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Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific

Assignment Steps 

Resources: Microsoft Excel®, Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific 

Review the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific and the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific data set.

Prepare a 1,050-word managerial report for your boss.

Use the following questions for guidelines and directions on what to include in the report:

  1. What is the type of data (Quantitative or Qualitative) for each of the columns (variables) in the dataset? If quantitative, is the data discrete or continuous? Neatly summarize your response in a table for all the columns (variables).
  2. Using Excel®, find the mean, median, standard deviation, minimum, maximum, and the three quartiles for each of the quantitative variables identified in part 1 above. Neatly summarize in a table on this document. Comment on what you observe.
  3. What are the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments? Which schools have the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments?
  4. What is the average number of students per faculty member? Is this low or high? What does this mean to prospective applicants who are interested in pursuing an MBA in one of the leading international business schools?
  5. What are the mean, median, and modal ages? What does this mean to prospective applicants?
  6. What is the mean percentage of foreign students? How many and which schools have 1% and 0% foreign students? Which schools have highest percentage of foreign students? Please state these percentages.
  7. What percentage of schools require the GMAT test?
  8. What percentage of schools require English tests such as Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL)?
  9. What percentage of schools require work experience? From this percentage, does this appear to be a significant factor in gaining admissions?
  10. What are the mean and median starting salaries? Which schools have the minimum and maximum starting salaries? How much are these minimum and maximum salaries?
  11. What are the mean tuition for foreign students and for local students? Does there appear to be a significant difference? What is the difference between the two means?
  12. How many schools require work experience and how many of them don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring work experience? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no work experience?
  13. How many schools require English tests and how many don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring English tests? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no English tests?
  14. Comment on the skewness for the data on starting salaries:
  15. Plot a histogram and determine the skewness.
  16. Find the mean, median, and mode for starting salaries and compare the three measures to determine skewness.
  17. Finally, use Empirical Rule on the starting salaries and determine whether the salaries follow the Empirical Rule.

Format your assignment consistent with APA format. 

 

Research Paper Psyc 312

Research Paper Instructions

 

You will be responsible for writing a Research Paper focusing on a social psychology topic of your choosing. The topic must be one that is discussed in the textbook. The focus of the paper will be to present and review peer-reviewed research regarding your topic as well as provide a Biblical integration discussion for your topic.

 

For your paper, you must thoroughly review and cite 2 peer-reviewed journal articles that demonstrate research regarding your topic. Your articles must present original research studies (e.g., correlational or experimental) in which the authors of the article actually formed hypotheses, collected/analyzed data, and compiled results themselves. Theoretical/review articles and meta-analyses are not permitted to be reviewed for this paper.

 

Some examples include (please note you do not need to choose one of these topics):

 

  1. For a paper on the Bystander Effect, you could find an article in which the authors manipulated the number of people present and measured helping behavior.

 

  1. For a paper on Relational Aggression, you could find an article in which the authors measured and correlated parenting styles with degree of relational aggression in daughters.

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Keep in mind that these 2 articles must come from academic, peer-reviewed journals. Articles from newspapers, magazines, and websites will not count. Also, information from unpublished dissertations contained in dissertation or thesis databases should not be used. In addition to your 2 peer-reviewed articles, you must also cite the textbook in your paper. Other book sources will not count toward the source requirements. In the Biblical Integration section of your paper, you will be required to cite 2 different Scriptural references.

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You will submit your paper as a Microsoft Word document through Safe Assign. A “draft” link is available for you to check the originality of your work, but all papers must be submitted in the “final” link for credit and grading. Your paper must contain original work to this course only (i.e., you cannot reuse a paper or portion of a paper you have written in the past for another course). Papers that do not include a topic covered in the textbook will be returned and you will be asked to submit a new paper. Normal late policies will apply. In addition, the paper should be written mostly in your own words. Excessive use of quotes is not permitted and will result in a score reduction. Be sure you are paraphrasing information from articles well and citing correctly to avoid plagiarism. Paraphrasing that is too close to the original wording is still considered plagiarism. All instances of plagiarism will be reviewed and action taken as necessary (e.g., point reduction, Code of Honor report, a score of 0 for the paper, failure of the course).

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Your paper must include a current APA-style title page, abstract, body, and reference section. The body of the paper must be at least 5 pages with a maximum of 7 pages (not including the title page, abstract, and references). Papers shorter or longer than this requirement are subject to point deductions. Please note that there is a specific page length requirement for the Biblical Integration section (1 page). Be sure to use current APA-style citations throughout the paper to avoid plagiarism.

The structure of the paper must follow the outline below and all section components must be included for maximum credit.

 

  1. Title Page– current APA style

 

  1. Abstract– current APA style

 

  1. Introduction
  • Provide a definition of the social psychology concept you are researching
  • Provide a brief background of why this concept is important
  • To relate your concept to “real life,” provide a specific, real-world example of your concept. This example can be either something you’ve witnessed in your own life, an example you “make up” to illustrate your concept, or an example used in one of your sources. If you use an example from a source, be sure to cite appropriately.

 

  1. Review of Article I
  • Introduce the article, including the purpose of the article and any relevant hypotheses.
  • Summarize methods (i.e., type of participants, procedures used to manipulate or measure variables)
  • Summarize study results
  • Explain how study and results demonstrate or support the social psychology topic chosen (you must be able to demonstrate that you can relate the specific study results to the general topic chosen)

 

  1. Review of Article II
  • Include all of the same elements listed above

 

  1. Biblical Integration (must be at least one pagein length)
  • Discuss your topic from a Biblical standpoint (i.e., what does the Bible say about it). You must use at least twodifferent Scriptural references in this section to support your discussion.

 

  1. Conclusion
  • Briefly summarize/define the chosen topic
  • Briefly summarize the major results of each study
  • Briefly summarize the Biblical standpoint discussed

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  1. Reference Page– Current APA style
  • Include 2 peer-reviewed journal articles describing original research
  • Include textbook reference
  • (Note that the Bible does notneed to be included in your reference section)

 

Research Paper: Topic and References Instructions

 

For this assignment you will decide on your Research Paper topic and find references to be used in your paper. Before completing this assignment, thoroughly read the Research Paper Instructions in Module 7 so you know the guidelines for the paper and what will be expected of you. Be sure you are picking a Social Psychology concept covered in your textbook, and one for which you can present an example and discuss from a Biblical standpoint. For this assignment, you will create and submit an APA-style reference page, submitted as a Word document. The reference page must include 3 references with the following guidelines:

  • Two references must be peer-reviewed journal articles. Articles from newspapers, magazines, and websites will not count. Also, information from unpublished dissertations contained in dissertation or thesis databases may not be used.
  • Both of these journal articles must present original research studies (e.g., correlational or experimental). This means that the authors of the article actually conducted a study themselves in which they formed hypotheses, collected/analyzed data, and compiled results. No theoretical/review articles or meta-analyses are allowed.
  • One reference needs to be your course textbook

 

Please note that the instructor will not be able to look up each of your articles to verify whether they meet criteria (although this is sometimes obvious from the title). You are responsible for ensuring any article you submit fits the guidelines above. If not, you will need to do more research before your paper is due since you will not be able to complete the paper correctly without appropriate articles and will incur significant point deductions at that time. Attached to the end of this document is a list of questions you can ask yourself to ensure you are choosing appropriate articles.

 

At the bottom of the page underneath your APA-style references, list your topic (including the chapter number for where your topic is found in your textbook) and two different Scriptural references that you will use in your paper. This requirement allows you to check whether or not you can apply Scripture to your topic, which will be required for your final paper. Please list out both the Scriptural citation and the text. If you are referencing long passages of text, please only type out one or two of the most applicable verses for this assignment. For your paper, you can reference more than what you list here if needed. The information can be organized as follows:

 

Topic (including chapter number where topic is found):

 

Scriptural Reference 1: (e.g., John 3:16 (NIV) “For God so loved the world that He gave His one and only Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish but have eternal life.”)

 

Scriptural Reference 2:

 

**You will be allowed to alter your references and Scriptural choices if necessary for the final Research Paper, but will need to ensure that any changes to your references continue to meet requirements for full credit on your paper.

 

Your Research Paper: Topic and References is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

Questions to Ask Yourself When Choosing Articles

 

  1. Does my article come from a peer-reviewed journal article?

If so, you should be able to answer NO to each of the following other sources:

  1. Does the article come from a magazine, book, website, or thesis/dissertation database?

 

  1. Did the authors of this article conduct an original research study themselves?

If so, you should be able to answer NO to each of the following questions:

  1. Are the authors onlyreviewing someone else’s work?
  2. Are the authors compiling others’ research into a meta-analysis?
  3. Are the authors onlyproviding a theoretical discussion of the topic or describing a model they are proposing?

 

  1. Did the authors form hypotheses, seek out a sample, collect data from this sample, analyze their own results, and provide a discussion of these results?

 

If you can answer YES to questions 1, 2, and 3, then your article is appropriate for your paper!

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New hire for job position

You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position.  Both have similar educational backgrounds and certifications.  However, the first candidate has 20 years of related experience while the second candidate has 6 years of similar experience.

The first candidate is asking for competitive base salary plus one week of extra vacation as part of the benefits package.  The second candidate is asking for a competitive base salary plus a company smart phone (upgraded each year), paid internet service at home.  The first candidate is willing to work a flexible schedule (nights, weekends, etc), while the second candidate prefers to work remotely from home.  Both are requesting to be included in the company’s annual bonus plan.

Write a 700-1100 paper that includes the following:

Compare the direct and indirect compensation requests for each candidate.

As an HR professional, what do you think is the best hiring decision for the company and why?

Use APA format and references

 

New hire for job position

You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position.  Both have similar educational backgrounds and certifications.  However, the first candidate has 20 years of related experience while the second candidate has 6 years of similar experience.

The first candidate is asking for competitive base salary plus one week of extra vacation as part of the benefits package.  The second candidate is asking for a competitive base salary plus a company smart phone (upgraded each year), paid internet service at home.  The first candidate is willing to work a flexible schedule (nights, weekends, etc), while the second candidate prefers to work remotely from home.  Both are requesting to be included in the company’s annual bonus plan.

Write a 700-1100 paper that includes the following:

Compare the direct and indirect compensation requests for each candidate.

As an HR professional, what do you think is the best hiring decision for the company and why?

Use APA format and references

 

International econ

1) Explain the connection between the US trade deficit and financial capital flows.

2) Explain how comparative advantage determines the pattern of trade. Use an example to aid in your explanation.

3) Explain how the Stolper-Samuelson theorem indicates that free trade will (likely) worsen income inequality in the US, but (likely) narrow it for Mexico.

4) Show the effects on US welfare from each of the following events. a. Imposition of a tariff on a small, perfectly competitive market b. Imposition of a tariff on a small, imperfectly competitive market c. Imposition of a tariff on a large, perfectly competitive market

5) Show the effects on US welfare from each of the following events. a. Imposition of a quota on a small, perfectly competitive market b. Imposition of a quota on a small, imperfectly competitive market

6) If the US is a large importing country and imposes a tariff on the import of a good, what will the welfare effect on the exporting country be?

7) Assume that the US is a large country in the semi-conductor market. If the US is an exporter of the good and experiences a technological improvement, will the US always be better off? Show and explain why or why not.

8) National security demands have made it imperative for the US to close the toilet paper trade gap (just think what would happen in times of war if we couldn’t produce our own!). The government has decided to reduce our imports from 100 million units to 90 million units. As the supreme TP czar, which of the following policies should be chosen? Show and explain why. a. A production subsidy b. A consumption tax c. An import tariff

9) Show why in a competition between the Boeing and Airbus that autarky may be the preferred welfare situation to free trade. Explain how you draw this conclusion. 10) Explain why a VER is likely to generate lower welfare than a quota.

10) Explain why a VER is likely to generate lower welfare than a quota.

11) Explain what constraints the WTO places on US government actions.

12) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of fixed and flexible exchange rates. In your answer, consider the ramifications for fiscal and monetary policy.

13) Explain how trade may reduce pressure for immigration.

14) For each of the following cases indicate the expected change in the equilibrium exchange rate (€/$). Use supply and demand analysis (no credit without the graph). a) an increase in EU interest rates b) a fall in the price level in the US c) an increase in US barriers to imports from the EU

15) Explain why labor unions may wish to oppose international trade. Does this entail that this is a “good” government policy? Explain.

16) Explain why “dumping” is considered to be unfair trade. Does dumping – if unfair or not – cause harm in the dumped upon country? What condition is required for harm to accrue?

17) What is a senescent industry? How is protection for international trade supposed to aid this industry? How is it supposed to aid the country? Under what conditions will the aid actually accrue to the industry and the country?

1) Explain what is meant by “dollarization.” What might lead a country to make this choice for managing its money supply?

2) Explain how a managed float differs from a freely floating (flexible) exchange rate.

3) What are the relative advantages and disadvantages of fixed v. flexible exchange rate systems?

4) For each of the following cases, explain that is the “best” tool for the goal trying to be achieved. Clearly demonstrate why this is the “best” tool. a) The US wishes to contain pollution generated by the consumption of widgets. b) The US wishes to protect jobs in the widgets sector. c) The US wishes to restrain imports in the widgets sector to reduce the trade imbalance with Widgeria.

5) How does the existence of “3-way trades” undermine the usefulness of the supply and demand model of the exchange rate for precisely predicting what the exchange rate will be?

1) Explain how a fixed exchange rate may contribute to a currency crisis? Is any fixed exchange rate subject to this risk?

2) Given the following information where should you invest in order to maximize your return? e = 0.001 $/peso f = 0.0011 $/peso Nominal interest rate in the US = 8% Nominal interest rate in Mexico = 10% Given your investment pattern, how do you expect the variables to evolve over time?

3) What is the Law of One Price? Under what assumptions does the Law of One Price lead to the Purchasing Power Parity model of exchange rates?

4) Suppose that the money supply in the US falls. What will happen to the value of the dollar in the foreign exchange markets? Justify your answer using at least two (2) models of the exchange rate.

1) For each of the following changes, show the direction of shift (if any) for the IS curve. a) An increase in the foreign price level b) A fall in foreign income levels c) An increase in domestic tax rates d) A strengthening of the dollar in the foreign exchange markets e) A collapse in business confidence f) An increase in the money supply

2) For each of the following changes, show the direction of shift (if any) for the LM curve. a) An increase in the domestic price level b) A decrease in the money supply c) A fall in the precautionary demand for money d) A strengthening of the dollar in the foreign exchange markets

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For Contemporary Decision Making.

  1. Consider  how the type of variable (qualitative and quantitative) and the level of measurement used influence the presentation of the data collected for the variable and the  statistics that can be calculated for the variable. Provide your own examples.
  2. consider the following situation: You are standing on the bank of a river.

Assume the current is not a factor and you only have the mean  as the information for the depth of the river posted on the river bank.  Is this sufficient information to allow a person who is 5 ft 7in tall to safely cross the river?

  1. Provide an example of empirical probability ?

 

BSBMKG414 Undertake marketing activitis

Formative question

Activity 1.

  1. What is marketing? (20-40words)

 

  1. What is the USP? (20-40 words)

 

  1. Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. How does the organisation market itself and what is its USP? (50-75 words)

 

 

 

 

Activity 2.

  1. What might policies and procedures used in the workplace in regard to marketing activities bebased on? (30-50 words)

 

  1. What information can you find in an organisation’s marketing plan in relation to pricing? What will the organisation have taken into account when setting pricing levels? 100-150words

 

 

 

Activity 3.

How can you determine the need for marketing activities? Provide at least three examples.

 

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Activity 4.

  1. How can you investigate previous marketing activities for relevant information? Provide at least five examples.

 

  1. Describe the meaning of tactical, strategic and investment decision that might have been made in previous marketing activities. 1sentence each

 

 

 

Activity 5.

  1. Explain the value of profiling the market segment. 75-125words

 

  1. Think about a product that has been successfully marketed. Identify the market segments that have been targeted as part of the marketing campaign. 20-40words

 

 

Activity 6.

  1. What is positioning? 1 sentence

 

  1. What is market mix? 20-40words

 

  1. Describe how to create a positioning strategy. 150-200 words

 

 

 

 

Activity 7.

  1. What question might an organisation ask to identify expected marketing activity outcomes? Provides at least three examples.

 

  1. How can colleagues be prepared for marketing activities? Provide at least two examples.

 

 

 

Activity 8.

  1. How can information be analysed? Provide at least three examples

 

  1. What question do you need to ask when conducting a customer analysis? Provide at least five examples

 

 

 

Activity 9.

  1. What steps can be taken to develop activity plans? 1 sentence

 

  1. What resource might be needed for documenting work activities? Provide at least three examples

 

 

 

Activity 10

  1. From whom should you seek approval for plans? Provides at least three examples

 

  1. What processes could you go through to obtain approval of plans? 1 sentence

 

 

 

Activity 11.

  1. What types of resouces can be required for implementing marketing activities? Provide three examples.
  2. You have been asked to put together a sample bag to be given out at a product launch. What will you need to do? 75-125 words

 

 

Activity 12

  1. What type of marketing activities might an organisation become involved in? Provide at least two examples.

 

  1. Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. What types of activities does it undertake? Which  work best? Why? 50-75 words

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Activity 13

  1. Outline the responsibilities of a copywriter. 30-50words

 

  1. Who are considered relevant marketing personnel within an organisation? Provide at least five examples.

 

 

Activity 14.

  1. How can marketing activities be reviewed? Provide at least five examples.

 

  1. When marketing activities have been reviewed, how can they be amended? 30-50words

 

 

 

 

Activity 15

  1. How can outcomes of marketing activities be measured? Provide at least three examples.

 

 

  1. How can outcomes of marketing activities be documented? Provide at least two examples.

 

 

Activity 16.

  1. Hoe can you review expected outcomes of marketing activities? 40-60words

 

 

  1. How can they be documented? 1 sentence

 

 

 

Acitivty 17.

What are the main components of a report? You shoud able to identify at least 10

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Summative assessment 1

Question 1.

Identify the seven basic steps in planning marketing activities.

 

 

Question 2

List five examples of basic marketing activities.

 

Question 3.

Describe the difference between organisational policies, procedures and practices. 150-200 words

 

Question 4.

Outline how market research can be used to assess suitability of an organisation’s existing products. Why is it difficult to introduce and market a new product or service? 75-100words

 

 

Summative Assessment 2.

Project

The owner of a new animal training school, which uses a special new technique and claims to be able to teach dogs read, contacts your advertising agency.

The short-term goal of the new training school is to expand its small premises on the outskirts of Brisbane to a nationally recognised company with many school in all the major cities and large provincial towns

The long-term goal of the school is to expand, over a 10 year period, from its base in Australia into America.

Describe in a report form how you would put together a team to :

  • Conduct market research
  • Develop product knowledge
  • Examine the situation including previous marketing activities and decide on a plan of action
  • Clearly describe the goals that you have set
  • How you would allocate roles and responsibilities to individuals members of your team
  • What resources will you required (including team members)
  • Set realistic timeline for your campaign
  • Describe how you will obtain budget figures and relate actual cost to the budget
  • Compile and attach an agenda for the inaugural team meetings
  • Outline promotional activities that should be planned and some advertising methods that could be used but may not be appropriate
  • Detail why, in your opinion, they would not be appropriate
  • Describe how you intend to set up relationships with relevant groups and what groups would be targeted
  • What networks will be used to assist in the promotion
  • What brainstorming is and why it can be useful
  • Review marketing activities

1000-2000words

 

Production/Operation

Draft written responses to the following text questions. Please be sure to answer the whole question as an essay in a thorough manner. Please provide at least a full page of text

 

  1. Define Inventory and give 5 examples of inventory
  2. Give 4 reasons to hold inventory
  3. What is the difference between fixed order quantity and fixed order interval in inventory management?
  4. Explain briefly what does the 80/20 rule means in inventory management

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Sourcing, Logistics,

  1. What is the meaning of logistics?
  2. How do firms go about planning and analyzing their logistics capabilities?
  3. Using the logic behind the Centroid Method, list five major reasons why a new electronic components manufacturing firm should move into your city or town.
  4. Why is it important for firms to focus on global procurement and sourcing?
  5. What are ways firms can be more efficient through improved global procurement and sourcing?
  6. How should firms go about making the decision whether or not to outsource?
  7. Describe how outsourcing works. Why would a firm want to outsource?

 

Case study 10-4 performance management

Possible illegal discrimination at tractors, Inc.

As the new human resource manager, you have been asked to identify those areas of current performance management system that could face legal challenge. Develop a one page summantion,  the currentsystem identifying the potentially illegal aspect of the current system and your suggestion for making the current system more legally sound.

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How to find blogs for guest-blogging in your niche

Writing Instructions

This is a “How to” post for my digital marketing blog. I need a good quality on “How to find blogs for guest-blogging in your niche” Add a little information too on how to do the actual guest-blogging. This should, however, be actionable tips, not just general info.

 

Research paper Outline on “Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization”

Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization”

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Course textbook:

Worth, M. J. (2017). Nonprofit management: Principles and practice (4th ed.). Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage Publications.

 

How mangers need to conduct Performance Evaluations with a multicultural workforce

Write a one page paper on how Managers need to conduct Performance Evaluations with a multicultural workforce.  How can each generation learn from one another?  Then tell me what can Generation X  do to make the workplace a better place?

Analysis, Modeling, and Design


Business Case Research Paper

A Business Case Definition:  Documentation detailing the requirements to move an idea from conceptualization to project initiation.

For this assignment, I want you to compare and contrast a Business Case and a Business Plan.   Include definitions and applications.   Also please explore business case templates. The above definition of a business case is mine, if you would like to offer a different definition as part of your assignment, please do so, but of course you will defend it therein. There are examples of Business Case Templates located in the readings for this course. There are also some links provided. Please review other web sites of relevance and indicate those you use.

I want you to submit to me in three weeks maximum a paper on the above and stating why the details in the business case template are there and how this represents the corpus of data that would be submitted to obtain funding and project approval to get a project started. The paper should be from 4 to 6 pages in length.  Select a business case template that you like and tell me why you selected that business case template. I want you to reference at least three different business case templates and select the one you believe to be the best. Include the one, or URL for it, with your paper. You should reference the others that you evaluated to come to your conclusion.

This is the first of two projects; the second is identified in week four assignments. Yes you can look now if you want to it should be there.

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Business, Accounting

Ordinary Tax – 39.6%

Capital Gain – 20%

Recap on Depreciation – 25%

 

Problem 1

 

XYZ LLC is planning to purchase land and a commercial building for $200,000,000.  An appraisal of the property has identified that 15% of the purchase price relates to land with the remaining relating to the building.  A Cost Segregation Study (“Cost Seg”) was performed which showed that 90% of the building cost related to real property and that 8% and 2% related to 7 and 5 year personal property respectively. XYZ LLC plans to hold the property for 7 years and then sell it for $210,000,000.  Calculate the after tax IRR assuming no cash flow other then tax savings from depreciation under two alternatives: 1) assuming no Cost Seg data is used to calculated depreciation and 2) Cost Seg data is used.  Also, assume that when the personal property is sold that it will have no value.

Economic Gain – 10 million

 

Depreciation rates are as follows:

 

Real Property – 39 year straight line

 

7 and 5 Year Personal Property – double declining with switch to straight line or:

 

7 Year Property                                   5 Year Property

 

  1. 14.29%                              1.       20%
  2. 24.49%                              2.       32%
  3. 17.49       %                                  3.       19.2%
  4. 12.49       %                                  4.       11.52%
  5.   8.93       %                                  5.       11.5%
  6.   8.92       %                                  6.       5.76%
  7.   8.93
  8.   4.46

 

Signature Assignment

Assignment Steps 

Develop a 700- to 1,050-word memo to a prospective employer outlining your credentials, including: taking this class, all of the projects you have done for this class individually and with your team, and their impact on the businesses you have engaged with so a senior manager reading it would want to hire you as either an operations consultant or permanent employee.

Summarize the business case for each project.

Outline what you specifically accomplished, assuming these projects were implemented, and their estimated impacts on the business.

Utilize the learnings from your skills in global sourcing, procurement, and outsourcing which can also be of benefit to your target firm.

Format your assignment as if you would be giving a presentation to senior management

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JADM310 Week 3 Quiz 2018

Question 1

(TCO 1) A particularly dangerous situation can result when medications are combined with:

caffeine

alcohol

nicotine

excessive water

Question 2

(TCO 1) The potential for drug abuse in general presents a greater challenge for

men than for women

African Americans than for Latinos

young people than for the elderly

none of the above

Question 3

(TCO 2) A common problem among Civil War veterans, the “soldier’s disease,” was actually:

venereal disease

post-traumatic stress syndrome

morphine addiction

cocaine dependence

Question 4

(TCO 2) One of the following was NOT a significant factor in the movement toward drug regulation early twentieth century:

the abuse of patent medicines

widespread deaths from adulterated foods and drugs

the association of drug use with minority groups

Upton Sinclair’s The Jungle

Question 5

(TCO 3) The pattern of human behavior that characterizes psychological dependence closely parallels which behavior in animals?

hoarding

self-administration

self-grooming

separation anxiety

Question 6

(TCO 3) A behavioral point of view emphasizes that all behavior is ________.

learned

subconscious

inconsistent

factor-based

Question 7

(TCO 4) Withdrawal from amphetamines takes approximately

2 to 6 hours

3 to 6 hours

1 to 2 months

six to eighteen weeks

Question 8

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(TCO 4) A speedball contains a combination of:

cocaine and amphetamines

cocaine and heroin

amphetamines and heroin

cocaine and LSD

Question 9

(TCO 5) At high doses of heroin, _______ is a major risk factor that can result in death.

the slowing down of the gastrointestinal tract

respiratory depression

pinpoint pupils

increased blood pressure

Question 10

(TCO 5) Which statement concerning opium use or the nineteenth century is NOT true?

opium use was more popular with women then with men

federal laws were made prohibiting opium smoking only

opium usage in the United States was drastically different than that of Britain

products containing opium were available through Sears catalogs

Question 11

(TCO 5) While opening the doors to a new population of heroin abusers, heroin smoking avoids the problem of:

overdose

dependence

combination with cocaine

HIV-contaminated needles

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PJM 6500 Project Management – Midterm Exam

  1. Which of these countries is NOT identified in the text as having a developing economy with a substantial market?
  2. A) Russia
  3. B) China
  4. C) India
  5. D) Europe
  6. Low inflation is a trigger for improved project management skills because:
  7. A) Rampant cost increases must be passed along to the consumer
  8. B) Internal process improvement is accomplished via project management
  9. C) Lower inflation means narrower product launch windows
  10. D) Global markets are a prerequisite for low inflation
  11. The Project Management Body of Knowledge Guide definition of a project indicates that a project is:
  12. A) Multifunctional
  13. B) Permanent
  14. C) Designed to avoid using human resources
  15. D) Not limited by a budget
  16. The acronym PMBoK stands for:
  17. A) The Personal Management Before or Kernel.
  18. B) The Project Movement Behind our Kernel.
  19. C) The Project Management Body of Knowledge.
  20. D) The Performance Measurement Body of Knowledge.
  21. Which of the following is NOT a project constraint?
  22. A) The budget
  23. B) The customer requirements
  24. C) The schedule
  25. D) The technical specifications
  26. Which of the following is NOT an element of strategic management?
  27. A) Formulating cross-functional decisions
  28. B) Implementing cross-functional decisions
  29. C) Evaluating cross-functional decisions
  30. D) Eliminating cross-functional decisions
  31. Which of the following is descriptive of a vision statement?
  32. A) Inspirational
  33. B) Functional
  34. C) Supportive
  35. D) Critical
  36. Which of these strategic elements exists at a higher level than the others?
  37. A) Programs
  38. B) Objectives
  39. C) Goals
  40. D) Strategies
  41. A strategic element that contains formally titled initiatives such as the Customer Survey Project, the Small Business Alliance Project, and the Employee Relations Project is most likely a:
  42. A) Mission
  43. B) Strategy
  44. C) Goal
  45. D) Program
  46. External stakeholders that are external to a project but possess the power to effectively disrupt the project’s development are:
  47. A) Intervenor groups
  48. B) Environmental groups
  49. C) Stressor groups
  50. D) Special-interest groups
  51. Souder’s project screening criterion of realism addresses the question:
  52. A) How many workers will the project need?
  53. B) Will the project work as intended?
  54. C) Who are the stakeholders?
  55. D) How often should the project team meet?
  56. A selection model that is broad enough to be applied to multiple projects has the benefit of:
  57. A) Ease of use.
  58. B) Comparability.
  59. C) Capability.
  60. D) Flexibility.
  61. A project screening criterion that allows the company to compare long-term versus short-term projects, projects with different technologies, and projects with different commercial objectives is:
  62. A) Flexibility.
  63. B) Ease of use.
  64. C) Capability.
  65. D) Realistic.
  66. A wedding planner allows $10,000 for flowers and three weeks to receive all RSVPs back from the list of 700 guests. Both estimates are correct within a fraction of a percent. We could describe this factoid as:
  67. A) Numeric and subjective.
  68. B) Numeric and objective.
  69. C) Non-numeric and subjective.
  70. D) Non-numeric and objective.
  71. One project factor that directly impacts a firm’s internal operations is the:
  72. A) Expected return on investment.
  73. B) Financial risk.
  74. C) Need to develop employees.
  75. D) Impact on company’s image.
  76. Which statement regarding project selection is BEST?
  77. A) Organizational reality can be perfectly captured by most decision-making models.
  78. B) Before selecting any project, the team should identify all the relevant issues that play a

role in project selection.

  1. C) Decision models must contain either objective or subjective factors.
  2. D) Every decision model has both objective and subjective factors.
  3. A project manager is using a simple scoring model to decide which of four projects is best, given the company’s limited resources. The criteria, importance weights, and scores for each are shown in the table. Which project should be chosen?

Project Criteria

Importance

Weight Score

1 1 3

Greenlight 2 2 2

3 3 1

1 1 2

Runway 2 2 1

3 3 3

1 1 1

X 2 2 2

3 3 2

1 1 2

Ilevomit 2 2 2

3 3 2

  1. A) Project Greenlight
  2. B) Project Runway
  3. C) Project X
  4. D) Project Ilevomit
  5. For the project manager, leadership is:
  6. A) The process by which she influences the project team.
  7. B) The process of assembling a group of individuals.
  8. C) The process of building skills among all team members.
  9. D) The process of maintaining control of the budget.
  10. The idea that all members of a project team have the ability to offer a contrary position in order to achieve true partnership between the project manager and the team is called:
  11. A) Exchange of purpose.
  12. B) A right to say no.
  13. C) Joint accountability.
  14. D) Absolute honesty.
  15. In a partnership, each member of the project team is responsible for the project’s outcomes and the current situation, whether it is positive or shows evidence of project problems. The term that BEST describes this responsibility is:
  16. A) Exchange of purpose.
  17. B) A right to say no.
  18. C) Joint accountability.
  19. D) Absolute honesty.
  20. Which statement regarding the duties of leaders and managers is BEST?
  21. A) Leaders embrace change while managers support the status quo.
  22. B) Management is more about interpersonal relationships than leadership is.
  23. C) Leaders aim for efficiency.
  24. D) Managers aim for effectiveness.
  25. Which of these is more characteristic of a leader?
  26. A) Strive for control
  27. B) Do things right
  28. C) Demand respect
  29. D) Inspire trust
  30. A common tactic project managers use when they realize their project is underfunded is to rely on:
  31. A) Intimidation.
  32. B) Political tactics.
  33. C) Asking for forgiveness rather than permission.
  34. D) The kindness of strangers.
  35. Which personality trait is a poor match for project work?
  36. A) Introverted
  37. B) Outgoing
  38. C) Gregarious
  39. D) People-oriented
  40. Which statement about scope management is BEST?
  41. A) Scope management must take place during the conceptual development, full definition, execution, and termination phases.
  42. B) Project goals don’t matter in scope management as long as the budget is not exceeded.
  43. C) Scope management is accomplished in a single step by any one project team member.
  44. D) Scope management can begin once a project hits operational level.
  45. The Scope Management chapter begins and ends with the quote, “It’s a dream until you write it down. Then it’s:
  46. A) Etched in stone.”
  47. B) A scope statement.”
  48. C) A documented dream.”
  49. D) A goal.”
  50. Which of these is NOT an element of project scope management?
  51. A) Project champion
  52. B) Scope statement
  53. C) Project closeout
  54. D) Control systems
  55. Scope management for a project begins with:
  56. A) A work package.
  57. B) An organization breakdown structure.
  58. C) A statement of goals.
  59. D) A configuration statement.
  60. Restrictions that affect project development are:
  61. A) Problems.
  62. B) Constraints.
  63. C) Stop-limits.
  64. D) Limitations.
  65. Expected commitments from other departments in support of the project would most likely be detailed in the:
  66. A) Approach section of the SOW.
  67. B) Risks and concerns section of the SOW.
  68. C) Acceptance criteria section of the SOW.
  69. D) Resource requirements section of the SOW.
  70. The step that reflects the formal “go ahead” given to the project to commence once the scope definition, planning documents, and other contractual documents have been prepared and approved is the:
  71. A) Go ahead.
  72. B) Send off.
  73. C) Work authorization.
  74. D) Work release.
  75. Project management people skills include:
  76. A) Team building.
  77. B) Scheduling.
  78. C) Budgeting.
  79. D) Project evaluation.
  80. The first step in assembling a project team is to:
  81. A) Talk to potential team members.
  82. B) Identify the required skills.
  83. C) Negotiate with the functional supervisor.
  84. D) Notify top management.
  85. Most project resources are negotiated with:
  86. A) Project managers.
  87. B) Potential team members.
  88. C) Top management.
  89. D) External stakeholders.
  90. Stacey noted that the client was a cantankerous old man and that her current project team lacked the requisite skills to work with him. Time was running short, so the BEST approach to making sure the project team had the necessary skills was to:
  91. A) Locate a new client for this project.
  92. B) Identify a suitable training program and implement it.
  93. C) Hire a contractor for the life of the project.
  94. D) Modify the skill set to something that her current team possessed.
  95. If a functional manager will NOT release the resources you need as project manager, your best course of action is to:
  96. A) Complete the project as best you can and inform management and the client that you predicted this outcome.
  97. B) Use social media to voice your concerns.
  98. C) Notify top management of the consequences.
  99. D) Update your resume.
  100. The department chair had allotted plenty of time for all department (and project) members to prepare sections of their five-year program review. Administration demanded no less than 50 pages be devoted to a thorough and thoughtful review of activities and goals. What happened to the report was anybody’s guess; no one had actually seen one or ever heard back from administration once they had submitted it. Most of the project team members thought the report was immediately sent to the steam tunnels running underneath the campus or perhaps it would sit collecting dust as part of a make-work program to justify an assistant VP’s job. No wonder that team meetings were poorly attended and that all the sections of the report were filled with trite phrases and wide margins. This team suffers from:
  101. A) Tenure.
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  103. B) Poorly developed goals.
  104. C) Poorly defined team interdependencies.
  105. D) Lack of motivation.
  106. During the two hours before their 7:30 p.m. appointments on Wednesday evenings, the operations team had a weekly gripe session during which everyone gleefully unloaded on the powers that controlled their miserable lives. This session was valuable since it:
  107. A) Allowed them to feel like real men, if only for a little while.
  108. B) Rewarded good behavior.
  109. C) Established a sense of security and consistency.
  110. D) Created a clear process for addressing conflict and group norms.
  111. The difference between projects that fail and those that are ultimately successful has to do with:
  112. A) The plans that have been made to deal with problems as they arise.
  113. B) The fact that a successful project doesn’t encounter problems.
  114. C) Whether the project is for an internal or external customer.
  115. D) Whether the problem is time- or budget-related.
  116. Project risk is highest during the:
  117. A) Termination stage of the project life cycle.
  118. B) Concept stage of the project life cycle.
  119. C) Implementation stage of the project life cycle.
  120. D) Development stage of the project life cycle.
  121. Project risk is lowest during the:
  122. A) Concept stage of the project life cycle.
  123. B) Implementation stage of the project life cycle.
  124. C) Termination stage of the project life cycle.
  125. D) Development stage of the project life cycle.
  126. The greatest project risk occurs when:
  127. A) The probability of the event is high and the consequences of the event are high.
  128. B) The probability of the event is high and the consequences of the event are low.
  129. C) The probability of the event is low and the consequences of the event are high.
  130. D) The probability of the event is low and the consequences of the event are low.
  131. The greatest project opportunity occurs when:
  132. A) The project is in the concept phase.
  133. B) The project is in the development phase.
  134. C) The project is in the implementation phase.
  135. D) The project is in the termination phase.
  136. The overall project risk factor is known to be 0.6. The probability of dependency failure is twice the probability of complexity failure and four times the probability of maturity failure. The consequence of performance failure is twice the consequence of reliability failure, four times the consequence of schedule failure and eight times the consequence of cost failure. What is the probability of maturity failure?

Maturity X Cost Y

Complexity 2X Schedule 2Y

Dependency 4X Reliability 4Y

Performance 8Y

  1. A) 0.213
  2. B) 0.197
  3. C) 0.104
  4. D) 0.148
  5. Use the failure probability and consequence scores shown in the table to determine the consequence of failure for the project.

Maturity 0.6 Cost 0.2

Complexity 0.8 Schedule 0.3

Dependency 0.6 Reliability 0.2

Performance 0.5

  1. A) Greater than 0.7
  2. B) Less than or equal to 0.7 but greater than 0.5
  3. C) Less than or equal to 0.5 but greater than 0.3
  4. D) Less than 0.2

True and False: Write T for True or F for False on the line.

  1. Projects, rather than repetitive tasks, are now the basis for most value-added in business.

True

False

  1. The emergence of global markets has made project management skills more critical.

True

False

  1. The same project managed in the same fashion may succeed in one organization but fail in another.

True

False

  1. Most companies are well suited to allow for successful completion of projects in

conjunction with other ongoing corporate activities.

True

False

  1. Risks can be quantified by multiplying the likelihood a failure will occur by the severity of the failure.

True

False

 

ECO100 Knowledge Check 1

Question

Question 1

If macroeconomics looks at the economy as a whole, it focuses on which of the following?

  1. households
  2. business firms
  3. unemployed people
  4. the division of labor

Question 2

In a discussion of economics, which of the following would exert the most influence on an individual firm’s decision to hire workers?

  1. wage levels
  2. the macroeconomy
  3. the firm’s income
  4. household income

Question 3

What is the basic difference between macroeconomics and microeconomics?

  1. microeconomics looks at the forest (aggregate markets) while macroeconomics looks at the trees (individual markets).
  2. macroeconomics is concerned with groups of individuals while microeconomics is concerned with single countries.
  3. microeconomics is concerned with the trees (individual markets) while macroeconomics is concerned with the forest (aggregate markets).
  4. macroeconomics is concerned with generalization while microeconomics is concerned with specialization.

Question 4

What is the basic difference between macroeconomics and microeconomics?

  1. microeconomics concentrates on individual markets while macroeconomics focuses primarily on international trade.
  2. microeconomics concentrates on the behaviour of individual consumers while macroeconomics focuses on the behaviour of firms.
  3. microeconomics concentrates on the behaviour of individual consumers and firms while macroeconomics focuses on the performance of the entire economy.
  4. microeconomics explores the causes of inflation while macroeconomics focuses on the causes of unemployment.

Question 5

Which of the following is most likely a topic of discussion in macroeconomics?

  1. an increase in the price of a hamburger
  2. a decrease in the production of DVD players by a consumer electronics company
  3. an increase in the wage rate paid to automobile workers
  4. a decrease in the unemployment rate

Question 6

Attending college is a case where the ________________ exceeds the monetary cost.

  1. budget constraint
  2. marginal analysis
  3. opportunity cost
  4. marginal utility

Question 7

Most real-world choices aren’t about getting all of one thing or another; instead, most choices involve _________________, which includes comparing the benefits and costs of choosing a little more or a little less of a good.

  1. utility
  2. opportunity cost
  3. benefit analysis
  4. marginal analysis

Question 8

The law of ____________________________ explains why people and societies rarely make all-or-nothing choices.

  1. consumption
  2. marginal analysis
  3. diminishing marginal utility
  4. utility

Question 9

Also called the opportunity set—a diagram which shows what choices are possible—which of the following is the model that economists use to illustrate the process of individual choice in a situation of scarcity?

  1. consumption set
  2. budget constraint
  3. original budget
  4. income cap

Question 10

Scarcity implies that:

  1. consumers would be willing to purchase the same quantity of a good at a higher price.
  2. it is impossible to completely fulfill the unlimited human desirefor goods and services with the limited resources available.
  3. at the current market price, consumers are willing to purchase more of a good than suppliers are willing to produce.
  4. consumers cannot afford the goods and services available

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UOP MKT 571 Final Exam

  1. A fundamental and distinctive mode of expression that appears in a field of human endeavor is called a __________.

style

theme

trend

pattern

  1. A firm should use undifferentiated marketing to promote its products when:

the market shows several natural segments.

it wants to appeal to multiple market segments

it wants to customize its products for each consumer.

all consumers have the same wants and preferences.

  1. The marketing department of Style Wheel Inc., a manufacturer of luxury cars, initiates intensive marketing efforts prior to launching a new model. Three months into the launch of the new model, the department decides to assess the short-term effects of its marketing activities. Which of the following is a reliable measure of performance for this purpose?

Perceived quality

Market share

Customer awareness

Shareholder value

  1. ___________ the first step a firm should take while setting the price for a product.

Determining demand

Selecting the pricing objective

Selecting a pricing method

Estimating cost

  1. Business markets differ from consumer markets in that:

in business markets, purchasing is often executed through intermediaries.

the total demand for many goods and services in business markets is elastic.

buying decisions are subject to multiple influences.

in business markets, a marked typically deals with several smaller buyers.

  1. Which of the following describes the term product system?

It is a set of variants that are developed for a single product.

It is a group of products that perform a similar function and belong to a single product class.

It refers to a set of products available only to high-income consumers.

It refers to a set of different but related items that operate in a compatible manner.

  1. The width of a company’s product mix refers to:

the extent to which the different product lines in the mix are related in terms of end use.

the number of variants offered for each product in a product line.

the number of different product lines carried by the company.

the total number of items in the product mix.

  1. C-level executives. Nowadays, a __________ is being appointed by many firms as C-level executives.

chief marketing officer

finance manager

chief information officer

marketing manager

  1. In which of the following stages of a product life cycle are profits nonexistent?

Introduction

Maturity

decline

Growth

  1. Which of the following statements is true?

Their influence on purchase is significant.

Their effectiveness derives from individualized presentation and feedback.

They are often less effective than mass communication channels.

They include public relations, advertising and sales promotions.

  1. _______________ to the capacity to satisfy humanity’s needs without harming future generations.

Profitability

Sustainability

Accountability

Durability

  1. Fashion Vista Designers, a firm that sells designer clothes, has outlets in four countries. In each country, it offers the climatic conditions of the country and match the cultural sensibilities of the local population. The marketing department of Fashion Vista often releases advertisements that show regional celebrities endorsing the company’s products. In this scenario, which of the following types of market segmentation does Fashion Vista employ?

Geographic segmentation

Psychographic segmentation

Demographic segmentation

Behavioral segmentation

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  1. Which of the following is a difference between business markets and consumer markets?

In business markets, buyers usually purchase products through intermediaries, while in consumer markets, buyers usually purchase products directly from manufacturers.

Suppliers in business markets are often expected to tailor their products to suit the requirements of individual business customers.

In business markets, the total demand for goods and services is affected by price changes, whereas in consumer markets, the total demand for goods and services is not affected by price changes.

Purchasing decisions are made by the end user and purchasing decisions are made by a buying committee.

  1. Which of the following measures reflects the short-term results of a firm’s marketing efforts?

Perceived quality

Customer awareness

Sales turnover

Market share

  1. _________ refers to the activity of designing a company’s product and image so that they occupy a distinctive place in the minds of the target market

targeting

segmentation

Positioning

Customization

  1. __________ the process of maximizing customer loyalty by cautiously handling detailed information about customers and all customer touch points.

Product modification

Customer cloning

Customer relationship management

Enterprise resource planning

  1. The __________ encompasses the engaged engaged in producing, distributing, and promoting a product or a service.

legal environment

demographic environment

natural environment

task environment

  1. __________ divides the market into units looking for nations, states, regions, cities, or neighborhoods.

Geographic segmentation

Behavioral segmentation

Demographic segmentation

Psychographic segmentation

  1. In the context of the value chain, __________ is a primary activity that involves bringing into the business.

operations

inbound logistics

technology development

marketing

  1. __________ refers to a marketing strategy in which a firm tries to cater to all customer groups with all the products they might require

Multiple segment specialization

Single-segment concentration

Individual marketing

Full market coverage

  1. Entities that assist in the distribution process of a product do not take __________.

agents

merchants

jobbers

facilitators

  1. Which of the following statements is true of a sharing economy?

An organization’s trust and reputation have a role in determining its place in a sharing economy.

A sharing economy is usually the result of two activities, harvesting and divesting.

Self-policing mechanisms are typically absent in most platforms that are part of a sharing-related business.

In a sharing economy, in individual experiences the benefits of being both a consumer and a producer.

  1. Which of the following statements is true of fads?

They usually satisfy a strong customer need.

They tend to win over only a limited following.

They have a long acceptance cycle.

They last for several generations.

  1. The ___________releases to the core business process in which an organization researches, develops, and introduces novel, high-quality products quickly and within the firm’s budget.

customer acquisition process

customer relationship management process

new-offering realization process

fulfillment management process

  1. When marketers combine an existing brand with a new brand, the product is called a __________.

sub-brand

parent brand

master brand

family brand

  1. __________ is a period in a typical product life cycle characterized by rapid market acceptance and significant profit improvement.

Introduction

Growth

decline

Maturity

  1. __________ seeks to create brand awareness among consumers and communicate about new products or new features of existing products.

Informative advertising

Reinforcement advertising

Reminder advertising

Persuasive advertising

  1. A customer-focused __________ presents a strong, convincing reason why the target market should be a product or service.

value proposition

value network

project objective

mission statement

  1. A company that interacts with its customers to get product ideas should:

engage the right customers in the right way.

allow all its customers to participate in the product design process.

focus solely on its lead users.

prohibit customers from innovating products without their consent.

  1.  __________ is one of the methods used to develop ideas for a new product in which each feature of an existing product is noted and modified.

Attribute listing

Morphological analysis

Mind mapping

Reverse-assumption analysis

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NUR3826 Week 4 Final Exam

Question 1

A nurse who has an obvious physical disability applies for a staff nurse position. Which question, asked by the nurse recruiter, is legal?

“How long have you been disabled?”

“How does your disability affect your life?”

“Are you able to fulfill the requirements of this job?”

“Has your condition stabilized, or do you foresee it getting worse with time?”

Question 2

What is the basic purpose of the state board of nursing?

To ensure that all practicing nurses are competent

To restrict nursing practice through regulations

To ensure that all schools of nursing seek national accreditation

To establish a means of protecting the public at large

Question 3

A nurse brings suit against the hospital after being terminated for excessive absenteeism. Who is the defendant in this lawsuit?

The nurse bringing the suit

The nurse’s attorney

The hospital

The hospital’s attorney

Question 4

Which of the following principles underlies the actions of all health care providers and assures that those actions will meet or exceed standards of care?

Veracity

Maleficence

Beneficence

Autonomy

Question 5

What is the nurse’s legal duty with regard to implementing a physician’s order?

The nurse should follow the order unless the nurse believes some other course of action would be better.

The nurse should follow the order unless the nurse has reason to believe that the patient could come to harm if the order is followed.

The nurse should review each order with the physician and then follow the order.

The nurse should question every order with the physician, since physicians are only human.

Question 6

Which patient incident should be addressed because it is the primary cause of action in lawsuits against long-term care facilities?

Inadequate resident nutrition

Resident falls

Medication errors

Abuse of residents

Question 7

Ethical theories that derive norms and rules from the duties human beings owe to each other fall under the broad classification of:

Teleological theories.

Deontological theories.

Utilitarian theories.

Situational ethics.

Question 8

Which of the following actions is a requirement of the standard of care when it comes to technology and equipment in nursing practice?

Select and properly use equipment within health care settings.

Clean and repair equipment so that it can be readily used.

Modify equipment or improvise as needed in clinical settings.

Notify the FDA is equipment is not working properly.

Question 9

Students do not need to be licensed to practice nursing actions because:

They practice on their instructors’ licenses.

They practice as an exception to the licensure requirement.

They have a lower standard of care than do licensed nurses.

Clinical contracts preclude the need for licenses.

Question 10

A nurse’s neighbor routinely calls and asks for advice regarding health issues. What should the nurse do about these calls?

Tell the neighbor that the nurse is not legally able to give health advice outside the work environment.

Be certain that any advice given reflects both nursing and community standards.

Charge the neighbor a flat fee of $25 for each call.

Tell the neighbor that nurses are not educationally prepared to give health advice.

Question 11

When one delegates tasks to another, accountability for that task:

Is transferred to the person performing the task.

Is retained by the person who transfers the task.

Is held jointly by the person transferring the task and the person performing the task.

Can be imputed to either the person performing the task or the person transferring performance of the task.

Question 12

When giving health-related advice, the nurse can avoid liability if the advice reflects:

A solid medical diagnosis.

Nursing and community standards.

A quick assessment and treatment recommendations.

There is no way to avoid liability when giving advice.

Question 13

The overall goal of American antitrust laws is to:

Prevent competition while creating efficient markets.

Promote competition while creating efficient markets.

Promote competition without affecting market practices.

Prevent competition without affecting market practices.

Question 14

The single most critical factor in determining whether a particular nurse acted with reasonable care in a given situation is:

The number of years the nurse has practiced as a professional.

The experience the nurse has in a particular clinical setting.

The ability of the nurse to perform according to his or her job description.

How the nurse’s conduct compared to the conduct of other nurses with similar backgrounds and experience.

Question 15

Persons who are qualified under the Americans with Disabilities Act include:

Persons who have gender identity disorders and sexual behavior disorders.

Persons who are bisexual and homosexual.

Persons who are currently using illegal drugs.

Persons who are recovering or rehabilitated alcoholics.

Question 16

When the nurse manager transfers full responsibility for the performance of a task without transferring the accountability for the ultimate outcome, the task has been:

Regulated.

Supervised

Delegated.

Retained.

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Question 17

Consent, once validly given by a competent adult patient:

May not be revoked.

May be revoked only in writing if the original consent was written.

May be revoked at any time prior to the procedure or treatment being implemented.

May be revoked only if a second procedure supersedes the first procedure.

Question 18

Nurses in which health care settings are required to comply with the Patient Self-Determination Act of 1990?

Solely in formal institutional settings, such as hospitals.

In all health care settings except home health care settings.

In all health care settings, including home health care settings, if federal funds are received.

In home health care settings only if they have a validly executed advanced directive when care is first rendered.

Question 19

A nurse is caring for a 45-year-old patient who reveals that recent injuries are a result of domestic violence. The patient begs the nurse not to “tell anyone.” What action, taken by the nurse, is correct?

Tell the patient that the law requires reporting this incident.

Promise the patient the information will not be shared.

Talk with the patient about the reason for secrecy.

Report the revelation to the charge nurse immediately.

Question 20

The number of states that now have elder abuse laws is:

40

45

48

50

Question 21

Which of the following best describes the term “Telehealth”?

Transmission of information from one site to another.

Delivery of health care through a telecommunications system.

Transmission of sounds and images between two or more sites.

Combination of robotics and virtual reality to allow treatment modalities in distant sites.

Question 22

Apparent consent occurs when the patient:

Voluntarily signs a consent form for an invasive procedure.

Orally agrees to have an invasive procedure performed.

Allows a family member to sign the informed consent form for him or her.

Shows by his or her conduct that he or she agrees to the treatment.

Question 23

In passing the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, Congress attempted to combine the two legal concepts of:

Disability and the right to work.

Disability and equality.

Disability and autonomy.

Disability and fairness.

Question 24

A nurse, while under a general employment contract with a hospital, is subject to the right to direct and control the details of his or her work by a second entity. Such a nurse would be said to be acting as a (an):

Dual servant.

Borrowed servant.

Independent contractor.

Agent of the principal.

Question 25

Internal sources for determining standards of care include:

Hospital policy and procedure manuals.

Professional journals and nursing texts.

Previous and relevant court cases.

State standards of care as defined by the state board of nursing.

Question 26

The defendant in a lawsuit is the party:

Bringing the lawsuit against another.

Who was injured by the nurse or health care provider.

Who is answering a complaint brought against him or her.

Who is the health care institution in the case.

Question 27

One of the most important state legislative acts in the area of community health nursing is the:

State nurse practice act.

State Medicaid law.

State family consent doctrine.

State reporting statute.

Question 28

Which advanced nurse practitioner role is authorized by nurse practice acts, medical practice acts, and allied health laws?

Nurse anesthetist

Nurse midwife

Family nurse practitioner

Clinical nurse specialist

Question 29

Since unlicensed personnel are not licensed by the state in their own right, they may perform delegated tasks because:

They practice on the license of the professional delegating the task.

They are sanctioned by the American Hospital Association as an exception to the requirement for licensure.

They work under the auspices and licensure of the institution, not the professional nurse.

They are sanctioned by the state nurse practice act as an exception to the requirement for licensure.

Question 30

When nurses assist patients to understand their own value system and make choices consistent with those values, the approach to advocacy is said to be the:

Rights protection model.

Autonomy model.

Values-based decision model.

Patient advocate model.

Question 31

The main purpose of documentation is to:

Communicate the patient’s condition to all members of the health care team.

Record patient information for future research studies.

Verify dates of patients’ admissions to health care institutions.

Ensure that all charges are validly documented and assessed to the patient for collection from third-party payers.

Question 32

What is the most significant professional qualification necessary for a nurse who practices as a school nurse?

The nurse’s ability to work closely with school officials.

The nurse’s ability to properly counsel students about medical concerns.

The nurse’s ability to exercise independent judgment in emergency situations.

The nurse’s ability to effectively teach students about their health and wellness.

Question 33

The functions of risk management include all of the following except:

Defining situations that place the entity at some financial risk.

Intervening in and investigating potential risks that exist in the health care setting.

Identifying opportunities for improving patient care.

Identifying opportunities and funding for patient research.

Question 34

The legal guide to the practice of registered nursing is:

ANA Code of Ethics.

Nightingale Pledge.

State Nurse Practice Act.

Nurse’s Bill of Rights.

Question 35

When a nurse manager assists an employee in deciding about the employee’s future career and possible options available to him or her, the manager is most likely following the ethical principle of:

Justice

Fidelity

Autonomy

Paternalism

Question 36

The standard of care under Good Samaritan laws is usually the:

Standard of the reasonably prudent patient.

Emergency care standard.

Disaster care standard.

Standard of the prudent hospital-based staff nurse.

Question 37

The court found a nurse manager liable for failure to warn. Which option reflects a failure to warn scenario?

The nurse manager did not adequately supervise a newly hired nurse who had not practiced nursing in five years.

The nurse manager did not tell a potential employer that a former employee was asked to resign for incompetence.

The nurse manager did not advise a newly hired nurse that continuing education was an annual requirement for promotion.

The nurse manager did not notify the physician regarding worsening of a patient’s respiratory status.

Question 38

One of the earliest needs for the EMTALA was seen as the need to prevent:

Patients being turned away from clinics because of inability to pay for services.

Health maintenance organizations from making a profit by providing substandard care.

Patients being turned away from emergency centers based on inability to pay for services.

Illegal aliens from receiving free services in the United States.

Question 39

Which group or person has authority to write statutory law such as nurse practice acts?

State legislatures

State boards of nursing

State governors

State nursing associations

Question 40

The doctrine of personal liability is a rule that:

Protects nurses against liability for malpractice.

Holds everyone responsible for his or her own negligent conduct.

Makes some persons responsible for the actions of others.

Ensures that no one has liability in certain legal actions.

Question 41

The statute of limitations for a lawsuit:

Defines events that will not be allowed to be discussed at trial.

Defines the period of time in which a lawsuit may be filed.

Is suspended for minors in all states until they become 18 years of age.

Limits the number of plaintiffs and defendants in any given lawsuit.

Question 42

By passing the Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act, Congress:

Established the right of all Americans to have health insurance.

Established the right of access to medical care, regardless of ability to pay.

Established the right of access to medical care, dependent upon the ability to pay.

Set into motion a socialized medical plan for all Americans.

Question 43

Delegation has been a concept used in nursing:

Since the 1990s.

Since the early 1970s.

Since the mid-1950s.

Throughout all of nursing’s history.

Question 44

A confused patient frequently calls out for “help” throughout the shift. When nursing staff respond to the call, the patient is unable to explain what is needed. What action should be taken by the nurse?

Continue to respond and attempt to reorient the patient.

Move the call bell out of the patient’s reach to deter erroneous calls.

Restrain the patient in soft wrist restraints until the physician can be reached.

Chemically restrain the patient with a mild sedative so he/she will sleep.

Question 45

A nurse has decided to obtain individual professional liability insurance. In general, which type of insurance is best for most nurses?

Claims-made

Certificate-based

Occurrence-based

Employer-sponsored

Question 46

A patient on the medical/surgical unit became confused and dangerous to himself and others in the setting, restraints were applied, and the patient was confined to bed. The nurse’s best defense for applying the restraints would be:

Consent.

Self-defense.

Necessity.

Privilege.

Question 47

The standard of care of the nursing student is:

Greater than that of the RN.

Less than that of the RN.

The same as that of the RN.

Not comparable to the standard of the RN.

Question 48

A school nurse negligently administered an overdose of medication to a student, causing the student to suffer a severe reaction that necessitated hospitalization. Should a lawsuit result from this case, the nurse would be held to what standard?

The reasonably prudent school nurse

The reasonably prudent pediatric nurse

The reasonably prudent general duty hospital nurse

The reasonably prudent advanced nurse practitioner

Question 49

Discrimination against which group of persons necessitated the Americans with Disabilities Act?

The increasing population of older Americans

Those returning from war with orthopedic injuries

The increasing numbers of people injured in motor vehicle accidents

Those living with HIV/AIDS

Question 50

External sources for determining standards of care include:

Hospital policy and procedure manuals.

Professional journals and nursing texts.

The individual nurse’s experience and education.

The individual nurse’s job description.

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Kaplan MN580 Midterm Exam 2018

Question 1

When advising a patient about the influenza nasal spray vaccine, the NP considers the following:

Question options:

1) Its use is acceptable during pregnancy.

2) Its use is limited to children younger than 6 years.

3) It contains live, attenuated virus.

4) This is the preferred method of influenza protection in the presence of airway disease.

Question 2

Which of the following is true about the MMR vaccine?

Question options:

1) This vaccine contains live virus.

2) Its use is contraindicated in persons with a history of egg allergy.

3) Revaccination of an immune person is associated with risk of allergic reaction.

4) One dose is recommended for young adults who have not been previously immunized.

Question 3

Which of the following is the most prudent first-line treatment choice for an otherwise well toddler with acute otitis media (AOM) who requires antimicrobial therapy?

Question options:

1) Ceftibuten.

2) Amoxicillin.

3) Cefuroxime.

4) Azithromycin.

Question 4

The most common causative organism of bronchiolitis is:

Question options:

1) haemophilus influenzae.

2) parainfluenza virus.

3) respiratory syncytial virus.

4) coxsackievirus.

Question 5

At which of the following ages in an infant’s life is parental anticipatory guidance about teething most helpful?

Question options:

1) 1–2 months.

2) 2–4 months.

3) 4–6 months.

4) 8–10 months.

Question 6

A young child should use a rear-facing car seat until at least age:

Question options:

1) 12 months.

2) 18 months.

3) 24 months.

4) 30 months.

Question 7 1 / 2 points

Risk factors for dyslipidemia in children include which of the following? Select all that apply.

Question options:

1) Blood pressure at the 70th to 80th percentile for age.

2) Breastfeeding into the toddler years.

3) Family history of lipid abnormalities.

4) Family history of type 2 diabetes mellitus.

Question 8

Which of the following laboratory tests can identify the causative organism of bronchiolitis?

Question options:

1) Nasal washing antigen test.

2) Antibody test via blood sample.

3) Urine culture.

4) A laboratory test is not available.

Question 9

Physical examination findings in otitis externa include:

Question options:

1) tympanic membrane immobility.

2) increased ear pain with tragus palpation.

3) tympanic membrane erythema.

4) tympanic membrane bullae.

Question 10

Which of the following findings is most consistent with the diagnosis of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS)?

Question options:

1) Upper respiratory tract infection symptoms persisting beyond 7 to 10 days.

2) Mild midfacial fullness and tenderness.

3) Preauricular lymphadenopathy.

4) Marked eyelid edema.

Question 11

Aortic stenosis in a 15-year-old male is most likely:

Question options:

1) a sequela of rheumatic fever.

2) a result of a congenital defect.

3) calcific in nature.

4) found with atrial septal defect.

Question 12

Which of the following do you expect to find in an examination of a 2-week-old infant?

Question options:

1) A visual preference for the human face.

2) A preference for low-pitched voices.

3) Indifference to the cry of other neonates.

4) Poorly developed sense of smell.

Question 13

An 18-year-old woman has a chief complaint of a “sore throat and swollen glands” for the past 3 days. Her physical examination includes a temperature of 101° F (38. 3° C), exudative pharyngitis, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Right and left upper quadrant abdominal tenderness is absent. The most likely diagnosis is:

Question options:

1) streptococcus pyogenes pharyngitis.

2) infectious mononucleosis.

3) viral pharyngitis.

4) vincent angina.

Question 14

At which of the following ages in a young child’s life is parental anticipatory guidance about infant sleep position most helpful?

Question options:

1) Birth.

2) 2 weeks.

3) 2 months.

4) 4 months.

Question 15

With regard to seasonal influenza prevention in well children, the NP considers that:

Question options:

1) compared with school-aged children, younger children (? 24 months old) have an increased risk of seasonal influenza-related hospitalization.

2) a full adult dose of seasonal influenza vaccine should be given starting at age 4 years.

3) the use of the seasonal influenza vaccine in well children is discouraged.

4) widespread use of the vaccine is likely to increase the risk of eczema and antibiotic allergies.

Question 16

Rebound tenderness is best described as abdominal pain that worsens with:

Question options:

1) light palpation at the site of the discomfort.

2) release of deep palpation at the site of the discomfort.

3) palpation on the contralateral side of the abdomen.

4) deep palpation at the site of the discomfort.

Question 17

A Still murmur:

Question options:

1) is heard in the presence of cardiac pathology.

2) has a humming or vibratory quality.

3) is a reason for denying sports participation clearance.

4) can become louder when the patient is standing.

Question 18

Common causative organisms of acute suppurative conjunctivitis include all of the following except:

Question options:

1) staphylococcus aureus.

2) haemophilus influenzae.

3) streptococcus pneumoniae.

4) pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Question 19

Which of the following imaging studies potentially exposes the patient being evaluated for abdominal pain to the lowest ionizing radiation burden?

Question options:

1) Ultrasound.

2) Barium enema.

3) CT scan.

4) Abdominal flat plate.

Question 20

At which age is a child at greatest risk of death from pertussis?

Question options:

1) <1 year.

2) 2–4 years.

3) 5–10 years.

4) >10 years.

Question 21

A healthy 3-year-old child is in your office for well-child care. You expect this child to be able to:

Question options:

1) name five colors.

2) alternate feet when climbing stairs.

3) speak in two-word phrases.

4) tie shoelaces.

Question 22

Treatment options in acute and recurrent allergic conjunctivitis include all of the following except:

Question options:

1) cromolyn ophthalmic drops.

2) oral antihistamines.

3) ophthalmological antihistamines.

4) corticosteroid ophthalmic drops.

Question 23

Rectal bleeding associated with anal fissure is usually described by the patient as:

Question options:

1) drops of blood noticed when wiping.

2) dark brown to black in color and mixed in with normal-appearing stool.

3) a large amount of brisk red bleeding.

4) significant blood clots and mucus mixed with stool.

Question 24

Concerning the MMR vaccine, which of the following is true?

Question options:

1) The link between use of MMR vaccine and childhood autism has been firmly established.

2) There is no credible scientific evidence that MMR use increases the risk of autism.

3) The use of the combined vaccine is associated with increased autism risk, but giving the vaccine’s three components as separate vaccines minimizes this risk.

4) The vaccine contains thimerosal, a mercury derivative.

Question 25

You are examining an 18-year-old man who is seeking a sports clearance physical examination. You note a mid-systolic murmur that gets louder when he stands. This may represent:

Question options:

1) aortic stenosis.

2) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

3) a physiologic murmur.

4) a Still’s murmur.

Question 26

Which of the following statements is correct about the varicella vaccine?

Question options:

1) This vaccine contains killed varicella-zoster virus (VZV).

2) A short febrile illness is common during the first days after vaccination.

3) Children should have a varicella titer drawn before receiving the vaccine.

4) Rarely, mild cases of chickenpox have been reported in immunized patients.

Question 27

A healthy 6-year-old girl presents for care. Her parents request that she receive vaccination for influenza and report that she has not received this vaccine in the past. How many doses of influenza vaccine should she receive this flu season?

Question options:

1) 1.

2) 2.

3) 3.

4) 4.

Question 28

At which of the following ages in a young child’s life is parental anticipatory guidance about toilet-training readiness most helpful?

Question options:

1) 12 months.

2) 15 months.

3) 18 months.

4) 24 months.

Question 29

The murmur of atrial septal defect is usually:

Question options:

1) found in children with symptoms of cardiac disease.

2) first found on a 2–6-month well-baby examination.

3) found with mitral valve prolapse.

4) presystolic in timing.

Question 30

You are examining an 18-month-old boy who is not speaking any discernible words. Mom tells you he has not said “mama or dada” yet or babbled or smiled responsively. You:

Question options:

1) encourage the mother to enroll her son in daycare to increase his socialization.

2) conduct further evaluation of milestone attainment.

3) reassure the parent that delayed speech is common in boys.

4) order audiogram and tympanometry.

Question 31

Treatment options for streptococcal pharyngitis for a patient with penicillin allergy include all of the following except:

Question options:

1) azithromycin.

2) trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.

3) clarithromycin.

4) clindamycin.

Question 32

Which of the following is one of the more common sources of hepatitis A infection in the United States?

Question options:

1) Receiving blood products.

2) Ingestion of raw shellfish.

3) Drinking municipally sourced tap water drinking water.

4) Exposure to fecally contaminated food.

Question 33

Juice intake is acceptable in children 6 months and older per which of the following recommendations? Select all that apply.

Question options:

1) The juice is mixed in small amounts to flavor water.

2) Only 100% juice is used.

3) Juice replaces no more than one serving of milk.

4) The juice is consumed in the morning with breakfast.

5) No more than 6 oz. (177 mL) per day is recommended for children 6 months to 5 years.

Question 34

Treatment of viral conjunctivitis can include:

Question options:

1) moxifloxacin ophthalmic drops.

2) polymyxin B ophthalmic drops.

3) oral acyclovir.

4) no antibiotic therapy needed.

Question 35 1 / 2 points

Which of the following benchmarks indicate normal development by a healthy child born at term who is now 12 months of age? Select all that apply.

Question options:

1) Talking in two-word sentences.

2) Pointing to a desired object.

3) Reaching for a desired object.

4) Walking backward.

 

COM 539 Final Exam Guide (New, 2018)

  1. Relative to Americans, Canadians are more likely to be:

Happy and casual

Educated and informal

Bilingual and formal

Sociable and casual

  1. Which of the following is an acceptable method of negotiating the price objection?

Apologize for the product’s high price

Clarify the link between price and quality

Make price the focal point of your presentation

Focus on an individual product feature

  1. John Bieland, the equipment buyer for Great Lakes Manufacturing, purchased two large riveting machines from Hoseke Corporation’s sales representative, Lindell Ross. Because of a clerical error, the machines shipped a day later than scheduled, which put the delivery truck in the middle of a blizzard that shut down roads for several days. By the time the machines were delivered by Hoseke Corporation, they were a full week late. John Bieland sends an email to Lindell, cc’ing the CEOs of Great Lakes Manufacturing and Hoseke Corporation, expressing his dissatisfaction. What should Lindell offer to John to rectify the situation?

Lindell should discount any further purchases by half.

Lindell should refund John’s money.

Lindell should send John 2 new machines

Lindell should consult with John to find out what would help him regain trust in Lindell and Hoseke Corporation.

  1. Managing an organization’s personal selling function to include planning, implementing, and controlling the sales management process is called:

Sales control

Sales supervision

Sales leadership

Sales management

 

  1. With respect to the sales training process, after Brenda is done assessing the sales training needs, she should begin working on:

Performing sales training

Setting training objectives

Setting the sales training schedule

Evaluating training alternatives

  1. Developing a long-term relationship that focuses on solving the customer’s buying problems is referred to as:

consulting

transitioning

selling

partnering

  1. Steve is looking for a way to analyze customer data from his territory in an effort to identify new opportunities for sales revenue growth.  _______________ could help Steve with this task.

Deal analytics

Sales call auditing software

Cloud computing

Customer Relationship Management

  1. The primary goal of a ____________ presentation strategy is to influence the prospect’s beliefs, attitudes, or behavior, and to encourage buyer action.

persuasive

value

sensory

reminder

  1. Which of the following is true with respect to negotiations in foreign cultures?

Business rituals are largely the same across cultures

It is sometimes advisable to become antagonistic during negotiations

German buyers are unlikely to look you in the eye

Different cultural expectations can cause miscommunication

  1. The most widely used system for dividing responsibility is to organize the sales force on the basis of:

Products

Geography

Markets

Customers

  1. JoAnn has a website for her business.  She advertises her business on a number of online services, but she is not sure which ones are driving traffic to her website and which are not worth the money for advertising.  The best thing for JoAnn to do is:

All websites are public so there really is not a way to determine how people find a website.

Buy advertising everywhere

Only advertise 1 or 2 places and see if her sales go up or down

Use a service such as Google Analytics® to determine what websites and searches are bringing traffic to her site.

  1. The most likely reason for salespeople to make follow-up telephone calls to customers is that:

sales managers cannot make all the calls themselves

customer service representatives cannot be trusted to make the calls

the customer may place repeat orders during a phone call

follow-up calls are more efficient than e-mails

 

  1. By demonstrating effective listening, a salesperson is able to do which of the following?

Beat out the competition

Always uncover two or three explicit needs

Convince the buyer that the salesperson’s product is best

Help build the buyer’s trust

  1. “Smart” sales-force automation tools that analyze data on past customer behavior, cross-selling opportunities, and demographics to identify areas of opportunity are referred to collectively as?

Sales force automation

Cloud computing

Deal analytics

CRM

  1. A customer has a negative experience at your business and writes about this on a social media review site. What is the best thing for you to do?

Respond calmly and don’t take it personally.

Never admit responsibility and divert blame.

Ignore it.  People don’t take those sites seriously.

Post your reasons for not meeting their expectations.

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  1. The purpose of the follow-up communication between customer and salesperson is to express thanks for the order and to:

introduce related products

determine if the customer is satisfied

request referrals for other prospects

complete the call card form

  1. Andrew is a new sales rep for an industrial chemical supplier. Andrew makes it a point to never be late for an appointment and to always follow through immediately on promises he makes to his customers. These behaviors help Andrew build trust with his customers because they perceive him as:

dependable

likeable

competent

candid

  1. Steve is a salesperson who is responsible for selling only two of his company’s 15 products.  Steve is working in a _____________ sales force.

Specialized

Centralized

Geographic

Decentralized

  1. Which the following best describes the process of strategic prospecting?

The process of turning prospects into customers

The process of locating new customers

The process of generating leads

The process of identifying, qualifying, and prioritizing sales opportunities

  1. Conveying interest and understanding is the objective of which active listening component?

Evaluating

Sensing

Responding

Interpreting

  1. A series of creative improvements in the sales process that enhance the customer experience is known as:

value-added selling

relationship modeling

customer-oriented sales

transactional selling

  1. Which statement is most likely true about the communication-style model?

Emotion and dominance are the two primary dimensions.

It is based on 3 important dimensions of human behavior

It is based on a highly accurate self-rating system.

It is composed of 4 distinct quadrants.

  1. When a prospect has voiced an objection, it is most likely best for the salesperson to:

Deny the accuracy of the objection

Clarify the true nature of the problem

Suggest postponing the negotiations

Divert attention to a product feature

  1. In order for salespeople to be able to deliver complete comparative product information in sales presentations they must possess:

trust

competitor knowledge

adaptability

assertiveness

  1. Anthony is a purchasing agent for a hospital. One day the hospital receives a shipment from one of its suppliers with several items missing. Anthony calls the supplier and talks to a customer service representative who is very friendly and helpful. Anthony calls the supplier again the next day but talks to a different customer service representative. This customer service representative is not as friendly and not as helpful. Which of the following describes the problem the supplier has with customer service?

The first customer service agent set an unrealistic expectation

Customer service people are hard to train

The quality of the service provided is inconsistent across customer service agents

The second customer service agent needs more training

  1. Steve is a salesperson for XYZ Corporation. His territory includes 50 established accounts which he calls on regularly. Although Steve is supposed to allocate some time to prospecting, he’d rather call on his existing accounts. Like many salespeople in his position, Steve resists prospecting because:

His established accounts are too important.

He is afraid of rejection.

He’d rather use his spare time for paperwork.

He doesn’t believe it’s necessary.

  1. Working to reach an agreement that is mutually satisfactory to both buyer and seller is also called:

negotiation

practice theory

tactics

agreement

  1. When a customer service problem requires an apology, a salesperson should most likely:

Send a text message to the customer

Delegate the task to a customer service representative

Send a prompt email to the customer

Call the customer personally

  1. In order to better understand their own product’s position in the market place, salespeople need:

A high degree of competitor knowledge.

To be candid.

To be customer oriented.

A high degree of customer knowledge.

  1. You have a business that you want to set up on Facebook®. What is the best way to drive traffic to your business using Facebook?

Create a profile using the name of your business.

Facebook  does not have business options and only personal profiles are allowed.

Use a lot of hashtags with your business name.

Create a business/fan page.

 

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