Suppose there’s a straight coastline and a lighthouse that is L=3 miles away from the coast. This light revolves at one revolution per minute. How fast is the beam of light travelling along the coastline? When the beam is 3L away from the coastal point closest to the light, how fast is the light travelling along the coast.

Explain how you got to the answer.

19. Career Planning and Management 300 words

Identify a possible entry-level or appropriate job for a career that might interest you. For example: Software Developer, Web designer, Web content writer, auto mechanic, or dental technician. Perform an Internet search for information about your career of interest.

  • Select several items from the search results list and go to their websites to see what you can learn about the career. Write down what you learn.
    • Do some research about the career including job qualifications, a typical workday, good versus challenging aspects of the job, technical skills required for the job, and the company background and culture. Summarize your findings in writing.
    • After your research, do you think this job is appropriate for you? Why do you think that is? 

      Do web research, and create a brief report showing:
  • Recent statistical data on identity theft
  • Type of identity theft
  • Steps than can be taken to protect yourself against identity theft

20. Defend or refute one of the following statements

1. Slavery of Africans had a greater impact in North America than it did in Central American, South America or the Caribbean.

2. Without question, the most important commodity during the era of European expansion was sliver.

3. The European Expansion was motivated purely by religious rivalries among the European power.


Choose one of the statements and defend or refute it in at least 300 words. Use MLA style and references.

21. Learning Strategies Psychology

Topic is : Human Rights

1. Define the topic

2. Why do you believe that topic is social problem in our society?

3. How are people in this group treated in our society?

4. How have government (local, state and / or federal) attempted to address this problem?

5. What can you as an individual do to have positive impact on this issue?

Paper needs to be the introduction paragraph, body paragraph, conclusion paragraph and the the reference page.

300 words or more

22. Pole and minimum number of moves

There are three poles in front of you. One pole is stacked with 64 rings ranging in weight from one ounce (at the top) to 64 ounces (at the bottom). Your task is to move all of the rings to one of the other to poles so that they end up in the same order. The rules are that you can only move one ring at a time, you can move a ring only from one pole to another, and you cannot even temporarily place a ring on top of a lighter ring.

What is the minimum number of moves you need to make to achieve the task?

Show a detailed proof and give a thorough explanation please.

23. Math help

You’re standing at the center of a circular field of radius R. The field has a low wire fence around it. Attached to the wire fence (and restricted to running around the perimeter) is a large, sharp-fanged, hungry dog who likes to eat any humans he can catch.

You can run at speed v. Unfortunately, the dog can run four times as fast, at 4v. The dog will do his best to catch you if you try to escape the field. What is your running strategy to escape the field without feeding yourself to the dog.

Please explain your solution.

24. Math Help

John is talking to Mary while working on a deal book at 2AM. Mary learns that John’s sister has three children. “How old are the children?” asks Mark. “Well,” replies John, “the product of their ages is 36.” “Hmmm, the sum of their ages is the same as this figure right here,” says John pointing at the spreadsheet. “Still not enough information,” says Mary after thinking for a minute. “The eldest is dyslexic,” says John. How old are the children?

25. Unemployment compensation

Please answer the following in connection with unemployment compensation and worker’s compensation:

  1. Evaluate: Everyone who loses his or her job is entitled to unemployment compensation.
  2. Analyze: It is important to know whether one is an employee or an independent contractor in case the person is injured at work.
  3. Evaluate this statement: Workers’ compensation legislation considers fault.
  4. Explain why someone might think this statement is true: The worker’s compensation system is not always beneficial to workers.

At least a 300 words response. APA

26. Mirror question

Please help me out with this confusing question!

Why are images in a mirror flipped horizontally and not vertically? For example, although I wear my wristwatch on my left wrist, and my reflection wears his on his right wrist, my reflection is not standing on his head.

Please explain in your own words, 200 words minimum.

27. Business question – 1 or 2 pages MLA

Question:

Don is an elderly man who lives with his nephew Evan. Don is dependent upon Evan for care. Evan advises Don to “invest” in Evan’s professional gambling venture. Evan tells Don that he will no longer provide care unless Don makes the investment. Don sells all of his stocks and bonds and signs a contract with Evan investing the proceeds of his sale of the stocks and bonds in Evan’s professional gambling venture. Can Don set aside the contract? If Don is successful in setting aside the contract, what remedy should he seek in addition to setting aside the contract?

28. Business question 4 – 1 or 2 pages MLA

Question # 4:

General Equity Corporation enters a contract with Nancy, a local artist, to create a mosaic of her famous painting “The Birth of Industry” to be set into the floor in the entrance hall of the new corporate headquarters. Nancy delays and then eventually refuses to perform the contract. In the meantime, General enters a contract with Ideal Investments, Inc. to sell the new building to Ideal. Before the sale of the building is complete, Jewel Funds, Inc. offers General a higher price for the new building and General refuses to honor the contract with Ideal Investments. General brings a lawsuit against Nancy for her breach of contract and seeks the remedy of specific performance. Ideal, after successfully enjoining the sale of the building to Jewel Funds, brings a lawsuit against General seeking a court order compelling General to complete the sale to Ideal. In your answer, discuss whether or not a court would grant the plaintiff’s request for the remedy of specific performance in each case. If you conclude that a court would not grant the remedy of specific performance in either case, discuss what the measure of damages might be available to the plaintiff in that action.

29. Business Question – 1 or 2 pages MLA

Question: Publix Supermarkets, Inc. is a Florida Corporation with its principle offices located in Lakeland, Polk County, Florida (“Publix”). Publix’s corporate offices are located in the Tenth (10th) Judicial Circuit of the State of Florida. Publix has retail supermarket locations though out the State of Florida as well as other locations in the Southeastern part of the United States. Publix has several retail supermarket locations in Hillsborough County Florida. Hillsborough Country is in the Thirteenth (13th) Judicial District for the State of Florida. The Tenth Judicial Circuit and the Thirteenth Judicial Circuit of the State of Florida are in the United States District Court for the Middle District of Florida. Cases arising in the Tenth Judicial Circuit and the Thirteenth Judicial Circuit of the State of Florida that may be brought in a federal court would be heard initially in the United States District Court for the Middle District of the State of Florida.

Some of the retail items sold to the public in the Publix stores located in Hillsborough County are delivered from a Publix distribution center located in Lakeland, Florida. The goods are delivered from the distribution center to the retail locations in Hillsborough County via a fleet of trucks owned by Publix and operated by Publix employees.

Sam Straight, a 30-year employee of Publix, is driving a Publix tractor trailer truck north bound on I-275 near downtown Tampa, Florida. Sam has the appropriate credentials to drive a tractor trailer truck in the State of Florida. He has been driving for Publix for 25 years of the 30 years he has been employed by Publix. Sam is driving under the posted speed limit and he is preparing to merge onto I-4 eastbound to return to the Publix distribution center in Lakeland.

Fred Fragile is a resident of the State of Georgia. His home is in DeKalb County Georgia, in the jurisdiction of the DeKalb County State Court. He is driving his motor home on the entrance ramp to northbound I-275 in downtown Tampa after a visit to the Florida Aquarium. Fred has the appropriate credentials to operate a motor home in the State of Georgia and Florida. He is driving under the posted speed limit. Fred wishes to merge onto I-275 and eventually travel northbound on I-275 to take I-75 northbound to return to his home in Georgia. When Fred merges onto I-275 northbound, he wants to move over one lane to his left to take I-275 North. When he enters I-275 North bound his vehicle is side by side with the Publix tractor trailer truck driven by Sam Straight. Sam wishes to merge one lane to his right to facilitate taking I-4 East to Lakeland. As the two vehicles negotiate the interchange, they come into contact with each other resulting in a multi-car accident closing I-275 North for several hours. Sam and Fred do not suffer any injuries because of the accident. Damage to Fred’s motor home totals $40,000. Damage to the Publix tractor trailer totals $25,000.

An extensive investigation by the Florida Highway Patrol has identified four people who were driving in the vicinity of the two vehicles at the time of the accident. One witness lives in Plant City, Florida. The second witness lives in Orlando, Florida. The third witness lives in Daytona Beach, Florida and the fourth witness lives in Toronto, Ontario.

Both Fred and Publix believe that there is evidence to suggest that either Fred or Sam is responsible for causing the accident. In answering the following questions, it is not necessary for you to discuss the potential for liability on the part of Publix and/or Fred.

A. If either Fred or Publix wishes to bring a claim to recover the damage to their respective vehicles, discuss the procedural steps that either party must take to initiate their claim. Discuss further the procedural steps the other party must take in response to a claim. Discuss what may occur in the event the defendant in the action fails to follow the required procedural steps if a claim is brought against them.

B. If Publix wishes to bring a claim against Fred for the damage to its tractor trailer, in addition to the steps discussed in your response to question 1 above, what elements must be present to bring the claim in a Florida court? What elements must be present to bring the claim in a Georgia court? Which state court, in your judgment, is mostly likely to hear the case?

C. If Fred wishes to bring a claim against Publix what elements must be present to hear the claim in a Georgia court? What elements must be present to hear the claim in a Florida Court?

D. The accident occurred in the Thirteenth Judicial District for the State of Florida. Publix’s corporate headquarters are in the Tenth Judicial District for the State of Florida. Assuming for the purpose of answering this question, that the litigation would be proper in either judicial district, what legal doctrine will be used to determine which district court will hear the case? If Fred’s claim is brought in the State of Florida, which district court, in your judgment, is most likely to hear the case?

E. Under what doctrine could Fred’s claim be brought in the United States District Court for the Middle District of the State of Florida? What requirements must be met in order for the claim to be brought in the United States District Court for the Middle District of Florida? Are those requirements satisfied in this case?

30. Business Development

 Please complete the following assignment.

You are the Business Development Manager for a microchip product manufactured by ABC Components Corporation. Please describe how your business development process and approach will change with each stage of the product life cycle. A five sentence paragraph should be sufficient to discuss your efforts in each of the stages: development, introduction, growth stage, maturity stage, decline stage (five paragraphs).

To get you started, think about the following…..in the development stage, who do you need to learn about, what kinds of information do you need marketing to generate, etc? Elaborate on this and provide more. This is relevant for the development stage. Each stage will be different, meaning, don’t just answer these questions for each stage. Think about each stage independently. There will be different approaches and considerations for each stage. Your responses should be based on concepts from the coursework, particularly the current chapter.

31. Business question 5 – 1 or 2 pages MLA

Question # 5:

Power Plus Battery Company (“PPBC”) has a production plant located in Tampa, Florida. PPBC manufactures batteries for motor vehicles. PPBC has 200 employees and sells its batteries to customers in twenty-five different states in the United States. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (“OHSA”) is a federal administrative agency that has the authority to establish safety standards, pursuant to the authority delegated to it by the United States Congress in the Occupational Safety and Health Act. These safety standards, also known as safety rules or regulations, apply to different industrial operations that have at least fifty (50) employees and are engaged in interstate commerce. OSHA proposes a new safety standard governing the handling of certain acids in the workplace. The proposed safety standard includes acids that PPBC uses in its production processes. After reviewing the proposed rule, PPBC concludes that compliance with the proposed rule will substantially increase its production costs and the proposed rule will not significantly increase worker safety. PPBC sends a letter to OSHA stating its objections and concerns to the new rule. Enclosed with the letter are independent research reports and other materials that support PPBC’s objections to the proposed rule. What procedures must OSHA follow when it adopts a new safety standard such as this one? What obligation does OSHA have to consider the objections and the materials submitted by PPBC? What options does OSHA have regarding the proposed rule? How does OSHA announce its final decision on the new rule? Once the new rule has been adopted, what source may interested parties use to find the final version of the new rule?

32. 2 Paragraphs question

Choose one article within the last 3 months about Marketing consumer behavior and write two paragraphs about it. It should include a link to the Article or the article on a different doc and give your thoughts on it. Examples and scenarios are more than welcome

MLA format.

33. Discussion Question – 2 Paragraphs

Discussion question: write 2 paragraphs with at least one reference

Now that you have completed a series of assignments that have led you into the active project planning and development stage for your project, briefly describe your proposed solution to address the problem, issue, suggestion, initiative, or educational need and how it has changed since you first envisioned it. What led to your current perspective and direction?

MLA format – 300 words minimum

34. Describe in 3 Paragraphs – Law Question

Anne is 10 years old and lives in a major metropolitan U.S. city and is currently in the 4th grade. Today, during gym class, Anne’s teacher notices several large bruises on all of Anne’s arms and legs and that her clothing is torn and dirty. When the teacher questions Anne about how she got the bruises, Anne replies “I fell on the playground.” The teacher reports the bruising to the school principal. The teacher and principal request Anne’s mother attend a conference after school.

During the conference, Anne’s mother is difficult to communicate with. She appears to be intoxicated, but denies having had anything to drink. She is also very defensive, states that Anne is a clumsy, lazy child and that Anne lies to get attention. The mother denies that anyone has physically hurt Anne. During the conference, Anne sits next to her mother but does not make eye contact with anyone in the room, nor does she speak. When questioned as to why Anne’s father could not attend the conference, Anne’s mother replies that he was too tired because he works two jobs and has to sleep during the day. Anne and her mother leave the conference and Anne is not in school the next day.

In 2-3 paragraphs, using your own words:

  • List 3 signs and/or symptoms of possible child abuse and neglect with respect to Anne.
  • List 3 risk factors present in Anne’s family that could contribute to abuse.
  • What do you think would be the best course of action for Anne regarding treatment, placement, and services?
  • When responding to peers, consider whether you agree with the course of action suggested by your peers. Why might that be the best course of action, or why might another action be more appropriate. Provide support for your choices.

35. Answer the following questions

The Swift Corporation has 5,000 sales representatives and employees in the United States who drive company cars. The company’s risk manager has recommended to the firm’s management that the company should implement a partial retention program for physical damage losses to company cars.

  1. Explain the advantages and disadvantages of a partial retention program to the Swift Corporation.
  2. Identify the factors that the Swift Corporation should consider before it adopts a partial retention program for physical damage losses to company cars.
  3. If a partial retention program is adopted, what are the various methods the Swift Corporation can use to pay for physical damage losses to company cars?
  4. Identify two risk-control measures that could be used in the company’s partial retention program for physical damage losses.

36. Business Questions

Chris and Karen are married and own a three-bedroom home in a large midwestern city. Their son, Christian, attends college away from home and lives in a fraternity house. Their daughter, Kelly, is a senior in high school. Chris is an accountant who works for a local accounting firm. Karen is a marketing analyst and is often away from home several days at a time. Kelly earns extra cash by babysitting on a regular basis.The family’s home contains household furniture, personal property, a computer that Chris uses to prepare business tax returns on weekends, and a laptop computer that Karen uses while traveling. The Swifts also own three cars. Christian drives a 2007 Ford; Chris drives a 2012 Pontiac for both business and personal use; and Karen drives a 2014 Toyota and a rental car when she is traveling. Although the Swifts have owned their home for several years, they are considering moving because of the recent increase in violent crime in their neighborhood.

  1. Describe briefly the steps in the personal risk management process.
  2. Identify the major pure risks or pure loss exposures to which Chris and Karen are exposed with respect to each of the following:
    1. Personal loss exposures
    1. Property loss exposures
    1. Liability loss exposures
  3. With respect to each of the loss exposures mentioned above, identify an appropriate personal risk management technique that could be used to treat the exposure.

37. Design and analysis of algorithms

Analysis & Design of Algorithms

Please answer the question in your own words, in less than 5 sentences.

Question

1. Explain the differences between java.util.Vector and java.util.ArrayList.

2. Explain the differences between java.util.ArrayList and java.util.LinkedList.

3. Explain the differences between java.util.TreeMap and java.util.TreeSet.

4. Explain the differences between java.util.SortedSet and java.util.SortedMap.

5. Explain the differences between java.util.HashMap and java.util.HashSet.

6. Explain the differences between java.util.TreeMap and java.util.HashMap.

7. Explain the differences between java.util.HashSet and java.util.TreeSet.

38. Web Development Exercise

Create a Movies class that determines the cost of a ticket to a cinema,

                   based on the moviegoer’s age. Assume that the cost of a full-price

                   ticket is $10. Assign the age to a private data member. Use a public

                   member function to determine the ticket price, based on the follow-

                   ing schedule:

                   Age            Price

                   Under 5        Free

                   5 to 17        Half price

                   18 to 55       Full price

                   Over 55        $2 off

39. Software design and construction quiz

Please answer correctly all the questions below and justify where applicable.

QUESTION 1

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QUESTION TEXT

You have been tasked with implementing an entreprise architecture strategy at VIU. Which framework would be the most useful?

Select one:

A. TOGAF

B. IEEE

C. MICROSOFT .NET

D. JAVA

QUESTION 2

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QUESTION TEXT

What does the MVC pattern do?

Select one:

A. IT MUST BE USED OR YOUR JAVA APPLICATION WILL NOT WORK.

B. SEPARATES TEXT FROM GRAPHICS.

C. IT DOES NOT REALLY DO ANYTHING.

D. SEPARATES USER INTERFACE FROM COMPUTATION AND COORDINATION.

QUESTION 3

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QUESTION TEXT

Was understanding the architecture of the ATM simulation that you did in your homework useful?

Select one:

A. NO, IT WAS A WASTE OF TIME.

B. YES, I UNDERSTOOD HOW THE SIMULATION WORKS AT A HIGH LEVEL.

C. YES, IT ENABLED ME TO DEBUG THE CODE IN DETAIL.

D. NO, THE CODE IS WHAT MATTERS.

QUESTION 4

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QUESTION TEXT

Is there a difference between the old mainframe architecture and the new cloud architecture?

Select one:

A. WHY ARE WE TALKING ABOUT MAINFRAMES NOW? THEY WERE BEFORE I WAS BORN.

B. YES, THE CLOUD USES THE INTERNET OR THE NETWORK IN GENERAL. MAINFRAMES DID NOT.

C. NO, THEY ARE EXACTLY THE SAME.

D. MAINFRAMES DID NOT HAVE AN ARCHITECTURE.

QUESTION 5

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QUESTION TEXT

Do you think that computer programs can solve Rubic Cube puzzles?

Select one:

A. YES, IT HAS BEEN DONE.

B. NO WAY, ONLY THE BAMBOZZLERS CAN.

C. NO. RUBIC IS SMARTER THAN ANY COMPUTER.

D. YES, BUT ONLY FAKE RUBIC CUBES.

QUESTION 6

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QUESTION TEXT

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Object Oriented Programming?

Select one:

A. WELL DEFINED INTERFACES

B. MODULARITY

C. AGILITY

D. INFORMATION HIDING

QUESTION 7

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QUESTION TEXT

Which of the following is not an architectural style?

Select one:

A. CONNECTOR.

B. LAYERED.

C. CLIENT-SERVER

D. PEER-TO-PEER.

QUESTION 8

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QUESTION TEXT

Can we simulate a client server architecture containing one server and three clients using one computer?

Select one:

A. YES, BUT THE COMPUTER MUST BE OPERATING A LINUX OR UNIX OPERATING SYSTEM.

B. YES, YOU CAN, IT’S DONE ALL THE TIME.

C. NO, YOU NEED 4 COMPUTERS.

D. NO, YOU NEED ONE COMPUTER.

QUESTION 9

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QUESTION TEXT

Do you think that software architecture can enhance software reliability?

Select one:

A. IN SOFTWARE ENGINEERING WE DON’T CARE ABOUT RELIABILITY.

B. I REALLY DON’T KNOW.

C. YES, A GOOD ARCHITECTURE CAN ENHANCE RELIABILITY.

D. NO. THEY ARE NOT RELATED.

QUESTION 10

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QUESTION TEXT

What is software efficiency?

Select one:

A. HIGHEST NUMBER OF LINES OF CODE.

B. LOW COST.

C. HIGH OCTANE.

D. BEST USE OF RESOURCES.

QUESTION 11

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QUESTION TEXT

Is user-friendliness a functional or non-functional property?

Select one:

A. NON-FUNCTIONAL.

B. NEITHER.

C. BOTH.

D. FUNCTIONAL.

QUESTION 12

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QUESTION TEXT

Does architecture-based design help meet non-functional properties?

Select one:

A. THERE IS NO RELATIONSHIP.

B. YES, IT DOES.

C. IS THIS A TRICK QUESTION?

D. NO, IT DOES NOT.

QUESTION 13

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QUESTION TEXT

What is a method for handling exceptions used in java applications?

Select one:

A. HIDE … POUNCE.

B. LISTEN … CORRECT.

C. WATCH …. GRAB.

D. TRY … CATCH.

QUESTION 14

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QUESTION TEXT

What is the role of connectors in software architecture.

Select one:

A. THEY CONNECT COMPUTER HARDWARE.

B. THEY HAVE NO ROLE.

C. THEY CONNECT DEVELOPERS AND CUSTOMERS.

D. THEY CONNECT THE COMPONENTS THAT PERFORM THE COMPUTATIONS.

QUESTION 15

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QUESTION TEXT

Which of the following is an example of a Connector?

Select one:

A. REMOTE PROCEDURE CALL.

B. BACKING UP FILES.

C. PARALLEL COMPUTATIONS.

D. GRAPHICS PROCESSING.

QUESTION 16

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QUESTION TEXT

What are the basic elements of software architecture that you studied in this course?

Select one:

A. COMPONENTS, CONTROLLERS, VIEWERS

B. COMPONENTS, PACKAGES, SUB-PACKAGES, AND MODULES.

C. COMPONENTS, CONNECTORS, INTERFACES AND CONFIGURATION.

D. PROJECTS, PACKAGES, COMPONENTS, AND CLASSES.

QUESTION 17

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QUESTION TEXT

What was the contribution of Roy Fielding to the World Wide Web architecture?

Select one:

A. HE INVENTED THE WEB.

B. HE DEVELOPED THE REST ARCHITECTURAL FRAMEWORK.

C. WHO IS ROY FIELDING ANYWAY?

D. HE DID NOT MAKE ANY CONTRIBUTIONS.

QUESTION 18

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QUESTION TEXT

What was the contribution of Roy Fielding to software architecture?

Select one:

A. HE INTRODUCED AN ARCHITECTURE SUGGESTING HOW THE WEB SHOULD FUNCTION.

B. HE DEFINED RULES FOR HOW THE UNIVERSE SHOULD FUNCTION.

C. HE CREATED THE AGILE APPROACH TO SOFTWARE DEVELOPMENT.

D. HE INVENTED MICROSOFT EXPLORER BROWSER.

QUESTION 19

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QUESTION TEXT

Can you generate code from architecture in Object-Oriented Programming?

Select one:

A. ME? NO WAY.

B. NO, THAT IS IMPOSSIBLE.

C. YES, BUT ONLY IF THE PROGRAM HAS ONE CLASS.

D. YES, THERE ARE TOOLS THAT HELP WITH THAT.

QUESTION 20

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QUESTION TEXT

How do you think software developers view the UML 2.0 standard?

Select one:

A. THEY ALL HATE IT AND NEVER USE IT.

B. SOFTWARE DEVELOPERS DON’T CARE ABOUT UML. THEY JUST WRITE CODE.

C. THEY ALL LOVE IT.

D. MANY THINK THAT IT’S TOO COMPLICATED AND USE A SIMPLIFIED SUBSET OF IT.

40. Create a small GUI application

Create a GUI application that displays 4 text fields, and 4 label fields and two buttons. The layout is up to you, but must be logical. A number is entered into each text field. When the “Calculate” button is pressed the application will calculate the following and display the results in each of the four label fields.

Sum of the four values

Product of the four values

The smallest value

The largest of the values

The exit button will exit the application.

41. Sport Management and Drugs

Sports Management:

  • Describe your current knowledge regarding drugs and alcohol. Elaborate as much as possible on specific drugs.
  • What influences you to use or not use drugs and/or alcohol? Describe your beliefs, ideas, and situations that influence this decision. How did your parents and/or older siblings influence this decision? Why do these things have such an impact on your decision?
  • Describe these thoughts in detailed paragraphs. Please be honest in your responses. (These will only be read by me.)

Your paper should be at least 2 pages in length (double spaced, font size of <14). Be sure you answer each question!

42. Budget Assignment

Instruction

For this exercise we are going to create a simple budget, and track our budget compliance over the course of a 12 month period. Although it is possible (and common) to track budget compliance on a month to month basis, to keep things simple for this exercise we are going to only examine the year end result. Start by creating a budget in Excel in the following format. The Budget Spreadsheet Image is attached… For the starting budget $ amounts you use the following logic. Determine the yearly values and enter them into your budget. Don’t forget to add the totals, and to determine the amount you are short/extra. Salary = $4,000 a month Rent = $1200 a month Car payment = $650 a month Phone = $95 a month Health Insurance = $250 a month Food = $500 a month We are now going to add the following data for the monthly amounts in out spreadsheet Salary: Your starting salary for the year is $4,000 a month. In June you get a 3% pay increase. Additionally you get a one-time bonus payout of $500 in October. Rent: Your monthly rent per your lease is $1,200 a month, with a 5% increase in November. Car: Your car is under lease at a rate of $650 a month. Phone: Your month rate for your phone is $95 a month, but you incurred overage charges of $25 each in the months of April, August, and December. Health Insurance: Your monthly installments for health insurance are $250 a month. Food: Food expense tends to be more varied than the other expenses be captured. Use the follow table to enter your food expenses. Food Expenses Spreadsheet is attached… Other: In the month of March you have a car repair bill of $750 and in August you took a $125 flight to visit your parents. Brief Write-up: Now review your actual income/expenses versus the budget that you established. Discuss in what areas you exceeded your budgetary amounts? What options do you have, and what actions would you take if your goal is to maintain your budget in all categories? Discuss how miscellaneous unexpected items can impact your budget.

43.History Assignment

Instruction

Choose an event or theme evident in U. S. History from the end of the Civil War to the near present and write a brilliant 3-5 pp. double-spaced paper based on one academic book, three scholarly journal articles, and at least two primary sources. The book must be published by a university press and the scholarly journal articles must be found on the JSTOR or America History and Life databases. The publication dates of the book and the articles must be between 1970 and 2015.

44.Healthcare

Instruction

• Name: Prevention of Pediatric Obesity Teaching Tool • Description: For this assignment, you will develop a Prevention of Pediatric Obesity Teaching Tool flyer for parents of children 5 years of age and less regarding the prevention of pediatric obesity. Pediatric obesity is a growing problem in the USA and is a major contributor to morbidity (hypertension, cardiovascular disease, diabetes, osteoarthritis) and mortality later in life. The tool should be developed according to the criteria established in the attached rubric. You are strongly urged to use the Center for Disease Control and Prevention as one reference (at least 3 references are required). References for the tool should be submitted in APA format and should be research based. Remember to use layman’s terms. Please review this rubric prior to completing this assignment

45. General Assignment

Instruction

Discussion #3: Communication & Motivation Select two of the three main topics to respond to and provide your mid-semester feedback. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tdmyoMe4iHM (Miracle, 4 min) Main Topic 3.1: Motivation Questions (2 parts) Question1) What motivates people? (See Module 6: Basic Motivation Model). Do you think it is money, Process Theory, or Content Theory? Question 2) Do you remember any particular motivational speech (graduation, sports, church, etc.) that inspired you to exceed what you thought were your capabilities? Main Topic 3.2: Path-Goal Does the Path-Goal Leadership concept fall under Content Theory or Process Theory of Motivation? Main Topic 3.3~Motivation What motivates employees to work hard and be more productive? The classic answer is — money! However, management texts tell us that motivation is not something you do to someone; motivation starts from within an individual with an unsatisfied need. Managers motivate employees by providing a means for them to satisfy that need. This is particularly challenging today as the Gen Y’ers (aka the Millenials) enter the workplace. For this discussion, in addition to the readings, visit the following three websites and address the question: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=owwM6FpWWoQ 60 minutes; Jason Dorsey; “Generation Y,” ( 3+ minutes) http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=h7SnQPBC6yM Twixters; 60 minutes; “Generation Y” Jason Dorsey (4:42 min) http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=erFRZimAJ0Y&feature=related Jason Dorsey~Keynote Speaker (10 min) ● Question: Do you agree with the portrayal of Gen Y, a.k.a. The Millennials? Do you fit in this category, or have children who do? Main Topic 3.4~Mid Semester Feedback If you have any comments, suggestions, complaints (compliments?) about the course to this point, please post them here. If you don’t want to go public, feel free to send me an e-mail.

46. Math Assignment

Instruction

Respond to the Main Topics, but prior to doing so, you might check out these clips: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=6x0l_vkjozc (Civil Rights 3 min) https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JENCxjbARFM (Sowell, 2 min) Main Topic 2.1: Affirmative Action or Diversity Management? Culture is generally defined as “the learned beliefs, values, norms, symbols, and traditions common to a group of people.” Ethnocentrism: the tendency for individuals to place their own group (ethnic, racial, or cultural) at the center of their observations of others and the world. → A tendency to think our own cultural values and ways of doing things are right and natural. [pg. 384] The ethnic mix in the U.S. has been changing since Columbus arrived in 1492. “Census projections suggest America may become a minority-majority country by the middle of the century,” according to Kenneth Johnson, a sociology professor at the University of New Hampshire. In other words, whites will make up less that 50% of the population. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act (1964) prohibits discrimination by covered employers on the basis of race, color, religion, sex or national origin. In the United States, Affirmative Action refers to equal opportunity employment measures that Federal contractors and subcontractors are legally required to adopt. These measures are intended to prevent discrimination against employees or applicants for employment, on the basis of “color, religion, sex, or national origin.” (Source = Wikipedia. Yes, I know it’s a double standard that students are not allowed to use Wikipedia, but I, as a faculty, am citing it. However, this is not a democracy; it is a benevolent dictatorship) Question: One train of thought is that “enlightened management” may be leaning toward Diversity Management, a concept which may make Affirmative Action superfluous, redundant, or obsolete. What are your thoughts on this? Main Topic 2.2: Dimensions of Difference Hofstede found that national culture explained more of the differences in work-related values and attitudes than did position within the organization, profession, age or gender. In summarizing the most important differences, Hofstede initially found that managers and employees varied on four primary dimensions:” Individualism and Collectivism; Power Distance; Uncertainty Avoidance; Career Success and Quality of Life. Later, Hofstede and his colleagues identified a fifth dimension: Confucian Dynamism. Question: Where is your culture located on Hofstede’s original four dimensions?

47. Science

1. Explain the competencies important for the role of nurse leader. 2. Report on the correlation from the text book theories. Did the nurse leader practice what was outlined in the text? Why or why not? 3. Reflect on at least four (4) insights gained from your interview and observation -There are 3 questions that need to be answered, each question requires a minimum of one paragraph.

48. Business

Instruction

The purpose of this assignment is for students to evaluate the lean techniques applied to business in today’s workforce. Assignment Steps Select a business you are familiar with which incorporates lean manufacturing or lean supply chains. Evaluate how this firm uses lean strategies and how much lean techniques has improved the firm’s efficiency. Evaluate ways the firm can go even further to make improvements using lean techniques. Use the results you obtained from evaluating this firm to apply to your own business or a business you are interested in which currently does not use lean. Develop a 1,050-word report in which you describe your lean evaluation project. Format your assignment consistent with APA guidelines.

49. Security Regulation Compliance This assignment consists of two (2) sections: a written paper and a PowerPoint presentation. You must submit both sections as separate files for the completion of this assignment. Label each file name according to the section of the assignment it is written for.

Instruction

In the day-to-day operations of information security, security professionals often focus the majority of their time dealing with employee access issues, implementing security methods and measures, and other day-to-day tasks. They often neglect legal issues that affect information security. As a result, organizations often violate security-related regulations and often have to pay heavy fines for their non-compliance. Thus, as a Chief Information Officer in a government agency, you realize the need to educate for senior leadership on some of the primary regulatory requirements, and you realize the need to ensure that the employees in the agency are aware of these regulatory requirements as well. Section 1: Written Paper 1. Write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you: a. Provide an overview that will be delivered to senior management of regulatory requirements the agency needs to be aware of, including: i. FISMA ii. Sarbanes-Oxley Act iii. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act iv. PCI DSS v. HIPAA vi. Intellectual Property Law b. Describe the security methods and controls that need to be implemented in order to ensure compliance with these standards and regulatory requirements. c. Describe the guidance provided by the Department of Health and Human Services, the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), and other agencies for ensuring compliance with these standards and regulatory requirements. d. Use at least five (5) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.

50. Math help

A road divides the neighborhood park into two parts. Calvin plots one part in a coordinate plane. The part of the park shown is a reflection over the x-axis of the other part. 8.g.3

Instruction

Part A: Draw the other part of the park. Part B: Write the coordinate of the vertices of the part that you drew. Then describe the effects of a reflection across the x-axis on the coordinates.

51. Psychology week 2

Instruction

Sensations Write a 1-2 page essay explaining how our sensations, thoughts, feelings, motives, actions, memories, and all other human capacities are associated with nervous system activities and structures; and discuss the types of damage that often affect the nervous system. Proper APA formatting is a requirement for all essay assignments. Cite at least three educational sources (one source may include the course textbook) in the essay.

52. Cultures in conflict week 2

Instruction

Theoretical Approach Summarize and explain the three major theoretical approaches that were introduced in this chapter – Durkheim and human consciousness, Benedict and Patterns of Culture, and Bourdieu and the principles of culture. (750-1250 words) · Which theoretical position seems clearest to you? · What evidence do you have for this theory in your own society? · Where have you potentially seen this exhibited?

53. Website Assignment

Instruction

Assignment Instructions Learning objective: To develop and design a professional webpage. Prompt: This week you are working on creating a webpage. Instructions: Build a website. Submit as Article #4 for your portfolio. Supporting Materials: https://websitesetup.org/ https://www.wix.com/ https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=M5ZG7-BlG6Q

54. Attn: GreatContentCreator Nursing Capstone Wk7

Instruction

Summary paper of program not of each term From Novice to Beginning Professional Nurse: Your nursing evolution reflects ways you have evolved in nursing school. Reflect on at least 10 BSN courses, in which you write a detailed paragraph. Provide evidence of growth in each course. Describe growth and development in becoming a professional nurse after each nursing core course. Reflect on ways courses, especially concurrent running classes, support one another. Synthesize theories and concepts into clinical settings applied to human experiences. Apply multicultural literacy. Reflect on holistic patient care. Format each course as major text headings per the APA manual. Review the rubric for more information on how your paper will be graded.

55.History

Instruction

Write a paper based of the Netflix series “Prohibition” , cite everything NO OUTSIDE SOURCES NO PLAGIARISM. Chicago format , 2 pages.

56. Science

Instruction

1. What are the functions of the nose? 2. What are the functions of the paranasal sinuses? Look up sinusitis on the Internet and tell me more about why it is such a large problem today (cite your URL). 3. What important functions are lost when you take out your tonsils?

4. What are the effects of smoking on cilia lining the trachea? Why is this unhealthy?

 5. What is the Heimlich maneuver and how is it done?

6. Where are the pleura and what is their function? How does their function differ from the pericardium (in the heart)?

7. What is surfactant and what is its function? How are premature newborns that don’t have it treated?

8. What is one cause of pulmonary edema and what changes does it bring to gas exchange? From the section on pulmonary ventilation there is some interesting information regarding how we breathe and what interferes with that process. You just need to know that during inspiration in the lungs more space (volume) is created in the intrapleural space. This causes a decrease in pressure that is translated to the lungs and the decrease in pressure in them leads to air rushing in from a place of higher pressure (outside the lung) to a place of lower pressure (inside the lung). Expiration is the reverse.

9. Explain pneumothorax – use the information about pressure to explain what happens.

10. Look up asthma on the Internet. What happens during an attack? Why? What drugs widen the airway (decrease resistance) and what drugs narrow the airway (increase resistance)?

 11. What types of different sounds can be heard by listening to your lungs with a stethescope? Why is this simple test useful?

12. What is meant by the term partial pressure and what do you have to do mathematically to get one (hint: multiply what times what) (from the outline given to you in lab and attached here)? Give an example of the partial pressure of oxygen in outside air at sea level.

13. What is the percent concentration of oxygen in the outside air at sea level, 10,000 feet and 30,000 feet? What happens to the partial pressure of oxygen as you go higher? At what altitude are the partial pressures of oxygen in the aveoli equal to those of the venous blood approaching the lungs (from the outline)? What problem does this cause?

14. What happens to partial pressure as you go below sea level? What problems can that cause (outline and Internet)?

15. What happens in carbon monoxide poisoning? Why does it happen? (in the book or on the Internet).

16. In what ways are carbon dioxide molecules carried? When does the CO2 content of the blood increase? Why does it need to be buffered?

17. What are other factors besides acidity that influence the rate and depth of respiration?

18. What are two examples of chronic obstructive lung disease and what are the symptoms for each?

19. Why is lung cancer so deadly? What is the effect of smoking on the lungs? Does it cause lung cancer? Why or why not?

57. Psychology

Instruction

Social Workers walk a fine line between assisting persons diagnosed with disabilities and empowering persons to think of their abilities. It is not unusual in health and mental health work for a social worker to have the task of establishing /assembling proof of disability for a client seeking financial resources and at the same time to be engaged in interventions designed to help a client seek rehabilitation/recovery. That rehabilitation/recovery may well endanger a client’s financial stability and eligibility for medical coverage. This week, write about the role of social workers in medical settings (clinical primary care, hospitals, skilled nursing homes for example) as they work with persons identified as disabled by chronic disease processes. Specifically, talk about how the biology of disorders may assist or interfere with the common advocacy role of social work staff. Also, you may wish to comment on your thoughts around the concept of “permanent disability”, educating other medical team professionals on the strengths perspective of social work, or the special concerns of social workers who may identify as disabled, themselves. You may have thoughts about client self-determination and diseases where lifestyle choices are thought to further or even initiate the disease process (diabetes, cardiac disease) as this relates to disability determinations. An excellent example is the AMA statement last year regarding obesity as a disability.

58. Other

You are going to create a one-minute dramatic script. The following is the beginning “setup,” or the start of the story, of the script: “There are six snakes trapped in a pit.” Your assignment is to create a one-minute dramatic script from this statement. First, tell me what genre you will be using. Then, create action, conflict, characters, and dialogue. Type up your “play” in dialogue format and submit. Have fun with it. Be creative!

59. Healthcare

Research Methods & Evidence-Based Practice Project PICOT QUESTION: In the primary care setting, does clustering care during (acute visits) increase patient satisfaction (%) while decreasing office wait time ?

60. Article review and power point

Instruction

I need two Apply Behavior Analysis articles reviewed according to the Rubrics attached below. One article must come from the Association for Contextual Behavioral Science website, when you go to the website the article must come from the section drop down which states ACT. A PowerPoint presentation is needed with the article review. The power point must be well written to where I can read the presentation and it make sense to the reader and the listener. When a valid point is made, I would like a slide or two that ask the listener for questions. I like acceptance and commitment therapy so one of the article reviews could address that area but not necessarily. Another article must be written on any application of Applied Behavior Analysis to a clinical disorder and the above instruction must be followed. Both articles must follow APA Guidelines and be grammar and error free. This is doctorial level work, so it is my expectation that the writer has the knowledge and the expertise

61. Business

Instruction

Strategic Plan: Part 2 In this second part of the final strategic plan development assignment, you will follow up on the introductory activities that you completed during the first portion in order to further develop your strategic plan. Please be sure to make adjustments as necessary based on some of your own desired adjustments and the professor’s comments as you work through the second part. During this portion of the process, your submission, which should be at least two pages in length not including any figures/graphics and the updated first portion, should include the following components: the results of a SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats) analysis or similar analysis assessing current internal and external areas of concern, strengths, and opportunities as the strategic plan progresses This cannot be the same SWOT analysis that you used for the Unit IV assignment identification of organizational stakeholders, internal and external, and how their needs and participation will likely influence and contribute to the plan’s development. Be sure that you are remaining consistent with your organization. Also, please include Part 1 with updates based on feedback from your professor and Part 2 of your plan in one document. Please include only one title page and one reference page with this assignment. References: Use these references also along with the other ones on the first part of the assignment Hull, A. (1996). Strategic Plan-making in Europe: institutional innovation. Planning Practice & Research, 11(3), 253–264. https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1080/02697459616834 Patel, M. S., Phillips, C. B., Pearce, C., Kljakovic, M., Dugdale, P., & Glasgow, N. (2008). General Practice and Pandemic Influenza: A Framework for Planning and Comparison of Plans in Five Countries. PLoS ONE, 3(5), 1–9. https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1371/journal.pone.0002269 Schulze, R. N., & Post, T. (2010). Individual Annuity Demand Under Aggregate Mortality Risk. Journal of Risk & Insurance, 77(2), 423–449. https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1111/j.1539-6975.2009.01340.x Yoon, Y.-R. (2017). Strategic disclosure of meaningful information to rival. Economic Inquiry, (2). https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1111/ecin.12372

62. General

This assignment will give you the opportunity to explore what you believe, and based on the course readings, are necessary (requisite) knowledge, skills, abilities, (KSAs) experiences, and techniques needed to effectively lead either a human resources department or one functional area of Human Resources Management (HRM) within a public organization.  By “functional area” I mean one of the segments in the ‘Life-Cycle’ of an employee as noted in the chapters in Section II of our text (e.g., recruiting, performance management, compensation, benefits, training and development, etc.).  This assignment also provides opportunities to link theory with practice, apply what has been learned and/or how the necessary KSAs could be acquired to effectively lead an organization’s human resources department.I suggest the foll

I suggest the following process:

  1. Decide if you will focus on the HRM department as a whole, or on an HRM functional area. If focusing on an HRM functional area, decide which area.
  2. Read, and if necessary, re-read the text chapter corresponding to your chosen functional area.
  3. Narrowly focus your selection to avoid the pitfalls of inadequate detail.
  4. Locate at least 5 published references that are no more than 10 years old that pertain to the specific HRM function you have chosen to investigate. You must not use any of the sources used in the Research paper in this course.
  5. OPTIONAL: Conduct an Interview. You may wish to conduct a brief an interview with a manager or HR professional who has extensive experience HRM or the functional area you have selected.  I am not requiring you do this; however, if you are able to find someone who is willing to speak with you, this often can be a helpful learning experience.

Paper Format:

  • Your paper should be at least five (5) pages longnot including the Title Page and Reference/Bibliography  
  • Title Page: must contain the Assignment Number, a Topic, your Name and Student ID Number
  • Use 12-point font, double-spaced, and one-inch margins on all 4 sides.
  • Use in-text citations so I can decipher where exactly in your paper you drew upon others’ work.
  • Provide complete reference information (author, date, title, publication, volume and page numbers; providing a URL only is insufficient) on a separate sheet.
    • Create a WORD document that contains complete citation information of all your print and/or electronic source material. To be considered “complete,” citation information must include author(s), title, date, and publisher plus, if a journal or magazine article, the name of the journal or magazine, volume and issue numbers, and page numbers.  A reference citation containing only a URL is insufficient

63.Healthcare

Instruction

Find a media article that reports the findings of an original empirical study on some psychology or health-related topic that is published in a newspaper, magazine, or other periodical, or on an Internet news website (CNN, Reuters, BBC, Vox, WebMD, Huffington Post, etc.). The media article should have been published in the last year. Thoroughly address the following questions (in ~ 2-3 double-spaced pages): What observation about human behavior/health is being reported? ~1-2 sentences (2.5 points) Describe the study sample (e.g., size, gender, age range, marital status, racial/ethnic group, SES). (If not discussed, what would be the most appropriate sample to use for this research question?) ~3-4 sentences (5 points) What is the independent variable(s)? ~1 sentence (2.5 points) What is the dependent variable(s)? ~1 sentence (2.5 points) Are any other relevant variables discussed (e.g., moderators, mediators, covariates)? (If not discussed, what other variables do you think should be included in this study?) ~ 2 sentences (2.5 points) What type of study is being discussed: experimental vs. non-experimental, etc.? (If not discussed, what would be the most appropriate type of study to use for this research question?) ~2 sentences (2.5 points) What are some limitations of the study? (e.g., methods used, conclusions drawn; you must discuss at least 2 limitations) ~4 sentences (5 points; 2.5 points per limitation) What are the implications of the study for research, practice, and/or policy? (If not discussed, what do you think the implications of the study are?) Discuss at least 2 implications (~3-4 sentences) (5 points; 2.5 points per implication) NOTES: Your assignment should be typed, 12-point font, double spaced, 1” margins. Assignments that contain grammatical, spelling, or punctuation errors will lose points. If you present in class, you will receive the full 2.5 points. The remainder of your grade is based on the extent to which you sufficiently address the above questions in writing (feedback presented in class does not reflect the grade on your assignment). Late assignments will lose 3 points per day – no exceptions. must have link to article to print out.

64. Psychology

Providing only a summary of an experience or observed phenomenon will NOT meet the requirements for the reflection paper; instead, each student MUST demonstrate that he/she can explain the chosen phenomenon using theoretical perspectives discussed in the course material to receive partial/full points for this portion of the course grade. Examples of theoretical perspectives you may choose include: behaviorism (classical and/or operant conditioning), Freud’s psychoanalytic theory, Piaget’s cognitive d

Instruction

Each student will be required to submit one reflection paper. For this paper, you will choose any phenomenon and explain its development from the perspective of at least 2 theories that have been presented in class powerpoint notes or in assigned reading from the text. For example, if you have noticed that a small child you know seems to always want to be near his or her mother, you could attempt to explain why this may be based on the behavioral and cognitive developmental perspectives.

65. Compare and Contrast- having two jobs

Essay 2 Directions

Choose one of the topics below and compose a 750 – 1250 word compare or contrast essay:

1. Two jobs you have had 2. Two towns, cities, or vacation spots 3. Two hobbies or activities you enjoy 4. High school and college 5. A big campus and a small college campus 6. Public school and private school 7. Playing video games and doing outdoor activities 8. Reading a book and watching television/movies 9. The Academic Success Center and the Library 10. A fast food restaurant and the Titan’s Café on Warner Robins campus 11. Two social media websites (Facebook, Twitter, Instagram, Snapchat, etc.) 12. Online classes and on campus classes 13. Two movies, two television shows 14. Two characters, actors, or entertainers 15. Two cellphones 16. Smartphones and smartwatches  17. GIFs and memes/ emoji’s

You will follow the Five Steps of the Writing Process, once you have chosen a topic

66.Economics

Instruction

You must have access to the MSExcel and R to complete the course assignments. Course Description: Students will apply analytical techniques informed by economic theory and probability theory to solve real-life practical problems taken from a diverse set of applications such as anticipating behavioral outcomes and estimating worst-case scenarios. • How will a change in price affect quantity demanded for a given product? • How many citizens will participate in a government program (e.g. health care reform)? • What is the likely range of financial outcomes for a specific firm or industry? • How many customers will call a support service during a given period? These questions and more will be addressed. Business students interested in any quantitative discipline will find this course useful. Course Objectives: After successfully completing the course, the student will be able to: • Apply the fundamental theories of probability in a business context • Use mathematical and statistical tools to value, summarize, and analyze various outcomes • Forecast the timing and level of various outcomes using advanced regression techniques and time series models (ARIMA). • Use Quantile Regression to look at distributional outcomes • Evaluate, critique, and comment on the assumptions made and the mathematical techniques used to analyze various problems. • Develop significant computer spreadsheet skills by implementing the theory discussed in class. • Conduct advanced data analysis using a script-based analysis tool (R).

67.General

Epidemiology Paper (160 pts. total)

 This paper is intended for you to demonstrate your analytical mind. A detailed rubric is shown below. This project

will be due in parts. Paper should be double spaced in no less than 11 pt TimesRoman.

 – Each student will choose a disease or health-related condition as an epidemiology study

 – Review the current descriptive and analytical data information sources for that condition,

 – Write a paper (5-8 pages with references) that presents that information in a logical sequence,

 – Organization of your paper should include:

 I. Your title should succinct and be descriptive enough to the reader

 II. Introduction:

 – Introduce the topic (brief definition or description) and present it’s importance to human health status

 – Explain why this condition should be studied (increasing trend, affects a large number of people, socio-

 economic burden among those affected, etc)

 – You might include some prevalence information here to indicate the impact

 III. Descriptive Epidemiology:

 – Describe and/or define the disease or condition using descriptive epidemiology references

 – who tends to get this condition, where do they usually live, and at what age

 IV. Rates:

 – Present the most current national and local prevalence and incidence rates (when available)

 V. Causes and Risk Factors

 – Discuss the (presumed, known or theoretical) causes of this disease (if there are any)

 – Provide the currently established risk factors associated with the disease

 VI. Conclusion

 – Summarize this condition and indicate any public health methods that may limit its impact

 VII. Bibliography

 – Reference all statements of fact.

 – All citations should be referenced in the text and in a bibliography at the end of the paper

 – Use the American Medical Association (AMA) 10th edition (2007) Manual of Style in your bibliography.

For examples: AMA style.

 – Use of graphs or charts to explain relationships and describe the condition is strongly encouraged

 – Entire paper should be submitted onto SHSU Blackboard turnitin . No exception, please.

68. Computer Science

Instruction

– Resetting the software package, i.e. only one instance of the tool is allowed to be open. – Creating geometric objects, more specifically boxes (of user input dimensions and locations) and spheres (of user input radii and locations). – Creating an appropriate interface to allow a user to interact with the created objects. This should be shown by demonstrating the application of geometric transformations, more specifically translations by user input (along with the x, y, and z-axes) and rotations by a user input angle (around the x, y, and z-axes). – Exiting the tool. The attached file is an example of what it should look like.

69. Computer Science

Instruction

I’m looking for specialized in business information systems, business analysis, and Computer science majors. I have 3 classes which are, Data Analysis and Reporting, Data Analysis/Visualization and Predictive Data Analysis. Data Analysis and Reporting Class / Is SQL database / ERDs so you will use Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio inside the Vmware Horizon client. Data Analysis/Visualization Class / Is excel database and you will use excel 2016 inside the Vmware Horizon client. I will put the syllabus here and please read it carefully and tell me if you can handle the classes. please note if you cannot take the responsibility or you’re not the right person I’m looking for please ignore this announcement. I don’t want to waste my time again! I’m looking for someone and never give me good work. That’s all. Before you do anything READ the syllabus.

70. History of Psychology

Discussion Questions
 

All assignments MUST be typed, double-spaced, in APA style and must be written at graduate level English. You must integrate the material presented in the text to support your discussion, citing in APA format. Outside sources may be used to support the text information, but not replace the text.
 

Your response to each question should be approx. 1 page per question.
 

Assignment should be 16 pages total plus a title and reference page
 1.   There are many reasons why the history of psychology is important.  Pick two reasons and explain why they are important.
 2.  Socrates, Plato and Aristotle were important figures in Philosophy leading up to Psychology.  Discuss how these three paved the way for Psychology.
 

3.  Discuss how Augustine changed the locus of control human behavior, from forces outside the person to forces inside the person.
 

4.  Discuss the mind-Body interaction as seen by Descartes.  How did Descartes theories contribute to the beginning of Psychology?
 

5.  Compare the roles of Locke, Berkeley, and Hume, and their importance in early Psychology.
 

6.   Herbert was an important transitional figure between philosophy and psychology.  How do his theories bring these two disciplines together?
 

7.  Discus the commonalities and the differences between existentialism and romanticism.
 

8.  What were Fechner’s contributions to the development of psychology as a science?

9.  Compare and contrast Wundt’s view of Psychology with Titchener’s views.  Which one do you agree with more?
 10.  There were many controversies over intelligence testing.  Discuss the importance of Cattell, Binet, Spearman, Goddard, Terman and Yerkes in testing history.  Briefly discuss the Bell Curve theory (without pictures), as it applies to testing IQ.
 11.  Discuss the difference between Structuralism and Functionalism.  How were the two schools (Chicago and Columbia) similar and different?
 12.  Pavlov and Watson are major behaviorists.   Explain William McDougall’s outlook and theories and why he is not as well known.
 13.  Skinner was known as the leading neobehavorist.  Why were Tolman, Hull and Gutherie not as well known?  Be sure to include Tolman, Hull and Gutherie’s theories.
14.  Discuss the founding of Gestalt theory.  What impact did it have on psychology and therapy?
 15.  Summarize the medical, psychological and supernatural models of mental illness and give examples of each.
 16.  Sigmund Freud is credited with being the Father of Psychoanalysis.  Compare and contrast how Anna Freud, Carl Jung, Alfred Adler and Karen Horney morphed Freud’s original theories into working theories that we still use today.

71.Writing Essay

Prompt. In the documentary Catfish, we saw an individual create an imaginary identity as a way of dealing with her depressing offline reality. Eventually, the relationship turned into something more than a friendship although it was actually based on an elaborate lie. The articles”Love the One You’re Near” and “There Is Now Evidence That “There’s Now Evidence That Online Dating Causes Stronger, More Diverse Marriages” also address the issue of online romance. What do you think? Is the Internet a useful place to find a partner?​ Make an argument for or against online dating. Take a position and support it with reasons and evidence. Include  a counterargument and rebuttal.  You can use logical reasoning, personal examples, examples from the documentary and the articles, expert opinions, facts, and/or statistics. Also include  at least one direct quote and a paraphrase with in-text citations. ​

72. Extra Credit: Researching Library Databases

Answer each question, the following questions for an extra Writer’s Notebook grade (this is extra credit).

  1. Find the source that discusses police wearing body cameras by Kelly Freund. List the title of the article and summarize it (you can summarize the abstract).
  2. Find the source that discusses transgender students’ bathroom rights from the Harvard Journal on Legislation. List the title of the article, the author, and the subject terms used to categorize it.
  3. Find the source that discusses the sale of organs from Boston College Law Review. List the correct Works Cited entry.
  4. Find a source that discusses raising the federal minimum wage. List the article title and author. Then describe how you searched for it and found it.

YouTube URL: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Z3y_2wzCS0c

Please watch the video below over accessing the online databases. Then complete the database activity in your next Writer’s Notebook below. You will be finding sources for your annotated bibliography and your argument research paper. You will use  Academic Search Complete to find them.  You need to find four sources that support your claim and one that is a counterargument.

You can access the online databases from the Richland College Library homepage (there is a link on the left sidebar). Click on Databases (in the left column) and then click on Academic Search Complete at the top of the page. You will have to login with your student ID email provided by DCCCD. Your email starts with a lowercase E followed by your student ID. Here’s an example:

Login: e1234567@student.dcccd.edu

Password: eConnect password

If you do not know your eCannect password, you can try logging in on the eConnect webpage. There is a box you can check to get your password hint as well.

Whenever you search a database, always look for the “Advanced Search” feature, which allows you to combine key terms. Using key terms selectively is also important. Also, when searching for authors in a database, always place the last name first, since items in a database are alphabetized. You can also use the drop down arrow to search specific things like authors, titles, journal names, or even ISBN numbers.

73. Project Management Discussion 5

1.Using expected value, is it economically better to make or buy the component?

Cost of buying 10,000 components = 10,000 * 72 = $720,000

2.    Strategically thinking, why might management opt for other than the most economical choice?

response for Naresh Erlapalli

  1. Using expected value, is it economically better to make or buy the component?

Estimated cost of purchase = 10000 * 72 = 72000

cost for production = setup cost + defective repair cost + total raw material cost

Given:

Cost of raw material per component = $40

Setup cost = $100,000

cost of defective repair per component = $120

Percent defective  0 10 20 30   40 

Probability of 10 20 30 25 15 

occurrence

No. Of defective units as probability = sum of ((percent defective/100) * (probability of occurrence/100) )* (total units) )

= (((0/100) * (10/100) ) +  ((10/100) * (20/100) ) + ((20/100) * (30/100))  +  ((30/100) * (25/100)  + ((40/100) * (15/100) ) * (10000)  

= 0.215 *10000

= 2150 Units

Total estimated repairing cost =  total defective units * cost per repair = 2150*120 = $258,000

Total cost of raw materials =  total units * cost per unit

=  10000 * 40

=  $400,000

total cost of production for 10,000 units =  $258,000 + $400,000 + 100,000 

 =  $758,000

Estimated cost of purchasing = 10,000 *72 = $720,000

Therefore, comparing the prices for purchasing and manufacturing, it is economically better to manufacture the products.

2. Strategically thinking, why might management opt for other than the most economical choice?

The management may opt for manufacturing the product even though its costlier than purchasing the product because strategically thinking it gives them an opportunity to establish themselves in the market. By manufacturing the products in house they can look for long term solutions for future orders and they can also reduce the defective components by improving themselves and also it removes the dependency on external vendors which will make them more productive.

response for Tharun Varikoti

1.  Using the expected value, is it economically better to make or buy the component?

Cost estimate with new high cost component:

$72×10,000=720,000

Another approach the management tried to take up was to build the component internally & setup:

Cost estimate if Teloxy builds it:

100,000+400,000= $500,000

Calculation after the defect:

0x10+0.1×20+0.2×30+0.3×25+0.4×15= 21.5 = 0.215

Total number of defective components for 10000 units=2150

Cost for defective component=$120

2150×120= $258,000

Thus, total cost If Teloxy builds it with the predicted defects= = 258,000 + 500,000 = $758,000

Coming to the difference if Teloxy builds it or buys it= 758,000-720,000 = $38,000.

Concluding to this calculation, economically it’s better for Teloxy to purchase it from the third-party vendor than building it.

2.  Strategically thinking, why might the management opt for other than the most economical choice?

Utilizing the normal esteem, we see that it is financially savvy for the organization to make a segment than to get it. Be that as it may, now and again, the organization might opt to purchase the part

Despite the fact that it is increasingly costly as the organization is new to the assembling procedure and that there is an immense danger of disappointment or the harmed market esteem and the notoriety if there emerges a sudden hazard. Utilizing the normal esteem and the determined numbers above, we can see that last expense per unit is $75.8 if there should be an occurrence of make option and $77 in the event of purchasing the segment which is a less expense to the organization than the expense of building the market esteem and the notoriety once it is down a direct result of any looked for of disappointment. On the off chance that the organization thinks toward this path, then the organization might opt for purchasing the part despite the fact that it isn’t practical.

References:

1.  Kerzner, H. (2017). Project management: A Systems Approach to Planning, Scheduling, and Controlling (12 ed.). Hoboken, NJ, USA: John Wiley & Sons, Inc.

74. Assignment: Journaling

When you have a strong grasp of the basic tenets, strengths, and weaknesses of key theories of psychology, you can make an informed decision as to which theory or theories best apply in understanding a particular set of behaviors. By keeping a journal of sorts, you can document the characteristics of each theory as you learn about it. Your journaling will be a useful reference for you long after you complete this course. The Psychology Theories Template provides a matrix where you can record what you have learned about each theory.

For this Assignment, you will explore key concepts found in psychodynamic theories and begin your journaling of this week’s theories.

To complete

Begin populating the Psychology Theories Template related to this week’s theories—psychodynamic theories. As you begin populating your template, consider the following:

  1. Identify who or what contributed to the development of the theory. Were there key researchers or seminal research that led to the theory?
  2. Record whether the theory emphasizes nature (biology), nurture (environment), or both.
  3. List the primary characteristics or features of the theory (its key tenets and concepts). Be sure to include if a particular period of life is emphasized.
  4. List the noteworthy strengths and weaknesses of the theory.
  5. (Optional) Include any notes that you find helpful in understanding and applying the theory, such as potential contemporary themes or fields of research in which the theory could be applied.

75. Term Paper

Upload your Term Project Paper here. You may write on any topic related to technology security.

You must produce a minimum of a 10 pages paper. You must use a minimum of 5 references.

– Assure you are citing in APA format

-You must use a minimum of one graphics (may use a table)

– Doublespace the paper

– You must use APA formatting (6th Edition)

76. Discussion

Cushing filed an application with the office of the Adjutant General of the State of New Hampshire for the use of the Portsmouth Armory to hold a dance on the evening of April 29. The application, made on behalf of the Portsmouth Area Clamshell Alliance, was received by the Adjutant General’s office on or about March 30. On March 31 the Adjutant General mailed a signed contract after agreeing to rent the armory for the evening requested. The agreement required acceptance by the renter affixing his signature to the agreement and then returning the copy to the Adjutant General within five days after receipt. Cushing received the contract offer, signed it on behalf of the Alliance, and placed it in the outbox for mailing on April 3. At 6:30 on the evening of April 4, Cushing received a telephone call from the Adjutant General revoking the rental offer. Cushing stated during the conversation that he had already signed and mailed the contract. The Adjutant General sent a written confirmation of the withdrawal on April 5. On April 6 the Adjutant General’s office received by mail from Cushing the signed contract dated April 3 and postmarked April 5.

a.  What are the arguments that a binding contract exists?

b.  What are the arguments that the contract does not exist or should not exist?

3 paragraphs with 3 references

77. Week 8- Discussion

Discussion Assignment:

Watch the following video:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=1gHbwT_R9t0

Was the news segment compelling enough to convince you that the Earth could be flat? Whether we realize it or not, we are inundated with causal claims and arguments. The Flat Earth Wiki page explains that the evidence for a flat earth is derived from many different facets of science and philosophy. The world looks flat, the bottoms of clouds are flat, the movement of the Sun; these are all examples of your senses telling you that we do not live on a spherical heliocentric world. This is using what’s called an empirical approach, or an approach that relies on information from your senses.

The causes of the following events and phenomena are well known and frequently discussed. But do you understand these causes well enough to spell them out to someone else? See how well (and in how much detail) you can explain one of these events or phenomena. Post your explanation to the discussion thread. Is your explanation relatively clear, or does it seem more open to debate? earthquakes/tsunamis
swelling caused by a bee sting
sharp rises in reported cases of autism or asthma
fake news
climate change
popularity of the Netflix series 13 Reasons Why
increasing post-graduation debt for college students
outcome of the

2016 presidential election
controversies in schools and online over free speech

 

78. Computer Science

Question 1

Calculate the slope and intercept of the first order equation y=mx+b  ->  deg_c = m * deg_f + b

Here is the spreadsheet  https://github.com/ml1150258/2019_Spring_CIS_CSC_17c/tree/master/Hmwk/CurveFitLab (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. 

Write a program/project in Netbeans using the same concepts as the  spreadsheet.  You can copy the degrees Fahrenheit column and place in a  file.  Then copy the column with error values included for degree  Celsius.  Calculate the slope and intercept for the data using the  formulas in the spreadsheet.

Question 2

Create abstract classes to inherit, show polymorphic behavior and  operator overloading.  I have written the .h and main.cpp files for  you.  Complete by writing the .cpp class files.

https://github.com/ml1150258/2019_Spring_CIS_CSC_17c/tree/master/Hmwk/Review2_CIS17c_Object_Array

79. English Homework

Readings Required:

“Analyzing a Visual: Texting while Driving”, 473 

Answer each question in 150-300 words:

  1. How does the ad’s caption “Get the Message” have a double meaning? Do you find the caption effective? Why or why not?
  2. Briefly argue how a visual argument about texting and driving (like this one) might be more or less effective than an essay on the same subject.

80. Education Homework

Story Plot      

Section 4.2 of the text discusses in detail the importance and the various types of plot we see in the stories we read.  Successful stories are those that have an identifiable plot or sequence of events (Coats, 2013).  Our understanding of the types of plot will help us to better identify the kinds of stories our future students gravitate towards.  For this post, you will complete “The Seven Basic Plots” chart, which is available in your online course.  You will choose at least two children’s books that fit into each plot category.  A title may fit into more than one category, but you must choose at least two books for each plot type.  Then, briefly discuss how knowing this information will help you choose literature for your classroom.

81. Education homework

Picturebooks      

The introduction for Chapter 3 of the text discusses picturebooks and the important role this type of literature can have in helping children develop in their visual, spatial, and gestural literacies (Coats, 2013).  Our ability as teachers to understand the basics of picturebook design will assist us in our choosing of books.  For this post, you will create a picturebook of your own, implementing and discussing those elements addressed in Chapter 3.  Go to Storybird (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. and design a picturebook to share with your classmates. If you need assistance with how to use Storybird, it is recommended you view the Storyboard Tutorial for Students (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site..  In your post, include a description of the elements of an effective picturebook design, and explain how your picturebook aligns with these elements.  Include one picture and description for each of the following:

  • Color
  • Shape, line, and texture
  • Characters and icons
  • Composition and point of view

In your post, be sure to include a discussion of these elements, why you feel your students would enjoy this book, and a working link to your picturebook.

Storyboard Tutorial for Students (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site..  In your post, include a description of the elements of an effective picturebook design, and explain how your picturebook aligns with these elements.  Include one picture and description for each of the following:

  • Color
  • Shape, line, and texture
  • Characters and icons
  • Composition and point of view

In your post, be sure to include a discussion of these elements, why you feel your students would enjoy this book, and a working link to your picturebook.

 82. Human Resource Management

Internet Search

Access the Internet and locate a health insurance company’s (e.g. UnitedHealth, Aetna, etc.) website. Write a three- to five-page double-spaced paper (excluding title and reference pages), addressing the following:

  • Describe member services and incentives.
  • Discuss new/current/upcoming technology.
  • Examine provider network and outreach.
  • Explain the insurance company’s commitment to excellence and quality.
  • List its accreditation and/or certification.
  • Generate two recommendations for improving the company’s member services and/or website.

The Internet Search assignment

Carefully review the Grading Rubric (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. for the criteria that will be used to evaluate your assignmen

83.Human Resource Management

 Information Systems Functionalities

In preparing for this discussion, read Chapter 23 of the course text. For your initial post, address the following in the discussion forum:

  • Describe information systems functionalities in claims management and member services maintained by Managed Care Organizations (MCOs).
  • Identify the significance of information systems in maintaining provider network operated by MCOs.
  • Discuss the changes in information systems to support consumerism that can be recognized in MCOs.

84. Human Resource Management.

Employer-Sponsored Health Insurance

In preparing for this discussion, read Chapters 16 and 22 of the course text. For your initial post, address the following in the discussion forum:

  • Describe the sales process in the employer-sponsored model.
  • Compare the differences between rating and underwriting.
  • Discuss the influence of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act on ONE of the four areas: (a) marketing, (b) sales, (c) rating, and (d) underwriting.

Your initial post should be at least 300 words. Support your response with a minimum of two scholarly sources (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. that were published in the last five years.

85. Political Science

Question 1: What are the major approaches to political development? Analyze critically different approaches to political development as well as the relationship between development and post-colonialism. (300 words)

Question 2: What is the relationship between political development and democracy? What is the relationship between political development and civil rights? Are they the same? Which one constitutes a prerequisite for the other?(300 words)

86. Accounting

Describe the organizations and rules that govern accounting.

87. Writing Essay

Need to write a paper with references for implementing new stores and what are cybersecurity plans and Risks. Please go through the screen shots for more details and how to write the paper,


88.Discussion

While some similarities between management and leadership exist, there are notable differences.

  • In your own words, explain what you believe the difference is between management and leadership.
  • Conduct research on the differences between management and leadership, and post your findings. References and citations are to be formatted according to APA style and formatting guidelines.

89. Entrepreneurship Case Analysis Essay

CASE ANALYSIS GRADING

Case analysis assignments are designed to demonstrate your analytical abilities and your critical thinking skills. They are NOT summaries of the case.

For each assignment, you need to show:

– The top issues which you think prompted the case to be written

– Your consideration of each issue, including any action that must be taken to address the issue and the pros/cons of that action

THEN

– Roll the electronic die.

– Assume the perspective of the company officer indicated by the die.

– Describe your reaction to the case from that officer’s perspective

You receive no points for summarizing the case.

You can receive a maximum of 5 points for issue identification.
You can receive a maximum of 15 points for your analysis of those issues.
You can receive a maximum of 5 points for the company officer perspective.

In exceptional cases, the point allocation may change.

Since we will identify key issues in the case class discussion, late analysis submissions will be discounted by 50%, unless significant new ideas are presented.  

90. Information Systems

Instructions

Paper D: Reflective paper on class learning.

Consider this assignment as a reflective piece on class learning as it applies to Ethics in Information Technology. It describes your Ah-ha or Eureka moments. It is hoped that this course made you think about the ethical issues that occur in your personal and work lives and how to go about making ethical choices. Please use the ideas you learned from this course; how you will synthesize what you learned from your research about your topic including – over-arching issues, readings, discussion from class, and conclusions from other assignments that apply to your research.

Please address the following elements:

  • From a class learning perspective, what were some of your “take-aways?”
  • How has this impacted your understanding of the ethical issues?
  • What will you do differently?
  • How has what you have learned in this course influenced your career?
  • As we continue to move toward a global community, what new challenges might we see relating to ethics in IT?

You are to prepare a reflective piece of not more than 2-3 pages, double-spaced and submit it to your Assignment Folder as an attached Microsoft Word file. This paper may be subjective in nature!

(This assignment is for the ethics in technology class)

91. English homework Help

Student Newspaper Article Summary Template

Student name: _______________________________________

Author(s): _____________________________________________________

Date Published: _________________________________________________

Title: _________________________________________________________

Newspaper: ____________________________________________________

Website: _______________________________________________________

Date Accessed: __________________________________________________

APA Citation: __________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________

Paragraph 1: Introduction: Who are the actors in this story? What happened? How did it happen? When did it happen? Is it still happening? Where did it happen?

Paragraph 2: What are the natural elements introduced in this story? What are the key points about these natural elements that the author(s) make?

Paragraph 3: What are the social elements introduced in this story? What are the key points about these social elements that the author(s) makes? Are people of all genders and races represented? Whose voices are not heard that might be important to this story?

Paragraph: 4: What are the major findings of this story? What are the implications of this story?

92. Identify Variable Types And Values

In this assignment, you will be required to use the Heart Rate Dataset to complete the following:

  • Identify the types of data represented by variables
  • The range or types of values for each variable
  • Give a brief written description of the variables, and how they are used in the data set.

Steps

1. Open the Heart Rate Dataset in Excel

2. Identify each of the variables contained in the dataset by type

3. Identify the type of data each variable represents (e.g., qualitative or quantitative) and the possible values for each

4. Briefly describe how the variable is used in the dataset, (e.g., to identify a class, or to give a specific numeric value for an individual).

Additional Instructions:

Your assignment should be typed into a Word or other word processing document, formatted in APA style. The assignments must include

Correctly identifies all variable types

Correctly gives the range of values for each variable

Correctly describes each variable

Submitted assignment is well written and well organized demonstrating excellence in scholarly writing. Mechanics (spelling and punctuation) and grammar are excellent.

93. Applied sciences

Submit a Discussion post in which you respond to the following five questions. Be sure to support your responses with information you learned from the week’s Learning Resources.

  1. Start your post with a brief description of a current or historical public health effort from your interactive courseware (e.g., water fluoridation) that is new or surprising.
  2. Considering your daily activities, describe two specific instances where public health efforts such as those identified in your learning resources (e.g., immunization) may have an impact on individuals you know.
  3. Explain how your examples might impact the burden of disease addressed in your Learning Resources this week.
  4. How would (or do) your examples of public health affect people in other less developed countries? Provide an example to illustrate your point.

94. BYOD Is A Growing Trend In Corporate Environments


BYOD is a growing trend in corporate environments, where employees bring their own devices to work. Factors  that have led to the growing popularity of BYOD include the benefits of work flexibility, increased productivity,          and efficiency of employees. Despite these benefits, there are concerns over information security and privacy. Since BYOD allows employees to access organizational data anytime anywhere, it is necessary to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of organizational information resources and assets.

Discussion Questions

 1. What are the advantages and disadvantages of allowing employees to use their personal smart phones for work?

2. What people, organization, and technology factors should be addressed when deciding whether to allow employees to use their personal smart phones for work?

Provide support for your statements and references, APA formatted.

95. Literature Analysis Research

Format: This assignment must be printed out for submission, following the standard MLA format.

Details: 2 Page (600-650 words) comparison/contrast of Masque of the Red death and The Tell-Tale Heart by Edgar Allen Poe ! Include the following:

  • Compare/contrast three (3) literary and poetic devices between literary works ,Define the literary and poetic      devices.
  • Answer: how does each work use them differently or the same?
  • Answer: what affect do the literary devices have on the reader in terms of interpretation if some or all of the literary devices are NOT included?  How would their absence change the literary work?
  • Answer: what other devices would YOU choose if you had the power to edit the literary work?  Name at least two (2) and why.

For your title, you will need to list the following choice as how you would like this grade to be counted 

  • A: Replacement grade for one (1) discussion board

96. Emerging-Threats-And-Countermeasures_ Discretion

How basic discretion steps can help in countermeasures?

3 references with minimum of 300 words

97. Discussion Question

From the perspective of a general manager in your field, which of the organizational control methods outlined in Chapter 19 of the Management textbook do you think would be the most universal? What does organizational control look like in your sphere of influence? The book is   

Daft, R. (2014). Management (11th ed.). Vanderbilt University: South-Western Cengage learning. I need at least 2 refs. 1-2 pages can do the job.

98. Monologue

Write an monologue of “mama bear from the fairy tail- goldilocks and three bear”

99. Enterprise Risk Management_ Mars And California Health System

1)Approach Mars, Incorporated used to implement ERM

2)University of California Health System’s ERM development.

Do some research on above two topics and explain In what ways are the two organization’s approaches to ERM(Enterprise Risk Management) similar? How do they differ? Choose one aspect of each ERM implementation from which the other organization would benefit and explain why.  

Minimum of 300 words with three references

100. Three 550-600 Word Research Papers. APA Format.3-4 Peer Reviewed References.No Plagiarism

Three 550-600 word research papers. APA format. APA format in paragraph citations. 3-4 Peer reviewed references. No plagiarism

Topics:

Question 1) Business Bluffing

Question 2) Stakeholder theory

Question 3)Organizational Integrity

Please follow below instructions, each paper should have,

DEFINITION: a brief definition of the key term followed by the APA reference for the term; 

SUMMARY: Summarize the article in your own words- this should be in the 150-200 word range. Be sure to note the article’s author, note their credentials and why we should put any weight behind his/her opinions, research or findings regarding the key term.

DISCUSSION: Using 300-350 words, write a brief discussion, in your own words of how the article relates to the selected chapter Key Term. A discussion is not rehashing what was already stated in the article, but the opportunity for you to add value by sharing your experiences, thoughts and opinions. This is the most important part of the assignment.

REFERENCES: All references must be listed at the bottom of the submission in APA format.

101.Nursing

What are some factors that make some people healthy and others ill? Healthy People 2020 identifies five determinants of health that influence the health of individuals and populations. Healthy People 2020 describes them as “a range of personal, social, economic, and environmental factors that influence health status” (U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 2018, About Determinants of Health, para. 1). Determinants fall into five categories, including (a) policy making, (b) social factors, (c) health services, (d) individual behavior, and (e) biology and genetics.

U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Office of Disease Prevention and Health Promotion. (2018). Healthy People 2020: About Determinants of Health. Retrieved from https://www.healthypeople.gov/2020/about/foundation-health-measures/Determinants-of-Health

102. Company Name Apple Inc:

The aim of this assignment is to provide students the opportunity to perform a thorough case analysis. Select your company and get approval from your course professor before working on it. The case analysis should include the following elements:

Title Page

Executive Summary

Background 

  • Introduce      the company and provide the reader with background information about the      company.

Situation Analysis 

  • The Environment – PESTLE Analysis
    1. Political environment
    2. Economic environment
    3. Social environment
    4. Technological environment
    5. Legal/Regulatory environment
    6. Environmental environment
  • The Industry – Porter’s Five Forces Analysis
    1. Bargaining power of suppliers
    2. Threat of new entrant
    3. Rivalry among existing competitors
    4. Bargaining power of competitors
    5. Threat of substitutes
  • The Firm 
    1. What is the mission and vision of the firm?
    2. What are the strengths of the firm?
    3. What is the firm’s financial condition?
    4. What are       the constraints and weaknesses of the firm (i.e. financial condition,       organizational conflict)?
    5. What is the       management philosophy? 
    6. What does       the organizational structure tell you about how decisions are made?
  • The Product
    1. What good       and/or service does the organization offer? 
    2. What       consumer need does the product solve?
    3. What       promotional mix, channels of distribution, and pricing strategies are being       used by the organization?
    4. What competitive advantage does the       marketing strategy offer?

SWOT Analysis 

  • Strengths 
    • Identify strengths of the organization and       answer the following questions:
      • How does        this strength affect the operations of the organization?
      • How does this strength assist the company        in meeting the needs of its target market(s)?
  • Weaknesses 
    • Identify weaknesses of the organization and       answer the following questions:
      • How does this weakness affect the        operations of the organization?
      • How does        knowledge of this weakness assist the organization in meeting the needs        of its target market(s)?
  • Opportunities 
    • Identify       opportunities in the industry (and/or external environment) and answer       the following questions:
      • How is        this opportunity related to serving the needs of our target market?
      • What        actions must the organization take to capitalize on this opportunity?
  • Threats 
    • Identify       threats in the industry (and/or external environment) and answer the       following questions:
      • How is this threat related to serving the        needs of our target market?
      • What        actions must the organization take to prevent this threat from limiting        the capabilities of the organization?

Problem Statement 

  • What is the      primary problem in the case? Secondary problems? What are the ramifications of these problems in      the long run? Short run? Include quantitative and qualitative      analysis in your response.

Strategic Plan

  • Based on the problem      identified, develop a 5-year strategic plan for the company. This plan should include:

1. Clear vision, mission statement and core values

2. SMART objectives to solve the problem

3. Corresponding strategies for the objectives identified

4. Implementation plan

5. Key Performance Indicators to monitor progress

Summary

  • Conclude the paper      with a summary of the major points.

References

As groups prepare the project, please attend to the following additional guidelines:

· Length: 30 pages (double-spaced)

· Sources: 15 scholarly sources and 15 sources of business data

· Format: APA 

Proofread the document carefully before submission at the end of the bi-term

 

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Management Accounting Problem : Holzmann Cleaning Services

Answer the following questions No Intro or conclusion…

  1. What is the relationship between a firm’s customers and its business level strategy in terms of who, what and how?  Why is this relationship important?
  2. How can each of the business-level strategies be used to position the firm relative to the five forces of competition in a way that helps the firm earn above-average returns?
  3. What motives might encourage managers and leaders to over diversify their firm?
  4. What might encourage diversification?
  5. What are some trends in the global environment that might impact the choice of international strategies, particularly international corporate-level strategies?
  6. What are two important issues that can potentially affect a firm’s ability to successfully use international strategies?
  7. Why do firms use suborder’s strategic alliances?
  8. What risks are firms likely to experience if they use cooperative strategies?
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Week 2 General Questions/Thoughts

  1. Why is it important for a firm to study and understand the external environment?
  2. Which are most important among the economic, technological, social and demographic, political and ecological remote environmental factors impacting your own industry & firm?  Make sure to explain your strategic thinking about your firm and be as specific as possible.
  3. What are the differences between the general environment and the industry environment? Why are these differences important?
  4. What is the external environmental analysis process (four parts). What does the firm want to learn when using this process?
  5. Explain the differences among the seven segments of the general environment. Why are these details of interest to organizations?
  6. How do the five forces of competition in an industry affect its profitability potential?
  7. Why is it important for a company’s design to include sustainable processes?

Week 2 General Questions/Thoughts

  1. Why is it important for a firm to study and understand the external environment?
  2. Which are most important among the economic, technological, social and demographic, political and ecological remote environmental factors impacting your own industry & firm?  Make sure to explain your strategic thinking about your firm and be as specific as possible.
  3. What are the differences between the general environment and the industry environment? Why are these differences important?
  4. What is the external environmental analysis process (four parts). What does the firm want to learn when using this process?
  5. Explain the differences among the seven segments of the general environment. Why are these details of interest to organizations?
  6. How do the five forces of competition in an industry affect its profitability potential?
  7. Why is it important for a company’s design to include sustainable processes?

MGT 279 Assignment 4

1. In summary, what does the report’s author blame for the problems encountered on the Big Dig project?

2. As an expert, to what extent do you think the author has got things right? Based on your knowledge of what it takes to manage major programs, how would you summarize what went wrong with this project?

3. To what extent do you feel that if the Big Dig had followed the US Department of Defense approach to managing major programs it would have been more successful? What problems might arise in trying to employ the US DoD approach?

4. What lessons can be derived from the Big Dig experience that can be shared with individuals and organizations that are about to begin work on a major program?

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MGT 270 Assignment 6

  1. Based on demographic data supplied in “Our Community” (p. 3), provide a summary of some key characteristics of the community and its members.
  • Beginning in the 1990s, PWC tied its budget to achieving its strategic plan. Explain how PWC uses the strategic plan to establish the foundation of its budget, using specific examples from Citizens Guide.
  1. What are the top four sources of revenue for PWC? Do you believe the PWC revenue profile is typical for counties in the USA? Explain your answer.
  1. PWC divides its budget into two categories: capital budget and operating budget. What is the difference between the two. What is the primary source of revenue for the capital budget? For the operating budget?
  1. A big portion of the PWC budget entails “transfer to schools.” What does this mean from both the Revenue and Expenditure perspective? Supplement your answer with data from Citizens Guide. Be sure to look at the special character of this budget item on p. 11.
  1. Smart county budgeting requires political sensitivity of elected officials. How is such political sensitivity reflected in the PWC budget process? (Hint: See p. 14.)
  2. The PWC Capital Improvement Program (CIP) is reasonably typical for counties in the USA. Why do county (and municipal) budgets distinguish between capital budgets and operating budgets? Which three budget areas dominate anticipated capital budget expenditures? Where do you think the money is being spent in these three areas?

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MGT 270 Assignment 7

Slann points out that two prevailing traits of today’s world are increasing interdependence in the global economy and increased strength of ethnic and religious forces. Your response should be 1 – 2 pages long, single spaced. Note that the answers to these questions require thought and research on your part. There is no cookbook answer.

  1.  
    1. What evidence is there to back up Slann’s view?
  • To what extent do these two traits reinforce each other, or work in contrary directions?

Strategic Plan, Part 2: Strategic Planning Process Paper

You will perform an environmental scan for your target company. 

Choose an organization according to the following:

  • Organization that you want to work for once you complete your MBA (JP Morgan Chase)

Write a 1,050-word minimum environmental analysis in which you include the following: 

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  • Determine how to create value and sustain competitive advantage using the environmental scanning strategy.
  • Evaluate the company’s external environment.
  • Identify and assess one or more of the Five Forces that are most important in driving competition in your organization’s external industry environment.
  • Assess the company’s general environment.
  • Evaluate the organization’s industry operating environment.

Format your paper according to APA guidelines.

Support your assessments with Include a minimum of two authoritative references. Remember all references should be included in the body of your paper as in-text citations. 

Strategic Plan, Part 4

Write a 1,050-word minimum strategic evaluation in which you include the following: 

  • Organization JP Morgan Chase
  • Evaluate potential business level strategies for the organization.
  • Assess potential corporate level strategies for the organization.
  • Assess potential global strategies for the organization.
  • Recommend a strategy or combination of strategies the organization should implement, and include a rationale for that recommendation.

 Include a minimum of two authoritative references. Remember all references should be included in the body of your paper as in-text citations. 

The role of sports in education

Role of sports in education. You may select to focus on either high school or college sports or their role in education. Provide your educated opinion and use sources to support your beliefs. Make sure you cite your sources in-text and with a reference page. You may use APA or MLA.

NUR502 Week 4 Benchmark Assignment Application of Concept

NUR502 Week 4 Benchmark Assignment Application of Concept

Benchmark Assignment: Application of Concept Analysis to Clinical process

Grand Canyon University: NUR 502

Benchmark Assignment: Application Of Concept Analysis to Clinical process

EDU 599 Week 10 Professional Development Plan

EDU 599 Week 10 Professional Development Plan –

Write a seven to eight (7-8) page, three-part Professional Growth Plan in which you focus upon the following areas of personal and professional growth:

  • Part 1: Content Knowledge and Resources
  • Part 2: Competencies
  • Part 3: Reflective Activities 

For Part 1, use the Internet or the Strayer Library to research professional organizations, grant opportunities, and / or virtual learning communities pertinent to both the theme of your portfolio, and your current or prospective work environment.

For Part 3, use your textbook, the Internet, and / or Strayer Library to research information on teaching and learning through reflective practice.

Part 1: Content Knowledge and Resources

  1. Select at least two (2) of the professional organizations, grant opportunities, and / or virtual learning communities that you have researched, and analyze the manner in which you would utilize the organizations you selected to support your continued professional development. 
  2. Predict at least three (3) issues that you believe will be of particular significance within the next decade, or choose three (3) remaining questions that you ponder which relate to both the theme of your portfolio and your current or prospective work environment.
  3. Select one (1) of the issues or questions you identified in relation to your theme and work environment, and construct an annotated bibliography of at least five (5) print and non-print resources to consult in the future.

Part 2: Competencies

  1. Specify the development of your information literacy / research skills throughout your coursework. Provide one to three (1-3) papers / artifacts / examples from previous coursework in order to demonstrate your change(s) and acquired knowledge within this area. Note: If you do not have papers / artifacts / examples, attach the description(s) of your chosen previous assignment(s).
  2. Develop a plan for continued information literacy development as part of your personal and professional growth plan. Your plan must include, at a minimum:
    1. Three to five (3-5) information literacy goals
    2. Potential means (e.g., organizations and resources that you may utilize) to achieve the information literacy goals 
    3. Relevant strategies for applying the literacy skills in educational / work environment
  3. Specify the development of your writing skills throughout your coursework. Provide one to three (1-3) papers / artifacts / examples from previous coursework to demonstrate your change(s) and learning in this area. Identify plans for continued writing development as part of your personal and professional growth plan. Note: If you do not have papers / artifacts / examples, attach the description(s) of your chosen previous assignment(s).
  4. Create an action plan geared toward both building upon your personal and professional strength(s), which you identified previously in Journal Entry #6, and toward improving your weaknesses related to your portfolio theme. Your plan must include, at a minimum:
  5. Three to five (3-5) goals
  6. Three to five (3-5) key steps that you plan to take for further evaluation and continuous improvement
  7. Potential means (e.g., organizations and resources that you may utilize) to achieve these goals
  8. Relevant strategies for applying the plan in educational / work environment

Part 3: Reflective Activities

  1. Ascertain whether or not you met the reflection goal that you established in Week 3 of this course. Analyze the significant way(s) and extent to which the process of reflection caused you to become a more reflective practitioner.
  2. Propose two to three (2-3) measures that you would use in order to strengthen your reflective process. Provide a rationale to support your response.
  3. Propose two to three (2-3) ways that you would apply continued reflective activities within your current or prospective work environment. Provide at least one (1) example of such application to support your response.
  4. Upload Assignment 2 to your Optimal Resume portfolio. Copy and paste your portfolio’s URL into the comment box of Assignment 2 to submit the assignment to Blackboard.  

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Apply theoretical and practical knowledge gained in prior program courses to explore a new topic or synthesize understanding in the concentration area and the overall Strayer University Master of Education program.
  • Develop a working portfolio that focuses on a specific theme or project tied to the Strayer University Master of Education program goals and the learner’s area of concentration.
  • Create materials that demonstrate the analysis, synthesis, and intersection of course work in the Strayer University Master of Education program.
  • Use technology and information resources to research information about education.

Write clearly and concisely about education using proper writing mechanics

LEG 320_Week 2_DQ Elements of a Crime and Jurisdiction


“Elements of a Crime and Jurisdiction”
 Please respond to the following:

  • Review the table, titled “Elements of a Crime”, located in Chapter 3 of the textbook, then compare and contrast the roles of mens rea (i.e., guilty mind) and actus rea (i.e., the forbidden act or omission) as they relate to proving a crime has been committed. Next, discuss whether the concurrent occurrence of these elements is more beneficial to the prosecution or the defense. Justify your response.
  • It is common knowledge that jurisdiction, the official power to make legal decisions and judgments, is vitally important to the adversarial legal system. Discuss the importance of having either subject matter jurisdiction or personal jurisdiction over the cause of action. Include one (1) example of the importance of the chosen jurisdiction to support your response.

Management Accounting Problem : Holzmann Cleaning Services

Intermediate Management Accounting

2 / 3

PROJECT 1 (30 MARKS)

Project 1 is due at the end of Week 3. It is out of 30 marks.

Required:

Assume the role of a partner in Martine’s consulting business. Martine has asked you to assist

her with completing the analysis and developing a report for Gretel. Prepare a report and

supporting exhibits for Gretel, president of Holzmann Cleaning Services (HCS), to analyze

HCS’s current profitability and provide analysis of the overhead allocations used. It should

include the following:

1. Profit analysis: Prepare a brief high-level overview of the 20X6 results in total based on

Exhibit 1 in the project details document. Your discussion should highlight significant

changes between 20X5 and 20X6 operations, and between 20X6 actual and 20X6

budgeted operations. (8 marks)

2. Costing analysis: Prepare overall comments on the current method HCS uses to allocate its

overhead and provide further analysis on ways in which the company can improve its

costing methods in order to assess and manage its costs. Your analysis should include the

following:

a) Calculate overhead applied rate per direct labour hour (rounded to the nearest dollar),

the overhead applied amount and the resulting over- or underapplied overhead for 20X6

using the traditional costing approach. Base this on the existing method of allocating

service overhead using direct labour hours as the allocation base. The 20X6 actual

wages and benefit rate were the same as budgeted at $13.20 per hour. (2 marks)

b) Use the regression analyses in Exhibit 3 in Project Details to determine the viability of

each cost driver to predict costs for cleaning supplies and transportation. This should

include reasons for choosing or not choosing the regression analyses that were

provided. (3 marks)

c) Use the regression analysis equation chosen in part (b) to separate the variable cost(s)

from the fixed cost(s). Only the fixed cost(s) would be categorized with the other

overhead costs. With the adjusted overhead costs, follow the traditional costing

approach to recalculate the overhead application rate using direct labour hours as the

allocation base. Calculate the over- or underapplied overhead by applying the new

overhead rate. Compare your result to part (a) and provide an analysis of the

differences between the two application rates. (4 marks)

Intermediate Management Accounting Project 1

3 / 3

d) Using activity-based costing and the information in Exhibit 2 in Project Details, prepare

a partial profit analysis for commercial and residential operations. Use wages and

benefits costs (allocated on the same basis as revenue) and all costs from the activitybased data to prepare a partial operating statement that includes all direct/traceable

costs. Compare the segment margins between the commercial and residential

operations. (4 marks) Provide three points that highlight the reasons for the difference

between cost allocations using activity-based costing and traditional costing. (3 marks)

e) Provide overall comments on the results of these analyses in your report. (3 marks)

In addition to the above, award 3 marks for report format and professionalism. Your report

should clearly communicate the important details of the case and effectively persuade the

reader to act on your advice.

NOTE ON ROUNDING: Use unrounded numbers for all calculations and round the final

answer to the nearest dollar

South University Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam

statistics helpStatistics HLT 362V

HIEU 201 Lecture Quiz 1 Liberty University

According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who was the greatest Chaldean ruler, who sacked Jerusalem and took many Israelites into captivitty

According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which of the following peoples contributed the greatest legacy to Western civilization?

According to the lecture, “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which sea faring people, mentioned in the Old and New Testaments, gave us the writing system based on sound, rather than pictures?

According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” Sumer, the foundation for Mesopotamian culture, was located in which region?

According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which empire brought conflict to Egypt and were the first to fashion iron weapons?

True or False: According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” the purpose of this course is to consider all important civilizations from around the world.

According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who built the very first, world empire?
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” where did most civilizations rise up?

According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who were considered a “deadly force of ruthless attackers”?

According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which of the following is NOT one of the legacies of the Persian Empire

Mini-Strategy Week Three

Create a 3- to 4 – slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation 

Include the following in your outline:

  • Organizations (Apple Inc)
  • Evaluate the organization’s mission statement, vision statement and values’ statement.
  • Discuss the organization’s current goals and objectives.

Strategic Plan, Part 3


Write 
a 1,400-word minimum internal environmental analysis in which you include the following: 

  • Assess the organization’s internal environment. ( JP Morgan Chase )
  • Identify the most important strengths and weaknesses of your organization including an assessment of the organization’s resources.
  • Identify the most important internal environmental factors in the general, industry, and external analysis in relation to the internal analysis.
  • Perform competitor analysis.
  • Assess the structure of the organization and the influence this has on its performance.
  • Determine the organization’s competitive position and the possibilities this provides. 

Format your paper according to APA guidelines.

Support your assessments with Include a minimum of two authoritative references. Remember all references should be included in the body of your paper as in-text citations. 

Internal Capabilities and Resources

  1. Why is it important for a firm to study and understand its internal organization?
  2. What is value chain analysis? What does the firm gain by successfully using this tool?
  3. What factors affect the likelihood a firm will take a competitive action?
  4. What factors affect the likelihood that your organization will initiate a competitive response to a competitor’s actions?
  5. What is outsourcing? How do you see the future of outsourcing in your own industry? Do you see it growing, declining & why?
  6. What does it mean to say that each core competence could become a core rigidity?
  7. How do you see the relationship between an organization’s “org” structure and its strategy? Discuss what it means to say that structure and strategy have a reciprocal relationship
  8. How do firms identify internal strengths and weaknesses? Why is it vital that managers have a clear understanding of their firm’s strengths and weaknesses?

Social Workers and Human Services degreed professionals as HeadStart Teachers


Please show how we can use Human Services and Social Work Degrees as a related degree to Early Childhood Education Degree that is required by the HeadStart Performance Standards found on https://eclkc.ohs.acf.hhs.gov/policy/45-cfr-chap-xiii as a requirement for Teachers hired in HeadStart Classrooms.

Attached is another paper titled Early Childhood Education and Care as a Social Work Issue. It can be used as another reference if needed.

Learning Activity 3 EDUC 606


Learning Activity 3 Student Instructions

This learning activity consists of a variety of problems from Chapters 13–15. Spaces for answers are provided; please type your answers directly in the document. Consider highlighting, starring*, or changing the font color of answers for ease of instructor grading.

1.      (20 Pts, 1 Pt each). Calculate the mean, median, mode, standard deviation, and range for the following sets of measurements (fill out the table):

a.       13, 7, 6, 6, 3               

b.      14, 12, 11, 10, 8         

c.       65, 65, 65, 65, 65       

d.      12, 10, 9, 8, 6, 51       

2.      (20 Pts, 5 pts each) Answer the following questions.

a.       Why is the SD in (d) so large compared to the SD in (b)?

b.      Why is the mean so much higher in (d) than in (b)?

c.       Why is the median relatively unaffected?

d.      Which measure of central tendency best represents the set of scores in (d)? Why?

3.      (24 pts, 2 pts each) Fill in the blanks on the table with the appropriate raw scores, z-scores, T-scores, and approximate percentile ranks. You may refer to the distribution curve below. 

4.      (20 pts, 2 pts each) The Graduate Record Exam (GRE) has a combined verbal and quantitative mean of 1000 and a standard deviation of 200. Scores range from 200 to 1600 and are approximately normally distributed. For each of the following problems:

(a)   Indicate the percentage or score called for by the problem.

(b)   Select the appropriate distribution curve (from below) that relates to the problem.

a. What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 800? _____

Type the curve best representing your answer: _____

b. Above what score do the top 6.68% of the test-takers score? _____

Type the curve best representing your answer: _____

c. Above what score do 84.13% of the test-takers score? _____

Type the curve best representing your answer: _____

d. What percentage of the persons who take the test score above 1168? _____

Type the curve best representing your answer: _____

e. What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 1200? _____

Type the curve best representing your answer: _____

5.      (16 pts, varied) Refer to the following data and scatterplots to respond to questions 5a-5f.

Individual

Age

Score on Popular Music Test

Figure A represents a scatterplot constructed from the data; Figure B represents a regression line drawn through the scatterplot that “fits” the data points reasonably well; Figure C represents an ellipse drawn around the data points.

a.         (2 pts.) Estimate the direction of the correlation:

b.         (2 pts.) Estimate the strength of the correlation coefficient:   

Consider Figure D (below).

c.         (2 pts.) Using only the data points associated with age of 50 and above; what effect does this have on the direction and strength of the correlation coefficient?

d.         (4 pts.) Explain why this is the case.

e.         (2 pts.) Explain in words what a truncated scatterplot means.

f.          (4 pts.) Identify how likely it is that a causal relationship has been indicated.

Liberty University BIBL 104

BIBL 104 – Quiz 7

·  Question 1 
 
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for 
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”
 
 
 
·  Question 2 

 
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He 
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
 
 
 
·  Question 3 

 
 
In Philippians, Paul asserts that he is pursing Christ as passionately as a runner would 
pursue the goal and prize of winning a race.
 

 
·  Question 4 


 
In Galatians Paul says the Galatian Christians have gone to a completely different kind 
of gospel.
 

 
·  Question 5 


In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He makes this conclusion by allegorically linking Christians to Sarah rather than ___________.
 
 
·  Question 6 

 
The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with 
different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.
 

·  Question 7 

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the 
idea that the minister, in response, endures many hardships in order not to discredit the ministry.

·  Question 8 

1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________ 
while the second section deals with personal instructions.
 
 
·  Question 9 

 
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are 
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.
 
·  Question 10 

 
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers 
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.

·  Question 11 

 
In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by 
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.

 
·  Question 12 

 
Paul uses the phrase “in Christ” 170 times in his writings to refer to church-age 
believers to whom the mystery of the God’s grace was already revealed.
 
·  Question 13 

 
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church 
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.

 
·  Question 14 

 
One of Paul’s principal achievement was that he was the main leader in extending the 
church into Asia Minor and Greece, becoming known as the premier apostle to the Gentiles.
 
 
·  Question 15 

 
2 Timothy was written by Paul to Timothy just before Paul’s martyrdom.
 
·  Question 16 

 
In Galatians, Paul exhorts his readers to “carry one another’s burdens” but at the same 
time exhorts each to “carry his own load.”
 
 

·  Question 17 

 
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances 
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
 
 
·  Question 18 

 
The task that Paul gives Titus is to appoint elders and reprove the rebellious.
 
 
·  Question 19 

 
Paul tells Timothy in 2 Timothy to “preach the word.” It’s not Timothy’s opinion that 
he is to preach; it’s what God commands.

 
·  Question 20 

 
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of

 
·  Question 21 

 
In First Corinthians, Paul encouraged these believers to examine their attitudes before 
partaking in this ordinance of the church.
 

·  Question 22 

 
According to Paul in Romans, the presence of the indwelling Holy Spirit has set 
believers free from the law and the rule of sin and death.
 
 
·  Question 23 
 
The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul 
was seeking to correct.
 
 
·  Question 24 

 
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his 
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
 
 
·  Question 25 

 
Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is 
perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.

 
·  Question 26 

 
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to

·  Question 27 

 
Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good 
Christian behavior.

·  Question 28 

 
In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.
 
 
·  Question 29 

 
According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary 
death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.

 
·  Question 30 

 
1 Thessalonians is filled with Old Testament quotations as Paul seeks to answer some 
of the questions currently troubling the believers at Thessalonica.

 
·  Question 31 

 
According to Paul in Colossians, Christ has made the Father knowable, available, and 
approachable to all believers at all times.

 
·  Question 32 

 
In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.

·  Question 33 

 
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.

 
·  Question 34 


In First Corinthians, Paul asserted that the Corinthians were operating as immature, 
baby Christians, still using the wisdom of the world and this resulted in divisions among them.
 

 
·  Question 35 


In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is 
the Bridegroom.
 
·  Question 36 


According to Paul in Galatians, the law cannot give life, but it does have the purpose of 
revealing our sinful character before God.
 

·  Question 37 

 
In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of

 
·  Question 38 

 
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.

 
·  Question 39 

 
According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and 
gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.

 
·  Question 40 

 
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their 
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
 
 
·  Question 41 

 
While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s 
apostolic authority.

 
·  Question 42 

 
In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until 
they had corrected their three current issues.

 
·  Question 43 

_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on 
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.

 
·  Question 44 

Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after 
ministering in Ephesus.

 
·  Question 45 
 
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law 
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”
 

·  Question 46 

According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is 
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.

·  Question 47 

 
Throughout 2 Corinthians Paul includes the story of _____________.
 
·  Question 48 

 
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they 
should have dealt with this sin problem.
 
·  Question 49 


Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
 
 
·  Question 50 

 
The church at Corinth was the ideal model for a first-century apostolic church.

Chapter 19 Palliative Care and End-of-Life Care Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Chapter 19 Palliative Care and End-of-Life Care

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____    1.   Hospice care differs from palliative care in that:

A.

It is not covered by insurance

B.

Supports patients and families through both the dying and the bereavement process

C.

It cannot be provided in the nursing home

D.

The majority of those admitted to hospice die within 7 days

____    2.   Evidence reflects the primary obstacle to implementing palliative care in the long-term care setting include all of the following except:

A.

Inadequate communication between decision makers

B.

Failure to recognize futile treatments

C.

Lack of advance directives

D.

Lack of sufficient staff

____    3.   The most prevalent symptom in end-of-life care includes all of the following except:

A.

Lower extremity weakness

B.

Pain

C.

Dyspnea

D.

Delirium

____    4.   Pain at the end of life is most often due to all of the following except:

A.

Musculoskeletal disorders

B.

Headache

C.

Cancer pain

D.

Neuropathic pain

____    5.   The strongest level of evidence reflects the absolute contraindication for NSAID use exists with:

A.

Chronic kidney disease

B.

Peptic ulcer disease

C.

Heart disease

D.

Liver disease

____    6.   The drug specific for severe opioid-induced constipation is:

A.

Lactulose

B.

Ducolax

C.

Mineral oil

D.

Methylnaltrexone

____    7.   Pharmacological interventions for dyspnea include all of the following except:

A.

Antitussives

B.

Inhaled anesthetics

C.

Sedatives

D.

Anxiolytics

____    8.   Delirium is typically characterized by all of the following except:

A.

Inattention

B.

Hyperactive level of psychomotor activity

C.

Disorganized thinking

D.

Altered level of consciousness

____    9.   The first step in treating delirium is to:

A.

Give low-dose Haldol if the patient has psychosis

B.

Identify the cause

C.

Provide reality orientation

D.

Use side rails and/or wrist restraints to keep the patient safe

____  10.   The majority of patients enrolled in hospice care die:

A.

In a nursing home

B.

In the hospital

C.

In an inpatient hospice facility

D.

At home

____  11.   A drug that can be used to treat two very common symptoms in a dying patient (pain and dyspnea) is:

A.

Morphine

B.

Methadone

C.

Gabapentin

D.

Lorazepam

____  12.   The tasks of grieving include all of the following except:

A.

Acknowledge the reality of death

B.

Work through the pain of grief

C.

Begin to disengage

D.

Restructure relationships

____  13.   The best description of complicated grief is:

A.

Chronic, delayed, exaggerated, masked, or disenfranchised

B.

Experience of shock during notification of the death

C.

When grief is actually experienced before the death of a loved one

D.

A physical illness develops soon after death of a loved one

____  14.   All of the following statements are true about interventions in working with the bereaved except:

A.

Allow the active expression of grief

B.

There is strong evidence behind recommended interventions

C.

Staff attending memorial services support the family

D.

Provide both emotional and spiritual support

____  15.   The highest level of evidence to support interventions at the end of life is with:

A.

Opioids for pain control

B.

Hyocsyamine for respiratory secretions

C.

Stimulant laxatives for treating constipation

D.

Opioids for dyspnea

____  16.   The highest level of evidence with the use of adjuvant analgesics is with:

A.

Tricyclic antidepressants avoided due to high adverse events

B.

Therapeutic trials before discontinuing drugs

C.

Patient with fibromyalgia are candidates for adjuvant analgesics

D.

Neuropathic pain patients are candidates for adjuvant analgesia

Liberty University – BIBL 104

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s Gospel is the most universal Gospel because the good news about Jesus is for the whole world, not for the Jews only.

·         Question 2

1 out of 1 points

Matthew gives special attention to the rejection of Jesus by the Jewish leaders.

·         Question 3

1 out of 1 points

The New Testament consists of twenty-seven books that were written in Koine Greek or common Greek.

·         Question 4

1 out of 1 points

The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

·         Question 5

1 out of 1 points

The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.

·         Question 6

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

·         Question 7

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, the original audience for the Gospel of John seems to be Greek-speaking Jews who were living outside of Israel.

·         Question 8

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

·         Question 9

1 out of 1 points

According to early church tradition, Mark was a close disciple of James, the brother of Jesus. So, he heard James tell and retell the stories about Jesus everywhere they went.

·         Question 10

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.

·         Question 11

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.

·         Question 12

1 out of 1 points

In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.

·         Question 13

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _______ includes more personal details about Jesus than any other Gospel.

·         Question 14

1 out of 1 points

Jesus first miracle was healing a man in Canaan who had leprosy.

·         Question 15

0 out of 1 points

John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”

·         Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?

·         Question 17

1 out of 1 points

John’s portrait of Christ is that of

·         Question 18

1 out of 1 points

The book of Hebrews belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

·         Question 19

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s audience was familiar with Jewish customs and geography. Thus, he uses them frequently without providing further explanation.

·         Question 20

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

·         Question 21

1 out of 1 points

All of Jesus’ activity in Mark focus on His Judean ministry with the final week focused exclusively on activities in Jerusalem.

·         Question 22

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.

·         Question 23

0 out of 1 points

The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.

Selected Answer:

False

·         Question 24

1 out of 1 points

John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.

·         Question 25

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _________, the travel companion of Paul and Peter, writes for the Roman mind.

·         Question 26

0 out of 1 points

The book of Acts ends with a final “update” as Paul awaits his trial before Caesar and the gospel message continues spreading as the church continues to grow.

·         Question 27

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Luke’s Gospel puts a good deal of emphasis on prayer, reporting that Jesus prayed eleven times, much more than any other Gospel.

·         Question 28

1 out of 1 points

John’s Gospel concludes by noting that while Jesus did many other things, no one could possibly write them all down. If anyone did, even the whole world could not contain all of the books that would have to be written.

·         Question 29

1 out of 1 points

The New Testament begins with the first coming of Christ and ends with the promise of His Second Coming.

·         Question 30

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

·         Question 31

1 out of 1 points

The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.

·         Question 32

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books is a General Epistle?

·         Question 33

1 out of 1 points

The writer of the Gospel of John identifies himself only as “the disciple Jesus loved.”

·         Question 34

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s purpose is to give “an orderly sequence” of the events about Christ’s birth, life, and sacrificial death followed by His resurrection and ascension back to heaven.

·         Question 35

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books are Pauline Epistles?

·         Question 36

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

·         Question 37

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of __________ places an emphasis on the individual person.

·         Question 38

1 out of 1 points

Jesus’ seven miraculous “signs” in the Gospel of John were intended to affirm Jesus’ message and confirm His claims.

·         Question 39

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.

·         Question 40

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books are General Epistles

·         Question 41

0 out of 1 points

Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of

·         Question 42

1 out of 1 points

Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”

·         Question 43

1 out of 1 points

During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.

·         Question 44

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.

·         Question 45

1 out of 1 points

Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles of Jesus.

·         Question 46

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.

·         Question 47

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.

·         Question 48

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.

·         Question 49

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

·         Question 50

1 out of 1 points

In order to speed up Jesus’ death so that it did not conflict with the Sabbath, the Jesus legs were broken at the request of the religious leaders.

 Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Because Luke was a physician, there seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

___________ references more historical events in the Roman Empire during the life of Jesus than the other Gospels

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

The book of Philemon belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.

Question 6

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following books is a General Epistle?

Question 7

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?

Question 8

1 out of 1 points

John views the soldiers’ division of Jesus’ clothes is viewed as a prophetic fulfillment.

Question 9

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _______ includes more personal details about Jesus than any other Gospel.

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Luke’s Gospel stresses the role of women more than the other Gospels.

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s purpose is to give “an orderly sequence” of the events about Christ’s birth, life, and sacrificial death followed by His resurrection and ascension back to heaven.

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old Testament.

Question 13

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.

Question 17

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following people did not write a letter included in the New Testament canon.

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books are General Epistles

Question 19

0 out of 1 points

In Matthew, the Parables of the Kingdom contrasts the righteousness of the kingdom of heaven with the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees.

Question 20

0 out of 1 points

The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

Selected Answer:            

Question 22

1 out of 1 points

Luke is the longest book in the New Testament and gives a full picture of the life of Christ.

Selected Answer:            

Question 23

1 out of 1 points

The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

In John 3 Jesus met _______________, a Jewish ruler in Jerusalem, to whom He explains what it means to be “born again.”

Question 25

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of John can be divided into two sections. The first section is the _____________ and the second section is the Book of Glory.

Question 26

1 out of 1 points

Jesus’ seven miraculous “signs” in the Gospel of John were intended to affirm Jesus’ message and confirm His claims.

Question 27

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.

Question 28

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.

Question 29

1 out of 1 points

A slave’s birth was unimportant, so Mark does not include the birth of Christ.

Question 30

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

A slave is expected to rush from task to task and to do any job immediately so a key word in Mark is “immediately.”

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

John’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 33

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.

Question 35

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.

Question 37

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 38

1 out of 1 points

The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.

Question 41

1 out of 1 points

John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.

Question 42

0 out of 1 points

John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”

Question 43

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

Question 44

1 out of 1 points

John sees prophetic fulfillment in the fact that when they pierced Jesus’ side with a spear both blood and water came out at once.

Question 45

1 out of 1 points

The book of Hebrews belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Question 46

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, the original audience for the Gospel of John seems to be Greek-speaking Jews who were living outside of Israel.

Question 47

1 out of 1 points

All of Jesus’ activity in Mark focus on His Judean ministry with the final week focused exclusively on activities in Jerusalem.

Question 48

1 out of 1 points

Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”

Question 49

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 50

1 out of 1 points

The book of Titus belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

 

The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

 

The church in Rome probably consisted of at least five household churches rather than

one large church.

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

 

According to Paul in Colossians, Christ has made the Father knowable, available, and

approachable to all believers at all times.

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

 

According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers

who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.

Question 5

0 out of 1 points

 

In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He makes this conclusion by allegorically linking Christians to Sarah rather than ___________.

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

 

The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with

different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

 

Spiritual warfare takes place both in heaven and on earth. Because believers have

victory in Christ in heaven, they should and can have victory on this earth. So, Paul exhorts believers in Ephesians to prepare for spiritual battle on this earth.

Question 8

0 out of 1 points

 

In _______________, Paul cites an early Christian hymn in order to explain the preeminence

of Christ.

Question 9

0 out of 1 points

 

According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in

and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

 

In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for

both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

 

According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary

death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

 

In Philemon, Paul makes himself personally responsible for the amount stolen by

Onesimus. He tells Philemon to “Charge that to my account.”

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

 

In Ephesians, Paul uses the figure of a temple to describe the church as a spiritual

building in which all the different elements are welded together into a collective unity.

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

 

__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church

ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

 

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

 

Paul’s letters to Timothy and Titus are collectively known as the Pastoral Epistles.

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

 

In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the

resurrection of believers.

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

 

In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of

love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.

Question 19

0 out of 1 points

 

In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they

should have dealt with this sin problem.

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

 

In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

 

The church at Corinth was the ideal model for a first-century apostolic church.

Question 22

0 out of 1 points

 

According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s

righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.

Question 23

1 out of 1 points

 

According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and

gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

 

Paul’s hope in Philippians was to offer practical encouragements to his friends at

Philippi so they would not be tempted to doubt God’s faithfulness even in dire circumstances.

Question 25

1 out of 1 points

 

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue

Question 26

0 out of 1 points

 

According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of

Question 27

0 out of 1 points

 

In Philippians, Paul asserts that he is pursing Christ as passionately as a runner would

pursue the goal and prize of winning a race.

Question 28

0 out of 1 points

 

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the

idea that the minister accepts his weakness because of the opportunities it affords.

Question 29

0 out of 1 points

 

The task that Paul gives Titus is to appoint elders and reprove the rebellious.

Question 30

1 out of 1 points

 

__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

 

Paul removed any obstacle Timothy might have had to ministry among Jews by

having the young man circumcised.

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

 

One of Paul’s principal achievement was that he was the main leader in extending the

church into Asia Minor and Greece, becoming known as the premier apostle to the Gentiles.

Question 33

0 out of 1 points

 

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the

idea that knowing the fear of God moves the minister to persuade unsaved people to become Christians.

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

 

The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul

was seeking to correct.

Question 35

1 out of 1 points

 

According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is

that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

 

According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He

breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.

Question 37

0 out of 1 points

 

According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 1 Thessalonians that because of the promise

of the rapture, believers will not suffer the wrath of the Day of the Lord.

Question 38

0 out of 1 points

 

Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are

“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

 

Paul’s epistle to the Romans is not Paul’s most extensive theological writing. That claim

belongs to Galatians – Paul’s epistle to the church in Galatia.

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

 

Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is

perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.

Question 41

1 out of 1 points

 

Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the

Question 42

1 out of 1 points

 

In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is

the Bridegroom.

 

Question 43

1 out of 1 points

 

While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s

apostolic authority.

Question 44

1 out of 1 points

 

In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law

is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”

Question 45

1 out of 1 points

 

According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord

will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.

Question 46

0 out of 1 points

 

Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have

been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”

Question 47

0 out of 1 points

 

Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good

Christian behavior.

Question 48

1 out of 1 points

 

In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament

truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.

Question 49

0 out of 1 points


According to the textbook, to keep him from exalting himself, God gave him a thorn in

the flesh.

Question 50

1 out of 1 points


Paul tells the Philippians that they should live in unity, humility, and selflessness. He

then gives himself as the example for believers to follow when he claims, “follow me as I follow Christ.”


 Question 1

1 out of 1 points

While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s apostolic authority.

 

 Question 2


1 out of 1 points


In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.

 

 Question 3



1 out of 1 points


Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the

 

idea that the minister, in response, endures many hardships in order not to discredit the ministry.

 Question 4

1 out of 1 points



In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to 

 Question 5

1 out of 1 points


Spiritual warfare takes place both in heaven and on earth. Because believers have

 

victory in Christ in heaven, they should and can have victory on this earth. So, Paul exhorts believers in Ephesians to prepare for spiritual battle on this earth.

 

 Question 6


1 out of 1 points

For Paul in Ephesians, the answer to unity is the fact that we are “in Christ” and all of us are members of “the body of Christ.”

 

 Question 7


1 out of 1 points

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the idea that the ministry is an opportunity to display the glory of God.


 Question 8

1 out of 1 points


Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the 

 Question 9

0 out of 1 points

In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.

 Question 10


1 out of 1 points


The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey. 

 Question 11

1 out of 1 points


Paul reminds Titus that since people were saved “not by works of righteousness that

we had done, but according to His mercy” and justified by God’s grace, they should live a life of good works toward all men.

 Question 12

1 out of 1 points

In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.

 Question 13

1 out of 1 points


The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.

 Question 14

1 out of 1 points

The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of doctrine and the second section is a section on


 Question 15

1 out of 1 points

Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.

 Question 16

1 out of 1 points


In _______________, Paul cites an early Christian hymn in order to explain the preeminence


of Christ.

 Question 17


1 out of 1 points


Paul wanted Timothy to see four generations of ministry duplication. The first


generation was Paul who preached the gospel. The second generation was Timothy who received the gospel from Paul. The third generations were the people converted when Timothy preached. The fourth generation includes the “others” who were taught by faithful men from the third generation.


 Question 18


1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.

 Question 19

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue 

 Question 20

1 out of 1 points

In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the

resurrection of believers.

 Question 21

1 out of 1 points


Paul uses the phrase “in Christ” 170 times in his writings to refer to church-age believers to whom the mystery of the God’s grace was already revealed.
 Question 22


1 out of 1 points


According to Paul in Galatians, the law cannot give life, but it does have the purpose of revealing our sinful character before God.



 Question 23

1 out of 1 points


In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of 

 Question 24


1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, the presence of the indwelling Holy Spirit has set believers free from the law and the rule of sin and death.

 Question 25

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Timothy was probably converted to Christianity as a youth when Paul visited his home in Lystra on the first missionary journey with Barnabas.

 Question 26

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of 

 Question 27

1 out of 1 points


Paul’s hope in Philippians was to offer practical encouragements to his friends at

Philippi so they would not be tempted to doubt God’s faithfulness even in dire circumstances.


 Question 28

1 out of 1 points


__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church

ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.


 Question 29

1 out of 1 points


According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and


God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.


 Question 30
1 out of 1 points


According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers


who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.

 Question 31

1 out of 1 points

In 1 Timothy Paul describes the qualifications of a bishop. He lists both jobs within the church that they must undertake as well as inner character they must possess.


 Question 32

1 out of 1 points


According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.


 Question 33


1 out of 1 points


According to Paul in Galatians, Christ redeemed us by becoming a _________ for us when

 

He hung on the cross.


 Question 34



1 out of 1 points


Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good Christian behavior.

 Question 35

1 out of 1 points



In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.


 Question 36

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.

 

Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.

 Question 37

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile culture.

 Question 38
1 out of 1 points


According to the textbook, ___________ is the most personal of all Paul’s letters as he

 

reveals his own heart for this church and his ministry in general.

 Question 39


1 out of 1 points

_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on


Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.

 Question 40

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a piece of the Christian’s spiritual armor 

 Question 41

1 out of 1 points


According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.

 Question 42



1 out of 1 points


In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own good works, with or without the law.

 Question 43

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a piece of the Christian’s spiritual armor.

 Question 44



0 out of 1 points

_______________ contains the earliest instructions for church leaders and orderly


arrangement of the local church.

 Question 45

1 out of 1 points

In 1 Timothy Paul identified two acts of heresy: forbidding marriage and abstinence from food.

 Question 46


1 out of 1 points


__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.


 Question 47

1 out of 1 points

The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul

was seeking to correct.

 Question 48


1 out of 1 points

The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews. 


 Question 49


1 out of 1 points



The Galatian Christians were being influenced by Judaizers who would have Gentile believers circumcised and live by the law.



 Question 50

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.
 

CSTU 101 learning activity 1

Go online and find some information about the “Elgin Marbles” (also called the “Parthenon Marbles”). Read a little about the controversy between the British and Greek governments concerning the ownership of these marbles. In a 2-paragraph essay, first summarize the controversy in your own words, and then take a clear position by supporting either the Greek or British side. Discuss 2 main reasons that support your position. You do not need to do extensive research or reading to complete this assignment well. However, if you include sources, cite them in current APA format. This assignment must be 250–300 words and must include the word count in parentheses. Submit a draft of your Learning Activity to SafeAssign for feedback a few days before the assignment is due. 

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Describe the role of Jubal Early in the American Civil War.

Give a quick backgrounder on his early life. Then discuss his role in the Civil War. Cite references as well.

 

What is the Copernican principle?

Discuss this concept clearly and comprehensively. Provide examples when possible. Cite references.

Describe the role of Jubal Early in the American Civil War.

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Give a quick backgrounder on his early life. Then discuss his role in the Civil War. Cite references as well.

What is a Double-blind control experiment

What is a Double-blind control experiment and where it is most effectively used for? Please explain comprehensively.

What is the difference between Skeptical empiricism and plain empiricism?

What is the difference between Skeptical empiricism and plain empiricism? Please explain comprehensively

What is the UK Gateway Protection Programme?

Explain its history, purpose, and achievements. Cite references. Thanks

 

Discuss the Fall of the Soviet Union during the Cold War

Answer this in 300-400 words. Make sure to give a detailed discussion and please cite references.

Function of X – True or False

True or False? The equation x = | y | , with x >= 0, represents y as a function of x.

Explain your answer.

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The SOX Act Prepare a Power Point presentation of at least 20 slides that includes the following:

Assess the provision of the Sox Act that requires the establishment of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB) and the measures that public accounting firms are taking to ensure that they maintain their independence in all audit assignments, including the mechanisms they are establishing to ensure that the necessary independence and integrity are prevalent in all aspects of their relationship with their clients.Analyze how executives of corporate America have embraced the new regulations and requirements of the Sox Act while maintaining their purpose to produce a profit for investors and staying in compliance of the new rules in the industry. Explain what those new requirements are for the CEO and CFO of publicly traded companies. Describe your assessment of the responsibilities established for accounting personnel—including protection for whistle-blowers—and for the public accounting auditors.Determine how the responsibilities of the board of directors audit committee have changed due to the Sox Act in overseeing the financial reporting process and to hire and be in charge of the independent auditors.Provide recommended sanctions to be imposed on those who do not comply with the SOX Act provisions, and whether or not the sanctions should be stiffened or should include other personnel in the organization.Researched sources should follow these guidelines:At least half of the researched sources should be from authoritative electronic sources related to the accounting field.The findings presented in the paper should be accurate renditions of the Sox Act, including citations and references.Follow APA guidelines when citing references.Include a reference slide.

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Research Paper Psyc 312

Research Paper Instructions

 

You will be responsible for writing a Research Paper focusing on a social psychology topic of your choosing. The topic must be one that is discussed in the textbook. The focus of the paper will be to present and review peer-reviewed research regarding your topic as well as provide a Biblical integration discussion for your topic.

 

For your paper, you must thoroughly review and cite 2 peer-reviewed journal articles that demonstrate research regarding your topic. Your articles must present original research studies (e.g., correlational or experimental) in which the authors of the article actually formed hypotheses, collected/analyzed data, and compiled results themselves. Theoretical/review articles and meta-analyses are not permitted to be reviewed for this paper.

 

Some examples include (please note you do not need to choose one of these topics):

 

  1. For a paper on the Bystander Effect, you could find an article in which the authors manipulated the number of people present and measured helping behavior.

 

  1. For a paper on Relational Aggression, you could find an article in which the authors measured and correlated parenting styles with degree of relational aggression in daughters.

 

Keep in mind that these 2 articles must come from academic, peer-reviewed journals. Articles from newspapers, magazines, and websites will not count. Also, information from unpublished dissertations contained in dissertation or thesis databases should not be used. In addition to your 2 peer-reviewed articles, you must also cite the textbook in your paper. Other book sources will not count toward the source requirements. In the Biblical Integration section of your paper, you will be required to cite 2 different Scriptural references.

 

You will submit your paper as a Microsoft Word document through Safe Assign. A “draft” link is available for you to check the originality of your work, but all papers must be submitted in the “final” link for credit and grading. Your paper must contain original work to this course only (i.e., you cannot reuse a paper or portion of a paper you have written in the past for another course). Papers that do not include a topic covered in the textbook will be returned and you will be asked to submit a new paper. Normal late policies will apply. In addition, the paper should be written mostly in your own words. Excessive use of quotes is not permitted and will result in a score reduction. Be sure you are paraphrasing information from articles well and citing correctly to avoid plagiarism. Paraphrasing that is too close to the original wording is still considered plagiarism. All instances of plagiarism will be reviewed and action taken as necessary (e.g., point reduction, Code of Honor report, a score of 0 for the paper, failure of the course).

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Your paper must include a current APA-style title page, abstract, body, and reference section. The body of the paper must be at least 5 pages with a maximum of 7 pages (not including the title page, abstract, and references). Papers shorter or longer than this requirement are subject to point deductions. Please note that there is a specific page length requirement for the Biblical Integration section (1 page). Be sure to use current APA-style citations throughout the paper to avoid plagiarism.

The structure of the paper must follow the outline below and all section components must be included for maximum credit.

 

  1. Title Page– current APA style

 

  1. Abstract– current APA style

 

  1. Introduction
  • Provide a definition of the social psychology concept you are researching
  • Provide a brief background of why this concept is important
  • To relate your concept to “real life,” provide a specific, real-world example of your concept. This example can be either something you’ve witnessed in your own life, an example you “make up” to illustrate your concept, or an example used in one of your sources. If you use an example from a source, be sure to cite appropriately.

 

  1. Review of Article I
  • Introduce the article, including the purpose of the article and any relevant hypotheses.
  • Summarize methods (i.e., type of participants, procedures used to manipulate or measure variables)
  • Summarize study results
  • Explain how study and results demonstrate or support the social psychology topic chosen (you must be able to demonstrate that you can relate the specific study results to the general topic chosen)

 

  1. Review of Article II
  • Include all of the same elements listed above

 

  1. Biblical Integration (must be at least one pagein length)
  • Discuss your topic from a Biblical standpoint (i.e., what does the Bible say about it). You must use at least twodifferent Scriptural references in this section to support your discussion.

 

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  1. Conclusion
  • Briefly summarize/define the chosen topic
  • Briefly summarize the major results of each study
  • Briefly summarize the Biblical standpoint discussed

 

  1. Reference Page– Current APA style
  • Include 2 peer-reviewed journal articles describing original research
  • Include textbook reference
  • (Note that the Bible does notneed to be included in your reference section)

 

Research Paper: Topic and References Instructions

 

For this assignment you will decide on your Research Paper topic and find references to be used in your paper. Before completing this assignment, thoroughly read the Research Paper Instructions in Module 7 so you know the guidelines for the paper and what will be expected of you. Be sure you are picking a Social Psychology concept covered in your textbook, and one for which you can present an example and discuss from a Biblical standpoint. For this assignment, you will create and submit an APA-style reference page, submitted as a Word document. The reference page must include 3 references with the following guidelines:

  • Two references must be peer-reviewed journal articles. Articles from newspapers, magazines, and websites will not count. Also, information from unpublished dissertations contained in dissertation or thesis databases may not be used.
  • Both of these journal articles must present original research studies (e.g., correlational or experimental). This means that the authors of the article actually conducted a study themselves in which they formed hypotheses, collected/analyzed data, and compiled results. No theoretical/review articles or meta-analyses are allowed.
  • One reference needs to be your course textbook

 

Please note that the instructor will not be able to look up each of your articles to verify whether they meet criteria (although this is sometimes obvious from the title). You are responsible for ensuring any article you submit fits the guidelines above. If not, you will need to do more research before your paper is due since you will not be able to complete the paper correctly without appropriate articles and will incur significant point deductions at that time. Attached to the end of this document is a list of questions you can ask yourself to ensure you are choosing appropriate articles.

 

At the bottom of the page underneath your APA-style references, list your topic (including the chapter number for where your topic is found in your textbook) and two different Scriptural references that you will use in your paper. This requirement allows you to check whether or not you can apply Scripture to your topic, which will be required for your final paper. Please list out both the Scriptural citation and the text. If you are referencing long passages of text, please only type out one or two of the most applicable verses for this assignment. For your paper, you can reference more than what you list here if needed. The information can be organized as follows:

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Topic (including chapter number where topic is found):

 

Scriptural Reference 1: (e.g., John 3:16 (NIV) “For God so loved the world that He gave His one and only Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish but have eternal life.”)

 

Scriptural Reference 2:

 

**You will be allowed to alter your references and Scriptural choices if necessary for the final Research Paper, but will need to ensure that any changes to your references continue to meet requirements for full credit on your paper.

 

Your Research Paper: Topic and References is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

Questions to Ask Yourself When Choosing Articles

 

  1. Does my article come from a peer-reviewed journal article?

If so, you should be able to answer NO to each of the following other sources:

  1. Does the article come from a magazine, book, website, or thesis/dissertation database?

 

  1. Did the authors of this article conduct an original research study themselves?

If so, you should be able to answer NO to each of the following questions:

  1. Are the authors onlyreviewing someone else’s work?
  2. Are the authors compiling others’ research into a meta-analysis?
  3. Are the authors onlyproviding a theoretical discussion of the topic or describing a model they are proposing?

 

  1. Did the authors form hypotheses, seek out a sample, collect data from this sample, analyze their own results, and provide a discussion of these results?

 

If you can answer YES to questions 1, 2, and 3, then your article is appropriate for your paper!

 

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KELLY ESSAY PLEASE HELP!!

Please see attached file for assisnment requirments. Must use 2 scholar articles.

Analyze the 4 common elements in most human disturbance according to Kelly (threat, fear, anxiety, and guilt). Compare each of these constructs with what Scripture says regarding these particular elements.

 

This assignment does not require a Title page or Abstract page, but does require a Reference page and in-text citations

 

Supplemental Assignment 2 Instructions

You will take an active part (e.g., spend half a day volunteering/helping out) in a community outreach activity (not a university or church activity unless it is an activity that reaches out to the community) of your choosing, which will familiarize you with the needs of the community. Some examples of activities include volunteering at a shelter, a camp, a recreation center, a home for girls or boys, a soup kitchen, a clothing bank, a detoxification center, a tutoring center for younger children, a vocational rehabilitation center, Habitat for Humanity, a minority community center, etc. After the completion of the activity, you will document your experience by writing a paper. The paper will be written in current APA format and will include one title page, one abstract page, two full pages of text, and one reference page.  The paper will explain in detail: (1) the experience (what was observed, how it affected you), (2) what was learned from the project (what the community’s needs are, what ethics are in place, how you can help make a difference), and (3) a discussion of two course concepts that relate to your observations.  For number three (3), cite two empirical studies from the research literature that address each one of the two course concepts discussed relating to sociocultural diversity that you observed in the outreach activity.  Make sure to cite each of these concepts in correct APA format.

 

 

https://learn.liberty.edu/bbcswebdav/pid-25610776-dt-content-rid-309992438_1/courses/PSYC351_B03_201840/PSYC351_B03_201840_ImportedContent_20180820094702/PSYC351_Presentations/On-Line%208%20Cognitive%20Behavioral%20Therapy%20%26%20Spirituality%20Part%201%20%28LMS%29/res/html5.html

 

 

https://learn.liberty.edu/bbcswebdav/pid-25610778-dt-content-rid-309992582_1/courses/PSYC351_B03_201840/PSYC351_B03_201840_ImportedContent_20180820094702/PSYC351_Presentations/On-Line%208%20Cognitive%20Behavioral%20Therapy%20%26%20Spirituality%20Part%202%20%28LMS%29/res/html5.html

 

Assessing Spirituality – The Relationship between Spirituality and Mental Health

Read the “Assessing Spirituality – The Relationship between Spirituality and Mental Health” article. (link below)

In this quantitative study, the authors attempted to investigate the possible relationship between two spirituality variables (religious coping styles and spiritual well-being) and two psychological variables (anxiety and depression). Also studied were differences between those who self-disclosed a spiritual/religious identity and those who did not. Their data analysis concluded that individuals who reported a high use of religious coping styles also reported high levels of spiritual well-being.

  • The authors felt a limitation of their study was in defining ‘spirituality.’ State how that can be an obstacle in doing religious counseling.
  • The authors state, “Spiritual well-being can clearly incorporate God into ones’ life while also incorporating self-reliance.” Is this not a seeming contradiction? Give your thoughts on this.

 

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Response paper Phil 201

Having completed the unit of philosophy of religion, you are now ready to respond to an article written by an actual atheist. This article titled “On Being an Atheist,” was written by H. J. McCloskey in 1968 for the journal Question. McCloskey is an Australian philosopher who wrote a number of atheistic works in the 1960s and 70s including the book God and Evil (Nijhoff, 1974). In this article, McCloskey is both critical of the classical arguments for God’s existence and offers the problem of evil as a reason why one should not believe in God. Please note the following parameters for this paper:

 

  1. Your assignment is to read McCloskey’s short article found in the Reading & Study folder in Module/Week 7 and respond to each of the questions below. Your instructor is looking for a detailed response to each question.
  2. The response paper is to be a minimum of 1,500 words (not including quotes) and must be written as a single essay and not just a list of answers to questions.
  3. The basis for your answers must primarily come from the resources provided in the lessons covering the philosophy of religion unit of the course (Evans and Manis, Craig, and the presentation) and these sources must be mentioned in your paper. You are not merely to quote these sources as an answer to the question—answer them in your own words.
  4. You may use other outside sources as well, as long as you properly document them. However, outside sources are not necessary. Each of the questions can be answered from the sources provided in the lessons.
  5. While the use of the Bible is not restricted, its use is not necessary and is discouraged unless you intend to explain the context of the passage and how that context applies to the issue at hand in accordance with the guidelines provided earlier in the course. You are not to merely quote scripture passages as answers to the questions. Remember this is a philosophical essay not a biblical or theological essay.
  6. While you may quote from sources, all quotations must be properly cited and quotes from sources will not count towards the 1,500 word count of the paper.
  7. You may be critical of McCloskey, but must remain respectful. Any disparaging comment(s) about McCloskey will result in a significant reduction in grade.
  8. Please note that this paper will be submitted through SafeAssign, which is a plagiarism detection program. The program is a database of previously submitted papers including copies of papers that have been located on the Internet. Once submitted, your paper will become part of the database as well. The program detects not only exact wording but similar wording. This means that if you plagiarize, it is very likely that it will be discovered. Plagiarism will result in a 0 for the paper and the likelihood of you being dropped from the course.

 

 

 

Specifically, you must address the following questions in your paper:

 

  1. McCloskey refers to the arguments as “proofs” and often implies that they can’t definitively establish the case for God, so therefore they should be abandoned. What would you say about this in light of Foreman’s comments in his “Approaching the Question of God’s Existence” presentation?
  2. On the Cosmological Argument:
  3. McCloskey claims that the “mere existence of the world constitutes no reason for believing in such a being [i.e., a necessarily existing being].” Using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the non-temporal form of the argument (on pp. 69–77), explain why the cause of the universe must be necessary (and therefore uncaused).
  4. McCloskey also claims that the cosmological argument “does not entitle us to postulate an all-powerful, all-perfect, uncaused cause.” In light of Evans and Manis’ final paragraph on the cosmological argument (p. 77), how might you respond to McCloskey?
  5. On the Teleological Argument:
  6. McCloskey claims that “to get the proof going, genuine indisputable examples of design and purpose are needed.” Discuss this standard of “indisputability” which he calls a “very conclusive objection.” Is it reasonable?
  7. From your reading in Evans and Manis, can you offer an example of design that, while not necessarily “indisputable,” you believe provides strong evidence of a designer of the universe?
  8. McCloskey implies that evolution has displaced the need for a designer. Assuming evolution is true, for argument’s sake, how would you respond to McCloskey (see Evans and Manis pp. 82–83)?
  9. McCloskey claims that the presence of imperfection and evil in the world argues against “the perfection of the divine design or divine purpose in the world.” Remembering Evans’ comments about the limitations of the conclusion of the cosmological argument, how might you respond to McCloskey’s charge about the teleological argument?
  10. On the Problem of Evil:
  11. McCloskey’s main objection to theism is the presence of evil in the world and he raises it several times: “No being who was perfect could have created a world in which there was avoidable suffering or in which his creatures would (and in fact could have been created so as not to) engage in morally evil acts, acts which very often result in injury to innocent persons.” The language of this claim seems to imply that it is an example of the logical form of the problem. Given this implication and using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the logical problem (pp. 159–168, noting especially his concluding paragraphs to this section), how might you respond to McCloskey?

 

 

b.      McCloskey specifically discusses the free will argument, asking “might not God have very easily so have arranged the world and biased man to virtue that men always freely chose what is right?” From what you have already learned about free will in the course, and what Evans and Manis says about the free will theodicy, especially the section on Mackie and Plantinga’s response (pp. 163–166) and what he says about the evidential problem (pp. 168–172), how would you respond t

to McCloskey’s question?

  1. On Atheism as Comforting:
  2. In the final pages of McCloskey’s article, he claims that atheism is more comforting than theism. Using the argument presented by William Lane Craig in the article “The Absurdity of Life without God,” (located in Reading & Study for Module/Week 6), respond to McCloskey’s claim.

 

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EFFECT OF SLAVE TRADE IN AFRICA

Though colonialism may have officially ended, the effects of colonialism are still very much present today. This is true in modern-day Africa.
Review the following resources for additional information on the slave trade in Africa:

  • Origins of African Slaves: Slave Trade Routes
  • Lasting Effects of Slavery on Africa
  • African Countries and Independence Dates

Select 1 of the following countries from which the most slaves originated:

  • Democratic Republic of the Congo
  • Ghana
  • Ivory Coast

Use this template to complete your paper:

  • For your selected country, identify the former colonial ruling country.
  • Identify your selected country’s date of independence from the colonial ruling country, and discuss the length of time the slave trade operated there.
  • Discuss how the depopulation and fractured familial relationships inherent in the slave trade have affected your chosen country. Be sure to support your discussion with relevant examples.

o    Are these effects still felt today? If so, how? Provide examples.

  • Based on your review of this information, what conclusions can you draw about the slave trade and its effects on your selected country?
  • Based on your key findings and conclusions, what recommendations do you have to help improve the conditions in the country now? Make sure your recommendations:

o    include specific interventions or strategies to address the issues and constraints identified

o    are feasible (politically and operationally)

o    are realistic (short- and long-term)

  • Utilize at least 2 credible sources to support the arguments presented in the paper. Make sure you cite them appropriately within your paper, and list them in APA format on your Reference page.
  • Your paper should be 4–5 pages in length, not counting the Title page and Reference page. In accordance with APA formatting requirements, your paper should include a Title and Reference page, should be double-spaced, and include a running head and page numbers.

References
Boddy-Evans, A. (2017, September 18). Chronological list of African independence. Retrieved from https://www.thoughtco.com/chronological-list-of-african-independence-4070467
Pruitt, S. (2016, May 3). What part of Africa did most slaves come from? HISTORY. Retrieved from http://www.history.com/news/ask-history/what-part-of-africa-did-most-slaves-come-from
Ross, W. (2007, March 29). Slavery’s long effects on Africa. BBC News. Retrieved from http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/hi/africa/6504141.st

 

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PSY 370 Assignment 2 LASA I—Amphetamine Use and Abuse

Aaliyah continues to struggle with balancing her work hours and her schoolwork. She has been drinking coffee to help her stay awake, but it is no longer working. She has an exam coming up and needs to stay up to study.

 

Aaliyah decides to take an amphetamine to stay awake to study for the exam. She promises herself that she will only take it this one time for the exam. The drug allows her to stay awake and alert while she is studying for the exam. She also feels that she is learning the material better as a result of the amphetamine. When the grades are in, Aaliyah receives an A on her work.

 

As the semester continues, Aaliyah turns to amphetamines more and more often to help her stay awake to complete her schoolwork. Soon, Aaliyah finds that one pill no longer keeps her awake as long as she needs.

 

She starts taking more than one pill at a time. She knows that taking amphetamines so often is not good for her health, and she finds she experiences an increase in headaches when she takes them, but she continues to take them because they are helping her be successful in school and at work.

 

Based on the case study, prepare a paper that addresses the following:

  • Examine the change in amphetamine use and abuse in the U.S. from the 1950s to the present.
  • Explain to which schedule amphetamines belong and why they are on the Schedule of Controlled Substances.
  • Explain the effects Aaliyah might be experiencing as a result of her regular amphetamine use. Be sure to include:

o    Acute effects, chronic effects, and withdrawal

o    Effects on physiology (brain and body), behavior, mood, and toxicity

  • Give at least three indications from the case study suggesting there may be a problem with Aaliyah’s substance use. That is, describe at least three likely behaviors that Aaliyah is likely to exhibit if she is misusing amphetamines.

Determine whether Aaliyah has a substance use disorder. Include a discussion of DSM criteria. Use the template to help you make the assessment.

 

Write a 4-5-page paper in Word format. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.

 

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Assignment 2 Grading Criteria

Maximum Points

Examined the change in amphetamine use and abuse in the U.S. from the 1950s to the present.

24

Explained why amphetamine is on the Schedule of Controlled Substances and to which schedule it belongs.

20

Explained the acute, chronic, and withdrawal effects of amphetamines on physiology, behavior, mood, and toxicity.

40

Described at least 3 behaviors Aaliyah is likely to exhibit if she is misusing amphetamines.

40

Used DSM criteria to determine whether Aaliyah has a substance use disorder.

32

Style (4 points): Tone, audience, and word choice Organization (12 points):Introduction, transitions, and conclusion

Usage and Mechanics (12 points): Grammar, spelling, and sentence structure

APA Elements (16 points): In text citations and references, paraphrasing, and appropriate use of quotations and other elements of style

44

Total:

200

 

HHS 497 Week 2 Assignment Theory and Research Related to Social Issue

HHS 497 Week 2 Assignment Theory and Research Related to Social Issue

By now, you have had the opportunity to explore some of the fundamental elements of your social issue of interest. In this written assignment, you will now focus your attention on identifying and analyzing the scope of scholarly literature that addresses the social issue. Specifically, you will access the Ashford University Library, in addition to other scholarly content from previous coursework that might be pertinent (e.g., textbooks, research articles, etc.), to find sources that examine theoretical perspectives and relevant research that pertain to your selected topic.

This assignment will require that you develop a research-based report demonstrating theory and research methodology related to your social issue.

In your paper
• Describe two to three theories that relate to your topic area in some manner. To accommodate the broad

spectrum of social issues that might be explored, aim to find theories that attempt to explain some the following areas:

o Thereason(s)forwhythesocialissueexistsorpersists
o Factorsthatcontributetoit
o Social, environmental, political, or economic considerations that underlie it o Emergingalternativeviewpointsthatclarifytheissue

  • Critically evaluate the theories described, taking into account their benefits and limitations, as well as how health and human service organizations might use them to better understand the scope of the issue.
  • Describe two to three examples of research studies that have explored the issue. These studies must come from their original source; do not rely on literature reviews that summarize research conducted by others. Studies can examine any area related to the issue with the exception of interventions, as this will be addressed in the Week Three assignment. Examples include:

o Exploring the social issue’s impact on a specific group
o Identifying relationships between variables (Trochim, 2006) related to the issue
o Examining social attitudes and viewpoints through survey research (Trochim, 2006)
o Identifyingemergingtrends
o Exploring lived experiences or personal accounts using qualitative data (Trochim, 2006)

  • Analyze pertinent aspects related to the research studies, such as core aims/objectives, research methods used, findings, and implications for future research and/or practice.

The Theory and Research Related to Social Issue Paper

  • Must be three to four double-spaced pages in length (not including title and references pages) and

formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.

  • Must include a separate title page with the following:

o Titleofpaper
o Student’sname
o Course name and number o Instructor’sname
o Datesubmitted

  • Must use at least five scholarly sources in addition to the course text.
    o TheScholarly,PeerReviewed,andOtherCredibleSourcestableoffersadditionalguidanceon

appropriate source types. If you have questions about whether a specific source is appropriate for this assignment, please contact your instructor. Your instructor has the final say about the appropriateness of a specific source for a particular assignment.

  • Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
  • Must include a separate references page that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the

Ashford Writing Center.

 

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HHS 497 Week 1 Assignment Background of Social Issues

HHS 497 Week 1 Assignment Background of Social Issues

Background of Social Issues. Due by Day 7. Throughout the course of your degree program, you have had the opportunity to examine various topical issues that are addressed by professionals in the health and human services field. To demonstrate your mastery of the program learning outcomes, you will synthesize your knowledge of various content areas related to a social issue of your choosing, and use this to develop an original intervention (i.e., strategy, technique, or application) to address this particular topic in your Final Paper. To facilitate in the development of this final assignment, you will prepare and submit the first of four written assignments, which will involve a thorough overview of your proposed social issue.

More specifically, your task will involve addressing the following content areas:

  • Identify a social issue that health and/or human service organizations address in some capacity and

discuss its current impact on group(s) affected by it. When selecting an area of focus, take into account broad topics that have been exhaustively scrutinized at the scholarly level, such as homelessness, mental health, aging, substance abuse, child welfare, etc. A good place to begin your search on an area of interest is the HHS A to Z Index.

  • Describe the historical underpinnings of this issue. Factors to consider include: where and how it originated, pertinent events and their dates, and its current status.
  • Discuss specific factors contributing to the social issue. Consider environmental, social, political, and economic reasons that have attempted to explain why this issue persists.
  • Evaluate the impact of this social issue on the delivery of health and human service efforts by reviewing the scholarly literature and relevant professional/governmental resources for evidence of formal responses in the form of policy implementation, legislation, or Acts related to this social issue. What impact has this had on how health and/or human service organizations provide support in terms of direct practice with clients and within communities?

At minimum, your submission must include three scholarly sources (excluding the required course readings), two of which must come from the Ashford University Library (e.g., articles, professional critiques, research reports, etc.). The third source can come from either the library or from a professional website ending in .gov.

The Background of Social Issues Paper

  • Must be three to four double-spaced pages in length (not including title and references pages) and

formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.

  • Must include a separate title page with the following:

o Titleofpaper
o Student’sname
o Course name and number o Instructor’sname
o Datesubmitted

  • Must use at least three scholary sources (excluding the required course readings), two of which must come from within the Ashford University Library (e.g., articles, professional critiques, research reports, etc.). The third source can come from either the library or from a professional website ending in .gov).

o The Scholarly, Peer Reviewed, and Other Credible Sources table offers additional guidance on appropriate source types. If you have questions about whether a specific source is appropriate for this assignment, please contact your instructor. Your instructor has the final say about the appropriateness of a specific source for a particular assignment.

  • Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
  • Must include a separate references page that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the

Ashford Writing Center.

 

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ETH 321 Assignment Week 3 Team Assignment Sexual Harassment Education for Managers

The purpose of this assignment is to define sexual harassment in the workplace and its negative effect on employees and the business, to analyze the requirements for a sexual harassment claim, to develop methods that a business can adopt to reduce or eliminate sexual harassment claims and litigation, and to assess liability based on the form of business entity.

 

Read the following scenario.    High-profile sexual harassment scandals, such as allegations against Bill Cosby, Harvey Weinstein of the Weinstein Company, and Bill O’Reilly and Roger Aisles of Fox News, are changing the landscape of workplace sexual harassment claims and litigation.

 

Conduct a roundtable discussion (in person, web conference, or via e-mail, text, etc.) with your Learning Team members regarding sexual harassment as a growing ethical and legal concern for businesses today. Each Learning Team member must be prepared to discuss each topic. Assign a group moderator to keep the discussions on track. Your discussion should last at least 45 minutes to one hour and include the following:

 

  • Define sexual harassment and discuss applicable law (such as the Civil Rights Act of 1964). How does the state law in your state address sexual harassment?

 

  • Discuss a recent sexual harassment claim in the news and whether media coverage is beneficial or detrimental to reporting and reducing sexual harassment claims in the workplace. Should sexual harassment claims be addressed publicly or handled privately?

 

  • Explain the ethical and legal considerations of a business protecting its employees (the accuser, the accused, and other employees in the company) while a workplace sexual harassment investigation is underway. Does your answer change if the allegation is a widely known scandal-making front page news?

 

  • Compare the sexual harassment liability of a business entity that is a sole proprietorship with an entity that is a corporation.

 

  • Recommend risk management procedures a business can implement to avoid or reduce sexual harassment claims from occurring in the workplace.

 

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You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position.  Both have similar educational

You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position.  Both have similar educational backgrounds and certifications.  However, the first candidate has 20 years of related experience while the second candidate has 6 years of similar experience.

The first candidate is asking for competitive base salary plus one week of extra vacation as part of the benefits package.  The second candidate is asking for a competitive base salary plus a company smart phone (upgraded each year), paid internet service at home.  The first candidate is willing to work a flexible schedule (nights, weekends, etc), while the second candidate prefers to work remotely from home.  Both are requesting to be included in the company’s annual bonus plan.

Write a 700-1100 paper that includes the following:

Compare the direct and indirect compensation requests for each candidate.

As an HR professional, what do you think is the best hiring decision for the company and why?

Use APA format and references

 

Str 581 week 1 career connection values and strategy paper

Choose an organization according to the following:

  • Current employer
  • Most recent or former employer
  • Place of business that you have patronized or have been familiar with over a long period of time.

o    Avoid choosing an organization that is so large that historical data would be difficult to apply. Firms in the Russell 2000® index may fit well, whereas firms in the Dow 30 Industrial index probably do not.

  • The organization can be a start-up that you or a significant other may create in the future. For a start-up, focus on an entrepreneurial idea that is of substantive interest, so this project leaves you with a product you may leverage in the future.

Write a 1,050-word paper in which you address the following: 

  • Identify the major components of the strategic management process.
  • Discuss how these components work together to create value for the organization.
  • Evaluate the company’s mission statement, vision statement, motivation strategy, innovation strategy, and people strategy. If the organization does not have one or more of these, how does that affect the organization and its people?
  • Explain the role of ethics and corporate social responsibility in strategic planning.  How does this direct their strategy? How does the organization’s vison and mission align with your own values and vision?  If you are currently working for the organization, how does your role influence this and vice versa?

 

Problem 1 Estimate the daily carbon utilization to remove chlorobenzene from 1 million gal/day of

Problem 1 Estimate the daily carbon utilization to remove chlorobenzene from 1 million gal/day of groundwater saturated with chlorobenzene. Assume a chlorobenzene concentration of 5 mg/L is acceptable for discharge to a POTW.

 

Problem 2 Provide a preliminary design of a carbon adsorption system (i.e. the height of the adsorption zone, the number and size of column units, and the daily carbon usage rate) for the removal of 2,4,6- trichlorophenol from 250,000 gal/day of water. The following data are provided: Bohart-Adams model: a = 2.3 days/ft; b = -10 days (for the 90% removal line) in laboratory tests where trichlorophenol concentration was reduced from 395 mg/L to 10 mg/L at a loading of 4 gal/(ft2 ∙min) using laboratory columns with the following specifications: 2.3 m column length, 0.051 m column diameter, and 0.5 L/min flow rate. The adsorption zone was 19 ft. Assume that the unit weight of carbon is 481 kg/m3 .

 

Problem 3 A plating waste with a flow of 40,000 gal/day contains 274 mg/L of NaCN. Determine the amounts of chlorine as Cl2 and NaOH required to oxidize the cyanide to CO2 and N2.

 

Problem 4 A waste contains 150 mg/L of copper at a flow rate of 75 L/min. Determine the amount of sodium borohydride required to treat this waste.

 

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Resources: Section 508 Website, including Subpart B

Resources:  Section 508 Website, including Subpart B

Prepare a 7- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation that explains Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973.

List several of the technical requirements placed on software applications (§ 1194.21) and web-based applications (§ 1194.22), then explain the purpose each serves.

Incorporate additional research or academic information to support your presentation.

Format your PowerPoint® speaker notes according to APA guidelines.

 

GSCM-440 Iowa Elevators 3-1 Kirtis Gibbs DeVry University


What were the executives looking for from the procurement group to provide?

What is the corporate structure today and what will it look like in the future?

What is the overall plan? What does purchasing have to do with the categories? If they do it, then what is the outcome? Would it encounter support or resistance?

Create a case to clarify the new structure and the benefits that will be created from it.

 

British petroleum – BP-Conduct research using Scholarly, Peer Reviewed, and Other Credible Sources

Select one of the companies you would like to research below:

  • British Petroleum (BP)
  • Facebook
  • Hyundai
  • Dunkin’ Donuts
  • Netflix

Conduct research using Scholarly, Peer Reviewed, and Other Credible Sources to address the following required elements:

  • State what you believe is the distinctive competence and core competence of your selected company.
  • Give an example of how the values and mission statement help to shape planning. Additionally, discuss some internal and external factors that may influence the business in the future.
  • Complete the SWOT Analysis template for your selected organization; applying each of the categories in evaluating the company.

Support your claims with examples from required materials and/or other scholarly or credible resources, and properly cite any references.

 

complete and include the swot table in the paper

Refs and cite with the book below, journal articles and any other sources

 

BUS ADM 201 Introduction to Financial Accounting

1 Name:_________________ BUS ADM 201 Introduction to Financial Accounting TA:___________________ Spring 2018 Disc #:_________________ EXTRA CREDIT III Due at 11:59 on Saturday, May 12th GRADING: Worth up to 15 points. Carefully READ the requirements on page 2 first. Partially completed problems will earn no credit—that means all requirements must be FULLY completed. All work must be completed by hand. If you complete all items as requested, you will earn at least 7.5 points. The remaining points are dependent upon the accuracy of your answers. Round amounts to the nearest dollar, if applicable. Jamukha Corporation prepares annual financial statements. The balance sheet at December 31, 2016, is presented below. Jamukha Corporation Balance Sheet December 31, 2016 Assets Liabilities and Stockholders’ Equity Cash 22,500 Accounts payable 52,900 Accounts receivable 28,000 Common stock ($1 par) 10,000 Allowance for doubtful accounts (350) Paid-in capital in excess of par – Common stock 90,000 Inventory 55,000 Retained earnings 76,750 Prepaid insurance 4,500 Equipment 230,000 A/D – Equipment (110,000) 229,650 229,650 During 2017 the following transactions occurred: 1. Purchased $176,000 inventory on account. Jamukha Corp. uses a perpetual inventory system. 2. Sales of $335,000, plus 5.6% sales tax, were made to customers on account. Cost of goods sold was $194,500. 3. Received $26,000 cash down payment for orders that will be shipped next year. 4. Issued 12 year, $80,000 face value, 4% bonds on July 1 at 102. The bonds were sold to yield an effective annual rate of 3.79101%, and they pay interest every January 1 and July 1. 5. Collected $245,000 on account. 6. Paid general expenses of $41,250. 7. Paid $220,750 on account. 8. Paid the sales tax collected from customers to the State of Wisconsin. 9. On January 1, Jamukha Corp. sold for $9,000 cash equipment which originally cost $65,000. Accumulated depreciation for this equipment as of December 31, 2016, was $50,000. This transaction is exempt from sales tax. 2 10. Issued 1,600 shares of $100 par, 7% preferred stock for $194,000 cash. 11. Purchased equipment on July 1, 2017, for $180,000 cash. 12. Purchased 500 shares of Jamukha Corp. common stock from a disgruntled shareholder for $42 per share. 13. Recorded salaries and payroll taxes. Employee’s gross salaries were $60,000. FICA tax was withheld at a rate of 7.65%. Federal income taxes (FIT) of $6,000 were withheld, and state income taxes (SIT) of $3,000 were withheld. The federal unemployment tax (FUTA) rate was 1%, and the state unemployment tax (SUTA) rate was 3.25%. No cash has been paid yet, so record all the amounts due in the appropriate payable accounts. 14. The paychecks and payroll taxes from entry #13 were paid. Adjusting Journal Entries: 15. Straight-line depreciation with a 5 year useful life and no salvage value is used for equipment purchased in previous years. The equipment purchased on July 1, 2017 (#11) is depreciated using double-declining balance with a useful life of 15 years and a $30,000 salvage value. (Hint: The equipment was purchased midway through the year.) 16. Accrue bond interest payable and amortize bond discount/premium. Jamukha Corp. uses effective-interest amortization. (Hint: The bond was issued midway through the year.) 17. The prepaid insurance relates to a policy purchased on December 31, 2016. This insurance expires at a rate of $300 per month. Record as a general expense. 18. Jamukha estimates that 5% of accounts receivable are uncollectible. 19. Jamukha Corp. is an S-corporation and is not subject to income tax. REQUIRED: Print out the solution pages for the general journal, ledger, and worksheet that follow and enter the following transactions. I suggest that you use a pencil. a. Enter the transactions numbered 1-14 in the general journal provided on the following pages. b. Post the journal entries to the ledger accounts for items 1-14. Look at the cash account for an example of how to use the running balance ledger. I have completed the first two lines of it for you. It is a good idea to keep track of whether your balance column is a debit or a credit, particularly for contra accounts. c. Prepare an unadjusted trial balance at December 31, 2017 and enter on the worksheet. d. Worksheet requirement: Using your unadjusted trial balance (c) above and the data for adjusting entries (#15-19), prepare a 12-column worksheet similar to worksheet for Sierra Corporation in Chapter 4 and the prior extra credit assignments. You will not receive any credit if the worksheet is incomplete. To save time, you are not required to formally journalize or post your adjusting entries (you can just enter them on the worksheet). You are not required to record closing entries. e. Prepare a formal statement of cash flows using the T-account approach. Templates for the statement and the T-account worksheet are attached. (You are not required to formally present the other statements— just complete them on the worksheet.) 3 EXTRA CREDIT III SOLUTION Name _____________________ Journal: Requirement (a) General Journal Debit Credit a.1. a.2. a.3. a.4. a.5. a.6. a.7. a.8. a.9. a.10. a.11. a.12. a.13. a.14. 4 General Ledger: Requirement (b) CASH DR CR BALANCE Beginning 22,500 22,500 DR Item 3 26,000 48,500 DR ACCOUNTS RECEIVABLE DR CR BALANCE Beginning 28,000 28,000 DR ALLOWANCE FOR DOUBTFUL ACCOUNTS DR CR BALANCE Beginning 350 350 CR INVENTORY DR CR BALANCE Beginning 55,000 55,000 DR PREPAID INSURANCE DR CR BALANCE Beginning 4,500 4,500 DR EQUIPMENT DR CR BALANCE Beginning 230,000 230,000 DR ACCUM DEPRECIATION – EQUIPMENT DR CR BALANCE Beginning 110,000 110,000 CR 5 General Ledger: Requirement (b) continued ACCOUNTS PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE Beginning 52,900 52,900 CR SALARIES PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE SALES TAX PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE FICA PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE FIT PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE SIT PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE FUTA PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE SUTA PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE UNEARNED REVENUE DR CR BALANCE BONDS PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE PREMIUM ON BONDS PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE 6 General Ledger: Requirement (b) continued COMMON STOCK ($1 PAR) DR CR BALANCE Beginning 10,000 10,000 CR PREFERRED STOCK ($100 PAR) DR CR BALANCE PAID-IN CAPITAL IN EXCESS OF PAR – COMMON STOCK DR CR BALANCE Beginning 90,000 90,000 CR PAID-IN CAPITAL IN EXCESS OF PAR – PREFERRED STOCK DR CR BALANCE TREASURY STOCK DR CR BALANCE RETAINED EARNINGS DR CR BALANCE Beginning 76,750 76,750 CR SALES REVENUE DR CR BALANCE COST OF GOODS SOLD DR CR BALANCE GENERAL EXPENSES DR CR BALANCE SALARIES EXPENSE DR CR BALANCE PAYROLL TAX EXPENSE DR CR BALANCE LOSS ON DISPOSAL DR CR BALANCE 7 Account Title DR CR DR CR DR CR DR CR DR CR DR CR Totals Net loss Totals Ending retained earnings Totals Sheet Jamukha Corporation Worksheet: Requirement (c), (d) For the Year Ended December 31, 2017 Unadjusted Adjusted Income Retained Balance Trial Balance Adjustments Trial Balance Statement Earnings Statement 8 Jamukha Corporation Statement of Cash Flows: Requirement (e) For the Year Ended December 31, 2017 CASH FROM OPERATING ACTIVITIES: Increases Decreases Net Cash From Operating Activities CASH FROM INVESTNG ACTIVITIES: Net Cash From Investing Activities CASH FROM FINANCING ACTIVITIES: Net Cash From Financing Activities NET INCREASE IN CASH Cash at beginning of year Cash at end of year 9 110,000 10,000 28,000 52,900 0 350 0 90,000 55,000 0 0 4,500 0 76,750 230,000 0 0 Accounts receivable Accounts payable Pref. stock ($100 par) Statement of Cash Flows T-Account Worksheet Requirement (e) Use the formal statement to show activity within the cash account. On this statement, debits to cash correspond to increases and credits correspond to decreases. A/D – Equipment Common stock ($1 par) Allow. for doubtful accts Interest payable PICEP – CS Inventory Unearned revenue PICEP – PS Prepaid insurance Bonds payable Retained earnings Equipment Premium on B/P Treasury stock

 

FINA 408 Individual Final Company Analysis Project-DELTA AIRLINES


FINA 408 Individual Final Company Analysis Project

Grading Guidelines

The paper is graded on a 100-point scale.  The following describes the breakdown of points available:

25 points for ORGANIZATION

This is a long and complicated paper, so it is essential that you are organized in your presentation of the information.  Please be sure to present each item in the order suggested by the outline and have clear headings and sub-headings to make it easy to follow.  Also, it is important to organize the paper in a way that prevents the reader from having to flip back and forth from one section to another to follow the discussion (e.g., ensure that each ratio/calculation is discussed immediately after it is presented, rather than having a separate table elsewhere in the report.

25 points for ANALYSIS

To receive the full amount of points for this category, be sure to provide thorough discussion of your analysis process and an explanation of what the ratio/calculation means.  It is important to demonstrate that you have a good understanding of why each calculation was done, and what information can be learned from it.  Also, in this section I remove points for any situation where I feel that the analysis presented is not the students’ original work (i.e., taken from another source without attribution.)  While you can certainly refer to other analysts’ work regarding your company, please be sure to conduct your own analyses and draw your own conclusions throughout the paper.  If citations are not provided for others’ analyses in several instances throughout the paper, the appropriate academic sanctions will be imposed.

25 points for THOROUGHNESS

In order to receive the full amount of points available for this portion of the paper, you must include every item listed on the general outline provided at the beginning of the course.  Points will be removed if any item is missing from the analysis.

25 points for CONTENT

In this category, I am assessing the extent to which the entire report provides a complete analysis of the company, utilizing the steps we practiced throughout the course.  Do you tie it all together with connecting themes and findings?  Or, is it just a list of the various calculations with a sentence or two in between explaining each.  A successful paper will present a congruous and thorough analysis of the company with insightful and thoughtful commentary throughout.

 

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FINA 408 Individual Final Company Analysis Project

FINA 408 Individual Final Company Analysis Project

Grading Guidelines

The paper is graded on a 100-point scale.  The following describes the breakdown of points available:

25 points for ORGANIZATION

This is a long and complicated paper, so it is essential that you are organized in your presentation of the information.  Please be sure to present each item in the order suggested by the outline and have clear headings and sub-headings to make it easy to follow.  Also, it is important to organize the paper in a way that prevents the reader from having to flip back and forth from one section to another to follow the discussion (e.g., ensure that each ratio/calculation is discussed immediately after it is presented, rather than having a separate table elsewhere in the report.

25 points for ANALYSIS

To receive the full amount of points for this category, be sure to provide thorough discussion of your analysis process and an explanation of what the ratio/calculation means.  It is important to demonstrate that you have a good understanding of why each calculation was done, and what information can be learned from it.  Also, in this section I remove points for any situation where I feel that the analysis presented is not the students’ original work (i.e., taken from another source without attribution.)  While you can certainly refer to other analysts’ work regarding your company, please be sure to conduct your own analyses and draw your own conclusions throughout the paper.  If citations are not provided for others’ analyses in several instances throughout the paper, the appropriate academic sanctions will be imposed.

25 points for THOROUGHNESS

In order to receive the full amount of points available for this portion of the paper, you must include every item listed on the general outline provided at the beginning of the course.  Points will be removed if any item is missing from the analysis.

25 points for CONTENT

In this category, I am assessing the extent to which the entire report provides a complete analysis of the company, utilizing the steps we practiced throughout the course.  Do you tie it all together with connecting themes and findings?  Or, is it just a list of the various calculations with a sentence or two in between explaining each.  A successful paper will present a congruous and thorough analysis of the company with insightful and thoughtful commentary throughout.

FINA 408 Individual Project

SAMPLE – OUTLINE FOR SPRING 2018 WILL DIFFER

 

  1. Introduction
  2. Purpose of project
  3. Short description of company

 

  1. Governance and Communication Analysis

 

  1. Introduce the concepts addressed in the questions below, then answer the questions and discuss the importance of the following:

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  1. Who is the company’s current CEO?  Is he or she also the Chair of the Board?  Discuss the company’s considerations in making this decision.  Do you agree that this is the best leadership structure for this board? Why or why not?2.  Who serves on the board’s Audit Committee?  How many members are Financial Experts?  What experience qualifies them for that designation?  Do you agree with this designation? Why or why not?

    3. Is there more than one class of common stock outstanding?  How many votes does each share of each class of stock get?  Does any one person or entity control the voting rights at the company? If so, who?

    4. Who or what entity holds the highest percentage of the company’s stock?  Are most of the beneficial owners reported individuals or institutions? What are the implications of the company’s ownership structure?

    5.   What was the total amount of compensation paid to the CEO last year?  What portion of his or her total pay was annual bonus and non-equity incentives?  What were the main performance measures used to determine the CEO’s annual bonus and/or non-equity incentives?

    6. Listen to a recording of an analyst call (AKA earnings call or quarterly conference call) for your company.  Listen to about 15-20 minutes of the call and write a summary of your observations, including any questions that you might have wanted to ask the CEO/CFO, etc.

 

 

 

 

 

III.           Strategy Analysis

  1. Industry Analysis:  Porter’s Five Forces
  2. Rivalry among existing firms
  3. Threat of new entrants

iii.      Threat of substitutes

  1. Buyer power
  2. Supplier power
  3. Company Strategy Analysis
  4. Is your company following a Low Cost Leader or a Product/Service Differentiation Strategy?
  5. Where would evidence of this strategy show up in their financials?

 

  1. Financial Analysis
  2. Recasted Income Statement (3 years)
  3. Recasted Balance Sheet (3 years)
  4. Common Size Income Statement (3 years)
  5. DuPont Analysis (1 year)
  6. Profitability Analysis Ratios (3 years)
  7. Profit Margin
  8. Return on Assets (ROA)

iii.      Return on Equity (ROE)

  1. Gross profit margin
  2. EBIT Margin
  3. Accounts Receivable Turnover and Days’ Receivable

vii.      Inventory Turnover and Days’ Inventory

viii.      Accounts Payable Turnover and Days’ Payable

  1. PP&E Turnover
  2. Long-term Asset Turnover
  3. Risk Analysis
  4. Non-Financial Risk Analysis
  5. Review the Risk Factors section of the company’s most recent 10-K and discuss the three factors mentioned which, in your opinion, may have the most significant impact on the company
  6. Financial Risk Ratios (3 years)
  7. Current ratio
  8. Quick ratio
  9. Cash ratio
  10. Liabilities-to-equity ratio
  11. Capital structure ratio
  12. Interest coverage ratio

 

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  1. Forecast
  2. Growth Rate
  3. Sustainable Growth Rate
  4. Calculate and discuss the company’s dividend payout ratio (if applicable) and the Sustainable Growth Rate
  5. Weighted Average Cost of Capital
  6. Use the CAPM to compute the required rate of return on equity capital for the company
  7. Determine the cost of debt (if applicable) and the cost of preferred stock (if applicable)
  8. Compute the weighted average cost of capital for the company
  9. Explain why this cost is important for companies to consider, and discuss the WACC for your company
  10. Forecasted Income Statement (5 years)
  11. Prepare a forecasted income statement for 5 years
  12. Explain in detail your projections for Revenues, including any segment analysis conducted

 

 

How mangers need to conduct Performance Evaluations with a multicultural workforce

Write a one page paper on how Managers need to conduct Performance Evaluations with a multicultural workforce.  How can each generation learn from one another?  Then tell me what can Generation X  do to make the workplace a better place?

Analysis, Modeling, and Design

Business Case Research Paper

A Business Case Definition:  Documentation detailing the requirements to move an idea from conceptualization to project initiation.

For this assignment, I want you to compare and contrast a Business Case and a Business Plan.   Include definitions and applications.   Also please explore business case templates. The above definition of a business case is mine, if you would like to offer a different definition as part of your assignment, please do so, but of course you will defend it therein. There are examples of Business Case Templates located in the readings for this course. There are also some links provided. Please review other web sites of relevance and indicate those you use.

I want you to submit to me in three weeks maximum a paper on the above and stating why the details in the business case template are there and how this represents the corpus of data that would be submitted to obtain funding and project approval to get a project started. The paper should be from 4 to 6 pages in length.  Select a business case template that you like and tell me why you selected that business case template. I want you to reference at least three different business case templates and select the one you believe to be the best. Include the one, or URL for it, with your paper. You should reference the others that you evaluated to come to your conclusion.

This is the first of two projects; the second is identified in week four assignments. Yes you can look now if you want to it should be there.

 

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Accounting problem

Ordinary Tax – 39.6%

Capital Gain – 20%

Recap on Depreciation – 25%

 

Problem 1

 

XYZ LLC is planning to purchase land and a commercial building for $200,000,000.  An appraisal of the property has identified that 15% of the purchase price relates to land with the remaining relating to the building.  A Cost Segregation Study (“Cost Seg”) was performed which showed that 90% of the building cost related to real property and that 8% and 2% related to 7 and 5 year personal property respectively. XYZ LLC plans to hold the property for 7 years and then sell it for $210,000,000.  Calculate the after tax IRR assuming no cash flow other then tax savings from depreciation under two alternatives: 1) assuming no Cost Seg data is used to calculated depreciation and 2) Cost Seg data is used.  Also, assume that when the personal property is sold that it will have no value.

Economic Gain – 10 million

 

Depreciation rates are as follows:

 

Real Property – 39 year straight line

 

7 and 5 Year Personal Property – double declining with switch to straight line or:

 

7 Year Property                                   5 Year Property

 

  1. 14.29%                              1.       20%
  2. 24.49%                              2.       32%
  3. 17.49       %                                  3.       19.2%
  4. 12.49       %                                  4.       11.52%
  5.   8.93       %                                  5.       11.5%
  6.   8.92       %                                  6.       5.76%
  7.   8.93
  8.   4.46

 

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Signature Assignment

Assignment Steps 

Develop a 700- to 1,050-word memo to a prospective employer outlining your credentials, including: taking this class, all of the projects you have done for this class individually and with your team, and their impact on the businesses you have engaged with so a senior manager reading it would want to hire you as either an operations consultant or permanent employee.

Summarize the business case for each project.

Outline what you specifically accomplished, assuming these projects were implemented, and their estimated impacts on the business.

Utilize the learnings from your skills in global sourcing, procurement, and outsourcing which can also be of benefit to your target firm.

Format your assignment as if you would be giving a presentation to senior management.

 

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BSBMKG414 Undertake marketing activitis

Formative question

Activity 1.

  1. What is marketing? (20-40words)

 

  1. What is the USP? (20-40 words)

 

  1. Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. How does the organisation market itself and what is its USP? (50-75 words)

 

 

 

 

Activity 2.

  1. What might policies and procedures used in the workplace in regard to marketing activities bebased on? (30-50 words)

 

  1. What information can you find in an organisation’s marketing plan in relation to pricing? What will the organisation have taken into account when setting pricing levels? 100-150words

 

 

 

Activity 3.

How can you determine the need for marketing activities? Provide at least three examples.

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Activity 4.

  1. How can you investigate previous marketing activities for relevant information? Provide at least five examples.

 

  1. Describe the meaning of tactical, strategic and investment decision that might have been made in previous marketing activities. 1sentence each

 

 

 

Activity 5.

  1. Explain the value of profiling the market segment. 75-125words

 

  1. Think about a product that has been successfully marketed. Identify the market segments that have been targeted as part of the marketing campaign. 20-40words

 

 

Activity 6.

  1. What is positioning? 1 sentence

 

  1. What is market mix? 20-40words

 

  1. Describe how to create a positioning strategy. 150-200 words

 

Activity 7.

  1. What question might an organisation ask to identify expected marketing activity outcomes? Provides at least three examples.
  2. How can colleagues be prepared for marketing activities? Provide at least two examples.

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Activity 8.

  1. How can information be analysed? Provide at least three examples

 

  1. What question do you need to ask when conducting a customer analysis? Provide at least five examples

 

 

 

Activity 9.

  1. What steps can be taken to develop activity plans? 1 sentence

 

  1. What resource might be needed for documenting work activities? Provide at least three examples

Activity 10

  1. From whom should you seek approval for plans? Provides at least three examples

 

  1. What processes could you go through to obtain approval of plans? 1 sentence

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Activity 11.

  1. What types of resouces can be required for implementing marketing activities? Provide three examples.
  2. You have been asked to put together a sample bag to be given out at a product launch. What will you need to do? 75-125 words

Activity 12

  1. What type of marketing activities might an organisation become involved in? Provide at least two examples.
  2. Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. What types of activities does it undertake? Which  work best? Why? 50-75 words

Activity 13

  1. Outline the responsibilities of a copywriter. 30-50words

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  1. Who are considered relevant marketing personnel within an organisation? Provide at least five examples.

 

 

Activity 14.

  1. How can marketing activities be reviewed? Provide at least five examples.

 

  1. When marketing activities have been reviewed, how can they be amended? 30-50words

Activity 15

  1. How can outcomes of marketing activities be measured? Provide at least three examples.
  2. How can outcomes of marketing activities be documented? Provide at least two examples.

Activity 16.

  1. Hoe can you review expected outcomes of marketing activities? 40-60words
  2. How can they be documented? 1 sentence

Acitivty 17.

What are the main components of a report? You shoud able to identify at least 10

 

Summative assessment 1

Question 1.

Identify the seven basic steps in planning marketing activities.

 

Question 2

List five examples of basic marketing activities.

 

Question 3.

Describe the difference between organisational policies, procedures and practices. 150-200 words

 

Question 4.

Outline how market research can be used to assess suitability of an organisation’s existing products. Why is it difficult to introduce and market a new product or service? 75-100words

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Summative Assessment 2.

Project

The owner of a new animal training school, which uses a special new technique and claims to be able to teach dogs read, contacts your advertising agency.

The short-term goal of the new training school is to expand its small premises on the outskirts of Brisbane to a nationally recognised company with many school in all the major cities and large provincial towns

The long-term goal of the school is to expand, over a 10 year period, from its base in Australia into America.

Describe in a report form how you would put together a team to :

  • Conduct market research
  • Develop product knowledge
  • Examine the situation including previous marketing activities and decide on a plan of action
  • Clearly describe the goals that you have set
  • How you would allocate roles and responsibilities to individuals members of your team
  • What resources will you required (including team members)
  • Set realistic timeline for your campaign
  • Describe how you will obtain budget figures and relate actual cost to the budget
  • Compile and attach an agenda for the inaugural team meetings
  • Outline promotional activities that should be planned and some advertising methods that could be used but may not be appropriate
  • Detail why, in your opinion, they would not be appropriate
  • Describe how you intend to set up relationships with relevant groups and what groups would be targeted
  • What networks will be used to assist in the promotion
  • What brainstorming is and why it can be useful
  • Review marketing activities

1000-2000words

 

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Production/Operation

Draft written responses to the following text questions. Please be sure to answer the whole question as an essay in a thorough manner. Please provide at least a full page of text

 

  1. Define Inventory and give 5 examples of inventory
  2. Give 4 reasons to hold inventory
  3. What is the difference between fixed order quantity and fixed order interval in inventory management?
  4. Explain briefly what does the 80/20 rule means in inventory management

 

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BSBMKG414 Undertake marketing activitis

Formative question

Activity 1.

  1. What is marketing? (20-40words)

 

  1. What is the USP? (20-40 words)
  2. Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. How does the organisation market itself and what is its USP? (50-75 words)

 

Activity 2.

  1. What might policies and procedures used in the workplace in regard to marketing activities bebased on? (30-50 words)
  2. What information can you find in an organisation’s marketing plan in relation to pricing? What will the organisation have taken into account when setting pricing levels? 100-150words

 

Activity 3.

How can you determine the need for marketing activities? Provide at least three examples.

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Activity 4.

  1. How can you investigate previous marketing activities for relevant information? Provide at least five examples.

 

  1. Describe the meaning of tactical, strategic and investment decision that might have been made in previous marketing activities. 1sentence each

 

 

 

Activity 5.

  1. Explain the value of profiling the market segment. 75-125words

 

  1. Think about a product that has been successfully marketed. Identify the market segments that have been targeted as part of the marketing campaign. 20-40words

 

 

Activity 6.

  1. What is positioning? 1 sentence

 

  1. What is market mix? 20-40words

 

  1. Describe how to create a positioning strategy. 150-200 words

 

 

 

 

Activity 7.

  1. What question might an organisation ask to identify expected marketing activity outcomes? Provides at least three examples.

 

  1. How can colleagues be prepared for marketing activities? Provide at least two examples.

 

 

 

Activity 8.

  1. How can information be analysed? Provide at least three examples

 

  1. What question do you need to ask when conducting a customer analysis? Provide at least five examples

 

 

 

Activity 9.

  1. What steps can be taken to develop activity plans? 1 sentence

 

  1. What resource might be needed for documenting work activities? Provide at least three examples

 

 

 

Activity 10

  1. From whom should you seek approval for plans? Provides at least three examples

 

  1. What processes could you go through to obtain approval of plans? 1 sentence

 

 

 

Activity 11.

  1. What types of resouces can be required for implementing marketing activities? Provide three examples.

 

 

  1. You have been asked to put together a sample bag to be given out at a product launch. What will you need to do? 75-125 words

 

 

Activity 12

  1. What type of marketing activities might an organisation become involved in? Provide at least two examples.

 

  1. Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. What types of activities does it undertake? Which  work best? Why? 50-75 words

 

 

 

Activity 13

  1. Outline the responsibilities of a copywriter. 30-50words

 

  1. Who are considered relevant marketing personnel within an organisation? Provide at least five examples.

 

 

Activity 14.

  1. How can marketing activities be reviewed? Provide at least five examples.

 

  1. When marketing activities have been reviewed, how can they be amended? 30-50words

 

 

 

 

Activity 15

  1. How can outcomes of marketing activities be measured? Provide at least three examples.

 

 

  1. How can outcomes of marketing activities be documented? Provide at least two examples.

 

 

Activity 16.

  1. Hoe can you review expected outcomes of marketing activities? 40-60words

 

 

  1. How can they be documented? 1 sentence

 

 

 

Acitivty 17.

What are the main components of a report? You shoud able to identify at least 10

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Summative assessment 1

Question 1.

Identify the seven basic steps in planning marketing activities.

 

 

Question 2

List five examples of basic marketing activities.

 

Question 3.

Describe the difference between organizational policies, procedures and practices. 150-200 words

 

Question 4.

Outline how market research can be used to assess suitability of an organization’s existing products. Why is it difficult to introduce and market a new product or service? 75-100words

 

 

Summative Assessment 2.

Project

The owner of a new animal training school, which uses a special new technique and claims to be able to teach dogs read, contacts your advertising agency.

The short-term goal of the new training school is to expand its small premises on the outskirts of Brisbane to a nationally recognized company with many school in all the major cities and large provincial towns

The long-term goal of the school is to expand, over a 10 year period, from its base in Australia into America.

Describe in a report form how you would put together a team to:

  • Conduct market research
  • Develop product knowledge
  • Examine the situation including previous marketing activities and decide on a plan of action
  • Clearly describe the goals that you have set
  • How you would allocate roles and responsibilities to individuals members of your team
  • What resources will you required (including team members)
  • Set realistic timeline for your campaign
  • Describe how you will obtain budget figures and relate actual cost to the budget
  • Compile and attach an agenda for the inaugural team meetings
  • Outline promotional activities that should be planned and some advertising methods that could be used but may not be appropriate
  • Detail why, in your opinion, they would not be appropriate
  • Describe how you intend to set up relationships with relevant groups and what groups would be targeted
  • What networks will be used to assist in the promotion
  • What brainstorming is and why it can be useful
  • Review marketing activities

 

1000-2000words

 

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Analysis, Modeling, and Design

Business Case Research Paper

A Business Case Definition:  Documentation detailing the requirements to move an idea from conceptualization to project initiation.

For this assignment, I want you to compare and contrast a Business Case and a Business Plan.   Include definitions and applications.   Also please explore business case templates. The above definition of a business case is mine, if you would like to offer a different definition as part of your assignment, please do so, but of course you will defend it therein. There are examples of Business Case Templates located in the readings for this course. There are also some links provided. Please review other web sites of relevance and indicate those you use.

I want you to submit to me in three weeks maximum a paper on the above and stating why the details in the business case template are there and how this represents the corpus of data that would be submitted to obtain funding and project approval to get a project started. The paper should be from 4 to 6 pages in length.  Select a business case template that you like and tell me why you selected that business case template. I want you to reference at least three different business case templates and select the one you believe to be the best. Include the one, or URL for it, with your paper. You should reference the others that you evaluated to come to your conclusion.

This is the first of two projects; the second is identified in week four assignments. Yes you can look now if you want to it should be there.

 

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Accounting problem

Ordinary Tax – 39.6%

Capital Gain – 20%

Recap on Depreciation – 25%

 

Problem 1

 

XYZ LLC is planning to purchase land and a commercial building for $200,000,000.  An appraisal of the property has identified that 15% of the purchase price relates to land with the remaining relating to the building.  A Cost Segregation Study (“Cost Seg”) was performed which showed that 90% of the building cost related to real property and that 8% and 2% related to 7 and 5 year personal property respectively. XYZ LLC plans to hold the property for 7 years and then sell it for $210,000,000.  Calculate the after tax IRR assuming no cash flow other then tax savings from depreciation under two alternatives: 1) assuming no Cost Seg data is used to calculated depreciation and 2) Cost Seg data is used.  Also, assume that when the personal property is sold that it will have no value.

Economic Gain – 10 million

 

Depreciation rates are as follows:

 

Real Property – 39 year straight line

 

7 and 5 Year Personal Property – double declining with switch to straight line or:

 

7 Year Property                                   5 Year Property

 

  1. 14.29%                              1.       20%
  2. 24.49%                              2.       32%
  3. 17.49       %                                  3.       19.2%
  4. 12.49       %                                  4.       11.52%
  5.   8.93       %                                  5.       11.5%
  6.   8.92       %                                  6.       5.76%
  7.   8.93
  8.   4.46

 

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ECON312 week 3 Homework 2018

Question 1

Maryland farmers turn from tobacco to flowers

Maryland tobacco farmers will be subsidized if they switch from growing tobacco to growing crops such as flowers and organic vegetables. How does offering farmers a payment to exit tobacco growing influence the opportunity cost of growing tobacco? What is the opportunity cost of using the equipment owned by a tobacco farmer?

Offering farmers a payment to exit tobacco growing _______ the opportunity cost of growing tobacco.

The opportunity cost of using the equipment owned by a tobacco farmer is _______.

increases; the next best alternative forgone, which could be the production of flowers and organic vegetables

increases; the implicit cost of using the tobacco equipment

decreases; the explicit cost of using the tobacco equipment

decreases; the sum of the implicit and explicit costs of using the tobacco equipment

does not change; the next best alternative forgone, which could be the production of flowers and organic vegetables

Question 2

Perfect competition is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT

firms produce an identical product.

no restrictions on entry into or exit from the industry.

buyers and sellers are well informed about prices.

a large number of buyers and sellers.

considerable advertising by individual firms.

Question 3

Which of the following illustrates economies of scale, diseconomies of scale, and constant returns to scale?

Liza’s average total cost changes from $4.50 to $2.20 when she increases salad production from 7 to 9 an hour.

Sam’s average total cost changes from $1.30 to $2.80 when he increases smoothie production from 5 to 8 gallons an hour.

Tina’s average total cost remains at $3 when she increases pizza production from 12 to 13 an hour.

Sam faces economies of scale; Liza faces diseconomies of scale; Tina faces constant returns to scale.

Sam faces economies of scale; Tina faces diseconomies of scale; Liza faces constant returns to scale.

Tina faces economies of scale; Sam faces diseconomies of scale; Liza faces constant returns to scale.

Liza faces economies of scale; Sam faces diseconomies of scale; Tina faces constant returns to scale.

Question 4

Jennifer owns a pig farm near Salina, Kansas. Last year she earned $39,000 in total revenue while incurring $38,000 in explicit costs. She could have earned $27,000 as a teacher in Salina. These are all her revenue and costs. Therefore Jennifer earned an

economic profit of $1,000.

accounting profit of $1,000 but incurred an economic loss of $65,000.

None of the above answers is correct.

accounting profit of $1,000 but incurred an economic loss of $26,000.

accounting profit of $1,000 but incurred an economic loss of $38,000.

Question 5

The main source of economies of scale is

reductions in the price of factors of production.

the ability to hire less labor.

increasing average costs.

decreasing marginal product.

greater specialization of both labor and capital.

Question 6

Jennifer’s Bakery Shop produces baked goods in a perfectly competitive market. If Jennifer decides to produce her 100th batch of cookies, the marginal cost is $120. She can sell this batch of cookies at a market price of $110. To maximize her profit, Jennifer should

produce this batch of cookies because their MR exceeds their MC.

produce this batch of cookies because they will help lower her average fixed cost.

not produce this additional batch.

charge $120 for this batch.

shut down.

Question 7

Anna owns a dog grooming salon in Brunswick, Georgia. The above table has Anna’s total product schedule. Anna pays each worker $300 per week and she pays rent of $600 a week for her salon. These are her only costs. When Anna has a staff of 2 workers, her average total cost equals

$10.00.

$1,200.

$300.

$2,400.

$12.00.

Question 8

As a typical firm increases its output, its marginal cost

is constant.

increases at first and then decreases.

is negative at first and then positive.

decreases.

decreases at first and then increases.

Question 9

To produce more output in the short run, a firm must employ more of

its fixed resources.

Firms cannot produce more output in the short run.

its variable resources.

all its resources.

the least costly resources regardless of whether they are fixed or variable.

Question 10

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The market demand curve in a perfectly competitive market is ________ and the demand curve for a perfectly competitive firm’s output is ________.

horizontal; horizontal

downward sloping; horizontal

downward sloping; downward sloping

downward sloping; upward sloping

horizontal; downward sloping

Question 11

 

Quantity (bushels of rutabagas)

Total revenue (dollars)

Total cost (dollars)

0

0

12

1

10

22

2

20

28

3

30

30

4

40

31

5

50

34

6

60

45

7

70

59

8

80

80

The above table has the total revenue and total cost schedule for Omar, a perfectly competitive grower of rutabagas. Omar’s total profit is maximized when he produces ________ bushels of rutabagas.

7

5

6

3

8

Question 12

If concerns about mad-cow disease impose economic losses on the perfectly competitive cattle ranchers, exit by the ranchers combined with no further changes in the demand for beef will force the price of beef to

fluctuate, with the trend being lower prices.

probably change, but more information about the market supply of beef is needed to answer the question.

decrease.

not change.

increase.

Question 13

 

Quantity of labor (workers)

Total product

(lawns mowed per week)

0

0

1

30

2

55

3

75

4

80

5

82

 

Kenya owns a lawn mowing company. His total product schedule is in the above table. Decreasing marginal returns first occur with the

third worker.

second worker.

first worker.

fourth worker.

fifth worker.

Question 14

The above figure illustrates a perfectly competitive firm. If the market price is $10 a unit, to maximize its profit (or minimize its loss) the firm should

produce 30 units.

produce more than 30 units and less than 40 units.

shut down.

produce 40 units.

produce between 10 and less than 30 units.

Question 15

Quantity of labor (workers)

Total product

(dogs groomed per week)

0

0

1

40

2

100

3

150

4

190

5

220

6

240

 

Anna owns a dog grooming salon in Brunswick, Georgia. The above table has Anna’s total product schedule. Anna pays each worker $300 per week and she pays rent of $600 a week for her salon. These are her only costs. When Anna has a staff of 2 workers, her average fixed cost equals

$2,400.

$6.00.

$10.00.

$7.50.

$600.

Question 16

When an economist uses the term “cost” referring to a firm, the economist refers to the

price of the good to the consumer.

explicit cost of producing a good or service but not the implicit cost of producing a good or service.

implicit cost of producing a good or service but not the explicit cost of producing a good or service.

cost that can be actually verified and measured.

opportunity cost of producing a good or service, which includes both implicit and explicit cost.

Question 17

Quantity of labor (workers)

Total product

(dogs groomed per week)

0

0

1

40

2

100

3

150

4

190

5

220

6

240

 

Anna owns a dog grooming salon in Brunswick, Georgia. The above table has Anna’s total product schedule. Anna pays each worker $300 per week and she pays rent of $600 a week for her salon. These are her only costs. When Anna has a staff of 6 workers, her average fixed cost equals

$7.50.

$2.50.

$6.00.

$600.

$10.00.

Question 18

U.S. Steel Lays Off 756

With a drop in the demand for steel pipe and tube, U.S. Steel Corporation will idle plants in Ohio and Texas and lay off 756 workers.

Source: The Wall Street Journal , January 6, 2015

As U.S. Steel responded to the fall in demand, how did its marginal cost change?

What can you say about minimum AVC in the plants that closed?

As U.S. Steel responded to the fall in demand, its marginal cost ______.

The minimum average variable cost in the plants that closed must have been ______.

decreased; greater than the market price

decreased; less than the market price

decreased; equal to average fixed cost

increased; less than the market price

increased; greater than the market price

Question 19

The law of decreasing returns states that as a firm uses more of a

fixed input and a variable input, the marginal product of the fixed input and the marginal product of the variable input both decrease.

fixed input, with a given quantity of variable inputs, the marginal product of the fixed input eventually decreases.

variable input, with a given quantity of fixed inputs, the marginal product of the variable input eventually decreases.

variable input, output will begin to fall immediately.

variable input, total output will increase indefinitely.

Question 20

GM cuts jobs at its Australian manufacturing unit

GM will cut 500 jobs, or about 12% of its workforce, at its Australian plant because of a sharp fall in demand for its locally-made “Cruze” small car.

Source: The Wall Street Journal , April 8, 2013

As GM cuts its workforce, how will the marginal product and average product of a worker change in the short run?

Suppose that before the cuts the marginal product of GM workers is below their average product.

As the number of workers decreases, the marginal product of a GM worker ______ and the average product of a GM worker ______ in the short run.

does not? change; does not change

decreases; increases

increases; decreases

increases; increases

decreases; decreases

Question 21

Output (pizzas per hour)

Total cost

(dollars)

0

20

1

35

2

49

3

61

4

71

5

79

6

85

Paulette owns a pizza parlor. Her total cost schedule is in the above table. Her total variable cost of producing four pizzas per hour is

Some amount, but more information is needed to determine this total variable cost.

$49.

$20.

$71.

$51.

Question 22

Airlines seek new ways to save on fuel as costs soar

Fuel is an airline’s biggest single expense. In 2008, the cost of jet fuel rocketed. Airlines tried to switch to newer generation aircraft, which have more fuel-efficient engines.

Source: The New York Times , June 11, 2008

Explain how a technological advance that makes airplane engines more fuel efficient changes an airline’s average variable cost, marginal cost, and average total cost.

A technological advance that makes an airplane engine more fuel efficient ______ an airline’s average variable cost and ______ an airline’s marginal cost.

increases; increases

decreases; does not change

does not change; decreases

decreases; decreases

Question 23

Labour (Workers)

Output (bikes)

Total fixed costs (dollars)

Total variable costs (dollars)

Total costs (dollars)

0

0

200

0

200

1

20

200

100

300

2

50

200

200

400

3

60

200

300

500

4

64

200

400

600

 

The table above gives costs at Jan’s Bike Shop. Unfortunately, Jan’s record keeping has been spotty. Each worker is paid $100 a day. Labor costs are the only variable costs of production. What is the total fixed cost of producing 64 bikes?

$200

$500

$300

$400

$600

Question 24

California’s commercial drone industry is taking off

Customers are finding ever more creative ways to use drones, and 3E Robotics Inc., America’s largest producer of consumer drones, expects sales to soar.

Source: Los Angeles Times, June 13, 2015

Explain what is happening in the market for commercial drones.

How would you expect the price of a drone to change in the short run and the long run?

How would you expect the economic profit of a drone producer such as 3D Robotics to change in the short run and in the long run?

In the short run, the equilibrium price of a drone _______ and the economic profit of drone producers _______.

falls; decreases

rises; increases

rises; remains unchanged

falls; remains unchanged

Question 25

Coffee king Starbucks raises its prices

Starbucks will raise its price because the wholesale price of milk has risen by nearly 70% in the past year. There’s a lot of milk in those Starbucks lattes, noted John Glass, CIBC World Markets restaurant analyst.

Source: USA Today, July 24, 2007

Is the cost of milk a fixed cost or a variable cost?

Describe how the increase in the price of milk changes Starbucks’ short-run cost curves.

The cost of milk is a ______ cost. An increase in the cost of milk shifts the ______ curves upward.

variable; total cost, total variable cost, and total fixed cost

fixed; average total cost, average fixed cost, total cost, and total fixed cost

fixed; total cost and average total cost

variable; average total cost, average variable cost, total cost, total variable cost, and marginal cost

Question 26

The long run is a time period that is

five years or longer.

long enough to change the amount of labor employed but not to change the size of the plant.

long enough to change the amount of labor employed.

long enough to change the size of the firm’s plant and all other inputs.

None of the above answers describes the long run.

Question 27

A perfectly competitive firm is producing 50 units of output, which it sells at the market price of $23 per unit. The firm’s average total cost is $20. What is the firm’s total revenue?

$1,150

$1,000

$150

$23

$20

Question 28

Metropolitan Museum completes round of layoffs

The museum cut 74 jobs and 95 other workers retired. The museum also laid off 127 other employees in its retail shops. The cut in labor costs is $10 million, but the museum expects no change in the number of visitors.

Source: The New York Times, June 22, 2009

Explain how the job cuts and shop closings will change the museum’s short-run average cost curves and marginal cost curve.

A cut in labor but no change in output increases the marginal product of labor.

What is the effect on the marginal cost curve?

A rightward movement along the marginal cost curve occurs.

The marginal cost curve shifts upward.

A leftward movement along the marginal cost curve occurs.

The marginal cost curve shifts downward.

Question 29

Kenya owns a lawn mowing company. His total product schedule is in the above table. The marginal product of the fourth worker is ________ lawns mowed per week.

25

5

20

80

320

Question 30

Output (gallons of ice cream per hour)

Total cost (dollars)

0

1

1

2

2

3

3

5

4

8

5

11

 

The Jerry-Berry Ice Cream Shoppe’s total cost schedule is in the above table. Based on the table, the marginal cost of producing the fourth gallon of ice cream is

$5.

$3.

$8.

$2.

$32.

 

 

ECON312 Week 2 Homework 2018

Question 1

The price of cotton clothing falls. As a result,

the demand for cotton clothing decreases.

both the demand for cotton clothing increases and the quantity demand of cotton clothing increases.

the quantity demanded of cotton clothing increases.

the quantity demanded of cotton clothing decreases.

the demand for cotton clothing increases.

Question 2

If a higher price for wheat decreases the quantity of corn being produced, which of the following describes what has occurred?

The quantity of wheat supplied increased and the supply of corn decreased.

The supply of wheat increased and the supply of corn decreased.

The quantity of wheat supplied increased and quantity of corn supplied decreased.

The supply of wheat decreased and the supply of corn decreased.

The supply of wheat increased and the quantity of corn supplied decreased

Question 3

If both producers and consumers believe that a product’s price will rise in the future, then at the present, demand ________ and supply ________.

increases; increases

increases; decreases

decreases; decreases

does not change; does not change

decreases; increases

Question 4

You are just about to finish college and are about to start a high paying job. Because of this new job, what is the most likely outcome in the market for cars?

Your demand for cars will decrease.

The market supply of cars will increase.

Your demand for cars will increase.

The demand and the supply for cars will decrease.

The market supply of cars will decrease.

Question 5

Many Americans are selling their used cars and buying new fuel-efficient hybrids. Other things remaining the same, in the market for used cars, ______ and in the market for hybrids ______.

Supply increases and the price falls; demand increases and the price rises
Demand decreases and the price rises; supply increases and the price falls
Both demand and supply decrease and the price might rise, fall, or not change; demand increases and the price rises
Demand decreases, supply increases, and the price falls; supply in-creases and the price fall

Question 6

If the price of a one good increases and the quantity demanded of a different good decreases, then these two goods are

substitutes.

normal goods.

inelastic goods.

complements.

inferior goods.

Question 7

 

Which figure above shows the effect if research is published claiming that eating pizza is healthy?

Figure B

Figure C

Figure A

Figure D

Both Figure A and Figure D

Question 8

If consumers buy a large number of plug-in electric cars, the equilibrium price of electricity will ________ and the equilibrium quantity of electricity will ________.

rise; increase

fall; increase

not change; increase

rise; decrease

fall; decrease

Question 9

Which of the following describes the law of demand? When other things remain the same, as

the quantity demanded of bread increases, the price of bread falls.

more people decide to eat pizza, the demand for pizza increases.

your income increases, you’ll buy more hamburgers.

the price of peanut butter increases, the quantity demanded of jelly decreases.

the price of gas falls, the quantity demanded of gas increases.

Question 10

In a recession, consumers have less income to spend. As a result, if dining out is a normal good, then which of the following would happen to the demand curve for dining out?

The demand curve would shift rightward.

The demand curve would not shift but the price of dining out would fall.

The demand curve would shift leftward.

The demand curve would not shift but the price of dining out would rise.

The effect on the demand curve is unknown.

Question 11

Computer chips are a normal good. Suppose the economy slips into a recession so that income falls. As a result, the demand for computer chips ________ so that the price of a computer chip ________.

decreases; rises

decreases; does not change

increases; falls

decreases; falls

increases; rises

Question 12

If income increases and the demand for bus rides decreases,

consumers are behaving irrationally.

bus rides are an inferior good.

bus rides must be a complement good with some other good.

bus rides are a substitute good.

bus rides are a normal good.

Question 13

 

Which figure above shows the effect of a technological advance in the production of pizza?

Figure A

Figure B

Figure C

Figure D

Both Figure A and Figure D

Question 14

Suppose over the next several years the productivity of firms producing electric cars improves dramatically. The advance in productivity leads to

an increase in the supply of electric cars so that the supply curve shifts leftward.

a decrease in the supply of electric cars so that the supply curve shifts rightward.

an increase in the supply electric cars so that the supply curve shifts rightward.

no change in the supply of electric cars, only a change in the quantity supplied of electric cars.

a decrease in the supply of electric cars so that the supply curve shifts leftward.

Question 15

If good weather conditions result in a larger than normal crop of peaches, then the

equilibrium price of peaches falls, and the equilibrium quantity of peaches decreases.

equilibrium price of peaches falls, and the equilibrium quantity of peaches increases.

equilibrium price of peaches rises, and the equilibrium quantity of peaches increases.

demand curve for peaches shifts leftward.

increase in the supply of peaches induces a greater demand for peaches, so that the equilibrium price rises and the equilibrium quantity increases.

Question 16

People eat at restaurants less often when their incomes fall because of a recession. Eating at restaurants must be

a complement to other goods.

an inelastic good.

an inferior good.

a normal good.

a substitute for other goods.

Question 17

Which of the following increases the supply of a product?

some producers going bankrupt and leaving the industry

an increase in the expected future price of the product

a higher price for the product

lower prices for the resources used to produce the product

a decrease in productivity

Question 18

If a 30 percent price increase generates a 20 percent decrease in quantity demanded, then demand is

perfectly inelastic.

inelastic.

perfectly elastic.

unit elastic.

elastic.

Question 19

Suppose the San Francisco 49ers lower ticket prices by 15 percent and as a result the quantity of tickets demanded increases by 10 percent. This set of results shows that San Francisco 49ers tickets have

an elastic demand.

a unit elastic demand.

an inelastic supply.

an elastic supply.

an inelastic demand.

Question 20

In the above figure, the movement from point a to point b reflects

a decrease in the cost of the tomato sauce used to produce pizza.

a decrease in income if pizza is a normal good.

an increase in the number of producers of pizza.

an increase in the supply of pizza.

an increase in the price of pizza.

Question 21

If the automobile workers’ union successfully negotiates a wage increase for its members, how does the wage hike affect the supply of automobiles?

The quantity supplied decreases.

The supply and quantity supplied decreases.

The quantity supplied increases.

The supply decreases.

The supply increases.

Question 22

In the above figure, the shift in the demand curve from D to D1 can be the result of

a decrease in income if pizza is a normal good.

an increase in the price of a sub sandwich, a substitute for pizza.

an increase in the price of soda, a complement to pizza.

an increase in the price of pizza.

a change in quantity demanded.

Question 23

Patrick lives near two gas stations, Exxon and Shell. If Exxon decreases the price of gas, we predict that the quantity of gasoline demanded at Shell will

increase because Exxon and Shell gas are substitutes.

decrease because Exxon and Shell gas are substitutes.

not change Exxon and Shell are different brands of gasoline.

increase because Exxon and Shell gas are complements.

decrease because Exxon and Shell gas are complements.

Question 24

 

Pizza is a normal good. Which figure above shows the effect of a decrease in consumers’ incomes?

Figure A

Figure B

Figure C

Figure D

Both Figure B and Figure C

Question 25

Suppose improvements in technology cause the supply of natural gas to increase and at the same time the demand for natural gas increases. What are we sure of?

Equilibrium price decreases.

Both equilibrium price and quantity increase.

Equilibrium price increases.

Equilibrium quantity decreases.

Equilibrium quantity increases.

Question 26

Consider the market for smart phones. Which of the following shifts the demand curve rightward?

an increase in the price of smart phones

a decrease in the price of smart phones

a decrease in the number of smart phone buyers

an increase in the supply of smart phones

an increase in the price of land-line phone service, a substitute for smart phones

Question 27

Price

(dollars per gallon)

Quantity demanded

(gallon per gasoline)

Quantity supplied

(gallon per gasoline)

3.73

337,562

443,074

3.63

396,398

428,008

3.65

412,031

412,031

3.62

417,899

392,665

The table above shows the situation in the gasoline market in Tulsa, Oklahoma. If the price of a gallon of gasoline is $2.20, then

There is neither a surplus nor a shortage, but the market is NOT in equilibrium.

the gasoline market in Tulsa is in equilibrium.

Without more information we cannot determine if there is a surplus, a shortage, or an equilibrium in the gasoline market in Tulsa.

there is a shortage of gasoline in Tulsa.

there is a surplus of gasoline in Tulsa.

Question 28

If a 10 percent price increase generates a 10 percent decrease in quantity demanded, then demand is

elastic.

perfectly elastic.

perfectly inelastic.

inelastic.

unit elastic.

Question 29

The law of supply reflects the fact that

suppliers have an incentive to use their resources in the way that brings the biggest return.

the demand curve is downward sloping.

higher prices are more attractive to consumers because they signal a higher quality product.

people buy more of a good when its price falls.

businesses can sell more goods at lower prices.

Question 30

In the above figure, an increase in cost of the cheese used to produce pizza

has no effect.

results in a movement from point a to point b.

shifts the supply curve from S to S2.

shifts the supply curve from S to S1.

results in a movement from point b to point a.

 

ECON312 Week 4 Quiz latest 2018

Question 1

Diseconomies of scale is a result of

mismanagement.

difficulties of coordinating and controlling a large enterprise.

larger fixed costs as the firm’s production increases.

technological progress.

specialization of labor, capital, and management.

Question 2

In a perfectly competitive market, the firm is a price taker because ______.

the price in the market is the price that maximizes each? firm’s producer surplus

the firms in perfect competition are interdependent and if one firm charges a lower? price, other firms will also lower their prices and all firms will incur an economic loss

it produces only a tiny proportion of the total output of a particular good and buyers are well informed about the prices of other firms

the price is dictated by the largest firm in the? market, and if a given firm lowers its price other firms will conspire against it

each firms makes a slightly different product

Question 3

Which of the following chain of events occurs when a tariff is imposed on a good?

Domestic prices fall, decreasing the domestic quantity supplied and increasing the quantity demanded.

Domestic prices fall, shifting the demand curve rightward, and consumers buy more of the good.

Domestic prices rise, shifting the demand curve leftward and the domestic supply curve rightward.

Domestic prices rise, decreasing the quantity demanded and increasing the domestic quantity supplied.

Domestic prices rise, shifting the domestic supply curve rightward.

Question 4

Energizer and Duracell dominate the battery market. It is possible that they could ________ because they operate in ________.

earn $0 profit in the long run; a monopolistically competitive market

form a cartel and collude; an oligopoly

have excess capacity; a natural monopoly

collude; a perfect competitive market

form a cartel; a monopolistically competitive market

Question 5

Which of the following is a list of fixed inputs for a hospital?

the lobby, the doctors, and the electricity it uses

antibiotics, pain medication, and other prescription drugs

the emergency room, intensive care unit, and other facilities

the nurses, receptionists, and other employees

bandages, casts, and other materials

Question 6

Cost curves shift if

  1. technology changes.
  2. the prices of factors of production change.

iii. productivity changes.

i and ii

i and iii

i, ii, and iii

i only

ii only

Question 7

Mylan Pharmaceuticals holds a patent on the EpiPen – designed to inject epinephrine into shock victims. In 2016, Mylan received criticism for charging $600 for this life-saving drug. The market for EpiPens is considered ________ which means that the price of an Epipen ________ its marginal cost.

a monopoly; equals

monopolistic competition; is greater than

an oligopoly; equals

a monopoly; is greater than

perfect competition; equals

Question 8

Anna owns a dog grooming salon in Brunswick, Georgia. The above table has Anna’s total product schedule. Anna pays each worker $300 per week and she pays rent of $600 a week for her salon. These are her only costs. When Anna has a staff of 2 workers, her average variable cost equals

$6.00.

$300.

$2,400.

$10.00.

$600.

Question 9

Suppose the grocery store market in Kansas City is perfectly competitive. Then one store buys all the others and becomes a single-price monopoly. The figure above shows the relevant demand and cost curves. When the market is perfectly competitive, the quantity of steak is ________ pounds, and when the market is a monopoly, the quantity of steak is ________ pounds.

2,000; 4,000

4,000; 4,000

5,000; 3,000

4,000; less than 2,000 pounds.

3,000; 2,000

Question 10

The above figure illustrates a perfectly competitive firm. If the market price is $40 a unit, to maximize its profit (or minimize its loss) the firm should

produce more than 10 and less than 30 units.

produce more than 30 units and less than 40 units.

produce 40 units.

shut down.

produce 30 units.

Question 11

Airlines seek new ways to save on fuel as costs soar

Fuel is an airline’s biggest single expense. In 2008, the cost of jet fuel rocketed. Airlines tried to switch to newer generation aircraft, which have more fuel-efficient engines.

Source: The New York Times , June 11, 2008

Is the price of fuel a fixed cost or a variable cost?

Is the price of a new fuel-efficient engine a fixed cost or a variable cost?

Explain how a technological advance that makes an airplane engine more fuel efficient changes an airline’s average total cost.

The cost of the new fuel-efficient engines are a _______ cost.

The cost of fuel is a _______ cost.

fixed; total

marginal; variable

fixed; variable

variable; fixed

Question 12

GM cuts jobs at its Australian manufacturing unit

GM will cut 500 jobs, or about 12% of its workforce, at its Australian plant because of a sharp fall in demand for its locally-made “Cruze” small car.

Source: The Wall Street Journal , April 8, 2013

As GM cuts its workforce, how will the marginal product and average product of a worker change in the short run?

Suppose that before the cuts the marginal product of GM workers is below their average product.

As the number of workers decreases, the marginal product of a GM worker ______ and the average product of a GM worker ______ in the short run.

does not change; does not change

decreases; decreases

decreases; increases

increases; decreases

increases; increases

Question 13

To maximize profit, a firm in monopolistic competition will produce the quantity where marginal revenue

is greater than marginal cost.

is less than marginal cost.

equals marginal cost.

equals zero.

equals average total cost.

Question 14

Austin owns the Fruit Bowl food truck. Which of the following would be short run decisions for Austin?

  1. how much fruit to buy
  2. how many workers to hire

iii. installing a new stove in his truck

i and ii

i only

i, ii and iii

ii only

ii and iii

Question 15

Paulette owns a pizza parlor. Her total cost schedule is in the above table. Her total fixed cost is equal to

$35.

$85.

Some amount, but more information is needed to determine her fixed cost.

$79.

$20.

Question 16

Consider the market for running shoes shown above. A tariff of ________ is imposed and causes the amount of shoes imported to ________ pairs.

$40; decrease from 4 million to 2 million

$20; decrease from 4 million to 3 million

$40; decrease from 5 million to 2 million

$20; decrease from 4 million to 2 million

$60; decrease from 4 million to 2 million

Question 17

Henry, a perfectly competitive lime grower in Southern California, notices that the market price of limes is greater than his marginal cost. What should Henry do?

advertise his limes to be able to sell more output

look for the output level where marginal revenue minus marginal cost is maximized

expand his output to increase profits

shut down and earn no profit but also incur no loss

shut down and incur a loss equal to his total fixed cost

Question 18

A collusive agreement to form a cartel is difficult to maintain because

supply will decrease because of the high cartel price.

each member firm can increase its own profits by cutting its price and selling more.

forming a cartel is legal but frowned upon throughout the world.

demanders will rebel once they realize a cartel has been formed.

each firm can increase its profit if it decreases its production even more than the decrease set by the cartel.

Question 19

Labor (workers)

Output (bikes)

Total fixed costs (dollars)

Total variable cost (dollars)

Total cost (dollars)

0

0

200

 

 

1

20

 

100

 

2

50

 

 

 

3

60

 

 

 

4

64

 

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The table above gives costs at Jan’s Bike Shop. Unfortunately, Jan’s record keeping has been spotty. Each worker is paid $100 a day. Labor costs are the only variable costs of production. What is the total cost of producing 50 bikes?

$200

$100

$500

$400

$300

Question 20

Keith is a perfectly competitive carnation grower. The market price is $2 per dozen carnations. Keith’s average total cost to grow carnations is $2.50 per dozen. In the long run, Keith will

exit the industry if the price and his costs do not change.

continue to make an economic profit.

incur an economic loss.

raise his price to more than $2.50 per dozen carnations.

raise his price to $2.50 per dozen carnations.

Question 21

Use the figure above to answer this question. Mary is the only veterinarian in a small town. To maximize her profit, Mary will choose to treat ________ animals per hour and charge ________ per customer in order to ________.

4; $50; operate on the inelastic portion of her demand curve

6; $20; maximize profit

6; $30; minimize average total cost

6; $20; minimize cost in order to attract more customers

4; $50; maximize profit

Question 22

The U.S. Postal Service has a monopoly over first-class mail service because

stamps are copyrighted.

stamps are patented.

the government has granted this agency a public franchise.

stamps are trademarked.

it owns a vital resource, namely all mailboxes.

Question 23

A firm’s fundamental goal is

to decrease its employment of workers in order to cut its costs.

to maximize profit.

to make a quality product.

different for each firm.

to gain market share.

Question 24

Price (dollars per unit

Quantity demanded (units per day)

Quantity supplied (units per day)

2

20

14

6

19

16

6

18

18

8

17

20

10

16

22

12

15

24

 

The table above has the domestic demand and domestic supply schedules for a good. If the world price of the good is $10 and international trade occurs, then according to the table

the country imports 6 units a day.

domestic production is higher before trade than after trade.

the country imports 16 units a day.

the country exports 22 units a day.

the country exports 6 units a day.

Question 25

How do advertising and other selling costs affect a firm?

The do not change demand and shift the average total cost curve downward.

They shift the average total cost curve upward.

They shift the marginal cost curve upward.

The only effect is that the demand for the product increases.

The only effect is that the excess capacity is reduced.

Question 26

A Nash equilibrium in the duopoly game

means that one player has greater market power.

can occur only if firms cooperate with each other.

occurs when each player takes the best possible action regardless of the strategy chosen by other firms.

will always lead to equilibrium in which the firms’ total profit is the largest.

means that a firm must be able to determine its actions and the actions of its competitor.

Question 27

The table above shows the revenue figures for the top four firms along with a total for the remaining firms in the fast-food industry. What is the four-firm concentration ratio for the industry?

80 percent

200 percent

20 percent

100 percent

25 percent

Question 28

In the 1950s, crude oil and natural gas imports were restricted to keep the domestic industries viable in case of a war. The rationale for this protection is the ________ argument for protection.

anti-dumping

national security

infant-industry

save domestic jobs

penalizing lax environmental standards

Question 29

The figure above shows the U.S. demand and U.S. supply curves for cherries. At a world price of $2 per pound once international trade occurs, the total imports of cherries to the United States from other nations equals

600,000 pounds.

200,000 pounds.

400,000 pounds.

800,000 pounds.

0 pounds.

Question 30

Quantity

(bottles per week)

Marginal cost

Average variable cost

Dollars per bottle

0

0

0

100

3.00

4.40

200

3.20

3.90

300

3.50

3.50

400

3.82

3.55

500

4.20

3.60

600

5.00

3.75

 

The table shows the cost structure of a firm selling bottles of water in a perfectly competitive market.

What is the quantity at the firm’s shutdown point?

The firm’s shutdown point occurs at a quantity of

nothing

bottles of water per week and the market price is $

nothing a bottle.

Question 31

Anna owns a dog grooming salon in Brunswick, Georgia. The above table has Anna’s total product schedule. Anna pays each worker $300 per week and she pays rent of $600 a week for her salon. These are her only costs. When Anna has a staff of 6 workers, her total cost equals

$1,800.

$300.

$2,400.

$7.50.

$10.00.

Question 32

The above figure represents the market for cable television in Oakland, Florida. Time Warner Communications (TWC) is the sole provider of cable television to the residents of this Central Florida community. If TWC operated under a marginal cost pricing rule, what is the price of cable television in Oakland?

$0

$40

$30

$10

$20

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Question 33

Excess capacity exists when a firm produces

more than the profit-maximizing level of output.

less than the quantity that minimizes average total cost.

None of the above answers is correct.

less than the quantity that minimizes marginal cost.

more than the quantity that minimizes marginal cost.

Question 34

The figure above shows the U.S. demand and U.S. supply curves for cherries. In the absence of international trade, cherry farmers would receive ________ per pound of cherries.

$2.00

$2.50

$0.50

$1.00

$1.50

Question 35

Suppose Pat’s Paints is a perfectly competitive firm. If Pat’s Paints’ marginal revenue equals $5 per can, and Pat decides to sell 100 cans of paint, Pat’s total revenue equals

$500.

$20.

Information on the price of a can of paint is needed to answer the question.

$5.

$100.

Question 36

Kenya owns a lawn mowing company. His total product schedule is in the above table. When 4 workers are employed, the average product is ________ lawns mowed per week.

80

20

5

25

320

Question 37

Country A imports 1,000 cars per month. After imposing a $50 per car tariff, imports fall to 800 cars per month. How much does Country A’s government collect in tariff revenue?

$90,000

$10,000

$60,000

$40,000

$50,000

Question 38

The above figure shows the U.S. market for flip-flops. With international trade, U.S. consumers buy ________ flip-flops and U.S. producers produce ________ flip-flops.

700,000; 500,000

300,000; 700,000

700,000; 300,000

500,000; 500,000

500,000; 300,000

Question 39

Perfect competition is a market in which there are? _____ firms, each selling? _____ product; many? buyers; _____ to the entry of new firms into the industry; no advantage to established firms; and buyers and sellers _____ about prices.

few; differentiated; barriers; are well informed

many; identical; no barriers; are well informed

many; identical; barriers; have no information

few; differentiated; no barriers; have no information

Question 40

Which of the following is an implicit cost in Jim’s business venture?

  1. the salary Jim could have earned at another job
  2. the interest Jim must pay on the loan he incurred to help open his business

iii. the interest Jim lost when he used his savings to help open his business

ii and iii

iii only

i and iii

i only

ii only

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ECON312 Week 2 Quiz latest 2018

Question 1

People eat at restaurants less often when their incomes fall because of a recession. Eating at restaurants must be

a substitute for other goods.

a complement to other goods.

an inelastic good.

an inferior good.

a normal good.

Question 2

In stores, it is common to find seasonal products marked down when the season ends. What explains this behavior?

The store is trying to sell the goods and realizes that they are substitutes for other goods whose prices have risen.

The store is trying to increase its customers’ incomes by increasing their purchasing power.

The store is trying to increase its customers’ demand for the product.

The store manager must be trying to drive away customers by selling low quality products.

The law of demand is being used to increase the quantity demanded.

Question 3

As a person increases his or her caloric intake, the person’s weight increases, ceteris paribus. The relationship between the person’s caloric intake and the person’s weight is an example of

a trended relationship.

unrelated variables.

a negative relationship.

a single point on a graph.

a positive relationship.

Question 4

When the percentage change in the quantity supplied is twice the percentage change in price, then supply is

perfectly inelastic.

inelastic.

unit elastic.

elastic.

perfectly elastic.

Question 5

Suppose you eat two hamburgers for lunch. The marginal benefit of the first burger is ________ of the second burger.

smaller than the marginal benefit

equal to the marginal benefit

equal to the marginal cost and the marginal benefit

not related to the marginal benefit

larger than the marginal benefit

Question 6

The price elasticity of demand measures the extent to which the quantity demanded changes when

the price of the good changes.

consumer preferences change.

the price of a related good changes.

the expected future price of a good changes.

both the demand and supply of the good change.

Question 7

Matt pays a $50 a month membership fee at Bruno’s Gym. He can exercise at the gym as many times as he wishes. If the membership fee is measured along the vertical axis and the number of times he exercises is measured along the horizontal axis, the graph between his membership fee and the number of times he exercises will

be negatively sloped.

be positively sloped.

be a horizontal line.

start out positively sloped and then, as Matt loses interest, become negatively sloped.

be a vertical line.

Question 8

An increase in the quantity demanded is shown as

a movement toward the demand curve.

a leftward shift of the demand curve.

both a movement along the demand curve and a shift of the demand curve.

a rightward shift of the demand curve.

a movement along the demand curve.

Question 9

Researchers have found a hybrid of corn that is cheaper to grow. This technological breakthrough

increases the demand for hybrid corn.

decreases the supply of hybrid corn.

Both answers A and C are correct.

Both answers A and B are correct.

increases the supply of hybrid corn.

Question 10

Suppose the relationship between a person’s age and his or her height is plotted with the age measured along the x-axis and the height measured along the y-axis. Then, the curve showing this relationship is

negatively sloped and becoming less steep.

positively sloped and becoming more steep.

positively sloped and becoming less steep.

a straight line with a positive slope.

a straight line with a negative slope.

Question 11

Assume a market is in equilibrium. There is an increase in supply, but no change in demand As a result the equilibrium price ________, and the equilibrium quantity ________.

rises; increases

rises; does not change

rises; decreases

falls; decreases

falls; increases

Question 12

What is an inferior good?

a product that is complementary

a product of low quality that we do not want to purchase

a product for which demand increases when income decreases, and demand decreases when income increases

a product that is a substitute for another, better good

a product for which demand increases when income increases, and demand decreases when income decreases

Question 13

A time series graph

shows how a certain variable changes over time.

depicts a series of good economic times a nation had.

is not useful if the goal is to determine a variable’s trend.

shows points that are scattered.

uses bars rather than lines.

Question 14

In the diagram above, which figure(s) show(s) an inverse relationship between the variables?

only C

only B

both A and C

both B and C

only D

Question 15

When a landscaping company decides to use drafting software and computers instead of hiring designers to draw design plans by hand, it is answering the ________ question.

why

for whom

opportunity cost

what

how

Question 16

The cross elasticity of demand is a measure of how

total revenue changes when the price of a product changes.

demand for a product changes when the price of a substitute or complement changes.

responsive consumers are to changes in the price of a product.

demand for a product changes when income changes.

responsive suppliers are to changes in the price of a product.

Question 17

In the above figure, the shift in the demand curve from D to D2 can be the result of

an increase in the price of soda, a complement to pizza.

an increase in income if pizza is a normal good.

a decrease in the supply of pizza that raises the price of pizza.

a change in quantity demanded.

an increase in the price of a sub sandwich, a substitute for pizza.

Question 18

When you make the decision to spend your time attending class, which economic question are you answering?

Is this in the social interest?

For whom?

How?

What?

Why?

Question 19

Going skiing will cost Adam $80 a day. He also loses $40 per day in wages because he has to take time off from work. Adam still decides to go skiing.

His decision is rational if Adam’s marginal benefit of spending a day skiing is greater than his marginal cost.

Adam is definitely making a decision that is in the social interest.

Adam’s lost $40 per day in wages is not an opportunity cost and so did not affect his decision.

He loses a total of $120 per day, so his decision is irrational.

The $80 price of skiing is not an opportunity cost and so did not affect Adam’s decision.

Question 20

Suppose the equilibrium price of oranges is $2.00 per pound. If the actual price is above the equilibrium price, a

surplus exists and the price rises to restore equilibrium.

shortage exists and the price falls to restore equilibrium.

shortage exists and the price rises to restore equilibrium.

surplus exists but nothing happens until either the demand or the supply changes.

surplus exists and the price falls to restore equilibrium.

Question 21

The production possibilities frontier illustrates the

maximum combinations of goods and services that can be produced.

goods and services that people want.

limits to people’s wants.

resources the economy possess, but not its level of technology.

amount of each good that people want to buy.

Question 22

The above figure shows the production possibility frontier for an economy. The point or points that are attainable are

points A, B, and C.

points A and D.

points B and C.

point E.

points A, B, C, and D.

Question 23

Wichita is building a convention center and financing it with revenues raised from a city hotel tax. Local politicians assert that the convention center is essentially free for Wichita residents because out-of-town visitors are paying for it. Someone who is practicing the economic way of thinking would disagree because

there are other projects that could be undertaken with the tax funds.

the convention center may not pass a marginal cost-benefit test.

the hotel tax may reduce commercial property values in the area.

they believe that Wichita does not need a new convention center.

the hotel tax may lead to a decline in visits to Wichita.

Question 24

Which figure above shows the effect if research is published claiming that eating pizza is healthy?

Figure D

Both Figure A and Figure D

Figure B

Figure A

Figure C

Question 25

The United States can use all its resources to produce 250 DVDs or 500 shoes. China can use all of its resources to produce 30 DVDs or 300 shoes. The opportunity cost of producing a DVD in the United States is

2 shoes.

500 shoes.

1 DVD.

20 shoes.

1/2 of a shoe.

Question 26

Proponents of cuts in income tax rates argue that when income tax rates are cut, workers have an incentive to increase their work hours. This argument is based on the assumption that

workers make decisions based on the social interest.

the marginal cost of each additional work hour is not important to most workers.

workers are irrational.

the opportunity cost of working is negative.

workers make decisions based on the marginal benefit of each hour worked compared to the marginal cost of work.

Question 27

The slope of the line shown in the above figure is

5/2.

2/5.

5.

2/3.

2.

Question 28

Which figure above shows the effect of an increase in the cost of the tomato sauce used to produce pizza?

Figure D

Both Figure B and Figure C

Figure C

Figure B

Figure A

Question 29

A student at New York University used to take the Redhound bus when she visited her grandmother in Boston. After graduating, although the bus fare and the plane fare were the same as they were when she was a student, with a well-paid job on Wall Street she now takes the plane to Boston to visit her grandmother. For this student, travel by Redhound bus is

a substitute good.

a good with negative preferences.

a normal good.

a complement good.

an inferior good.

Question 30

A graph shows that the number of U.S. tourists visiting a Caribbean island increases as the temperature in the northeastern United States falls. The graph shows

a direct relationship.

an invalid relationship.

a negative relationship.

a positive relationship.

no relationship.

Question 31

The income elasticity of demand is a measure of

how responsive suppliers are to changes in the price of a product.

how demand for a product changes when the price of a substitute or complement product changes.

the extent to which the supply of a good changes when the demand changes as a result of a change in income.

how responsive consumers are to changes in the price of a product.

the extent to which the demand for a good changes when income changes.

Question 32

Moving from one point to another on a production possibilities frontier implies

increasing the production of one good and decreasing the production of another.

decreasing the production of both goods.

changing the amount of factors of production that are employed.

increasing the production of both goods.

holding the production levels of both goods constant.

Question 33

Suppose the Chicago Bears football team raises ticket prices by 13 percent and as a result the quantity of tickets demanded decreases by 21 percent. This response means that the demand for Bears tickets is

unit elastic.

elastic.

inelastic.

perfectly elastic.

perfectly inelastic.

Question 34

The American Dairy Association starts a highly successful advertising campaign that makes most people want to drink more milk. As a result,

the demand for milk increases.

the demand for milk is not affected.

the demand for milk decreases because the price of milk rises.

the quantity demanded of milk increases.

the price of milk falls to encourage people to drink more milk.

Question 35

Price

(dollars per gasoline)

Quantity demanded (gallons of gasoline)

Quantity supplied (gallons of gasoline)

3.73

337,982

441, 074

3.68

396, 398

428, 008

3.65

412, 031

412, 031

3.62

417, 899

391, 665

 

The table above shows the situation in the gasoline market in Tulsa, Oklahoma. If the price of a gallon of gasoline is $2.30 then

Without more information we cannot determine if there is a surplus, a shortage, or an equilibrium in the gasoline market in Tulsa.

there is a shortage of gasoline in Tulsa.

the gasoline market in Tulsa is in equilibrium.

there is a surplus of gasoline in Tulsa.

There is neither a surplus nor a shortage, but the market is NOT in equilibrium.

Question 36

The law of supply states that, other things remaining the same,

if the price of a good increases, firms buy less of it.

if the price of a good increases, the supply increases.

demand increases when supply increases.

as people’s income increase, the supply of goods increases.

if the price of a good increases, the quantity supplied increases.

Question 37

Milk can be used to produce cheese or butter. If the price of a pound of butter rises, what happens to the supply of cheese?

The supply of cheese decreases.

The supply of cheese increases.

The supply of cheese stays the same, and there is no change in the quantity supplied of cheese.

The supply of cheese could increase, decrease, or stay the same depending on what happens to the supply of butter.

The supply of cheese stays the same, and there is a decrease in the quantity supplied of cheese.

Question 38

A trend is

the minimum value of a variable.

a general tendency for a variable to rise or fall.

the difference between the maximum value of a variable and the minimum value of the variable.

a measure of closeness on a scatter diagram.

the maximum value of a variable.

Question 39

The figure above shows a

trend diagram.

cross-section graph.

time-series graph.

slope.

scatter diagram.

Question 40

The question “Should economics majors or sociology majors earn more after they graduate?” is an example of a ________ question.

for whom

why

where

how

what

Economics Question

In an effort to make the distribution of income more nearly equal, the government of a country passes a tax law that changes the Lorenz curve from

y = 0.97x2.1 for one year to y = 0.36x2 + 0.64x for the next year. Find the Gini coefficient of income for both years. (Round your answers to three decimal places.)

Before

After

 

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ECO 372 Final Exam Guide (New 2018)

ECO 372 Final Exam Guide (New 2018)

1.

Martha lends $200 to a friend who promises to return it after a year. Instead of lending it to her friend, Martha could have put the money in a bank where she could have earned an interest rate of 2 percent per annum. Martha’s opportunity cost of lending the money is _____.

A.$2

B.$204

C.$200

  1. $4

 

2

The exhibit given below shows the short-run aggregate demand and supply curves in an economy, AD1 and AS1, and the long-run aggregate supply curve, LRAS. The economy was initially in equilibrium when there was a decrease in aggregate demand, causing a shift of the aggregate demand curve from

  1. AD1 to AD2. Which of the following is true in this case?

 

  1. The economy will move from point B to point A in the short run and then to point C in the long run.

 

  1. The economy will move from point C to point B in the short run and then eventually to point A.

 

  1. The economy will move from point D to point A in the short run and then to point C in the long run.

 

  1. The economy will move from point D to point C in the long run.

 

3

Suppose an economy is in long-run equilibrium. An increase in consumption expenditure will:

 

 

  1. shift the short-run aggregate supply curve rightward and increase both the price level and real output in the long run.

 

  1. decrease both the price level and real gross domestic product in the long run.

 

  1. increase the price level in the long run but have no effect on real gross domestic product.

 

  1. shift the aggregate demand curve rightward and increase the real output in the long run.

 

 

4

In the long run, a higher saving rate:

 

  1. always leads to a higher level of productivity because of increasing returns to scale.

 

  1. does not lead to a higher level of income because of deterioration in labor productivity.

 

  1. always leads to a higher growth rate of output because of improvement in the stock of human capital.

 

  1. does not always lead to a higher growth rate of output because of diminishing returns to capital.

 

5.

Suppose the net foreign investment in Italy is positive. This implies that:

 

  1. Italians are buying more foreign assets than foreigners are buying Italian assets.

 

  1. foreigners are buying relatively more Italian assets.

 

  1. Italy is experiencing a net capital inflow.

 

  1. foreign direct investment in Italy is higher than foreign portfolio investment in the country.

 

 

6)

The circular-flow diagram shows that:

 

  1. firms receive wages and profits from households in the products market.

 

  1. households sell the factors of production to firms in the inputs market.

 

  1. households supply resources to firms in the products market.

 

  1. firms supply labor and other resources to the government in the factor market.

 

 

 

7)

The table given below shows the total amount of spending in the country of Mesodonia. Mesodonia’s

Mesodonia’s gross domestic product is:

Components of GDP             Value in millions

consumption                           $110

Investment                             $1400

Gov. expenditure                  $3200

Exports                                   $400

Imports                                    $550

 

Which one?

 

  1. $5,660 million.
  2. $4,710 million.
  3. $4,160 million.
  4. $4,560 million.

 

 

8

 

The country of Merilya exported goods and services worth $1.2 million and imported goods and services worth $2.7 million. The net exports of the country was _____.

 

  1. 3.9 million, and it had a trade surplus

 

  1. −$1.5 million, and it had a trade deficit

 

  1. $2 million, and it had a trade surplus

 

  1. −$3.9 million, and it had a trade deficit

 

 

9

Suppose the Fed purchases government bonds through open-market operations. All other things remaining equal, this is likely to:

 

  1. decrease the price level and increase the real wealth of consumers.

 

  1. decrease the price level and make domestic goods less expensive relative to foreign goods.

 

  1. increase the price level and eventually decrease the interest rate and investment spending.

 

  1. increase the price level and eventually decrease the demand for money as well as goods and services.

 

 

10

A rise in the price of bacon from $14 per pound to $16 per pound will reduce the purchasing power of the dollar by:

 

  1. 0.55 pounds of bacons.

 

  1. 0.06 pounds of bacon.

 

  1. 5 pounds of bacon.

 

  1. 2 pounds of bacon.

 

 

11.

A difference between commodity money and fiat money is that:

 

  1. fiat money cannot be used as a unit of account.

 

  1. commodity money is used in a barter economy.

 

  1. fiat money does not have any intrinsic value.

 

  1. commodity money cannot be used as a unit of account.

 

 

 

12

Suppose the net capital outflow from Zenovia is negative. This implies that:

 

  1. the real interest rate in Zenovia is high.

 

  1. the real interest rate in foreign countries is higher than in Zenovia.

 

  1. foreigners are not interested in buying assets in Zenovia.

 

  1. the citizens of Zenovia are investing more in foreign assets than foreigners are investing in assets in Zenovia.

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13

There is an increase in human capital when _____.

 

  1. Shiroh persuades the management of her company to offer more perks to employees

 

  1. Sue rents a laser printer to teach her employees how to fix it

 

  1. Samantha receives training in quality management after joining a new firm

 

  1. Susie puts in more than 8 hours of work at her workplace every day

 

 

14

After retirement, Molly deposits $500,000 in a local bank in Merrina. At an interest rate of 4 percent, she will receive approximately _____ after 3 years.

 

 

  1. $662,345
  2. $608,326
  3. $562,432
  4. $750,000

 

 

15

Ruth wants to calculate the present value of a sum of money that she will receive after the demise of her grandparents. To calculate the present value, she should use the:

 

 

  1. expenditure method.

 

  1. discounting method.

 

  1. value-added method.

 

  1. compounding method.

 

 

16

The buyers and sellers in the country of Perylia use corn as a medium of exchange. This means that:

 

  1. Perylia uses commodity money.

 

  1. corn cannot be used as a store of value or as a unit of account in Perylia.

 

  1. Perylia uses fiat money.

 

  1. corn can be used as a store of value but not as a unit of account in Perylia.

 

 

17

Scarcity occurs because of:

 

  1. the excess of quantity supplied over quantity demanded.

 

  1. overutilization of labor.

 

  1. limited human needs and wants.

 

  1. the limited supply of resources.

 

 

18

The Phillips curve shows:

 

 

  1. the negative relationship between inflation and unemployment.

 

  1. the positive relationship between the interest rate and the supply of money.

 

  1. the positive relationship between the price level and aggregate supply.

 

  1. the negative relationship between the interest rate and the demand for money.

 

 

19

Ephlon Inc., an Italian bike manufacturer, opens a factory in the United States. This is an example of:

 

 

  1. the accumulation of human capital.

 

  1. the catch-up effect.

 

  1. a foreign direct investment.

 

  1. a foreign portfolio investment.

 

 

20

Jack is an out-of-work sculptor. He has been looking for a job for the last two years. Unable to find any, he has given up his job search. Which of the following is true in this case?

 

 

  1. This is an example of frictional unemployment.

 

  1. This is an example of structural unemployment.

 

  1. He is a part of the unemployed labor force.

 

  1. He is a discouraged worker and will not be included in the calculation of the unemployment rate.

 

21

Suppose the central bank of a country undertakes an expansionary monetary policy. Which of the following is most likely to be the effect of such a policy, all other things remaining unchanged?

 

  1. An increase in the price level that reduces the real value of households’ money holdings and stimulates consumer spending

 

  1. An increase in the price level that stimulates spending on net exports and increases the demand for money

 

  1. A decrease in the price level that reduces the amount of money that people want to hold and decreases the interest rate.

 

  1. A decrease in the price level that reduces the interest rate and lowers the real value of the domestic currency foreign-exchange market.

 

22

Following the unexpected good performance of Leathex, all its employees were given a one-time bonus. This consequently led to a rightward shift of the demand curve for shoes manufactured by the company and a leftward shift of the demand curve for socks. This shows that shoes are:

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  1. inferior goods.

 

  1. substitutes.

 

  1. normal goods.

 

  1. complementary goods.

 

23

A higher interest rate in a country:

 

  1. encourages citizens to buy foreign assets.

 

  1. makes domestic bonds less attractive to foreigners.

 

  1. lowers saving in the country and decreases the quantity of loanable funds supplied.•

 

  1. discourages investment and decreases the quantity of loanable funds demanded.

 

 

24

If the price level in an economy is 120 and the equilibrium price level is 100, _____.•

 

  1. people will want to hold more money than is supplied by the central bank•

 

  1. the demand for money curve will shift to the left

 

  1. the purchasing power of money will increase

 

  1. the supply of money is likely to exceed the demand for money

 

 

25

A recent survey showed the health benefits of cranberry juice for treating heart and other respiratory disorders. The exhibit below shows that the initial demand curve for cranberry juice is D1. Which of the following is likely to be a consequence of the publication of the survey?

 

  1. The demand curve will shift from D1 to D3.

 

  1. There will be a movement from point A to point C on D1.

 

  1. The demand curve will shift from D1 to D2.

 

  1. There will be a movement from point A to point B on D1.

 

 

26

Keynesian economists believe that when an economy is in a recession, the government should:

 

  1. decrease tax rates rather than increase government spending because households always view such tax cuts as permanent and increase their current consumption.

 

  1. increase its purchases rather than decrease taxes because households save a part of the increase in their income as a result of tax cuts.

 

  1. increase the money supply in the economy so that interest rates decline, reducing the cost of borrowing to finance new investment projects.

 

  1. increase the money supply in the economy so that an excess supply of money can induce households to increase their consumption expenditure.

 

 

27

The Marions purchased a Persian rug worth $5,000 from an Iranian textile mill. Everything else remaining unchanged, this will:

 

  1. decrease the consumption expenditure in the domestic country by $5,000.

 

  1. decrease the net imports of the domestic country by $5,000.

 

  1. reduce the net exports of the domestic country by $5,000.

 

  1. increase the gross domestic product of the domestic country by $5,000.

 

 

 

 

28

As more capital is used in the production process, the amount of other inputs being fixed, the production function becomes:

 

  1. flat because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital decreases.

 

  1. steep because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital decreases.

 

  1. steep because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital increases.

 

  1. flat because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital increases.

 

 

29

The natural rate of unemployment in a country is 4 percent. This implies that:•

 

  1. the country has an unemployment rate of 4 percent in the short run.•

 

  1. the country has a 4 percent unemployment rate when the labor market is in equilibrium. •

 

  1. 4 percent of the labor force is unemployed at any given point of time.

 

  1. the unemployment rate is constant at 4 percent over time.

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30

 

 

Which of the following is true according to the circular-flow diagram?

 

  1. Firms receive wages, rent, and profit from the government.

 

  1. Firms receive income from households.

 

  1. Households receive revenue from the government.

 

  1. Households receive wages, rent, and profit from firms.

 

ECO 372 Final Exam

1 The Marions purchased a Persian rug worth $5,000 from an Iranian textile mill. Everything else remaining unchanged, this will:

decrease the net imports of the domestic country by $5,000.
decrease the consumption expenditure in the domestic country by $5,000.
reduce the net exports of the domestic country by $5,000.
increase the gross domestic product of the domestic country by $5,000.

 

 

2 The table given below shows the total amount of spending in the country of Mesodonia. Mesodonia’s gross domestic product is:

$5,660 million.
$4,560 million.
$4,160 million.
$4,710 million.

 

3 The circular-flow diagram shows that:
firms receive wages and profits from households in the products market.
households sell the factors of production to firms in the inputs market.
households supply resources to firms in the products market.
firms supply labor and other resources to the government in the factor market.

 

4 Martha lends $200 to a friend who promises to return it after a year. Instead of lending it to her friend, Martha could have put the money in a bank where she could have earned an interest rate of 2 percent per annum. Martha’s opportunity cost of lending the money is _____.

$204
$200
$2
$4

 

5 Following the unexpected good performance of Leathex, all its employees were given a one-time bonus. This consequently led to a rightward shift of the demand curve for shoes manufactured by the company and a leftward shift of the demand curve for socks. This shows that shoes are:

normal goods.
complementary goods.
substitutes.
inferior goods.

 

6 Ephlon Inc., an Italian bike manufacturer, opens a factory in the United States. This is an example of:

the catch-up effect.
the accumulation of human capital.
a foreign portfolio investment.
a foreign direct investment.

 

7 Which of the following is true according to the circular-flow diagram?

Households receive revenue from the government.
Firms receive income from households.
Firms receive wages, rent, and profit from the government.
Households receive wages, rent, and profit from firms.

 

8 Scarcity occurs because of:
overutilization of labor.
the limited supply of resources.
limited human needs and wants.
the excess of quantity supplied over quantity demanded.

 

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9 In the long run, a higher saving rate:
does not always lead to a higher growth rate of output because of diminishing returns to capital.
does not lead to a higher level of income because of deterioration in labor productivity.
always leads to a higher growth rate of output because of improvement in the stock of human capital.
always leads to a higher level of productivity because of increasing returns to scale.

 

 

10 The buyers and sellers in the country of Perylia use corn as a medium of exchange. This means that:
corn can be used as a store of value but not as a unit of account in Perylia.
Perylia uses fiat money.
Perylia uses commodity money.
corn cannot be used as a store of value or as a unit of account in Perylia.

 

11 Suppose the net foreign investment in Italy is positive. This implies that:

Italy is experiencing a net capital inflow.
foreigners are buying relatively more Italian assets.
foreign direct investment in Italy is higher than foreign portfolio investment in the country.
Italians are buying more foreign assets than foreigners are buying Italian assets.

 

12 The exhibit given below shows the short-run aggregate demand and supply curves in an economy, AD1 and AS1, and the long-run aggregate supply curve, LRAS. The economy was initially in equilibrium when there was a decrease in aggregate demand, causing a shift of the aggregate demand curve from AD1 to AD2. Which of the following is true in this case?

The economy will move from point D to point A in the short run and then to point C in the long run.
The economy will move from point B to point A in the short run and then to point C in the long run.
The economy will move from point C to point B in the short run and then eventually to point A.
The economy will move from point D to point C in the long run.

 

13 A difference between commodity money and fiat money is that:

fiat money cannot be used as a unit of account.
commodity money cannot be used as a unit of account.
commodity money is used in a barter economy.
fiat money does not have any intrinsic value.

 

 

 

14 As more capital is used in the production process, the amount of other inputs being fixed, the production function becomes:

steep because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital decreases.
flat because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital decreases.
flat because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital increases.
steep because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital increases.

 

15 Suppose the Fed purchases government bonds through open-market operations. All other things remaining equal, this is likely to:

decrease the price level and make domestic goods less expensive relative to foreign goods.
decrease the price level and increase the real wealth of consumers.
increase the price level and eventually decrease the demand for money as well as goods and services.
increase the price level and eventually decrease the interest rate and investment spending.

 

16 Jack is an out-of-work sculptor. He has been looking for a job for the last two years. Unable to find any, he has given up his job search. Which of the following is true in this case?

This is an example of frictional unemployment.
He is a discouraged worker and will not be included in the calculation of the unemployment rate.
This is an example of structural unemployment.
He is a part of the unemployed labor force.

 

17 The country of Merilya exported goods and services worth $1.2 million and imported goods and services worth $2.7 million. The net exports of the country was _____.

$2 million, and it had a trade surplus
−$3.9 million, and it had a trade deficit
$3.9 million, and it had a trade surplus
−$1.5 million, and it had a trade deficit

 

18 If the price level in an economy is 120 and the equilibrium price level is 100, _____.

the supply of money is likely to exceed the demand for money
the demand for money curve will shift to the left
people will want to hold more money than is supplied by the central bank
the purchasing power of money will increase

 

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19 A recent survey showed the health benefits of cranberry juice for treating heart and other respiratory disorders. The exhibit below shows that the initial demand curve for cranberry juice is D1. Which of the following is likely to be a consequence of the publication of the survey?
The demand curve will shift from D1 to D2.
There will be a movement from point A to point C on D1.
The demand curve will shift from D1 to D3.
There will be a movement from point A to point B on D1.

 

20 Suppose the central bank of a country undertakes an expansionary monetary policy. Which of the following is most likely to be the effect of such a policy, all other things remaining unchanged?

A decrease in the price level that reduces the amount of money that people want to hold and decreases the interest rate.
A decrease in the price level that reduces the interest rate and lowers the real value of the domestic currency foreign-exchange market.
An increase in the price level that stimulates spending on net exports and increases the demand for money
An increase in the price level that reduces the real value of households’ money holdings and stimulates consumer spending

 

21 The Phillips curve shows:

the positive relationship between the price level and aggregate supply.
the positive relationship between the interest rate and the supply of money.
the negative relationship between inflation and unemployment.
the negative relationship between the interest rate and the demand for money.

 

22 A rise in the price of bacon from $14 per pound to $16 per pound will reduce the purchasing power of the dollar by:

5 pounds of bacon.
0.55 pounds of bacons.
2 pounds of bacon.
0.06 pounds of bacon.

 

23 There is an increase in human capital when _____.

Susie puts in more than 8 hours of work at her workplace every day
Sue rents a laser printer to teach her employees how to fix it
Shiroh persuades the management of her company to offer more perks to employees
Samantha receives training in quality management after joining a new firm

 

24 Suppose an economy is in long-run equilibrium. An increase in consumption expenditure will:

decrease both the price level and real gross domestic product in the long run.
increase the price level in the long run but have no effect on real gross domestic product.
shift the aggregate demand curve rightward and increase the real output in the long run.
shift the short-run aggregate supply curve rightward and increase both the price level and real output in the long run.

 

25 After retirement, Molly deposits $500,000 in a local bank in Merrina. At an interest rate of 4 percent, she will receive approximately _____ after 3 years.

$662,345
$608,326
$562,432
$750,000

 

26 Ruth wants to calculate the present value of a sum of money that she will receive after the demise of her grandparents. To calculate the present value, she should use the:

discounting method.
value-added method.
expenditure method.
compounding method.

 

27 A higher interest rate in a country:

makes domestic bonds less attractive to foreigners.
lowers saving in the country and decreases the quantity of loanable funds supplied.
discourages investment and decreases the quantity of loanable funds demanded.
encourages citizens to buy foreign assets.

 

28 Keynesian economists believe that when an economy is in a recession, the government should:

increase its purchases rather than decrease taxes because households save a part of the increase in their income as a result of tax cuts.
increase the money supply in the economy so that interest rates decline, reducing the cost of borrowing to finance new investment projects.
decrease tax rates rather than increase government spending because households always view such tax cuts as permanent and increase their current consumption.
increase the money supply in the economy so that an excess supply of money can induce households to increase their consumption expenditure.

 

29 The natural rate of unemployment in a country is 4 percent. This implies that:

4 percent of the labor force is unemployed at any given point of time.
the unemployment rate is constant at 4 percent over time.
the country has a 4 percent unemployment rate when the labor market is in equilibrium.
the country has an unemployment rate of 4 percent in the short run.

 

30 Suppose the net capital outflow from Zenovia is negative. This implies that:

the real interest rate in Zenovia is high.
the citizens of Zenovia are investing more in foreign assets than foreigners are investing in assets in Zenovia.
the real interest rate in foreign countries is higher than in Zenovia.
foreigners are not interested in buying assets in Zenovia

 

 

Eco/372 Macroeconomics

Resources: National Bureau of Economic Research; Principles of Macroeconomics: Ch. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7 

Scenario: Your organization’s CEO is concerned that members of the strategic planning committee are not familiar with current economic thought and principles. The CEO has assigned you the task of developing a report to introduce some of these thoughts and principles. 

Develop a 1,050-word report to the members of the strategic planning committee explaining the following information:

  • How economists are both scientists and policymakers and what principles society uses to allocate its scarce resources.
  • Using the circular flow model, explain the flow of money and goods in an economy.
  • How the economy coordinates society’s independent economic actors.
  • A country’s gross domestic product (GDP) and how it is defined and calculated.
  • How the consumer price index (CPI) is constructed and why it is an imperfect measurement of the cost of living.

Format the assignment consistent with APA guidelines. 

 

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Phoenix Eco/365 Ten Principles Of Economics And How Markets Work

Purpose of Assignment

In Week 1, students are introduced to the ten fundamental principles  on which the study of economics is based. Throughout this course, the  students will use these ten principles to better develop their  understanding of economics and how society manages its scarce resources.  Students will see how markets work using supply and demand for a good  to determine both the quantity produced and the price at which the good  sells. The concepts of equilibrium and elasticity are used to explain  the sensitivity of quantity supplied and quantity demanded to changes in  economic variables. Students will see how government policies impact  prices and quantities in markets.

 

Assignment Steps

Resources: Principles of Microeconomics, Ch. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 6.

Prepare an 875-word research paper as part of a  marketing research committee for your organization about current  microeconomic thought and theory.

Identify the fundamental lessons the Ten Principles of Economics teaches regarding:

  • How people make decisions
  • How people interact
  • How the economy works as a whole 

Explain the following to help the committee members understand how markets work:

  • How society manages its scarce resources and benefits from economic interdependence.
  • Why the demand curve slopes downward and the supply curve slopes upward. 

o    Where the point of equilibrium is and what does it determine?

  • The impact of price controls, taxes, and elasticity on changes in supply, demand and equilibrium prices.

Format consistent with APA guidelines.

 

Assumptions of ordinary least square

Describe the major assumptions of ordinary least squares and define the  error term

The necessary OLS assumptions, which are used to derive the OLS estimators in linear regression models, are discussed below. OLS Assumption 1: The linear regression model is “linear in parameters.” When the dependent variable (Y)(Y)(Y) is a linear function of independent variables (X′s)(X’s)(X′s) and the error term, the regression is linear in parameters and not necessarily linear in X′sX’sX′s. For example, consider the following: A1. The linear regression model is “linear in parameters.” A2. There is a random sampling of observations. A3. The conditional mean should be zero. A4. There is no multi-collinearity (or perfect collinearity). A5. Spherical errors: There is homoscedasticity and no autocorrelation A6: Optional Assumption: Error terms should be normally distributed. a)Y=β0+β1X1+β2X2+εa)\quad Y={ \beta }_{ 0 }+{ \beta }_{ 1 }{ X }_{ 1 }+{ \beta }_{ 2 }{ X }_{ 2 }+\varepsilona)Y=β0​+β1​X1​+β2​X2​+ε b)Y=β0+β1X12+β2X2+εb)\quad Y={ \beta }_{ 0 }+{ \beta }_{ 1 }{ X }_{ { 1 }^{ 2 } }+{ \beta }_{ 2 }{ X }_{ 2 }+\varepsilonb)Y=β0​+β1​X12​+β2​X2​+ε c)Y=β0+β12X1+β2X2+εc)\quad Y={ \beta }_{ 0 }+{ \beta }_{ { 1 }^{ 2 } }{ X }_{ 1 }+{ \beta }_{ 2 }{ X }_{ 2 }+\varepsilonc)Y=β0​+β12​X1​+β2​X2​+ε In the above three examples, for a) and b) OLS assumption 1 is satisfied. For c) OLS assumption 1 is not satisfied because it is not linear in parameter β1{ \beta }_{ 1 }β1​. OLS Assumption 2: There is a random sampling of observations This assumption of OLS regression …

Difference between Economic growth and Economic Development

Cleary Distinguish between economic development and economic growth

The theory of comparative advantage

Cleary describe the benefits of this theory to a nation’s economy

ACC 291 Week 5 Practice: Connect Practice Assignment

ACC 291 Week 5 Practice: Connect Practice Assignment

attempt 1

1

Healthy Eating Foods Company is a distributor of nutritious snack foods such as granola bars. On December 31, 2019, the firm’s general ledger contained the accounts and balances that follow.

Required:

Record adjusting entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record closing entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record reversing entries in the general journal as of January 1, 2020.
Analyze:

Assuming that the firm did not record a reversing entry for salaries payable, what entry is required when salaries of $6,000 are paid on January 3?

 

2

Good to Go Auto Products distributes automobile parts to service stations and repair shops. The adjusted trial balance data that follows is from the firm’s worksheet for the year ended December 31, 2019

Accounts    Debit    Credit
Cash    $    99,000
Petty Cash Fund         600
Notes Receivable, due 2020         15,000
Accounts Receivable         140,200
Allowance for Doubtful Accounts                   $    3,800
Interest Receivable         150
Merchandise Inventory         128,500
Warehouse Supplies         3,300
Office Supplies         700
Prepaid Insurance         4,640
Land         16,000
Building         107,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Building                        16,700
Warehouse Equipment         19,800
Accumulated Depreciation—Warehouse Equipment                        9,500
Office Equipment         9,400
Accumulated Depreciation—Office Equipment                        3,900
Notes Payable, due 2020                        15,000
Accounts Payable                        56,900
Interest Payable                        400
Loans Payable—Long-Term                        17,000
Mortgage Payable                        20,000
Colin O’Brien, Capital (Jan. 1)                        326,870
Colin O’Brien, Drawing         70,650
Income Summary         131,400              128,500
Sales                        1,110,300
Sales Returns and Allowances         8,400
Interest Income                        580
Purchases         463,000
Freight In         9,800
Purchases Returns and Allowances                        13,650
Purchases Discounts                        9,240
Warehouse Wages Expense         108,600
Warehouse Supplies Expense         5,800
Depreciation Expense—Warehouse Equipment         3,400
Salaries Expense—Sales         151,700
Travel Expense         24,000
Delivery Expense         37,425
Salaries Expense—Office         85,000
Office Supplies Expense         1,220
Insurance Expense         9,875
Utilities Expense         8,000
Telephone Expense         3,280
Payroll Taxes Expense         31,600
Building Repairs Expense         3,700
Property Taxes Expense         16,400
Uncollectible Accounts Expense         3,580
Depreciation Expense—Building         5,600
Depreciation Expense—Office Equipment         1,620
Interest Expense         4,000
Totals    $    1,732,340         $    1,732,340
Required:

Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The expense accounts represent warehouse expenses, selling expenses, and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the period.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019. The mortgage payable extends for more than one year.
Analyze:

What percentage of total operating expenses is attributable to warehouse expenses?

 

3

Superior Hardwood Company distributes hardwood products to small furniture manufacturers. The adjusted trial balance data given below is from the firm’s worksheet for the year ended December 31, 2019.

ACCOUNTS    Debit    Credit
Cash    $    34,100
Petty Cash Fund         500
Notes Receivable, due 2020         11,800
Accounts Receivable         86,000
Allowance for Doubtful Accounts                   $    6,000
Merchandise Inventory         234,000
Warehouse Supplies         2,860
Office Supplies         1,420
Prepaid Insurance         10,200
Land         46,000
Building         178,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Building                        54,000
Warehouse Equipment         37,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Warehouse Equipment                        17,400
Delivery Equipment         51,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Delivery Equipment                        19,600
Office Equipment         25,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Office Equipment                        12,000
Notes Payable, due 2020                        20,200
Accounts Payable                        49,000
Interest Payable                        580
Mortgage Payable                        61,000
Loans Payable, Long-term                        17,000
Charles Ronie, Capital (Jan. 1)                        452,460
Charles Ronie, Drawing         127,000
Income Summary         244,000              234,000
Sales                        1,685,000
Sales Returns and Allowances         18,200
Interest Income                        1,580
Purchases         767,000
Freight In         13,800
Purchases Returns and Allowances                        8,440
Purchases Discounts                        11,160
Warehouse Wages Expense         199,600
Warehouse Supplies Expense         7,100
Depreciation Expense—Warehouse Equipment         5,800
Salaries Expense—Sales         269,200
Travel and Entertainment Expense         21,500
Delivery Wages Expense         60,330
Depreciation Expense—Delivery Equipment         9,800
Salaries Expense—Office         70,600
Office Supplies Expense         4,000
Insurance Expense         6,200
Utilities Expense         9,290
Telephone Expense         6,520
Payroll Taxes Expense         59,000
Property Taxes Expense         5,600
Uncollectible Accounts Expense         5,800
Depreciation Expense—Building         9,000
Depreciation Expense—Office Equipment         4,000
Interest Expense         8,200
Totals    $    2,649,420         $    2,649,420
Required:

Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The expense accounts represent warehouse expenses, selling expenses, and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the period.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019. The mortgage payable extends for more than a year.
Analyze:

What is the current ratio for this business?

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4

The data below concerns adjustments to be made at Coffee Bean Importers.

Adjustments

On November 1, 2019, the firm signed a lease for a warehouse and paid rent of $21,000 in advance for a six-month period.
On December 31, 2019, an inventory of supplies showed that items costing $1,940 were on hand. The balance of the Suppliesaccount was $11,880.
A depreciation schedule for the firm’s equipment shows that a total of $10,750 should be charged off as depreciation in 2019.
On December 31, 2019, the firm owed salaries of $6,100 that will not be paid until January 2020.
On December 31, 2019, the firm owed the employer’s social security (6.2 percent) and Medicare (1.45 percent) taxes on all accrued salaries.
On October 1, 2019, the firm received a five-month, 8 percent note for $6,500 from a customer with an overdue balance.
Required:

Record the adjusting entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record reversing entries in the general journal as of January 1, 2020.
Analyze:

After the adjusting entries have been posted, what is the balance of the Prepaid Rent account on January 1, 2020?

 

5

The Artisan Wines is a retail store selling vintage wines. On December 31, 2019, the firm’s general ledger contained the accounts and balances below. All account balances are normal.

Required:

Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The company does not classify its operating expenses as selling expenses and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the year.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019.
Analyze:

What is the inventory turnover for Artisan Wines?

 

Explanation
Analyze:

The inventory turnover for Artisan Wines is 6.59 times, calculated as follows:

Cost of good sold    =    92,225    =    6.59
Average inventory    14,000

Average inventory    =    13,000 + 15,000    =    14,000
2
 

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attempt 2

1

The data below concerns adjustments to be made at Coffee Bean Importers.

Adjustments

On November 1, 2019, the firm signed a lease for a warehouse and paid rent of $21,000 in advance for a six-month period.
On December 31, 2019, an inventory of supplies showed that items costing $1,940 were on hand. The balance of the Suppliesaccount was $11,880.
A depreciation schedule for the firm’s equipment shows that a total of $10,750 should be charged off as depreciation in 2019.
On December 31, 2019, the firm owed salaries of $6,100 that will not be paid until January 2020.
On December 31, 2019, the firm owed the employer’s social security (6.2 percent) and Medicare (1.45 percent) taxes on all accrued salaries.
On October 1, 2019, the firm received a five-month, 8 percent note for $6,500 from a customer with an overdue balance.
Required:

Record the adjusting entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record reversing entries in the general journal as of January 1, 2020.
Analyze:

After the adjusting entries have been posted, what is the balance of the Prepaid Rent account on January 1, 2020?

 

2

The Artisan Wines is a retail store selling vintage wines. On December 31, 2019, the firm’s general ledger contained the accounts and balances below. All account balances are normal.

 

Required:

Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The company does not classify its operating expenses as selling expenses and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the year.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019.
Analyze:

What is the inventory turnover for Artisan Wines?

 

3

Healthy Eating Foods Company is a distributor of nutritious snack foods such as granola bars. On December 31, 2019, the firm’s general ledger contained the accounts and balances that follow.

Required:

Record adjusting entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record closing entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record reversing entries in the general journal as of January 1, 2020.
Analyze:

Assuming that the firm did not record a reversing entry for salaries payable, what entry is required when salaries of $6,000 are paid on January 3?

 

4

Good to Go Auto Products distributes automobile parts to service stations and repair shops. The adjusted trial balance data that follows is from the firm’s worksheet for the year ended December 31, 2019

Accounts    Debit    Credit
Cash    $    99,000
Petty Cash Fund         600
Notes Receivable, due 2020         15,000
Accounts Receivable         140,200
Allowance for Doubtful Accounts                   $    3,800
Interest Receivable         150
Merchandise Inventory         128,500
Warehouse Supplies         3,300
Office Supplies         700
Prepaid Insurance         4,640
Land         16,000
Building         107,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Building                        16,700
Warehouse Equipment         19,800
Accumulated Depreciation—Warehouse Equipment                        9,500
Office Equipment         9,400
Accumulated Depreciation—Office Equipment                        3,900
Notes Payable, due 2020                        15,000
Accounts Payable                        56,900
Interest Payable                        400
Loans Payable—Long-Term                        17,000
Mortgage Payable                        20,000
Colin O’Brien, Capital (Jan. 1)                        326,870
Colin O’Brien, Drawing         70,650
Income Summary         131,400              128,500
Sales                        1,110,300
Sales Returns and Allowances         8,400
Interest Income                        580
Purchases         463,000
Freight In         9,800
Purchases Returns and Allowances                        13,650
Purchases Discounts                        9,240
Warehouse Wages Expense         108,600
Warehouse Supplies Expense         5,800
Depreciation Expense—Warehouse Equipment         3,400
Salaries Expense—Sales         151,700
Travel Expense         24,000
Delivery Expense         37,425
Salaries Expense—Office         85,000
Office Supplies Expense         1,220
Insurance Expense         9,875
Utilities Expense         8,000
Telephone Expense         3,280
Payroll Taxes Expense         31,600
Building Repairs Expense         3,700
Property Taxes Expense         16,400
Uncollectible Accounts Expense         3,580
Depreciation Expense—Building         5,600
Depreciation Expense—Office Equipment         1,620
Interest Expense         4,000
Totals    $    1,732,340         $    1,732,340
Required:

Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The expense accounts represent warehouse expenses, selling expenses, and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the period.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019. The mortgage payable extends for more than one year.
Analyze:

What percentage of total operating expenses is attributable to warehouse expenses?

 

5

Superior Hardwood Company distributes hardwood products to small furniture manufacturers. The adjusted trial balance data given below is from the firm’s worksheet for the year ended December 31, 2019.

ACCOUNTS    Debit    Credit
Cash    $    34,100
Petty Cash Fund         500
Notes Receivable, due 2020         11,800
Accounts Receivable         86,000
Allowance for Doubtful Accounts                   $    6,000
Merchandise Inventory         234,000
Warehouse Supplies         2,860
Office Supplies         1,420
Prepaid Insurance         10,200
Land         46,000
Building         178,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Building                        54,000
Warehouse Equipment         37,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Warehouse Equipment                        17,400
Delivery Equipment         51,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Delivery Equipment                        19,600
Office Equipment         25,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Office Equipment                        12,000
Notes Payable, due 2020                        20,200
Accounts Payable                        49,000
Interest Payable                        580
Mortgage Payable                        61,000
Loans Payable, Long-term                        17,000
Charles Ronie, Capital (Jan. 1)                        452,460
Charles Ronie, Drawing         127,000
Income Summary         244,000              234,000
Sales                        1,685,000
Sales Returns and Allowances         18,200
Interest Income                        1,580
Purchases         767,000
Freight In         13,800
Purchases Returns and Allowances                        8,440
Purchases Discounts                        11,160
Warehouse Wages Expense         199,600
Warehouse Supplies Expense         7,100
Depreciation Expense—Warehouse Equipment         5,800
Salaries Expense—Sales         269,200
Travel and Entertainment Expense         21,500
Delivery Wages Expense         60,330
Depreciation Expense—Delivery Equipment         9,800
Salaries Expense—Office         70,600
Office Supplies Expense         4,000
Insurance Expense         6,200
Utilities Expense         9,290
Telephone Expense         6,520
Payroll Taxes Expense         59,000
Property Taxes Expense         5,600
Uncollectible Accounts Expense         5,800
Depreciation Expense—Building         9,000
Depreciation Expense—Office Equipment         4,000
Interest Expense         8,200
Totals    $    2,649,420         $    2,649,420
Required:

Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The expense accounts represent warehouse expenses, selling expenses, and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the period.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019. The mortgage payable extends for more than a year.
Analyze:

What is the current ratio for this business?

 

SCI 256 Select an ecosystem

SCI 256 Select an ecosystem in your area (forest, lake, desert, grassland).

Write a 600- to 1000-word paper explaining the following:

1)   Describe the structure of your ecosystem including important abiotic features and dominant plant and animal species.
2)   Explain some functions/processes of your ecosystem including one nutrient cycle and one food chain.
3)  Give two examples of species interactions (predation, competition, mutualism, etc.) that occur in your ecosystem.
4)  Identify an invasive species in your ecosystem. Explain its effects on the ecosystem and efforts to control or eradicate it.

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