homework shark, all homework help at www.homeworknest.com 2024 Study Cheat Sheet

Question 1:        General

 

ORGANIZATIONAL THEORY GRAD LEVEL CASE STUDY

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Question 1: General Question.

 

BSC 2347 Module 04 Quiz / BSC2347 AP 2 Mod 4 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Human Anatomy and Physiology II: Rasmussen College

 

Question 2: General Question.

 

BSC 2347 Module 11 Final Exam / BSC2347 AP 2 Mod 11 Final Exam (Latest): Human Anatomy and Physiology II: Rasmussen College (Already graded A)

 

Question 3: General Question

 

South University NSG5003 Final Exam 2019

South University NSG5003 Final Exam 2019

 

Question 4: General Question

 

South University NSG6430 Final Exam 2019/ South University NSG 6430 Final Exam 2019 (Already graded A)

 

Question 5: General Question

 

Define Ecological responsibility? It was a piece of  Corporate social responsibility (CSR). Explain It has turned into an overall issue as associations are under expanding weight to act in socially mindful ways. Discuss its whole critical significance to California and its “clean” and “green” picture

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Question 6: Mathematics

 

Keller MATH 533 Course Project Part C

Keller MATH 533 Course Project Part C

 

Question 7: Mathematics

 

Techware Incorporated is considering the introduction of two new software products to the market. The company has four options regarding these two proposed products: introduce neither product, introduce product 1 only, introduce product 2 only, or introduce both products. Research and development costs for products 1 and 2 are $180,000 and $150,000, respectively. Note that the first option entails no costs because research and development efforts have not yet begun. The success of these software products depends on the trend of the national economy in the coming year and on the consumers’ reaction to these products. The company’s revenues earned by introducing product 1 only, product2 only, or both products in various states of the national economy are given in the file Final Exam Q4. The probabilities of observing a strong, fair, or weak trend in the national economy in the coming year are assessed to be 0.30, 0.50, and 0.20, respectively.

  1. Create a payoff table that specifies Techware’s net revenue (in dollars) for each possible decision and each outcome with respect to the trend in the national economy.
  2. Identify the strategy that maximize Techware’s expected net revenue from the given marketing opportunities.

 

Question 8: Mathematics

 

Determine the maximum 30-year fixed-rate mortgage amount for which a couple could qualify if the rate is 5.94 percent. Assume they have other debt payments totaling $381 per month and a combined annual income of $86,200. Monthly escrow payments for real estate taxes and homeowner’s insurance are estimated to be $113 (Assume a 36 percent maximum of annual income for total debt and escrow payments.)

The maximum 30-year fixed-rate mortgage amount for which a couple could qualify if the rate is 5.94% is $

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Question 9: Mathematics

 

Math 302 Quiz 5 2019 (Already Graded A+)

Question 1 of 17              1.0/ 1.0 Points

A researcher hypothesizes that the variation in the amount of money spent on business dinners is greater than the variation of the amount of money spent on lunches. The variance of nine business dinners was $6.12 and the variance of 12 business lunches was $0.87. What is the test value?

 

A.3.10

 

B.9.61

 

C.7.03

 

D.49.50

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 2 of 17               1.0/ 1.0 Points

A pharmaceutical company is testing the effectiveness of a new drug for lowering cholesterol. As part of this trial, they wish to determine whether there is a difference between the effectiveness for women and for men.  Assume α = 0.05.  What is the test value?

Women                Men

Sample size        50           80

Mean effect       7              6.95

Sample variance               3              4

 

A.t = 0.151

 

B.z = 0.455

 

C.t = 3.252

 

D.z = 0.081

 

 

Answer Key:

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Question 3 of 17               1.0/ 1.0 Points

Members of the general adult population volunteer an average of 4.2 hours per week. A random sample of 20 female college students and 18 male college students produced the results given in the table below. At the .01 level of significance, is there sufficient evidence to conclude that a difference exists between the mean number of volunteer hours per week for male and female college students?

 

Females               Males

Sample size        20           18

Sample mean    3.8          2.5

Sample variance               3.5          2.2

 

A.No, because the test value 2.38 is greater than the critical value

 

B.No, because the test value 2.38 does not exceed the critical value

C.No, because the test value 2.90 is greater than the critical value

 

D.Yes, because the test value 2.90 is greater than the critical value

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

 

Part 2 of 8 –         4.0/ 5.0 Points

 

Question 4 of 17               1.0/ 1.0 Points

In choosing the “best-fitting” line through a set of points in linear regression, we choose the one with the:

 

A.smallest number of outliers

 

B.smallest sum of squared residuals

 

C.largest number of points on the line

 

D.largest sum of squared residuals

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 5 of 17               1.0/ 1.0 Points

A single variable X can explain a large percentage of the variation in some other variable Y when the two variables are:

 

A.highly correlated

 

B.mutually exclusive

 

C.directly related

 

D.inversely related

 

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Answer Key:

 

 

Question 6 of 17               1.0/ 1.0 Points

Outliers are observations that

 

A.render the study useless

 

B.lie outside the typical pattern of points

C.disrupt the entire linear trend

 

D.lie outside the sample

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 7 of 17               1.0/ 1.0 Points

Correlation is a summary measure that indicates:

 

A.the strength of the linear relationship between pairs of variables

 

B.the rate of change in Y for a one unit change in X

 

C.the magnitude of difference between two variables

 

D.a curved relationship among the variables

 

 

Answer Key:

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Question 8 of 17               0.0/ 1.0 Points

If an estimated regression line has a Y-intercept of –7.5 and a slope of 2.5, then when X = 3, the actual value of Y is:

 

A.5

 

B.unknown

C.10

 

D.0

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

 

Part 3 of 8 –         2.0/ 2.0 Points

 

Question 9 of 17               2.0/ 2.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

A field researcher is gathering data on the trunk diameters of mature pine and spruce trees in a certain area.  The following are the results of his random sampling.  Can he conclude, at the 0.10 level of significance, that the average trunk diameter of a pine tree is greater than the average diameter of a spruce tree?

Pine trees           Spruce trees

Sample size        30           35

Mean trunk diameter (cm)          45           39

Sample variance               120         140

 

What is the test value for this hypothesis test?

 

Test value:    2.121  Round your answer to three decimal places.

 

What is the critical value?

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Critical value:    1.311  Round your answer to three decimal places.

 

Answer Key:

Part 4 of 8 –         2.0/ 2.0 Points

 

Question 10 of 17             1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

The marketing manager of a large supermarket chain would like to determine the effect of shelf space (in feet) on the weekly sales of international food (in hundreds of dollars). A random sample of 12 equal –sized stores is selected, with the following results:

 

Store     Shelf Space(X)   Weekly Sales(Y)

1              10           2.0

2              10           2.6

3              10           1.8

4              15           2.3

5              15           2.8

6              15           3.0

7              20           2.7

8              20           3.1

9              20           3.2

10           25           3.0

11           25           3.3

12           25           3.5

 

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Find the equation of the regression line for these data.  What is the value of the standard error of the estimate?  Place your answer, rounded to 3 decimal places, in the blank.  Do not use a dollar sign.  For example, 0.345 would be a legitimate entry.   0.308

 

 

Answer Key:

 

Question 11 of 17             1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

A company has observed that there is a linear relationship between indirect labor expense (ILE) , in dollars, and direct labor hours (DLH). Data for direct labor hours and indirect labor expense for 18 months are given in the file ILE_and_DLH.xlsx

 

Treating ILE as the response variable, use regression to fit a straight line to all 18 data points.

 

Using your estimated regression output, predict the indirect labor expenses for a month in which the company has 31 direct labor hours.

 

Place your answer, rounded to 1 decimal place, in the blank.  Do not use any stray punctuation marks or a dollar sign.  For example, 458.9 would be a legitimate entry.   525.4

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Part 5 of 8 –         0.0/ 2.0 Points

 

Question 12 of 17             0.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

Two teams of workers assemble automobile engines at a manufacturing plant in Michigan. A random sample of 145 assemblies from team 1 shows 15 unacceptable assemblies. A similar random sample of 125 assemblies from team 2 shows 8 unacceptable assemblies.

 

If you are interested in determining if there is sufficient evidence to conclude, at the 10% significance level, that the two teams differ with respect to their proportions of unacceptable assemblies, what is/are the critical value you would use to conduct such a test of hypothesis?

 

Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. If there are two critical values, place only the positive value in the blank. For example, 2.34 would be a legitimate entry. 1.15

 

Answer Key:

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Question 13 of 17             0.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

Are America’s top chief executive officers (CEOs) really worth all that money? One way to answer this question is to look at the annual company percentage increase in revenue versus the CEO’s annual percentage salary increase in that same company. Suppose that a random sample of companies yielded the following data:

percent change for corporation 15           12           3              12           28           6              8              2

percent change for CEO                6              17           -4            12           32           -1            7              2

 

 

Do these data indicate that the population mean percentage increase in corporate revenue is greater than the population mean percentage increase in CEO salary? Use a 5% level of significance. What is the critical value that you would use to conduct this test of hypothesis? Place your answer, rounded to 3 decimal places, in the blank. For example, 2.345 would be a legitimate entry.  1.010

Answer Key:

 

 

Part 6 of 8 –         2.0/ 3.0 Points

 

Question 14 of 17             2.0/ 3.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

Researchers conducted an experiment to measure the effect of a drug on improving the quality of sleep as determined by how many more minutes of REM sleep were measured for each participant. One group of participants were given the experimental drug; the other (control) group was given a placebo. Does the evidence indicate that the drug improved the amount of REM sleep at a 0.01 level of significance? Answer each of the following parts.

Experimental group        Control group

sample size         35           50

mean sleep improvement           12.8        9.1

sample variance               56.3        61.2

 

What is the test value for this hypothesis test?

 

Answer:

Round your answer to two decimal places.

What is the P-value for this hypothesis test?

Answer:

What is the conclusion of this hypothesis test?  Choose one.

 

  1. There is sufficient evidence to show that the experimental drug improved the quality of sleep.
  2. There is not sufficient evidence to show that the experimental drug improved the quality of sleep.
  3. There is sufficient evidence to show that the quality of sleep is different for the experimental drug than for the control drug.
  4. There is not sufficient evidence to show that the control drug decreased the quality of sleep.

 

Answer:

Answer Key:

Feedback: This is a t-test of independent samples.  Use the formula on page 480 to compute the t test value:

 

 

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This is a right-tail test with test value t = 2.198423 and df = 34 (using the smaller sample size).  The P-value is 0.0174 using TDIST(2.1983423,34,1) or the Critical Values workbook.

 

Because the P-value is greater than alpha (0.01), there is not sufficient evidence to show that the experimental drug improved the quality of sleep.

 

 

 

 

Part 7 of 8 –         1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Question 15 of 17             1.0/ 1.0 Points

In conducting hypothesis testing for difference between two means when samples are dependent (paired samples), the variable under consideration is   ; the sample mean difference between the pairs.

 

 

 

True

 

False

 

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

 

Part 8 of 8 –         2.0/ 2.0 Points

 

Question 16 of 17             1.0/ 1.0 Points

In a simple regression analysis, if the standard error of estimate sest = 15 and the number of observations n = 10, then the sum of the residuals squared must be 120.

 

 

 

True

 

False

 

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 17 of 17             1.0/ 1.0 Points

To help explain or predict the response variable in every regression study, we use one or more explanatory variables. These variables are also called predictor variables or independent variables.

 

 

 

True

 

False

 

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 10: Mathematics

 

Part 1 of 6 –         5.0/ 5.0 Points

 

Question 1 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

If 25 tickets are sold and 2 prizes are to be awarded, find the probability that one person will win both prizes if that person buys exactly 2 tickets.

 

A.1/600

 

B.1/2300

 

C.1/300

 

D.1/700

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 2 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

If P(A) = 0.25 and P(B) = 0.65, then P(A and B) is:

 

A.0.25

 

B.0.90

 

C.0.40

 

D.Cannot be determined from the information given

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 3 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

If one tosses a coin enough times, the proportion of “heads” will approach 0.5. This is an example of:

 

A.the Law of Large Numbers

B.the Empirical Rule

 

C.the Central Limit Theorem

 

D.subjective probabilities

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 4 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

A furniture manufacturer offers bookcases in 5 different sizes and 3 different colors. If every color is available in every size, then the total number of different bookcases is

 

A.5

 

B.8

 

C.15

 

D.30

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 5 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

If P(A) = P(A|B), then events A and B are said to be

 

  1. mutually exclusive

 

  1. complementary

 

  1. independent

 

  1. exhaustive

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

 

Part 2 of 6 –         5.0/ 5.0 Points

 

Question 6 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

A multiple choice quiz consists of 6 questions, each with 4 possible answers. If a student guesses at the answer to each question, then the mean number of correct answers is

 

A.6.00

 

B.1.50

 

C.4.00

 

D.10.00

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 7 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

Suppose that 50 identical batteries are being tested. After 8 hours of continuous use, assume that a given battery is still operating with a probability of 0.70 and has failed with a probability of 0.30.

 

What is the probability that fewer than 25 batteries will last at least 8 hours?

 

A.0.0009

 

B.0.9991

 

C.0.8967

 

D.0.0024

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 8 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

The following data were obtained from a survey of college students. The variable X represents the number of non-assigned books read during the past six months.

x              0              1              2              3              4              5

P (X=x) 0.20        0.25        0.20        0.15        0.10        0.10

 

Find P( X   3)

 

A.0.80

 

B.0.85

 

C.0.15

 

D.0.20

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 9 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

A die is rolled 360 times. Find the standard deviation for the number of 3s that will be rolled.

 

A.60

 

B.50

 

C.7.1

 

D.5.9

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 10 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

A pet supplier has a stock of parakeets of which 10% are blue parakeets. A pet store orders 3 parakeets from this supplier. If the supplier selects the parakeets at random, what is the chance that the pet store gets exactly one blue parakeet?

 

A.0.081

 

B.0.243

 

C.0.027

 

D.0.003

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

 

Part 3 of 6 –         2.0/ 4.0 Points

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Question 11 of 20             0.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

In February 2002 the Argentine peso lost 70% of its value compared to the United States dollar. This devaluation drastically raised the price of imported products. According to a survey conducted by AC Nielsen in April 2002, 68% of the consumers in Argentina were buying fewer products than before the devaluation, 24% were buying the same number of products, and 8% were buying more products. Furthermore, in a trend toward purchasing less-expensive brands, 88% indicated that they had changed the brands they purchased. Suppose the following complete set of results were reported. Use the following data to answer this question.

 

Number of Products Purchased

Brands Purchased            Fewer   Same     More     Total

Same     10           14           24           48

Changed              262         82           8              352

Total      272         96           32           400

 

What is the probability that a consumer selected at random purchased fewer products than before? Place your answer, rounded to 4 decimal places, in the blank.  .7443

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 12 of 20             0.0/ 1.0 Points

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Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

Find the mean of the following probability distribution.

X             1              2              3              4              5

P(X)       0.20        0.10        0.35        0.05        0.30

 

Round your answer to two decimal place as necessary. For example, 4.56 would be a legitimate entry.

 

Mean =    2.26

 

Answer Key:

 

Feedback: Mean = (1)(0.20) + (2)(0.10) + (3)(0.35) + (4)(0.05) + (5)(0.30) = 3.15

 

Comment: This is a distribution, to find the mean, you find

E = sumx * P(x)

I have shared with you videos on how to do this in the examples in the discussion last week,

 

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Question 13 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

In February 2002 the Argentine peso lost 70% of its value compared to the United States dollar. This devaluation drastically raised the price of imported products. According to a survey conducted by AC Nielsen in April 2002, 68% of the consumers in Argentina were buying fewer products than before the devaluation, 24% were buying the same number of products, and 8% were buying more products. Furthermore, in a trend toward purchasing less-expensive brands, 88% indicated that they had changed the brands they purchased. Suppose the following complete set of results were reported. Use the following data to answer this question.

 

Number of Products Purchased

Brands Purchased            Fewer   Same     More     Total

Same     10           14           24           48

Changed              262         82           8              352

Total      272         96           32           400

 

What is the probability that a consumer selected at random purchased fewer products than before and changed brands? Place your answer, rounded to 4 decimal places, in the blank.   0.6550

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 14 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

Ann is applying for a bank loan to open a pizza franchise. She must first complete a written application and then, if the written application is approved, be interviewed by bank officers. If an applicant’s written application is not approved the applicant is not granted an interview with the bank officers. Past records for this bank show that the probability of an applicant having his or her written application approved is 0.63. Records also indicate that the interviewing committee of bank officers approves 85% of the individuals they interview. Find the probability that Ann’s loan request is approved. Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. For example, 0.76 would be a legitimate entry.   0.54

Answer Key:

 

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Part 4 of 6 –         4.0/ 4.0 Points

 

Question 15 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

A restaurant menu has a price-fixed complete dinner that consists of an appetizer, entrée, beverage, and dessert. You have a choice of five appetizers, ten entrees, three beverages, and six desserts. How many possible complete dinners are possible? Place your answer, as a whole number—no decimal places—in the blank. For example 176 would be a legitimate entry  900

Answer Key:

 

Question 16 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

An ice cream vendor sells three flavors: chocolate, strawberry, and vanilla. Forty five percent of the sales are chocolate, while 30% are strawberry, with the rest vanilla flavored. Sales are by the cone or the cup. The percentages of cones sales for chocolate, strawberry, and vanilla, are 75%, 60%, and 40%, respectively. For a randomly selected sale, define the following events:

= chocolate chosen

= strawberry chosen

= vanilla chosen

= ice cream on a cone

ice cream in a cup

 

Find the probability that the ice cream was sold on a cone and was vanilla flavor.Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. For exampe, 0.34 would be a legitimate entry.  0.10

 

Answer Key:

 

Question 17 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Mothers Against Drunk Driving (MADD) is a very visible group whose main focus is to educate the public about the harm caused by drunk drivers. A study was recently done that emphasized the problem we all face with drinking and driving. Five hundred accidents that occurred on a Saturday night were analyzed. Two items noted were the number of vehicles involved and whether alcohol played a role in the accident. The numbers are shown below:

Number of Vehicles Involved

Did alcohol play a role?  1              2              3

Yes         60           110         30           200

No          40           215         45           300

100         325         75

 

Given alcohol was involved, what proportion of accidents involved a single vehicle?

Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. For example, 0.23 is a legitimate entry.  0.30

Answer Key:

 

Question 18 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

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Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

An ice cream vendor sells three flavors: chocolate, strawberry, and vanilla. Forty five percent of the sales are chocolate, while 30% are strawberry, with the rest vanilla flavored. Sales are by the cone or the cup. The percentages of cones sales for chocolate, strawberry, and vanilla, are 75%, 60%, and 40%, respectively. For a randomly selected sale, define the following events:

= chocolate chosen

= strawberry chosen

= vanilla chosen

= ice cream on a cone

ice cream in a cup

 

Find the probability that the ice cream was strawberry flavor, given that it was sold in a cup. Place your answer, rounded to 4 decimal places, in the blank. For exampe, 0.3456 would be a legitimate entry.  0.3825

 

Answer Key:

Comment: You got the previous one

 

 

Part 5 of 6 –         0.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Question 19 of 20             0.0/ 1.0 Points

Suppose A and B are mutually exclusive events where P(A) = 0.2 and P(B) = 0.5, then P(A or B) = 0.70.

 

 

 

True

 

False

 

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Part 6 of 6 –         1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Question 20 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

True or False: The probability of a success must remain the same for each trial in a binomial experiment.

 

True

 

False

Answer Key:

 

Question 11: Mathematics

 

Part 1 of 3 –

4.0/ 7.0 Points

 

Question 1 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

The percent defective for parts produced by a manufacturing process is targeted at 4%. The process is monitored daily by taking samples of sizes n = 160 units. Suppose that today’s sample contains 14 defectives.

How many units would have to be sampled to be 95% confident that you can estimate the fraction of defective parts within 2% (using the information from today’s sample–that is using the result that )?

Question 2 of 20

0.0/ 1.0 Points

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Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

A sample of 9 production managers with over 15 years of experience has an average salary of $71,000 and a sample standard deviation of $18,000.

Question 3 of 20

0.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

The personnel department of a large corporation wants to estimate the family dental expenses of its employees to determine the feasibility of providing a dental insurance plan. A random sample of 12 employees reveals the following family dental expenses (in dollars): 115, 370, 250, 593, 540, 225, 177, 425, 318, 182, 275, and 228.

Construct a 99% confidence interval estimate for the standard deviation of family dental expenses for all employees of this corporation.

Place your LOWER limit, in dollars rounded to 1 decimal place, in the first blank. Do not use a dollar sign, a comma, or any other stray mark. For example, 98.4 would be a legitimate entry. 175.5

Question 4 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Question 5 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Question 6 of 20

0.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Question 7 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Part 2 of 3 –

11.0/ 11.0 Points

 

Question 8 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A sample of 23 European countries found that the variance of life expectancy was 7.3 years. What is the 95% confidence interval estimate for the variance of life expectancy in Europe?

 

A.27.2 <  < 118.3

B.5.6 < < 10.3

C.4.4 < < 14.6

D.28.9 < < 115.0

 

Answer Key:

Question 9 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

If you increase the confidence level, the confidence interval ____________.

 

A.stays the same

B.increases

C.decreases

D.may increase or decrease, depending on the sample data

 

Answer Key:

Question 10 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

The average gas mileage of a certain model car is 26 miles per gallon. If the gas mileages are normally distributed with a standard deviation of 1.3, find the probability that a randomly selected car of this model has a gas mileage between 25.8 and 26.3 miles per gallon.

 

A.0.15

B.0.85

C.0.70

D.0.30

 

Answer Key:

Question 11 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A researcher wishes to know, with 98% confidence, the percentage of women who wear shoes that are too small for their feet. A previous study conducted by the Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons found that 80% of women wear shoes that are too small for their feet. If the researcher wants her estimate to be within 3% of the true proportion, how large a sample is necessary?

 

A.966

B.683

C.183

D.484

 

Answer Key:

Question 12 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

From a sample of 500 items, 30 were found to be defective. The point estimate of the population proportion defective will be:

 

A..06

B.16.667

C.30

D.0.60

 

Answer Key:

Question 13 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

The upper limit of the 90% confidence interval for the population proportion p, given that n = 100; and    = 0.20 is

 

A.0.7342

B.0.5316

C.0.2658

D.0.4684

 

Answer Key:

Question 14 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A food snack manufacturer samples 15 bags of pretzels off the assembly line and weighed their contents. If the sample mean is 10.0 and the sample standard deviation is 0.15, find the 95% confidence interval estimate for the true mean.

 

A.(9.96, 10.04)

B.(9.68, 10.32)

C.(9.97, 10.80)

D.(9.92, 10.08)

 

Answer Key:

Question 15 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Compute    where t20 has a t-distribution with 20 degrees of freedom.

 

A.0.1767

B.0.8233

C.0.6466

D.0.5334

 

Answer Key:

Question 16 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

At a large department store, the average number of years of employment for a cashier is 5.7 with a standard deviation of 1.8 years. If the number of years of employment at this department store is normally distributed, what is the probability that a cashier selected at random has worked at the store for over 10 years?

 

A.0.4916

B.0.9916

C.0.0084

D.0.0054

 

Answer Key:

Question 17 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Which of the following will make a confidence interval narrower and more precise?

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A.Smaller sample size and higher confidence level

B.Larger sample size and lower confidence level

C.Smaller sample size and lower confidence level

D.Larger sample size and higher confidence level

 

Answer Key:

Question 18 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A recent study of 750 Internet users in Europe found that 35% of Internet users were women. What is the 95% confidence interval estimate for the true proportion of women in Europe who use the Internet?

 

A.0.321 < p < 0.379

B.0.316 < p < 0.384

C.0.309 < p < 0.391

D.0.305 < p < 0.395

 

Answer Key:

Part 3 of 3 –

2.0/ 2.0 Points

 

Question 19 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

As a general rule, the normal distribution is used to approximate the sampling distribution of the sample proportion, , only if the sample size n is greater than 30.

 

True

False

 

Answer Key:

Question 20 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A 90% confidence interval estimate for a population mean is determined to be 72.8 to 79.6. If the confidence level is reduced to 80%, the confidence interval becomes narrower.

 

True

False

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 12: Computer Science

 

Assignment    2:         Forensic          Lab     Design
worth 100      points

Imagine the university that employs you as an information security professional has recently identified the need to design and build a digital forensic laboratory. You have been tasked with designing the lab for the organization.

Write a four to five (4-5) page paper in which you:

  1. Explicate the steps you would take to plan a budget for the lab, keeping in mind the general business objective to avoid unneeded costs.
  2. Recommend the physical requirements and controls that you would consider implementing in order to keep the lab safe and secure.
  3. Identify at least three (3) hardware and software tools that you would include in the design of the lab and explain your reasons behind your choices.
  4. Identify the high-level criteria that would be considered when selecting the forensic workstations to be utilized.
  5. Describe the mandatory policies, processes, and procedures you would implement in order to maintain the lab environment and preserve evidence.
  6. Design a floor plan for the lab using a diagramming application such as Visio or Dia. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length.
  7. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
  • Include charts or diagrams created in Visio or one of their equivalents such as Open Project Dia. The completed diagrams / charts must be imported into the Word document before the paper is submitted.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Describe the purpose and structure of a digital forensics lab.
  • Examine and explain the evidence life cycle.
  • Describe the constraints on digital forensic investigations.
  • Develop a computer forensics deployment plan that addresses and solves a proposed business problem.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in computer forensics.
  • Write clearly and concisely about computer forensics topics using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.

 

 

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Question 13: Business

Assignment 1: PICOT Question and Justification

 

Question 14: Business

 

BUSI 681 BO1 LUO Quiz 8

 

Question 15: Business

 

BUSI201 Midterm Exam Already Graded A+ 2019 BUSI 201 Midterm Exam Already Graded A+ 2019

 

Question 16: Business

 

HESI EXIT RN EXAM V1-V7 2019

 

Question 17: Business

 

Advantages of DNA testing

1 paper of ideas

 

Question 18: Business

 

Research, Fact and Findings Documentation about private genetic testing

1 page

 

 

Question 19: Health Care

 

NURSING FN NURS 6640Nfinal exam for 6640 Final exam for 6640: Graded A

NURSING FN NURS 6640Nfinal exam for 6640 Final exam for 6640: Graded A

 

Question 20: Religious Studies

 

BIBL 105 Quiz 1 / BIBL105 Quiz 1 (3 Latest Versions) – Old Testament Survey -Liberty University (100% Correct, Already graded A)

 

Question 21: Mathematics

 

  • Question 1 Which of the following are principles of Statistical Thinking?
  • Question 2 The Statistical Thinking Strategy has significant commonality with the
  • scientific method. Which of the following statistical thinking principles is NOT generally associated with the scientific method?
  • Question 3 The primary goal of process mapping is to:
  • Question 4 Viewing a business as a system is important because:
  • Question 5 If you are thinking creatively about how to take existing tools and link and sequence them to develop a novel approach to solve important problems, this would be an example of:
  • Question 6 If my histogram appears bimodal, what tool might help me evaluate why?
  • Question 7 A sample of 50 invoices are inspected each shift for errors, and classified as either “good”, i.e., without error, or “bad”, having some problem. If we plot our bad invoices each shift on a control chart, which chart should we use?
  • Question 8 Control limits were originally defined at the three-sigma level because:
  • Question 9 A main purpose of a control chart is to:
  • Question 10 What does it mean if capability index Cp is less than 1?
  • Question 11 Which of the following is NOT a measure of model adequacy?
  • Question 12 Which of the following is NOT a reason for adjusted R-Square being low?
  • Question 13 Process models are used to:
  • Question 14 Tips for building useful models include:
  • Question 15 An Adjusted R-square value is a correlation coefficient that has been modified to account for:
  • Question 16 Identify the assumption that is NOT made when conducting an experiment:
  • Question 17 This technique is used to eliminate the effects of nuisance factors (e.g., machines, day of week, and season of year) from an experiment.
  • Question 18 The basic reason for randomness of sampling in design of experiments is:
  • Question 19 Given the plot below, what might you suspect about factors A and B?
  • Question 20 An aspect of good experimental strategy is to study the effects of the variables (Xs) over a wide range. This strategy increases the chances that effects will be found because:
  • Question 21 Based on a regression model, I have developed a 95% prediction interval for the time it will take me to run a mile under specific conditions (weather, what I have eaten & drank, running shoes used, and so on). This interval goes from 5.2 minutes to 6.1 minutes. Which of the following could be an accurate description of this interval?
  • Question 22 We are testing the null hypothesis that the average monthly revenue between four insurance offices is the same. We obtained a p-value of .07. Which of the following would be an appropriate conclusion about the population?
  • Question 23 For which of the following scenarios am I most likely to utilize a Chi-squared test?
  • Question 24 A local university ran a regression model on factors impacting starting job salary of employed graduates. After validating this as a reasonable model, the university noted that the regression coefficient for GPA had a p-value of .10. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion in this case?
  • Question 25 After running an ANOVA comparing the average years of experience between five different job classifications, we obtained a p value of .02. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion concerning the population in this case?

 

Question 22: Business

 

Each individual student will be required to conduct two analyses of a business article, case study, or original business topic investigation and present the analysis, findings, and implications to the rest of the class. Critical analysis is required (do not simply summarize an article). Analysis should be summarized in a document. Analysis should be summarized in a 2-3 page single spaced document.  The  article/case can involve any topic of the student’s interest related to entrepreneurship broadly defined including new ventures, social entrepreneurship, angel investing, venture capital, corporate entrepreneurship, innovation, and others.

 

Question 23: General Question

 

NURS 6501 Week 8 Quiz (2018): Advanced Pathophysiology -Walden University (Already graded A )

NURS 6501 Week 8 Quiz (2018): Advanced Pathophysiology -Walden University (Already graded A )

 

Question 24: General Question

 

Liberty University : THEO 104 Study Guide Week 1-8 (New) Chapter 1-40.

Liberty University : THEO 104 Study Guide Week 1-8 (New) Chapter 1-40.

 

Question 25: General Question

 

Liberty University CSTU 101 quiz 5/ CSTU 101 Quiz 5 (Latest): Liberty University (Already graded A)

 

Question 26: Business

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Zane, a 26-year-old male, came upon a car accident and immediately started to help the victims, who were pinned in their car. There was blood all over the scene and Zane acted without having any personal protective equipment. While helping the victims, he cut his arms in several places on the sharp metal and shards of glass. A few weeks later, he developed flu-like symptoms that persisted for several days. He went to his clinic and tested negative for influenza. 

Because of his recent exposure, Zane’s doctor was suspicious of blood borne pathogens. Which of the following disorders are blood-borne diseases?

  • Question 2

1 out of 1 points

Lab tests confirm the presence of HIV antibodies in Zane’s blood. Briefly describe why there are antibodies present.

  • Question 3

1 out of 1 points

Briefly define “autoimmunity” and “immunodeficiency” in your own words. Which of these conditions is Zane more likely to develop?

  • Question 4

1 out of 1 points

During the primary HIV infection, which of the following cells decreases in number?

 

  • Question 5

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following statements is true?

  • Question 6

1 out of 1 points

HIV is a retrovirus. Briefly describe how a retrovirus is different from other viruses.

  • Question 7

1 out of 1 points

Zane is worried about passing the virus to his friends and family. Which of the following bodily fluids can transmit HIV? (Select all that apply.)

  • Question 8

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of acute HIV infection?

  • Question 9

1 out of 1 points

The initial symptoms of HIV infection are followed by clinical latency. Which of the following statements is true?

  • Question 10

1 out of 1 points

Zane is told that he may develop AIDS in his lifetime. Which signs and symptoms would indicate that he has AIDS?

  • Question 11

1 out of 1 points

Justine, a 39-year-old female, has recently been diagnosed with lymphoma. She has a family history of several cancers, but not lymphoma. Her personal medical history includes mononucleosis, asthma, and two full-term pregnancies and vaginal births. Before her diagnosis, she had been feeling “generally sick” and felt several lumps on her neck and armpits. She had a fever that wouldn’t go away and had been waking up sweaty in the middle of the night. Microscopy showed the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. 

Based on the information given, which of the type of lymphoma does Justine have?

  • Question 12

1 out of 1 points

Reed Sternberg cells are derived from which type of normal cell?

  • Question 13

1 out of 1 points

Which of Justine’s symptoms signify the presence of lymphadenopathy?

  • Question 14

1 out of 1 points

Aside from the symptoms noted in Justine’s case, list and briefly describe 3 other symptoms of lymphoma.

  • Question 15

1 out of 1 points

Lymphoma is definitively diagnosed by which of the following procedures?

  • Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is true of Justine’s treatment?

  • Question 17

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is true of Justine’s diagnosis?

  • Question 18

1 out of 1 points

Which part of Justine’s case study is considered a risk factor for her diagnosis?

  • Question 19

1 out of 1 points

Chemotherapy is a very general term for using medications to treat cancers. Briefly describe how chemotherapy would help Justine.

  • Question 20

1 out of 1 points

How would a bone marrow transplant help treat Justine’s condition?

 

 

Question 27: General Question

 

NSG 6020 FINAL STUDY GUIDE (LATEST): SOUTH UNIVERSITY

 

Question 28: Business

 

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

 

Discuss the direct and indirect costs associated with staffing decisions. How have those decisions affected you directly or indirectly?

 

Question 29: Business

 

600 words/easy money! There are various federal and state employment and labor laws protecting both employees and employers. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) is the federal agency responsible for interpreting, investigating, and enforcing federal employment laws against workplace discrimination. In Week 2, you considered the legal components in a job description. In Week 4, you analyzed forms of discrimination when conducting a performance appraisal. For this discussion, you will look at protected classes identified by the EEOC. Protected classes are groups of people with common characteristics that are legally protected from employment discrimination.

Instruction

In your initial post, Describe three protected classes and the laws that exist to protect them. Explain how the EEOC investigates complaints of discrimination against a protected individual. Discuss how employers can prevent and respond to allegations of employment discrimination. Your initial post should be a minimum of 300 words and cite at least one scholarly source to support your response.

 

Question 30: Literary Studies

 

– Find 3 credible sources (.org, .edu, .gov or library sources) for your Final Research Essay if you haven’t already found them.

Annotated Bibliography Journal

Underneath each MLA Citation of your source include a paragraph (5-8 sentences) that explain:

What the source is about

What the author of the source gives information about or states about your text

How the information in the source relates to the literature you are examining

How or where in your essay do you plan to use this source and/or with which criticism does this source pertain to and how?

 

 

 

WILL PROVIDED BOOK ACCESS ONCE ASSIGNED

 

Case Study–Chapter 8—Century Medical-Page 336

Each question must be broken down in the following way:

 

Problem: (You can be brief in this summation on the overall problem)

Causes of the Problem: (Show critical thinking in your assessment)

Alternative Solutions: (Demonstrate your critical thinking with different ideas to resolve the issue while incorporating good organizational practices)

Best Alternative: (This will be your primary recommendation/solution that you believe is best)

Implementation Steps: (Detail how your recommendations might be utilized to solve the matter)

 

 

  1. If you were Nolan, how would you approach the project at work now?

 

  1. The new boss had little appreciation for all types of information. Use textbook terms to describe the type of information he embraced, and the type he rejected.  How might this be

explained?  How might this be changed?

 

  1. In the work world, is it ever best to move on to a different way when your boss totally rejects what you believe strongly is the best approach? If, in this case, Nolan does not continue to challenge the ideas of his new boss, what would you predict will happen?

 

This is your CEO speaking, the above questions are just a guide, thoroughly analyze this case in terms of what you have learned in the first eight chapters of the text. What this means is you will need to look at all the aspects of each chapter we have covered and see if anything is applicable here, if so, how, this needs to be in your written paper. After your analysis, make a one paragraph recommendation (this is in addition to your analysis which needs to be on paper) to me of what you think the next steps should be for my company. No, you don’t just turn in a one paragraph paper, use the steps below to thoroughly analyze the case then give me the recommendations. Again this is just a guide, be thorough.

 

 

You need to use APA guidelines meaning you do need to cite or give me references and you will need a cover sheet, and again I want to hear what is in your head, heart and mind.

 

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Question 2:        Healthcare

 

Write a 300 word discussion post about current news that (a) condenses and thematically organizes the key issues from the news that pertain to environmental public health; and (b) make at least one connection to the issues or themed covered in the course readings and discussions. Pose 2 questions to launch class discussion. You will only have to create the media post one time during the semester; you will always have to complete the discussion replies. A posting schedule will be created by random selection of student names.

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Question 1: General Question

Question 1 (500 points)

You are currently working for a company called Pierogi’s and More.  This company specializes in
authentic ethnic European style foods.  Product offering includes Blintzes, Golabki, Kaputsa, and
Kielbasa, but the main item in the product line is the traditional Pierogi.  A pierogi is best
described as a piece of pastry or dough that is stuffed with various ingredients.  Going back to the
tradition of the product, the original pierogis were normally stuffed with mashed potatoes,
spinach, sauerkraut and/or variety of cheeses.  The pierogi was the ‘worker’ or ‘laborers’ meal, so
consequently did not include meats as they were not affordable but when available, some meats
would be an ingredient in the pierogi.  These meat-based pierogis were considered a delicacy and
used mainly for special occasions.
The pricing strategy has been quality/value-priced based.  The company has been trying to
develop a reputation and perspective of a high quality item.  The standard price for one dozen
pierogis has been $5.99 per dozen.  This price is a little higher than the prices of the main
competitors.  Depending upon the ingredients, the competitors’ prices range from $2.79 to $5.39
per dozen in most grocery stores.  Based on the current production costs and overheads, there is
some room to manipulate price, but there is a desire to make sure that the pricing strategy
reflects the quality of the product.  While the company has completed no in-depth research or
analysis, management believes they offer the highest quality pierogi on the market and believes
their price should reflect as much.  A breakdown of the cost structure revealed total variable
costs of $1.87/dozen and total fixed costs of $0.20/dozen.
Pierogi’s and More is starting to enter a new phase of distribution.  To this point, sales were
through the current company store front or direct sales to a few local markets.  The company is
now branching into specialty or higher end grocery retail.  This change will require the inclusion
of a wholesaler into the marketing channel.  Studies have shown that most grocery wholesalers
maintain a 30 percent mark-up while the retailer maintains a 25 percent mark-up.  Pierogi’s and
More desires to maintain their current price point at the retail level when they enter this new
distribution channel.  The company would also like to maintain a 45 percent mark-up.
Based upon the above information, please respond to the following:
a: Using the target price of $5.99, determine the price point the company should use for the
wholesaler.  Does this price point allow the company to maintain its desired 45 percent mark-
up?  If you know that the consumer price elasticity for this product group is 0.80, what would be
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your concerns when establishing the price?
b: Do you believe the company should continue to use a value-based pricing mechanism?  Why or
why not?  If you know the customer group has a high level of price sensitivity, what is your
concern with this pricing scenario?
c: In addition to the pricing decisions, Pierogi’s and More does not have a promotional campaign
designed for this new marketing channel.  Prepare an appropriate marketing campaign to enter
the new market.  Be specific in your response.  Does brand play a role in this process?
d: Pierogi’s and more has the opportunity to distribute the product through the specialty store in
both a frozen offering and a fresh offering in the deli/meat counter.  Should their pricing
structure be the same or different for the two products?  How would this impact other aspects of
the promotional mix?  Does brand play any roll in this process?
e: Create a slogan for the business, less than 20 words, which captures the essence of the brand.
Explain your rationale for the slogan. Then show how it should be incorporated within the brand
image and integrated marketing communication plan.

Question 2: Biology

NURS 6531 Midterm Exam  Latest Version Walden University

Question 3: Biology

NURS 6531 Midterm Exam Review WEEK 2 Latest Version Walden University

Question 4: Biology

NURS 6512 Final Exam   Latest Version Walden University

Question 5: Biology

NURSE 6531 Final Exam Adv. Practice Care of Adults   Latest Version Walden University

Question 6: Business

Wk 4 – Advisory Memo

As a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm, your boss (Will N. Trusts) presents you with the following two scenarios:
Scenario 1
Ned was hired six weeks ago by “State of Estates” to supervise the call center on weekends. At the time of hire, Ned did not disclose that he is a follower of the “Weekend Warriors” religion. In observance of his religious practices, Ned may not work Saturday mornings before noon. Ned called out of work three Saturday mornings in a row, costing the company extra overtime costs. The company looked to re-arrange the schedule, but to pull in a more senior supervisor on the weekend would require time-and-a-half pay. In addition, call-center statistics indicate a drop in productivity when there is a change of supervisor mid-day. The company would like to terminate Ned’s employment.
Would Ned have an argument for religious discrimination against “State of Estates?” Why or why not?
If yes, would the company be able to assert any defenses under these circumstances?

Scenario 2
Ella works in the accounting department in the northern satellite office of the company. She has been employed for four years and performed her job well until recently when she was caught sleeping on the job numerous times. Ella explained to her supervisor that she suffers from sleep apnea and has not been sleeping well at night. She requested a special caffeine supplement, at $200 daily, to keep her focused on the spreadsheets.
What factors would a court consider in determining whether Ella’s sleep apnea qualifies her for protection under the ADA?
Would “State of Estates” have to provide the requested accommodation of the caffeine pills in this instance? Why or why not?

Create two 350-word memos in one document based on these two scenarios.

Format your memos, including citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

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Question 7: Business

Wk 4 discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
The age for full social security benefits is 67 today, with more than one-third of people working past the age of 70.  The ADEA was enacted to prevent discrimination against older workers.  Discuss some of the underlying situations that contribute to discrimination by age and what companies can do to avoid decisions based on age alone.

Question 8: Business

6 page paper  (use template)

Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor. Compare their strategies at each level and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice.
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets.
Use at least three (3) quality references.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Identify various levels and types of strategy in a firm.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in business administration.
Write clearly and concisely about business administration using proper writing mechanics.

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Week 8 Assignment 3
Student Full Name

Date

Everything in Blue below should be deleted
Due Week 8 and worth 150 points
Using the corporation you chose from Assignment 1, examine its industry. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. NOTE: Be sure to read Chapters 1 – 10 in the course textbook and complete the LEARN E-Activities for Weeks 1-8 as they set the foundation to this assignment. Be sure to cite your sources! Begin your paper on Page 2 and write a minimum of six (6) pages (does not include Title or Source pages).

Week 8 Assignment 3
Write your brief introduction here: It should not be more than 1 good paragraph (about 5 complete sentences) to introduce the reader to your topic and it should explain in detail what your paper will be discussing. Much of your introduction may be taken from the assignment itself (in your own words). Read the scenario to get a feel for what the paper is about and explain what your paper will be discussing – so be sure to review the Assignment instructions AND Rubric for understanding. Finally, please ask me any questions about this assignment.
Business-Level Strategies
Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) business-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion. For background, be sure to research and explain the industry in which your selected corporation operates. You could also briefly (1 – 2 sentences) define the business-level strategy (cite your sources) you are writing about using the textbook/Learn, as an introduction to your analysis. Read Chapter 4 in the course textbook. Review the Week 4 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. In this section, you will want to research and identify the core competencies of your chosen firm. Demonstrate from your research how the firm uses its core competencies to create and sell its products in the marketplace. What actions & choices has the firm made to compete in individual product markets? Hint: “Every firm must form and use a business-level strategy.” (Hitt, Ireland, & Hoskisson, 2013, pp. 102). Review Chapters 4-9 for specifics on the business-level strategies.

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Corporate-Level Strategies
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) corporate-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion.
You should briefly define (1 – 2 sentences) corporate-level strategy based upon the textbook/lectures (cite your sources) as part of your analysis. Read Chapter 6 in the course textbook. Review the Week 6 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content.
Competitive Environment
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor (this will require research/cite your sources). Compare their strategies at each level (market commonality, resource similarity, competitive behavior, and competitive dynamics/actions/responses) and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Market Cycles
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 (Competitive Environment section above) would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets. It would be a good idea to briefly (1 – 2 sentences) explain what the slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets are from the textbook (cite your sources) as a short introduction to your determination. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook with a special focus on the Competitive Dynamics section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Sources
Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.
List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.
Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course textbook to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.
Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.
The source page must include all sources used. All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.
Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic
source requires logging in).
When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:
Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)
The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.
Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.
Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
Have I deleted the blue font instructions in this template?
Did I leave the provided section headings in place, as provided in this template?
After deleting the blue fonts in this template, have I changed all font to black?
Additional things to keep in mind.
You will be graded on the content of your submission, the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills using the grading rubric.
Strayer uses SafeAssign – an automated plagiarism checker. It is advised that you do your own writing and use external resources to support what you have written in your own words.

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Question 9: Business

The Woolong Company produces high-end vacuum cleaners and has hired you to oversee the development and release of their latest product. A preliminary project initiation meeting will result in the identification of the project sponsor, selection of a project manager, and creation of the project charter. A manager in the production department who knows you are taking a college project management course asks you to prepare a report to help them prepare for the meeting by answering the following questions:
Who are the project stakeholders? How will they be involved in the project?
Whom should the project sponsor be? Why?
What skills and experience are likely needed by the project manager for each phase in the project life cycle, and how do these skills and experiences differ between the various phases?
What kind of roles and responsibilities should the key stakeholders have? Discuss at least 4–5 different kinds of stakeholders.
How should they communicate to different stakeholders during the project?
What information should be shared with the project stakeholders?
What is the mechanism that could be used for each type of information?
What is the frequency with which information should be shared?
What should be done if project communications are not proving to be effective?
What technology could be used for project communications?
At what point could communication about the project become an ethical or legal issue?
What are the best ways to manage project risks as well as opportunities during project execution?
How do they update and analyze old risks as well as new risks while undertaking the project?
What business opportunity might project completion create?
What is the potential financial impact of the project?
What are the expected results of the project?
What value will the project add?
What is the potential impact to the company if the project is not finished well?
Present your findings as a Word document of 4–5 pages (not including title and reference pages) formatted in APA style, using the attached template. Submitting your assignment in APA format means, at a minimum, you will need the following:
Title page: Remember the running head. The title should be in all capitals.
Body: The body of your paper begins on the page following the title page and abstract page and must be double-spaced (be careful not to triple- or quadruple-space between paragraphs). The type face should be 12-pt. Times Roman or 12-pt. Courier in regular black type. Do not use color, bold type, or italics except as required for APA-level headings and references. The deliverable length of the body of your paper for this assignment is 2–3 pages. In-body academic citations to support your decisions and analysis are required. A variety of academic sources is encouraged.
Reference page: References that align with your in-body academic sources are listed on the final page of your paper. The references must be in APA format using appropriate spacing, hang indention, italics, and upper- and lowercase usage as appropriate for the type of resource used. Remember, the Reference Page is not a bibliography but a further listing of the abbreviated in-body citations used in the paper. Every referenced item must have a corresponding in-body citation.

Question 10: Business

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1)      Describe the changing demographic patterns of the aging population. How do these patterns vary by age, gender, race, and ethnicity? How will the demographic changes in the population in the next decade influence the type and delivery of community resources available to older adults?
2)      Major historical events can shape the way a cohort behaves throughout their lives. As an example individuals who grew-up during the depression are often frugal with spending even in old age. What was the major historical event of your life course? How did this affect your life and do you think it will continue to impact you as you age?
3)      From the point of view of older adults, what might be the advantages and disadvantages of living in a state with a large older population? From the point of view of younger generations? Explain, using references from this week’s resources to support your response.
4)      What is ageism (as it applies to the aging population)? Name three examples of ageism that you’ve personally witnessed, experienced, or perhaps even committed yourself. How are these instances damaging to the aging population?

Question 11: Business

HRM 530 Assignment 1 Alignment of HRM and Business Strategies
HRM 530 Assignment 1 Alignment of HRM and Business Strategies

Question 12: Business

Create a chart with rows and columns to establish the following requirements of discrimination under the law in the following areas at the top:

Title VII Gender Discrimination in Employment Practices
Sexual Harassment Based on Hostile Work Environment
Quid-Pro-Quo Sexual Harassment
Sexual Orientation in the Workplace

Along the left side of the chart, create the following rows:

Requirements to Prove Under the Law
Ways Employers can Minimize Liability
Recent Case Example

Complete the chart for each section.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the requirements of each type of potential gender discrimination.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the specific ways employers can minimize liability for each type of gender discrimination.

Research and include a relevant case to illustrate each type of gender discrimination.

Format your citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

Question 13: Health Care

Nursing Therapy Quiz

STUDY GUIDE

This quiz will cover the following topics, which relate to psychotherapy with individuals in the Wheeler textbook and the Fisher textbook excerpts:

Topics
·         The Nurse Psychotherapist and a Framework for Practice
·         Confidentiality Limits in Psychotherapy: Ethics Checklists for Mental Health Professionals
·         Assessment and Diagnosis
·         The Initial Contact and Maintaining the Frame
·         Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
·         Supportive and Psychodynamic Psychotherapy
·         Stabilization for Trauma and Dissociation
·         Motivational Interviewing
·         Psychotherapeutic Approaches for Addictions and Related Disorders

Wheeler, K. (Eds.). (2014). Psychotherapy for the advanced practice psychiatric nurse: A how-to guide for evidence-based practice (2nd ed.). New York, NY: Springer Publishing Company.
·         Chapter 1, “The Nurse Psychotherapist and a Framework for Practice”
·         Chapter 3, “Assessment and Diagnosis”
·         Chapter 4, “The Initial Contact and Maintaining the Frame”
·        Chapter 5, “Supportive and Psychodynamic Psychotherapy”
·        Chapter 7, “Motivational Interviewing” (pp.299-312)
·        Chapter 8, “Cognitive Behavioral Therapy”
·        Chapter 13, “Stabilization for Trauma and Dissociation”
·        Chapter 16, “Psychotherapeutic Approaches for Addictions and Related Disorders”

Fisher, M. A. (2016). Introduction. In Confidentiality limits in psychotherapy: Ethics checklists for mental health professionals (pp. 3–12). Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. doi:10.1037/14860-001

Fisher, M. A. (2016). The ethical ABCs of conditional confidentiality. In Confidentiality limits in psychotherapy: Ethics checklists for mental health professionals (pp. 13–25). Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. doi:10.1037/14860-002

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Question 1
After informing a prospective patient about limits of confidentiality, the patient consents to the “conditions” of confidentiality and signs an informed consent form. Several weeks later, a lawyer representing the patient’s spouse for a court case, asks the PMHNP for the disclosure of information about the patient. The PMHNP should:

A.
Disclose all patient information as requested

B.
Refuse to disclose any confidential information

C.
Limit disclosure to the extent legally possible

D.
Ignore the request based on ethical reasons
1 points
Question 2
The PMHNP is meeting with a new patient who is a young veteran back from serving two tours overseas. When reviewing the patient’s health history file that was sent from the VA, the PMHNP learns that several months ago, the patient was diagnosed with PTSD, but never followed up with treatment for it. After a comprehensive mental health assessment, the PMHNP confirms the PTSD diagnosis and understands that which therapeutic approach will be the most effective as a first-line treatment modality?

A.
Performing a psychiatric debriefing on the patient

B.
Employing cognitive behavioral therapy with the patient

C.
Using psychodynamic psychotherapy with the patient

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 3
One of the strategies the PMHNP wants to try includes sleep restriction. What will the PMHNP suggest to follow sleep restriction therapy?

A.
“Restrict sleep for 24 hours.”

B.
“Restrict the amount of time you spend in bed.”

C.
“Restrict the amount of exercise you do prior to going to bed.”

D.
“Restrict the amount of food you eat before bedtime.”
1 points
Question 4
The PMHNP is conducting a peer review of another PMHNP’s medical charts. Upon review, the PMHNP notes that the peer often begins patient sessions late, as well as ends them later than scheduled. The PMHNP also found a comment in the chart regarding the patient sending text messages while in the middle of the session. Based on these findings, the feedback that the PMHNP will provide to the peer involves which therapeutic principle?

A.
Assessing safety

B.
Applying therapeutic communication

C.
Using empathy

D.
Maintaining the frame

32.The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?
1 points
Question 5
True or false: If after a third round of processing followed by stabilization, a patient has increased anxiety that requires further interventions aimed at stabilization, the therapeutic relationship can no longer successfully provide therapeutic change.
True
False
1 points
Question 6
The PMHNP has been treating a 15-year-old patient with a history of abuse and neglect. Thirty minutes into their therapy session the patient jumps up and begins to pace around the room. Utilizing Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP’s best action would be to:

A.
Allow the patient time to process before speaking.

B.
Ask, “Why don’t you come have a seat beside me?” while tapping the table.

C.
Say, “I noticed a change. Can you tell me what happened?”

D.
Say, “We can continue this session later if you prefer.”

1 points
Question 7
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who the PMHNP believes would benefit from a relational psychodynamic approach to therapy. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates appropriate use and understanding of the relationship psychodynamic model?

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A.
Focusing the exploration on making the unconscious conscious

B.
Focusing the exploration on the genetic roots of the patient’s problem

C.
Focusing the exploration on here and now

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 8
The PMHNP is caring for a patient with borderline personality disorder. Using a psychoanalytic psychotherapy approach, the PMHNP attempts to intensify the patient’s transference to enhance emotional processing by:

A.
Developing increased boundaries

B.
Decreasing supportive psychotherapy

C.
Scaling back contact with the patient

D.
Increasing the number of sessions per week
1 points
Question 9
An elderly patient in a nursing home has been losing interest in activities and now refuses to leave his room. After a physical exam, he is referred to a PMHNP for an initial assessment.
True or false: After speaking with the patient, an appropriate screening tool for the PMHNP  to use would be the Geriatric Depression Scale.
True
False
1 points
Question 10
A middle-aged man who works over 50 hours a week is being seen for depression and anger management. He states, “I am even more frustrated when I come home and my wife wants to argue about stupid stuff. All I want to do is come home, take a shower, and eat. Is that too much to ask?” The PMHNP explains that people can be assertive, aggressive, and passive. She encourages the patient to be more assertive and begins role-play with assertive training. The PMHNP determines that the patient is beginning to understand when he states:

A.
“I am tired, I work very hard all day to support you and this family!”

B.
“I come home and all you do is argue, but I don’t care.”

C.
“I don’t know what I did. Why are you acting like this?!”

D.
“I feel frustrated when I come home and we argue.”

1 points
Question 11
The PMHNP is treating a patient with a substantial fear of feeling closed in (claustrophobia). Thus, the patient will not get into an elevator. The office where he works is on the 10th floor and this requires that he walk up and down the stairs in the morning and evening to get to his office. With permission from the patient, the PMHNP is beginning systematic desensitization to address the patient’s need to use the elevator. What is the PMHNP’s best plan of action?

A.
Begin by having the patient stand in front of the elevator and write down his feelings

B.
Complete a 30-minute therapy session in an elevator

C.
Allow the patient to watch an elevator go up and down

D.
Allow the patient to see the PMHNP getting into an elevator
1 points
Question 12
A PMHNP is assessing ego functioning of his 40-year-old patient by asking what she feels is the cause of her problems. She attributes her problems to her overprotective parents not letting her have enough freedom growing up. Based on her answer, the PMHNP is testing _____________.

A.
adaptive regression in the service of the ego

B.
regulation and control of affects and impulses

C.
defensive and interpersonal functioning

D.
sense of reality of the world and of the self
1 points
1 points
Question 18
During a session, the PMHNP asks a patient with a history of sexual abuse to recall the relationship she had as a child with her parents. The patient responds by saying she has a headache and her stomach hurts, and starts talking about her physical ailments. What is the appropriate response by the PMHNP?

A.
Assure the patient that she does not have to discuss these memories

B.
Explain why it is important for the patient to discuss these memories openly

C.
Tell the patient that she may not get better if she does not face her fears

D.
Let the patient know that plenty of other people have similar painful memories, too
1 points
Question 20
During a therapy session with an 18-year-old female the PMHNP learns that she has lived in six different foster homes in the last 24 months. She states that her mother is in a correctional facility for drug abuse and prostitution. During the assessment, the PMHNP notices multiple superficial cuts to each wrist. The patient appears tearful, withdrawn, and never makes direct eye contact. The PMHNP believes that this patient may have feelings of insecurities as well as abandonment issues and is aware that which diagnosis is likely possible?

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A.
Narcissistic personality disorder

B.
Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

C.
Borderline personality disorder

D.
Paranoid personality disorder
1 points
Question 21
A patient named Steve is seeking therapy to get help with his home situation, stating that he has been stressed since his mother-in-law moved into the house. What can the PMHNP do to assist the patient in constructing a narrative?

A.
Share a personal story about her home situation and family members

B.
Elicit details so Steve becomes more self-disclosing and self-examining

C.
Guide Steve through imagery exercises so he can decrease his stress

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 22
A 16-year-old female patient has had a stable therapeutic relationship with the PMHNP for several months. The PMHNP notices what appears to be fresh cigarette burns on the patient’s arm. When asked, the patient admits to this self-injurious behavior. Although the patient is still depressed, her mood seems to be somewhat better this week. True or false: The PMHNP would most likely consider this patient stabilized and ready to move to Stage II.
True
False
1 points
Question 23
The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences abreactions when discussing repressed feelings of his sexual abuse as a child. What can the PMHNP do to manage the patient’s intense emotional reactions?

A.
Sit closer to the patient so the patient does not feel isolated

B.
Embrace the patient to provide physical comfort

C.
Suggest a relaxation technique, such as yoga or meditation

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 25
During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient states, “I get so frustrated sometimes and I just blow up at everybody!” Which response by the PMHNP demonstrates translation of Socratic dialogue (SD)?

A.
“Please explain how this affects the relationship with your wife.”

B.
“When you say blow up, what exactly does blow up mean and  how does it feel to you?”

C.
“What coping methods have you used in the past during times of frustration?”

D.
“So you blow up when you become frustrated?”
1 points
Question 26
The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?

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A.
Countertransference

B.
Therapeutic communication

C.
Empathy

D.
Boundaries
1 points
Question 27
A 28-year-old male patient is experiencing distress related to the workplace. What might the PMHNP ask to assess affective development?

A.
“How do you think your colleagues feel about you?”

B.
“How do you calm yourself when you are upset at the office?”

C.
“How do you think your colleague felt when you blamed her?”

D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 28
A PMHNP is preparing confidentiality forms for his patients. What is the most appropriate first step he should take?

A.
Talk to potential patients to get their feedback and suggestions

B.
Research his profession’s ethics code and state/federal laws

C.
Use current patient interactions to decide what matters most

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 29
A PMHNP is caring for a 21-year-old woman who is suffering from anxiety and is having difficulty managing stress. Which of the following would be an appropriate step by the PMHNP?

A.
Asking the patient what she does to relieve anxiety

B.
Giving the patient basic stress management activities

C.
Developing a plan together that is not overwhelming

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 30
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who has acute stress disorder after experiencing a traumatic event 1 week prior. The PMHNP wants to begin with a therapeutic framework that follows the adaptive information processing (AIP) model. What is the priority action for the PMHNP to take?

A.
Focus on the patient’s safety and stabilization

B.
Help the patient process painful memories

C.
Encourage the patient to find ways to achieve personal growth

D.
Assist the patient in planning for the future
1 points
Question 31
The PMHNP is working with a 43-year-old male patient who develops idiosyncratic transference over weeks of therapy. The best way for the PMHNP to respond to this patient is to ___________:

A.
employ cognitive behavioral therapy

B.
use empathy

C.
utilize intersubjectivity

D.
none of the above
1 points
Question 32
The PMHNP is working with a 56-year-old man who is being seen because of his anxiety and depression. During the therapy sessions, the PMHNP assists the patient in discussing his experiences and expanding on his thoughts and feelings. He tells the PMHNP stories about how he used to be teased by his coworkers at the office for becoming too anxious in large conference rooms. The PMHNP listens to the patient and helps focus on his strengths to promote self-understanding. Which principle best accounts for the PMHNP’s interactions with the patient?

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A.
Therapeutic communication

B.
Maintaining the frame

C.
Working with resistance

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 33
During a therapy session the patient is asked how she currently deals with stress, and she says, “Well, I don’t. I just let it build and build.” The PMHNP responds by asking how well this has been working out for her. The patient states, “Well, to be honest, it just feels like I’m drowning, you know what I mean.” Illustrating idiosyncratic meaning, the PMHNP responds with:

A.
“Would you say you feel like you are suffocating?”

B.
“No, I am not sure what you are saying. Can you please explain?”

C.
“Sort of like a fish out of water?”

D.
“When you say, ‘I just can’t breathe,’ you do understand, that is a form of anxiety?”

1 points
Question 34
The PMHNP is having a therapy session with Charlotte, a 20-year-old victim of date rape. The patient states, “I shouldn’t have been there; I should have just gone home. This was all my fault; how could I have been so stupid?” Using the Socratic method, what is the PMHNP’s best response?

A.
“If this had happened to someone else with the exact same circumstances, would you say this was her fault?”

B.
“Can you recall exactly what stopped you from going home when you originally wanted to go home?”

C.
”Have you shared these thoughts about what you should have done with anybody other than me?”

D.
“Do you understand that there is absolutely nothing that you could ever do to deserve to be treated the way you were treated?”
1 points
Question 35
At the initial interview with a patient, the PMHNP reviews the condition of receiving services, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. During the discussion, the patient shares information that the PMHNP is legally required to report.
True or false: If the PMHNP does not report information that s/he is legally required to report, state laws govern the consequences which include penalties for not reporting, especially child and elder abuse.
True
False
1 points
Question 37
The PMHNP is meeting with a 42-year-old man with depression brought on by the recent passing of his wife. As he describes the circumstances surrounding his late wife’s death, the PMHNP begins to feel sad. The sadness lingers for several hours, and the PMHNP finds it difficult to focus on other patients for the rest of the day. What is the most appropriate explanation for the reaction that the PMHNP is experiencing?

A.
Autognosis

B.
Complementary identification

C.
Concordant identification

D.
Self-disclosure
1 points
Question 38
The PMHNP employs psychodynamic psychotherapy with a patient who experiences anxiety and depression. As the process enters the psychoanalytic end of the psychodynamic continuum, the PMNHP will focus on:

A.
Interpreting unconscious conflict in the patient

B.
Restoring the patient’s functioning and stabilization

C.
Reducing the patient’s anxiety

D.
Strengthening the patient’s defenses
1 points
Question 39
The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences anxiety around her parents that later leads to poor impulse control. What will the PMHNP do to employ psychodynamic psychotherapy properly for this patient?

A.
Emphasize the past

B.
Focus on expressions of emotion

C.
Identify patterns in relationships

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 40
A new patient has been informed of the limits of confidentiality, and has signed informed consent forms. No consent, however, has been obtained for voluntary “Release of Information.” The patient is 20 years old and still lives at home with his parents. He is being treated for depression, which he attributes to the trouble he’s had finding employment.
True or false: If the patient’s mother calls the PMHNP to check up on her son to see how he is doing, the therapist is required to protect patient confidentiality and not disclose information.
True
False
1 points
Question 41
A PMHNP is treating a 45-year-old female patient who is upset that her brother has not been calling since his divorce. When asked to describe her brother and what prompts him not to call as frequently, she says, “Everything is about him, not me. I think he’s jealous that I have a good marriage and he wants me to be unhappy, too. So he doesn’t call to upset me and ruin my relationships.” Based on this information, the PMHNP can conclude that the patient _________.

A.
may lack ability to see independent motivations

B.
has an insistent emphasis on the feelings of others

C.
has an intrusive interpersonal relationship

D.
all of the above
1 points
Question 42
The PMHNP is assessing a patient who grew up in a foster home because she was neglected and abused by her birth parents at a young age. The patient admits to having difficulty forming and maintaining relationships throughout her life. Understanding maladaptive schemas, which statement does the PMHNP predict that the patient is likely to make?

A.
“I deserve the utmost respect from everyone who meets me.”

B.
“I prefer doing everything on my own.”

C.
“It takes me a while to warm up to people; people often wear masks.”

D.
“I can’t seem to do anything on my own.”

1 points
Question 43
A patient who has borderline personality disorder is meeting with the PMHNP. When asked about future goals, the patient responds, “I’d like to go back to school to do what you
do. You know, talk to people all day about their problems. It seems pretty easy.” How does the PHMNP respond to the client in a way that is free from any stigmatizing beliefs or judgments?

A.
“It is dangerous to fantasize about the future.”

B.
“I think that’s an excellent idea! I can help you review the prerequisites!”

C.
“You may want to explore the requirements for becoming a PMNHP.”

D.
None of the above.
1 points
Question 44
True or false: A PMHNP may ask his patient to describe her relationship with her father, both as a child and now, in order to assess interpersonal style.
True
False
1 points
Question 45
A 41-year-old male patient is meeting with the PMHNP and reveals that he is homosexual. He begins telling the PMHNP about his feelings as a homosexual, middle-aged man. The PMHNP nods understandingly. Before long, the patient asks, “Are you gay? Are you married? Do you have kids?” What is the best response by the PMHNP?

A.
Answer the patient’s questions honestly to establish trust

B.
Mention that the patient seems quite curious, and ask him to discuss more about himself

C.
Ignore the patient’s questions and move on to another topic

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 46
The PMHNP is working with a veteran who has posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). The PMHNP believes that dual awareness will be beneficial in allowing the patient to focus on the here and now. What strategies can the PMHNP use to develop dual awareness in the patient?

A.
Asking the patient to recall a recent and mildly disturbing event

B.
Having the patient focus on details of the room, such as how hot or cold it is

C.
Telling the patient to rate the level of disturbance he feels from a mildly disturbing event

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 47
The PMHNP has been assisting a shy and timid 23-year-old male patient struggling with esteem and self-concept issues. Over the weekend, this patient was given the task of completing an exercise that would usually cause him distress and shame, also called a shame-attacking exercise. The PMHNP determines that this task has successfully been achieved when the patient states:

A.
“I was able to eat in public yesterday despite how loudly I chew.”

B.
“I confessed all of my infidelities to my ex-spouse yesterday.”

C.
“I calmly sat through a conversation with my spouse in which she confessed all of her infidelities to me.”

D.
“I journaled the shame and guilt that I’ve been feeling from my past that has been holding me back.”

1 points
Question 48
A 35-year-old patient seeks treatment for depression and anxiety after an abusive relationship. To help empower the patient, the PMHNP wants to teach the safe-place exercise to create a feeling of calm. In order to walk the patient through the exercise, the PMHNP first says:

A.
“Identify an image of a safe place that makes you feel calm.”

B.
“Think about the things that cause you anxiety and let them go.”

C.
“Take a deep breath and start to relax with each new breath.”

D.
“Picture a beautiful beach and describe to me what you see.”
1 points
Question 49
When conducting an initial assessment, a PMHNP has finished conducting a mental status examination with 10 minutes left in the session. The patient is distressed and would like to continue sharing her personal history.
True or false: An appropriate response that the PMHNP might tell the patient is, “I understand that you are upset. [Summarizes diagnosis, treatment recommendations, and follow-up plan.] We can continue the conversation next week. How does this time next Monday work for you?”
True
False
1 points
Question 50
A PMHNP’s patients have already signed confidentiality agreements, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. Months later, the state’s laws have changed that affect confidentiality promises the PMHNP has already made. What is an appropriate step for the PMHNP to take after finding out this information?

A.
Revise intake forms to align with state laws

B.
Review confidentiality revisions with patients

C.
Have patients give informed consent again

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 51
A 65-year-old patient has suffered the loss of his wife. He is in a state of hyperarousal with increased sympathetic nervous system arousal. One or more interventions may help the patient to deal with this arousal. To decrease sympathetic nervous system arousal, the PMHNP’s treatment strategy is ___________.

A.
mindfulness techniques

B.
deep breathing exercises

C.
self-regulation strategies

D.
all of the above
1 points
Question 52
A PMHNP is treating a 50-year-old patient who suffers from depression. When he was growing up, he was often responsible for taking care of his three younger siblings. Since then, the patient puts other people’s needs before his own. Based on this information, the PMHNP would conclude that his interpersonal style is __________.

A.
overly nurturing

B.
nonassertive

C.
exploitable

D.
vindictive
1 points
Question 53
The PMHNP meets with an adolescent patient who has depression and often presents with resistance when discussing his parent’s divorce. For the past couple of sessions, the patient has been quiet, sometimes refusing to speak. To further support the therapeutic relationship, the PMNHP:

A.
Observes and points out the behavior

B.
Stays quiet until the patient is ready to speak

C.
Brings in a colleague to help get the patient to talk

D.
None of the above
1 point
Question 54
The PMHNP has a session with a patient who was injured and traumatized from an explosion at the industrial plant where he used to work. During the session, an outside noise startles the patient and he experiences a flashback of the loud boom from the explosion. The PMHNP witnesses the patient present with anxiety and belabored breathing. What is the appropriate action of the PMHNP?

A.
Telling the patient there is no reason to be startled

B.
Avoiding interrupting the flashback as it occurs

C.
Asking the patient to describe the flashbacks

D.
Have the patient use the relaxation response (take a deep breath, exhale long, and slow down)
1 points
Question 55
In your office, you see a 58-year-old patient with PTSD who reports having nightmares, making it impossible for her to sleep. What recommendations based on principles of sleep hygiene will the PMHNP make?

A.
Eat a heavy meal before bedtime to induce sleepiness

B.
Maintain a warm bedroom temperature

C.
Avoid watching television or reading in bed

D.
Try going to sleep at different times throughout the week to avoid monotony
1 points
Question 57
The PMHNP is working with a patient who is living in poverty and abusing substances. According to the treatment hierarchy framework, what needs does the PMHNP need to attend to first?

A.
Provide safety through case management strategies

B.
Help the patient manage positive and negative emotions

C.
Explore the meaning of significant adverse life experiences

D.
Process all dimensions of memory associated with the trauma
1 points
Question 58
Your patient is a 65-year-old male who has a strained relationship with his son and daughter. His children refuse to participate in a family session. The PMHNP asks the patient to draw his family genogram as a next step to _______________.

A.
assess the patient’s mental health status and functioning

B.
explore the interpersonal styles of each family member

C.
provide background information for the patient’s family structure

D.
measure the patient’s quality of well-being and productivity
1 points
Question 59
During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient, states, “My wife hates me! She’s just waiting for me to die.” Using Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP demonstrates understanding of analysis when she responds:

A.
“Now, I’m sure your wife doesn’t hate you.”

B.
“Where is the evidence that your wife hates you?”

C.
“You seem convinced that your wife hates you.”

D.
“What has your wife done to make you believe this?”

1 points
Question 60
The PMHNP is working with a patient who has insomnia and battles going to sleep. The patient reports consistent self-defeating behaviors, and hates trying to go to sleep. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates the use of a paradoxical intervention?

A.
Telling the patient to start trying to go to sleep earlier, since it takes long to fall asleep

B.
Telling the patient to resist sleep and stay awake

C.
Having the patient perform a relaxing ritual before bedtime

D.
Instructing the patient to avoid stimulants and sugars for 3 hours before falling asleep
1 points
Question 61
The PMHNP is working with a patient who seems dissatisfied with the therapeutic relationship. The PMHNP invites the patient to discuss her feelings regarding the PMHNP openly and honestly. It becomes clear to the PMHNP that they are experiencing an alliance rupture. How does the PMHNP repair the therapeutic alliance?

A.
Responding to the patient in a nondefensive manner and accepting responsibility for the PMHNP’s part in the tension

B.
Emphasizing with the patient’s experiences and validating the patient for bringing it up

C.
Considering changing the goals of the patient’s treatment

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 62
The patient attempts the PMHNP’s sleep hygiene recommendations for 2 weeks, but does not make any progress mitigating nightmares and hyperarousal. Which behavioral strategy does the PMHNP suggest next?

A.
Progressive muscle relaxation exercises

B.
Paradoxical interventions

C.
Biofeedback

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 63
A PMHNP is taking a history and wants to assess how the patient copes with adversity. To do so, the therapist asks questions about the patient’s belief system. What would be an appropriate question to ask?

A.
“What are your beliefs about therapy and seeking help?”

B.
“To what extent do your religious beliefs give you comfort?”

C.
“What gives you a sense of meaning and purpose in life?”

D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 64
An 11-year-old patient has been exhibiting low self-esteem at school and acting out. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which of the following questions would best be addressed first by the PMHNP?

A.
“Are Joel’s peers including him at recess?”

B.
“Does Joel feel safe and secure at school?”

C.
“Is Joel getting enough sleep at home?”

D.
“How can Joel feel that he is loved?”
1 points
Question 65
The PMHNP is treating a 35-year-old male officer in the military. He discloses that both of his parents are deceased and that he loved them. However, he says that he had feelings of inadequacy because his parents held him to a standard that he could never achieve. He went on to say that nothing he did ever felt good enough. The PMHNP assesses that this patient has perfect creases in his uniform with no strings or tags out of place; she also notices that he has perfect posture and questions him about ritualistic behaviors. She suspects that this patient has maladaptive responses to the expectations placed on him as a teenager and young adult. Which statements made by the patient would verify the PMHNP’s suspicion?

A.
“I typically don’t listen to anyone. I take care of my own wants and needs so I feel like no one can judge me or criticize me, period.”

B.
“I don’t mean to hurt other people’s feelings. When people cry or say that I have made them upset in some way, that’s not my fault; some people are just sensitive.”

C.
“I like to listen to the beat of my own drum; I don’t mind spending most of my days alone. I don’t  need recognition or praise; I would just like to be left alone.”

D.
“I believe in systems; I have to have order and rules in my everyday life. If a task must be completed, I will often complete it myself versus depending on someone else.”

1 points
Question 66
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who seems to seek affection and attention from the PMHNP and others in the clinic, as well as displays heightened emotional responses to feelings of being excluded. What therapeutic approach does the PMHNP use to decrease autonomic arousal in the patient?

A.
Group therapy

B.
Controlled confrontation

C.
A safe-place exercise

D.
Body and energy work
1 points
Question 67
The PMHNP is caring for a patient with dissociated self-state that the PMHNP identifies as being associated with traumatic experiences in the patient’s past. What approach does the PMHNP use with the patient that is crucial to the psychodynamic therapy process?

A.
Assisting the patient to experience and accept the various dimensions of the self through enhanced awareness of the traumatic states

B.
Becoming a co-participant in the co-construction of the relationship with the patient, rather than an outside observer

C.
Making associations between an event or situation and the patient’s feelings

D.
Providing empathy, understanding, and soothing to help the patient identify the other self-states
1 points

Question 14: Health Care

Once you have submitted your second submission to the grade book dropbox, it will be considered final and subject for grading.
Purpose
The purpose of this assignment is to provide the student an opportunity to explore the role of the advanced practice nurse (APN) and develop an APN professional development plan.
Course Outcomes
Through this assignment, the student will demonstrate the ability to:
CO1: Analyze the historic development of advanced practice roles including the impact of advanced practice nursing on  healthcare delivery from the perspective of selected current reports (i.e., LACE, IOM, etc.) (PO 3)
CO3: Explore how leadership styles influence healthcare delivery and organizations.  (PO 4)
CO5: Reflect on personal and professional growth toward achieving competence as a family nurse practitioner. (PO 3)
Due Date: Sunday 11:59 p.m. MST at the end of Week 6
Total Points Possible: 225
Requirements:
1.    To complete this application, you will need to access to the following databases: CINAHL, MEDLINE, Cochrane Library, and the Joanna Briggs Institute. You may access these databases through the Chamberlain College of Nursing Online Library.
2.    The APN Professional Development Plan paper is worth 225 points and will be graded on quality of information, use of citations, use of Standard English grammar, sentence structure, and overall organization based on the required components as summarized in the directions and grading criteria/rubric.
3.    Create your manuscript using Microsoft Word, which is the required format for all Chamberlain College of Nursing documents.
4.    Follow the directions and grading criteria closely. Any questions about this paper may be posted under the Q & A Forum or emailed to your faculty.
5.    The length of the paper is to be no less than 6 and no greater than 8 pages excluding title page and reference pages. In some cases, students may need to exceed this page number.
6.    APA (2010) format is required with both a title page and reference page. Use the required components of the review as Level 1 headers (upper and lower case, centered):
1.    Introduction to the APN professional development plan- Discuss the goals and purpose of an APN professional development plan
2.    APN Scope of Practice – This pertains to NP practice in your state.
3.    Personal Assessment using Benner’s Self-Assessment Tool
4.    Networking and Marketing Strategies
5.    Conclusion
6.    CV / resume
7.    References
Preparing the paper
The following are best practices for preparing this paper:
1.    Review Chapter 30- Role Transition: Strategies for Success in the Marketplace in DeNisco and Barker (2015).
2.    Nurse practitioners need to take into account the state rules and regulations that guide advanced practice. Research and review the Nurse Practice Act and APN scope of practice guidelines in your particular state. Identify information regarding educational requirements, licensure and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details. Review information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority (This is similar to what you created in your week 1 Kaltura presentation). .
3.    Review Guidelines for APN Role Transition Using Benner’s Self-Assessment Tool (Links to an external site.). Identify and discuss your position on Benner’s Novice to Expert ladder. Prior to engaging in pursuit for employment, APNs should complete a comprehensive, honest, personal assessment to identify their strengths and weaknesses as well as their goals and objectives. Research assessment tools, conduct a personal assessment and reflect upon your strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
4.    To complete the transition from students to expert nurse practitioners working in the healthcare field, graduating APN students will need to secure their first position. Research local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identify networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for your selections. Be specific.
5.    Write your Curriculum Vitae (CV) or current resume. Refer to the template on pages 772-773 in DeNisco and Barker (2015). Your CV / resume should not exceed 2 pages in length but will, vary for each student. If you have not done some of the components of the CV/resume, i.e. research, publications, presentations, then do not include them.
6.    When concluding the paper, summarize important aspects of the APN professional development plan.
This assignment will follow the late assignment policy specified in the course syllabus.
Rubric
NR510 APN Professional Development Plan Grading Rubric
NR510 APN Professional Development Plan Grading Rubric
Criteria
Ratings
Pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeIntroduction to the APN professional development plan
20.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent introduction of APN professional development plan. Rationale is well presented and purpose fully developed.
18.0 pts
Exceeds- Good introduction of APN professional development plan. Rationale is presented and purpose provided.
16.0 pts
Meets- Basic information and/or limited elements addressed regarding APN professional development plan and/or inappropriate emphasis on an area.
8.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Little or very general introduction of APN professional development plan. Little to no original explanation; inappropriate emphasis on an area.
0.0 pts
Developing- No introduction of APN professional development plan provided.
20.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeAPN Scope of Practice
35.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
31.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
28.0 pts
Meets- Provided non-state specific information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
13.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Lacking detailed information regarding education, licensure, regulatory requirements, or practice environment. Missing information regarding practice limitations and/or prescriptive authority.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Not provide information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
35.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomePersonal Assessment
30.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information following a personal assessment and reflected upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
26.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some detailed information following a personal assessment and reflected upon some of the strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
24.0 pts
Meets- Provided some detailed information following a personal assessment. Missed providing reflection upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
11.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided information following a personal assessment, but did not reflect upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide a personal assessment and did not reflect upon personal strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
30.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeNetworking and Marketing Strategies
30.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
26.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
24.0 pts
Meets- Provided information but lacked specific details regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
11.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided information regarding professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities, but missed providing information regarding networking and marketing strategies and/or a rationale for their selections.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Did not identify networking and marketing strategies or provide a rationale.
30.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeCurriculum Vitae
40.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information which included demographics, education, professional employment, licensure and certification, professional honors, research, scholarship, and service. Free from typographical errors.
35.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided detailed information. Missing 1-2 key elements. Free from typographical errors.
32.0 pts
Meets- Provided moderately detailed information. Missing 3 key elements. Free from typographical errors.
15.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided minimal detail. Missing 4 or more key elements. Contains 1-2 typographical errors.
0.0 pts
Developing- Information provided was inaccurate and vague. Contains 3 or more typographical errors. Did not provide curriculum vitae.
40.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeConclusion
25.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent summary of APN professional development plan. Conclusions are well evidenced and fully developed.
22.0 pts
Exceeds- Good summary of APN professional development plan. Conclusions are supported by evidence and developed.
20.0 pts
Meets- Basic and/or limited summary regarding APN professional development plan.
10.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Little or no summary of APN professional development plan; inappropriate emphasis on an area.
0.0 pts
Developing- No summary of APN professional development plan and/or conclusions were provided.
25.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeClarity of Writing
25.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent use of standard English showing original thought. No spelling or grammar errors. Well organized with proper flow of meaning.
22.0 pts
Exceeds- Good use of standard English showing original thought. No more than two spelling or grammar errors. Well organized with proper flow of meaning.
20.0 pts
Meets- Some evidence of own expression and competent use of language. No more than three spelling or grammar errors. Well organized thoughts and concepts.
10.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Language needs development. Four or more spelling and/or grammar errors. Poorly organized thoughts and concepts.
0.0 pts
Developing- More than six spelling and/or grammar errors. Poorly organized thoughts and concepts.
25.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeAPA Format
20.0 pts
Exceptional- APA format, grammar, spelling, and/or punctuation are accurate, or with zero to one errors.
18.0 pts
Exceeds- Two to four errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
16.0 pts
Meets- Five to seven errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
8.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Eight to nine errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
0.0 pts
Developing- Post contains greater than ten errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and/or punctuation or repeatedly makes the same errors after faculty feedback.
20.0 pts
Total Points: 225.0
Question 15: Health Care

Jarvis: Physical Examination & Health Assessment, 6th Edition

Chapter 01: Evidence-Based Assessment

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.         After completing an initial assessment on a patient, the nurse has charted that his respirations are eupneic and his pulse is 58. This type of data would be:
A)
objective.
B)
reflective.
C)
subjective.
D)
introspective.

2.         A patient tells the nurse that he is very nervous, that he is nauseated, and that he “feels hot.” This type of data would be:
A)
objective.
B)
reflective.
C)
subjective.
D)
introspective.

3.         The patient’s record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data combine to form the:
A)
data base.
B)
admitting data.
C)
financial statement.
D)
discharge summary.

4.         When listening to a patient’s breath sounds, the nurse is unsure about a sound that is heard. The nurse’s next action should be to:
A)
notify the patient’s physician immediately.
B)
document the sound exactly as it was heard.
C)
validate the data by asking a coworker to listen to the breath sounds.
D)
assess again in 20 minutes to note whether the sound is still present.

5.         The nurse is conducting a class for new graduate nurses. During the teaching session, the nurse should keep in mind that novice nurses, without a background of skills and experience to draw from, are more likely to make their decisions using:
A)
intuition.
B)
a set of rules.
C)
articles in journals.
D)
advice from supervisors.

6.         Expert nurses learn to attend to a pattern of assessment data and to act without consciously labeling it. This is referred to as:
A)
intuition.
B)
the nursing process.
C)
clinical knowledge.
D)
diagnostic reasoning.

7.         The nurse is reviewing information about evidence-based practice (EBP). Which statement best reflects evidence-based practice?
A)
EBP relies on tradition for support of best practices.
B)
EBP is simply the use of best practice techniques for treatment of patients.
C)
EBP emphasizes the use of best evidence with the clinician’s experience.
D)
The patient’s own preferences are not important with EBP.

8.         The nurse is conducting a class on priority setting for a group of new graduate nurses. Which is an example of a first-level priority problem?
A)
A patient with postoperative pain
B)
A newly diagnosed diabetic who needs diabetic teaching
C)
An individual with a small laceration on the sole of the foot
D)
An individual with shortness of breath and respiratory distress

9.         When considering priority setting of problems, the nurse keeps in mind that second-level priority problems include which of these aspects?
A)
Low self-esteem
B)
Lack of knowledge
C)
Abnormal laboratory values
D)
Severely abnormal vital signs

10.       Which critical thinking skill helps the nurse to see relationships among the data?
A)
Validation
B)
Clustering related cues
C)
Identifying gaps in data
D)
Distinguishing relevant from irrelevant

11.
The nurse knows that developing appropriate nursing interventions for a patient relies on the appropriateness of the _____ diagnosis.
A)
nursing
B)
medical
C)
admission
D)
collaborative

12.       The nursing process is a sequential method of problem solving that nurses use, and includes which steps?
A)
Assessment, treatment, planning, evaluation, discharge, follow-up
B)
Admission, assessment, diagnosis, treatment, discharge planning
C)
Admission, diagnosis, treatment, evaluation, discharge planning
D)
Assessment, diagnosis, outcome identification, planning, implementation,
evaluation

13.       A newly admitted patient is in acute pain, has not been sleeping well lately, and is having difficulty breathing. How should the nurse prioritize these problems?
A)
Breathing, pain, sleep
B)
Breathing, sleep, pain
C)
Sleep, breathing, pain
D)
Sleep, pain, breathing

14.       Which of these would be formulated by a nurse using diagnostic reasoning?
A)
Nursing diagnosis
B)
Medical diagnosis
C)
Diagnostic hypothesis
D)
Diagnostic assessment

15.       Barriers to incorporating evidence-based practice (EBP) include:
A)
nurses’ lack of research skills in evaluating quality of research studies.
B)
lack of significant research studies.
C)
insufficient clinical skills of nurses.
D)
inadequate physical assessment skills.

16.       What is the step of the nursing process that includes data collection by health history, physical examination, and interview?
A)
Planning
B)
Diagnosis
C)
Evaluation
D)
Assessment

17.       During a staff meeting, nurses discuss the problems with accessing research studies in order to incorporate evidence-based clinical decision making into their practice. Which suggestion by the nurse manager would best help this problem?
A)
Form a committee to conduct research studies.
B)
Post published research studies on the unit’s bulletin boards.
C)
Encourage the nurses to visit the library to review studies.
D)
Teach the nurses how to conduct electronic searches for research studies.

18.       When reviewing concepts of health, the nurse recalls that components of holistic health include which of these?
A)
Disease originates from the external environment.
B)
The individual human is a closed system.
C)
Nurses are responsible for a patient’s health state.
D)
Holistic health views the mind, body, and spirit as interdependent.

19.       The nurse recognizes that the concept of prevention in describing health is essential because:
A)
disease can be prevented by treating the external environment.
B)
the majority of deaths among Americans under age 65 years are not preventable.
C)
prevention places emphasis on the link between health and personal behavior.
D)
the means to prevention is through treatment provided by primary health care practitioners.

20.       The nurse is reviewing the components of the nursing process. Which statement about nursing diagnoses is true?
A)
They evaluate the etiology of disease.
B)
They are a process based on the medical diagnosis.
C)
They are clinical judgments about a person’s response to an actual or potential health state.
D)
They focus on the function and malfunction of a specific organ system in response to disease.

21.       The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a newly admitted patient. An example of objective information obtained during the physical assessment includes the:
A)
patient’s history of allergies.
B)
patient’s use of medications at home.
C)
last menstrual period 1 month ago.
D)
2 ´ 5 cm scar present on the right lower forearm.

22.       A visiting nurse is making an initial home visit for a patient who has many chronic medical problems. Which type of data base is most appropriate to collect in this setting?
A)
A follow-up data base to evaluate changes at appropriate intervals
B)
An episodic data base because of the continuing, complex medical problems of this patient
C)
A complete health data base because of the nurse’s primary responsibility for monitoring the patient’s health
D)
An emergency data base because of the need to rapidly collect information and make accurate diagnoses

23.       Which situation is most appropriate for the nurse to perform a focused or problem-centered history?
A)
A patient’s admission to a long-term care facility
B)
A patient has sudden, severe shortness of breath
C)
A patient’s admission to the hospital for surgery the following day
D)
A patient in an outpatient clinic has cold and flu-like symptoms

24.       A patient is at the clinic to have her blood pressure checked. She has been coming to the clinic weekly since she changed medications 2 months ago. The nurse should:
A)
collect a follow-up data base and then check her blood pressure.
B)
ask her to read her health record and indicate any changes since her last visit.
C)
check only her blood pressure because her complete health history was documented 2 months ago.
D)
obtain a complete health history before checking her blood pressure because much of her history information may have changed.

25.       A patient is brought by ambulance to the emergency department with multiple traumas received in an automobile accident. He is alert and cooperative, but his injuries are quite severe. How would the nurse proceed with the data collection?
A)
Collect history information first, then perform the physical examination and institute life-saving measures.
B)
Simultaneously ask history questions while performing the examination and initiating life-saving measures.
C)
Collect all information on the history form, including social support patterns, strengths, and coping patterns.
D)
Perform life-saving measures and not ask any history questions until he is transferred to the intensive care unit.

26.       A 42-year-old Asian patient is being seen at the clinic for an initial examination. The nurse knows that it is important to include cultural information in his health assessment to:
A)
identify the cause of his illness.
B)
make accurate disease diagnoses.
C)
provide cultural health rights for the individual.
D)
provide culturally sensitive and appropriate care.

27.       In the health promotion model, the focus of the health professional includes:
A)
changing the patient’s perceptions of disease.
B)
identifying biomedical model interventions.
C)
identifying negative health acts of the consumer.
D)
helping the consumer choose a healthier lifestyle.

28.       The nurse is classifying nursing diagnoses. Which of these would be considered a risk diagnosis?
A)
Identifying existing levels of wellness
B)
Evaluating previous problems and goals
C)
Identifying potential problems the individual may develop
D)
Focusing on strengths and reflecting an individual’s transition to higher levels of wellness

29.       The nurse has implemented several planned interventions to address the nursing diagnosis of acute pain. Which would be the next appropriate action?
A)
Establish priorities.
B)
Identify expected outcomes.
C)
Evaluate the individual’s condition and compare actual outcomes with expected outcomes.
D)
Interpret data and then identify clusters of cues and make inferences.

30.       Which statement best describes a proficient nurse? A proficient nurse is one who:
A)
has little experience with a specified population and uses rules to guide performance.
B)
has an intuitive grasp of a clinical situation and quickly identifies the accurate solution.
C)
sees actions in the context of daily plans for patients.
D)
understands a patient situation as a whole rather than a list of tasks and sees long-term goals for the patient.

MATCHING

Put the following patient situations in order according to level of priority.
A)
A patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus does not know how to check his own blood glucose levels with a glucometer.
B)
A teenager who was stung by a bee during a soccer match is having trouble breathing.
C)
An older adult with a urinary tract infection is also showing signs of confusion and agitation.

1.         A = first-level priority problem

2.         B = second-level priority problem

3.         C = third-level priority problem

MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT:  First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.

MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT:  First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.

MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT:  First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

1.         The nurse is reviewing data collected after an assessment. Of the data listed below, which would be considered related cues that would be clustered together during data analysis? Select all that apply.
A)
Inspiratory wheezes noted in left lower lobes
B)
Hypoactive bowel sounds
C)
Non productive cough
D)
Edema, +2, noted on left hand
E)
Patient reports dyspnea upon exertion
F)
Rate of respirations 16 breaths per minute

Question 16: Health Care

Liberty University HIEU 201 Lecture 1 Test
Liberty University HIEU 201 Lecture 1 Test

Question 17: Health Care

NURS 6551 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University
NURS 6551 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 18: Health Care

NURS 6551 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University
NURS 6551 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 19: Mathematics

six times a certain number plus the number is equal to 56

Question 20: Other

Use scholarly sources you need and refer to specific information from those sources. To demonstrate your use of these works, please cite them. Quotes should be used very sparingly. The answers should be paraphrased and should demonstrate your understanding of the material and concepts.
Each answer needs to be 300 words
What is the threat of transnational gangs to local communities? How should immigration laws be changed to be able to appropriately deal with members of transnational gangs once they are identified?
What relationship do you see between social, political, and economic conditions of an ethnic group to the success or decline of a gang from that ethnic group?
How do the responses of correctional staff to the gangs contrast or compare to those of law enforcement? Provide at least two resources supporting your answer.
Compare and contrast gangs from two ethnic groups in terms of membership, criminal activity, violence, and relationship to their own community.
Consider the trend of more females becoming involved in gang activity. How does this trend change the way law enforcement devises programs to suppress, intervene, and combat gangs?

Question 21: Business

For your research paper, be sure to include:
1.     Title page (not included in the 5-page limit)
2.     Introduction: a brief overview of topic selected, including why this topic is of importance to organizations (you may reuse the rationale in paper M3A1), but you need to edit the language to fit the introduction of your essay. Include a thesis statement/purpose for the paper.
3.     Body of research paper: Develop the outline that you designed in M5A1. Make sure to use in-text citations in APA style.
4.     Conclusion: Write a brief summary of your findings and a call to action. A call to action for at least one action or step you want the President to take after reading your research paper (you may use the items identify in the application for professional practice).
5.     References: Insert a page with the references used for your paper, in APA style.

Motivating Employees

Name of student:

Student ID:

Introduction
For an organization, it is very important to make sure that the employees are motivated. This helps the organizations in many ways that lead to increase in their productivity and performance in the market. However, motivating employees is not an easy task. There are many challenges that the managers face due to the individual nature of each of the employees. In the present day business context, managers have to identify the individual factors that motivate each of the employees and use that knowledge for helping them increase their productivity in the company (Manzoor, 2012).
Thesis Statement
The paper aims to define the major factors that contribute to employee motivation and how can employee motivation be promoted in an organization along with its major benefits.
Issues addressed in the Paper
The paper aims to understand the area of employee motivation to understand its contribution for the company. In order to understand that, the following areas will be addressed in the paper:
What is the effect of employee motivation on the organization: For an organization, it is important to make sure that their employees are motivated. It is because when employees are motivated, it is possible for them to improve their performance at work (Ali & Ahmed, 2009).
What are the advantages of employee motivation for the organization: There are a number of other advantages of motivating the employees. Besides improving their individual performance, when employees are motivated properly, they engage better with their peers, making way for mutual dependence and healthy competition. This helps in the improvement of the organizational culture and ultimately contributes to improving the productivity of the company (Dar et al., 2014).
What are the factors that contribute to employee motivation: The biggest challenge for the employers is to understand the factors that motivate their employees. While some employees are motivated in a positive manner through appreciation and reward, some need to be motivated through negative factors like the fear of punishment and elimination (Tohidi, 2011).
What are the benefits of having motivated employees for the organization: Understanding the various factors that can motivate the employees can help employers in making sure that the goals of the organization are achieved while also promoting personal and professional growth of the employees (Manzoor, 2012).
Application to Professional Practice
The area of employee motivation is as challenging as it is important for an organization. When the employees in a company are motivated, this is beneficial for the entire organization. This is the reason why the research in employee motivation holds so much importance for an organization. It has been observed over time that as the needs of an organization change, the employees are likely to feel less motivated with time, this shows that the motivation is not only a mental boost for the employees but the ways in which employees are motivated also helps them to understand the needs of the organization that they are working for. It allows them to develop startegic methods that can help them in improving their performance in the organization (Ali & Ahmed, 2009).
Due to its many benefits, employee motivation is as essential for the company and the president as it is for the employees. For a president, it is easier to explain the needs of the organizations to motivated employees. Besides, they can also expect their employees to contribute positively to the purpose of the organization if they are motivated. Without motivation, the employee will not be able to take up his part of the job in the company in a proper manner. The result of this is that it will affect the performance of the company along with the results that they expect. This will increase the problems of the president in the direction of achieving the goals of the company (Dar et al., 2014).
The president of a company can uses the information from the paper to motivate employees in three ways:
By rewarding them for their good performance with bonus or increments.
By encouraging them in case of poor performance.
By promoting them for good performance in the long run by giving incentives and other benefits.
For presidents, motivating the employees has three major benefits:
It improves the performance of the employee.
It helps in reducing employee turnover.
It helps in boosting the performance of the company.
References
Ali, R., & Ahmed, M. S. (2009). The impact of reward and recognition programs on employee’s motivation and satisfaction: an empirical study. International review of business research papers, 5(4), 270-279.
Dar, A. T., Bashir, M., Ghazanfar, F., & Abrar, M. (2014). Mediating role of employee motivation in relationship to post-selection HRM practices and organizational performance. International Review of Management and Marketing, 4(3), 224-238.
Manzoor, Q. A. (2012). Impact of employees motivation on organizational effectiveness. Business management and strategy, 3(1), 1-12.
Tohidi, H. (2011). Teamwork productivity & effectiveness in an organization base on rewards, leadership, training, goals, wage, size, motivation, measurement and information technology. Procedia Computer Science, 3, 1137-1146.

Question 22: Engineering

An inverter is connected to the utility network by a transformer. The connection
transformer can be modelled by a per-phase series inductance of 0.8 mH and
resistance of 0.4 Ω.
i. Derive the control transfer function for the d and q axis loops, showing your
fully working.
ii. If a q-loop control with gains of 𝑘𝑘𝑝𝑝 = 14 and 𝑘𝑘𝑖𝑖 = 900 are used. What is the
control loop bandwidth and damping for this loop?

Question 23: Engineering

What are the types of soil dams?

Question 24: Computer Science

Instruction
I’m looking for someone to help me write 25 to 30 pages for my thesis in computer science I uploaded a Doc with the sections that you have to write about it so you have clue about how I want my thesis will be

Assessing the Security Health of Public WiFi Environments Using Mobile Devices
I. Abstract
IV. Contents
V. List of Figures
VI. List of Tables 1. Introduction
1.1 Overview
1.2 Introduction 1.3 Mobile Threats
1.3.1 Classification of mobile threat
1.3.2 Most Targeted Mobile Platform in 2014 1.4 Honeypot Approach
1.4.1 Advantages & Benefits of Honeypot
1.4.2 Honeypot types based on interaction levels 1.4.3 Honeypot classifications
1.4.4 Honeypot requirements
1.5 Problem statement
1.6 Research Challenges
1.7 Objectives and desirable outcomes 1.8 Project Outline
2. Literature Review
2.1 Introduction
2.2 New Types of Honeypots
2.3 Honeypot Data Consumption 2.4 Configurations of Honeypots 2.5 Smartphone Honeypots
3. Design and Implementation
3.1 Introduction (Linux-based application ” HosTaGe”) 3.2 Implementation (HosTaGe Honeypot works)
3.2.1 Implementation Steps
3.2.1.1 Remote Procedure Call Attack (RPC)
3.2.1.1.1 Remote Procedure Call Attack Result 3.2.1.2 Scanning Attack using nmap
3.2.1.2.1 Scanning Attack Result 3.2.1.3 Metasploit Attack
3.2.1.3.1 Metasploit Attack Result 3.2.1.4 Nessuss Attack
3.2.1.4.1 Nessus Attack Result 3.3 Performing Attacks in Khalifa campus wireless
4. Data Collection
4.1 Introduction
4.2 Transferring Data from HosTaGe Database 5. Analysis
5.1 Introduction
5.2 Data Analytic and Intelligence
5.2.1 Add Data to Splunk 5.2.2 Search in Splunk
6. Conclusion
6.1 Summary
6.2 Future work 7. References
5.2.2.1 Summarized Analysis

Question 25: Business

Instruction
Write out the question prior to answering it Answer in your own words – As a rule of thumb, no more than 10% of your response to review questions should be quoted. Have at least one intext citation per question, such as [Moseley, 47], unless it is entirely an opinion question Use quotes if you copy three or more words and include an intext citation Use a minimum of three resources – the textbook, one item from “lecture” – the videos I provide each module, and one outside source that you have researched Provide a Works Cited or Reference Section in MLA Style at the end of the paper. Watch the following YouTube Videos. Information from at least one of these sources must be referenced in answering your Review Questions. Please be sure to use intext citations and reference them. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TVBPhCJh-dw https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2rnYxbIcf44

1.Why do people form organizations and why is management needed? 2.Identify the five functions every manager must perform and briefly explain each. 3.What are the three levels of management found in large organizations? Describe each, giving its responsibilities. 4.How are most supervisory positions filled? Explain why this is so. 5.Identify each of the trends challenging today’s supervisors and explain how each impacts supervisors. 6.What are the three basic steps in planning? Why do supervisors tend to slight the planning function? 7.How does planning differ among top, intermediate, and supervisory management levels? 8.What are some guidelines for setting performance objectives? 9.What is the difference between a policy, a rule, and a procedure? 10.Distinguish between objectives and strategies.

Question 26: Health Care

Instruction
Adopting a personal code of conduct can guide leaders and managers to make and prioritize decisions. You have been selected to serve in a critical leadership position in your organization. In 2-4 pages not including title page and reference page, write a personal code of conduct (sometimes called a personal code of ethics) that you would pass along to your staff. Explain how you would communicate your personal code of conduct across the organization. Note: Use APA style to cite at least 2 scholarly sources from the last 5 years.

Question 27: Physics

Clearly show me your system sketch and related energy flows for all problems.

1.[5/100 pts] In a particular application the heating load is 1750 kW, the cooling load is 1500 kw and the power load is 2500 kW. The installed capacity of the power generation, Winstalled, is 2700 kW. Calculate the HLRP, CHR and % air flow for this case.

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2.[5/100 pts] The Energy Utilization Factor, EUF, for a tri-generation system is 0.98. Calculated the required fuel input when the thermal load is 100 kW and the power load is 1000 kW. The high heat value is 55.4 MJ/Kg.

3.[5/100] The HLRP, %Air Flow and CHR values for a given application are 1.0, 100% and 1.0. Determine the Energy Utilization factor and the rate of carbon dioxide production per total energy load for this condition.

4.1 [10/100 pts] Determine the electrical energy supplied to a tank heater when the temperature of the water is heated from 20 C to 89 C. The pressured tank holds 1500 Kg of liquid water at a constant pressure of 3 bars and the specific heat is c = 4,370 J/(Kg K). There is no heat loss from the tank.

4.2[10/100 pts] Calculate the entropy production in Problem 4.1.

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4.3[10/100 pts] Calculate the exergy destruction (J) in Problem 4.1. The dead state temperature is 293.2 K and pressure is 1 bar.

4.4 [10/100] Calculate the mass of fuel (natural gas) required to heat the water mass to the conditions of problem 4.1. The high heating value (HHV) of the fuel is 50.02 MJ/kg and the efficiency of the burner unit can be taken as 100%.

4.5[10/100] Calculate the exergy destroyed in the process described by problem 4.4. The exergy of the fuel entering this process is 51.82 MJ/Kg. The dead state temperature is 293.2 K and pressure is 1 bar. The products of combustion leave this process at the dead state.

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4.6[15/100] The utility providing the electricity to the heater in problem 4.1 uses the same fuel as that used in problem 4.4 and has an efficiency of 0.35. The cost of the water tank is the same in each process, but the cost of the electric heater is $3000 and has a lifetime of 15 years. The cost of the fuel based heating system is $5000 and has a lifetime of 20 years. The fuel cost is $0.10/kg and the cost of electricity is $0.20/kWh. Which process would you recommend in terms of fuel consumption, exergy production and cost? Note the total amount of fuel consumed is directly related to the carbon dioxide emission from each process. This is not a thermoeconomic problem.

5.1[10/100 pts] Water flows at a mass rate of 1.0 Kg/s from an elevation of 250 m through a water turbine. The turbine exit is located at zero m, elevation. The water enters the pipe at temperature 293 K a velocity of 0.1 m/s and a pressure of 1 bar. It leaves the turbine’s exit at a temperature, velocity and pressure of 293.2 K, 0.05 m/s 1 bar. The process is adiabatic. Determine the power output at steady state conditions from this turbine. The specific heat of water is 4,180 J/(Kg K) and its density is 1000 Kg/m3.

5.2[10/100 pts] Calculate the exergy destruction for water turbine. (Hint: include all exergy property terms into and out of the system). The dead state is T0 = 293 K and P0 = 1.0 bar.

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Question 28: Other

Instruction
A minimum of 25 page business plan, suggested 15-20 slide powerpoint/prezi and 1-2 page reflection paper that refers to the project. The business plan is outlined with what areas or questions need to be answered. The project must be plagiarism free and done at a quality that I would receive an A.

BADM690 Strategic Management Project Guidelines
Table of Contents
Required Submissions…………………………………………………………………………………………………2 Tips for Writing the Plan……………………………………………………………………………………………..3 Project Format……………………………………………………………………………………………………………4 Expectations ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………5 Suggested Section Topics ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 7 Full Outline………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..8
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Required Submissions:
This project allows you to apply concepts learned in this class and your other graduate business courses. Make sure your report has been specifically prepared ONLY for this class. You must include a statement on your project cover page that the paper has NOT been submitted for credit in a previous class and will not be submitted for credit in any future class, either in whole or in part.
You may work either with a team (max 3 students) or independently on this project. You should identify a “real life” company that you can have enough access to in-depth financial and operational information to fully analyze the company’s strategic management situation. It would be best if you (or a group member) work in the company you want to analyze. This will facilitate the flow of information. This project has the following assignments or requirements:

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(1)  A PROJECT PROPOSAL from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page proposal that describes the company you are using for the project and the plan you have for completion. Document how you plan to get relevant company information. Ideally, you will analyze the entire company and then focus on specific projects and initiatives. You should include a proposed timeline for completion. If you are working with a group, explain how you plan to work with group members (who, when, where, etc.). The proposal should be completed individually so that I can confirm that all students have a project that will work for this assignment. You will need to submit the proposal in the “Project Proposal” assignment dropbox available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade).
(2)  A PROJECT UPDATE from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page paper that describes your progress. Explain what problems you have run into and how you plan to overcome those. Specifically list which sections you have completed and what is still remaining. Include an updated completion timeline from your proposal. If you are working with a group, explain how your group members are collaborating (who, when, where, etc.). You will need to submit the update in the “Project Update” assignment drop box available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade)
(3)  A FINAL REPORT that includes all of the detailed data, sources of information and an in depth analysis as well as a more exhaustive discussion of all of the points contained in the outline provided below. You will need to submit the final report in the Turnitin link called “Final Report”, which is available under the Project tab. (15%-group/individual grade)
(4)  A POWERPOINT/PREZI describing the Final Report that is a professional presentation. The presentation should summarize the findings and recommendations. The submission must be placed in the drop-box called “Powerpoint” which is available under the Project tab. (4%-group/individual grade)
(5)  A COURSE REFLECTION PAPER that describes your experiences and learning in this course. You should describe the strengths and weaknesses in your capstone project. What did you feel that you did really well? What areas could you have improved on? If you worked in a group, specifically discuss the positive and/or negative contributions made by each individual. Also, please explain what new knowledge, skills, and/or abilities you have learned from the project and the case studies. Which case study did you enjoy most/least and why? In addition, please describe how the text material you
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studied this this course relates to: (a) your project, (b) the case studies, and (c) your current/past/future workplace. Use specific examples/concepts from the chapters. Also, include your opinions on different aspects of the course. What was most helpful to you? What was least helpful? How could you have improved your course experience and how could I have improved your semester? Finally, please include a section describing what comes next for you. What will your life look like post-MBA? Will you look for a new job, get a promotion, get married, move, go back for another degree (i.e. DBA, JD, PhD), and/or just enjoy more free time? The reflection paper should be approximately 5 pages and should be submitted in the drop-box called “Course Reflection” which is available under the Project tab. (10%-individual submission and grade).
Your first step is to decide whether you want to work independently or in a group. If you want to work alone, you will need to sign-up in the ‘Solo Sign-up List’. To sign-up, select any available Solo#. You must sign-up in a Solo# so that the assignments will be available for you, and you will be able to access your grades.
If you would like to work in a group, you need to first find or contact other students willing to work with you. To do so, you need to post your information on the discussion board link ‘Looking for Project Partners’. Once you have contacted other students, and agreed to work together, SIGN-UP in any available Group# in the Group Sign-up List. Please, select a Group Number that is available and make sure to sign-up on the correct Group# (The Group# with your chosen team members)! Please, make sure that all members register in the same Group #, so look for your partners before signing up. Also, do not sign-up in a group without permission or agreement that you will work with the group. You must contact the members first.
The maximum number of members in each group should be 3. Keep in mind that the higher the number of members, the higher the expectations from the report.
Your next step will be to decide the company to analyze and begin your project proposal.
Tips for Writing this Plan:
All of the writing involved in the assignment should include the use of proper citations (APA) for sources quoted or used. This applies to both the powerpoint presentation as well as the accompanying complete report.
Grammar, spelling, and formatting are important. Just because the document has passed spell check doesn’t mean the word is correctly used in context or spelled correctly in context. Please use a traditional 12 pt. font.
Your powerpoint presentation is to be done from the vantage point of an executive presentation to senior management including the CEO, COO, CFO, etc.
Clearly identify the readers of this document. Then write the plan in a style that is easily understood by readers.
Remember that this plan is a working document that has the clear purpose of initiating focussed action and generating clear and measurable results. Avoid the excessive use of
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descriptive adjectives to ‘pad’ or over-sell the plan. Flowery, highly descriptive language can cloud key issues, blur the plan’s focus and slow/confuse its implementation
Keep the plan ‘tight’; ensure it remains concise, balanced, clear and logical. Where possible use quantitative rather than qualitative information. Remember the KISSS approach to planning; keep it simple, short and specific. Interlink all Sections, with the Market Analysis (SWOT) providing a clear focus for all subsequent sections.
Focus on facts and information from credible and reputable sources. Where possible avoid critical dependencies on one source of information. Build redundancy into information sources. Make sure to validate all key information used in the plan.
Always remember that faulty assumptions and faulty logic are some of the greatest hazards to business performance and business planning. Also remember that a good plan implemented today will always beat an excellent plan implemented sometime in the future. So, get the plan completed and into action as soon as is practicable. Also, plans must be adaptive to changing circumstances. If the plan is not performing be prepared to complete ‘major surgery’ on it.
If any information is overly repetitive between sections, skip it and note that that information has been covered and where to find it.
If any section doesn’t apply to your industry/company, skip it and note that it is irrelevant.
Project Format:
The format of the final report must be digitally submitted using a 12 pt. font in word (.DOC) document format. You must use the outline provided. The main document should include a minimum of 25 and a maximum of 40 double-spaced pages (if you go above this number, make sure that the information provided is necessary). Appendices may be located at the end the report, and are not included in your maximum page count. Your references may also appear at the end of the report, before the appendix. Organize the final report under section headings and subheadings as needed. Finally, as in most business writing, the paper should adequately convey and document what you want to say, but otherwise be no longer than necessary.
The final written report will be graded primarily on its content, however, format and presentation is important too. Grading will also consider the report’s organization (sequence of ideas), balance (evidence of comparable degree of analysis in sections of comparable importance), style (English usage, grammar and punctuation), and its implementation schedule.
If you are interested in modifying the plan, please ask. I am flexible and I want you to
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get as much out of your time in my class as possible.
Citations and References
You MUST use APA style. Please, look on the Internet or purchase the APA guides. In addition, Microsoft Word Software comes with these Citations styles functions embedded in the system. Please, do not use Chicago or Turabian styles.
It is very important that you use the proper in-text citations and reference style. Footnotes
Footnotes in the text must be numbered and typed at the bottom of the page where the footnote is made or on a separate page following the text (i.e., endnote). A footnote or endnote should be used to clarify the text, define terms, make comments, or to list additional sources. Footnotes provide additional information that would detract from the subject being discussed in the body of the text. Again, Microsoft Word software provides this function, which is easy to use!
Figures and Tables Captions
Search online for the APA and how to caption figures and tables. Then, look online for how to caption figures and tables using Microsoft. http://www.microsoft.com/education/AddCaption.aspx
Remember, if captioning Tables, the caption goes at the TOP of the Tables. However, if captioning figures or graph, the caption goes below the figures or graph and should include the source of the table (unless you have developed).
All Tables/Charts/Figures should have a descriptive title. Power Point
In addition to the written report each team/individual will prepare a POWERPOINT presentation. Assume this presentation will be displayed for a team of venture capitalists, entrepreneurs, and directors of the business you selected that may be in attendance to assist in the evaluation of your plan. It should be professional, but interesting. It should probably be between 15-25 slides, but that is not a requirement only a recommendation.
Expectations for the Capstone Project:
Your success in the business world will depend, to a large extent, on your ability to communicate. Courses during your first few years at the Business School provided the opportunity to hone your written and oral communication skills. This course will provide you with the opportunity to develop further both of these skills. You will be required to write a formal report, which might possibly be available for external judges at the end of the semester and try to convince them of the strength of your Project. The goal of this paper is to examine a company in depth to identify strategies that may have a positive impact on the firm. Remember that a strategic change is typically initiated in reaction to a triggering event and is rare, consequential, and directive.
Substance: You should substantiate what you are trying to convey with facts and data. In most cases, you will be asking the reader of your business report to commit substantial resources–financial, human, or physical–to a project. The decision-maker will not make
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the decision because you think is a good concept. Rather, you will need to convince the reader by providing hard facts and data with appropriate citations. Your rationale and reasoning should be explained logically and clearly. Effective business reports are not documents put together at the last minute—they take time to develop.
Style: The style of your business reports should be clear, concise, and to the point. The executive reading the report does not want to be entertained. He or she wants the information necessary to make a decision. Avoid flowery language with lots of adjectives and adverbs. I have high expectations. If you want to excel in the business world you should too.
Outline: You should follow the outline provided. However, most word processing software includes an outlining function. Use it. Begin your reports by developing an outline to organize your thoughts and the concepts you are trying to convey. The more comprehensive and detailed your outline, the easier it will be to write the report.
Proofread: Carefully proofread each draft of the report. You will probably need three or four drafts before you are satisfied with the report.
Exhibits/Tables/Appendices: I do not expect to receive exhibits or appendices with your handwriting on them. Instead, you should have typed exhibit numbers (let me know if you want some help). This includes copying exhibits from other sources. Unless you are using a photograph that cannot be reproduced in Word document, I expect you to make models, charts, spreadsheets on your own. This takes time but it is all part of being professional. Also, it is important to use captions for Figures or Graphs and Tables. If using Microsoft Word (or any word processor), you can select (highlight) the figure or table, then right click and select insert caption. This will insert automatically the caption (Figure 1 or Table 1) label and number. By doing this you will be able to use the captions as reference in the report. Finally, for Figures and Graphs the captions should be inserted below the graphs. For Tables, the captions should be inserted above the table. Check these in any of your textbooks, look how tables and graphs are reported.
Due dates: Reports are due on the dates assigned and there is no time in the schedule for the report to be turned in late because grades are due to the registrar just after the project due date.
Grading: Reports will be graded as if I were an executive trying to make a business decision based upon the written report. Grading will be competitive. That is, your reports will be graded relative to those turned in by your classmates. Proper spelling, syntax, grammar, punctuation, bibliography, citations, footnotes, and professional appearance are expected. Your grade may be lowered as much as two full letter grades if these areas are lacking.
Reviewing papers: I am willing to discuss the logical reasoning and proposed content of your reports. Before visiting my office, emailing or calling me, you should have made significant progress and should be well prepared.
Plagiarism: Don’t do it. Students are expected to adhere to the University policies regarding academic honesty as stated in the student handbook. Cheating or plagiarism will not be tolerated. Plagiarism includes taking exhibits or ideas from books or websites without giving credit to appropriate sources in addition to direct copy/paste instances. I am very strict about this and I will not hesitate to report academic dishonesty to the university. The work you submit MUST be your own thoughts and written in your own words. Written
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assignments will be run through TURNITIN.
If your submission is above that limit you may be asked to redo the assignment or depending on the severity of the infraction, you
may even receive an automatic 0 on the assignment (and therefore fail the course). In addition, you may also receive an academic dishonesty warning/report.
Suggested Section Topics:
The following is a simple, but effective planning format that will fit many of the sections in this plan. The format is not rigid and should be adapted to the requirements of individual sections as applicable. The four sub-sections that comprise the suggested format are as follows:
Current Situation
Clearly and concisely present the current situation with any contributing history, and any trends, cycles, changes or future developments that are relevant
Key Issues
Clearly define the most urgent and important issues as they relate to the current situation for this Section, and the overall purpose of this plan and the company’s Mission. Key issues are usually those strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats, capability gaps and impediments that impact on business performance
Strategies to Address the Key Issues
Formulate strategies using the SMAAART acronym to address the key issues. SMAAART (Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Achievable, Affordable, Relevant and Time-bound)
Key Performance Measures and Targets
Establish key performance measures/indicators, performance targets and time lines in conjunction with the strategies to assess and improve performance
For your capstone project there is no reason
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for the TURNITIN match to be any higher than 20%.
Final Report Outline:
Here is a detailed outline of what you should include in your report. You should use the headings and subheadings, but your paper should be in paragraph form. If any of the headings/subheadings do not apply to your project, just type does not apply or disregard the section.
Thus, at a minimum you must develop a strategic plan for the study entity that adequately covers:
i)  Title Page:
Strategic Business Plan for “Company Name”
Period of the Study (i.e. January 2018 to December 2019)
Team Members
Originality Statement
ii)  Summary:
The Summary is the last section written, but is placed in the front of the paper. It should be restricted to two to three pages in length. In essence the summary is a very effective distillation of the overall strategic plan into a ‘hard hitting’ summary of key performance initiatives and performance targets. Typically it would include a brief description of the company and then the following information about the proposed strategic plan:
Purpose:
The Business Opportunity
The Product
Main Findings:
The Market Strategy
The Management Team
Profit and Cash Projections
Investment Needs
Returns to Investors
Conclusions and Recommendations
iii)  Table of Contents
iv)  Body of the report:
1) Strategic Focus
The Aim of this Plan: What do we wish to achieve with this plan (start, grow,
consolidate, downsize, or exit)?
Our Mission: A Mission Statement clearly defines the primary purpose or
reasons for our existence. It is heavily focused on customer value. It is also vital to achieving organizational alignment. A mission statement typically provides clear and concise answers to the following questions:
Remember, I am flexible and I want this project to be as relevant to
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your situation as possible.
What products and services do we deliver?
Where and when do we deliver our products and services?
Which customer groups are our primary groups?
Where are our primary customers
What tangible value do our products and services deliver to customers?
What is our competitive advantage?
What additional community and environmental benefits do we generate?
Answers to the above questions provide a start-point for preparing a statement that clearly positions the company in the minds of key stakeholders and customers
Core Organizational Competencies: Which core organizational skills and competencies are vital to achieving our mission
Organizational Values: What core organisational values must be imbedded in our organisation to establish a culture capable of achieving our Mission?
Highest Priority Goals: List up to six of your highest priority goals in order of priority. These goals are formulated at Section 17. Section 17 shows how to use the SMAAART acronym to write clear, concise action-oriented goal statements. SMAAART Goals – are Specific, Measurable, Action-oriented, Achievable, Affordable, Time-bound. An example of a SMAAART Goal: By 30 June 2002 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.

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In essence strategic goals progressively take the company to its next level of performance and keep it there.
Goal One
Goal Two
Goal Three
Goal Four
Goal Five
Goal Six
Performance Objectives: The performance objectives below, in combination, form a performance scorecard for easily tracking the performance improvements generated by this plan. Section 17 provides the inputs for this scorecard. The planning team determines the composition of the performance scorecard.
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Performance Area Performance Measures Target Time Frame
Financial Performance
Customer and Market Performance
Internal Efficiency and Effectiveness
Long Term Development and Innovation
2) The Business:
Provide a concise overview of the business. Areas for consideration when preparing this section to include:
Owners/Directors/Shareholders/Shareholdings
A brief history of the business
Corporate and business cultures
Nature of the business and it main activities
Location
Current stage in its life cycle
Past performance and key achievements
Key business advisors – Solicitor, Banker, Accountant, and Consultants
Relationships with key stakeholders
Competitive strengths and weaknesses
3) Market Analysis
Conduct a detailed analysis across each of the following areas to identify and quantify key market opportunities/gaps, barriers to market entry, threats, compliance requirements, risks, performance multipliers, critical success factors, etc. that must be considered when developing high priority product development, marketing and business strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Global/National Trends, Developments, Cycles and Changes of Relevance
Macro-environment (i.e. political, economic, legal, social/cultural,
demographics, technology)
Industry
Markets, Customers and Suppliers
Competitors and their Products
Questions typically asked during the analysis would include:
What are the industry’s economics, critical success factors, key risks,
competitiveness, compliance and standards requirements, emerging trends
and key technologies?
Who are the key customers and major competitors in each target markets?
What are the sizes of the target markets? Are they growing? If yes, at what
rate?
What market share does each major competitor hold in your primary markets
What are the strengths and weaknesses of major competitors and their
products?
What are the competitive price points for products in each market?
What competitive advantages must your products have to successfully enter
and compete in target markets?
How will you differentiate your products and add more-customer-value than
competitors?
Key questions about your primary customers:
Specifically what need or problem does your product target?
Who will make the decision to purchase your products?
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What are their decision criteria?
Where are the products bought?
How are the products bought?
When are the products bought?
Why are the products bought?
How well do you know your primary customers and key competitors?
How strong are your relationships with key customers and key stakeholders?
How do you involve them in product development? What factors will be
critical to building strong and enduring brands with them?
What levels of demand for your products are realistic across your primary
markets?
In order of priority what are your primary markets? Why?
How will your primary competitors react when you enter their markets, now
and over the next two years?
What are you going to do about their responses?
What are the major barriers to market entry?
What are the critical success factors for each market?
What key product distribution, product support and customer service issues
must be considered?
Which companies and products are likely to become competitors in the
future?

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What new or emerging technologies and substitute products are likely to
become threats in the future?
4) Products
Based on the findings of Section Three identify your product’s key strengths and weaknesses as they relate to key market opportunities and threats. Then develop strategies to address each issue (eg, build on strengths and correct weaknesses) for each product in your product portfolio. When preparing this section consider the following framework for clustering key issues and related strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Describe your current and near-future products?
What gives your products a clear competitive advantage?
What are the benefits and value provided to customer as opposed to
‘features’?
What are the environmental and social impacts and implications?
What regulations, standards and codes must be complied with?
At what stage is each product in its life-cycle? For example:
Research completed
Prototype completed
In-house testing
Customer testing
Market ready
First up-grade completed
Also consider conducting the product analysis and planning for this section
across the following stages:
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Current Situation
Key Product and Market Issues
Key Strategies
Performance Measures and Targets
5) Marketing
Based on discussions at previous sections develop a concise set of highly focussed marketing strategies for your most attractive and highest priority markets. These strategies will guide your market entry, market development, and brand building activities. Establish budgets for these activities. Set realistic and measurable performance targets and time lines for each market entry/development strategy. These targets are critical to designing and building business and production capacities aligned with expected market demands on entry, and in to the future.
In essence marketing strategies in combination create the well differentiated, high value and compelling proposition to customers that persuades them to purchase from you rather then a competitor. These strategies should build on the competitive strengths of the company while exploiting the weaknesses of key competitors. A highly competitive, high-value proposition to customers is typically created around the following drivers of competitive advantage:
Product distribution eg, simple, speedy and easy customer-access to the product
Product benefits highly valued by the customer
Product promotion
Customer communication, interaction and feedback
Product support for the life of the product
Customer service
Product pricing and purchasing
Product presentation and packaging
Product compliance with all relevant legislation
6) Research and Development
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues (strength, weakness, gaps, threats and opportunities) and develop related strategies for addressing each key issues. Link the R&D effort to your market research, product development and marketing activities discussed in previous sections. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Areas to be analysed to include:
Sources of R&D
Current and planned
Strategic alliances for R&D
Intellectual Property Protection
Patents held plus the corporate entity that holds the patents
Shared intellectual property and its protection
Intellectual property being used, but not owned
Intellectual property protection currently being sort for new developments

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Current and planned R&D activities
Processes employed for the development and commercialisation of new
products and technologies
7) Production and Delivery
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in production capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the marketing requirements and targets, and R&D requirements developed in earlier sections. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively expand production capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints are factored in to this planning.
Key issues are typically identified following an evaluation of key production and delivery performance-drivers. Typical areas to be addressed during this evaluation include:
Plant design, location, size and site requirements
Access to key manufacturing technologies
Production capacity and capability requirements
Criteria for selecting contractors and suppliers
In-house versus out-sourcing of manufacturing requirements
The manufacturing and production standards, codes, regulations and
OH&S requirements that must be complied with
Equipment needs
Inventory management
Manufacturing processes – configurations and technologies
Product and production costings
Purchasing systems
Quality control systems
Manufacturing resources planning
Material requirements planning
Warehousing
Scheduling and dispatch
Material supplies and inventory
Critical/key inputs to all manufacturing and production processes
Risk management
Key staffing and skills requirements
Clear linkages to, and feedback loops with the company’s marketing,
product development, and R&D functions
Work systems and teams for staff
Designing, testing and improving all production and delivery systems
to meet market demands and expected growth
Key performance measures and targets for controlling and improving
all production and delivery systems to increase production efficiencies
and effectiveness.
Benchmarking and best-practice
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8) Supply Chains
Provide a background to current activities and list all key suppliers. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in supply chain capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the production and delivery requirements and targets developed at Section Seven. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively improve supply chain capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning. Supply chains assessments to include out-sourcing. For example any R&D that is out-sourced should be included in this assessment. Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
Current Situation
Key Supply Chain Issues
Key Strategies
Performance Measures and Targets
9) Business Systems and Processes
Based on the plans/strategies developed and performance targets established in sections One to Eight identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – within the business systems and processes that drive business performance. Then develop strategies to address these issues.
Performance reviews to improve internal business systems and processes typically include an assessment of the following performance areas:
Quality Management (eg, ISO 9001 – Quality Standard, AS 4269 – Complaints
Handling Standard)
Risk Management (eg, AS/NZS, Risk Management Standard)
Regulatory Compliance (Search for any Compliance Program Standard)
Information Management and Security (eg, Security Standard AS/NZS
ISO/IEC 17799:2000)
Financial management
Managing the environmental and social impacts of business operations
Performance improvement across the business, to include performance
indicators and targets
Future planning and ongoing innovation (eg, new product development &
process innovation)
Employee performance and morale
Stakeholder relationships
Board and management performance
10) Stakeholder Relationships and Alliances
Describe the current situation and list those key stakeholders that currently contribute to business performance. Identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – that relate to improving stakeholder relationships and alliances. Then develop strategies to address each key issue.
Stakeholder groups typically include shareholders/blockholders, customers,
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suppliers of good and services, employees, regulators, the environment, community, and government departments. Questions asked during the stakeholder analysis include:
Are all of our key stakeholders clearly identified?
Who will become key stakeholders in the near future?
Are their expectations and requirements clearly understood?
Are they regularly consulted?
Are they kept updated, and involved in those business decisions that will
affect them?
11) Organization and Management
Section Seven provides clear production and delivery projections and targets for the company. Current organisational structures and human resource capabilities will most likely require improvement to meet these increasing business demands.
Conduct an analysis of the current situation and growth projections for the company to identify the key organisational and human resource issues that must be addressed if these growth projections are to be realised. Then develop strategies with key performance measures and targets to address these key issues.
Areas to be addressed include:
Organizational Chart – show current structures and future structures
The Management team with brief resumes – show the situation now and in to
the future
Staffing requirements – now and in to the future
Job descriptions and work design for management and staff – now and in to
the future
Human performance standards, measurement and feedback – now and into
the future
Management and staff training and development – now and in to the future
Recruitment and induction – now and in to the future
Encouraging innovation across the company
Providing leadership and building morale
Training needs analysis – now and in to the future
Occupational health and safety
Industrial relations
Wages and on-costs
Other relevant human resource issues
12) Environmental and Social Impacts
Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
Current Situation
Key Environmental and Social Issues
Key Strategies
Performance Measures and Targets
15
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13) Risk Factors and Regulatory Compliance
Risk Management
Establish key risks to the overall business and its performance by identifying high priority risks within each performance area represented by the sections of this plan. Quantify these risks by assessing the gravity of their impacts on the business should they be realised, and determining the probability that they will be realised.
Following quantification of the risks establish an order of priority for their control. Then develop risk management strategies – with performance measures, targets and time lines – that address the highest priority risks.
Regulatory Compliance
Conduct an audit of regulatory compliance requirements across each area of the business as represented by the sections of this plan. Develop strategies to address regulatory gaps and weaknesses. Search for any Compliance Programs Standard that could provide a good framework for developing an effective compliance management system.
A regulatory compliance audit would typically embrace:
Corporate governance
Taxation
Superannuation
Employing staff
Health and safety
Trade Practices
Intellectual Property Rights
Environmental Issues
The Privacy Act
14) Corporate Governance
Areas to be addressed by this section typically would include:
Corporate Structures
Company Constitution
Board of Directors – Size and Composition
Duties and Responsibilities of the Board
Board Performance
Advisors to the Board
Shareholder Agreements
Major Shareholders and Their Representatives
15) Financials
Based on the strategies and plans formulated, costings calculated, and sales projected develop a set of financials for the duration of the plan. These financials should include cash flows, profit and loss, balance sheets, investment requirements, and key financial performance indicators (ratios), and related performance targets.
16) Application of Investment Funds
16
This section should be linked to all prior planning and at minimum address the following:
What will be the total investment requirement across the duration of this plan
– when and how much?
Which investors will be involved; how much will they provide and when will
they provide it?
How will the funds be used at each round of investment?
What will the capital structure and ownership be after each round of
investment?
17) Strategic Action Plan
Primary Goals, Objectives and Strategies
The Aim of this section is to integrate all strategies developed across previous sections into a cohesive and balanced plan of highly focussed action that will achieve the overarching purpose of this Strategic Plan.
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Firstly…..High-priority, clear, action-orientated, time-bound and practicably achievable goals are formulated around clusters of ‘like’ strategies developed across the previous sections. Goals mark a clear and well-marked pathway for achieving the aim of this plan. To ensure the plan has a sharp focus the number of key goals should be restricted to six or less whenever possible. A clear time frame and performance target should be integrated in to each goal statement. An example of a goal statement: By 30 June 2018 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.
After each goal has been clearly formulated develop a set of supporting objectives and strategies. Objectives define the best pathway for achieving each goal. Strategies define the pathway for achieving each objective. Objectives and strategies are also written using the SMAAART acronym – Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Affordable, Achievable, and Time-bound. The final step in developing an interacting hierarchy/network of focussed action is the Task plan. This plan allocates people and resources to completing those tasks required for achieving each strategy. Vital budget and resource considerations are integrated in to the overall planning process to ensure all planned actions are affordable.
The interacting hierarchy/network of action for achieving the aim of the plan is illustrated below. The hierarchy/network of focussed action is not a rigid structure and, where possible, should be adapted to the each situation to ensure it provides fast, effective and relatively simple action pathways for delivering results of significance.
Key Strategic Goal
Objectives to achieve the strategic goal
Strategies to achieve each objective
Task Plans to achieve each strategy
Plan Implementation: Typically management in consultation with staff and
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key stakeholders implements each Goal and its supporting objectives, strategies and action/task plans. Balanced teams can be effectively employed to implement strategies and supporting action/task plans.
18) Plan Improvement
Performance Measurement: The plan’s performance should be assessed
against its effectiveness in achieving its high priority goals and performance targets.
Plan Review and Up Date: To ensure the plan continues to provide a sharp focus and remain responsive to change it should be formally reviewed and updated every six months, at the achievement of a Strategic Goal and at any other time deemed necessary. Implementation of this plan is to be a fixed agenda item at meetings of the Board of Directors.
v) References vi) Appendices
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Question 29: Law

Only do this assessment if you failed or have a deferral for the SECOND coursework (Client Advice)

Assessment Details

Assessment Length: 2000 (Two Thousand) Words

Note: The assessment length does not include footnotes, bibliography or tables of cases and statutes.

It is compulsory to use footnotes, a bibliography and tables of cases and statutes.

Question

Imran was the owner of a freehold property known as Soar Farm, title to which was unregistered when he purchased it in 1988. The purchase did not trigger first registration at the Land Registry as the area that Soar Farm was located in did not become a compulsory registration area until December 1990.

In 2015, Imran granted his son, Saleem, an option to purchase Ratae Cottage. Although the cottage was part of Soar Farm, it was set against the far boundary away from the main entrance and consequently shared the driveway to the main house on the farm.

The option was for a period of ten years from 2015. The option agreement was in writing and signed by both parties. The document provided that the option could be exercised by the service of a notice by Saleem to Imran at any time.

Almost immediately after the option was given, Imran and Saleem quarrelled and, without Saleem’s knowledge, in early 2016, Imran sold Ratae Cottage to his brother, Khalid. The purchase price Khalid paid for Ratae Cottage was about half its market value. Khalid was fully aware of the option granted in favour of Saleem. In late 2016, Khalid transferred Ratae Cottage back to Imran.

In 2017, Imran’s farming business got into difficulties and his other brother, Malik (who was working in Dubai), agreed to lend him a sum of money to help him out. He lent him the money on condition that he could have a share of the farm if it was sold. Malik also said that he was considering whether to move back to the United Kingdom. Pending that decision, he wanted to send his son, Rastam, to school in the United Kingdom and asked Imran if he could house Rastam. Imran agreed to let him occupy Ratae Cottage while he went to the nearby academy.

In late 2018, despite the funds from Malik’s loan, Imran’s business continued to struggle. Malik agreed to advance him more money as a loan, provided he agreed that, when Malik and his family eventually returned from Dubai, they could occupy Ratae Cottage. Malik has instructed his solicitor to draft the documents for a sale to take place. Documents have now been produced and are being discussed by Imran and Malik’s respective solicitors.

As Imran is still having financial difficulties, he has now decided to sell the farm to a neighbouring farmer, Rashid. He explains to Rashid all that has happened in relation to the land.

Rashid now seeks your advice as to whether he will be bound by any right or interest Saleem or Malik may have and, if he is, if there is any way he could avoid these.

Advise Rashid.

Further Considerations

You may wish to consider some of the following issues in your discussion of this scenario:

Initial Registration
The possible creation of easements
The creation or otherwise of equitable interests
The different treatment of equitable interests in registered and unregistered land
Effectiveness/validity of land transfer

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Question 30: Philosophy

Instruction
: Explain the family relationships you detailed. Describe what you have learned that might be helpful when working with families. Identify any substance use addictive disorders discovered in various family members. NOTE: Please do not use the actual names of your family members in order to protect their confidentiality. Utilize Smart Art or the drawing tools in Microsoft Word to complete the Genogram. Support your content with scholarly research. Utilize the GCU Library to locate a minimum of three scholarly sources. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. Explain the family relationships you detailed. Describe what you have learned that might be helpful when working with families. Identify any substance use addictive disorders discovered in various family members. NOTE: Please do not use the actual names of your family members in order to protect their confidentiality. Utilize Smart Art or the drawing tools in Microsoft Word to complete the Genogram. Support your content with scholarly research. Utilize the GCU Library to locate a minimum of three scholarly sources. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

Create a simple genogram for your own family, tracing your roots back three generations. Include this genogram in an essay between 300-600 words that addresses the following. Note: (I am a Black Female, with 5 siblings and I am the middle child and grew up in the mid-west (Iowa no substance abuse, but, both parents did drink occasionally loving family.). Any questions or concerns please advise.

Question 31: Religious Studies

Instruction

APA Style 5 pages 5 references/sources

Islam in USA. History of Islam. Numbers of muslims and mosques. percentage of Sunni, Sofi, Shia, and Ahmadiyya. when did Islam arrived and how did it arrived (by who). Muslim characters in USA, famous mosques, the statues of muslims in the region, any news or events happened in the last month (related to Islam), etc..

Question 32: Business

Instruction
Marketing Management Majors: Develop a business plan for a start-up company that provides some type of marketing product or service (e.g., advertising campaigns, sales, online promotions). Select the type of products or services that the company will offer. The products can be real or potential. A. Write an executive summary (suggested length of 1–2 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Identify the company’s name and location. 2. Describe the mission of the company. 3. Discuss two business goals in support of the company’s mission. 4. Discuss three keys to success for the company. B. Write a company summary (suggested length of 4–6 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Describe the history of the industry in which the company will operate. Note: Cite data and examples from your organization to support your analysis. 2. Identify the legal form that the company will take. 3. Describe the location and type of facilities needed for the company. 4. Describe the management structure, including key positions and specific responsibilities. 5. Describe the products and services offered by the company. C. Develop a market analysis (suggested length of 3–5 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Describe the target market for the company’s products and services, including the specific location, demographics, etc. Note: Cite data and examples from your organization to support your analysis. 2. Complete an industry analysis for the company, including current trends and statistics. 3. Complete a four-square SWOT analysis for the company in which you do the following: a. Identify three strengths, three weaknesses, three opportunities, and three threats. b. Explain each of the identified strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. D. Develop a market strategy (suggested length of 3–6 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Discuss each of the four Ps of marketing as they relate to the company’s products and services. 2. Develop a price list for the company’s products and services. 3. Develop a promotional strategy including
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specific tasks, target dates, and responsible parties. 4. Develop a monthly sales forecast for the first year of operations, including a discussion of expected market conditions. Note: The sales forecast will be used as the basis for your revenue in your financial statements. E. Develop an implementation strategy in which you do the following: 1. Summarize the overall strategy that will be utilized to launch your business, including target dates and goals for implementation. 2. Develop a post-launch monitoring plan (e.g., financial impact, quality control, customer satisfaction, monitoring schedule) to evaluate the success of the company in meeting milestones. F. Calculate and develop the financial statements and projections for the first year of business by doing the following: 1. Develop a month-by-month forecasted profit and loss statement using an estimate of revenues and operating costs based on the sales forecast. 2. Develop a forecasted balance sheet for the end of year one. G. Write a financial report (suggested length of 1–2 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Summarize the financial projections and the assumptions used in estimating the financial statements. 2. Describe the company’s financial position at the end of the first year. 3. Describe the company’s initial and future estimated capital/investment needs. H. When you use sources, include all in-text citations and references in APA format.

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Question 3:        Psychology

 

1) Explain at least three lines of compelling evidence that indicate that sustained stress among humans and other mammals causes physical damage (and can cause premature death). Think telomeres, hippocampus, arteriosclerosis, etc. 2) How might maternal stress during pregnancy be linked to mental illness in offspring? 3) Explain the interactions between the nervous system, the immune system, and behavior, and describe psychoneuroimmunology’s relationship to all three. 4) Take the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (the pdf is attached. You don’t need to report your total score but describe your current status in light of the general guidelines provided on the last page of the pdf. Include reasons you feel your score may over or under predict your perceived emotional stress level (review material from Chapter 5 regarding key characteristics of potential stressors).

 

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Question 4:        Other

 

  1. Proposal for Term Project

Format: Outline 1-2 pages maximum (not including cover page)

In outline format, make sure to clearly explain your chosen research topic and your rationale for how it relates to course themes.

Students are encouraged to email their instructor in advance for support or guidance on their topics.

 

  1. Annotated Bibliography

Format: APA annotated bibliography format  5-7 pages (not including cover sheet)

Noting your topic in 2-3 sentences at the top of the first page, you will then present annotations for 5 scholarly/credible sources (e.g. not social media, magazines or books made for popular audiences, etc.) related to your chosen topic. Make sure to adequately yet briefly summarize the source, and assess its credibility/application to your topic.

 

  1. Final Research Paper

Format: Essay, 8-10 pages (not including cover or reference sheet), APA format

Building on the research from your annotated bibliography, and any research you have done since those submission, prepare in essay format an 8-10 page paper that provides the rationale for the topic chosen and its significance in terms of diversity/equity/resilience and practice, key findings from your research, and a conclusion that summarizes what you learned and its significance for your future community mental health practice.

 

  1. Presentation/discussion of Research Paper

Students will prepare a 5-10 minute presentation of the key findings of their major research paper. This is a formal presentation, however presentation slides are optional. Students should be prepared to take questions or engage in class discussion for the last few minutes of their presentation. A hard copy of presentation notes or slides is to be submitted to the instructor at the beginning of the presentation. Presentations will be on the final class of the semester; no alternate date will be available unless the student wishes to present earlier than the scheduled date.

Praxis Assignment: Day of Social Justice/AOP

Praxis & Reflective Paper (3-4 pages)

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(This assignment has been adapted from Langhout et al.’s  (2013) “The Praxis Assignment: Experiential Learning in a Large Social-Community Psychology Class”, Journal of Prevention and Intervention in the Community, 41, 61-67.

Anti-oppression practice is just that—practice—not just theory. As outlined in this course, AOP is embodied at three levels: personal, relational, and on the collective level. For this assignment you will attempt to live one day embodying AOP

 

Part One:

For this assignment, your challenge is to live each minute of a 24-hour period embodying AOP.

  • not to use unearned privilege
  • not to participate in oppression
  • to enact egalitarian power structures.

When participating in this day, examine all your behavior—from what you wear, what you say, what you eat, how you interact with others, every thought, action, or word spoken.

  • As you do this, think carefully about each and every thing you do and ask yourself the following questions:
  • “What are the AOP implications of what I am doing?”
  • “Is there another way I should be doing or saying this that would lead to a more transformative way of being in the world?”
  • Do not limit yourself to the “easy” things like being nice, or giving money to a cause in front of the grocery store.

 

Part Two:

Write a 3-4 page reflective analysis of what the day was like for you. Address the following questions but not in Q&A form – this should read like a reflective essay:

  • Briefly summarize your day: How did you choose to behaviorally operationalize AOP? How does what you did relate to the concept or definition of AOP?
  • How did others respond to your efforts at enacting AOP?
  • What was the day like for you?
  • Why is every day not like this for you?
  • How does this exercise relate to your own accountability, privilege, or oppression?

This submission should reflect course themes but does not require direct integration of course theory unless you choose to integrate some to benefit your analysis.

 

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Question 5:        Other

 

700- to 1,050-word paper that examines the effect of legal, safety, and regulatory requirements on the human resources process. Your paper should focus on employee-related regulations established by the United States, such as the Department of Labor, the U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC), the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, and the Department of Homeland Security. Include your thoughts on the following statement: “Common sense and compassion in the workplace have been replaced by litigation.” Include at least 3 references.

Question 12:                Economics

 

Production function that uses one variable function

 

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Question 13:      Other

 

Need help with an assignment must be 1500 words with 3 scholoaryly sources within the last 5 years. Must include in text citation the questions are listed below

  1. In a narrative format, discuss the following: Were the characteristics described in this unit consistent or inconsistent with your experience/perception of African American culture? Where do a majority of your perceptions about African Americans come from? What information are you still missing to make a more complete picture?
  2. Research reveals that young, unemployed African American and Hispanic males pay a higher punishment penalty than other types of offenders. What accounts for this?
  3. What are some individual and organizational recommendations to improve the experiences, employment, and status of African-Americans in organizations?

Reply to jenn 100 words

During the Civil Rights era, when Blacks were protesting in certain states such as Alabama, which ended up in Washington, D.C., Law Enforcement Officers was used as a tool for  segregationists governors and other leaders to interrupt protests with violent practices towards Blacks, including Whites, who protested for Civil Rights (Hohle, 2019). The role in relation to Law Enforcement Officers, for example, The leaders, such as some of the leaders of Birmingham, Alabama, had ordered the Law Enforcement Officers in Alabama, through the use of dogs, as well as the use of fire hoses, including other methods of violence, which even resulted in some deaths, attacked Civil Rights protestors that was only demonstrating for the cause of justice, along with equal treatment for all. This violent treatment has extended through the harassment of Blacks through the Jim Crow System, which was very popular, especially in places of business (Hailey, 2000). The Justice System through the courts posed a dual role, which started out as a greater problem and became a greater solution, during the Civil Rights Movement. The Court System, for example, the duel role that it demonstrated was the evolving from the backing of the Jim Crow System, to the integration of public schools through our Supreme Court, not to mention, the admission of our first Black Supreme Court Justice, Honorable Thurgood Marshall in the year of 1961, which shows a breakthrough of progress in an imperfect Court System (History, 2009). There are many imperfections in our court systems, which needs work, but because of brave groups of people that are willing to stand up in the face of injustice, which began with brave Americans as a whole, equality is slowly evolving (Graber, n.d.)  Our Law Enforcement System, regardless of some flaws, has favorable points, because, most of our Law Enforcement Officers are dedicated people who are trying to keep our streets safe from criminals. Regardless of the many problems that are existent, even in both our Court Systems, along with Law Enforcement issues, we have still come along way, and still have a long way to go as long as diversity exists (McNamara, &  Burns, 2009).

Reply to Jon 100 words listed below

The Civil Rights Movement has been an ongoing process throughout the United States. “The Civil Rights Movement is an umbrella term for the many varieties of activism that sought to secure full political, social, and economic rights for African Americans in the period from 1946 to 1968 (Khan, 2019).” For years African Americans were treated as being inferior to Caucasians. During these times African Americans were not allowed to eat, sleep, drink, or go to school in the same places that white people did. African Americans were rejected by the public as well as local law enforcement. On several occasions Blacks were beaten and had dogs and fire hoses turned on them by the very people who took an oath to protect.

Law enforcement during the civil rights movement was used as a scare tactic. During protests they stood with batons, weapons draw, and/or dogs waiting to unleash terror on African Americans who were peacefully protesting. During the Birmingham Campaign in May of 1963, “Police dogs, held by officers, jump at a man with torn trousers during a non-violent demonstration (Bond-Nelms, C., 2018).” Even though slavery was over the hatred still lingered on. Even after the Supreme Court stepped in, Whites still did not want to conform to the fact that blacks were no longer considered slaves.

The landmark case during the civil rights movement was Brown v. Board of Education. Once schools were desegregated whites still did not want to go to school with blacks and blacks were kept out of these schools. In this case “the Court reasoned that the segregation of public education based on race instilled a sense of inferiority that had a hugely detrimental effect on the education and personal growth of African American children (Brown, 2019).” The Court stepped up to the place and put an end to segregation which would allow blacks to receive the same education as their white counterparts.

Reference

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Question 14:      Business

 

This is geared towards a teams in my class.

Team Leadership Development Plan Part B: Post-Course Assessment

 

Articulate 3 development goals and propose a plan for meeting those goals in the future

 

 

Question 15:                Mathematics

 

1.
Use properties of exponents to rewrite each of the following complex numbers in a simpler form.
where e = euler’s number and i the sqrt(-1)

  1. e^(ix) *e(iy)
  2. e^(ix)^n
  3. (e^(ix))/(e^(iy))

This is for precalculus with BYU.

I believe the problem wants me to convert the complex numbers into polar form but I have no idea. I could really use a full explanation.

 

 

 

 

Question 16:                Engineering

 

Determine the amount of excavation needed for the continuous footings shown below

 

 

Cost Analysis and Bidding- Graduate Students Assignment 3 Q1: If 1,490 compacted cubic yards of in-place soil is required for a project, how many loads of import will be required? The import material has a swell of 14 percent and shrinkage of 95 percent. The trucks can haul 12 loose cubic yards. Q2: Determine the amount of excavation needed for the continuous footings shown below. A two-foot working distance is required and the excavation will be sloped 1:1.75 (1.75 vertical feet for every horizontal foot). Also, determine the amount of backfill needed for the continuous footing and foundation in compacted cubic yards. Q3: An asphalt paving crew is used to pave a 500-foot by 300-foot parking lot. The parking lot will be paved in 12-foot-wide strips running the long (500-foot) direction. The machine paves 11 lineal feet of 12-foot-wide parking lot per minute. A single lift of asphalt will be used on the parking lot. After completing a pass, it takes the crew 10 minutes to turn the paving machine around and get ready for the next pass. The crew consists of a foreperson, six operators, and a laborer. Using a system efficiency of 50 minutes per hour, determine the number of labor hours required to place 1 lineal foot of parking lot 12 feet wide.

 

Question 17:      Finance

 

As a pratical matter, East Coast Yachts is unlikely to be willing to raise external equity captital, in part because the owners don’t want to dilute their existing ownership and control positions. However, East Coast Yachts is planning for a growth rate of 20 percent next year. What are your conclusions and recommendations about the feasibility of East Coast’s expansion plans?

Sales

Cost of goods sold

Other expenses

Depreciation

Earnings before interest and taxes

Interest

Taxable income

Taxes (40%)

Net income

Dividends   $4,759,301

Addition to retained earnings $11,103,499

$210,900,000

148,600,000

25,192,400

6,879,000

$30,229,800

3,791,000

$26,483,000

10,575,200

$15,862,800

 

Asset Liabilities
Current Asset Current liabilities
    Cash 3,285,600     Account payable $ 6,977,700
    Account receivable

Inventory

5,910,800

6,627,300

    Note payable

Total

14,342,600

21,320,300

       Total

Fixed Assets

$15,823,700 Long-term debt

Owner’s equity

36,400,000
Net plant and equipment $101,481,200     Common stock and paid-     in surplus 5,580,000
    Retained earnings 54,004,600
 

Total asset

 

117,304,900

       Total

Total liabilities and equity

59,584,600

117,304,900

 

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Question 18:      Other

 

Need help with an assignment must be 250 words with at least 3 scholarly sources must include in text citation.. Question is listed below.

Discuss the part that law enforcement and the courts played in the Civil Rights movement.

Give at least two examples.

 

Question 19:      Mathematics

 

An insurance company sells automobile liability and collision insurance. Let X denote the percentage of liability policies that

 

Question 20:      Other

 

need help with an assignment must be 250 words with at least 3 scholoary sources must have in text citation as well the question is listed below

 

Discuss the part that law enforcement and the courts played in the Civil Rights movement.

Give at least two examples.

 

Question 21:      Finance

 

  • Q (5 pts) A bank purchased $ 250 mln cap of 6% at a premium of 0.50% of face value. A $ 250 mln floor of 3% is also available at 0.40% of face value.
  • If interest rates rise to 7% what is the amount received by the bank? What is the net saving after deduction of the premium?
  • If the bank purchased also the floor what are the net savings if interest rates rise to 9%?
  • What are the net savings if interest rates fall to 3%?

Show calculations

 

Question 22:      Business

 

300-500 words (Tesla)

Be specific with concrete examples.  Outside documentation can include corporate reports (e.g. CSR) or articles documenting activities.

Give examples of how Tesla addresses:

  1. Corporate Social Responsibility (2 examples required)
  2. Environmental Sustainability (2 examples required)

If they are not involved In any activities, suggest what they might best become involved in.  Be specific with concrete examples.  Outside documentation can include corporate reports (e.g. CSR) or articles documenting activities.

 

Question 23:      History

 

Why was the Civil War fought? Was it unavoidable or could you propose a solution that would have spared bloodshed?

 

Question 24:      Other

 

2 pages give a description of the Toronto Raptors team and metrics
used to evaluate its effectiveness…..

 

 

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Question 25:      Other

 

Need help with an assignment must reply 100 words listed below.

Reply to Brandon Cart 100 words

The eyes of criminal justice should be blind regarding “race, creed or color” (Weedmark); but their eyes should be kept open to respond appropriately to the differences in culture.  Training is essential for all aspects of criminal justice in order to learn how to interact with different cultures.  Social diversity is more widespread in criminal justice than any other profession.  The American Bar Association reported that African American males have a higher incarceration and is likely to serve time in prison.  Whereas, the rate is lower for Hispanic and white males (Weedmark).

Social awareness is important because criminal justice professionals must understand multicultural differences.  When a certain group of people feel they are being alienated by the criminal justice system due to disparities, their distrust of the system is will likely increase (Weedmark).

In addition, there has always been tension between the United States regarding people of different “races, ethnicity, sexual orientation and religion” (McNamara & Burns 2009). The belief of America being a society that mixes individuals from all backgrounds and cultures in a positive manner is inaccurate.  Certain cultures who do not have certain power as a dominant group, feel they are treated differently and unjustly (McNamara & Burns 2009).

When law enforcement agencies are constantly singling out certain individuals due to their race or ethnicity (racial profiling), they are likely to have a negative view of law enforcement.  If the citizens feel law enforcement cannot be trusted or will act unjustly, officers will “lose their ability and authority to function effectively” (Race, Trust and Police Legitimacy 2016).

Quality treatment is important because individuals tend to base their opinions regarding law enforcement by their personal experiences with them.  If the encounter was a bad experience, they are likely to tell others about the encounter; which will cause many to form a negative view of law enforcement due to experiences of others (Horowitz 2007)

 

Re3ply to Melinda 100 words listed below

 

Diversity is a concept that people can embrace to increase their knowledge of different cultures to enhance being comfortable interacting and communicating with other people from different cultures (McNamara & Burns, 2009). Diversity is not an inherent characteristic of anyone, regardless of the person’s race, ethnicity, sexual orientation, or gender. Diversity is based on an individual’s ability and openness to learning. Diversity is a belief that promotes incorporating various cultures within a society’s major institutions (Yockey, 2019). This idea is usually applied to the demographics of different major organizations of cities, neighborhoods, businesses, and schools (Yockey, 2019). In a society that practices diversity, a school would represent the demographic makeup of the population of that area. The school’s population would mirror the same statistical breakdown as the population (Yockey, 2019). When diversity exists in an environment, there is a diverse presence of individuals, all of whom represent unique and different attitudes, beliefs, and characteristics.

Culture is the shared norms, behaviors, and values that are shared by people and passed on generationally over lifetimes (McNamara & Burns, 2009). An understanding of cultural diversity in the criminal justice system would reflect certain attributes such as advocacy of equal respect given to the various cultures in society, promotion of the maintenance of cultural diversity, and policies in which people of various ethnic and religious groups are addressed by the authorities that are defined by the group to which they belong (Bronsther, 2019). Cultural diversity avoids presenting any specific ethnic, religious, or cultural values as central. Culture signifies a custom of shared beliefs that are held by people who belong to the same group and their social interaction is regulated by norms that are primarily determined by their culture (McNamara & Burns, 2009). An understanding of cultural diversity is necessary for all areas of criminal justice because if society does not see all citizens in this country as Americans, then stereotypes of cultures, practices, and racial characteristics will persist (Bronsther, 2019). This will result in the continued mistreatment of people because of poor or misunderstood values, attitudes, and beliefs of members of different groups.

The criminal justice system in the United States is viewed as a functioning group of agencies that respond to and process crimes and criminals. This system relies on humans participating and interacting with one another to dispense justice fairly for all (Entrikin, 2019). When individuals working in the system interpret the laws and procedures with their personal ethnocentric views, this creates a bias against people with different cultural beliefs (Entrikin, 2019). One example of where a lack of cultural understanding could cause for there to be tension between the community and law enforcement is the way Middle Eastern people are mistreated or ostracized since the 9/11 attacks on the United States. Some people behave as if all Muslims are terrorists and treat them all as terrorists. The United States is definitely a blended society more than other countries, but not necessarily blended cohesively.

References:

Bronsther, J. (2019). Torture and respect. Journal of Criminal Law & Criminology, 109(3), 423-490. Retrieved from https://bethelu.idm.oclc.org/login?url=https://search-proquest-com.bethelu.idm.oclc.org/docview/2246152015?accountid=56725

Entrikin, J. L. (2019). The death of common law. Harvard Journal of Law and Public Policy, 42(2), 351-487. Retrieved from https://bethelu.idm.oclc.org/login?url=https://search-proquest-com.bethelu.idm.oclc.org/docview/2215510088?accountid=56725

McNamara, R. H., & Burns, R. G. (2009). Multiculturalism in the criminal justice system. New York, NY: McGraw-Hill.

 

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Question 26:      Psychology

 

1) Explain at least three lines of compelling evidence that indicate that sustained stress among humans and other mammals causes physical damage (and can cause premature death). Think telomeres, hippocampus, arteriosclerosis, etc. 2) How might maternal stress during pregnancy be linked to mental illness in offspring? 3) Explain the interactions between the nervous system, the immune system, and behavior, and describe psychoneuroimmunology’s relationship to all three. 4) Take the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (the pdf is attached. You don’t need to report your total score but describe your current status in light of the general guidelines provided on the last page of the pdf. Include reasons you feel your score may over or under predict your perceived emotional stress level (review material from Chapter 5 regarding key characteristics of potential stressors).

 

Question 27:      Psychology

 

Essay 1 Questions

 

Answer these questions in essay format, using the instructions provided in the Assignment Instructions folder. Review the Essay 1 Grading Rubric to see how your essay will be graded.

 

  1. In this question you will make up an experiment using classical conditioning. Please create an example using the following scenario.

 

Explain how you would evoke a startle response (reflex) using classical conditioning in an unsuspecting friend using an abnormal signal (produces the reflex). Describe your friend’s reflex response and a signal that will produce that reflex response; then choose another signal for the reflex and predict the outcome of using that signal. Clearly label the Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS), Unconditioned Response (UCR), Conditioned Stimulus (CS), and Conditioned Response (CR). Include a description of the setting and process for this hypothetical situation.  Below is an abbreviated example.

 

For example, every time your roommate opens the refrigerator door you make an alarm goes off on your phone and the roommate jumps. After this happens several times, the roommate will jump when they open the refrigerator door even without the alarm going off.

 

Signal (NS) Opening the refrigerator
UCS Sound of an alarm
UCR Jumps
CS Opens refrigerator
CR Jumps

 

  1. Describe how you would use operant conditioning, with a program of shaping, to get a messy roommate to make his/her bed neatly. Include and label the antecedent stimulus, response, and reinforcement of the changing program standards, and a method of self-regulation for the roommate.

 

  1. In a hypothetical psychology internship, you have encountered a child with destructive tendencies. She bites herself, her dog, and your bag of supplies. Being afraid for her safety and your own well-being, you institute a plan to change her behavior. Suggest a punishment, with her possible reactions to that punishment. Then, try substituting an alternative behavior by reinforcing an incompatible response. Label the antecedent stimulus for the biting response, Punishment I or II, escape or avoidance, and the reinforcement for the new named response. What do you consider to be the best theory or method for improving this child’s behavior?

 

  1. Give an example of a situation where you can model more effective behavior for someone whom you could positively influence. Describe in detail: yourself (the model), the observer, the behavior, and the reinforcement using at least 5 principles of Social Learning Theory.

 

This assignment is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

 

 

 

Question 28:                Business

 

I need understanding of what to do.. I’m not sure how to start it and I have a hard time understanding what exactly what to do with this Microsoft Project Software for this particular project.

I need a tutorial if possible.

 

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Project Instructions

The project for this class is the “Red Zuma Project,” discussed in the Larson and Gray textbook pg 621. Refer to your textbook for all instructions for this assignment. This project will be divided into 2 submissions:

  • Project Submission 1 will consist of Parts 1–2.
  • Project Submission 2 will consist of Parts 3–4.

 

You must submit a Microsoft Word file that contains properly labeled sections, (that includes appropriate screen shots from Microsoft Project), answers all the questions, AND contains all your completed Microsoft Project files.

 

It is very important that you label your work as you are answering the questions and preparing your various tables, charts, and diagrams. Credit will only be given to the work that is clearly marked and organized.

 

Project Submission 1 is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

Project Submission 2 is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.

 

Question 29:      Psychology

 

Discussion Board Forum 3– MUST BE 300 words

 

 

Dual-Store Model of Memory

Question/Prompt: Discuss all 3 components of the Dual-Store Model of Memory. Give an example of the development of a piece of information through all 3 structures of your memory according to the Dual-Store Model. At each stage, give the verbal or visual stimulus and the cognitive processing for transferring information between stages. Include clear biblical principles in your response.

 

Question 30:      Business

 

Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml),

Write a four to six 4 page paper in which you:

  1. Assess how globalization and technology changes have impacted the corporation you researched.
  2. Apply the industrial organization model and the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns.
  3. Assess how the vision statement and mission statement of the corporation influence its overall success.
  4. Evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of this corporation.
  5. Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.

 

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Determine ways in which the vision, mission, and stakeholders of a firm impact that firm’s overall success.

  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in business administration.
  • Write clearly and concisely about business administration using proper writing mechanics.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Week 3 Assignment 1

Student Full Name

Strayer University

BUS499 Business Administration Capstone

Dr. Grizzell

Dr. Gardner

Date

Everything in Blue should be deleted

Due Week 3 and worth 115 points

Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. For a list of companies you can choose from, go to https://www.forbes.com/top-public-companies/list/5/#tab:overall . Research the company on its own website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other credible sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions.

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Read chapters 1 -3 in the course textbook and complete the LEARN E-Activities for Weeks 1-3 as they set the foundation to this assignment. Be sure to cite your sources!

Begin your paper on Page 2 below and write a minimum of four (4) pages. The minimum page count does not include the Title or Source pages.

 

Week 3 Assignment 1

Write your introduction here. Include one (1) paragraph (not more than 6 lines of text) that explains what your paper will discuss. Much of your introduction may be taken from the assignment instructions (in your own words). Read all assignment resources to understand what should be included in your paper. Be sure to review the assignment instructions in Blackboard, the grading rubric, and the recorded writing workshop to understand the requirements. Do not exceed 6 lines of text in this introduction. There should be no direct quotes in this introduction.

Globalization

Thoroughly assess how globalization has impacted the corporation you researched. Provide a thoughtful and well researched response. Consider for example, how your chosen company has been involved in expanding globally, how it has been impacted by global competition, and the global economy. Do not simply define the term globalization. You will need to conduct an assessment (i.e. an evaluation) of the impact globalization has had on your selected corporation.

Your assessment/evaluation should demonstrate that you have read, understand, and can apply the globalization concepts covered in the textbook and course resources. Do not write about globalization in general terms. Your assessment should be directly related to your selected corporation. If your company has locations in other countries, do not simply list the various countries in which the company does business. Your writing here should thoroughly assess how globalization has impacted your chosen corporation. Do not Google “globalization” or simply provide a definition. You must display an understanding based on what is studied in this course and an ability to apply the concepts in a real-world evaluation of a corporation.

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Your textbook must be a source along with other credible sources that support the globalization concepts covered in this course. Read Chapters 1-3 in the course text book as each chapter provides a solid background and clues on Globalization that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 & 2 Learn video Lectures for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid or limit the use of direct quotes.

Technology

Thoroughly assess how technological changes have impacted the corporation you researched. Provide a thoughtful and well researched response. Consider for example, how the company has been impacted by cloud computing, social media, crowdfunding, program apps, email, texting, websites, mobile, automation, robotics, IOT (Internet of Things), AI (Artificial Intelligence), e-commerce, data and analytics, etc. Research how the company may have been impacted by diffusion and disruptive technologies as explained in the textbook. Do not simply define the term technology. You will need to conduct an assessment (i.e. an evaluation) of the impact changes in technology have had on your selected corporation.

Your assessment/evaluation should demonstrate that you have read, understand, and can apply the concept of technology covered in the textbook and course resources. Do not write about technology in general terms. Your assessment should be directly related to your selected corporation. If your company is technologically advanced, do not simply list the various technologies they possess but rather evaluate how changes in technology have impacted the corporation. You must display an understanding based on what is studied in this course and an ability to apply the concepts in a real-world evaluation of a corporation. Do not Google “technology” or simply provide a definition. Your writing here should thoroughly assess how changes in technology have impacted your chosen corporation.

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Your textbook must be a source along with other credible sources that support the technology concepts covered in this course. You must display an understanding based on what is studied in this course. Read Chapters 1-3 in the course text book as each chapter provides a solid background and clues on Technology that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 & 2 Learn video Lectures for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid or limit the use of direct quotes.

Industrial Organization Model

Thoroughly apply the industrial organization model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns (i.e. revenue). This model is based upon the corporation’s external environment which is anything outside of the corporation that can influence or impact its business (macro)/operations (micro). Your application should walk through what the model suggests is needed to earn above average returns (hint: see figure 1.2 in the textbook). Do not Google “Industrial Organization Model” or simply provide a definition or write in general terms. Your writing here should apply the model to your specific corporation, demonstrate your understanding of the concepts, as described in this course, and your ability to apply those concepts to a real-world corporation. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid the use of direct quotes.

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Resource-Based Model

Thoroughly apply the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns (i.e. revenue). Consider the corporation’s unique resources (corporate culture, land, location, equipment, brand, reputation, trademarks, patents, etc.) and capabilities (skills, experience, capabilities, etc. that set it apart from its competition). Your application should walk through what the model suggests is needed to earn superior returns (hint: see figure 1.3 in the textbook). Do not Google “Resource-Based Model” or simply provide a definition or write in general terms. Your writing here should apply the model to your specific corporation, demonstrate your understanding of the concepts, as described in this course, and your ability to apply those concepts to a real-world corporation. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid the use of direct quotes.

Vision

Thoroughly assess how the vision statement of the corporation influences its overall success. Include the actual vision statement for your chosen company (be sure to quote and cite per SWS or APA). Consider the key concepts discussed in chapter 1 regarding vision in your assessment of your selected corporation’s vision statement. Do not simply provide a definition of vision or general statements. In addition to the actual vision statement for your corporation, your writing must demonstrate that you understand the concept of vision, as discussed in this course, and can assess the impact your corporation’s vision statement has on its overall success. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on vision that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources.

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Mission

Thoroughly assess how the mission statement of the corporation influences its overall success. Include the actual mission statement for your chosen company (be sure to quote and cite per SWS or APA). Consider the key concepts discussed in chapter 1 regarding mission in your assessment of your selected corporation’s mission statement. Do not simply provide a definition of mission or general statements. In addition to the mission statement of your selected corporation, your writing must demonstrate that you understand the concept of mission, as discussed in this course, and can assess the impact your corporation’s mission statement has on its overall success. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on mission that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources.

Stakeholders

Thoroughly evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of your selected corporation. Do not Google “stakeholders” and simply provide a definition or list. You must provide an evaluation that demonstrates your understanding of each classification of stakeholders, as described in this course. Do not write in general terms about stakeholders. Your evaluation must describe how each classification of stakeholders impacts your selected corporation’s success (hint: see figure 1.4 in the textbook). Study Chapter 1 for additional background on Stakeholders as it provides a solid background on stakeholders that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid the use of direct quotes.

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Sources

Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.

 

List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.

Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course text book to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.

Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.

The source page must include all sources used.  All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.

Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic

source requires logging in).

When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:

Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)

The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.

 

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Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.

  • Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
  • Have I deleted the blue font instructions in this template?
  • Did I leave the provided section headings in place, as provided in this template?
  • After deleting the blue fonts in this template, have I changed all font to black?

Additional things to keep in mind.

  • You will be graded on the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills using the grading rubric.
  • Strayer uses SafeAssign – an automated plagiarism checker. It is advised that you do your own writing and use external resources to support what you have written in your own words.

 

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Question 1:        Communications

 

MGTS2606 Individual Assignment Final (USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

 

Question 2:        Health Care.

 

NUR 460 review-exam-spring-semester-2018(893 questions)

 

Question 3:        Health Care

 

Final Exam Nurs 6531

 

When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity? Answer YES

 

Question 4:        Health Care

 

Walden University NURS 6630 midterm

 

QUESTION 1

  1. A noncompliant patient states, “Why do you want me to put this poison in my body?” Identify the best response made by the psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner (PMHNP).

A.

“You have to take your medication to become stable.”

B.

“Most medications will increase the number of neurotransmitters that you already have in the brain.”

C.

“Most medications used in treatment are either increasing or decreasing neurotransmitters that your body already has.”

D.

“Why do you believe that your medication is poison?”   I received 0/1 for this answer??

1 points

 

 

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QUESTION 2

  1. Which statement about neurotransmitters and medications is true? My correct answer was several psychiatric meds were developed after discovery of endogenous neurotransmitters.   (The answer wording is different.

A.

Natural neurotransmitters such as endorphins have been discovered after the development of medications.

B.

Some medications were developed after the discovery and known action of the neurotransmitters in the brain.

C.

Neurotransmitters receive messages from most medications.

D.

The neurotransmitter serotonin is directly linked to depression. Following this discovery, the antidepressant Prozac was developed.

1 points

QUESTION 3

  1. When an unstable patient asks why it is necessary to add medications to his current regimen, the PMHNP’s best response would be:

A.

“In an extreme case such as yours, more than one medication is often needed.”

B.

“Due to the ineffectiveness of your current medication, we need to try something else that can possibly potentiate its effects.

C.

“Medications are often specific to the neurotransmitter(s) they are affecting and, due to more than one neurotransmitter involvement, it is often necessary to use more than one medication to improve symptoms.”

D.

“I understand your concern. We can discontinue your current medication and switch to a different one that may better manage your symptoms.”

1 points

QUESTION 4 ?

  1. During gene expression, what must occur prior to a gene being expressed?

A.

Transcription factor must bind to the regulatory region within the cell’s nucleus.

B.

RNA must be converted to mRNA.

C.

The coding region must separate from the regulatory region.    This is wrong

D.

RNA polymerase must inhibit the process of changing RNA to mRNA.

1 points

 

 

 

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  1. While genes have potential to modify behavior, behavior can also modify genes. How do genes impact this process?

A.

Genes impact neuron functioning directly.

B.

Changes made to proteins lead to changes in behavior.

C.

Neurons are able to impact protein synthesis.

D.

Genes impact the DNA of a cell, leading to changes in behavior.

1 points

QUESTION 6

  1. Though medications have the ability to target neurotransmitters in the synapse, it is not always necessary. The PMHNP understands that this is because:

A.

Neurotransmission that occurs via the axon allows for transport of a neurotransmitter.

B.

Active transport is a different type of energy that allows the transport of certain neurotransmitters.

C.

Neurotransmitters can spread by diffusion.

D.

The postsynaptic neuron can release the neurotransmitter.

1 points

QUESTION 7

  1. Why is the cytochrome P450 enzyme system of significance to the PMHNP?

A.

The kidneys play a role with excretion of the medication, and if a patient has kidney damage, the dose must be increased to be effective.

B.

The bioavailability of the medication after it passes through the stomach and liver can be altered.    Correct answer

C.

The medication’s chemical composition changes when it comes in contact with the acid in the stomach.

D.

The CYP enzyme system is a steady and predictable process that prescribers must understand to treat conditions effectively.

1 points

QUESTION 8

  1. It is important for the PMHNP to recognize differences in pharmacokinetics to safely prescribe and monitor medications. Which of the following statements does the competent PMHNP identify as true?

A.

About 1 out of 5 Asians requires l

lower-than-normal doses of some antidepressants and antipsychotics.

B.

The term polymorphic refers to the body’s ability to break a medication down several ways, and this patient may require higher doses of certain antidepressants and antipsychotics.

C.

About 1 out of 30 Caucasians requires lower doses of some antidepressants and antipsychotics.

D.

Most enzyme pathways do not have interactions between the newer medications.

1 points  

 

 

 

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QUESTION 9

1.      As it relates to G-protein linked receptors, what does the PMHNP understand about medications that are used in practice?

A.

Most medications that act on G-protein linked receptors have antagonistic traits.

B.

The majority of medications used in practice are full agonists and are used to stimulate the body’s natural neurotransmitters.

C.

Most medications act as partial agonists because they allow the body to use only what is needed.

D.

Medications used in practice may act as inverse agonists if the dosage is too high.

1 points  

QUESTION 10

1.      The PMHNP is considering prescribing a 49-year-old male clozapine (Clozaril) to treat his schizophrenia and suicidal ideations. The PMHNP is aware that which factor may impact the dose needed to effectively treat his condition:

A.

The patient smokes cigarettes.    This is correct!

B.

The patient has hypertension.

C.

The patient has chronic kidney disease, stage 2.

D.

The patient drinks a cup of coffee a day.

1 points  

QUESTION 11

1.      A patient is diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is currently taking carbamazepine (Tegretol), aripiprazole (Abilify), and melatonin. The PMHNP has just written an order to discontinue the carbamazepine (Tegretol) for drug-induced thrombocytopenia. The PMHNP is aware that his next best action is to:

A.

Alert staff to possible seizures

B.

Write an order for a different mood stabilizer For some reason I got 0/1 points for this??

C.

Decrease the amount prescribed for aripiprazole (Abilify)

D.

Explain to the patient that it will be more difficult to control his temper

1 points  

QUESTION 12

1.      A patient recently transferred following a suicide attempt has a history of schizophrenia, depression, and fibromyalgia. He is currently taking Amitriptyline (Elavil), Lisinopril, aspirin, and fluoxetine (Prozac). Which is the best action for the PMHNP to take for this patient?

A.

Review Amitriptyline (Elavil) level  Correct answer

B.

Order a liver function test

C.

Check the patient’s blood pressure and pulse

D.

Order a stat platelet count

1 points  

QUESTION 13

1.      A patient with schizophrenia is given an inverse agonist that acts on the receptor 5HT and neurotransmitter serotonin. What is the rationale for prescribing a medication such as this?

A.

To promote the availability of serotonin

B.

To decrease serotonin

C.

To indirectly increase the amount of dopamine in the body

D.

To help decrease the amount of serotonin and dopamine

1 points  

QUESTION 14

1.      The PMHNP is caring for four patients. Which patient statement indicates that benzodiazepines would be beneficial?

A.

“I have trouble staying asleep in the middle of the night.”

B.

“My spouse told me that I seem to have trouble remembering things sometimes.”

C.

“I really want to stop smoking, but the cravings are too strong.”

D.

“I feel nervous to go outside and be in large crowds.”

1 points  

 

 

 

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QUESTION 15

1.      Ms. Harlow is a 42-year-old patient who is prescribed a drug that acts on ionotropic receptors. She is curious about the effects of the drug and how it will act on her symptoms. Which statement made by the PMHNP demonstrates proper understanding of Ms. Harlow’s prescription?

A.

“The drug will have an almost immediate effect.”

B.

“The drug can take a while to build up in your system.” 

C.

“The drug is slow to release but lasts for a long time.”  

D.

“The drug will make a subtle difference in your symptoms.” 

1 points  

QUESTION 16

1.      A patient is seeking pharmacological treatment for smoking cessation. Which drug class does the PMHNP prescribe to the patient?

A.

Benzodiazepine

B.

Mirtazapine (Remeron)

C.

Ketamine

D.

Varenicline (Chantix)

1 points  

QUESTION 17

1.      The PMHNP is caring for a new patient who has been transferred from another office. When meeting with the new patient, the patient reports, “I feel like I am improving with the stabilizers.” The PMHNP immediately recognizes that the patient is describing which kind of drug?

A.

Full agonists

B.

Antagonists

C.

Partial agonists

D.

Inverse agonists

1 points  

QUESTION 18

1.      A patient presents with frequent episodes of mania. Which statement describes an appropriate treatment approach for this patient?

A.

“The patient needs to have an inverse agonist.”

B.

“The patient could benefit from an anticonvulsant.”  

C.

“The patient’s calcium, sodium, chloride, and potassium levels must be regulated.” 

D.

“The patient should have a drug that acts on ligand-gated ion channels.”

1 points  

QUESTION 19

1.      The PHMNP is caring for a patient who would benefit from nicotine cholinergic, serotonin 3, or glycine receptors. What kind of agent does the PHMNP want to prescribe for this patient?

A.

Ligand-gated ion channels with a pentameric structure

B.

Ligand-gated ion channels with a tetrameric structure

C.

Voltage-sensitive ion channels

D.

Anticonvulsants

1 points  

QUESTION 20  ?

1.      Which statement made by the patient suggests the patient will need to be treated with antipsychotics that target paranoid psychosis?

A.

“It’s my fault that all of this is happening. I don’t think I could ever forgive myself.”  Not correct

B.

“I have to talk to the President because I’m the only one who can help him.”

C.

“I’m not sure why that lady is wearing a red jacket since it’s the dogs who need food.”

D.

“I don’t know that I even want to go to that meeting. It doesn’t seem worth it anymore.”

1 points  

QUESTION 21

1.      A patient has been treated with a number of novel psychotropic drugs. How is it theoretically possible to identify cognitive improvement in the patient using neuropsychological assessment batteries after the pharmacologic therapy?    I did not have this question

A.

Obtaining raw normative metrics and using them to assess functionality

B.

Having the patient report on cognitive function based on personal experiences

C.

Monitoring the patient in a controlled setting 

D.

Measuring symptoms of psychosis

1 points  

QUESTION 22

1.      Mr. McCullin is 64 years old with Parkinson’s disease. The PMHNP caring for Mr. McCullin wants to start him on a dopamine agonist to help manage and treat his condition. The PHMNP selects this agent because of which action it has on patients like Mr. McCullin?

A.

Dopamine is terminated through multiple mechanisms.

B.

The D2 autoreceptor regulates release of dopamine from the presynaptic neuron.

C.

MAO-B presents in the mitochondria within the presynaptic neuron.

D.

D2 receptors are the primary binding site for dopamine agonists.   Correct answer

1 points  

QUESTION 23

1.      Mrs. Trevor is a 44-year-old patient who does not have a diagnosis of schizophrenia but occasionally reports symptoms of psychosis, followed by severe fatigue. Mrs. Trevor inquires about the use of amphetamines to help with her energy levels. Which response made by the PMHNP is most appropriate?

A.

“Amphetamines may help you, as they can alleviate psychotic conditions.”

B.

“Amphetamines can inhibit negative symptoms of schizophrenia, so this might be a good choice for you.”

C.

“Amphetamines can cause hallucinations, so I would advise against this type of prescription.”Correct

D.

“Amphetamines can lead to a dopamine deficiency, so I will not prescribe this for you.”

1 points  

 

 

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QUESTION 24

1.      The PMHNP is caring for a patient with schizophrenia and is considering a variety of treatment approaches. The PHMNP selects a viable treatment that is consistent with the “dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia.” What action does the PMHNP anticipate this treatment having on the patient?

A.

Blocking the release of dopamine facilitates the onset of positive schizophrenia symptoms.

B.

Hyperactivity in the mesolimbic dopamine pathway mediates the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

C.

Antipsychotic drugs that open D2 receptor pathways can treat schizophrenia.

D.

The neuroanatomy of dopamine neuronal pathways can explain symptoms of schizophrenia.

1 points  

QUESTION 25

1.      A patient is diagnosed with schizophrenia. What increases the patient’s potential to mediate the cognitive symptoms of the disease?

A.

Achieving underactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the prefrontal cortex

B.

Achieving overactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex

C.

Achieving underactivity of the mesocortical projections to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex

D.

Achieving overactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the prefrontal cortex

1 points  

QUESTION 26

1.      The PMNHP is assessing a 29-year-old patient who takes antipsychotics that block D2 receptors. What patient teaching should the PMHNP include related to the possible side effects of this type of drug?

A.

Hypersexuality

B.

Amenorrhea

C.

Dystonia

D.

Tardive dyskinesia   correct answer

A.

 

1 points  

QUESTION 27

1.      The PMHNP is caring for a patient who is taking antipsychotics heard the psychiatrist tell the patient that the patient would be placed on a different antipsychotic agent. Which of the following requires the longest transition time for therapeutic benefit?Not on my test

Olanzapine to clozapine

B.

Asenapine to Risperidone

C.

Aripripazole to ziprasidone

D.

Aripripazole to clozapine

1 points  

QUESTION 28

1.      The PMHNP is assessing a patient who has cirrhosis of the liver and anticipates that the patient will be prescribed an antipsychotic. Which medication does the PMHNP suspect will be ordered for this patient?Not on my test

A.

Quetiapine

B.

Paliperidone

C.

Lurasidone

D.

Clozapine

1 points  

QUESTION 29

1.      Which statement made by the PMHNP exemplifies correct teaching of physiological effects in the body?

A.

Muscarinic antagonists are more likely to cause decreased prolactin levels.

B.

D2 antagonists decrease the likelihood of EPS symptoms.

C.

D2 antagonism is linked to antidepressant properties.

D.

D2 partial agonists are associated with increased efficacy in treating positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

1 points  

QUESTION 30

1.      Mrs. Schwartzman is a 52-year-old patient with schizophrenia and no established history of depression. When meeting with the PMHNP, she presents with apathy and withdrawn social behavior, and she reports a loss of joy from enjoyable activities. What does the PMHNP infer from this encounter with the patient?

A.

An underlying depressive disorder

B.

The recent change of a 2nd generation antipsychotic to a conventional one   This is correct

C.

The recent change of a 1st generation antipsychotic to a 2nd generation antipsychotic

D.

All of the above

1 points  

QUESTION 31

1.      The PMHNP is taking a history on a patient who has been on antipsychotics for many years. Which risk factors are most likely to contribute to a person developing tardive dyskinesia (TD)?Not on mytest

A.

Long-term use of antipsychotics

B.

Genetic disposition

C.

Age

D.

A and C

2333326

 

E.

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 32

  1. The student inquires about antipsychotic medications. Which response by the PMHNP describes nthe factors that contribute to reduced risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) for patients who take antipsychotics?

A.

Those that are potent D2 antagonists

B.

Those that are potent D2 antagonists with 5HT2A antagonism properties

C.

D2 receptors that are blocked in the nigrostriatal pathway

D.

Potent D2 antagonists that block the muscarinic anti-M1 cholinergic receptors

1 points

QUESTION 33

  1. Mr. Gordon is a middle-aged patient who is taking antipsychotics. When meeting with the PMHNP, he reports positive responses to the medication, stating, “I really feel as though the effects of my depression are going away.” Which receptor action in antipsychotic medications is believed to be the most beneficial in producing the effects described by Mr. Gordon?

A.

5HT2 antagonism

B.

D2 antagonismThis was wrong  0/1

C.

Alpha-2 antagonism

D.

D2 partial agonist

1 points

QUESTION 34

  1. A patient who was recently admitted to the psychiatric nursing unit is being treated for bipolar disorder. Which neurotransmitter is the PMHNP most likely to target with pharmaceuticals?

A.

Norepinephrine

B.

Dopamine

C.

Serotonin

D.

A and C

 

 

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E.

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 35

  1. Ms. Ryerson is a 28-year-old patient with a mood disorder. She recently requested to transfer to a new PMHNP, after not getting along well with her previous provider. The new PHMNP is reviewing Ms. Ryerson’s medical chart prior to their first appointment. Upon review, the PMHNP sees that the former provider last documented “patient had rapid poop out.” What does the PMHNP infer about the patient’s prescription based on this documentation?

A.

The patient has an unsustained response to antidepressants.

B.

The patient has antidepressant-induced hypomania.

C.

The patient has a depletion of monoamine neurotransmitters.

D.

The patient has an adverse effect to atypical antipsychotics.

1 points

QUESTION 36

  1. The PMHNP recognizes that which patient would be contraindicated for antidepressant monotherapy?

A.

Patient with a bipolar I designationI don’t know why but this was marked 0/1 for me

B.

Patient with a bipolar II designation

C.

Patient with a bipolar III designation

D.

None of the above

1 points

QUESTION 37

  1. Why does the PMHNP avoid treating a patient with cyclothymia, and has major depressive episodes, with antidepressant monotherapy?Not on my test

A.

The patient may experience paranoid avoidant behavior.

B.

The patient may experience severe depression.

C.

The patient may experience auditory hallucinations.

D.

The patient may experience increased mood cycling.

1 points

QUESTION 38

  1. The PMHNP is caring for a patient with the s genotype of SERT. What does the PMHNP understand regarding this patient’s response to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)/SNRI treatment?

A.

The patient has a higher chance of tolerating SSRI/SNRI treatment.

B.

The patient will have a positive response to SSRI/SNRI treatment.

C.

The patient will develop severe mood cycling in response to treatment.

D.

The patient may be less responsive or tolerant to the treatment.

1 points

QUESTION 39

  1. Ms. Boeckh is a 42-year-old patient with major depression. The PMHNP understands that which action of norepinephrine will affect Ms. Boeckh’s serotonin levels?

A.

Norepinephrine potentiates 5HT release through a2 postsynaptic receptors.

B.

Norepinephrine inhibits 5HT release through a2 receptors.

C.

Norepinephrine inhibits α2 receptors on axon terminals.

D.

Norepinephrine potentiates 5HT release through a1 and a2 receptors.

1 points

QUESTION 40

  1. Which statement made by the PMHNP correctly describes the relationship between NE neurons and pharmaceutical treatment?

A.

“Drugs inhibit the release of NE.”

B.

“Drugs can mimic the natural functioning of the NE neuron.”

C.

“Drugs are unable to simulate the effects of NE neurons.”

D.

“Drugs prevent the natural functioning of the NE neuron by stopping the presynaptic a2 neuron.”

1 points

QUESTION 41

  1. The PMHNP is assessing a patient in the psychiatric emergency room. The patient tells the PMHNP that he does not understand why his depression has not lifted after being on four different antidepressants over the course of a year. Which of the following symptoms can be residual symptoms for patients who do not achieve remission with major depressive disorder?

A.

Insomnia

B.

Suicidal ideation

C.

Problems concentrating

D.

A and C

1 points

QUESTION 42

  1. Fluoxetine (Prozac) has been prescribed for a patient. Which of the following statements is true regarding the action of this medication?

A.

Neuronal firing rates are not dysregulated in depression.

B.

Blocking the presynaptic SERT will immediately lead to a great deal of serotonin in many synapses.

C.

Upon the acute administration of a SSRI, 5HT decreases.

D.

The action at the somatodendritic end of the serotonin neuron may best explain the therapeutic action of SSRIs.   Correct

1 points

QUESTION 43

  1. The nurse educator knows that teaching was effective when one of the students compares fluvoxamine to sertraline and notes which of the following similarities?I had different answer choicesthe correct answer was  Both have actions at sigma receptors that contribute to both anxiolytic and antipsychotic effects

A.

Both have a sedative-like, calming effect.

B.

Both contribute to antipsychotic actions.

C.

Both demonstrate favorable findings in treating depression in the elderly.

D.

Both are known for causing severe withdrawal symptoms such as dizziness, restlessness, and akathisia.

1 points

QUESTION 44

  1. A 45-year-old female patient with allergic rhinitis and normal blood pressure has had no reduction in depressive symptoms after trying bupropion, paroxetine, and venlafaxine. What precautions are needed in considering monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI) in treating her depression?

A.

Since all MAOIs require dietary restrictions, the patient will need to avoid all cheeses and aged, smoked, or fermented meats.

B.

The patient cannot take any antihistamines.

C.

The patient cannot have two wisdom teeth extracted while on a MAnOI.

D.

The patient will need to minimize dietary intake of foods such as tap and unpasteurized beer, aged cheeses, and soy products/tofu.

1 points

QUESTION 45

  1. After sitting in on an interdisciplinary treatment team meeting, the student nurse asks the instructor to explain a system-based approach to the treatment of depression. What is the appropriate response?

A.

Symptoms help create a diagnosis, then symptoms are deconstructed into a list of specific symptoms experienced by a patient.

B.

Symptoms are matched first with the brain circuits that hypothetically mediate them and then with the known neuropharmacological regulation of these circuits by neurotransmitters.

C.

Treatment options that target neuropharmacological mechanisms are selected to eliminate symptoms one by one.

D.

All of the above.

1 points

QUESTION 46

  1. A 51-year-old female patient presents with symptoms of depression, including lack of motivation and difficulty sleeping. What risk factors would increase her vulnerability for a diagnosis of depression?

A.

First onset in puberty or early adulthood

B.

Late onset of menses

C.

Premenstrual syndrome

D.

A and C

1 points

QUESTION 47

  1. A nurse overhears that a patient has failed single therapy with an SSRI and SNRI. She also learns that the patient has been on dual SSRI/SNRI therapy without adequate symptom control. She approaches the PMHNP and asks what the next treatment option could be in this seemingly treatment-resistant patient. The PMHNP tells the nurse she will treat the patient with the following regimen:

A.

MAOI plus SNRI

B.

SSRI/SNRI plus NDRI

C.

NDRI/SNRI plus mirtazapine

D.

NDRI plus modafinil

1 points

*Q/UESTION 48

  1. Mrs. Radcliff is a 42-year-old patient who is considering stopping paroxetine. Why does her PMHNP advise against this abrupt discontinuation of the medicine?

A.

She may experience withdrawal symptoms.

B.

She may experience increased trauma.

C.

Effects of abrupt cessation are unknown.

D.

It can lead to difficulties with concentration.

1 points

QUESTION 49

  1. A patient is prescribed fluoxetine but is concerned about the side effects. Which statement demonstrates accurate patient teaching when discussing the side effects associated with fluoxetine?

A.

Weight gain can be problematic.

B.

Sedation is very common.

C.

Induction of mania is rare.

D.

Seizures are not unusual.

1 points

QUESTION 50

  1. The PMHNP is caring for a patient with anxiety who develops mild to moderate hepatic impairment. Which action does the PMHNP take regarding the use of venlafaxine?

A.

Stop the venlafaxine

B.

Lower the dose of venlafaxine by 50%

C.

Lower the dose of venlafaxine by 25-40%

D.

Increase the dose of venlafaxine by 50%

1 points

 

 

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QUESTION 51

  1. A 25-year-old female patient is being prescribed milnacipran to treat fibromyalgia, and expresses concern regarding “how she will feel and look” from taking the medicine. Which statement correctly describes the side effects as a result of taking this medication?

A.

It can affect her menstruation.

B.

Suicidality can be common among young adults.

C.

Sedation may be problematic.

D.

Weight gain is unusual.

1 points

QUESTION 52

  1. Mr. Ruby is a 33-year-old single father who is requesting pharmacological intervention to treat his fibromyalgia. The PMHNP sees in the medical chart that he has a recent diagnosis of arrhythmia and a BMI of 29. During his assessment, the PMHNP learns that Mr. Ruby works 40-50 hours a week as a contractor and “manages his stress” by smoking 3-4 cigarettes a day and having 8-10 drinks of alcohol each week. Why would duloxetine be contraindicated for Mr. Ruby?

A.

He has fibromyalgia.

B.

He has arrhythmia.

C.

He uses alcohol.

D.

He is overweight.

1 points

QUESTION 53

  1. A patient is prescribed sertraline to treat panic disorder. Knowing that sertraline can initially cause anxiety or insomnia, what should the PMHNP do?

A.

Prescribe long-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then increase the dose.

B.

Prescribe short-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then discontinue.

C.

Prescribe long-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then discontinue.

D.

Prescribe short-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then increase the dose.

1 points

QUESTION 54

  1. A patient is prescribed 50 mg of desvenlafaxine to take every other day for major depressive disorder. What does the PMHNP understand about this patient?

A.

The patient has hepatic impairment.

B.

The patient has moderate renal impairment.

C.

The patient has severe renal impairment.

D.

The patient has cardiac impairment.

1 points

QUESTION 55

  1. The PMHNP understands that which mechanism contributes to a worse tolerability profile for patients taking tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?

A.

Histamine H1 receptor blockade can cause insomnia.

B.

Muscarinic M1 receptor blockade causes blurred vision.

C.

Alpha 1 adrenergic receptor blockade causes weight gain.

D.

Muscarinic M3 receptor blockade causes sedation.

1 points

QUESTION 56

  1. A patient who was prescribed an MAO inhibitor is learning about dietary modifications. Which statement made by the PMHNP demonstrates proper teaching of the food-drug interactions for MAO inhibitors?

A.

“You must avoid soy products, such as tofu.”

B.

“You should not consume processed meats.”

C.

“You may consume fermented foods, like sauerkraut.”

D.

“You may continue to drink beers on tap.”

1 points

QUESTION 57

  1. A patient who is prescribed MAO inhibitors asks about whether he can continue taking pseudoephedrine to relieve his congestion. Which response by the PMHNP indicates proper understanding of drug-drug interactions?

A.

“Decongestants are fine to continue taking with MAO inhibitors.”

B.

“Decongestants are okay to take with MAO inhibitors in moderation.”

C.

“Decongestants should be avoided due to risk of serotonin syndrome.”

D.

“Decongestants should be avoided due to risk of hypertensive crisis.” Correct

1 points

QUESTION 58

  1. Ms. Skidmore presents for a follow-up appointment after being prescribed phenelzine (Nardil), and reports “I take my 45 mg pill, three times a day, just like I’m supposed to.” What does the PMHNP understand about this patient?

A.

Ms. Skidmore is taking the correct dose of phenelzine (Nardil).This was marked 0/1 for me

B.

Ms. Skidmore is not taking enough of the phenelzine (Nardil); she should be taking three times that amount.

C.

Ms. Skidmore is taking too much of the phenelzine (Nardil); she should be taking the 45 mg in three doses.This is probably the right answer

D.

Ms. Skidmore is taking too much of the phenelzine (Nardil); she is supposed to take 45 mg every 24 hours.

1 points

QUESTION 59

  1. The PMHNP is caring for several patients who present with various symptoms and health issues. For which patient does the PMHNP prescribe pregabalin (Lyrica)?

A.

Patient with PTSD

B.

Patient with partial seizures

C.

Patient with galactose intolerance

D.

Patient with Lapp lactase deficiency

1 points

QUESTION 60

  1. Mr. Gutier is 72 years old with anxiety and depressive symptoms. His PMHNP is prescribing lorazepam (Ativan). What does the PMHNP understand regarding this prescription?

A.

The PMHNP will prescribe less than 2-6 mg for Mr. Gutier to take daily.

B.

The PMHNP will require Mr. Gutier to take 2-4 doses of lorazepam (Ativan) per day.

C.

The PMHNP will prescribe more than 2-6 mg for Mr. Gutier to take daily.

D.

The PMHNP will have Mr. Gutier take 6 mg of lorazepam (Ativan) as a PRN.

1 points

QUESTION 61

  1. A patient is being prescribed a sedating antidepressant, but is concerned about weight gain. Which medication is most likely to be prescribed to addresses the patient’s concerns?

A.

mirtazapine (Remeron)

B.

doxepin (Silenor)

C.

alprazolam (Xanax)

D.

trazadone (Oleptro)

1 points

QUESTION 62

  1. A patient who was diagnosed with bipolar disorder without mania, asks the PMHNP why he is being prescribed a mood stabilizer. What is the appropriate response?

A.

Mood stabilizers are only prescribed to treat manic phases of bipolar depression

B.

Mood stabilizers can consistently treat both mania and bipolar depression

C.

Mood stabilizers can target mania and mania relapse and also reduce symptoms of bipolar depression and relapse of bipolar depression symptoms but no drug has been proven to target all four therapeutic actions

D.

Certain mood stabilizers, such as lithium, are able to consistently target mania and bipolar depression

1 points

QUESTION 63

  1. The PMHNP is assessing a patient in the emergency room. The patient shares that he has been on lithium (Lithobid) for many years. What blood tests does the PMHMP order?

A.

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

B.

Complete Blood Count (CBC)

C.

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

D.

Platelet Count

1 points

QUESTION 64

  1. A 39-year old female patient presently on lithium would like to try a new medication to treat her bipolar disorder. She has had concerns about side effects from lithium and wants to learn more about Lamotrigine (Lamictal) as a treatment option. The PMHNP conveys some of the unique aspects of this agent, including which of the following?   I don’t think I had this question

A.

There is some indication lamotrigine can prevent progression from mild cognitive impairment to Alzheimer’s disease

B.

Lamotrigine may cause rashes, including the life-threatening Stevens-Johnson syndrome

C.

It was one of the first anticonvulsants approved by the FDA to treat bipolar depression

D.

There is a risk for amenorrhea and polycystic ovarian disease in women of childbearing age

1 points

QUESTION 65

  1. A nursing student is seeking clarification on the use of anticonvulsants to treat depression and is unclear about most effective outcomes. Which of the following agents does the PMHNP convey as having uncertain outcomes?

A.

Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

B.

Gabapentin (Neurontin)

C.

Valporoic Acid (Depakene)

D.

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 66

  1. A 46-year old male patient mentions several alternative treatments to Carbamazepine (Tegretol) as a way to manage symptoms of his bipolar depression. Which of the following does the PMHNP indicate would not be an agent to treat bipolar depression?didn’t have this question I

A.

Omega-3-fatty-acids

B.

Soybean lecithin

C.

Inositol

D.

L-methylfolate

1 points

QUESTION 67

  1. The PMHNP is meeting with a new mother who would like to begin taking medication again to treat her bipolar depression; she is breastfeeding her 2-month old daughter. The PMHNP recognizes that which of the following medications is contraindicated for this patient?

A.

Valporic Acid (Depakene)

B.

Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

C.

Lithium (Lithobid)This question is repeated and on one I got 1/1 and the other I got 0/1 for this sameexact question.

D.

Lamotrigine (Lamictal)

1 points

QUESTION 68

  1. The PMHNP assesses a 10-year old male child in the ER and suspects mania. Which of the following symptoms and recommendations for follow-up evaluation are appropriate?

A.

Irritability, euphoria, anger; the child should be evaluated further for conduct disorder.

B.

Irritability, violent outbursts, hyperactivity; the child should also be evaluated further for ADHD

C.

Irritability, lethargy, anger; the child should be evaluated further for ADHD.

D.

Irritability, acute mania, hyperactivity; the child should be evaluated further for conduct disorder.

1 points

QUESTION 69

  1. A patient was diagnosed with GAD 4 weeks ago and was placed on Clonazepam (klonopin) twice a day and citalopram (citalopram (celexa)) once daily. When he asks the PMHNP why it is necessary to wean him off of the Clonazepam (klonopin) the best response is:

A.

Clonazepam (klonopin) may interfere with citalopram (celexa)s targeted areas in the brain

B.

Clonazepam (klonopin) is not recommended for long term use due to possible sedation

C.

Clonazepam (klonopin) was used as an aid to treat your condition while you were adjusting to citalopram (celexa)

D.

Clonazepam (klonopin) and citalopram (celexa) target the same area in the brain and after long-term use they will begin to compete making one more or less effective than the other

1 points

QUESTION 70

  1. During assessment a patient states “Why are you asking me about my heart, I am here for my head”, the PMHNP’s best response is:

A.

“Some medications can cause heart issues so it is necessary to rule those out before you begin medication.”I got 0/1 for this answer I don’t know why??

B.

“This is a part of our routine admission and it is important that you give me truthful answers.”

C.

“Chronic conditions such as Lupus can cause an area in your brain to malfunction, specifically your hippocampus.”

D.

“Anxiety can cause cortisol levels to increase and when this happens frequently it puts you at risk for comorbidities such as type 2 diabetes.”

1 points

QUESTION 71

  1. The PMHNP understands that the potential of alcohol abuse in the anxious patient is higher for the following reason:The answers are phrased differently..  The correct answer is that alcohol works onthe GABA A receptor

A.

Alcohol is legal and is a common way that most people deal with their problems.

B.

Alcohol works similar to benzodiazepines

C.

Up to 30% of people with anxiety use alcohol to self-medicate

D.

Alcohol increases serotonin at the synapse and the patient may temporarily feel happy

1 points

QUESTION 72

  1. After ordering flumazenil (Rumazicon) the PMHNP cautions the staff to monitor for which possible effect?

a.

Respiratory depression

b.

Sedation and restlessness

c.

Sweating and nausea   (This question was marked wrong but I think the answers are different too)

d.

Bradycardia and tachypnea

1 points

QUESTION 73

  1. A patient  is prescribed escitalopram (Lexapro) for his anxiety. When he asks why he was given an antidepressant the PMHNP’s best response is:  I didn’t have this question

A.

“SSRIs are used to treat anxiety because serotonin has been proven to help with feelings of fear and worry.”

B.

“Even though you were diagnosed with anxiety there is a very high chance that you also have depression due to the similarities of both diseases.”

C.

“Antidepressants are prescribed prophylactically to prevent symptoms of depression.”

D.

“Escitalopram (Lexapro) is very effective with treating the panic attacks that can occur with anxiety.”

1 points

QUESTION 74  ?

  1. The PMHNP evaluates the patient for “fear conditioning” when he asks:

A.

Have you ever experienced any type of trauma?

B.

What do you do when you feel fear?

C.

Does your mother or father have a history of fear and/or worrying?

D.

What makes your fear better?

1 points

QUESTION 75

  1. A patient diagnosed with PTSD is prescribed propranolol (Inderal) and the PMHNP understands that he was prescribed this medication for what purpose:

A.

He has uncontrolled high blood pressure and this must be treated before focusing on his PTSD.

B.

Beta blockers are linked to reconsolidation.

C.

This medication will allow the patient to sleep throughout the night.

D.

This medication is linked to the increase of serotonin in the brain.

1 points

Click Save and Submit to save and submit. Click Save All Answers to save all answers.

 

Here are some parts of other questions I had that I jotted down a enough of the ? so you know what Its about and my answers and if they were right or wrong:

What is an accurate description of psychosis?   It’s a syndrome associated with a number of psychiatric disorders  (Correct)

 

Mrs. Schwalzman 52 has schizophrenia and has no history of depression.  She has apathy and no joy in life.  What can the PMHNP infer?Her new medication is blocking D2 receptors in the mesolimbic system   corre

 

Question 5:        Health Care

 

NUTR1023 EXERCISE AND DIET PLAN Workout Plan……..

 

Question 6:        Health Care

 

MHA 622 Virtues and values…………………

 

Question 7:        Health Care

 

MHA 612 Zero-based budgeting in health care

 

Question 8:        Health Care

 

IHP 525 Final Milestone Project…………..

 

Question 9:        Health Care.

 

HIST 200 OBESITY IN CANADA………………………

 

Question 10:      Health Care

 

NUR 2058 Dimensions Of Nursing Final Exam | Complete

 

  1. True or False: Energy Systems in the body are used by both conventional and integrative medicine.

 

  1. Select the most effective method that nurses can use to gain power over their practice.

 

  1. An unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury or the risk thereof serious injury including loss of limbs or function is:

 

  1. What is the purpose of spiritual modes of healing?

 

  1. True or False: QSEN or Quality of Safety Education for Nurses is built on 8 competencies developed by the Department of Health.

 

  1. Which best describes The Leapfrog Group and its recommendations?

 

  1. A client’s blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg is an example of which of the following?

 

  1. With which of the following clients does the nurse determine to be the most appropriate time to discuss their discharge teaching?
  2. What is the definition of the ethical principle of nonmaleficence?

 

 

  1. These characteristics are difficult to identify, but have an even more profound effect on an individual’s cultural identity.

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a key element to effective education of nursing students?

 

 

  1. Which of the following would NOT be considered an invasion of privacy:

 

 

  1. Which of the following is an appropriate response from the nurse when caring for a client using complimentary medicine?

 

  1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Integrative medicine?

 

  1. When reviewing the term spirituality, which of the following would not be included in its definition?

 

  1. This is the single most obvious barrier to providing culturally competent care.

 

  1. Which situation is the nurse allowed to breech a client’s right of confidentiality?

 

  1. Which of the following best describes conventional and integrative medicine?

 

  1. Which characteristic is required in a person to be able to resolve difficult crises?

 

  1. Where would a nurse look to find their scope of practice as defined by state law?

 

  1. Identify an important aspect of the role of forensic psychiatric nurses

 

The student nurse asks, “Why is there such an emphasis on spirituality in health care?” Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the nurse preceptor?

  1. A) Each hospital establishes its own policy regarding spirituality.
B) The American Association of Colleges of Nursing mandates a policy related to spirituality in health care
C) The Joint Commission has a standard of patient care with inclusion of spirituality.
D) Spirituality remains at the discretion of the chaplain or pastoral care.

 

What is the first step in the delegation process?

  1. A) Allowing the person to observe the RN performing the task before making the assignment
B) Determining the skill level of the person to whom the task is to be delegated
C) Obtaining permission from the client for another care provider to help with the care
D) Instructing the person to whom the task is delegated about the assignment

 

What is the mos

 

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What is the most important element for the nurse navigator to include in the planning of care for a client?

  1. A) The client’s perceptions and beliefs about the disease process and the modalities of treatment
B) The distance the client lives from the primary health-care facility
C) The age difference between the client and the nurse
D) What type of insurance coverage the client has

 

Identify a secured setting for the practice of forensic nursing.

  1. A) Crime scenes
B) Women’s shelters
C) Emergency rooms
D) Correctional institutions

 

What would be a likely result of the development of a universally agreed upon nomenclature and taxonomy for nursing clinical information and management data?

  1. A) A failure to determine the impact nurses have on outcomes
B) The inability to identify what the nursing staff actually does
C) The establishment of appropriate reimbursement for nursing activities
D) A decrease in the number of nursing diagnoses

 

A particularly vocal staff nurse on a busy obstetric unit has been complaining to the other nurses about the unit manager’s preferential treatment of the night-shift nurses. Select the action that the unit manager should take to resolve this problem, which best demonstrates the use of the assertive approach to conflict resolution.

  1. A) Sets up a time and place for a one-on-one meeting with the staff nurse
B) Arranges for the transfer of the staff nurse to the night shift
C) Waits until there is an opportunity to use the incident to confront the staff nurse in front of his or her colleagues
D) Notes that the vocal staff nurse is not intelligent enough to understand the situation, and disregards her comments as worthless

 

When do most health-care expenditures occur in a person’s life?

  1. A) As old age sets in due to the development of multiple chronic illnesses
B) During the last 6 months of life
C) During childhood due to the large number of broken bones and traumatic injuries
D) During and shortly after being born

 

Which assignment is most appropriate for a CNA/UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel) floated to the medical-surgical unit from the outpatient clinic?

  1. A) Completing the admission vital signs and assessment on a 44-year-old woman who just returned from the post anesthesia care unit after nephrectomy
B) Obtaining a temperature on a 29-year-old woman with gastrointestinal bleeding during the last 30 minutes of a whole-blood transfusion
C) Changing the sterile dressings on a 22-year-old man 2 days after undergoing skin graft for burn injuries
D) Assisting a 72-year-old man 1 day post–cerebrovascular accident with dysphagia to eat lunch

 

What is the primary goal of the nurse navigator role?

  1. A) Lower the risk factors that cause poor or adverse client outcomes
B) Elimination of the barriers to care to make moving through the treatment maze easier
C) Starting a business by combining nursing experience and knowledge with business knowledge
D) Provide health care for inmates in correctional facilities such as juvenile centers, jails, and prisons

 

True or False: It is estimated that 98,000 people die per year due to adverse events & medical errors in hospitals.

  1. A) False
B) True

 

Identify a communication style that involves interpersonal behaviors that permit people to defend and maintain their legitimate rights in a respectful manner that does not violate the rights of others.

  1. A) Aggressive
B) Assertive
C) Dishonest
D) Submissive

 

Which nursing intervention is of limited effectiveness in addressing the needs of a client with a nursing diagnosis of Spiritual Distress?

  1. A) Explain the nurse’s religious beliefs and values immediately when requested to do so by the client.
B) Contact an appropriate spiritual leader or community for conduct of spiritual rituals sought by the client.
C) Express a willingness to assist and cooperate with religious practices that are not detrimental to the client’s health in the treatment setting.
D) Communicate acceptance of the client’s spiritual needs and acknowledge their importance.

 

When does the encoding process of communication take place?

  1. A) The message is sent in a way that causes confusion in the receiver.
B) The receiver thinks about the information, understands it, and forms an idea based on the message.
C) The sender sends the message.
D) The receiver responds to the message and gives feedback.

 

Who is called the “father of modern medicine”?

  1. A) Hippocrates
B) Emperor Darius
C) Cyrus the Great
D) William Harvey

 

Identify the task that may be delegated to an LPN (LVN) if all of the clients are stable.

  1. A) Developing the nursing diagnosis for a newly admitted client
B) Turning a client with a CVA every 2 hours
C) Teaching a new diabetic patient how to administer insulin injections
D) Adding potassium to an intravenous (IV) bag of D6W that was already hanging

 

A patient is anxious about a procedure. Knowing the patient loves the beach, the nurse instructs them to close their eyes and picture the ocean, sand, and rays of the sun. Which of the following practices is the nurse implementing?

  1. A) Transcendental Meditation
B) Guided Imagery
C) Therapeutic Talking
D) Visualization

 

Identify the primary change that increased the need for many more certified RN-coders and certified RN-auditors.

  1. A) The development of new oversight procedures for Medicare and Medicaid
B) The switch to the new ICD-10 coding system
C) The new regulations that came into effect with the Affordable Care Act
D) The closing of many college programs that teach or offer degrees in health-care coding

 

Identify the four concepts that are common in most nursing theories.

  1. A) Client, health, environment, nursing
B) Hospital, nursing home, clinic, physician’s office
C) Nurse, physician, client, other providers
D) Care, adaptation, system, cure

Which of the following demonstrates the planning phase of the nursing process?

  1. A) The nurse specifies short and long term outcomes for the client
B) The nurse determines whether or not the client’s short term outcomes were met
C) The nurse performs a physical exam and collects a health history
D) The nurse identifies that the client is at risk for pressure ulcers

 

What is the best way to increase the motivation to learn in the elderly population?

  1. A) Use negative reinforcements when an elderly person does not change behavior appropriately
B) Link positive reinforcement to changes in behavior.
C) Ignore their life experiences so that the learning is not contaminated by misinformation from the past.
D) Use the power disparity between the teacher and the client to reinforce basic principles

 

Why is it important for nurses in general practice to have an awareness of forensic knowledge?

  1. A) They may one day wish to become certified in forensic nursing
B) Forensic knowledge is a part of nursing curricula and is necessary for passing the National Council Licensure Examination
C) Nurses are often in positions to report crimes or preserve evidence.
D) With the increasing involvement of nurses in malpractice suits, forensic knowledge will help them win their cases

 

Why is term healing preferred to medicine when referring to alternative and complementary modalities?

  1. A) Clients might associate alternative treatments with hospital care.
B) Nurses have had a strong influence in naming this modality.
C) The treatments are based on holistic philosophies that go beyond treatment or cure of the physiological dimensions of care.
D) Medicine implies that only physicians can carry out the treatment

 

An example of civility in the classroom consists of keeping cell phones on silent and using proper cell phone etiquette?

  1. A) False
B) True

 

What primary skills are required of the nurse to provide cultural competent care?

  1. A) All of the above
B) Sensitivity
C) Understanding
D) Communication

 

Both nursing models and theories help explain and direct nursing actions.

  1. A) True
B) False

 

Which of the following statements is most accurate about the vast majority of the elderly?

  1. A) They make up the single largest expenditure for the federal government budget
B) They are relatively healthy and most manage their chronic conditions at home
C) They all have chronic diseases and are in assisted-care facilities.
D) They have high levels of depression and are usually in bad spirits.

 

Although the assessment techniques used for different individuals may be identical, the nurse needs to know the basic biological and physical variations among ethnic groups.

  1. A) True
B) False

 

The client’s short term outcome was to sit up in a chair at bedside for 30 minutes. The nurse reviews the client outcome, determines that it was not met, and modifies the interventions. Which phase of the nursing process is this?

  1. A) Evaluation
B) Assessment
C) Planning
D) Diagnosis

 

This lengthy assessment tool provides a thorough overview of a client’s culture.

  1. A) Minority Model
B) Purnell’s Model
C) Non-English Model
D) Bio-Cultural Model

 

True or False: By law, supplements are regulated be the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

  1. A) False
B) True

 

Which of the following describes Callista Roy’s definition of nursing as indicated in her nursing model?

  1. A) Multistep process that helps the client adapt and reach the highest level of functioning
B) Assistance in self-care activities to help the client achieve health
C) Dynamic process that identifies and meets the client’s health-care needs
D) Identifies boundary disruption and helps clients in activities to restore stability.

 

An ethical code does which of the following?

  1. A) dictates decisions
B) provides a framework for decision-making
C) sets firm rules
D) provides a group of legally binding values

 

To which individual can the charge nurse delegate the task of completing the history and physical assessment for a newly admitted client?

  1. A) LPN
B) CNA, level II
C) CNA, level III
D) RN

 

A client sustained a complete C2 spinal cord injury after a motor vehicle crash. He is unable to move bilateral upper and lower extremities. He requires total nursing care including assistance eating, turning, and voiding. Which of the following describes the level of care the nurse provides according to Orem’s self-care model?

  1. A) Partially compensated care
B) Supportive developmental care
C) Self-care
D) Wholly compensated care

 

Function in nursing informatics focuses on which of the following?

  1. A) A well-articulated theoretical basis to guide the gathering of data
B) Areas of research that lead to new knowledge
C) The levels of special interest, including technology and concepts of nursing theory
D) How the management and processing of information helps nurses enter, organize, or retrieve information

 

Identify the best method for a nurse to acknowledge a client’s autonomy

  1. A) Incorporate the ethical principle of paternalism into all client care activities
B) Follow only the instructions of the client’s family
C) Use the ethical principle of best interest when making decisions about the client’s care needs
D) Know and understand the state’s laws that address living wills

 

Select the most appropriate client for the RN to assign to the CNA/UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel).

  1. A) A client with a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube who is receiving continuous tube feedings
B) A client with difficulty walking and requires assistance to the bathroom
C) A client with difficulty swallowing food and fluids
D) A client with a colostomy who requires irrigations

 

What is best described as the concepts, ideals, behaviors, and significant themes that give meaning to a person’s life?

  1. A) Laws
B) Values
C) Morals
D) Ethics

 

Which of the following is known as a healing practice that uses the human energy system?

  1. A) Visualization
B) Therapeutic Touch
C) Hypnosis
D) Guided Imagery

 

The analysis that tracks events leading to error, identifies faulty systems and processes, and develops a plan to prevent further error in a blame-free environment is called:

  1. A) Quality Improvement
B) Root Cause Analysis
C) Case Management
D) Leapfrog

 

Nurses who learn about another person’s culture is enough to guarantee the nurse will have cultural awareness.

  1. A) False
B) True

 

Using errors as learning opportunities is a key element in building which of the following?

  1. A) Magnet hospital
B) Shared decision-making environment
C) system of improvements and quality care
D) Just culture organization

 

Evidence-based practice is the practice of nursing in which interventions are based on data from research that demonstrates they are appropriate and successful.

  1. A) True
B) False

 

Which of the following is considered the best preferred strategy to dealing with conflict?

  1. A) Choose your battles
B) Confront the conflict
C) Postpone the conflict
D) Ignore the conflict

 

Which statement made by a nursing student during a class on delegation indicates that the student needs additional study of the topic?

  1. A) “The RN who delegates is also responsible for education about the task to be performed.”
B) “When nurses delegate, they are delegating nursing.”
C) “Assessing clients is a task of the RN.”
D) “The tasks delegated should have expected and predictable outcomes.”

 

Which statement by a nurse manager during a staff meeting best demonstrates use of an assertive style of communication?

  1. A) “I am the manager and we will do it my way.”
B) “You have made some good points, but I have another suggestion.”
C) “I’m sorry, but your suggestion was useless to solving the problem.”
D) “I really don’t care; do it the way you think is best.”

 

A physician writes a DNR order for a competent client. Which individual may give permission for this order?

  1. A) The client’s next of kin
B) The client
C) The client’s spouse
D) The client’s only child

 

A client asks what the Affordable Care Act is. What best explains this act?

  1. A) “The law requires that most of the assets be absorbed.”
B) “The law is only for those on Medicare Part D.”
C) “The law has been written for those seniors who are under Medicaid.”
D) “The law has been written for those of all ages for a positive outcome.”

 

Clients may develop this when they view that the nurse is an authority figure or expert in health-care matters.

  1. A) Passive Obedience
B) Active Obedience
C) Health Care Aversion
D) Communication Synergy

 

Which is the principle upon which Nightingale’s spirituality was based?

  1. A) Scientific rationalism
B) A sense of a divine intelligence who creates and sustains the cosmos as well as an awareness of her own inner connection with this higher reality
C) Adherence to a set of rules of behavior, the participation in prescribed rituals, prayer, and the study of sacred texts
D) The beliefs of her Unitarian and Anglican parents

 

Client Satisfaction is not another way to measure quality of care.

  1. A) False
B) True

 

What is one disadvantage to the electronic health care system that health care workers are concerned about?

  1. A) Computer glitches
B) Inexpensive computer systems
C) Improved communication
D) May be used by multiple users at one time

 

Which is not part of the role of the forensic correctional nurse?

  1. A) Provide health screenings
B) Respond to emergency situations
C) Prescribe medications
D) Develop health-care plans

 

The nurse identifies a problem list for the client. Which of the following phases of the nursing process is this a part of?

  1. A) Assessment
B) Diagnosis
C) Evaluation 
D) Planning

 

What is the federally funded national health insurance program in the United States for people older than 65 years?

  1. A) Medicare
B) Exclusive Provider Organization
C) Long-term care insurance
D) Medicaid

 

T.S is a 75 year old man who sustained a left hip fracture after a fall. He is normally independent and lives at home with his wife who suffers from dementia. He currently requires a heavy assist of 2 to pivot transfer to a chair. He is not currently ambulating more than a few steps with a walker. His goal is to go back home to help care for his wife. Which of the following is the most appropriate hospital discharge plan for T.S.?

  1. A) Rehabilitation Center
B) Long-term care facility
C) Home with homecare
D) Assisted living

 

What is the primary reason some nurses have difficulty in their role of managing the needs of the elderly or dying client?

  1. A) Death of a client may indicate that the care they were providing was insufficient
B) Their education has focused them on keeping clients alive and promoting health.
C) They have an internal conflict in coping with their own fears of death.
D) They become very emotional when clients they are caring for die.

 

What is the most effective method nurses can use to gain power over nursing practice?

  1. A) Confront hospital administrators about inadequate staffing
B) Leave the nursing profession when better jobs are available
C) Join professional organizations in large numbers
D) Use union tactics to increase salaries

 

The establishment of a professional organization is one of the most important defining characteristics of a profession.

  1. A) False
B) True

 

Why is heritage consistency important to cultural groups?

  1. A) It allows them to advance within the larger culture
B) It allows them to retain many of their cultural elements
C) It allows them to fit in with the larger culture
D) All of the above

 

Identify the term used when a person lives with consciousness of a reality beyond what is knowable through the five senses and is aware of a transcendent reality.

  1. A) Religion
B) Spirituality
C) Truth
D) Meditation

 

True or False: Total quality improvement is based upon the organization with the higher-quality service that will capture a greater share of the market than competitors with lower-quality services.

  1. A) False
B) True

 

Which of the following is not a reason the State Board of Nursing may revoke a nursing license?

  1. A) Conviction of a serious crime
B) Ethical conduct in the practice of nursing
C) Use of illegal drugs while providing client care
D) Failure to renew a nursing license while still practicing nursing

 

What would be a characteristic of the ideal electronic health care record?

  1. A) The system is unique to the institution it resides in.
B) It reflects only the past medical history.
C) The system reflects the lifelong, continuous record of all care the client has received.
D) It depicts the current health status, but does not provide the medical history

 

The type of reimbursement system that pays a fixed-rate based on diagnosis (or DRG) is called what:

  1. A) Capitated Payment System
B) Managed Care Organization
C) Preferred Provider Organization
D) Prospective Payment System

 

Which of the following organizations provides nursing with a code of ethics?

  1. A) Institute of Medicine
B) Department of Health
C) Board of Nursing 
D) American Nurses Association

 

Which of the following reasons is not a reason for the increasing use of alternative and complementary healing practices?

  1. A) Desire for greater control over one’s health
B) Traditions passed on from parents
C) Belief in the effectiveness of alternative therapies
D) Dissatisfaction with conventional health care

 

Identify the primary driving force behind the development and use of telehealth or telemedicine.

  1. A) Easy access to computers
B) Consumer concerns about access to health care
C) Increase sophistication of physicians’ computers skills
D) Large segments of the population located in congested urban areas

 

The establishment of a professional organization is insignificant in defining characteristics of a profession.

  1. A) True
B) False

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A registered nurse (RN) is assigned to a step-down coronary care unit with 20 clients in various stages of recovery. What is the primary consideration in assigning the unit staff that includes two RNs, two licensed practical nurses (LPNs), and one certified nursing assistant (CNA) or UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel) ?

  1. A) Skill level of each staff member
B) Staff preferences for specific clients
C) Distance of client rooms from the nurses’ station
D) Developmental needs of clients

 

What is acute care of sick persons that is provided in hospitals called?

  1. A) Primary intervention
B) Assistive intervention
C) Secondary intervention
D) Tertiary intervention

 

Identify the characteristics of a task that is to be delegated that would require it to be assigned to an RN.

  1. A) The task is routine in nature and follows hospital policies.
B) The client is relatively stable.
C) The client requires a dressing change at the beginning of the shift.
D) The task requires decision-making to complete it.

 

Evidence-based practice is the practice of nursing in which interventions are based on data from research that demonstrates that they are appropriate and successful.

  1. A) True
B) False

 

Identify the health-care area in which the use of computers has improved the efficiency of care.

  1. A) Physician record keeping
B) Interdepartmental communication
C) Documentation
D) Medication administration

 

What is a major benefit for the elderly who now have easy access to and use of technology such as the Internet and smartphones?

  1. A) They can reach hospitals and family if they need help.
B) They generally are so confused by the technology, they abandon it.
C) They have opportunities to obtain screening and treatment that they might not otherwise seek.
D) They now have a new source of entertainment to keep their minds active and delay the effects of dementia.

 

This federally funded program is known for financing a large portion of maternal and child care for the poor.

  1. A) Medicaid
B) Medicare
C) Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)
D) Exclusive Provider Organization (EPO)

 

What is the primary purpose for the development of the Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) project?

  1. A) Focus nursing education on competencies to reduce the number of medical errors
B) Increase the number of students in nursing programs
C) Shift nursing education to a more medical model due to increased client acuity
D) Decrease the number of associate degree nursing programs

 

Which behavior indicates that a nurse, who is forced to confront a conflict situation, is using a submissive approach to communication?

  1. A) Refers the problem to a supervisor
B) Confronts the other person loudly and in front of an audience
C) Uses the incident as a threat
D) Sets up a one-on-one meeting at a specific time

 

 

 

What advantage does the electronic health record system have over traditional paper systems?

  1. A) More portable
B) Fewer privacy issues
C) Unbreakable
D) Reduces redundancy

 

 

 

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Question 11:      Health Care

 

NCS 1201 Client Teaching Activity(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

 

Question 12:      Philosophy

 

PHI-103 Libertarianism vs. Compatibilism Worksheet

 

Question 13:      Philosophy

 

SCIE1000 Philosophy Essay(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

 

Question 14:      Philosophy

 

PHIL 201 Response Paper Mccloskey Article(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

 

Question 15:                Sociology

 

SOC-102 Bureaucracy essay(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

 

Question 16:                Computer Studies

 

Case study 3 assignment IFS(ST. LUKE’S HEALTH CARE SYSTEM(USE AS GUIDE ONLY)

 

Discussion Questions

  1. Visit the NetMotion Web site (www.netmotionwireless.com) and access and read other Mobility XE success stories. Discuss the patterns that can be observed in the benefits that Mobility XE users have realized via its deployment and use.
  2. Do some Internet research on the security implications of HIPPA requirements for hospital networks. Discuss the major types of security mechanisms that must be in place to ensure hospital compliance with HIPPA requirements.
  3. Do some Internet research on the use of VLANs in hospitals. Summarize the benefits of using VLANs in hospitals and identify examples of how St. Luke’s could further enhance its wireless network by implementing VLANs.

Read the Case Study and answer the “Discussion Points” in a clear but concise way. Be sure to reference all sources cited and use APA formatting throughout.

I prefer you to upload your file in a .docx format – but if you don’t have MS Word- please convert the file to PDF and upload.

Refer to the Case Study Rubrics for more detailed criteria.

 

 

Question 17:                Computer Science

 

CIS 525 Week 2 Assignment 1 Agile versus Waterfall

 

Assignment 1: Agile versus Waterfall

Due Week 2 and worth 110 points

The following resources may be helpful when completing this assignment:

  • “WATERFALL vs. AGILE METHODOLOGY”(You may also view the article at http://agileintro.wordpress.com/2008/01/04/waterfall-vs-agile-methodology/.)
  • “Understanding the pros and cons of the Waterfall Model of software development”(You may also view the article at http://www.techrepublic.com/article/understanding-the-pros-and-cons-of-the-waterfall-model-of-software-development/6118423.)
  • “Transitioning from waterfall to iterative development”(You may also view the article at http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/rational/library/4243.html.)

Agile approach to project management has become more and more popular in recent years. Agile framework is different from traditional waterfall model. It has considerable impact on how projects are planned and executed.

Imagine that you have been assigned as a project manager to manage your company’s e-Commerce Website where customers can browse the company’s products, place orders, and interact with the company’s customer service representatives. Your project must be completed in three (3) months and you have about twelve (12) people in the team. There are three (3) offshore developers in Ireland and two (2) QA testers in Dallas, TX. The rest of the project team and the product owner are in San Diego, CA.

Write a five to six (5-6) page paper in which you:

  1. Compare and contrast agile and Waterfall models of managing a project in the context of building an e-Commerce Website. Include diagrams or tables through the use of graphical tools in Microsoft Word or Visio, or an open source alternative such as Dia to show the differences and similarities. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length.
  2. Evaluate the pros and cons in agile and Waterfall project management in terms of planning and the execution of projects and collaboration among project team members.
  3. Determine whether you would use an “Agile” or “Waterfall” model to manage the project for your company. Support your rationale.
  4. Identify and analyze the major pitfalls and misconceptions inherited in your chosen approach. Propose key actions that you, as a project manager, could take in order to mitigate the risks associated with the previously identified misconceptions.
  5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources. You may use the resources above or others of your choosing.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
  • Include charts or diagrams created in Visio or one of their equivalents such as Dia and OpenOffice. The completed diagrams / charts must be imported into the Word document before the paper is submitted.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Compare and contrast agile project management methods with traditional project management.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in advanced agile project management topics.
  • Write clearly and concisely about advanced agile project management topics using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.

 

Question 18:                Computer Science

 

 

 

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DECO2500 Exam2013-human-computer-interaction Set 1 & 2

 

DECO2500/7250 – Sample questions – Set 1

  1. What is the best description of a conceptual model?
  2. A high level description of how a system is organised and how it operates
  3. Interaction paradigms and interaction modes
  4. A diagram showing the mental model of the user and the system

image

  1. The problem space faced by the designer when gathering user requirements.
  2. Which statement best reflects interaction design?
  3. Interaction design is a new discipline
  4. Interaction design is multidisciplinary
  5. Interaction design combines the disciplines of software engineering and psychology
  6. Interaction design is an application of common sense.
  7. What are the elements of the Gulf of Execution?
  8. Information processing elements involved in working out what the system did
  9. Information processing elements involved in working out how to interact with the system
  10. Forming intentions, specifying right action, selecting appropriate interface mechanism.
  11. Processing the interface, interpreting interface information, and assessing information meaning.
  12. How do recent approaches to “embodied interaction” differ from earlier accounts of the role of cognition in human­computer interaction?
  13. Accounts of interaction focus on the cognitive activity of multiple individuals, not just one individual
  14. Accounts of interaction support cognitive strategies such as annotating and cognitive tracing.
  15. Accounts of interaction put greater emphasis on how emotions are embodied in people.
  16. Accounts of interaction are more grounded in the ways people experience the world through physical interaction.
  17. What was an important early drawback of the Clearboard system by Ishii et al. (1993).
  18. It required people to move to a dedicated video conferencing facility at their workplace
  19. As people moved closer to the board to talk with a remote colleague, the video system no longer picked them up
  20. People found it uncomfortable to interact “looking down” at a colleague.
  21. All of the above.
  22. According to Quintanar (1982) how do users rate an interface/system that gives them personalised feedback?
  23. They rate it as more honest
  24. They rate it as less honest
  25. They rate it as more likeable
  26. They rate it as less likeable.
  27. What is a principal limitation of multimedia as a means for presenting educational material, according to Rogers and Aldrich (1996)?
  28. Learners may fixate on just one medium, such as text, and not process further information available in other media.
  29. Learners may hop between media and only partially process the information in each one
  30. Learners may feel that they are being patronised
  31. Learners may need tools to help them keep track of the information with which they have and have not yet engaged.
  32. Which of the following options best represents the core values of user­centred design, as originally articulated by Gould & Lewis (1985)?
  33. Focusing on users and their tasks in the design process
  34. Measuring progress towards usability goals throughout development
  35. Developing and testing in several cycles
  36. All of the above.
  37. When conducting an investigation with human participants for research or commercial reasons, which provision(s) for consent must be made?
  38. Approval of the research by a properly constituted ethics committee independent of the researchers
  39. Participants informed they do not have to take part if they do not want to
  40. Participants fully informed of their right to withdraw from the investigation without consequences to them
  41. All of the above.
  42. How did Buchenau and Suri (2000) use “experience prototyping” in a study described in Rogers et al. (2011)?
  43. They built a game prototype that broke accessibility rules to make it frustrating for anyone to use
  44. They built a “third age empathy suit” to help designers experience the loss of mobility and sensory perception in the elderly
  45. They used contextual design meetings to get different people’s perspectives on the prototype
  46. Their prototyping gave designers an idea of what wearing a chest­implanted automatic defibrillator might be like.
  47. Which of the following is an important disadvantage of usability laboratory studies?
  48. They emphasize controlled experimentation
  49. They do not capture the context of people’s work or home activities
  50. They do not exercise sufficient control to really understand users’ thinking
  51. They do not directly involve users.
  52. What did physiological monitoring show in the game evaluation study by Mandryk and Inkpen (2004)?
  53. Participants’ skin response (sweat response) was higher when winning against a friend rather than against the computer
  54. Participants’ skin response (sweat response) was lower when winning against a friend rather than against the computer
  55. Participants’ heart rate was higher when winning against a friend rather than against the computer.
  56. Participants’ heart rate was lower when winning against a friend rather than against the computer
  57. According to many experts, how many users should be included in a usability test?
  58. Seven plus or minus two (5­9 users)
  59. Between 5 and 12, depending on needs
  60. A large enough sample of users to perform statistical tests
  61. At least 10 users.
  62. What is the fundamental insight underlying the “cognitive walkthough” method of evaluation?
  63. The idea that cognitive processes are the most important aspect of the user experience
  64. The idea that users can sometimes be left out of evaluation
  65. The idea that users learn by exploring an interface
  66. The idea that experts need to work hand­in­hand with users to develop an optimal user experience.

 

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DECO2500/7250 – Sample questions – Set 2

  1. Which of the following is a better example of a user experience goal than a usability goal?
  2. Effectiveness
  3. Learnability
  4. Helpfulness
  5. Safety.
  6. What is an “affordance” according to Norman (1999):
  7. Property of an object that indicates to people how to use the object.
  8. The return on investment of the user­centred design process.
  9. The opportunity cost of not using user­centred design.
  10. An instruction on an interface signalling how to use the interface.
  11. According to Rogers et al. (2011) what was the primary reason for the success of the iPod?
  12. Powerful functionality
  13. User experience
  14. Access to content
  15. Conceptual design.
  16. Which is the best definition of an interaction paradigm?
  17. In broad terms, the kind of technical and software framework within which human­system interaction takes place (e.g., WIMP, mobile, tangible)
  18. An idea from the world that is used in the interface to help the user understand what to do (e.g., click on tabs to change window contents, use shopping cart to store items to purchase)
  19. What the human does to make inputs and receive information from

the system (e.g., click and drag an object, talk to an object, move self closer to an object, converse with an entity, etc)

  1. The conceptual model used to guide the design of the interface.
  2. Which is the best definition of an interaction mode?
  3. In broad terms, the kind of technical and software framework within which human­system interaction takes place (e.g., WIMP, mobile, tangible)
  4. An idea from the world that is used in the interface to help the user understand what to do (e.g., click on tabs to change window contents, use shopping cart to store items to purchase)
  5. What the human does to make inputs and receive information from

the system (e.g., click and drag an object, talk to an object, move self closer to an object, converse with an entity, etc)

  1. The conceptual model used to guide the design of the interface.
  2. Which is the best definition of an interface metaphor?
  3. In broad terms, the kind of technical and software framework within which human­system interaction takes place (e.g., WIMP, mobile, tangible)
  4. An idea from the world that is used in the interface to help the user understand what to do (e.g., click on tabs to change window contents, use shopping cart to store items to purchase)
  5. What the human does to make inputs and receive information from the system (e.g., click and drag an object, talk to an object, move self closer to an object, converse with an entity, etc)
  6. The conceptual model used to guide the design of the interface.
  7. What interaction paradigm did the Xerox Star use?
  8. Conversation
  9. Knowledge of a physical desktop
  10. Embedded computing
  11. Windows, Icons, Mouse, and Pointer (WIMP).
  12. Which of the following is the most likely interface metaphor used by a smart phone calendar function?
  13. Restaurant menu
  14. Touchscreen interface
  15. A paper diary
  16. Mobile technology.
  17. What is the principal interaction mode for a Wii system?
  18. Gesture and body movements
  19. Haptic (touch) interface
  20. Exploring and browsing
  21. Infrared position detection.
  22. Which of the following is a design implication of our understanding of human attention?
  23. Tactile feedback should make the same kinds of distinctions that a person would feel in the world (e.g. pushing vs. pulling)
  24. Text should be legible and distinguishable from its background under different lighting conditions.
  25. Avoid cluttering the interface with more information than is needed at the present moment for the user.
  26. Sounds should be audible and distinguishable.
  27. Why is Miller’s (1956) theory that our working memory can hold 7 +/­ 2 items of information not a useful design guideline for number of menu items, tool bar icons, etc?
  28. We can scan such items: we don’t need to remember them
  29. People can actually hold much less than 7 +/­ 2 items in memory
  30. People can actually hold much more than 7 +/­ 2 items in memory
  31. This was not Miller’s theory – it was Norman’s theory.
  32. What issue do Rogers et al. (2011) raise about context­aware reminding systems such as comMotion (Marmasse & Schmandt, 2000)?
  33. Context is hard to define
  34. The kind of reminding such systems provide is probably more useful to those with memory problems than to those with normal memory
  35. Such systems are cumbersome to carry and may distract the user from other tasks that they are doing.
  36. The comMotion system does not have a good mental model of the user.
  37. What was the feature of the Hydra system that distinguished it from other telepresence/teleconferencing systems?
  38. It embedded a robot in the remote location to interact with remote colleagues in different locations.
  39. It created a video wall that allowed people in two remotely located common rooms to interact with each other informally.
  40. It used the principle of “translucence” to make the participants and their activities more visible to all participants.
  41. The spatial arrangement of Hydra units created a spatial layout of face images and speech sounds that could happen in a physical environment.
  42. What is affective computing? Select the best answer.
  43. Computing that produces interfaces than engage human emotions.
  44. Computing that produces interfaces in an efficient manner.
  45. Interfaces that apologize to their users
  46. Interfaces that look and behave like people.
  47. The character Rea is an example of what?
  48. A real­estate agent
  49. A zoomorphic interface
  50. A persuasive technology
  51. An embodied agent.
  52. Based on informal tests, what was the most effective way in which the WaterBot system change domestic water usage?
  53. By coloring the water when usage was high
  54. By providing a colored graph that indicated a person’s water use
  55. By sounding chimes when water usage was high
  56. None of the above.
  57. Which is the best example of triangulation in data gathering?
  58. Collecting information about designer’s model, user’s mental model, and system image.
  59. Using different theories with which to interpret data.
  60. Using multiple researchers in a user­centred evaluation.
  61. Collecting data from users in different ways with different methods.
  62. What is a disadvantage of unstructured interviews for gathering

information about users’ tasks?

  1. Information about how tasks are actually performed, rather than ideally performed, may be gathered.
  2. Answers to all potentially relevant questions may not be gathered.
  3. The data collected are rich and complex.
  4. Different interviewees may give different answers to the questions.
  5. What is a disadvantage of using focus groups to elicit user requirements?
  6. Users may not be able to articulate what their requirements are.
  7. Diverse or sensitive issues may be raised.
  8. People don’t necessarily respond the same way in a test as they would do in real life.
  9. Differences of opinion may emerge that confuse the requirements gathering process.
  10. A question format that collects users’ opinions on a verbal scale (eg.,

strongly disagree to strongly agree) is called what?

  1. A psychometric scale
  2. A Likert scale
  3. A questionnaire
  4. An open­response questionnaire item.
  5. What is a “participant observer”
  6. An observer who partly participates in the activity they are observing.
  7. A participant who observes the activity they are participating in.
  8. An observer who watches participants.
  9. A participant who watches observers.
  10. Which set of properties best characterises an “ethnographic” study?
  11. Participant observation, cultural engagement, collection of diverse forms of evidence and data
  12. Participant observation, scientific objectivity, removal of cultural bias
  13. “Anthropological strangeness”, collection of audiovisual data.
  14. Use of the model human processor to analyse findings.
  15. What was an important feature of the process by which the Mobiphos photograph sharing application (Patel et al., 2009) was evaluated?
  16. Agile programming methods were interlaces with iterative user testing.
  17. Four different data gathering techniques were used.
  18. Participatory design was used.
  19. Vibrations indicated the arrival of new photos in the application.
  20. In the following data set, which number is the mode? 4 5 5 5 6 7 8 8
  21. 5
  22. 5.5
  23. 6
  24. None of the above.
  25. What is an affinity diagram?
  26. A diagram showing the degree of connection between people in social networks
  27. A diagram used to show people’s cultural affinities or sense of belonging to groups.
  28. A diagram that organises individual ideas and insights into a hierarchy showing themes.
  29. A variant of a tag cloud that is generated from think­aloud protocols.
  30. Select the best way of analysing qualitative user comments collected during a user test.
  31. Classify the comments into categories and count number of comments in each category.
  32. Find the average and the standard deviation of the data and report it in the body of the report.
  33. Use a scatterplot to graph users on the x axis and comments on the y axis.
  34. Look for critical incidents to report.
  35. What are web analytics?
  36. Online methods for performing usability tests through the cloud.
  37. Web­based methods for performing analysis of video records and electronic logs of user interaction
  38. Web­based methods for performing statistical analysis of data, using tools such as SPSS.
  39. Online methods for analysing and visualising patterns of visiting a website, viewing pages, etc..
  40. How would a researcher perform an analysis of user data from the perspective of Activity Theory?
  41. Classify user comments according to the tool, subject, object, community, rules, division of labor, and outcome expressed.
  42. Classify user comments according to the representational state or medium the user is handling at each point in time.
  43. Analyse data in successive passes, including open coding, axial coding, and selective coding.
  44. Try to determine the mental model of the user on the basis of the activity they are carrying out.
  45. Which of the following is not one of Saffer’s (2010) four approaches to

interaction design?

  1. User­centred design
  2. Systems design
  3. Genius design
  4. Conceptual design.
  5. Should end­users always have a high degree of participation in software development?
  6. Yes: the fundamental principle of interaction design is early involvement of end­users, which should be universally applied.
  7. Not always: different levels of participant are warranted for different kinds of projects and different project stages.
  8. Never: end­users do not know how to articulate their own requirements and do not necessarily have enough technical expertise
  9. None of the above.
  10. What is the Volere shell?
  11. An operating system similar to Unix.
  12. A template for specifying system requirements.
  13. A framework for defining personas and scenarios
  14. A template for creating cultural probe packages.
  15. What is Contextual Inquiry?
  16. A component of Contextual Design.
  17. A way of asking about user context for awareness applications.
  18. Participant observation in relevant use contexts
  19. A component of Contextual Embodiment Theory.
  20. “An informal narrative description of human activities or tasks in a story that allows exploration and discussion of contexts, needs, and requirements”. This best describes which of the following?
  21. Use case
  22. Essential use case
  23. Storyboard
  24. Scenario.
  25. Which of the following is a problem with low­level prototyping?
  26. Testers tend to comment on superficial aspects and not content.
  27. They take too long to build.
  28. User expectations can be set too high.
  29. None of the above.
  30. What is the most important property that a prototype should have?
  31. It should support a wide range of user tests.
  32. It should look like the final product.
  33. It should allow the key design concepts to be tested with users.
  34. It should be easy to throw away.
  35. Where would a card­based prototype best fit in the design process?
  36. After conceptual design, before scenario design
  37. After scenario design, before storyboarding.
  38. After storyboarding, before low­level prototyping.
  39. After low­level prototyping, before high­level prototyping.
  40. What kind of activity does the D.E.C.I.D.E. acronym support?
  41. Planning and conducting an evaluation and analysing the data.
  42. Conducting user tests.
  43. Deciding what kind of prototype to use for user tests.
  44. Deciding whether to perform empirical or analytical evaluations.
  45. You are running a user test session and your participant wants to leave half way through the session. What do you do?
  46. Ask them to stay until the end as planned, so you can collect your

data.

  1. After ensuring they do not need medical help, let them leave, with your thanks.
  2. Offer them an incentive payment to encourage them to finish the session.
  3. Refuse to let them leave until they have finished the session.
  4. Which professional groups are most appropriately involved in preparation and performance of the classic kind of cognitive walkthrough?
  5. End users and designers
  6. Designers and usability experts
  7. Usability experts and marketing personnel
  8. Designers and marketing personnel.
  9. How was the GOMS (Goals, Operators, Methods, Selection rules) used in Project Ernestine (Gray et al., 1993)?
  10. GOMS allowed researchers to predict how long it would take telephone operators to use a new computer interface.
  11. GOMS predicted the errors that telephone operators would make before the operators used the new software.
  12. GOMS predicted the increase in mental workload experienced by the telephone operators
  13. Interface metaphors.

 

 

 

 

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Question 19:                Mathematics

 

MAT 510 Week 11 Final Exam | Complete

 

  • Question 1 Which of the following are principles of Statistical Thinking?
  • Question 2 The Statistical Thinking Strategy has significant commonality with the
  • scientific method. Which of the following statistical thinking principles is NOT generally associated with the scientific method?
  • Question 3 The primary goal of process mapping is to:
  • Question 4 Viewing a business as a system is important because:
  • Question 5 If you are thinking creatively about how to take existing tools and link and sequence them to develop a novel approach to solve important problems, this would be an example of:
  • Question 6 If my histogram appears bimodal, what tool might help me evaluate why?
  • Question 7 A sample of 50 invoices are inspected each shift for errors, and classified as either “good”, i.e., without error, or “bad”, having some problem. If we plot our bad invoices each shift on a control chart, which chart should we use?
  • Question 8 Control limits were originally defined at the three-sigma level because:
  • Question 9 A main purpose of a control chart is to:
  • Question 10 What does it mean if capability index Cp is less than 1?
  • Question 11 Which of the following is NOT a measure of model adequacy?
  • Question 12 Which of the following is NOT a reason for adjusted R-Square being low?
  • Question 13 Process models are used to:
  • Question 14 Tips for building useful models include:
  • Question 15 An Adjusted R-square value is a correlation coefficient that has been modified to account for:
  • Question 16 Identify the assumption that is NOT made when conducting an experiment:
  • Question 17 This technique is used to eliminate the effects of nuisance factors (e.g., machines, day of week, and season of year) from an experiment.
  • Question 18 The basic reason for randomness of sampling in design of experiments is:
  • Question 19 Given the plot below, what might you suspect about factors A and B?
  • Question 20 An aspect of good experimental strategy is to study the effects of the variables (Xs) over a wide range. This strategy increases the chances that effects will be found because:
  • Question 21 Based on a regression model, I have developed a 95% prediction interval for the time it will take me to run a mile under specific conditions (weather, what I have eaten & drank, running shoes used, and so on). This interval goes from 5.2 minutes to 6.1 minutes. Which of the following could be an accurate description of this interval?
  • Question 22 We are testing the null hypothesis that the average monthly revenue between four insurance offices is the same. We obtained a p-value of .07. Which of the following would be an appropriate conclusion about the population?
  • Question 23 For which of the following scenarios am I most likely to utilize a Chi-squared test?
  • Question 24 A local university ran a regression model on factors impacting starting job salary of employed graduates. After validating this as a reasonable model, the university noted that the regression coefficient for GPA had a p-value of .10. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion in this case?
  • Question 25 After running an ANOVA comparing the average years of experience between five different job classifications, we obtained a p value of .02. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion concerning the population in this case?

 

Question 20:                Business

 

ACCT1501 Practice Exam Questions & Solutions

 

QUESTION 1 (6 Marks)Bank Reconciliation

 

The following information is given about Nadak Co.:

  1. The August 31 balance shown on the bank statement is $9,810.
  2. There is a deposit in transit of $1,260 at August 31.
  3. Outstanding cheques at August 31 totalled $1,890.
  4. A bank charge of $40 for cheques was made to the account during August, as shown on the bank statement. Although the company was expecting a charge, its amount was not known until the bank statement arrived.
  5. In the process of reviewing the cheques, it was determined that a cheque issued to a supplier in payment of accounts payable of $361 had been recorded as $631.
  6. The August 31 balance in the general ledger Cash account, before reconciliation, is $8,950.

 

Required:

Part A: Prepare a bank reconciliation as of August 31, 2011.(4 marks)

Part B: Prepare any necessary adjusting journal entries.(2 marks)

 

QUESTION 2 (9 Marks) Financial Reporting Principles, Accounting Standards and Auditing, & Sustainability Reporting

Provide short answers to the following:

  1. What are generally accepted accounting principles?(2 Marks)
  2. Going concern assumption is one of the key assumptions to financial reports. What is going concern assumption? Why is assumption important in the preparation of financial statements?(4 marks)
  3. Describe Scope 1 and Scope 2 emissions and provide an example for each of them. (3 marks)

 

QUESTION 3 Financial Statement Analysis (8 marks)

BPS Ltd, a supplier of telecommunications equipment, retails its products through suburban outlets. Shown below are the calculations of some of its key financial ratios for 2011 and 2012.

 

2012     2011

Return on Equity    13%       12%

Return on Assets     8%        9%

Profit margin            20        18%

Asset turnover          0.40      0.50

Days in inventory      72 days 55 days

Days in debtors        42 days 42 days

Current ratio               1.6       1.5

Quick ratio                  0.7       1.1

Debt-to-Equity ratio      1.4       1.0

 

Return on Equity Operating Profit after Tax/ Shareholders’ Equity

 

Return on Assets Operating Profit after Tax/Total Assets

 

 

Financial Leverage Total Assets/Total Shareholders’ Equity

 

 

Profit Margin Earnings Before Interest and Tax/Sales

 

Asset Turnover Sales/Total Assets

 

 

Days in Inventory Average Inventory/ COGS x 365

 

 

Days in Debtors Average Trade Debtors/Credit Sales x 365

 

 

Current Ratio Current Assets/Current Liabilities

 

 

Quick Ratio Current Assets – Inventory/Current Liabilities

 

 

Debt to Equity Ratio Total Liabilities/Total Shareholders’ Equity

 

Required

Analyse BPS’s profitability, asset management,liquidity and financial structure for 2012 using the ratio information.

 

 

QUESTION 4 (15 marks)Control Accounts

 

Rupert Ltd maintains subsidiary ledgers for debtors and creditors. At 31 May 2014, the debtors control account has a debit balance of $50,120 and the creditors control account has a credit balance of $30,670. An extract of totals from the special journals for the month of June 2014 is as follows:

 

 

 

Credit sales

 

86,500

Cash sales

 

6,100

Credit purchases

 

93,200

Cash received from debtors

 

67,800

Cash paid to creditors

 

55,890

Cash purchases

 

4,300

Discount received from

 

7,500

creditors

 

Discount allowed to debtors

 

3,500

Complete the debtors and creditors control accounts as they would appear in the general ledger.

 

QUESTION 5 ADJUSTING ENTRIES AND FINANCIAL STATEMENTS (23 Marks)

The following pre-adjusted trial balance has been prepared for Sydney Company as at 30 June 2014 (for the 12 months beginning on 1 July 2013):

 

DR         CR

 

$            $

Bank Overdraft                         10,000

Accounts Receivable   200,000

Allowance for Doubtful Debts       1,000

Inventory                    100,000

Prepaid Rent              10,000

Property, Plant and      450,000

Equipment

Accumulated Depreciation – PPE      200,000

Accounts Payable                            60,000

Bank loan                                         50,000

Contributed Capital                            310,000

Retained Profit at 1 July 2013              34,000

Sales revenue                                     4,50,000

Cost of Goods Sold         265,000

Interest Expense                5,000

Wages Expenses              80,000

Rent Expense                     5,000

 

The following information is given which may give rise to year end adjustments:

  • Depreciation on Property, Plant and Equipment is provided for on a straight line basis at 10% per annum, and it is assumed that it will have no salvage value.
  • The balance in Prepaid Rent relates to the 12 month period from 1 January 2014 to 31 December 2014.
  • An ageing analysis shows that $4,000 of Accounts Receivable is estimated to be uncollectible.
  • On 30 June 2014, the directors declared a dividend of $5,000, which the shareholders authorised. The dividend is to be paid on 15 September 2014.
  • It is discovered that $10,000 cash received during the year and credited to sales are actually related to services to be delivered in July 2014.
  • $5,000 of wages relating to June 2014 have not been paid and need to be accrued.

 

Part A (12 Marks)

Prepare journal entries for the necessary end of period adjustments.

Part B (7 Marks)

Prepare an Income Statement for the year ended 30 June 2014:

Part C (4 Marks)

In the Balance Sheet as at 30 June 2014, what would be the closing balance of retained profits? Show all workings.

 

QUESTION 6 (15 marks) Inventory

The following information relates to inventory transactions of Promises Ltd for the month ending 30 June 2014:

 

Date          Cash Purchases         Cash Sales        Balance

1 June                                                                100 units @ $10

10 June         80 units @ $12

18 June                                       140 units @ $20

25 June          30 units @ $14

30 June                                        50 units @ $25

 

Promises Ltd uses FIFO (first-in-first-out) and perpetual inventory control.

 

Calculate the cost of goods sold based on the costs of units sold. (3 Marks)

Prepare the journal entries for inventory purchases and cost of sales for the month of June 2014. (12 Marks)

3 MARKS FOR THE CALCULATION

4 MARKS: 2 MARKS EACH FOR INVENTORY PURCHASE JOURNALS

4 MARKS FOR COST OF SALES ENTRY 18 JUNE

4 MARKS FOR COST OF SALES ENTRY 30 JUNE

 

QUESTION 7 (10Marks) Noncurrent assets

On 1 July 2011, Promises Ltd purchased equipment at a cost of $150,000. The equipment is depreciated using the reducing balance method at the rate of 40% per annum.

 

Prepare the journal entries for depreciation for each year 30 June 2012, 30 June 2013 and 30 June 2014. (9 Marks)

What is the book value of the equipment at 30 June 2014? (1 Mark)

 

3 MARKS EACH FOR EACH JOURNAL (NO HALF MARKS)

1 MARK FOR BOOK VALUE (ALLOWANCE FOR CARRYFORWARD ERRORS)

 

Question 8 Management Accounting and Cost Concepts (13.5 marks)

Part A (2 marks)

For each of the items 1-4 in the table below, indicate whether the item is a product cost or a period cost

 

Item                                                                      Cost Classification

 

1)A food retailer purchases milk for resale

2)Depreciation of head office computers

3)Salaries of production line workers for a

manufacturer

4)Advertising costs to promote a manufacturer’s

 

 

½ mark each entry

 

Part B (9.5 marks)

Bandcamp Ltd manufactures guitars. In the month of January 2014, Bandcamp Ltd recorded:

  • direct labour cost of $200 000
  • raw materials purchased of $400 000
  • total overhead cost of $500 000.

The following information was supplied by Bandcamp Ltd’s accountant about the opening and closing inventory:

 

31 January               1 January

(ending)                 (beginning)

Raw materials inventory                                       $80 000                     $95 000

Work in progress inventory                                   $110 000                   $60 000

Finished goods inventory                                      $255 000                   $75 000

 

Required:

  1. Prepare a cost of goods manufactured statement for January 2014.
  2. Prepare a cost of goods sold statement for January 2014.

 

Part C (2 marks)

Tree & Woods Corp., an international furniture company, manufactures and sells furniture of unique natural material. In 2010, the company sold all 25,000 chairs that it produced at $200 each. Total costs amounted to $3,300,000 comprised of $1,300,000 variable costs and $2,000,000 fixed costs. In 2011, the company purchases a new saw mill for $110,000. The useful life is estimated to be 5 years with a salvage value of $10,000. Each year, the same amount of depreciation expense is recorded. The usage of the new saw mill allows Tree & Woods to reduce variable costs for producing one chair by $7. All other costs remain the same as in 2010.

 

What was Tree & Woods Corp.’s break-even point in number of units in 2010?

 

 

Question 9 – MCQ practice questions

You have seen samples of MCQ in the lectures and in your quiz attempts.

 

 

 

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Question 21:                Business

 

MKTG1280 Sample Practice-Exam-2016-Chapter-1-10

 

Question 22:                Business

 

HTF 201 Part 1 & 2 Questions(Answered)

 

Part 1: Multiple Choice Questions (50 Credits)

 

  1. A restaurant manager notes that actual labor costs exceed the expected labor costs for the volume of business during the week. The manager calls a management meeting to discuss the situation and, if necessary, take corrective action to prevent excessive labor costs for upcoming weeks. Which of the following management functions best describes the kind of work that the management team will be performing?

 

  1. planning
  2. staffing
  3. controlling
  4. organizing

 

  1. Effective control systems can help food and beverage managers:

 

  1. identify mistakes and plan tactics to correct them.
  2. create a mission statement.
  3. identify new menu items to offer.
  4. define strategic objectives.

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements about the role of standards in the control process is TRUE?

 

  1. Industry averages are the best source of information for establishing standards.
  2. Financial standards should always be set on the basis of past financial statements.

 

  1. Standards can be established for revenue goals and sales targets as well as for employee attendance and safety records.

 

  1. Standards are effective only if they state an expected level of performance for individual employees.

 

  1. Robert, the newly hired manager at the independently owned Seasons Restaurant, has discovered that calculations of actual food costs include the cost of providing employee meals. However, employee meals are not included as costs in establishing the restaurant’s standard food costs. Which of the following principles of developing an effective control process has been violated?

 

  1. Information about actual operating results must be simple and easy to collect.

 

  1. Actual information must be collected in a manner consistent with the procedures and formats used to establish performance standards.
  2. Checks on the controls should be part of the control system itself.

 

  1. Actual information generated for control purposes should be compatible with the formats used in accounting systems.

 

  1. A shopper service is a(n):

 

  1. service offered by many businesses to assist guests who are unable to visit the operation in person.

 

  1. Internet-based buying service that offers managers greater control of the purchasing and receiving function.
  2. system of supply in which vendors automatically resupply the restaurant on a schedule

determined by the food and beverage manager.

  1.  control tactic that involves observing and reporting the actual operations of a business.

 

  1. The cost effectiveness of a control system is measured by:

 

  1. comparing the cost of implementing the control system with the cost reductions achieved by using the system.

 

  1. evaluating how well the control system helps identify what corrective action is necessary to bring actual operating results closer to established standards of performance.
  2. assessing the timeliness by which control information is made available to managers.

 

  1. determining if the control system gives priority to factors that are most relevant to attaining the operation’s goals.

 

  1. Service has been slow at the Season’s Restaurant. The manager has traced the problem to the flow of products from the storeroom to production areas. Which of the following control points is likely to be the focus of corrective action?

 

  1. preparing
  2. serving
  3. issuing
  4. storing
  5. purchasing

 

 

  1. A formula for producing a food and beverage item is called a(n):

 

  1. product specification.
  2. portion control percentage.
  3. algorithm.
  4. standard recipe.

 

  1. Which of the following control tools links a restaurant’s suppliers and receiving staff, ensuring that the proper quality of products is available for food production and service?

 

  1. yield percentage worksheets
  2. standard purchase specifications
  3. standard recipes
  4. standard portion size specifications

 

 

 

  1. If the original yield for a standard recipe is 25 portions and the desired yield is 125 portions, what is the adjustment factor?

 

  1. 5.2
  2. 5.0
  3. 2.5
  4. 1.2

 

  1. To produce a desired yield of 20 pounds from a standard recipe with a standard yield of 5 pounds, the amount of each recipe ingredient used should be multiplied by:

 

  1. 5.0.
  2. 4.0.
  3. 0.4.
  4. 0.25
  5. The information is not enough

 

  1. Which of the following budgeting processes ensures that plans are specifically geared to individual operations within multi-unit food service companies?

 

  1. reforecasting
  2. bottom-up budgeting
  3. top-down budgeting
  4. mark-up budgeting

 

  1. Which of the following is most likely to be classified as a variable cost?

 

  1. general manager’s salary
  2. rent expense
  3. property taxes
  4. food costs

 

 

 

  1. At the 120-seat Riverside Restaurant, total variable costs for September were $12,000. For October, the manager expects to sell 10 percent more meals than in September. If the increase in sales volume occurs, the manager should expect the total fixed costs for October to be:

 

  1. lower than in September.
  2. higher than in September.
  3. relatively the same as in September.
  4. impossible to forecast with any accuracy.

 

 

 

  1. At the Virtual Cafe, the average price per meal sold is $15 with an average variable cost of $7. Fixed costs for July are expected to be $30,000. If the restaurant manager expects to sell 5,000 meals in July, the net income (or loss) for the month would be:

 

  1. $25,000 net income.
  2. $10,000 net income.
  3. $0 (breakeven).
  4. $10,000 net loss.
  5. The information isn’t enough

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of an internal factor influencing decisions to change a menu?

 

  1. consumer demand
  2. menu mix
  3. supply levels
  4. competition

 

  1. A chicken dinner has a standard food cost of $3.50. If a 30-percent food cost is desired, what would be the base selling price using the ingredients mark-up method?

 

  1. $11.67
  2. $12.60
  3. $14.76
  4. cannot be determined

 

 

According to the information in the following table answer the questions from 18 to 20.

 

RU Prime-rib burger

 

10 Servings

 

 

 

 

Purchase

Cost/Purchase

Ingredient

Amount Needed

Unit

Unit

ground prime rib

3

lb.

10-lb box

$60.00

crispy fried onions

1

cup

1 gallon

$32.00

Worcestershire sauce

3

cup

1 gallon*

$16.00

pre-sliced mushrooms

1

#10 can

6 #10/case

$18.00

hamburger buns

10

 

a dozen

$6.00

spreadable cheddar cheese

1

lb.

5 lb.

$15.00

 

*1 gallon = 16 cups

 

  1. The standard portion cost of the ground prime rib is:

 

  1. $5.40
  2. $1.80
  3. $2.00
  4. $6.00

 

 

  1. The standard portion cost of each prime-rib burger is

 

  1. $3.40
  2. $14.70
  3. $3.50
  4. $3.20

 

 

  1. If the budgeted food cost is 35%, according to the ingredients markup pricing method, the base selling price for this menu item should be:

 

  1. $5.14
  2. $10.00
  3. $9.14
  4. $9.71
  5. cannot be determined

 

  1. After analyzing menu items, the management team at the Sports Bar & Grill decided that they could increase the prices of several menu items, sell fewer of them, but increase overall revenues. The demand for these menu items would best be characterized as:

 

  1. inelastic.
  2. high.
  3. elastic.
  4. low.

 

 

 

  1. The corporate management team of a theme restaurant chain recently evaluated the chain’s menu items and identified several puzzles. Which of the following would be reasonable strategies for the management team to adopt in relation to these items?

 

  1. Decrease prices.
  2. Place the items in more visible locations on the menu.
  3. Shift demand to these items by using suggestive selling techniques.
  4. All of the above are reasonable strategies.
  5. None of the above are reasonable strategies.

 

  1. Menu engineering classifies menu items that are low in popularity and low in contribution margin as:

 

  1. puzzles.
  2. plowhorses.
  3. stars.
  4. dogs.

 

  1. The Night Owl Restaurant expects to sell 6,000 meals during the upcoming month with an average variable cost per meal sold of $6. Total fixed costs are expected to be $24,000. The average selling price per meal sold at the breakeven point would be:

 

  1. $4.
  2. $6.
  3. $8.

 

 

  1. $10.

 

  1. The Daylight Diner expects to sell 6,000 meals during the upcoming month with an average variable cost per meal sold of $6. If total fixed costs are expected to be $24,000, what would the average selling price per meal sold be if the operation is to meet its $12,000 profit goal for the month?

 

  1. $6
  2. $8
  3. $10
  4. $12

 

 

  1. In relation to the food service purchasing cycle, which of the following positions is generally responsible for completing an issue requisition when items are needed in food production areas?

 

  1. chef
  2. purchasing agent
  3. receiving agent
  4. storeroom clerk

 

  1. Which of the following terms describes a series of records, documents, or reports that trace the flow of resources through an operation?

 

  1. purchase specification
  2. audit trail
  3. delivery invoice
  4. inventory checklist

 

  1. In relation to the purchasing function, the term quality refers to:

 

  1. highest price.
  2. popularity of a menu item.
  3. suitability for intended use.
  4. greatest value.

 

 

  1. A stockout can occur as a result of:

 

  1. employing a perpetual inventory system.
  2. over-purchasing.
  3. inadequate menu engineering.
  4. under-purchasing.

 

 

 

 

  1. With the minimum/maximum ordering system, the quantity of the order point of an item in storage is determined by the:

 

  1. usage rate plus the minimum level.
  2. usage rate plus the lead-time quantity.
  3. lead-time quantity plus the safety level.
  4. lead-time quantity minus the safety level.

 

 

According to the information in the table below, minimum/maximum ordering system is used in determining the quantity of the purchase order, answer the questions from 30 to 32:

 

Purchase unit

10-lb poly bag (frozen chicken)

Usage rate

100 lb per day

Order period

5 days

Lead time

1 day

Safety level

100 lb

 

  1. The order point quantity of this item should be at:
  2. 100lb
  3. 200lb
  4. 300lb

 

 

Question 6:        Business

 

Instruction:

Now that you have had an opportunity to learn about our lesson subject matter it is now time for you to complete your Poster Project

Remember the target audience for the poster. The poster should demonstrate knowledge of the particular topic or event being talked about (promoted), and its importance to the society and culture as well as an understanding of this subject matter. Your poster should be colourful and well laid out. The poster should demonstrate thoughtful consideration and careful planning.

assess the challenges facing a business that wants to market a product internationally Business Studies Overall Expectation

compare the approaches taken by various companies to market their products internationally Business Studies Overall Expectation

demonstrate an understanding of the logistics of, and challenges associated with, distribution to local, national, and international markets

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Question 7:        Health Care

 

Instruction

In a 2- to 3-page essay, answer the following questions: List and describe five elements of system control. What happens if one of these systems is skipped or not specifically addressed? Provide evidence from personal examples. As a healthcare manager, how will you ensure these issues are addressed? Support your opinions with evidence from your prior learning experiences and external, peer-reviewed sources available through the WCU Library. You may cite particular courses or readings from prior coursework in your paper. Your paper should be 2–3 pages in length and follow current APA formatting and citation.

 

 

Question 8:        Health Care

 

Instruction

In this activity, you are expanding a business into an international market by examining economic systems and choosing appropriate entry modes based on host country circumstances. Click the link below to access the activity. After completing the activity, click the button to download the PDF file and attach it to this assignment. Write a reflection in which you address the following: What did you learn about entrepreneurship during this activity? Provide a detailed real-world example of a situation in which you could apply these concepts. Your reflection should be 1–2 pages in length, include evidence or information from at least one credible source, and follow APA formatting and citation.

 

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  1. 400lb

 

  1. The purchase units (bag) should be ordered at the order point are:

 

  1. 50
  2. 20
  3. 30
  4. 40

 

  1. The number of pounds at the maximum inventory level would be:

 

  1. 500lb
  2. 600lb
  3. 300lb
  4. 200lb

 

  1. Which of the following best characterizes the purchasing function of franchisees of a multi-unit food and beverage company?

 

  1. Franchisees may purchase products such as fresh produce and bakery items locally, but must buy all other items from the franchisor company.
  2. Franchisees are required to purchase all products—regardless of type—from their franchisors.

 

  1. Franchisees are not required to purchase products from specific sources such as company commissaries, but they are required by franchisors to adhere to company-developed specifications in products purchased from any supplier.

 

  1. As part of their agreement with franchisors, franchisees are permitted to purchase both food and non-food products for their operation from any supplier without restriction.

 

 

 

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  1. Ownership of product is transferred from the supplier to the food and beverage operation when the receiving employee signs the:

 

  1. delivery invoice.
  2. daily receiving report.
  3. purchase order.
  4. standard purchase specification sheet.

 

 

 

  1. To help make the receiving function secure and efficient, the physical transfer of food and beverage products to the storage area should be the responsibility of:

 

  1. supplier delivery personnel.
  2. assigned staff from the property.
  3. the food and beverage controller.
  4. either a or c above.

 

 

  1. How would fresh meats be categorized by an ABCD inventory classification system?

 

  1. Class A: high in perishability and high in cost per serving
  2. Class B: low in perishability and high in cost per serving
  3. Class C: high in perishability and low in cost per serving
  4. Class D: low in perishability and low in cost per serving

 

  1. Which of the following statements about food products classified as “directs” is TRUE?

 

  1. Usage rates and inventory levels determine the purchasing pattern for directs.
  2. Directs are recorded in inventory records.

 

  1. Directs are considered part of the food costs for the day on which they are received and stored.
  2. Directs are controlled by a minimum/maximum inventory system.

 

 

  1. Which of the following food service control points links receiving and issuing functions?

 

  1. issuing
  2. storing
  3. purchasing
  4. accounting

 

  1. When a distributor shreds whole cabbages and places the shredded cabbage in bags for sale to restaurants, the distributor has added __________ value to the product.

 

  1. form
  2. time
  3. informational
  4. place

 

 

  1. According to the reading: Food Distribution, which of the following is not a distribution alternative in theory?

 

  1. Self-distribution
  2. Order from national or regional broad-line distributors
  3. Developing a primary-vendor relationship with a broad-line distributor
  4. Contracting for delivery with a systems specialist
  5. Catalog online ordering

 

 

Answer the questions 41 and 42 based on the following table.

 

Physical Inventory

 

Type of Products _____________________ Month _______________

 

 

Amount in

 

 

product

Storage unit

storage

 

purchase cost

ground beef

10-lb bag

6 bags

$

2.55/lb

canned peaches

6#10/cs

3-3/6 cs

$

39.00/cs

flour

50 lb/bag

2 bags

$

24.10/bag

 

 

  1. In the table above, “3-3/6 cs” denotes

 

  1. 3.83 cases
  2. 3.50 cases
  3. 3.36 cases
  4. 3.30 cases

 

  1. According to the table above, the total value of the physical inventory is:

 

  1. $212.87
  2. $200.00
  3. $194.54
  4. $192.20
  5. $337.70

 

 

Several yield tests for roasting rounds of beef have been carefully undertaken. A summary of results (average per round) follows:

 

 

 

As purchased (AP) Weight = 22lb 8 oz

 

Servable (EP) weight = 18 lb

 

Cost (AP) = $8.00 per lb

 

According to the above test results, answer the questions from 43 -45

 

  1. The cost per servable pound is:

 

  1. $10.13

 

  1. $10.00
  2. $8.00
  3. Cannot determine

 

 

  1. How many pounds of rounds should be purchased for a weekend event being planned for 275 guests, if the edible portion served on each plate should weighs 6 oz?

 

  1. 129 lb

 

  1. 131 lb
  2. 103 lb
  3. Cannot determine.

 

 

  1. If the purchase price (AP) per pound raises to $10, the cost of servable pound is:

 

  1. $12.00

 

  1. $ 11.00
  2. $12.50
  3. $ 11.50

Perpetual Inventory

 

Product Name: Frozen lobsters (case)

 

Carried forward: __0______

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Date

In

 

Out

Balance

1/7

3

 

 

 

 

3

1/9

 

 

 

 

2

1

1/10

 

 

 

 

1

0

1/12

5

 

 

 

1

4

1/15

 

 

 

 

2

2

 

 

  1. According to the perpetual inventory sheet shown above, there should be ______ cases in the inventory on Jan. 15.

 

  1. 2

 

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 0

 

Part II. Short Answer ( 24 credits)

 

  1. What are the major differences between restaurants within hotels and freestanding restaurants (2 credits)? How these differences may create unique operation challenges to the food service operations within lodging facilities (2 credits)?
  2. The following are the main factors suggested to consider when designing cost control systems for food operations. Circle ONLY five of them and explain how these factors should be considered when designing food cost control systems for a restaurant. (5 credits)
  3. (1) What is a purchase specification (1 credit) ? (2) What essential piece of information must a written purchase specification include (3 credits) ? (3) Write a purchase specification for a RU Dinning menu item ingredient, beef patty, used for the Prime Rib burger (2 credits); (4) list the major benefits of developing a purchase specification for a food and beverage operation. (3 credits)
  4. Select any one of the following control points and describe in details what an ideal cost control system should be for this control point (including control methods, measures, standards and standard procedures, if it is used for an independent freestanding restaurant (6 credits).

 

 

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Question 23:                Business

 

MGT 498 Final Exam Answers | Complete

 

1) In a survey of 50 corporations, which of the following was rated as a benefit of strategic management?

 

2) Research suggests that strategic management evolves through four sequential phases in corporations. The first phase is

 

3) Strategic management is that set of managerial decisions and actions that determine the long-run performance of a corporation. Which one of the following is NOT one of the basic elements of the strategic management process?

 

4) The relationship among the board of directors, top management, and shareholders is referred to as

 

5) The concept that proposes private corporations have responsibilities to society that extend beyond making a profit is known as

 

6) Who said that the social responsibility of business is a “fundamentally subversive doctrine” and that the one social responsibility of business is “to use its resources and engage in activities designed to increase its profits so long as it stays with the rules of the game…”?

 

7) Which of the following is NOT descriptive of external environmental scanning?

 

8) According to Porter, the corporation is most concerned with

 

9) When a company determines a competency’s competitive advantage, Barney refers to this issue as

 

10) An acronym for the assessment of the external and internal environments of the business corporation in the process of strategy formulation/strategic planning is

 

11) In the development of a SFAS matrix, the first step is to

 

12) The technique that illustrates how management can match the external opportunities and threats with its strengths and weaknesses to yield four sets of strategic alternatives is called a (an)

 

13) Which strategy specifies the firm’s overall direction in terms of its general orientation toward growth, the industries or markets in which it competes, and the manner in which it coordinates activities and transfers resources among business units?

 

14) Continuous improvement is an operations concept developed in

 

15) The process by which a firm approaches its cross-border activities and those of competitors, and plans to approach them in the future, is called

 

16) What question must managers ask concerning the relationship between economic logic and international strategy?

 

  1. How does our international strategy contribute to the economic logic of our business and corporate strategies?

 

17) Which strategy is developed to pull together the various activities and competencies of each department so that corporate and business unit performance improves and resource productivity is maximized?

 

18) The strategy that deals with product and process innovation and improvement is known as a ________ strategy.

 

19) The hiring of new people with new skills, firing of people with inappropriate or substandard skills, and/or training existing employees to learn new skills are included the process of

 

20) The strategy implementation tool used to determine what actions are going to be taken, by whom, during what time frame, and with what expected results is called a(n)

 

21) Executives with a particular mix of skills and experiences may be classified as an executive type and paired with

 

22) According to the text, what is the “key” to effective management of change in culture?

 

23) The sum total of the activities and choices required for the execution of a strategic plan is known as in

 

24) Who typically implements strategy in large, multi-industry corporations?

 

25) Which one of the following is NOT a part of the evaluation and control of performance?

 

26) The end result of activity is known as

 

27) Which is the MOST commonly used measure of corporate performance (in terms of profit)?

 

28) Because of the belief that accounting-based numbers such as ROI, ROE, and EPS are not reliable indicators of a corporation’s economic value, which method of corporate performance is now preferred?

 

29) Which company experienced a tarnished reputation and scandal after experiencing behavior substitution when employees altered their behavior on the job to fit the reward system?

 

30) Suboptimization occurs when

 

Question 24:                Business

 

ACC 349 Final Exam | Complete Solution

 

 

1) What is the best way to handle manufacturing overhead costs in order to get the most timely job cost information?

  1. The company should add actual manufacturing overhead costs to jobs as soon as the overhead costs are incurred.
    B. The company should determine an allocation rate as soon as the actual costs are known, and then apply manufacturing overhead to jobs.
    C. The company should account for only the direct production costs.
    D. The company should apply overhead using an estimated rate throughout the year.

2) At the end of the year, manufacturing overhead has been over applied. What occurred to create this situation?

  1. The company incurred more manufacturing overhead costs than the manufacturing overhead assigned to jobs.
    B. The actual manufacturing overhead costs were less than the manufacturing overhead assigned to jobs.
    C. The company incurred more total job costs than the amount budgeted for the job.
    D. Estimated manufacturing overhead was less than actual manufacturing overhead costs.

3) Luca Company overapplied manufacturing overhead during 2006. Which one of the following is part of the year end entry to dispose of the overapplied amount assuming the amount is material?

  1. A decrease to work in process inventory
    B. A decrease to applied overhead
    C. An increase to finished goods
    D. An increase to cost of goods sold

4) Which of the following would be accounted for using a job order cost system?

  1. The production of textbooks
    B. The production of town homes
    C. The pasteurization of milk
    D. The production of cans of spinach

5) Which one of the following is NEVER part of recording the issuance of raw materials in a job order cost system?

  1. Debit Manufacturing Overhead
    B. Debit Finished Goods Inventory
    C. Debit Work in Process Inventory
    D. Credit Raw Materials Inventory

6) What is unique about the flow of costs in a job order cost system?

  1. It involves accumulating material, labor, and manufacturing overhead costs as they are incurred in order to determine the job cost.
    B. Each job is costed separately in a Work in Process subsidiary ledger.
    C. Job costs cannot be measured until all overhead costs are determined.
    D. There are no costs remaining in Work in Process at year end.

7) Which one of the following costs would be included in manufacturing overhead of a lawn mower manufacturer?

  1. The cost of the fuel lines that run from the motor to the gas tank
    B. The cost of the wheels
    C. Depreciation on the testing equipment
    D. The wages earned by motor assemblers

8) What broad functions do the management of an organization perform?

  1. Planning, directing, and controlling
    B. Directing, manufacturing, and controlling
    C. Planning, directing, and selling
    D. Planning, manufacturing, and controlling

9) Which of the following represents the correct order in which inventories are reported on a manufacturer’s balance sheet?

  1. Work in process, finished goods raw materials
    B. Raw materials, work in process, finished goods
    C. Finished goods, work in process, raw materials
    D. Work in process, raw materials, finished goods

10) In traditional costing systems, overhead is generally applied based on

  1. machine hours
    B. direct labor
    C. direct material dollars
    D. units of production

11) An activity that has a direct cause-effect relationship with the resources consumed is a(n)

  1. overhead rate
    B. product activity
    C. cost driver
    D. cost pool

12) A well-designed activity-based costing system starts with

  1. computing the activity-based overhead rate
    B. analyzing the activities performed to manufacture a product
    C. identifying the activity-cost pools
    D. assigning manufacturing overhead costs for each activity cost pool to products

13) Which of the following factors would suggest a switch to activity-based costing?

  1. Overhead costs constitute a significant portion of total costs.
    B. Production managers use data provided by the existing system.
    C. Product lines similar in volume and manufacturing complexity.
    D. The manufacturing process has been stable.

14) All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT that

  1. the objective of installing ABC in service firms is different than it is in a manufacturing firm
    B. the general approach to identifying activities and activity cost pools is the same in a service company as in a manufacturing company
    C. activity-based costing has been widely adopted in service industries
    D. a larger proportion of overhead costs are company-wide costs in service industries

15) What sometimes makes implementation of activity-based costing difficult in service industries is

  1. identifying activities, activity cost plus, and cost drivers
    B. attempting to reduce or eliminate nonvalue-added activities
    C. the labeling of activities as value-added
    D. that a larger proportion of overhead costs are company-wide costs

16) One of Astro Company’s activity cost pools is machine setups, with estimated overhead of $150,000. Astro produces sparklers (400 setups) and lighters (600 setups). How much of the machine setup cost pool should be assigned to sparklers?

  1. $60,000
    B. $90,000
    C. $150,000
    D. $75,000

17) Poodle Company manufactures two products, Mini A and Maxi B. Poodle’s overhead costs consist of setting up machines, $800,000; machining, $1,800,000; and inspecting, $600,000. Information on the two products is:
Mini A Maxi B
Direct labor hours 15,000 25,000
Machine setups 600 400
Machine hours 24,000 26,000
Inspections 800 700

Overhead applied to Mini A using activity-based costing is

  1. $1,536,000
    B. $1,664,000
    C. $1,920,000
    D. $1,200,000

18) Poodle Company manufactures two products, Mini A and Maxi B. Poodle’s overhead costs consist of setting up machines, $800,000; machining, $1,800,000; and inspecting, $600,000. Information on the two products is:
Mini A Maxi B
Direct labor hours 15,000 25,000
Machine setups 600 400
Machine hours 24,000 26,000
Inspections 800 700

Overhead applied to Maxi B using activity-based costing is

  1. $1,536,000
    B. $1,664,000
    C. $2,000,000
    D. $1,280,000

19) Seran Company has contacted Truckel Inc. with an offer to sell it 5,000 of the wickets for $18 each. If Truckel makes the wickets, variable costs are $11 per unit. Fixed costs are $12 per unit; however, $5 per unit is avoidable. Should Truckel make or buy the wickets?

  1. Buy; savings = $10,000
    B. Make; savings = $20,000
    C. Make; savings = $10,000
    D. Buy; savings = $25,000

20) Rosen, Inc. has 10,000 obsolete calculators, which are carried in inventory at a cost of $20,000. If the calculators are scrapped, they can be sold for $1.10 each (for parts). If they are repackaged, at a cost of $15,000, they could be sold to toy stores for $2.50 per unit. What alternative should be chosen, and why?

  1. Repackage; revenue is $5,000 greater than cost.
    B. Scrap; incremental loss is $9,000.
    C. Repackage; receive profit of $10,000.
    D. Scrap; profit is $1,000 greater.

21) The cost to produce Part A was $10 per unit in 2005. During 2006, it has increased to $11 per unit. In 2006, Supplier Company has offered to supply Part A for $9 per unit. For the make-or-buy decision,

  1. incremental costs are $1 per unit
    B. net relevant costs are $1 per unit
    C. differential costs are $2 per unit
    D. incremental revenues are $2 per unit

22) Hartley, Inc. has one product with a selling price per unit of $200, the unit variable cost is $75, and the total monthly fixed costs are $300,000. How much is Hartley’s contribution margin ratio?

  1. 37.5%
    B. 150%.
    C. 266.6%
    D. 62.5%.

23) Which statement describes a fixed cost?

  1. The amount per unit varies depending on the activity level.
    B. It varies in total at every level of activity.
    C. It remains the same per unit regardless of activity level.
    D. Its total varies proportionally to the level of activity.

24) Disney’s variable costs are 30% of sales. The company is contemplating an advertising campaign that will cost $22,000. If sales are expected to increase $40,000, by how much will the company’s net income increase?

  1. $28,000
    B. $18,000
    C. $6,000
    D. $12,000

25) Variable costing

  1. is required under GAAP
    B. is used for external reporting purposes
    C. is also known as full costing
    D. treats fixed manufacturing overhead as a period cost

26) Which cost is NOT charged to the product under variable costing?

  1. Direct labor
    B. Direct materials
    C. Fixed manufacturing overhead
    D. Variable manufacturing overhead

27) Orbach Company sells its product for $40 per unit. During 2005, it produced 60,000 units and sold 50,000 units (there was no beginning inventory). Costs per unit are: direct materials $10, direct labor $6, and variable overhead $2. Fixed costs are: $480,000 manufacturing overhead, and $60,000 selling and administrative expenses. The per unit manufacturing cost under absorption costing is

  1. $18
    B. $16
    C. $27
    D. $26

28) Which of the following is NOT considered an advantage of using standard costs?

  1. Standard costs can be useful in setting prices for finished goods.
    B. Standard costs can reduce clerical costs.
    C. Standard costs can make employees “cost-conscious.”
    D. Standard costs can be used as a means of finding fault with performance.

29) The difference between a budget and a standard is that

  1. a budget expresses management’s plans, while a standard reflects what actually happened
    B. standards are excluded from the cost accounting system, whereas budgets are generally incorporated into the cost accounting system
    C. a budget expresses a total amount while a standard expresses a unit amount
    D. a budget expresses what costs were, while a standard expresses what costs should be

30) If a company is concerned with the potential negative effects of establishing standards, they should

  1. offer wage incentives to those meeting standards
    B. set tight standards in order to motivate people
    C. not employ any standards
    D. set loose standards that are easy to fulfill

31) The per-unit standards for direct materials are 2 gallons at $4 per gallon. Last month, 11,200 gallons of direct materials that actually cost $42,400 were used to produce 6,000 units of product. The direct materials quantity variance for last month was

  1. $2,400 favorable
    B. $5,600 unfavorable
    C. $3,200 unfavorable
    D. $3,200 favorable

32) The standard number of hours that should have been worked for the output attained is 8,000 direct labor hours and the actual number of direct labor hours worked was 8,400. If the direct labor price variance was $8,400 unfavorable, and the standard rate of pay was $18 per direct labor hour, what was the actual rate of pay for direct labor?

  1. $15 per direct labor hour
    B. $18 per direct labor hour
    C. $19 per direct labor hour
    D. $17 per direct labor hour

33) The total variance is $10,000. The total materials variance is $4,000. The total labor variance is twice the total overhead variance. What is the total overhead variance?

  1. $2,000
    B. $4,000
    C. $3,000
    D. $1,000

34) Manufacturing overhead costs are applied to work in process on the basis of

  1. standard hours allowed
    B. actual overhead costs incurred
    C. ratio of actual variable to fixed costs
    D. actual hours worked

35) The overhead volume variance relates only to

  1. variable overhead costs
    B. both variable and fixed overhead costs
    C. all manufacturing costs
    D. fixed overhead costs

36) If the standard hours allowed are less than the standard hours at normal capacity,

  1. the overhead volume variance will be unfavorable
    B. the overhead controllable variance will be favorable
    C. variable overhead costs will be overapplied
    D. variable overhead costs will be underapplied

37) Gottberg Mugs is planning to sell 2,000 mugs and mugs during April. Each mug requires 2 pounds of resin and a half hour of direct labor. Resin costs $1 per pound and employees of the company are paid $12.50 per hour. Manufacturing overhead is applied at a rate of 120% of direct labor costs. Gottberg has 2,000 pounds of resin in beginning inventory and wants to have 2,400 pounds in ending inventory. How much is the total amount of budgeted direct labor for April?

  1. $12,500
    B. $25,000
    C. $27,500
    D. $13,750

38) Lewis Hats is planning to sell 600 straw hats. Each hat requires a half pound of straw and a quarter hour of direct labor. Straw costs $0.20 per pound and employees of the company are paid $22 per hour. Lewis has 80 pounds of straw and 40 hats in beginning inventory and wants to have 50 pounds of straw and 60 hats in ending inventory. How many units should Lewis Hats produce in April?

  1. 600
    B. 580
    C. 630
    D. 620

39) At January 1, 2004, Barry, Inc. has beginning inventory of 4,000 widgets. Barry estimates it will sell 35,000 units during the first quarter of 2004 with a 10% increase in sales each quarter. Barry’s policy is to maintain an ending inventory equal to 25% of the next quarter’s sales. Each widget costs $1 and is sold for $1.50. How much is budgeted sales revenue for the third quarter of 2004?

  1. $57,525
    B. $63,525
    C. $42,350
    D. $63,000

40) In most cases, prices are set by the

  1. customers
    B. largest competitor
    C. selling company
    D. competitive market

41) A company must price its product to cover its costs and earn a reasonable profit in

  1. all cases
    B. its early years
    C. the long run
    D. the short run

42) The cost-plus pricing approach’s major advantage is

  1. it considers customer demand
    B. that sales volume has no effect on per unit costs
    C. it is simple to compute
    D. it can be used to determine a product’s target cost

 

 

 

 

 

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Question 25:                Economics

 

ECON 205 FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE

Exam #1

 

  1. A resource is anything that:
  2. A) can be used in production.
  3. B) you pay for.
  4. C) is in scarce supply.
  5. D) can be consumed.

 

  1. Scarcity in economics means:
  2. A) not having sufficient resources to produce all the goods and service we want.
  3. B) the wants of people are limited.
  4. C) there must be poor people in rich countries.
  5. D) economics are clearly not doing their jobs.

 

  1. Opportunity cost is:
  2. A) about half of the monetary cost of a product.
  3. B) the dollar payment for a product.
  4. C) the benefit derived from a product.
  5. D) the value of the best alternative forgone in making any choice.

 

  1. Margo spends $10,000 on one year’s college tuition. The opportunity cost of spending one year in college for Margo is:
  2. A) $10,000
  3. B) whatever she would have purchased with the $10,000 instead.
  4. C) whatever she would have earned had she not been in college.
  5. D) whatever she would have purchased with the $10,000 instead and whatever she would have earned had she not been in college.

 

  1. We are forced to make choices because of:
  2. A) exploitation.
  3. B) efficiency.
  4. C) scarcity.
  5. D) the margin.

 

  1. A choice made ________ is a choice whether to do a little more or a little less of something.
  2. A) at the fringe
  3. B) in the beginning
  4. C) at the margin
  5. D) after the fact

 

  1. A production possibility frontier illustrates the ______ facing an economy that ______ only two goods.
  2. A) prices; sells
  3. B) trade-offs; produces
  4. C) trade-offs; consumes
  5. D) shortages; produces

 

  1. When moving along a production possibility frontier, the opportunity cost to society of getting more of one good:
  2. A) is constant.
  3. B) is measured in dollar terms.
  4. C) is measured by the amount of the good that must be given up.
  5. D) usually decreases.

 

Use the following to answer questions 9-11:

Figure: Guns and Butter

 

 

 

9.

(Figure: Guns and Butter) On this figure, points A, B, E, and F:

  1. A) indicate combinations of guns and butter that society can produce using all of its factor efficiently.
  2. B) show that the opportunity cost of more guns increases, but that of more butter decreases.
  3. C) indicate that society wants butter more than it wants guns.
  4. D) indicate constant costs for guns and increasing costs for butter.

 

  1. (Figure: Guns and Butter) This possibility frontier is:
  2. A) bowed out from the origin because of increasing opportunity costs.
  3. B) bowed in toward the origin because of increasing  opportunity costs.
  4. C) bowed in toward the origin because of constant  costs of guns and butter.
  5. D) linear because of constant costs.

 

  1. (Figure: Guns and Butter) If the economy were operating at point B, producing 16 units of guns and 12 units of butter per period, a decision to move to point E and produce 18 units of butter:
  2. A) indicates you can have more butter and guns simultaneously.
  3. B) makes it clear that this economy experiences decreasing opportunity costs.
  4. C) involves a loss of 8 units of guns per period.
  5. D) involves a loss of 4 units of guns per period.

 

  1. An economy is said to have a comparative advantage in the production of one good if it:
  2. A) can produce more of all goods than another country.
  3. B) can produce less of all goods than another country.
  4. C) has the highest opportunity cost for producing a particular good.
  5. D) has the lowest opportunity cost for producing a particular good.

 

  1. In one hour, the United States can produce 25 tons of steel or 250 automobiles. In one hour, Japan can produce 30 tons of steel or 275 automobiles. This information implies that:
  2. A) Japan has a comparative advantage in the production of automobiles.
  3. B) the Unites States has an absolute advantage in the production of steel.
  4. C) Japan has a comparative advantage in the production of both goods.
  5. D) the United States has a comparative advantage in the production of automobiles.

 

  1. Free trade between countries:
  2. A) should be based on absolute advantage.
  3. B) will allow wealthy countries to exploit less developed nations.
  4. C) will shift the domestic production possibility frontier to the right.
  5. D) will allow for greater levels of consumption than without trade.

 

Use the following to answer questions 15-17:

 

Figure: Comparative Advantage

Eastland and Westland produce only two goods, peaches and oranges, and this figure shows each nation’s production possibility frontier for the two foods.

 

 

 

  1. (Figure: Comparative Advantage) The opportunity cost of producing 1 unit of peaches for Westland is:
  2. A) 1 unit of oranges.
  3. B) ¼ unit of oranges.
  4. C) 4 units of oranges.
  5. D) 10 units of oranges

 

  1. (Figure: Comparative Advantage) Westland has an absolute advantage in producing:
  2. A) oranges only.
  3. B) peaches only.
  4. C) both oranges and peaches.
  5. D) neither oranges or peaches.

 

  1. (Figure: Comparative Advantage) Eastland has a comparative advantage in producing:
  2. A) oranges only.
  3. B) peaches only.
  4. C) both oranges and peaches.
  5. D) neither oranges or peaches.

 

  1. The economy’s factors of production are not equally suitable for producing different types of goods. The principle generates:
  2. A) economic growth.
  3. B) technical efficiency.
  4. C) resource underutilization.
  5. D) the law of increasing opportunity cost.

 

  1. Economists generally believe that a country should specialize in the production of a good or service if:
  2. A) the production possibility frontier is larger than that of any other country.
  3. B) the production possibility frontier is smaller than that of any other country.
  4. C) the country can produce the product using fewer resources than any other country.
  5. D) the country can produce the product while forgoing fewer alternative products than any other country.

 

  1. The demand curve for videos has shifted to the right. What could have caused it?
  2. A) a fall in the price of videos
  3. B) an increase in the price of videos
  4. C) an increase in the supply of videos
  5. D) an increase in the incomes of buyers

 

  1. The law of demand states other things equal:
  2. A) as the price increases, the quantity demanded will increase.

 

  1. B) as the price decreases, the demand curve will shift to the right.
  2. C) as the price increases, the demand will decrease.
  3. D) as the price increases, the quantity demanded will decrease.

 

  1. A shift of the demand curve for Luis’s Pizza would not be caused by a change in the:
  2. A) buyer’s incomes.
  3. B) price of Luis’s Pizza.
  4. C) price of Humberto’s Pizza.
  5. D) popularity of Luis’s Pizza.

 

  1. If goods A and B are substitutes, a decrease in the price of good B will:
  2. A) increase the demand for good A.
  3. B) increase the demand for good B.
  4. C) decrease the demand for good A.
  5. D) increase the demand for good B and decrease the demand for good A.

 

Use the following to answer questions 24-25:

 

Figure: Demand for Coconuts

 

 

 

  1. (Figure: Demand for Coconuts) If a coconut is a normal good and the price of coconuts increases, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
  2. A) A to B.
  3. B) B to A.
  4. C) C to A.
  5. D) E to B.

 

  1. (Figure Demand for Coconuts) If coconuts are considered a normal good and there is an expectation on the part ofconsumers that the prices of coconuts will rise significantly in the near future, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
  2. A) C to A.
  3. B) A to B.
  4. C) B to E.
  5. D) E to B.

 

  1. When the price of gas goes up and the demand for tires goes down, this means tires and gas are:
  2. A) substitutes.
  3. B) complements.
  4. C) both expensive.
  5. D) both inexpensive.

 

  1. Which of the following would shift the demand curve for new textbook to the right?
  2. A) a decrease in the price of paper
  3. B) a fall in the price of used textbooks
  4. C) an increase in college enrollments
  5. D) a fall in the price of new textbooks

 

  1. A good is normal if:
  2. A) when income increases, the demand remains unchanged.
  3. B) when income increases, the demand decreases.
  4. C) when income increases, the demand increases.
  5. D) income and the demand are unrelated.

 

 

 

 

 

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Exam #2

 

  1. The typical supply curve illustrates that:
  2. A) other things equal, the quantity supplied for a good is inversely related to the price of a good.
  3. B) other things equal, the supply of the good created its own demand for the good.
  4. C) other things equal, the quantity supplied for a good is positively related to the price of a good.
  5. D) price and quantity supplied are unrelated.

 

  1. Which of the following is not a determinant of supply?
  2. A) expectations regarding future prices
  3. B) the technology of production
  4. C) the cost of production
  5. D) consumer tastes

 

Use the following to answer questions 3-5:

 

Figure: Supply of Coconuts

 

  1. (Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If the price of coconuts decreases, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
  2. A) A to B
  3. B) B to A
  4. C) C to A
  5. D) E to B

 

  1. (Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If the prices of inputs (e.g. labor, fertilizer, and fuel) used to produce and transport coconuts are increasing, then the movement in the model could be:
  2. A) A to B
  3. B) B to A
  4. C) C to A
  5. D) E to B

 

  1. (Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If there is an improvement in the technology used to harvest coconuts (e.g. a faster, less expensive coconut picker), then the movement in the model could be:
  2. A) A to C
  3. B) B to A
  4. C) C to A
  5. D) B to E

 

  1. The market for soybeans is initially in equilibrium. Because of “mad cow disease,” cattle feed producers decided to replace bone meal with soybeans in cattle feed. The likely effect is that:
  2. A) the equilibrium price and quantity of soybeans will rise.
  3. B) the equilibrium price and quantity of soybeans will fall.
  4. C) the equilibrium quantity of soybeans will rise, but we can’t determine what will happen to the equilibrium price.
  5. D) the equilibrium price of soybeans will rise, but we can’t determine what will happen to the equilibrium quantity.

 

  1. Excess supply occurs when:
  2. A) the price is above the equilibrium price.
  3. B) the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied.
  4. C) the price is below equilibrium price.
  5. D) the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied and when the price is below the equilibrium quantity.

 

  1. The market for milk is initially in equilibrium. Milk producers now engage in a costly advertising program to encourage milk drinking. Assume that the advertising campaign succeeds in shifting consumer tastes toward drinking milk and that milk producers provide more milk to the market. More milk producers enter the market. Standard demand and supply analysis tells us that:
  2. A) the equilibrium price and quantity of milk will rise.
  3. B) the equilibrium price and quantity of milk will fall.
  4. C) the equilibrium quantity of milk will rise, but we can’t determine how the equilibrium price will be affected.
  5. D) ) the equilibrium price of milk will rise, but we can’t determine how the equilibrium quantity will be affected.

 

Use the following to answer question 9:

 

Figure: DVD Market

 

 

  1. (Figure: DVD Market) At a rental price of $3, there will be
  2. A) equilibrium in the rental market for DVDs.
  3. B) an increase in demand.
  4. C) an excess supply of 40 DVD rentals.
  5. D) an excess demand of 40 DVD rentals.

 

  1. In the market for corn tortilla chips, what would cause a price increase?
  2. A) Your doctor tells you that you cannot have junk food anymore.
  3. B) There is a technological advancement in the tortilla chip production process.
  4. C) There is a fungus that kills much of the corn crop in Nebraska.
  5. D) The price of salsa triples.

 

  1. Consumer surplus for an individual buyer is equal to:
  2. A) the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good, minus the marginal cost of producing the good.
  3. B) the price of the good, minus the marginal cost od producing the good.
  4. C) the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good, minus the price of the good.
  5. D) the marginal cost of the good, minus the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good.

 

  1. Along a given demand curve, an increase in the price of a good will cause consumer surplus to:
  2. A) increase.
  3. B) decrease.
  4. C) not change.
  5. D) cannot be determined without information about the supply curve.

 

Use the following to answer questions 13-14:

 

Figure: Consumer Surplus II

 

 

  1. (Figure: Consumer Surplus II) At a price of P1, consumer surplus equals the area:
  2. A) ABP2
  3. B) AFP1
  4. C) BGF
  5. D) P1P2BF

 

  1. (Figure: Consumer Surplus II) If the price rises from P1 to P2, consumer surplus decreases by the area:
  2. A) ABP2
  3. B) AFP1
  4. C) BGF
  5. D) P1P2BF

 

  1. The price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of the change in:
  2. A) quantity demanded to a change in price.
  3. B) price to a change in quantity demanded.
  4. C) the slope of the demand curve to a change in price.
  5. D) the slope of the demand curve to a change in quantity demanded.

 

  1. Suppose the price elasticity of demand for cheeseburgers equals 0.37. This means the overall demand for cheeseburgers is:
  2. A) price elastic.
  3. B) price inelastic.
  4. C) price unit-elastic.
  5. D) perfectly price inelastic.

 

Use the following to answer question 17:

 

Figure: Consumer Surplus III

 

 

  1. (Figure Consumer Surplus III) If the price of the good is $2, consumer surplus will equal:
  2. A) $30.
  3. B) $45.
  4. C) $60.
  5. D) $90.

 

  1. Suppose at a price of $10 the quantity demanded is 100. When the price falls to $8, the quantity demanded increases to 130. The price elasticity of demand between the priced of $10 and $8, using the midpoint method, is approximately:
  2. A) 1.17
  3. B) 1.50
  4. C) 0.85
  5. D) 1.00

 

  1. The publisher of an economics textbook finds that when the book’s price is lowered from $70 to $60, sales rise from 10,000 to 15,000. Using the midpoint method, you can calculate that the price elasticity of demand is:
  2. A) 500
  3. B) 50%
  4. C) 3.5
  5. D) 2.6

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  1. If total revenue goes down when price falls, the price elasticity of demand is said to be:
  2. A) price-inelastic
  3. B) price unit-elastic
  4. C) price-elastic
  5. D) positive

 

  1. To say that two goods are complements, their cross-price elasticity’s of demand should be:
  2. A) less than 0
  3. B) equal to 0
  4. C) positive, yet almost equal to 0
  5. D) greater than 0

 

  1. A perfectly elastic supply curve is:
  2. A) horizontal
  3. B) downward-sloping
  4. C) upward-sloping
  5. D) vertical

 

  1. The income elasticity of demand of a normal good is:
  2. A) between 1 and 0
  3. B) less than 0
  4. C) equal to 0
  5. D) greater than 0

 

  1. To maximize her grade in economics, Stacey should study until:
  2. A) her marginal cost of studying begins to increase.
  3. B) her marginal benefit of studying begins to decrease.
  4. C) her marginal benefit of studying equals her marginal cost of studying.
  5. D) her marginal cost of studying reaches zero.

 

  1. According to the optimal output rule, if marginal benefit:
  2. A) exceeds marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
  3. B) is less than marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
  4. C) is equal to marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
  5. D) exceeds marginal cost, net benefit is maximized.

 

  1. To maximize total net benefit, consumers and firms evaluate each activity at the:
  2. A) average.
  3. B) top.
  4. C) margin.
  5. D) end.

Use the following to answer question 27:

 

Figure: Marginal Cost Curve

 

 

  1. (Figure: Marginal Cost Curve) Using the marginal cost curve in the figure provided, we can determine that the total cost of mowing five lawns is approximately:
  2. A) $68.50
  3. B) $100
  4. C) $50
  5. D) $10

 

  1. If the marginal benefit received from a good is greater than the marginal cost of production, then:
  2. A) society’s well-being can be improved if production increases.
  3. B) society’s well-being can be improved if production decreases.
  4. C) society’s well-being cannot be improved by changing production.
  5. D) the market is producing too much of the good.

 

Question 10

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”

 

 

Question 11

 

0 out of 1 points

 

Which of the following books are General Epistles

 

Question 12

 

0 out of 1 points

 

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

 

Question 13

 

1 out of 1 points

 

According to the Gospel of John Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

 

Question 14

 

1 out of 1 points

 

During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.

 

 

 

Question 15

 

0 out of 1 points

 

John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.

 

 

 

Question 16

 

0 out of 1 points

 

Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.

 

 

Question 17

 

1 out of 1 points

 

The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.

 

 

Question 18

 

0 out of 1 points

 

Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles of Jesus.

 

 

 

Question 19

 

1 out of 1 points

 

John sees prophetic fulfillment in the fact that when they pierced Jesus’ side with a spear both blood and water came out at once.

 

 

 

Question 20

 

0 out of 1 points

 

Matthew’s portrait of Christ is that of

 

Question 21

 

1 out of 1 points

 

In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.

 

 

 

Question 22

 

1 out of 1 points

 

The content of the New Testament Letters is doctrinal and personal.

 

Question 23

 

1 out of 1 points

 

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

 

 

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Question 24

 

1 out of 1 points

 

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

 

 

 

Question 25

 

1 out of 1 points

 

In John 3 Jesus met _______________, a Jewish ruler in Jerusalem, to whom He explains what it means to be “born again.”

 

 

Question 26

 

1 out of 1 points

 

At his crucifixion Jesus asked for a drink. John view this as a prophetic fulfillment.

 

 

 

Question 27

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

 

Question 28

 

1 out of 1 points

 

The book of Revelation was written by John on the island of

 

 

Question 29

 

1 out of 1 points

 

In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.

 

 

 

Question 30

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Matthew’s Gospel describes five extended teaching sessions, which are arranged in five major discourses. This was done so that readers could better follow what Jesus said about specific subjects.

 

 

 

Question 31

 

1 out of 1 points

 

John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”

 

 

Question 32

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old Testament.

 

 

 

Question 33

 

1 out of 1 points

 

The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.

 

 

Question 34

 

1 out of 1 points

 

In the Gospels, _________, the travel companion of Paul and Peter, writes for the Roman mind.

 

 

 

Question 35

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Because Luke was a physician, there seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.

 

 

Question 36

 

1 out of 1 points

 

The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.

 

 

 

 

 

Question 37

 

1 out of 1 points

 

According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.

 

 

 

Question 38

 

1 out of 1 points

 

The Mark who authored the Gospel of Mark is not the John Mark that Paul did not want to take with him on his second missionary journey.

 

 

 

Question 39

 

1 out of 1 points

 

All the authors of the New Testament were Jews, with the possible exception of the Roman citizen Paul.

 

 

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

 

According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.

 

 

Question 41

 

0 out of 1 points

 

The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.

 

Question 42

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Matthew’s Gospel names no audience for its message other than that which is implied in its Great Commission. Its message was ultimately intended to go to “all nations.”

 

Question 43

 

0 out of 1 points

 

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

 

Question 44

 

0 out of 1 points

 

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

 

 

Question 45

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Jesus was buried in a new tomb by Nicodemus and Joseph of Arimathea.

 

 

Question 46

 

1 out of 1 points

 

In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.

 

 

 

Question 47

 

1 out of 1 points

 

There is no purposeful arrangement to the letters as they are presented in the New Testament.

 

 

 

 

 

 

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Question 48

 

0 out of 1 points

 

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

 

 

Question 49

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.

 

 

 

Question 50

 

0 out of 1 points

 

Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 31:                Psychology

 

PSY 203 Week 4 Personality Perspectives Paper

 

 

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper comparing the main themes of the social-cognitive perspective with the humanistic perspective.

  • Describe the main concepts involved in each perspective.
  • Explain how the perspectives differ from one another.
  • Identify possible limitations of each perspective.

Include a minimum of two peer-reviewed articles.

Format citations in your paper consistent with APA guidelines

 

Question 32:      Psychology

 

PSYC 10004 Sample Practice-Exam-2015 MCQS Personality-Psychology

 

 

Sample Personality Exam Questions (answers at bottom of document)

  1. How many trait dimensions did Cattell propose?
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 5
  5. 16
  6. Which statement best describes how Allport and Odbert attempted to define the trait universe?
  7. correlational analysis of trait adjectives
  8. factor analysis of trait adjectives
  9. selection of trait adjectives that describe psychological differences between people
  10. selection of trait adjectives that people use to evaluate each other
  11. Which is of the following statements about factor analysis is correct?
  12. finds groups of variables that have similar meanings
  13. finds groups of variables that correlate with one another
  14. finds groups of variables that can be factored
  15. finds groups of variables that have similar means
  16. Which of the following is not an established alternative label for the relevant Big Five factor?
  17. Extraversion & “Surgency”
  18. Conscientiousness & “Morality”
  19. Neuroticism & “Emotional instability”
  20. Openness to Experience & “Culture”
  21. Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationships between Big Five traits and emotion dimensions?
  22. Extraversion is related to more positive affect and Neuroticism to more negative affect
  23. Extraversion is related to more positive affect and Neuroticism to less positive affect
  24. Extraversion is related to less negative affect and Neuroticism to less positive affect
  25. Extraversion is related to less negative affect and Neuroticism to more negative affect
  26. Which of the following statements about Eysenck’s and Gray’s theories is incorrect?
  27. For Eysenck, Neuroticism is related to limbic system reactivity.
  28. For Gray, the “behavioural activation system” is linked to sensitivity to reward and pleasure.
  29. For Gray, Impulsivity involves having a weak “behavioural inhibition system”.
  30. Gray’s Anxiety dimension corresponds to a mixture of Neuroticism and Introversion in Eysenck’s system.
  31. Which of the following statements about traits and values is incorrect?
  32. the structure of values appears to differ across cultures more than the structure of traits
  33. values are cognitions, traits are not
  34. traits appear to have more dimensions than values
  35. unlike traits, values are inherently desirable to the person who has them
  36. Which of the following is NOT one of the six virtue classes in the VIA classification of strengths?

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  1. Justice
  2. Transcendence
  3. Humanity
  4. Creativity
  5. Which two vocational interest types are next to one another in Holland’s model?
  6. Realistic & Enterprising
  7. Conventional & Social
  8. Artistic & Investigative
  9. Realistic & Artistic
  10. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding biological research and theory

on personality?

  1. extraverts’ brains are typically over-stimulated
  2. shared environmental factors are more important than nonshared factors
  3. the heritability of personality traits is sometimes calculated from twin studies
  4. 2D:4D digit ratio research shows the importance of circulating levels of neurotransmitters in the brain
  5. Which of the following statements about Eysenck’s work on personality is correct?
  6. Introverts have highly arousable autonomic nervous systems
  7. Neuroticism is associated with stimulus hunger
  8. Extraverts tend to like stimulant drugs more than Introverts
  9. High levels of Psychoticism put people at risk of depression
  10. Roughly what proportion of the variability in most personality traits tends to be heritable?
  11. 20%
  12. 40%
  13. 60%
  14. 80%
  15. Which Freudian defence mechanism does this statement illustrate: “I’m not jealous, you are”?
  16. projection
  17. repression
  18. sublimation
  19. denial
  20. Which of the following is CORRECT about Freud’s genetic model of personality?
  21. the anal stage takes place in the first two years of life.
  22. it recognises that personality has a large heritable component.
  23. fixations in the oral stage can lead to passivity and dependency.
  24. it has received extensive empirical support from developmental psychologists.
  25. One of these four lists contains concepts from Freud’s topographic, structural and genetic models, in that order. Which is it?
  26. Unconscious, ego, repression
  27. Unconscious, id, reaction formation
  28. Preconscious, superego, regression
  29. Preconscious, superfly, fixation
  30. Psychoanalytic theory is NOT often criticized for which of the following?
  31. being unfalsifiable
  32. being unscientific
  33. being deterministic
  34. being simplistic
  35. Which of the following statements about cognitive approaches to personality is correct?
  36. the repertory grid assesses people on a standard set of personal constructs
  37. pessimistic explanatory style involves explaining negative events using internal, stable and global causes
  38. self-complexity has repeatedly been shown to protect against depression
  39. emotional intelligence is a component of verbal intelligence
  40. Which of the following is an external, unstable attribution for why something happened to a person?
  41. fate
  42. the weather
  43. hard work
  44. bad mood
  45. Which of the following statements about research on the self is incorrect?
  46. High self-complexity buffers people against stressful life events
  47. High self-complexity is associated with having more self-aspects with less overlap
  48. Self-esteem is more a side-effect of achievement than a cause of it
  49. Average self-esteem levels may be rising in Western societies
  50. Which of the following does NOT accurately reflect research on self-esteem?
  51. it is more likely to be a byproduct of academic achievement than a cause of it
  52. it makes people secure so that they are less likely to act aggressively when they are insulted.
  53. having stable self-esteem may be more important than having high self esteem.
  54. defensive self-esteem involves having high explicit self-esteem but low implicit self-esteem.
  55. Which of the following forms of coping illustrates the indicated kind of coping

strategy?

  1. Emotion-focused: attacking a person who is making you unhappy
  2. Problem-focused: recognizing that an issue is causing you difficulties
  3. Emotion-focused: imagining that a problem will just go away
  4. Problem-focused: actively trying to change how you feel about a stressor
  5. Which of the following statements about personality change is NOT correct?
  6. mean levels of internal attribution have increased in recent decades
  7. there is much evidence of mean level change in adulthood
  8. rank order stability is measured by correlation coefficients
  9. rank order stability increases with age
  10. Which of the following statements about rank-order stability of personality is NOT correct?

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  1. it may be partially due to environmental selection (i.e., people selecting environments that support their traits).
  2. it increases with age.
  3. it is incompatible with evidence that the mean levels of Big Five traits change with increasing age.
  4. it is measured by re-test correlations in longitudinal studies.
  5. According to Erikson, what contrasts with Industry in one of his eight stages?
  6. Shame & doubt
  7. Isolation
  8. Guilt
  9. Inferiority
  10. Which statement about “lay theories” of personality is false?
  11. entity theorists believe personality is not malleable
  12. entity theorists stereotype people more than incremental theorists
  13. incremental theorists hold a ‘dynamic’ view of personality
  14. incremental theorists attribute differences between social groups to innate factors

26 . The items in a personality test correlate strongly with one another. What kind of reliability or validity does this imply?

  1. convergent validity
  2. content validity
  3. internal consistency
  4. retest reliability
  5. Which kind of validity or reliability does NOT match the description that follows it?
  6. re-test reliability: people get similar scores when they do a test on different occasions.
  7. discriminant validity: a test of one personality characteristic does not correlate with tests that measure different characteristics.
  8. convergent validity: people get similar scores on a test when different people administer it to them.
  9. internal consistency: the items in the test all correlate with one another.
  10. Which kind of validity scale is designed to detect random patterns of responding on a personality inventory?
  11. infrequency scale
  12. incompatibility scale
  13. lie scale
  14. defensiveness scale
  15. Which of the following is NOT a weakness of many projective personality tests?
  16. poor predictive validity
  17. poor inter-rater reliability
  18. susceptible to faking good bias
  19. susceptible to poor incremental validity relative to inventories
  20. Which of these potential flaws of psychobiographies is correctly defined?
  21. originology: over-emphasis on early life events in explaining the person
  22. pathography: insufficiently empathic interpretation of the person
  23. determinism: focussing too much on a single factor in explaining the person
  24. hagiography: portrayal of the person as extremely ugly

 

 

 

 

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Question 33:                Psychology

Psych 2230 Sample Practice-Exam2014-questions-and-answersChapters-1-13

 

 

Question 34:      Psychology

 

PSYC 215 SOCIAL PSYCH EXAMS CHAPTER 3 to 8

 

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Exam #3

 

  1. The amount by which an additional unit of a good or service increases a consumer’s total utility, all other things unchanged, is:
  2. A) marginal utility
  3. B) maximum utility
  4. C) average utility
  5. D) required utility

 

  1. The principle of diminishing marginal utility means that when Sarah eats pizza, her satisfaction from the second slice of pizza is probably:
  2. A) greater than that from the first.
  3. B) equal to that from the first.
  4. C) less than that from the first.
  5. D) not comparable to that of the first.

 

  1. Assume that the marginal utilities for the first three units of a good consumed are 200,150, and 125, respectively. The total utility when two units are consumed is:
  2. A) 150
  3. B) 200
  4. C) 350
  5. D) 475

 

  1. Suzy knows she has maximized her utility, because she is on her budget constraint and:
  2. A) consumption of Good X equals consumption of God Y
  3. B) what is sent on Good X equals what is spent on Good Y
  4. C) MUx/Px = MUy/Py
  5. D) MUx = MUy

 

  1. Joesph consumes pizza and soda. He is currently consuming three units of pizza and two units of soda. The price of pizza is $5 and the price of soda is $1. If he is consuming the optimal consumption bundle and his marginal utility of pizza is 50, then his marginal utility of soda is:
  2. A) 50
  3. B) 10
  4. C) 5
  5. D) impossible to determine unless you know Joseph’s income.

 

  1. While at the grocery store, Sidney sees that the price of Grape-Nuts is twice that of Cheerios. If Sidney buys both goods, then Sidney must:
  2. A) get twice as much marginal utility from Grape-Nuts as from Cheerios.
  3. B) get twice as much marginal utility from Cheerios as from Grape-Nuts.
  4. C) not be maximizing her utility.
  5. D) buy twice as much Cheerios.

 

Use the following to anser questions 7-8:

 

Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples

 

 

  1. (Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples) For some time, Sylvester has had $5 per month to spend on oranges and apples. The price of an orange is $0.50 and the price of an apple is $.025. Which of the charts shows what will happen to his budget line if his income decreases to $2.50?
  2. A) Chart A
  3. B) Chart B
  4. C) Chart C
  5. D) Chart D

 

  1. (Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples) For some time, Sylvester has had $5 per month to spend on oranges and apples. The price of an orange is $0.50 and the price of an apple is $.025. Which of the charts shows what will happen to his budget line if the price of an orange falls to $0.25?
  2. A) Chart A
  3. B) Chart B
  4. C) Chart C
  5. D) Chart D

 

Use the following to answer questions 9-10:

 

Table: Total Product and Marginal Product

 

 

  1. (Table: Total Product and Marginal Product) The marginal product of the second worker is:
  2. A) 10
  3. B) 15
  4. C) 20
  5. D) 30

 

  1. (Table: Total Product and Marginal Product) Negative marginal returns begin when the _______ worker is added.
  2. A) fifth
  3. B) sixth
  4. C) seventh
  5. D) eighth

 

  1. A planning period during which all of a firm’s resources are variable is the:
  2. A) long run
  3. B) fixed run
  4. C) short run
  5. D) nominal run

 

Use the following to answer question 15:

 

Figure: Short-Run Costs

 

 

  1. (Figure: Short-Run Costs) A is the _______ cost curve.
  2. A) average total
  3. B) average variable
  4. C) marginal
  5. D) total

 

  1. If marginal cost is greater than average total cost, then:
  2. A) average total cost is increasing.
  3. B) average total cost is decreasing.
  4. C) average total cost is unchanged.
  5. D) marginal cost is decreasing.

 

  1. A firm’s marginal cost is:
  2. A) the ratio of the change in fixed cost to the change in the quantity of output.
  3. B) the slope of the total cost curve.
  4. C) the slope of the average variable cost curve.
  5. D) the ratio of the change in total output to the change in the quantity of labor.

 

  1. When an increase in the firm’s output reduces its long-run average total cost, it experiences:
  2. A) economies of scale
  3. B) diseconomies of scale
  4. C) constant returns to scale
  5. D) variable returns to scale

 

  1. In the model of perfect competition:
  2. A) the consumer is at the mercy of powerful firms that can set prices wherever they prefer.
  3. B) individual firms can influence the price, but only slightly.
  4. C) no individual or firm has enough power to

 

 

 

 

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Question 26:                General Question

 

South University NSG5003 Final Exam 2019

 

 

Question 1 (5 points)

Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?

Question 1 options:

 

Lysosomes

 

Peroxisomes

 

Ribosomes

 

Oxyhydrosomes

Question 2 (5 points)

What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?

Question 2 options:

 

Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.

 

Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.

 

Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.

 

Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.

Question 3 (5 points)

Which statement is a description of one of the characteristics of apoptosis?

Question 3 options:

 

Apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered single cells.

 

Apoptosis is characterized by the swelling of the nucleus and the cytoplasm.

 

Apoptosis involves unpredictable patterns of cell death.

 

Apoptosis results in benign malignancies.

Question 4 (5 points)

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:

Question 4 options:

 

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:

 

The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels.

 

The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane

 

Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.

Question 5 (5 points)

What is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure?

Question 5 options:

 

Respiratory distress

 

Sun intolerance

 

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) aberrations

 

Death(not confirm)

Question 6 (5 points)

Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:

Question 6 options: chapter 3 q.2

 

Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.

 

The metabolic rates of obese adults are slower than those of lean adults.

 

The rates of urine output of obese adults are higher than those of lean adults.

 

The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.

Question 7 (5 points)

In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?

Question 7 options:

 

a)Oncotic pressure

 

b)Buffering

 

c)Net filtration

 

d)Hydrostatic pressure

Question 8 (5 points)
Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure?

Question 8 options:

a)Capillary hydrostatic

 

b)Interstitial hydrostatic

 

c)Capillary oncotic

 

d)Interstitial oncotic

Question 9 (5 points)

At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because:

Question 9 options:

 

a)The interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.

 

b)The capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.

 

c)The interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

 

d)The capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

Question 10 (5 points)

It is true that natriuretic peptides:

Question 10 options:

 

a)Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion.

 

b)Increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion.

 

c)Increase the heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.

 

d)Decrease the heart rate and increase potassium excretion.

Question 11 (5 points)

What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and coma in hypernatremia?

Question 11 options:

 

a)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink.

 

b)High sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels into the brain cells, causing them to swell.

 

c)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain cells, which slows the synapses in the brain.

 

d)High sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into the brain cells followed by water, causing the brain cells to swell.

Question 12 (5 points)

A major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses is the ratio between:

Question 12 options:

 

a)Intracellular and extracellular Na+

 

b)Intracellular and extracellular K+

 

c)Intracellular Na+ and extracellular K+

 

d)Intracellular K+ and extracellular Na+

Question 13 (5 points)

In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells’ resting membrane potential?

Question 13 options:

 

a)Hypopolarization

 

b)Hyperexcitability

 

c)Depolarization

 

d)Repolarization

Question 14 (5 points)

Physiologic pH is maintained at approximately 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of:

Question 14 options:

 

a)20:1

 

b)1:20

 

c)10:2

 

d)10:5

Question 15 (5 points)

Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in edema because of:

Question 15 options:

 

a)Losses or diminished production of plasma albumin

 

b)Inflammation resulting from an immune response

 

c)Blockage within the lymphatic channel system

 

d)Sodium and water retention

Question 16 (5 points)

Hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in:

Question 16 options:

 

a)A decrease in the activity of the oncogene, thus suppressing cancer development

 

b)Deactivation of MLH1 to halt deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) repair

 

c)An increase in tumor progression from benign to malignant

 

d)Overexpression of micro-ribonucleic acid (miRNA), resulting in tumorigenesis

Question 17 (5 points)

The functions of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and CD1 molecules are alike because both:

Question 17 options:

 

a)Are antigen-presenting molecules

 

b)Bind antigens to antibodies

 

c)Secrete interleukins (ILs) during the immune process

 

d)Are capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes

Question 18 (5 points)

The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex functions uniquely by:

Question 18 options:

 

a)Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T (Th) cell

 

b)Secreting chemical signals to help cells communicate

 

c)Recognizing the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte

 

d)Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus

Question 19 (5 points)

The generation of clonal diversity includes a process that:

Question 19 options:

 

a)Involves antigens that select lymphocytes with compatible receptors

 

b)Allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cells

 

c)Takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs

 

d)Causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations

Save

Question 20 (5 points)

Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:

Question 20 options:

 

a)Strong response from immunoglobulin M (IgM)

 

b)Level of protection provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG)

 

c)Memory cells for immunoglobulin E (IgE)

 

d)Rapid response from immunoglobulin A (IgA)

Question 21 (5 points)

What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?

Question 21 options:

 

a)Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.

 

b)Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.

 

c)Cytotoxic T (Tc) lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.

 

d)Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.

Question 22 (5 points)

When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of:

Question 22 options:

 

a)Complement-mediated cell lysis

 

b)Phagocytosis by macrophages

 

c)Phagocytosis in the spleen

 

d)Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products

Question 23 (5 points)

Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by:

Question 23 options:

 

 

Question 9:        Psychology

 

Instruction

develop an assessment and intervention plan for one of the clients in the videos and present it in an academic paper with scholarly references from the professional literature (e.g., Journal of Family Therapy, Journal of Marital and Family Therapy, The Family Journal, Journal of Marriage and Family Counseling, Journal of Contemporary Family Therapy, Journal of Counseling and Development). SEE ATTACHED for more detailed instructions on requirements.

 

 

Final Project: Marriage, Couple, and Family Counseling

Families face many challenges in today’s world and marriage, couple, and family counselors (MCF) are the professionals who help families navigate difficult times. Families are a working system and each element of that system impact the operation of the system and the individual members. Issues such as substance abuse, family violence, divorce, mental illness, infidelity, and child abuse present counselors with numerous treatment challenges. As an MCF counselor, will you be ready to address them?

For the Final Project, you will consider the clients in the solution focused YouTube videos you viewed earlier in the course (see: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tjdJhdA9mE4&list=PLgswj8XPfriWqAECgkNLXLjG vjUXdfSYQ)

For your Final Project, you are to develop an assessment and intervention plan for one of the clients in the videos and present it in an academic paper with scholarly references from the professional literature (e.g., Journal of Family Therapy, Journal of Marital and Family Therapy, The Family Journal, Journal of Marriage and Family Counseling, Journal of Contemporary Family Therapy, Journal of Counseling and Development).

Your project should include all of the following sections:

  1. Legal and ethical considerations regarding the family circumstances 2. Multicultural considerations
    3. Identify any family life cycle considerations
    4. Theoretical counseling model you would use in the case with rationale 5. Specific issues facing the family
  2. Assessment techniques you would use in the case with rationale
    7. Intervention plan for the family
    8. Research (at least five references) that support your intervention plan
    9. Prognosis for the family
    10. A reflection on your learning experience in this course and your preparedness for working as a marriage, couple, and family counselor.

Although the Final Project is not to be submitted until Day 7 of Week 12, you should become familiar with the project requirements and have them in mind as you proceed through the course. The Final Project will be evaluated according to the final project rubric. Be sure that the Final Project is written using APA format. Information on scholarly writing may be found in the APA Manual (6th ed.) and at the Purdue OWL Writing Center site (http://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/). The Final Project is due (in Blackboard AND TK20) on Day 7 of Week 12.

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Question 10:      Science

 

Instruction

For this paper you must cite and reference 2 sources. The paper should be 2–3 pages and written using current APA format. Your paper should address the following: a. How would you prepare for the following situation? (provide realistic examples and details for safety and survival) (Scenario) At this moment, you are sitting at home working on your class. Suddenly, the National Weather Bureau sends an alert across your cell phone—a tornado is headed your way. You have 15 minutes before touchdown in your neighborhood. What is your plan? This is a ‘shelter in place’ scenario, you cannot outrun the tornado. Identify a safe place in your home to take shelter. You must include research. Cite and reference two sources and explain the recommended safety measures in a tornado emergency and how you would apply them to your specific living arrangements. b. How prepared are you in the event of a disaster? Describe your level of disaster preparedness using specific examples and references to your “go-bag” and preparedness checklist assignments. Example: “I am more prepared for a water-related disaster than a fire-related disaster even though I live in a highly secluded, forested area. I have a boat as transportation in the event of flooding, but I do not have rain barrels or fire barrier supplies on hand.” Example: “There were many missing items on my preparedness checklist. I realized that I do not own a flashlight. If I had to use my phone as a light it would drain the battery very quickly. c. Reflect on how prepared you were before this class and compare it with how prepared you are now. Have you acquired any new emergency items? Do you plan to take any additional trainings or certification courses? Have you shared your knowledge with friends and family? Review the rubric for more information on how the assignment will be graded.

 

 

 

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Question 11:      General

 

INTL725 INSTRUCTIONS FOR GROUP PROJECT

INTERNATIONAL MARKET RESEARCH

Worth 25% of final mark

 

  • Week 8: 5% group research proposal (in-class)
  • Week 11-12: 5% group presentation on research proposal
  • Week 12: 5% group progress report (in-class)
  • Week 13: 10% group final report (in-class)

Each student will receive a different mark, depending on his/her contribution.

 

Instructions

 

  1. Select trade agreement, market and sector
  2. Have an idea of a market and a sector that you know well.
  3. Consult the list of Canada’s trade agreements to find the one that your market and sector can benefit (filter Status to “5 In force”).

https://www.international.gc.ca/trade-commerce/trade-agreements-accords-commerciaux/agr-acc/index.aspx?lang=eng

  1. Finalize your market and sector, the ones that can benefit from the selected trade agreement(s).

 

  1. Work with your group: discussing the trade agreement(s)
  2. Each student prepares a research proposal (due Week 8 in class).
  3. The group will make a presentation (Weeks 11-12).
  4. Each student prepares a progress report (due Week 12 in class).
  5. Each student prepares a final report (due Week 13 in class).

 

  1. Starting your research
  2. Keep in mind that this is an applied research (see the difference between applied and basic research), and the proposal and report should have a business format (see the difference between a business report and an academic report).
  3. Consult the Market Research section on EDC website: http://www.edc.ca/EN/About-Exporting/Trade-Links/Pages/market-research.aspx. You should use most/all links on this site for your sources of data and information. The link “Conducting Market Research” by Canada Business Network is particularly helpful.
  4. Consult the Data and Statistics section on EDC website: http://www.edc.ca/EN/About-Exporting/Trade-Links/Pages/data-statistics.aspx. You should use most/all links on this site for your sources of data and information.
  5. Consult the Market Reports section on GAC website: http://www.tradecommissioner.gc.ca/eng/market-report-access.jsp
  6. Consult the Related Resources section on GAC website: http://www.tradecommissioner.gc.ca/eng/related-resources.jsp
  7. Consult “Step #4: Setting out: Identifying your target market” in GAC “Step-by-step guide to exporting 2017”: http://tradecommissioner.gc.ca/exporters-exportateurs/guide-exporting-guide-exportation.aspx?lang=eng
  8. Consult sources suggested by GAC:

www.tradecommissioner.gc.ca

www.voyage.gc.ca

www.intercultures.ca

www.strategis.gc.ca

www.transparency.org

www.cia.gov (CIA World Factbook)

www.export.gov/mrktresearch/ (U.S. Commercial Service)

www.eiu.com (Economist Intelligence Unit)

www.fitt.ca, www.tradeready.ca

Other governments’ websites

Note: Do not use other sources, unless you can prove that they are good sources. Mark will be deducted if you use other sources without showing that they are credible sources.

 

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  1. Working on your Research Proposal

See Research Proposal – Sample.pdf on eCentennial

Consult the handout on the purpose and layout of a research proposal.

Length:

2 pages, plus cover letter, title page, graphs and references

Use multiple 1.15 or single line spacing, Times New Roman 12 points

 

Format:

Cover Letter (to the Canadian company)

Title Page

Introduction

Background

Business Opportunity*

Research Objectives*

Methodology* (data collection methods: secondary, primary, quantitative, qualitative, sampling; data analysis techniques)

Implementation Plan (time and cost estimates)

Conclusion

References

* most important in a research proposal

 

Required sources (at least 6):

  1. At least five reputable Internet sources from at least four different organizations
  2. One business journal article

Reminder about writing: Each paragraph should have only one major point. The first sentence is the summary of the paragraph. The length of a paragraph should be 1/3 – ½ of a page.

 

  1. Working on your Group Presentation

Please prepare PowerPoint for your presentation.

See Research Proposal Presentation – Sample.pdf on eCentennial

  • Consult Chapter 17 “The Research Report” in your textbook.
  • Consult the article “Is your elevator pitch ready?” by Canada Business:

https://canadabusiness.ca/blog/is-your-elevator-pitch-ready-1/

PowerPoint format (one slide each):

Introduction (introduce speakers and structure of presentation)

Background on the trade agreement(s)

For each student, 3-5 slides:

Business Opportunity

Research Objectives

Methodology / Sampling / Implementation Plan (time and cost)

Thank the audience and ask for questions

Length: 8 minutes presentation + 2 minutes Q&A / group

 

  1. Working on your Research Report (Progress and Final)

See Research Report – Sample.pdf on eCentennial

Consult Chapter 17 “The Research Report” in your textbook.

Length:

4 pages, plus cover letter, title page and references, tables, charts, graphs, pictures, maps

Use multiple 1.15 or single line spacing, Times New Roman 12 points

Format:

Cover Letter

Title Page

Executive Summary *

Introduction

Background

Business Opportunity

Research Objectives

Methodology (data collection methods: secondary, primary, quantitative, qualitative, sampling; data analysis techniques)

Data Analysis

Data Interpretation

Business Implications

Conclusion

References

* most important

 

Required sources (at least 10):

  1. At least six reputable Internet sources from at least four different organizations
  2. Three business journal articles from at least two different journals
  3. One printed book (such as the textbook)

 

Marking Rubric for Research Proposal:

 

Criteriononsetation

points Timesness reportaphs, APA styles, that they are good sources.rt). final version, etc

A-level B-level C-level D-level Unsatisfactory Mark
Business opportunity Identifies significant opportunity Identifies good opportunity Identifies adequate opportunity Identifies some opportunity Does not identify a clear opportunity /1
Research objectives, methodology, and sampling  

Excellent

 

Good

 

Adequate

 

Acceptable

 

Unsatisfactory

 

/2

 

Use of professional sources

Uses professional sources extensively and effectively Uses professional sources sufficiently Uses professional sources adequately Uses some professional sources Does not use professional sources  

/1

 

APA format

Documents sources using APA format precisely

 

Writing effectiveness

Writes clearly, concisely and effectively Writes clearly, concisely and effectively, with only a few errors Writes clearly and concisely, with many errors Writing is unclear, with too many errors Writing is unclear and unfocused, with many serious errors  

/0.5

Total: /5

Group members:

  1. ________________________________
  2. ________________________________
  3. ________________________________
  4. ________________________________

 

Marking Rubric for Group Presentation:

 

Criteriononsetation

points Timesness reportaphs, APA styles, that they are good sources.rt). final version, etc

A-level B-level C-level D-level Unsatisfactory Mark
Content: Business opportunity Effectively presents the opportunity Sufficiently present the opportunity Adequately presents the opportunity Present the opportunity acceptably Does not clearly identify the opportunity /2
Content: Research objectives, methodology, and sampling  

Excellent

 

Good

 

Adequate

 

Acceptable

 

Unsatisfactory

 

/2

Documentation: Use of professional sources All sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation Most sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation Some sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation A few sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation Sources of data are not documented and mentioned in the presentation  

/1

Organization Sequence is logical and interesting; audience can follow easily Sequence is logical and interesting, additional explanation could be helpful Sequence is logical; a lot more explanation could be helpful Sequence not very logical; audience has difficulty following the presentation Sequence not logical; audience cannot understand the presentation  

/1

PowerPoint quality Attractive, easy to follow, no errors Attractive, easy to follow, only a few errors Attractive, easy to follow, many errors Not attractive, many errors Not attractive, difficult to follow, many serious errors  

/1

Speaking skills

(articulation, proper rate, proper pronunciation, good posture, eye contact, enthusiasm, confidence)

 

 

Excellent

 

 

Good

 

 

Adequate

 

 

Acceptable

 

 

Inadequate

 

 

/1

Length of presentation Uses 10 minutes effectively, does not go overtime Uses 10 minutes sufficiently, does not goes overtime Uses 10 minutes adequately, does not goes overtime Uses 10 minutes adequately, goes overtime Does not use 10 minutes adequately  

/1

Q&A Handles the questions effectively Handles the questions properly Handles the questions adequately Handles the questions satisfactorily Does not handle the questions satisfactorily /1
Total: /10

 

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Additional comments (for each presenter) ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

 

throughout

 

 

Documents sources using APA format with a few errors Documents sources using APA format with many errors Does not use APA format adequately Does not use APA format  

/0.5

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Question 15: General Question

 

https://www.chegg.com/homework-help/questions-and-answers/show-excel-show-work-including-formulars-considering-investment-stock-market-identified-tw-q39604624

 

Question 16: Other

 

Unit 4 DB AM

 

Do you think that brands have a finite life, or do you believe that brands can last forever? Support your position with detailed explanations and the use of a brand example

 

Unit IV Essay
Marketing Plan: Part II

Throughout this course, you will compile a comprehensive marketing plan using one of the product/service scenarios listed in the Unit II assignment. (Note: You will use the same scenario throughout the course.) This scenario will be the basis of your start-up company and will be the catalyst for the subsequent marketing plan that you will compile. The company that you choose to submit a marketing plan for is a fictional start-up company (not an existing company).

This unit’s submission should consist of the items listed below.

  • Provide a segmentation and target market analysis.
    • In this section of the marketing plan, you should identify the four criteria useful in segmenting the market, and apply them to your company. Explain how identifying the target market is more clearly defined once a marketer has conducted segmentation on the population. Explain several target markets for your company using detailed explanations.
  • Include a competitive and industry analysis.
    • This section of the marketing plan should identify three or four competitors of your company. These can be direct or indirect competitors. (Note: Not all companies have competitors.) Differentiate each competitor based upon multiple criteria. Additionally, conduct an industry analysis by looking at the health of the industry in which your company resides. Identify whether the industry has grown or shrunk in the last 5–10 years. Explain why understanding the competitors and the health of the industry are important elements of the marketing plan.
  • Provide a SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats) analysis.
    • In this section, you will compile a SWOT analysis of your company. The internal strengths and weaknesses as well as the external opportunities and threats need to be identified and explained (include at least 2–3 elements under each area of the SWOT). The value proposition will be demonstrated through a strong showing in the strengths section of the SWOT analysis. Reference the SWOT analysis explanation in the Unit I Lesson for additional insight on how to compile this analysis.

Ensure you provide an introduction for this assignment that is engaging and provides a clear background to the purpose of the assignment. The format of the submission should be in essay format using subheadings. Use APA format. Additionally, you need to include a minimum of five sources, three of which must be peer-reviewed, academic sources that are no more than 5 years old. The submission should be a minimum of three pages in length (not counting the title and reference pages).

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 17:  Accounting

 

The Swiss Clock Shop manufactures clocks on a highly automatedassembly line. Its costing system uses two cost categories, directmaterials and conversion costs. Each product must pass through theAssembly Department and the Testing Department. Direct materialsare added at the beginning of the production process. Conversioncosts are allocated evenly throughout production. Swiss Clock Shopuses weighted-average costing.

Data for the Assembly Department for June 2010 are:

Work in process, beginninginventory           250 units

Direct materials (100% complete)

Conversion costs (50% complete)

Units started during June       800 units

Work in process, ending inventory:    150 units

Direct materials (100% complete)

Conversion costs (75% complete)

Costs for June 2010:

Work in process, beginning inventory:

Directmaterials          $180,000

Conversion costs        $270,000

Direct materials costs added duringJune       $1,000,000

Conversion costs added during June $1,000,000

prepare equivalent unit schedule for direct materials

prepare equivalent unit schedule for conversion costs

prepare direct materials costing schedule for total cost of units completed (transfered out and ending work in progress

prepare conversion costing schedule for total cost of units completed (transferred out) and ending

 

Question 18:  Engineering

 

If the velocity of block A up the incline is increasing at the rate of 0.060 m/s each second, determine the acceleration of B.

 

 

Question 19: General Question

 

https://www.chegg.com/homework-help/questions-and-answers/heights-women-aged-20-29-follow-approximately-n-642-28-distribution-men-age-heights-distri-q32003221

 

Question 20: Chemistry

 

A student, Ken, is given a mixture containing two carbonate compounds. The mixture includes MgCO3 and (NH4)2CO3. The mixture is 65.33>span class=”MJX_Assistive_MathML” role=”presentation”### CO3 is by mass. What is the mass percent of MgCO3 in the mixture?

 

Question 21: Business

 

Assignment

–       Select an industry (e.g. healthcare, agriculture). Identify ONE information system (e.g. transaction processing system, business intelligence, collaboration, knowledge management etc) that is unique to this industry and supports the core business (e.g. if you choose aviation industry, explore an aviation information system) (Hint: The system should be used mainly and only in that industry. Do not choose generic IS such as accounting, payroll, email, Microsoft Office. Also do not pick up a product of an IT firm such Microsoft Sharepoint Portal; we are not interested in a branded product, the same IS can be produced by multiple IT firms. If you are not certain about the IS, email me your alternatives and we will discuss.

–       Collect information on this specific IS using Internet, your textbook, other reading materials, videos, users or manufacturers / service providers.

–       Prepare a report about this IS by addressing following questions (you dont have to answer one by one, your writeup should answer below questions):

  1. What are the characteristics of this IS? What are the main functionalities / features? (Provide technical information as well). Identify couple of IT firms that produce this IS (It can be the case that there is only one IT firm that offers this IS. Then state this fact.)
  2. Which processes are supported by this IS? Who are the users (function, title, profession etc.) Describe in detail
  3. Which specific benefits does this IS offer for companies AND all stakeholders (including customers)? Which strategic objectives can be fulfilled using this IS?
  4. Are there any concerns / risks about usage of this IS: privacy, security, investment, technical etc.

Rules

  1. The educational systems that we use such as LMS, SIS are excluded.
  2. Your report should be of 1500 words, double-spaced, 12-point Times New Roman font, with 1-inch margins on all sides. Do not include questions to the text and word count. Name, title etc should be excluded as well. Submission below that will NOT be graded.
  3. Your report should be submitted as a Word document(.doc or .docx).  Other formats will NOT be accepted (including PDF).
  4. The file name should contain your name and last name (e.g. First_Name_LastName_Assignment1).
  5. Provide reference/citation for the sources that you referred (web page, textbook, person). The references are not counted towards the word limitation; you can present the list of references at the end of the report. I will deduct 5 points from submissions without references.
  6. You should submit your assignment via LMS. E-mail and hardcopy submissions will NOT be accepted.
  7. Late submissions will NOT be accepted. Please check the duedate and time.
  8. Do not forget to run the spelling – grammar check as that will affect your grade. I will deduct points if you don’t use proper business English.
  9. Make sure that the report presents your original ideas. Do NOT copy paste the text from the source (e.g. Internet) or borrow lines from your friends. Your report will be checked by a plagiarism tool; identical or similar (above 50%) assignments will NOT be graded.

Question 22: Mathematics

 

A point estimate of a population parameter is a single value of a statistic. For example, the sample mean x is a point estimate of the population mean μ. Similarly, the sample proportion p is a point estimate of the population proportion P.

 

Question 23: Mathematics

 

If the population proportion of women carrying HPV were 19%, what is the chance that the sample proportion could exceed 20%

 

Question 24: English

 

Compare the movie, smooth talk, with the story, ”where are you going, where have you been?” or the short film, ”where are you going, where have you been?” you could also compare all three. some of the things you could discuss are: Did you think the casting was done right? what did the movie leave out? What did the film add that wasn’t in the story? the ending is different in the movie, smooth talk, than it is in the short story was scarier? which was more interesting to you? these are just ideas but you can compare them using whatever criteria you like.

 

Question 25: Economics

 

The prices of consumer goods in Los Angeles and Miami are different: some things are cheaper in Mi-ami, while others are cheaper in Los Angeles. Suppose the price of every consumer good in Houstonis exactly halfway between the Miami price of that good and the Los Angeles price. A market research firm surveys 1000 consumers, who have different preferences over consumption bundles, and differ-ent incomes. The consumers are asked to rank these three cities in terms of the consumption bundles that they could afford in each place. The result of the survey is that 450 consumers rank Los Angeles first, 350 rank Houston first and 200 rank Miami first. Do all these consumers have rational preferences?

 

Question 26: Business

 

Costs are classified according to the type of analysis that is being done.  Suppose you were offered a job making $50,000 annually after you received your undergraduate degree.  However, you made a decision to get your MBA in 2 years rather than taking the job. You will incur tuition, books and living costs for these 2 years.

REQUIRED:

  • What costs are relevant to your decision?  Note that some costs relevant to a decision may not be quantitative.
  • What is the opportunity cost of this decision.
  • Comment on response of 2 classmates.  Agree or disagree

 

Question 27: Business

 

Tired of the worn out carpet in her house, Lee purchased bamboo plank flooring for $2,000 from Big Floors, Inc. She agreed to pay add an extra $2,200 for Big Floor to install for a total contract price of $4200. Which law governs this transaction?

 

Question 28: Religious Study

 

Research has shown that Kenyan value system today comprises of money, glamour, power and prestige. Explain the meaning of each

 

Question 29: Other

 

Does recycling contribute to the release of greenhouse gasses?

 

 

 

Question 30: Psychology

 

Correlation is NOT the same as Causation!

 

In the media, correlations are often presented as if there is a causal relationship. For example, a news outlet might report: Research suggests there could be a link between dairy intake and the risk of developing prostate and ovarian cancers. Then they ask: Does milk cause cancer? As a researcher, I have been interviewed by magazines and this is really frustrating!

 

Class, provide an example of when a media outlet reported a correlation as if there was causation (be sure to show your source), then, explain why correlations do not show causation.

 

Question 31: Literary Studies

 

Critical Thinking/ Written Communication/ Social Responsibility

Representation in the Media and Entertainment = How our own identity (Hispanic female, black male, queen person, etc.) is presented in culture: TV, Film Literature, Magazines, etc. Psychologists, Advertisers Analysts and artists agree that representation in media and entertainment (M&E) affects and individual deeply and with long lasting effects.

Do Research on Representation in the Media and Entertainment and write a 2-page essay answering the question:

Do you think that race relations and gen der issues in this country could be improved if Media and Entertainment changed their practices to be more equitable to people of color, women and women of color?

Some Research Topics:

  • Equity in Casting
  • Equity in film
  • Equity in theatre
  • Representation in film
  • Hollywood Diversity Report
  • Effects of tv on minorities
  • Effects of tv race and gende
  • Women and advertising
  • How woman is portrayed in film
  • Masculinity in TV and Film
  • Homophobia and the effects on Queer youth

 

Question 32: Political Science

 

Instruction

Answer the following question in 3-5 sentences each. 17. What is the “American Dream,” according to King? 18. How does King define and defend nonviolence? 19. What is “innocence,” according to Baldwin? Why is it problematic? 20. What is Baldwin’s assessment of the Nation of Islam? 21. How does Baldwin connect love and politics? 22. What are the key elements of Malcolm X’s conception of black nationalism? 23. What is the relationship between capitalism and racism, according to the Black Panthers? The League of Revolutionary Black Workers? Angela Davis? 24. Why does Baker advocate organization, rather than mobilization? 25. How does King define Black Power, and what is his assessment of it? 26. What is the relationship between the “world house” and American democracy? 27. How does color-blind discourse affect our understanding of Hurricane Katrina? 28. Why is gender significant for understanding Hurricane Katrina? 29. What is neoliberalism? 30. How does exposure to rap affect political attitudes? 31. Why are authenticity and hyper masculinity problematic? 32. What are the three most important indicators that criminal justice today constitutes “the new Jim Crow”? 33. Why is Alexander critical of color-blindness? 34. What are the strongest arguments for and against reparations?

 

 

Course Name Course POLS 393-01 Online Term and Year: Fall 2019
CRN  
Class Time This class is asynchronous (students can log-in on their own terms as long as assignments are completed on time). Please pay attention to those dates on the class calendar in this syllabus. The expectation is that all work will be turned in by 11:59pm every Sunday.
Class Location https://texsu.blackboard.com/webapps/login/

Student Username Is: last name + first name initial + last 4 digits of T#

Student password is: 6 digit birth date (MMDDYY)

Course Prerequisites  
Instructor Linda D. Smith
Office Location PA 402 Office Hours By Request
Instructor Email Linda.Smith@tsu.edu Instructor Phone 713.313.5261
Preferred Methods of Contact Email is the best way to reach me, if you do not have a response in 48 hours, please assume that your email was not received and follow up.    
Blackboard Help For Blackboard troubleshoots dial Dr. Claiborne at 713.313.4853

 

Course Description  
Course Purpose This course aims to introduce you to the cannon of African American political thought. Through readings, media, and discussions, we will explore how black Americans have defined themselves, espoused their thoughts on power and subjugation. We will explore the relationship between slavery and democracy, the role of historical and collective memory, the political significance of culture, and the connections between race and nation.  While underscoring the intersections of race, class, gender, and sexuality we will also exploring the construction of identity.
Learning Objectives 1)      Become familiar with the foundational text of African American Political Thought

2)      Understand the historical roots of different factions of African American Political Thought.

3)      Form and analyze arguments centered around race and power.

 

   

 

Material  
Textbooks               W. E. B. Du Bois, The Souls of Black Folk (Bedford)

Frederick Douglass, My Bondage and My Freedom (Yale)

Ida B. Wells-Barnett, On Lynchings (Humanity Books)

Marcus Garvey, Selected Writings and Speeches of Marcus Garvey (Dover)

James Baldwin, The Fire Next Time (Beacon)

Martin Luther King, Jr., Where Do We Go From Here? (Beacon)

Michelle Alexander, The New Jim Crow (Open Media)

Lester Spence, Stare in the Darkness (Minnesota)

 

Required Software Microsoft Word
Required Technology  Due to the nature of this course, you will need access to a computer to complete assignments for this course. There are several labs you can access to use computers on campus.

Please check their operating hours.

1.      Fairchild Tiger Hub

2.      Student Center Lab, 2nd Floor

3.      Labs within colleges

 

Grading Grading should be clear and explicit. You may include format, number, weight for assignments, descriptions, as well as a rubric. Below is just an example.
Grading Scale
A+,A, A-    
B+

B

B-

C+

C

C-

D+

   

 

 

 

 

 

Ds and Fs are failing grades in this course

D   (Refer to Catalog)
D-    
F    
Major Assignments and Grade Distribution
Response Questions Each week students will provide a response to a question based on the reading for the week. These essays are not summary essays but rather they must provide your own original thought supported by the readings. These are short essay questions with a maximum word limit of 500 words. Please see BlackBoard for the Response Question Rubric. 60% of grade
Final Project Students are to identify a minimum of 5 different contemporary political leaders/thinkers and conduct a study are the writings, speeches, etc. of these individuals.  Students are to trace the intellectual lineage (conservatism, black nationalism, black feminism, etc. ) , thinkers that clearly have had an influence on the individual’s political thought. Students should also identify with whom the individual is engaged in debate with, and ultimately students need to detail the main arguments the individual is making and the future implications that the arguments may have. The Rubric can be found on the assignment link of BlackBoard. 30% of grade
Class Participation You are expected to respond to at least one of your classmate’s blogpost for every assignment ( response question). 10% Percentage/Points of Total Grade
  Total: 100% or 100 Points
 

 

 
Course Outline This can be in the form of a course calendar. We have included a calendar format below.
Overview / Course Responsibilities All assignments in this class are due Sunday at 11:59pm. There will be no late assignments accepted.

 

Each week you will have three assignments due:

(1)   Discussion Board Assignment

(2)   One Discussion Board Response (minimum)

 

I have provided an outline for you below of all assignments and projects. Please pay close attention to due dates, assignment explanations, and where to submit.

Course Schedule Date Chapter / Focus Assignments
  8/26 I. Introduction: Streams of African American Political Thought

 

 

 

None
  09/02 II. Defining Questions: The Souls of Black Folk

 

Du Bois, The Souls of Black Folk, Forethought-ch.3

Response question #1

 

Du Bois, ch. 4-6, Washington, “Atlanta Exposition Address”*

Response questions #2, 3

 

 

Responses due 09//15
  09/16 Du Bois, ch. 7-10

Response question #4

Du Bois, 11-Afterthought

Response questions #5, 6

 

Responses Due9/22
  09/23 III. American Terrors

 

Walker, Appeal, Preamble-Article I*

Response question #7

 

Douglass, My Bondage and My Freedom, Editor’s Preface, Intro. (pp. 5-25),

ch. 1-14

Response question #8

 

Douglass, ch. 15-25, “Letter to His Old Master,” “The Nature of Slavery,” and “What to the Slave is the Fourth of July?”

Response questions #9, 10

 

 

Responses

due

09/29

 

  09/30 Wells-Barnett, “Southern Horrors,” as far as you can get in “A Red Record”

Response questions #11, 12

 

Wells-Barnett, finish “A Red Record”

Response question #13

 

Responses Due 10/06
  10/07 IV. Black Internationalism

 

Garvey, Selected Writings and Speeches, pp.1-82

Response questions #14, 15

 

Garvey, pp.119-22, 138-47, 160-69, 181-94; Du Bois, “The Souls of White Folk”*

Response questions #16

 

Response Due 10/13
  10/14 V. The Civil Rights Revolution

 

King, “American Dream,”* “Letter from Birmingham City Jail,”* “I Have a Dream”*

Response questions #17, 18

 

Baldwin, The Fire Next Time, as far as you can get.

Response question #19

 

 

Responses Due 10/20
  10/21 Baldwin, concluded.

Response questions #20, 21

 

Malcolm X: “Message to the Grassroots” (http://teachingamericanhistory.org/library/document/message-to-grassroots/); “The Ballot or the Bullet”*

Response question #22

 

Responses Due 10/27
  10/28 Newton and Seale, “What We Want/What We Believe,” “Rules of the Black Panther Party”*; The League of Revolutionary Black Workers, “Our Thing Is DRUM!”*; Angela Davis, “Political Prisoners, Prisons and Black Liberation”*

Response question #23

 

 

Response Due 11/03
  11/04 Charles Payne, “Ella Baker and Models of Social Change”*; King, Where Do We Go From Here, ch.1-2

Response questions #24, 25

 

King, Where Do We Go From Here, ch. 4-6

Response question #26

 

Responses Due 11/10
  11/11 VI. Post-Civil Rights Challenges

 

Screening of Kevin Jerome Everson and Claudrena Harold, Sugar-Coated Arsenic

 

Bobo, “Katrina: Unmasking Race, Poverty, and Politics in the 21st Century”*; Ransby, “Katrina, Black Women, and the Deadly Discourse on Black Poverty in America”*; Frymer, et al., “New Orleans Is Not the Exception”*; Dawson, “After the Deluge”*; Harris and Carbado, “Loot or Find: Fact or Frame?”*

Response questions #27, 28

 

Stare in the Darkness, Intro., ch. 1-2

Response questions #29, 30

 

Response Due 11/17
  11/18  

Spence, Stare in the Darkness, ch. 3-Conc.

Response question #31

 

Alexander, New Jim Crow, Intro., ch. 1-3

Response question #32

 

: Alexander, New Jim Crow, ch. 4-6

Response question #33

 

Response Due 12/01
  11/25 VII. Remembering the Past, Imagining the Future

 

Reparations: Forman, et al. “The Black Manifesto”*; Coates, “The Case for Reparations”*; Reed, “The Case Against Reparations”*; McWhorter, “Against Reparations”*; Virginia resolution expressing “regret” for slavery*

Response question #34

 

http://muse.jhu.edu/journals/theory_and_event/toc/tae.17.3S.html: Essays by Melvin Rogers, Michelle Smith, Lisa Miller, and Vesla Weaver

 

https://www.nytimes.com/2019/06/19/us/politics/slavery-reparations-hearing.html By Sheryl Gay Stolberg

 

Response Due 12/08

 

Essential Policies  
Attendance Policy  All assignments in this class are due Sunday at 11:59pm. There will be no late assignments accepted.

 

Each week you will have three assignments due:

(1)   Readings

(2)   Response Questions ( Posted on Blogs)

(3)   Reply to at least two classmates blog post

 

I have provided an outline for you below of all assignments and projects. Please pay close attention to due dates, assignment explanations, and where to submit.

Assignment Policies Late Work Not accepted under any circumstances other than medical documentation   Students may may  share articles, videos, audio recordings, etc on topics related to the course content with a brief summary and analysis.
Academic Misconduct Policy Engaging in any form of academic dishonesty with respect to examinations, course assignments, research projects, grades, and/or academic records, including, but not limited to plagiarism, cheating on exams, changing grades, and taking another student’s exam. ( COC 6.2)
ADA Policy The ADA of 1990 provides civil rights protection for individual with disabilities. It guarantees equal opportunities for “qualified individuals” with disabilities in all public facilities, educational programs, activities, services and benefits. The ADA upholds and maintains compliance standards to ensure institutions of higher education policies, procedures and practices are non-discriminatory.

 

Students needing academic accommodations should contact the Office of Disability Services at 713-313-7691.

 

Question 33: Sociology

 

Instruction

Guidelines for Observation Paper The object of this paper is to observe and analyze social interactions and gatherings by using sociological theory. Students are free to observe any event, gathering, interaction (parties, religious services, fraternity and sorority and other club events, athletic games, etc.). Structure: Introduction–tell the reader what you are observing and why you chose this particular event or group. This should be one paragraph. Observation– provided a detailed (“thick”) description of the event, noting its participants (ages, gender, race, ethnicity, class, etc) but most importantly the interactions and “social rituals” you witness. This should be 3 or 4 pages. Applying Theory– Apply the sociological theory we have discussed in class. Which particular theory (theories) best explains what you observed? Remember to apply theory to the actual and specific actions and behaviors that you observed (don’t just say basketball is a good example of so and so theory because the game stresses solidarity and team spirit). What was it about the particular event you observed that is best explained by the theory (or theories) that you selected? This section can be two or three pages. Conclusion– here is your chance to sum things up, speculate, and be more general. You should answer the “so what” question. What does your observation and application say about the particular slice of social life that you selected? The conclusion should be one or two paragraphs. REMEMBER TO ATTACH SOME PROOF (TICKETS, BULLETINS, PHOTOS, ETC.) THAT YOU ACTUALLY OBSERVED THIS EVENT!

 

Question 34: Economics

 

Identify a specific job within a specific company that you might be interested in applying for after you graduate from the University of Phoenix. Research the job and the field in general, as well as ethical issues managerial accountants have faced that would pertain to that field. Also, educate yourself on the basics of operations within the job and company you have selected. Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper to include the following:

 

Instruction

 

The job would be the CFO of the bank I currently work at which is BBVA and international bank Summarize the main duties of the job. Describe a specific ethical issue you might face in that position using 2 credible sources to support your description. Summarize the IMA’s standards of ethical practice and conflict resolution guide. Analyze how the IMA’s standards of ethical practice and conflict resolution guide applies to the ethical issue. Predict how you would handle the ethical issue. Hypothesize what would happen if no one in the company followed the IMA’s standards of ethical practice. Assess why it is important to follow the IMA’s stand

 

Question 35: Other

 

I need a strong American English writer to write a 20-page paper synthesizing literature information. The assignment will not be paid if it does not meet the standards of the assignment. This is a very serious and tough writing assignment. When responding please explain your understanding of synthesizing information.

 

PROBLEM 4S–8B Equivalent Units, Cost per Equivalent Unit, Applying Costs—FIFO Method

 

 

CHECK FIGURE

(4) Ending work in process: $40,800

 

Honeybutter, Inc., manufactures a product that goes through two departments prior to completion. The following information is available about work in the first department, the Mixing Department, during June.

 

      Percent Completed
    Units Materials Conversion
Work in process, beginning… 50,000 60% 30%
Started into production……… 470,000
Completed and transferred out 450,000
Work in process, ending……… 60,000 70% 20%

 

Cost in the beginning work in process inventory and cost added during June were as follows for the Mixing Department:

 

    Materials Conversion
Work in process, beginning… $24,500 $9,500
Cost added during June………. $377,600 $274,200

 

The company uses the FIFO method to compute unit product costs.

 

Required:

 

  1. Determine the equivalent units for June for the Mixing Department.
  2. Compute the costs per equivalent unit for June for the Mixing Department.
  3. Determine the total cost of ending work in process inventory and the total cost of units transferred to the next department in June.
  4. Prepare a report that reconciles the total costs assigned to the ending work in process inventory and to the units transferred out with the costs in beginning inventory and costs added during the period.

 

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What is an overhead cost?

Cost for the ceiling at the officeCost set aside for the distribution part of the process

Cost for everything that is not directly materials and laborThere is no such thing as an overhead cost

 

 

2. What is a cost driver?

Whatever causes a change in overhead cost

A phenomenon driving costs down for your business

An already budgeted expense

There is no such thing as a cost driver

202E04 – Problem 4-14 First Department Equivalent Units…

 

Problem 4-14: First Department — Equivalent Units, Cost per EU, Applying Costs — W/A Methods.Problem 4A-11 (Problem 4-14 Using FIFO Method)Given:Honeybutter, Inc., manufactures a product that goes through two departments prior to completion. Thefollowing information is available about work in the first department, the Mixing Department, during June.PhysicalPercent CompletedUnits to Account For:UnitsMaterialsConversionBWIP70,000 70%40%Units Started460,000 Completed & T/O450,000 EWIP80,000 75%25%Costs to Account For:MaterialsConversionTotalBWIP$36,550 $13,500 $50,050 Cost added during period391,850 287,300 679,150 $428,400 $300,800 $729,200 Required:Assume that the company uses the WA method.1. Determine the equivalent units for June for the first process.2. Compute the costs per equivalent unit for June for the first process.3. Determine the total cost of EWIP inventory and the total cost of units transferred to the nextprocess in June.4.

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Question 1: General Question

 

Walden University-NURS 6630 Final Exam (Graded A)

Walden University-NURS 6630 Final Exam (Graded A)

 

Question 2: General Question

 

Question 1 A ____ has first claim on specified assets, while a ____ is a debenture that has claims against a firm’s assets that are junior to the claims of mortgage bonds and regular debentures.

Question 2 When firms issue ____, the amount of interest and principal to be paid is based on specified market conditions. The amount of the repayment may be tied to a Treasury bond price index or even to a stock index.

Question 3 Bonds issued by ____ are backed by the federal government.

Question 4 ____ bids for Treasury bonds specify a price that the bidder is willing to pay and a dollar amount of securities to be purchased.

Question 16 The actual relationship reflecting the response of a bond’s price to a change in bond yields is

Question 17 Assume a bond with a $1,000 par value and a 7 percent coupon rate, three years remaining to maturity, and a 9 percent yield to maturity. The duration of this bond is ____ years.

Question 18 The difference between the 30-year mortgage rate and the 30-year Treasury bond rate is primarily attributable to

Question 21 A __________ is a privately negotiated contract that protects investors against the risk of default on particular debt securities such as mortgage-backed securities.

Question 22 Which of the following is not a guarantor of federally insured mortgages?

Question 23 ____ mortgages enabled more people with relatively lower income, or high existing debt, or a small down payment to purchase homes.

Question 24 An adjustable-rate mortgage increases interest rate risk for the ____, but reduces interest rate risk for the ____.

Question 36 The ____ index can be used to measure risk-adjusted performance of a stock while controlling for the stock’s beta.

Question 37 According to the capital asset pricing model, the required return by investors on a security is

Question 38 The demand by foreign investors for the stock of a U.S. firm sold on a U.S. exchange may be higher when the dollar is expected to ____, other things being equal. (Assume the firm’s operations are unaffected by the value of the dollar.)

Question 39 A beta of 1.1 means that for a given 1 percent change in the value of the market, the _______ is expected to change by 1.1 percent in the same direction.

Question 40 The ____ is commonly used as a proxy for the risk-free rate in the capital asset pricing model.

Question 41 If the standard deviation of a stock’s returns over the last 12 quarters is 4 percent, and if there is no perceived change in volatility, there is a ____ percent probability that the stock’s returns will be within ____ percentage points of the expected outcome.

Question 47 While an investor’s ability to simultaneously consider multiple markets to accommodate its orders was perceived to allow for more competitive pricing (lower transactions costs), it also led to a form of “_______________” whereby traders with relatively faster access to specific markets can use another trader’s planned orders and move ahead of that order.

Question 50 The risk of a short sale is that the stock price

 

Prepare a report that reconciles the total costs assigned to the EWIP inventory and the unitstransferred out with the costs in BWIP and costs added during the period.Honeybutter, Inc.Mixing Department Cost of Production ReportWeighted Average and FIFO Process Costing MethodsFor the Month of JuneEquivalent UnitsPhysical FlowD/MConversionDegree of CompletionUnits to Account for:D/MConversionBWIP70%40%70,000 Started during June460,000 Total530,000 Units Accounted for:Completed Units 450,000 From BWIP30%60%70,000 21,000 42,000 Started And Completed100%100%380,000 380,000 380,000 EWIP80,000 75%25%80,000 60,000 20,000 Total530,000 Calculation of Equivalent UnitsFIFO Equivalent Units(A)461,000 442,000 Plus BWIP EU from previous period49,000 28,000 Weighted Average Equivalent Units(B)510,000 470,000

 

 

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Question

Instruction

Review the assigned pages of the article “National Preparedness Guidelines,” focusing on the description of target capabilities and their corresponding elements. Review the assigned pages of the article “National Incident Management System.” Focus on the purpose, key concepts, and components of NIMS, such as the standardized Incident Command System (ICS). Review the assigned pages of the article “National Response Framework.” Focus on the overview of the framework and its guiding doctrine, as well as on the description of the various agencies and officials at all levels of government and the private sector that have roles and responsibilities in disaster response. Think about the likely threats that might affect your state or locale, such as terrorist attacks; natural disasters, such as tornadoes and hurricanes; and hazardous chemical spills. Select one threat for this assignment. Based on the threat you selected, anticipate the federal, state, and local organizations and/or agencies that would respond.

 

 

 

Homeland Security Organizations and Agencies

 

The homeland security system in the United States is a “national” system in the sense that it includes all levels of government—federal, state, local, and tribal—as well as the private sector and volunteer organizations. It does not refer to the federal government exclusively, nor just to the U.S. Department of Homeland Security. It is a comprehensive, integrated, multidisciplinary, and multijurisdictional system including a wide variety of organizations and agencies at all levels. Organizations and agencies must work together and effectively coordinate their efforts to prevent and respond to natural and man-made disasters and hazards. Documents such as the “National Incident Management System” (NIMS), the “National Response Framework” (NRF), and the “National Preparedness Guidelines” were created to help organizations and agencies coordinate their efforts. In this Discussion, you examine how specific organizations and agencies interact and coordinate their efforts when responding to a threat to homeland security.

 

To prepare for this Discussion:

 

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Review the assigned pages of the article “National Preparedness Guidelines,” focusing on the description of target capabilities and their corresponding elements.

 

Review the assigned pages of the article “National Incident Management System.” Focus on the purpose, key concepts, and components of NIMS, such as the standardized Incident Command System (ICS).

 

Review the assigned pages of the article “National Response Framework.” Focus on the overview of the framework and its guiding doctrine, as well as on the description of the various agencies and officials at all levels of government and the private sector that have roles and responsibilities in disaster response.

 

Think about the likely threats that might affect your state or locale, such as terrorist attacks; natural disasters, such as tornadoes and hurricanes; and hazardous chemical spills. Select one threat for this assignment.

 

Based on the threat you selected, anticipate the federal, state, and local organizations and/or agencies that would respond.

 

Think in terms of, and in reference to, the roles and capabilities of each respective organization and/or agency you identified and how they might interact and coordinate their efforts.

 

Post  a brief description of the threat you selected. Then describe at least two organizations and/or agencies in the national homeland security system that would respond to this threat. Include how and why they might respond. Finally, explain how the organizations and/or agencies might interact and coordinate their efforts when responding to the threat. Be specific, and use examples to illustrate your explanation.

Question 3: General Question

 

Question 1

6 out of 6 points
 

According to Higgins, nonprofit organizations have:

  • Question 2

6 out of 6 points

Managers of nonprofit organizations must measure their success by:

· Question 3

6 out of 6 points

This method relates to the actions necessary to implement the strategic plan.

· Question 4

6 out of 6 points

The beginning of management as a field of study dates approximately to the:

· Question 5

6 out of 6 points

La Piana Consulting defines the intensity of the commitment that two or more nonprofits must make to each other as:

· Question 6

6 out of 6 points

Most nonprofits obtain revenue from:

· Question 7

6 out of 6 points

Strive Partnership measures the partnership’s performance through the use of a(an):

· Question 8

6 out of 6 points

According to Edgar Schein, logos, ceremonies, and symbols belong to this defined category of culture.

· Question 9

6 out of 6 points

According to Collins, this type of leadership exists when the leader has the power to simply make decisions.

· Question 10

6 out of 6 points

The perception that nonprofits are less well managed than businesses is:

· Question 11

 

Nonprofit management literature is drawn from which of the three areas?

· Question 12

6 out of 6 points

Very high may suggest that an organization is inefficient, or even participating in unethical or fraudulent behavior.

· Question 13

6 out of 6 points

As Letts and colleagues observe, managers often face two challenges—getting the job done and:

· Question 16

6 out of 6 points

Which decade marked a turning point in public policy, with government outsourcing more of the delivery and management of social and human services to nonprofits, which resulted in the increased need for professional management in nonprofit organizations and an increased number of students interested in working for nonprofit organizations?

· Question 17

6 out of 6 points

Demands for accountability and the need for systems and procedures to comply with greater scrutiny and regulation also have contributed to the need for:

· Question 18

6 out of 6 points

Nonprofit managers should be committed to performance measurement but:

· Question 19

6 out of 6 points

One way to reduce dependency and thus maintain more autonomy is to:

· Question 20

 

According to the Independent Sector, one hour of volunteer time contributed to a nonprofit organization in 2013 was worth:

· Question 21

6 out of 6 points

Giving up something in return for something is referred to as a(an):

· Question 22

6 out of 6 points

A proposed merger between Operation Smile and Smile Train was cancelled due to:

· Question 23

6 out of 6 points

Roberta is participating in an interview about her nonprofit organization. The interview is being conducted by a local radio station. Roberta is communicating with the:

· Question 24

Needs Grading

Draw a diagram of Patricia Bradshow’s five board configurations.

· Question 25

Needs Grading

Explain the three basic elements that effective planning begins with?

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Be sure to support your postings and responses with specific references to the Learning Resources.

 

 

 

Learning Resources

 

Readings

 

Article: Kettl, D. F. (2003). Contingent coordination: Practical and theoretical puzzles for homeland security. The American Review of Public Administration, 33(3), 253–277.

Use the LegalTrac database, and search using the article’s title.

 

Article: Wise, C. R. (2006). Organizing for homeland security after Katrina: Is adaptive management what’s missing? Public Administration Review, 66(3), 302–318.

Use the ABI/INFORM Global database, and search using the article’s title.

 

Online Article: Homeland Security. (2008). National incident management system. Retrieved from http://www.fema.gov/pdf/emergency/nims/NIMS_core.pdf

 

Note: You are only required to read pages 1–8 of this article.

Online Article: Homeland Security. (2007). National preparedness guidelines. Retrieved from http://www.hsaj.org/?article=2.3.4 2.3.4.pdf

 

Note: You are only required to read pages 1–11 of this article.

Online Article: Homeland Security. (2008). National response framework. Retrieved from http://www.fema.gov/pdf/emergency/nrf/nrf-core.pdf

 

Note: You are only required to read pages 1–26 of this article.

 

Online Article: Homeland Security Council. (2010). Quadrennial homeland security review report. Retrieved from http://www.iaem.com/documents/QHSRReportFeb2010.pdf

Note: You are only required to read pages 21–36 of this article.

 

Online Article: Emergency Management Institute. (2007). Principles of emergency management supplement. Retrieved from http://training.fema.gov/emiweb/edu/08conf/Emergency%20Management%20Principles%20Monograph%20Final.doc

Optional Resources

 

Online Article: Bach, R., & Kaufman, D. J. (2009). A social infrastructure for hometown security: Advancing the homeland security paradigm. Homeland Security Affairs, V(2). Retrieved from http://www.hsaj.org/?article=5.2.2

 

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Question 2: Business questions

 

 

Business Interview Case Study

 

  1. How would you work with a subordinate who is underperforming?

We experienced many new workers during my time at Chevron. I had to pick up their slack because I was in charge of training new employees. I would pull them aside after our shift and kindly talked about where they could improve. I made sure I was there to help them and we finally figured it out together.

 

  1. You’re consulting with a large pharmacy with stores in multiple states. This company has improved sales but experienced a decrease in revenue. As a result, it is contemplating store closings. Explain how you’d advise this client?

  1. You are working directly with a company’s management team. It is organizing a project designed to significantly increase revenue. If you were provided with data and asked to supervise the project, what steps would you take to ensure it’s successful?

First, I’d make the team friendly and make sure we all have the same goal. I would listen and respond appropriately to any questions or concerns they may have. I would ensure that everyone has a specific task, that deadlines are fulfilled and that control is maintained.

 

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Question 4: History

 

Why is it not appropriate to deposit non-western artifacts in the natural collection of history?

 

 

Question 5: Biology

 

Nsg5003 advanced pathophysiology   final exam answers south university

 

Question 6: Mathematics

 

Antonio would like to replace his gold clubs with a custom-measured set. A local sporting goods megastore is advertising custom clubs for $520, including a new bag. In-store financing is available at 3.93 percent, or he can choose not to renew his $300 certificate of deposit (CD), which just matured. The advertised CD renewal rate is 5.08 percent. Antonio knows the in-store financing costs would not affect his taxes, but he knows he’ll pay taxes (25 percent federal and 5.75 percent state) on the CD interest earnings.

The after-tax CD earnings rate is   %

 

Question 7: Sociology

 

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

  • How does one recognize sexual harassment?
  • Discuss the different types of sexual harassment?
  • What is required to support a case of sexual harassment in that situation?

 

Question 8: Business

 

Scenario: You are the marketing manager for a local nonprofit charity whose funding is derived from membership fees. You have noticed a severe drop in new memberships and a decline in repeat memberships, which is threatening your organization’s ability to survive and grow. You have decided to implement the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach to help clarify the problem and develop strategies for implementation.

 

Create a 10- to 15-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint®, Prezi, or Microsoft® Sway® presentation with speaker notes on the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach in which you detail the steps you will use to address the membership issue that the local nonprofit charity is facing.

 

Address the following in your role as marketing manager:

 

  • Define the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach and discuss the importance of research in marketing.
  • Describe each step of the Marketing Research Approach in detail and create a plan of attack to explain how each stage should be implemented.
  • Define the target market that you are striving to bring into this organization and describe the methods of research that you will use to identify these groups of people.
  • Define service differentiation. Provide an example that illustrates how the local nonprofit charity in the scenario can use differentiation to help increase the target market’s interest.
  • Explain how differentiation will help position the charitable organization within its defined market.

 

Question 9: Business

 

answer survey questions only need 2 solution

SCREEING:

Have you ever done genetic testing like 23andme/Ancestry.com or plan to? (If yes, proceed with Interview)

If you have not done testing, are you familiar with these tests? (If yes, proceed with Interview. If no, move on to next person)

 

 

Age:

  • 18-24
  • 25-34
  • 35-44
  • 45-54
  • 55-64
  • Over 65

 

Gender:   Male     Female

 

 

Children:                                                  If none, Do you want children?

 

Highest level of Education:

  • High School or Equivalent
  • Some college-no degree
  • Technical School
  • Associate’s Degree
  • Bachelor’s Degree
  • Graduate Degree

 

Household Income:

  • >$25K
  • $25K – $50K
  • $50K – $75K
  • $75K – $100K
  • $100K – $150K
  • $150K+

 

Social Media use:

  • Facebook
  • Instagram
  • Twitter
  • LinkedIn

 

ONLINE BEHAVIOR

  1. Tell me about a time you purchased something directly from a social media link? Or Online?

 

HEALTH AND LIFESTYLE

  1. What are the biggest issues you face with your lifestyle?

 

  1. Do you have any concerns about your health?

 

GENETIC TESTING

  1. Have you done genetic testing yet?
  2. If not, why?
  3. What would you hope to learn about yourself Medically?
  4. What would you not want to learn about yourself?

iii.      What features would you want from the process/product?

 

    1. If yes, why did you get the testing?
    2. Who did you use? Why did you decide to go with them?
    3. What was the process for the purchase?

iii.      What, if anything, would you have changed or wanted but didn’t get?

  1. What have you done with your raw data?
  1. Who do you know that is concerned about genetic privacy?

 

  1. What kind of products would you be interested in receiving marketing for based on your genetic information?

 

Question 10: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

 

Discuss the direct and indirect costs associated with staffing decisions. How have those decisions affected you directly or indirectly?

 

 

  1. You have been assigned to work with a small company that manufactures a popular product. However, a competitor begins selling a very similar product which incorporates state of the art technology. What would you advise your client to do?
  2. You have been assigned to advise a company with a large Western European market. Company management wants to open the Chinese market. What advice do you have for this company?

I would advise the company to conduct Chinese market research. Then, I’d ask how they think this market can be successful. Afterwards, I would assist in the development of a business plan setting goals, tasks, budget/contacts, and deadlines.

 

  1. The firm has assigned you to consult a company intending to drop a product or expand into new markets in order to increase revenue. What steps would you take to help this company achieve its objective?
  2. You have been assigned to consult a shoe retailer with stores throughout the nation. Since its revenue is dropping, the company has proposed to sell food at its stores. How would you advise this client?

I’d start by asking what their plans are and how they can succeed. I’d give feedback to the new idea. Then I’d like to ask if they know why revenue is dropping. I would advise them to look into it if they don’t know, by contacting various departments in their stores. Once we’ve addressed that, we can discuss new ideas for sneakers that can increase revenue while we’re waiting results.

 

Question 3: English

 

An English essay one topic of your choosing from the list: The importance of voting Protecting the environment Off-shore drilling Nuclear Proliferation Funding for the arts The Quaker tradition The Women’s Suffrage Movement The Women’s Suffrage movement William Lloyd Garrison John Brown

 

 

Instruction

Read through the instruction on the attachment and figure out how you would like to proceed from there. But, this must be an ESSAY.

 

Graded Assignment

The American Renaissance Unit Test, Part 2

Answer the questions fully, using examples from the reading selections to support your answers. You may refer to your Journeys anthology to answer these questions. When you are finished, submit this assignment to your teacher by the due date for full credit.

Total score: ____ of 55 points

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(Score for Question 1: ___ of 15 points)

  1. Both Walt Whitman and Emily Dickinson were influenced by the Romantics. Choose one of the two poets. Provide at least three ways that he or she reflects Romantic thinking in his or her writing. Then give an example from one of the works that you studied in this unit that illustrates that characteristic.

 

 

(Score for Question 2: ___ of 15 points)

  1. You learned a lot about Whitman and Dickinson’s writing styles during this unit. Although they both broke stylistic boundaries, their styles are different. Write a paragraph in which you explain one characteristic of either poet’s style. Name the characteristic, explain how it is used in the poetry, and then describe the effect that the characteristic produces. Support your answer with examples from the poems.

.

(Score for Question 3: ___ of 25 points)

  1. Now return to your book, and select a poem from Whitman or Dickinson that you did not study in the unit. Explain how the poem reveals Romantic thinking. Cite examples from the poem as your support.
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Question 4: Biology.

 

500 words on importance of prenatal care

 

Question 5: Political Science

      

Political Science 260 INTRODUCTION TO COMPARATIVE POLITICS Summer 2019 For this class you will write an 8-10-page (2,000 word minimum) research paper. This paper will make an argument about the nature of some aspect of politics based on an analysis of some aspect of a political system of your choice. Topics can include such things as institutional analysis (legislatures, executive branch, federalism, electoral systems), or broader issues of political behavior, such as revolutionary change, civil-military relations, gender politics, democratization, inter-ethnic relations, etc. In selecting a topic and country, keep in mind that you are going to have to research whatever it is that you select, and some topics and countries are much more easily researched than others. Under most circumstances you may not include a country that we cover in class in your paper, and should not include the United States

 

Question 6:  Health Care

 

Health Information Systems Technology and Applications Due Date: Wed,6/5/19 by 11pm cst Deliverable Length: 6-8 slides

 

 

Instruction

As the manager of the CTU Health Care information systems department, you realize the need for seamless integration among all operating systems of the departments within the health care organization (HCO). Discuss the importance electronic health record (EHR) conceptual framework integration and achieving interoperability. Prepare a PowerPoint presentation for the stakeholders of the different departments that expresses the importance of the interoperability of all computing systems within the health care organization. In this presentation, you should address the ramifications of the lack of integration of the information systems among the departments.

 

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Question7:  Other

3 page paper with NO REFERENCES

 

Instruction

I need a 3 page essay titled “Giving Back to My Community” – The essay should discuss how I give back and why giving back is important. Include these points: – Volunteer at local animal shelter – Starting own pet sitting business with low rates to accommodate pet owners on a low or fixed income – Member of the World Wildlife Fund – My future plans of expanding my business into a means of allowing other high school students to earn community service hours No References – Double spaced – Times New Roman – 12 font – Must use the points provided

 

Question 8:       Psychology

 

  • Attached Files:

o     PSY201 Case Study Assignment and Rubric.docx (14.47 KB)

Due:  Midnight Sunday.

Analyze a case study from Children On Track – Case Scenarios. Adapted / Reprinted with permission by the Best Start Resource Center.

  • Choose ONE of the following cases:

o    Case # 1 Eric

o    Case #2 Giselle

o    Case #6 Sammy and Willow

  • Answer all the questions asked at the end of your chosen case study thoroughly.
  • Include an analysis of each of the issues you identify and the solutions you provide.
  • Support your responses with information from scholarly readings.
  • Write your answers in a Word document.

Refer to the attached document for the grading rubric. Submit your work by clicking on the SafeAssign link below.  Click on the link again to view the resulting SafeAssign report.

Unit 5 – Case Study

Assignments submitted through this link will be checked using SafeAssign by Blackboard. Your work will not be used for any purpose other than preventing plagiarism in the University. Ownership of the intellectual property contained in your written work will not be transferred to any third party. Please submit your paper as a Word Document. If you have the 2010 version of Word, please save your paper in a previous version (Word 97-2003 document) as Safe Assign may not accept the most recent version.

>> View/Complete

 

Resource: Strategic Staffing, Ch. 13; Staffing Metrics Evaluation Grading Guide

Staffing metrics can be short-term or long-term, and efficiency- or effectiveness-oriented. Short-term metrics can be used as leading indicators to gauge a company’s ability to place the right people in the right jobs at the right time. Long-term metrics are best for evaluating the effectiveness of a staffing system because they drive the financial impact of staffing for the organization.

Choose an organization with which you are familiar.

Evaluate in 700 to 1,050 words three metrics that are – or should be – used to determine how well the staffing process meets the needs of the organization.

Describe the metrics selected for discussion.

Assess how these help the organization determine effectiveness.

Use the information available in Strategic Staffing, Ch. 13, and supplement it with your own research.

Cite any sources according to APA formatting guidelines.

 

 

Question 12: Education

 

Scenario: You are the marketing manager for a local nonprofit charity whose funding is derived from membership fees. You have noticed a severe drop in new memberships and a decline in repeat memberships, which is threatening your organization’s ability to survive and grow. You have decided to implement the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach to help clarify the problem and develop strategies for implementation.

 

Create a 10- to 15-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint®, Prezi, or Microsoft® Sway® presentation with speaker notes on the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach in which you detail the steps you will use to address the membership issue that the local nonprofit charity is facing.

 

Address the following in your role as marketing manager:

 

  • Define the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach and discuss the importance of research in marketing.
  • Describe each step of the Marketing Research Approach in detail and create a plan of attack to explain how each stage should be implemented.
  • Define the target market that you are striving to bring into this organization and describe the methods of research that you will use to identify these groups of people.
  • Define service differentiation. Provide an example that illustrates how the local nonprofit charity in the scenario can use differentiation to help increase the target market’s interest.
  • Explain how differentiation will help position the charitable organization within its defined market.

 

Question 13: Health Care

 

In a 750-1000 word essay in APA format,  critically evaluate the following scenario:

Mrs. J. is a 63-year-old married woman who has a history of hypertension, chronic heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Despite requiring 2L of oxygen/nasal cannula at home during activity, she continues to smoke two packs of cigarettes a day and has done so for 40 years. Three days ago, she had sudden onset of flu-like symptoms including fever, productive cough, nausea, and malaise. Over the past 3 days, she has been unable to perform ADLs and has required assistance in walking short distances. She has not taken her antihypertensive medications or medications to control her heart failure for 3 days. Today, she has been admitted to the hospital ICU with acute decompensated heart failure and acute exacerbation of COPD.

Subjective Data

  1. Is very anxious and asks whether she is going to die.
  2. Denies pain but says she feels like she cannot get enough air.
  3. Says her heart feels like it is “running away.”
  4. Reports that she is exhausted and cannot eat or drink by herself.
  5. Height 175 cm; Weight 95.5kg.
  6. Vital signs: T 37.6C, HR 118 and irregular, RR 34, BP 90/58.
  7. Cardiovascular: Distant S1, S2, S3 present; PMI at sixth ICS and faint: all peripheral pulses are 1+; bilateral jugular vein distention; initial cardiac monitoring indicates a ventricular rate of 132 and atrial fibrillation.
  8. Respiratory: Pulmonary crackles; decreased breath sounds right lower lobe; coughing frothy blood-tinged sputum; SpO2 82%.
  9. Gastrointestinal: BS present: hepatomegaly 4cm below costal margin.
  10. IV furosemide (Lasix)
  11. Enalapril (Vasotec)
  12. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
  13. IV morphine sulphate (Morphine)
  14. Inhaled short-acting bronchodilator (ProAir HFA)
  15. Inhaled corticosteroid (Flovent HFA)
  16. Oxygen delivered at 2L/ NC
  17. Describe the clinical manifestations present in Mrs. J.
  18. Discuss whether the nursing interventions at the time of her admissions were appropriate for Mrs. J. and explain the rationale for each of the medications listed.
  19. Describe four cardiovascular conditions that may lead to heart failure and what can be done in the form of medical/nursing interventions to prevent the development of heart failure in each condition.
  20. Taking into consideration the fact that most mature adults take at least six prescription medications, discuss four nursing interventions that can help prevent problems caused by multiple drug interactions in older patients. Provide a rationale for each of the interventions you recommend.
  21. Provide a health promotion and restoration teaching plan for Mrs. J., including multidisciplinary resources for rehabilitation and any modifications that may be needed. Explain how the rehabilitation resources and modifications will assist the patients’ transition to independence.
  22. Describe a method for providing education for Mrs. J. regarding medications that need to be maintained to prevent future hospital admission. Provide rationale.
  23. Outline COPD triggers that can increase exacerbation frequency, resulting in return visits. Considering Mrs. J.’s current and long-term tobacco use, discuss what options for smoking cessation should be offered.

 

Question 14: Religious Study

 

BIBL 104 Quiz 8 Final

  • Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Jude wants believers to contend actively and aggressively for the fundamentals of the Christian faith.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 2

1 out of 1 points

Almost half of the twenty-five verse in Jude share a similar thought, idea, or example with material from 2 Peter.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 3

1 out of 1 points

According to the author of Hebrews, In light of what Jesus has done, believers are encouraged to:

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 4

1 out of 1 points

In 1 Peter believers are identified as

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 5

1 out of 1 points

In Jesus’ priestly duties, he offered his own blood once and for all.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 6

1 out of 1 points

In the seven seal judgments the black horse stands for bloodshed

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 7

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not something John claimed about love in 1 John?

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 8

1 out of 1 points

According to 1 Peter, Christ is the

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 9

1 out of 1 points

James believes that those who only hear the Word of God deceive themselves

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 10

1 out of 1 points

James uses two Old Testament illustrations to show the works of people who were saved by faith. One of these is

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 11

1 out of 1 points

______________ was one of the three people in the inner circle of our Lord’s disciples

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 12

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, the emphasis of Revelation is to assure us that Jesus is indeed, coming again.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 13

1 out of 1 points

___________ was the persevering church

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 14

1 out of 1 points

James warns believers about

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 15

1 out of 1 points

The author of Hebrews explains what it means for Jesus to be the Mediator of a better covenant.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 16

1 out of 1 points

In 1 John, John reminds his audience that those who profess to know Jesus yet do not keep His commandments are liars and the truth is not in them.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 17

1 out of 1 points

According to 1 Peter, Christians viewed themselves “as God’s slaves.” This meant that they were truly free from the dominion of the world.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 18

1 out of 1 points

The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is

Selected Answer:

  • Question 19

1 out of 1 points

Jude directs his readers to “contend for the church that was instituted for the communion of the saints and the salvation of the world.”

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 20

1 out of 1 points

Hebrews compares Jesus’ priesthood with ___________ priesthood.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 21

1 out of 1 points

According to the writer of Hebrews, believers should stand firm in their confession because they have something those following Moses did not have. They have Jesus, the Son of God, as their Great High Priest.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 22

1 out of 1 points

In 1 John, John remind his audience what they already know, specifically that God hears and grants their prayer requests.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 23

1 out of 1 points

As a sinless priest, Jesus did not have to offer sacrifices for Himself as Aaron did.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 24

1 out of 1 points

In the new eternal city eternal city sin, rebellion, sorrow, sickness, pain, and death are eliminated.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 25

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not one of the new things found in the eternal state?

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 26

1 out of 1 points

In the seven trumpets of judgment the sun is darkened through air pollution.

Selected Answer:

True

  • Question 27

1 out of 1 points

Jude describes false teachers as

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 28

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, some feel that James’ teaching on faith and works runs counter to the teachings of

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 29

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not one of the sevens that form the outline for the book of Revelation?

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 30

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, the book of Revelation ends with a dramatic postscript which describes the millennium in which Satan is bound in the abyss and Christ and His saints rule the world with a “rod of iron.”

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 31

1 out of 1 points

James teaches that God is waiting to give wisdom to anyone who asks for it

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 32

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, some scholars view Hebrews as a sermon or even as a series of sermons.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 33

1 out of 1 points

In light of what Jesus has done, the author encourages his audience to:

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 34

1 out of 1 points

The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 35

1 out of 1 points

According to the author of Hebrews, Jesus’ priestly duties were not performed in an earthly sanctuary, a mere copy of the heavenly, but in the heavenly sanctuary itself.

Selected Answer:

True

  • Question 36

1 out of 1 points

_____________ was the powerless church

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 37

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Jude uniquely ties together doctrinal error with the immoral lifestyle of false teachers suggesting immorality leads to heresy.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 38

1 out of 1 points

In 3 John, John acknowledges that Diotrophes refusal to be corrected will lead to his exposure when John arrives.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 39

1 out of 1 points

According to 1Peter, believers should submit to every Christian institution in order to
silence the unfounded criticism of unbelievers.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 40

1 out of 1 points

Jude’s reference to both Old Testament examples and those of Jewish non-canonical books indicate his readers were Jewish Christians.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 41

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, the author of 2 John is most likely not the same author as 1
John.

Selected Answer:

False

  • Question 42

1 out of 1 points

____________ was the prosperous church

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 43

1 out of 1 points

In James’ discussion on hearing and doing he uses the example of

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 44

1 out of 1 points

Jude describes false teachers as

Selected Answer:

fruitless trees

  • Question 45

1 out of 1 points

Hebrews begins by asserting that Jesus is greater than

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 46

1 out of 1 points

____________ was the persecuted church.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 47

1 out of 1 points

In 2 John, John expresses the joy he felt when he learned that some members of the recipient’s church body were following the Father’s command to walk in truth.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 48

1 out of 1 points

The rock of refuge represents the church and believers everywhere and is one of the seven symbolic players in the eschatological drama of the book of Revelation.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 49

1 out of 1 points

The author of Hebrews list several personal examples of faith. From this list select the one Biblical character that is not mentioned by the author of Hebrews in Hebrews 11:1-40.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 50

1 out of 1 points

The author of 2 John and 3 John calls himself

Selected Answer:

 

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Question9:  History

 

I am looking for someone to do 2 assignments both assignment follow the same requirements but two different paper. I will provide more info below. please make sure the papers are plagiarism free and I will need APA citation (reference page) and in text citation please and thank you

 

Instruction

the assignment (outline) is to choose a country one assignment will be focus on china and the other on will be france. In addition we will need to choose four concepts which we both choose the same we decided to do ( age of exploration 1400-1800, age of imperialism 1800-1945, industrial revolution, age of decolonization) and do some research on it and answer the question in details and make sure you include a lot if dates and connect the events that goes with it. You can download the worksheet twice so you can answer the questions because their wont let me insert it twice Thank you in advanced

 

Name: Guirlene Hyppolite

The location I am researching is → This must be selected from the list provided by your instructor.

 

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Mark the four concepts/themes that you plan to talk about in your presentation in the chart below. You should base your selections off what you have found in your research so far – this means that you should be able to identify an event or a time in your country’s history that is clearly connected to each theme you check off below:

 

Check off Selections Concept/Theme Lesson/Milestone Alignment
The significance of features of “advanced” civilizations Week 1, Milestone 1
The significance of the Age of Exploration and Encounter (1400-1800) Week 2, Week 6, Milestone 3
The significance of the Age of Modern Imperialism (1800-1945)

 

Week 6, Milestone 3
The significance of major religious traditions or religious conflicts Milestone 1, touched on in multiple weeks
The significance of The Age of Atlantic Revolutions (including Enlightenment Ideas) Week 4, Milestone 2
The significance of the Age of Decolonization (post-1945) Week 8
The significance of the Industrial Revolution or industrialization Week 5
The significance of Nationalism (including modern ethno-nationalism and fascism) Week 7, Week 8
The Impact of modern warfare (WWI or later)

 

Week 7, Week 8, Week 9
The impact of Cold War ideological divisions

 

Week 8
The Impact of Modern Globalization on today’s world

 

Week 9

 

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Next, complete the research info sections below. At least one source must be a primary source.

Concept/Theme Selection #1

 

  • Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?

 

 

 

 

  • Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):

 

 

 

 

  • Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:

 

 

Concept/Theme Selection #2

 

  • Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?

 

 

 

  • Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):

 

 

 

  • Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:

 

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Concept/Theme Selection #3

 

  • Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?

 

 

 

  • Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):

 

 

 

  • Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:

 

 

Concept/Theme Selection #4

 

  • Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?

 

 

 

  • Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):

 

 

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  • Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:

 

Question 10:      English

 

Instruction

I need an essay written on the book Charlotte Temple by Susanna Rowson. This essay is likely to be 3-4 pages, although complete instructions by my teacher has not been revealed yet. An emphasis should be placed on the questions attached. The book is about the relationship between women and men in the 18th century. Bare in mind that I will need to know where you found your material, so it is important to cite were you found everything. Please show me that you have read or will read the book in preparation of this essay. Also attached is the picture of the book.

 

 

 

 

 

Question 11:      General

 

Understanding Terrorism Wk 8

 

Instruction

Understanding Terrorism Paper Four Criteria – Due Week Eight You now have the following: Paper One: Description and History of your selected group/individual Paper Two: Themes from Chapters 1-9 Paper Three: Strategies, Security, Individual Liberties ======================================= For Paper Four, you are going to complete your research into your selected Group/Individual. For this, you will need the concepts discussed in Chapters 14-16 of the Nacos Text: Chapter 14: Terrorist Propaganda and the Media Chapter 15: Terror and Hate in Cyberspace Chapter 16: Counter terrorism in the News Select TWO final articles (media focused) on your selected group/individual and read them thoroughly. Use the Grantham Library and EBSCO to assist. Stick to Journals and avoid relying on the Washington Post and NY Times. In a well-written paper, describe how the media has reported on your selected organization/individual and evaluate the coverage using the concepts discussed in the Nacos text. In addition, describe how your selected organization/individual used media sources, propaganda, cyberspace, and advertisement to further their ideological, social, and/or political goals. Draw some conclusions: does the media, social networking, and cyberspace impede or facilitate counterterrorism efforts? If so, then how and why? What recommendations would you provide the U.S. Government regarding media, social media, and the internet to better combat terrorism? Your submission will be a minimum of 4 pages and not to exceed 6 pages, excluding the Title Page and Reference Page. You will use APA Standard Format (1″ Margins, Times New Roman, 12-point Font, and Double Spacing. No extra space between paragraphs). You should continue to use all references you have collected so far, and ADD TWO more that are related to the Media.

 

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Question12:       Other

 

Week 12: Signature Assignment

 

Instruction

Instructions Throughout this course, you explored different methodologies, designs, and data collection strategies. Using those experiences and feedback, you will develop a final proposal for a hypothetical study. Specifically, for this assignment, you are asked to develop an expanded proposal that incorporates the feedback you have received as well as your own supported reflections on the readings. This is not meant to be a milestone document nor will it be approved as such, but the proposal should provide an opportunity to test out a possible idea and to get feedback that would be useful as you consider possible topics and research designs for your dissertation work. Remember to use APA formatting and check for grammatical errors. Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. It is also vital that you ensure there is alignment between the components of your paper; you should use Krathwohl’s Chain of Reasoning to assist. The proposal needs to include: •A statement as to the problem the research study will address as well as justification and evidence to verify that the problem exists.. Remember the problem statement should reflect your degree type (applied or theoretical) •A purpose statement that outlines how you will address the problem. •A list of the research questions, including hypotheses if a quantitative or mixed study. A description of the research methodology you have chosen (i.e., quantitative, qualitative, or mixed) and a justification as to why this approach is best suited to address the problem and answer the specific research questions. •A discussion on the research design you have proposed (e.g., case study, quasi-experimental, etc.) and a justification as to why this design is the best choice and aligns with other aspects of the study. •A description of the data collection process, with justifications, to include a discussion of the following: ◦Overview of the population and sampling technique, ◦Instruments used (e.g., survey, interview protocol), and ◦Overview of process for collection and any challenges you envision. •A brief discussion of the proposed analysis techniques with justification on alignment of techniques with problem, purpose, and questions. •A brief discussion of how reliability and validity (or trustworthiness) will be maintained. •A brief discussion of the limitations and ethical considerations, including how limitations, biases, and ethical considerations will be addressed. Length: 12-15 pages, not including title and reference pages

 

 

Question13:       Other

 

Week 11: Participant Perspective and the Mixed Methods Approach

 

Instruction

Instructions Researchers frequently employ standardized instruments to collect data associated with a variable of interest. In such cases, it is helpful to have served in the role of participant before making research decisions relating to measurement. If researchers are able to identify with and put themselves in the place of the participant while designing research methods, the participation can have a positive impact. For example, as the researcher, it might make sense to include a lot of instruments in the same packet for participants to complete so that you can get as much data as possible. However, if you have completed instruments yourself and can put yourself in the place of the participant, you might realize that participants can become tired and pay less attention to items or even stop responding when they have to complete too many instruments. In such cases, there might be missing or misleading data, which is not helpful to you as the researcher. To gain a greater understanding of the perspective of the participant, you will complete several quantitative instruments relating to your experience as a doctoral student at Northcentral University. Please answer each completely and honestly. As you learned in this course, phenomena can be investigated using quantitative, qualitative, or mixed methodologies based on the problem under investigation, the purpose, and the corresponding research questions. Therefore, you will also answer open-ended questions that tap into the same constructs as the questionnaires that you completed. This will offer you experience as a participant in collecting qualitative data as well as demonstrate how phenomena can be explored using varied methodologies. However, it is worth noting that collecting qualitative data electronically comes with a number of limitations that should always be strongly considered when determining whether to collect qualitative data in person or not. Based on your experiences in completing this assignment, address the following: •What did you think of the length of each survey instrument? Was there a point at which you began to feel tired or paid less attention to the items? •What did you think of the open-ended questions? Were they clear? Did they seem leading? Did they seem concise or too wordy? •Did you prefer completing the closed questions (or multiple-choice questions) or the open-ended questions? Why? •Which methodology do you believe is most useful in the examination of each variable/construct? Why? •How might this experience influence you when designing your own research? Finally, write a 1-2 page reflection regarding your views on what you see would be the strengths and challenges of using a mixed method design. Consider how the two mini proposals might be combined to form a mixed method study and what would be the benefits and / or loss if a mixed methods approach was utilized. Make sure to justify your statements and use the resources to help support your points. Length: 6-7 pages, not including title and reference pages

 

Question14:       Other

 

Week 10: Build a Quantitative Proposal

 

Instruction

Instructions Taking what you have learned from the readings and the feedback given on your past assignments, present a mini proposal (6-7 pages) that includes the following: 1. Statement of problem. Provide a clear justification with evidence on why this study is relevant to your field and worthy of doctoral-level study. Support your efforts using scholarly information published within the past 5 years to ensure relevancy. Remember the problem statement should reflect your degree type (applied or research). 2.Purpose statement (how your study will address the problem using quantitative methodology). This statement should flow from the problem statement. 3.Research questions (make sure there is alignment with the problem and purpose). 4.Find 2 to 3 articles related to your topic of interest and provide an overview of the research methodology and design where you specifically discuss the elements below from each article and discuss how each applies (or does not apply to your current study): ◦A specific quantitative design, ◦The population and sample, ◦Steps for data collection and protection of human subjects, ◦Steps for the analysis of the data, and ◦Issues of reliability and validity within a quantitative framework. 5. Based on your analysis above, what seems most applicable to your hypothetical study and why? Be sure to discuss the quantitative design, population and sample, data collection, analysis, reliability, and validity. 6. Discussion of the inherent strengths and challenges of your hypothetical study to include any ethical considerations that might need to be addressed in the study. Make sure to support all assertions and research choices, using the course resources as well as additional scholarly literature you have found. Length: 6-7 pages, not including title and reference pages

 

 

 

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Question 15:      Other

 

Week 9: Quantitative Design and Data Collection

 

Instruction

Instructions For the assignment this week, please consider the topic, problem, and purpose you might choose for your Signature Assignment. You can use and revise problems, purposes, and questions from past assignments in this course with the goal of continuing to improve and refine them. Please addresses the following: •Restatement of your problem, purpose, and research question(s). •Last week you examined multiple ways to collect data to answer your research questions. Based on your analysis and feedback, choose one quantitative data collection method, describe how it would be used in your hypothetical study, and justify why this method of data collection is the best choice. •Discussion and justification of your sample and population. •Potential limitations with the chosen data collection and/or sample to consider and steps that can be taken ahead of time to help avoid these limitations. •Analysis of any strengths and weaknesses you see with your design, data collection, and/or sample. •Discuss ethical issues to consider with quantitative data collection methods. Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 4-5 pages, not including title and reference pages

 

Question16:       Other

 

Week 8: Quantitative Research Design

 

 

Instruction

Instructions For this assignment, you will build on your assignment last week to further explore how you might examine your research problem using a quantitative methodology. Respond to the following questions: •Please restate the research problem, purpose, and research questions you developed previously and incorporate any faculty feedback as appropriate. This week, be sure to also include hypotheses for each of your research questions. •How might surveys be used to answer your research questions? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using surveys to collect data? •How might you use an experiment or quasi-experiment to answer your research questions? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using (quasi)experiments to collect your data? •It is also important to consider how you might analyze the potential data you collect and factors that could affect those analyses. Specifically, what are Type I and Type II errors? How might these impact your study? What is statistical power? How might this impact your study? What steps can you take ahead of time to help avoid issues related to Type I & II errors as well as power? Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 5 to 7 pages, not including title and reference pages

 

Question17:       Other

 

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Week 7: Summarize Numerical Data

 

Instruction

Instructions For this assignment, think about a potential study you might want to conduct in which you would need to collect numerical data. You can use the research topic and problem you developed earlier, but make sure to modify your research questions to fit a quantitative method for this assignment. State the research problem and ensure it is supported by at least 3 to 5 scholarly resources within the past 5 years to ensure relevancy. Also keep in mind that your problem statement should reflect your degree (applied or PhD). Discuss whether you had to alter the problem statement to now reflect a quantitative design. How could you use quantitative methodology to address your research problem? State the purpose of the research effort. Make sure the purpose is aligned with the problem. Draft 2 to 3 research questions that would be appropriate for a quantitative study and addresses your research problem and are aligned with your purpose statement. You might choose to revise your previous qualitative research questions or develop new research questions. Either way, ensure alignment with the problem and purpose. Identify and discuss a design that is associated with quantitative methodology that you would consider to answer your research questions. You will find that some problems lend themselves to using one methodology over another. A goal of this assignment was to have you explore how a quantitative methodology might help you address your research questions. You will have an opportunity later in the course to explore mixed methodologies. Based on your analysis above, do you feel the use of a quantitative methodology and your chosen design is best suited to address your research problem and answer your questions. Why or why not? Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 4-5 pages, not including title and reference pages

 

Question18: Other

 

Week 6: Build a Qualitative Proposal

 

Instruction

Instructions Taking what you have learned from the readings and the feedback given on your past assignments, present a mini proposal that includes the following: Statement of problem. Provide a clear justification with evidence on why this study is relevant to your field and worthy of doctoral-level study. Support your efforts using scholarly information published within the past 5 years to ensure relevancy. Remember the problem statement should reflect your degree type (applied or research). Purpose statement (how your study will address the problem using qualitative methodology). This statement should flow from the problem statement. Research questions (make sure there is alignment with the problem and purpose). Find 2 to 3 articles related to your topic of interest and provide an overview of the research methodology and design where you specifically discuss the elements below from each article and discuss how each applies (or does not apply to your current study): A specific qualitative design, The population and sample, Steps for data collection and protection of human subjects, Steps for the analysis of the data, and Issues of trustworthiness within a qualitative framework. Based on your analysis above, what seems most applicable to your hypothetical study and why? Be sure to discuss the qualitative design, population and sample, data collection, analysis, and trustworthiness. Discussion of the inherent strengths and challenges of your hypothetical study to include any ethical considerations that might need to be addressed in the study. Make sure to support all assertions and research choices, using the course resources as well as additional scholarly literature you have found. Make sure to justify your steps and choices, using the course resources to help support your points. Length: 6-7 pages, not including title and reference pages

 

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Question19:       Other

 

Week 5: Qualitative Data Collection

 

 

Instruction

Instructions For this assignment, you will build on your assignment from last week and further explore how you might examine your research problem using a qualitative methodology. Respond to the following questions: Please restate the research problem, purpose, and research questions you developed previously and incorporate any faculty feedback as appropriate. How might fieldwork and observation be used to answer your research questions? What role would field notes play in this process? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using observation? How might interviewing be used to answer your research questions? Would you use face-to-face interviews or electronic interviews? Why or why not? Would you interview participants individually or in a group? Why or why not? What are the advantages and disadvantages to using interviews to collect your data? Discuss ethical issues to consider with these qualitative data collection methods. Reflect on how you might code the potential data you collect. Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 6 to 7 pages, not including title and reference pages

 

 

Question1:  Finance

 

If you earn 5% per year on your bank account, how long will it take an account with $105 to double to $210? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)

 

Question 2: Engineering.

 

separate bus lane is proposed that will replace a single lane of a freeway with a capacity of 2,500 vehicles per hour per lane

 

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Question 3: Computer Science.

 

Your manager informs you that your company is going to have a new digital forensics lab built. It will have space for additional computers to perform password cracking. You’re asked to research hardware and software requirements for this task and write a one-page memo describing recommendations for a password-cracking computer running multiple GPUs in a cluster of other systems with multiple GPUs. State what OS is recommended for these clusters’ systems.

 

Question 4: Other

Need help with an assignment must equal up to 1,500, each questions must have a min of 250 words for each questions and must have at least four (4) scholarly sources.

Must be in APA format and include in text citation (    ).

 

  1. What are the major precepts of the Classical school of criminology? Why was this considered to be such a departure from past theories of crime?
  2. Explain the philosophies of Hobbes and Locke and their impact on social issues.
  3. Describe Betham’s “hedonistic calculus’ and its connection to punishment for crime.

4.What are your thoughts on the three strikes law as a deterrent?

5.Explain the strengths and weaknesses of rational choice and routine activity theory as explained in your text.

6.Describe the Just Deserts Model and is this in line with Matthew 5:38-42. Why or why not

 

Question5:Finance

 

In 1880 five aboriginal trackers were each promised the equivalent of 50 Australian dollars for helping to capture the notorious outlaw Ned Kelley. In 1994 the granddaughters of two of the trackers claimed that this reward had not been paid. The prime minister stated that if this was true, the government would be happy to pay the $50. However, the granddaughters also claimed that they were entitled to compound interest.

 

  1. How much was each granddaughter entitled to if the interest rate was 3%? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)

 

  1. How much was each entitled to if the interest rate was 6%?(Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)

 

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Question 6: Business

 

Chaebol and family ownership in Korea

 

The word chaebol is a unique combination of the Korean words ‘chae (wealth)’ and ‘bol (clan or clique)’. South Korea’s chaebol are family-owned businesses that typically have subsidiaries across diverse industries. The top five chaebol, taken together, represent approximately half of the South Korean stock market’s value. Chaebol drive the majority of South Korea’s investment in research and development and employ people around the world. On average, the 3rd and 4th generations of the families of major shareholder in the top 30 Chaebolds become executive at the age of 31.5, only 3.5 years after they join the company (some start their career even as an executive). While some people argue that family leadership is the most suitable and efficient ownerships strategy to manage those huge business group (perspective 1), others argue that it is outdated and inefficient ownership strategy (Perspective 2).

 

I NEED ANSWER FOR PERSPECTIVE 1.

 

 

Question 7: Mathematics

 

Solve the equation for x(for a>0,aÎN)

 

Solve the equation a^x = x^a for x, for all positive values of a (natural numbers).

 

Question8:  Accounting

 

QUESTION ONE

Kitchen Electrical Company is planning to introduce a food blender – Project A – to its line of small home appliances. Annual sales of the blender are estimated at 7,000 units at a price of $75 per unit. Variable manufacturing costs are estimated at $46 per unit, incremental fixed manufacturing costs (other than depreciation) at $35,000 annually, and incremental administration and selling expenses relating to the blenders at $37,000 annually.

To build the food blender the company must invest $250,000 in moulds, patterns and special equipment. Since the company expects to change the design of the blender every four years, this equipment will have a four-year service life with $10,000 salvage value. Depreciation will be calculated on a straight-line basis. (Note – Initial Investment is made at the start of the year when the project commences). Ignore taxation for the purposes of this question.

REQUIRED:

  1. Provide a projected accrualincome statement calculating average per annum accounting profit for Kitchen Electrical based on the above information.
  2. Produce a table showing projected cash inflows / outflows and net cash flows each year over the project life.
  3. Calculate (show full workings to your answer) and interpret the meaning of:
  • accounting rate of return on the project
  • payback on the project
  • net present value assuming a 18% discount rate on the project.
  • internal rate of return on the project

 

  1. The company is also considering an alternate superior blender – Project B – to manufacture and sell. The upfront capital cost to manufacture this blender is costlier at $500,000 initially. The projected life is again 4 years generating a NPV of $145,600 and an Internal Rate of Return of 32.36 percent based on a yearly year end cash inflow of $240,000.
  • Determine which alternative proposal the company should choosebased on increasing the net wealth of the business. (Full justify your answer – (limit 40 words))
  • Now assume the company has the opportunity of replicating each proposal several times (projects are no longer mutually exclusive) but also has an imposed capital constraint, limiting initial investment to $1,000,000. Does your recommendation change – Fully justifying your answer comparing total returns when utilising the $1 million in capital – (limit 80 words). (HINT: The company can do multiple projects – A and/or B up to an initial capital spend of 1,000,000)

 

Required:

 

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Question 9: Finance

 

Suppose Starbucks wishes to sign a 10-year contract to open a location within the Lundquist College of Business. This venture will cost $70,000, and is expected to bring in $10,000 per year.

Starbucks currently finances its operations with 50% equity and 50% debt. They face a 33% tax rate and the YTM on existing Starbucks bonds is 8%. The market expected return is 14%, the risk-free rate is 5% and Starbucks’ Beta is 0.9.

What is the NPV of this venture?

Question 10:      Other

Write a self-reflection paper of approximately 250 words analyzing your own experience with teams, and your ability to lead and contribute effectively to teams.

You should use the following questions for organizing your paper, but you may wish to add additional information:

 

  1. Describe your experience with workgroups and or teams in the workplace and at college
  2. List your current strengths and weaknesses with regard to team building

 

 

Question 11:      Finance

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 12:             Physics

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 13:      Psychology 

 

Wk. 4 Team Assignment:Thesis Statement and Annotated Bibliography for Final Project.

 

 

TOPIC Nipsey Hussle’s story

Resources: Center for Writing Excellence (CWE) Thesis Generator and Annotated Bibliography Sample.

In many cases, issues and dynamics reported in the news are also studied by researchers.

Choose one news story from the News Stories for Multiculturalism in the News assignment, due in Week Three, to use for the final team project due in Week Six.

Gain instructor approval for the selected news story.

Develop an annotated bibliography. Each team member must list a minimum of two sources from peer-reviewed journals that relate to the news story.

Write a clearly worded thesis statement of no more than 150words for the Multiculturalism in the News assignment due in Week Six.

Format your annotated bibliography and thesis statement according to APA guidelines.

Submit your assignment.

Materials

Thesis Generator

Annotated Bibliography

Grading Criteria: Thesis Statement and Annotated Bibliography for Final Project

Resources

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 14:      Accounting

 

 

Question 15:      Mathematics

 

(b) A curve is drawn to pass through the points given by the following table: x 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5 4 y 2 2.4 2.7 2.8 3 2.6 2.1 Estimate the area bounded by the curve, the X-axis and the lines x 1 and x 4, using Simpson’s jrd rule.

 

 

Question 16:      Engineering

 

need help with these questions. They are also found on chegg if anyone has that. Just type in the first few words of the questions in the attachments. No need to explain. Just need solutions. will pay 2.50$ per question

 

 

 

Question 17:      Psychology

 

Wk 4 Discussion

 

Each week will have 3 graded Discussions provide:

 

Review this week’s course materials and learning activities, and reflect on your learning so far this week. Respond to one or more of the following prompts in 150 to 300 words:

  1. Provide citation and reference to the material(s) you discuss. Describe what you found interesting regarding this topic, and why.
  2. Describe how you will apply that learning in your daily life, including your work life.
  3. Describe what may be unclear to you, and what you would like to learn.

 

Students need to contribute two substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies.

 

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Question 18:             Business

 

Db And assignment

 

Unit 2 DB

 

In the case of the Coyote and Road Runner, one might question the ethics of the two characters’ behaviors. Identify an organization that you have worked for or know about that has successfully implemented a culture of ethical business behavior. Alternatively, identify one that has not successfully implemented a culture of ethical business behavior. Discuss how leaders in those businesses have or have not accomplished this initiative. Must be 200 words please cite and reference all work used in APA style.

 

Unnit 2 assignment

Instructions

Establishing a culture of sound business ethics within an organization is challenging, to say the least. Companies that market products that are not considered to be “healthy” for consumers have additional challenges. Using the CSU online library, research a company that markets “unhealthy” products. Examples might include tobacco or alcohol companies but these examples are not all-inclusive. Respond to the following questions.

  1. Briefly describe the company and its product and the ethical dilemma associated with the production and distribution of its products.
  2. Describe how the perception of the product differs within cultures both within the United States and globally.
  3. How has this company handled the ethical implications of its product with a focus on social responsibility, integrity and business ethics?
  4. Explain how leadership within the organization can instill a culture of ethics within the marketing department as they strive to advertise a product that is not healthy for the customer.

Your response should be two double-spaced pages not including the title and reference pages. You are required to use at least one peer-reviewed source. Referenced sources must have accompanying citations complying with APA guidelines.

Your essay should be formatted in accordance with APA style. For step-by-step instructions for formatting a paper in APA style, please refer to the CSU Citation Guide (http://www.columbiasouthern.edu/downloads/pdf/success/citation-guide).

Instructions for formatting formal documents can be found on page 17.

 

Question  19:     Business

 

Unit 1 Assignment

Instructions

Using the CSU Online Library, locate an article that discusses the topic of business ethics. Topic ideas might include the role of ethics in the workplace, breach of ethics, the effect of internal and external forces on ethical compliance, global ethical considerations within a business or ethics and employees.

Note these are ideas; please expand within the parameters of ethical topics as they relate to business ethics.

Respond to the following questions:

  1. Summarize the article and align it with the author’s main point.
  2. How does this article contribute to contemporary thinking about business ethics?
  3. How can you apply information in this article to your field?
  4. How did this article fit your ethical view?

Your response should be 2 pages double-spaced pages not including the title and reference pages.

Referenced sources must have accompanying citations complying with APA guidelines. References should include at minimum 1) one of the required reading articles and 2) an additional scholarly reviewed article from the CSU Online Library.

You may find this presentation, “Right References,” a great resource for guidance in making references: https://columbiasouthern.adobeconnect.com/references2014

Format the article review in accordance with APA style. For step-by-step instructions for formatting a paper in APA style, please refer to the CSU Citation Guide (http://www.columbiasouthern.edu/downloads/pdf/success/citation-guide).

Instructions for formatting formal documents can be found on page 17.

 

Question 20:      Other

 

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“Five Words that Best Describe You” exercise. In 250 words State the five words that best describe you and why they are so applicable.  Then describe what information or knowledge you hope to gain from the course – what are your objectives? title of course (Strategic Management)

 

Continuation……

 

Question 21:      Statistics

 

The following list gives the ages of 50 factory workers. Construct a Grouped Frequency Distribution using 7 classes.

50 63 42 28 30
37 29 61 43 43
27 50 28 28 50
62 34 53 21 32
19 41 60 57 22
35 46 32 30 25
36 52 57 29 35
42 57 35 61 46
21 49 26 40 19
18 25 23 47 28

Range:

Class Width: 

Fill in the table after creating the frequency distribution on paper. rf and crf are rounded to two decimal places ( Example:  .15 not 0.15). Do not worry about the sum of the column being 1.0. 

Class  Limits Class Boundaries Midpoint f cf rf crf

 

 

Question22:       Germany

 

Name:                                                     10. Klasse Deutsch : Woche 5

Complete the following tasks and upload this document to Managebac by the end of the second double.

Verbs and Tenses:

  1. Give the German or English as indicated for the following phrases. Use the vocab about Düsseldorf from Zoom and Quizlet:

 

German English
einen Spaziergang machen  to go for a walk
das Filmmuseum besuchen Vist the Film Museum
to do a city tour
den Rheinturm besichtigen
Einen Einkaufsbummel machen to go on a shopping expedition
in den Südpark gehen To vist the rhine tower
to go to Spektakulum
eine Bratwurst auf dem Carlsplatz essen
eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein machen to do a boat trip on the Rhine
zum Unterbacher See fahren
to go to a disco in the old town
das Senfmuseum besuchen To vist the city museum
to drink a coffee on the banks of the Rhine
in die Königsallee gehen
In den Aquazoo gehen to go to the ‘Aquazoo’

 

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  1. Was kann man/können wir in Düsseldorf machen? What can you/we do in Düsseldorf?

Use the correct form of ‘können’ with the verb phrases above to create sentences. You can choose the phrases!

 

  1. Man kann eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein machen.

 

Man kann in die Altstadt gehen.

 

Wir kann in den Aquazoo gehen.

 

Ich kann ins Cafe am Rheinufer gehen.

 

Wir kann eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein machen.

 

Man kann das Film Museusm besuchen

 

 

  1. Present Tense – Choose 5 activities from the table to form sentences in the Present Tense.

 

  1. das Senfmuseum besuchen – Ich besuche das Senfmuseum.
  2. ______________________________________________________________________

 

  1. ______________________________________________________________________

 

  1. ______________________________________________________________________

 

  1. ______________________________________________________________________

 

  1. ______________________________________________________________________

 

  1. Rewrite the following in the Future Tense – werden + infinitive

 

Ich besuche das Filmmuseum          Ich werde das Filmmuseum besuchen

Wir gehen in den Südpark              Wir werden in den Sudpark gehen

Er besichtigt den Rheinturm           Er werdet den Rheinturm besichtigen

Sie macht einen Einkaufsbummel  Sie werdet einen Einkaufsbummel macht

Wir fahren morgen zum Unterbacher See Wir werden morgen zum Unterbacher See fahren.

Meine Freunde und ich trinken

einen Kaffee im Café.                     __________

 

  1. Complete the following sentences in the Perfect Tense. Fill in the gaps with the correct form of haben/sein and the past participle. See the table which has been uploaded – Useful verbs in the Perfect Tense.

 

  1. Am Sonntag __________wir in Düsseldorf___________. (ankommen)
  2. Wir __________mit dem Zug __________. (fahren)
  3. Zuerst __________wir zu Fuß zu unserer Jugendherberge __________. (gehen)
  4. Dann __________wir zu Mittag __________. (essen)
  5. Danach __________wir das Filmmuseum __________ (besuchen) und am Abend __________ wir Volleyball __________. (spielen)
  6. Am nächsten Tag __________wir mit dem Bus zum Unterbacher See __________.(fahren)
  7. Den ganzen Morgen __________wir (surfen) und __________. (segeln)
  8. Am Nachmittag __________wir eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein __________ (machen)
  9. Nach der Bootsfahrt __________ wir einen Kaffee in einem Café am Rheinufer __________ (trinken)
  10. Am Abend __________wir zwei Stunden lang in einer Disco in der Altstadt __________. (tanzen)
  11. Word order – SvTOMP/TvSOMP

  Rewrite the following sentences in the correct order. Begin with the highlighted word or phrase.

  Remember: the verb is the second idea in the sentence. If there are two verbs, the second verb

  goes to the end of the sentence.

                         

  1. wohnen / in einem schὅnen Hotel/ meine Familie und ich / in Dὕsseldorf

Meine Familie und ich wohnen in einem schὅnen Hotel in Dὕsseldorf

  1. heute / wollen / eine Bootsfahrt / wir / auf dem Rhein / machen

 

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  1. ich / machen / mὅchte / eine Stadtrundfahrt / am Montag
  2. kann / besichtigen / man / die Sehenswὕrdigkeiten der Stadt
  3. finde / sehr interessant / ich / das
  4. am Dienstagabend / gehen / werden / in der Altstadt / meine Freundin und ich / in die Disco
  5. in die Stadt / mein Bruder und ich / werden / gehen / am Mittwochvormittag
  6. werden / ins Senfmuseum / zu Fuβ / zuerst / wir / gehen.
  7. probieren / wir / kὅnnen / viele Senfspezialitἃten  / dort
  8. ins Spektakulum / danach / gehen / werden / wir
  9. Konzerte und Theater / es / jedenTag / gibt / fὕr Kinder und Jugendliche
  10. werden / Meine Familie und ich / zum Unterbacher See / fahren / am Wochenende / mit dem Zug

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  1. Practise the Quizlet List ‚Adverbs of Time‘. (5 mins)

Give the following adverbs of time in the space below:

  1. on the weekend
  2. first
  3. after that
  4. on the weekend
  5. then
  6. in the evening
  7. on Friday afternoon
  8. today
  9. tomorrow
  10. yesterday
  11. next week
  12. this morning

 

  1. Choose 4 time phrases from the list above and create sentences about Düsseldorf beginning

with the time phrase.  Make sure that you choose the correct tense to use. (ie tomorrow I will visit the Rhine tower – future tense)

Morgen werde ich den Rheinturm besuchen.

________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

             ________________________________________________________________________________

             ________________________________________________________________________________

  1. Practise the Quizlet list – Opinions (5 mins) Write down 5 opinions about any of the sights in Düsseldorf, and give reasons for your opinion. The conjunctions ‘weil’ (verb scarer) and ‘denn’ will be useful here:

 

  1. Ich finde das Senfmuseum sehr interessant, weil ich Wurst mit Senf gern esse.

              ________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

             ________________________________________________________________________________

             ________________________________________________________________________________

 

  1. Zoom Textbook. Pages 112 and 113. Read the texts through and answer the questions in the space below:

P 112 Lesen 4

a.

b.

c.

d.

e.

f.

P 113 Lesen 4

b.

c.

d.

e.

f.

g.

h.

In the table below note down all the conjunctions (joining words) and time phrases used in the texts.

Conjunctions (with meanings) Time Phrases

 

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Cases

CASES – Nominative, Accusative & Dative

Definite Article (the) & Indefinite Article (a)

Masculine Feminine Neuter Plural
Nominative der

ein

die

eine

das

ein

die

keine

Accusative den

einen

die

eine

das

ein

die

keine

Dative dem

einem

der

einer

dem

einem

den         + n

keinen    + n

 

 * ‘kein’ is used here instead of ‘ein’ as you can’t use ‘ein’ in the plural.

* Other words can be substituted in this table instead of ‘ein’. The endings on these words           will change in exactly the same way as ein & kein.

 mein (my), sein (his), ihr (her), dein (your- informal), unser (our), ihr (their) euer (your-   informal ) Ihr (your – formal)

 

Complete the following endings using the correct form of the accusative or dative case.

Note:

If there is no preposition ie ‘in’, then use the accusative case to show that the noun is the  direct object. (receiving the action)

If the preposition ‘in’ is followed by a noun, then use the rule: in + acc (movement), in + dat (no movement).      Where at – DAT    Where to – ACCU

  1. Wir können d____ Schlossturm (m) besichtigen.
  2. Wir können d____ Altstadt (f) besuchen.
  3. Man kann in____ Open – Air Kino (n) gehen.
  4. Wir sind i____ Kino (n)
  5. Wir können e____ Bootsfahrt (f) auf dem Rhein machen.
  6. Können wir vielleicht in e____ Pizzeria (f) gehen?
  7. Es war schön heute Abend in d____ Pizzeria.(f)
  8. Ich möchte d____ Filmmuseum (n) und d____ Sϋdpark (m) bescuhen.
  9. In Dϋsseldorf möchten wir in d____ Aquazoo (m) gehen und e____ Einkaufsbummel (m)

machen.

  1. Man kann d____ Senfmuseum (n) und d____ Königsallee (f) besichtigen.
  2. I____ Senfmuseum (n) kann man viele Senfspezialitäten probieren und in d____ Königsallee (f) gibt es zahlreiche Geschäfte.
  3. Am Samstag können wir in____ Spektakulum (n) und danach in d____ Botanischen Garten (m) gehen.
  4. Ich möchte besonders d____ Rheinturm (m) besuchen und in____ Café (n) am Rheinufer gehen.

 

 

When you have completed all the tasks, upload this booklet to ManageBac. This should be done by the end of the second double.

Any remaining time should be spent on Quizlet and on further writing practice. (ie Imagine you are writing a Blog from the perspective of a tourist in Duesseldorf and are talking about what you have done, are doing and will do. Use description and give your opinions)

 

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Question 23:                             Statistics

 

 

  1. Compute the marginal distribution of marital status (for example, total “Never Married / Total Adult Women) for all adult women (use percent).  Either draw by hand or use Excel to create a bar chart to display this distribution. Discuss the results.
  2. Compare the conditional distributions of marital status for women aged 18 to 24 and women ages 40 to 64.  Discuss the most important difference between the two age groups.

 

  1. Your company is planning a magazine aimed at women who have never been married.  Find the conditional distribution of age among never-married women and display it in a bar graph. Insert this graph into word.  Discuss what age group or groups you would suggest to your magazine to target.

 

Question 24:      Engineering

 

Solve

 

Question 25:      Psychology

 

Wk 4 Individual: Multicultural Project Planning

 

Choose one of the following scenarios and watch the accompanying video.

  • You work for a refugee relief organization. You are given the job of setting up schools in Chechen refugee camps in Chechnya.
  • Video: “Chechen Refugee Camps”
  • You work for a humanitarian organization. You are asked to expand your organization into Iraq to aid in the country’s rebuilding effort.
  • Video: “Post War Conditions in Iraq”

Write a 1,400- to 1,750-word paper about the challenges of planning the project.

Include the following in your paper:

  • At least three topics that you would like to better understand before beginning the project.
  • Describe ethnocentric challenges that may arise when planning the project.
  • Discuss the types of questions the researcher should ask.

Include peer-reviewed sources to support your points.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Submit your assignment.

Materials

Video: Chechen Refugee Camps

Transcript: Chechen Refugee Camps

Video: Post War Conditions in Iraq

Transcript: Post War Conditions in Iraq

 

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Question 26:      Psychology

 

Ethical Guidelines in Multicultural Research

 

Pick an ethical guideline unique to multicultural research. What is your perspective on the chosen guideline’s purpose for student and professional research?

 

Please make sure to apply more than one resource to initial response. Properly cites (i.e., APA) course materials and outside scholarly readings in initial posting; citations as needed in responses to classmates.

 

Textbook sources:

 

Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

Keith, K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.

Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

Lott, B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.

Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

Question 27:      Psychology

Ethnocentrism, Psychological Theories, and Multicultural Research

 

In what ways does ethnocentrism impact psychological theories and multicultural research?

 

Please make sure to apply more than one resource to initial response. Properly cites (i.e., APA) course materials and outside scholarly readings in initial posting; citations as needed in responses to classmates.

 

Textbook sources:

 

Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

Keith, K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.

Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

Lott, B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.

Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

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Question 28: Statistics

 

  1. A firm uses a computer-based training module to prepare 20 machinists to use new numerically controlled lathes.  The module contains a test at the end of the course; X is the number who perform satisfactorily on the test.

 

  1. The list of potential product testers for a new product contains 100 persons chosen at random from the adult residents of a large city.  Each person on the list is asked whether he or she would participate in the study if given the chance; X is the number who say “Yes”.

 

  1. Either in a job you currently have or one that you would like to have, describe a data set you could collect that would be in the binomial setting.

 

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Question 29:      Chemistry

 

Complex metric Titration

 

A 10.00 mL of aliquot of a commercial grade algaecide containing an organ mercury compound was treated with concentrated HNO3 and diluted to 250.0 mL with water. A 50.00 mL of aliquot of this solution was treated with 20.00 mL of 0.04966 M EDTA and mixed thoroughly for 10 minutes. After adjusting to pH 10.00, the excess EDTA required 18.04 mL of 0.04711 M MgCl2 for the titration endpoint. Calculate the concentration of Hg in the original sample in units of mg Hg/mL

 

Question 30:      Chemistry

Gravimetric Analysis

 

Will a precipitate form when 0.150L of 0.1000 M Pb(NO)3 and 0.100 L of 0.20 M NaCl are mixed? Ksp of PbCl2 = 1.2 x 10 ^ -5

 

Question 31:      Computer Science

SYSC 2100 Algorithms and Data Structures Summer 2019

Assignment 3: Recursion and Stacks Due: May 31st, 2019

Name your classes and methods strictly as specified (case sensitive).

  1. Design a class named LanguageRecognizerG to implement a language recognizer. The LanguageRecognizerG class must accept strings from the user, and determine recursively (method recursiveRecogG) whether the string is a word of the G language.

The G language has the following grammar:
<G> = empty string | <E> | <V> <E> | <E> <G> <V> <E> = & | #
<V> = W | A

 

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The client program (exterior to your class) will read the word from the keyboard as follows:

Enter the G-language word to check:

Suppose that the user enters the word:

###

The client program will then proceed to create an object of your class with the user- entered word and check with one simple call of a method. The client program should not implement any result printing at all. That is the responsibility of your class via its methods. A client program is provided on Page 4. Feel free to use it for your tests!

The output should appear as follows:

Recursion: Word “###” is NOT a word of the G language If the entered word is #A instead, the output would be:
Recursion: Word “#A” IS a word of the G language

CAUTION: If you take care of the printing inside recursiveRecogG you will run into a multiple printing problem. To eliminate this, have a second method recursivePrintG that takes care of the printing for recursion. That is the only method that the client program will call for the language check. It then becomes the job of recursivePrintG to make use of recursiveRecogG.

Bonus Question (no marks): Try solving the same problem as above non-recursively using the Java Collections Framework class Stack (method stackRecogG).

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1

  1. Implement your own ADT-list-based stack class named StackListBased. Use the ADT LinkedList of the Java Collections Framework. Your Stack implementation should be capable of performing the operations shown in the following UML diagram.

Design another class named InfixCalculator to implement an infix calculator using your previously implemented class StackListBased. The InfixCalculator class must accept infix expressions from the user and evaluate them with method evaluateInfix. This method will first convert the infix expression to postfix expression (method convertPostfix), and then evaluate the resulting postfix expression (method getPostfix). Use only the operators +, -, *, and /. You can assume that the infix expression is syntactically correct and that the unary operators are illegal. However, the infix expression should

  1. allow for any type of spacing between operands, operators, and parentheses
  2. allow for multi-digit integer operands

The client program (exterior to your class) will read the infix expression to evaluate from the keyboard as follows:

Enter the infix expression to evaluate:

Suppose that the user enters the expression:

(10 + 3 * 4 / 6)

The client program will then proceed to create an object of your class with the user- entered expression and evaluate it the method evaluateInfix().

The output for some example infix operations should appear as follows:

infix: (10 + 3 * 4 / 6)

postfix: 10 3 4 * 6 / +

result: 12

2

infix: 12*3 – 4 + (18 / 6)

postfix: 12 3 * 4 – 18 6 / +

result: 35

infix: 35 – 42* 17 /2 + 10

postfix: 35 42 17 * 2 / – 10 +

result: -312

infix: 3 * (4 + 5)

postfix: 3 4 5 + *

result: 27

infix: 3 * ( 17 – (5+2))/(2+3)

postfix: 3 17 5 2 + – * 2 3 + /

result: 6

 

Submission Requirements: Submit your assignment (3 source LanguageRecognizerG.java, StackListBased.java, and InfixCalculator.java) using cuLearn. Your program should compile and run as is in the default lab environment, and the code should be well documented. Submit all the files individually without using any archive or compression.

 

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Marks will be based on:

  • Completeness of your submission
  • Correct solution to the problem
  • Following good coding style
  • Sufficient and high-quality in-line comments
  • Adhering to the submission requirements (in particular the naming convention and the

submission of uncompressed source files only)

The due date is based on the time of the cuLearn server and will be strictly enforced. If you are concerned about missing the deadline, here is a tip: multiple submissions are allowed. So you can always submit a (partial) solution early, and resubmit an improved solution later. This way, you will reduce the risk of running late, for whatever reason (slow computers/networks, unsynchronized clocks, failure of the Internet connection at home, etc.).

In cuLearn, you can manage the submission until the deadline, taking it back, deleting/adding files, etc, and resubmitting it. The system also provides online feedback whether you submitted something for an assignment. It may take a while to learn the submission process, so I would encourage you to experiment with it early and contact the TA(s) in case you have problems, as only assignments properly and timely submitted using cuLearn will be marked and will earn you assignment credits.

files:

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3

The Client Program:

4

Question 32:      Business

 

Fourth ENT assignment.

– Go online and download the book titled CAPITALIST NIGGER by Chika Onyeani and:
1- Comment (Give 10 arguments) on why Africans do not succeed in business.
2- How can they apply the cobweb method used by Indians to succeed.

NB: Answer in at least 6 pages.

Question 33:      Business

 

How  to make $2000 from $20 in a year.

 

As an entrepreneur, explain in detail, a business proposal that can fetch you $2000 in one year, starting with $20. (Answer between 2-3 pages)

 

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Question 34:      Mathematics

 

Probability

 

After his bargain with Dormammu, Dr. Strange is trying to get back to Earth from the Dark
Dimension. To this end, he manages to open three portals:
• Portal 1 can lead him directly back to Earth after 5 minutes.
• Portal 2

  1. leads him through the Nine Realms and back to the Dark Dimension (where he
    started) after 15 minutes.
    • Portal 3 leads him through the perilous Quantum Realm and back to the Dark Dimension
    after 25 minutes (assuming he survives the trip, of course).
    Since Dr. Strange does not know which portal is the correct one to take and the portals change
    positions every time he goes through one of them, he decides to pick one portal (out of three)
    at random with equal probability.
    What is the expected time for Dr. Strange to get back to Earth?

 

 

 

 

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Question 35:      Mathematics

 

ROI NPV AND PLAY-BACK CALCULATION

 

Need ROI, Pay-Back and NPV calculation

Return on investment. Net present value

      

 

 

 

Question 36:      Mathematics

 

Home Depot entered fiscal 2016 with a total capitalization of $27,219 million. In 2016, debt investors received interest income of $832 million. Net income to shareholders was $6,351 million. (Assume a tax rate of 35%.)

 

Calculate the economic value added assuming its cost of capital is 10%. (Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answer in millions rounded to 2 decimal places.)

 

Question 37:      Economics

 

How easy is it to start a business in India?

I would like to have a deep analysis on this topic within 500 words.

 

 

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Question 38:      Business

 

Discussion 4

 

William Ford Jr., Chairman of Ford Motor Co. said, “A good company delivers excellent products and services, and a great company does all that and strives to make the world a better place.”  Supported by evidence from your textbook, the “Starbucks” case study, and other research, describe two forces that you believe shape the relationship between business and society. Provide two examples, one for each force you select. Be specific in your answer and discuss strengths and weaknesses via examples and applications. Be certain to cite in APA format all sources used.

 

Discussion 5

 

Visit at least two different companies’ website and read about how each company explicates the working environment and its expectations of employees. In your discussion post, reference the websites you analyzed. Examples of companies include, Kraft Foods, Apple, CVS Caremark, Johnson & Johnson, and Target. Identify what your selected companies do to establish a positive working environment and committed employees. Be specific in identifying behaviors, programs, or initiatives. (Note: If a company website does not provide enough information, select another company.)

 

 

Question 39:      Mathematics

 

Solve for x the equation 2^x+x^2=3^x-x^3, with detailed illustration and explanation.

 

 Question 40:     Physics

 

A physics student is sitting in a parked car just off a busy roadway. She measures the traffic noise and finds that shutting the car windows reduces the intensity of traffic sound to 1.0 % of what it would be with the car windows open. What reduction in intensity level (IL) is achieved by shutting the windows? In your response include an explanation of the underlying physics concept and follow the posted structured approach to problem solving in presenting your response.

 

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Question 41:      Physics

 

Explain why warranty for many devices will be voided if the equipment is operated in a room with air temperature exceeding the limit specified by the equipment manufacturer. (2 marks)

Question 42:      Statistics

 

Find the value of z such that 0.9722 0.9722 of the area lies between −z − z and z. Round your answer to two decimal places.

 

 

Question 43:      Mathematics

 

A pump house is to be placed at some point X along a river. Two pipelines will then connect the
pumphouse to properties A and B. How far from M should X be in order to minimize the total length of
pipeline?

 

 

Question 47: Mathematics

Unit –Circle & line –segment intersection

 

Derive the formula to calculate the endpoint coordinates (x2,y2) on a unit-circle’s circumference, of a sloped line segment (slope = 1 or 2), whose origin coordinates (x1,y1) are anywhere inside of the unit-circle’s first octant.  This is for a high school project.

 

Question 48:      Psychology

 

Wk 3 Team Assigment:News Stories for Multiculturalism in the News

 

CHANGE TOPIC — Just need 2 slides 

 

Research news stories for the Multiculturalism in the News assignment due in Week Six; each team member must select one news story. The stories must have occurred within the past 6 months and must illustrate the effects of multicultural conflict. The team will choose one story to complete the assignment on.

Create an 2-slide presentation that conveys a background on the news story, and how the news story is related to multicultural conflict. Additionally, provide a resolution approach to the topic.

 

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TOPIC is: how the Nipsey Hussle Murder unified people of different cultures and unity

 

 

Describe how the news story illustrates the effects of multicultural conflict.

Format your document according to APA guidelines.

Submit your assignment.

 

Question 49:      History

 

Major influences on development of the Renaissance

Instructions

This assignment provides you with an opportunity to practice prioritizing known major influences on development of the Renaissance and using specific data to support your choice. What shaped developments in the period 1300–1550 more—the Black Death’s emphasis on the afterlife (the hereafter) or the Renaissance’s emphasis on human achievement (the here and now)?

Lead with your judgment about the most influential viewpoint from beginning to end of the period. This is your thesis. Then, support it with specific examples covering each of the following categories:

  • significant individuals (e.g., political or religious leaders, innovators, explorers);
  • characteristics of worldview (e.g., philosophy, religion);
  • social institutions (e.g., social mores, practices, hierarchies);
  • patronage (discuss the patrons, their motives, influence, and resulting products or artifacts);
  • the economies (e.g., changes, different economic systems, impact); and
  • politics (e.g., forms of governance, power distributions, contests).

You may use specific examples that touch on several of the above categories at once. When writing your essay, use examples to prove your point rather than simply listing the examples.

Your essay must be a minimum of 500 words. Be sure to include an introduction.

You must use two sources written by historians in history books or journals from Online Libraries. All content must follow APA guidelines, including all sources used, which must be cited and referenced according to APA standards.

Details

 

 

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Question 50:      Statistics

 

Simulation

 

The number of acres comprised by Cedar Bog Lake is being estimated. The lake
is shown in the accompanying sketch with the scale shown in feet. Use simulation
to estimate the size of the lake. (One-acre D 43,560 square feet).

x(from 0 to 1000)

y(from 0 to 500)

 

RECENT QUESTIONS.

 

Question 1:  General.

 

Introduction to Economics assignment

 

ECN1000 – Devoir 2

Tiffanie Perrault

Université de Montréal, Département des Sciences Economiques à rendre avant le 6 juin 2019

Le marché du locatif à Montréal

Selon Statistique Canada, 522 140 logements étaient loués dans l’agglo- mération de Montréal en 2016. La même année, 4% des logements étaient inoccupés. Selon l’Union des Banques Suisses, le prix moyen du loyer pour un 3 1/2 à Montréal en 2015 était de CAD 879. On supposera qu’entre 2015 et 2016, ce prix augmente de 2%, donc passe à approximativement CAD 900.

Pour faciliter l’accès au logement, Madame Gagnon, économiste pour les services urbains de la Ville de Montréal, proposait de plafonner le prix des loyers à CAD 850 au 1er Janvier 2017.

  1. Représentez l’équilibre du marché des logements locatifs à Montréal en 2016 à l’aide d’un graphique d’offre et de demande.
  2. Sur le même graphique, représentez les surplus des consommateurs et des producteurs. Vous pouvez utiliser des lettres pour désigner les aires correspondant à ces surplus.
  3. Sur le même graphique, représentez l’équilibre du marché des loge- ments locatifs à Montréal en 2017, après la politique de plafonnement proposée par Madame Gagnon.
  4. Représentez les surplus des consommateurs et des producteurs pour 2017.
  5. Comment la quantité de logements loués à l’équilibre évolue-t-elle ? Pourquoi ?
  6. Selon vos réponses aux deux questions précédentes, que penser de la politique publique proposée par Madame Gagnon ?

1

Madame Breton est également économiste pour la ville. Elle critiquait la solution de Madame Gagnon et proposait de subventionner l’accès au logement des familles montréalaises sous la forme d’une prime de CAD 50 par mois pour les locataires aux revenus les plus bas, au 1er Janvier 2017.

  1. Recopiez votre graphique de la question 1 illustrant l’équilibre du marché des logements locatifs à Montréal en 2016. Ensuite représentez la politique proposée par Madame Breton pour le 1er Janvier 2017.
  2. Comment la quantité de logements loués à l’équilibre évolue-t-elle ? Pourquoi ?
  3. Représentez les surplus des consommateurs et des producteurs pour 2017, en appliquant la politique de Madame Breton.
  4. Selon vos réponses aux deux questions précédentes, est-il préférable, pour encourager l’accès au logement, de mettre en place la politique publique de Madame Breton ou celle de Madame Gagnon ? Pourquoi ?

Monsieur Tremblay propose une autre approche pour faciliter l’accès au logement et réduire le taux d’inoccupation : subventionner les propriétaires de logements locatifs, au 1er Janvier 2017.

  1. Recopiez votre graphique de la question 1 illustrant l’équilibre du marché des logements locatifs à Montréal en 2016. Ensuite représentez la politique proposée par Monsieur Tremblay pour le 1er Janvier 2017.
  2. Représentez les surplus des consommateurs et des producteurs pour 2017, en appliquant la politique de Monsieur Tremblay.
  3. Comment la quantité de logements loués à l’équilibre évolue-t-elle ? Pourquoi ?
  4. Selon vos réponses aux deux questions précédentes, que penser de la politique publique proposée par Monsieur Tremblay en termes d’accès au logement ?

Comme Monsieur Tremblay, Monsieur Laroche pense qu’il serait préfé- rable d’envisager une politique d’offre, plutôt qu’une politique de demande. Il propose de taxer les logements inoccupés au 1er Janvier 2017.

  1. Recopiez votre graphique de la question 1 illustrant l’équilibre du marché des logements locatifs à Montréal en 2016. Ensuite représentez la politique proposée par Monsieur Laroche pour le 1er Janvier 2017.

2

  1. Représentez les surplus des consommateurs et des producteurs pour 2017, en appliquant la politique de Monsieur Laroche.
  2. Comment la quantité de logements loués à l’équilibre évolue-t-elle ? Pourquoi ?
  3. Selon vos réponses aux deux questions précédentes, que penser de la politique publique proposée par Monsieur Laroche en termes d’accès au logement ?
  4. Le résultat de la politique proposée par Monsieur Laroche est-il dif- férent du résultat de la politique proposée par Monsieur Tremblay ?
  5. Des quatre solutions proposées, laquelle choisiriez-vous ? Pourquoi ?

3

 

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Question 2:  Law

 

Instruction

PLEASE SEE THE ATTACHED DOCUMENT FOR THE INSTRUCTIONS OF ASSIGNMENT. NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO PUNCTUATION ERRORS! ALL instructions MUST be followed! ASSIGNMENT DEADLINE: 6/8/2019 DEADLINE TIME: 12:00PM M.S.T. Instructions for assignment is attached!!! Thanks!!!

 

Graduate Course Assignment

 

Assignment Deadline: 6/8/2019

Assignment Deadline Time: 12:00pm M.S.T.

 

NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO PUNCTUATION ERRORS!

 

Intervention Program: Reduce Firearm-Related Violence

 

Write a 475-word analysis that THOROUGHLY ADDRESS AND EXPLAIN methods to work around potential ethical issues in the future for an intervention program of: Reduce Firearm-Related Violence

 

Include at least two (2) Peer-Reviewed resource within the response.

 

Properly quote and cite all references used. Response MUST have direct “in-text” quotes (examples) to support writing.

 

Properly format your document consistent with APA guidelines. Analysis MUST be in APA FORMAT. Reference Page MUST be in APA FORMAT. Analysis must have a strong introduction, body, conclusion, and smooth transitional phrases for sentences and paragraphs.

NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO PUNCTUATION ERRORS!

 

NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO PUNCTUATION ERRORS!

 

NOTE: cover page and reference page are NOT included in the 475-word count for analysis. The document must have thoroughly detailed information and references to support analysis.

 

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Question 3:  Education

 

literacy narrative (anecdote), five pages,

 

Instruction

Literacy is the development of literacy and, the ability of communication between people. I have been suffered from literacy two times of my life. First, when I was a child I suffered from the Arabic language, how can I communicate with people in Arabic. I have been extremely lucky in having a chance to learn from several fantastic sponsors. The first sponsor is my parents. My parents are the most positive literacy sponsor in my life. My parents are considered the first teacher in my life. When I had homework, they always helped me and supported me to become a better student. Further, my parents always encouraged me to become better at writing and read more by buying me a lot of books. For example, when I went to my bed my parents read a story for me. That helped me and encouraged me to be a good student who read and write a lot in a short time. Also, I will never forget my teachers who made a big effort with me throughout my education. For example, they made a competition between my classmates to enhance our education in a good way, and they always gave us a present. Second, when I was 21 years I moved to the United States, and I started to learn the English language. It is a new period in my life a new language and education. First, I was scared of how can I get better and how can I improve my English language. With the time a get better and better in English. I practice every day, when I hear a new word, I write it in my notebook. I watched movies every day and repeated. The first station was the UCF English language institution (ELI), this was my new challenge. In addition, I did do my placement test and my grade was level one. The teacher at ELI taught in a really good way. For example, they gave a lot of homework and gave good feedback that helped me to improve myself.

 

Question 4:  Psychology

 

Week two class one

Assignment 1 Due June 5, 2019

Vicarious Trauma and Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder

 

Vicarious trauma and post-traumatic stress disorder are closely related because the symptoms of each condition are similar. What distinguishes each condition from one another is how the trauma was experienced. For this Discussion, you review a video of three United States military servicemen previously deployed in the Middle East. Each experienced combat in unique ways and each experienced trauma differently. As you watch the clips, pay attention to who experienced vicarious trauma and who experienced post-traumatic stress disorder. Consider how each man experienced the trauma, the symptoms of each condition, and what makes their experiences similar but also distinctively different from the others.

 

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Post by Day 3 a brief explanation of which individual(s) has vicarious trauma and which has post-traumatic stress disorder. Then identify the symptoms of the individual(s) with vicarious trauma and explain how each symptom informed your selection. Finally, explain any insights you gained about vicarious trauma related to the video. Be specific and use the current literature to support your response.

Video: Laureate Education, Inc. (Executive Producer). (2010). Vicarious trauma and post-traumatic stress disorder in military personnel.

 

 

Only a few paragraphs needed DUE JUNE 9, 2019

Assignment 2

Application: Your Risk for Vicarious Trauma

One major risk factor for developing vicarious trauma is the consistent use of controlled empathy which is the internal control of mental states, emotions, and behaviors (Izzo & Carpel Miller, 2009). Prolonged use of controlled empathy can take an emotional, physiological, and spiritual toll on counselors and other trauma response helping professionals which may result in the development of vicarious trauma symptoms (Izzo & Carpel Miller, 2009). For example, counselors who listen to a client or student sharing a story of abuse often remain calm and non-reactive as part of the counseling process. It takes tremendous mental and emotional effort, however, to absorb a traumatic story knowing they must respond therapeutically. This effort can become mentally and emotionally exhausting. Counselors and other trauma response helping professionals must be cognizant of their potential risk of developing vicarious trauma and be capable of assessing their own symptoms.

For this Application Assignment you take the Professional Quality of Life Scale (ProQOL 5), a brief assessment instrument developed to promote self-awareness of vicarious trauma. It measures compassion satisfaction, which is the pleasure you derive from your profession, risks for burnout, and your exposure to extremely stressful events. Together, these three components help determine your risk for developing vicarious trauma and the impact of controlled empathy.

As you score the ProQOL 5, think about whether the results surprise you. What areas do you need to focus on to exercise strategies to prevent the development or further exacerbation of vicarious trauma?

Reference: Izzo, E. & Carpel Miller, V. (2009). Vicarious Trauma: The Impact of Empathy. Retrieved fromhttp://www.selfgrowth.com/articles/Vicarious_Trauma_The_Impact_of_Controlled_Empathy.html

The assignment: (2–3 pages)

  • Describe your results of the ProQOL 5.
  • Describe two areas you need to further develop to address or prevent vicarious trauma and explain why you selected each.
  • Based upon the current literature, justify two strategies you would use to develop those areas.
  • Explain how your use of controlled empathy might influence the development of vicarious trauma and how this might impact the counseling process.
  • Be specific and use examples to illustrate your points.

 

Question 5:  Business

 

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Essay

 

Instruction

Unit V Case Study Open Instructions Case studies are an important learning strategy in business classes as they provide an opportunity for you to critically analyze events that have taken place in real-life businesses. This develops your critical thinking and research skills as you research the competition and industry in which your business resides with an end goal of formulating a recommendation for the challenges faced by the company. Read the “Franklin Electronics” case study on pages 545–546 of your textbook. As you complete the analysis, address the topics below. Explain the earned value measurement system and whether you believe that Franklin Electronics truly understands it. Analyze the cost projections completed by Franklin Electronics. Reconstruct the cost projections toward the compilation of a realistic project budget. Include a theoretical discussion around the steps involved in the budget that you built. Create a project management schedule that would be more effective than the one proposed in the case. Use scheduling techniques learned in this class to date. Include an assessment of why you selected this scheduling technique instead of others. Evaluate sources of project risk, and develop strategies that would decrease the impact of these risks. In formatting your case analysis, do not use the question-and-answer format; instead, use an essay format with subheadings. Your APA-formatted case study should be a minimum of two full pages in length (not counting the title and reference pages). You are required to use a minimum of three academic sources that are no more than 5 years old (one may be your textbook). All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased material must have accompanying in-text citations. A minimum of three in-text citations are required.

 

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Question 6:  General

 

INSTRUCTIONS: Prospective students will prepare a 3-4 page double-spaced paper answering the prompt below. Students will be presented seven “documents” to review, and further research may be required. Submitted papers will be assessed using the rubric on page 5 of this document.

 

ACADEMIC SKILLS ASSESSMENT

INTRODUCTION: The following task is designed to gauge a prospective student’s academic skills in the areas of reading comprehension, content analysis, intellectual comparison, and writing abilities. It is largely based on a sample assignment for the AP Placement Test at the High School level (copyright 2017, The College Board).

TIME ALLOWED: The typical time allotted for this task on the AP test is 60 minutes in one sitting, but GCD’s Admissions Team has adapted this task in the following manner: prospective students will have 7 days to research, write, and submit their response paper.

INSTRUCTIONS: Prospective students will prepare a 3-4 page double-spaced paper answering the prompt below. Students will be presented seven “documents” to review, and further research may be required. Submitted papers will be assessed using the rubric on page 5 of this document.

Completed assignments should be properly formatted in one of the following styles:

  • – GCD expects undergraduate students to utilize Chicago style guidelines. For

students who are not familiar with any style of formatting, this may be the best option. Here is a link to a resource page on this style: https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/717/01/

  • – High School students may be more familiar with MLA style guidelines. Here is

ACADEMIC PROMPT: Evaluate the extent to which differing ideas of national identity shaped views of United States overseas expansion in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries.

a link to a resource page on this style:

https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/675/01/

ASSESSMENT RUBRIC

Assignment Component    Maximum Points Possible Points Earned

Is the paper properly formatted, using proper grammar, and 3-4 pages in length? 20

 

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Does the paper contain an evaluative thesis that establishes the student’s argument and responds to the question?    20

Does the paper describe a broader historical context immediately relevant to the question that relates the topic of the question to historical events, developments, or processes that occur before, during, or after the time frame of the question?           20

Does the paper explain how at least one additional piece of specific historical evidence, beyond those found in the documents, relates to an argument about the question?     20

Does the paper use historical reasoning to explain relationships among the pieces of evidence provided in the response and how they corroborate, qualify, or modify the argument, made in the thesis, that addresses the entirety of the question? In addition, a good response should utilize the content of at least six documents to support an argument about the question.         20

TOTAL:       100

 

 

Question 7:  Business, Accounting.

 

Management Discussion and Analysis

 

Assigned Company is Lowe’s.

Accounting CASE 1:  Management Discussion and Analysis

Read Lowe’s 2018 annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and answer the following questions: Look at the Management Discussion and Analysis (MDA) on Financial Condition and Results of

Operations presented in Lowe’s annual reports. Summarize the information discussed in the MDA.

(Maximum length of the report is 2 pages (with normal margins and 12 point font)). Include an appendix

for any extra information and that will not count in report pages.

Accounting CASE 2:  Auditor’s Reports and Management Reports

Read 2018 Lowe’s annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and look at the Auditor’s and

Managements Reports and Certifications. Summarize and comment about the standards/rules used in the following:

Auditor’s report – general

Auditor’s report – internal controls

Management report (certification) – fair presentation (check Exhibits 31.1 & 31.2)

Management report (certification) – internal controls.

(Maximum length of the report is 2 pages (with normal margins and 12 point font)).

Accounting CASE 3: Financial Statement Analysis

Read 2018 Lowe’s annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and answer the following questions:

Calculate the ratios to analyze Profitability, Liquidity and Solvency. Just the ratios discussed in the

chapter 14 comments posted. Include two decimal points for ratios and percentages that you calculate.

Link for the 2018 Annual Report download: https://lowes.gcs-web.com/static-files/7e8ff02d-ca35-4eae-9a4e-843ff3858c33

 

Question 8:  General Business

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Wk 5 Discussion – Performance Evaluation

 

 

Respond to the following in a minimum of 250 words each:

•        Discuss the pros and cons of four performance appraisal approaches.

 

•        Explain the problems to be avoided in appraising performance

 

Integrate theory, research, and/or professional experience

Include specific examples and/or substantiating evidence

Include in-text citations and references in APA format

 

•        Question 9:  Computer Science, Learning Systems and AI

 

 

Website Migration Project

 

 

As part of your job, you must complete a 10-to-15 page paper that follows this project through the system development life cycle (SDLC). This assignment will require you to do the following:

•        Discuss what it will take to build a Web architecture, move an existing Website with minimal downtime, and provide a disaster recovery solution to ensure the site is always available.

•       

o        The Web architecture should describe and justify operating system choices (i.e., Linux, Apache, MYSQL, PHP, Windows, IIS, SQL, etc.).

•        Evaluate alternatives to the company self-hosting the site.

•        Build a Gantt chart using Microsoft Project or equivalent software, showing all tasks associated with implementing the Website.

•        The chart should include a minimum of five (5) tasks, each with three (3) sub-tasks.

•        Explain and justify the system architecture you have selected.

•        Illustrate the system architecture using Visio or equivalent software.

•        Create a use case that documents the event of a customer ordering a bag of chips from the new Website.

•        The use case should include a graphical representation using Visio or equivalent software and a text description of the events.

•        Discuss the support operations that the internally hosted Website will require after implementation.

•        Explain how you will evaluate the performance of the new site and the success of your project.

 

 

Question 10:          Business, General Business

 

1.       Prepare a simple pro forma (projected) income statement and balance sheet for the first two years of operation, using income projections and incorporating an advertising plan.

2.       Outline a plan for hiring and retaining competent, motivated employees for your business.

3.       Prepare an outline for a “pitch,” i.e., a short 20-30 minute business plan presentation that will be made to lenders or investors.

4.       Include at least two (2) references outside the textbook.

 

 

 

 

Question 11: Mathematics.

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Question 12:          Statistics

Marketing Research SPSS

Need knowledge of Marketing and SPSS(need to have access to this) to do this assignment. Use the data set attached with SPSS tool and answer the following question:

1. The researchers want to know whether there are differences in the ability of the individual memes to effect attitudinal (Conscious) and behaviour (Influence) modification change in respondent driving behaviour.  Please note that only one question is required and needs to include tables etc. ANOVA and multiple comparisons method to be used.

Overview

Speeding is recognized globally as the most common contributing factor to both serious injuries and fatalities in road crashes. Young drivers are significantly more likely to be involved in road collisions than other road users, with excessive speed being the major cause of young adult fatalities. Attempts to address this issue using traditional advertising methods are repeatedly unsuccessful, as people tune out and become normalized to risk and fear appeals. Social marketers must think outside the box if they wish to effectively reach this age demographic with their campaigns to create safer roads for everyone. One technique explored recently in online anti-speeding campaigns is the use of memes. Memes are important communication tools as they can influence the behaviours of social groups on a wide scale, while spreading on a micro basis. Memes reproduce by various means of imitation, and it is extremely simple and low-cost to create a meme. As a social marketing tool, memes can be extremely impactful when compared to other means of communication. People intentionally seek out and enjoy memes. Whereas, most Australians do not take notice of advertisements on social media and intentionally tune out. Memes are particularly valuable for smaller organizations with limited resources seeking to make an impression online. Internet memes use humour to convey their message. Humour can be used as a means for gaining attention, and positively influences recall towards advertisement and educational claims. Memes are distributed and shared through social media, and have the potential to go viral through online word-of-mouth. The ‘millennial’ age bracket, which incorporates 18 – 25 yearolds, are said to be a strong target audience for promotional content that use memes. Given the resonance of memes with young adults, and the often limited success of traditional 2 communications campaigns used to modify young drivers’ speeding attitudes and behaviours, there appears value in exploring the effectiveness of this non-traditional media within this context. The aim of this research then is to analyse the characteristics and interpretations of a meme that impact young drivers’ attitudinal and behaviour responses to excessive driving speed. This study seeks to answer two research questions: (1) What characteristics and perceptions of a meme influence how it is evaluated, and (2) How do memes and other driver characteristics affect attitudinal and behavioural modification outcomes. Data was collected from eighty-five undergraduate marketing students currently driving on Australian roads to understand how young adults evaluate memes, what makes a meme more likeable and memorable, and investigate whether the memes had an effect on attitudinal and behavioural driving responses. The researchers selected ten memes sourced from existing online anti-speeding campaigns posted by Australian state police force social media pages, which were modified to fit an Australian-wide context. Each student was randomly given two memes to assess from the pool of ten. The ten memes in the study are provided in the appendix. The young drivers were asked to evaluate each meme on how easy it was to understand (Understand), whether they found the image humorous (Humorous), how trendy (Trendy) and original (Original) the meme is, and whether the features of the meme are suitable for a road safety campaign (Suitable). They were also asked how likable the image was (Like), and how easy to learn and remember is the message (Remember). Whether the meme influenced the respondent to be more conscious of their speed (Conscious) was asked to better understand attitude modification effects. Whether the image influenced the respondent to be less likely to speed while driving (Influence) was asked to better understand behaviour modification effects. Respondents were asked to indicate their agreement on a 7-point Likert-type scale where 1=strongly disagree and 7=strongly agree. Information also was provided on how long respondents had been driving on Australian roads, and whether they had ever exceeded the speed limit. The full question wording is provided in the SPSS data file under ‘label’. The researchers that collected the data have indicated a number of research questions they wish addressed in the final report. These are given below. They are also very interested in the implications of the findings for marketing and development of their meme communication campaign, and these should be included in the final report. The data for this assignment is titled ‘MKTG2305 Group Project Dataset 2019.sav’, and can be found on LMS. Values (as indicated above) and labels for the variables are provided within the data set.

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Requirements_____________________________________________________ You are to address and answer each of the research questions below. Your answer should be in the format of a written report detailing the main findings of the one research questions, including technical appendices.

Question 13:          History

Rome Essay

Rome and Romanization – 500 Word Essay

This assignment gives you the opportunity to practice determining the purpose and function of artifacts in order to create your interpretation of a specific historical development—Romanization.

 

Discuss the impact of the process of Romanization on the Roman world. Identify at least two examples of cultural structures that were patterned across Roman-conquered cities. Cultural structures can include physical features of Roman-ruled cities, practices, policies, ideas, or any artifact that was used to shape the conquered religions.

 

Discuss how these structures impacted daily life, which may include politics, economics, or social roles. Describe how and with what intent these events are “memorialized” or used in our current day political and cultural arena.

 

Step 1: Choose two appropriate sources. Resources should be credible and peer-reviewed and cannot include Wikipedia, Biography.com, History.com, any type of message board, or other similar encyclopedias.

 

Step 2: Complete your research. Choose one interesting development that illustrates the main point that you want to make about your chosen physical structures, practices, or ideas. Gather details about your choice. For example, what types of buildings were first introduced in Rome, and why were they purposely replicated in other, smaller cities?

 

Step 3: Draw conclusions from the details you found, and prepare your thesis. A thesis is prepared after you have completed your research and gathered enough information about the chosen structures. You should sit back to think about what it means to see the influence on culture. Your thesis statement should offer your reader the overall insight into the use and impact of the structure on Roman development.

Use the following guidelines to help decide on your thesis.

•        -Ask yourself about how the cultural element (idea, practice, or structure) was shaped by its time period and environment.

•        -Ask yourself how the structure impacted the lives of the people around it, the general public, and the immediately following period in the history of Rome.

•        -Find the perfect specific example to demonstrate the qualities of the structure you would most like to show.

 

Step 4: Write your essay. Your essay must be at least 2500 words in length. All sources must be referenced and cited according to APA guidelines.

Be sure to consider the following guidelines in your essay.

•        -The introduction should engage the reader and clearly present the essay’s thesis and summarize the main points that clarify your point of view. The last sentence of the introductory paragraph should be your specific thesis.

•        -Organization should clearly present points arranged to illustrate your opening thesis. Paragraph order and organization should clearly present points arranged to illustrate your opening thesis rather than to narrate the chronological story.

•        -Writing should be clear and concise with no spelling, grammatical, or punctuation errors.

•        -The number of sources should meet or exceed any expressed assignment requirements, and the sources should be peer-reviewed or academic in nature. At least one source must be from the CSU Online Library.

•        -APA guidelines should be used for reference entries and in-text citations.

 

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Question 14:          Computer Science

 

Online Survey Assignment

 

 

Objectives for the final project:

Create an online survey

Due: Friday, May 24,  last day of final’s week

In more details:

Create an online survey:

The goal is to create a simple online survey and name it – survey.cgi. Allow users to choose at the very least, between two choices (yes or no) on an issue of your choice (ok to work from html pages you’ve already created). The vote will be saved to the server (code provided), and the result of all votes will be displayed on the screen. The result from the survey should show up every time, even before we fill out the survey. This project will start from retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp, by making use of the class WebApps, which should already go as far as providing a dynamic array, containing the fields from a form. However, the class will be moved from the main program to it’s own file, called a header file.

Another difference from retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp will be that an HTML form will not call the program. survey.cgi is a ‘dynamic cgi program’ (or self referential), meaning that the code has to respond from two possibilities:

the script can be called either from a link for the first time, which will cause it to produce only the survey. That state corresponds to the first level ‘else’ in the code below

or the same script can be called from the ‘submit’ button of the form it has just published. That state corresponds to the first level ‘if’ in the code provided. Here are steps to follow, in order to to convert retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp into survey.cpp:

Also, here is a video to help explain steps A through D

Each capital letter corresponds to a significant stage in the development of this program. This document may seem lengthy, but parts of it also act as a tutorial. It is recommended to save a copy of survey.cpp after completing each capital letter stage in case something goes wrong with the next one.

Duplicate retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp to survey.cpp

Note: Friday this week, a copy of retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp will be provided for those whose version did not work so well.

Move the struct FIELDS and class WebApps to its own header file, named WebApps.h. We are going to leave the function definitions inline within the class, for simplicity-sake (though not ultimately recommended by industry)

Read more info on Header Files.  WebApps.h needs to live in the same directory as survey.cpp, so that it is available at compile time – we do not compile .h files manually.

WebApps.h should contain the same includes as survey.cpp, the ifndef/define/endif directives, as a regular header file does, the FIELDS struct, and the class, pretty much exactly as already working properly in retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp.

Check out  the FileApps.h header file below as an example to follow for WebApps.h.

All the main program needs now is an ‘include’ to the header file and should compile and run.

Create a temporary web_form_survey.html, based on the older web_form.html to test the program until it runs as before (in retrieve_form_OOP_2.cgi). At this point, since this program is self referential, its first state is to serve the HTML form for the survey. From here, the current code in main should be replaced completely (might be good to just comment the whole thing and leave at the bottom of the program to reuse some of the code later) and start from the following skeleton (copy from this link to survey_start.txt):

WebApps wo;                           // make object wo global

void build_form();

int main()

{                 

          const int cnt = wo.get_cnt();

          if (cnt != 0) {

                   cout << “debug with cnt != 0” << endl;

          }else {

                   build_form();

          }

          return 0;

}

////////////functions/////////////

void build_form () {

          //simple HTML form to get started

          //use the one from survey_start.txt if you wish

}

This code is pretty self-explanatory, nothing new here, except the HTML form in survey_start.txt demonstrates the tags for inputing from buttons, which may become useful.

This code represents the main flow of this program’s execution. It does this:

Gets the count from qs, if it’s there

If the count is zero, then just a debug as a place holder for all the functions (created next), which will take care of the vote, when received.

Else, the form is presented and several other functions will follow.

The HTML, of course will be your own design, which can follow previous work, but do include an option for ‘don’t know’, just for your instructor who is quite clueless with super heroes 🙂

Note: It is recommended to keep the HTML form minimal while working out the rest of the program’s functions.

Make this work perfectly and back up!

Now that the vote is at hand, time to save it to a text file. Here are the steps:

Given is a new class, FileApps.h, which will be used to save to and read from file: FileApps.h

Remember the class needs to be in the same directory as where survey.cpp will be compiled.

 

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File I/O operations are not trivial, therefore, the code is provided for this project, in hope that the class can at least be used, if not completely understood. Here is a link to I/O example code if interested. Also check out online book, chapter 18, File I/O. There are other relevant tutorials if anyone is interested

The constructor for class FileApps, expects a file name for the object to work with – use this syntax for creating file object fo: FileApps fo (“survey.txt”). Place it above main, so that it is global, as done with the WebApps object.

survey.txt will be created automatically in the same directory as survey.cgi, upon first saving to the file.

Here is an updated if statement, which now contains code to retrieve the vote and save it to survey.txt upon receiving a non-blank qs

          if (cnt != 0) {

                             cout << “debug with cnt != 0< br>” << endl;

                             //call function to prepare vote            string data_line = prepare_vote(cnt);  //to be implemented,

                                                                    //explained next            cout << “debug with data_line: ” << data_line << “< br>” << endl;

                   fo.save_data_line(data_line);   

The prepare_vote(cnt) function needs to be implemented (in the main program, not the class FileApps) – here are the specs:

string prepare_vote(int f_cnt) {

                             //create dynamic array name_value_pairs[] from the wo object

                             //as done earlier

                   statement here

                             //parse qs into name_value_pairs[] array from the wo object

                             //as done earlier

                   statement here

                             //param the vote field value into variable ‘vote’ from the wo object

                             //as done earlier

                   statement here

                             cout << “debug with vote: ” << vote << “< br>” << endl;

                  

                   return  vote + “|\n”;        //the new line character will put each vote                                         //on a new line in the file

                                                //ex of a concatenated vote: “y|\n”

                   Normally, this line of data would contain more fields, which would

                   commonly be separated by pipes, like:

                   “y|Fred|Flintstone|\n” – represents data for three fields.                  Therefore, even if we use only one            field this time, we remain consistent with the protocol.

}                 

Once ‘data_line’ is sent to object method  fo.save_data_line(), the debug statement in FileApps.h should confirm success (of save) and survey.txt should be checked for content manually.

Complete this stage before entering the next one and don’t forget to back-up!

Now, with the assumption that survey.txt captures the votes properly, survey.cpp is ready to read all the vote data into an array (data_array[]) and pass it back to us.

This code is entirely given, so get it here from survey_cpp_state_E.txt

Again, not necessary to understand how the data is saved and retrieved from the class code – just use it as shown. What is important is that you now have the data and ready to tally and display the votes, the main course of this project.

Leave the debug statements from main and FileApps.h in the finish product!

Finally, the last part: Just a few comments, to help with the mechanics of this function:

void display_result (string f_data_array[]) {

          //function flow:

          // initialize a dynamic array (vote_tally_array) from function

          // create_int_array() (to be created under main(), not in the

          // class), which returns a pointer to an array          // with number of elements equal to the number of possible

          // (different) choices of votes:

          //      For example, Y or N will require a  vote_tally_array of 2

          //      elements              

          // initialize vote_tally_array to 0’s in a loop

          // In another loop, increment vote_tally_array from f_data_array[]

                    // Use something like this pseudocode::

                   // if vote == “Y|” then vote_tally_array[0]++

                   // else if vote == “N|” then vote_tally_array[1]++

          //print the results

}

Also, at the bottom of the result page, include a link to survey.txt in order to make it available.

To complete the program flow, follow this format:

if (vote coming in)

prepare vote

save data

read data

get data_array

build form

display result

else (no vote)

build form

read data

get data_array

display result

To turn in:

Dropbox survey.cpp and WebApps.h Create a message in the discussion board providing a workable link to your

final project survey.cgi, as done before with the HTML and String Processing app.

Remember these few steps:

Firefox is the only browser, which will allow creating links in a toolkit message.

In a new message for topic named ‘survey threads’, select the

check box Enable HTML

In the body of the message, type the html ‘a’ tag (shown below) substituting

your own url information (and not using a space as it is done here):

< a href=”http://toolkit.cs.ohlone.edu/~username/survey.cgi”>Some Descriptive

Name for the Project< /a>

Take the time to participate in each others’ surveys!

Student Examples: there were some differences, such as the same user could not vote more than once, otherwise – pretty close to this semester’s format, on the outside.

Lawrence Simon

Anitha Gopalan

Thank you for all of your work!

In hope this class has met your expectations and that it has prepared you sufficiently in your continuing education, cheers :

 

Question 15:          History

 

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History of Animation Thesis

 

 As your final work, you can write an essay about an issue chosen by you from animation

history.

.

 A period, a country, an artistic movement, auteur cinema, technological development or a

comparetive analysis (in the context of a specific theme) may be your subject.

 The first level of your work (midterm), consists of deciding the subject, delimitation, the

first and short abstract of the research and resources (750 – 1000 words).

 The completed work (final) must be between 3500-6000 words, written with Times New

Dear studetns,

 

Your midterm assignment must contain the subject and its delimitation , a short abstract and the resources.

 

You must also add that your research will be a personal process or not.

 

If you research as group, group members must be determined with their part and personal contribution in the process and the subject. Groups must determine also if they will make an oral presentation with a power point file; or write an essay in a doc. file.

         

 

 

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Question 16:                   Business

 

Risk Analysis

 

Complete a risk analysis for a specific Organization

•        For this task, choose an organization that you are familiar with or that has a great deal of information available to you through various reliable resources. Since you will use this organization throughout the activities in the course, it is important that you can access information about the organization. Then, write a paper that addresses the following questions:

1.       What are some of the natural disaster risks associated with this organization?

2.       What are some of the infrastructure risks associated with this organization?

3.       What are some of the risks associated with the industry in which this organization operates? Which risks do you see as potentially threatening to your selected company?

4.       Has this organization performed a risk assessment before? If so, what were the outcomes of that risk assessment?

5.       What other pertinent information should be included in a risk analysis specifically for this organization? Why?

Length 5-7 pages

 

Question 17:          Accounting

 

Percentage of Total Revenues on Leasing for EV EBITDA Australia

 

In around 700 words, please provide information on Percentage of Total Revenues on Leasing for EV EBITDA Australia. Ensure that the statistics for the percentage are from within the last 3 years (2016 onwards). In case you are not able to find exact percentages for EBITDA, feel free to include a proxy company as part of your calculations, and then explain about the method you used to arrive to the answer. Finally, include citations both inside and at the end of the document in hyperlinks. Write in Intro, Body, and Conclusion as per the usual Research Format (plus a methodology section, if necessary. Thank You!

 

Question 18:          Computer Science

 

Part 1.   (20 pts)

Write code to create a class definition for Account. These are the needed specs for the class.

1.       There is only one constructor for this class that receives two strings: firstname, and lastname. The values of these strings will be passed from the client code. See below for what to do with these strings. An account starts with a $100 balance (see Balance property below).

2.       ID. During creation (inside sub new), the ID value is made of the user’s first name followed by the underscore followed by the last name, for example if passed “John” and “Smith”, the ID value is John_Smith ID is a string property that is read-only.

3.       Password. During creation the value for password the same as the ID with the added string “Change”. Afterwards, the password may not be “displayed” to the client. However, client may change the password, using ChangePassword method below. This makes password aWrite-only property. To force the end user to change their password before using their account, a boolean variable, PasswordReset, is set to true under Sub New. This variable is to changed false under the ChangePassword method below.

4.       An account Balance is a number with fractions: • This property is Read-only. • Amounts withdrawn or deposited into the account affect the balance, using the Deposit and Withdraw method below.

Account has the following methods:

1.       Deposit which takes two arguments, an amount (to be deposited as a number with fractions), and password (a string). If PasswordReset is False, then check if the password passed matches the account password then the actions below are possible, otherwise an error message is shown. If PasswordReset is True issue an error message to change the password first. If the amount passed is > 0 then add it to the current balance (recall Balance is read-only), otherwise another error message is shown.

2.       Withdraw which takes two arguments, an amount (to be withdrawn as a number with fractions), and password (a string).  The logic to withdraw is the same as the logic to Deposit, except that we must additionally check if the withdrawal will cause the balance to be negative), then no withdrawal is possible. Issue an error message (make sure the balance is not changed). Otherwise f the amount passed is > 0 then deduct from the current balance (recall Balance is read-only), otherwise another error message is shown.

3.       ChangePassword is a method that takes two string, current password and a new password, if the current password matches the account password, change the account password to the new password, and issue a message, otherwise issue an error message.

 Part 2.   (5 pts)

Now we work on the client code. On the user form, there are 2 textboxes txtFname, and txtLname,  and a button btnCreate. There are also, a textbox, txtAmount, and 2 buttons, btnWithdraw, and btnDeposit.

Make sure your code below uses the exact control names shown above.

In all the code below, no data validation is required (i.e. assume the user will type a number when expected, and a string when expected).

Also assume in all the code below that an object named MyAccount has been declared (declared only) as an Account as a form (global) level variable.

Write the code needed so that when the user Clicks  btnCreate, MyAccount is created based on account with an id whose values are passed in txtFname (for the first name), and txtLname (for the last name). Then erase the content of all textboxes.

Sub CreateAccount(…,…) Handles btnCreate.Click

 

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End Sub

 

Part 3.   (5 pts)

Write code to activate the account which calls the PasswordReset method. Use the two textboxes to pass the current and new password. Assume the following button handler:

Sub ResetPass(…,…) Handles btnResetPass.Click

 

End Sub

 

Part 4.   (5 pts)

Using the same form and controls, write code for btnWithdraw so when the user types a number in txtAmount and clicks btnWithdraw, the account withdraw method is called on the amount in txtAmount, and the password entered into the second textbox. Clear both textboxes.

Show the new balance in a messagebox.

Sub withdraw(…,…) Handles btnWithdraw.Click

 

End Sub

 

Part 5.  (5 pts)

Same as in the previous question, write code for btnDeposit  so when the user types a number in txtAmount and the password in the second textbox then clicks btnDeposit, the account Deposit method is called on the amount in txtAmount,  and the password from the second textbox. Clear the textboxes. Show the new balance in a messagebox. Sub deposit(…,…) Handles btnDeposit.Click

 

End Sub

 

Part 6.    (5 Pts)

Update the code you wrote for the Account class

The Account class need to issue a warning (using an Event) so that when the Balance becomes $10 or less, the client is warned. In this answer you will only write the code for the Account class. You may add comments to explain where the newly added code goes. Limit your comments to a short one line sentence.

 

Part 7.    (5 pts)

Now (re)write the code that declares an object that will later be created to represent the account class. This object will handle event statically. Add any code and show where this code goes, so that the object is able to handle events statically. Also write an event handler for the event required in the question above, so that when the event occurs:

In one messagebox show the balance to the user and tell them they should deposit money into the account.

 

Question 19:          Statistics

 

In the data given above on earnings and education, we obtained the following regression. Meanwage_i = 0.7437 + 0.6416 Education Fill in the missing numbers. How do you interpret the coefficient 0.6416? Would you reject the hypothesis that education has no effect whatsoever on wages? Which test do you use? And why?

 

Question 20:         Other

 

Need help with an assignment must equal up to 1,500, each questions must have a min of 250 words for each questions and must have at least four (4) scholarly sources.

Must be in APA format and include in text citation (    ).

1. What are the major precepts of the Classical school of criminology? Why was this considered to be such a departure from past theories of crime?

2. Explain the philosophies of Hobbes and Locke and their impact on social issues.

3. Describe Betham’s “hedonistic calculus’ and its connection to punishment for crime.

4.What are your thoughts on the three strikes law as a deterrent?

5.Explain the strengths and weaknesses of rational choice and routine activity theory as explained in your text.

6.Describe the Just Deserts Model and is this in line with Matthew 5:38-42. Why or why not

Question 21:          Education

 

need 5 page paper by Sunday at 10pm, APA format, 6th edition. On brain development

Instruction

Create a 5-page paper in a Word or text document for your response. Use 12-point Arial or Times New Roman font. 3) Use APA (6th edition) format for the title page, references page, and in-text citations. 4) To complete the assignment in this module, you will need to:  Locate research on brain development and early childhood.  Focus your paper on the typical process of brain development from conception to early preschool.  Discuss the role of attachment, developmentally appropriate interactions, and environmental factors in the developmental process.  Include at least three references, a mix of seminal and current research, to support your position. Cite the references in APA (6th edition) format. /early childhood education

 

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Question 23: Psychology

 

Diversity and Individual’s Personal Psychology

 

Discussion question:

Please describe how being a part of a diverse population influences your personal psychology. How might your personal psychology influence your professional career?

 

Please make sure to apply more than one resource to initial response. Properly cites (i.e., APA) course materials and outside scholarly readings in initial posting; citations as needed in responses to classmates.

 

Textbook sources:

 

Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

Keith,K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.

Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

Lott, B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.

Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

Question 24:         Computer Science

 

Cyber Security

 

A man-in-the-middle attack found the following HTTP Authorization header in transit. Authorization: Digest username-“880651232”, response “63e3807ce5ddf4971a5d349c7ad67703”, realm-“Mordor”, nonce “03e2abb8a924e966bee59d41cef32851”, uri-“/Public/cs/Home.png”, opaque=”4043168947418128″ What is the password that gives rise to the above HTTP Authorization header? The password is thought to be a common dictionary word, and theretore you may wish to try some of the common English words

 

Question 25:         English

 

Instruction

I need a research assignment done on the benefits of exercising and maintaining a healthy diet. Must include a full reference citation (MLA 8th edition) and 4 sentence summary referencing a book, a journal or article, and a webpage on the topic. Also, Write a formally worded email to a friend (250 words) that includes a proposed argumentative / persuasive thesis for your chosen topic Within the body of the email, paraphrase and cite two of your sources and directly quote from and cite one of your sources. This means that all three of the sources you used in Step 2 should be represented in the email.

Step One

What is your research question?  

This should be one sentence long.

 

 

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Step Two

MLA 8th Edition Annotation for the Book

This should include a full reference citation and four sentences.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Step Two

MLA 8th Edition Annotation for the Journal

This should include a full reference citation and four sentences.

 

 

 

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Step Two

MLA 8th Edition Annotation for the Webpage

This should include a full reference citation and four sentences.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Step Three 

Email to an Interested Party

Brief Opening and Thesis

This step should be, altogether, 250 words.

 

 

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What “They” Say:  

Paraphrase and cite two of your sources of information and directly quote from and cite from one

 

 

 

What “I” Say:  

The student’s claim about the topic based on his or her research findings.

 

 

Step Four 

MLA 8th edition Works Cited

This should include three full reference citations for the book, journal, and webpage.

 

 

 

 

Question 26:         Science

 

There are 3 discussions to answer. Each discussion must be at least 100 words. Discussions need to be written in a registered nurses point of view. At least one APA citation for each post.

 

Instruction

#1. Review the nine provisions of the Code of Ethics for Nurses in the textbook. Select one of the nine provisions and identify how you plan to meet it in your professional career. Select another provision and provide a potential, applicable scenario that may challenge you at some point. #2. Review the Nurse Practice Act of the state you plan to practice as an RN. Identify what it states regarding RN supervision of LVNs or unlicensed assistive personnel. Identify how you intend to practice within that scope. Explain how that Nurse Practice Act differentiates independent and dependent nursing practice. #3. As a nurse, you will be asked to deal with all kinds of patient concerns and issues. Thinking back to your nursing rotations [or observations], please describe your most challenging clinical experience requiring many tasks but little time to complete the necessary work. As you prepare to interview for RN positions respond to all aspects of one of the following: What was the situation? Provide details and examples. How did you handle all of these tasks? What would you do differently if you had it to do again? What did you learn from the experience?

 

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Question 27:         Business

Assigned Company is Lowe’s.

Accounting CASE 1:  Management Discussion and Analysis

Read Lowe’s 2018 annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and answer the following questions: Look at the Management Discussion and Analysis (MDA) on Financial Condition and Results of

Operations presented in Lowe’s annual reports. Summarize the information discussed in the MDA.

(Maximum length of the report is 2 pages (with normal margins and 12 point font)). Include an appendix

for any extra information and that will not count in report pages.

Accounting CASE 2:  Auditor’s Reports and Management Reports

Read 2018 Lowe’s annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and look at the Auditor’s and

Managements Reports and Certifications. Summarize and comment about the standards/rules used in the following:

Auditor’s report – general

Auditor’s report – internal controls

Management report (certification) – fair presentation (check Exhibits 31.1 & 31.2)

Management report (certification) – internal controls.

(Maximum length of the report is 2 pages (with normal margins and 12 point font)).

Accounting CASE 3: Financial Statement Analysis

Read 2018 Lowe’s annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and answer the following questions:

Calculate the ratios to analyze Profitability, Liquidity and Solvency. Just the ratios discussed in the

chapter 14 comments posted. Include two decimal points for ratios and percentages that you calculate.

Link for the 2018 Annual Report download: https://lowes.gcs-web.com/static-files/7e8ff02d-ca35-4eae-9a4e-843ff3858c33

 

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Question 28:         Psychology

 

1. How do the concepts of validity and verifiability relate to the trustworthiness of the data and emerging theory within grounded theory research? 2. What other disadvantages might exist that pertain to the use of phenomenological research design when studying any phenomena that pertain to counseling, counselor education, and supervision?

Instruction

Responses to these questions should be a minimum of 400 words. Cite all sources using proper APA format.

 

Question 29:         English

 

Oral Presentation Movie District 9

 

         

Instruction

PLEASE READ THE INFORMATION IN THE ATTACHMENTS CAREFULLY AND FOLLOW THEM!!

 

 

 

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Question 30:         General

 

Response paper.

 

Timmerman 1 Title is

focused and

Lesley Timmerman announces

Professor Jennifer Wilson the thesis.

English 102

15 August 2012 Double-space

between

An Argument for Corporate Responsibility the title and

Opponents of corporate social responsibility (CSR) argue that first para-

a company’s sole duty is to generate profits. According to them, by graph — and

acting for the public good, corporations are neglecting their primary throughout

obligation to make money. However, as people are becoming more and the essay.

more conscious of corporate impacts on society and the environment,

separating profits from company practices and ethics does not make Brief state-

sense. Employees want to work for institutions that share their values, ment of one

and consumers want to buy products from companies that are making side of the

an impact and improving people’s lives. Furthermore, businesses exist issue.

in an interdependent world where the health of the environment

and the well-being of society really do matter. For these reasons, Summary of

corporations have to take responsibility for their actions, beyond the opposing

making money for shareholders. For their own benefit as well as the view.

public’s, companies must strive to be socially responsible.

In his article “The Case against Corporate Responsibility,” Lead-in to

Wall Street Journal writer Aneel Karnani argues that CSR will never quotation.

be able to solve the world’s problems. Thinking it can, Karnani says,

is a dangerous illusion. He recommends that instead of expecting 1” margin on

corporate managers to act in the public interest, we should rely on each side

philanthropy and government regulation. Karnani maintains that and at

“Managers who sacrifice profit for the common good [. . .] are in bottom.

effect imposing a tax on their shareholders and arbitrarily deciding

how that money should be spent.” In other words, according to

Karnani, corporations should not be determining what constitutes

 

 

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AN ANNOTATED STUDENT RESEARCH PAPER IN MLA FORMAT 323

 

Timmerman 5

 

Furthermore, plenty of companies have seen what happens when they Author argues

assume that consumers do not care about CSR. For example, in 1997, that it is to

when Nike customers discovered that their shoes were manufactured the companies’

by child laborers in Indonesia, the company took a huge financial interest to

hit (Guthrie). Today, Information-Age customers are even more be socially

likely to educate themselves about companies’ labor practices and responsible.

environmental records. Smart corporations will listen to consumer

preferences, provide transparency, and commit to integrating CSR into Author’s lead-

their long-term business plans. in to the quo-

tation guides

In this increasingly interdependent world, the case against the reader’s

CSR is becoming more and more difficult to defend. Exempting response to the

corporations and relying on government to be the world’s conscience quotation.

does not make good social, environmental, or economic sense.

Contributors to a recent article in the online journal Knowledge@

Wharton, published by the Wharton School of Business, agree.

Professor Eric Orts maintains that “it is an outmoded view to say

that one must rely only on the government and regulation to police

business responsibilities. What we need is re-conception of what

the purpose of business is” (qtd. in “From Fringe to Mainstream”).

The question is, what should the purpose of a business be in today’s

world? Professor of Business Administration David Bejou of Elizabeth

City State University has a thoughtful and sensible answer to that

question. He writes,

 

. . . it is clear that the sole purpose of a business is not merely

that of generating profits for its owners. Instead, because

compassion provides the necessary equilibrium between

a company’s purpose and the needs of its communities, it

should be the new philosophy of business. (Bejou 1)

 

As Bejou implies, the days of allowing corporations to act in their

own financial self-interest with little or no regard for their effects on

 

 

324 7 / USING SOURCES

 

Upbeat Timmerman 6

ending.

others are over. None of us can afford such a narrow view of business.

The world is far too interconnected. A seemingly small corporate

decision — to buy coffee beans directly from local growers or to install

solar panels — can affect the lives and livelihoods of many people

and determine the environmental health of whole regions. A business,

just like a government or an individual, therefore has an ethical

responsibility to act with compassion for the public good.

 

Fortunately, corporations have many incentives to act

responsibly. Customer loyalty, employee satisfaction, overall cost-

saving, and long-term viability are just some of the advantages

businesses can expect to gain by embracing comprehensive CSR

policies. Meanwhile, companies have very little to lose by embracing

a socially conscious view. These days, compassion is profitable.

Corporations would be wise to recognize the enormous power,

opportunity, and responsibility they have to effect positive change.

 

 

AN ANNOTATED STUDENT RESEARCH PAPER IN MLA FORMAT 325

 

Timmerman 7

 

Works Cited Alphabetical

Bejou, David. “Compassion as the New Philosophy of Business.” Jour- by author’s last

name.

nal of Relationship Marketing 10.1 (2011): 1-6. Business Source

Complete. Web. 15 Aug. 2012. Hanging

Cone Communications. 2010 Cone Cause Evolution Study. Cone, Inc., indent ½”.

2010. Web. 15 Aug. 2012.

“From Fringe to Mainstream: Companies Integrate CSR Initiatives into An article on a

Everyday Business.” Knowledge@Wharton. The Wharton School blog without a

of the University of Pennsylvania, 23 May 2012. Web. 14 Aug. known author.

2012.

Guthrie, Doug. Keynote address. Promoting a Comprehensive Approach A clip from

to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR). YouTube. YouTube, 22 YouTube.

May 2012. Web. 11 Aug. 2012.

Karnani, Aneel. “The Case against Corporate Social Responsibility.” The

Wall Street Journal. Dow Jones & Co., Inc., 14 June 2012. Web.

12 Aug. 2012.

Meister, Jeanne. “Corporate Social Responsibility: A Lever for Em-

ployee Attraction & Engagement.” Forbes. Forbes.com, 7 June

2012. Web. 12 Aug. 2012.

Savitz, Andrew W., with Karl Weber. The Triple Bottom Line: How

Today’s Best-Run Companies Are Achieving Economic, Social, and

Environmental Success. San Francisco: Jossey-Bass, 2006. Print.

 

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Question      1.       Mathematics

 

Applied Statistics homework through SNHU.

 

 

 

 

Question      2.       Finance

 

Instruction

This assignment consists of two questions. Each question, in turn, consists of several related sub-questions. You are required to solve all problems.

 

International Finance – Assignment 1

General information: This assignment consists of two questions. Each question in turn consists of several related sub-questions. You are required to solve all problems. You can achieve a maximum of 100 points in this assignment. The maximum points for each question are indicated in brackets. Please provide your answers on the separate answer sheet that is available on Moodle. I will only accept answers written in the indicated areas on the answer sheet. Please carefully read the following notes:

•        Important: The answer sheet consists of two pages. Use a double-page printer to print on one paper sheet only (front and back side)!

•        If calculations are required, round your answer to two decimals and state the corresponding units.

•        You may use an electronic calculator to solve the problems.

•        Of course, you can also use the lecture notes and the textbook for support. But remember that this

won’t be allowed in the exam!

•        You can work in groups. But every student has to submit his own answer sheet. Also remember that

you are not allowed to work in groups during the exam so you might want to solve the problems by

yourself first.

 

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•        Write clearly! If I cannot read your answer, I cannot give you credit for it.

Question I: Debt Sustainability Analysis

The Bureau of Economic Analysis publishes data on the net international asset position and nominal GDP for the United States. Moreover, the Congressional Budget Office (CBO) makes the forecasts for future growth rates and inflation rates, while the IMF provides estimates of future current account to GDP ratios. Here is an overview of the current data and estimates:

•        Net international asset position, end of year 2018: W2018 = −9717.1 billion USD

•        Nominal GDP in 2018: P Y2018 = 20494.1 billion USD

•        Projected real GDP growth gt: 2.3% (2019), 1.7% (2020), 1.6% (2021), 1.7% (each year from 2022)

•        Projected inflation rate πt: 2.0% (2019), 2.0% (2020), 2.0% (2021), 2.1% (each year from 2022)

•        Projected current account balance (relative to GDP) cat: -2.4% (2019), -2.6% (2020), -2.7% (2021), –

2.4% (each year from 2022)

Use this data to answer the following questions.

1.       Startfromtheassetaccumulationviewofthecurrentaccountandassumethattherearenovaluation effects. Show mathematically that the change in the external asset to GDP ratio wt over two years can be expressed by the following formula: (8)

2.       Calculate the external asset to GDP ratio of the United States for the end of year 2018. (3)

3.       Use the formula above to project the external asset to GDP ratios for the end of year 2019. (3)

4.       Use the formula above to project the external asset to GDP ratios for the end of year 2020. (3)

5.       Use the formula above to project the external asset to GDP ratios for the end of year 2021. (3)

6.       Based on the formula above, what is the long run equilibrium value of the external asset to GDP

ratio? (3)

7.       In the long run equilibrium: What is the minimum value of the real interest rate that is required for

debt sustainability (i.e. such that the transversality condition is not violated)? (3)

8.       In the long run equilibrium: Calculate the current account balance that is necessary to achieve an

external asset to GDP ratio of -25%. (3)

9.       Calculate the long run equilibrium value of the external asset to GDP ratio if the projected real GDP

growth rate drops to 1% (all else equal). (3)

10.     CalculatethelongrunequilibriumvalueoftheexternalassettoGDPratioiftheprojectedinflation

rate increases to 3% (all else equal). (3)

11.      CalculatethelongrunequilibriumvalueoftheexternalassettoGDPratioiftheprojectedcurrent

account deficit widens to -3.5% (all else equal). (3)

The following figure is from Gourinchas and Rey (2010) and shows the cumulated current account balances and the net international investment position (both relative to GDP) for the United States:

Based on this graph, answer the following question:

12. Explain in detail how we can interpret the difference between the two lines! How do the develop- ments in this figure affect the standard debt sustainability analysis for the United States? (12)

Question II: Intertemporal Theory of the Current Account

Consider a small economy that lasts for two periods (period 1 and period 2). In each period, households receive an exogenous endowment of the single consumption good. The endowment is given by Y1 = 100 and Y2 = 110 respectively. The initial wealth of households is zero, i.e. W0 = 0.

Households have preferences over consumption in period 1 (C1) and period 2 (C2). Their intertemporal utility function is given by:

Assume that the economy is initially closed and has no access to the international capital market. The autarky interest rate is denoted by rA.

1.     2. 3

2.     

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·          

1.     .

What is the value of C1 in goods market equilibrium in the closed economy? (3) 2. What is the value of C2 in goods market equilibrium in the closed economy? (3) 3. Calculate the value of the autarky interest rate in the closed economy. (11)

Assume now that the economy opens up. Households have access to the international capital market and can borrow or lend at the world market interest rate r = 10%. The initial external wealth of households is still

zero, i.e. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11.

12.

W0 = 0.

Using the transversality condition: What is the value of the net external asset position W2 at the end of period 2? (3)

Calculate the optimal consumption C1 in the open economy. (3)

Calculate the optimal consumption C2 in the open economy. (3)

Calculate the value of the trade balance in period 1. (3)

Calculate the value of the current account in period 1. (3)

Calculate the value of the trade balance in period 2. (3) Calculatethevalueofthecurrentaccountinperiod2.(3) Graphicallyillustratetheoptimalconsumptiondecisionofthehouseholdintheopeneconomy. Clearly indicate (i) the initial endowment, (ii) the budget constraint, (iii) the indifference curve, (iv) the optimal consumption point, (v) the trade balance in period 1 and (vi) the trade balance in period 2. (6)

Explainintuitivelythedynamicsofthecurrentaccountinthiseconomy.(6)

Question I: Debt Sustainability Analysis

1)

2)      3)      4)      5)      6)

7)      8)      9)      10)     11)

12)

Question II: Intertemporal Theory of the Current Account

1)       2)      3)      4)      5)

6)      7)      8)      9)      10)

11)

12)

Question      3.       English

 

Essay Compare and contrast both stories “ The tale of the three brothers” (Harry Potter) the tale of the three brothers (harry potter and the deathly hallows part 1) and “ The story of an hour” by Kate Chopin https://archive.vcu.edu/english/engweb/webtexts/hour/ . * compare and contrast using the 4 lens : Marxist criticism , gender studies , Ecocriticism , & psychoanalytic criticism . https://owl.purdue.edu/owl/subject_specific_writing/writing_in_literature/literary_theory_and_schools_of_criticism/index.html MLA format Please use 6 quotes & in text cites Intro – introducing the authors

 

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Question      4.       Other

 

graphic design adobe illustrator

 

Instruction

Artboard Size One artboard at 17″ X 11″ inches This map must be drawn using the Pen tool in Illustrator. You do not have to recreate the whole city, just a section of the town where this hotel is (the location of the hotel is up to you) with attractions nearby. To help give you a visual idea, please google ‘city map given by hotels.’ How do I draw the map? To draw the map, I would recommend going to Google Maps and downloading or taking a screenshot of the city section you would like to recreate. You can import this map graphic into Illustrator and trace over it using the Pen tool. Your map needs to contain the following: Full color Map drawn using the Pen tool Ten icons that are created by you using the Pen and Shape tools only – no bitmap graphics From these 10 icons, you need to create the following: Three restaurants Four attractions 2 shopping locations The guest hotel A legend explaining what these 10 icons represent – You might want to break the legend up based on interest (Attractions, Shopping, Restaurants, etc… to make it easier to read) A marker to identify the current location on the map (hotel location) Text should be used for the names of the icons and major streets Submit the following: Compress the Ai and JPEG files into a single .zip file. For assistance in zipping and unzipping files, review the How to Compress Files and Save as .Zip document (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.. Submit the .zip file.

Question      5.       General

 

You have been working as a supervisor in a community service organisation for some time.

The organisation has a policy of recognising diversity—personal/ individual and cultural. The current workforce is, therefore, comprised of a number of people from different cultures, with a wide range of background experiences and skills.

Inclusivity policies are supported by the current workforce and there is very little conflict. All staff receives cross-cultural training which helps them accept workforce diversity and accommodate the diverse needs of the clients for whom they care.

Write a 2,500 word paper explaining:

•        the ways in which diversity can impact on work and work relationships

•        the benefits of diversity

•        the need for inclusivity, cultural safety and cultural competence

•        why it is necessary for staff to reflect on their own individual and cultural characteristics, biases and prejudices

•        how diversity should be valued and accommodated

•        how effective and mutually beneficial relationships can be built with work mates, clients and clients’ families

•        how to overcome communication barriers

•        how the individual and cultural needs of clients can be accommodated and respected

•        the methods that might be used to prevent, overcome or manage cultural conflicts

•        strategies that people can use to improve their own self and social awareness

 

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Question      6.       English

 

Create a short story.

 

Instruction

-Your story should have ONE main character and a MAXIMUM of THREE supporting characters. -Your story must have a clear plot. -Your story could include effective dialogue. -Your story should include some type of conflict. -Length? It’s a short story…so 3 – 5 pages.

Question      7.       Literary Studies

 

Two papers I need done. Each paper is one page each. MLA formet. Essay response on African Amercian literature. Due by 3pm.

 

 

4. Consider Frances E. W. Harper’s short story “The Two Offers” (1859) and her poem “A Double Standard” (1895).  What message does Harper prioritize in the poem, and what message does she emphasize in her story?  In what ways might Harper’s messages be relevant in the lives of contemporary female readers? 

 

5. Read pages 105-107 of Alexander Crummell’s “The Black Woman of the South: Her Needs and Her Wants” (1883): https://archive.org/details/blackwomanofsout00crum.   Using textual evidence, discuss how Crummell’s characterizations of Black women’s experiences relate to the experiences of other characters or authors/orators we have read?    Additionally, does any other character or writer we have read present a possible remedy for the challenges Crummell identifies?  If not, do not answer this question.  If so, be sure to cite characters, persona, and/or speakers who proscribe solutions to the issues Crummell outlines

 

Question      8.       Mathematics

 

3.       information or is

“word of mouth” an acceptable practice.

Rubric

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View the long description of the rubric for this assignment.

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6/8/2019 Assignment 4

MCF3M: Functions and Applications, Grade 12, College and University Unit 4: Culminating Task

Activity 1: The Functional Fairground

Assignment Assignment 4

Complete one activity from each of the three fairground areas and submit your work to the dropbox.

Courtyard of Powers: 4 ¬ Fair Pay

4. In “Fair Pay” you visit the fairground administration building as a potential employee. You decide if the salary grid is fair today and in the future.

Table of Present Hourly Wages and their Future Growth

Years of Experience        Hourly Wage (present)    Hourly Wage (10 years)   Hourly Wage (20 years)          Hourly Wage (30 years)   Hourly Wage (40 years)

0        $6.00          $9.77          $15.92         $25.93        $

1        $6.50                                      

2        $7.00                                      

3        $7.50                                      

4        $8.00                                      

5        $8.50                                      

6        $9.00                                      

7        $9.50                                      

8        $10.00                                     

9        $10.50                                     

10      $11.00         $17.92         $29.19         $47.54        $

 

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To keep ahead of inflation the employees will get a yearly 5% increase. The minimum and maximum hourly wages after 10, 20, and 30 years are given.

A. Graph the minimum (0 year row) salary and the maximum (10 year row) salary growth as two

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Assignment 4

separate curves on the same axes.

B. Create separate equations for the “0 year” data and “10 year” data using function notation to express your answer. Use the form W(t) = ?, where “W” is the hourly wage in dollars and “t” is the time in years.

C. i) Identify the input variable?

ii) Identify the output variable?

iii) Is W(t) a function? State your reasoning.

iv) If the domain is restricted to 0 = t = 30, what is the range on this interval for the maximum

experience?

D. i) Extrapolate from the given data set to find W(40) = ?, the hourly wage for both minimum and maximum experience after 40 years of 5% increases.

ii) Divide the 30 year hourly wage by the present hourly wage for both the “0 year” and “10 year” experience level.

iii) How many times bigger is the salary after 30 years?

iv) Subtract the present hourly wage from the 30 year hourly wage for both the “0 year” and “10

year” experience level.

v) What is the increase in each salary after 30 years?

vi) Do you think this method of increasing the salary grid is acceptable to all employees?

Explain with reference to your calculations as well as employee quality and type of job.

Rubric

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View the long description of the rubric for this assignment.

Unless otherwise indicated, all images in this activity are from the public domain or are © clipart.com or Microsoft clipart and are used with permission.

This is a disclaimer. External resources will open in a new window. Not responsible for external content.

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6/8/2019 Assignment 5

MCF3M: Functions and Applications, Grade 12, College and University Unit 4: Culminating Task

Activity 1: The Functional Fairground

Assignment Assignment 5

Complete one activity from each of the three fairground areas and submit your work to the dropbox.

Courtyard of Powers: 5 ¬ Bearly Working

5. “Bearly Working” is a black bear animatronic sing¬along presentation that always seems to be breaking down. How long will it take for word to travel around the park?

To avoid people showing up to this non¬functional presentation, the presenters asked the first person that showed up to tell three other people in the park that the show will not be running. This must be done within one minute of leaving the area. Furthermore, they have asked that each of these three people pass on this information to three other people in the following minute and so on…

A. Graph the data from the table above.

B. Create an equation for the data using function notation to express your answer. Use the form P(t) = ?, where “P” is the number of people informed after “t” rounds of communication.

C. i) Identify the input variable?

ii) Identify the output variable?

iii) Is P(t) a function? State your reasoning.

iv) If the domain is restricted to 0 = t = 4, what is the range on this interval for the maximum

experience?

D. i) Extrapolate from the given data set to find P(8) = ?, the number of people informed of the broken presentation after 8 rounds of communication.

Table of Number of People Informed per Round of Messages

Round of messages (minutes)     0        1        2        3        4

# of people informed      1        3        9        27      81

ii) If attendance is approximately 19 000 on this day, how long will it take for everybody in the

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Assignment 5

park to be informed. Support your answer.

3.       iii)  If the original instruction was changed so that you inform four people on each round, what

would the new equation become?

4.       iv)  At this different rate, approximately how long will it take to communicate with the same 19

000 people?

v)  Should the fairground management be responsible for communicating this

 

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Question      9.       Other

 

Instruction

In order to give direction to your preliminary ideas for your business, your business plan, especially if you do not now have a business, or you do not know what business you would start if you did go into business for yourself this assignment is to conduct a 10 question interview with someone you know who is an entrepreneur, and/or has started and manages a small business. Here is the source to use for the interview:https://www.feedster.com/wisdom-strategy/10-questions-to-ask-an-entrepreneur/ Write a thorough report of you entire interview, with the question, and the response, be as detailed as possible to dig for explanations to each question. Give name of business owner, how you chose her/him, name of business, date of interview, and details of the business

 

Question      10.     Other.

 

Instruction

 

You will write a 1,000-word book review of The King Jesus Gospel by Scot McKnight. This review will contain a short summary of the book, a personal response, a discussion of the book’s strengths and weaknesses and an application of the book in your life. You must follow the guidelines carefully. Use the following format in preparing your Book Review: 1. Summary: Summarize what you have read into 250 words. Prove that you comprehend the readings by writing a no-nonsense summary (picture a summary similar to reading the back cover of a book to decide if you want to read it). 2. Concrete responses: In at least 250 words, relate a personal life experience that this book connected with in your own life. Relate your story in first person, describing action, and quoting sentences you remember hearing or saying. You will remember almost nothing you have read unless you make this critical, personal connection. What video memory began to roll? This is your chance to tell your story and make new ideas found in the book your own. 3. Reflection: What new questions do you have in response to what you have read? Keep a rough note sheet at hand as you read. Begin with questions like: “What would I like further information on?” “Where do I disagree/strongly agree with the author?” “What bothers me/excites me about this content?” “What are the strengths and weaknesses of this book?” This section must be at least 250 words. 4. Application: How does information in the book influence how you are going to continue your own personal growth process? What actions or changes are you going to make in your life as a result of your learning? Your response here is a matter of obedience first, questions later. Be precise in summarizing your action steps (limit these comments to about 250 words). Note: Your grade for the Book Review depends on the quality and thoroughness of your response to each of these four headings. Include each heading in the body of your paper.

 

Question 11.           Education

 

Instruction

 

Create a 5-page paper in a Word or text document for your response. Use 12-point Arial or Times New Roman font. 3) Use APA (6th edition) format for the title page, references page, and in-text citations. 4) To complete the assignment in this module, you will need to:  Locate research on brain development and early childhood.  Focus your paper on the typical process of brain development from conception to early preschool.  Discuss the role of attachment, developmentally appropriate interactions, and environmental factors in the developmental process.  Include at least three references, a mix of seminal and current research, to support your position. Cite the references in APA (6th edition) format. /early childhood education

 

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to 60 African American kindergarten children, half of low-income and half of middle-income status. Tasks were selected based on neuroimaging and lesion studies so that they taxed five neurocognitive systems that are involved in academic performance. The results indicated that there were no significant differ- ences between the income groups for the visual, spatial, and memory systems. However, SES differences were especially great in the areas of language and executive function, with indica- tions that some of the difference in executive function was associated with individual differences in language ability.

In a systematic replication, Farah et al. (2006) administered cognitive tasks to 60 African American children between the ages of 10 and 13 years, half of low-income and half of middle-income status; the children in the two groups were equivalent on health measures. Tasks were designed to provide information about abilities connected with seven specific neurocogni- tive systems. The results indicated that for the visual cognition, spatial cognition, and reward processing systems there were no significant differences between the groups. However, there were large differences in the areas of language and memory, including working memory, with a smaller difference in cognitive control. An explicit goal of this research group is to design more efficient interventions for low-income preschool children by targeting the neurocognitive systems that seem to be differentially impacted by variables that make up SES. For this purpose, it is better to use measures that are more specific than IQ or achievement tests. Thus, their goals are similar to those of Diamond et al. (2007).

Hackman, Farah, and Meaney (2010) stated that neuroscience can make an important contri- bution to society and human welfare by synthesizing the information that has resulted from dec- ades of research on socioeconomic differences in mental health, emotional functioning, and cognitive functioning in children and the environmental conditions related to those differences. The three studies described above are a few of the latest examples of those that have focused on cognition. The next step would be to identify the underlying cognitive and affective brain sys- tems that are influenced by SES, as illustrated by those studies, and then to identify the biologi- cal mechanisms by which environmental circumstances affect those brain systems. Hackman et al. (2010) discussed three such mechanisms, that is, influences on prenatal development, par- ental care, and cognitive stimulation in the home. For example, SES differences in parental care have been identified in a vast social science literature that associates family stress with harsh childrearing methods, conflict, insecure attachment, and decreased parental involvement as well as in studies indicating that high-quality parenting can promote resilience

 

Chemistry Formal Lab REport

 

CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid

Equivalent Mass of an Acid

Objectives: Upon successful completion of this laboratory the student will be able to:

1.       1)  Perform an acid-base titration accurately to an indicator endpoint.

2.       2)  Calculate moles from molarity and volume.

3.       3)  Write the complete, and net ionic equation for the neutralization of an acid with a base.

4.       4)  Calculate equivalent mass from total mass and moles of hydronium ion.

5.       5)  Write a formal scientific communication (laboratory report).

Introduction: Titration is a simple and very frequently used technique of quantitative volumetric analysis, which is able to achieve great precision and accuracy when it is done properly. The titration apparatus is shown in Figure 1. It consists of a Burette (A), a clamp (B), a stand (C) and a container (D) in which the titration reaction occurs. The Burette has a valve (E) that allows precise control of the flow of liquid from the burette, and it has a thin tip (F) that produces small and very uniform drops.

Figure 1, Titration Apparatus

There is a solution that has a very precisely known concentration of one of the reactants in the Burette. This is called the titrant. The flask has an unknown amount of the other reactant, called the analyte. The analyte can be a known volume of a solution of unknown concentration, or it can be a carefully weighed

1

CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid

solid compound or mixture dissolved in a solvent. In this lab you will titrate a solid that you have weighed to the nearest 1 mg and then dissolved in water.

Notice that the burette is marked the opposite way that a graduated cylinder is marked. It has the 0 mark at the top and the 50 mark at the bottom. Rather than being how much the burette contains, these marks represent how much has been removed from the burette, if the level starts at exactly 0.00 ml. What if you start titrating at some number other than 0? Then simply subtract your initial measurement from the final measurement.

When you are reading a burette, just as with any other instrument, your measurement precision should go 1 decimal place past the smallest tic mark (Figure 2)

Figure 2 How to read a burette

The smallest tic mark on our burettes is 0.1 ml. This means that you will read the burettes to the nearest 0.01 ml.

2

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CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid

The number of moles of analyte present can be determined easily from the volume of the titrant, the concentration of the titrant in 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 (molarity, also abbreviated as M), and the balanced equation of the

reaction between the titrant and the analyte. This can tell you a number of things. If you know the formula and molar mass of the analyte, it can tell you how many grams are present, and the percent composition of a carefully weighed sample of the analyte material. If the volume of the analyte solution is known precisely, it can tell you the molar concentration of the analyte solution, and if you know the mass of a pure unknown compound, it can tell you the molar mass, of that compound.

The equation to obtain the moles of analyte from the volume of titrant is as follows:

𝑉 𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑡 (𝑚𝑙) × 1𝐿 × 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑡 × 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒 = 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒 1000𝑚𝑙 1 𝐿 𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑡 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑡

Equation 1 calculation of moles of analyte

To find the mass, multiply by molar mass

𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒 × 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒 = 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒

Equation 2, calculation of mass of analyte

To find percent composition, divide by total grams mixture:

𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒 ×100%=𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠 𝑚𝑖𝑥𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒

Equation 3, Calculation of percent composition of an analyte mixture

To find the molar mass of an analyte divide the mass of the analyte by the moles of analyte

𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒 = 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠⁄1 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒

Equation 4 calculation af the molar mass of an analyte

Understanding the experiment: In this experiment we will perform an acid – base neutralization reaction, and use equations 1 and 4 to find the equivalent mass of an acid. Acids are broadly defined as sources of hydrogen ions, H+, also called protons. In water, acids will react with water to form hydronium ions, H3O+, by the following reaction, where HA stand for a generic acid. This reaction is also called acid dissociation.

𝐻𝐴 + 𝐻2𝑂 𝐻3𝑂+ + 𝐴

Equation 5 dissociation of a monoprotic acid in water

In fact, the proton, or H+ ion, never exists alone in a water solution. It always exists as the hydronium ion, H3O+. Often people will talk about the hydrogen ion and refer to it as H+, but what they really mean is hydronium ion.

Acids can be mono-protic, di-protic, tri-protic and even poly-protic, depending on how many hydrogen ions they can donate. The stoichiometric ratio of a mono-protic acid is 1 to 1; that of a diprotic acid is 1 to 2; that of a triprotic acid is 1 to 3 and so forth. The reaction of a strong di-protic acid with water would be:

𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟

3

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CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid

𝐻2𝐴 + 2 𝐻2𝑂 2𝐻3𝑂+ + 𝐴2−

Equation 6, Dissociation of a diprotic acid in water

Notice the stoichiometric ratio of hydronium ion to acid is 2 to 1. The equivalent mass of the acid is the amount required to produce 1 mole of hydronium ion. It would take half as many moles of the acid in equation 2 to make a mole of hydronium ion as it would if it were a monoprotic acid.

From this, you can see that the equivalent mass of a monoprotic acid will be equal to its molar mass, while the equivalent mass of a diprotic acid will be 1⁄2 of its molar mass. For a triprotic acid it would be 1/3 and so forth. Examples of monoprotic, diprotic and triprotic organic acids are shown in Figure 3. The acidic proton is shown in bold.

Figure 3 Organic acid structures.

A base is broadly defined as a compound that absorbs hydrogen ions. Bases produce hydroxide ions, OH- , in water in one of two ways. They either dissociate in water to form hydroxide ions (These are called Arrhenius bases), or they react with water to produce hydroxide ions. The base that we will use in this laboratory, sodium hydroxide, is one of the ones that dissociates in water. The equation is below.

𝐻2𝑂− + 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻(𝑠) 𝑂𝐻 (𝑎𝑞) + 𝑁𝑎 (𝑎𝑞)

Equation 7, Dissociation of an Arrhenius base in water

Observe that sodium hydroxide will produce exactly as many moles of hydroxide ion as there are moles of sodium hydroxide that dissolve. Ammonia is an example of a base that react with water to form hydroxide ion. These bases are called Brønsted-Lowry bases. The equation for the reaction of ammonia is shown below:

𝑁 𝐻 3 + 𝐻 2 𝑂 𝑂 𝐻 − + 𝑁 𝐻 4+

Equation 8, Dissociation of a Brønsted Lowry base in water

A major simplification that is being made in this description of acids and bases is the assumption that they dissociate or react completely with the water to form hydroxide or hydronium ions. While this is true of strong acids and bases, there are many weak acids and bases that only react a little bit before the reaction starts going in the other direction to establish what is called an equilibrium with only a very low concentration of hydronium or hydroxide ion. A complete description of weak acids and weak bases is beyond the scope of this course. You will study this and other aspects of equilibrium in grueling detail, in CHM 2046. No worries, though; you will have a whole lot more chemistry under your belt by then.

Even though all of the acids that will be used in this laboratory are considered weak acids, they will completely dissociate through the course of the titration, because the sodium hydroxide is a strong base, and it will completely react with the small amount of hydronium produced by any aqueous acid, no matter

4

CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid

how weak it is. This will drive more of the acid to dissociate and make more hydronium ion, which will in turn be gobbled up by the hydroxide ion, until there is no acid left. This tendency is known as Le Chatelier’s principle. It is also a topic that will be covered extensively in CHM 2046.

The equations of acid and base add together as follows

𝐻𝐴 (𝑎𝑞) + 𝐻2𝑂(𝑙) 𝐻3𝑂+(𝑎𝑞) + 𝐴−(𝑎𝑞)

+

𝐻2𝑂− + 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻(𝑠) 𝑂𝐻 (𝑎𝑞) + 𝑁𝑎 (𝑎𝑞)

+

𝐻3𝑂+ + 𝑂𝐻 2𝐻2𝑂(𝑙)

=

𝐻2𝑂 + − 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻(𝑠) + 𝐻𝐴 (𝑎𝑞) 𝐻2𝑂(𝑙) + 𝑁𝑎 (𝑎𝑞) + 𝐴 (𝑎𝑞)

scheme 1, Reaction of an acid and a base

The third equation is called the net ionic equation for acid base neutralization. It can be derived by assuming that the acid and the base are present in their completely dissociated forms.

+ − − + 𝐻2𝑂 + − 𝐻3𝑂 (𝑎𝑞)+ 𝐴 (𝑎𝑞)+𝑂𝐻 (𝑎𝑞)+𝑁𝑎 (𝑎𝑞) 𝐻2𝑂(𝑙)+ 𝑁𝑎 (𝑎𝑞)+ 𝐴 (𝑎𝑞)

Equation 9, Total ionic equation of an acid base reaction

The ions that are crossed out are called spectator ions, because they appear on both sides of the arrow. Taking them out gives you the third equation in scheme 1.

You can Also see that the stoichiometric ratio for a dibasic acid is two to one, base to acid, and for a tribasic acid the stoichiometric ratio of base to acid is 3 to 1, as shown in equations 10 and 11.

𝐻2𝑂 + 2− 2𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻(𝑠) + 𝐻2𝐴 (𝑎𝑞) 2𝐻2𝑂(𝑙) + 2𝑁𝑎 (𝑎𝑞) + 𝐴 (𝑎𝑞)

Equation 10 Reaction of a diprotic acid with sodium hydroxide

𝐻2𝑂 + 3− 3𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻(𝑠) + 𝐻3𝐴 (𝑎𝑞) 3𝐻2𝑂(𝑙) + 2𝑁𝑎 (𝑎𝑞) + 𝐴 (𝑎𝑞)

Equation 11, reaction of a triprotic acid with sodium hydroxide

Because 1 mole sodium hydroxide reacts with 1 mole hydronium ion, the equivalent mass of the acid is the mass of the acid divided by the moles of sodium hydroxide. In other words:

𝐸𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠(𝑔𝑚𝑜𝑙) = 𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑 (𝑔) × 1000𝑚𝑙 × 1

𝑚𝑙 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 1 𝐿 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠𝐿 𝑠𝑜𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑚 h𝑦𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑥𝑖𝑑𝑒

In most cases, both reactants and products of acid base reactions are colorless. It would therefore be impossible to see when the reaction is complete. To determine this we need to add an indicator dye. Indicator dyes are dyes that react with something in the reaction mixture to change color when the reaction is done. We will use dye molecule called phenolphthalein, which is a very weak acid that is much less likely to give up its protons than the acids that we are titrating. When phenolphthalein does give up its protons, it turns pink, or red. When the very last molecule of the acid reacts, there is no more hydronium ion to react. This is called the equivalence point. When the equivalence point is reached, the hydroxide ion in the next drop of titrant will react with the phenolphthalein and turn it red.

5

CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid

Figure 4 structure of phenolphthalein acidic hydrogens are shown in bold

This marks the endpoint of the titration. At the true end point, very little phenolphthalein will have reacted, so your solution will be a very light pink. If it turns dark pink, you will have added too much base. See Figure 5. The flask on the left is a perfect endpoint. The one on the right has too much base added.

Figure 5, Good endpoint (left) overshot endpoint(right)

It is important to continuously swirl your analyte solution. If you do not, you can get a false endpoint. The color will appear, but then disappear when you stir it. As you approach the endpoint clouds of pink color will appear briefly when you add the base, then disappear (figure 6).

Figure 6, transient pink cloud near endpoint

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CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid

Procedure:

1.       1)  Obtain a vial of unknown acid from the chemical stockroom.

2.       2)  Obtain the following equipment: burette clamp, ring stand, Burette with valve and tip, burette funnel, 3

clean 250ml Erlenmeyer flasks, a 250 ml beaker, 2 or 3 little squares of white paper, a squirt bottle, and a few plastic transfer pipettes. Make sure that the valve fits snugly in the burette and that the tip fits snugly in the valve.

3.       3)  Wash out the squirt bottle with deionized water and fill it with deionized water. Then wash the burette, two of the three flasks and the beaker with deionized water. Dry the beaker with a clean paper towel.

4.       4)  Dispense about 150 ml of the sodium hydroxide solution from the carboy into the beaker. Write down the molar concentration of this solution.

5)

6) 7)

8) 9)

Caution! Sodium hydroxide is very caustic and it will permanently blind you if it gets in your eyes, even in low concentrations. Wear approved Safety glasses or goggles!

Assemble the burette in the burette clamp, and use a transfer pipette to run a few pipettes full of the sodium hydroxide solution down the inside walls of the burette. Put the unwashed Erlenmeyer flask under the burette, and drain out the sodium hydroxide solution into the Erlenmeyer flask. Repeat this process 2 more times.

Place the funnel in the top of the burette and carefully pour the sodium hydroxide until it reaches close to the 0.00 ml mark.

Open the valve and let a few drops of the sodium hydroxide titrant run into the waste flask. This will fill the tip of the burette with titrant.

Discard the waste solution in the sink and wash the flask thoroughly with deionized water.

Take the unknown sample of acid to the balance. Put a plastic weigh boat onto the balance and press “tare”. When the balance reads 0.000g, weigh out the amount of unknown acid that is indicated on the vial to the nearest 0.001g. Do not exceed this amount, or you might not be able to titrate it with only 1 burette full of sodium hydroxide solution. Write the mass down on your data sheet.

 

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10.     10)  Carefully pour the acid powder into one of the flasks. Use the corner of the weigh boat to pour from. With your squirt bottle, wash any solid that remains on the weigh boat into the flask. Mark this flask “rough”

11.      11)  Put about 50 ml of deionized water into the flask and then swirl the flask to dissolve as much of the acid as possible. Add a few drops of phenolphthalein solution to the flask.

12.     12)  Use a ruler or the edge of a notebook as a straight edge, and draw a thick dark line horizontally across one of the small pieces of white paper. Place the other piece under the burette, and place the flask with the acid solution on top of it.

13.     13)  Hold the paper with the line behind the burette, so that the line is horizontal, just underneath the meniscus. This will reflect off of the meniscus, making it easier to read (see Figure 7). With your eye at the level of the meniscus, read the burette to the nearest 0.01 ml.

14.     14)  While constantly swirling the flask of analyte, open the valve and rapidly titrate until the acid solution turns pink. Be ready to stop the flow when the color change occurs.

15.     15)  Write the initial volume, final volume and net volume (final – initial) in the “rough” section of the data sheet.

16.     16)  Refill the burette with sodium hydroxide solution and let a little run through the pipette tip into the titrated sample if it is necessary to refill the tip of the burette.

17.     17)  Repeat steps 9 through 11 with the other two flasks. Mark them “trial 1” and “trial 2”.

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CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid

18.     18)  To help you to estimate the amount of titrant that will be needed for trials 1 and 2, you can do a proportional calculation as shown below. This will allow you to titrate quickly to just under the estimated volume, and then titrate slowly to get an accurate endpoint.

𝑒𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑛𝑒𝑡 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 = 𝑟𝑜𝑢𝑔h 𝑛𝑒𝑡 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 × 𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑟𝑜𝑢𝑔h 𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠

19.     19)  Read the initial volume as in step 13, and add the estimated net volume for Trial 1 to the initial volume to get the estimated final volume.

20.     20)  Titrate rapidly to about 5 ml before the estimated final volume for Trial 1. Then titrate the solution drop by drop, with constant swirling until it turns a very light pink.

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21.     21)  Measure the final volume as in step 13, and write down the measured initial volume and final volume in the “Trial 1” column of your data sheet.

22.     22)  Refill the burette and repeat steps 19 through 21 for trial 2.

23.     23)  Calculate the equivalent mass of the acid for trials 1 and 2, then calculate the average value.

24.     24)  Discard the titrated acid solutions and the excess sodium hydroxide solution in the sink with water.

Clean and return all the equipment. Return the acid sample to the stockroom, and clean up your work area.

Figure 7, reading the meniscus with a black line

8

CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid

Report Sheet: Equivalent Mass of an Acid

Name: ___________________________________________________________________________ Lab Partner(s):_____________________________________________________________________ Class period: ______________________________________ Date: __________________ Data sheet: to be turned in only with full, formal lab report.

CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid

Prelab: Equivalent Mass of an Acid

Name: ___________________________________________________________________________ Class period: ______________________________________ Date: __________________ Show calculations and be mindful of significant figures for full credit.

The following data were observed in an equivalent mass of an acid experiment.

1.       1)  Fill in the blanks (2 points each). Show all calculations for full credit.

2.       2)  (3 points) How many moles of hydroxide ion were consumed in the titration?_________________

3.       3)  (3 points) How many moles of hydronium ion were available from the acid?___________________

4.       4)  (4 points) What is the equivalent molar mass of the acid? ____________

5.       5)  (4 points) If it happened that the acid in this experiment was one of the ones represented

in the table below, what is the most likely identity of this acid? ___________________

NaOH molarity

Acid mass

0.2511g

Initial volume (ml)

Final volume (ml)

Net volume (ml)

0.1000 M

Numerical value:

Acid name    Molar mass   Number of protons

Butanoic acid         88.11 g/mol 1

Tartaric acid         150.087 g/mol       2

Citric acid   192.124 g/mol        3

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CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid

Formal Laboratory Report

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This lab requires a formal laboratory report that will be turned in online through Turnitin. Specific guidelines for writing the report are shown below:

Section        Requirements

Introduction (10 points) •        • Explain the objective of the experiment and describe how the stoichiometry of the acid base reaction can be used to volumetrically determine the equivalent mass of the acid.

•        • Provide an example of how titration is used in medicine, industry, or environmental protection.

•        • Write in passive voice for example: “The volume and concentration of the base solution are used to find the number of moles of acid present.” not “I will use the volume and concentration of the base solution to find the number of moles of acid present.”

•        • Cite any references with sufficient detail that your instructor can find them.

Procedure (20 points)      •        • Write the procedure in your own words. Do not copy the procedure in the lab manual

•        • The procedure should contain sufficient detail that a chemist of equal experience can duplicate the experiment

•        • Use passive voice past tense. For example: “The burette was filled to 1 cm above the 0 ml mark with a 0.097 M sodium hydroxide solution.” not “Fill the burette to 1 cm above the 0 ml mark with a 0.097 M sodium hydroxide solution.”

•Citeanyreferences

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Data and calculation (60 points)          •        • All quantitative results should be presented as tables or graphs, and also described in paragraph form.

•        • Volumes should be recorded to the 0.01 ml place, and masses should be recorded to within 0.001g.

•        • Use Passive voice past tense

•        • Show the calculations for net volume, moles base, moles acid, and equivalent

mass of the acid.

Results and discussion (30 points)       •        • List the values obtained for the equivalent mass of the acid for all titrations, and the average values.

•        • Compare the values of each titration to each other, and evaluate how closely they agree.

•        • Discuss whether or not your results are reasonable. The highest equivalent masses in this experiment are about 200 g/mol, and the lowest equivalent mass organic acid is oxalic acid, with an equivalent mass of 45 g/mol. Anything much less than this is probably not reasonable, and masses of more than 500 are also not reasonable in this experiment.

•        • Use passive voice in this section as well.

Conclusion (10 points)      •        • Discuss any experimental factors that could influence the reliability of your results

•        • Given the equipment provided and your evaluation of the results of this

experiment, discuss whether or not you could perform the titration in the practical example that you provided in the introduction with sufficient precision and accuracy

Prelab

(20 points)  

11

Question      15.               Psychology

 

Psych/620:Multicultural And Social Issues in Psychology Week 6 Team Assignment.

 

Nipsey Hussel Story

 

Develop a 10- to 12-slide presentation that covers how to bring awareness to the conflict presented in the news story from the Week Four Learning Team assignment.

Include the following in your presentation:

•        An analysis of the social psychology and multicultural psychology aspects of the news story

•        Clear application of the principles of social psychology or multicultural psychology in your plan

•        The principles of multicultural psychology

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•       

A resolution to the conflict in your plan

Include a minimum of five references from peer-reviewed journals.

Format any citations in your presentation according to APA guidelines.

Submit your assignment.

Materials

Grading Criteria: Multiculturalism in the News

Resources

•        Center for Writing Excellence

•        Reference and Citation Generator

•        Grammar and Writing Guides

•        Learning Team Toolkit

 

Question 16. Psychology

 

Wk 6 Discussion 2.Phych/620:Multicultural And Social Issues In Psychology.

 

 

Students need to contribute three substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies.

 

Sociopolitical Factors, Psychological Effect, and Diverse Populations

 

Please make sure to apply more than one resource to initial response. Properly cites (i.e., APA) course materials and outside scholarly readings in initial posting; citations as needed in responses to classmates.

 

Textbook sources:

 

Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available throughVital Bookshelf]

 

Keith,K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.

Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

Lott,B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.

Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

Question      17.     Psychology

 

Wk 6 Discussion Psych/620:Multicultural And Social Issues In Psychology.

 

 

 

Students need to contribute three substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies.

 

Pedersen (1999, p. 13) recognized the “profound consequences” for our discipline that arise from a “culture centered perspective. (Lott, 2010, p. 126).

 

What now? How will applying the information gained in class help with research, practice, and personal growth?

 

Please make sure to apply more than one resource to initial response. Properly cites (i.e., APA) course materials and outside scholarly readings in initial posting; citations as needed in responses to classmates.

 

Textbook sources:

 

Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

Keith, K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.

Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

Lott, B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.

Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

Question      18.     Finance.

 

A supplier is offering your firm a cash discount of 2 percent if purchases are paid for within ten days; otherwise, the bill is due at the end of 60 days. Would you recommend borrowing from a bank at an 18 percent annual interest rate to take advantage of the cash discount offer? Explain your answer.

 

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Question      19.     Psychology

 

PSYCH/620:Multicultural And Social Issues In Psychology week 5 discussion.

 

Classroom Engagement Expectations

 

Each week will have 3 graded Discussions provide:

•        Discussion 1 will have a prompt about one or more of the week’s objectives and require 3 substantive contributions.

•        Discussion 2 will have a prompt about one or more of the week’s objectives and require 3 substantive contributions.

•        Discussion 3 will be a more open ended, standard prompt that invites students to share in 2 substantive contributions about what they learned from course materials, how they will apply learning to their career, or muddiest points for which they need/want to learn more

 

Review this week’s course materials and learning activities, and reflect on your learning so far this week. Respond to one or more of the following prompts in 150 to 300 words:

1.   Provide citation and reference to the material(s) you discuss. Describe what you found interesting regarding this topic, and why.

2.   Describe how you will apply that learning in your daily life, including your work life.

3.   Describe what may be unclear to you, and what you would like to learn.

 

Students need to contribute two substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies.

 

Question      20.     Physics

 

Unpolarized light traveling horizontally is incident normally (at a 90 degree angle) on an ideal polarizer. At a point

beyond the polarizer, the magnetic field of the light wave oscillates along a vertical axis. What is the polarization axis of the polarizer?

 

Question      21.     Other

 

How does transport create social cohesion and division?

 

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Q1. Workforce Planning

Imagine you are the Talent Management Director of an organization.

 

Create a 12- to 15-question organizational development needs survey using Microsoft® Word. Then fill out the Workforce Planning Worksheet and each of the two boxes.

 

Include questions that ask leaders to evaluate their teams and team members, as well as to rate themselves. Questions could include items referring to:

  • specific job skills and competencies
  • employee qualifications
  • the breadth of training offered and available

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Complete the Workforce Planning Worksheet and paste the Questions from the Word document

 

Q2. Week 4 discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 225 words each:

 

  • Compare the pros and cons of developing talent in-house versus soliciting outside talent.

 

  • Assess as an HR leader how you can help ensure training programs are relevant to business needs.

Include specific examples and/or substantiating evidence

Include in-text citations and references in APA format

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Q3. ETH/321 week 5 CEO of Bonner

You are the CEO of Bonner, a U.S.-based farm equipment corporation. Bonner recently announced the release of an innovative new tractor with technology based on a patented invention developed by Bonner’s engineers. Bonner’s vice president, who is aware of the upcoming product offering, bought 100,000 shares of Bonner stock prior to the announcement. You found out about the vice president’s stock purchase on the day of the announcement.

One week after the announcement, Bonner received a letter from a German farm equipment corporation, accusing Bonner of patent infringement based on the new tractor’s technology.

Bonner’s board of directors asked you to assess the vice president’s liability for the stock purchase and the company’s options for resolving the German corporation’s patent infringement claim.

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Prepare an infographic for the board (e.g., Piktochart®, Publisher, Glogster®, Microsoft® PowerPoint®, etc.) in which you discuss the following:

  • Compare the resolution of the patent dispute in a U.S. court with the resolution of the dispute using the World Intellectual Property Organization’s (WIPO) dispute resolution program. Search the internet to review WIPO’s dispute resolution program. (Information about WIPO’s dispute resolution program may be located on their website by searching the Internet for WIPO).
  • Assess the liability of Bonner’s vice president for purchasing the corporation’s stock prior to the announcement of the new tractor.
  • Assess whether Bonner has any legal or ethical duties to disclose the stock purchase, and if so, to whom?
  • Discuss risk management procedures Bonner can adopt to avoid or reduce situations like these from happening in the future.

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Create a 350- to 525-word letter in response to the German farm equipment company in which you:

  • Explain why Bonner is the owner of the invention
  • Discuss the intellectual property rights owned by Bonner in the invention
  • Suggest a method of dispute resolution (e.g., arbitration, mediation, litigation, WIPO dispute resolution), why that method would be desirable for resolving the dispute, and how and where the dispute resolution should be held (United States, foreign country, online, etc.).

 

Cite a minimum of two references.

Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.

 

Q4. ETH/321 week 4 Futuretek sells high-tech

Read the following scenario. 

Futuretek sells high-tech computer chips and software to smartphone manufacturers worldwide. Futuretek maintains two software databases: one containing Futuretek’s customer list with nonpublic contact information for key personnel, and the other containing customer purchasing trends. The information in the two databases is available for employees to view and use in connection with their job duties.

Dana is a computer programmer for Futuretek. Dana plans to run her own company one day and design and sell her own computer chips to smartphone companies. As an employee, she has access to the two databases containing Futuretek’s key purchaser and purchasing trends information.

Dana decides to leave Futuretek and start her own computer chip business. Before she leaves, she makes a copy of the two databases on a portable hard drive. Dana uses the information to contact Futuretek’s customers and offer them cheaper, but comparable, computer chips manufactured by Dana’s new company, SmartChip.

Futuretek becomes aware of Dana’s actions and asks you, the chief operations officer, for advice and recommendations on what to do.

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In a 5- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® or Prezi® presentation, complete the following:

  • Determine whether Dana has taken Futuretek’s intellectual property (IP), and if so, describe the type(s) of IP that was taken.
  • Explain any civil actions in tort or criminal actions that may be brought against Dana or SmartChip.
  • Assume Futuretek sues SmartChip, and Futuretek wins the lawsuit. Recommend ethical policies that SmartChip can put into place to prevent future legal claims and litigation against the company.
  • Recommend risk management procedures that Futuretek can implement to avoid or limit this type of activity from happening to the company in the future.

 

Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.

 

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ETH/321 week 3 Dream Massage

 

 

Read the following scenario.

Janice was hired by Dream Massage to be a massage therapist. She is engaged as an independent contractor and, therefore, receives no tax withholding or employment benefits. Dream Massage requires Janice to work a set schedule, provides her with clients and all her massage products, and exercises complete control over how Janice does her work. In addition, when Janice shows up to work the first day, she is informed by Dream Massage that she cannot wear her hijab as it violates the company’s dress code policy.

The owner of Dream Massage comes to you, a human resources (HR) consultant, to find out if Janice is properly classified as an independent contractor and if there is potential liability concerning the hijab.

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Create a 700- to 1,050-word HR report for Dream Massage in which you examine the employment issues presented in the scenario.

 

Include the following:

  • Analyze whether Janice qualifies as an employee or should be classified as an independent contractor.
  • Discuss whether Dream Massage has potentially violated any employment discrimination laws.
  • Analyze ethical considerations associated with the maintenance of a rigid company dress policy.

 

Cite a minimum of three references.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

 

Q6. ETH/321 week 2 Fitzgerald foods

Fitzgerald Foods is a food processing corporation. In the past year, three directors were forced to leave Fitzgerald Foods after it was discovered the directors breached their legal duties to the corporation. Two of the directors were also officers of the corporation. The chairman of the board at Fitzgerald Foods is concerned that the remaining directors don’t understand their legal duties to the corporation and that new directors won’t understand their duties either.

You are the chief executive officer (CEO) of the corporation. The chairman of the board asked you to work with the corporation’s legal counsel to create a company policy document for directors and officers about their legal duties to the corporation.

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Develop a 700- to 1,050-word company policy (template provided) for Fitzgerald Foods’ directors and officers completing the following:

  • Legal Duties of Directors and Officers (a heading from policy document)
  • Explain the legal duties of directors and officers to the corporation, including the “business judgment rule.”
  • Benefits of Compliance (a heading from policy document)
  • Discuss the benefits of compliance for Fitzgerald Foods.
  • Consequences of Noncompliance (a heading from policy document)
  • Analyze how unethical activity by a director or officer can lead to a violation of a legal duty owed to the corporation.
  • Provide a brief example from a news article or court case within the last three years that demonstrates corporate director or officer liability in the United States.
  • Recommend separately (not a heading on the policy document) to the chairman of the board in 45 to 90 words at least two business risk management procedures that Fitzgerald Foods can adopt in the future to avoid violations of legal duties by its directors and officers.

 

Use the Fitzgerald Foods Company Policy template as a guide for your policy document.

 

Search the internet for examples of completed policy documents using the following search parameters: policy document example, policy document template, policy document format, policy document sample, or any variation you choose. An example may assist you to complete your policy document.

 

Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.

Q7. Case Study 1 Transforming the Organization

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Congratulations! The executives are taking your information system proposal seriously. In fact, they think it has the potential to transform the way the organization works. The CIO asked you to read Connelly (2016) to think about what resources you’ll need to get your new information system up and running. Please also review the five case studies in (Basu 2015, p. 32-35) so you can recommend a change management pattern for your company to follow. Write a memo to the CIO that describes how to implement your information system into the organization. Please focus on these topics:

  1. How much of the implementation work can you handle? What additional resources (people, information, time, money, etc.) will expedite the process so you don’t end up like Susie Jeffer? 2. Outline a change management strategy: What new equipment and software are necessary? What training and support will the staff need? How will the staff complete their work during the transition period? Do you anticipate other areas of resistance? 3. The CIO is very skeptical, so provide evidence that your assessment is accurate and complete. It can be difficult to admit to personal limitations! Your memo should be 3–5 pages long.

 

Q8. QUANTITATIVE RESEARCH METHODS

Week 8: Prepare a Mock Prospectus (replaces Concept Paper)

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Instructions

Write your mock Prospectus (replaces Concept Paper) using the Prospectus template found in the week Books and Resources. Follow the template guidelines for each section.

  1. Write an Introduction describing your topic.
  2. Write the Statement of the Problem section.
  3. Describe the Purpose of the Study. Include the results of your power analysis.
  4. State your Research Question and your null and alternative hypotheses. Be sure that your question aligns with your purpose.
  5. Write a Brief Review of the Literature.
  6. Complete the Research Methods section (including the Operational Definition of Variables, Constructs, and Measurement sub sections). Follow the instructions in the template. Be sure to:
  7. Identify the strengths and weaknesses of your envisioned design and methods.
  8. Identify threats to validity and how your design will address them.
  9. Justify why your chosen design and methods are more appropriate for your research question than alternatives you have considered.
  10. Define the constructs you will measure and what you will do in order to determine how to operationalize them.
  11. Describe the sample you propose to study and its characteristics; this should include, but is not limited, to: 1) age; 2) gender; 3) ethnicity; 4) additional cultural factors; and 5) education level. Justify your choice of sample.
  12. Describe your method of sampling.
  13. Describe the type of data you need to collect and how you will collect it.
  14.  Briefly describe any ethical issues you foresee with your study. Make a preliminary assessment of the level of risk associated with participation in your study that might need to be raised with the Institutional Review Board.
  15. Describe and justify how you will analyze your data and the descriptive statistics you will present.
  16. Explain how you conducted your power analysis.
  17. Describe how you will handle your data, check for accuracy etc.
  18. What problems do you foresee in implementing the design? How might you prevent them?

Support your paper with a minimum of 7 resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included.

Length: 12-15 pages not including title and reference pages
References: Minimum of 7 scholarly resources.

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Q9. Assignment 1: The CEO Challenge

You’ve just left an all – hands meeting at your company * The CEO was very upset at the rise of shadow IT projects – a major indicator that the company’s internal information system has failed to meet its needs.

Because the current information system is inadequate, inefficient, and outdated, the CEO is inviting everyone in the organization to propose a new operational, decision support, or enterprise information system to replace it. The executives have allocated $5 million to fund the most promising idea

This is your chance to make a difference in the company (not to mention your own career). Write your proposal as a memo that the entire C – suite will review. Include at least these points, in your own words, to be persuasive:

  1. Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business.
  2. Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured.
  3. Explain how the old information system handles the functions you mentioned, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better.
  4. Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.

The executives are busy, so keep your memo to 1-4 pages and avoid any extraneous content.

*You may use a current or former employer, but do not disclose anything confidential. Or, you can pick another organization if you are familiar with their internal (not customer – facing) information systems. You can disguise the organization and populate it with famous names. Made – up companies are problematic because of the amount of detail and realism they require.

 

Q10. Wk 2 – Apply: HR Processes

Consider your career or interests. Using a company you have worked for (or want to work for based on research) give examples of how those companies are using their HR processes to help the company achieve its strategic goals. Include workforce planning and change.

  • Writea minimum 1,050-word paper with APA format and citations.

 

 

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Q11. Wk 2 Discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each :

 

  • What is strategic human resources management and how can it be instrumental in helping a company create a competitive advantage in organizational change? What are the examples? 

 

  • What is the workforce planning process? What does it include? Why is it important?

Q12. Wk 2 Discussion

 

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each :

 

  • What is strategic human resources management and how can it be instrumental in helping a company create a competitive advantage in organizational change? What are the examples? 

 

  • What is the workforce planning process? What does it include? Why is it important?

 

Q13. Original Work Only

Referring to a FITNESS AND APPREAL COMPANY write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:

  1. Conduct a feasibility analysis in which you research:
  2. Industry and Market Feasibility
  3. Product or Service Feasibility
  4. Financial Feasibility
  5. Entrepreneurial Readiness
  6. Based on your assessment, does the business idea need to be modified, changed significantly, or abandoned?

 

 

Q14. Discussion question

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each:

  • What is human resources management, and why is it important to organizational success? Give examples.
  • Employment Law: Name and explain 2 employment laws and why they are important.

 

Q15. Washingtons Farewell Address Analysis GOVT 200

 

Washington’s Farewell Address Analysis Instructions

For this assignment, you will analyze the major points of George Washington’s “Farewell Address” and write a 3-page analysis, considering contemporary government and including differing points of view. Be sure to adhere to the format specified in the Course Style Guidelines document.

 

Your analysis must adhere to the following specifications:

  • No more than 3 double-spaced pages (12-point font with 1-inch margins).
  • Must include a title page (not counted in total page number) that contains:

o A title,

o Your name,

o Your section (GOVT 200-S02),

o Your instructor’s name, and

o The date the assignment is due (all single-spaced in the footer of the cover page).

  • No page number is necessary for the cover page or for the first page in the body of the paper.
  • Pay particular attention to the grading rubric for how your paper will be graded.

 

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.

 

 Q16. Discussion Board Post Help Alcohol Abuse

 

Alcohol abuse continues to be the most serious drug problem on college campuses throughout the United States. Every year, drinking kills more than 1,700 students and injures about 500,000 more; it is also a factor in 600,000 assaults and 100,000 rapes on college campuses. Enzyme-mediated metabolic pathways break down the toxic ethanol in alcoholic beverages. Ethanol kills liver cells and interferes with normal metabolic processes. Long-term heavy drinking causes alcoholic hepatitis, inflammation and destruction of liver tissue, and cirrhosis. Cirrhosis prevents the liver from removing drugs and other toxins from the blood, so they accumulate in the brain where they impair mental functioning and alter personality. Restricted blood flow through the liver increases susceptibility to diabetes, liver cancer and death.

 

Important Concepts from Chapter 3:

  • Introduction: Ethyl Alcohol Liver cells detoxify most of the alcohol a person drinks, but in the long run this process may lead to alcohol-related hepatitis and cirrhosis. Long term heavy use also damages memory, reflexes, and other functions. Binge drinking can stop the heart.
  • Section 3.13: Metabolism Series of enzymatic reactions in cells (metabolism) help cells acquire and use energy as they build, break down, or remodel organic molecules. Metabolism requires enzymes. Each kind of enzyme recognizes specific reactants, or substrates, and alters them in a specific way. Each enzyme functions best in a particular range of conditions that reflect the environment in which it evolved. Metabolic pathways can involve thousands of molecules and be quite complex.

 

Assignment:

  1. Visit WebMD to find out about 12 health risks of chronic heavy drinking.
  2. Visit Healthline.com to read about the effects of alcohol on the body: http://www.healthline.com/health/alcohol/effects-on-body
  3. Visit the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) website to find the Alcohol-Related Disease Impact (ARDI) for your area.
  4. Research what the Bible has to say about drinking.
  5. References should be provided in initial thread and replies.

 

Prompt: Briefly describe three health risks and/or negative physical effects of heavy drinking.  Is it a sin for a Christian to drink excessively? Why or why not (provide Biblical references)?

 

Q17. Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions

Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions about the ethics of space travels with his crew. Do you think character has any role in business ethics? Why or why not? How does character and personal integrity pertain to you in your profession or future profession?
Your journal entry must be at least 200 words.

Q18. The first step of the EBP process is to develop a question from the nursing practice problem

Details:

The first step of the EBP process is to develop a question from the nursing practice problem of interest.

Select a practice problem of interest to use as the focus of your research.

Start with the patient and identify the clinical problems or issues that arise from clinical care.

Following the PICOT format, write a PICOT statement in your selected practice problem area of interest, which is applicable to your proposed capstone project.

The PICOT statement will provide a framework for your capstone project (the project students must complete during their final course in the RN-BSN program of study).

Conduct a literature search to locate research articles focused on your selected practice problem of interest. This literature search should include both quantitative and qualitative peer-reviewed research articles to support your practice problem.

Select six peer-reviewed research articles which will be utilized through the next 5 weeks as reference sources. Be sure that some of the articles use qualitative research and that some use quantitative research. Create a reference list in which the six articles are listed. Beneath each reference include the article’s abstract. The completed assignment should have a title page and a reference list with abstracts.

Suggestions for locating qualitative and quantitative research articles from credible sources:

  1. Use a library database such as CINAHL Complete for your search.
  2. Using the advanced search page check the box beside “Research Article” in the “Limit Your Results” section.
  3. When setting up the search you can type your topic in the top box, then add quantitative or qualitative as a search term in one of the lower boxes. Research articles often are described as qualitative or quantitative.

To narrow/broaden your search, remove the words qualitative and quantitative and include words that narrow or broaden your main topic. For example: Diabetes and pediatric and dialysis. To determine what research design was used, review the abstract and the methods section of the article. The author will provide a description of data collection using qualitative or quantitative methods.

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

You are not required to submit this assignment to Lopes Write.

 

Q19. This is a literature Question kindly assist

List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen

 

 

 

Q20. week 5 Starbucks

Create a 2- to 3-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation for a Mini-Strategy using the Mini-Strategy Outline.

Organization (Starbucks)

  • Assess the organization’s current status:

o    Leadership

o    Board members

o    Structure

o    Number of employees

  • Conduct a basic SWOTT analysis and discuss the implications of those results.

 

Q21. role of sport in education

role of sport in education. You may select to focus on either high school or college sports and their role in education. Provide your educated opinion and use sources to support your beliefs. Make sure you cite your sources in-text and with a reference page. You may use APA or MLA.

 

Q22. Strategic Choice and Evaluation

 

Answer the following questions No Intro or conclusion…

  1. What is the relationship between a firm’s customers and its business level strategy in terms of who, what and how?  Why is this relationship important?
  2. How can each of the business-level strategies be used to position the firm relative to the five forces of competition in a way that helps the firm earn above-average returns?
  3. What motives might encourage managers and leaders to over diversify their firm?
  4. What might encourage diversification?
  5. What are some trends in the global environment that might impact the choice of international strategies, particularly international corporate-level strategies?
  6. What are two important issues that can potentially affect a firm’s ability to successfully use international strategies?
  7. Why do firms use suborder’s strategic alliances?
  8. What risks are firms likely to experience if they use cooperative strategies?

 

Q23. how motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.

 

Write a 1500–2000 word essay explaining how motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.

 

Define how modern fire research has impacted fire science as it relates to each of the following:

Infrared imaging

GPS

Water mist

Compressed air foam

Explain how each of the above has had an impact on fire science.

 

Use examples to support your discussion.

 

Include an introductory and conclusion paragraph.

 

Format your work consistent with APA guidelines.

 

Include a title page and reference page and cite all sources

Q24. Mini-Strategy Week Three

Create a 3- to 4 – slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation

Include the following in your outline: 

  • Organizations(Apple Inc)
  • Evaluate the organization’s mission statement, vision statement and values’ statement.
  • Discuss the organization’s current goals and objectives.

 

Q25. Internal Capabilities and Resources

  1. Why is it important for a firm to study and understand its internal organization?
  2. What is value chain analysis? What does the firm gain by successfully using this tool?
  3. What factors affect the likelihood a firm will take a competitive action?
  4. What factors affect the likelihood that your organization will initiate a competitive response to a competitor’s actions?
  5. What is outsourcing? How do you see the future of outsourcing in your own industry? Do you see it growing, declining & why?
  6. What does it mean to say that each core competence could become a core rigidity?
  7. How do you see the relationship between an organization’s “org” structure and its strategy? Discuss what it means to say that structure and strategy have a reciprocal relationship
  8. How do firms identify internal strengths and weaknesses? Why is it vital that managers have a clear understanding of their firm’s strengths and weaknesses?

 

 

 

 

 

Q26. MGT 279 Assignment 4

  1. In summary, what does the report’s author blame for the problems encountered on the Big Dig project?
  2. As an expert, to what extent do you think the author has got things right? Based on your knowledge of what it takes to manage major programs, how wouldyousummarize what went wrong with this project?
  3. To what extent do you feel that if the Big Dig had followed the US Department of Defense approach to managing major programs it would have been more successful? What problems might arise in trying to employ the US DoD approach?
  4. What lessons can be derived from the Big Dig experience that can be shared with individuals and organizations that are about to begin work on a major program?

 

   Q27. Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific

Assignment Steps 

Resources: Microsoft Excel®, Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific 

Review the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific and the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific data set.

Prepare a 1,050-word managerial report for your boss.

Use the following questions for guidelines and directions on what to include in the report:

  1. What is the type of data (Quantitative or Qualitative) for each of the columns (variables) in the dataset? If quantitative, is the data discrete or continuous? Neatly summarize your response in a table for all the columns (variables).
  2. Using Excel®, find the mean, median, standard deviation, minimum, maximum, and the three quartiles for each of the quantitative variables identified in part 1 above. Neatly summarize in a table on this document. Comment on what you observe.
  3. What are the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments? Which schools have the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments?
  4. What is the average number of students per faculty member? Is this low or high? What does this mean to prospective applicants who are interested in pursuing an MBA in one of the leading international business schools?
  5. What are the mean, median, and modal ages? What does this mean to prospective applicants?
  6. What is the mean percentage of foreign students? How many and which schools have 1% and 0% foreign students? Which schools have highest percentage of foreign students? Please state these percentages.
  7. What percentage of schools require the GMAT test?
  8. What percentage of schools require English tests such as Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL)?
  9. What percentage of schools require work experience? From this percentage, does this appear to be a significant factor in gaining admissions?
  10. What are the mean and median starting salaries? Which schools have the minimum and maximum starting salaries? How much are these minimum and maximum salaries?
  11. What are the mean tuition for foreign students and for local students? Does there appear to be a significant difference? What is the difference between the two means?
  12. How many schools require work experience and how many of them don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring work experience? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no work experience?
  13. How many schools require English tests and how many don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring English tests? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no English tests?
  14. Comment on the skewness for the data on starting salaries:
  15. Plot a histogram and determine the skewness.
  16. Find the mean, median, and mode for starting salaries and compare the three measures to determine skewness.
  17. Finally, use Empirical Rule on the starting salaries and determine whether the salaries follow the Empirical Rule.

Format your assignment consistent with APA format. 

 

Q28. New hire for job position

 

You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position.  Both have similar educational backgrounds and certifications.  However, the first candidate has 20 years of related experience while the second candidate has 6 years of similar experience.

The first candidate is asking for competitive base salary plus one week of extra vacation as part of the benefits package.  The second candidate is asking for a competitive base salary plus a company smart phone (upgraded each year), paid internet service at home.  The first candidate is willing to work a flexible schedule (nights, weekends, etc), while the second candidate prefers to work remotely from home.  Both are requesting to be included in the company’s annual bonus plan.

Write a 700-1100 paper that includes the following:

Compare the direct and indirect compensation requests for each candidate.

As an HR professional, what do you think is the best hiring decision for the company and why?

Use APA format and references

 

 Q29. Research paper Outline on “Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization”

Hi,

I’m writing a reserach paper on “Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization”  So I need help with developing an outline that will guide our writing process

Course textbook:

Worth, M. J. (2017). Nonprofit management: Principles and practice (4th ed.). Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage Publications.

 

 

Q30. For Contemporary Decision Making.

Consider  how the type of variable (qualitative and quantitative) and the level of measurement used influence the presentation of the data collected for the variable and the  statistics that can be calculated for the variable. Provide your own examples.

  • consider the following situation: You are standing on the bank of a river.

Assume the current is not a factor and you only have the mean  as the information for the depth of the river posted on the river bank.  Is this sufficient information to allow a person who is 5 ft 7in tall to safely cross the river?

  • Provide an example of empirical probability ?

 

 

 

 

BUSINESS.
Q1. Week 4 discussion
Respond to the following in a minimum of 225 words each:
• Compare the pros and cons of developing talent in-house versus soliciting outside talent.
• Assess as an HR leader how you can help ensure training programs are relevant to business needs.
Include specific examples and/or substantiating evidence
Include in-text citations and references in APA format
Q2. ETH/321 week 5 CEO of Bonner
You are the CEO of Bonner, a U.S.-based farm equipment corporation. Bonner recently announced the release of an innovative new tractor with technology based on a patented invention developed by Bonner’s engineers. Bonner’s vice president, who is aware of the upcoming product offering, bought 100,000 shares of Bonner stock prior to the announcement. You found out about the vice president’s stock purchase on the day of the announcement.
One week after the announcement, Bonner received a letter from a German farm equipment corporation, accusing Bonner of patent infringement based on the new tractor’s technology.
Bonner’s board of directors asked you to assess the vice president’s liability for the stock purchase and the company’s options for resolving the German corporation’s patent infringement claim.

Prepare an infographic for the board (e.g., Piktochart®, Publisher, Glogster®, Microsoft® PowerPoint®, etc.) in which you discuss the following:
• Compare the resolution of the patent dispute in a U.S. court with the resolution of the dispute using the World Intellectual Property Organization’s (WIPO) dispute resolution program. Search the internet to review WIPO’s dispute resolution program. (Information about WIPO’s dispute resolution program may be located on their website by searching the Internet for WIPO).
• Assess the liability of Bonner’s vice president for purchasing the corporation’s stock prior to the announcement of the new tractor.
• Assess whether Bonner has any legal or ethical duties to disclose the stock purchase, and if so, to whom?
• Discuss risk management procedures Bonner can adopt to avoid or reduce situations like these from happening in the future.
Create a 350- to 525-word letter in response to the German farm equipment company in which you:
• Explain why Bonner is the owner of the invention
• Discuss the intellectual property rights owned by Bonner in the invention
• Suggest a method of dispute resolution (e.g., arbitration, mediation, litigation, WIPO dispute resolution), why that method would be desirable for resolving the dispute, and how and where the dispute resolution should be held (United States, foreign country, online, etc.).
Cite a minimum of two references.
Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.
Q3. ETH/321 week 4 Futuretek sells high-tech
Read the following scenario.
Futuretek sells high-tech computer chips and software to smartphone manufacturers worldwide. Futuretek maintains two software databases: one containing Futuretek’s customer list with nonpublic contact information for key personnel, and the other containing customer purchasing trends. The information in the two databases is available for employees to view and use in connection with their job duties.
Dana is a computer programmer for Futuretek. Dana plans to run her own company one day and design and sell her own computer chips to smartphone companies. As an employee, she has access to the two databases containing Futuretek’s key purchaser and purchasing trends information.
Dana decides to leave Futuretek and start her own computer chip business. Before she leaves, she makes a copy of the two databases on a portable hard drive. Dana uses the information to contact Futuretek’s customers and offer them cheaper, but comparable, computer chips manufactured by Dana’s new company, SmartChip.
Futuretek becomes aware of Dana’s actions and asks you, the chief operations officer, for advice and recommendations on what to do.
In a 5- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® or Prezi® presentation, complete the following:
• Determine whether Dana has taken Futuretek’s intellectual property (IP), and if so, describe the type(s) of IP that was taken.
• Explain any civil actions in tort or criminal actions that may be brought against Dana or SmartChip.
• Assume Futuretek sues SmartChip, and Futuretek wins the lawsuit. Recommend ethical policies that SmartChip can put into place to prevent future legal claims and litigation against the company.
• Recommend risk management procedures that Futuretek can implement to avoid or limit this type of activity from happening to the company in the future.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.
Q4. ETH/321 week 3 Dream Massage
Read the following scenario.
Janice was hired by Dream Massage to be a massage therapist. She is engaged as an independent contractor and, therefore, receives no tax withholding or employment benefits. Dream Massage requires Janice to work a set schedule, provides her with clients and all her massage products, and exercises complete control over how Janice does her work. In addition, when Janice shows up to work the first day, she is informed by Dream Massage that she cannot wear her hijab as it violates the company’s dress code policy.
The owner of Dream Massage comes to you, a human resources (HR) consultant, to find out if Janice is properly classified as an independent contractor and if there is potential liability concerning the hijab.
Create a 700- to 1,050-word HR report for Dream Massage in which you examine the employment issues presented in the scenario.

Include the following:
• Analyze whether Janice qualifies as an employee or should be classified as an independent contractor.
• Discuss whether Dream Massage has potentially violated any employment discrimination laws.
• Analyze ethical considerations associated with the maintenance of a rigid company dress policy.
Cite a minimum of three references.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q5. ETH/321 week 2 Fitzgerald foods
Fitzgerald Foods is a food processing corporation. In the past year, three directors were forced to leave Fitzgerald Foods after it was discovered the directors breached their legal duties to the corporation. Two of the directors were also officers of the corporation. The chairman of the board at Fitzgerald Foods is concerned that the remaining directors don’t understand their legal duties to the corporation and that new directors won’t understand their duties either.
You are the chief executive officer (CEO) of the corporation. The chairman of the board asked you to work with the corporation’s legal counsel to create a company policy document for directors and officers about their legal duties to the corporation.
Develop a 700- to 1,050-word company policy (template provided) for Fitzgerald Foods’ directors and officers completing the following:
• Legal Duties of Directors and Officers (a heading from policy document)
• Explain the legal duties of directors and officers to the corporation, including the “business judgment rule.”
• Benefits of Compliance (a heading from policy document)
• Discuss the benefits of compliance for Fitzgerald Foods.
• Consequences of Noncompliance (a heading from policy document)
• Analyze how unethical activity by a director or officer can lead to a violation of a legal duty owed to the corporation.
• Provide a brief example from a news article or court case within the last three years that demonstrates corporate director or officer liability in the United States.
• Recommend separately (not a heading on the policy document) to the chairman of the board in 45 to 90 words at least two business risk management procedures that Fitzgerald Foods can adopt in the future to avoid violations of legal duties by its directors and officers.
Use the Fitzgerald Foods Company Policy template as a guide for your policy document.
Search the internet for examples of completed policy documents using the following search parameters: policy document example, policy document template, policy document format, policy document sample, or any variation you choose. An example may assist you to complete your policy document.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.

Q6. ETH/321 Dazzling Dough Co. sells pizza dough to local pizza restaurants.
Read the following scenario:
Dazzling Dough Co. sells pizza dough to local pizza restaurants. Most of the restaurants buy at least 150 pounds of pizza dough from Dazzling Dough Co. in each order. Jerry’s Pizza contacted Dazzling Dough Co. to purchase 200 pounds of pizza dough, along with some other items. Dazzling Dough Co. sent Jerry’s Pizza a written contract, prepared by Dazzling Dough Co.’s lawyer, stating that “Jerry’s Pizza agrees to purchase 200 pounds of pizza dough, pizza toppings, desserts and soft drinks for $30,000.” Jerry’s Pizza signed and returned the contract.
A few days later, Dazzling Dough Co. sent Jerry’s Pizza 125 pounds of pizza dough and 75 pounds of pizza toppings, desserts, and soft drinks. Jerry’s Pizza contacted Dazzling Dough Co. about the error in the contract and demanded an extra 75 pounds of pizza dough. Dazzling Dough Co. said there was no error, that Jerry’s Pizza signed the contract so they agreed to the terms, and it was not sending the extra pizza dough.
After several attempts to resolve the dispute and a pressing need for dough, Jerry’s Pizza terminated the contract and sent Dazzling Dough Co. a check for $15,000 for the 125 pounds of pizza dough, pizza toppings, desserts and soft drinks. Jerry’s Pizza immediately purchased 75 pounds of pizza dough from another company for $12,000. Both parties are threatening to sue each other for breach of contract. They prefer to resolve the dispute out of court because the contract contains a clause that awards reimbursement of attorney’s fees to the winning party.
The board of directors of Jerry’s Pizza scheduled a meeting with you and other senior management at the company to discuss the dispute. You’ll need to prepare a strategic plan overview (an abbreviated strategic plan, not a full plan) for the board that explains why there is a dispute, suggests various settlement proposals, and provides recommendations on how Jerry’s Pizza can avoid this kind of dispute in the future.
Prepare a 525- to 875-word strategic plan overview to resolve the legal dispute for the board (use the bullet point headings provided below to format your overview) addressing the following:
• Summary of Dispute
• Identify the source of the dispute.
• Identify each party’s interpretation of the contract language.
• Identify whether each party’s interpretation is reasonable.
• Identify any missing facts that would be helpful to know in order to resolve the dispute.
• Proposed Revisions to Contract Language
• Recommend specific revisions to the contract’s language so that it is clear what Jerry’s Pizza expected to buy and what Dazzling Dough Co. is required to deliver.
• Ethical Considerations
• Explain the ethical considerations for a company to enforce specific terms of a contract against another company if the other company is mistaken about what was agreed to. Discuss the factors that should be considered.
• Recommendations
• Two to three possible settlement options (e.g., pay for the disputed dough, reduce the amount of dough to be purchased, split the difference, refuse to pay, etc.)
• Two to three methods of dispute resolution (e.g., negotiation, mediation, arbitration, litigation, etc.) that Jerry’s Pizza can propose to Dazzling Dough Co.
Create a one-page visualization to represent the information you provide in this assignment.
• Use the Table, SmartArt, or Chart visual representation options available in Microsoft® Word by clicking on the Insert tab located on the ribbon at the top of the window. Locate the Word Help function in the version of Microsoft® Word that is installed on your computer for assistance.
Q7. Comparison between Japan and Germany’s Economic Stimulus Policies
Topic: Economic Growth Case Study: Cross-Country Comparison
• Project Proposal Due: Oct. 20 (one-sheet of paper including student names, countries selected, and a brief outline of work distribution for each group member. This proposal will not be graded, but is required to keep everyone on track.)
• Group Presentations: Nov. 15, or Nov. 17 (must be scheduled in advance.)
• Research Paper Submission: Nov. 17 (email to: rchou@Laverne.edu )
Paper Length: Approximately 10 pages (include all graphs, data, and List of reference).
Report Format: -Intro (Brief Country History & Outlook) -Literature Review -Data/Graph Analysis (Your own interpretations) -Conclusion (Your policy recommendation for that country) -Bibliography (References)
Research Instruction: 1) Select any two countries for comparison; 2) Identify the key economic indicators (Examples: GDP per Capita, GDP growth rate,
Unemployment rate, Inflation, etc.) 3) Apply one of the economic theories or analysis you learned in class.
(Examples: Aggregate Demand and Aggregate Supply Graph, Fiscal Policy Analysis,
Monetary Policy Analysis, etc.) 4) Conclude with your economic policy recommendations for each of these countries.
More Examples of economic theories or market analysis to choose from:
-GDP components, and graph interpretation/
analysis;
• Unemployment and Fiscal Policy;
• Inflation, Money Supply, and Monetary Policy;
• Economic Policy Objective, and Trade-offs;
• Aggregate Demand & Supply Analysis;
• Economic stimulus policy;
• International Trade Policy, Exchange Rate Policy;

Q8. CUR 528 Week 6 Individual Assignment The Evaluation Process
CUR 528 Week 6 Individual Assignment The Evaluation Process
Resources: The needs assessment you created in Week 4 that measures specific objectives for evaluation.
Create the data for each of the questions you used in your needs assessment in Week 4 that measured your objectives. Your fictitious data must show what the objectives measured and the analysis of data on a spreadsheet of at least 25 employees where 45% of the employees show a need for additional reinforcement or training.
Prepare an evaluation report of 1,225 to 1,400 words by using your needs assessment from Week 4 that includes the following:
Program description
Description of the problem
Purpose of the evaluation
Data collection procedures
Procedures for analyzing the data
Results/findings
Summarize in 525 to 700 words how your findings may be used to improve a course, training or the program that you evaluated.
Submit your Microsoft® Excel® spreadsheet with data, your report and your summary.
Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.
Q9. Write a 1,050- to 1,400- word paper discussing how and why statistical data should be used by
Write a 1,050- to 1,400- word paper discussing how and why statistical data should be used by criminal justice leadership. A few examples include:
• Statistical support to criminal justice policy making
• Criminal justice research in support of community policing
• Criminal justice research in support of community engagement
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q10. The purpose of this assignment is for students to apply the framework of a job aid to document
The purpose of this assignment is for students to apply the framework of a job aid to document the training process outcomes. The student will review a task and then document all the steps to be completed for other’s to be successful when using the instructions. A job aid is produced to reduce the number of mistakes or errors while helping the employee remember by following the directions. In addition, the student will provide a summary of how to deploy the new job aid, how they will train end-users on the job aid, will there be change management involved, what type of technology will be used to train/roll-out the new job aid, and a discussion of the benefit of the job aid will be included.
Create a job aid that can be used to improve team performance within your organization.
Create a 700- to 1,050-word job aid that includes the following:
• Assess how it will be deployed.
• Determine what type of training methodology you will use.
• Evaluate whether or not there is a change management component to its roll-out.
• Analyze the type of training technology that will be utilized with your aid.
• Summarize what employees will be able to do after they complete training.

ENGLISH
Q1. Liberty University ENGL 102 test 2 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University ENGL 102 test 2 complete solutions correct answers A+ work
More than 7 different versions

When my mother died I was very young, And my father sold me while yet my tongue, Could scarcely cry weep weep weep weep, So your chimneys I sweep and in soot I sleep. There’s little Tom Dacre, who cried when his head That curled like a lamb’s back was shav’d, so I said. Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair And so he was quiet and that very night. As Tom was a sleeping he had such a sight That thousands of sweepers Dick, Joe, Ned, and Jack Were all of them lock’d up in coffins of black, And by came an Angel who had a bright key And he open’d the coffins and set them all free. Then down a green plain leaping, laughing, they run And wash in a river and shine in the Sun. Then naked and white, all their bags left behind. They rise upon clouds, and sport in the wind. And the Angel told Tom, if he’d be a good boy, He’d have God for his father and never want joy. And so Tom awoke and we rose in the dark And got with our bags and our brushes to work. Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm. (“The Chimney Sweeper” by William Blake)

Question 1
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
Question 2
In lines 7-8, the narrator is trying to ________ Tom when he tells him, “Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, / You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair.”
Question 3
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
Question 4
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 5
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
Question 6
Hazlitt defined poetry as “The universal language which the heart holds with nature and itself.”
Question 7
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
Question 8
“Ode to a Nightingale” speaks of two scenes.
Question 9
Ulysses is a mythological hero.
Question 10
A poem’s sound structure is its rhyme scheme and systematic and repeated use of similar sounds.
Question 11
In “Fern Hill” time is shown to pass via the stages of a plant’s life.
Question 12
The question of “The Tiger” is: “Did GOD create evil?”
Question 13
In order to understand meter, divide each line into feet and scan the feet.
Question 14
_____ argues that poems are tropological, not logically propositional in nature
Question 15
“Eight O’Clock” comments that innocence is short-lived.
Question 16
Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves.”
Question 17
A hyperbole is simply exaggeration, but exaggeration in the service of truth.
Question 18
When we understand all the conditions and circumstances involved in a paradox, we find that what at first seemed impossible is actually entirely plausible and not impossible at all.
Question 19
In “Songs of Innocence” the hollow reed is the poet’s pen.
Question 20
“Design” notes the impact of what insect?
Question 21
William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
Question 22
A metaphor is a comparison using “like” or “as.”
Question 23
The theme of a poem is the major concept or idea that a poet/writer implicitly or explicitly conveys in a poem.
Question 24
In this poem, the poet or persona asks that God “o’erthrow” him, reclaim him as His own, and “marry” him.
Question 25
Typically, paradoxes require some mental gymnastics in order to analyze intent.
Question 26
“Dover Beach” alludes to Horace.
Question 27
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
Question 28
McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
Question 29
What happens versus what the reader knows to be true is
Question 30
A couplet is two successive lines that have the same rhyme.
Question 31
The following is an excerpt from Tennyson’s “Ulysses”: “I cannot rest from travel; I will drink/Life to the lees…”
Question 32
Lyrical poetry differs from other writing in the fairly small emotional response that it generates.
Question 33
In the poem “Honor” by Herbert, only the sweet and virtuous soul that has survived the Judgment lives.
Question 34
Sometimes a poem such as “Fern Hill” simply functions to communicate an emotion.
Question 35
Irony of situation results from the incongruity between the actual and the anticipated circumstance in “Ozymandias.”
Question 36
Dactylic is two unstressed syllables followed by a stressed syllable.
Question 37
The first line of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads, “I met a traveler from an antique land.” Antique here best means: __________.
Question 38
Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 39
Which poem mentions prison?
Question 40
Internal rhyme has one or both of the rhyme-words within the line.
Question 41
The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
Question 42
Lines 9-12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death-bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 43
Understatement downplays or intentionally minimizes something.
Question 44
Onomatopoeia is the use of words that supposedly mimic their meaning in their sound.
Question 45
The first picture mentioned in “Ode on a Grecian Urn” is of a street scene in Athens.
Question 46
Lines 5-8 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the twilight of such day / As after sunset fadeth in the west, / Which by and by black night doth take away, / Death’s second self, that seals up all in rest.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 47
This poem by T. S. Eliot makes an allusion to the Gospel of Matthew, 2:1-12.
Question 48
Hopkins’ poem, “Spring,” uses sensory perceptions to underscore the theme of the importance of innocence.
Question 49
Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
Question 50
“Nothing beside remains” is a significant phrase in what poem?

• Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
• Question 2
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
• Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
• Question 4
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
• Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
• Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “There is no Frigate like a Book.”
• Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
• Question 9
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Keats died of polio.
• Question 10
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The major figure of speech often used to interpret Shelley’s “Ozymandias” is irony of situation.
• Question 11
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In this sonnet, _____, the octave introduces a series of images, and the sestet presents two significant symbols.
• Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Dover Beach” begins with an idyllic scene that soon changes to a fierce attack.
• Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The last 5 lines of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads: “My name is Ozymandias, king of kings: / Look on my works, ye Mighty, and despair!” / Nothing beside remains. Round the decay / Of that colossal wreck, boundless and bare / The lone and level sands stretch far away.” The crumbling statue, “decay,” “colossal wreck,” “boundless and bare
/…lone and level sands” all communicate thematic ideas of __________.
• Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The variation of a poem’s sentence structure is referred to as its syntactical structure.
• Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lyrical poetry differs from other writing in the fairly small emotional response that it generates.
• Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In the poem “Honor” by Herbert, only the sweet and virtuous soul that has survived the Judgment lives.
• Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.
• Question 18
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first three stanzas of “Virtue” show that all of nature is ephemeral.
• Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for rhymes that occur at the ends of lines is
• Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
• Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
• Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves,” Dickinson compares snowfall to God’s righteousness covering the earth.
• Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In which poem does the child inspire the poet to write?
• Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Chimney Sweeper” uses a dichotomy between the horror that the children experience and what is said.
• Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Monometer is a metrical line containing one foot.
• Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
• Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The speaker of “The Chimney Sweeper” is a dead boy.
• Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Dover Beach overlooks Norway.
• Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The phrase “frigate like a book” is an example of a metaphor.
• Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points
When we understand all the conditions and circumstances involved in a paradox, we find that what at first seemed impossible is actually entirely plausible and not impossible at all.
• Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poem, “Ozymandias,” was written by Percy Bysshe Shelley.
• Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The theme of the poem, “Barter,” is that “loveliness is the most important thing is life.”
• Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The three major types of irony are verbal irony, dramatic irony, and irony of situation.
• Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for words in a rhyming pattern that have some kind of sound correspondence but are not perfect rhymes (example push- rush).
• Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The images in _____ create an impression of autumn.
• Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A metaphor is a comparison using “like” or “as.”
• Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points
According to the work-text/textbook, _____ is a writer’s or speaker’s attitude toward the subject, the audience, or herself or himself.
• Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The English sonnet is sometimes called Shakespearean sonnet.
• Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
• Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In “Fern Hill” time is shown to pass via the stages of a plant’s life.
• Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poem, “Ulysses,” was written by William Blake.
• Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points
An octave is a ten-line stanza or the first ten lives of a sonnet.
• Question 43
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A poem can be organized without stanza breaks, refrain, or rhythm.
• Question 44
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A poem’s sound structure is its rhyme scheme and systematic and repeated use of similar sounds.
• Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A paradoxical statement is a figure of speech in which an apparently self-contradictory statement is nevertheless found to be true.
• Question 46
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The question of “The Tiger” is: “Did GOD create evil?”
• Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In what poem does a boy lose a hand?
• Question 48
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Tropes create meaning that cannot be expressed any other way.
• Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Since “all truth is God’s truth,” we may freely go to poetry to find truth instead of using God’s revelation to us in the Bible to judge poetry.
• Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points
What animal is mentioned in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening”?

• Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
• Question 2
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
• Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
• Question 4
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
• Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
• Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.
• Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Connotation is a word’s overtones of meaning.
• Question 9
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Dover Beach” begins with an idyllic scene that soon changes to a fierce attack.
• Question 10
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Assonance is the close positioning of the same or similar vowel sounds.
• Question 11
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“To strive, to seek, to find, and not to yield” is from what poem?
• Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which of the following poem was written by Robert Frost
• Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “That time of year thou mayst in me behold / When yellow leaves, or none, or few, do hang / Upon those boughs which shake against the cold, / Bare ruin’d choirs, where late the sweet birds sang.”
In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
• Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first line of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads, “I met a traveler from an antique land.” Antique here best means: __________.
• Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Image structure is the order in which images appear in a poem.
• Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points
McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
• Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Not all poems have a theme.
• Question 18
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Line 7 of George Herbert’s “Virtue” reads: “Thy root is ever in its grave.” The word “grave” is metonymy for __________.
• Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points
William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
• Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
• Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
• Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Line 3 of George Herbert’s “Virtue” reads: “The dew shall weep thy fall tonight.” The word “fall” means __________.
• Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A foot in poetry usually contains one accented syllable and one or two unaccented syllables.
• Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
• Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which of the following poem uses two similes to create meaning and emotion, and two metaphors to complete the poem?
• Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The speaker in Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year” compares himself to autumn/winter, night, and a burnt-out fire.
• Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Frost uses direct methods to communicate his theme in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening.”
• Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Rhyme scheme could be relied upon to trace a poet’s thought patterns.
• Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A character expresses great pride. In which poem does he appear?
• Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Onomatopoeia is the use of words that supposedly mimic their meaning in their sound.
• Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points
An imagistic poem gives the verbal representation of a sense experience, as of sight, touch, taste, smell, and hearing.
• Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A trope is a figure of speech.
• Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points
M. H. Riken proposes six tools or substructures of the art form, poem. These include paraphrase, rational, image, metric, sound, and syntax.
• Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A metaphor is the imaginative identification of two dissimilar objects or ideas.
• Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In what poem does a boy lose a hand?
• Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points
William Butler Yeats wrote the poem, “Sailing to Byzantium.”
• Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 9-12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death-bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
• Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Images evoke the senses.
• Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for rhymes that occur at the ends of lines is
• Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A trope is a device in which one object or idea is compared with a dissimilar object or idea.
• Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Barter” makes extensive use of verbs such as raps, deals, and makes.
• Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “That time of year thou mayst in me behold / When yellow leaves, or none, or few, do hang / Upon those boughs which shake against the cold, / Bare ruin’d choirs, where late the sweet birds sang.” These lines emphasize __________.
• Question 43
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Image is a verbal representation of a series of experiences as of sight, touch, smell, and hearing.
• Question 44
1.6 out of 1.6 points
One possible theme of _____ is that responsibilities are more important than the beauties of life.
• Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Scansion is the process of measuring verse.
• Question 46
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The theme of a poem is the major concept or idea that a poet/writer implicitly or explicitly conveys in a poem.
• Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
• Question 48
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony of situation results from the incongruity between the actual and the anticipated circumstance in “Ozymandias.”
• Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Assonance, according to the Power Point presentation, emphasizes ideas and slows pace.
• Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which famous critic said that it was vital to know the Bible if one is to understand literature.

Question 1 In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 2 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
Question 3 In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 4 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
Question 5 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13¬14) represents __________.
Question 6 The poem, “Ulysses,” was written by William Blake.
Question 7 This poem by Robert Frost makes an allusion to Shakespeare’s play Macbeth.
Question 8 “Fern Hill” followed upon the Industrial Revolution which ushered in major changes in thought.
Question 9 Lines 1¬4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
Question 10 All poems have an end rhyme scheme.
Question 11 Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
Question 12 “Dover Beach” alludes to Horace.
Question 13 Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves.”
Question 14 According to the work¬text/textbook, _____ is a writer’s or speaker’s attitude toward the subject, the audience, or herself or himself.
Question 15 Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
Question 16 Monometer is a metrical line containing one foot.
Question 17 A metaphor may have one of four forms.
Question 18 The bald eagle represents freedom, majesty, and strength. This is an example of a(n)
Question 19 Lines 9¬12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death¬bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 20 Dactylic is two unstressed syllables followed by a stressed syllable.
Question 21 Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is entitled
Question 22 A poem may be unified by a theme, one of the tropes, or by
Question 23 Emily Dickinson authored “Ozymandias.”
Question 24 William Blake wrote “The Tiger.”
Question 25 Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 26 As literature, the Bible contains an organized view of life that comprehends and subsumes even man’s artistic creations.
Question 27 McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
Question 28 “Ode to a Nightingale” speaks of two scenes.
Question 29 A metaphor is the imaginative identification of two dissimilar objects or ideas.
Question 30 The major figure of speech often used to interpret Shelley’s “Ozymandias” is irony of situation.
Question 31 According to Emily Dickinson, “[Poetry] makes my body so cold that no fire can warm me … and makes me feel as if the top of my head were taken off”
Question 32 The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
Question 33 The English sonnet is sometimes called Shakespearean sonnet.
Question 34 Keats died of polio.
Question 35 According to Plato, poetry should be for art’s sake, and not interpreted, analyzed, and dissected.
Question 36 “A poem,” according to M. H. Riken, “is produced by a poet, takes its subject matter from the universe of men, things, and events, and is addressed to, or made available to, an audience of hearers or readers.”
Question 37 Edwin Arlington Robinson authored the poem, “Nothing Gold Can Stay.”
Question 38 A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.
Question 39 _____ is a descriptive¬meditative lyric.
Question 40 Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.
Question 41 The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
Question 42 The first three stanzas of “Virtue” show that all of nature is ephemeral.
Question 43 The tiger in Blake’s poem of the same name symbolizes
Question 44 The rhyme scheme of Gerard Manley Hopkins’s “God’s Grandeur” is abba abba cd cd cd.
Question 45 This poem by T. S. Eliot makes an allusion to the Gospel of Matthew, 2:1¬12.
Question 46 In the poem “Virtue” by George Herbert, the line “The dew shall weep thy fall tonight” exemplifies __________.
Question 47 A foot is the basic unit used in the scansion of verse; it usually contains one accented syllable and one or two unaccented syllables.
Question 48 A poem’s meter helps to convey the tone, which then helps to establish meaning.
Question 49 “Journey of the Magi” maintains that Christ’s birth was a “hard and bitter agony.”
Question 50 The phrase “frigate like a book” is an example of a metaphor.

Question 1 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
Question 2 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
Question 3 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13¬14) represents __________.
Question 4 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
Question 5 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line represents __________.
Question 6 The allusion in the poem “Out, Out ¬ ¬” is from
Question 7 The tropes in _____ relate to the childhood of the speaker.
Question 8 The poem, “Fern Hill,” was written by Dylan Thomas.
Question 9 Not all poems have a theme.
Question 10 The bald eagle represents freedom, majesty, and strength. This is an example of a(n)
Question 11 “A poem,” according to M. H. Riken, “is produced by a poet, takes its subject matter from the universe of men, things, and events, and is addressed to, or made available to, an audience of hearers or readers.”
Question 12 All poems have an end rhyme scheme.
Question 13 Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is entitled
Question 14 Assonance, according to the Power Point presentation, emphasizes ideas and slows pace.
Question 15 What happens versus what the reader knows to be true is
Question 16 When Alexander Pope wrote that a literary critic of his time would “damn with faint praise,” he was using a verbal paradox.
Question 17 The speaker of “The Chimney Sweeper” is a dead boy.
Question 18 This poem by Robert Frost makes an allusion to Shakespeare’s play Macbeth.
Question 19 Which of the following poem uses two similes to create meaning and emotion, and two metaphors to complete the poem?
Question 20 “Eight O’Clock” comments that innocence is short¬lived.
Question 21 William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
Question 22 The three major types of irony are verbal irony, dramatic irony, and irony of situation.
Question 23 In this sonnet, _____, the octave introduces a series of images, and the sestet presents two significant symbols.
Question 24 Stressed and unstressed syllables are indicated by diacritical marks.
Question 25 Which of the following poem was written by John Donne
Question 26 Internal rhyme has one or both of the rhyme¬words within the line.
Question 27 Image is a verbal representation of a series of experiences as of sight, touch, smell, and hearing.
Question 28 Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 29 Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
Question 30 The author of “Ode on a Grecian Urn” is Frost.
Question 31 A Shakespearean Sonnet has this rhyme scheme: ACAC, BDBD, EFEF, GG.
Question 32 The metrical structure of a poem is its rhythm pattern of stressed and unstressed syllables.
Question 33 The phrase “Death’s second self, that seals up all in rest” (line 8) in William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” is a metaphor for __________.
Question 34 The variation of a poem’s sentence structure is referred to as its syntactical structure.
Question 35 Frost uses direct methods to communicate his theme in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening.”
Question 36 Lines 1¬4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
Question 37 “Life has loveliness to sell” is an excerpt from “Last Duchess.”
Question 38 In “Ars Poetica,” _____ argues that poems are tropological, not logically propositional, in nature.
Question 39 Three analytical approaches are (1) focus, (2) content, and (3) style.
Question 40 In this poem, the poet or persona asks that God “o’erthrow” him, reclaim him as His own, and “marry” him.
Question 41 The poem, “God’s Grandeur,” was written by Emily Dickinson.
Question 42 A trope is a device in which one object or idea is compared with a dissimilar object or idea.
Question 43 “In the forests of the night, /What immortal hand or eye/ Dare frame thy fearful symmetry” is from what poem?
Question 44 Samuel Johnson defined poetry as “The art of uniting pleasure with truth by calling imagination to the help of reason.”
Question 45 Assonance is the close positioning of the same or similar vowel sounds.
Question 46 In order to understand meter, divide each line into feet and scan the feet.
Question 47 The following is an excerpt from Tennyson’s “Ulysses”: “I cannot rest from travel; I will drink/Life to the lees…”
Question 48 In the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves,” Dickinson compares snowfall to God’s righteousness covering the earth.
Question 49 The tiger in Blake’s poem of the same name symbolizes
Question 50 A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.

The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
In lines 7-8, the narrator is trying to ________ Tom when he tells him, “Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, / You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair.”
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Tropes demand intellectual involvement on the part of the reader.
The poem “Ode To A Nightingale” was written by
Emily Dickinson authored the poem,

Q2. Liberty University ENGL 102 test 3 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University ENGL 102 test 3 complete solutions correct answers A+ work
Time limit: 1 hour and 30 minutes
50 multiple-choice, true/false, matching and reading comprehension questions
Open-book/open-notes
Do not hit the BACK button as this will lock you out of the test.
The timer will continue if you leave this test without submitting it.
Please use the following passage to answer the first 5 questions:
Reading Comprehension Question from the play Everyman (lines 22-79).
GOD: I perceive here in my majesty,
How that all the creatures be to me unkind,
Living without dread in worldly prosperity:
Of ghostly sight the people be so blind,
Drowned in sin, they know me not for their God;
In worldly riches is all their mind.
They fear not my righteousness, the sharp rod.
My law that I showed, when I for them died,
They forget clean, and shedding of my blood red;
I hanged between two, it cannot be denied;
To get them life I suffered to be dead;
I healed their feet, with thorns hurt was my head.
I could do no more than I did, truly;
And now I see the people do clean forsake me.
They use the seven deadly sins damnable,
As pride, covetise, wrath, and lechery
Now in the world be made commendable;
And thus they leave of angels the heavenly company.
Every man liveth so after his own pleasure,
And yet of their life they be nothing sure:
I see the more that I them forbear
The worse they be from year to year.

I hoped well that every man
In my glory should make his mansion,
And thereto I had them all elect;
But now I see, like traitors deject,
They thank me not for the pleasure that I to them meant,
Nor yet for their being that I them have lent;
I proffered the people great multitude of mercy,
And few there be that asketh it heartily;
They be so cumbered with worldly riches
That needs on them I must do justice,
On every man living without fear.
Where art thou, Death, thou mighty messenger?
[Enter Death]
DEATH: Almighty God, I am here at your will,
Your commandment to fulfill.
GOD: Go thou to Everyman,
And show him, in my name,
A pilgrimage he must … take

And that he bring with him a sure reckoning
DEATH: Lord, I will in the world go run overall,
And cruelly outsearch both great and small;
Everyman will I beset that liveth beastly
Out of God’s laws, and dreadeth not folly.
He that loveth riches I will strike with my dart,
His sight to blind, and from heaven to depart–
Except that alms be his good friend–
In hell for to dwell, world without end

Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In context, the phrase “Everyman … liveth beastly” means that
Selected Answer:
Question 2
0 out of 1.6 points

According to the excerpt, __________.
Selected Answer:
.
Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In context, the excerpt depicts Everyman as __________.
Selected Answer:
.
Question 4
0 out of 1.6 points

Choose one word that best explains why the people have rejected the “multitude of mercy” offered by the speaker?
Selected Answer:
Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Death’s vow to search for “both great and small,” never to relax at any point, means that
Selected Answer:
.
Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Aristotle, the Greek critic, said that a tragic hero should be a nobleman.
Selected Answer:
Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Oedipus asks Kreon to kill him, since suicide would be blasphemy against the gods.
Selected Answer:
Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points

“Quem Quoeritis” includes an exchange between Holy Women and Jesus.
Selected Answer:
Question 9
0 out of 1.6 points

Kreon and Teiresias (in the play Oedipus Rex) are a good example of the use of mute actors in ancient Greek drama.
Selected Answer:
Question 10
0 out of 1.6 points

According to Aristotle, a hero is not responsible for any criminal act he commits as long as he is not aware of its criminal nature.
Selected Answer:
Question 11
0 out of 1.6 points

Richard Caxton printed Everyman in English in the early 1600’s.
Selected Answer:
Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points

One of Sophocles’ contributions was the inclusion of female actors.
Selected Answer:
Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The Greek stage was limited in the use of props and scenery.
Selected Answer:
Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Which is not one of the Three Unities?
Selected Answer:
Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Goods states in the play Everyman: “Who calleth me? Everyman? What hast thou hast! / I lie here in corners, trussed and piled so high, / And in chest I am locked so fast, / Also sacked in bags, thou mayst see with thine eye, / I cannot stir; in packs low I lie. / What would ye have, lightly me say.” In context, this best satirizes
Selected Answer:
Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The major characters in Shakespeare’s tragedies are influenced by Aristotle’s concept of tragic hero.
Selected Answer:
Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Sophocles is noted for his clear and logical action that used political, religious, and personal elements.
Selected Answer:
Question 18
0 out of 1.6 points

The Greeks were a war-like culture and enjoyed seeing bloodshed on the stage.
Selected Answer:
Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In 1210, Pope Innocent III moved drama from the wagon processionals into the church buildings.
Selected Answer:
Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to Plato, a Greek critic, a tragic hero must fall from high to low estate.
Selected Answer:
Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Elizabethan drama held to the single day theory of Classical drama.
Selected Answer:
Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Messenger speaks in Everyman saying: “I pray you all give your audience, / And here [hear] this matter with reverence, / By figure a moral play- / The Summoning of Everyman called it is,”
In context, the statement that the play is “By figure a moral play” means that
Selected Answer:
Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The name “Oedipus” means swollen hand.
Selected Answer:
Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points

A messenger tells Oedipus that the king’s (Oedipus’s) father, _____, is dead.
Selected Answer:
Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The Greek play began with the parados.
Selected Answer:
Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Everyman states in the play Everyman: “ O gracious God, in the high seat celestial, / Have mercy on me in this most need; / Shall I have no company from this vale terrestrial / Of mine acquaintance that way to me lead?”
In this excerpt, Everyman pleads to God to allow help from ________.
Selected Answer:
Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In the play Oedipus the Chorus make this remark about Oedipus: “Your splendor is all fallen / O naked brow of wrath and tears,/ O change of Oedipus!” In context, what has happened to Oedipus?
Selected Answer:
Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points

With the decline and fall of Rome, drama – either as an institution or a literature – ceased to exist.
Selected Answer:
Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Greek theatre was limited to three actors, although a dramatist could use as many mute actors as he wished.
Selected Answer:
Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Aeschylus was a student of Sophocles.
Selected Answer:
Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The end of a Greek play is called Exodos.
Selected Answer:
Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Aeschylus introduces a second character to the performances.
Selected Answer:
Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to the messenger in Everyman, the actual title of the play is:
Selected Answer:
The Summoning of Everyman
Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In a carefully crafted Greek play, no god ever actively impacts the outcome of a hero’s challenges.
Selected Answer:
Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to Everyman, there are _____ sacraments.
Selected Answer:
Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Greek actors used giant masks to indicate their character types or emotions.
Selected Answer:
Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The plot of Oedipus Rex has been called one of the most perfect dramatic plots ever conceived.
Selected Answer:
Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Dionysus was the god of dance.
Selected Answer:
Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to the “Three Unities,” action was restricted to one main action with few or no subplots.
Selected Answer:
Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Which character in Everyman says to Everyman: “Fear not; I will speak for thee.”
Selected Answer:
Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Othello is known to be honest, open, sincere, and overly trusting.
Selected Answer:
Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The play Everyman opens with a statement by Messenger that the “intent” of the play is “gracious / And sweet to bear away.” This means the purpose of the play is
Selected Answer:
.
Question 43
0 out of 1.6 points

According to Fellowship in Everyman, what is duty?
Selected Answer:
Question 44
0 out of 1.6 points

The play Oedipus opens with the following speech by Oedipus: “My children, generations of living / In the line of Kadmos, nursed at his ancient hearth: / Why have you strewn yourself before these altars / In supplication, with your boughs and garlands? / The breath of incense rises from the city / With a sound of prayer and lamentation.” What is Oedipus’ attitude and tone in his speech?
Selected Answer:
Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Strength speaks in Everyman saying: “You spend your speech and waste your brain.” In context, this means that
Selected Answer:
Question 46
0 out of 1.6 points

In the play Oedipus the Chorus say: “Alas the seed of men./…/ That breathe on void and are void / And exist and do not exist?” In context, what do lines 2-3 — “That breathe on void and are void / And exist and do not exist?”—mean?
Selected Answer:
.
Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The name of the blind seer in Oedipus is Kreon.
Selected Answer:
Question 48
0 out of 1.6 points

Greek tragedy encouraged the use of comedy and tragedy in the same play to show the duality of human nature.
Selected Answer:
Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The play Oedipus opens with the following speech by Oedipus: “… Children,/ I would not have you speak trough messengers, / And therefore I have come myself to hear you- / I, Oedipus, who bear the famous name. / (To a Priest.) You, there, since you are the eldest in the company, / Speak for them all, tell me what preys upon you.” The “Priest” may be described as
Selected Answer:
Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Arion added an actor to the chorus’ music and dancing.
Selected Answer:

Q3. Professional Experience #4
Steps to Complete Professional Experience Four
Step one: Click on the link in the “Link to OneDrive” section above. The link will take you to a OneDrive folder titled Week 7. Review the sample outline document provided in this folder.
Step two: Create an outline (Refer to the Outline Guidelines, below, for details) for your Week 8 presentation based on Week 6’s “Social Media” PowerPoint presentation (a video preview is available under the Week 7 tab in Blackboard). https://cdnapisec.kaltura.com/index.php/extwidget/preview/partner_id/956951/uiconf_id/38285871/entry_id/1_1yd1tq3f/embed/dynamic
• You may use the provided Presentation Outline Sample posted below or develop a different outline on your own.
Step three: Save your file to your desktop using the following file name format: Your_Name_Presentation_Outline.
• Example file name: Ed_Buchanan_Presentation_Outline
• Make sure that you leave the “Comments” column blank.
Step four: After you have completed your presentation outline, upload it to the “Completed Outlines” folder on OneDrive.

Step five: Submit your completed outline for your instructor’s review using the Professional Experience #4 link in the Week 7 tab in Blackboard.
Outline Guidelines
• Use Microsoft Word or Excel only to complete your outline.
• Use short bullet points, rather than long paragraphs.
• Focus only on the key points in your Week 6 presentation; avoid discussing less important details
• Refer to the example outline posted for you in the Week 7 OneDrive folder
• Base your submission on the outline format in the example or create your own for this Professional Experience
In order to earn your points for completing this task, you must do the following:
• Use the proper naming convention: Your_Name_Presentation_Outline
• Leave the “Comments” column blank
• Follow the outline guidelines above
• Upload your outline to the “Completed Outlines” folder on OneDrive
• Submit your completed outline to Blackboard using the Professional Experience #4 link in the Week 7 tab

Q4 Social Psychology assignment
Details:
Visit the website of The Random Acts of Kindness Foundation, an organization dedicated to altruistic pursuits.
Review the information, literature, and downloadable documents.
Design your own assignment in which you implement five acts of kindness (prosocial behavior). Use your discretion, common sense, and modesty at all times. Do not put yourself in an environment of potential danger or harm.
Write a paper of 500-750 words, in which you:
1. Describe your implementation of kindness: what did you do, how did you approach the idea, where did you implement it and to whom?
2. Describe the reactions you perceived from others and yourself.
3. Describe what you learned about prosocial behavior from this exercise. Compare the actual application of the behavior relative to this topic material.
4. If you are a faith-based person, explain how your faith helped you implement your helping behavior. If you are not a faith-based person, explain what philosophy, belief system, or values you connected to helping behavior.
When writing in APA style, it is important that your analysis is written in third person. Writing in third person helps with clarity and conciseness throughout your paper. However, some instances writing in first person is acceptable and should be used sparingly. Solid academic writing is expected, and documentation of sources should be presented using APA formatting guidelines.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.

Q5. English 102 Test 2
English 102 Test 2 Questions and Answers
Examples:
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.

Selected Answer: *****
Lines 7-8 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: And wears man’s smudge and shares man’s smell: the soil / Is bare now, nor can foot feel, being shod.” “The soil / Is bare” because __________.
Selected Answer: *****

Q6. ESSAY 1 INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST Proposal Argument

In preparation for Essay 1 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 3 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).

ESSAY 1 INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST
Proposal Argument
In preparation for Essay 1 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 3 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).

Assignment

In Module/Week 3, you will write a 1,000–1,200-word proposal argument essay from the thesis/outline that you submitted in Module/Week 2. Please note the word count does not include citations.

Proposal Argument Prompt

Write a proposal argument about what the government should do to relieve the student loan burden. Use the readings on pages 569–585 to support your thesis statement and provide opposing viewpoints. Be sure to integrate a total of 4 quotations, summaries and/or paraphrases from the readings. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (Current APA, MLA, or Turabian).

As you compose your essay, be sure to:

• Include all parts identified in “Structuring a Proposal Argument” found on page 561 in your Practical Argument textbook.
• Include at least 4 quotations, summaries, and/or paraphrases from the readings on pages 569–585 to support your thesis statement and provide opposing argument(s).
• Follow the appropriate formatting style for your degree program (Current MLA, APA, or Turabian).
• Use signal phrases and proper in-text citations; make sure you include a references (Current APA), bibliography (Current Turabian) or works cited (Current MLA) page.
• Use the Essay 1 Grading Rubric and the proofreading checklist (provided below) to draft and revise your essay. Please note the essay proofreading checklist is not exactly the same as the outline proofreading checklist, so be sure to review it carefully.
• Type your degree program and which style of writing you are using (current MLA, APA, or Turabian) in the title of the saved document and in the “Submission Title” field on the submission link in Blackboard.

IMPORTANT: Fully cite all quotations, summaries, and paraphrases used within your essay, or those excerpts will be regarded as plagiarism and will result in a “0” on your essay and possible course failure.
Proofreading Checklist
Part 1

Read through your paper and check the appropriate boxes on the chart below. If any area of your paper needs revision, make sure you correct it before submitting your essay. One of the best ways to proofread your writing is to read it backwards to forwards, sentence-by-sentence. This helps you to see words and ideas that you may have missed. Another very successful tool for proofreading is to read your work out loud to someone else. Individuals often think that handing their paper to someone and asking him or her to read it is the same thing, but it is not. Instead, ask someone to listen while you read your own words. You will immediately hear what you missed or will want to improve in your writing.
Reading & Study Application Successful Needs Revision
1. Introduction: Establishes the context of the proposal and presents the essay’s thesis
2. Explanation of the problem: Identifies the problem and explains why it needs to be solved
3. Explanation of the solution: Proposes a solution and explains how it will solve the problem
4. Evidence in support of the solution: Presents support for the proposed solution. Integrates a total of at least 4 quotes, summaries, and/or paraphrases from the reading assignments.
5. Benefits of the solution: Explains the positive results of the proposed course of action
6. Refutation of opposing arguments: Addresses objections to the proposal
7. Conclusion: Reinforces the main point of the proposal; includes a strong concluding statement
8. Contains pathos (emotional) appeals, ethos (values/belief) appeals, and/or logos (factual) appeals as appropriate
9. Title reflects issue and proposal information
10. Uses only third person pronouns (all first and second person pronouns have been removed)
11. If using current APA format, contains properly formatted, title, abstract, and References page.
If using MLA format, contains a properly formatted Works Cited page
If using Turabian format, contains a properly formatted title page and Bibliography page
12. Double spaced
13. Font is 12-point Times New Roman
14. References/Works Cited/ Bibliography page includes all sources cited within the body of the essay
15. Checked spelling, grammar/mechanics

Part 2
When you are satisfied with the quality of your essay, post it to Blackboard via the SafeAssign link for grading. Do not forget to write your degree program and whether you are using current MLA, APA, or Turabian on the title page and in the “Submission Title” field when submitting your paper.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

Q7. Thinking Critically 1

For this assignment, you will choose and answer 3 questions based on the reading and viewingassignments listed below.

Each answer should be a minimum of 3 paragraphs that are 3–5 sentences in length.
Read Chapter 1 of the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. Describe what convergence has meant in your life and how it affects you.
2. Does the SMCR model adequately explain social media?
3. Is social media a fundamentally new type of communication or not? Justify.
Read Chapter 2 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. How has the hegemony of ideas affected you personally?
Read Chapter 3 of the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. Which culture should receive the most credit for the invention of printing? Explain.
2. Debate the following proposition: Books are an obsolete medium.
Read Chapter 4 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. What is the proper role of a free press in a democratic society?
2. Go through your local newspaper—in print, on the Internet, or mobile device—and describe the objective of each section. How do local newspapers differ from national ones in content?
3. What does it mean for journalists to be the watchdogs?
Read Chapter 5 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. How do conglomerates affect print publishing? What are the positives and negatives associated with conglomerates?
View the videos The Future of Journalism and Hate the media? So do I and I’m a reporter.
1. Discuss your position on the place for investigative journalism in the future. Explain how you either agree or disagree with Tom Rosenstiehl when he says digital technology caused the problems in current journalism BUT that digital technology will also solve the problems?
2. If you agree with Abbie Boudreau about the problems in media today, give some examples of what you might do to repair the problems and restore respect to journalistic endeavors.

Submit Thinking Critically 1 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 1.
Q8. ENG 101 THESIS/OUTLINE

ESSAY 2 THESIS/OUTLINE INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST
Ethical Argument

In preparation for Essay 2 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 4 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).

In Module/Week 4, you will write a thesis statement and outline for the ethical argument essay that you will write in the next module/week.

Develop an outline for your ethical argument essay that includes a clear thesis statement and a plan of support. Be sure to include all parts identified in “Structuring an Ethical Argument” on page 599 in your Practical Argument textbook. In addition, include at least 4 quotations, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase (6 total) into your essay from at least 3 outside sources to support your thesis statement and provide opposing arguments. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (APA, MLA, or Turabian). Your outside sources can include scholarly sources and the Bible. (Note: Wikipedia is NOT an acceptable source for academic writing.)

Ethical Essay Prompt

Write an ethical argument in which you consider the topic, “How far should scientists go to modify humans through genetic engineering?” Use the websites included in the Reading & Study folder, your own academic research, and the Bible to include at least 4 quotations, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase (6 total) from at least 3 sources. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (current APA, MLA, or Turabian).

Instructions

After reading pages 599–607 in your Practical Argument textbook and the 5 websites in the Module/Week 4 Reading & Study folder, you will be prepared to plan your own ethical argument about the topic, “How far should scientists go to modify humans through genetic engineering?”

When planning your outline, review the reading assignment with special attention to page 590—What is Ethical Argument?, page 591—Stating and Ethical Principle, and page 599—Structuring an Ethical Argument.

Next, do some preliminary research about your topic including the websites in the Module/Week 4 Reading & Study folder and scholarly resources such as those found on the Jerry Falwell Library. In addition, you are encouraged to use the Bible as a resource for your ethical argument development.

Finally, create an outline that includes a clear thesis statement and a plan of support. Be sure to include all of the parts identified in “Structuring an Ethical Argument” found on page 599 in your Practical Argument textbook.

Review the Outline Suggestions and Proofreading Checklist (below) and the Essay 2 Thesis/Outline Grading Rubric before submitting your thesis/outline in Blackboard.

Proofreading Checklist

Part 1

Read through your outline and check the appropriate boxes on the chart below. If any area of your outline needs revision, make sure you correct it before submitting your assignment. Taking the time to construct a complete and thorough outline will help you save time when you write the actual essay.

Reading & Study Application Successful Needs Revision
1. Thesis statement: Clearly states your argument (claim) about the topic.
2. Background: Gives an overview of the situation.
3. Ethical analysis: Explains the ethical principle and analyzes the particular situation on the basis of this principle.
4. Evidence: Presents points that support the thesis (Integrates at least 4 quotes, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase from at least 3 outside sources).
5. Refutation of opposing arguments: Addresses arguments against the thesis.
6. Conclusion: Restates the ethical principle as well as the thesis (not in the exact words); includes a strong concluding statement.
7. Contains pathos (emotional) appeals, ethos (values/belief) appeals, and/or logos (factual) appeals as appropriate.
8. Title reflects issue and proposal information.
9. Uses only third person pronouns (all first and second person pronouns have been removed).
10. If using current APA format, contains properly formatted, title, abstract, and References page.
If using MLA format, contains a properly formatted Works Cited page.
If using Turabian format, contains a properly formatted title page and Bibliography page.
11. Double-spaced.
12. Font is 12-point Times New Roman.
13. References/Works Cited/ Bibliography page includes all sources cited within the body of the essay.
14. Checked spelling, grammar/mechanics.

Part 2

When you are satisfied with the quality of your outline, submit it to Blackboard. Do not forget to write your degree program and whether you are using current MLA, APA, or Turabian on the title page and in the “Submission Title” field when submitting your paper.

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.
Q9. Fallacies and Rhetoric
Choose an advertisement that contains at least three or four rhetorical devices or fallacies (but more would be better!), from a newspaper or a magazine (in which case you should scan the ad, save it as a PDF, and submit it with your assignment) or an online source (in which case you should include the EXACT URL with your assignment, pasted as a link with the assignment). You CANNOT use video ads for this assignment if you plan to complete the extra credit opportunity associated with this assignment (explained below). So, if you plan to do the extra credit, you must choose an ad that is an image, not a video.
• The advertisement must be made after 1990 (no ads produced before 1990).
• The advertisement must be in ENGLISH. Otherwise, your analysis cannot be graded.
Analyze the ad for uses of rhetorical devices or fallacies. Explain which devices you see in the ad, making sure to be specific in your analysis. You must clearly identify the specific parts of the advertisement that you find rhetorical or fallacious.
In addition to identifying any rhetorical devices and fallacies, analyze the ad in terms of the following:
Who is targeted in the ad (who is the target audience?)?
What psychological effect does the ad have on the audience?
What subconscious needs or desires among the audience does the ad seem to be playing upon?
The written analysis must be at least 1000 words (to earn minimum credit for this assignment). Of course, paste your analysis into the “Submission” portion of this assignment page.
WANT SOME EXTRA CREDIT POINTS?!? Then, create a new ad (actually make the new ad) for the product advertized in the original ad. Your new ad should be targeted toward a critical thinker. Therefore, your new ad should not use any rhetorical devices or fallacies to persuade the audience. Instead, your new ad should present a well-reasoned, well-supported argument for why a critical thinker should buy the product. You will probably have to do research to create the argument. You may also need to change the visual images or pictures from the original add (feel free to use pictures from whatever source you like….just be sure that the images you choose do not have any manipulative rhetorical effect on the audience.). The goal of the new ad should be to present an argument, not to persuade! Scan your new ad, save it as a PDF and send it as an attachment, or create your new ad on your computer, save it as a PDF, and attach it to your assignment. You can earn anywhere up to 25 points, depending on the quality of the argument in the new ad, and the quality of the ad itself

Q10. topic analysis help needed
RESEARCH PAPER: TOPIC ANALYSIS INSTRUCTIONS
You will choose a topic related to the field of mass communication that you wish to analyze for your Topic Analysis Paper and submit it to the instructor for approval through the Research Paper Approval assessment.
Once your topic is approved, you may begin your research. You will compose a research paper in current APA format that includes a single introduction and conclusion paragraph as well as a title and reference page. The paper must be at least 6 pages, not including the title page and reference page.
The body of your paper will be split up in APA level headings according to sub points of your topic and analysis. You will be required to cite a minimum of 6 peer-reviewed sources that are less than 5 years old both in-text and list them on your reference page. Your textbook may be used as a reference in this paper; however, it does not count as one of the 6 required resources. Wikipedia may not be used as a source.
Submission
Review the Topic Analysis Grading Rubric before submitting this assignment. Attach your research paper as a Word file to Blackboard via the assignment submission link. Do not copy and paste your paper in the textbox. You must attach your paper as a file attachment.

Submit your topic for instructor approval by indicating it in the Research Paper Approval assessment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the Module/Week 4.

Submit this Topic Analysis assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.

1. Topic is : How is social media changing family relationships? (definition)

Topic Analysis Presentation Instructions
The student will prepare a presentation based on the content of his/her Topic Analysis paper. The presentation will be a visual and auditory presentation of the important points of the Topic Analysis Paper.
The student may choose the presentation method from Power Point, prezi or video.
The presentation will be created as one of the following:
a powerpoint with voice narration (6-10 slides),
OR
a prezi presentation with voice narration, (6-10 minutes in length)
OR
a video presentation (6-10 minutes in length) created with a webcam, laptop camera or cellphone.

HISTORY
Q1. Washingtons Farewell Address Analysis GOVT 200

Washington’s Farewell Address Analysis Instructions
For this assignment, you will analyze the major points of George Washington’s “Farewell Address” and write a 3-page analysis, considering contemporary government and including differing points of view. Be sure to adhere to the format specified in the Course Style Guidelines document.

Your analysis must adhere to the following specifications:
• No more than 3 double-spaced pages (12-point font with 1-inch margins).
• Must include a title page (not counted in total page number) that contains:
o A title,
o Your name,
o Your section (GOVT 200-S02),
o Your instructor’s name, and
o The date the assignment is due (all single-spaced in the footer of the cover page).
• No page number is necessary for the cover page or for the first page in the body of the paper.
• Pay particular attention to the grading rubric for how your paper will be graded.

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.

Q2. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 7: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following best represents the link between the Renaissance and the Protestant Reformation?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following best explains why the Renaissance first originated when and where it did?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” the Hundred Years War was fundamentally a struggle over
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” a major difference between the Renaissance in the north and the Italian Renaissance was that northern humanism emphasized
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following is the best description of Renaissance humanism?
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” the Hundred Years’ War was a conflict between which two groups?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
An image from the period was used to introduce “Italian and Northern Renaissance.” Which painting was used and why?
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following is NOT true of Erasmus?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” which of the following was listed as important conditions and causes of the Black Death?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Late Middle Ages,” while the French victory resulted in a weaker monarchy, their opponents formed a stronger monarchy after the war.

Q3. RLGN 104 Test 1: Religion: Liberty University / Liberty University RLGN104 Quiz 1 (Already Graded A)

RLGN 104 Test 1: Religion: Liberty University / Liberty University RLGN104 Quiz 1

• Question 1

This course (Apologetics 104) will be approaching the issue of “worldview” ….
• Question 2

When Jesus presented the gospel most people accepted it the first time they heard it.
• Question 3

Christian faith is simply a personal preference, a function of how one was raised, and a worldview that is only supported by emotional considerations.
• Question 4

When presenting the gospel to people Christians should be:
• Question 5

Apologetics for some is not discovered or understood until after they make a profession of faith. However, apologetics is important for all Christians to engage the culture.
• Question 6
A translation of the Bible is most accurate when translated by one, highly educated, highly qualified individual.
• Question 7

Hermeneutics is the method of interpreting the Bible.
• Question 8

When Jesus spoke as “one who had authority”:
• Question 9

The church fathers showed that they understood the importance of Jesus’ historicity when they crafted the _______________ Creed
• Question 10

According to Powell, the majority of Christian apologetics takes place in academic classrooms.
• Question 11

Because of the respect that people had for the Apostle Paul his message of Jesus Christ was accepted by almost everyone who heard him.
• Question 12

In describing “truth”, Powell states:
• Question 13

Preaching “the Word” only refers to the Old Testament since the writing of II Timothy 4:2 was before the New Testament was completed.
• Question 14

A Biblical Worldview is a perspective or viewpoint based upon the teachings of the Bible.
• Question 15

According to Powell, “reason” is not the enemy of “faith”.
• Question 16

Upon returning to the Decapolis region a second time after healing the crazed man who had been cutting himself with rocks, Jesus:
• Question 17

One of the first tasks of Christian apologetics is to provide information.
• Question 18

According to Powell, Christianity can be understood as an “antidote” rather than a lifestyle choice or part of a well-balanced religious view.
• Question 19

When Jesus healed the crazed man who lived in a graveyard near Decapolis the people of the city:
• Question 20

According to Dr. Weider the Christian faith is both reasonable and defendable.

Q4. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 8: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 8: Liberty University
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Age of Discovery,” what factors listed below contributed to European expansion?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Protestant Reformation,” there were important links between the Renaissance and the Reformation. Which of the following was part of that connection?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following best represents the significance of the Peace of Augsburg of 1555?
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Age of Discovery,” Prince Henry the Navigator:
• Question 5

According to “Reformation in Europe,” Reformation in France was characterized by
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “The Age of Discovery,” one of the most important economic theories that contributed to European expansion was mercantile capitalism.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” the early Jesuits viewed themselves as
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” which of the following most accurately reflects the history of the Catholic Church prior to 1650?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” there were two major developments that strengthened the movement in the 1500s. They were
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” while historians disagree over which events were most important, most agree that the changes in the Catholic Church in the 16th century were almost exclusively a reaction to the Protestant Reformation.

1. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT included in the discussion of Luther’s teachings in the lecture presentation on the Protestant Reformation?

2. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following contributed to the papal crisis of credibility?

3. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following does NOT accurately describe Martin Luther?

4. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT part of the context for reform?

5. According to “Reformation in Europe,” who started the teachings of the Reformation in Switzerland?

6. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT true of John Wycliffe and Jan Hus?

7. According to “The Age of Discovery,” which of the following was an effect of European expansion?

8.
According to “Catholic Reformation,” Cardinal Cisneros of Spain believed that the key to improving the quality of the clergy was

Q5. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 3: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Philip II
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Roman Republic,” Rome’s origins are obscured by myth.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander defeated this Persian king.
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander died in this city.

• Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” the worst military defeat in Roman history occurred at
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” in the early Roman Republic, the chief magistrates were
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” this man became the first emperor of Rome.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Roman Republic,” Rome’s origins are obscured by myth.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Rome fought the Punic Wars against Carthage.
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?

Question 1 1.5 out of 1.5 points True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.

Question 2 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander’s army went as far east as

Question 3 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?

Question 4 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” this group sacked Rome early in the republic period.

Question 5 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” the First Punic War involved a dispute over this territory.

Question 6 1.5 out of 1.5 points True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.

Question 7 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with

Question 8 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?

Question 9 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander died in this city.

Question 10 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?

1. According to your textbook, Cleopatra was the last Ptolemaic ruler in Egypt.
2. Alexander’s tutor was
3. When Roman armies defeated Carthage, Rome ordered all of the following except
4. According to your textbook, Alexander’s conquests extended from his homeland down into Egypt and as far east as India.
5. According to the textbook, Rome became a Republic when the plebians overthrew the ruling patricians and began determining law for themselves.
6. According to your textbook, Rome, conqueror of the Mediterranean world, rejected the universalist tendencies of the Hellenistic Age.
7. The First Punic War began because
8. The textbook characterizes Tiberius and Gaius Gracchus as moderate reformers trying to deal with real social problems.
9. Rome’s military advantages over their opponents can best be summed up by which of these phrases?
10. According to your textbook, in the Hellenistic Age, the intermingling of Greeks and peoples from the Near East caused Greeks to think of themselves as members of a world community.

1. The Roman Struggle of the Orders involved
2. According to your textbook, as a result of the spread of Greek civilization, local customs and languages disappeared in the East.
3. According to your textbook, the three phases of Greek civilization are the Dark Age, the Golden Age, and the Hellenistic Age.
4. According to your textbook, the conflict between Rome and Carthage was primarily a result of the competition between the two nations for trade in the western Mediterranean.
5. According to the textbook, what aspects of Hellenism facilitated the rise of Christianity?
6. Examples of Hellenistic influence on some Jews include all of the following except
7. According to your textbook, the Struggle of the Orders was finally settled when wealth was distributed more evenly between patricians and plebeians.
8. For the most part, the Romans responded to Greek culture
9. The achievements of Hellenistic scientists
10. The culture that had the earliest notable influence on Rome was _____ culture.

1. True or False: According to the lecture, “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
2. According to the lecture, “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?
3. According to the lecture, “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander defeated this Persian king.
4. According to the lecture, “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?
5. According to the lecture, “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with
6. True or False: According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews,” Darius was defeated by Alexander the Great and his mother, wife and children taken captive by the Macedonians.
7. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who was responsible for the expenditure of public funds?
8. True or False: According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews” Alexander the Great conquered Jerusalem and put the high priest, Jaddua, to death.
9. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who was responsible for trying crimes, such as treason, conspiracy, poisoning, etc?
10. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” which of the following offices was in charge of all public affairs?

1. According to the textbook, the Roman constitution was

2. Among the scientific work of the Greeks during the Hellenistic age, one may find

3. Historians divide Roman history into two broad periods:

4. According to your textbook, the Romans treated the Italian peoples they conquered as potential allies, to be integrated into Roman society.

5. According to your textbook, Hellenistic cosmopolitanism was characterized by both an increased movement of peoples and an expansion of trade.

6. The composition of the Twelve Tables was a political victory for the plebeians because

7. For the most part, the Romans responded to Greek culture

8. According to your textbook, Hellenistic philosophy was more concerned with politics and the state than with an individual’s peace of mind.

9. According to your textbook, at least one Hellenistic geographer estimated the circumference of the earth with remarkable accuracy.

10. According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews” upon entering and staying at Jerusalem, which prophetic book was shown to Alexander, signifying, to him, the success of his mission to defeat Persia?

11. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who has authority of ther ratifying of laws?

Q6. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 1: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to the lecture, “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which seafaring people, mentioned in the Old and New Testaments, gave us the writing system based on sound, rather than pictures?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who were considered a “deadly force of ruthless attackers”?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which empire brought conflict to Egypt and were the first to fashion iron weapons?
• Question 4
0 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which of the following peoples contributed the greatest legacy to Western civilization?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who was the greatest Chaldean ruler, who sacked Jerusalem and took many Israelites into captivity?
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which of the following is NOT one of the legacies of the Persian Empire?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” the purpose of this course is to consider all important civilizations from around the world.
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who built the very first, world empire?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” where did most civilizations rise up?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” Sumer, the foundation for Mesopotamian culture, was located in which region?

Q7. HIEU 201 Chapter 15 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Chapter 15 quiz: Liberty University

1.
European expansion in the fifteenth and sixteenth centuries was promoted by

2.
Columbus’s discovery made Spain a wealthy and powerful nation, because

3.
Hidalgos were

4.
Convertible husbandry

5.
Fifteenth-and sixteenth-century innovations in business methods included all of the following EXCEPT

6.
Commercial development in Spain was inhibited by

7.
The development of capitalism was encouraged by

8.
The traditional relationship between elite and fold cultures changed in the sixteenth century when

9.
The principal reason why France was not as well placed as England to benefit from commercial expansion was

10.
Thomas Mun was among the first Europeans to discern the virtues of

11.
The high demand for armaments was sustained in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries by

12.
Prince Henry the Navigator was associated with the expansion efforts of

13.
Francisco Pizarro was

14.
The European traffic in African slaves

15.
The price revolution of the sixteenth century resulted primarily from

16.
Enclosure was the process by which

17.
The domestic system contributed to the growth of capitalism because it

18.
The price revolution may have resulted partially from the influx of ______ from New Spain

19.
Over the centuries leading up to the early modern period

20.
The church’s view of witchcraft was that

Q8. HIEU 201 Chapter 14 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Chapter 14 quiz: Liberty University

1.
With respect to religiosity and women

2.
Luther’s propositions for reform of Christianity include the idea that

3.
The German peasants’ revolt of 1524-1526

4.
In Geneva, Calvin established a form of government that is best described as

5.
Catherine de’ Medici

6.
The policies of the Catholic Church during the Counter-Reformation include all of the following EXCEPT

7.
The Council of Trent met to

8.
Luther wrote all of the following EXCEPT

9.
First and foremost, Lutheranism was a

10.
Swiss reformer Ulrich Zwingli

11.
The millenarians believed that

12.
Luther’s attack on indulgences was prompted primarily by

13.
The doctrine of predestination is based on the premise that

14.
Nobles were motivated to support the Reformation because

15.
Calvin’s concept of predestination influenced his followers to

16.
The Huguenots

17.
During the reign of Henry VIII, the English Reformation

18.
The beliefs of radical Protestants such as the Anabaptists

19.
The Jesuits were a

20.
The Reformation influenced the development of the modern world indirectly by

Q9. HIEU 201 Chapter 12 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

1.
Among the consequences of the Black Death were

2.
In the Late Middle Ages

3.
Peasant rebellions broke out when

4.
Joan of Arc (1412-1431)

5.
Unam Santa (1302)

6.
In his The Defender of the Peace, Marsiglio of Padua

7.
The Babylonian Captivity (1309-1377) refers to a period when

8.
The Conciliar Movement

9.
The Lollards were

10.
William of Ockham’s main purpose in writing that reason could not prove the existence of God was to

11.
Feudal traditions

12.
Feudalism contributed to the development of free political institutions because

13.
Which of the following statements concerning social unrest in the Late Middle Ages is true?

14.
All of the following is true of the Late Middle Ages EXCEPT

15.
The outcome of the conflicts between Boniface VIII and Philip IV of France

16.
The Great Schism came to an end

17.
Wycliffe and Hus

18.
Duns Scotus (1265-1308) held that human reason

19.
Late medieval technology was influenced by Christianity in that

20.
Which of the following events occurred last?

Q10. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 6: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 6: Liberty University
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the study of theology and philosophy in the university was based on three kinds of sources. Which of the following was NOT one of those sources?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to the broad definition of crusade given in “The Crusades,” which of the following best describes the most distinctive characteristic of a crusade?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the goal of scholasticism was to
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to ”Power Struggle,” which of the following best describes the result of the failure of the Islamic Empire to spread to the West?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “The Crusades,” there is significant support for the view that the Crusades initiated Muslim animosity toward Christians.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Crusades,” which of the following was the earliest example of crusading fervor?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the primary motivation for the development of the new style of architecture called Gothic was to
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the most significant development in the area of learning in the High Middle Ages was
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” which of the following was NOT one of the areas of achievement covered in the lecture presentation on the High Middle Ages?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to ”Power Struggle,” which of the following countries remained largely disunified throughout the Middle Ages?

1. All of the following occurred in the High Middle Ages EXCEPT that

2. According to the lecture presentation, “High Middle Ages,” the two earliest examples of the university were at

3. According to “The Crusades,” which of the following is NOT a feature of a crusade from the 11th century?

4. According to “Power Struggle,” which of the following was an important bulwark against the pressing tide of the Islamic Empire in the East, allowing Western Europe to stabilize:

5. According to “Power Struggle,” under which pope did papal power reach its zenith?

6. The Crusades were

7. The Crusades can be described as all of the following except

8. According to the lecture, ”Power Struggle,” the Islamic Empire

9. According to “High Middle Ages,” the most notable literary development of the High Middle Ages was the

GEOGRAPHY
Q1. Marketing Pan Justify the value of ma
Please respond to the following: “Marketing Plan”
• Justify the value of marketing plans as instruments that compel marketers to think about upcoming periods, perform routine marketing analyses and audits, and set marketing goals and objectives such as Return on Investment (ROI), etc. Provide one (1) example of the use of marketing plans in this fashion to support your rationale.
• Decide whether or not you believe Philip Kotler’s Marketing Plan Model provides a useful framework for developing an effective marketing plan. Provide at least two (2) specific examples of the Philip Kotler’s Marketing Plan Model that apply within a health care organization with which you are familiar.


• Based on your review of the Learnscape scenario titled “Learnscape 4: How Are We Doing”, justify the value of marketing plans as instruments that compel marketers to think about upcoming periods, perform routine marketing analyses and audits, and set marketing goals and objectives such as Return on Investment (ROI), etc. Provide one (1) example of the use of marketing plans in this fashion to support your rationale.

Q2. Consider a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the
Consider a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the stock price is $40, the strike price is $40, the risk-free rate is 4% per annum, the volatility is 30% per annum, and the time to maturity is six months.
1. Calculate , , and for a two step tree
2. Value the option using a two step tree.
3. Verify that DerivaGem gives the same answer
Use DerivaGem to value the option with 5, 50, 100, and 500 time steps.

Q3. Identify a health care organization for ization’s strategic
Identify a health care organization for which a significant amount of information is available, in books, journals, reports, or on the Internet. Conduct an audit of the organization’s strategic assets based on the information you are able to gather from various sources. The audit you conduct will not be as thorough and detailed of an audit as the organization itself might conduct as you will not have access to the same inside information as internal auditors. Do your best to gather and report the following information.
Start with a general description of the service that the healthcare organization provides. Include the mission statement for the organization. If there is not one, create one you believe would best describe the mission of the organization.
The first part of your audit should address the organization’s historical financial performance and its current financial condition, as described in your textbook. A lot of the necessary data can be found in the organization’s annual report and its filings with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) and state-level government regulatory agencies. Research sources such as business journals, magazines, and other media that report on these types of organizations.
The second part of the audit should describe in as much detail as possible what you consider to be the major resources and competencies of the organization. Use a SWOT chart to categorize the most relevant points (these may be more narrative than quantitatively analytical). Try to identify assets that appear to be unique to the organization and that give it some competitive advantage over its rivals. Also make a note of areas in which the organization is weak, which might be the target of strategic attacks by those rivals.
Now consider the activities that are described in the value chain for this organization. Which do you believe cost the most to perform? What factors do you base your opinion on? What do you believe can be done to reduce the costs, thereby giving this organization a competitive edge?
Finally, consider that this organization would like to set up a satellite office in a nearby city. In this satellite office they will make changes to their processes to address their strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats. Develop a mission statement for this satellite office. Create four strategic goals for this office, one for each SWOT category.

Q4. HCS 490 Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system
Research the following in your community or surrounding area:
• One walk-in clinic, such as urgent care
• One retail clinic in your local grocery store or drug store
• No appointment physician’s office
Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper that includes the above centers and addresses the following:
• Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system.
o Differentiate the various places health care is delivered.
• Analyze what impact cultural demographics have on the health care market.
o Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on cultural demographics.
o Analyze the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various cultures.
o Analyze the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different cultural demographics.
• Differentiate what effect different generations have on the health care market.
• Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on generational demographics.
o Differentiate the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various generations.
o Differentiate the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different generations.
• Analyze the impact of media and social networking on consumer choices
Research the following in your community or surrounding area:
• One walk-in clinic, such as urgent care
• One retail clinic in your local grocery store or drug store
• No appointment physician’s office
• Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper that includes the above centers and addresses the following:
• Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system.
o Differentiate the various places health care is delivered.
• Analyze what impact cultural demographics have on the health care market.
o Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on cultural demographics.
o Analyze the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various cultures.
o Analyze the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different cultural demographics.
• Differentiate what effect different generations have on the health care market.
• Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on generational demographics.
o Differentiate the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various generations.
o Differentiate the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different generations.
• Analyze the impact of media and social networking on consumer choices

Q5. Choose companies or industries for which JIT would be totally inappropriate
Part 1
Choose companies or industries for which JIT would be totally inappropriate? Explain your reasoning with examples in 200-250 words.

Part 2
Categorize different scheduling procedures for various types of service operations, such as restaurants, hospitals, and airlines. Your initial post should include explanations and examples and be 200-250 words.

Q6. A narrative, a storyboard, and a business Website. You must submit all three (3) sections
Technical Project: Sample Website Project
Due Week 10 and worth 200 points

This assignment consists of three (3) sections: a narrative, a storyboard, and a business Website. You must submit all three (3) sections for the completion of this assignment. The assignment is to be submitted in a single compressed folder (zip file) to the online course shell. Section 3 must contain all .htm files, along with any other files that may be necessary for your project to run (ex: text files, images, etc.). When saving the compressed folder (zip file), it should be saved as Techincal Project_Last name_First initial.zip. For example, if your name is Mary Smith, the file for submission should be saved as Techincal Project_Smith_M.htm

Select a business that you are interested in. (e.g., pet store, travel site, fishing gear, appliances, automobiles, housewares, furniture, etc.). Imagine that you have just been hired to create a four (4) page hierarchical Website for the business you selected.

Section 1: Narrative
Write a half (½) page paper in which you:
1. Create a narrative that describes the site to your prospective client.

Section 2: Storyboard
Imagine that your narrative has been approved. Use Word, Visio, or Dia to:
2. Create a storyboard diagram depicting the layout of your Website.

Section 3: Business Website
In order to receive full credit for this section, you will need to submit:
• One (1) screen shot of your emailed data from the guestbook.
• One (1) CSS style sheet.
• Four (4) Web pages.
3. Create your Website based on the following requirements:
a. Create a Cascading Style Sheet (.css) for all pages, which:
i. Applies a background color.
ii. Applies style to font.
iii. Changes the ordered list markers to anything other than the default.
iv. Changes the unordered list markers to anything other than the default.
v. Applies style to a copyright footer.
b. Include:
i. A graphic or logo on the home page.
ii. A navigation bar with links to every other page on the home page.
iii. A guestbook registry on the home page using the mailto: tag with an entry field for:
a. A person’s name.
b. An email address.
iv. A piece of JavaScript on the home page.
c. Create a submit button for the guestbook registry that will email the information to your email address. Note: Test the function and take a screen shot of the emailed information you receive. You must submit the screen shot in your zipped file of deliverables as proof.
d. Create three (3) sub pages that include:
i. The same graphic / logo.
ii. A navigation bar with links to every other page.
iii. An ordered list of at least two (2) items, and then at least two (2) unordered list entries under each ordered list item where one (1) of the items must be a hyperlinked to a Website (the hyperlink should not show the address printed on the page).
Note: Each of the three pages should have unique lists.
Example:
A. Food
• Dry food
• Wet food
• Canned food
B. Toys
• Indoor
• Outdoor

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Describe the structure of the World Wide Web as interconnected hypertext documents.
• Create and validate HTML documents.
• Create presentations using Cascading Style Sheets and DHTML.
• Write clearly and concisely about Web design and development using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.

Q7. Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important
Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important? Select two of the theories examined in Unit III, and discuss the main points of the theories. How can each theory explain delinquency and help us understand possible deterrent and prevention methods for juveniles? Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important? Select two of the theories examined in Unit III, and discuss the main points of the theories. How can each theory explain delinquency and help us understand possible deterrent and prevention methods for juveniles?

Q8. Assignment 2 Required Assignment 2—Motivating Staff

Assignment 2: Required Assignment 2—Motivating Staff
An important aspect of talent management is identifying and rewarding quality employees. There are many methods to recognize and retain these ideal workers.
Description
In this assignment, you will research and discuss new ways for a technology firm to help motivate and retain its current employees.
Using the Argosy University online library resources and the Internet, research best practices and innovative methods of increasing employee morale and retention. Select approximately 6–8 scholarly sources for use in this assignment.
Scenario
You work in the HR department of a large and successful technology company. The firm has been the market leader of the industry for years and potential employees seek the prestige of working for the company. Due to a recent staff reorganization, many current employees are now unfulfilled and some are even seeking employment with the firm’s biggest competitor. You have been assigned the task of researching new ideas so that a plan can be developed to increase employee morale and retention.
Instructions
Prepare a report in which you describe current best practices for employee retention, illustrate how they could benefit this organization, and provide strategies on how to incorporate these practices within the company. Further, you will need to provide an outline of how to successfully execute a staff reorganization should it need to be performed again in the future.
Your document should specifically address the following:
• Research and analyze recent best practices for employee retention within the technology industry.
• Identify methods to assess compensation amounts for multiple positions.
• Evaluate successful training and career development plans.
• Analyze current methods of employee motivation within the technology industry.
• Outline the procedure for the incorporation of these new plans. Explain how your plans support the company’s overall goal to prevail as the market leader.

Q9. Earth Science Lab 8
Part 1: Spectrometer
Please follow the instructions to construct a refractometer and answer the corresponding questions.
The instructions below describe how to build a spectrometer. Here is a link if you wish to view the site where the instrcutions are from. Spectroscope
How to make a spectroscope
What we will need:
1. A CD or DVD that can be sacrificed to this project. We won’t damage it, but getting it back will involve destroying our spectroscope. Old software CDROMs work great, and some can be had for free from internet service providers like AOL.
2. A cardboard box. An 8 inch cube works fine, but any size that can hold a CD or DVD disk will do.
3. Two single edged razor blades. These can be found in paint or hardware stores.
4. A small cardboard tube, the kind used as a core to wrap paper on.
5. Some cellophane tape.
6. Some aluminum tape (found in hardware stores), or some aluminum foil and glue.
Our spectroscope has three main parts. There is a slit made from two razor blades, a diffraction grating made from a CD disk, and a viewing port, made from a paper tube.
To make sure that all three parts are lined up properly, we will use the CD disk as a measuring device, and mark the spots where the slit and the viewing port will go.
1. Set the CD disk on top of the box, about a half inch from the left edge, and close to the box’s bottom, as shown in the photo. Use a pen to trace the circle inside the CD disk onto the box. This mark shows us where the paper tube will go.
2. Now place the paper tube on the box, centered over the circle we just drew. Draw another circle on the box by tracing the outline of the paper tube.
3. Move the paper tube over a little bit. A half-inch is probably fine — in the photo I placed it much farther to the right than necessary, but the aluminum tape covered up the mistake nicely. Trace another circle around the paper tube. These circles will tell us where to cut the box.
4. Now cut an oval out of the box with a sharp knife. The oval will allow the paper tube to enter the box at an angle.
5. The next step is to make the slit. Turn the box one quarter turn so the oval we just cut is to the right. Using the CD disk again, draw another small circle close to the left side of the box.
6. The slit will be on the far left of the box. Cut a small rectangle out of the box at the height marked by the small circle we made with the CD disk. The rectangle should be about a half inch wide, and two inches high.
7. Carefully unwrap the two razor blades, and set them over the rectangular hole. Make their sharp edges almost touch. Tape the razor blades to the box, being careful to leave a gap between the sharp edges that is nice and even, and not wider at the top or bottom.
8. Next, set the box right-side-up, with the slit towards you. Now tape the CD disk onto the back wall of the box. The rainbow side should face you, with the printed side touching the cardboard. The photo shows the disk a little too far to the left. The left edge of the disk should be the same distance from the left of the box as the slit is.
9. Now seal up any places on the box where light might leak in. Use the aluminum tape for this. You can also use aluminum foil for this purpose if you don’t have any aluminum tape.
10. The last step is to use the aluminum tape to attach the paper tube. The aluminum tape will make a light-tight seal around the tube. To make sure the angle is correct, hold the slit up to a light, and look through the paper tube, adjusting it until you can see the full spectrum from red to purple.
Once you have assembled your spectrometer with the instructions in the lecture and above, use it to examine the spectra of three different light sources. Make sure that at least one of them is the sun or moon, but the others can be incandescent lights, compact fluorescent bulbs, LED lights, halogen or xenon bulbs, televisions, computer screens, candles, fireplaces, etc.
Then, answer the following questions in a separate document:
1. Describe the differences in appearance among the three spectra.
2. What feature of the light source do the spectra represent? In other words, what is it that you are actually analyzing?
3. Why do you think spectrometers are so valuable for studying celestial objects?
Part 2: Estimating the Number of Visible Stars in the Night Sky
For this, you will need an empty toilet roll and a clear, dark night. Before you start, jot down the number of stars that you think you can see in the night sky.
Aim your toilet roll at a part of the sky well above the horizon to avoid any haze pollution. Hold your roll steady and allow your eyes to get used to the light for a few seconds. Count the number of stars that you can see within through the roll. Do this four more times in other parts of the sky, and average the five counts.
The viewing diameter of a toilet roll is about 1/135th of the entire sky, at least for a relatively flat area. Mountains, buildings or large trees will obscure some of the sky. To determine the number of visible stars, multiply your average by 135.
Answer the following questions:
4. How similar is this to your original estimation?
5. What percentage of our galaxy do you think that we can see with the naked eye from Earth?
Part 3: Solar System

Please answer the following questions:
6. Why do you think that the inner planets are relatively close together, but the outer planets are spaced so widely apart?
7. Why do you think that the gaseous planets are gaseous, but the inner planets are not?
Q10. Assignment 2 Hacking the AIS In t
Assignment 2 Hacking the AIS In today’s technology environment, hackers present a substantial risk to a firm’s accounting orbusiness system. As the result of these attacks, firms suffer huge losses, ranging from financial losses to losses in confidence by consumers, creditors, and suppliers. Firms may have made a significant investment in financial and non-financial resources to secure these systems. For this assignment, research the Internet and select a company whose database systems have been hacked.
Write a five to seven (5-7) page paper in which you:
1. Based on the information you researched, evaluate the level of responsibility of the company in terms of the effectiveness of the response to the security breach. Provide support for your rationale. 2. Imagine that the company that you researched uses a third-party accounting system. Assess the level of responsibility of the software provider to both the business and its clients. Provide support for your rationale. 3. Create an argument for additional regulation as a preventative measure against businesses being hacked. Provide support for your argument. 4. Provide at least three (3) recommendations for businesses to secure their systems and assets from hackers. Provide support for your recommendation. 5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources. Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements: • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions. • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length. THE QUESTIONS THAT ARE BEING ASKED NEEDS TO BE THE BEGINNING SENTENCE FOR EACH NEW SECTION PERTAINING TO THE QUESTION. (APA Style) The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are: • Examine control and security concepts related to accounting information systems to ensure data integrity and safety. • Use technology and information resources to research issues in accounting information systems. • Write clearly and concisely about accounting information systems using proper writing mechanic

URBAN PLANNING AND POLICY.
Q1. Strategic Plan Forecasting, Evaluation, and Assessment
Review the Strategic Plan from Scottsdale Police Department Strategic Plan Analysis, and the 2015 Crime Statistics Documents.
Write a 700-1,050-word paper that evaluates the Strategic Plan from the Scottsdale Police Department. Determinewhether the strategic plan includes all necessary components of the SWOT analysis.
Include the following in your evaluation:
• Identify any additional suggestions that would make the strategic plan more comprehensive.
• Explain whether the justifications and assumptions for the chosen strategies are adequately articulated.
• Assess whether the plan includes enough measures to ensure the successful follow-through and full implementation of the chosen strategies.
Format your paper consistent with APA formatting.
CJA/475

Q2. Group Behavior and Processes Paper CJA/444
Answer Question 2 of Learn by Doing in Ch. 3 in Justice Administration.

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper answering the following questions. Elaborate on your answers and explain your reasoning.
• What kinds of information would you collect to address problems such as drugs, prostitution, and vandalism?
• What kinds of responses might be considered?
• What types of assessment would you perform?
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Securing Low Income Housing

Q3. Multi-agency Emergency Event Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL Internet, University Library
Utilize the unified emergency response to the plane landing in the Hudson event on January 15, 2009. The paper should focus on first responders, not the unilateral actions of the flight crew.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper where you:
• Give a summary of the event
• Outline the response by police and fire agencies
• Detail roles within the structured incident command
• Outline crisis response objectives
• Discuss structured and unstructured decision making strategies by leaders and first responders during the emergency event
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
The Miracle on the Hudson: The Response

Q4. Emergency Management Communication Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library

Write a 700 to 1,050 word paper in which you explain:
• the five components of multi agency interoperability for emergency management
• technology systems that further enhance multi-agency communication
• support technology requirements for multi-agency preparedness
• describe DHS’s system for continued evaluation and assessment of current communication capabilities
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library

Write a 700 to 1,050 word paper in which you explain:
• the five components of multi agency interoperability for emergency management
• technology systems that further enhance multi-agency communication
• support technology requirements for multi-agency preparedness
• describe DHS’s system for continued evaluation and assessment of current communication capabilities
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.

Q5. Emergency Management Response Paper CJA/375
Resources: Week 1 Course Materials; Attached Case Study
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper in which you discuss and address the following from the Case Study NIMS In Action: A Case Study of the System’s Use and Utility:
• Discuss the nature and background of the emergency response
• Outline terms and authorities highlighted in the case as they relate to the week 1 course material.
• Discuss the dynamics and challenges between the use of Incident Command System over the National Incident Management System as it relates to the case study.
• The overall outcome of the situation
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
The Response and Recovery of City “X”

Q6. The Safety of Urban Air Mobility
Reasearch and discuss the safety of Urban Air Mobility with an emphasis on Safety Management Systems(SMS), Economics, Technology, Noise, Infrastructure and Regulations.

Q7. Multi Criterion Evaluation Technique for Optimization of Municipal Solid Waste Management
The complete paper is attached (Environmental_science_final). I need a new section with Results and conclusion. Also, need to add more references (10-15 reference papers) across the paper. Please refer Pistelok_1-2016.pdf for paper format, alignment and numbering, etc.,
Please edit the whole paper as required.

Q8. Causes of Global warming and its effects on climate change.
An analysis of global warming, what is means, the causes and effects. The answers includes academic references

Q9. Assignment 2 Attentional Blink There
Assignment 2 Attentional Blink

There are many stimuli in your environment of which you are not aware. You use attention to filter out unimportant stimuli and focus on relevant stimuli. However, there are circumstances under which you cannot perceive stimuli, regardless of how hard you “pay attention.” One situation is when visual stimuli are presented in quick succession. If the interval between the two stimuli is short enough, you do not perceive the second stimulus. This lapse in attention is known as attentional blink. In this assignment, you will experience the attentional blink for yourself and will also read about practical implications of the phenomenon.
Access the CogLab demonstrationAttentional Blink. Follow the instructions to complete the demonstration.
• Explain how the attentional blink relates to attention. Analyze how the variation in time influences the probability of seeing the second target letter. Explain the circumstances under which the attentional blink can be eliminated.
• In the CogLab demonstration, letters were used as targets. The target used can influence the duration of one’s attentional blink and whether the attentional blink even occurs. Complete the following tasks:
• Propose at least two other targets that could be used to induce the attentional blink.
• Predict the effect each of your suggested targets would have on the duration of one’s attentional blink as compared to the CogLab activity you completed.
• Explain the reasoning behind your predictions.
• Present and discuss at least three occupations in which workers’ performance could be adversely affected by attentional blink. Identify and explain the types of problems or mistakes that might occur in such occupations due to the attentional blink.
• Several years ago, some vehicle models came with a heads-up display (HUD). Instead of looking down at a panel on the dashboard, speed, distance traveled, fuel level, and time appeared to be displayed over the hood of the car. Discuss this design in terms of divided attention and attentional blink. Do you think the design was a good idea?

ART

Q1. Museums Virtual Tours Review

For this Essay, you will visit an art museum of your choice. You may visit one in person or take a virtual tour via the Internet. Below is a list of museums that offer virtual tours that you may want to review for this assignment. Please note that you are not limited to this list:
• Louvre
• National Gallery of Art
• The National Gallery
You may select a virtual tour from this list above. Please include the name and location of your museum in your introductory paragraph.
For this essay, write about two artworks from the periods: Renaissance, Baroque, Impressionist, or Post-Impressionist periods.
For each piece, address the following:
• Include the title, artist, date, medium, and scale.
• Describe the artwork.
• Describe the artist’s role in his or her society/community.
• What do you think is the artist’s message?
• What are the cultural significances of this piece?
• What historical elements are included in this piece?
Formatting: Your essay will be at least five pages in length and include the following:
• Title page (1 page)
• Written Essay (2 pages)
• Image(s) (1 page)
• References (1 page)
• Use Times New Roman 12- point font.
• Double space all lines, and indent the first line of each paragraph.
• Your title page should be correctly formatted with a Running Head and page number listed in the Header area.
• Include your title, name, and school centered on the title page.
• Your written essay should contain at least three paragraphs (including an introductory and conclusion).
• Your last page will have the word References centered at the top.
All sources used, including the museum, must be cited in APA Style and included on the reference page.

Q2. For example you following his news from the begin of the season
Hi there
I want someone to write for me about the score player Wayne Rooney. During this season, For example you following his news from the begin of the season till the end of it. I will give you some links that contained his most important news. I want it to be 4 pages double spaced. I will attach also a file that is for the order details.
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/01/30/19840852/rooney-closing-in-on-manchester-united-scoring-record?’
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/02/11/20255242/sooner-or-later-we-will-see-ronaldo-messi-and-rooney-in?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/02/17/20440712/rooney-out-for-at-least-a-month-with-knee-injury?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/69/transfer-zone/2016/02/18/20475302/rumors-man-utd-weighing-up-selling-rooney-to-china?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/03/08/21120782/hodgson-rooney-guaranteed-a-euro-2016-spot-but-not-as-a?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/04/24/22740182/rooney-fa-cup-glory-can-start-something-special-at-man-utd?

Q3. ETH 445 N Week 6 CASE STUDY ANALYSIS | Complete Solution
Examine the Case Study for your analysis about professional responsibilities and decision-making during a crisis called “Command at Sea.” In teams or partners, discuss the decision possibilities within the case study and write a report of your findings. Be sure to read and understand the case thoroughly.

Our Case Study:

The weather would be turning bad overnight, but late on a sunny afternoon in gentle seas, the Commanding Officer (the CO) had a fresh cup of coffee in hand and enjoyed what little was left of the day in his designated chair on the bridge. It was an older ship, but she could still perform in an award-winning way, even if she could not land helicopters like the newer ones. They had just secured a helicopter from “flight quarters.” The aircraft carrier had delivered the mail and some repair parts by lowering them by winch while still flying over the stern. The coffee was good, and all was well on board.
Most of the planned work for the day had been accomplished as well, and crewmembers not on watch had some time for themselves. A young seaman was getting his physical fitness training by lifting free weights with friends. Unexpectedly, the restraining collar on the barbell came loose and the weights on that end fell off–the heavy end came straight down on the seaman’s foot and broke some bones. After a quick check by Doc, a senior enlisted Hospital Corpsman, it was clear that the seaman needed a medical evacuation to the aircraft carrier, where higher levels of diagnosis and care were available. The CO would surely not be pleased!
Only the helicopter flight crew was certified to fly after dark, and twilight was coming soon. The seaman’s needs were beyond the capability of the medical staff on board. No further helicopter operations were scheduled for the day. The aircraft carrier was a significant flying time away, and it was unclear whether an unscheduled mission could be completed before dark. The weather conditions would be too bad for flying tomorrow–probably the next day as well. If the flight was to happen, the CO would need to arrange it with the Carrier Air Group Commander right away.
Meanwhile, the injured seaman was in much pain and in significant need of care. He had never flown in a helicopter and was afraid of flying. He had not received the training for being hoisted from the deck into a flying helicopter or training in emergency egress procedures, and the broken bones in his foot were causing lots of pain anyway.
A decision was needed, and there was little time to make it. If the medical evacuation mission were to be conducted, the conditions were less than great. Good advice was to be had from the Corpsman and others in the command, but the final assessment of the risks involved and the decision of what to do would rest with the CO alone. There was nothing else to be done on the ship for the injured seaman except to sedate him.

Q4. Plays are meant to be performed, rather than read | Complete Solution
Plays are meant to be performed, rather than read. The purpose of dramatic arts often extends far beyond the words written on a page; staging, lighting, costumes intonation, expression, and audience experience are all part of the experience of a theatrical production. To help develop your understanding of The Tempest and the cultural role of the dramatic arts, you will view a production of the play this week and need a two-page word document reflection to explain your viewing experience.

Below, please find several classic interpretations and modern adaptations of The Tempest:

Classic Interpretations:

For this assignment, you will view one of the above and write reflection that addresses the following:

Identify the performance that you have selected.
Describe the staging, lighting, costumes, and characters of the performance. How do these match or revise the written version of the play?
What type of mood and tone does the performance create? How?
What parts of the play are easier to understand through performance? What are some details that stood out through performance?
What does the performance suggest about the role of theater in contemporary culture?

Q5. Components of a Marketing Plan Assignment 2 | Complete Solution
Components of a Marketing Plan Part 2: Price, Promotion, Environment, and the Concept to Commercialization Process

Purpose of Assignment
The purpose of this assignment is to continue to have students place themselves in the role of a marketing research and planning team leader while completing the last half of the team’s project that was started in Week 3. Students will be researching and making decisions on price setting, promotion strategies, environmental forces/scanning, and steps to bringing their company’s product from concept to commercialization.

Assignment Steps
Resources: Marketing: Ch. 1: pg. 4-10; Ch. 3: pg. 72-92; Ch. 8: pg. 210-223; Ch. 10: pg. 274-281; Ch. 13: pg. 350-352; Chapter 17: pg. 472-475; Ch. 18: pg. 519-526; Ch. 19: pg. 556-558
Scenario: Using the same organization and product/service you used in the Week 3 learning team assignment and the same scenario, you will be presenting the following analyses to the board of directors and stakeholders. They will be using these analyses to make their final decision on how, and if, to launch your company’s new and unique product/service.

Develop a minimum 1,050-word analysis addressing the following:
• Conduct an environmental scan for your company focusing on which of the five external forces the company is likely to be impacted by and what actions they will need to take to overcome them.
• Select and describe the price strategy your company will use to launch its product/service. Why is that strategy the best choice and will it need to be adjusted over the duration of the Product Life Cycle (PLC)? Why or why not?
• Select four of the following methods and explain how they should be used by your company. Explain the reasoning why they align best with your target segment and product:
o Advertising
o Public relations
o Traditional Digital marketing
o New Digital marketing techniques (describe)
o Sales promotion
o Direct marketing
o Event marketing
o Outdoor
• Analyze how your company will implement the New-Product Development Process (seven stages) to bring your product/service from concept to commercialization.
Cite a minimum of three peer-reviewed sources.At least one source should be from the course materials and at least one source from the University Library.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Q6. Week 1: Personality Analysis and Job Consideration Report | Complete Solution
Week 1: Personality Analysis and Job Consideration Report

This document contains the template you will use to complete this assignment. Save the file by adding your last name to the filename:
Week1_Personality_Analysis_and_Job_Consideration_Report_Template.docx _Smith.docx.
Be sure to proofread and spell-check your work before you submit it.
There are FOUR parts to this assignment.
Part 1: Analyzing the Results
Reflect on your results from 16 Personalities Assessment and compare them to the Keirsey Temperament Sorter. (12 points)
16 Personalities Assessment Results
1. What were your specific results according to the assessment?
• 2. What are the strengths and weaknesses associated with your results?

Turn to the Keirsey Temperament Sorter.
Keirsey Temperament Sorter Comparison
3. Refer to Exhibit 3.5 in your text. What is your two-letter equivalent in comparison to your 16 Personalities Assessment results?
• 4. According to Exhibit 3.6 in your text, what characteristics are associated with your Keirsey’s temperament type?
Make the link of your personality to the job market.
Putting This All Together
• 5. Provide three examples of instances where you can, or have, demonstrated any of these skills in your professional life.

• 6. How can you utilize this knowledge into your job search or current employment situation (if you are already established within your chosen field)?

Part 2: Describing the Ideal Job
Describe your ideal job. (6 points)
My Ideal Job
In my ideal job, I would be . . . (state what you see yourself doing as part of your ideal job)

Part 3: Linking Your Goals to the Job
Identify your one-, two-, and five-year career goals; create a list of possible employers of choice in your career field (minimum of three); possible job titles for your one-, two-, and five-year goals (one for each goal); and current salary ranges for those job titles. (57 points)
Career Goals
Career Goals Potential Employers (minimum of one per stated yearly career goal) Possible Job Titles (minimum of three per stated yearly career goal) Current Salary Ranges (for each job title)
My one-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)
1.1.
2.1
3.1.
2.1
3.1
My two-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)

1.1.
2.
3.1.
2
3.
My five-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)
1. 1.
2.
3. 1.
2.
3.

Part 4: Reflection Summary
Provide a summary of what you have learned about yourself and the characteristics of your dream job as a result of the reflection and research you have done as part of this assignment (minimum of 100 words). (15 points)
What I Have Learned

Q7. CSIS 100 Quiz 4 Liberty University 2018
CSIS 100 Quiz 4 Liberty University 2018, full quest answers and solutions list. All 100% correct answers! All questions are from 2018 if more than a year away they could be updated but they stay in the same general format and based on the same knowledge.

Q8. 1.What is the difference between quoting, paraphrasing, and summarizing?
Read the Quoting, Paraphrasing, and Summarizing article provided by the Purdue Online Writing Lab (OWL) and the Academic Misconduct Policy (policy 2.3.11), and answer the following questions in essay format. (https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/563/01/) (http://www.maricopa.edu/publicstewardship/governance/adminregs/students/2_3.php#academic)
1.What is the difference between quoting, paraphrasing, and summarizing?
2.What type of citation is required for each?
3.Why is properly citing sources important?
4.What are the possible consequences of improperly citing references?

Q9. Function and determining the type of HRIS application necessary
HR Technology Case Scenario: Three-Stage Project
Objective |Guidelines for All Papers |Case Scenario: Fictitious Business Description |Grading Rubrics

Objective
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Apply the theories reviewed in class related to analyzing an HR function and determining the type of HRIS application necessary to automate and create a strategic alliance for this HR department. Students will have an opportunity to apply theoretical concepts to a professional business application.
Guidelines for All Papers
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• This project is completed in three stages.
• The first two assignments (Stages I and II of the project) are worth 100 points each.
• The final project (Stage III) is worth 280 points.
• Stage I is due Week 2.
• Stage II is due Week 5.
• Stage III, the Final Project, is due Week 7.
• Theory : There should be theory provided throughout all stages of this business plan to substantiate decisions made. All theory must be cited following APA format guidelines (APA Manual, fifth or sixth edition). Anything copied word for word must be inside quotes and properly cited in text and on the reference list according to APA format guidelines. Any information that is not your own thought (theory) must also be cited. There should be no more than 5% of quoted material (information copied word for word) in any of these three assignments.
• Introduction : The purpose is to (a) introduce the subject and its importance, and (b) preview the main ideas and the order in which they will be covered.
• Conclusion : summarizes the main ideas and major support points from the body of your paper. This is not simply rephrasing the introduction or reviewing what was shared in the paper, but also providing a closing paragraph for the reader.
• All papers must follow the following formatting guidelines.
o Double spaced
o One-inch margins (on all sides)
o Times New Roman or Arial font, size 12
o Spelling, grammar, punctuation, and sentence structure should be correct.
o The title page includes (1) title of the document, (2) your name, and (3)DeVry University , all centered and double spaced.
o Headers are helpful throughout the paper to ensure that all assignment criteria are included, and they help with topical flow and keep the paper organized.
Case Scenario: Fictitious Business Description
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Castle’s Family Restaurant has eight restaurants in the northern California area with approximately 300–340 employees. Most of the employees are part time, with approximately 40% of them full time. The operations manager, Jay Morgan, also acts as the HR manager and travels to each location each week to take care of scheduling, recruiting, hiring, and answering questions for the employees as needed. He also takes care of payroll using an Excel spreadsheet and has a computer application to print payroll checks. Mr. Morgan approaches you, an HR consultant, for a proposal. Due to the increase in gasoline costs, he would like to greatly reduce his travel time for visiting each location each week and wonders if there is anything you can suggest to him to help him complete his HR tasks in a cost-effective manner. He hopes there is some way he can do part of his HR tasks from his office instead of traveling to each location.
Stage I (due Week 2)
Using the case scenario above, provide an assessment of the current business. Describe the company in terms of size, type of business, and so on. Explain why you think an HRIS is needed. As the owner of your own HR consulting firm, write a 2–4-page paper that includes the following paper headings, which are denoted in all caps.
• INTRODUCTION: provides sufficient background on the topic and previews major points.
• BUSINESS ASSESSMENT: the name, type, and size of business you’re assisting. Make assumptions in your business description using theory as needed and include the information in your paper for this case scenario. These assumptions would include background about a restaurant work environment and industry.
• IDENTIFIED PROBLEMS: Review all HR problems identified. I recommend making a list of HR functions that you believe could be more efficient based on the information provided in the scenario. From that list, choose one HR function for analysis, which will be the main focus for your business plan. You want to explain why you chose that HR function as your first item, and substantiate with theory.
• HRIS NEEDS ASSESSMENT: Explain how automation might create a more efficient process from the HR function chosen. How might an HRIS application assist the business?
• CONCLUSION: The conclusion is logical, flows from the body of the paper, and reviews the major points.

Q10. 1), you think your company should be offering internships. With all
Persuasive Communication
Case Assignment 2 pertains to the Purdue’s OWL site on memos (2013), Bowman (2002), Beason (2001), and Reddy (2010).
As a manager at your company (the same one we used in Case 1), you think your company should be offering internships. With all the colleges in the Los Angeles area, you would have a large group of people who should be interested in an internship program. In addition, your company could use the extra help and creativity of about-to-graduate college students.
You recently read about Nickerson PME1, a 10-person Boston area marketing and public relations firm. Owner Lisa Nickerson offers a year-round internship program. She calls participants “associates” to make them feel less like “lowly interns” and more like members of the staff. Her interns receive course credit and work experience, but do not earn a paycheck. Instead, Nickerson teaches them to perform tasks like preparing press releases and promoting the company to clients. The arrangement results in valuable help around the office without draining the budget. Nickerson says, “If you take the time to put together a good program, you don’t have to pay the student. An abundance of students want that type of hands-on client experience.”
You believe that Los Angeles college students would be eager to gain experience at a real company, and fill in their résumés with solid work experience. The problem is that your boss resists internship programs because he has heard that interns are really employees who must be paid. He told you in a recent conversation that he is unsure of the fine line that separates employees from interns, and he doesn’t want to violate any labor laws.
Write a persuasive memo message to Dick Elders, Senior General Manager of your company. Explain to him how interns are different from employees. Use the Internet to research the topic, and learn what six requirements help the government determine whether an intern is a paid employee. Use persuasive strategies you have studied, but stay focused on the conviction that interns do not have to be paid as employees. You are on a first-name basis with Dick.
1This is a fictitious case.
Assignment Expectations
In your memo, you are expected to apply the persuasion concepts to demonstrate your ability to craft an effective persuasive memo. Please use proper English. Sentences must be properly constructed and free of grammatical and typographical errors. No citations are needed in the memo.
Write a summary explaining why you used the principles you used in writing your memo. Your explanation should make use of at least two sources from the required readings. It should be analytical and sufficiently rigorous to demonstrate synthesis of the concepts. The summary is to be prepared as an academic essay. Content should be clearly presented with a logical flow. Formal citations are required, along with a formal bibliography.
Case General Expectations
In the Case Assignments, students will assume the role of a Manager in Employee Communications at a large service firm, such as a bank, or an advertising or consulting firm. Students will assume this role throughout the Case Assignments and be challenged with different scenarios, requiring written and verbal communication.
Formal citations and a bibliography are required unless otherwise stated.

ECONOMICS.
Q1. ECON Week 8 Research Paper
Write a paper 5-7 pages in length with 12 point font and one inch margins. In addition to drawing on readings assigned or recommended in this course, you should cite an additional 3-5 academic sources.
For this project you will need to identify a nation (China, Venezuela, Saudi Arabia, etc..) or other political economy (European Union, etc…) of interest. For the country of your choice, make a thesis assertion which you will defend with critical analysis applying a socio-economic theory, law, model or policy, backed by research.
The following paragraph is taken from page 5-23 of the Political Military Analysis Handbook dated April 20, 2006.
While economics or any other single political military analytical system cannot tell the whole story, its pervasive impact on domestic politics, foreign policy, defense policy, and diplomacy dictates its prominent place in the analyst’s repertoire of tools. Decisions always incur costs, and in today’s intricate international system, they often have both an economic impetus and an economic impact. As such, foreign policy can neither be understood nor predicted without consideration of the economic dimension (p. 5-23, Political Military Analysis Handbook).

*****Notes to Tutor*****
Quality and Original work needed.
No plagiarism, APA format, 12 font, Times New Roman, 3-4 scholary references, 1-3 other references, 5-7 pages (not counting the cover & references pages, but they are needed as well).

Q2. ECON Week 5 Primary Report
Choose a country in South America; Find the GDP/GNI per capita ranking for your chosen country and then do independent research to craft a portrait of its economic state, some analysis of the influences on its relative prosperity, or lack thereof, and give a sense of its future economic prospects. Write a 2-3 page report on your chosen subject nation.

***Notes to Tutor***
APA format, 12 font, Times New Roman, 2-3 pages (cover & reference pages dont count but are needed)
Readings of the week are provided, so you have an understanding what was covered during this week but it not needed for the report.
Required Readings:
• Diversity Amid Globalization: Chapter 4 (Latin America)
• Miller, M. (2001, July). The poor man’s capitalist.New York Times Magazine. (Library link)
(Note: This is a dated article, except for the unpleasant reality that property rights have progressed little and in many nations regressed over the past two decades.)
• Boseley, S. (2016). Heartbreak and hardship for women in Brazil as Zika crisis casts deep shadow. The Guardian.
• OECD. (2010). Chile signs up as first OECD member in South America. OECD.
(Note: Also scan the country data for Chile and other South American Economies.)
• McParland, K. (2016). How socialism turned oil-rich Venezuela into a basket case. Canada: The National.
Recommended Readings
• Transparency International, the Global Coalition Against Corruption. (2016). 2015 Corruption Perceptions Index. TIGCAC.
(Note: Click on What We Do, then scan Our Research.)
• Central Intelligence Agency. (n.d.). World fact book: South America. CIA.
• Heritage Foundation in Partnership with the Wall Street Journal. (2016). Index of Economic Freedom. Heritage Foundation.
• U.S. Department of State. (n.d.). Diplomacy in Action. USDOS.
(See Countries and Regions at this link.)

Q3. ECON Week 6 Primary Report
Develop a comparative analysis of the growth patterns and growth strategies of India and China, bringing in the question as to whether or not democracy and demographics will give India an edge. The resources on the Required Readings list should give you a good foundation for this report, which should be of approximately three pages in length.

Notes to tutor:
APA format, size 12 font, Times New Roman, three pages (cover sheet and references do not count but need to be included)
Required readings do not need to be references, this just provides you the tutor an idea of what was covered during this week.
Required Readings:
• Diversity Amid Globalization: Chapter 12 (South Asia)
• Bureau of South and Central Asian Affairs. (2015). U.S. Relations With India. U.S. Department of State.
• Matsumura, M. (2016). Democracy as Economic Strategy India’s Strength over China.Carnegie Council – Policy innovations.
• Fox, J. (2015). Why ‘The Population Bomb’ Bombed. Bloomberg, View.
Copyright permission applied for.
• Zhong, R. (2016). India’s Economic Growth May Have Already Peaked, RBI Paper Says. Wall Street Journal.
Copyright permission applied for.
Recommended Readings
• World Bank. (2016). Urbanization Reviews. World Bank.
(Note: Urbanization is a global population megatrend worth noting. Globalization appears to accelerate urbanization. Scan the World Bank Review for India, and keep the link handy for China and Africa in the coming weeks.)

Q4. ECO 561 Final Exam Guide New 2018…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK

1. Which of the following have substantially equivalent effects on a nation’s volume of exports and imports?
Exchange rate appreciation and domestic deflation
Exchange rate depreciation and domestic inflation
Exchange rate appreciation and a decrease in the domestic supply of money
Exchange rate depreciation and domestic deflation
2. Which of the following statements best describes the 12 Federal Reserve Banks?
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic goal is to earn profits for their owners.
They are privately owned and privately controlled central banks whose basic goal is to provide an ample and orderly market for U.S. Treasury securities.
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic function is to minimize the risks in commercial banking in order to make it a reasonably profitable industry.
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic goal is to control the money supply and interest rates in promoting the general economic welfare
3. Buyers will opt out of markets in which:
there are only foreign sellers
there is inadequate information about sellers and their products
there are significant negative externalities
standardized products are being produced
4. Pure monopolists may obtain economic profits in the long run because:
of advertising
marginal revenue is constant as sales increase
of rising average fixed costs
of barriers to entry
5. All else equal, a large decline in the real interest rate will shift the:
investment demand curve rightward
investment demand curve leftward
investment schedule upward
investment schedule downward
6. In order for mutually beneficial trade to occur between two otherwise isolated nations:
each nation must be able to produce at least one good relatively cheaper than the other
each nation must face constant costs in the production of the good it exports
one nation’s production must be labor-intensive while the other nation’s production is capital-intensive
each nation must be able to produce at least one good absolutely cheaper than the other
7. If the Federal Reserve System buys government securities from commercial banks and the public:
the money supply will contract
commercial bank reserves will decline
it will be easier to obtain loans at commercial banks
commercial bank reserves will be unaffected
8. Normal profit is:
the average profitability of an industry over the preceding 10 years
determined by subtracting explicit costs from total revenue
the return to the entrepreneur when economic profits are zero
determined by subtracting implicit costs from total revenue
9. The term “recession” describes a situation where:
an economy’s ability to produce is destroyed
output and living standards decline
inflation rates exceed normal levels
Government takes a less active role in economic matters
10. If an unintended increase in business inventories occurs at some level of GDP, then GDP:
is too low for equilibrium
entails a rate of aggregate expenditures in excess of the rate of aggregate production
is too high for equilibrium
may be either above or below the equilibrium output
11. The fact that international specialization and trade based on comparative advantage can increase world output is demonstrated by the reality that:
a nation’s production possibilities and trading possibilities lines coincide
the production possibilities curves of any two nations are identical
a nation’s trading possibilities line lies to the right of its production possibilities line
a nation’s production possibilities line lies to the right of its trading possibilities line
12. In the theory of comparative advantage, a good should be produced in that nation where:
its cost is least in terms of alternative goods that might otherwise be produced
its absolute cost in terms of real resources used is least
its absolute money cost of production is least
the production possibilities line lies further to the right than the trading possibilities line
13. Why are economists concerned about inflation?
Inflation lowers the standard of living for people whose income does not increase as fast as the price level
Real GDP is necessarily falling when there is inflation
Inflation generally causes unemployment rates to rise
Inflation increases the value of peoples’ saving and encourages overspending on goods and services
14. Two major virtues of the market system are that it:
results in an equitable personal distribution of income and always maintains full employment
results in price level stability and a fair personal distribution of income
allocates resources efficiently and allows economic freedom
eliminates discrimination and minimizes environmental pollution
15. Suppose you have a limited money income and you are purchasing products A and B, whose prices happen to be the same. To maximize your utility, you should purchase A and B in such amounts that:
the income and substitution effects associated with each are equal
their marginal and total utilities are proportionate
their total utilities are the same
their marginal utilities are the same
16. Macroeconomics approaches the study of economics from the viewpoint of:
governmental units
the entire economy
individual firms
the operation of specific product and resource markets
17. Mrs. Arnold is spending all her money income by buying bottles of soda and bags of pretzels in such amounts that the marginal utility of the last bottle is 60 utils and the marginal utility of the last bag is 30 utils. The prices of soda and pretzels are $.60 per bottle and $.40 per bag respectively. It can be concluded that:
Mrs. Arnold should spend more on soda and less on pretzels
Mrs. Arnold is buying soda and pretzels in the utility-maximizing amounts
the two commodities are substitute goods
Mrs. Arnold should spend more on pretzels and less on soda
18. The simple circular flow model shows that:
households are on the selling side of the resource market and on the buying side of the product market.
businesses are on the selling side of both product and resource markets.
households are on the buying side of both product and resource markets.
businesses are on the buying side of the product market and on the selling side of the resource market.
19. Assume the reserve ratio is 25 percent and Federal Reserve Banks buy $4 million of U.S. securities from the public, which deposits this amount into checking accounts. As a result of these transactions, the supply of money is:
directly increased by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by an additional $16 million.
not directly affected, but the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by $12 million.
directly increased by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by an additional $12 million.
directly reduced by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is decreased by an additional $12 million.
20. As output increases, total variable cost:
increases at a constant rate
increases at a decreasing rate and then at an increasing rate
increases continuously at a decreasing rate
increases more rapidly than does total cost
21.The two basic markets shown by the simple circular flow model are:
product and resource
free and controlled
household and business
capital goods and consumer goods
22. Countercyclical discretionary fiscal policy calls for:
surpluses during both recessions and periods of demand-pull inflation
deficits during both recessions and periods of demand-pull inflation
surpluses during recessions and deficits during periods of demand-pull inflation
deficits during recessions and surpluses during periods of demand-pull inflation
23. Because the federal government typically provides disaster relief to farmers, many farmers do not buy crop insurance even through it is federally subsidized. This illustrates:
the moral hazard problem
the special interest effect
the adverse selection problem
logrolling
24. A monopolistically competitive industry combines elements of both competition and monopoly. The monopoly element results from:
the likelihood of collusion
mutual interdependence
product differentiation
high entry barriers
25 Research for industrially advanced countries indicates that:
the more independent the central bank, the higher the average annual rate of unemployment.
the more independent the central bank, the higher the average annual rate of inflation
the more independent the central bank, the lower the average annual rate of inflation
there is no relationship between the degree of independence of a country’s central bank and its inflation rate.
26. The business cycle depicts:
short-run fluctuations in output and employment
the phases a business goes through from when it first opens to when it finally closes
fluctuations in the general price level
the evolution of technology over time
27. The primary gain from international trade is:
increased employment in the domestic export sector
increased employment in the domestic import sector
more goods than would be attainable through domestic production alone
tariff revenue
28. Contractionary fiscal policy is so named because it:
necessarily reduces the size of government
is aimed at reducing aggregate demand and thus achieving price stability
involves a contraction of the nation’s money supply
is expressly designed to expand real GDP
29. If the prices of all goods and services rose, but the quantity produced remained unchanged, what would happen to nominal and real GDP?
Real GDP would rise, but nominal GDP would be unchanged
Nominal and real GDP would both be unchanged
Nominal GDP would rise, but real GDP would be unchanged
Nominal and real GDP would both rise
30. Which of the following will generate a demand for country X’s currency in the foreign exchange market?
Charitable contributions by country X’s citizens to citizens of developing nations
The imports of country X
The desire of foreigners to buy stocks and bonds of firms in country X
Travel by citizens of country X in other countries

Q5. ECO 365 Final Exam New…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1) Which of the following statements is true about a downward-sloping demand curve that is a straight line?
The slope remains the same, but elasticity falls as you move down the demand curve.
The slope and the elasticity fall as you move down the demand curve.
The slope remains the same, but elasticity rises as you move down the demand curve.
The slope and elasticity are the same at all points.
2) The best example of positive externality is:
Roller coaster rides
Pollution
Education
Alcoholic beverages
3) Suppose that college tuition is higher this year than last and that more students are enrolled in college this year than last year. Based on this information, we can best conclude that:
despite the increase in price, quantity demanded rose due to some other factors changing.
this situation has nothing to do with the law of demand.
the law of demand is invalid.
the demand for a college education is positively sloped.
4) Suppose foreign shrimp prices drop by 32 percent and importers gain a 90 percent market share. From this information, what would economists strongly suspect about this industry?
The large sales of foreigners indicate they are better strategic business bargainers than Americans are.
Foreign sellers probably are colluding on price to maximize profits.
Americans have a comparative advantage in shrimping.
Foreigners have a comparative advantage in shrimping.
5) The theory that quantity supplied and price are positively related, other things constant, is referred to as the law of:
supply
opportunity cost
profit maximization
demand
6) At one time, sea lions were depleting the stock of steelhead trout. One idea to scare sea lions away from the Washington coast was to launch fake killer whales, which are predators of sea lions. The cost of making the first whale is $16,000 ($5,000 for materials and $11,000 for the mold). The mold can be reused to make additional whales, and so additional whales cost $5,000 each. Based on these numbers, the production of fake killer whales exhibits:
Increasing returns to scale
Decreasing returns to scale
Diminishing marginal product
Constant returns to scale
7) Using 100 workers and 10 machines, a firm can produce 10,000 units of output; using 250 workers and 25 machines, the firm produces 21,000 units of output. These facts are best explained by:
Economies of scale
Diseconomies of scale
Diminishing marginal productivity
Economies of scope
8) Cartels are organizations that:
Coordinate the output and pricing decisions of a group of firms.
Use predatory pricing to monopolize industries.
Keep markets contestable.
Encourage price wars.
9) Price elasticity of demand is the:
Percentage change in quantity of a good demanded divided by the percentage change in the price of that good.
Change in the quantity of a good demanded divided by the change in the price of that good.
Percentage change in price of that good divided by the percentage change in the quantity of that good demanded.
Change in the price of a good divided by the change in the quantity of that good demanded.
10) For a monopolist, the price of a product:
Equals the marginal revenue.
Equals the marginal cost.
Is less than the marginal revenue.
Exceeds the marginal revenue.
11) A perfectly competitive firm facing a price of $50 decides to produce 500 widgets. Its marginal cost of producing the last widget is $50. If the firm’s goal is to maximize profit, it should:
Produce more widgets
Produce fewer widgets
Continue producing 500 widgets
Shut down
12) Microeconomics is the study of:
business cycles
a firm’s pricing policies
unemployment
inflation
13) When Ross Perot ran for president as a third party candidate in 1992, he argued that free trade with Mexico would result in massive job losses in the United States because Mexican wages were so low. Which of the following is the best explanation of why few economists agreed with Perot?
Economists did not believe any jobs would be lost in the United States.
Economics believed that the U.S. unemployment would rise.
Although economics predicted that unemployment would rise, the increased profits of corporations would raise stock prices enough to compensate for the lost jobs.
Although economists believed that in some areas the United States would lose jobs, they expected the United States would gain jobs in other areas.
14) Suppose OPEC announces it will increase production. Using supply and demand analysis to predict the effect of increased production on equilibrium price and quantity, the first step is to show the:
demand curve shifting to the left.
demand curve shifting to the right.
supply curve shifting to the left.
supply curve shifting to the right
15) The law of diminishing marginal productivity implies that the marginal product of a variable input:
Eventually declines
Is constant
Never declines
Always declines
16) In 1997, the federal government reinstated a 10 percent excise tax on airline tickets. The industry tried to pass on the full 10 percent ticket tax to consumers but was able to boost fares by only 4 percent. From this you can conclude that the:
Supply of airline tickets is perfectly inelastic.
Supply elasticity of airline tickets is less than infinity.
Demand for airline tickets is perfectly inelastic.
Demand elasticity for airline tickets is greater than zero in absolute value.
17) Graphically, a change in price causes:
a movement along a given supply curve, not a shift.
the supply curve to shift.
both supply and demand to shift.
the demand curve to shift
18) Microeconomics and macroeconomics are:
Not related because they are taught separately.
Interrelated because both are often taught by the same instructors.
Interrelated because what happens in the economy as a whole is based on individual decisions.
Virtually identical, though one is much more difficult than the other.
19) Suppose people freely choose to spend 40 percent of their income on health care, but then the government decides to tax 40 percent of that person’s income to provide the same level of coverage as before. What can be said about deadweight loss in each case?
Taxing income results in deadweight loss, and purchasing health care on one’s own doesn’t result in deadweight loss.
There is no difference between goods that are purchased in the market in either case.
There is no difference because the total spending remains the same and the health care purchased remains the same.
Taxing income results in less deadweight loss because government knows better what health care coverage is good for society.
20) Mr. Woodward’s cabinet shop is experiencing rapid growth in sales. As sales have increased, Mr. Woodward has found it necessary to hire more workers. However, he has observed that doubling the number of workers has less than doubled his output. What is the likely explanation?
The law of diminishing marginal utility
The law of demand
The law of diminishing marginal productivity
The law of supply
21) The DeBeers company is a profit-maximizing monopolist that exercises monopoly power in the distribution of diamonds. If the company earns positive economic profits this year, the price of diamonds will:
Exceed both the marginal cost and the average total cost of diamonds.
Exceed the marginal cost of diamonds but equal to the average total cost of diamonds.
Be equal to the average total cost of diamonds.
Be equal to the marginal cost of diamonds
22) Oligopoly is probably the best market for technological change because:
The typical oligopoly keeps price very close to average total cost because it fears the entry of new rivals if its profits are excessively high.
The typical oligopoly has the funds to carry out research and development and believe that its competitors are innovating, which motivates it to conduct research and development.
Research and development occurs only if government subsidizes such activity, and government tends to subsidize oligopolies.
The typical oligopoly lacks the funds to carry out research and development and therefore will use basic research from universities
23) A monopoly firm is different from a perfectly competitive firm in that:
There are many substitutes for a monopolist’s product whereas there are no substitutes for a competitive firm’s product.
A monopolist’s demand curve is perfectly inelastic whereas a perfectly competitive firm’s demand curve is perfectly elastic.
A monopolist can influence market price whereas a perfectly competitive firm cannot.
A competitive firm has a u-shaped average cost curve whereas a monopolist does not.
24) Many call centers that provide telephone customer services for U.S. companies have been established in India, but few or none have been established in China. Why?
Indian labor costs are equal to Chinese labor costs.
Chinese labor lacks the specific language skills needed to make call centers profitable in China.
China is at a more advanced stage of economic development than India.
China lacks the political infrastructure to support call centers.
25) Other things held constant in a competitive labor market, if workers negotiate a contract in which the employer agrees to pay an hourly of $17.85 while the market equilibrium hour rate is $16.50, the:
Quantity of workers supplied will exceed the quantity of workers demanded.
Demand for labor will increase until the equilibrium wage rate is $17.85.
Supply of labor will decrease until the equilibrium wage rate is $17.85.
Quantity of workers demanded will exceed the quantity of workers supplied.
26) Alex is playing his music at full volume in his dorm room. The other people living on his floor found this to be a nuisance, but Alex doesn’t care. Alex’s music playing is an example of:
Positive externality
Negative externality
Pareto externality
Normative externality
27) In 2011, the Department of Justice sued AT&T to block its merger with the cell phone service provider T-Mobile. To defend itself against the charge, AT&T argued that the:
Merger would improve and expand cellular service to consumers.
Government had guaranteed it exclusive control of cell phone service.
Combined company could raise prices, allowing it to survive in a rapidly changing market.
Government had no authority to block mergers in the telephone industry
28) A reduction in the supply of labor will cause wages to:
Decrease and employment to decrease.
Decrease and employment to increase.
Increase and employment to decrease.
Increase and employment to increase.
29) There are many restaurants in the city of Raleigh, each one offering food and services that differ from those of its competitors. There is also free entry of sellers into the market, and each seller serves a very small fraction of the total number of meals served each day. The restaurant industry in Raleigh is best characterized as:
A pure monopoly.
Perfectly competitive.
Monopolistically competitive.
An oligopoly
30) Strategic decision making is most important in:
Oligopolistic markets.
Competitive markets.
Monopolistically competitive markets.
Monopolistic markets.

Q6. ECO 365 Final Exam Guide New…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1.Because you can only obtain more of one good by giving up some of another good, the shape of a production possibility curve is _______________.
downward-sloping
perfectly vertical
perfectly horizontal
upward-sloping
2. Refer to the table shown. The average product when eight workers are employed is _6____
Number of workers Total Output
1. 4
2. 10
3. 18
4. 28
5. 35
6. 41
7. 45
8. 48
9. 50
10. 49
3. A resource is said to have a comparative advantage if
it is equally suited to the production of all goods.
its suitability to the production of one good changes as it produces more of that good.
its suitability to the production of one good does not change as it produces more of that good.
it is better suited to the production of one good than to the production of an alternative good.
4 Refer to the graph shown. Initially, the market is in equilibrium with price equal to $3 and quantity equal to 100. Government imposes a tax on suppliers of $1 per unit. The effect of the tax is to
lower the price consumers pay from $3 to $2.
lower the price sellers keep after paying the tax.
raise the price consumers pay from $3 to $4.(Not confirm)
raise the price sellers keep after paying the tax.
5 Refer to the table shown. Diminishing marginal productivity begins when the
fourth worker is hired.
sixth worker is hired.
third worker is hired.
fifth worker is hired
6 Refer to the graph shown. If this monopolistically competitive firm maximizes profit, it will
charge $45 per dress.
charge $85 per dress.
charge $78 per dress.
shut down because it cannot cover its opportunity costs
7 The price of a ticket to a rock concert is set at $35. All the tickets for the concert sell out 1 hour after they go on sale and there are still 1,000 fans who want to buy tickets. It follows that
the quantity of tickets demanded is equal to the quantity supplied at the $35 price.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is less than $35.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is more than $35.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is $35.
8 Which of the following statements is true?
Many different production processes can be economically efficient, but only the method that involves the lowest possible cost is technically efficient.
Many different production processes can be technically efficient, but only the method that involves the lowest possible cost is economically efficient.
There are many production processes that are both technically and economically efficient, but only one of these involves the lowest possible cost.
There is only one production process that is technically efficient, and this process is also economically efficient.
9 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: Samsung and Sony become partners in a flat screen manufacturing company.
Joint venture
Conglomerate
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
10 Suppose a firm finds that an additional dollar spent on labor increases output more than does an additional dollar spent on machines. Under these conditions, the firm
should substitute machines for labor if it wants to increase economic efficiency
is economically efficient
is technically efficient
should substitute labor for machines if it wants to increase economic efficiency
11 Economists and laypeople see the pros and cons of international trade in different ways. Which of the following is one of those ways?
Laypeople enjoy the benefits of trade in terms of lower consumer prices.
Laypeople recognize that the United States has a comparative advantage in services.
Laypeople tend to think of foreign trade only in terms of manufactured goods.
Laypeople believe in the law of one price and economists do not.
12 The morel is a prized mushroom that is often abundant in the Western United States in years after forest fires. Suppose two companies are buying morels from workers willing to find them. One company offers to pay workers $5.00 per pound, and the other company will pay workers only $4.00 per pound. Economists would say that
the lower-paying company will attract the more creative and innovative pickers and the higher-paying company will attract the others.
this situation violates the law of one price and is not likely to persist.
the higher-paying company will attract the more creative and innovative pickers and the lower-paying company will attract the others.
the company willing to pay only $4.00 has a comparative advantage in selling morels.
13 Which of the following is the best example of a macroeconomic externality?
One person saving less without considering the effect on their retirement needs
One person starting a business without knowing whether the goods will sell
Many people saving more without considering the effect on unemployment
One person spending more in order to help stimulate the economy
14 If MR < MC, a monopolist should:
maintain the same level of production.
stop producing.
decrease production.
increase production.
15 Opponents of government intervention in the economy argue that externalities
may not be effectively corrected by the government.
are themselves the inevitable result of government policies.
do not create problems for the model.
should be corrected with regulations rather than subsidies.
16 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: IBP meat processing firm buys American Cattle, a very large cattle ranch.
Joint venture
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
Conglomerate
17 Refer to the graph shown. At which point is elasticity zero?
B
D
C
A
18 A Wall Street Journal headline reads: “Cigar Shortage Draws New Brands into Market.” The shortage resulted from a renewed interest in smoking cigars. What best describes the facts behind the headline?
Price is too low, quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied.
The cigar market is in equilibrium.
Price is too low, demand exceeds supply.
A shift in supply has equilibrated supply and demand.
19. Refer to the graph shown. If hamburger dinners are produced by a perfectly competitive industry with a market demand D:
price will equal marginal cost.
output will be the same as it would be under monopoly.
price will equal $6.
price will be greater than marginal revenue.
20 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: Golf Smith, a golf supply retailer buys its competitor, Vango golf.
Horizontal merger
Conglomerate
Joint venture
Vertical merger
21 According to the text, Microeconomics, Colander (2013), economics is the study of how
government policies can be used to meet individuals’ wants and desires.
human beings coordinate their wants and desires.
scarce resources are allocated to their most productive uses.
governments allocate resources while facing constraints.
22 Oligopoly is characterized by
low market concentration.
inability to set price.
no barriers to entry.
few sellers.
23 When Ross Perot ran for president as a third party candidate in 1992, he argued that free trade with Mexico would result in massive job losses in the United States because Mexican wages were so low. Which of the following is the best explanation for why few economists agreed with Perot?
Although economists agreed that in some areas the United States would lose jobs, they expected that the United States would gain jobs in other areas.
Economists believed that the U.S. unemployment rate would rise.
Although economists predicted that unemployment would rise, the increased profits of corporations would raise stock prices enough to compensate for the lost jobs.
Economists did not believe that any jobs would be lost in the United States
24 Refer to the graph shown. The figure shows the demand and supply curves for eggs and shows two equilibrium points, E1 and E2. An increase in demand from D1 to D2would cause
price to decline from $1.25 to $1.00 a dozen and a shortage of 2,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to rise from $1.00 to $1.25 a dozen and a surplus of 2,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to rise from $1.00 to $1.25 a dozen and equilibrium quantity to be 3,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to remain at $1.00 a dozen and a shortage of 2,000 dozen eggs per week
25 Germany restricts the use of nonrefillable bottles and cans. The European Union argues that the rules aren’t just protecting the environment; they also are protecting German beverage makers from competition. The EU sees Germany’s environmentalism as _____________________.
a quota
a tariff
a regulatory trade restriction
an embargo
26 Oligopoly is probably the best market for technological change because
funds for research and development are available in an oligopoly due to innovation, which motivates the need for research and development.
the typical oligopoly lacks the funds for research and development and therefore will use basic research from universities.
pricing within the typical oligopoly tends to be very close to average total cost because of the entry of new rivals if its profits are excessively high.
research and development occurs only if government subsidizes such activity, and government tends to subsidize oligopolies
27 George Davis and Michael Wohlgenant estimate that for every 1 percent increase in the price of Christmas trees, quantity demanded falls by 0.6 percent. The demand for Christmas trees is __________________.
perfectly inelastic
inelastic
elastic
unit elastic
28 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: A tobacco producer buys a carbonated beverage plant.
Joint venture
Conglomerate
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
29 Suppose the minimum possible price of constructing homes is $50 per square foot. As a result of a sharp drop in the demand for home construction, the equilibrium price of home construction falls to $40 per square foot. Assuming the home construction industry is perfectly competitive and there are no specialized inputs, firms will
exit the industry, and the price will remain at $40 in the long run.
enter the industry as the price rises above $40 in the long run.
exit the industry, and the price will rise above $40 in the long run.
exit the industry, and the price will fall below $40 in the long run.
30 Refer to the table shown. At what level of employment is the marginal product of labor seven?
7
5
2
4

Q7. Case Study 2: Cases Analysis of Risk, Uncertainty and Managing Incentives
Case Study 2: Cases Analysis of Risk, Uncertainty and Managing Incentives
Select a company of your choice, any company but Southwest Airlines, and write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:
Evaluate a company’s recent (with in the last year) actions dealing with risk and uncertainty.
Offer advice for improving risk management.
Examine an adverse selection problem your company is facing and recommend how it should minimize its negative impact on transactions.
Determine the ways your company is dealing with the moral hazard problem and suggest best practices used in the industry to deal with it.
Identify a principal-agent problem in your company and evaluate the tools it uses to align incentives and improve profitability.
Examine the organizational structure of your company and suggests ways it can be changed to improve the overall profitability.
Use at least five (5) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: One of your references regarding your should have been published within the last 6 months. Note: Wikipedia does not qualify as an academic resource.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

Q8. ECO 372 Week 4 Individual Federal Reserve Presentation
ECO 372 Week 4 Individual Federal Reserve Presentation(13 slides)

Q9. ECO 365 Week 4 Team Assignment The Economics Of Labor Markets
ECO 365 Week 4 Team Assignment The Economics of Labor Markets(15 slides )

Q10. ECO 365 Week 3 Current Market Conditions Competitive Analysis
ECO 365 Week 3 Current Market Conditions Competitive Analysis(7 pages word paper)

FOREIGN LANGUAGES.
Q1. You are the principal consultant for a c
You are the principal consultant for a community based Charity. The Charity is involved in locating and providing accommodation, mental health services, training and support services to disadvantaged people in the community.
The Charity currently runs a small data centre that has some 50 x86 64 bit servers running mainly Windows Server 2008 R2 for desktop services, database and file services. It also has 10 Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5 servers to service public facing Web pages, Web services and support.
The Charity is considering joining a community cloud provided by a public cloud vendor in order to provide a number of applications to all 500 support staff and administrative users. A small number of the Charity’s applications are mission critical and the data that those applications use is both confidential and time sensitive.
The community cloud would also be used to store the Charity’s 200TB of data. The data would be held in a SaaS database run by the public cloud vendor. The Charity’s data contains a considerable amount of confidential information about the people to whom the Charity provides services.
The Charity collects PII data on the clients who use its services so that it can assist them to manage their different service requirements. This PII data also includes holding some digital identity data for some of the more disadvantaged clients, particularly if they also have mental health issues.
The cloud vendor has made a presentation to management that indicates that operational costs will drop dramatically if the cloud model is adopted. However, the Board of the Charity is concerned with the privacy and security of the data that it holds on the people that it provides services to in the community. It is concerned that a data breach may cause considerable damage to substantially disadvantaged people in the community.
The Board asks that you prepare a report that proposes appropriate privacy and security policies for the Charity’s data.
The charity has also decided to:
• Purchase a HR and personnel management application from a US based company that provides a SaaS solution.
o The application will provide the charity with a complete HR suite, which will also include performance management. The application provider has advised that the company’s main database is in California, with a replica in Dublin, Ireland. However, all data processing, configuration, maintenance, updates and feature releases are provided from the application provider’s processing centre in Bangalore, India.
o Employee data will be uploaded from the charity daily at 12:00 AEST. This will be processed in Bangalore before being loaded into the main provider database.
o Employees can access their HR and Performance Management information through a link placed on the Charity intranet. Each employee will use their internal charity digital ID to authenticate to the HR and Performance management system. The internal digital ID is generated by the charity’s Active Directory instance and is used for internal authentication and authorisation.
• Move the charity payroll to a COTS (Commercial Off The Shelf) application that it will manage in a public cloud;
• Move the charity Intranet into a Microsoft SharePoint PaaS offering so that it can provide Intranet services to all agencies in the WofG.
Tasks
You have been engaged to provide a risk assessment for the planned moves to SaaS application offerings.
You are to write a report that assesses the risks to the charity for just their planned moves in the HR area:
1. Consider the data and information that the charity holds on its employees in the current HR system.
1. Establish the existing threats and risks to the security of that data and information contained in the in-house HR database. (10 marks)
2. Are there any additional risks and threats to employee data that may arise after migration to an SaaS application? (10 marks)
3. Assess the resulting severity of risk and threat to employee data. (10 marks)
2. Consider the privacy of the data for those employees who will move to an SaaS application.
1. Establish the existing threats and risks to the privacy of that data and information contained in the in house HR database. (10 marks)
2. Are there any additional risks and threats to the privacy of the employee data after migration to an SaaS application? (10 marks)
3. Assess the resulting severity of risk and threat to the privacy of employee data. (10 marks)
3. What are the threats and risks to the digital identities of charity employees from the move to SaaS applications? (10 marks)
4. Consider the operational solution and location(s) of the SaaS provider for HR management. Does either the operational solution, or the operational location, or both, increase or mitigate the threats and risks identified for the security and privacy of employee data? (20 marks)
5. Are there any issues of ethics, data sensitivity or jurisdiction that should be considered by the charity? (10 marks)
You are to provide a written report with the following headings:
• Security of Employee Data
• Privacy of Employee Data
• Digital Identity Issues
• Provider Solution Issues
• Data Sensitivity

Q2. Describe and define the primary comp
The purpose of this assignment is to help students understand strategic business terminology (vision, mission, goals, objectives, specific objectives, internal and external scanning), to recognize the components of a strategic plan and to be familiar with the core information and steps needed to create a strategic plan. Furthermore, this assignment allows students to recognize the difference between strategic planning and strategic management.
Assignment Steps
Write a 700-word analysis in which you complete the following:
• Describe and define the primary components of the Strategic Management Process.
• Describe and define internal and external analysis.
• Describe and define the responsibilities and duties of the Strategic Manager.
• Explain why companies need strategic management planning.
Cite 3 scholarly references, including at least two peer-reviewed references from the University Library.

Q3. Social Media can be updated from a v
Week 4 Discussion Initial Response 1:

Social Media can be updated from a variety of devices and connectivity methods. In many situations, this has made social media the digital tool of choice for coordinating illegal activity. How can investigators keep up with the sheer volume of information and speed with which things can happen?

Q4. Age Is Relative The question of age can be applied
Age Is Relative The question of age can be applied to humans, clothing, food, furniture and fossils. Doctors study how humans age and can observe how hair turns grey and skin becomes wrinkled. Rocks and other organic materials do not always provide observers the same outward changes. In order to determine the age of a material; including human bones, radiometric dating can be applied. Determining the amount of radioactive isotopes in a geological or archeological specimen can help decipher its relative age. Since all rocks and minerals contain radioactive elements, the decay process is like a clock that a geologist can read since different radioactive elements have independent âclocksâ or half-lives.
For this unit, answer the following questions:

1. Pick TWO of the following and describe how radiometric dating has been utilized to determine their age:Earth
2. Moon
3. Meteorites
4. Fossils
5. Early man
6. Historic relics (i.e., Dead Sea Scrolls, Shroud of Turin)
7. Volcanic eruptions
8. Identify one element used to date rocks and minerals. How long is its half-life?
9. How can radioactivity be measured?
10. Rocks, minerals, and even food we eat can contain radioactive material. Why doesnât this radioactive material comprise a threat to humans?
11. What is an alternative method to radiometric dating? What are the strengths and weaknesses to this type of dating process?
Be sure to review the Discussion Board Grading Rubric provided under course home.
For help with citations, refer to the APA Quick Reference Guide .
Use this reference when referring to your text:
Trefil, J., & Hazen, R.M. (2013). The sciences: An integrated approach. Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons, Inc.

Q5. The analysis of current strategy and co
Create a Feasibility Study for Harley-Davidson using the following outline
Part I: Differentiation Strategies
The analysis of current strategy and competitor analysis you conducted last module impressed the senior vice president. She now needs you to delve into the brands and analyze them by conducting a business unit analysis and presenting your findings in a three-part PowerPoint presentation.
Research the Harley-Davidson (H-D) Web site for each brand, and review the annual report for relevant details of the size, scope, target market, services and amenities, and other salient points of differentiation. Include these details in Part I of your PowerPoint presentation.
From the research and analysis of the business units, identify:
• A description of each brand that provides a clear picture of the brand and its place in the overall portfolio of Harley-Davidson.
• The target market of each brand.
• How the brands are alike and how they differ.
• A preliminary analysis of any gaps that exist in the portfolio that might lead to opportunities to add to the brands.
• Your analysis of possible merger/acquisition/joint venture possibilities and what would be achieved or accomplished through the merger/acquisition/joint venture.
Part II: SWOT Analysis
Perform a SWOT analysis for Harley-Davidson and include this information in Part II of your PowerPoint presentation.
• Based on the internal analyses of the SWOT analysis, assess the functional areas, resources, capabilities, and strengths H-D possesses. Please be sure to cover the following functional areas in your assessment:

• Marketing: New product development, integrated marketing planning, marketing communications, and building customer loyalty.
• Operations: Quality, service, and consistent execution.
• Human Resources: Hiring, training, developing talent, and performance planning. Avoided lawsuits and bad PR due to its hiring practices. Is ethical in its HR practices.
• Executive Leadership: Industry knowledge and experience, vision about where the industry is heading, and strategy execution.
• Supply Chain Optimization: Strategic sourcing of input, vendor management, integrated IS, and joint forecasting with suppliers.
• Corporate Responsibility and Ethics: Concern for corporate citizenship and the environment. Present any potential ethical concerns as well.
• Safety and Quality: How the motorcycle industry is dealing with safety and quality issues.
• Part III: Growth and Profitability Strategies
In addition, the executive board is interested in your ideas about bold strategies for the future. The strategies you recommend will have to contribute to growth and profitability, as outlined in the Annual Report.
You will want to pay special attention to exploring vertical integration, strategic alliances, and the internal growth of new brands entering new geographic markets, and/or additional acquisitions.
Consider the following:

• Is Harley-Davidson, Inc., (H-D) competing in the right businesses, given the opportunities and threats present in the external environment? If not, how can H-D realign its diversification strategy to achieve a competitive advantage?
This may include additional diversification to take advantage of opportunities such as further vertical integration.
• Is the corporation managing its portfolio in a way that creates synergy among its businesses? If so, what additional businesses should it consider adding to its portfolio?

Q6. Imagine you are the HR manager at a Company.
Imagine you are the HR manager at a company. You need to hire three (3) new people. One employee will work at the front desk as a customer service assistant, and the other two (2) will work on the production line. Give at least five (5) places you would recruit for each position and explain why each place would be a viable option.
Write a one (1) page paper in which you:
1. Select at least five (5) places you would recruit for a customer service assistant and at least five (5) places you would recruit for production line workers.
2. Explain why each place you selected would be a viable option for recruiting employees.
3. Format your assignment according to the following formatting requirements:
1. Typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
2. Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, your name, your professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page is not included in the required page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Analyze effective recruiting and selection strategies that can be used to meet organizational requirements.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in human resource management.
• Write clearly and concisely about human resource management using proper writing mechanics

Q7. Amy is cooking dinner for her family. She moves to pull
For this assignment you will respond to three case studies.
What is a Case Study?
“A case study is a narrative used to help you practice real-life analysis and communication skills. It is a learning tool that provides readers with “enough detail…to understand the nature and scope of the problem, and…serve as a springboard for discussion and learning” (O’Rourke, 2007, p. 391).
Use your textbook and academic resources from the Library to support your responses.
Access the Library directly from Course Resources for this class, or through the student portal. Be sure to cite and reference all your sources. The Library has a feature that allows you to automatically create an APA formatted reference.
Your completed case study should be between 750–1000 words, and all sources must be properly cited using APA format.
1. Amy is cooking dinner for her family. She moves to pull a pot off the stove and accidently touches the burner. She reflexively pulls her finger away from the stove and immediately feels the pain.
1. Which receptor neuron is responsible for sending information from her finger to her peripheral nervous system?
2. Is this receptor neuron, an afferent or efferent neuron?
3. Explain where the information from the receptor neuron is sent and how does it result in Amy moving her finger away from the stove.
4. How many neurons are typically involved in this response? What are the names of these neurons?
5. Evolutionarily, why do you think the human body has this system in place?
6. What might happen if we did not have this response?
2. Glen, who is 45 years old, begins to notice that his hands shake (tremors) when he is performing everyday tasks such as signing his signature. His family members have noticed that he also has muffled speech and tends to shuffle when he walks. He is diagnosed with Early Onset Parkinson’s disease.
1. What is Early Onset Parkinson’s disease?
2. What specific cell type is affected in Parkinson’s disease?
3. What is dopamine? What effects does dopamine have on the body?
4. Explain the structure of a synapse and why Glen’s neurologist would prescribe him a dopamine agonist?
5. Glen has genetic testing performed and it is determined that he does carry an autosomal dominant mutation in the SNCA gene associated with Early Onset Parkinson’s disease. Glen has three children. Would you advise his children to have genetic testing performed to determine if they also carry the disease mutation? Why or why not?
3. Patricia, who is 37 years old, discusses with her physician recent symptoms that she has experienced including blurred vision, numbness in her fingers and face, dizziness, fatigue and weakness. The physician performs multiple neurological tests and she is diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS).
1. What is MS?
2. Is MS a disease of the central or peripheral nervous system?
3. What is the main cell structure affected in MS?
4. How is the action potential of a neuron affected in MS?
5. The origins of MS are not clear. What do scientists hypothesize to be the causes of MS?
Your assignment should be written in an essay format. The assignment requires you to include details from research including the course materials and sources you locate on your own. Remember to use APA format to cite your sources of information, both within parenthetical citations and also within a reference page at the end of the project.

Q8. Describe the criteria leaders should
What is critical thinking?
Develop a two-page essay that addresses the following:
Create your own definition of creative thinking.
Describe the criteria leaders should use to determine whether they are employing creative-thinking techniques.
Explain the difference between creative and status quo behaviors.
Briefly describe a professional situation you have been involved with that could have benefited from creative thinking. Discuss how the situation meets the criteria you established in your definition. Also, explain how a creative and innovative approach to the issue would have changed the outcome.

Q9. DISCUSSION 1 Company Description
DISCUSSION 1 Company Description Throughout this course, you will develop a series of written papers projects that you will later combine into a complete business plan for a Non-Alcoholic Beverage company. For this discussion, you must first review the “NAB Company Portfolio”. The mentioned portfolio contains the company parameters and details you must follow when developing your company. Provide the following information to set the foundation for your non-alcoholic beverage (NAB) business plan.
Please respond to the following:
✔ Create your NAB company name and explain its significance.
✔ Develop your company’s Mission Statement and provide a rationale for its components.

Q10. BUS 499 Strategic Management and S
BUS 499 Strategic Management and Strategic Competitiveness- globalization and technology- Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. Write a four page paper in which you: 1. Assess how globalization and technology changes have impacted the corporation you researched. 2. Apply the industrial organization model and the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns. 3. Assess how the vision statement and mission statement of the corporation influence its overall success. 4. Evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of this corporation. 5. Use at least two (2) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.

GEOLOGY.
Q1. PHSC 210 Quiz 1
Question 1
Which of the following minerals is a silicate?
Selected Answer: Quartz
Question 2
A naturalistic evolution position holds that
Selected Answer: Earth is 4.5 billion years old and all life is connected by
evolution, not guided by God
Purchase for remaining 23 Answers

Q2. MKT 571 Week 1 Assignment Researching Marketing Questions
Purpose of Assignment
This assignment is designed to help students analyze and interpret primary and/or secondary data and research. Students will be provided with a marketing report that allows for preparing basic executive level data insights. This assignment will help prepare students for the development of their marketing plan.
Assignment Steps
Analyze the Week 1 Business Growth Overview dataset. This is a marketing report generated by an analyst for the Senior Vice President (SVP) of Marketing at a large corporation. The analyst is new and has provided summary data but no insights or commentary for the SVP.
Construct a 1-2 page (san title page) memorandum for the SVP providing insights and commentary. The memorandum should include your analysis of the following:
• Major areas of increase and decrease in revenue or type and/or category of business
• Trends that are evident in terms of revenue or type and/or category of business
• Insights that would help formulate marketing strategies to either continue growth or reverse decline
• Additional analysis you (if you were SVP) would like to build a marketing goal and strategy or strategies (and why)

Format your assignment consistent with APA guidelines.

Q3. ENVIRONMENT SCIENCE PAPER
You are the project manager of an environmental company that was hired to cleanup a historical arsenic contamination site. Soil sampling results indicated the area impacted with arsenic above action levels is 30 feet by 55 feet. The depth of the arsenic plume is three feet below ground surface. The land owner wanted to clean this site for future development. Using your textbook, answer the questions below to help you prepare a cost estimate for this portion of the project. Your solutions and any assumptions to justify your estimate must be shown.
What is the chemical symbol of arsenic, and what group/family does it belong to?
Solve for the minimum volume of soil that will be excavated in cubic yards?
If each dump truck can transport 18 cubic yards, determine how many dump trucks loads will be transported? For calculation purposes, add a 15% �fluff factor� (add to the volume that will be transported).
If the bulk density of soil is 1350 kg/m3 (84.3 lb/ft3), solve for the weight of the soil that will be transported to a disposal site in kilograms?

Your total response to parts a-d must be at least 200 words in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced. Paraphrased and/or quoted material must have accompanying citations in APA format.

book: Meyer, E. (2014). Chemistry of Hazardous Materials (6 ed.). Upper Saddle River, New Jersey: Pearson Education Inc.

citation: page 115, figure 4.3 arsenic, As, semi metal

Q4. CostLeadershipStrategy–What are th
What are the characteristics of a firm that is successfully pursuing a cost leadership strategy?

Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations
What are the characteristics of a firm that is successfully pursuing a cost leadership strategy?

Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations

In a BCG Matrix, all divisions are classified as either Question Marks, Stars, Cash Cows or Dogs. Define each of these terms and briefly discussion how you would apply the terms to strategic planning.

Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.

In a BCG Matrix, all divisions are classified as either Question Marks, Stars, Cash Cows or Dogs. Define each of these terms and briefly discussion how you would apply the terms to strategic planning.

Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.

Q5. Cloud Computing and Web 2.0
Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Your paper should be 3-5 pages in length
and explain the business uses of each. Using the internet, research the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0..
When you do the research, pay particular attention to how cloud computing and Web 2.0 are used in organizations and
the technology required for them. Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Be sure to address the following in your
assignment:
• Explain cloud computing and Web 2.0.
• Explain how organizations use these tools.
• Describe the technology required to use these tools.
• Discuss the benefits of each.
• Discuss the limitations of each.
CSU requires that students use the APA style for papers and projects. Therefore, the APA rules for formatting, quoting,
Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Your paper should be 3-5 pages in length
and explain the business uses of each. Using the internet, research the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0..
When you do the research, pay particular attention to how cloud computing and Web 2.0 are used in organizations and
the technology required for them. Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Be sure to address the following in your
assignment:
• Explain cloud computing and Web 2.0.
• Explain how organizations use these tools.
• Describe the technology required to use these tools.
• Discuss the benefits of each.
• Discuss the limitations of each.
CSU requires that students use the APA style for papers and projects. Therefore, the APA rules for formatting, quoting,

Q6. What is the U.S. Global Leadership
What is the U.S. Global Leadership?
• What is the process for International Affairs in your organization? Provide examples.
• How do you provide your organization with the fundamental tools to meet the global challenges of the 21st century?

Q7. GEOL 1021: Assignment #1
GEOL 1021: Assignment #1 Fall 2013
Answer all the following Questions
1. The length of recorded history for humankind is about 5000 years. Clearly, most people view this span as being very long. How does it compare to the length of geologic time? Calculate the percentage or fraction of geologic time that is represented by recorded history. To make calculations easier, round the age of Earth to the nearest billion. 5 marks
2. After entering a dark room, you turn on a wall switch, but the light does not come on. Suggest at least three hypotheses that might explain this observation. Once you have formulated your hypotheses what is the next logical step? 10
3. How is the Earth’s inner core different from its outer core? 5
4. The Earth is considered a dynamic planet, compared to the Moon or Mercury. Why? 10
5. The moon has virtually no magnetosphere. Why? 10
6. Explain how the principle of uniformitarianism allows for catastrophic events. 8
7. The concentric layer that makes up most of Earth’s volume— is it? 2
A. the inner core B. outer core C. mantle D. Asthenosphere E. crust

Note:
• Read all questions carefully
• Answers must be type-written
• You require a cover page. The cover page should have the following: course code and assignment number, name of student (s), and date of submission.
• Use the class notes, textbook, and any other referenced source to answer the questions. (Some of your answers may come from critical analyses more than direct answers from a source.)
• You may work in groups. The maximum number of students in a group is three. You may elect to work alone.
• This assignment is due by the close of Friday, October 18, 2013.
• Use the assignment drop box.
• Assignments submitted after midnight, Friday, October 18, will not be accepted (without prior permission from the instructor).
• This is not an essay assignment.
Total Marks: 50

Q8. Volkswagen Organizational Structure F
Volkswagen Organizational Structure For the Assignment, you will apply what you have learned concerning organizational structure and conduct research on Volkswagen (VW). You will respond to the three (3) questions listed below the Assignment instructions in an APA formatted 2–3 page paper .
Case: If one were to chart the growth spurts of Volkswagen over the past three decades, the chart would look like a roller coaster. Plans were for former BMW boss Bernd Pischetsrieder to fix ailing VW when he came aboard in 2002. However, best-laid plans often go astray. VW’s share price is down almost 50% and profits fell by 36%. What is wrong at VW? First, VW has always been able to charge more for its cars because of quality, innovation, styling, and an implied lifetime guarantee. In recent years, however, consumers have decided that the company is going to have to come up with more value for the dollar if loyalty is to be retained. Second, sales in China’s booming market (VW was one of the first car makers on the scene in this giant economy) have plummeted and GM has driven VW from its number one ranking. Third, cost-cutting moves have not worked. Fourth, VW uncharacteristically has labor pains. The CEO has had little luck in reversing these problems because his consensus management techniques are having little impact on VW’s change-resistant bureaucracy. Over half of the company’s 100 managers are not used to making their own decisions. This spells even more trouble for the company in the year ahead.
Checklist:
Address the following questions in your 2—3 page essay adding an additional title and references page:
1- Using a search engine of your own choosing, investigate Volkswagen’s performance over the past two years. Write a brief summary of their fortunes and misfortunes.
2- Visit the Volkswagen Investor Relations Web site, then use the search box on the right and search for “organizational structure”. In particular be sure to look at the Corporate Governance Report. Alternately, you can perform an internet search for “Volkswagen organizational structure.” From information supplied, characterize the company’s existing structure.
3- Based on what you have observed in “1” and “2” above; suggest a new organizational structure for the company. Cite any assumptions that you made when you developed your structure.
Source:
Robbins, S. P., & Judge, T. A. (2013). Organizational behavior (15th ed.). Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson Prentice Hall.

Q9. Using the weather map given:
Using the weather map given:
• Fill in the data table provided based on the weather map. For “Current Weather,” use the data provided in the chart to determine the current conditions for each station.
• Create the warm and cold fronts on the Weather Map. While this map will not need to be turned in, it will assist you in filling out the information in the data table.
• Based on the weather scenario in this lab assignment, predict what tomorrow’s weather will be at the locations listed below if the system continues due east at 300 miles/day. Be sure to include wind direction, temperature, cloud cover and precipitation in your forecast. The position of the warm and cold fronts will help you with this.
Locations:
Bangor, ME
Birmingham, AL
Dallas, TX
Denver, CO
Jacksonville, FL
Louisville, KY
Minneapolis, MN
New York, NY
Pittsburgh, PA

Q10. GEO EARTH SCIENCE PAPER A+
Using the geologic map of Virginia, answer the following questions:
1. Is the region in the extreme northwest corner to the Potomac River strongly folded or strongly faulted?
2. Is the region from the southeast corner to Harrison Island along the Potomac strongly folded or strongly faulted?
3. In the southwestern part of the map, along the Shenandoah River, the sediments are only Quaternary in age, yet they are surrounded by much older Cambrian sediments. How do you explain this?
4. In the southeastern corner of the map, locate Rockville and Gaithersburg. Notice that they are separated by the Plummer’s Island Fault. Is Rockville moving atop Gaithersburg or is Gaithersburg moving atop Rockville?
5. Find Martinsburg, WV, in the extreme northwest corner. Now locate Martinsburg, MD, which is just to the to the east of Harrison Island and Mason Island along a bend in the Potomac in the south central area of the map. Which is surrounded by the older rock?
6. Locate Long Marsh Run just south of the West Virginia/ Virginia border on the southwestern side of the map. Which way is it flowing?

How many different ages of rock would you encounter along its course?
7. In the middle image at the bottom, to the far right, you see that the younger Prettyboy Schist lies beneath the older Mather Gorge Formation. How can older rock be found atop younger rock?
8. Locate the oval, brown rocks near the center of the map. What geologic feature is this?

LINGUISTICS.
Q1. PSY 201 Quiz 2-Phonetics

PSY 201 Quiz 2-Phonetics

Correct Answers Marked
Quiz Submissions –
Top of Form
Submission View

Quiz 2 Phonetics

Quiz 2 Phonetics

Question 5

1 / 2 points
Please select all that apply.
Nasal consonants are produced:
with a constriction of the pharynx below the velum.

with air coming out through the mouth rather than the nose.
by lowering your velum.
with air coming out through the nose rather than the mouth.

Question 7
0 / 2 points
Which of the following words contain at least one voiced fricative?
Select all that apply.
Phase
Plasma

Warp

Ship

Star
Question 8
0 / 2 points
Which of the following descriptions is correct for the vowel /i/?
Check all that apply.
unrounded
high
tense

back
Question 9
0 / 2 points
The number of sounds in the word “taught” is:

2

5
3

none of these answers.
Question 10
1.2 / 2 points
What speech sound properties are shared by the sounds [t], [n], and [d]?
Choose all that apply.

They are all velar

They are all nasal
They are all consonants
They are all alveolar

They are all voiced
Question 14
0 / 2 points
What speech sound properties are shared by the sounds [u], [oʊ], and [ɑ]?
Choose all that apply.

rounded
tense

high
back
Question 15
0 / 2 points
Vowels are typically characterized by the parameters of:

voicing, tongue height, and lip-rounding.

voicing, tongue tension, and lip-rounding.

none of these answers.
tongue height, tongue backness, lip-rounding and tongue tension.
Question 16
0 / 2 points
The glottis is the conduit for air between the lungs and the mouth.

True

False
Question 18
0 / 2 points
The sound /g/ is a voiced velar stop.

True

False
Question 19
0 / 2 points
The word “sing” contains which of the following?

Voiceless velar oral stop

Voiceless velar nasal stop

Voiced alveolar plosive
None of these answers
Question 20
0 / 2 points
Please match the state of the glottis with its description by typing the corresponding number in the box.
__3__
(3)
Breathy
__4__
(4)
Creaky
__1__
(1)
Voiceless
__2
(2)
Voiced
1.
Vocal folds are pulled apart so that air flows freely through the glottis.
2.
Vocal folds are close together but not quite shut.
3.
Vocal folds are closed at the anterior end and open at the other.
4.
Vocal folds are open at the anterior end and closed at the other.
Question 21
0 / 2 points
A midsagittal view of our speech system is one that shows a top-down view of the vocal folds, as if you had a mirror in your mouth pointing straight down the larynx.

True

False
Question 22
0 / 2 points
Which of the following descriptions is FALSE?

Nasal sounds cannot be made if a person has a cold.

None of these are false.

There are at least three different nasal consonants in English.
In making a nasal sound, the velum (soft palate) has to be raised.

In making the nasal sound [m], there is complete closure in the oral cavity.
Question 23
0 / 2 points
A diphthong is a vowel that begins with one place of articulation and ends with another.

True

False
Question 24
0 / 2 points
Which of the following words can be pronounced without the velum being lowered at any point during the word?

none of these answers

China
Cute

Bamboo

Panda
Question 25
0 / 2 points
The Bernoulli Effect is caused by:

An increase in air pressure behind a point of closure.

A decrease in air pressure when the pathway of the airflow is unimpeded.
Cycles of increasing and decreasing air pressure that causes rapid vibration.

None of these answers.

The neural commands sent by the brain to the vocal folds.
Quiz Submissions – Quiz 2-Phonetics
Top of Form

Quiz 2 Phonetics

Quiz 2 Phonetics

Question 1
0 / 2 points
Which of the following is NOT a property of the sound of the sound [l] (the sound that starts the word ‘like’)?
none of these answers

alveolar

approximant

lateral
Question 2
0 / 2 points
Which of the following statements is FALSE?

All the parts of the vocal tract can be used to make speech sounds.

The nasal tract is used to make nasal sounds.

None of these answers are false.
Teeth are not articulators.

The tongue is used to produce vowel sounds.
Question 8
0 / 2 points
In English we use breathy voice in any word that contains an /h/.

True

False
Question 9
0 / 2 points
The vowel in the word “cook” is /ʊ/.

True

False
Question 12
0 / 2 points
Which of the following is NOT part of the three systems of speech?

None of these answers.
The nasal system.

The vocal tract system.

The respiratory system.

The laryngeal system.
Question 13
0 / 2 points
The first sound in the word “though” is:

none of these answers.

/θ/
/ð/

/t/
Question 15
0 / 2 points
Match the vowels and their descriptions
__1__
(1)
high front unrounded lax vowel
__4
(4)
mid central unrounded lax vowel
__3__
(3)
mid front unrounded lax vowel
_2__
(2)
high back rounded tense vowel
1.
[ɪ]
2.
[u]
3.
[ɛ]
4.
[ə]
Question 16
0 / 2 points
Which of the following statements about an ejective sound is correct?
Choose all that apply.
An ejective sound is made using the glottalic airstream mechanism.

An ejective sound is made with a rapid downward movement of the glottis.

An ejective sound is made by a quick inhalation of breath into the lungs.
An ejective sound is made with a rapid upward movement of the glottis.
Question 17
1 / 2 points
Phoneticians study:
Please select all that apply.
how sounds are made in the vocal tract.

how to break up words into smaller units of meaning.
how sounds are transmitted.

the mental organization of speech sounds in our minds.
Question 18
0 / 2 points
Affricates are:

the same thing as fricatives, but the air travels faster through the oral cavity.
A combination of a stop followed immediately by a fricative.

none of these answers

fricatives that have vowel quality because of the vowel that follows immediately after it.
Question 21
0 / 2 points
X-Ray imaging is one of the more common tools used today to study aspects of articulatory phonetics.

True

False
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Bottom of Form

Q2. Star Wars Poem about a Dark Jedi
Contemplate the universe and write a lovely poem about whatever you can think of during your contemplation. Poem must be at least 12 lines long and can be any format as long as it meets the line length requirement.

If you are unsure of Dark Jedi in Star Wars, take a look at

Q3. ENG 115 Assignment 1 Summary and Personal Response
Se Habala Espanol: Summary and Personal Response
Se Habala Espanol is a short story by Tanya Barrientos, born Latina. In this narrative, she has craftily presented her struggle to relate to her society and fit in. According to Barrientos, it is crucial for people to be able to relate to their true ethnic self. Pretending to be someone else, hiding your true ethnicity is not beneficial, when it comes to discover one’s true inner self. Culture and language give people their identity, as they become at peace with their conscience when they are same inside out…

PERFORMING ARTS.
Q1. Drive: A Film Noir Experience
Research paper on the film Drive (2011).
Trailer: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CWX34ShfcsE

, the research paper will talk about Drive as a film noir experience, by referencing and providing tribute to both classical 50s film noir as well as neo-noir films of the 70s.
. I have written some notes after watching the film.

Drive is a film noir, we can infer that from
the expressive lighting in dark area
the hard-boiled crime story
local and urban setting, which is Los-Angeles and its neighborhoods.
Anxiety in the film, the driver is having a relationship with a married woman, dealing with corrupt individuals

Shannon serves as a mentor figure to the driver, similar to Barton Keyes from Double Indemnity

Irene is the love interest of the character and serves as a femme fatale figure but with a modern take to it, she is not as sexualized or glamorous as femme fatales have been portrayed

Bernie Ross is one of the threats that the protagonist faces, he is cold blooded and a man of principle similar to Mr Brown in the film The Big Combo

The super market scene is a reference to the market scene in the film Double Indemnity, where the protagonist Walter meets with Phyllis.

Drive market scene
https://youtu.be/QwLmVBv6sO4?t=19m43s

Double Indmnity market scene
50:20

LA river is an iconic set piece through out Hollywood film history
The scene where the driver kills Nino happens on a beach, reminiscent of the final scene in Kiss Me Deadly
Drive beach death scene
https://youtu.be/QwLmVBv6sO4?t=1h52m49s

Kiss me deadly beach scene

Drive is inspired by another film called The Driver (1978), as a tribute to car chase movies

Q2. Things to consider before buying a hybrid bike (2000 words)
Introduction
All types of hybrid bikes
Tips on how to choose the best hybrid bikes.
Choosing the most suitable Bike frames
The difference between hybrid bikes for women and those for men.

PSYCHOLOGY.
Q1. Personal Gun Use Graded A
Unit 3: Public Argument
Purpose:
You will practice communicating in the world beyond academia by transforming your
controversy analysis paper into a public argument. You will also create multiple drafts and
respond to the work of other writers.
Assignment:
Drawing on our discussions of rhetorical situation and analysis from Unit 1 and the
original research you performed in the Controversy analysis for Unit 2, create a specific
rhetorical situation (purpose, audience, and context) and create a rhetorically effective public
argument (either a TED talk with slides, video, infographic, or a website) to communicate in
that situation. You will present your public argument to the class in a 4-6 minute time slot. An
accompanying verbal speech is required for TED Talks, infographics, and websites, but not for
videos (other than recorded speech within the video).
Explicitly reference a minimum of 3 sources from your controversy research paper (use
“quote” and “end quote” or language such as “according to” and a signal phrase- See Rules for
Writers 58b). All images/audio/sources other than those in Paper 2 should be documented in a
final Works Cited slide.
Detailed description, examples, sound, music, color, props, and/or conversational
language are tools that you can use to convey ideas effectively. If you choose the TED talk,
video, or infographic, use alphabetic-based writing minimally, in accordance with the
conventions for these mediums. Images and short phrases are much stronger choices. Visual
elements should strengthen the piece and be clearly seen by the audience.
• The cover letter and the presentation should both communicate the specific rhetorical
situation (this counts as part of the time).
• For videos, consider recording audio using a headset or a USB microphone instead of
through your laptop’s speakers for clarity (see Resources section below).
• Your public argument will be evaluated in part for delivery– pace, conversational style
(avoid merely reading information), timing, volume, eye contact, and credibility
(preparation and back ups).
• Your own audience for this assignment is an educated, college audience. The audience
members may not be familiar with your sources or your ideas. Communicate your main
claim in the introduction section, and make this especially clear to audience members.
Utilize verbal/visual transitions between points, and provide the significance of your
argument at the end.
Resources:
• Multimedia Zone –1st floor of the main library–1-on-1 technology help
o There are other labs such as the Multimedia Learning Lab (Music) and the
Multimedia Classroom in Aerospace and Mechanical Engineering, but they have
classes in them during the day (see staff schedules here).
• Rent equipment (such as headsets or microphone USBs for recording) at the main library
Information Commons desk (1st floor) or at OSCR Gear to Go in the UITS Computer
Center. You can check out headsets/ microphone USB for 6 hours. Consider scheduling
an individual study room to record, or record from home. The MLL Sound Room is also
an option.
• Consider bringing your draft to the Writing Center in the Bear Down Gym—it’s free!
Make sure to bring this sheet. Appointments are best.

Q2. Myers-Briggs Personality Test online
Project 1 Instructions
This project requires that you complete the Myers-Briggs Personality Test online, and then complete Steps 1 and 2 (see below). Read all of the instructions for this assignment before beginning any of your work.
Step 1
1. Open the following website to complete the assessment: Jung Typology Test.
2. Once complete, click on “Score it” to retrieve your four-letter type.
3. Next, go to The Four Temperaments and investigate the various buttons for descriptions of your Type and data on relationships, careers, etc.
4. Using The Four Temperaments link, explore Keirsey’s Temperaments as well. Go back to the Jung Typology test site to explore the Sixteen Personality Types using the tabs at the top to locate the description of your type. You may also research beyond these suggested links as long as you cite them properly.
5. Once there, click on links for The Four Preferences, Keirsey’s Temperaments, and Overview of the Sixteen Personality Types to locate the description of your type.
6. This personality test will reveal your 4-letter type and your 2-letter temperament. Discuss the validity of each letter of your type and temperament. Provide your statistical/percentage results for comparison of letters within your discussion. Any adverse personal opinions on the assessment tools must be respectful and scholarly with supportive research.
7. Include a separate section for each letter of your personality type, as well as a section for discussing how the different aspects of your personality (represented by the letters) work together. For example, if you scored with the letter “I,” then that letter with your type will be a heading: I-Introverted.
• You must have separate sub-headings for each section.
• Give specific examples from your life—especially your work life—and discuss the weaknesses of your personality type as well. Refer to the Presentation: “Lesson 1–A Worldview Perspective on Organizational Behavior,” found in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder.
Step 2
1. Apply the Type Talk at Work textbook, which focuses on how various personality types relate at work. The book must be evident within the discussion, not simply cited, with specific, applied topics.
2. Using the Type Talk at Work textbook as your guide, discuss the things you have learned about yourself that will help you understand your organization and your role within it. In a new section in your paper (labeled Step 2), answer the following questions with specific correlation to the book:
• In general, what have you learned from these personality tests about organizational behavior that will help you be a better employee, coworker, and/or manager?
• In particular, what have you learned about yourself from this personality test that will help you be a better employee, coworker, and/or manager? Provide specific examples.
Formatting
1. Use current APA format for every element of the paper. Be sure to include the current APA-formatted cover page, abstract, and reference page. Refer to your APA manual for help or this site for assistance: https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/18/
2. Write in first person—this is allowed due to the personal nature of the assignment.
3. To facilitate the instructor’s grading of these assignments, you must have major headings for Steps 1 and 2. Additionally, under the major heading of Step 1, you must have subheadings for each separate letter of your Meyers-Briggs type. There must also be a subheading describing your entire Meyers-Briggs personality to round out the discussion with your Temperament. You will need a total of 5 subheadings for Step 1.
4. The exact number of paragraphs that you include in each section is your decision; your instructor will not be grading you on how many paragraphs you used per section, but rather the extent to which you specifically addressed each of the areas above.
5. The minimum of 6 required pages of content does not include the title page, abstract page, or reference page. Those must be counted as additional pages. You will likely find that it will be difficult to address all of these things in only 6 pages, but that constraint is part of the exercise itself. Learning to write succinctly and efficiently will improve your communication skills, regardless of the setting. Because you only have 6 pages to discuss all these components, be concise.
6. Be sure to double-space, using Times New Roman 12-point font only; use 1-inch margins, and avoid bold font (except for headlines, per current APA format), underlining, and contractions.
7. The reference page must include a minimum of the 5 following references in current APA format (all sources must be evident within the paper and less than 5 years old):
• Presentation: Lesson 1 – A Worldview Perspective on Organizational Behavior (in Module/Week 1),
• Type Talk at Work textbook,
• Organizational Behavior textbook,
• Jung Typology Test, and
• www.personalitypage.com.
Note: For further questions regarding current APA format, visit Liberty University’s Online Writing Center.
Submit Project 1 to the appropriately labeled SafeAssign link first to provide your percentage of originality. Then submit Project 1 to the appropriate link for grading by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 2. Both submission steps must be completed in order to receive full points.

Q3. PSYC 255 B-07 LUO Quiz 7
1. The general form of a regression equation is _____. – Y = a + bX
2. Which of the following statements is true about effect size? – It is a statistic that describes how strongly variables are related to one another. –
Which of the following is a measure of central tendency? – Median

Q4. SPSS CUMULATIVE ASSESSMENT
The following five research questions can be answered using one of the eight tests you have learned this term, including: independent-samples t-test, paired-samples t-test, one-way ANOVA, two-factor ANOVA for independent measures, Pearson correlation coefficient, linear regression, the chi-square test for goodness of fit, and the chi-square test for independence. Note that this means that three tests will not be used. Use the information in the tables to construct your SPSS data file, just as you have been doing in each homework assignment. There is only 1 correct choice of analysis for each question. Remember to account for whether the test is 1-tailed or 2-tailed. The assessment is open-book/open-notes.
Your answer must include: A) SPSS output, and B) Results section in current APA style with the appropriate graph included as an APA-style figure.
For ANOVA problems (if applicable): Report statistical findings and make statements for all main effects and interaction effects. Use Tukey’s test for any analyses requiring post hoc tests.

SPSS CUMULATIVE ASSESSMENT
80 POINTS
The following five research questions can be answered using one of the eight tests you have learned this term, including: independent-samples t-test, paired-samples t-test, one-way ANOVA, two-factor ANOVA for independent measures, Pearson correlation coefficient, linear regression, the chi-square test for goodness of fit, and the chi-square test for independence. Note that this means that three tests will not be used. Use the information in the tables to construct your SPSS data file, just as you have been doing in each homework assignment. There is only 1 correct choice of analysis for each question. Remember to account for whether the test is 1-tailed or 2-tailed. The assessment is open-book/open-notes.
Your answer must include: A) SPSS output, and B) Results section in current APA style with the appropriate graph included as an APA-style figure.
For ANOVA problems (if applicable): Report statistical findings and make statements for all main effects and interaction effects. Use Tukey’s test for any analyses requiring post hoc tests.

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 8.

ASSESSMENT BEGINS ON NEXT PAGE

Pain before
treatment Pain after
treatment
9
5
6
4
3
10
9
9
7
5
2
5
8
3
6
7 8
6
4
3
3
8
6
7
8
4
4
4
5
5
3
8

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

2. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Visual Attention Test Scores Number of Errors in Multitasking
3 25
8 18
9 18
4 26
15 6
6 19
18 3
17 4
19 6
6 16
5 14
20 2
17 5
5 23

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

3. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Region

Political
Party Urban Rural
Republican 16
32
29
18
18 19
28
29
37
26
Democrat 35
36
27
39
22 24
19
14
26
30
Libertarian 12
16
10
27
19 9
13
7
25
12
Independent 27
17
23
21
12 15
16
26
25
13

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

4. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Hours Spent in After-School Programs Number of Arrests After Age 17
3 2
41 1
68 1
29 0
7 5
12 4
121 0
54 1
19 3
134 0
106 1
67 1
25 3
73 1
38 4
110 0
31 3

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

5. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Alcohol Opioids Cocaine/
Crack Cocaine

8

10
5

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

6. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Q5. SPSS Homework 7- help!!
Need help ASAP!!! I cannot afford much, so please work with me. Thank you in advance.
SPSS HOMEWORK 7
40 POINTS

Less likely to support No change More likely to support

25
12
9

7. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)

8. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your bar chart as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE

Morning Afternoon TOTAL
Engineering
3 7 10
Psychology
6 4 10
Business
5 5 10
TOTAL
14 16 30

1. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)

2. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your clustered bar chart as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 7.

Q6. Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
50 answers

Q7. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
50 answers

Result A+

Q8. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3

Q9. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
50 questions with correct answers

Q10. PSYC2012 – PSYCHOLOGY: AN EVIDENCE-BASED APPROACH 2
PSYC2012 – PSYCHOLOGY: AN EVIDENCE-BASED APPROACH 2
ASSESSMENT 2: Data Analysis Assignment
You have been provided with the data for this assignment as an SPSS file. The data file has been provided with generic variable names (V1, V2, etc.), which you should change. You will need to provide more detailed VARIABLE LABELS and VALUE LABELS in the data file.
The hypothetical study examines the relationship between body mass index (BMI), sex, and different measures of response inhibition, delay of gratification, and positive/negative affect. The researchers recruited 120 adults and recorded their sex (V1: 1 = female; 2 = male) and BMI (V2: 1 = underweight; 2 = normal; 3 = overweight). Participants reported their level of hunger (V3) – at the start of the study – on a Likert scale ranging from 1 = “not hungry at all” to 9 = “extremely hungry”.
Participants then completed a range of self-report measures:
• Kirby Monetary Choice Questionnaire: 27 items, each presenting two choices: either an immediate reward (e.g., “$55 today”) or a larger delayed reward (e.g., “$75 in 61 days”). The higher the overall score (V4), the more likely is the person to choose the smaller, immediate rewards.
• Brief Sensation Seeking Scale: 8 items, scored on a Likert scale from 1 = “strongly disagree” to 5 = “strongly agree”. Example item: “I like wild parties”. The higher the overall score (V5), the more likely is the person to seek novel and stimulating experiences.
• The Tightwad-Spendthrift Scale: 4 items, scored using either a 1-11 (item no.1) or 1-5 (items 2-4) ratings. The higher the score (V8), the more difficultly people have in controlling their spending. Tightwads (i.e., those with low scores), on the other hand, tend to become anxious and experience pain when they have to spend money.
• The Positive and Negative Affect Schedule – Expanded form (PANAS-X): Participants are presented with a list of 60 adjectives (e.g., confident, joyful, upset, angry), and are asked to indicate the degree to which they feel each of these positive and negative emotional states in general. Items are scored on a Likert scale ranging from 1 = “very slightly or not at all” to 5 = “extremely”. V9 includes positive and V10 negative affect scores. High scores on V9 and V10 represent high levels of positive and negative affect, respectively.

ASIANS STUDIES
Q1. Teacher account
Teacher account registering i have student account but i want to teacher account

Q2. Creating a Compelling Vision Leaders
3: Creating a Compelling Vision
Leaders today must be able to create a compelling vision for the organization. They also must be able to create an aligned strategy and then execute it. Visions have two parts, the envisioned future and the core values that support that vision of the future. The ability to create a compelling vision is the primary distinction between leadership and management. Leaders need to create a vision that will frame the decisions and behavior of the organization and keep it focused on the future while also delivering on the short-term goals.
To learn more about organizational vision statements, do an Internet search and review various vision statements.
In this assignment, you will consider yourself as a leader of an organization and write a vision statement and supporting values statement.
Select an organization of choice. This could be an organization that you are familiar with, or a fictitious organization. Then, respond to the following:
Provide the name and description of the organization. In the description, be sure to include the purpose of the organization, the products or services it provides, and the description of its customer base. Describe the core values of the organization. Why are these specific values important to the organization? Describe the benefits and purpose for an organizational vision statement. Develop a vision statement for this organization. When developing a vision statement, be mindful of the module readings and lecture materials. In the vision statement, be sure to communicate the future goals and aspirations of the organization. Once you have developed the vision statement, describe how you would communicate the statement to the organizational stakeholders, that is, the owners, employees, vendors, and customers. How would you incorporate the communication of the vision into the new employee on-boarding and ongoing training? Write your response in approximately 3–5 pages in Microsoft Word. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.

Q3. Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper
Research Paper – Topic Instructions
Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper. The topic that you choose must address a particular element of a social problem (e.g., drug addiction and pregnancy). For this paper, a good topic will:
• Have plenty of available scholarly research that you can access.
• Be specific enough to be described in detail.
• Allow you to discuss the different roles of the church, the family, and the community with ample examples and support for each area.
• Allow you to incorporate biblical examples in your paper.
When choosing your research topic, be sure to keep in mind that you will need plenty of available scholarly research for your final paper. You might wish to explore the Liberty University Online Library databases for APA journal articles and/or books. In addition, research articles must have been published within the last 7 years. Government and University sites for some topics can additionally be used, as these are considered primary resources. Be sure to avoid Wikipedia, which is a secondary resource.
Research Paper – Topic Instructions
Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper. The topic that you choose must address a particular element of a social problem (e.g., drug addiction and pregnancy). For this paper, a good topic will:
• Have plenty of available scholarly research that you can access.
• Be specific enough to be described in detail.
• Allow you to discuss the different roles of the church, the family, and the community with ample examples and support for each area.
• Allow you to incorporate biblical examples in your paper.
When choosing your research topic, be sure to keep in mind that you will need plenty of available scholarly research for your final paper. You might wish to explore the Liberty University Online Library databases for APA journal articles and/or books. In addition, research articles must have been published within the last 7 years. Government and University sites for some topics can additionally be used, as these are considered primary resources. Be sure to avoid Wikipedia, which is a secondary resource.

Q4. Assignment 1 Discussion Effective P
Assignment 1 Discussion Effective Punishment One aspect of raising healthy children is understanding how to best provide correction when they make poor choices or behave in unacceptable ways. Over the years, there has been much debate over the most effective form of punishment for children. As part of this debate, you have to take into consideration operant conditioning as this is the basis for how effective correction works. Operant conditioning should be considered when choosing how to best administer corrective actions whether the parents choose to use corporal punishment, time outs, or loss of privileges.
• Discuss the differences between negative and positive punishment. What are the factors that make punishment effective?
• Discuss the effectiveness of corporal punishment and elaborate upon when you think it should be used.
• Discuss how culture affects the type of punishment used.
• Give reasons in support of your responses based on your readings and personal experiences.
Write your initial response in 1-2 paragraphs. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.

• Have your peers accurately identified the differences between negative and positive punishment? Explain your answer.
• Can you suggest any other factors that make punishment effective? If so, state them.

Q5. HLT 310 V Healing Hospital A Da
(Benchmark Assignment) HLT 310 V Healing Hospital: A Daring Paradigm Consider how the paradigm of a healing hospital might influence your philosophy of caregiving Describe the components of a healing hospital and their relationship to spirituality.
1. What are the challenges of creating a healing environment in light of the barriers and complexities of the hospital environment?
2. Include biblical aspects that support the concept of a healing hospital.
Prepare this assignment according to the APA guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.

Q6. Titan Mining Corporation has 10.0 mill
Titan Mining Corporation has 10.0 million shares of common stock outstanding, 440,000 shares of 4 percent preferred stock outstanding, and 230,000 8.8 percent semiannual bonds outstanding, par value $1,000 each. The common stock currently sells for $48 per share and has a beta of 1.50, the preferred stock currently sells for $98 per share, and the bonds have 10 years to maturity and sell for 115 percent of par. The market risk premium is 8.8 percent, T-bills are yielding 5 percent, and Titan Mining’s tax rate is 40 percent.

a.
What is the firm’s market value capital structure? (Round your answers to 4 decimal places. (e.g., 32.1616))

Market value
Debt
Preferred stock
Equity

b.
If Titan Mining is evaluating a new investment project that has the same risk as the firm’s typical project, what rate should the firm use to discount the project’s cash flows? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your final answer to 2 decimal places. (e.g., 32.16))
Q7. Read Menendez v. ONiell – Cheeseman Read Smith v. Van Gorkom – Cheeseman text page 348-349.
Unit VI

Question 1
• Read the Call-of-the-Question carefully, and follow the instructions for each subject. Prepare four Briefing Papers using the APA Format for Research Papers, and upload them as one document for responses.
• Briefing Paper 1: Critical Legal Thinking
Instructions:
Read Menendez v. ONiell – Cheeseman text page 331-332.
Respond to the three Case Questions found in Cheeseman Text page 332.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions as noted in the Critical Legal Thinking, Ethics, and Contemporary Business questions. Argue both sides of all issues.

• Briefing Paper 2: Law Case with Answers
Instructions:
Read Smith v. Van Gorkom – Cheeseman text page 348-349.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on what effect should the fact that Jerome W. Van Gorkom owned 75,000 shares of Trans Union ($55.00 x 75,000 = $4,125,000.00).
Provide convincing arguments for both sides of your recommendations.

• Briefing Paper 3: Critical Legal Thinking Cases
Instructions:
Read Sections 16.6 Dividends (p. 350); 17.5 Section 10(b) (p. 371); 26.3 Forum-Selection Clause; (p. 550); and 16.3 Corporation (p. 349-350).
Check the decisions of the highest appellate courts, if a case is cited, for each fact pattern.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on whether each of the four subjects affect business in the United States and if so, provide the worst and best case scenarios.

• Briefing Paper 4: Ethics Case
Instructions:
Read Section 16.9 Ethics – Cheeseman text page 351.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on the 3 questions found at the end of Section 16.9. Argue both sides of all issues.

Q8. Often, there can be conflict between c
For this week’s second assignment, you will write a one page essay about role conflict. Be sure to address all prompts and cite your sources in APA format. This is worth 60 points, so be thorough and give your best effort.
Often, there can be conflict between competing or conflicting roles of police officers.What is role conflict What impact does role conflict among police officers have on police community relations?

Q9. COM 425 Week 1 Article Critique – Do

Article Critique – Does Communication Matter in ALL Fields?

Read the article, A tool kit for the real world. In this article, the author discusses the importance of communication skills within a field that many people may not believe strong communication skills are necessary. Write a paper about your thoughts on this article. In your paper, be sure to also address the following:
Argue for or against the necessity of strong communication skills in every type of organization.
• Discuss the type of organization that you want to work for in the future and why.
• Evaluate how having strong communication skills will help you within that field.

Please make sure to reference the article and at least one other article in your paper. This can be your textbook, one of the recommended articles, or another article that you have located.

Q10. MKT 500 Week 6 Discussion From th
From the scenario, evaluate the capacity of the most common distribution channels available for the new product launch to provide consumers with easier access to the product. Speculate on the extent to which Golds Reling, Inc. could use each channel to meet profit goals. Choose the most beneficial distribution strategies, and suggest two (2) ways in which this selection could potentially affect consumer adoption of the new product. Provide a rationale for your response.

EDUCATION.
Q1. American Public University SEJPME Final Exam 100% Result
American Public University SEJPME Final Exam
100% Result
SEJPME Final Exam | Complete Solution | Scored 100%
1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially atomic
battlefield? [objective81]
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
tentative landings
fleet dispersion

2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper Fideles”
“Semper Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”

3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32)
mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard

4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council?
[objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security

5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact

6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces

7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan

8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law

9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)

10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness

11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False

12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard?
[objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security

13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False

14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the
following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination

15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training

16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True

17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that
apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night

18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve
Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False

19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression

20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10

21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and
then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True

23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline,
flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations

25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed,
and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine

26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the
commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams.
[objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors

27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton

28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the
Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war

29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security

30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force development
force planning
force training
doctrine

31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.

32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective

33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join
Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S.
embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State.
[objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)

34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving
organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving
authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all
aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the
command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)

35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess?
[objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment

36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which
of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find
themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable

38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds
to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships

39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part
of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent

40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to
collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not
normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning
the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance

41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____
to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task
Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more
than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager

42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know
what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint
intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support
of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate

43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars

44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank

45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes:
(Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military

46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war

47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False

48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command

49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams

50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and
concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective

1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30

2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical

3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization

4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True

5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service

6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a
person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each
other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice

7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions

8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture

9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True

10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian
assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control

11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan

12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False

13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches

14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the
Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include
policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff

15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD

16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False

17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of
multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability

18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7

19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)

20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to
U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force

22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence

23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence

24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces

25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises

26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver
Pre Test
Here is the test result.Correct answers are shown by * next to the choice or given below the question.
The highlighted questions are the questions you have missed.
Remediation Accessed shows whether you accessed those links.’N’ represents links not visited and ‘Y’
represents visited links.
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contains 50 Questions

1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment (correct)
3rd Combat Aviation Brigade

2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information (correct)
economics (correct)
diplomacy (correct)
the military (correct)

3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True (correct)

4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force (correct)
subordinate unified command

5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____
and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences
– both positive and negative.
critically think about (correct)
acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts

6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational (correct)
intermediate

7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe (correct)
maritime safety (correct)
maritime security (correct)

8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare (correct)
a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17 (correct)
clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation

9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy (correct)

10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members (correct)
media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints

11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service (correct)
Life-Saving Service (correct)
Bureau of Navigation

12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True (correct)
False

13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war (correct)
when directed by the President (correct)

14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea” (correct)
Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy

15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process (correct)

16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system (correct)
initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system

17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct (correct)
network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct

18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve (correct)

19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent (correct)
60 percent
40 percent
30 percent

20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine (correct)
Law of warfare

21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities (correct)
major combat operations
forcible entry operations

22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects (correct)
assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction

23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True (correct)
False

24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador (correct)
Secretary of State

25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage (correct)

26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience (correct)
opposition
vulnerability
indifference

27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council (correct)
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council

28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True (correct)
False

29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem (correct)

30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment (correct)
beachhead assault

31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort (correct)
command and control authority
unity of command

32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess (correct)
as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done

33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True (correct)
False

34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence (correct)
prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line

35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit (correct)
effort
workload

36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability (correct)

37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF) (correct)
Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)

38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True (correct)

39) Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought
onboard to combat the rat population, the practice continued to help keep the crew’s morale high.
False
True (correct)

40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically.
False
True (correct)

41) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you
are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning,
Sir,” in the case of an officer.
False
True (correct)

42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA) (correct)
Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)

43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries (correct)
cyberspace operations
major combat operations (correct)
humanitarian assistance (correct)

44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True (correct)

45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II (correct)
Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War

46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation (correct)
situational awareness
influence

47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage (correct)
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests

48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic (correct)
ill-prepared
segregated

49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True (correct)

50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being. (correct)
Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”
100% Result

Q2. BSC2347 Module 3 Quiz 2018
Question 1
The cardiac conduction system causes the right atrium and right ventricle of the heart to contract at the same time, and then the left atrium and left ventricle contract at that same time?

Q3. Synthesis Essay WRTG 394
Synthesis Essay WRTG 394
Synthesis Essay WRTG 394
Synthesis Essay WRTG 394

Q4. CIS 498 Project Deliverable 3: Database and Programming Design| A+ work

CIS 498
Project Deliverable 3: Database and Programming Design
Due Week 6 and worth 150 points

This assignment consists of two (2) sections: a design document and a revised Gantt chart or project plan. You must submit both sections as separate files for the completion of this assignment. Label each file name according to the section of the assignment for which it is written. Additionally, you may create and / or assume all necessary assumptions needed for the completion of this assignment.
One (1) of the main functions of any business is to transform data into information. The use of relational databases has gained recognition as a standard for organizations and business transactions. A quality database design makes the flow of data seamless. The database schema is the foundation of the relational database. The schema defines the tables, fields, relationships, views, indexes, and other elements. The schema should be created by envisioning the business, processes, and workflow of the company.

Section 1: Design Document
1. Write a five to ten (5-10) page design document in which you:
a. Create a database schema that supports the company’s business and processes.
b. Explain and support the database schema with relevant arguments that support the rationale for the structure. Note: The minimum requirement for the schema should entail the tables, fields, relationships, views, and indexes.
c. Create database tables with appropriate field-naming conventions. Then, identify primary keys and foreign keys, and explain how referential integrity will be achieved.
d. Normalize the database tables to third normal form (3NF).
e. Create an Entity-Relationship (E-R) Diagram through the use of graphical tools in Microsoft Visio or an open source alternative such as Dia. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length but must be included in the design document appendix.
f. Explain your rationale behind the design of your E-R Diagram.
g. Create a Data Flow Diagram (DFD) through the use of graphical tools in Microsoft Visio or an open source alternative such as Dia. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length but must be included in the design document appendix.
h. Explain your rationale behind the design of your DFD.
i. Create at least two (2) sample queries that will support the organizational reporting needs.
j. Create at least two (2) screen layouts that illustrate the interface that organizational users will utilize.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
• Include charts or diagrams created in MS Visio or Dia as an appendix of the design document. All references to these diagrams must be included in the body of the design document.

Section 2: Revised Gantt Chart / Project Plan
Use Microsoft Project or an open source alternative, such as Open Project, to:
2. Update the Gantt chart or project plan (summary and detail) template, from Project Deliverable 2: Business Requirements, with all the project tasks.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Describe the various integrative functions and processes within the information systems area, including databases, systems analysis, security, networking, computer infrastructure, human computer interaction, and Web design.
• Demonstrate the ability to evaluate organizational issues with integrative technological solutions.
• Apply integrative information technology solutions with project management tools to solve business problems.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in information technology.
• Write clearly and concisely about strategic issues and practices in the information technology domain using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.

Q5. Disability exceptionality book Human Exceptionality: School, Community, and Family
M4 Discussion 2: Special Schools
Special Schools
In Module 4, you read about the different types of disabilities: language and speech disorders, developmental disabilities, learning disabilities, and Megan’s story on dyslexia. (Text book chapters and Module 4’s e-book: Cognitive and Communicative Exceptionalities).
Based on the types of disabilities as well as services and support needed by students with multiple disabilities, do you think special schools for students with disabilities can be justified? Why or why not? Please pick one of the disabilities discussed in the Module 4’s e-book: Cognitive and Communicative Exceptionalities, and provide an example of why or why not, a special school can be justified.

REQUIREMENTS
Disability exceptionality book Human Exceptionality: School, Community, and Family

Q6. Social Workers and Human Services degreed professionals as HeadStart Teachers
Please improve and finish the attached rational paper.
Show how we can use Human Services and Social Work Degrees as a related degree to Early Childhood Education Degree that is required by the HeadStart Performance Standards found on https://eclkc.ohs.acf.hhs.gov/policy/45-cfr-chap-xiii as a requirement for Teachers hired in HeadStart Classrooms.
Attached is another paper titled Early Childhood Education and Care as a Social Work Issue. It can be used as another reference if needed.

 

Social Workers and Human Services degreed professionals as HeadStart Teachers and why they are desperately needed

This rationale will show the need for Social Work and Human Services educated Teachers in the Head Start Primary Teachers role, and the positive effect it has on the children attending Head Start and their families. This will also show why social work and human services degreed teachers contribute to early childhood education classrooms.
Children that attend Head Start are income base selected. The children must be below the state poverty level to be accepted. The 2018 poverty guidelines for Head Start for a family of four is $25,100. The Santa Fe New Mexican reported that the N.M. poverty rate is down but is still among the worst in the U.S. The New Mexico population is 2,044,187 and the number in Poverty is 401,755. Almost 25% of the State is below the poverty line.
Head Start has over 100 children enrolled in Carlsbad, Artesia, Hagerman, Dexter, Roswell and Loving. At least 90% of these children come from poverty and have been exposed to social exclusion and inequality as do their family. Teachers with a Social Work or Human Services Degree have the knowledge to help with parental problems, emotional and behavioral problems, needed child protection, and working with other agencies or within the agency to help with other issues. Social work and Human Services educated teachers are especially needed in Head Start schools because of the economic status that the Head Start children live in.
Social workers and human service professionals usually help high school drop outs, teen parents, pregnant teens, prisoners or those just released into society and public recipients. Although help is needed in these areas, early prevention is a tool used to curb these situations and minimize the occurrences. Therefore, social workers and human service professionals should be employed in fields of practice of early childhood education and care such as Head Start, an organized care program. “Given the duties that early childhood education and care workers are charged with, “it becomes clear that staff in many settings need knowledge of child psychology, learning theory, adult education and social work.” However, the Head Start performance standards require a Teacher have an AA in Early Childhood Education or related degree. Southeast NM Community Action Corporation (SNMCAC) believes that social work and human services degreed professionals have a related degree based on these facts:
1. Social workers or Human Services degreed professional can add a unique perspective to the effects that Early childhood Education needs to have on children living in poverty and can contribute to practice, policy, and research related to early childhood education and care.
2. Head Start helps young children from low-income families prepare to succeed in school through local programs and promote children’s development through services that support early learning, health, and family well-being.
3. Head Start is a US Dept of Health and Human Services program for early childhood education, health, and nutrition for low income children and their families.
4. Human Services and Social Work degreed professionals too often deal with clients and program at the wrong end of the educational timeline.
5. Head Start programs are staffed by pre-professional and not entirely with employees with even a BA. Social workers with the additional

social workers are or should be employed in various settings and fields of practice affected by early childhood education and care itself or arising from it. Even with less ‘‘problematic’’ client populations, the changing roles of mothers and fathers and the need for substitute care as parents are in the workforce makes early childhood education and care a concern for our clients.

Among the poorest
Poverty rate
Percent of state population below poverty line in 2015:
50) Mississippi: 22
49) New Mexico: 20.4
48) Louisiana: 19.6
47) Arkansas: 19.1
46) Kentucky: 18.5
45) Alabama: 18.5
United States: 14.7
Child poverty rate
50) Mississippi: 31.3
49) New Mexico: 28.6
48) Louisiana: 28.4
47) Arkansas: 27.2
46) Alabama: 26.6
Income growth
From 2014 to 2015:
50) New Jersey: 0.3 percent
49) Idaho: 0.8
48) New Mexico: 1.2
U.S. average: 3.8
Source: U.S. Census Bureau

http://www.santafenewmexican.com/news/local_news/n-m-poverty-rate-down-but-is-still-among-worst/article_5da80fa0-d4cd-5fe7-b0c8-3e05f44a7daf.html pulled 11/27/2018

New Mexico Report – 2018


2018 Poverty Guidelines for the 48 Contiguous States and the District of Columbia
Early Childhood Education and Care as a Social Work Issue
Kahn, Jessica M.Child & Adolescent Social Work Journal: C & A; New York Vol. 31, Iss. 5, (Oct 2014): 419-433. DOI:10.1007/s10560-014-0332-x https://search-proquest-com.contentproxy.phoenix.edu/docview/756481664?accountid=134061&pq-origsite=summon
Retrieved 11/28/18

Q7. Learning Activity 3 EDUC 606

Learning Activity 3 Student Instructions
This learning activity consists of a variety of problems from Chapters 13–15. Spaces for answers are provided; please type your answers directly in the document. Consider highlighting, starring*, or changing the font color of answers for ease of instructor grading.
1. (20 Pts, 1 Pt each). Calculate the mean, median, mode, standard deviation, and range for the following sets of measurements (fill out the table):
a. 13, 7, 6, 6, 3
b. 14, 12, 11, 10, 8
c. 65, 65, 65, 65, 65
d. 12, 10, 9, 8, 6, 51
2. (20 Pts, 5 pts each) Answer the following questions.
a. Why is the SD in (d) so large compared to the SD in (b)?
b. Why is the mean so much higher in (d) than in (b)?
c. Why is the median relatively unaffected?
d. Which measure of central tendency best represents the set of scores in (d)? Why?
3. (24 pts, 2 pts each) Fill in the blanks on the table with the appropriate raw scores, z-scores, T-scores, and approximate percentile ranks. You may refer to the distribution curve below.
4. (20 pts, 2 pts each) The Graduate Record Exam (GRE) has a combined verbal and quantitative mean of 1000 and a standard deviation of 200. Scores range from 200 to 1600 and are approximately normally distributed. For each of the following problems:
(a) Indicate the percentage or score called for by the problem.
(b) Select the appropriate distribution curve (from below) that relates to the problem.
a. What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 800? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
b. Above what score do the top 6.68% of the test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
c. Above what score do 84.13% of the test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
d. What percentage of the persons who take the test score above 1168? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
e. What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 1200? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
5. (16 pts, varied) Refer to the following data and scatterplots to respond to questions 5a-5f.

Individual
Age
Score on Popular Music Test
Figure A represents a scatterplot constructed from the data; Figure B represents a regression line drawn through the scatterplot that “fits” the data points reasonably well; Figure C represents an ellipse drawn around the data points.

a. (2 pts.) Estimate the direction of the correlation:

b. (2 pts.) Estimate the strength of the correlation coefficient:

Consider Figure D (below).
c. (2 pts.) Using only the data points associated with age of 50 and above; what effect does this have on the direction and strength of the correlation coefficient?
d. (4 pts.) Explain why this is the case.
e. (2 pts.) Explain in words what a truncated scatterplot means.
f. (4 pts.) Identify how likely it is that a causal relationship has been indicated.

Q8. Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 7 complete answers A+

BIBL 104 – Quiz 7

• Question 1

In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”

• Question 2

According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.

• Question 3

In Philippians, Paul asserts that he is pursing Christ as passionately as a runner would
pursue the goal and prize of winning a race.

• Question 4

In Galatians Paul says the Galatian Christians have gone to a completely different kind
of gospel.

• Question 5

In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He makes this conclusion by allegorically linking Christians to Sarah rather than ___________.

• Question 6

The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with
different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.

• Question 7

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the
idea that the minister, in response, endures many hardships in order not to discredit the ministry.

• Question 8

1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.

• Question 9

Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.

• Question 10

According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.

• Question 11

In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.

• Question 12

Paul uses the phrase “in Christ” 170 times in his writings to refer to church-age
believers to whom the mystery of the God’s grace was already revealed.

• Question 13

__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.

• Question 14

One of Paul’s principal achievement was that he was the main leader in extending the
church into Asia Minor and Greece, becoming known as the premier apostle to the Gentiles.

• Question 15

2 Timothy was written by Paul to Timothy just before Paul’s martyrdom.

• Question 16

In Galatians, Paul exhorts his readers to “carry one another’s burdens” but at the same
time exhorts each to “carry his own load.”

• Question 17

In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.

• Question 18

The task that Paul gives Titus is to appoint elders and reprove the rebellious.

• Question 19

Paul tells Timothy in 2 Timothy to “preach the word.” It’s not Timothy’s opinion that
he is to preach; it’s what God commands.

• Question 20

In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of

• Question 21

In First Corinthians, Paul encouraged these believers to examine their attitudes before
partaking in this ordinance of the church.

• Question 22

According to Paul in Romans, the presence of the indwelling Holy Spirit has set
believers free from the law and the rule of sin and death.

• Question 23

The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul
was seeking to correct.

• Question 24

In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.

• Question 25

Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is
perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.

• Question 26

In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to

• Question 27

Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good
Christian behavior.

• Question 28

In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.

• Question 29

According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary
death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.

• Question 30

1 Thessalonians is filled with Old Testament quotations as Paul seeks to answer some
of the questions currently troubling the believers at Thessalonica.

• Question 31

According to Paul in Colossians, Christ has made the Father knowable, available, and
approachable to all believers at all times.

• Question 32

In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.

• Question 33

The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.

• Question 34

In First Corinthians, Paul asserted that the Corinthians were operating as immature,
baby Christians, still using the wisdom of the world and this resulted in divisions among them.

• Question 35

In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.

• Question 36

According to Paul in Galatians, the law cannot give life, but it does have the purpose of
revealing our sinful character before God.

• Question 37

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of

• Question 38

The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.

• Question 39

According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and
gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.

• Question 40

In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.

• Question 41

While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s
apostolic authority.

• Question 42

In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until
they had corrected their three current issues.

• Question 43

_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.

• Question 44

Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after
ministering in Ephesus.

• Question 45

In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”

• Question 46

According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.

• Question 47

Throughout 2 Corinthians Paul includes the story of _____________.

• Question 48

In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.

• Question 49

Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the

• Question 50

The church at Corinth was the ideal model for a first-century apostolic church.

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

The church in Rome probably consisted of at least five household churches rather than

one large church.

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Colossians, Christ has made the Father knowable, available, and

approachable to all believers at all times.

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers

who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.

Question 5

0 out of 1 points

In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He makes this conclusion by allegorically linking Christians to Sarah rather than ___________.

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with

different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

Spiritual warfare takes place both in heaven and on earth. Because believers have

victory in Christ in heaven, they should and can have victory on this earth. So, Paul exhorts believers in Ephesians to prepare for spiritual battle on this earth.

Question 8

0 out of 1 points

In _______________, Paul cites an early Christian hymn in order to explain the preeminence

of Christ.

Question 9

0 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in

and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for

both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary

death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

In Philemon, Paul makes himself personally responsible for the amount stolen by

Onesimus. He tells Philemon to “Charge that to my account.”

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

In Ephesians, Paul uses the figure of a temple to describe the church as a spiritual

building in which all the different elements are welded together into a collective unity.

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church

ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s letters to Timothy and Titus are collectively known as the Pastoral Epistles.

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the

resurrection of believers.

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of

love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.

Question 19

0 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they

should have dealt with this sin problem.

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

The church at Corinth was the ideal model for a first-century apostolic church.

Question 22

0 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s

righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.

Question 23

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and

gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s hope in Philippians was to offer practical encouragements to his friends at

Philippi so they would not be tempted to doubt God’s faithfulness even in dire circumstances.

Question 25

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue

Question 26

0 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of

Question 27

0 out of 1 points

In Philippians, Paul asserts that he is pursing Christ as passionately as a runner would

pursue the goal and prize of winning a race.

Question 28

0 out of 1 points

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the

idea that the minister accepts his weakness because of the opportunities it affords.

Question 29

0 out of 1 points

The task that Paul gives Titus is to appoint elders and reprove the rebellious.

Question 30

1 out of 1 points

__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

Paul removed any obstacle Timothy might have had to ministry among Jews by

having the young man circumcised.

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

One of Paul’s principal achievement was that he was the main leader in extending the

church into Asia Minor and Greece, becoming known as the premier apostle to the Gentiles.

Question 33

0 out of 1 points

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the

idea that knowing the fear of God moves the minister to persuade unsaved people to become Christians.

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul

was seeking to correct.

Question 35

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is

that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He

breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.

Question 37

0 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 1 Thessalonians that because of the promise

of the rapture, believers will not suffer the wrath of the Day of the Lord.

Question 38

0 out of 1 points

Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are

“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s epistle to the Romans is not Paul’s most extensive theological writing. That claim

belongs to Galatians – Paul’s epistle to the church in Galatia.

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is

perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.

Question 41

1 out of 1 points

Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the

Question 42

1 out of 1 points

In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is

the Bridegroom.

Question 43

1 out of 1 points

While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s

apostolic authority.

Question 44

1 out of 1 points

In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law

is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”

Question 45

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord

will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.

Question 46

0 out of 1 points

Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have

been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”

Question 47

0 out of 1 points

Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good

Christian behavior.

Question 48

1 out of 1 points

In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament

truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.

Question 49

0 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, to keep him from exalting himself, God gave him a thorn in

the flesh.

Question 50

1 out of 1 points

Paul tells the Philippians that they should live in unity, humility, and selflessness. He

then gives himself as the example for believers to follow when he claims, “follow me as I follow Christ.”

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s apostolic authority.

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the

idea that the minister, in response, endures many hardships in order not to discredit the ministry.

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

Spiritual warfare takes place both in heaven and on earth. Because believers have

victory in Christ in heaven, they should and can have victory on this earth. So, Paul exhorts believers in Ephesians to prepare for spiritual battle on this earth.

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

For Paul in Ephesians, the answer to unity is the fact that we are “in Christ” and all of us are members of “the body of Christ.”

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the idea that the ministry is an opportunity to display the glory of God.

Question 8

1 out of 1 points

Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the

Question 9

0 out of 1 points

In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

Paul reminds Titus that since people were saved “not by works of righteousness that

we had done, but according to His mercy” and justified by God’s grace, they should live a life of good works toward all men.

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of doctrine and the second section is a section on

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

In _______________, Paul cites an early Christian hymn in order to explain the preeminence

of Christ.

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

Paul wanted Timothy to see four generations of ministry duplication. The first

generation was Paul who preached the gospel. The second generation was Timothy who received the gospel from Paul. The third generations were the people converted when Timothy preached. The fourth generation includes the “others” who were taught by faithful men from the third generation.

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.

Question 19

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the

resurrection of believers.

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

Paul uses the phrase “in Christ” 170 times in his writings to refer to church-age believers to whom the mystery of the God’s grace was already revealed.
Question 22

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Galatians, the law cannot give life, but it does have the purpose of revealing our sinful character before God.

Question 23

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, the presence of the indwelling Holy Spirit has set believers free from the law and the rule of sin and death.

Question 25

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Timothy was probably converted to Christianity as a youth when Paul visited his home in Lystra on the first missionary journey with Barnabas.

Question 26

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of

Question 27

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s hope in Philippians was to offer practical encouragements to his friends at

Philippi so they would not be tempted to doubt God’s faithfulness even in dire circumstances.

Question 28

1 out of 1 points

__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church

ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.

Question 29

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and

God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.

Question 30
1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers

who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

In 1 Timothy Paul describes the qualifications of a bishop. He lists both jobs within the church that they must undertake as well as inner character they must possess.

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.

Question 33

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Galatians, Christ redeemed us by becoming a _________ for us when

He hung on the cross.

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good Christian behavior.

Question 35

1 out of 1 points

In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.

Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.

Question 37

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile culture.

Question 38
1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, ___________ is the most personal of all Paul’s letters as he

reveals his own heart for this church and his ministry in general.

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on

Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a piece of the Christian’s spiritual armor

Question 41

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.

Question 42

1 out of 1 points

In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own good works, with or without the law.

Question 43

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a piece of the Christian’s spiritual armor.

Question 44

0 out of 1 points

_______________ contains the earliest instructions for church leaders and orderly

arrangement of the local church.

Question 45

1 out of 1 points

In 1 Timothy Paul identified two acts of heresy: forbidding marriage and abstinence from food.

Question 46

1 out of 1 points

__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.

Question 47

1 out of 1 points

The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul

was seeking to correct.

Question 48

1 out of 1 points

The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.

Question 49

1 out of 1 points

The Galatian Christians were being influenced by Judaizers who would have Gentile believers circumcised and live by the law.

Question 50

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.

Q9. Chapter 19 Palliative Care and End-of-Life Care Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
Chapter 19 Palliative Care and End-of-Life Care

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Hospice care differs from palliative care in that:
A.
It is not covered by insurance
B.
Supports patients and families through both the dying and the bereavement process
C.
It cannot be provided in the nursing home
D.
The majority of those admitted to hospice die within 7 days

____ 2. Evidence reflects the primary obstacle to implementing palliative care in the long-term care setting include all of the following except:
A.
Inadequate communication between decision makers
B.
Failure to recognize futile treatments
C.
Lack of advance directives
D.
Lack of sufficient staff

____ 3. The most prevalent symptom in end-of-life care includes all of the following except:
A.
Lower extremity weakness
B.
Pain
C.
Dyspnea
D.
Delirium

____ 4. Pain at the end of life is most often due to all of the following except:
A.
Musculoskeletal disorders
B.
Headache
C.
Cancer pain
D.
Neuropathic pain

____ 5. The strongest level of evidence reflects the absolute contraindication for NSAID use exists with:
A.
Chronic kidney disease
B.
Peptic ulcer disease
C.
Heart disease
D.
Liver disease

____ 6. The drug specific for severe opioid-induced constipation is:
A.
Lactulose
B.
Ducolax
C.
Mineral oil
D.
Methylnaltrexone

____ 7. Pharmacological interventions for dyspnea include all of the following except:
A.
Antitussives
B.
Inhaled anesthetics
C.
Sedatives
D.
Anxiolytics

____ 8. Delirium is typically characterized by all of the following except:
A.
Inattention
B.
Hyperactive level of psychomotor activity
C.
Disorganized thinking
D.
Altered level of consciousness

____ 9. The first step in treating delirium is to:
A.
Give low-dose Haldol if the patient has psychosis
B.
Identify the cause
C.
Provide reality orientation
D.
Use side rails and/or wrist restraints to keep the patient safe

____ 10. The majority of patients enrolled in hospice care die:
A.
In a nursing home
B.
In the hospital
C.
In an inpatient hospice facility
D.
At home

____ 11. A drug that can be used to treat two very common symptoms in a dying patient (pain and dyspnea) is:
A.
Morphine
B.
Methadone
C.
Gabapentin
D.
Lorazepam

____ 12. The tasks of grieving include all of the following except:
A.
Acknowledge the reality of death
B.
Work through the pain of grief
C.
Begin to disengage
D.
Restructure relationships

____ 13. The best description of complicated grief is:
A.
Chronic, delayed, exaggerated, masked, or disenfranchised
B.
Experience of shock during notification of the death
C.
When grief is actually experienced before the death of a loved one
D.
A physical illness develops soon after death of a loved one

____ 14. All of the following statements are true about interventions in working with the bereaved except:
A.
Allow the active expression of grief
B.
There is strong evidence behind recommended interventions
C.
Staff attending memorial services support the family
D.
Provide both emotional and spiritual support

____ 15. The highest level of evidence to support interventions at the end of life is with:
A.
Opioids for pain control
B.
Hyocsyamine for respiratory secretions
C.
Stimulant laxatives for treating constipation
D.
Opioids for dyspnea

____ 16. The highest level of evidence with the use of adjuvant analgesics is with:
A.
Tricyclic antidepressants avoided due to high adverse events
B.
Therapeutic trials before discontinuing drugs
C.
Patient with fibromyalgia are candidates for adjuvant analgesics
D.
Neuropathic pain patients are candidates for adjuvant analgesia

Q10. Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers

Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s Gospel is the most universal Gospel because the good news about Jesus is for the whole world, not for the Jews only.

• Question 2

1 out of 1 points

Matthew gives special attention to the rejection of Jesus by the Jewish leaders.

• Question 3

1 out of 1 points

The New Testament consists of twenty-seven books that were written in Koine Greek or common Greek.

• Question 4

1 out of 1 points

The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

• Question 5

1 out of 1 points

The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.

• Question 6

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

• Question 7

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, the original audience for the Gospel of John seems to be Greek-speaking Jews who were living outside of Israel.

• Question 8

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

• Question 9

1 out of 1 points

According to early church tradition, Mark was a close disciple of James, the brother of Jesus. So, he heard James tell and retell the stories about Jesus everywhere they went.

• Question 10

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.

• Question 11

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.

• Question 12

1 out of 1 points

In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.

• Question 13

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _______ includes more personal details about Jesus than any other Gospel.

• Question 14

1 out of 1 points

Jesus first miracle was healing a man in Canaan who had leprosy.

• Question 15

0 out of 1 points

John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”

• Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?

• Question 17

1 out of 1 points

John’s portrait of Christ is that of

• Question 18

1 out of 1 points

The book of Hebrews belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

• Question 19

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s audience was familiar with Jewish customs and geography. Thus, he uses them frequently without providing further explanation.

• Question 20

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

• Question 21

1 out of 1 points

All of Jesus’ activity in Mark focus on His Judean ministry with the final week focused exclusively on activities in Jerusalem.

• Question 22

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.

• Question 23

0 out of 1 points

The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.

Selected Answer:
False

• Question 24

1 out of 1 points

John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.

• Question 25

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _________, the travel companion of Paul and Peter, writes for the Roman mind.

• Question 26

0 out of 1 points

The book of Acts ends with a final “update” as Paul awaits his trial before Caesar and the gospel message continues spreading as the church continues to grow.

• Question 27

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Luke’s Gospel puts a good deal of emphasis on prayer, reporting that Jesus prayed eleven times, much more than any other Gospel.

• Question 28

1 out of 1 points

John’s Gospel concludes by noting that while Jesus did many other things, no one could possibly write them all down. If anyone did, even the whole world could not contain all of the books that would have to be written.

• Question 29

1 out of 1 points

The New Testament begins with the first coming of Christ and ends with the promise of His Second Coming.

• Question 30

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

• Question 31

1 out of 1 points

The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.

• Question 32

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books is a General Epistle?

• Question 33

1 out of 1 points

The writer of the Gospel of John identifies himself only as “the disciple Jesus loved.”

• Question 34

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s purpose is to give “an orderly sequence” of the events about Christ’s birth, life, and sacrificial death followed by His resurrection and ascension back to heaven.

• Question 35

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books are Pauline Epistles?

• Question 36

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

• Question 37

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of __________ places an emphasis on the individual person.

• Question 38

1 out of 1 points

Jesus’ seven miraculous “signs” in the Gospel of John were intended to affirm Jesus’ message and confirm His claims.

• Question 39

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.

• Question 40

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books are General Epistles

• Question 41

0 out of 1 points

Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of

• Question 42

1 out of 1 points

Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”

• Question 43

1 out of 1 points

During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.

• Question 44

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.

• Question 45

1 out of 1 points

Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles of Jesus.

• Question 46

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.

• Question 47

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.

• Question 48

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.

• Question 49

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

• Question 50

1 out of 1 points

In order to speed up Jesus’ death so that it did not conflict with the Sabbath, the Jesus legs were broken at the request of the religious leaders.

Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers
Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Because Luke was a physician, there seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

___________ references more historical events in the Roman Empire during the life of Jesus than the other Gospels

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

The book of Philemon belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.

Question 6

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following books is a General Epistle?

Question 7

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?

Question 8

1 out of 1 points

John views the soldiers’ division of Jesus’ clothes is viewed as a prophetic fulfillment.

Question 9

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _______ includes more personal details about Jesus than any other Gospel.

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Luke’s Gospel stresses the role of women more than the other Gospels.

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s purpose is to give “an orderly sequence” of the events about Christ’s birth, life, and sacrificial death followed by His resurrection and ascension back to heaven.

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old Testament.

Question 13

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.

Question 17

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following people did not write a letter included in the New Testament canon.

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books are General Epistles

Question 19

0 out of 1 points

In Matthew, the Parables of the Kingdom contrasts the righteousness of the kingdom of heaven with the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees.

Question 20

0 out of 1 points

The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

Selected Answer:

Question 22

1 out of 1 points

Luke is the longest book in the New Testament and gives a full picture of the life of Christ.

Selected Answer:

Question 23

1 out of 1 points

The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

In John 3 Jesus met _______________, a Jewish ruler in Jerusalem, to whom He explains what it means to be “born again.”

Question 25

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of John can be divided into two sections. The first section is the _____________ and the second section is the Book of Glory.

Question 26

1 out of 1 points

Jesus’ seven miraculous “signs” in the Gospel of John were intended to affirm Jesus’ message and confirm His claims.

Question 27

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.

Question 28

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.

Question 29

1 out of 1 points

A slave’s birth was unimportant, so Mark does not include the birth of Christ.

Question 30

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

A slave is expected to rush from task to task and to do any job immediately so a key word in Mark is “immediately.”

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

John’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 33

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.

Question 35

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.

Question 37

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 38

1 out of 1 points

The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.

Question 41

1 out of 1 points

John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.

Question 42

0 out of 1 points

John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”

Question 43

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

Question 44

1 out of 1 points

John sees prophetic fulfillment in the fact that when they pierced Jesus’ side with a spear both blood and water came out at once.

Question 45

1 out of 1 points

The book of Hebrews belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Question 46

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, the original audience for the Gospel of John seems to be Greek-speaking Jews who were living outside of Israel.

Question 47

1 out of 1 points

All of Jesus’ activity in Mark focus on His Judean ministry with the final week focused exclusively on activities in Jerusalem.

Question 48

1 out of 1 points

Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”

Question 49

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 50

1 out of 1 points

The book of Titus belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Thursday, June 14, 2018 6:05:21 PM EDT

GENDER STUDIES.

Q1. HR MANAGEMENT DISCUSSION
Watch the video titled “Fruit Guys ─ Strategy,”* also located in the Learn section of Week 3 of your Blackboard course. Identify two or three (2-3) businesses that could use the five (5) questions the Fruit Guys used to determine effectiveness. Provide a rationale for your answer. Reply to at least one (1) of your classmate’s posts.
Considering the Impact of Competition on HRM Within a Real Business (10 Points)
Pick an organization that you are familiar with and do a competitive environmental scan for it. Then answer and discuss the following questions:
• How does the competitive environment for the company affect the organization’s HR function?
• Which strategy would be best suited to address the effects discussed?
Provide a rationale for your answers. Reply to at least one (1) of your classmate’s posts.
*Note: Flash Player must be enabled in your browser to view this video.

Q2. HR MANAGEMENT Assisgnment 1
Imagine you are the HR manager at a company, and a female employee came to you upset because she felt a male coworker was creating a hostile work environment by repeatedly asking her out on dates even after she said “no”. What would you do?
Write a one (1) page paper in which you:
1. Formulate the conversation you would have with the employee, based the concepts found in Chapter 2 in your textbook.
2. Summarize the conversation you would have with the employee’s male co-worker, based on the concepts found in Chapter 2 of your textbook.
3. Format your assignment according to the following formatting requirements:
1. Typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
2. Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, your name, your professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page is not included in the required page length.

Q3. Discussion Board Forum
Discussion Board Forum Instructions
Discussion boards are collaborative learning experiences. Therefore, the student is required to provide a thread in response to the provided prompt for each forum. Each thread must be 250–300 words, demonstrate course-related knowledge, include 1 citation is current APA format, and include 1 biblical integration. In addition to the thread, the student is required to reply to two (2) other classmates’ threads. Each reply must be 175–200 words, include 1 citation in current APA format, and must reference the textbook readings.

Q4. Thinking Critically
all instructions in the attachment below

THINKING CRITICALLY 3
For this assignment, you will pick 3 questions from among the video and the chapter readings and answer each with a minimum of 3 paragraphs that are 3–5 sentences per paragraph.
NOTE: You will answer 3 questions total.
Read Chapter 16 of the Straubhaar et al. text. Select 1 question from the list below to answer:
1. Justify governmental interventions into the media marketplace in terms of preserving competition.
2. Define network neutrality.
3. Distinguish vertical integration from horizontal integration and cross-ownership.
4. Choose one of the organizations listed here and discuss their role in regard to media regulations: the FCC, the Department of Commerce, NTIA, the judicial system, and Congress.
Read Chapter 17 of the Straubhaar et al. text. Select 1 question from the list below to answer:
1. Define the terms “morality” and “ethics” and discuss the differences between them.
2. Describe how the morality and ethics of those participating in various media outlets might have an impact on your life. Include social media like FaceBook, Twitter and Instagram effects in your discussion.

View the Media Law Videos in this Module/Week.
1. Choose one topic presented by Attorney Nancy Kippanhan in the media law videos and discuss how this issue impacts you or your family.
Submit Thinking Critically 3 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on FRIDAY of Module/Week 8.
THINKING CRITICALLY INSTRUCTIONS
During module/weeks 2,4, and 8, you will select critical thinking questions to answer based on the assigned textbook readings and/or video presentations. A minimum of 3 paragraphs each made up of 3-5 sentences is required per question/answer. You will select a total of 3 questions from those provided in the Thinking Critically document for each respective module/week.
Submission:
The question/answers must be submitted in a Microsoft Word document to the assignment submission link on Blackboard. Do not copy and paste the text into the text box. When typing your questions and answers in Word, it must be clear to the reader where the questions and answers begin and end. For example, format your question/answers like this:
1. Q: State the question.
A. Write your answer.
2. Q: State the question.
A. Write your answer.

Submit Thinking Critically assignments 1and 2 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the assigned module/week.

Submit Thinking Critically 3 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 8.

Q5. Discussion Board Forum:

pretty easy all instructions are in an attachment below

DISCUSSION BOARD FORUM: AMERICAN EVENTS INSTRUCTIONS

Statement of Purpose or “Why Am I Doing This?”
One of the goals of the discussion boards is to encourage student community learning, and to help you gain valuable experience with analyzing evidence and presenting sound arguments based on you read and know. To this end, your Discussion Board Forum assignment will require you to examine events from a variety of perspectives and construct an argument that supports a specific point of view based on the supplied prompt.

Participation:
• To support the stated goals, you must participate fully in Discussion Board Forum: American Events (the “Editorial” and the “Letters to the Editor”) to receive full credit. You must also submit all work on time.

Response to the Prompt – Editorial (First Submission)
• You must select 1 topic from the “Discussion Board Forum Topic Selection” document.
• Read the information associated with the topic provided in the appropriate Discussion Board Readings folder in Blackboard.
• Submit your 400–500-word response to the prompt to the Discussion Board Forum in the form of a newspaper editorial article. Your Editorial must address 1 point of view presented in the thread for the topic you choose. Use the materials you read to write, assuming you are living in the time in which the event occurred and are writing to a contemporary audience who wants the news and your point of view on it. Your work must be clearly supported by your readings and biblical principles; however, you must use no more than 2 short quotations of course materials. You must take a definite position on the question asked.
• Your Editorial must be submitted directly as a reply to the appropriate thread. Do not attach your Editorial as a Microsoft Word document or PDF file.
• Appropriate citations must be made using parenthetical references in proper and current Turabian format (these must be complete citations including page numbers when applicable).
• First person is allowed.

Replies – Letters to the Editor (Second Submission)
• Be aware that the replies portion of your Discussion Board Forum is worth more than your thread. Review your grading rubric for more details.
• Replies must be considered as “Letters to the Editor,” assuming you are the reader of this newspaper and want to respond to what you have read.
• Substantive replies of 150–250 words are required. Comments such as “You have a good point,” “I like what you said,” or “I agree (or disagree) with you” are not adequate replies. Letters to the Editor must show some analytical thought and encourage more dialogue. Ask questions, give a different point of view, bring up another aspect of the topic your classmates did not cover, and so on.
• At least 5 Letters to the Editor are required, 3 in response to classmates’ Editorials and 2 in response to classmates’ responses to Editorials (to either the student’s own Editorial or to the Editorials of their classmates). Keep in mind that not everyone has the same opinions, ideas, or backgrounds. Differing opinions are welcome, but must always be stated in a respectful and professional manner. Personal attacks, profanity, or insulting behavior will not be tolerated. Behavior of this type will result in a ban from the Discussion Board Forum and a loss of all points for the Discussion Board Forum assignments. It will also be reported to Student Affairs as a violation of the Honor Code.

Assessment:
• The grading rubric clearly indicates how your work will be graded in terms of point value. Review it carefully to ensure you earn maximum potential points for your efforts.

Submit your Editorial by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Thursday and your Letters to the Editor by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.
Q6. Week 5 discussion What are the rele
Discuss the pros and cons of firewall deployments by answering the following questions:
• What are the relevant issues surrounding firewall deployments How does one balance security requirements with usability requirements?
Summarize your thoughts in a Microsoft Word document checking for spelling and grammar, then submit it directly (cut & paste) into the discussion thread. Respond to at least two other students’ views to engage in a meaningful debate regarding their posts or to defend your post.
Required Resources
• Textbook and Internet
• Handout: Firewall Implementation Planning
Submission Requirements
• Format: Please enter directly into the Discussion Question window
• Citation Style: Follow APA

Q7. Define public community health. How
HA560-1: Identify the role of assessment in public health.
HA560-5: Evaluate information used to make public health decisions.
PC-5.1: Use language that is clear, concise, and organized.
This is Part 1 to the assignments throughout this course. All of your assignments tie into each other, so read ahead to Units 4, 6 & 8 to understand what is expected of you for each assignment.
Instructions:
Answer the following questions concerning the role of assessment of public health:
1. Define public community health. How does this differ from personal health What are the benefits of public health assessments? What are the disadvantages, if any? Give an example of a potential conflict within the community that could arise as a result of public health assessments. How can public health advocates and policy makers prevent and/or manage such a conflict?
2. How can public health assessments be used to form public policy?
3. Choose one health concern and cite legislation that has been passed to address this concern. Discuss how this legislation has affected or could affect your
You may choose one of the following or one of your own choosing:
• Smoking in public places
• Accessibility for physically handicapped populations
• Legalization of marijuana for medicinal purposes
• Youth violence
• Domestic violence
• Child abuse
• Elder abuse

Q8. CIS 110Technical Paper Object-orient

CIS110 Week 10 Technical Paper Object-oriented Programming (OOP) / Event-Driven Programming (EDP) versus Procedural Programming (PP)

1. Identify at least two (2) advantages to using OOP as compared to using only PP.
2. Create one (1) original example of a class with at least one (1) attribute and one (1) method. Identify what the class in question represents, the attributes the class stores, and the purpose of the related method. Next, examine the relationship between the class, attributes, and methods that you have identified.
3. Describe at least one (1) feature of object-oriented programming that Visual Logic lacks.
4. Identify at least one (1) advantage to using event-driven programming, as compared to using purely procedural programming.
5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

Q9. Conduct some independent research
Researchers are increasingly looking for answers as allergic diseases continue to rise in the population. The predominant explanation, coined the “hygiene hypothesis” by Professor David Strachan in 1989, states that a lack of early childhood exposure to microbes and other infectious agents increases susceptibility to allergic diseases by suppressing the natural development of the immune system. The idea was widely reported by the media that developed societies, like the United States, have become “too clean”.
Read the following article about the hygiene hypothesis to learn more, then answer the questions below in your initial post:
Bradford, A. (2016). What is the Hygiene Hypothesis? Live Science. Accessed at http://www.livescience.com/54078-hygiene-hypothesis.html on September 14, 2016.
1. Conduct some independent research on the hygiene hypothesis. What contradictory evidence against the hypothesis can you find?
2. Have any new hypotheses been proposed to explain the increase in allergic conditions? How does it support the original hygiene hypothesis?
Do you think the hygiene hypothesis needs to be renamed? Why or why not?

Q10. Find an article on the Internet, outline
Find an article on the Internet, outline a security breach or cyberattack. Provide a link to the article and suggest a control that would mitigate against that attack. Clearly explain why that control would be an effective mitigation strategy.

HEALTH CARE.
Q1. NURSING 212 Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
Before donning gloves to perform a procedure, proper hand hygiene is essential. The nurse understands that the most important aspect of hand hygiene is the amount of
A nurse is demonstrating postoperative deep breathing and coughing exercises to a client about to undergo emergency abdominal surgery for appendicitis. The nurse realizes the client may be unprepared to learn if the client
A client comes to the emergency department reporting that he has had diarrhea for 4 days and is urinating less than usual. When assessing the client’s skin turgor, the nurse should
A nurse is planning interventions for a group of
clients who are obese. What can the nurse do to
improve their commitment to a long term goal of weight loss?
When admitting a client, the nurse records which information in the client’s record first?
StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
Friction
reports severe pain.
grasp a fold of skin on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note if it springs back.
Attempt to develop the clients’ self-motivation.
Assessment of the client
1/27 5/25/2019
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A nurse tells a client that the provider has prescribed IV fluids. The client appears to be upset about the IV catheter insertion, but says nothing to the nurse. Which of the following of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
A client who is unstable and requires frequent vital signs has an electronic blood pressure machine automatically measuring his blood
pressure every 15 min. However, the machine is reading the client’s blood pressure at more frequent intervals, and the readings are not similar. The nurse checks the machine settings and observes the additional readings, but the problem continues. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action?
A nurse is caring for a client just diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client is resistant to learning self injection of insulin and asks the nurse to administer all the injections. The nurse explains the importance of learning self care and appropriately adds which of the following statements?
An assistive personnel (AP) says to the nurse, “This client is incontinent of stool three or four times a day. | get angry, and | think that the client is doing it just to get attention. | think we should put adult diapers on her.” Which is the appropriate nursing response?
A nurse’s neighbor is scheduled for elective surgery. The neighbor’s provider indicated that a moderate amount of blood loss is expected during the surgery, and the neighbor is anxious about acquiring an infection from a blood transfusion. Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to suggest?
“Is there something about this procedure that concerns you?”
Disconnect the machine, and measure the blood pressure manually every 15 min.
“Tell me what | can do to help you overcome your fear of giving yourself injections.”
“It is very upsetting to see an adult client regress.”
Donating autologous blood before the surgery
2/27 5/25/2019
At a mobile screening clinic, a nurse is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur due to aortic stenosis. To auscultate the aortic valve, the nurse should place the stethoscope at which location?
A client is admitted to the hospital with decreased circulation in the left leg. During the admission assessment, which is the most important nursing action initially?
A nurse is caring for a client who requires rectal temperature monitoring. Available at the client’s bedside is a thermometer is with a long, slender tip. Which of the following is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A nurse is teaching a client who has cardiovascular disease how to reduce his intake of sodium and cholesterol. The nurse understands that the most significant factor in planning dietary changes for this client is the
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is confused and continually grabs at the nurses. Which of the following is an nursing action?
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Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum.
Evaluate the pedal pulses.
Obtain a thermometer with a short, blunt insertion end.
involvement of the client in planning the change.
Firmly tell him to not grab
3/27 5/25/2019
An assistive personnel (AP) tells the nurse, “I am unable to find a large blood pressure cuff for a client who is obese. Can | just use the regular cuff if | can get it to stay on?” The nurse replies
that taking the blood pressure of a morbidly obese client with a regular blood pressure cuff will result in a reading that is
Which of the following should the nurse do first when preparing to provide tracheostomy care?
A 3 year old child has had multiple tooth extractions while under general anesthesia. The client returns from the postanesthesia care crying, but awake, from the recovery room. Which approach is likely to be successful?
A nurse admits a client to a same-day surgery center for an exploratory laparotomy procedure this morning. The client’s surgeon asks the nurse to witness the signing of the preoperative consent form. In signing the form as a witness, the nurse affirms that
To use proper body mechanics while making an occupied bed for a client on bed rest, the nurse should
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high
Perform hand hygiene.
Examine the mouth last.
the signature on the preoperative consent form is the client’s.
place the bed in a high horizontal position.
4127 5/25/2019
Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?
When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), the nurse must confirm which of the following assessment findings prior to beginning chest compressions?
A nurse on a rehabilitation unit is transferring a client from a bed to a chair. To avoid a back injury, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?
An older adult client appears agitated when the nurse requests that the client’s dentures be removed prior to surgery and states, “| never go anywhere without my teeth.” Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
To use the nursing process correctly, the nurse must first
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Elimination of the exposure
Absence of pulse
Bend at the knees while maintaining a wide stance and a straight back, with the client’s hands on the nurse’s shoulders, and the nurse’s hands under the client’s axillae.
“You seem worried. Are you concerned someone may see you without your teeth?”
obtain information about the client.
5/27 5/25/2019
A postoperative client has been diagnosed with paralytic ileus. When performing auscultation of the client’s abdomen, the nurse expects the bowel sounds to be
While starting an intravenous infusion (IV) for a client, the nurse notices that her gloved hands get spotted with blood. The client has not been diagnosed with any infection transmitted via the bloodstream. Which of the following should the nurse do as soon as the task is completed?
A nurse is precepting a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to help a client perform tracheostomy care. The nurse should intervene if the equipment the preceptee gathered included
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a terminal illness. The client asks several questions about the nurse’s religious beliefs related to death and dying. An appropriate nursing response is to
When assessing a client’s heart sounds, the nurse hears a scratching sound during both systole and diastole. These sounds become more distinct when the nurse has the client sit up and lean forward. The nurse should document the presence of a(n)
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Absent
Throw gloves away, perform hand hygiene
Cotton balls
encourage the client to express his thoughts about death and
dying.
pericardial friction rub.
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A client admitted with abdominal pain tells the nurse that her father died recently, and she begins crying while talking about him. The nurse determines that the client’s temperature is 39.2° C (102.6° F), her abdomen is soft without tenderness, and her menses is overdue by 2 days. To which observation should the nurse give priority attention?
At the surgical scrub sink, a surgical nurse demonstrates the proper surgical handwashing technique by scrubbing
A client scheduled for a hysterectomy has not yet signed the operative consent form. When the nurse approaches the client and asks that she review and sign the form, the client says she no longer wants to have the surgery. At this time, which action should the nurse take?
A nurse prepares to admit a client who is immediately postoperative to the unit following abdominal surgery. When transferring the client from the gurney to the bed, the nurse should
A client is admitted to the hospital in the terminal stage of cancer. The nurse enters the client’s room to administer medications and finds the client crying. The appropriate nursing action is
to
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The client’s temperature
with her hands held higher than her elbows
Ask the client why she has changed her mind.
lock the wheels on the bed and stretcher.
sit and hold the client’s hand.
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A nurse is performing an abdominal assessment of an adult client. Identify the correct sequence of steps used for this assessment.
While measuring a client’s vital signs, the nurse notices an irregularity in the heart rate. Which nursing action is appropriate?
A nurse is caring for a client who has hypertension. Which approach is the priority when the nurse is measuring the client’s blood pressure?
A hospitalized client needs a chest x ray. The radiology department calls the nursing unit and says that they are sending a transporter for the
client. When entering the client’s room, the priority action is to
An older adult client just diagnosed with colon cancer asks the nurse what the primary care provider is going to do. The provider will be making rounds within the hour. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?
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Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
Count the apical pulse rate for 1 full min, and describe the rhythm in the chart.
Obtain the blood pressure under the same conditions each time.
check the client’s identification bracelet.
Help the client write down the questions to ask the provider, so that the client doesn’t forget.
8/27 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
5/25/2019 A nurse is teaching a client with a new wg: . . . colostomy about how to irrigate the ostomy. The positions the irrigating solution nurse realizes that the client needs further i teaching when the client bag 30 inches above the stoma. When replacing a client’s surgical dressing, the nurse don clean Bessa une
should
When a nurse makes an initial assessment of a
client who is postoperative following a gastric
resection, the client’s nasogastric tube is not draining. The nurse’s attempt to irrigate the tube ;
with 10 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride is Notify the surgeon. unsuccessful, so she determines that the tube is obstructed. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A client returning from the surgical suite
following a vaginal hysterectomy is awake and “| am going to listen to
asking for something to drink. her postoperative diet prescription reads: Clear liquids; advance “W diet as tolerated. Which of the following is You ra bdomen = appropriate for the nurse to tell the client?
The mother of a toddler calls to the nurse, “Help! vps My baby is choking on his food.” The nurse Inability of the toddler to cry OF determines that the Heimlich maneuver is speak
necessary based on which finding?
9/27 5/25/2019 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
A nurse is caring for a client who is 3 days postoperative following a cholecystectomy. The nurse suspects a wound infection because the
drainage on the dressing is yellow and thick. The nurse identifies this type of drainage as
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for tube feeding. The nurse understands that the provider prescribed tube feeding because the client
A nurse takes an older adult client who has dysphagia following a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) to the dining room for dinner. When assisting the client at mealtime, the nurse should
A nurse is collecting a urine specimen for a client to test via urine dipstick the urine’s specific gravity. The nurse knows the result will indicate the amount of
While changing the linen on a client’s bed, the nurse should
purulent.
is unable to swallow foods by mouth.
solutes tn the urine.
hold the linen away from his body and clothing.
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Which nursing action prevents injury to a client’s eye during the administration of eye drops?
A client returns from surgery with two Penrose drains in place. Anticipating frequent dressing changes, what should the nurse use around the incision area?
A nurse is performing an eye irrigation for a client who has been exposed to smoke and ash. Which of the following nursing actions should receive the highest priority during the irrigation?
A client develops a fecal impaction. Before
digital removal of the mass, which type of
enema should the nurse give to loosen the feces?
When communicating with a client who is hearing impaired the nurse should
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Holding the tip of the container above the conjunctival sac
Montgomery straps
Wearing gloves during the procedure
Oil retention
face the client and speak slowly.
11/27 5/25/2019
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) has been
initiated for a client in the emergency room. The
nurse understands that a critical concept related
to effective cardiac (chest) compressions is the need to
A client is admitted for evaluation and control of hypertension. Several hours after the client’s admission, the nurse discovers the client supine on the floor, unresponsive to verbal or painful stimuli. The nurse’s first action at this time should be to
When ambulating a frail, older adult client, the nurse should
A nurse is caring for a client who is incontinent of loose stool and is reporting a painful perineum. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
A client being discharged following abdominal surgery will be performing his own dressing changes at home. It is most important for the nurse to include which of the following in the discharge plan?
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push hard and deep on the chest.
establish an airway.
use a transfer belt if the client is unsteady.
Check the client’s perineum.
Demonstration of appropriate hand hygiene
12/27 5/25/2019
When obtaining a urine specimen for a culture and sensitivity from an indwelling catheter, the nurse should
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous infusion (IV) that has infiltrated. Which of the following would be an unexpected finding when the nurse assesses the client’s infusion line and insertion site?
A client’s provider has ordered that a sputum
specimen be collected for culture and sensitivity.
The nurse plans to collect this specimen
A postoperative client has an indwelling urinary
catheter in place to gravity drainage. The nurse
notes that the client’s urinary drainage bag has
been empty for 2 hr. The first action the nurse should take is to
A client is hospitalized for an infection of a surgical wound following abdominal surgery. To promote healing and fight wound infection the nurse plans to arrange to increase the client’s intake of
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cleanse the entry port prior to withdrawing urine.
The area around the injection site feels warm when touched.
in the morning, on arising.
check to see if the tubing is kinked.
vitamin C and zinc.
13/27 5/25/2019
An older adult client has been hospitalized on bed rest for 1 week. The client reports elbow pain. Which of the following is an appropriate initial action for the nurse caring for this client to take?
A nurse is caring for a client who has just had a mastectomy and has a closed wound suction device (Hemovac) in place. Which nursing action will ensure proper operation of the device?
A client is recovering from gallbladder surgery performed under general anesthesia. The nurse should encourage the client to use the incentive
spirometer how many times per hour?
A nurse is in a public building when someone cries out, “Help! | think he’s having a heart attack!” The nurse responds to the scene and finds an unconscious adult lying on the floor. Another bystander has obtained an automated external defibrillator (AED). The nurse’s first action, after making certain someone has called for emergency medical services (EMS), should be to
A nurse is caring for several clients who are receiving oxygen therapy. Which client should the nurse assess most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity? The client receiving
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Examine the elbow.
Collapsing the device whenever it’s one half to two thirds full of air
Four to five
administer cardiac compressions.
100% oxygen via a partial rebreathing mask.
14/27 5/25/2019
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a partial colectomy. The client has a nasogastric tube set to low continuous suction. The client tells the nurse that his throat is sore and asks the nurse when the nasogastric tube will be taken out. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate at this time?
In planning care for a client with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention, the nurse can anticipate that the client will
A client recovering from an appendectomy for a ruptured appendix has a surgical wound healing by secondary intention. When changing the client’s dressing, which observation should the nurse report to the client’s surgeon?
The nurse is caring for an adult client who has fluid volume excess. When weighing this client, the nurse should
A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube for a client admitted with a bowel obstruction. Which of the following should the nurse do first?
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“When your gastrointestinal tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.”
be at an increased susceptibility for infection.
A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin
weigh the client on arising.
Explain the procedure to the client.
15/27 5/25/2019 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
A nurse is planning to collect a liquid stool specimen from a client for ova and parasites. Inaccurate test results may result if the nurse
A nurse has inserted an indwelling urinary catheter for a male client. Where should the nurse tape the catheter to prevent pressure on the client’s urethra at the penoscrotal junction?
A nurse is assisting a client with a meal. The client suddenly grabs at her neck with both hands and appears frightened. The appropriate nursing action is to
A client who is postoperative following a laparotomy is reporting pain and a dry mouth. The client has morphine sulfate ordered to control the pain. Before administering the morphine sulfate prescribed for the client the nurse should first
A nurse is assessing a client admitted with a sudden onset of severe back pain of unknown origin. Which statement would be most effective for the nurse use to elicit further information from this client about his pain?
refrigerates the collected specimen.
Lower abdomen
ask the client if she is choking.
measure the client’s vital signs.
“Tell me how you are feeling right now.”
16/27 5/25/2019 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following thoracic surgery. Which of the following manifestations should alert the
nurse to the possibility of early hypovolemic shock?
Which nursing action demonstrates safe principles of administering a routine immunization to an infant?
A nurse is caring for a female client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse determines that the assistive personnel (AP) performing hygiene care for the client requires further education about the care of indwelling catheters when she observes the AP
A nurse caring for a client who is immobilized knows that, without interventions to prevent constipation and fecal impaction, this client is at risk for
A nurse has organized a discussion session for assistive personnel (AP) at an extended care facility about cultural and religious traditions and rituals at the time of death. The nurse determines that one of the participants has a misconception when the AP states that
Irritability
Inject the vaccine into the vastus lateralis muscle.
hanging the collection bag at the level of the bladder.
intestinal obstruction.
organ donation is strictly forbidden by the Baptist Church.
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A nurse is caring for a client on strict bed rest. When entering the client’s room, the nurse notices flames in the waste basket. The nurse’s priority action is to
While preparing a client for discharge, the nurse teaches the proper position for postural drainage. The nurse knows that to achieve success in this teaching program, the information about the client that is most important is the
A right handed client is admitted with a fractured right arm and contusions of the left wrist following a motor vehicle crash. Which intervention should the nurse use when
assisting the client with feeding?
When transcribing the orders for a client admitted with an exacerbation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a newly licensed nurse notes that the provider has prescribed a medication with which the nurse is unfamiliar. The nurse should
A client is 2 days postoperative following an appendectomy. While changing the linens on the client’s bed, the nurse notes drainage from an infected wound has soiled the bed sheet. The appropriate nursing action is to
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pull the client out into the hall in the bed.
client’s goal concerning his ability to be self-sufficient.
Offer small bites of food.
consult the medication reference book available on the unit.
carefully place the soiled sheet in a moisture-resistant plastic laundry bag.
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Following an accidental fall while playing volleyball, a client is sent home in a lower leg cast due to a hairline fracture of the tibia and
must use crutches. When teaching the client the four-point gait, the nurse explains that the client should
A client is prescribed a hypothermia blanket. When caring for the client, the nurse
A client is ambulating in the hallway in bare feet. What is the priority nursing action at this time?
A client is about to have a nasogastric tube (NG) inserted. The nurse explains the procedure and is ready to begin the insertion when the client says, “No way! You are not putting that hose down my throat. Get away from me.” Which of the following statements is an appropriate nursing response?
A nurse is teaching a client recovering from a cerebrovascular accident how to dress. The client has residual hemiplegia, so the nurse
instructs the client to do which of the following
when putting on a shirt?
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be able to bear weight on both legs.
places a layer of cloth between the client and the blanket.
Get the client’s slippers and have him put them on.
“| can see that this is upsetting you.”
“Slide your weaker arm through its sleeve first.”
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While eating, a client suddenly coughs a few times then attempts to cough and makes a whistling sound on inhalation. The nurse recognizes that the client is choking. When performing the Heimlich maneuver on a conscious client, which nursing action is effective?
A provider has prescribed restraints for a client who

Q2. NURSING N637: Chapter 32: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
What is the initiating event that leads to the development of atherosclerosis?
What is the effect of oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) in atherosclerosis?
Which inflammatory cytokines are released when endothelial cells are injured?
When endothelia cells are injured, what alteration contributes to atherosclerosis?
Which factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension?
What pathologic change occurs to the kidney’s glomeruli as a result of hypertension?
What effect does atherosclerosis have on the development of an aneurysm?
Regarding the endothelium, what is the difference between healthy vessel walls and those that promote clot formation?
What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?
Which factor can trigger an immune response in the bloodstream that may result in an embolus?
Which statement best describes thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)?
Which statement best describes Raynaud disease?
What change in a vein supports the development of varicose veins?
Superior vena cava syndrome is a result of a progressive increase of which process?
What term is used to identify when a cell is temporarily deprived of blood supply?
The risk of developing coronary artery disease is increased up to threefold by which factor?
Which risk factor is associated with coronary artery disease (CAD) because of its relationship with the alteration of hepatic lipoprotein?
Nicotine increases atherosclerosis by the release of which neurotransmitter?
Which substance is manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein?
Which elevated value may be protective of the development of atherosclerosis?
Which laboratory test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?
Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for how many minutes?
Which form of angina occurs most often during sleep as a result of vasospasms of one or more coronary arteries?
When is the scar tissue that is formed after a myocardial infarction (MI) most vulnerable to injury?
An individual who is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase–isoenzyme MB (CK-MB), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) is exhibiting indicators associated with which condition?
What is the expected electrocardiogram (ECG) pattern when a thrombus in a coronary artery permanently lodges in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?
How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
A patient reports sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. These clinical manifestations describe:
Ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure, characterize which form of cardiomyopathy?
A disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum is the hallmark of which form of cardiomyopathy?
Amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, or glycogen storage disease usually causes which form of cardiomyopathy?

Which condition is a cause of acquired aortic regurgitation?
Which predominantly female valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, as well as being associated with connective tissue disease?
Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?
What is the most common cause of infective endocarditis?
What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which form of heart failure may result from pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance?
What cardiac pathologic condition contributes to ventricular remodeling?
In systolic heart failure, what effect does the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) have on stroke volume?
What is the cause of the dyspnea resulting from a thoracic aneurysm?
Which statement is true concerning the cells’ ability to synthesize cholesterol?
What is the trigger for angina pectoris?
Individuals being effectively managed for type 2 diabetes mellitus often experience a healthydecline in blood pressure as a result of what intervention?
Which statements are true regarding fatty streaks? (Select all that apply.) Fatty streaksprogressively damage vessel walls.
Fatty streaks are capable of producing toxic oxygen radials.
When present, inflammatory changes occur to the vessel walls.
Oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) are involved in their formation.
What factors contribute to the development of orthostatic hypotension? (Select all that apply.)
Altered body chemistry
Drug action of certain antihypertensive agents
Prolonged immobility
Effects of aging on postural reflexes
Which assessment findings are clinical manifestations of aortic stenosis? (Select all that apply.)
Which risk factors are associated with infective endocarditis? (Select all that apply.)
Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
A. Impairs flow from left atrium to left ventricle
B. Impairs flow from the left ventricle
C. Backflow into left atrium
D. Backflow into right atrium
E. Backflow into left ventricle
Aortic stenosis
Aortic regurgitation

Mitral stenosis
Tricuspid regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation

Q3. NURS 545/BIOLOGY 4344: Patho Exam 2 Review: 100%
101. The level of TSH in Graves’ disease is usually:
a.
high.
b.
low.
c.
normal.

____ 102. Upon palpation of the neck of a patient with Graves’ disease, what would the nurse expect to find?
a.
Normal-sized thyroid
b.
Small discrete thyroid nodule
c.
Multiple discrete thyroid nodules
d.
Diffuse thyroid enlargement

____ 103. What are clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism?
a.
Intolerance to heat, tachycardia, and weight loss
b.
Oligomenorrhea, fatigue, and warm skin
c.
Restlessness, increased appetite, and metrorrhagia
d.
Constipation, decreased heat rate, and lethargy

____ 104. Diagnosing thyroid carcinoma is best done with:
a.
measurement of serum thyroid levels.
b.
radioisotope scanning.
c.
ultrasonography.
d.
fine-needle aspiration biopsy.

____ 105. Renal failure is the most common cause of _____ hyperparathyroidism.
a.
primary
b.
secondary
c.
exogenous
d.
inflammatory

____ 106. What is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism?
a.
Pituitary hyposecretion
b.
Parathyroid adenoma
c.
Parathyroid gland damage
d.
Autoimmune parathyroid disease

____ 107. An adult female had a thyroidectomy this morning. She develops muscle spasms, increased deep tendon reflexes, and laryngeal spasm. What is the most common cause of these findings?
a.
Calcium deficit due to reduced parathormone
b.
Overuse of radioactive iodine given pre-operatively
c.
A history of insufficient dietary intake of iodine
d.
An increase in serum phosphorous caused by reduced calcitonin

____ 108. What is the most probable cause of low serum calcium following thyroidectomy?
a.
Hyperparathyroidism secondary to Graves’ disease
b.
Myxedema secondary to surgery
c.
Hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury
d.
Hypothyroidism caused by lack of thyroid replacement

____ 109. A male patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20; serum glucose 500 mg/dl; urine glucose and ketones positive; serum K+ 2 mEq/L; serum Na+ 130 mEq/L. He reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for 1 week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?
a.
Increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space.
b.
Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresis.
c.
Increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis.
d.
Decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss.

____ 110. What is a description of diabetes mellitus type 2?
a.
There is a resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues.
b.
The patient uses lispro instead of regular insulin.
c.
There is an increased glucagon secretion from -cells of the pancreas.
d.
There are insulin autoantibodies that destroy ß-cells in the pancreas.

____ 111. A patient with diabetes mellitus type 1 experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?
a.
Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration
b.
Dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bed time
c.
Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise
d.
Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity

____ 112. Which clinical finding occurs first in metabolic acidosis of the patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus?
a.
Ketones in the urine
b.
Palpitations, anxiety, and confusion
c.
Hyperlipidemia
d.
Kussmaul respirations

____ 113. Why does hyperkalemia develop in diabetic ketoacidosis?
a.
Because sodium is low, which stimulates aldosterone to retain sodium and potassium
b.
Because hydrogen shifts into the cell in exchange for potassium to compensate for metabolic acidosis
c.
Because phosphorus shifts into the cell in exchange for potassium due to the lack of insulin
d.
Because the blood is concentrated due to the loss of water from polyuria

____ 114. What is a difference in clinical manifestations between diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar non-ketosis syndrome?
a.
Fluid loss
b.
Glycosuria
c.
Increased serum glucose
d.
Kussmaul respirations

____ 115. Hypoglycemia followed by rebound hyperglycemia is seen in:
a.
the Somogyi effect.
b.
the dawn phenomenon.
c.
diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
d.
hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketosis syndrome (HHNKS).

____ 116. What is the first lab test that indicates a patient with type 1 diabetes is developing nephropathy?
a.
Dipstick test for urine ketones
b.
Increase in serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c.
Protein in the urinalysis
d.
Cloudy urine on the urinalysis

____ 117. Why do patients with diabetes mellitus develop hyperlipidemia?
a.
Because they have increases in low density lipoproteins (¬LDL) and triglycerides (-TG)
b.
Because they have decreased low density lipoproteins (¯LDL) and increased triglycerides (¬TG)
c.
Because they have decreased low density lipoproteins (¯LDL) and increased high density lipoproteins (¬HDL)
d.
Because they have increased high density lipoproteins (¬HDL) and decreased triglycerides (¯TG)

____ 118. What causes the microvascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?
a.
The capillaries contain plaques of lipids that obstruct blood flow.
b.
There is increased pressure within capillaries as a result of the elevated glucose attracting water.
c.
The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia.
d.
Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries.

____ 119. What causes the macrovascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?
a.
The capillaries contain plaques of lipids that obstruct blood flow.
b.
There is increased pressure within capillaries caused by the elevated glucose attracting water.
c.
The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia.
d.
Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries.

____ 120. Which chronic complication of diabetes mellitus is caused by microvascular complications?
a.
Nephropathy
b.
Coronary artery disease
c.
Neuropathy
d.
Peripheral vascular disease

____ 121. Why does retinopathy develop in patients with type 2 diabetes?
a.
Because there are plaques of lipids within the retinal vessels
b.
Because of an increased pressure within the retinal vessels from the increased osmotic pressure
c.
Because ketones cause microaneurysms within the retinal vessels
d.
Because of increased retinal capillary permeability and microaneurysm formation

____ 122. A patient has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder?
a.
Hyperthyroidism
b.
Hypoaldosteronism
c.
Diabetes insipidus (DI)
d.
Cushing disease

____ 123. Which statement about the pericardium is false?
a.
It is a double-walled membranous sac that encloses the heart.
b.
It is composed of connective tissue and a layer of squamous cells.
c.
It protects the heart against infection and inflammation from the lungs and pleural space.
d.
It contains pain and mechanoreceptors that can elicit reflex changes in blood pressure and heart rate.

____ 124. During the cardiac cycle, what makes the mitral and tricuspid valves close after the ventricles are filled with blood?
a.
The chordae tendineae relax, which allows the valves to close.
b.
The increased pressure in the ventricles pushes the values to close.
c.
The trabeculae carneae contract, which pulls the valves closed.
d.
The reduced pressure in the atria creates a negative pressure that pulls the valves closed.

____ 125. What is the significance of the “atrial kick”?
a.
It is the contraction of the right atria that is necessary to open the tricuspid valve.
b.
It is the contraction of the right atria that is necessary to increase the blood volume from the venae cavae.
c.
It is the contraction of the left atria that increases the blood volume into the ventricle.
d.
It is the contraction of the left atria that is necessary to open the mitral valve.

____ 126. Occlusion of the left anterior descending artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which part of the heart?
a.
To portions of the left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum
b.
To the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle
c.
To the upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex
d.
To the posterior interventricular sulcus and smaller branches of both ventricles

____ 127. Occlusion of the circumflex artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which part of the heart?
a.
To portions of the left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum
b.
To the posterior interventricular sulcus and smaller branches of both ventricles
c.
To the upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex
d.
To the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle

____ 128. Where are the coronary ostia located?
a.
Left ventricle
b.
Medial to the aortic valve
c.
Coronary sinus
d.
Aorta

____ 129. The coronary sinus empties into the:
a.
right atrium.
b.
left atrium.
c.
superior vena cava.
d.
aorta.

____ 130. Which statement about development of collateral arteries in the heart is false?
a.
The incidence of aneurysm formation after a myocardial infarction is reduced in individuals who develop significant collateral circulation.
b.
The incidence of myocardial regeneration after a myocardial infarction increases in individuals who develop significant collateral circulation.
c.
The risk of dysrhythmias after a myocardial infarction is reduced in individuals with well-developed collateral circulation.
d.
Collateral circulation may extend the “window of time” to benefit reperfusion therapy after a myocardial infarction, resulting in greater improvement in cardiac function.

____ 131. What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells?
a.
1:1 (1 capillary per 1 muscle cell)
b.
1:2 (1 capillary per 2 muscle cells)
c.
1:4 (1 capillary per 4 muscle cells)
d.
1:10 (1 capillary per 10 muscle cells)

____ 132. What is the function of P cells found in the sinoatrial node and Purkinje fibers?
a.
They are receptors for pain stimuli, such as the pain that occurs during infarction.
b.
They prolong the refractory period before the next contraction.
c.
They are assumed to be the site of impulse formation.
d.
They initiate repolarization of the myocardium.

____ 133. Depolarization of a cardiac muscle cell occurs as the result of a:
a.
decrease in the permeability of the cell membrane to potassium.
b.
rapid movement of sodium into the cell.
c.
rapid movement of calcium into the cell.
d.
slow movement of sodium out of the cell.
e.
slow movement of calcium out of the cell.

____ 134. What occurs during phase 1 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization?
a.
Repolarization when potassium moves out of the cells
b.
Repolarization when sodium rapidly enters into cells
c.
Early repolarization when sodium slowly enters cells
d.
Early repolarization when calcium slowly enters cells

____ 135. Phase 0 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with which part of the electrocardiogram (EKG)?
a.
QRS complex
b.
P-R interval
c.
Q-T interval
d.
U wave

____ 136. Which phase of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with diastole?
a.
Phase 0
b.
Phase 1
c.
Phase 2
d.
Phase 3
e.
Phase 4

____ 137. _____ nerves can shorten the conduction time of action potential through the atrioventricular (AV) node.
a.
Parasympathetic
b.
Sympathetic
c.
Vagal
d.
Glossopharyngeal

____ 138. If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, at what rate can the atrioventricular (AV) node polarize?
a.
60 to 70 per minute
b.
40 to 60 per minute
c.
30 to 40 per minute
d.
10 to 20 per minute

____ 139. What, if any, is the effect of epinephrine on b2-receptors of the heart?
a.
None, b1-receptors are the only b-receptors in the heart.
b.
Dilate coronary arterioles
c.
Increase the strength of myocardial contraction
d.
Increase the heart rate

____ 140. Where are the receptors for neurotransmitters located in the heart?
a.
Semilunar and atrioventricular valves
b.
Endocardium and sinoatrial node
c.
Myocardium and coronary vessels
d.
Epicardium and atrioventricular node

____ 141. Within a physiologic range, an increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume (preload) leads to a(n):
a.
increased force of contraction.
b.
decrease in refractory time.
c.
increase in afterload.
d.
increase in repolarization.

____ 142. Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures results in which disorder?
a.
Mitral regurgitation
b.
Mitral stenosis
c.
Pulmonary edema
d.
Jugular vein distention

____ 143. The Bainbridge reflex is thought to be initiated by sensory neurons in the:
a.
atria.
b.
aorta.
c.
atrioventricular node.
d.
ventricles.

____ 144. What is the correct sequence of events that occur after the baroreceptor reflex is stimulated?
a.
From the carotid artery to the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity
b.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase sympathetic activity and decrease parasympathetic activity
c.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity
d.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the hypothalamus to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity

____ 145. Reflex control of total cardiac output and total peripheral resistance is controlled by:
a.
parasympathetic stimulation of heart, arterioles, and veins.
b.
sympathetic stimulation of heart, arterioles, and veins.
c.
autonomic control of the heart only.
d.
somatic control of the heart, arterioles, and veins.

____ 146. Myogenic regulation of blood vessel diameter and subsequent blood flow through a vessel is an example of _____ of blood vessels.
a.
autonomic regulation
b.
somatic regulation
c.
autoregulation
d.
metabolic regulation

____ 147. In assessing for allergies before coronary angiography, the nurse will be particularly concerned if the patient he has an allergy to:
a.
technetium.
b.
iodine.
c.
penicillin.
d.
warfarin sodium (Coumadin).

____ 148. What is an expected change in the cardiovascular system that occurs with aging?
a.
Arterial stiffening
b.
Decreased left ventricular wall tension
c.
Decreased aortic wall thickness
d.
Arteriosclerosis

____ 149. Which statement is false about the way in which substances pass from capillaries and the interstitial fluid?
a.
Substances pass through junctions between endothelial cells.
b.
Substances pass through pores or oval windows.
c.
Substances pass through vesicles by active transport across the endothelial cell membrane.
d.
Substances pass through by osmosis across the endothelial cell membrane.

____ 150. Which natriuretic peptide inhibits antidiuretic hormone by increasing urine sodium loss?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)

____ 151. Which natriuretic peptide complements nitric oxide to mediate vasodilation?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)

____ 152. Which natriuretic peptide is proposed to be a biochemical marker to screen for left ventricular dysfunction?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)

____ 153. What is the primary mechanism of atherogenesis?
a.
The release of the inflammatory cytokines tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-), interferon gamma (IFN-), and interleukin 1 (Il-1)
b.
The release of the growth factor granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
c.
The release of toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
d.
The release of the inflammatory cytokines interferon beta (IFN-ß), interleukin 6 (Il-6), and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)

____ 154. What is the effect of oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDL) in atherosclerosis?
a.
It causes smooth muscle proliferation.
b.
It causes regression of atherosclerotic plaques.
c.
It increases levels of inflammatory cytokines.
d.
It directs macrophages to the site within the endothelium.

____ 155. Which inflammatory cytokines are released when endothelial cells are injured?
a.
Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
b.
Beta-interferon (ß-IFN), interleukin 6 (Il-6), and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF).
c.
Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-), gamma interferon (-IFN), and interleukin 1 (Il-1).
d.
Interferon alpha (IFN-), interleukin 12 (Il-12), and macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF)

____ 156. What are the vasoconstricting factors regulated by endothelium?
a.
Thromboxane A and endothelin
b.
Norepinephrine and acetylcholine
c.
Bradykinin and leukotriene
d.
Serotonin and prostacyclin

____ 157. What alteration occurs in injured endothelial cells that contributes to atherosclerosis?
a.
They release toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDL).
b.
They are unable to make the normal amount of vasodilating cytokines.
c.
They produce an increased amount of antithrombic cytokines.
d.
They develop a hypersensitivity to homocystine and lipids.

____ 158. What factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension?
a.
Increased norepinephrine
b.
Adducin
c.
Angiotensin II
d.
Insulin resistance

____ 159. What pathologic change occurs in kidneys of people with hypertension that leads to dysfunction of the glomeruli?
a.
Compression of the renal tubules
b.
Ischemia of the tubule
c.
Increased pressure from within the tubule
d.
Obstruction of the renal tubule

____ 160. Cerebral aneurysms frequently occur in the:
a.
vertebral arteries.
b.
basilar artery.
c.
circle of Willis.
d.
carotid arteries.

____ 161. How does atherosclerosis cause aneurysms?
a.
A reduction in oxygen causes ischemia of the intima.
b.
An increase in endothelin increases nitric oxide.
c.
Plaque formation erodes the vessel wall.
d.
The vessel is obstructed by plaques and thrombus formation.

____ 162. What are the differences in arterial walls versus vs. walls that promote clot formation?
a.
There is inflammation of the endothelium of the artery and roughing of the endothelium of the vein.
b.
There is vasoconstriction of the endothelium of the artery and hypertrophy of the endothelium of the vein.
c.
There is excessive clot formation of the endothelium of the artery and lipid accumulation of the endothelium of the vein.
d.
There is roughening of the endothelium of the artery and inflammation of the endothelium of the vein.

____ 163. What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?
a.
Deep vein thrombosis
b.
Endocarditis
c.
Valvular disease
d.
Left heart failure

____ 164. Which source of emboli introduces antigens, cells, and protein aggregates that trigger an immune response within the bloodstream?
a.
Amniotic fluid
b.
Fat
c.
Bacteria
d.
Air

____ 165. Which is a description of thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)?
a.
An inflammatory disorder of small- and medium-sized arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands
b.
A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly the toes
c.
An autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities
d.
A neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities

____ 166. Which is a description of Raynaud phenomenon and disease?
a.
An inflammatory disorder of small- and medium-sized arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands.
b.
A neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities.
c.
A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly the toes.
d.
An autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities.

____ 167. What changes in veins occur to create varicose veins?
a.
An increase in osmotic pressure
b.
Damage to the valves with veins
c.
Damage to the venous endothelium
d.
An increase in hydrostatic pressure

____ 168. Superior vena cava syndrome is a progressive _____ of the superior vena cava that leads to venous distention of the upper extremities and head.
a.
inflammation
b.
occlusion
c.
distention
d.
sclerosis

____ 169. Coronary artery disease can diminish the myocardial blood supply until deprivation impairs myocardial metabolism enough to cause _____, a local state in which the cells are temporarily deprived of blood supply.
a.
infarction
b.
ischemia
c.
necrosis
d.
inflammation

____ 170. Of the following risk factors for coronary artery disease, which is responsible for a twofold to threefold increase in risk?
a.
Diabetes mellitus
b.
Hypertension
c.
Obesity
d.
High alcohol consumption

____ 171. Which of the following risk factors is associated with a twofold increase in the risk for coronary artery disease death and up to a sixfold risk for stroke?
a.
Diabetes mellitus
b.
Hypertension
c.
Obesity
d.
High alcohol consumption

____ 172. How does nicotine increase atherosclerosis?
a.
By the release of histamine
b.
By decreasing nitric oxide
c.
By the release of angiotensin II
d.
By the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine

____ 173. _____ are manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein.
a.
Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
b.
Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
High-density lipoproteins (HDL)
d.
Triglycerides (TG)

____ 174. Which value may be protective for the development of atherosclerosis?
a.
High values of very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
b.
High values of low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
High values of high-density lipoproteins (HDL)
d.
High values of triglycerides (TG)

____ 175. Which lab test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?
a.
Homocysteine
b.
Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
d.
C reactive protein (CPR)

____ 176. Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for _____ minutes.
a.
10
b.
15
c.
20
d.
25

____ 177. _____ angina occurs because of vasospasms of one or more coronary arteries and often during sleep.
a.
Unstable
b.
Stable
c.
Silent
d.
Prinzmetal

____ 178. When scar tissue replaces the myocardium after a myocardial infarction (MI), the forming scar tissue is very mushy and vulnerable to injury at about day _____ after MI.
a.
5 to 9
b.
10 to 14
c.
15 to 20
d.
20 to 30

____ 179. An individual is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase (CK), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH). These elevated levels indicate:
a.
myocardial ischemia.
b.
hypertension.
c.
myocardial infarction.
d.
coronary artery disease.

____ 180. What is the expected electrocardiogram pattern for a patient when a thrombus in a coronary artery lodges permanently in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?
a.
Prolonged Q-T interval
b.
ST elevation (STEMI)
c.
ST depression (STDMI)
d.
Non-ST elevation (non-STEMI)

____ 181. How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction?
a.
By increasing the peripheral vascular resistance
b.
By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia
c.
By reducing the contractility of the myocardium
d.
By stimulating the sympathetic nervous system

____ 182. What is the significance of pulsus paradoxus that occurs in a pericardial effusion?
a.
It reflects impairment of the diastolic filling pressures of the right ventricle and reduction of blood volume in both ventricles.
b.
It reflects impairment of the blood ejected from the right atria and reduction of blood volume in the right ventricle.
c.
It reflects impairment of the blood ejected from the left atria and reduction of blood volume in the left ventricle.
d.
It reflects impairment of the diastolic filling pressures of the left ventricle and reduction of blood volume in all four heart chambers.

____ 183. A patient complains of sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. What is causing these clinical manifestations?
a.
Myocardial infarction
b.
Pericardial effusion
c.
Restrictive pericarditis
d.
Acute pericarditis

____ 184. Biventricular dilation is the result of _____ cardiomyopathy.
a.
hypertrophic
b.
restrictive
c.
congestive
d.
inflammatory

____ 185. _____ cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure.
a.
Dilated
b.
Hypertrophic
c.
Septal
d.
Dystrophic

____ 186. The hallmark of _____ cardiomyopathy is a disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum.
a.
dystrophic
b.
hypertrophic
c.
septal
d.
dilated

____ 187. _____ cardiomyopathy is usually caused by an infiltrative disease of the myocardium, such as amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, or glycogen storage disease.
a.
Infiltrative
b.
Restrictive
c.
Septal
d.
Hypertrophic

____ 188. What are clinical manifestations of aortic stenosis?
a.
Jugular vein distension
b.
Bounding pulses
c.
Peripheral edema
d.
Dyspnea on exertion

____ 189. Aortic and mitral regurgitation and mitral stenosis are all caused by which of the following?
a.
Congenital malformation
b.
Cardiac failure
c.
Rheumatic fever
d.
Coronary artery disease

____ 190. Which valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, to be associated with connective tissue disease that tends to bemost prevalent in young women?
a.
Mitral valve prolapse
b.
Tricuspid stenosis
c.
Tricuspid valve prolapse
d.
Aortic insufficiency

____ 191. Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?
a.
Fat emboli
b.
Rheumatic fever
c.
Bacterial endocarditis
d.
Myocarditis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

____ 192. Infective endocarditis is most often caused by:
a.
a virus.
b.
a fungus.
c.
a bacteria.
d.
rickettsiae.

____ 193. For which disorder are the risk factors genitourinary instrumentation, dental procedure, hemodialysis, and intravenous drug use?
a.
Rheumatic fever
b.
Infective endocarditis
c.
Mitral regurgitation
d.
Aortic regurgitation

____ 194. What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) resulting from myocarditis and infective endocarditis?
a.
Inflammatory cardiomyopathy
b.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c.
Dilated cardiomyopathy
d.
Restrictive cardiomyopathy

____ 195. A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which of the following heart failures may result from this condition?
a.
Right heart failure
b.
Left heart failure
c.
Low-output failure
d.
High-output failure

____ 196. Ventricular remodeling is a result of:
a.
left ventricular hypertrophy.
b.
right ventricular failure.
c.
myocardial ischemia.
d.
contractile dysfunction.

____ 197. In systolic heart failure, what effect does angiotensin II have on stroke volume?
a.
Increases preload and decreases afterload
b.
Increases preload and increases afterload
c.
Decreases preload and increases afterload
d.
Decreases preload and decreases afterload

Matching

Match the description with its corresponding term.
a.
Loss of differentiation:
b.
Cancer cells secrete growth factor for their own growth
c.
Cells that vary in size and shape
d.
Unaltered normal allele
e.
Responsible for maintenance of genomic integrity

____ 198. Proto-oncogene

____ 199. Pleomorphic

____ 200. Anaplasia

____ 201. Caretaker gene

____ 202. Autocrine stimulation

Match the intracardiac pressures with their description.
a.
a wave
b.
v wave
c.
c wave
d.
x descent
e.
y descent

____ 203. An early diastole peak caused by filling of the atrium from peripheral veins

____ 204. Reflects rapid flow of blood from the great veins and right atrium into the right ventricle

____ 205. Generated by the atrial contraction

____ 206. Produced because of descent of the tricuspid valve ring and by ejection of blood from both ventricles

____ 207. May represent bulging of the mitral valve into the left atrium during early systole

Match th

Q4. NUR 2115: xam 1 review: Focus Points for First WebEx: 100%
What precautions does the nurse take when giving any type of Chemo medications 2. What is Superior vena cava syndrome and what are the symptoms associated with this syndrome 3. What will the nurse do for a patient following a prostatectomy and what should be done for dark red urine output? 4. What post-op care should be provided after a mastectomy 5. What labs should the nurse be concerned with when caring for the cancer patient. Ex: Neutropenia, Thrombocytopenia, etc… 6. Know all signs/symptoms of Neutropenia and Thrombocytopenia 7. What kind of education would you give someone receivingexternal radiation 8. Know the stages of cancer development; malignant transformation occurs through… 9. Know how to interpret the TNM staging system 10. What drug does the physician order for the chemo patient with low hemoglobin levels 11. What the normal ranges for platelet counts and what nursing intervention should the nurse do for a low platelet count 12. What intervention/education should the nurse suggest to the early diagnosed cancer patient concerning memory problems 13. What is mucositis and what interventions does the nurse do to treat it 14. What is the difference between Basal Cell and Squamous cell carcinomas 15. What type of behavior does cancer cells exhibit 16. What interventions are used for nausea/vomiting associated with cancer treatment 17. What education would the nurse give to lessen the impact on the development of cancer 18. What is Tumor lysis syndrome 19. What interventions would the nurse incorporate for the patient diagnosed with a brain tumor 20. What type of education will the nurse teach the patient who takes herbal medications when receiving treatment for cancer 21. Ginger helps the cancer patient with what? 22. What herbal supplement should the patient avoid when taking estrogen 23. Why should the surgical patient stop taking ginger, bilberry, feverfew, and garlic 24. What is the association between cancer and T’ai Chi 25. What types of interventions can the nurse provide for cancer comfort 26. What is Palliative care and what purpose does treatment do for this type of patient 27. What is Hospice and the role of the nurse working with the patient and family 28. What is the difference between agonal breathing, apneustic breathing, and cheyne-stokes respiration 29. What are signs/symptoms of impending death and which sign does the nurse determine is showing nearing death 30. What is the most important treatment the nurse does for the dying patient 31. What are advance directives and what education does the nurse provide the patient/family 32. What is actions should the nurse take for the death of the patient and their families 33. What is the difference between hospice and palliative care 34. How does one identify pain in the cancer patient 35.What task are unlicensed staff allowed to do for the dying patient 36. What interventions does the nurse do for “death rattle” 37. What are the catholic custom associated with death and dying 38. What is terminal dehydration 39. What is the purpose of proportional palliative sedation [Show less]

Q5. NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing
NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing
Project Milestone 1

Directions: Prior to completing this template, carefully review Course Project Milestone 1 Guidelines paying particular attention to how to name the document and all rubric requirements. After saving the document to your computer, type your answers directly on this template and save again. This assignment is due by Sunday end of Week 1 by 11:59 p.m. Mountain Time.
Your Name:__________________________
Assignment Criteria
Your Answers:
NOTE: See Milestone 1 Rubric for details required in each area.
Q6. NURS 6560 Midterm Exam (Latest): Walden University (Already graded A)
NURS 6560 Midterm Exam (2018): Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings: Walden University
Question 1
S. is a 59-year-old female who has been followed for several years for aortic regurgitation. Serial echocardiography has demonstrated normal ventricular function, but the patient was lost to follow-up for the last 16 months and now presents complaining of activity intolerance and weight gain. Physical examination reveals a grade IV/VI diastolic aortic murmur and 2+ lower extremity edema to the midcalf. The AGACNP considers which of the following as the most appropriate management strategy?
A. Serial echocardiography every 6 months
B. Begin a calcium channel antagonist
C. Begin an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
D. Surgical consultation and intervention
Question 2
An ascending thoracic aneurysm of > 5.5 cm is universally considered an indication for surgical repair, given the poor outcomes with sudden rupture. Regardless of the aneurysm’s size, all of the following are additional indications for immediate operation except:
A. Comorbid Marfan’s syndrome
B. Enlargement of > 1 cm since diagnosis
C. Crushing chest pain
D. History of giant cell arteritis
Question 3
Jasmine is a 31-year-old female who presents with neck pain. She has a long history of injection drug use and admits to injecting opiates into her neck. Physical examination reveals diffuse tracking and scarring. Today Jasmine has a distinct inability to turn her neck without pain, throat pain, and a temperature of 102.1°F. She appears ill and has foul breath. In order to evaluate for a deep neck space infection, the AGACNP orders:
A. Anteroposterior neck radiography
B. CT scan of the neck
C. White blood cell (WBC) differential
D. Aspiration and culture of fluid
Question 4
Mr. Draper is a 39-year-old male recovering from an extended abdominal procedure. As a result of a serious motor vehicle accident, he has had repair of a small bowel perforation, splenectomy, and repair of a hepatic laceration. He will be on total parenteral nutrition postoperatively. The AGACNP recognizes that the most common complications of parenteral nutrition are a consequence of:
A. Poorly calculated solution
B. Resultant diarrhea and volume contraction
C. The central venous line used for infusion
D. Bowel disuse and hypomotility
Question 5
Mr. Mettenberger is being discharged following his hospitalization for reexpansion of his second spontaneous pneumothorax this year. He has stopped smoking and does not appear to have any overt risk factors. While doing his discharge teaching, the AGACNP advises Mr. Mettenberger that his current risk for another pneumothorax is:
A. < 10%
B. 25-50%
C. 50-75%
D. > 90
Question 6
One of the earliest findings for a patient in hypovolemic shock is:
A. A drop in systolic blood pressure (SBP) < 10 mm Hg for > 1 minute when sitting up
B. A change in mental status
C. SaO2 of < 88%
D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) < 9 g/dL and 27%
Question 7
Traumatic diaphragmatic hernias present in both acute and chronic forms. Patients with a more chronic form are most likely to be present with:
A. Respiratory insufficiency
B. Sepsis
C. Bowel obstruction
D. Anemia
Question 8
The AGACNP is managing a patient in the ICU who is being treated for a pulmonary embolus. Initially the patient was stable, awake, alert, and oriented, but during the last several hours the patient has become increasingly lethargic. At change of shift, the oncoming staff nurse appreciates a profound change in the patient’s mental status from the day before. Vital signs and hemodynamic parameters are as follows: BP 88/54 mm Hg Pulse 110 bpm Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute SaO2 93% on a 50% mask Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) 1600 dynes ∙ sec/cm5 Cardiac index 1.3 L/min Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) 8 mm Hg This clinical picture is most consistent with which shock state?
A. Hypovolemic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Distributive
D. Obstructive

Question 9
When counseling patients to prevent postoperative pulmonary complications, the AGACNP knows that with respect to smoking cessation, the American College of Surgeons and National Surgical Quality Improvement Program guidelines are clear that patients who stop smoking _____ weeks before surgery have no increased risk of smokingrelated pulmonary complications.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Question 10
Mitch C. is a 39-year-old male who is brought to the ED by paramedics. According to the report of a neighbor, Mitch was distraught over a breakup with his fiancée and attempted to commit suicide by mixing some chemicals from under his kitchen sink and drinking them; afterward he changed his mind and knocked on his neighbor’s door asking for help. Mitch is awake but stuporous, and the neighbor has no idea what he drank. Visual inspection of his mouth and oropharynx reveals some edema and erythema. He is coughing and has large amounts of pooling saliva. Mitch is not capable of answering questions but he appears in pain. Endoscopy reveals full thickness mucosal injury with mucosal sloughing, ulceration, and exudate. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate course of treatment must include:
A.At least 6 hours of observation in the emergency department
B. Periodic esophagram
C. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
D.Esophagogastrectomy
Question 11
Jared V. is a 35-year-old male who presents for evaluation of a dry cough. He reports feeling well overall but notices that he gets out of breath more easily than he used to when playing soccer. A review of systems yields results that are essentially benign, although the patient does admit to an unusual rash on his legs. Physical examination reveals scattered erythematous nodules on both shins. There is no drainage, discomfort, or itch. Additionally, diffuse, mildly enlarged lymph nodes are appreciated bilaterally. Results of a comprehensive metabolic panel and complete blood count are within normal limits. Twelve-lead ECG reveals sinus bradycardia at 58 bpm. Chest radiography reveals bilateral hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy. The AGACNP suspects:
A.Bronchiectasis
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Sarcoidosis
D.Lung carcinoma
Question 12
Mrs. Miller is a 44-year-old female who is on postoperative day 1 following a total abdominal hysterectomy. Her urine output overnight was approximately 200 mL. The appropriate response for the AGACNP would be to order:
A.A urinalysis and culture
B. 1 liter of NSS over 8 hours
C. Encourage increased mobility
D.Liberalize salt in the diet
Question 13
All of the following are risk factors for spontaneous pneumothorax except:
A.Connective tissue disease
B. Scuba diving
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
D.Central line insertion
Question 14
The AGACNP is going over preoperative information and instructions with a patient who is having a major transverse abdominal procedure tomorrow morning. The patient is very nervous and is asking a lot of questions. The AGACNP prescribes a sleeping agent because he knows that anxiety and sleeplessness may:
A.Lead to hypoxia due to hyperventilation
B. Increase the physiologic stress response postoperatively
C. Contribute to risk of delirium and prolonged length of stay
D.Decreasep.o. intake and produce nutritional risk
Question 15
In a patient with thyroid nodules, which of the following is the diagnostic study of choice to rule out thyroid cancer?
A.Radioiodine scanning
B. Percutaneous needle biopsy
C. CT scan
D.Ultrasound
Question 16
When counseling a patient about treatment modalities for achalasia, the AGACNP advised that which of the following is the treatment of choice?
A.Calcium channel antagonists
B. Intrasphincter botulinum injection
C. Pneumatic dilation
D.Myotomy and partial fundoplication

Question 17
Mr. Liu is a 52-year-old male who has a history of thyroidectomy. He presents complaining of numbness and tingling in his legs and feet and generalized fatigue. Physical examination reveals a positive Chvostek’s sign. Which of the following laboratory studies should be ordered first?
A.Renal function tests
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Calcium
D.Magnesium
Question 18
V. is a 75-year-old male patient who, during a recent wellness evaluation, was found to have a new onset grade II/VI crescendo-decrescendo cardiac murmur at the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border. He is symptom free and reports no limitations to his usual daily activity. He specifically denies activity intolerance or near syncope, and he is very active physically. Echocardiography reveals a mild aortic calcification. The AGACNP knows that ongoing management for R. V. must include:
A.Annual or biannual serial echocardiography
B. Modification of activity level
C. Baseline cardiac catheterization
D. Statin therapy
Question 19
The lower esophageal sphincter is characterized by periods of intermittent relaxation called transient lower esophageal sphincter relaxations. These relaxations are independent of the relaxation triggered by swallowing and are the most common cause of:
A. Physiologic reflux
B. Symptomatic esophagitis
C. Barrett’s metaplasia
D.Esophageal carcinoma
Question 20
While reviewing morning labs on a postoperative patient, the AGACNP notes that the patient’s basic metabolic panel is as follows: Na+ 132 mEq/L K+ 4.6 mEq/L Cl- 87 mEq/L CO2 25 mEq/L A normal saline infusion is ordered in an attempt to avoid:
A.Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D.Metabolic acidosis
Question 21
W. is a 49-year-old man who presents for evaluation. He has a long history of alcohol and tobacco use, with a 65-year pack history and an admitted 14-drink-per-week alcohol habit. He is getting worried because he can no longer swallow his bourbon. He is not a good historian but he does admit to a 1+ year history of bloating, heartburn, and progressive difficulty swallowing food. He didn’t worry too much about his symptoms until he stopped being able to swallow bourbon. He thinks he has lost approximately 15 lbs in the last year. He denies any blood in his stool and has not had any vomiting. The AGACNP knows that the most likely diagnosis is:
A.Zenker’s diverticulum
B. Achalasia
C. Esophageal carcinoma
D.Hiatal hernia
Question 22
Which of the following treatment modalities has no role in the treatment of shock?
A.Lactated Ringer’s
B. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
C. Vasopressors
D.Colloid solutions
Question 23
The development of coronary artery disease (CAD) and, ultimately, plaque formation is a multifactorial process that includes endothelial injury from hypertension, cigarette smoking, and dyslipidemia. These events lead to endothelial cell dysfunction, which is theorized to result in:
A.Decreased nitric oxide production
B. Smooth muscle cell atrophy
C. Collagen degradation
D.Enlarged arterial lumen
Question 24
Mr. Comstock is a 71-year-old male who presents with a general sense of feeling weak and unwell; he thinks he has the flu even though he received a flu vaccination this year. He describes a vague collection of symptoms, including weakness, nausea, dizziness, and “getting out of breath” very easily. He says he can barely climb the steps anymore without stopping to rest. Of the possible differential diagnoses, coronary artery disease (CAD) is high among the probabilities because of his age and gender. His physical examination is unremarkable except that he appears weak. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 98.0°F, pulse 100 bpm, respiratory rate 16 b.p.m., and BP 178/100 mm Hg. A chest radiograph is within normal limits with no acute pulmonary infection. A 12-lead ECG reveals inverted T waves in leads V1 to V5. The AGACNP is suspicious that most of his symptoms are:
A. Psychosomatic
B. Early congestive heart failure (CHF)
C. Anginal equivalents
D.Normal age-related changes
Question 25
Mrs. Carpenter is a 59-year-old female who presents with an acute myocardial infarction. She is acutely short of breath and has coarse rales on auscultation. Physical examination reveals a grade V/VI systolic murmur, loudest at the point of maximal impulse with radiation to the midaxillary line. The AGACP recognizes:
A. Acute mitral valve regurgitation
B. Acute aortic valve regurgitation
C. Acute cardiac tamponade
D. Acute pulmonary embolus
Question 26
Mr. Nelson is a 65-year-old male who has been advised that he is a candidate for coronary artery bypass grafting. He has been doing some internet research and is asking about whether or not he should have a “beating heart” bypass. Regarding off-pump coronary bypass grafting, the AGACNP advises Mr. Nelson that:
A.There is a slightly higher risk of neurologic complications
B. Long-term results suggest that the grafts do not stay open as long as those in traditional bypass grafting
C. The incidence of off-pump bypass grafting has increased significantly in the last 10 years
D.The off-pump procedure is considerably more expensive but is correlated with better long-term outcomes
Question 27
Mrs. McCallum is a 48-year-old female who presents for evaluation of a vague set of gastrointestinal symptoms. She feels generally well and has always been healthy, but lately she has had a lot of heartburn and a sense of reflux in her throat. Most recently she has had a recurring sense of food getting stuck in her throat. The AGACNP knows that which diagnostic study should be performed first?
A.Barium swallow
B. Upper endoscopy
C. Esophageal manometry
D.Ambulatory pH monitoring
Question 28
Mr. Key is a 53-year-old male patient who developed empyema following a serious bout of bacterial pneumonia. He presented as septic and was started immediately on intravenous antibiotics and drainage of the sinus cavity. Forty-eight hours later, he is much improved clinically and drainage has receded. The next step in his care would be:
A.A CT scan
B. Eloesser’s procedure
C. Decortication
D.Reexpansion
Question 29
Mrs. Bowers is a 41-year-old patient who requires surgical management of osteomyelitis. She has a long history of methamphetamine use and has a BMI of 17.9 kg/m2 . She clearly is nutritionally depleted and volume contracted, but she has no clear chronic medical history except for unmedicated hypertension, which may be due to her chronic stimulant use. She denies alcohol use but admits to a 1½ pack a day cigarette habit. A primary postoperative concern for Mrs. Bowers is:
A.Excess bleeding
B. Thromboemboli development
C. Poor wound healing
D.Renal failure
Question 30
The congenital diaphragmatic hernia that occurs more often in women and does not usually produce symptoms until midlife is known as:
A.Zenker’s hernia
B. Bochdalek’s hernia
C. Morgagni’s hernia
D.Atraumatic hernia
Question 31
B. is a 67-year-old male who is being discharged following inpatient management for unstable angina. S. B. did not know that he had coronary artery disease (CAD) and in fact had not seen a health care provider for many years. While reviewing his lifestyle habits, he admits that he is obese, has poor eating habits, does not engage in any purposeful physical activity, and smokes two packs of cigarettes daily. He verbalizes that he is grateful that this was not a “real” heart attack and does not seem receptive to lifestyle management strategies. The AGACNP advises him that it is important to take this “warning” attack seriously because:
A. 10% of patients with unstable angina will die of cardiovascular disease within 6 months
B. 25% of patients with unstable angina will develop congestive heart failure within 6 months
C. 65% of patients with unstable angina will have an ST elevation MI within 1 year
D. 90% of patients with unstable angina will have cerebrovascular symptoms within 1 year
Question 32
According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS), who among the following patients should have a chest radiograph as part of preoperative assessment?
A.All patients > 40 years of age
B. All patients who smoke cigarettes
C. All patients having thoracic procedures
D.All patients with cardiac disease
Question 33
According to the Carpentier classification scheme of mitral valve regurgitation, a type I regurgitation is most likely due to:
A.Cardiomyopathy
B. Excessive leaflet motion
C. Ruptured papillary muscles
D.Rheumatic heart disease
Question 34
V. is a 37-year-old female who is admitted via the emergency room after her roommate called emergency medical services (EMS). She has no significant medical history and does not know what is wrong with her. She has been feeling generally unwell for the last few days, and today she had an episode of confusion that scared her roommate to the extent that the roommate called EMS. Her physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.9°F, pulse of 110 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg. A comprehensive metabolic panel reveals a slightly elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine but otherwise is normal. A white blood cell differential reveals a leukocyte count of 14,000 cells/µL with neutrophils of 83%. The AGACNP knows that these values are consistent with:
A. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
B. High-output septic shock
C. Neurogenic shock
D.Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)
Question 35
Which shock state is worsened in the setting of mechanical ventilation?
A. Septic
B. Cardiac compressive
C. Neurogenic
D.Cardiogenic
Question 36
B. is a 41-year-old male being admitted for surgical reduction of an open femur fracture sustained in a multiple vehicle collision. Preoperative assessment reveals that he is on beta-adrenergic antagonists after having been diagnosed with coronary artery disease approximately 1 month ago. He admits that he feels a little better but says he still gets pain in his chest when he exerts himself. He is pain free now. Vital signs are as follows: temperature 98.1°F, pulse 88 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 142/86 mm Hg. The AGACNP knows that which of the following is the most important action before R. B. goes to the operating room?
A.A cardiology consultation
B. Blood pressure control
C. Resuming beta-adrenergic antagonists
D. Pain control
Question 37
Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by a collection of desquamated keratin leading to bony erosion in the ossicular chain and inner ear. The goal of surgery in cholesteatoma is:
A. Production of a dry ear
B. Preservation of sensorineural hearing
C. Debridement of infection
D.Restoration of the tympanic membrane
Question 38
The AGACNP knows that when managing a patient with acute cardiogenic shock after myocardial infarction, all of the following pharmacologic agents may be used except:
A.Opioids
B. Diuretics
C. Beta-adrenergic antagonists
D.Anticholinergics
Question 39
Mr. Baer is a 79-year-old man who is being admitted for a carotid endarterectomy. While performing his preoperative evaluation, the AGACNP appreciates two positive answers to the CAGE screening questionnaire. This is an indication for:
A. Perioperative benzodiazepines for withdrawal syndrome
B. Daily multivitamin and 100 mg of thiamine perioperatively
C. Further diagnostic evaluation for alcoholism
D.Delay of operation until completion of detoxification
Question 40
According to the American College of Cardiology Foundation and the American Heart Association (ACCF/AHA), the recommendation regarding antiplatelet therapy in patients with cardiovascular disease preoperatively is that:
A.Antiplatelet therapy should be held for 10 days preoperatively
B. Cardiac consultation is required before an operation in patients who are on antiplatelet therapy
C. Medications should be continued unless concerns about hemostasis are significant
D.Antiplatelet therapy should be initiated in all high-risk cardiac procedures
Question 41
Mr. Austin is a 64-year-old male who has a long history of mitral valve stenosis. His condition has developed to the extent that he has symptomatic congestive heart failure, and due to a variety of comorbidities he is not a candidate for surgery. Ongoing medical therapy for Mr. Austin should include:
A.Anticoagulants
B. Diuretics
C. Antibiotics
D.Inotropes
Question 42
The progression of coronary artery plaque formation can lead to a variety of pathologic conditions. When subtotal plaque disruption occurs resulting in vasoconstriction, platelet activation, and embolization, it most commonly causes which clinical phenomenon?
A.Endothelial cell dysfunction
B. Prinzmetal’s angina
C. Transmural myocardial infarction
D.Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction
Question 43
D. is a 29-year-old male who presents with a chief complaint of profound dizziness for the past 2 to 3 days. Further clarification reveals that he is having brief but intense episodes of a sense of the room spinning. He denies any history of head injury or discharge from the ear. The vertigo is reproduced easily with cervical rotation. The AGACNP knows that the most likely cause is:
A.Cerebral tumor
B. Ménière’s disease
C. Adverse drug effect
D.Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
Question 44
P.T. is a 61-year-old male who is seen in follow-up. He was initially seen for evaluation of dysphagia. An endoscopy was negative for malignancy and subsequent esophageal manometry supported a diagnosis of esophageal achalasia. While discussing implications and treatment options with P.T., the AGACNP tells him that the primary complication of achalasia is:
A. Progressive esophageal discomfort
B. Aspiration pneumonia
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D.Long-term malabsorption problems
Question 45
R. is a 51-year-old female who presents in shock following a penetrating injury to the spinal cord—her boyfriend reportedly stabbed her in the back with an unidentified kitchen utensil. The patient’s mental status is deteriorating, and her vital signs are as follows: temperature 97.2°F, heart rate 131 bpm, respirations 14 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 79/49 mm Hg. The AGACNP presumes neurogenic shock, with the injury likely:
A.Not fully transecting the spinal cord
B. At the level of T10
C. Precipitating sepsis
D. Producing cardiovascular decompensation
Question 46
Janet is a 34-year-old female with no significant medical history who is being evaluated for a planned uterine ablation. She has significant history of menorrhagia and has been unresponsive to a variety of medical therapies to try to stop the bleeding. Her history and physical examination are within normal limits. The AGACNP knows that Janet will require which one of the following preoperative diagnostic studies?
A. Urinalysis
B. Complete blood count
C. 12-lead electrocardiogram
D.Chest radiography
Question 47
Best practices for assessing diseases of the thyroid gland include a thorough but targeted history, systematic physical examination, and selective use of appropriate diagnostic evaluation. The AGACNP knows that although serum T3 and T4 are not indicated routinely, a free T4 test is most useful in evaluating patients:
A.With profound symptoms of hypothyroidism
B. Following treatment for Graves’ disease
C. To rule out autonomous toxic nodule
D. At risk for thyroid cancer

Question 48
Evaluation of cardiac valve disease must include:
A.Chest radiography
B. 12-lead ECG
C. Echocardiography
D.Chemical stress test
Question 49
Jolene L. is a 36-year-old female who presents for an emergent cholecystectomy; she has had progressive acute pain for almost 1 week and now there is concern about gangrenous tissue. Of particular concern is the fact that she has Graves’ disease and has not been adherent to treatment. On admission, her temperature is 102.7°F, pulse is 158 bpm, and blood pressure is 180/114 mm Hg. She is tremulous and anxious. A 12-lead ECG reveals uncontrolled atrial fibrillation. Before cholecystectomy, Jolene must be treated with:
A.Digitalis for heart rate control
B. Radioactive ablation
C. Beta-adrenergic antagonists
D.Reserpine
Question 50
W. is discussing his postoperative hip replacement expectations. He is advised that although he will have some discomfort, he should be vocal about asking for pain medication, because it is essential that he get out of bed and begin ambulating as soon as possible after his surgery. He expresses some fear and is concerned that his hip won’t heal properly if he walks on it. The AGACNP reassures him that he must begin ambulating quickly in order to decrease risk for:
A.Decubitus ulcers
B. Scar tissue formation
C. Pneumonia
D.Anxiety
Question 51
H. is a 71-year-old male with small cell lung cancer; he has been treated with chemotherapy. Initially he had symptom improvement but now appears to have had a recurrence. On examination today, he is quite edematous and has gained 12 lbs since his office visit 1 week ago. A metabolic panel reveals a serum Na+ of 119 mEq/dL. The AGACNP knows that J. H. likely has:
A.Brain metastasis
B. Congestive heart failure (CHF)
C. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
D.Metabolic alkalosis
Question 52
According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS) and the National Surgical Quality Improvement Program (NSQIP) guidelines for preoperative evaluation of the geriatric patient, the preoperative evaluation should include all of the following except:
A.Cognitive ability
B. Functional status
C. Competency assessment
D. Frailty score
Question 53
Improvements in both equipment and technique have led to the evolution of video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) as being used most commonly for:
A.Mediastinal lymph node dissection
B. Resection of malignant tumor
C. Metastasectomy
D.Thoracic vertebral discectomy
Question 54
Which of the following is a normal finding on postoperative day 8 of a carotid endarterectomy?
A.A temperature of 100.5°F
B. Serosanguinous drainage with some tenderness
C. A flesh-colored induration along the entire length of the incision
D.A fluctuant collection of milky fluid
Question 55
Mrs. Evans is an 82-year-old female who is on postoperative day 3 following resection of a small bowel tumor. She is alert today and her nasogastric tube is removed. The AGACNP knows that if the recovery proceeds normally, Mrs. Evans may begin clear liquids:
A.Immediately
B. In 24 hours
C. When bowel sounds return
D.After a negative swallow study
Question 56
When writing the initial postoperative progress note, the AGACNP should be sure to include all of the following except:
A.A summary of the procedure and any significant deviations from normal
B. An outline of the plan for postoperative management and follow-up
C. The plan for ongoing monitoring
D. Mechanism of DVT prophylaxis
Question 57
T. is a 39-year-old male who presents to the hospital emergency room with a chief complaint of profound substernal chest pain. Results of the 12-lead ECG and cardiac enzymes test are normal. Vital signs are as follows: temperature 101.9°F, pulse 129 bpm, respirations 26 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg. The patient is pale and clearly unwell, and physical examination reveals a systolic pericardial crunching sound. Which of the following additional pieces of history would make the AGACNP suspect acute mediastinitis?
A.A 48 pack year smoke history
B. A 2-day history of vomiting
C. Aortic valve regurgitation
D.Cardiac tamponade
Question 58
Mrs. Van Doern is being examined on postop day 3 following surgical resection following a bowel obstruction. The postoperative course been unremarkable. Upon removal of the dressing, the incision is dry with staples intact. There is an approximately 0.5 cm erythema around the incision. There is no exudate. The patient demonstrates some discomfort on palpation of the site. The most appropriate approach to this patient includes:
A.Leaving the wound open to air and medicating for pain
B. Ordering a topical antibiotic, replacing the dressing with a nonadherent dressing, and following up in 2 days
C. Beginning systemic antibiotics to cover skin flora
D.Obtaining a white blood cell differential, redress the wound and reassess in the a.m.

Question 59
K.T. is a 38-year-old female with a BMI of 39 kg/m2 who needs surgical reduction of a hiatal hernia. She is asking about the recovery process and says that she has read about something called the obesity paradox. She wants to know what that means with respect to her healing. The AGACNP explains that the paradox refers to the fact that:
A. Obesity correlates with poor outcomes for some surgical procedures but not others.
B. There is an inverse relationship between weight and surgical outcomes.
C. Underweight patients have more surgical complications than obese patients.
D. Planned weight loss preoperatively is indicated only when the BMI is > 40 kg/m2 .
Question 60
Esophageal motility disorders are sometimes a consequence of systemic diseases such as scleroderma, Raynaud’s disease, and systemic lupus erythematosus. When patients with these diseases have gastroparesis, which medication should be added to the regimen?
A. A proton pump inhibitor
B. A histamine 2 receptor antagonist
C. A calcium channel antagonist
D. A promotility agent
Question 61
S. is a 46-year-old female with metastatic breast cancer. She is currently off cycle for chemotherapy and generally is feeling well. Today, however, she presents feeling acutely unwell. She says that she has had coldlike symptoms over the last few days, including cough, nasal congestion, headache, and a hoarse voice in the mornings. Today she became acutely concerned because she feels as though her face and even shoulders look swollen and a bit discolored—bluish. She denies any nausea or vomiting but admits to feeling generally fatigued; she attribute it to her cancer. Recognizing the likely diagnosis, the AGACNP knows that treatment will likely include:
A.Radiation
B. Surgery
C. Fibrinolytics
D. Expansile stents
Question 62
D. is a 61-year-old female patient who complaints of pleuritic chest pain and cough. During the history, she indicates that she occasionally has seen a little bit of blood in her sputum, but she thought it was from coughing so hard. What finally prompted her to come in was that she coughed up a “stone.” Recognizing that the patient might have broncholithiasis, the AGACNP asks about exposure to:
A.Cigarettes
B. Asbestos
C. Bird excrement
D. Swimming pools
Question 63
Heart transplant is the surgical option for patients with congestive heart failure for whom medical therapies have failed. All of the following are contraindications to transplant except:
A.New York Heart Association (NYHA) class IV status
B. Obesity
C. Elevated pulmonary vascular resistance
D.Recent malignancy
Question 64
Kelly T. is a 49-year-old female who is being admitted for aortic valve replacement. Her preoperative evaluation revealed an ascending thoracic aneurysm of 4.8 cm in diameter. Kelly has not had any aneurysm symptoms and is generally considered a very strong surgical candidate. The AGACNP knows that the standard of care dictates:
A. Postponing her valve surgery due to the aneurysm
B. Annual imaging of the aneurysm after her valve replacement
C. Surgical repair of the aneurysm at the same time as valve replacement
D. Surgical repair of the aneurysm after successful recovery from valve replacement
Question 65
K. is a 39-year-old female who was admitted for evaluation of progressive activity intolerance, and chest radiography revealed a large right lower lobe pleural effusion. A pleural fluid tap was performed, but fluid analysis results were inconclusive and the cause of the effusion could not be identified. The AGACNP knows that which diagnostic study is most appropriate to identify the cause of pleural effusion when fluid analysis is inadequate?
A. Scalene biopsy
B. Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS)
C. Pleural needle biopsy
D.Open surgical biopsy
Question 66
While on call, the AGACNP is asked to evaluate a deteriorating patient. The patient was admitted for exacerbation of pneumonia and congestive heart failure (CHF). The systolic blood pressure is < 90 mm Hg, and the urine output is < 10 mL/hr. A 12-lead ECG reveals no acute processes but reveals previously noted changes that are consistent with bilateral atrial and ventricular enlargement and a marked left axis deviation. You insert a pulmonary artery (PA) line and anticipate which of the following pressures? (CI, cardiac index; PAOP, pulmonary artery occlusion pressure ; RAP, right atrial pressure)
A.CI 1.3 L/min, PAOP 27 mm Hg, RAP 18 mm Hg
B. CI 1.9 L/min, PAOP 12 mm Hg, RAP 6 mm Hg
C. CI 2.4 L/min, PAOP 18 mm Hg, RAP 8 mm Hg
D.CI 1.4 L/min, PAOP 7 mm Hg, RAP 4 mm Hg
Question 67
A critically ill patient with multiple traumatic injuries sustained during a motor vehicle accident has had a pulmonary artery line inserted to follow cardiac pressures. Which of the following sets of pressures would be consistent with hypovolemic shock? (CI, cardiac index; CVP, central venous pressure; PCWP, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure)
A.CI 1.3 L/min, PCWP 27 mm Hg, CVP 18 mm Hg
B. CI 1.3 L/min, PCWP 6 mm Hg, CVP 4 mm Hg
C. CI 2.3 L/min, PCWP 12 mm Hg, CVP 8 mm Hg
D.CI 2.9 L/min, PCWP 16 mm Hg, CVP 6 mm Hg
Question 68
Aggressive fluid resuscitation is indicated in all of the following shock states except:
A.Hypovolemic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Obstructive
D.Distributive
Question 69
The risk-benefit ratio always is considered when evaluating patients with mitral valve disease as surgical candidates for valve correction. Who among the following patients is not considered a good operative candidate?
A. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and endocarditis with systemic embolization
B. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and left ventricular dysfunction
C. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and normal ventricular function
D. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and pulmonary hypertension
Question 70
T. is a 29-year-old male who is recovering from an open fixation of a femur fracture sustained in a diving accident. He has an order for Dilaudid 1 mg IV q2h p.r.n. for pain. He is still having pain and requests more medication. The AGACNP considers that:
A.This is the maximum dose for Dilaudid and nonpharmacologic measures should be maximized
B. The dose may be increased to 2 mg and response assessed
C. He may be opiate addicted, and this should be explored before the dose is increased
D.An adjunct medication such as ibuprofen should be added to his regimen
Question 71
Mrs. Saraceno is a 71-year-old female who had an episode of acute pulmonary edema following an endovascular aneurysm repair. She was managed successfully with a loop diuretic and is ultimately discharged on furosemide 60 mg daily and instructed to follow up with cardiology. She is seen in the office postoperatively 2 weeks after discharge. She has not yet seen a cardiologist but has continued all discharge medications. Her metabolic panel is as follows: Na+ 126 mEq/L K+ 4.0 mEq/L Cl- 93 mEq/L CO2 28 mEq/L BUN 40 mg/dL Cr 1.3 mg/dL The AGACNP recognizes that the patient likely has which abnormality as a consequence of diuretic overuse?
A.Hyponatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Metabolic acidosis
D.Intrarenal failure
Question 72
Mrs. Hoffman is an 82-year-old female who is on postoperative day 4 following mastectomy for breast cancer. This morning her vital signs include a temperature of 101.2°F, pulse of 110 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg. The incisions look good and there is no physical finding or symptom of incision infection. The only abnormal physical finding is a significant tender edema on the right cheek and neck. In addition to ordering increased intravenous hydration and parenteral antibiotics to target Staphylococcus aureus, the AGACNP orders:
A. Loop diuretics
B. Chewing gum
C. Ambulation
D.Incentive spirometry
Question 73
Kelly is a 50-year-old female who had chest radiography as part of a preoperative history and physical examination before an elective cosmetic procedure. She has no significant medical history and takes no daily medications except hormone therapy for menopausal symptoms. The radiology report of her chest film includes a 4-mm coin lesion in the right middle lobe. Kelly reports her health as excellent and has no clear risk factors for malignancy. The AGACNP knows that the next step in her management should be:
A.Repeat radiography in 6 months
B. CT scan of the chest
C. Needle biopsy of the lesion
D.A pulmonology consult
Question 74
Which of the following esophageal foreign objects should not have endoscopic removal attempted? A.Impacted meat
B. Pointed nail
C. Button battery
D.Cocaine packet
Question 75
Mrs. Glasgow is a 55-year-old female who is day 4 post open cholecystectomy. She has had some unanticipated postoperative ectopy and remains hospitalized. This morning her temperature is 100.9°F. While assessing her for infection, the AGACNP knows that which finding would be most consistent with an infectious process?
A.Neutrophilia of 82% of the white blood cell differential
B. A blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio of > 20
C. Pain to palpation at the incision site
D.A significant decrease in appetite
Question 76
L. is a 48-year-old female who has suffered with profound GERD symptoms for several years. She has had aggressive trials of medical therapies and has been adherent to nonpharmacologic interventions. She is now in the aggressive diagnostic phase of evaluation and is preparing for 24-hour ambulatory pH monitoring. The AGACNP advises that in preparation for this test, M. L. should:
A.Continue her current proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy consistent with the way she has been taking it
B. Eat consistently with her normal eating habits up until the procedure
C. Avoid straining for a bowel movement while the monitor is in place
D.Not do anything differently as compared with her normal daily life
Question 77
Mr. Rowley is a 79-year-old male patient who is having a surgical repair of a thoracic aneurysm. He has significant underlying chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and coronary artery disease (CAD), and his early postoperative course will require ventilator support, nutritional support, and a variety of drains and other apparatuses. His wife has asked that he not be told about the ventilator because he is afraid of it—he watched his brother struggle with ventilator therapy. The best approach would be to tell Mrs. Rowley that:
A.The patient will be sedated and will not remember the ventilator after he recovers
B. Her wishes will be respected and the ventilator specifically will not be discussed
C. Being prepared for his postoperative treatment will lessen his anxiety and fear
D.Every effort will be made to avoid ventilator support

Question 78
Ludwig’s angina is a potentially fatal condition characterized by neck pain, neck edema, edema of the base of the mouth, and tongue displacement. The AGACNP knows that the underlying cause is a consequence of:
A.Arteriolar constriction
B. Hypersensitivity
C. Infection
D.Adverse drug effect
Question 79
When counseling a 41-year-old female patient who requires mitral valve surgery for severe mitral stenosis, the AGACNP helps differentiate among options. She advises the patient that in most circumstances, given her age, she is likely to do best with which type of procedure?
A.Bioprosthetic valve replacement
B. Mechanical valve replacement
C. Native valve debridement
D.Catheter-based balloon valvotomy
Question 80
Alan is a 14-year-old male who has been referred for evaluation of a previously undiagnosed cardiac murmur. According to his parents, Alan has no significant medical history and has always been a healthy child. His growth and development have been within normal limits and his well-child checks have been normal. His cardiac murmur was identified during a soccer preparticipation physical examination. During today’s exam, he denies any cardiopulmonary symptoms. He admits that he gets out of breath when he is running during soccer but assumed it was just because he was running. Physical examination reveals a grade III/VI systolic murmur at the 2nd intercostal space, left sternal border, and a clearly fixed split S2 heart sound. The AGACNP knows that this murmur is probably:
A.Mitral regurgitation
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Atrial septal defect
D. Still’s murmur
Question 81
The AGACNP is evaluating a patient who he believes has fungal pneumonia. The patient says she has just relocated to Pennsylvania from Scottsdale, Arizona. When considering specific types of fungal etiology, the AGACNP knows that which type is endemic to the Arizona desert?
A.Histoplasmosis
B. Blastomycosis
C. Coccidioidomycosis
D.Aspergillosis P
Question 82
With respect to management of chronic illness on the morning of surgery, which of the following is a true statement?
A. Patient with diabetes should be started on an insulin gtt to maintain serum glucose < 150 mg/dL
B. Patients with coronary artery disease should have antiplatelet agents held
C. Patients on beta adrenergic antagonists should continue therapy
D. Patients with Hgb < 9 mg/dL should be transfused with packed red blood cells
Question 83
Mr. Mireya is a 66-year-old male who is admitted for palliative surgery for a glioblastoma. He has borderline stage III-IV chronic kidney disease. The AGACNP realizes that he is at increased risk in the perioperative period for:
A.Hypercalcemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D.Eosinophilia
Question 84
Barrett’s esophagus is best described as:
A.A symptomatic condition of gastric reflux
B. A condition that occurs more commonly in women of childbearing age
C. A metaplastic adaptation to repeated irritation
D.A secondary motility disorder
Question 85
Ms. Carson is a 71-year-old female who presents with significant pleuritic-type chest pain. She has no known cardiopulmonary history and does not smoke cigarettes. Her history is significant only for an upper endoscopy this morning for evaluation of severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). She tolerated the procedure well and was discharged home. Over the afternoon she developed worsening pain on the left side of her chest and finally had to come to the emergency department. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 100.0°F, pulse 116 bpm, respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 96/60 mm Hg. The AGACNP orders which of the following diagnostic studies to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
A.Chest radiograph
B. 12-lead ECG
C. Upper endoscopy
D.Esophagram
Question 86
Lilly M. is a 44-year-old female who is transferred to the emergency department following a severe fall. She had been standing on the balcony of a four-story building and tried to balance on the railing. She fell and sustained numerous internal and external injuries. In the emergency room she was in profound hypovolemic shock. Bleeding appears to have been stopped, and rapid infusion of 2 L of normal saline has just been completed. The AGACNP knows that the next step in fluid resuscitation includes:
A.Transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) based on hematocrit
B. Infusion of 1 L of lactated Ringer’s
C. 1 more liter of normal saline solution (NSS) over 10 minutes
D.No additional fluid unless the systolic blood pressure (SBP) is < 90 mm Hg
Question 87
W. is a 67-year-old male with a history of significant coronary artery disease, who now presents in acute cardiogenic shock. His blood pressure is 82/50 mm Hg, and the pulse is in sinus bradycardia at 44 bpm. He is awake and oriented but lethargic and says he feels lightheaded. The treatment of choice for this patient is:
A. Transvenous pacing
B. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
C. Atropine 0.5 mg q2min × 4
D. Epinephrine 1 mg IV
Question 88
Jeff Z. is a 49-year-old male who is on the heart transplant list due to myocarditis-related end stage congestive heart failure. While counseling Jeff about bridge devices that allow him to be discharged from the hospital, the AGACNP tells Jeff that the most frequently used device is:
A.Ideal for smaller-framed patients
B. Implanted below the diaphragm
C. Independent of external power for up to 24 hours
D.Good for up to 2 years
Question 89
Mrs. Brownlee is a 63-year-old female who is admitted for surgical replacement of her aortic valve. She has a history of symptomatic aortic stenosis, osteoarthritis, and hypothyroidism. She has always been very thin, and her admitting height and weight are 5’4” and 110 lbs. In considering her postoperative nutritional needs, the AGACNP recognizes that:
A. Postoperative calorie requirements are higher than baseline because of the hypermetabolic response to physiologic stress
B. The parasympathetic response to thoracic surgery requires a proportionally greater increase in protein calories
C. Calorie requirements will not change postoperatively, as the increased stress response is balanced by bedrest and decreased activity calorie use.
D.Nutritional requirements are individualized postoperatively, and it is not possible to predict postoperative needs in

Question 90
Mr. Cortez is a 41-year-old male with a long history of chronic allergic rhinitis. He has not had health insurance for most of his adult life, so he has self-treated his nasal symptoms with a combination of over-the-counter agents including antihistamines, decongestants, and nasal sprays. He recently obtained coverage under the Affordable Care Act and presents more regularly for care of his chronic nasal symptoms; he cannot go longer than a few

Q7. NURS 6512 FINAL EXAM: WALDEN UNIVERSITY (Already graded A)

NURS 6512 FINAL EXAM: WALDEN UNIVERSITY
1. Costovertebral angle tenderness should be assessed whenever you suspect the patient may have: –
2. In older adults, overflow fecal incontinence is commonly due to:
3. A 1 month old boy has been vomiting for 2 weeks. How is this symptom of GERD and pyloric stenosis further differentiated in this child’s assessment?
4. Auscultation of borborygmi is associated with:
5. When auscultating the abdomen, which finding would indicate collateral circulation between the portal and systemic venous systems? –
6. Conversion of fat-soluble wastes to water-soluble material for renal excretion is a function of the: –
7. The major function of the large intestine is: –
8. Which structure is located in the hypogastric region of the abdomen? –
9. A 45 year old man relates a several week history of severe intermittent abdominal burning sensations. He relates that the pain is relieved with small amounts of food. Before starting the physical examination, you review his laboratory work, anticipating a (n): –
10. You are caring for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. During the assessment, the patient would describe the pain as: –
11. Your 85 year old patient is complaining of right knee pain. She has a history of osteoarthritis for which she is given anti-inflammatory medication. To assess her right knee pain, you should ask her if: – 12. A 5 year old is complaining of nondescriptive “belly pain.” Your next action should be to ask him to: – 13. The perception of pain: –
14. Patients presenting with ascites, jaundice, cutaneous spider veins, and nonpalpable liver exhibit signs of: –
15. A patient presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The patient sustained blunt trauma to the abdomen and complains of pain in the upper left quadrant that radiates to the left shoulder. What organ is most likely injured?
16. Imaging studies reveal that a patient has dilation of the renal pelvis from an obstruction in the ureter, what condition will be documented in this patient’s health record? –
17. Visible intestinal peristalsis may indicate: –
18. Infants born weighing less than 1500g are at higher risk for:
19. Which of the following factors is not known to affect patient compliance with his or her treatment regimen? –
20. One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: –
21. The sequence of the physical examination should be individualized to:
22. As you greet the patient, which examination technique is first implemented? –
23. Which of the following is most likely to enhance examiner reliability?
24. A 7 year old boy is brought to your office with a chief complaint of possible fracture to his left third finger. He jammed it while playing basketball 2 days ago. The mother states that she really does not think it is broken because he can move it. What is your best response? –
25. A patient presenting for the first time with typical low back pain should receive which of the following diagnostic tests?
26. Skeletal changes in older adults are the result of: –
27. A positive straight leg raise test usually indicates: –
28. What technique is performed at every infant examination during the first year of life to detect hipdislocation? –
29. Expected normal findings during inspection of spinal alignment include-
30. Temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by:-
31. When palpating joints, crepitus may be caused when: –
32. A 3 year old is brought to the clinic complaining of a painful right elbow. He is holding the right arm slightly flexed and pronated and refuses to move it. the mother states that symptoms started right after his older brother had been swinging him around by his arms. This presentation supports a diagnosis of: –
33. Light skin and thin body habitus are risk factors for: –
34. Risk factors for sports-related injuries include: –
35. Injuries to long bones and joints are more likely to result in fractures than in sprains until: –
36. Ligaments are stronger than bone until: –
37. The family history for a patient with joint pain should include information about siblings with: –
38. The Thomas test is used to detect: –
39. A goniometer is used to assess: –
40. During a football game, a player was struck on the lateral side of the left leg while his feet were firmly planted. He is complaining of left knee pain. To examine the left knee you should initially perform the ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬________ test. –
41. You note that a child has a positive Gower Sign. You know that this indicates generalized: –
42. The dowager hump is: –
43. What temporary disorder may be experienced by pregnant women during the third trimester because of fluid retention?–
44. A common finding in markedly obese and pregnant women is: –
45. A 45-year-old laborer presents with low back pain, stating that the pain comes from the right buttock and shoots down and across the right anterior thigh, down the shin to the ankle. Which examination finding is considered more indicative of nerve root compression?A 45 year old laborer presents with low back pain, stating that the pain comes from the right buttock and shoots down and across the right anterior thigh, down the shin to the ankle. Which examination finding is considered more indicative of nerve root compression? –
46. Mrs. Bower is a 57 year old patient who comes in for an office visit. Which of the following disorders is known to be hereditary? –
47. Testing of cranial nerve ¬¬¬¬________ is not routinely performed unless a problem is suspected. – I
48. The patient is able to rapidly touch each finger to his thumb in rapid sequence. What does this finding mean? –
49. Which question asked by the examiner may hellp to determine prevention strategies for seizures that a patient is experiencing? –
50. A patient has a complaint of dizziness. The patient makes the following statement: “I sometimes feel as if the whole room is spinning.” What type of neurologic dysfunction should the examiner suspect? –
51. The examiner asks the patient to close her eyes, then places a vibrating tuning fork on the patient’s ankle and asks her to indicate what is felt. What is being assessed? –
52. Which of the following findings should an examiner consider a normal finding if associated with pregnancy? – –
52. Jack is a 52 year old obese man with a history of poorly controlled diabetes. He also smokes. Based on the above data, the examiner should recognize that Jack has several risk factors for: – –
53. Mrs. Jones is a 24 year old patient who presents to your office 2 days postpartum. She complains that she is experiencing foot drop. Which of the following problems should the examiner consider? –
54. The examiner is assessing deep tendon reflex response in a 12 year old boy. The response is an expected reflex response. Which of the following scores should be documented? –
55. A 68 year old patient presents to your office for follow-up. He tells you, “I have a hard time finding the right words when I am talking;” he also is experiencing numbness. On examination, you note postural instability. This symptom may be: –
56. Motor maturation proceeds in an orderly progression from: –
57. The thalamus is the major integration center for perception of: –
58. The examiner should be concerned about neurologic competence if a social smile cannot be elicited by the time a child is ________old. –
59. Normal changes of the aging brain include: – –
60. When interviewing a 70 year old female clinic patient, she tells you that she takes ginkgo biloba and St. John’s Wort. You make a short note to check for results of the: —
61. The area of body surface innervated by a particular spinal nerve is called a: – –
62. If a patient cannot shrug the shoulders against resistance, which cranial nerve (CN) requires further evaluation? – –
63. The finger-to-nose test allows assessment of: – –
64. You ask the patient to follow a series of short commands to assess: – –
65. As Mr. B. enters the room, you observe that his gait is wide based and he staggers from side to side while swaying his trunk. You would document Mr. B.’s pattern as: –
66. When is the mental status portion of the neurologic system examination performed? –
67. An aversion to touch or being held, along with delayed or absent language development, is a characteristic of: —
68. The autonomic nervous system coordinates which of the following? –
69. The major function of the sympathetic nervous system is to: – –
70. The parasympathetic nervous system maintains the day-to-day function of: –
71. Cerebrospinal fluid serves as a: – –
72. You are performing a two-point discrimination test as part of a well physical examination. The area with the ability to discern two points in the shortest distance is the: —
73. Which type of hallucination is most commonly associated with alcohol withdrawal? – –
74. On a scale of 0 to 4+, which deep tendon reflex score is appropriate for a finding of clonus in a patient? –
75. Which statement is true regarding mental status changes in older adults? – –
76. A characteristic related to syphilis or diabetic neuropathy is testicular: —
77. When collecting personal and social history data from a woman complaining of breast discomfort, you should question her regarding: – –
78. What risk factor is associated with cervical cancer? – –
79. A 23 year old female presents with severe right lower quadrant tenderness. All of the following should be considered in the differential except: – –
80. What is the initial diagnostic radiology test that should be ordered if you suspect a ruptured ovarian cyst? – –
81. A 17 year old male was brought into the emergency room with testicular/scrotal pain. The differential diagnosis should include all except: –
82. The nursing mother complains that her breasts are tender. You assess hard, shiny, and erythremicbreasts bilaterally. You should advise the patient to: – –
83. A normal vas deferens should feel: – –
84. In a woman complaining of a breast lump, it is most important to ask about: – –
85. The finding of a painless indurated lesion on the glans penis is most consistent with: – –
86. Thrombosed hemorrhoids are: – –
87. Pregnancy-related cervical changes include: –
88. You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should: – –
89. An adolescent male is being seen for acute onset of left testicular pain. The pain started 3 hours ago. He complains of nausea and denies dysuria or fever. Your prioritized assessment should be to: –
90. A 23 year old white woman has come to the clinic because she has missed two menstrual periods. She states that her breasts have enlarged and that her nipples have turned a darker color. Your further response to this finding is: – –
91. What accommodations should be used in the position of a hearing-impaired woman for a pelvic examination? – –
92. Sexual differentiation in the fetus has occurred by ¬¬¬_______weeks gestation. – –
93. You are performing a clinical breast examination for a 55 year old woman. While palpating the supraclavicular area, you suspect that you felt a node. In order to improve your hooked technique, you should: —
94. If a firm, transverse ridge of compressed tissue is felt bilaterally along the lower edge of a 40 year old patient’s breast, you should: —
95. A therapeutic technique for dealing with grieving individuals is to: –
96. The examination of the newborn should begin with: – –
97. Which one of the following patient characteristics is most likely to limit patient reliability during history taking? – –
98. In crying infants, it is often difficult to: – –
99. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the sensitivity and specificity of laboratory tests? –-
100. Which medical condition would exclude one from sports participation? – –
101. Your 15 year old patient is athletic and thin. Radiography of an ankle injury reveals a stress fracture. You question this patient about her: – –
102. Which of the following are examined with the patient in a reclining 45 degree position? –-
103. Functional assessment is most important during the examination of a(n): —
104. The best way to ease the apprehension of a 3 year old child before a physical examination is to: – –
105. An ophthalmoscopic eye examination involves: – –
106. When conducting a geriatric assessment, basic activities of daily living (ADLs) include: –
107. The checkout station for preparticipation physical evaluation (PPE) is critical because at this point: –
108. Which of the following is true regarding the relationship between the examiner and the patient? –
109. Which of the following factors is not known to affect patient compliance with his or her treatment regimen? –
110. One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: –
111. As you greet the patient, which examination technique is first implemented? –
112. Which portion of the physical examination is best done with the patient standing? –
113. Which patient position facilitates inspection of the chest and shoulders? –
114. The least reliable indicator of newborn distress is: –
115. Proprioception should be assessed while the patient is: –
116. Part of the screening orthopedic component of the examination includes evaluating the person while: –

Q8. NSG 6005 Chapter 1 to Chapter 53 Test Question Bank (Latest)
Chapter 1: The Role of the Nurse Practitioner as Prescriber

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by:
A.
The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
B.
The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration
C.
The State Board of Nursing for each state
D.
The State Board of Pharmacy

____ 2. Physician Assistant (PA) prescriptive authority is regulated by:
A.
The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
B.
The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration
C.
The State Board of Nursing
D.
The State Board of Medical Examiners

____ 3. Clinical judgment in prescribing includes:
A.
Factoring in the cost to the patient of the medication prescribed
B.
Always prescribing the newest medication available for the disease process
C.
Handing out drug samples to poor patients
D.
Prescribing all generic medications to cut costs

____ 4. Criteria for choosing an effective drug for a disorder include:
A.
Asking the patient what drug they think would work best for them
B.
Consulting nationally recognized guidelines for disease management
C.
Prescribing medications that are available as samples before writing a prescription
D.
Following U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) guidelines for prescribing

____ 5. Nurse practitioner practice may thrive under health-care reform due to:
A.
The demonstrated ability of nurse practitioners to control costs and improve patient outcomes
B.
The fact that nurse practitioners will be able to practice independently
C.
The fact that nurse practitioners will have full reimbursement under health-care reform
D.
The ability to shift accountability for Medicaid to the state level

Chapter 2: Review of Basic Principles of Pharmacology

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. A patient’s nutritional intake and lab work reflects hypoalbuminemia. This is critical to prescribing because:
A.
Distribution of drugs to target tissue may be affected
B.
The solubility of the drug will not match the site of absorption
C.
There will be less free drug available to generate an effect
D.
Drugs bound to albumin are readily excreted by the kidney

____ 2. Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:
A.
Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
B.
Bypass the hepatic circulation
C.
Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
D.
Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms

____ 3. The route of excretion of a volatile drug will likely be:
A.
The kidneys
B.
The lungs
C.
The bile and feces
D.
The skin

____ 4. Medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) is prescribed IM to create a storage reservoir of the drug. Storage reservoirs:
A.
Assure that the drug will reach its intended target tissue
B.
Are the reason for giving loading doses
C.
Increase the length of time a drug is available and active
D.
Are most common in collagen tissues

____ 5. The NP chooses to give cephalexin every 8 hours based on knowledge of the drug’s:
A.
Propensity to go to the target receptor
B.
Biological half-life
C.
Pharmacodynamics
D.
Safety and side effects

____ 6. Azithromycin dosing requires the first day’s dose be twice those of the other 4 days of the prescription. This is considered a loading dose. A loading dose:
A.
Rapidly achieves drug levels in the therapeutic range
B.
Requires four to five half-lives to attain
C.
Is influenced by renal function
D.
Is directly related to the drug circulating to the target tissues

____ 7. The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of a therapeutic effect is the:
A.
Minimum adverse effect level
B.
Peak of action
C.
Onset of action
D.
Therapeutic range

____ 8. Phenytoin requires a trough level be drawn. Peak and trough levels are done:
A.
When the drug has a wide therapeutic range
B.
When the drug will be administered for a short time only
C.
When there is a high correlation between the dose and saturation of receptor sites
D.
To determine if a drug is in the therapeutic range

____ 9. A laboratory result indicates the peak level for a drug is above the minimum toxic concentration. This means that the:
A.
Concentration will produce therapeutic effects
B.
Concentration will produce an adverse response
C.
Time between doses must be shortened
D.
Duration of action of the drug is too long

____ 10. Drugs that are receptor agonists may demonstrate what property?
A.
Irreversible binding to the drug receptor site
B.
Up-regulation with chronic use
C.
Desensitization or down-regulation with continuous use
D.
Inverse relationship between drug concentration and drug action

____ 11. Drugs that are receptor antagonists, such as beta blockers, may cause:
A.
Down-regulation of the drug receptor
B.
An exaggerated response if abruptly discontinued
C.
Partial blockade of the effects of agonist drugs
D.
An exaggerated response to competitive drug agonists

____ 12. Factors that affect gastric drug absorption include:
A.
Liver enzyme activity
B.
Protein-binding properties of the drug molecule
C.
Lipid solubility of the drug
D.
Ability to chew and swallow

____ 13. Drugs administered via intravenous (IV) route:
A.
Need to be lipid soluble in order to be easily absorbed
B.
Begin distribution into the body immediately
C.
Are easily absorbed if they are nonionized
D.
May use pinocytosis to be absorbed

____ 14. When a medication is added to a regimen for a synergistic effect, the combined effect of the drugs is:
A.
The sum of the effects of each drug individually
B.
Greater than the sum of the effects of each drug individually
C.
Less than the effect of each drug individually
D.
Not predictable, as it varies with each individual

____ 15. Which of the following statements about bioavailability is true?
A.
Bioavailability issues are especially important for drugs with narrow therapeutic ranges or sustained release mechanisms.
B.
All brands of a drug have the same bioavailability.
C.
Drugs that are administered more than once a day have greater bioavailability than drugs given once daily.
D.
Combining an active drug with an inert substance does not affect bioavailability.

____ 16. Which of the following statements about the major distribution barriers (blood-brain or fetal-placental) is true?
A.
Water soluble and ionized drugs cross these barriers rapidly.
B.
The blood-brain barrier slows the entry of many drugs into and from brain cells.
C.
The fetal-placental barrier protects the fetus from drugs taken by the mother.
D.
Lipid soluble drugs do not pass these barriers and are safe for pregnant women.

____ 17. Drugs are metabolized mainly by the liver via Phase I or Phase II reactions. The purpose of both of these types of reactions is to:
A.
Inactivate prodrugs before they can be activated by target tissues
B.
Change the drugs so they can cross plasma membranes
C.
Change drug molecules to a form that an excretory organ can excrete
D.
Make these drugs more ionized and polar to facilitate excretion

____ 18. Once they have been metabolized by the liver, the metabolites may be:
A.
More active than the parent drug
B.
Less active than the parent drug
C.
Totally “deactivated” so that they are excreted without any effect
D.
All of the above

____ 19. All drugs continue to act in the body until they are changed or excreted. The ability of the body to excrete drugs via the renal system would be increased by:
A.
Reduced circulation and perfusion of the kidney
B.
Chronic renal disease
C.
Competition for a transport site by another drug
D.
Unbinding a nonvolatile drug from plasma proteins

____ 20. Steady state is:
A.
The point on the drug concentration curve when absorption exceeds excretion
B.
When the amount of drug in the body remains constant
C.
When the amount of drug in the body stays below the MTC
D.
All of the above

____ 21. Two different pain meds are given together for pain relief. The drug-drug interaction is:
A.
Synergistic
B.
Antagonistic
C.
Potentiative
D.
Additive

____ 22. Actions taken to reduce drug-drug interaction problems include all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
Reducing the dose of one of the drugs
B.
Scheduling their administration at different times
C.
Prescribing a third drug to counteract the adverse reaction of the combination
D.
Reducing the dosage of both drugs

____ 23. Phase I oxidative-reductive processes of drug metabolism require certain nutritional elements. Which of the following would reduce or inhibit this process?
A.
Protein malnutrition
B.
Iron deficiency anemia
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B

____ 24. The time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50% is called:
A.
Steady state
B.
Half-life
C.
Phase II metabolism
D.
Reduced bioavailability time

____ 25. An agonist activates a receptor and stimulates a response. When given frequently over time the body may:
A.
Up-regulate the total number of receptors
B.
Block the receptor with a partial agonist
C.
Alter the drug’s metabolism
D.
Down-regulate the numbers of that specific receptor

____ 26. Drug antagonism is best defined as an effect of a drug that:
A.
Leads to major physiologic psychological dependence
B.
Is modified by the concurrent administration of another drug
C.
Cannot be metabolized before another dose is administered
D.
Leads to a decreased physiologic response when combined with another drug

____ 27. Instructions to a client regarding self-administration of oral enteric-coated tablets should include which of the following statements?
A.
“Avoid any other oral medicines while taking this drug.”
B.
“If swallowing this tablet is difficult, dissolve it in 3 ounces of orange juice.”
C.
“The tablet may be crushed if you have any difficultly taking it.”
D.
“To achieve best effect, take the tablet with at least 8 ounces of fluid.”

____ 28. The major reason for not crushing a sustained release capsule is that, if crushed, the coated beads of the drugs could possibly result in:
A.
Disintegration
B.
Toxicity
C.
Malabsorption
D.
Deterioration

____ 29. Which of the following substances is the most likely to be absorbed in the intestines rather than in the stomach?
A.
Sodium bicarbonate
B.
Ascorbic acid
C.
Salicylic acid
D.
Glucose

____ 30. Which of the following variables is a factor in drug absorption?
A.
The smaller the surface area for absorption, the more rapidly the drug is absorbed.
B.
A rich blood supply to the area of absorption leads to better absorption.
C.
The less soluble the drug, the more easily it is absorbed.
D.
Ionized drugs are easily absorbed across the cell membrane.

____ 31. An advantage of prescribing a sublingual medication is that the medication is:
A.
Absorbed rapidly
B.
Excreted rapidly
C.
Metabolized minimally
D.
Distributed equally

____ 32. Drugs that use CYP 3A4 isoenzymes for metabolism may:
A.
Induce the metabolism of another drug
B.
Inhibit the metabolism of another drug
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B

____ 33. Therapeutic drug levels are drawn when a drug reaches steady state. Drugs reach steady state:
A.
After the second dose
B.
After four to five half-lives
C.
When the patient feels the full effect of the drug
D.
One hour after IV administration

____ 34. Up-regulation or hypersensitization may lead to:
A.
Increased response to a drug
B.
Decreased response to a drug
C.
An exaggerated response if the drug is withdrawn
D.
Refractoriness or complete lack of response

Chapter 3: Rational Drug Selection

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. An NP would prescribe the liquid form of ibuprofen for a 6 year old because:
A.
Drugs given in liquid form are less irritating to the stomach
B.
A 6 year old may have problems swallowing a pill
C.
Liquid forms of medication eliminate the concern for first-pass effect
D.
Liquid ibuprofen does not have to be dosed as often as tablet form

____ 2. In deciding which of multiple drugs used to use to treat a condition, the NP chooses Drug A because it:
A.
Has serious side effects and it is not being used for a life-threatening condition
B.
Will be taken twice daily and will be taken at home
C.
Is expensive, and is not covered by health insurance
D.
None of these are important in choosing a drug

____ 3. A client asks the NP about the differences in drug effects between men and women. What is known about the differences between the pharmacokinetics of men and women?
A.
Body temperature varies between men and women
B.
Muscle mass is greater in women
C.
Percentage of fat differs between genders
D.
Proven subjective factors exist between the genders

____ 4. The first step in the prescribing process according to the World Health Organization is:
A.
Choosing the treatment
B.
Educating the patient about the medication
C.
Diagnosing the patient’s problem
D.
Starting the treatment

____ 5. Treatment goals in prescribing should:
A.
Always be curative
B.
Be patient-centered
C.
Be convenient for the provider
D.
Focus on the cost of therapy

____ 6. The therapeutic goals when prescribing include(s):
A.
Curative
B.
Palliative
C.
Preventive
D.
All of the above

____ 7. When determining drug treatment the NP prescriber should:
A.
Always use evidence-based guidelines
B.
Individualize the drug choice for the specific patient
C.
Rely on his or her experience when prescribing for complex patients
D.
Use the newest drug on the market for the condition being treated

____ 8. Patient education regarding prescribed medication includes:
A.
Instructions written at the high school reading level
B.
Discussion of expected adverse drug reactions
C.
How to store leftover medication such as antibiotics
D.
Verbal instructions always in English

____ 9. Passive monitoring of drug effectiveness includes:
A.
Therapeutic drug levels
B.
Adding or subtracting medications from the treatment regimen
C.
Ongoing provider visits
D.
Instructing the patient to report if the drug is not effective

____ 10. Pharmacokinetic factors that affect prescribing include:
A.
Therapeutic index
B.
Minimum effective concentration
C.
Bioavailability
D.
Ease of titration

____ 11. Pharmaceutical promotion may affect prescribing. To address the impact of pharmaceutical promotion, the following recommendations have been made by the Institute of Medicine:
A.
Conflicts of interest and financial relationships should be disclosed by those providing education.
B.
Providers should ban all pharmaceutical representatives from their office setting.
C.
Drug samples should be used for patients who have the insurance to pay for them, to ensure the patient can afford the medication.
D.
Providers should only accept low-value gifts, such as pens and pads of paper, from the pharmaceutical representative.

Chapter 4: Legal and Professional Issues in Prescribing

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulates:
A.
Prescribing of drugs by MDs and NPs
B.
The official labeling for all prescription and over-the-counter drugs
C.
Off-label recommendations for prescribing
D.
Pharmaceutical educational offerings

____ 2. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval is required for:
A.
Medical devices, including artificial joints
B.
Over-the-counter vitamins
C.
Herbal products, such as St John’s Wort
D.
Dietary supplements, such as Ensure

____ 3. An Investigational New Drug (IND) is filed with the FDA:
A.
When the manufacturer has completed Phase III trials
B.
When a new drug is discovered
C.
Prior to animal testing of any new drug entity
D.
Prior to human testing of any new drug entity

____ 4. Phase IV clinical trials in the United States are also known as:
A.
Human bioavailability trials
B.
Post-marketing research
C.
Human safety and efficacy studies
D.
The last stage of animal trials before the human trials begin

____ 5. Off-label prescribing is:
A.
Regulated by the FDA
B.
Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces)
C.
Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use
D.
Regulated by the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

____ 6. The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA):
A.
Registers manufacturers and prescribers of controlled substances
B.
Regulates NP prescribing at the state level
C.
Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label
D.
Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing

____ 7. Drugs that are designated Schedule II by the DEA:
A.
Are known teratogens during pregnancy
B.
May not be refilled; a new prescription must be written
C.
Have a low abuse potential
D.
May be dispensed without a prescription unless regulated by the state

____ 8. Precautions that should be taken when prescribing controlled substances include:
A.
Faxing the prescription for a Schedule II drug directly to the pharmacy
B.
Using tamper-proof paper for all prescriptions written for controlled drugs
C.
Keeping any pre-signed prescription pads in a locked drawer in the clinic
D.
Using only numbers to indicate the amount of drug to be prescribed

____ 9. Strategies prescribers can use to prevent misuse of controlled prescription drugs include:
A.
Use of chemical dependency screening tools
B.
Firm limit-setting regarding prescribing controlled substances
C.
Practicing “just say no” to deal with patients who are pushing the provider to prescribe controlled substances
D.
All of the above

____ 10. Behaviors predictive of addiction to controlled substances include:
A.
Stealing or borrowing another patient’s drugs
B.
Requiring increasing doses of opiates for pain associated with malignancy
C.
Receiving refills of a Schedule II prescription on a regular basis
D.
Requesting that only their own primary care provider prescribe for them

____ 11. Medication agreements or “Pain Medication Contracts” are recommended to be used:
A.
Universally for all prescribing for chronic pain
B.
For patients who have repeated requests for pain medication
C.
When you suspect a patient is exhibiting drug-seeking behavior
D.
For patients with pain associated with malignancy

____ 12. A prescription needs to be written for:
A.
Legend drugs
B.
Most controlled drugs
C.
Medical devices
D.
All of the above

Chapter 5: Adverse Drug Reactions

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Which of the following patients would be at higher risk of experiencing adverse drug reactions (ADRs):
A.
A 32-year-old male
B.
A 22-year-old female
C.
A 3-month-old female
D.
A 48-year-old male

____ 2. Infants and young children are at higher risk of ADRs due to:
A.
Immature renal function in school-age children
B.
Lack of safety and efficacy studies in the pediatric population
C.
Children’s skin being thicker than adults, requiring higher dosages of topical medication
D.
Infant boys having a higher proportion of muscle mass, leading to a higher volume of distribution

____ 3. The elderly are at high risk of ADRs due to:
A.
Having greater muscle mass than younger adults, leading to higher volume of distribution
B.
The extensive studies that have been conducted on drug safety in this age group
C.
The blood-brain barrier being less permeable, requiring higher doses to achieve therapeutic effect
D.
Age-related decrease in renal function

____ 4. The type of adverse drug reaction that is the result of an unwanted but otherwise normal pharmacological action of a drug given in the usual therapeutic doses is
A.
Type A
B.
Type B
C.
Type C
D.
Type D

____ 5. Digoxin may cause a Type A adverse drug reaction due to:
A.
Idiosyncratic effects
B.
Its narrow therapeutic index
C.
Being a teratogen
D.
Being a carcinogen

____ 6. Changes in the individual pharmacokinetic parameters of adsorption, distribution, or elimination may result in high concentrations of the drug in the body, leading to which type of adverse drug reaction?
A.
Type A
B.
Type C
C.
Type D
D.
Type E

____ 7. According to the World Health Organization Classification, Type B adverse reactions are:
A.
When a drug is a teratogen
B.
When a drug is carcinogenic
C.
A delayed ADR, such as renal failure
D.
An allergic or idiosyncratic response

____ 8. Sarah developed a rash after using a topical medication. This is a Type __ allergic drug reaction.
A.
I
B.
II
C.
III
D.
IV

____ 9. A patient may develop neutropenia from using topical Silvadene for burns. Neutropenia is a(n):
A.
Cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
B.
Immune complex hypersensitivity
C.
Immediate hypersensitivity reaction
D.
Delayed hypersensitivity reaction

____ 10. Anaphylactic shock is a:
A.
Type I reaction, called immediate hypersensitivity reaction
B.
Type II reaction, called cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
C.
Type III allergic reaction, called immune complex hypersensitivity
D.
Type IV allergic reaction, called delayed hypersensitivity reaction

____ 11. James has hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression from chronic prednisone (a corticosteroid) use. He is at risk for what type of adverse drug reaction?
A.
Type B
B.
Type C
C.
Type E
D.
Type F

____ 12. The treatment for a patient who experiences hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression while taking the corticosteroid prednisone, a Type C adverse drug reaction, is to:
A.
Immediately discontinue the prednisone
B.
Administer epinephrine
C.
Slowly taper the patient off of the prednisone
D.
Monitor for long-term effects, such as cancer

____ 13. The ACE inhibitor lisinopril is a known teratogen. Teratogens cause Type ____ adverse drug reaction.
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D

____ 14. Cardiac defects are a known Type D adverse drug reaction to lithium. Lithium causes a Type D adverse drug reaction because it is:
A.
An immunosuppressant
B.
A carcinogen
C.
A teratogen
D.
An antiseizure medication

____ 15. Immunomodulators such as azathioprine may cause a delayed adverse drug reaction known as a Type D reaction because they are known:
A.
Teratogens
B.
Carcinogens
C.
To cause hypersensitivity reactions
D.
Hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis suppressants

____ 16. A 24-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type __ adverse drug reaction when he no longer requires the opioids.
A.
A
B.
C
C.
E
D.
G

____ 17. Drugs that may cause a Type E adverse drug reaction include:
A.
Beta blockers
B.
Immunomodulators
C.
Antibiotics
D.
Oral contraceptives

____ 18. Unexpected failure of drug therapy is a Type __ adverse drug reaction, commonly caused by____.
A.
B; cytotoxic hypersensitivity
B.
B; idiosyncratic response
C.
C; cumulative effects of drug
D.
F; drug-drug interaction

____ 19. Clopidogrel treatment failure may occur when it is co-administered with omeprazole, known as a Type __ adverse drug reaction.
A.
A
B.
C
C.
E
D.
F

Chapter 6: Factors that Foster Positive Outcomes

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. A comprehensive assessment of a patient should be holistic when trying to determine competence in drug administration. Which of the following factors would the NP omit from this type of assessment?
A.
Financial status
B.
Mobility
C.
Social support
D.
Sexual practices

____ 2. Elena Vasquez’ primary language is Spanish and she speaks very limited English. Which technique would be appropriate to use in teaching her about a new drug you have just prescribed?
A.
Use correct medical terminology since Spanish has a Latin base
B.
Use a family member who speaks more English to act as interpreter
C.
Use a professional interpreter or a reliable staff member who can interpret
D.
Use careful, detailed explanations

____ 3. Rod, age 68, has hearing difficulty. Which of the following would NOT be helpful in assuring that he understands teaching about his drug?
A.
Stand facing him and speak slowly and clearly
B.
Speak in low tones or find a provider who has a lower voice
C.
Write down the instructions as well as speaking them
D.
If he reads lips, exaggerate lips movements when pronouncing the vowel sounds

____ 4. Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen?
A.
Complexity of the drug regimen
B.
Patient perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B

____ 5. The health-care delivery system itself can create barriers to adherence to a treatment regimen. Which of the following system variables creates such a barrier?
A.
Increasing copayments for care
B.
Unrestricted formularies for drugs including brand names
C.
Increasing the number of people who have access to care
D.
Treating a wider range of disorders

____ 6. Adverse drug reactions and patients’ perceptions of them are likely to produce non-adherence. Which of the following ADRs are least likely to produce non-adherence?
A.
Severe hypotension and anaphylaxis
B.
Constipation and diarrhea
C.
Headache and dizziness
D.
Nausea and vomiting

____ 7. Ralph’s blood pressure remains elevated despite increased doses of his drug. The NP is concerned that he might not be adhering to his treatment regimen. Which of the following events would suggest that he might not be adherent?
A.
Ralph states that he always takes the drug “when I feel my pressure is going up.”
B.
Ralph contacts his NP to discuss the need to increase the dose.
C.
Ralph consistently keeps his follow-up appointments to check his blood pressure.
D.
All of the above show that he is adherent to the drug regimen.

____ 8. Non-adherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of non-adherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:
A.
Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect
B.
Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down.
C.
Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness.
D.
Must be taken no more than twice a day.

____ 9. Factors in chronic conditions that contribute to non-adherence include:
A.
The complexity of the treatment regimen
B.
The length of time over which it must be taken
C.
Breaks in the usual daily routine, such as vacations and weekends
D.
All of the above

____ 10. While patient education about their drugs is important, information alone does not necessarily lead to adherence to a drug regimen. Patients report greater adherence when:
A.
The provider spent a lot of time discussing the drugs with them
B.
Their concerns and specific area of knowledge deficit were addressed
C.
They were given written material, such as pamphlets, about the drugs
D.
The provider used appropriate medical and pharmacologic terms

____ 11. Patients with psychiatric illnesses have adherence rates to their drug regimen between 35% and 60%. To improve adherence in this population, prescribe drugs:
A.
With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve
B.
In oral formulations that are more easily taken
C.
That do not require frequent monitoring
D.
Combined with patient education about the need to adhere even when symptoms are absent

____ 12. Many disorders require multiple drugs to treat them. The more complex the drug regimen, the less likely the patient will adhere to it. Which of the following interventions will NOT improve adherence?
A.
Have the patient purchase a pill container with compartments for daily or multiple times per day dosing.
B.
Match the clinic appointment to the next time the drug is to be refilled.
C.
Write prescriptions for new drugs with shorter times between refills.
D.
Give the patient a clear drug schedule that the provider devises to fit the characteristic of the drug.

____ 13. Pharmacologic interventions are costly. Patients for whom the cost/benefit variable is especially important include:
A.
Older adults and those on fixed incomes
B.
Patients with chronic illnesses
C.
Patients with copayments for drugs on their insurance
D.
Patients on public assistance

____ 14. Providers have a responsibility for determining the best plan of care, but patients also have responsibilities. Patients the provider can be assured will carry through on these responsibilities include those who:
A.
Are well-educated and affluent
B.
Have chronic conditions
C.
Self-monitor drug effects on their symptoms
D.
None of the above guarantee adherence

____ 15. Monitoring adherence can take several forms, including:
A.
Patient reports from data in a drug diary
B.
Pill counts
C.
Lab reports and other diagnostic markers
D.
All of the above

Chapter 7: Cultural and Ethnic Influences in Pharmacotherapeutics

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Cultural factors that must be taken into account when prescribing include(s):
A.
Who is the decision maker in the family regarding health-care decisions
B.
The patient’s view of health and illness
C.
Attitudes regarding the use of drugs to treat illness
D.
All of the above

____ 2. Ethnic differences have been found in drug:
A.
Absorption
B.
Hepatic metabolism
C.
Filtration at the glomerulus
D.
Passive tubular reabsorption

____ 3. The National Standards of Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services (CLAS) are required to be implemented in all:
A.
Hospitals
B.
Clinics that serve the poor
C.
Organizations that receive federal funds
D.
Clinics that serve ethnic minorities

____ 4. According to the National Standards of Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services (CLAS), interpreters for health care:
A.
May be a bilingual family member
B.
May be a bilingual nurse or other health-care provider
C.
Must be a professionally trained medical interpreter
D.
Must be an employee of the organization

____ 5. According to the U.S. Office of Minority Health, poor health outcomes among African Americans are attributed to:
A.
The belief among African Americans that prayer is more powerful than drugs
B.
Poor compliance on the part of the African-American patient
C.
The genetic predisposition for illness found among African Americans
D.
Discrimination, cultural barriers, and lack of access to health care

____ 6. The racial difference in drug pharmacokinetics seen in American Indian or Alaskan Natives are:
A.
Increased CYP 2D6 activity, leading to rapid metabolism of some drugs
B.
Largely unknown due to lack of studies of this population
C.
Rapid metabolism of alcohol, leading to increased tolerance
D.
Decreased elimination of opioids, leading to increased risk for addiction

____ 7. Pharmacokinetics among Asians are universal to all the Asian ethnic groups.
A.
True
B.
False

____ 8. Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:
A.
Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses
B.
Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses
C.
Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses
D.
Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses

____ 9. Asians from Eastern Asia are known to be fast acetylators. Fast acetylators:
A.
Require acetylization in order to metabolize drugs
B.
Are unable to tolerate higher doses of some drugs that require acetylization
C.
May have a toxic reaction to drugs that require acetylization
D.
Require higher doses of drugs metabolized by acetylization to achieve efficacy

____ 10. Hispanic native healers (curanderas):
A.
Are not heavily utilized by Hispanics who immigrate to the United States
B.
Use herbs and teas in their treatment of illness
C.
Provide unsafe advice to Hispanics and should not be trusted
D.
Need to be licensed in their home country in order to practice in the United States

Chapter 8: Pharmacogenomics

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including:
A.
Poor metabolizers (PMs) who lack a working enzyme
B.
Intermediate metabolizers (IMs) who have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele
C.
Extensive metabolizers (EMs), with two normally functioning alleles
D.
All of the above

____ 2. Up to 21% of Asians are ultra-rapid 2D6 metabolizers, leading to:
A.
A need to monitor drugs metabolized by 2D6 for toxicity
B.
Increased dosages needed of drugs metabolized by 2D6, such as the SSRIs
C.
Decreased conversion of codeine to morphine by CYP 2D6
D.
The need for lowered dosages of drugs, such as beta blockers

____ 3. Rifampin is a nonspecific CYP450 inducer that may:
A.
Lead to toxic levels of rifampin and must be monitored closely
B.
Cause toxic levels of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, when co-administered
C.
Induce the metabolism of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, leading to therapeutic failure
D.
Cause nonspecific changes in drug metabolism

____ 4. Inhibition of P-glycoprotein by a drug such as quinidine may lead to:
A.
Decreased therapeutic levels of quinidine
B.
Increased therapeutic levels of quinidine
C.
Decreased levels of a co-administered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination
D.
Increased levels of a co-administered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination

____ 5. Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:
A.
Toxic levels of warfarin building up
B.
Decreased response to warfarin
C.
Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin
D.
Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin

____ 6. Genetic testing for VCORC1 mutation to assess potential warfarin resistance is required prior to prescribing warfarin.
A.
True
B.
False

____ 7. Pharmacogenetic testing is required by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) prior to prescribing:
A.
Erythromycin
B.
Digoxin
C.
Cetuximab
D.
Rifampin

____ 8. Carbamazepine has a Black Box warning recommending testing for the HLA-B*1502 allele in patients with Asian ancestry prior to starting therapy due to:
A.
Decreased effectiveness of carbamazepine in treating seizures in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele
B.
Increased risk for drug interactions in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele
C.
Increased risk for Stevens-Johnson syndrome in Asian patients with HLA-B*1502 allele
D.
Patients who have the HLA-B*1502 allele being more likely to have a resistance to carbamazepine

____ 9. A genetic variation in how the metabolite of the cancer drug irinotecan SN-38 is inactivated by the body may lead to:
A.
Decreased effectiveness of irinotecan in the treatment of cancer
B.
Increased adverse drug reactions, such as neutropenia
C.
Delayed metabolism of the prodrugirinotecan into the active metabolite SN-38
D.
Increased concerns for irinotecan being carcinogenic

____ 10. Patients who have a poor metabolism phenotype will have:
A.
Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to accumulation of prodrug
B.
Accumulation of inactive metabolites of drugs
C.
A need for increased dosages of medications
D.
Increased elimination of an active drug

____ 11. Ultra-rapid metabolizers of drugs may have:
A.
To have dosages of drugs adjusted downward to prevent drug accumulation
B.
Active drug rapidly metabolized into inactive metabolites, leading to potential therapeutic failure
C.
Increased elimination of active, nonmetabolized drug
D.
Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to accumulation of prodrug

____ 12. A provider may consider testing for CYP2D6 variants prior to starting tamoxifen for breast cancer to:
A.
Ensure the patient will not have increased adverse drug reactions to the tamoxifen
B.
Identify potential drug-drug interactions that may occur with tamoxifen
C.
Reduce the likelihood of therapeutic failure with tamoxifen treatment
D.
Identify

Q9. NSG 6005 Final Exam / NSG6005 Final Exam (Latest): South University (Already graded A)
NSG 6005 Final Exam / NSG6005 Final Exam (Latest): South University

An ACE inhibitor and what other class of drug may reduce proteinuria in patients with diabetes better than either drug alone?

A. Beta blockers
B. Diuretics
C. Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
D. Angiotensin II receptor blockers
C. Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers

Adam has type I diabetes and plays tennis for his university. He exhibits knowledge deficit about his insulin and his diagnosis. He should be taught that:

A. He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise.
B. Each brand of insulin is equal in bioavailability, so buy the least expensive.
C. Alcohol produces hypoglycemia and can help control his diabetes when taken in small amounts.
D. If he does not want to learn to give himself injections, he may substitute an oral hypoglycemic to control his diabetes.
A. He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise.

Age is a factor in different responses to pain. Which of the following age-related statements about pain is not true?

A. Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways.
B. Painful experiences and prolonged exposure to analgesic drugs during pregnancy may permanently alter neuronal organization in the child.
C. Increases in pain threshold in older adults may be related to peripheral neuropathies and changes in skin thickness.
D. Decreases in pain tolerance are evident in older adults.
A. Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways.

Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:

A. Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses
B. Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses
C. Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses
D. Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses
A. Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses

Amiodarone has been prescribed in a patient with a supraventricular dysrhythmia. Patient teaching should include all of the following except:

A. Notify your healthcare provider immediately if you have visual change.
B. Monitor your own blood pressure and pulse daily.
C. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy.
D. Use a sunscreen on exposed body surfaces.
C. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy.

Anticholinergic agents, such as benztropine (Cogentin), may be given with a phenothiazine to:

A. Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.
B. Potentiate the effects of the drug.
C. Reduce the tolerance that tends to occur.
D. Increase CNS depression.
A. Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.

An appropriate drug for the treatment of depression with anxiety would be:

A. Alprazolam (Xanax)
B. Escitalopram (Lexapro)
C. Buspirone (Buspar)
D. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
B. Escitalopram (Lexapro)

Cara is taking levetiracetam (Keppra) to treat seizures. Routine education for levetiracetam includes reminding her:

A. To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due to the risk of withdrawal seizures
B. To wear a sunscreen due to photosensitivity from levetiracetam
C. To get an annual eye exam while on levetiracetam
D. To report weight loss if it occurs
A. To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due to the risk of withdrawal seizure

Cecilia presents with depression associated with complaints of fatigue, sleeping all the time, and lack of motivation. An appropriate initial antidepressant for her would be:

A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
B. Paroxetine (Paxil)
C. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Chemical dependency assessment is integral to the initial assessment of chronic pain. Which of the following raises a “red flag” about potential chemical dependency?

A. Use of more than one drug to treat the pain
B. Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill
C. Preferences for treatments that include alternative medicines
D. Presence of a family member who has abused drugs
B. Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill

Common mistakes practitioners make in treating anxiety disorders include:

A. Switching medications after an eight-week trial to a twelve-week trial
B. Maximizing dosing of antianxiety medications
C. Encouraging exercise and relaxation therapy before starting medication
D. Thinking a partial response to medication is acceptable
D. Thinking a partial response to medication is acceptable

David presents to clinic with symptoms of allergic conjunctivitis. He is prescribed cromolyn sodium (Opticrom) eyedrops. The education regarding using cromolyn eyedrops includes which one of the following tips?

A. He should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eyedrops.
B. Cromolyn drops are instilled once a day to prevent allergy symptoms.
C. Long-term use of the eyedrop may cause glaucoma.
D. He may experience bradycardia as an adverse effect.
A. He should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eyedrops.

The DEA:

A. Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances
B. Regulates NP prescribing at the state level
C. Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label
D. Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing
A. Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances

Diagnostic criteria for diabetes include:

A. Fasting blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl on two occasions
B. Postprandial blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl
C. Fasting blood glucose 100 to 125 mg/dl on two occasions
D. Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl
D. Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl

Disease states in addition to hypertension in which beta blockade is a compelling indication for the use of beta blockers include:

A. Heart failure
B. Angina
C. MI
D. Dyslipidemia
C. MI

The drug of choice for type II diabetics is metformin. Metformin:

A. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver
B. Increases the release of insulin from beta cells
C. Increases intestinal uptake of glucose
D. Prevents weight gain associated with hyperglycemia
A. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver

The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in men over seventy years is:

A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
B. Ibandronate (Boniva)
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Raloxifene (Evista)
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)

The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in women over seventy years old is:

A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
B. Ibandronate (Boniva)
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Raloxifene (Evista)
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)

The drugs recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics for use in children with diabetes (depending upon type of diabetes) are:

A. Metformin and insulin
B. Sulfonylureas and insulin glargine
C. Split-mixed dose insulin and GLP-1 agonists
D.Biguanides and insulin lispro
A. Metformin and insulin

Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:

A. Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
B. Bypass the hepatic circulation
C. Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
D. Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms
C. Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action

Dwayne has classic tinea capitis. Treatment for tinea on the scalp is:

A. Rubbing in miconazole cream well for four weeks
B. Intake of oral griseofulvin for six to eight weeks
C. Shampooing with ketoconazole shampoo daily for six weeks
D. Using ciclopirox cream daily for four weeks
B. Intake of oral griseofulvin for six to eight weeks

Dwayne was recently started on carbamazepine to treat seizures. He comes to see you, and you note that while his carbamazepine levels had been in the therapeutic range, they are now low. The possible cause for the low carbamazepine levels is:

A. Dwayne hasn’t been taking his carbamazepine because it causes insomnia.
B. Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance.
C. Dwayne was not originally prescribed the correct amount of carbamazepine.
D. Carbamazepine is probably not the right antiseizure medication for Dwayne.
B. Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance.

Erik presents with a golden-crusted lesion at the site of an insect bite consistent with impetigo. His parents have limited finances and request the least expensive treatment. Which medication would be the best choice for treatment?

A. Mupirocin (Bactroban)
B. Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment)
C. Retapamulin (Altabax)
D. Oral cephalexin (Keflex)
B. Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment)
First-line therapy for hyperlipidemia is:

A. Statins
B. Niacin
C. Lifestyle changes
D. Bile acid-binding resins
C. Lifestyle changes

First-line therapy for treating topical fungal infections such as tinea corporis (ringworm) or tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) would be:

A. OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)
B. Oral terbinafine
C. Oral griseofulvin microsize
D. Nystatin cream or ointment
A. OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)

Furosemide is added to a treatment regimen for heart failure, which includes digoxin. Monitoring for this combination includes:

A. Hemoglobin
B. Serum potassium
C. Blood urea nitrogen
D. Serum glucose
B. Serum potassium

Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including:

A. Poor metabolizers (PMs) that lack a working enzyme
B. Intermediate metabolizers (IMs) that have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele
C. Extensive metabolizers (EMs), with two normally functioning alleles
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Genetic testing for VCORC1 mutation to assess potential warfarin resistance is required prior to prescribing warfarin.

A. True
B. False
B. False

Goals of treatment when treating hypothyroidism with thyroid replacement include:

A. Normal TSH and free T4 levels
B. Resolution of fatigue
C. Weight loss to baseline
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Heart failure is a chronic condition that can be adequately managed in primary care. However, consultation with or referral to a cardiologist is appropriate when:

A. Symptoms markedly worsen or the patient becomes hypotensive and has syncope.
B. There is evidence of progressive renal insufficiency or failure.
C. The patient remains symptomatic on optimal doses of an ACE inhibitor, a beta blocker, and a diuretic.
D. All the above options are correct.
D. All the above options are correct.

Hypoglycemia can result from the action of either insulin or an oral hypoglycemic. Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

A. “Fruity” breath odor and rapid respiration
B. Diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and hypertension
C. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia
D. Easy bruising, palpitations, cardiac dysrhythmias, and coma
C. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia

If a patient with H. pylori positive PUD fails first-line therapy, the second-line treatment is:

A. A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days
B. Testing H. pylori for resistance to common treatment regimens
C. A PPI plus clarithromycin plus amoxicillin for fourteen days
D. A PPI and levofloxacin for fourteen days
A. A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days

In addition to methimazole, a symptomatic patient with hyperthyroidism may need a prescription for:

A. A calcium channel blocker
B. A beta blocker
C. Liothyronine
D. An alpha blocker
B. A beta blocker

Inadequate vitamin D intake can contribute to the development of osteoporosis by:

A. Increasing calcitonin production
B. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine
C. Altering calcium metabolism
D. Stimulating bone formation
B. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine

Incorporating IT into a patient encounter takes skill and tact. During the encounter, the provider can make the patient more comfortable with the IT the provider is using by:

A. Turning the screen around so the patient can see material being recorded
B. Not placing the computer screen between the provider and the patient
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B

Infants with reflux are initially treated with:

A. Histamine 2 receptor antagonist (ranitidine)
B. A PPI (omeprazole)
C. Antireflux maneuvers (elevate the head of the bed)
D. Prokinetic (metoclopramide)
C. Antireflux maneuvers (elevate the head of the bed)

In five- to eleven-year-old children, mild-persistent asthma is diagnosed when asthma symptoms occur:

A. At nighttime one to two times a month
B. At nighttime three to four times a month
C. Less than twice a week
D. Daily
B. At nighttime three to four times a month

Jack, eight years old, has attention deficit disorder (ADD) and is prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin). He and his parents should be educated about the side effects of methylphenidate, which are:

A. Slurred speech and insomnia
B. Bradycardia and confusion
C. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension
D. Insomnia and decreased appetite
D. Insomnia and decreased appetite

Janie presents to clinic with hard ear wax in both ear canals. Instructions regarding home removal of hard cerumen includes:

A. Moistening a cotton swab (Q-tip) and swabbing the ear canals twice daily
B. Instilling tap water in both ears while bathing
C. Squirting hydrogen peroxide into ears with each bath
D. Instilling carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until the ear canals are clear
D. Instilling carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until the ear canals are clear

Jim presents with complaints of “heart burn” that is minimally relieved with Tums (calcium carbonate) and is diagnosed with GERD. An appropriate first step therapy would be:

A. Omeprazole (Prilosec) twice a day
B. Ranitidine (Zantac) twice a day
C. Famotidine (Pepcid) once a day
D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) four times a day
B. Ranitidine (Zantac) twice a day

Jim presents with fungal infection of two of his toenails (onychomycosis). Treatment for fungal infections of the nail includes:

A. Miconazole cream
B. Ketoconazole cream
C. Oral griseofulvin
D. Mupirocin cream
C. Oral griseofulvin
Josie is a five-year-old who presents to the clinic with a forty-eight-hour history of nausea, vomiting, and some diarrhea. She is unable to keep fluids down, and her weight is 4 pounds less than her last recorded weight. Besides intravenous (IV) fluids, her exam warrants the use of an antinausea medication. Which of the following would be the appropriate drug to order for Josie?

A. Prochlorperazine (Compazine)
B. Meclizine (Antivert)
C. Promethazine (Phenergan)
D. Ondansetron (Zofran)
D. Ondansetron (Zofran)

Kirk sprained his ankle and is asking for pain medication for his mild-to-moderate pain. The appropriate first-line medication would be __________.

A. ibuprofen (Advil)
B. acetaminophen with hydrocodone (Vicodin)
C. oxycodone (OxyContin)
D. oral morphine (Roxanol)
A. ibuprofen (Advil)

Liza is breastfeeding her two-month-old son, and she has an infection that requires an antibiotic. What drug factors influence the effect of the drug on the infant?

A. Maternal drug levels
B. Half-life
C. Lipid solubility
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Long-acting beta-agonists received a black box warning from the US Food and Drug Administration due to the:

A. Risk of life-threatening dermatological reactions
B. Increased incidence of cardiac events when long-acting beta-agonists are used
C. Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used
D. Risk for life-threatening alterations in electrolytes
C. Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used

Long-term treatment of moderate atopic dermatitis includes:

A. Topical corticosteroids and emollients
B. Topical corticosteroids alone
C. Topical antipruritics
D. Oral corticosteroids for exacerbations of atopic dermatitis
A. Topical corticosteroids and emollients

Medications used in the management of patients with COPD include:

A. Inhaled beta 2 agonists
B. Inhaled anticholinergics (ipratropium)
C. Inhaled corticosteroids
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Monitoring for a child on methylphenidate for ADHD includes:

A. ADHD symptoms
B. Routine height and weight checks
C. Amount of methylphenidate being used
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Narcotics are exogenous opiates. They act by ______.

A. inhibiting pain transmission in the spinal cord
B. attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P
C. blocking neurotransmitters in the midbrain
D. increasing beta-lipoprotein excretion from the pituitary
B. attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P

A nineteen-year-old male was started on risperidone. Monitoring for risperidone includes observing for common side effects, including:

A. Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation
B. Excessive weight gain
C. Hypertension
D. Potentially fatal agranulocytosis
A. Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation

Nonadherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of nonadherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:

A. Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect
B. Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down
C. Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness
D. Must be taken no more than twice a day
C. Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness

Off-Label prescribing is:

A. Regulated by the FDA
B. Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces)
C. Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use
D. Regulated by the DEA
C. Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use

One goal of asthma management in children is:

A. They should independently manage their asthma.
B. They should participate in school and sports activities.
C. There should be no exacerbations.
D. The use of inhaled corticosteroids should be minimal.
B. They should participate in school and sports activities.

The ongoing monitoring of patients over the age sixty-five years taking alendronate (Fosamax) or any other bisphosphonate is:

A. Annual dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans
B. Annual vitamin D level
C. Annual renal function evaluation
D. Electrolytes every three month
C. Annual renal function evaluation

A patient has been prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) cream to treat burns on his or her leg. Normal adverse effects of silver sulfadiazine cream include:

A. Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve
B. Worsening of burn symptoms briefly before resolution
C. A red, scaly rash that will resolve with continued use
D. Hypercalcemia
A. Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve

Patients who are on or who will be starting chronic corticosteroid therapy need monitoring of __________.

A. serum glucose
B. stool culture
C. folate levels
D. vitamin B12
A. serum glucose

Patients who have angina, regardless of class, who are also diabetic should be on:

A. Nitrates
B. Beta blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Calcium channel blockers
C. ACE inhibitors

Patients with psychiatric illnesses have adherence rates to their drug regimen between 35% and 60%. To improve adherence in this population, prescribe drugs:

A. With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve
B. In oral formulations that are more easily taken
C. That do not require frequent monitoring
D. Combined with patient education about the need to adhere even when symptoms are absent
A. With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve

A patient with a COPD exacerbation may require:

A. Doubling of inhaled corticosteroid dose
B. Systemic corticosteroid burst
C. Continuous inhaled beta 2 agonists
D. Leukotriene therapy
B. Systemic corticosteroid burst

Pharmacokinetics among Asians are universal to all the Asian ethnic groups.

A. True
B. False
B. False

A potentially life-threatening adverse response to ACE inhibitors is angioedema. Which of the following statements is true about this adverse response?

A. Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.
B. It appears to be related to a decrease in aldosterone production.
C. The presence of a dry, hacky cough indicates a high risk for this adverse response.
D. Because it takes time to build up a blood level, it occurs after being on the drug for about one week.
A. Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.

Prescribing for women during their childbearing years requires constant awareness of the possibility of:

A. Pregnancy unless the women is on birth control
B. Risk for silent bacterial or viral infections of the genitalia
C. High risk for developmental disorders in their infants
D. Decreased risk for abuse during this time
B. Risk for silent bacterial or viral infections of the genitalia

Prior to prescribing metformin, the provider should:

A. Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function.
B. Try the patient on insulin.
C. Tell the patient to increase iodine intake.
D. Have the patient stop taking any sulfonylurea to avoid dangerous drug interactions.
A. Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function.

Progesterone-only pills are recommended for women who:

A. Are breastfeeding
B. Have a history of migraine
C. Have a medical history that contradicts the use of estrogen
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Sadie is a seventy-two-year-old who takes omeprazole for her chronic GERD. Chronic long-term omeprazole use places her at increased risk for:

A Megaloblastic anemia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Hypertension
D. Strokes
B. Osteoporosis

Sarah, a forty-two-year-old female, requests a prescription for an anorexiant to treat her obesity. A trial of phentermine is prescribed. Prescribing precautions include understanding that:

A. Obesity is a contraindication to prescribing phentermine.
B. Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should only be prescribed for six months.
C. Patients should be monitored for postural hypotension.
D. Renal function should be monitored closely while the patient is on anorexiants.
B. Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should only be prescribed for six months.

Scott is presenting for follow-up on his lipid panel. He had elevated total cholesterol, elevated triglycerides, and an LDL of 122 mg/dL. He has already implemented diet changes and increased physical activity. He has mildly elevated liver studies. An appropriate next step for therapy would be:

A. Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
B. Niacin (Niaspan)
C. Simvastatin and ezetimibe (Vytorin)
D. Gemfibrozil (Lopid)
B. Niacin (Niaspan)

Second-generation antihistamines such as loratadine (Claritin) are prescribed for seasonal allergies because they:

A. Are more effective than first-generation antihistamines
B. Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines
C. Are prescription products and, therefore, are covered by insurance
D. Can be taken with CNS sedatives, such as alcohol
B. Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines

Severe contact dermatitis caused by poison ivy or poison oak exposure often requires treatment with:

A. Topical antipruritics
B. Oral corticosteroids for two to three weeks
C. Thickly applied topical intermediate-dose corticosteroids
D. Isolation of the patient to prevent spread of the dermatitis
B. Oral corticosteroids for two to three weeks

Sitagliptin has been approved for:

A. Monotherapy in once-daily doses
B. Combination therapy with metformin
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B

A sixty-six-year-old male was prescribed phenelzine (Nardil) while in an acute psychiatric unit for recalcitrant depression. The nurse practitioner managing his primary healthcare needs to understand the following regarding phenelzine and other monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs):

A. He should not be prescribed any serotonergic drug such as sumatriptan (Imitrex).
B. MAOIs interact with many common foods, including yogurt, sour cream, and soy sauce.
C. Symptoms of hypertensive crisis (headache, tachycardia, sweating, etc.) require immediate treatment.
D. All the above options are correct.
D. All the above options are correct.

Six-year-old Lucy has recently been started on ethosuximide (Zarontin) for seizures. She should be monitored for:

A. Increased seizure activity as this drug may auto-induce seizures
B. Altered renal function, including renal failure
C. Blood dyscrasias, which are uncommon but possible
D. CNS excitement, leading to insomnia
C. Blood dyscrasias, which are uncommon but possible

Stage C patients usually require a combination of three to four drugs to manage their heart failure. In addition to ACE inhibitors and beta blockers, diuretics may be added. Which of the following statements about diuretics is not true?

A.Diuretics reduce preload associated with fluid retention.
B. Diuretics can be used earlier than Stage C when the goal is control of hypertension.
C. Diuretics may produce problems with electrolyte imbalances and abnormal glucose and lipid metabolism.
D. Diuretics from the potassium-sparing class should be used when using an ARB.
D. Diuretics from the potassium-sparing class should be used when using an ARB.

A stepwise approach to the pharmacologic management of asthma:

A. Begins with determining the severity of the asthma and assessing asthma control
B. Is used when the asthma is severe and requires daily steroids
C. Allows for each provider to determine his or her personal approach to the care of asthmatic patients
D. Provides a framework for the management of severe asthmatics but is not as helpful when patients have intermittent asthma
A. Begins with determining the severity of the asthma and assessing asthma control

Studies have shown that control targets that reduce the hemoglobin A1c to less than 7% are associated with fewer long-term complications of diabetes. Patients who should have such a target include:

A. Those with long-standing diabetes
B. Older adults
C. Those with no significant cardiovascular disease
D. Young children who are early in their disease
C. Those with no significant cardiovascular disease

Tiotropium bromide (Spiriva) is an inhaled anticholinergic:

A. Used for the treatment of COPD
B. Used in the treatment of asthma
C. Combined with albuterol for the treatment of asthma exacerbations
D. Combined with fluticasone for the treatment of persistent asthma
A. Used for the treatment of COPD

To reduce mortality, all patients with angina, regardless of class, should be on:

A. Aspirin 81 to 325 mg/d
B. Nitroglycerin sublingually for chest pain
C. ACE inhibitors or ARBs
D. Digoxin
A. Aspirin 81 to 325 mg/d

The treatment for vitamin B12 deficiency is:

A. 1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin
B. 2 gm/day of oral cobalamin
C. 100 mcg/day vitamin B12 IM
D. 500 mcg/dose nasal cyanocobalamin two sprays once a week
A. 1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin

Treatment of a patient with hypothyroidism and cardiovascular disease consists of:

A. Levothyroxine
B. Liothyronine
C. Liotrix
D. Methimazole
A. Levothyroxine

The trial period to determine effective anti-inflammatory activity when starting a patient on aspirin for RA is _____.

A. forty-eight hours
B. four to six days
C. four weeks
D. two months
B. four to six days

A twenty-four-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type __ ADR when he no longer requires the opioids.

A. A
B. C
C. E
D. G
C. E

The type of ADR that is the result of an unwanted but otherwise normal pharmacological action of a drug given in the usual therapeutic doses is:

A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D
A. Type A
Unlike most type II diabetics where obesity is a major issue, older adults with low body weight have higher risks for morbidity and mortality. The most reliable indicator of poor nutritional status in older adults is:

A. Weight loss in previously overweight persons
B. Involuntary loss of 10% of body weight in less than six months
C. Decline in lean body mass over a twelve-month period
D. Increase in central versus peripheral body adiposity
B. Involuntary loss of 10% of body weight in less than six months

Vicky, age fifty-six years, comes to clinic requesting a refill of her Fiorinal (aspirin and butalbital) that she takes for migraines. She has been taking this medication for over two years for migraine and states one dose usually works to abort her migraine. What is the best care for her?

A. Switch her to sumatriptan (Imitrex) to treat her migraines.
B. Assess how often she is using Fiorinal and refill medication.
C. Switch her to a beta-blocker such as propranolol to prevent her migraine.
D. Request her to return to the original prescriber of Fiorinal as you do not prescribe butalbital for migraines
B. Assess how often she is using Fiorinal and refill medication.

Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:

A. Toxic levels of warfarin building up
B. Decreased response to warfarin
C. Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin
D. Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin
B. Decreased response to warfarin

What impact does developmental variation in renal function has on prescribing for infants and children?

A. Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months
B. Higher doses of water-soluble drugs may need to be prescribed due to increased renal excretion
C. Renal excretion rates have no impact on prescribing
D. Parents need to be instructed on whether drugs are renally excreted or not
A. Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months

When a patient is on selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitors:

A. The complete blood count must be monitored every three to four months
B. Therapeutic blood levels must be monitored every six months after a steady state is achieved.
C. Blood glucose must be monitored every three to four months.
D. There is no laboratory monitoring required.
D. There is no laboratory monitoring required.

When obtaining a drug history from Harold, he gives you a complete list of his prescription medications. He denies taking any other drugs, but you find that he occasionally takes aspirin for his arthritis flare-ups. This is an example of:

A. His appropriately only telling you about his regularly prescribed medications
B. His hiding information regarding his inappropriate use of aspirin from you
C. A common misconception that intermittently taken OTC medications are not an important part of his drug history
D. A common misuse of OTC aspirin
C. A common misconception that intermittently taken OTC medications are not an important part of his drug history

When prescribing any headache therapy, appropriate use of medications needs to be discussed to prevent medication-overuse headaches. The clinical characteristics of medication-overuse headaches include ________.

A. headaches increasing in frequency
B. headaches increasing in intensity
C. headaches recurring when medication wears off
D. headaches beginning to “cluster” into a pattern
C. headaches recurring when medication wears off

When Sam used clotrimazole (Lotrimin AF) for athlete’s foot, he developed a red, itchy rash consistent with a hypersensitivity reaction. He now has athlete’s foot again. What would be a good choice of antifungal for Sam?

A. Miconazole (Micatin) powder
B. Ketoconazole (Nizoral) cream
C. Terbinafine (Lamisil) cream
D. Griseofulvin (Grifulvin V) suspension
C. Terbinafine (Lamisil) cream

When starting a patient with hypothyroidism on thyroid replacement hormones, patient education would include the following:

A. He or she should feel symptomatic improvement in one to two weeks.
B. Drug-related adverse effects such as lethargy and dry skin may occur.
C. It may take four to eight weeks to get to euthyroid symptomatically and by lab testing.
D. Due to the short half-life of levothyroxine, its doses should not be missed.
C. It may take four to eight weeks to get to euthyroid symptomatically and by lab testing.

Which of the following adverse effects may occur due to a dihydropyridine-type calcium channel blocker?

A. Bradycardia
B. Hepatic impairment
C. Increased contractility
D. Edema of the hands and feet
D. Edema of the hands and feet

Which of the following classes of drugs is contraindicated in heart failure?

A.Nitrates
B. Long-acting dihydropyridines
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Alpha-beta blockers
C. Calcium channel blocker

Which of the following disease processes could be made worse by taking a nonselective beta blocker?

A. Asthma might worsen.
B. Diabetes might worsen.
C. Both might worsen.
D. Beta blockade does not affect these disorders.
C. Both might worsen.

Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen?

A. Complexity of the drug regimen
B. Patient’s perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B

Which of the following is the goal of treatment of acute pain?

A. Pain at a tolerable level where patient may return to activities of daily living
B. Reduction of pain with a minimum of drug adverse effects
C. Reduction or elimination of pain with minimum adverse reactions
D. Adequate pain relief without constipation or nausea from the drugs
C. Reduction or elimination of pain with minimum adverse reactions

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of oral combined contraceptives that prevent pregnancy?

A. Estrogen prevents the LH surge necessary for ovulation.
B. Progestins thicken cervical mucous and slow tubal motility.
C. Estrogen thins the endometrium, making implantation difficult.
D. Progestin suppresses FSH release.
B. Progestins thicken cervical mucous and slow tubal motility.

Which of the following statements is true about age and pain?

A. Use of drugs that depend heavily on the renal system for excretion may require dosage adjustments in very young children.
B. Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the preferred drug because of lower adverse effects profiles than other NSAIDs.
C. Older adults who have dementia probably do not experience much pain due to loss of pain receptors in the brain.
D. Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.
D. Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.

A woman who has migraine with aura:

A. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to the interaction between triptans and estrogen, limiting migraine therapy choices
B. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased incidence of migraines with the use of estrogen
C. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use
D. May be prescribed estrogen without any concerns
C. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use

A woman with an intact uterus should not be prescribed:

A. Estrogen/progesterone combination
B. Intramuscular (IM) medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera)
C. Estrogen alone
D. Androgens

Q10. Abdominal assessment | abdominal pain assessment
Are you experiencing abdominal pain?
How would you describe the pain? How bad is the pain(severity) on a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being the worst?
How did (does) the pain begin?
Where is the pain located? Does it move or has it changedfrom the original location?
When does the pain occur (timing and relation to par-ticular events, such as eating, exercise, bedtime)?
What seems to bring on the pain (precipitating factors),make it worse (exacerbating factors), or make it better (alle- viating factors)?
Do you have any abdominal issues?
Do you have any abdominal pain?
How often do you have a bowel movement?
When was your last bowel movement?
Have you…

LITERARY STUDIES
Q1. This is a literature Question kindly assist

List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen

Q2. Quiz 4.2 Using Sources
Brook, R. H. (2012). Two years and counting: How will the effects of the Affordable Care Act be
monitored? JAMA: Journal of the American Medical Association, 41–42. doi:10.1001/jama.2011.1948

article title

volume and issue information

journal title

author

Q3. Quiz 4.1 Incorparating Sources
To some, Facebook serves as more of a distraction than a learning tool (Wise, Skues & Williams, 2011), which is not an unreasonable deduction since Facebook’s primary use is as a social connection tool, and not an academic one.
How are Magro et al. using the work of Wise, Skues & Williams in this example?

paraphrase

hanging quote

direct quote

Q4. Annabel Lee Poem by Edgar Allan
The review of Annabel Lee Poem by Edgar Allan

Q5. Models of sustainability integration within the construction industry
I need literature review on sustainability integration within the construction industry.
Models of sustainability.
types of models.
Integration process
Detailed study of the current literature within sustainability integration within the construction industry, Good collection of peer reviewed articles(i.e Journals/conference;(no wikipedia), new models and any relevant informations regarding sustainability integration
ATTENTION:
Please make sure you check on how to write a literature review.
Please make sure all the resources are peer-reviewed
Read a sample to fully understand what is required of you.

Q6. UMUC LIBS 150 – Final Exam 96.67% final score latest test
University of Maryland University College – UMUC
Fall 2016 LIBS 150 Final exam Final quiz – 96.67% score

Latest test
Q7. UMUC LIBS 150 – Research Log Project Part 2 – 100%
University of Maryland University College
Research Log Project Part 2
Final score 100%

Q8. UMUC LIBS 150 – Research Log Project Part 1
UMUC LIBS 150
University of Maryland University College LIBS 150
Research Log Project Part 1
9/10 90% final score
Full document
Q9. Quiz 3.2: Determining if a Source Is Relevant for an Information Need
September 2016 – Latest
University of Maryland University College (UMUC)
LIBS 150 Introduction to Research Quiz 3.2: Determining if a Source Is Relevant for an Information Need
Final score: 100%
Q10. Quiz 3.1: Elements of a Citation
September 2016 – Latest
University of Maryland University College (UMUC)
LIBS 150 Introduction to Research Quiz 3.1: Elements of a Citation
Final score: 100%

PHILOSOPHY.
Q1. Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 5 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 5 complete solutions correct answers A+ work.
More than 9 different versions

Question 1
By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 2
The view in which the basing relationship between beliefs is deductive:
Question 3
Rene Descartes was a:
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 6
For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 7
Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 8
The virtue of studiousness does not take into account the proper kinds of motives for seeking knowledge.
Question 9
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 10
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 11
What is the point of Descartes’ evil demon argument?
Question 12
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13
To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 14
When Larry claims definitely and dogmatically that he knows we cannot know anything at all, he is expressing:
Question 15
Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 16
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 17
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 18
Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 19
My belief is a justified belief if and only if it is, in fact, a true belief.
Question 20
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.

• Question 1
3 out of 3 points
The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
• Question 3
3 out of 3 points
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
• Question 4
3 out of 3 points
The answers to the skeptical challenge suggested in the pointecast presentation include:
• Question 5
3 out of 3 points
Noetic structure refers to:
• Question 6
3 out of 3 points
Humility helps us fight against intellectual vices like pride and vanity that keep us from seeing the truth.
• Question 7
3 out of 3 points
Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
• Question 8
3 out of 3 points
For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.

• Question 9
3 out of 3 points
The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
• Question 10
• 3 out of 3 points
Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
• Question 11
3 out of 3 points
Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
• Question 12
3 out of 3 points
If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
• Question 13
3 out of 3 points
One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
• Question 14
3 out of 3 points
It is a commonly accepted fact that it is impossible to be certain about any belief
• Question 15
3 out of 3 points
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
• Question 16
3 out of 3 points
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own
Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
• Question 17
If a person thinks she has a moral responsibility to determine that any belief she holds is based on sufficient evidence, that is, evidence that strikes her as being based on indisputably good reasons or arguments, she is likely representing the epistemological position of
• Question 18
The problem with W. K. Clifford’s statement “It is wrong always, everywhere and
for anyone, to believe anything upon insufficient evidence” is that:

Question 1
Christopher Columbus was convinced that he discovered a route to the East Indies because it lined up with his maps and the current beliefs of his day. However, he was wrong. This example demonstrates a problem with:
Question 2
Noetic structure refers to:
Question 3
The doxastic assumption is:
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 6
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 7
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 8
Intellectual virtue is best described as:
Question 9
Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 10
Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 11
When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 12
When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 13
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 14
Which of the following is NOT commonly given by philosophers as a reason for adopting some form of skepticism:
Question 15
To say that it is impossible to have knowledge is itself a claim to knowledge, and is for that reason a selfdefeating assertion.
Question 16
Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 17
Externalism in epistemology is an approach to rationality which argues that
Question 18
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 19
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 20
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.

Question 1
When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 2
The motivation behind externalism is:
Question 3
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
The view in which the basing relationship between beliefs is deductive:
Question 6
Intellectual virtue is best described as:
Question 7
Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 8
The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
Question 9
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 10
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 11
When Larry claims definitely and dogmatically that he knows we cannot know anything at all, he is expressing:
Question 12
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13
One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 14
If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 15
Robert is a scientist who firmly believes in empirical truths and the physical laws of causality (e.g. when he builds a fire in his fireplace, it will produce heat), but he expresses serious reservations about the rational credibility of whether there are objective moral virtues, such as goodness, or whether such a being as the traditional God of theism does in fact exist. In such a case, Robert is expressing a form of
Question 16
Coherentism in epistemology is a position which holds that a particular belief is justified for a person so long as that belief is consistent with everything else that person holds to be true.
Question 17
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 18
Suppose a person is deeply concerned about whether her belief in God is rational. In order to make this determination, she reflects on the kind of evidence she thinks she has for God’s existence (e.g., the apparent design and beauty of the universe, the existence of other sentient beings, the almost universal acceptance of some degree of objective morality, etc.). In light of her awareness of, and access to, this potential evidence, she would be considered:
Question 19
If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 20
Coherentism is a position in epistemic justification which holds that

Question 1 3 out of 3 points
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 2 3 out of 3 points
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 3 3 out of 3 points
The motivation behind internalism is:
Question 4 3 out of 3 points
The motivation behind externalism is:
It seems intuitively to be the way we normally form beliefs
Question 5 3 out of 3 points
The answers to the skeptical challenge suggested in the pointecast presentation include:
Question 6 3 out of 3 points
Aristotle said that virtue is the “mean between two vices, one of excess and one of deficiency.”
Question 7 3 out of 3 points
Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
Question 8 3 out of 3 points
Virtue epistemologists think that intellectual virtues might helps us with the Gettier problem by:
Question 9 3 out of 3 points
Aristotle’s notion of happiness focused on:
Question 10 3 out of 3 points
The intellectual virtue of studiousness leads one to seek knowledge with the right kind of motives and desires.
Question 11 3 out of 3 points
When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 12
3 out of 3 points
Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 13 3 out of 3 points
One reason why certainty in knowledge is not likely a reasonable alternative to unmitigated skepticism is because
Question 14 3 out of 3 points
Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 15 3 out of 3 points
Sextus Empiricus adopted a version of Pyhrro’s skepticism mainly because he believed that
Question 16 3 out of 3 points
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 17 3 out of 3 points
If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and finetuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 18
Coherentism is a position in epistemic justification which holds that
Question 19
Select the one below that does NOT belong : The justification of one’s beliefs is a matter that deals with
Question 20 3 out of 3 points
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.

Question 1 The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 2 Clifford was a:
Question 3 Karen says she doesn’t believe that you can ever have real knowledge. When asked if she claims to know that as a fact, she says no, but she believes that is the case. What category would you place her in:
Question 4 A major criticism that internalism raises against externalism is:
Question 5 David Hume was a:
Question 6 Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 7 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 8 Intellectual courage helps us to:
Question 9 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 10 Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 11 If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 12 Robert is a scientist who firmly believes in empirical truths and the physical laws of causality (e.g. when he builds a fire in his fireplace, it will produce heat), but he expresses serious reservations about the rational credibility of whether there are objective moral virtues, such as goodness, or whether such a being as the traditional God of theism does in fact exist. In such a case, Robert is expressing a form of
Question 13 To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 14 When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 15 Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 16 If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine¬tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 17 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 18 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 19 Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 20 While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a self¬defeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.

Question 1 Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 2 A major criticism that internalism raises against externalism is:
Question 3 Clifford was a:
Question 4 When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 5 To say that a belief is defeasible is to say;
Question 6 The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
Question 7 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 8 Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 9 Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
Question 10 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 11 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 12 According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13 When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 14 Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
Question 15 One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 16 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 17 Coherentism in epistemology is a position which holds that a particular belief is justified for a person so long as that belief is consistent with everything else that person holds to be true.
Question 18 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 19 Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 20 According to reliabilism, in order for a person’s belief to be rational, that person must at least:

Question 1 Christopher Columbus was convinced that he discovered a route to the East Indies because it lined up with his maps and the current beliefs of his day. However, he was wrong. This example demonstrates a problem with:
Question 2 The doxastic assumption is:
Question 3 When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 4 By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 5 The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 6 Intellectual courage helps us to:
Question 7 Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
Question 8 Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
Question 9 Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 10 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 11 One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 12 If Robert thinks that the only way in this world for a person to know whether God exists is to have some kind of sensory experience of God, along with an active mind that is able to process, structure and arrange ones experiences in a way that makes sense to him, then Robert would be following Kant in thinking that:
Question 13 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 14 Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
Question 15 When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 16 According to reliabilism, in order for a person’s belief to be rational, that person must at least:
Question 17 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 18 Select the one below that does NOT belong: To suggest that a person’s approach to justification is internalist is to suggest that
Question 19 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 20 It is a commonly accepted fact that it is impossible to be certain about any belief

Question 1 By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 2 To say that a belief is defeasible is to say;
Question 3 Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 4 David Hume was a:
Question 5 The doxastic assumption is:
Question 6 Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 7 Aristotle’s notion of happiness focused on:
Question 8 Humility helps us fight against intellectual vices like pride and vanity that keep us from seeing the truth.
Question 9 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 10 Virtue epistemologists think that intellectual virtues might helps us with the Gettier problem by:
Question 11 To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 12 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 13 When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 14 If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 15 What is the point of Descartes’ evil demon argument?
Question 16 Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 17 If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine¬tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 18 Select the one below that does NOT belong: To suggest that a person’s approach to justification is internalist is to suggest that
Question 19 If a person thinks she has a moral responsibility to determine that any belief she holds is based on sufficient evidence, that is, evidence that strikes her as being based on indisputably good reasons or arguments, she is likely representing the epistemological position of
Question 20 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism

Q2. 201820 Spring 2018 PHIL 201-B08 LUO
• Question 1
3 out of 3 points
If love is regarded as a _________________ principle, then it needs to ground the principle of _________________ on more than simply utility.
Selected Answer:
Consequentialist; Distributive Justice
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
The Ten Commandments are an example of:
Selected Answer:
Moral Rules

Q3. PHIL 201 Quiz 4 Liberty University
• Question 1
0 out of 3 points
Which of the following represents the key difference in thought from Descartes to Bacon?
Selected Answer:
critique of Aristotle
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
Epicureans held to empiricism because:
Selected Answer:
They believed all of reality was composed of atoms

Q4. PHIL 201 Quiz 7 Answers Liberty University
Question 1 The most severe version of the problem of horrendous evil is
Question 2 The view advanced by C. S. Lewis in The Great Divorce is
Question 3 The argument that there is probably pointless suffering that renders God’s existence unlikely is called
Question 4 Criticisms of mild hell include that
Question 5 The problem of evil comes about when we try to reconcile
Question 6 The Bible tells us everything we need to know and can benefit from ethically.
Question 7 Ethics is about the ________ and about the _________:
Question 8 All religions are concerned with the promulgation of certain values and the cultivation of specific virtues except Christianity.
Question 9 Where in the Bible can one find ethical material?
Question 10 Which of the following is a way Scripture does NOT contribute to philosophical ethics?
Question 11 For virtues ethics the “good” is located in the:
Question 12 In the end, Dr. Martin appealed to what factor in answering the question of gratuitous evil:
Question 13 The pointecast presentation on why be moral would support the idea that each individual should be free to formulate his/her own ethical norms.
Question 14 Natural Law theory comes under the category of
Question 15 When I ask “Why am I doing this?” I am seeking the ___________ behind my action:
Question 16 The dependency thesis states that morality is a matter of independent, rational judgment.
Question 17 According to emotivism, moral language is basically ___________, because it is not empirical or analytic.
Question 18 Which thesis holds that morality is not a matter of independent rational judgment but is causally dependent on cultural context:
Question 19 Moral practices and beliefs do not vary from culture to culture; they are universal.
Question 20 What is really at stake in the dependency thesis is the question of __________ and ___________.

Q5. PHI 210 Assignment 2 Problem Solving(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
PHI 210 Assignment 2 Problem Solving(6 pages word paper)

Q6. Responce paper Phil 201
Having completed the unit of philosophy of religion, you are now ready to respond to an article written by an actual atheist. This article titled “On Being an Atheist,” was written by H. J. McCloskey in 1968 for the journal Question. McCloskey is an Australian philosopher who wrote a number of atheistic works in the 1960s and 70s including the book God and Evil (Nijhoff, 1974). In this article, McCloskey is both critical of the classical arguments for God’s existence and offers the problem of evil as a reason why one should not believe in God. Please note the following parameters for this paper:

1. Your assignment is to read McCloskey’s short article found in the Reading & Study folder in Module/Week 7 and respond to each of the questions below. Your instructor is looking for a detailed response to each question.
2. The response paper is to be a minimum of 1,500 words (not including quotes) and must be written as a single essay and not just a list of answers to questions.
3. The basis for your answers must primarily come from the resources provided in the lessons covering the philosophy of religion unit of the course (Evans and Manis, Craig, and the presentation) and these sources must be mentioned in your paper. You are not merely to quote these sources as an answer to the question—answer them in your own words.
4. You may use other outside sources as well, as long as you properly document them. However, outside sources are not necessary. Each of the questions can be answered from the sources provided in the lessons.
5. While the use of the Bible is not restricted, its use is not necessary and is discouraged unless you intend to explain the context of the passage and how that context applies to the issue at hand in accordance with the guidelines provided earlier in the course. You are not to merely quote scripture passages as answers to the questions. Remember this is a philosophical essay not a biblical or theological essay.
6. While you may quote from sources, all quotations must be properly cited and quotes from sources will not count towards the 1,500 word count of the paper.
7. You may be critical of McCloskey, but must remain respectful. Any disparaging comment(s) about McCloskey will result in a significant reduction in grade.
8. Please note that this paper will be submitted through SafeAssign, which is a plagiarism detection program. The program is a database of previously submitted papers including copies of papers that have been located on the Internet. Once submitted, your paper will become part of the database as well. The program detects not only exact wording but similar wording. This means that if you plagiarize, it is very likely that it will be discovered. Plagiarism will result in a 0 for the paper and the likelihood of you being dropped from the course.

Specifically, you must address the following questions in your paper:

1. McCloskey refers to the arguments as “proofs” and often implies that they can’t definitively establish the case for God, so therefore they should be abandoned. What would you say about this in light of Foreman’s comments in his “Approaching the Question of God’s Existence” presentation?
2. On the Cosmological Argument:
a. McCloskey claims that the “mere existence of the world constitutes no reason for believing in such a being [i.e., a necessarily existing being].” Using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the non-temporal form of the argument (on pp. 69–77), explain why the cause of the universe must be necessary (and therefore uncaused).
b. McCloskey also claims that the cosmological argument “does not entitle us to postulate an all-powerful, all-perfect, uncaused cause.” In light of Evans and Manis’ final paragraph on the cosmological argument (p. 77), how might you respond to McCloskey?
3. On the Teleological Argument:
a. McCloskey claims that “to get the proof going, genuine indisputable examples of design and purpose are needed.” Discuss this standard of “indisputability” which he calls a “very conclusive objection.” Is it reasonable?
b. From your reading in Evans and Manis, can you offer an example of design that, while not necessarily “indisputable,” you believe provides strong evidence of a designer of the universe?
c. McCloskey implies that evolution has displaced the need for a designer. Assuming evolution is true, for argument’s sake, how would you respond to McCloskey (see Evans and Manis pp. 82–83)?
d. McCloskey claims that the presence of imperfection and evil in the world argues against “the perfection of the divine design or divine purpose in the world.” Remembering Evans’ comments about the limitations of the conclusion of the cosmological argument, how might you respond to McCloskey’s charge about the teleological argument?
4. On the Problem of Evil:
a. McCloskey’s main objection to theism is the presence of evil in the world and he raises it several times: “No being who was perfect could have created a world in which there was avoidable suffering or in which his creatures would (and in fact could have been created so as not to) engage in morally evil acts, acts which very often result in injury to innocent persons.” The language of this claim seems to imply that it is an example of the logical form of the problem. Given this implication and using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the logical problem (pp. 159–168, noting especially his concluding paragraphs to this section), how might you respond to McCloskey?

b. McCloskey specifically discusses the free will argument, asking “might not God have very easily so have arranged the world and biased man to virtue that men always freely chose what is right?” From what you have already learned about free will in the course, and what Evans and Manis says about the free will theodicy, especially the section on Mackie and Plantinga’s response (pp. 163–166) and what he says about the evidential problem (pp. 168–172), how would you respond to McCloskey’s question?
5. On Atheism as Comforting:
a. In the final pages of McCloskey’s article, he claims that atheism is more comforting than theism. Using the argument presented by William Lane Craig in the article “The Absurdity of Life without God,” (located in Reading & Study for Module/Week 6), respond to McCloskey’s claim.

Q7. Essay for KEVIN
Essay Instructions
Plato, Descartes, and The Matrix
In this unit, we have been discussing how we “know.” The modern American philosopher, Hilary Putnam, popularized a well-known thought experiment highlighting the problem of skepticism and our knowledge of reality. To understand Putnam’s experiment, we need to consider how we normally obtain knowledge of reality. Our knowledge of reality usually begins with sensory input. While each of our five senses perceives the world according to their individual means, we will use seeing as an example. Light is reflected off of objects and enters through our eyes, which focus an image of these objects to the back of our eyeball, where it hits our optic nerve. Our nerve transforms this image into electrical/neural impulses that travel through the optic nerve up to where it is plugged into the brain. The brain then processes these impulses where they are transformed into an image in our mind. What our minds experience is an image of the outside world, similar to how a television projects an image captured by a television camera.

In Putnam’s thought experiment, you imagine that your brain has been severed from the nerves connecting it to your senses (eyes, ears, nose, etc.) and has been removed from your skull and placed in a vat filled with the nutritional fluid necessary to keep your brain alive and functioning. Electrical wires have been spliced into your sensory nerves that are connected to the sensory inputs in your brain. The other ends of these wires are connected to the outputs of a giant super computer. A man sits at the keyboard of this super computer, inputting data. This data is transformed into electrical/neural impulses that travel through the spliced wire/sensory nerves and into your brain. The brain processes this information as if it were from your senses. Hence, you have whatever image the man at the keyboard wants you to have. Suppose he inputs data that you are sitting in a café in France, drinking an espresso. He includes all the usual sensory data, including the smell and taste of the coffee, the hardness of the chair and table, the cool breeze blowing by, the sounds of the traffic, and the view of the Eiffel Tower. You experience all of this exactly as if you are really there. In such a situation, you would have no idea that you (or at least your brain) are actually sitting in some vat in some laboratory.

In 1999, Putnam’s thought experiment became the basis of a megahit movie, The Matrix. However, Putnam was not the first to suggest that there may be a problem with perceiving and knowing reality. A number of philosophers have wrestled with this problem. This brings us to your assignment, described below.

In Module/Week 5’s Reading & Study folder, there are 3 short readings. Your assignment is to read them and then write an essay of at least 600 words (in current MLA, APA, or Turabian format) addressing some of the questions listed below (in the “Questions to Consider” section). You must address the first question; then, choose 1 of the other questions to address also.

While you are free to quote from sources, quotations will not count towards the minimum word count. Plagiarism of any kind will result in a 0 for the assignment and may result in being dropped from the course.

A note about the readings: The first reading is a synopsis of The Matrix. If you have seen the movie, this will function as a review for you. If you have not seen the movie, you may choose to do so. However, you should know that the movie is rated R for language and violence. It is not necessary to view the movie to fulfill the assignment, as the synopsis is enough to consider the questions. The second reading comes from Plato’s classic work, The Republic. It is in the form of a dialogue between Socrates and Glaucon, a brother of Plato, and contains the famous cave allegory. The third and final reading is a section from Meditation I, from Meditations on First Philosophy by Rene Descartes, who offers some reasons to doubt his senses.

Questions to Consider

1. Compare and contrast The Matrix with the readings from Plato and Descartes. What are some similarities and differences?

2. Can we prove that the world we are experiencing is real? How do we know we are not dreaming, living in a Platonic cave, or trapped in some sort of matrix?

3. At the end of the cave allegory, Socrates implies that most men would want to escape the cave and see reality as it really is. However, in his betrayal of Morpheus, Cypher implies that it is better to live in the artificial world of the Matrix. Which is better: the harshness of reality, or the “ignorance is bliss” of illusion? Defend your answer.

4. Since much of our knowledge is based on sensory experience, and since our senses are imperfect and can be deceived, can we ever be certain that our beliefs are true? Defend or explain your answer.

Q8. Organizational and Strategic leadership
Question:
Discuss about the case study Organizational Leadership and strategic leadership roles in American history

Q9. Critical Writing Assignment
Writing assignment (critical) 10-12 pt. double spaced 3-5 pages. Defend a thesis and proceed according to the following format: Thesis, Arument, Objective(S), Response (S), Conclusion.
Clifford’s evidentialist argument from module 2 and then contrast Clifford’s position with one of the non evidentialist positions encountered Module 6. Deciding which position, evidentialism or nonevidentialism, more closely aligns with your own point of view and argue for that position.
Citations and any additional sources must be properly cited using MLA format.
Due Sunday 8/5/18 by 11:59

Q10. PHIL 201 Quiz 8 Liberty University | Complete Solution
PHIL 201 Quiz 8 Answers Liberty University | Complete Solution

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

Question 1 What is one of the two alternatives to the consequentialist response to moral dilemmas of trying to minimize the bad and maximize the good, do deontologists provide?
Question 2 Which ethic presupposes that no universal and lasting structures to human life exist:
Question 3 If love is regarded as a _________________ principle, then it needs to ground the principle of _________________ on more than simply utility.
Question 4 Which of these is not one of Holmes’ aspects of moral reasoning for Christians?
Question 5 What is the highest end for Christians?
Question 6 Which of these is not an example of how Aristotle viewed virtues as relative to excess and deficiency?
Question 7 Which one of the below is NOT what Eudaimonia means:
Question 8 Which of the following is not one of Plato’s four cardinal virtues:
Question 9 Stanley Hauerwas has stressed the crucial role of Christian ____________ in moral formation.
Question 10 According to Aristotle, the less virtuous are simply weak¬willed people who act out of ignorance and need education.
Question 11 Ethical egoism seeks a social order where conflicting self¬interests can be brought together in a peaceable and orderly way.
Question 12 The fact that we cannot logically derive ethical conclusions from merely empirical observations is called:
Question 13 A person wants to attend seminary to become more knowledgeable about the Scriptures and theology than others while earning a prestigious graduate degree. But this person also wants to become a pastor and be able to serve others with their education. Which philosopher would be most supportive of this desire?
Question 14 Holmes states that a non¬consequential decision is needed as to the _______ of consequence we are to seek.
Question 15 What process did Jeremy Bentham propose to quantify pleasure versus pain with regards to which action one should take:
Question 16 Pragmatic means:
Question 17 Some deontologists equate the right with the good.
Question 18 That which has value in and of itself:
Question 19 According to deontology, what justifies the means:
Question 20 Consequentialism is not interested in keeping rules at all.

RELIGIOUSN STUDY
Q1. 2019 Answer key BIBL 104 Quiz 8 Final complete solutions correct answers A+
BIBL 104 Quiz 8 Final
• Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Jude wants believers to contend actively and aggressively for the fundamentals of the Christian faith.
Selected Answer:

• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Almost half of the twenty-five verse in Jude share a similar thought, idea, or example with material from 2 Peter.
Selected Answer:

• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
According to the author of Hebrews, In light of what Jesus has done, believers are encouraged to:
Selected Answer:

• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Peter believers are identified as
Selected Answer:

• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
In Jesus’ priestly duties, he offered his own blood once and for all.
Selected Answer:

• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
In the seven seal judgments the black horse stands for bloodshed
Selected Answer:

• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not something John claimed about love in 1 John?
Selected Answer:

• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to 1 Peter, Christ is the
Selected Answer:

• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
James believes that those who only hear the Word of God deceive themselves
Selected Answer:

• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
James uses two Old Testament illustrations to show the works of people who were saved by faith. One of these is
Selected Answer:

• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
______________ was one of the three people in the inner circle of our Lord’s disciples
Selected Answer:

• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the emphasis of Revelation is to assure us that Jesus is indeed, coming again.
Selected Answer:

• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
___________ was the persevering church
Selected Answer:

• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
James warns believers about
Selected Answer:

• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
The author of Hebrews explains what it means for Jesus to be the Mediator of a better covenant.
Selected Answer:

• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
In 1 John, John reminds his audience that those who profess to know Jesus yet do not keep His commandments are liars and the truth is not in them.
Selected Answer:

• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
According to 1 Peter, Christians viewed themselves “as God’s slaves.” This meant that they were truly free from the dominion of the world.
Selected Answer:

• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
Jude directs his readers to “contend for the church that was instituted for the communion of the saints and the salvation of the world.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
Hebrews compares Jesus’ priesthood with ___________ priesthood.
Selected Answer:

• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
According to the writer of Hebrews, believers should stand firm in their confession because they have something those following Moses did not have. They have Jesus, the Son of God, as their Great High Priest.
Selected Answer:

• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
In 1 John, John remind his audience what they already know, specifically that God hears and grants their prayer requests.
Selected Answer:

• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
As a sinless priest, Jesus did not have to offer sacrifices for Himself as Aaron did.
Selected Answer:

• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
In the new eternal city eternal city sin, rebellion, sorrow, sickness, pain, and death are eliminated.
Selected Answer:

• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not one of the new things found in the eternal state?
Selected Answer:

• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In the seven trumpets of judgment the sun is darkened through air pollution.
Selected Answer:
True
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Jude describes false teachers as
Selected Answer:

• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, some feel that James’ teaching on faith and works runs counter to the teachings of
Selected Answer:

• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not one of the sevens that form the outline for the book of Revelation?
Selected Answer:

• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the book of Revelation ends with a dramatic postscript which describes the millennium in which Satan is bound in the abyss and Christ and His saints rule the world with a “rod of iron.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
James teaches that God is waiting to give wisdom to anyone who asks for it
Selected Answer:

• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, some scholars view Hebrews as a sermon or even as a series of sermons.
Selected Answer:

• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In light of what Jesus has done, the author encourages his audience to:
Selected Answer:

• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is
Selected Answer:

• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to the author of Hebrews, Jesus’ priestly duties were not performed in an earthly sanctuary, a mere copy of the heavenly, but in the heavenly sanctuary itself.
Selected Answer:
True
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
_____________ was the powerless church
Selected Answer:

• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Jude uniquely ties together doctrinal error with the immoral lifestyle of false teachers suggesting immorality leads to heresy.
Selected Answer:

• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In 3 John, John acknowledges that Diotrophes refusal to be corrected will lead to his exposure when John arrives.
Selected Answer:

• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
According to 1Peter, believers should submit to every Christian institution in order to
silence the unfounded criticism of unbelievers.
Selected Answer:

• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Jude’s reference to both Old Testament examples and those of Jewish non-canonical books indicate his readers were Jewish Christians.
Selected Answer:

• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the author of 2 John is most likely not the same author as 1
John.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
____________ was the prosperous church
Selected Answer:

• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
In James’ discussion on hearing and doing he uses the example of
Selected Answer:

• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
Jude describes false teachers as
Selected Answer:
fruitless trees
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
Hebrews begins by asserting that Jesus is greater than
Selected Answer:

• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
____________ was the persecuted church.
Selected Answer:

• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
In 2 John, John expresses the joy he felt when he learned that some members of the recipient’s church body were following the Father’s command to walk in truth.
Selected Answer:

• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
The rock of refuge represents the church and believers everywhere and is one of the seven symbolic players in the eschatological drama of the book of Revelation.
Selected Answer:

• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
The author of Hebrews list several personal examples of faith. From this list select the one Biblical character that is not mentioned by the author of Hebrews in Hebrews 11:1-40.
Selected Answer:

• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The author of 2 John and 3 John calls himself
Selected Answer:

Q2. 2019 Answer key Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 7
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
Selected Answer:

• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.
Selected Answer:

• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.
Selected Answer:

• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.
Selected Answer:

• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, of all the cities where Paul ministered, perhaps the __________
had more evidence of Satanic activity and demonic oppression than any other place.
Selected Answer:

• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord
will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.
Selected Answer:

• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have
been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in
and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
Selected Answer:

• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of
Selected Answer:

• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He
makes this conclusion through allegorically explaining the stories of
Selected Answer:

• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Timothy Paul argues that pastors should get paid but should not be appointed
until they have proven they are of godly character.
Selected Answer:

• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and
God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.
Selected Answer:

• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
Selected Answer:

• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
First Corinthians is a pastoral letter to a local church from a father addressing his
spiritually erring children
Selected Answer:

• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
At the bottom of all the problems addressed in First Corinthians was a self-serving,
indulgent attitude. This attitude stood in contrast to the death of Christ as a self-giving sacrifice for the sins of others.
Selected Answer:

• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
Selected Answer:

• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Some scholars believe that the absence of personal greetings in Ephesians suggests that
neither did Paul found the church in Ephesus nor did he know anyone in the church.
Selected Answer:

• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after
ministering in Ephesus.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.
Selected Answer:

• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
One of Paul’s principal achievements was that he wrote thirteen books of the New
Testament, which are a primary source of theological information
Selected Answer:

• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.
Selected Answer:

• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of
Selected Answer:

• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Paul founded the church in Rome on his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.
Selected Answer:

• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that the whole world is under sin and therefore guilty before
God.
Selected Answer:

• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
_____________, a wealthy businessman who lived in Colossae, owned slaves, and the
church met in his house.
Selected Answer:

• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament
truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.
Selected Answer:

• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of
love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.
Selected Answer:

• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own
good works, with or without the law.
Selected Answer:

• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile
culture.
Selected Answer:

• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
Selected Answer:

• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
Selected Answer:

• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.
Selected Answer:

• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
Selected Answer:

• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
Selected Answer:

• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of
doctrine and the second section is a section on
Selected Answer:

• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.
Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.
Selected Answer:

• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.
Selected Answer:

• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until
they had corrected their three current issues.
Selected Answer:

• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesian, Paul pictures believers as being “in Christ.” This is a special relationship
with God because they are perfect in Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s
righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the
resurrection of believers.
Selected Answer:

• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.
Selected Answer:

• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul seems to sum up the Colossian heresy of gnosis calling it,
“Philosophy and empty deceit based on human tradition, based on the elemental forces of the world.”
Selected Answer:

Q3. 2019 Answer key Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 4
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
Selected Answer:

• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.
Selected Answer:

• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.
Selected Answer:

• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.
Selected Answer:

• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, of all the cities where Paul ministered, perhaps the __________
had more evidence of Satanic activity and demonic oppression than any other place.
Selected Answer:

• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord
will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.
Selected Answer:

• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have
been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in
and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
Selected Answer:

• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of
Selected Answer:

• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He
makes this conclusion through allegorically explaining the stories of
Selected Answer:

• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Timothy Paul argues that pastors should get paid but should not be appointed
until they have proven they are of godly character.
Selected Answer:

• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and
God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.
Selected Answer:

• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
Selected Answer:

• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
First Corinthians is a pastoral letter to a local church from a father addressing his
spiritually erring children
Selected Answer:

• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
At the bottom of all the problems addressed in First Corinthians was a self-serving,
indulgent attitude. This attitude stood in contrast to the death of Christ as a self-giving sacrifice for the sins of others.
Selected Answer:

• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
Selected Answer:

• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Some scholars believe that the absence of personal greetings in Ephesians suggests that
neither did Paul found the church in Ephesus nor did he know anyone in the church.
Selected Answer:

• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after
ministering in Ephesus.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.
Selected Answer:

• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
One of Paul’s principal achievements was that he wrote thirteen books of the New
Testament, which are a primary source of theological information
Selected Answer:

• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.
Selected Answer:

• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of
Selected Answer:

• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Paul founded the church in Rome on his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.
Selected Answer:

• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that the whole world is under sin and therefore guilty before
God.
Selected Answer:

• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
_____________, a wealthy businessman who lived in Colossae, owned slaves, and the
church met in his house.
Selected Answer:

• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament
truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.
Selected Answer:

• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of
love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.
Selected Answer:

• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own
good works, with or without the law.
Selected Answer:

• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile
culture.
Selected Answer:

• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
Selected Answer:

• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
Selected Answer:

• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.
Selected Answer:

• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
Selected Answer:

• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
Selected Answer:

• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of
doctrine and the second section is a section on
Selected Answer:

• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.
Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.
Selected Answer:

• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.
Selected Answer:

• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until
they had corrected their three current issues.
Selected Answer:

• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesian, Paul pictures believers as being “in Christ.” This is a special relationship
with God because they are perfect in Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s
righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the
resurrection of believers.
Selected Answer:

• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.
Selected Answer:

• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul seems to sum up the Colossian heresy of gnosis calling it,
“Philosophy and empty deceit based on human tradition, based on the elemental forces of the world.”
Selected Answer:

Q4. 2019 Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 6 complete solutions
• Question 1
2 out of 2 points
______________ became the first Christian martyred for preaching the gospel.
Selected Answer:

• Question 2
0 out of 2 points
The author of Acts is clearly not an eyewitness of much of what he writes about.
Selected Answer:

• Question 3
2 out of 2 points
Who did Paul take with him on his second missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 4
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, the Acts of the Apostles” isn’t a survey of the ministry of all twelve disciples; rather it is about ____________ and _____________.
Selected Answer:

• Question 5
2 out of 2 points
The book of Acts includes twenty-three ___________ which make up one-third of the book.
Selected Answer:

• Question 6
2 out of 2 points
The book of Acts is filled with gospel preaching, including sermons by Peter, __________, and Paul.
Selected Answer:

• Question 7
2 out of 2 points
While at Perga on his first missionary journey, _____________ left and returned to Jerusalem while Paul and Barnabas went on.
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
2 out of 2 points
The Holy Spirit was poured out on the believers at _______________.
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
2 out of 2 points
__________, pastor of the Jerusalem church, presided over the council.
Selected Answer:

• Question 10
2 out of 2 points
Church leadership in Acts consisted of deacons but not elders.
Selected Answer:

• Question 11
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, there are five key ideas in the book of Acts. _____________ is one of these ideas.
Selected Answer:

• Question 12
2 out of 2 points
What member of the Jewish Sanhedrin was converted to Christ on the road to Damascus.
Selected Answer:

• Question 13
2 out of 2 points
The birth and growth of the church in Acts reveals God’s plan to take the gospel to the world as an extension of the Jewish messianic hope from its beginning in Jewish Jerusalem to the heart of the Gentile world in Rome.
Selected Answer:

• Question 14
0 out of 2 points
Paul begins his third missionary journey from
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
2 out of 2 points
On Paul’s first missionary journey he took ___________ and ___________ with him.
Selected Answer:
Barnabas/ John Mark
• Question 16
2 out of 2 points
Jewish authorities finally arrested Paul at __________ where he defended himself before the Sanhedrin.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
2 out of 2 points
On his second missionary journey, Paul receives a vision at ________ that encourages him to travel to Macedonia.
Selected Answer:

• Question 18
2 out of 2 points
In ______________ on their first missionary journey, Paul and Barnabas were mistaken for gods.
Selected Answer:

• Question 19
2 out of 2 points
Paul asked ________________ to join him in his work at Lystra while on his second missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 20
2 out of 2 points
While ministering ______________ during his first missionary journey, a Jewish magician was struck blind and a Roman proconsul was converted.
Selected Answer:

• Question 21
2 out of 2 points
The convert Saul would eventually exchange his Jewish name for the Greco-Roman name ___________, as he expanded his ministry to the Gentiles.
Selected Answer:

• Question 22
2 out of 2 points
A serious disagreement arose at Antioch as to whether the new Gentile converts
Selected Answer:

• Question 23
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, the birth of the church to place in Jerusalem at _____________.
Selected Answer:

• Question 24
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, there are five key ideas in the book of Acts. _____________ is one of these ideas.
Selected Answer:

• Question 25
2 out of 2 points
In __________ on his second missionary journey, Paul speaks to the Areopagus.
Selected Answer:

Q5. 2019 Answer key to Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 5

42 out of 50 points
Time Elapsed
55 minutes out of 1 hour and 30 minutes
Instructions
• Time limit: 1 hour and 30 minutes
• 50 true/false and multiple-choice questions
• Open-book/open-notes
• Do not hit the BACK button as this will lock you out of the quiz.
• The timer will continue if you leave this quiz without submitting it.
Results Displayed
Submitted Answers, Feedback
• Question 1
1 out of 1 points
John views the soldiers’ division of Jesus’ clothes is viewed as a prophetic fulfillment.
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of John can be divided into two sections. The first section is the _____________ and the second section is the Book of Glory.
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
The book of Mark belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s portrait of Christ is that of
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel describes five extended teaching sessions, which are arranged in five major discourses. This was done so that readers could better follow what Jesus said about specific subjects.
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In order to speed up Jesus’ death so that it did not conflict with the Sabbath, the Jesus legs were broken at the request of the religious leaders.
Selected Answer:
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
The New Testament begins with the first coming of Christ and ends with the promise of His Second Coming.
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
All the authors of the New Testament were Jews, with the possible exception of the Roman citizen Paul.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
The content of the New Testament Letters is doctrinal and personal.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
The book of Philemon belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Selected Answer:
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
According to early church tradition, Mark was a close disciple of James, the brother of Jesus. So, he heard James tell and retell the stories about Jesus everywhere they went.
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?
Selected Answer:
• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.
Selected Answer:
Mark
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Jesus was buried in a new tomb by Nicodemus and Joseph of Arimathea.
Selected Answer:
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
The book of Revelation was written by John on the island of
Selected Answer:
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
Because Luke was a physician, there seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old Testament.
Selected Answer:

• Question 31
0 out of 1 points
In Matthew, the Parables of the Kingdom contrasts the righteousness of the kingdom of heaven with the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees.
Selected Answer:

• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.
Selected Answer:

• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.
Selected Answer:

• Question 34
0 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
Selected Answer:

• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
The Mark who authored the Gospel of Mark is not the John Mark that Paul did not want to take with him on his second missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
At his crucifixion Jesus asked for a drink. John view this as a prophetic fulfillment.
Selected Answer:

• Question 38
0 out of 1 points
Jesus asked James three times, “Do you love Me?” Upon Peter’s positive confession Jesus recommissioned him to service.
Selected Answer:

• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Selected Answer:

• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel names no audience for its message other than that which is implied in its Great Commission. Its message was ultimately intended to go to “all nations.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
John’s portrait of Christ is that of
Selected Answer:

• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of Matthew is the most comprehensive of the four Gospels.
Selected Answer:

• Question 43
0 out of 1 points
Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles of Jesus.
Selected Answer:

• Question 44
0 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.
Selected Answer:

• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.
Selected Answer:

• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.
Selected Answer:

• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
The New Testament Epistles are personal letters written to churches and individuals.
Selected Answer:

• Question 48
0 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
Selected Answer:

• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s Gospel is the most universal Gospel because the good news about Jesus is for the whole world, not for the Jews only.
Selected Answer:

• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The last twelve verses of Mark are included in the KJV but modern translations like the NASB, NKJV, ESV, HCSB, and NIV usually use footnotes or a combination of footnotes and brackets to indicate that some manuscripts lack the verses.
Selected Answer:

Q6. 2019 Answers to Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 4

Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 4 Answers 2019
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
In Haggai’s final message the Lord promised to bless Zerubbabel who was the weak governor of Judah and a member of the house of David.
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Amos opened his book of prophecies with the startling image of God as a ___________. Rather than protecting them, Yahweh would roar out in judgment against them.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
According to Lamentations, Jerusalem’s fate was worse than that of Sodom.
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy depicts one whose government is marked by grace and truth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
In Malachi, God denounces His people by raising the question of
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
Habakkuk’s message is a personal one in which the prophet laments and dialogues with the Lord over the justice of His ways in using the Babylonians to punish Judah’s sins.
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
In Malachi, the Lord promised that He would send the prophet _________ prior to the future Day of the Lord to restore His people.
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to Micah, because the rich deprived the poor of their land, the Lord would now do the same to them.
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
_________ is the shortest book in the Old Testament.
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
Hosea charged Israel with three separate indictments. One of these indictments indicated that “They have broken the covenant; they were unfaithful to me there.” (Hos. 6:7)
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the key word(s) for the book of Lamentations is Faithful love which means chêsêd in Hebrew.
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah makes clear that this is not a typical human child because he is described as a “Might Savior.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
Edom was lifted up because of excessive pride. They trusted in their political and military advisors for their security.
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
Like a con artist, Nineveh had seduced other nations into alliances and then had
betrayed them because of her greed and lust for wealth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
0 out of 1 points
The book of Ezekiel is structured around seven visions of the Lord.
Selected Answer:
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
Luke 22:37 quotes from Isa 53:12 (“And he was numbered with the transgressors”) as evidence that Jesus is Isaiah’s suffering servant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In his first vision, Zechariah saw a flying scroll that measured thirty feet by fifteen feet and was covered with written curses against those who had broken God’s commandments
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
Amos’ prophecies of judgment demanded a response because they were not absolute predictions of what must happen in the future as much as they were warnings of what would happen if Israel did not repent and change its ways.
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
______________ is the central theme of the book of Zephaniah.
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the New Testament explains that John the Baptist is the fulfillment of the messenger prophesied by Malachi.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Edom was lifted up because of excessive pride. They believed their mountain fortresses made them invulnerable to enemy attack.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
The book of Malachi is structured around disputations in which the Lord dialogues with His people in a series of questions and answers.
Selected Answer:
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy depicts one whose government is from the throne of David.
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
Amos concluded his prophecies of unrelenting judgment with a message of hope concerning Israel’s future restoration. God promised:
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Zephaniah’s ministry reminds us of the importance of preaching which confronts evil, calls for repentance, and leads to revival.
Selected Answer:
True
• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
Lamentations reveals that, as the Divine Warrior, the Lord poured out His anger on the city of Jerusalem. However, He would not abandon the Temple for it was His own sanctuary.
Selected Answer:
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
The ultimate fulfillment of the Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah was the virgin birth of Jesus Christ, who was literally God incarnate and who would preserve the line of David forever.
Selected Answer:
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
Ezekiel’s vision of _____________ confirmed the Lord’s promise to restore and spiritually renew the people of Israel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah makes clear that this is not a typical human child because he is described as an “Everlasting Father.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
Daniel was thrown into a lion’s den because he refused to stop praying.
Selected Answer:
• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
Nebuchadnezzar built a golden statue and required Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, as well all of his government officials to worship this statue when certain music played.
Selected Answer:
• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
The book of Lamentations is a series of five separate laments over the fall of Jerusalem to the __________.
Selected Answer:
• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
The Babylonians allowed Jeremiah to remain in the land of Judah, and he ministered there until he and his scribe Baruch were kidnapped by a faction of Jews and taken away as hostages to Egypt.
Selected Answer:
• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
The enormity of the temple rebuilding process, economic hardships, and opposition from the surrounding peoples stalled the project for sixteen months.
Selected Answer:
• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Nahum, God’s justice demanded the Assyrians experience the suffering and degradation they inflicted on others.
Selected Answer:
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
Hosea compared Israel’s unfaithfulness to spoiled grapes, a wild vine, a trained heifer, and a rebellious daughter.
Selected Answer:
• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
Zephaniah began his ministry at approximately the same time as Ezekiel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
The ____________ were descendants of Esau and had a stormy relationship with Israel throughout their history.
Selected Answer:
• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
The book of Lamentations is an anonymous composition but early tradition identifies ___________ as the author of the book.
Selected Answer:
• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Peter cites and quotes from Isa 53:4–5, 9, 11–12 (“He committed no sin, and no deceit was found in his mouth,” and “by his wounds you have been healed”) in 1 Peter 2:21-25 as evidence that Jesus is Isaiah’s suffering servant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
The story of Jonah is a reminder that the Lord’s plan of salvation extends beyond Israel to include all the nations, even those who were Israel’s greatest enemies.
Selected Answer:
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
In Isaiah, Christ is pictured as a suffering servant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah makes clear that this is not a typical human child because he is described as a “Wonderful Counselor”
Selected Answer:
• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
One lament in Lamentations features a beleaguered individual who probably is the personification of the city of Jerusalem.
Selected Answer:
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In the final section of the book of Micah, God’s relationship to His people is presented as
Selected Answer:
• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
In Malachi, God denounces His people by raising the question of
Selected Answer:
• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
The judgment of the Edomites is a reminder that God stands opposed to all forms of human arrogance and pride.
Selected Answer:
• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In Isaiah, Christ is pictured as the bread of life.
Selected Answer:
• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
Habakkuk’s third question was:
Selected Answer:
• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy depicts one whose reigns forever.
Selected Answer:

Q7. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 10
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 10
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 10

Q8. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9

Q9. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8

Q10. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7

CHEMISTRY.

Q1. Citric Acid Cycle

 

Balance Sheet for the Citric Acid Cycle The citric acid cycle has eight enzymes: citrate synthase, aconitase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, succinyl-CoA synthetase, succinate dehydrogenase, fumarase, and malate dehydrogenase. (a) Write a balanced equation for the reaction catalyzed by each enzyme. (b) Name the cofactor(s) required by each enzyme reaction. (c) For each enzyme determine which of the following describes the type of reaction(s) catalyzed: condensation (carbon–carbon bond formation); dehydration (loss of water); hydration (addition of water); decarboxylation (loss of CO2); oxidation-reduction; substrate-level phosphorylation; isomerization. (d) Write a balanced net equation for the catabolism of acetyl-CoA to CO2

 

Q2. Chapter 17 – Acid-Base (Proton Transfer) Reactions

 

Chapter 17 – Acid-Base (Proton Transfer) Reactions

 

According to the Arrhenius definition, what is the substance that provides hydroxide ions in solution?

Solvent

Precipitate

Base

Acid

Salt

 

According to Arrhenius theory, what is an acid?

  1. A substance that contains a high concentration of hydrogen ions in solutions with water.
  2. A substance that will lower the hydrogen ion concentration when placed in water.
  3. A substance that has an H in its formula.
  4. An electron pair donor.
  5. An electron pair acceptor.

 

Which of the following is not capable of acting like a Brønsted–Lowry base?

  1. H2O()
  2. NH4+ion
  3. Clion
  4. HNO3(aq)
  5. H2PO4(aq)

 

Which of the following cannot act as a Brønsted–Lowry acid?

  1. HCO3(aq)
  2. HOH()
  3. NH3(g)
  4. CO32–(aq)
  5. CH3OH()

Consider the following generalized reaction.

 

For this reaction, which of the following is correct?

  1. A is proton source.
  2. B is a proton remover.
  3. A is an electron pair donor.
  4. B is an electron pair acceptor.
  5. This a Lewis acid-base reaction.

 

Which of the following is a Lewis acid but not a Brønsted–Lowry acid?

  1. OH
  2. HPO42–
  3. HCl
  4. NH4+
  5. Fe3+

 

 

Which one of the following pairs does not represent a conjugate acid-base pair?

H3PO4 / HPO42-

H2O / OH

HBr / Br

NO3 / HNO3

HClO2 / ClO2

 

Choose the pair that does not constitute a conjugate acid-base pair.

CH3CO2H / CH3CO2

H3O+ / H2O

HSO4 / SO42-

H3PO4 / HPO42-

None. All of these are conjugate acid base pairs.

 

Which one of the following is a strong acid?

nitric acid, HNO3

phosphoric acid, H3PO4

hypobromous acid, HOBr

bromic acid, HBrO3

carbonic acid, H2CO3

 

Given the following relative acid strengths, starting with the weakest: HCO3 < HNO3 < HBr, what is the relative strength of each conjugate base, starting with the weakest?

  1. CO32–< NO3< Br
  2. Br< CO32–< NO3
  3. NO3< Br< CO32–
  4. Br< NO3< CO32–
  5. CO32–< Br< NO3

 

 

Which of the following is the correct net ionic equation for the reaction between nitrous acid and hydrogen sulfide ion?

  1. HNO2+ HSH2NO2+ + S2–
  2. HNO2+ HSNO2 + H2S
  3. HNO2+ HSO4H2NO2+ + SO42–
  4. HNO2+ HSO4NO2 + H2SO4
  5. HNO3+ HSO4NO3 + H2SO4

 

Which is the correct net ionic equation for the reaction between HC2O4 and HPO42–? (Note: H2C2O4 is a stronger acid than H2PO4.)

  1. HC2O4+ HPO42–H+ + H2O42– + HPO42–
  2. HC2O4+ HPO42–H+ + HC2O4 + PO43–
  3. HC2O4+ HPO42–C2O42– + H2PO4
  4. HC2O4+ HPO42–H2C2O4 + PO43–
  5. HC2O4+ HPO42–H2 + C2O42– + PO43–

 

Which one of the following chemical equations illustrates the ionization of perchloric acid, HClO4, when it dissolves in water?

2 HClO42 ClO4 + H2

HClO4 + H2O H3O+ + ClO4

HClO4 + OH H2O + ClO4

3 HClO4 + 2 H2O 2 H2O+ + 3 HClO4

HClO4 + H2O H2ClO4+ + OH

 

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. Acid-base reactions involve a transfer of protons; redox reactions involve a transfer of electrons.
  2. In both redox and acid-base reactions, the reactants are given special names to indicate their roles in the transfer process.
  3. Just as certain species can either donate or accept protons and thereby behave as an acid in one reaction and a base in another, certain species can either accept or donate electrons, acting as an oxidizing agent in one reaction and a reducing agent in another.
  4. Just as acids and bases may be classified as “strong” or “weak” depending on how readily they donate or accept protons, the strengths of oxidizing and reducing agents may be compared according to their tendencies to attract or release electrons.
  5. Unlike most acid-base reactions in solution, which reach a state of equilibrium, most aqueous redox reactions do not reach a state of equilibrium and proceed entirely either in the forward or reverse direction.

 

The autoionization of water, as represented by the below equation, is known to be endothermic. Which of the following correctly states what occurs as the temperature of water is raised? H2O(l) + H2O(l) H3O+(aq) + OH(aq)

The pH of the water does not change, and the water remains neutral.

The pH of the water decreases, and the water remains neutral.

The pH of the water increases, and the water becomes more acidic.

The pH of the water decreases, and the water becomes more acidic.

The pH of the water increases and the water remains neutral.

 

Which of the following statements is incorrect?
i. Kw = [H+][OH] = 1.0 × 10–14 at 25°C.
ii. Water or water solutions in which [H+] = [OH] = 10–7 M are neutral solutions, neither acidic nor basic.
iii. A solution in which [H+] > [OH] is basic.
iv. A solution in which [OH] > [H+] is acidic.

  1. i and ii
  2. iii and iv
  3. ii, iii, and iv
  4. All statements are correct.
  5. All statements are incorrect.

 

At 55°C, the ion-product constant of water, Kw, is 7.05 × 10-14. The pH of pure water at 55°C is

4.384

7.000

3.804

4.484

None of these choices are correct.

 

Carbonic acid is a diprotic acid, H2CO3, with Ka1 = 4.2 × 10–7 and Ka2 = 4.8 × 10–11 at 25°C. The ion product for water is Kw = 1.0 × 10–14 at 25°C. What is the OH concentration of a solution that is 0.15 M in Na2CO3?

2.7 × 10-6 M

6.0 × 10-5 M

5.6 × 10-3 M

2.1 × 10–4 M

2.5 × 10-4 M

 

What is the [ OH ] in a solution that has a pH of 10.15 ?

1.41×10-4 M

0.213 M

1.41×10-5 M

7.08×10-10 M

7.08×10-11 M

 

Which of the following is true for a basic solution?

[ H+ ] < [ OH ]

Kw = [ H+ ]

[ OH ] = [ H+ ]

[ H+ ][ OH ] = 1

[ OH ] < [ H+ ]

 

What is the pH of a solution when [OH] = 5.0×10-2 mol/L?

12.70

7.00

13.70

0.30

1.30

 

What is the [ H+ ] of a solution that has a pH of 7.37?

4.27×106

2.34×10-7

4.27×10-8

2.34×107

 

Which one of the following is not characteristic of a acid?

Producing a solution with a pH less than 7

Tasting sour

Producing hydrogen ions in solution

Turning red litmus blue

 

If the pH of a solution is equal to 7.00, the solution is _____.

basic

amphoteric

neutral

acidic

 

The pH of a solution is 5.330. Find [OH].

  1. [OH] = 2.14 × 10–9molar
  2. [OH] = 4.70 × 10–11molar
  3. [OH] = 5.33 × 10–7molar
  4. [OH] = 4.70 × 10–6molar
  5. [OH] = 5.33 molar

 

A solution is made by dissolving 12.50 g of NaOH, a strong base, in water to produce 2.0 liters of solution. What is the pH of this solution?

  1. 13.50
  2. 13.19
  3. 11.74
  4. 0.81
  5. 0.31

 

The following three equations represent equilibria that lie to the right.

HNO3(aq) + CN(aq) HCN(aq) + NO3 (aq)

HCN(aq) + OH(aq) H2O(l) + CN(aq)

H2O(l) + CH3CH2O(aq) CH3CH2OH(aq) + OH(aq)

Identify the strongest base.

  1. CH3CH2O
  2. NO3
  3. CN
  4. CH3CH2OH
  5. H2O

 

Carbonic acid is a diprotic acid, H2CO3, with Ka1 = 4.2 × 10–7 and Ka2 = 4.8 × 10–11 at 25°C. The ion product for water is Kw = 1.0 × 10–14 at 25°C. What is the OH concentration of a solution that is 1.15 M in Na2CO3?

7.4 × 10-6 M

1.7 × 10-4 M

2.1 × 10–4 M

6.9 × 10-4 M

1.5 × 10-2 M

 

As water is heated, its pH decreases. This means that

the dissociation of water is an endothermic process.

the water has a lower [OH] than cooler water.

the Kw value is decreasing.

the water is no longer neutral.

None of these choices are correct.

 

Calculate the pH of a 8.22×10-2 M NaF solution (Kb = 1.4 x 10-11).

11.94

2.06

5.97

3.15

8.03

 

At 65°C, the ion-product constant of water, Kw, is 1.20 × 10-13. The pH of pure water at 65°C is

3.727

7.000

4.307

4.407

None of these choices are correct.

 

Calculate the hydroxide concentration in a 3.0 M HCl aqueous solution.

3.0*10^-14 M

7.0*10^-13 M

1.0*10^-7 M

3.4*10^-15 M

3.0*10^14 M

 

 

 

 

Q3. Chapter 16 – Solutions

 


Chapter 16 

 

  1. Consider the following beaker which has had its contents (KBr and water) mixed until no further change occurs.

 

Which of the following best describes the contents of the beaker?

  1. KBr – solute and water – solvent.
  2. Saturated solution.
  3. Addition of enough water would produce an unsaturated solution.
  4. A heterogeneous mixture.
  5. All of the above correctly describe the contents of the beaker.

 

2.

Which of the following correctly applies to the term “solution”?

  1. heterogeneous mixture
  2. variable composition
  3. constant properties
  4. dissolved particles can are usually larger than about 10–7cm
  5. exist only in the liquid and gas state

3.

A solution that has a relatively large amount of solute dissolved in it at a particular temperature is said to be _____.

unsaturated

oversaturated

dilute

supersaturated

concentrated

 

4.

Suppose you are given a beaker containing a solution. None of the solute is on the bottom. You drop a small crystal of the solute into the solution, and it readily dissolves into the solution. Which one of the following terms best describes the solution?

concentrated

supersaturated

unsaturated

static

saturated

 

5.

Which of the following substances should be the most soluble in ethanol (CH3CH2OH)?

CH4

NaCl

Mg3(PO4)2

CH2Cl2

O2

 

6.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. The roles ofsoluteand solvent are not always clearly defined in the solution of one liquid in another.
  2. When water and carbon tetrachloride are in the same test tube, a denser layer of carbon tetrachloride forms beneath a less dense layer of water. The liquids are said to be miscible.
  3. A solution of a given concentration that is saturated at one temperature may be unsaturated at another temperature.
  4. Dilute nitric acid and dilute sulfuric acid may or may not have the same concentration.
  5. The concentration of solute in a supersaturated solution is greater than the normal solubility limit.

 

7.

“Like dissolves like” essentially means:

Solids won’t dissolve in liquids.

Ionic compounds will only dissolve in molten salts.

Ionic compounds won’t vaporize easily.

Polar solutes will dissolve in polar solvents.

 

8.

In carbon steel, carbon is the _____ and iron is the _______.

solute, solution

solvent, solute

solute, solvent

solution, solute

 

9.

dentify the incorrect statement about events that occur between the time excess solid solute is first introduced to a liquid solvent and the time when the solution becomes saturated. Assume that the surface area of the solute remains constant throughout the process.

  1. The rate of concentration change is zero when the solution is saturated.
  2. The net rate of concentration change is greatest at the beginning of the process.
  3. The rate of dissolving is greater than the rate of crystallization when the solution is one-half saturated.
  4. If temperature remains constant, the rate of dissolving is constant.
  5. If temperature remains constant, the rate of crystallization remains constant.

 

10.

When a saturated solution is in equilibrium with undissolved solute, …

  1. the solution separates into layers.
  2. dissolving and crystallization stop.
  3. the quantity of dissolved solute equals the quantity of undissolved solute.
  4. the concentration of the solution remains constant.
  5. the temperature increases until more solute dissolves.

 

  1. Which of the following will always cause the greatest increase in the solubility of a gas in a liquid?

increasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and lowering the liquid temperature

decreasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and lowering the liquid temperature

increasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and raising the liquid temperature

decreasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid with no temperature change of the liquid

decreasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and raising the liquid temperature

  1. Rank the following compounds according to increasing solubility in water.
  2. CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3
  3. CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3
  4. CH3–CH2–OH
  5. CH3–OH

I < III < IV < II

I < II < IV < III

III < IV < II < I

I < II < III < IV

None of these is correct.

 

13.

The structures of cyclohexane and benzene are shown below.

cyclohexane

benzene

It is logical to expect that these liquids are…

  1. miscible because of their similar structures and sizes.
  2. miscible because they contain the same number of carbon atoms.
  3. immiscible because benzene, with half as many hydrogen atoms, has less hydrogen bonding than cyclohexane.
  4. immiscible because one molecule is polar and the other nonpolar.
  5. immiscible because both molecules have ring structures

 

 

14.

Consider the graph shown below.

 

Which substance shows the smallest increase in solubility as the temperature is increased?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. E

 

15.

To determine the mass percent of a solution’s composition, what do you need to know?

Mass of solute and mass of solution

Volume of solute and mass of solution

Volume of solute and volume of solution

Mass of solute and volume of solution

 

16.

 

Find the mass percent of CuSO4 in a solution whose density is 1.30 g/mL and whose molarity is 1.36 M.

2.66%

16.7%

1.77%

83.3%

None of these choices are correct.

 

17.

If 8.73 g Ca(NO3)2 is dissolved in enough water to make 0.750 L of solution, what is the molar concentration of Ca(NO3)2?

11.6 M

1.16×10-2 M

7.09×10-2 M

25.1 M

0.114 M

 

18.

What is the concentration of chloride ions in a 0.20 M FeCl3 solution?

6.7×10-2 M

0.80 M

0.60 M

0.20 M

0.40 M

 

19.

What concentration unit is necessary for the calculation of vapor pressure lowering of a solvent?

mass fraction of solvent

molarity of solute

mole fraction of solvent

molality of solvent

mole fraction of solute

 

20.

 

75.0 mL of water is added to 12.9 mL of 0.250 M KMnO4. What is the concentration of the diluted solution?

  1. 1.70 M
  2. 1.45 M
  3. 0.0581 M
  4. 0.0430 M
  5. 0.0367 M

 

21.

 

What volume of hydrogen gas, measured at STP, is produced in the reaction of excess aluminum with 50.0 mL of 0.935 M hydrochloric acid?

  1. 0.531 L
  2. 1.06 L
  3. 2.12 L
  4. 0.0474 L
  5. 0.0237 L

 

22.

Write the balanced equation for the reaction of aluminum chloride with silver nitrate and determine what volume of 0.107 M silver nitrate is required to precipitate all the chloride from 15.00 mL of 0.0500 M aluminum chloride.

  1. 45.0 mL
  2. 7.01 mL
  3. 21.0 mL
  4. 63.1 mL
  5. 15.0 mL

 

23.

Potassium hydrogen phthalate is used as a primary standard in finding the concentration of a solution of sodium hydroxide by the reaction KHC8H4O4 + NaOH → NaKC8H4O4 + H2O. What is the molarity of the base if 32.75 mL is required to titrate 1.732 g of the primary standard?

  1. 0.5189 M
  2. 0.2590 M
  3. 1.732 M
  4. 3.861 M
  5. 3.275 M

 

24.

The citric acid in a lemon juice sample was neutralized by titration with NaOH solution. If 5.00 mL of lemon juice required 47.8 mL of 0.121 M NaOH for neutralization, what was the molarity of the citric acid in the lemon juice? The reaction is 3 NaOH + H3C6H5O7 → 3 H2O + Na3C6H5O7.

  1. 1.16 M
  2. 3.47 M
  3. 0.110 M
  4. 0.386 M
  5. 0.329 M

 

25.

A 50.0 mL hydrochloric acid sample is analyzed for its concentration by titration. Determine the concentration of the sample, given that it requires 21.50 mL of 0.102 M sodium hydroxide solution to neutralize the acid.

  1. 0.105 M
  2. 1.05 M
  3. 22.8 M
  4. 0.0439 M
  5. 0.237 M

 

How many of the following help determine whether or not a solution forms?

  1. the polarities of the solute and solvent
  2. the densities of the solute and solvent
  3. the probability of the mixed state (of the solution)
  4. the energies needed for the solution formation to occur
  5. the state of matter of the solute (solid, liquid, gas)

h

3

1

2

5

4

 

Which of the following statements concerning the solubility of a solute is/are correct?

(1) The dissolution of a gas in a liquid is an endothermic process.
(2) The solubility of a gas in a liquid decreases with increasing temperature.
(3) The dissolution of a gas in a liquid is an exothermic process.

2 and 3

1 and 2

3 only

2 only

1 only

 

The solubility of a gas usually increases with increasing temperature.

True

False

 

How many of the following help determine whether or not a solution forms?

  1. the polarities of the solute and solvent
  2. the densities of the solute and solvent
  3. the probability of the mixed state (of the solution)
  4. the energies needed for the solution formation to occur
  5. the state of matter of the solute (solid, liquid, gas)

 

 

 

 

Q4. Chapter 15 – Gases, Liquids, and Solids

 

Chapter 15 – Gases, Liquids, and Solids

1.

 

Dalton’s law of partial pressures states that:

equal amounts of gases occupy the same volume at constant temperature and pressure.

the volume of a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its temperature in Kelvin at constant pressure.

the volume of a fixed amount of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure at constant temperature.

the total pressure of a mixture of gases is the sum of the partial pressure of all of the gaseous compounds.

the rates of effusion of gases are inversely proportional to the square roots of their molar masses.

 

2.

Hydrogen gas can be collected by water displacement when magnesium reacts with hydrochloric acid. When the container is filled with the hydrogen gas, which of the following is true of the total pressure (P) inside the container?

 

 

3.

 

What is the phase change from liquid to solid called?

Fusion

Freezing

Condensation

Sublimation

Evaporation

 

4.

 

Which of the following properties of liquids is the least affected by the strength of intermolecular forces?

  1. vapor pressure
  2. boiling point
  3. heat of vaporization
  4. density
  5. viscosity

 

5.

 

Arrange the following molecules, CH3CHO, SO2, and H2O, in order of increasing strength of intermolecular forces.

CH3CHO, SO2, H2O

SO2, CH3CHO, H2O

H2O, SO2, CH3CHO

H2O, CH3CHO, SO2

CH3CHO, H2O, SO2

 

6.

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Intermolecular forces are weaker in liquids than in gases because the particles are closer to each other.
  2. Smaller intermolecular distances in liquids result in stronger intermolecular forces, when compared to intermolecular distances and forces in gases.
  3. Compared to liquids, large distances between gaseous molecules yield large intermolecular attractions.
  4. The smaller the distance between molecules the smaller the intermolecular attractions, therefore attractions are weaker in liquids than gases.
  5. All statements are correct.

 

7.

The kinetic molecular theory as applied to liquids differs in two major ways from the theory as applied to gases. One of these is that…

  1. Matter no longer appears to be made up of discrete particles
  2. Energy changes result from intermolecular collisions
  3. Attractive forces between molecules are significant
  4. Molecules are no longer in motion relative to each other
  5. Forces between molecules are no longer electrostatic in character

 

8.

Considering the molecular mass and polarity influences on physical properties, which of the following predictions about the boiling points of elemental bromine and chlorine fluoride is most apt to be correct?

  1. Both molecular mass and polarity predicts Br2has the lower boiling point.
  2. Both molecular mass and polarity predicts Br2has the higher boiling point.
  3. Molecular mass predicts Br2has the lower boiling point, but molecular polarity predicts it has the lower boiling point.
  4. Molecular mass predicts Br2has the higher boiling point, but molecular polarity predicts it has the lower boiling point.
  5. Molecular mass and polarity have an insignificant influence on the physical properties of these molecules.

 

9.

 

The normal boiling point of liquid X is less than that of Y, which is less than that of Z. Which of the following is the correct order of increasing vapor pressure of the three liquids at STP?

 

10.

 

The vapor pressure of water at 80°C is

 

 

11.

 

Which of the following molecules will have the highest boiling point?

CH4

I2

SiH4

SO2

O2

 

12.

 

Select from the following the statement that is incorrect or contrary to the generalizations that you’ve learned.

  1. The strength of induced dipole forces depends on the ease with which electron distributions can be polarized.
  2. Dipole forces are present in NF3, but not in CF4.
  3. The principal intermolecular forces in a straight chain hydrocarbon such as C8H18are induced dipole forces.
  4. Intermolecular forces are usually stronger for substances that exhibit hydrogen bonding than for otherwise similar substances lacking hydrogen bonds.
  5. Induced dipole forces exist in both polar and nonpolar molecular substances, but they are essentially the only attractions in polar compounds.

 

 

13.

Which of the species below would you expect to show the least hydrogen bonding?

HF

NH3

CH4

H2O

all the same

 

14.

 

The elements of group 5A, the nitrogen family, form compounds with hydrogen having the boiling points listed below:

SbH3 –17°C, AsH3 –55°C, PH3 –87°C, NH3 –33°C

The first three compounds illustrate a trend where the boiling point decreases as the mass decreases; however, ammonia (NH3) does not follow the trend because of:

dipole-dipole attraction.

hydrogen bonding.

metallic bonding.

London dispersion forces.

ionic bonding.

 

 

 

15.

 

Which substance involves no bonding forces except London dispersion forces?

NaCl(l)

N2(s)

HF(l)

H2O(l)

K(s)

 

16.

 

Draw the Lewis diagrams of CH3OH and water, then from the Lewis diagrams, identify the statement among the following that is most apt to be incorrect.

  1. Hydrogen bonds are probably the principal intermolecular force in both compounds.
  2. Both compounds have both hydrogen bonding and induced dipole forces.
  3. Both molecules being polar, dipole-dipole forces are present in both compounds.
  4. Induced dipole forces are present in CH3OH, but not water.
  5. Induced dipole forces are probably the least significant intermolecular forces in both compounds.

 

17.

 

There is 250 mL of water stored in a 500-mL sealed container. As the temperature increases from 298 K to 308 K:

the number of water molecules in the vapor phase increases indefinitely.

the number of water molecules in the liquid phase decreases.

the number of water molecules in the vapor phase decreases.

the number of water molecules in the vapor phase remains constant.

the number of water molecules in the vapor phase decreases indefinitely.

 

18.

 

What would happen to the average kinetic energy of the molecules of a gas sample if the temperature of the sample increased from 20°C to 40°C?

It would decrease.

It would double.

It would become half its value.

It would increase.

Two of these choices are correct.

 

19.

 

Among the following, identify the incorrect statement about a boiling liquid:

  1. Boiling temperature may be increased by raising surrounding pressure.
  2. The temperature of the liquid must be greater than that of the gas above the liquid.
  3. Boiling in an open beaker occurs at a lower temperature at higher altitudes.
  4. Equilibrium vapor pressure at boiling temperature equals, or is slightly higher than, surrounding pressure.
  5. All statements are correct.

 

20.

Among the following, identify the correct statement about a boiling liquid:

  1. The temperature of a liquid boiling in an open beaker is equal to the temperature of the gas space above the liquid.
  2. Equilibrium vapor pressure at the boiling temperature is higher than the surrounding pressure.
  3. Vapor pressure in a bubble in the liquid is equal to or slightly greater than the equilibrium pressure at boiling temperature.
  4. Boiling temperature can be increased by boiling in a vacuum.
  5. All statements are incorrect.

21.

Although both are readily soluble in water, why does table salt (NaCl) conduct an electric current when dissolved in water but table sugar (C12H22O11) does not?

Because table salt has a simpler formula than table sugar.

Because sugar contains carbon atoms which do not conduct electricity.

Because sugar has a larger mass than salt.

Because salt forms ions of Na+ and Cl in water which are free to move about to conduct an electric current whereas sugar does not form ions in water.

22.

Why does ice float on liquid water?

  1. It is a compound without carbon atoms that exists in the liquid state at room temperature and pressure.
  2. The linear structure of the water molecule allows ice molecules to pack together tightly enough to allow ice to float.
  3. Ice is structurally similar to wood, so ice floats on water in a manner similar to wooden ships where air becomes trapped in cells within the solid structure.
  4. Oxygen’s low electronegativity leads to the collapse of the crystal structure, allowing the molecules to become closer together in water.
  5. Water molecules in the solid form are held in a crystal pattern that has voids between the molecules.

23.

In which of the following processes will energy be evolved as heat?

vaporization

sublimation

melting

crystallization

None of these choices are correct.

24.

 

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. There is long-range order in a crystalline solid
  2. Graphite is an example of an amorphous solid.
  3. Glass, rubber, and plastic are examples of crystalline solids
  4. Particles in an amorphous solids are arranged in a distinct geometric order
  5. In a crystalline solid particles can move past the closest neighboring particles.

 

25.

 

Which of the following is an example of an ionic solid?

White phosphorus

Calcium fluoride

Sulfur hexafluoride

Carbon dioxide

Silver

 

26.

 

Which of the following substances is most likely to be a solid at room temperature?

NH3

MgCl2

Cl2

H2S

CH4

 

27.

 

The heat of fusion of gold is 63 joules per gram. Once a 25.0 g sample of gold has been heated to its melting point, 1063°C, how much additional heat is required to melt it?

  1. 89 kJ
  2. 39 kJ
  3. 2.7 kJ
  4. 2.6 kJ
  5. 1.6 kJ

 

28.

Calculate the heat of fusion of an unknown pure substance if 5.33 × 103 kJ of heat is required to melt a 17.2 kg sample.

  1. 1.09 × 10–5J/g
  2. 3.23 × 10–3J/g
  3. 3.10 × 102J/g
  4. 9.17 × 104J/g
  5. 3.10 × 105J/g

29.

Calculate the enthalpy of vaporization of C4H10. This compound has vapor pressures of 492 mmHg and 355 mmHg at -12.0 °C and -20.0 °C, respectively. (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)

-81.4 kJ/mol

30.7 kJ/mol

9.73*10^3 kJ/mol

2.24*10^4 kJ/mol

22.4 kJ/mol

30.

Calculate the specific heat of an unknown metal if a 123 gram sample requires 8.8 kJ of heat to change from 16°C to 97°C.

  1. 0.88 J/g · °C
  2. 1.1 J/g · °C
  3. 5.8 × 103J/g · °C
  4. 1.3 × 104J/g · °C
  5. 8.8 × 107J/g · °C

31.

The graph below represents a temperature versus energy plot for a pure substance.

Identify the point(s) where…
(i) only gas exists
(ii) both solid and liquid exist

  1. (i) 7 (ii) 2 and 3
  2. (i) 7 (ii) 5 and 6
  3. (i) 1 (ii) 2 and 3
  4. (i) 4 (ii) 5 and 6
  5. (i) 4 (ii) 2 and 3

 

What is the total heat flow if 27 grams of steam at 143°C is cooled to become water at 34°C? The specific heat of water is 4.18 J/g · °C; the specific heat of steam is 2.0 J/g · °C. The heat of vaporization of water is 2.26 kJ/g, and the boiling point of water is 100°C.

  1. 2.3 kJ
  2. 7.4 kJ
  3. 61 kJ
  4. 71 kJ
  5. 9.8 × 103kJ

 

A gaseous mixture containing 1.5 mol Ar and 3.5 mol CO2 has a total pressure of 9.4 atm. What is the partial pressure of CO2?

6.6 atm

With all other factors being equal, which of the following correctly lists intermolecular forces in order of increasing strength?

  1. Dipole forces < Induced dipole forces < Hydrogen bonds
  2. Induced dipole forces < Dipole forces < Hydrogen bonds
  3. Hydrogen bonds < Dipole forces < Induced dipole forces
  4. Dipole forces < Hydrogen bonds < Induced dipole forces
  5. Induced dipole forces < Hydrogen bonds < Dipole forces

The normal boiling point of bromine is 58.8 °. Using the heat of vaporization of bromine (30.0 kJ/mol), calculate the vapor pressure of bromine at 28.5 °C. (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)

226 torr

680 torr

760 torr

505 torr

255 torr

 

Which of the following is not a postulate of the kinetic molecular theory?

The moving particles undergo perfectly elastic collisions with the walls of the container.

The forces of attraction and repulsion between the particles are insignificant.

Gas particles have most of their mass concentrated in the nucleus of the atom.

The average kinetic energy of the particles is directly proportional to the absolute temperature.

All of these are postulates of the kinetic molecular theory.

 

 

Among the following, identify the correct statement about a boiling liquid:

  1. The temperature of a liquid boiling in an open beaker is equal to the temperature of the gas space above the liquid.
  2. Equilibrium vapor pressure at the boiling temperature is higher than the surrounding pressure.
  3. Vapor pressure in a bubble in the liquid is equal to or slightly greater than the equilibrium pressure at boiling temperature.
  4. Boiling temperature can be increased by boiling in a vacuum.
  5. All statements are incorrect.

 

What is the total heat flow if 28 grams of water at 12°C is cooled to become ice at –19°C? The specific heat of liquid water is 4.18 J/g · °C; the specific heat of ice is 2.1 J/g · °C. The heat of fusion of ice is 333 J/g, and the freezing point of water is 0.0°C.

  1. 1.1 kJ
  2. 1.4 kJ
  3. 9.4 kJ
  4. 10.8 kJ
  5. 11.8 kJ

 

The normal boiling point of bromine is 58.8 °. Using the heat of vaporization of bromine (30.0 kJ/mol), calculate the vapor pressure of bromine at 24.5 °C. (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)

543 torr

669 torr

266 torr

217 torr

760 torr

 

 

Q5. i a need diagrams

 

Using the notation scheme for defining manipulator configurations (Section 8.1.2), draw diagrams (similar to Figure 8.1) of the following robots: (a) TRT, (b) VVR, (c) VROT.

 

Q6. Non-profit organization Propose two te

 

Non-Profit Organizations

Please respond to the each and every single requested information following in 2-3 thorough paragraphs: (Please provide your resources)

  • 1. Propose two (2) techniquesthat a nonprofit can use to measure management and employee efficiency within its organization.
  • —Speculate on the major benefitsthat these techniques may have on the organization.
  • 2. Determine whether or not traditional financial and management evaluation ratios such as return on assets (ROA), return on equity (ROE), economic value added (EVA), and market value added (MVA)apply to nonprofits.

 

Q7. One argument in the debate surround

 

  1. One argument in the debate surrounding globalization is about the inequality between nations. Discuss the major points of the inequality between nations argument and describe how falling barriers to trade and investment might help reduce the inequality between nations. In three paragraphs

 

  1. Globalization’s impact on jobs and wages is an important topic for debate. Discuss the major points for globalization in the jobs and wages debate, and describe how the actions of large multinational corporations affect the issues in the jobs and wages debate. In three paragraphs

 

  1. Identify the World Trade Organization’s (WTO) three main goals and explain how the WTO differs from the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).

 

  1. Summarize each benefit a company might obtain from the globalization of markets.

 

  1. Explain globalization of production and its benefits. 3 benefits

 

 

 

 

One argument in the debate surrounding globalization is about the inequality between nations. Discuss the major points of the inequality between nations argument and describe how falling barriers to trade and investment might help reduce the inequality between nations.

 

Q8. Stoichiometry Answer

8.39 grams of Zinc (MW=65.39 g/mole) and 12.2 grams of AgNO3 (169.87g/mol) are placed in a flask and react to form zinc (II) nitrate. how many grams of zinc nitrate will form?

 

Q9. The appraisal process is one step involved in i

 

The appraisal process is one step involved in identifying potential improvements on individual performances. What is the most difficult part in determining the dimensions to be appraised? What is most helpful on a job analysis for designing an appraisal tool?

The appraisal process is one step involved in identifying potential improvements on individual performances. What is the most difficult part in determining the dimensions to be appraised? What is most helpful on a job analysis for designing an appraisal tool?

 

Q10. Assess the value of branding in health

 

Module 3 – Case

Branding & Online Marketing

Case Assignment

Your assignment is to write a 4- to 5-page scholarly position essay in which you assess the value of branding in health care. Specifically, under what circumstances do you feel that it is beneficial for health care organizations to use branding?

  1. Can the use of branding have unexpected negative consequences? Explain in detail.

 

 

COMMUNICATIONS.

Q1. ASSIGNMENT 8 EN360 Technical Communication

 

ASSIGNMENT 8

EN360 Technical Communication

ASSIGNMENT 8

EN360 Technical Communication

Directions:  Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.

 

Part A: Email/Text Problems

 

What are some of the problems that you have experienced when writing or receiving poorly, perhaps hastily, written emails/texts? Describe at least five (5) types of issues.

 

Part B: Writing a Process Description

 

Select a specialized process that you understand well and that has several distinct steps. Using the process description discussed in Chapter 19 of your textbook as a model, write a one page description of this process.

 

Part C: Difficult to Follow Instructions

 

Find a short set of instructions or some other technical document from work or the Internet that is hard to follow. Replicate or download those instructions at the top of a one-page analysis. Assume that you are the Associate Director of Communications for the company that produced this document and that you are doing a final review before the document is released. Using the “Checklist for Instructions and Procedures”on the following page (also found in Chapter 20 of your textbook), identify what, specifically, makes the document difficult to use, providing a specific reference for each problem area.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q2. technical commumications

ASSIGNMENT 8

EN360 Technical Communication

Directions:  Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.

 

Part A: Email/Text Problems

 

What are some of the problems that you have experienced when writing or receiving poorly, perhaps hastily, written emails/texts? Describe at least five (5) types of issues.

Part B: Writing a Process Description

 

Select a specialized process that you understand well and that has several distinct steps. Using the process description discussed in Chapter 19 of your textbook as a model, write a one page description of this process.

 

Part C: Difficult to Follow Instructions

 

Find a short set of instructions or some other technical document from work or the Internet that is hard to follow. Replicate or download those instructions at the top of a one-page analysis. Assume that you are the Associate Director of Communications for the company that produced this document and that you are doing a final review before the document is released. Using the “Checklist for Instructions and Procedures” on the following page (also found in Chapter 20 of your textbook), identify what, specifically, makes the document difficult to use, providing a specific reference for each problem area.

 

 

 

Part D: Ted Talk Lecture Evaluation

 

Watch a 10-20 minute TED Talks lecture online (www.ted.com). There are 27 evaluation criteria on the “Checklist for Oral Presentations” below (also found in Chapter 24 of your textbook). Select 10 among them that you believe are most salient for this speaker. Identify strong areas and areas that could have been better. Provide an example for each. (These are skilled speakers, so you’ll probably be highlighting more strengths than weaknesses.)

 

Grading Rubric

 

Please refer to the rubric below for the grading criteria for this assignment.

 

 

 

 

This is the end of Assignment 8.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q3. EN 360 technical communications 

 

 

ASSIGNMENT 8

EN360 Technical Communication

Directions:  Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.

Part A: Email/Text Problems

 

What are some of the problems that you have experienced when writing or receiving poorly, perhaps hastily, written emails/texts? Describe at least five (5) types of issues.

Part B: Writing a Process Description

Select a specialized process that you understand well and that has several distinct steps. Using the process description discussed in Chapter 19 of your textbook as a model, write a one page description of this process.

Part C: Difficult to Follow Instructions

Find a short set of instructions or some other technical document from work or the Internet that is hard to follow. Replicate or download those instructions at the top of a one-page analysis. Assume that you are the Associate Director of Communications for the company that produced this document and that you are doing a final review before the document is released. Using the “Checklist for Instructions and Procedures” on the following page (also found in Chapter 20 of your textbook), identify what, specifically, makes the document difficult to use, providing a specific reference for each problem area.

 

Q4    COMS 101 Reading Analysis 3: Liberty University (Latest) (Already Graded A)

 

Question 1

40 out of 40 points

Match the term with the description to which it correctly links.

o

Question

Selected Match

According to one early researcher, we can recall about what percent of a speech immediately after a speech.

According to one early researcher, we recall about what percent of a speech after several days.

The first of Lyman Steil’s progressive stages of listening.

The fourth of Lyman Steil’s progressive stages of listening.

The number of decibels created by the normal speaking voice.

The phase of listening in which you attach meaning to words.

The phase of listening in which you assess the worth of the speaker’s ideas and determine their importance.

Changing an attitude or behavior to eliminate an inconsistency.

Listeners have the ability to process about this many words per minute.

Most people use about this many words per minute when talking.

  • Question 2

10 out of 10 points

Match the term to the description to which it correctly links.

o

Question

Selected Match

The background noise we encounter in communication situations.

The attitudes, emotions, beliefs, assumptions, and biases that, as noise, condition our responses in communication situations.

For most serious special-occasion speeches, you should use this style of language?

Speeches that honor and highlight events, institutions, and individuals.

A speech in which demonstrates interest in and enthusiasm about his or her speech.

 

Q5. COMS 101 Reading Analysis 2: Liberty University (Latest) (Already Graded A

 

Question 1

30 out of 30 points

Match the term with the description to which it correctly links.

o

Question

Selected Match

Goals that center around specific tasks to be performed.

Goals that relate to the individual’s personal needs and ambitions.

As groups grow in number, the need for this increases.

In this small group format, group members have an informal interchange on the issues in front of an audience.

In this structured small group format, speakers who have expertise in the particular areas give prepared speeches on specified topics.

In this audience-centered small group format, group members respond to audience questions but do not interact with each other.

Making sure group members understand and agree on the problem is part of the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

The ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Proces is to analyze the problem.

Determining criteria for an acceptable solution is the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

Generating possible solutions is the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

Choosing the best solution to the problem is the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

Putting the best solution into effect is the ___ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

Evaluating your group’s success or the lack thereof is the ___ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

He stated that the ideal group size is 5-7 members.

He devised a theory of reflective thinking.

  • Question 2

20 out of 20 points

Match the term to the description to which it correctly links.

o

Question

Selected Match

In the Johari Window, information known to self and to others.

In the Johari Window, information known to others but not to self.

In the Johari Window, information known to self but not to others.

In the Johari Window, information known neither to self nor to others.

The relational dialectic that concerns our need to relate to others yet independent.

The relational dialectic that concerns our needs to share information yet be private.

The relational dialectic that concerns our needs for excitement and uncertain yet stable.

The lose/lose approach to conflict management that is characterized by withdrawal.

The win/lose approach to conflict management in which parties strive to be on the top.

The win/win approach to conflict management in which each person leaves the conflict satisfied with the outcome.

 

Q6. COMS 101 Reading Analysis 1: Liberty University (Latest) (Already Graded A)

 

COMS 101 Reading Analysis 1: Liberty University (Latest)

Liberty University COMS 101 Reading Analysis 1

  • Question 1

10 out of 10 points

Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.

o

Question

Selected Match

The use of volume, pitch, tone, accent, speaking pace, and silence to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

The use of gestures, facial expressions and eye contact to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

The use of space to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

The sender’s use of touch to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

The sender’s use of time or timing to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

The sender’s use of material objects to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

Social interaction among two or more people, usually in a face-to-face environment, but possibly also in real-time virtual environments.

Interaction among three or more people who come together for a common purpose.

When a speaker formally addresses a group of typically 10 or more individuals in a face-to-face environment where interactivity is possible but generally not practiced.

When people use a media technology to distribute information to a large group of physically detached people.

  • Question 2

10 out of 10 points

Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.

o

Question

Selected Match

A figurative form identifies one thing in a way that symbolically stands for another thing, such as when Martin Luther, in his great hymn, describes God as a mighty fortress

A figurative form explicitly compares two otherwise dissimilar things, usually via the modifiers like or as, such as when the poet Robert Burns wrote, “My love is like a red, red rose.”

A figurative form that alludes to something by either highlighting only one aspect of it or something broader that includes it, such as when journalists use the term Washington as a reference to America’s federal government.

The figurative use of a mild term in place of a harsh term to relay the same basic idea in a more tasteful form, such as when we say that someone “passed into God’s presence” rather than that this someone died.

The figurative use of a harsh term instead of a mild term for an intended effect, such as when one calls a lawyer an “ambulance chaser.”

The figurative ascription of human qualities to something that is not human, such as the Old Testament prophet Isaiah, in his book’s 55th chapter, anticipates the day when the trees of the field will clap their hands.

A statement that appears to be self-refuting but that is, in fact, true or possibly true, such as the statement, “The more things change, the more they stay the same.”

A combination of words that means something different than the words’ literal meaning, such as “You will do well if you play your cards right.”

Words that are used indirectly to signify a secondary meaning that is not patently obvious when the words are taken at face value.

Words that are used forthrightly to signify the person, place, thing, idea, action, or state of being that the words or combination of words evidently symbolize.

  • Question 3

Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.

o

Question

Selected Match

A composite of your beliefs about human origin (where we came from), human nature (what makes us human), human purpose (why we are here), and human destiny (where we are going).

Someone who is aware of and content to live with an inconsistency between the belief system he or she professes and the one he or she practices

Someone who does not know that such an inconsistency exists because he or she chooses to disbelieve in its existence, even though this person has reason for believing that it does exist.

Someone who does not know that such an inconsistency exists because he or she has no reason to know it exists.

A person’s history of interactions with people whose input helps to shape the way he or she sees and acts toward the world.

A truth standard which holds that a belief, feeling, or behavior is acceptable if it promotes the greatest good not for the individual, but for humanity as a whole.

A truth standard which holds that a belief, feeling, or behavior is acceptable if it simply “works” for the person who holds it, regardless of whether it logically consists with anyone else’s experiences and standards.

Systems of belief that people develop on their own, primarily in response to what human standards have taught them to deem believable or acceptable.

Recognizes that God, the timeless, changeless source and sustainer of the universe and the source of all knowledge, discloses otherwise indiscernible foundational truths through Scripture, and that these otherwise hidden disclosures rightly frame and give direction to human questions to make sense of anything, including communication.

A truth standard which holds that a belief, feeling, or behavior is unacceptable if it is illogical or if it is at odds with what common human observations tell us is true.

  • Question 4

10 out of 10 points

Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.

o

Question

Selected Match

Sees the universe as a self-created, self-sustaining machine, consisting of material processes and particles and nothing more than these, that invariably follow the course that physics has blindly programmed it to follow.

Holds that although we come to see the world as we do by the people who influence us through socialization, this neither has to be nor should be so.

Social constructionists who aim to show how social influencers can impact what people become and how privileged groups use this to promote themselves at others’ expense.

The attempt to make sense of human communicative behavior and specific human communications in the light of divine revelation.

Verbal and/or nonverbal behavior manifest God’s love to others in a way that promotes what God values in the world.

 

Q 7. COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4 (Already Graded A)


COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4

 

Question 1

 

 

An organizational pattern that focuses on relationships in time is referred to as:

Question 2

 

 

____________ function as a reminder of what you plan to say and the order in which you plan to say it and are used during the presentation.

Question 3

 

 

Organization refers to the placement of lines of reasoning and supporting materials in a pattern that helps to achieve your specific purpose.

Question 4

 

 

All of the sub-points in a speech do not have to be logical extensions from preceding points.

Question 5

 

 

Which verbal connection follows a main point and acts to remind the audience of what a speaker has just expressed?

Question 6

 

 

“To explain to the class how participating in an athletic sport can bring psychological as well as physical benefits” is an example of a(n):

Question 7

 

 

If you were presenting a speech about traveling to Europe and deciding to start with places in Northern Europe, then moved to Eastern Europe, Southern Europe, and Western Europe, this speech would have what type of organizational pattern?

Question 8

 

 

A speech discussing the relationship of industrial pollution to higher cancer rates in the general population would be most effective in what order?

Question 9

 

 

Mood is the emotional disposition of the speaker as the speech is being delivered whereas tone refers to the overall feeling you hope to create in your audience.

Question 10

 

 

Which of the following WAS NOT listed as one of the three things you need to do when you “focus attention on topic and speaker”?

Question 11

 

 

One of the guidelines for introductions is to prepare the introduction after preparing the body of the speech.

Question 12

 

 

Quotations can be interwoven into the fabric of the speech without telling your listeners that you are speaking the words of another, but it’s important that you use the quote exactly and attribute it to the writer.

Question 13

 

 

Physically involving your audience in your introduction is not an appropriate introductory technique.

Question 14

 

 

According to Professor John Baird, “Summaries may be effective when presented at the conclusion of a speech (because) they provide the audience with a general structure under which to subsume the more specific points of the speech.”

Question 15

 

 

“This morning I will discuss the scientific, therapeutic, physiological facts and myths about the effects and the effectiveness of alternative medicine” is an example of which function of a speech introduction?

Question 16

 

 

Telling the audience what you’re planning to discuss during your speech is called:

 

Question 17

 

 

The characteristic of spoken language that refers to how ideas are arranged in a sentence is called:

Question 18

 

 

Imagery involves creating a vivid description through the use of one or more of our five senses.

Question 19

 

 

Which of the following phrases is NOT considered a signal?

Question 20

 

 

Often the best humor for speeches comes from your own experiences.

Question 21

 

 

Jesse Jackson’s line, “We cannot be what we ought to be if we push dope in our veins, rather than hope in our brains,” is an example of antithesis.

Question 22

 

 

The arrangement of a series of words, phrases or sentences in a similar form is referred to as:

Question 23

 

 

Your audience is more likely to agree on the connotative definition of a word than it’s denotative definition.

Question 24

 

 

Putting too much information on note cards can result in:

Question 25

 

 

Which of the following is a guideline for EMPHASIS?

Question 26

 

 

Which of the following IS NOT true regarding rate of speech?

Question 27

 

 

Which of the following is a guideline for physical movement?

 

 

Question 28

 

 

According to your text, no other aspect of nonverbal communication is more important than:

Question 29

 

 

Which of the following is an aspect of physical delivery?

Question 30

 

 

What should a speaker avoid doing when she or he wishes to engage in effective eye contact during a speech?

 

Q8. COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4 (Already Graded A)

 

COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4

 

  • Question 1

 

The ____________ outline is also known as the full-content outline.

  • Question 2

 

If you were presenting a speech about traveling to Europe and deciding to start with places in Northern Europe, then moved to Eastern Europe, Southern Europe, and Western Europe, this speech would have what type of organizational pattern?

  • Question 3

 

The first step in organizing your speech is:

  • Question 4

 

Which verbal connection follows a main point and acts to remind the audience of what a speaker has just expressed?

  • Question 5

 

If I’m giving a speech about participating in Living History, I may talk about choosing a character, researching the person, developing the speech, and presenting to the various classrooms.  The organization of this speech would be considered:

  • Question 6

 

Outlining is regarded by our authors as:

  • Question 7

 

When presenting a speech on the evaluation of jazz as a musical art form in America, Betsy first spoke about Dixieland jazz, the period of swing followed by be-bop. She concluded her remarks with comments on progressive and fusion sounds. Betsy used which organizational pattern in her speech?

  • Question 8

 

Organization refers to the placement of lines of reasoning and supporting materials in a pattern that helps to achieve your specific purpose.

  • Question 9

 

According to your authors, the first few minutes are critical to the success of the entire speech.

  • Question 10

 

An effective speaker will quickly establish a reason for audience members to listen.  This part of the introduction is referred to as:

  • Question 11

 

According to Professor John Baird, “Summaries may be effective when presented at the conclusion of a speech (because) they provide the audience with a general structure under which to subsume the more specific points of the speech.”

  • Question 12

 

One of the guidelines for introductions is to prepare the introduction after preparing the body of the speech.

  • Question 13

 

Never use your conclusion to connect your speech topic to a broader context or societal issue.

  • Question 14

 

According to your authors, which of the following is not considered a technique to use in the introduction of a speech?

  • Question 15

 

Which of the following WAS NOT listed as one of the ten introduction techniques?

  • Question 16

 

Telling the audience what you’re planning to discuss during your speech is called:

  • Question 17

 

The arrangement of a series of words, phrases or sentences in a similar form is referred to as:

  • Question 18

 

Using signals when writing is just as important as using signals in a speech.

  • Question 19

 

Your audience is more likely to agree on the connotative definition of a word than it’s denotative definition.

  • Question 20

 

Parallel structure refers to the arrangement of a series of words, phrases or sentences in a similar form.

  • Question 21

 

Jargon can be used effectively if you are sure the members of your audience understand your references.

  • Question 22

 

If I’m talking about my cat, and instead of saying, “I have a cat,” I say, “I have a white, long-haired, 12-year-old cat that weighs 20 pounds,” I am following what guideline regarding language usage?

  • Question 23

 

Which of the following phrases is NOT considered a signal?

  • Question 24

 

A(n) ______________ speech involves the least amount of preparation.

  • Question 25

 

The most appropriate mode of delivery for students in a public speaking class is memorization.

  • Question 26

 

According to your text, no other aspect of nonverbal communication is more important than:

  • Question 27

 

Which of the following is a characteristic of a manuscript speech?

  • Question 28

 

All of the following are relevant aspects of speech preparation.  However, the key to successful manuscript speaking is ___________.

  • Question 29

 

One of the performance guidelines for memorizing speeches is to memorize small sections of your speech at a time.

  • Question 30

 

Which of the following is TRUE about gestures?.

 

Q9. COMS 101 quiz 2: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 2 (Already Graded A)

 

COMS 101 quiz 2: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 2

  • Question 1 

 

Which is not included in the body of the speech?

  • Question 2 

 

Plagiarism involves using another’s work, words, or ideas without adequate acknowledgement.

  • Question 3 

 

A _________________ expresses your speech’s main point in one complete sentence.

  • Question 4 

 

Which of the following strategies will help to reduce speech tension most effectively?

  • Question 5 

 

The most effective way to organize your speech is to divide your message into four parts: opening remarks, thesis, body, and conclusion.

  • Question 6 

 

Jessie referred to an study, reported on ScienceDaily, in which communication professors Amy Nathanson and Eric Rasmussen found that early TV exposure harms parent-child communication. Jessie offered a quote from Nathanson and Rasmussen state this point. This is an example of which kind of support?

  • Question 7 

 

Which of the following is a literal analogy?

  • Question 8 

 

The specific purpose of your speech is ____________.

  • Question 9 

 

Which of the following is an example of a specific purpose?

  • Question 10 

 

____________ involves using other people’s works, words or ideas without adequate acknowledgement.

  • Question 11 

 

Burt, attending a Midwestern university, delivered his first speech in his public speaking class on the growing numbers of automobile accidents in Italy. The problem with his speech, however, essentially was:

  • Question 12 

 

“Ornate ambiguity” is the term used for a speaker who plans to be vague, sketchy, and considerably abstract.

  • Question 13 

 

Which of the following IS NOT one of the types of informative speaking?

  • Question 14 

 

“Show trends” is one of the suggestions provided when discussing which goal of informative speaking?

  • Question 15 

 

This type of speech deals with abstract subjects such as ideas, theories, and principles.

  • Question 16 

 

The notion of avoiding information overload refers to which goal of informative speaking?

  • Question 17 

 

Saying “first, “second,” “third,” as you cover your three main points is an example of:

  • Question 18 

 

A speech that paints a picture of an event, person, concept, and so on.

  • Question 19 

 

Which of the following is the definition of a speech of description?

  • Question 20 

 

Guidelines for the informative speaking goal of ____________ include questioning the source of the information, considering the timeliness of the information.

  • Question 21 

 

___________________ is the process of preparing and delivering messages through verbal and nonverbal symbols to individuals or groups in order to alter, strengthen, or maintain attitudes, beliefs, values, or behaviors.

  • Question 22 

 

The two overall persuasive goals are:

  • Question 23 

 

“Consider now how you can enjoy retirement lounging in the sunshine of a warm climate, secure financially, and with both a mind and a soul for pleasure and comfort from making good investments during your working years.” This statement is found in which step in the motivated sequence?

  • Question 24 

 

In the satisfaction step of the motivated sequence, you describe the problem you will address in your speech.

  • Question 25 

 

In all cases of inductive reasoning, you can never be sure that your conclusions are absolutely accurate.

  • Question 26 

 

Of the three parts of an argument, the most difficult part to understand is often the:

  • Question 27 

 

The statement, “Malnutrition is a growing problem worldwide, especially in Asia,” is:

  • Question 28 

 

Staging refers to the sequence of interlinking claims that establish the content and force of your position.

  • Question 29 

 

“Dynamism” in credibility studies refers to logical precision.

  • Question 30 

 

The part of an argument that links the evidence with the statement (claim) is called the:

 

 

Q10. COMS 101 quiz 3: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 3 (Already Graded A)

 

COMS 101 quiz 3: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 3

 

Question 1 Which of the following is not true regarding occupation as a demographic characteristic? 

Question 2 Which of the following was not listed as one ofthe five variables related to “Who are my listeners?‘ 

Question 3 questions limit responses to several choices, yielding valuable information about such demographic factors a age, education, and income. 

Question 4 Which question is NOT a key question the text indicates is essential in audience analysis? 

Question 5 Audience expectations are rarely defined for you by the speaking invitation. 

Question 6 The first step in using a questionnaire is designing specific questions that are likelyto get you the information you need. 

Question 7 Attitudes are predispositions to act in a particular way that influence individuals responses to objects, events, and situations. 

Question 8 Which of the following is true about “avoid the age gap” when ma kingthe speaker—audience connection? 

Question 9 When trying to influence listeners, it is easier to change their attitudes than their beliefs or values. 

Question 10 A spea ker must be inclusive to avoid unfairly categorizing or stereotyping members of the audience. 

Question 11 If you were interested in discovering material from a comprehensive source on art and artists in your preparation for an informative speech. which of the fol lowing sou rces is most likely to provide you with the best information? 

Question 12 Identifi’ the best description of what research is: 

Question 13 An effective library search strategy moves you from the most specific information to be located in governmental sources to the very general information found in encyclopedias. 

Question 14 A credible speaker is perceived as a fan 

Question 15 lf you use a diagram, illustration, or graph from some source, you need to cite that source during your speech. 

Question 16 If you decide to interview, make sure you contact the person in advance, prepare questions in advance, develop questions in a logical order, and: 

Question 17 Message credibility is the extent to which a speaker is perceived as a competent spokesperson. 

Question 18 Which of the following IS NOT one of the four steps in developing a research strategy? 

Question 19 A website that is(has) is reliable and error-free. 

Question 20 Message credibility is defined as 

Question 21 A study bythe University of Minnesota and the 3M Corporation found that speakers who integrate visuals into their talks are 60 percent more likelyto persuade their audiences than speakers who rely solely on verbal images. 

Question 22 Which ofthe following WAS NOT identified as a function of presentational aids? 

Question 23 A key advantage in using presentational aids in a speech is: 

Question 24 Visual aids fall into four categories. Which of the following is not one of these categories? 

Question 25 While other aspects of your speech should be audience-centered. the presentational aid is designed specifically to help the speaker. 

Question 26 Research has shown that three days after an event, people retain ‘IU percent of what they heard from an oral presentation, but they retain 35 percent of a visual presentation. Question 27 If you see audiences looking at your presentational aid as though asking, “What does THAT mean?” then you have violated which of the criteria for a presentational aid? 

Question 28 When using two-dimensional presentational aids, you want to ask yourself what its purpose is and if it will make the speech better. This question relates to which criteria for using two—dimensional presentational aids? 

Question 29 A study bythe University of Minnesota and the 3M Corporation found that speakers who integrate visuals into their talks are more likelyto persuade their audiences than speakers who rely solely on verbal images. 

Question 30 Which ofthe following WAS NOT identified as one ofthe general criteria for using presentational aids?

 

 

 

 

 

 

ARCHITECTURE

Q1. Architecture, Building and Planning-

Get creative. Write about what inspires you. Add photo to support your idea.

 

Q2. Elizabeth is a Fundamentalist living

Elizabeth is a Fundamentalist living in the 1930s. Your task is to go back in time and interview Elizabeth. The focus of your interview is twofold. First, you are to discern from Elizabeth what it meant to be a Fundamentalist in the 1930’s, how that shaped her worldview, and how America understood fundamentalism at the time. Second, you are to learn from Elizabeth how American religion has changed over time. How is being a Fundamentalist in the 1930’s the same and/or different from being a Puritan in the Colonial period? What, if anything, has changed? Again, your goal is to help the modern reader to understand the religious milieu and fervor that would have shaped Elizabeth’s world.
The script of your interview should be written in full; showing both the questions you would ask and the responses Elizabeth might provide. You must ask a minimum of 5 questions. Insert citations in the interview script so the modern reader might go and learn more about life as a Puritan and/or the religious setting of the period. You should list those sources at the end of your interview document. Your interview should use a minimum of 3 sources and should be between 2-3 pages long.

 

Q3. ACC-281-Week-5-Final-Paper

Focus of the Final Paper

Write an 8 to 10 page Case Analysis of the following article (which can be found in the Ashford Online ProQuest database):

Souza, M. & McCarty, B. (2007). From bottom to top: How one provider retooled its collections [electronic version]. Healthcare Financial Management, 61(9), 67-73.

Include the following:

1) Complete summary of the case study that identifies the key problems and issues, provides background information, relevant facts, the solution employed, and the results achieved.

2) Identify and explain the accounting practices California Sutter Health used in defining and solving its collection problems. Develop an alternative solution based on your own research using 3 to 5 academic sources from journals, professional organizations, and websites.

3) State your informed opinion of the approach used by California Sutter Health, and provide support using concepts from your research and personal experience.

 

Q4. BCOM 230 Week 1 Individual Assign

Reviewthe chosen organization’s philosophy, mission, vision, and values statements. This statement identifies the organization’s espoused values. Research the University Library or the Internet to locate articles about the organization’s enacted values.

Writea 350- to 700-word paper based on your review and research. Complete the following in your paper:
Describe the culture of the organization.
Discuss the types of communication this organization uses for internal and external communication.
The extent to which communication in an organization is determined by the organization’s culture.
Do the espoused values of the selected organization align with its enacted values?

 

Q5. Go to YouTube, and search for an epis

Go to YouTube, and search for an episode of UnderCover Boss. Imagine you are the CEO of the company in the selected episode.Compare two (2) job positions from the episode and perform a job analysis of each position.

  1. Describe your method of collecting the information for the job analysis (i.e., one-on-one, interview, survey, etc.).
  2. Create a job description from the job analysis.
  3. Justify your belief that the job analysis and job description are in compliance with state and federal regulations.
  4. Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

 

Q6. Parkway Distributors is a wholesale fi

Smith Construction is building a warehouse for Raymond. The construction firm routinely leaves certain construction equipment at the building site overnight and on weekends. Late one night, Fred, age 10, began playing on some of Smith’s construction equipment. Fred accidentally released the brakes of a tractor on which he was playing, and the tractor rolled down a hill and smashed into the building under construction. Fred was severely injured in the accident. Fred’s parents sue both Smith Construction & Raymond for the injury.

  • What legal doctrine is applicable in this case? Explain.

Parkway Distributors is a wholesale firm that employs several outside salespersons. Emily, a salesperson employed by Parkway Distributors, was involved in an accident with another motorist while she was using her car to make regular sales calls for Parkway distributors. Emily and the motorist are seriously injured in the accident. The motorist sues both Emily and Parkway Distributors for the injury based on negligence.

  • Is there a legal basis for Parkway Distributors to be held legally liable for the injury to the motorist? Explain.

 

 

 

  1. Whirlwind Mowers manufactures and sells power lawn mowers to the public and distributes the products through its own dealers. Andrew is a homeowner who has purchased a power mower from an authorized dealer on the basis of the dealer’s recommendation that “the mower is the best one available to do the job.” Andrew was cutting his lawn when the mower blade flew off and seriously injured his leg.
  • Andrew sues Whirlwind Mowers and asks for damages based on negligence in producing the power mower. Is Whirlwind Mowers guilty of negligence? Explain.

 

Q7. HLT 362 Module 5 Correlation Regression and Chi Square Excel Worksheet

HLT 362 Module 5 Correlation Regression and Chi Square Excel Worksheet

SYSTOLIC AND DIASTOLIC BLOOD PRESSURE OF FEMALES

The following table represents systolic and diastolic blood pressure measurements of 40 females.

 

  1. A) Use the Excel Analysis ToolPak to find the linear correlation coefficient for the systolic and diastolic measurements.

 

  1. B) Use the Excel Analysis ToolPak to determine the linear regression equation that uses the systolic pressure to predict the diastolic pressure.

 

  1. C) What is the best predicted value for diastolic pressure given that a woman has a systolic level of 100?

 

 

 

Q8. HLT 310V A Spirituality Assessment

HLT 310V A Spiritualit

HLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality Assessment

 

 

 

Q9. Hlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 W

hlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T scorehlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T scorehlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T scorehlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T score

 

Q10. Who is an Entrepreneur Where do

Who is an Entrepreneur Where do Entrepreneurs find opportunities to seize upon Describe what some of these opportunities are?  And, describe the creative destruction process.Who is an Entrepreneur Where do Entrepreneurs find opportunities to seize upon Describe what some of these opportunities are?  And, describe the creative destruction process.Who is an Entrepreneur Where do Entrepreneurs find opportunities to seize upon Describe what some of these opportunities are?  And, describe the creative destruction process.

 

BIOLOGY.

Q1. NURS 545/BIOLOGY 4344: Patho Exam 2 Review: 100%

True/False

Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false. (T/F, ANSWERS AT THE END OF THE PAPER)

 

____    1.   Anaplasia is recognized by loss or organization and a marked increase in nuclear size.

 

____    2.   A hallmark of cancer cells is their immortality.

 

____    3.   For the function of tumor suppressor genes to be lost, only one chromosome (allele) of the gene must be inactivated.

 

____    4.   Most cancers must acquire mutation in six distinct areas: growth signals, antigrowth signals, evading apoptosis, replicating ability, angiogenesis, and invasion and metastasis.

 

____    5.   There is no current evidence that associates obesity with cancer formation.

 

____    6.   The term “neoplasm” can refer to a benign tumor.

 

____    7.   The brain does not require insulin for glucose uptake.

 

____    8.   Somatostatin produced by the hypothalamus inhibits the release of growth hormone and thyroid stimulating hormone.

 

____    9.   Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) directly affects melanocyte stimulation.

 

____  10.   Aldosterone secretion is stimulated by angiotensin I.

 

____  11.   Antidiuretic hormone has no direct effect on electrolyte levels.

 

____  12.   A person with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) usually craves cold drinks.

 

____  13.   Pituitary adenomas are malignant tumors.

 

____  14.   Abnormal immunologic mechanisms producing autoantibodies are responsible for both Graves’ disease and hypothyroidism.

 

____  15.   Thyroid carcinoma, although rare, is the most common endocrine malignancy.

 

____  16.   The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is damage to the glands during surgery.

 

____  17.   Individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus have a greater degree of pancreatic changes than individuals with type 1 diabetes.

 

____  18.   Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by increased levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

 

____  19.   Glucose levels are considerably lower in hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketosis syndrome (HHNKS) than in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).

 

____  20.   When the myocardium hypertrophies, the capillaries of the heart become more extensive and numerous.

 

____  21.   Veins are less compliant than arteries.

 

____  22.   Autoregulation ensures constant coronary blood flow despite normal shifts in perfusion pressure.

 

____  23.   Metabolic or hormonal agents produce changes in the heart and circulatory system faster than autonomic neural transmission.

 

____  24.   While both produce vasoconstriction, the effects of norepinephrine are quantitatively more vasoconstrictive than the effects of epinephrine.

 

____  25.   Decreasing low-density lipoproteins (LDL) can cause regression of atherosclerotic lesions and improve endothelial function.

 

____  26.   Once fatty streaks accumulate, they form foam cells that cause immunologic changes that damage the endothelium.

 

____  27.   Even though air is lighter than blood, it can form an embolism and cause the occlusion of a blood vessel.

 

____  28.   Raynaud disease is characterized by vasospasms of large peripheral arteries.

 

____  29.   Many people with diabetes mellitus type 2, who were treated with drugs that increased insulin sensitivity, experienced a decline in their blood pressure without taking antihypertensive drugs.

 

____  30.   Chronic venous insufficiency can progress to varicose veins and valvular incompetence.

 

____  31.   Although cholesterol can be easily obtained via dietary intake, most body cells are also capable of synthesizing cholesterol.

 

____  32.   In high output failure, the heart increases its output, but the body’s metabolic needs are still not met.

 

____  33.   When fluid collects gradually in a pericardial effusion, the pericardium stretches to accommodate large quantities of fluid without compressing the heart.

 

____  34.   Acute rheumatic fever can develop only as a sequel to pharyngeal infection by group A -streptococcus.

 

____  35.   An increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume in diastolic heart failure may lead to pulmonary edema.

 

____  36.   Many cases of mitral valve prolapse are completely asymptomatic.

 

____  37.   Chorea or St. Vitus dance is the most definitive sign of rheumatic fever.

 

____  38.   Atrial and brain natriuretic peptides are increased in congestive heart failure and may have some protective effect in decreasing preload.

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____  39.   Which are cancers arising from connective tissue tissues?

a.

Osteogenic sarcoma

b.

Basal cell carcinoma

c.

Multiple myeloma

d.

Adenocarcinoma

 

 

____  40.   Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?

a.

Blood vessels

b.

Epithelium cells

c.

Connective tissue

d.

Glandular tissue

 

 

____  41.   What are characteristics of cancer in situ?

a.

Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.

b.

Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.

c.

Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells.

d.

Cellular and tissues changes indicate dysplasia.

 

 

____  42.   Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of:

a.

dysplasia.

b.

hyperplasia.

c.

myoplasia.

d.

anaplasia.

 

 

____  43.   What are tumor cell markers?

a.

Hormones, enzymes, antigens, and antibodies produced by cancer cells

b.

Receptor sites on tumor cells that can be identified and marked

c.

Cytokines produced against cancer cells

d.

Identification marks used in administering radiation therapy

 

 

____  44.   How are tumor cell markers used?

a.

To provide a definitive diagnosis of cancer

b.

To treat certain types of cancer

c.

To predict where cancers will develop

d.

To screen individuals at high risk for cancer

 

 

____  45.   Intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in development of colon cancer. These findings support the notion that:

a.

cancers of the colon are more easily diagnosed in the benign form because they can be visualized during colonoscopy.

b.

an accumulation of mutations in specific genes is required for the development of cancer.

c.

tumor invasion and metastasis progress more slowly in the gastrointestinal tract.

d.

apoptosis is triggered by diverse stimuli including excessive growth.

 

 

____  46.   What is autocrine stimulation?

a.

The ability of cancer cells to stimulate angiogenesis to create their own blood supply

b.

The ability of cancer cells to stimulate secretions that turn off normal growth inhibitors

c.

The ability of cancer cells to secrete growth factors that stimulate their own growth

d.

The ability of cancer cells to divert nutrients away from normal tissue for their own use

 

 

____  47.   Many cancers create a mutation of ras. What is ras?

a.

A tumor suppressor gene

b.

A growth promoting gene

c.

An intracellular signaling protein that regulates cell growth

d.

A cell surface receptor that allows signaling to the nucleus about cell growth

 

 

____  48.   What are oncogenes?

a.

Genes that have undergone mutation that direct the synthesis of protein to accelerate the rate of tissue proliferation

b.

Genes that direct synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and provide necessary replacement of tissue

c.

Genes that encode proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to show or halt replacement of tissue

d.

Genes that have undergone mutation to direct malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph nodes for metastasis

 

 

____  49.   Burkitt lymphomas designate a chromosome that has a piece of chromosome 8 fused to a piece of chromosome 14. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?

a.

Point mutation

b.

Chromosome translocation

c.

Gene amplification

d.

Chromosome fusion

 

 

____  50.   In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?

a.

Point mutation

b.

Chromosome fusion

c.

Gene amplification

d.

Chromosome translocation

 

 

____  51.   What aberrant change causes the abnormal growth in retinoblastoma?

a.

Proto-oncogenes are changed to oncogenes.

b.

The tumor suppressor gene is turned off.

c.

Genetic amplification causes the growth.

d.

Chromosomes 9 and 21 are fused.

 

 

____  52.   Why are two “hits” required to inactivate tumor suppressor genes?

a.

Because each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent

b.

Because the first “hit” stops tissue growth and the second “hit” is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth

c.

Because they are larger than proto-oncogenes requiring two “hits” to effect carcinogenesis

d.

Because the first “hit” is insufficient to cause sufficient damage to cause a mutation

 

 

____  53.   By what process does the ras gene convert from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene?

a.

By designating a chromosome that has a piece of one chromosome fused to a piece of another chromosome

b.

By duplicating a small piece of a chromosome repeatedly making numerous copies

c.

By alternating one or more nucleotide base pairs

d.

By promoting proliferation of growth signals by impairing tumor suppressor genes

 

 

____  54.   What are characteristics of benign tumors?

a.

They invade local tissues.

b.

They spread through lymph.

c.

They cause systemic symptoms.

d.

They have a low mitotic index.

 

 

____  55.   Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?

a.

Liposarcoma, lipoma

b.

Lipoma, liposarcoma

c.

Adisarcoma, adipoma

d.

Adipoma, adisarcoma

 

 

____  56.   Most human cancers appear to arise via:

a.

autosomal recessive gene inheritance.

b.

spontaneous gene mutations.

c.

X-linked recessive gene inheritance.

d.

autosomal dominant gene inheritance.

 

 

____  57.   Smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except:

a.

lung.

b.

skin.

c.

bladder.

d.

kidney.

e.

pancreas.

 

 

____  58.   The major virus involved in cervical cancer is:

a.

herpes simplex virus type 6.

b.

herpes simplex virus type 2.

c.

human papillomavirus.

d.

human immunodeficiency virus.

 

 

____  59.   The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer?

a.

Ovarian

b.

Uterine

c.

Cervical

d.

Vaginal

 

 

____  60.   Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?

a.

Papovaviruses, adenoviruses, and herpesviruses

b.

Retroviruses, papovaviruses, and adenoviruses

c.

Adenoviruses, herpesviruses, and retroviruses

d.

Herpesviruses, retroviruses, and papovaviruses

 

 

____  61.   Which characteristic among women correlates with a high morbidity of cancer of the colon, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, breast, uterus, and kidney?

a.

Women over 45 years

b.

Women who never had children

c.

Women who had a high body mass index

d.

Woman who smoked for more than 10 years

 

 

____  62.   Which cancers are associated with chronic inflammation?

a.

Skin, lung, and pancreatic

b.

Colon, liver, and lung

c.

Bone, blood cells, and pancreatic

d.

Bladder, skin, and kidney

 

 

____  63.   How does chronic inflammation cause cancer?

a.

By vasodilation and increased permeability that alter cellular response to DNA damage

b.

By liberating lysosomal enzymes when cells are damaged, which initiates mutations

c.

By releasing compounds such as reactive oxygen species that promote mutations

d.

By increasing the abundance of leukotrienes that are associated with some cancers

 

 

____  64.   Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene?

a.

Proto-oncogenes

b.

Oncogenes

c.

Tumor suppressor genes

d.

Growth promoting genes

 

 

____  65.   Regulation of the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla is an example of _____ regulation.

a.

negative-feedback

b.

positive-feedback

c.

neural

d.

physiologic

 

 

____  66.   Hormones are effective communicators because they:

a.

are regularly synthesized in response to cellular and tissue activities.

b.

increase their secretion in response to rising hormone levels.

c.

are rapidly degraded once they enter the cell.

d.

decrease their secretion in response to rising plasma hormone levels.

 

 

____  67.   Which of the following is a protein hormone that is water soluble?

a.

Thyroxine (T4)

b.

Aldosterone

c.

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

d.

Insulin

 

 

____  68.   How are most protein hormones transported in the bloodstream?

a.

Bound to a lipid-soluble carrier

b.

Free in an unbound, water-soluble form

c.

Bound to a water-soluble binding protein

d.

Free because of their lipid-soluble chemistry

 

 

____  69.   Which second messenger is stimulated by epinephrine binding to a ß-adrenergic receptor?

a.

Calcium

b.

Inositol triphosphate (IP3)

c.

Diacylglycerol (DAG)

d.

Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)

 

 

____  70.   Which of the following hormones acts on its target cell via a second messenger?

a.

Angiotensin II

b.

Thyroxine

c.

Estrogen

d.

Testosterone

e.

Aldosterone

 

 

____  71.   Calcium is rigidly controlled within cells. It is highly regulated because it:

a.

is controlled by the calcium negative-feedback loop.

b.

is continuously synthesized.

c.

acts as a second messenger.

d.

carries lipid-soluble hormones in the bloodstream.

 

 

____  72.   Under what circumstances does antidiuretic hormone act to cause vasoconstriction?

a.

When urine output is less than 20 ml per hour

b.

When serum osmolality is increased

c.

When osmotic and oncotic pressures are increased

d.

When vasopressin is given pharmacologically

 

 

____  73.   What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor?

a.

Hypothalamus

b.

Anterior pituitary

c.

Mammary glands

d.

Posterior pituitary

 

 

____  74.   Where is oxytocin synthesized?

a.

Hypothalamus

b.

Paraventricular nuclei

c.

Anterior pituitary

d.

Posterior pituitary

 

 

____  75.   Norepinephrine stimulates the release of which hormone?

a.

Thyroxine

b.

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

c.

Growth hormone

d.

Insulin

 

 

____  76.   What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?

a.

It increases serum calcium.

b.

It decreases serum calcium.

c.

It decreases serum magnesium.

d.

It increases serum magnesium.

 

 

____  77.   Which electrolyte does insulin transport in the cell?

a.

Potassium

b.

Calcium

c.

Sodium

d.

Magnesium

 

 

____  78.   Which lab value would be expected for the patient with hypothyroidism?

a.

Increased triiodothyronine (T3)

b.

Increased thyroxine (T4)

c.

Increased thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

d.

Increased calcitonin

 

 

____  79.   Target cells for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located in the:

a.

tubules of nephrons.

b.

thyroid gland.

c.

glomeruli of nephrons.

d.

smooth and skeletal muscles.

 

 

____  80.   A surgical patient just arrived on the unit from the post-anesthesia care unit. This patient’s respirations are 4 per minute and shallow. As the nurse calls for assistance, the patient suddenly feels jittery and breathing quickens. Which of the following feedback loops is operating for the nurse in this situation?

a.

The central nervous system stimulates hypothalamus-releasing factor, which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to secrete thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and stimulates the release of thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3).

b.

The central nervous system directly stimulates the release of insulin, which reduces blood glucose levels.

c.

The central nervous system directly stimulates the adrenal medulla to secrete epinephrine and stimulates hypothalamus-releasing factor, which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to secrete adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH), stimulating the release of cortisol.

d.

The central nervous system stimulates the hypothalamus to synthesize oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone, which are secreted by the posterior pituitary, activating uterine contraction and renal absorption of water.

 

 

____  81.   What are actions of glucocorticoids?

a.

Protein catabolism and liver gluconeogenesis

b.

Fat storage and glucose use

c.

Decreased blood glucose and fat mobilization

d.

Fat, protein, and carbohydrate anabolism

 

 

____  82.   What are the effects of high levels of aldosterone?

a.

Hypokalemia and alkalosis

b.

Hyperkalemia and alkalosis

c.

Hyperkalemia and acidosis

d.

Hypokalemia and acidosis

 

 

____  83.   What effect does aldosterone have on fluid and electrolyte imbalances?

a.

It directly increases magnesium reabsorption.

b.

It directly increases calcium reabsorption.

c.

It directly increases sodium reabsorption.

d.

It directly increases water reabsorption.

 

 

____  84.   Which of the following is an expected change in an older patient?

a.

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) secretion below normal

b.

Triiodothyronine (T3) level below normal

c.

Cortisol level above normal

d.

Adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH) level above normal

 

 

____  85.   Cell surface receptors include all of the following except:

a.

G-protein–linked.

b.

ion channel.

c.

second messenger.

d.

tyrosine-kinase linked.

 

 

____  86.   What are the effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

a.

Solute retention and water retention

b.

Solute retention and water loss

c.

Solute dilution and water retention

d.

Solute dilution and water loss

 

 

____  87.   The nurse is evaluating a patient with oat cell adenocarcinoma of the lung for syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following laboratory values would the nurse expect to find if the patient had SIADH?

a.

Hypernatremia and urine hypo-osmolality

b.

Serum K5 and urine hyperosmolality

c.

Serum Na120 and serum hypo-osmolality

d.

Hypokalemia and serum hyperosmolality

 

 

____  88.   A patient with a closed head injury secondary to a motorcycle accident has a urine output of 6 to 8 L/day and electrolytes are within normal limits. The nurse draws a serum ADH level and conducts a water deprivation test. With no intake for 4 hours, there is no change in the patient’s polyuria. The serum ADH level is low. These are an indication of:

a.

neurogenic diabetes insipidus.

b.

syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH).

c.

psychogenic polydipsia.

d.

osmotically induced diuresis.

 

 

____  89.   Which is a cause of diabetes insipidus (DI)?

a.

Organic lesion of the anterior pituitary

b.

Organic lesion of the thalamus

c.

Organic lesion of the posterior pituitary

d.

Organic lesion of the renal tubules

 

 

____  90.   If the target cells for ADH do not have receptors, the result is _____ diabetes insipidus (DI).

a.

neurogenic

b.

nephrogenic

c.

psychogenic

d.

ischemic

 

 

____  91.   Which laboratory value is consistent with diabetes insipidus (DI)?

a.

Urine specific gravity is low.

b.

Serum sodium is low.

c.

Urine protein is low.

d.

Serum total protein is low.

 

 

____  92.   The type of diabetes insipidus that is most likely to be treatable with exogenous ADH is:

a.

neurogenic.

b.

psychogenic

c.

nephrogenic.

d.

ischemic.

 

 

____  93.   Hyperpituitarism is generally caused by:

a.

a pituitary adenoma.

b.

hypothalamic hyposecretion.

c.

autoimmune disorder of the pituitary.

d.

a neurohypophysial tumor.

 

 

____  94.   What is the term used to describe a patient who experiences cortisol deficiency from lack of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), thyroid deficiency from lack of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), and gonadal failure with loss of secondary sex characteristics from the absence of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)?

a.

Panhypopituitarism

b.

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) deficiency

c.

Hypopituitarism

d.

Anterior pituitary failure

 

 

____  95.   How does a primary adenoma cause thyroid and adrenal hypofunction?

a.

The tumor metastasizes to the thyroid and adrenal glands through the lymphatic system causing reduce secretion of necessary hormones.

b.

The tumor has a paradoxical effect on adjacent cells, which results in hyposecretion of other anterior pituitary hormones.

c.

The tumor invades the hypothalamus adjacent to it and causes a reduction in the amount of hormones produced.

d.

The tumor releases tumor markers that occupy the hormone receptor sites of other endocrine organs.

 

 

____  96.   Which disorder is caused by hypersecretion of the growth hormone in adults?

a.

Cushing syndrome

b.

Acromegaly

c.

Gigantism

d.

Myxedema

 

 

____  97.   What tumor causes amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism, and osteopenia?

a.

Posterior pituitary adenoma

b.

Thymoma

c.

Prolactinoma

d.

Growth hormone adenoma

 

 

____  98.   How does Graves’ disease develop?

a.

A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormones

b.

A chronic autoimmune process in which thyroid tissue is replaced by lymphocytes and fibrous tissue

c.

A development of thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins that causes overproduction of thyroid hormones

d.

An ingestion of goitrogens or foods that inhibits synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing a goiter

 

 

____  99.   What are signs of thyroid crisis from Graves’ disease?

a.

Weight gain to 155 lb with height of 5’8″

b.

Heart rate 90 beats/min and respiratory rate 16 breaths/min

c.

Hot and moist skin with protrusion of eyeballs

d.

Constipation and amenorrhea

 

 

____ 100.   What pathologic changes occur in Graves’ disease?

a.

High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins

b.

Stimulation by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)

c.

Stimulation by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

d.

Stimulation of thyroid-binding globulin

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q2 DDBA 8151: Organizational Leadership: Doctoral Theory and Practice

To prepare for this Assignment, review this week’s Learning Resources and select four leadership theories. Search the Walden Library for additional peer-reviewed, scholarly resources about your selected leadership theories. You should use both the articles in the Learning Resources and additional scholarly resources in your evaluation.

Submit an evaluation of at least four leadership theories in the form of a properly formatted, APA-compliant taxonomy table. For each of the theories you select, you should include the following:

  • The name of the theory
  • The year the theory was introduced
  • The theorist/author
  • Key components of the theory

For each theory presented, be sure to include a minimum of two references to peer-reviewed, scholarly resources, as well as appropriate in-text citations.

Note: Be sure to use the Leadership Theory Taxonomy Template to complete this Assignment. Also, refer to the Week 3 Assignment Rubric for specific grading elements and criteria.

The assignment will be submitted to SafeAssign.

 

Q3. Need help with DB post

 

Topic: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs

Psychoactive drugs alter brain function by acting at synapses in the brain, where they may mimic, enhance, or block the effects of natural signaling molecules (neurotransmitters). The neurotransmitter dopamine plays a particularly important role in creating the dependency aspect of both drug and behavioral addictions. Natural behaviors which enhance survival and/or reproduction, such as eating or engaging in sex, result in a surge of dopamine. Normally, this response helps individuals learn to repeat beneficial behaviors. However, when an addict uses a drug or behavior to cause dopamine release, they are using this learning pathway to teach themselves that this behavior is essential to their well-being. These circuits become a lifelong plague which makes the addict more prone to relapse.

 

Brain imaging studies from drug-addicted individuals show physical changes in areas of the brain that are critical to judgment, decision-making, learning and memory, and behavior control. Psychoactive drugs affect signal transmission in the brain by encouraging or inhibiting release of a neurotransmitter, blocking or mimicking its action, or affecting its reuptake. The effect of a particular neurotransmitter on a postsynaptic cell depends on the type of neurotransmitter and the type of receptor it binds to. The neurotransmitter ACh affects alertness and plays a role in memory. Norepinephrine and epinephrine (adrenaline) prepare the body to respond to stress or excitement. Dopamine influences reward-based learning and acts in fine motor control. Serotonin influences mood and memory. Glutamate is the main excitatory signal in the central nervous system. Endorphins are the body’s natural pain relievers.

 

Important Concepts from Chapter 13:

  • Section 13.3: How Neurons Communicate The region where an axon terminal sends chemical signals to a neuron, a muscle fiber, or a gland cell is a chemical synapse. Axon terminals have synaptic vesicles filled with neurotransmitter, a signaling molecule that relays messages between cells at a synapse. The plasma membrane of a postsynaptic cell has receptor proteins that reversibly bind neurotransmitter. How a receiving cell responds depends on the type and amount of the neurotransmitter, the kinds of receptors, and other factors. Certain drugs can block reuptake of neurotransmitters.
  • Section 13.13: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs Drugs such as morphine and heroin mimic a neurotransmitter’s effect on a postsynaptic cell; they bind to receptors for endorphins (natural pain relievers), and elicit pain relief and feelings of well-being. Caffeine binds and inactivates receptors for adenosine, a neurotransmitter that causes drowsiness. Alcohol encourages drowsiness by releasing adenosine. Other drugs interfere with reuptake of neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft. For example, cocaine slows reuptake of several neurotransmitters, including dopamine.

 

Assignment:

  1. Visit the NIH National Institute on Drug Abuse and read the article Drugs, Brains and Behavior: The Science of Drug Addiction.
  2. Go to Indiana University and read an article on Addictive Behaviors.

 

Prompt : – Using the sources provided, briefly describe one factor that can increase the risk of drug addiction, and one protective factor that can reduce the risk of drug addiction. – Why do you think Americans use so many legal drugs (e.g., alcohol, tobacco, and OTC drugs)?

 

 

Topic: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs

Psychoactive drugs alter brain function by acting at synapses in the brain, where they may mimic, enhance, or block the effects of natural signaling molecules (neurotransmitters). The neurotransmitter dopamine plays a particularly important role in creating the dependency aspect of both drug and behavioral addictions. Natural behaviors which enhance survival and/or reproduction, such as eating or engaging in sex, result in a surge of dopamine. Normally, this response helps individuals learn to repeat beneficial behaviors. However, when an addict uses a drug or behavior to cause dopamine release, they are using this learning pathway to teach themselves that this behavior is essential to their well-being. These circuits become a lifelong plague which makes the addict more prone to relapse.

Brain imaging studies from drug-addicted individuals show physical changes in areas of the brain that are critical to judgment, decision-making, learning and memory, and behavior control. Psychoactive drugs affect signal transmission in the brain by encouraging or inhibiting release of a neurotransmitter, blocking or mimicking its action, or affecting its reuptake. The effect of a particular neurotransmitter on a postsynaptic cell depends on the type of neurotransmitter and the type of receptor it binds to. The neurotransmitter ACh affects alertness and plays a role in memory. Norepinephrine and epinephrine (adrenaline) prepare the body to respond to stress or excitement. Dopamine influences reward-based learning and acts in fine motor control. Serotonin influences mood and memory. Glutamate is the main excitatory signal in the central nervous system. Endorphins are the body’s natural pain relievers.

Important Concepts from Chapter 13:

  • Section 13.3: How Neurons Communicate The region where an axon terminal sends chemical signals to a neuron, a muscle fiber, or a gland cell is a chemical synapse. Axon terminals have synaptic vesicles filled with neurotransmitter, a signaling molecule that relays messages between cells at a synapse. The plasma membrane of apostsynaptic cell has receptor proteins that reversibly bind neurotransmitter. How a receiving cell responds depends on the type and amount of the neurotransmitter, the kinds of receptors, and other factors. Certain drugs can block reuptake of neurotransmitters.
  • Section 13.13: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs Drugs such as morphine and heroin mimic a neurotransmitter’s effect on apostsynaptic cell; they bind to receptors for endorphins (natural pain relievers), and elicit pain relief and feelings of well-being. Caffeine binds and inactivates receptors for adenosine, a neurotransmitter that causes drowsiness. Alcohol encourages drowsiness by releasing adenosine. Other drugs interfere with reuptake of neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft. For example, cocaine slows reuptake of several neurotransmitters, including dopamine.

Assignment:

  1. Visit the NIH National Institute on Drug Abuse and read the article Drugs, Brains and Behavior: The Science of Drug Addiction.
  2. Go to Indiana University and read an article on Addictive Behaviors.

Prompt : – Using the sources provided, briefly describe one factor that can increase the risk of drug addiction, and one protective factor that can reduce the risk of drug addiction. – Why do you think Americans use so many legal drugs (e.g., alcohol, tobacco, and OTC drugs)?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q4. PAPER ON DISEASE PROCESS MUST BE PLAGIARISM FREE

PAPER CAN BE ON BREAST CANCER, LYME DIESEASE OR OVERIAN CANCER

 

This paper must be 900–1,200 words. Do not exceed this word limit. The title page and reference page do not count toward this word total.

You must use current APA formatting. Papers must be double-spaced with 1-inch margins. Font is to be 12-point Times New Roman. Include a title page with your name, instructor’s name, course number and title (i.e., BIOL101, Human Biology), date, and paper title. There is no need to include an abstract in your paper. APA Style Central http://ezproxy.liberty.edu/login?url=http://APAStyleCENTRAL.apa.org

 

Paper on Disease Process Instructions

The focus of this course has been the structure and function of the human body. A disease process results when there is a disorder of this structure or function.This paper will be a 900-1,200-word research-based paper in current APA format focusing on a disease process of your choice. The paper must include at least 2 scholarly references in addition to the course textbooks and materials. The disease chosen must involve at least three organ systems and the effect of the disease on these systems must be detailed in the paper. If you choose a broad disease process like cancer, you will need to specify the type, such as pancreatic cancer. The body is interrelated and the effects of a given disease will often present with common symptoms. The effect of the disease on the body’s efforts to maintain homeostasis should be addressed, as should all other given parameters.

 

Content and Outline

Use the following headings when writing your paper. Each point on the outline below must be a separate section (with the section heading in APA format) within your paper.

 

  1. Introduction
  • Indicate the disease to be discussed
  • Indicate the organ systems affected
  • Provide a brief overview of disease

 

  1. Description
  • Describe disease process
  • Explain disease effect on organ systems
  • Discuss effect on homeostasis and the body as a whole

III.                Diagnosis

  • Outline how the disease is diagnosed
  • Include common symptoms
  • Discuss the main causes of the disease

 

  1. Treatment
  • Discuss treatment and management of the disease
  • Outline steps for prevention of diseasae (if possible)
  1. Conclusion
  • Provide a summary statement for your paper.
  • Do not introduce new material in your conclusion.

 

Length

This paper must be 900–1,200 words. Do not exceed this word limit. The title page and reference page do not count toward this word total.

Format

You must use current APA formatting. Papers must be double-spaced with 1-inch margins. Font is to be 12-point Times New Roman. Include a title page with your name, instructor’s name, course number and title (i.e., BIOL101, Human Biology), date, and paper title. There is no need to include an abstract in your paper. APA Style Central http://ezproxy.liberty.edu/login?url=http://APAStyleCENTRAL.apa.org

 

Sources

Your papaer must include at least 2 scholarly sources in addition the course textbooks and materials.

Acceptable sources include journal articles, manuscripts, scholarly textbooks, and/or internet sites from .edu or .gov sources. Avoid internet sites from .com, .net, .org, etc. as the information contained therein is not often peer reviewed.

 

Citation

Be sure to cite your sources in the body of your paper using current APA formatting. Examples of current APA formatting rules can be found here. Also, a presentation about current APA formatting is provided in Module/Week 6.

 

Plagiarism

Plagiarism is a serious academic infringement. Avoid it at all costs. To learn more about plagiarism and how to avoid it, visit this website. Note that you are fully responsible for any plagiarism detected by the instructor of this course. Cases of plagiarism will be dealt with according to current policies established by Liberty University Online.

 

Submission

Submit your work to Blackboard as a Microsoft Word document. Do not paste your paper in the submission box in Blackboard, only upload the Word document.

 

Submit your Disease Essay by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.

 

 

 

Q5. Liberty University CJUS330 Test 3

Liberty University CJUS330 Test 3

Liberty University CJUS330 Test 3

 

 

Q6. BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (3 Latest versions): Liberty University (Already Graded A)

BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University

 

  • Question 1

 

Baleen whales use _______ to prey on herring fish.

  • Question 2

 

The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in

  • Question 3

 

The microbe, Paramecium aurelium belongs to the large “Group” Alveolata because it

  • Question 4

 

Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as

  • Question 5

 

The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the

  • Question 6

 

Interspecific competition is defined as

  • Question 7

 

Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by

  • Question 8

 

The large eukaryote, Amoeba proteus belongs to the large “Group” Amoebozoa because

  • Question 9

 

Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 10

 

The phytoplankton of a lake would be found in highest numbers in the ________ zone.

  • Question 11

 

A good example of commensalism would be the relationship between

  • Question 12

 

Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 13

 

An area providing cool, moist conditions with rocks and decaying logs at an appropriate elevation and rainfall level constitutes a good ________ for the Peaks of Otter salamander.

  • Question 14

 

The term “systematics” refers to

  • Question 15

 

Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 16

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

  • Question 17

 

A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because

  • Question 18

 

The microbe, Euglena gracilis belongs to the large “Group” Discicristates because it

  • Question 19

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

  • Question 20

 

A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group

  • Question 21

 

In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by

  • Question 22

 

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .

  • Question 23

 

The large eukaryote, Zonotrichialeucophrys belongs to the large “Group” Opisthokonta because it

  • Question 24

 

During the springtime, a light wind blowing across a lake will foster the process of lake overturn. This timely event will bring together ___________ with _____________.

  • Question 25

 

The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it

 

 

 

 

BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University

 

  • Question 1 

 

Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by

  • Question 2 

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

  • Question 3 

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

  • Question 4 

 

Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as

  • Question 5 

 

Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 6 

 

The convention used for representing scientific names for newly discovered species is that ___________ root words are used in order to name the organism’s ___________.

  • Question 7 

 

In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by

  • Question 8 

 

At which of the following levels of organization can the Peaks of Otter salamander be studied?

  • Question 9 

 

The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the

  • Question 10 

 

The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in

  • Question 11 

 

In the mind of evolutionary theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from

  • Question 12 

 

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .

  • Question 13 

 

The best term to describe the species-species interaction between Pseudomyrmex ants and the bullhorn acacia plant would be

  • Question 14 

 

Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 15 

 

Young Balanus barnacles cannot compete with Chthamalus barnacles in higher intertidal regions because

  • Question 16 

 

A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group

  • Question 17 

 

Interspecific competition is defined as

  • Question 18 

 

When a species of fly has a bold coloration very similar to that of an unpalatable (stinging) Yellowjacket, the fly’s “strategy” is termed

  • Question 19 

 

Which of the following choices reflects a currently accepted classification scheme resulting from the state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exist?

  • Question 20 

 

A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because

  • Question 21 

 

The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it

  • Question 22 

 

Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 23 

 

Which of the following defense tactics do plants use to keep from being preyed upon?

  • Question 24 

 

The functional role of a species within its habitat is referred to as its

  • Question 25 

 

A relationship between individuals of two species in which members of one species are benefited and members of the other species are unaffected is termed

 

 

 

BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University

 

  • Question 1 

 

The large eukaryote, Pisum sativum belongs to the large “Group” Plants because it

  • Question 2 

 

From the species level upwards toward higher levels of classification, which of the following choices gives the correct order?

  • Question 3 

 

From the Family level upwards toward higher levels of classification, which of the following choices gives the correct order?

  • Question 4 

 

Which of the following choices names one of the various zones found in a lake?

  • Question 5 

 

Species of organisms are collected into a Genus by

  • Question 6 

 

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .

  • Question 7 

 

Young Balanus barnacles cannot compete with Chthamalus barnacles in higher intertidal regions because

  • Question 8 

 

Which of the following defense tactics do plants use to keep from being preyed upon?

  • Question 9 

 

Studying competition between the Peaks of Otter salamander and the Eastern Redback salamander would be an example of studying ecology at the _______ level.

  • Question 10 

 

A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group

  • Question 11 

 

A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because

  • Question 12 

 

A good example of commensalism would be the relationship between

  • Question 13 

 

Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 14 

 

The convention used for representing scientific names for newly discovered species is that ___________ root words are used in order to name the organism’s ___________.

  • Question 15 

 

When a species of fly has a bold coloration very similar to that of an unpalatable (stinging) Yellowjacket, the fly’s “strategy” is termed

  • Question 16 

 

Which of the following choices reflects a currently accepted classification scheme resulting from the state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exist?

  • Question 17 

 

The microbe, Paramecium aurelium belongs to the large “Group” Alveolata because it

  • Question 18 

 

The microbe, Pyrodictiumoccultum belongs to the large “Group” Archaea because it

  • Question 19 

 

Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 20 

 

In the mind of evolutionary theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from

  • Question 21 

 

The large eukaryote, Amoeba proteus belongs to the large “Group” Amoebozoa because

  • Question 22 

 

At which of the following levels of organization can the Peaks of Otter salamander be studied?

  • Question 23 

 

Your textbook describes two sequential _________ of interaction between organisms and their environments that have existed since God’s creative work began.

  • Question 24 

 

The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it

  • Question 25 

 

In the minds of design theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from

 

 

Q7. BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University (Already Graded A)

BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University

 

  • Question 1 

 

Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by

  • Question 2 

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

  • Question 3 

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

  • Question 4 

 

Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as

  • Question 5 

 

Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 6 

 

The convention used for representing scientific names for newly discovered species is that ___________ root words are used in order to name the organism’s ___________.

  • Question 7 

 

In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by

  • Question 8 

 

At which of the following levels of organization can the Peaks of Otter salamander be studied?

  • Question 9 

 

The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the

  • Question 10 

 

The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in

  • Question 11 

 

In the mind of evolutionary theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from

  • Question 12 

 

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each ot

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .

·         Question 13 

 

The best term to describe the species-species interaction between Pseudomyrmex ants and the bullhorn acacia plant would be

·         Question 14 

 

Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

·         Question 15 

 

Young Balanus barnacles cannot compete with Chthamalus barnacles in higher intertidal regions because

·         Question 16 

 

A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group

·         Question 17 

 

Interspecific competition is defined as

·         Question 18 

 

When a species of fly has a bold coloration very similar to that of an unpalatable (stinging) Yellowjacket, the fly’s “strategy” is termed

·         Question 19 

 

Which of the following choices reflects a currently accepted classification scheme resulting from the state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exist?

·         Question 20 

 

A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because

·         Question 21 

 

The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it

·         Question 22 

 

Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

·         Question 23 

 

Which of the following defense tactics do plants use to keep from being preyed upon?

·         Question 24 

 

The functional role of a species within its habitat is referred to as its

·         Question 25 

 

A relationship between individuals of two species in which members of one species are benefited and members of the other species are unaffected is termed

 

Q8. BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University (Already Graded A)

BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University

 

·         Question 1

 

Baleen whales use _______ to prey on herring fish.

·         Question 2

 

The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in

·         Question 3

 

The microbe, Paramecium aurelium belongs to the large “Group” Alveolata because it

·         Question 4

 

Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as

·         Question 5

 

The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the

·         Question 6

 

Interspecific competition is defined as

·         Question 7

 

Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by

·         Question 8

 

The large eukaryote, Amoeba proteus belongs to the large “Group” Amoebozoa because

·         Question 9

 

Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

·         Question 10

 

The phytoplankton of a lake would be found in highest numbers in the ________ zone.

·         Question 11

 

A good example of commensalism would be the relationship between

·         Question 12

 

Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

·         Question 13

 

An area providing cool, moist conditions with rocks and decaying logs at an appropriate elevation and rainfall level constitutes a good ________ for the Peaks of Otter salamander.

·         Question 14

 

The term “systematics” refers to

·         Question 15

 

Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

·         Question 16

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

·         Question 17

 

A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because

·         Question 18

 

The microbe, Euglena gracilis belongs to the large “Group” Discicristates because it

·         Question 19

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

·         Question 20

 

A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group

·         Question 21

 

In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by

·         Question 22

 

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .

·         Question 23

 

The large eukaryote, Zonotrichialeucophrys belongs to the large “Group” Opisthokonta because it

·         Question 24

 

During the springtime, a light wind blowing across a lake will foster the process of lake overturn. This timely event will bring together ___________ with _____________.

·         Question 25

 

The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it

 

Q9. BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (3 Latest versions): Liberty University (Already Graded A)

BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University

·         Question 1

 

The sentence, “O you, who look on this our machine, do not be sad that with others you are fated to die, but rejoice that our Creator has endowed us with such an excellent instrument as the intellect” was first spoken by

·         Question 2

 

Directional selection

·         Question 3

 

Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by

·         Question 4

 

To a Darwinist, a beneficial mutation

·         Question 5

 

“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that

·         Question 6

 

Which of the following organisms were not observed by Charles Darwin while reading and voyaging the world?

·         Question 7

 

Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as

·         Question 8

 

Could RNA have been the original site of information storage in the primitive cell? A difficult problem with this possibility is that

·         Question 9

 

Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:

·         Question 10

 

Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?

·         Question 11

 

Charles Darwin believed that whole new species originated as a result of

·         Question 12

 

Which of the following is a basic evolutionary advance needed to convert a down-like feather into a primary flight feather.

·         Question 13

 

Mycoplasma genitalium is well known for the _________ infections it causes.

·         Question 14

 

One popular evolutionary model for the origin of flight in vertebrates is that flight evolved in

·         Question 15

 

The term _________ represents a predictive theory of how a species might change with time, whereas the term ________ assumes that nature can create whole new structures and organisms.

·         Question 16

 

Charles Darwin’s view of the species was

·         Question 17

 

Directional selection has been used to

·         Question 18

 

Stabilizing selection

·         Question 19

 

One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to

·         Question 20

 

To a design theorist a beneficial mutation

·         Question 21

 

Which stage of life history implied in the early pages of the Genesis record appears least likely to involve any biological change in populations with time?

·         Question 22

 

Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?

·         Question 23

 

The Design theorist comes to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because

·         Question 24

 

In the evolutionary model, mutation ______ genes that will develop a better organism while natural selection ______ genes that will develop a better organism.

·         Question 25

 

Which of the following represents an observation Charles Darwin made while reading and voyaging the world?

 

 

 

 

 

BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University

 

·         Question 1 

 

In the early pages of the Genesis record, the first stage of life history could best be described as

·         Question 2 

 

Charles Darwin’s view of the species was

·         Question 3 

 

Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:

·         Question 4 

 

Darwin interpreted his observations of nature to mean that

·         Question 5 

 

One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to

·         Question 6 

 

Could RNA have been the original site of information storage in the primitive cell? A difficult problem with this possibility is that

·         Question 7 

 

Mycoplasma genitalium is well known for the _________ infections it causes.

·         Question 8 

 

Which of the following classes of mutations accumulate silently in the DNA having no obvious effect on one’s ability to reproduce?

·         Question 9 

 

Sometimes a force within the environment reduces the reproductive ability of one variety of individual in a species compared to that of another variety. This force is termed

·         Question 10 

 

Stabilizing selection

·         Question 11 

 

Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?

·         Question 12 

 

“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that

·         Question 13 

 

Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?

·         Question 14 

 

To a design theorist a beneficial mutation

·         Question 15 

 

In physical size, Mycoplasma genitalium is

·         Question 16 

 

One advantage associated with viewing RNA as the original site of information storage in the primitive cell is that RNA

·         Question 17 

 

Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by

·         Question 18 

 

Directional selection has been used to

·         Question 19 

 

Which of the following is a basic evolutionary advance needed to convert a down-like feather into a primary flight feather.

·         Question 20 

 

Natural selection is an “expensive” process. This is true because

·         Question 21 

 

Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as

·         Question 22 

 

Directional selection

·         Question 23 

 

The Design theorist comes to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because

·         Question 24 

 

Which of the following organisms were not observed by Charles Darwin while reading and voyaging the world?

·         Question 25 

 

The genome of Mycoplasma genitalium is about _______ genes in size.

 

 

 

 

 

BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University

 

·         Question 1 

 

Which of the following represents an observation Charles Darwin made while reading and voyaging the world?

·         Question 2 

 

Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:

·         Question 3 

 

In the evolutionary model, mutation ______ genes that will develop a better organism while natural selection ______ genes that will develop a better organism.

·         Question 4 

 

Which of the following represents three classes of mutations, each of which affects the evolutionary process differently?

·         Question 5 

 

Both the theist and the naturalist come to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because

·         Question 6 

 

The potential power of directional selection cannot be demonstrated in a real population if

·         Question 7 

 

The term _________ represents a predictive theory of how a species might change with time, whereas the term ________ assumes that nature can create whole new structures and organisms.

·         Question 8 

 

Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?

·         Question 9 

 

Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by

·         Question 10 

 

Which of the following classes of mutations accumulate silently in the DNA having no obvious effect on one’s ability to reproduce?

·         Question 11 

 

In the early pages of the Genesis record, the first stage of life history could best be described as

·         Question 12 

 

One problem associated with evolving a system in which RNA bases code for amino acids is that

·         Question 13 

 

Sometimes a force within the environment reduces the reproductive ability of one variety of individual in a species compared to that of another variety. This force is termed

·         Question 14 

 

Directional selection

·         Question 15 

 

Stabilizing selection

·         Question 16 

 

The sentence, “O you, who look on this our machine, do not be sad that with others you are fated to die, but rejoice that our Creator has endowed us with such an excellent instrument as the intellect” was first spoken by

·         Question 17 

 

Natural selection is an “expensive” process. This is true because

·         Question 18 

 

“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that

·         Question 19 

 

The genome of Mycoplasma genitalium is about _______ genes in size.

·         Question 20 

 

The third stage of life history implied in the early pages of the Genesis record could best be described as

·         Question 21 

 

One important value that disruptive selection can have to a natural population is that it

·         Question 22 

 

Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?

·         Question 23 

 

One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to

·         Question 24 

 

Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as

·         Question 25 

 

The role of the barbule in the primary flight feather is to

 

 

Q10. BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University (Already Graded A)

BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University

 

·         Question 1 

 

In the early pages of the Genesis record, the first stage of life history could best be described as

·         Question 2 

 

Charles Darwin’s view of the species was

·         Question 3 

 

Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:

·         Question 4 

 

Darwin interpreted his observations of nature to mean that

·         Question 5 

 

One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to

·         Question 6 

 

Could RNA have been the original site of information storage in the primitive cell? A difficult problem with this possibility is that

·         Question 7 

 

Mycoplasma genitalium is well known for the _________ infections it causes.

·         Question 8 

 

Which of the following classes of mutations accumulate silently in the DNA having no obvious effect on one’s ability to reproduce?

·         Question 9 

 

Sometimes a force within the environment reduces the reproductive ability of one variety of individual in a species compared to that of another variety. This force is termed

·         Question 10 

 

Stabilizing selection

·         Question 11 

 

Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?

·         Question 12 

 

“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that

·         Question 13 

 

Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?

·         Question 14 

 

To a design theorist a beneficial mutation

·         Question 15 

 

In physical size, Mycoplasma genitalium is

·         Question 16 

 

One advantage associated with viewing RNA as the original site of information storage in the primitive cell is that RNA

·         Question 17 

“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that

·         Question 13 

 

Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?

·         Question 14 

 

To a design theorist a beneficial mutation

·         Question 15 

 

In physical size, Mycoplasma genitalium is

·         Question 16 

 

One advantage associated with viewing RNA as the original site of information storage in the primitive cell is that RNA

·         Question 17 

 

Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by

·         Question 18 

 

Directional selection has been used to

·         Question 19 

 

Which of the following is a basic evolutionary advance needed to convert a down-like feather into a primary flight feather.

·         Question 20 

 

Natural selection is an “expensive” process. This is true because

·         Question 21 

 

Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as

·         Question 22 

 

Directional selection

·         Question 23 

 

The Design theorist comes to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because

·         Question 24 

 

Which of the following organisms were not observed by Charles Darwin while reading and voyaging the world?

·         Question 25 

 

The genome of Mycoplasma genitalium is about _______ genes in size.

 

 

COMPUTER SCIENCE.

 

Q1. CIS 210 Assignment 2: Use Cases

Prepare a 5-6 page paper in which you:

·         Describe (in a one to two (1-2) page narrative) a use case, complete with typical and alternate courses, that documents the event of a bank customer withdrawing money from an ATM.

·         Illustrate the use case using Visio or a similar product.

·         Describe (in a one to two (1-2) page narrative) a use case dependency for making an account deposit. Illustrate this use case with Visio or a similar product.

·         Describe (in a one to two (1-2) page narrative) a use case dependency for making an account transfer. Illustrate this use case with Visio or a similar product.

·         Identify and explain at least one (1) ethical issue that the use case exposes in connection with the development or use of the ATM system.

·         Research and cite at least three (3) authoritative academic sources.

 

Q2. Network Planning Assignment

Network Planning Assignment

 

Overview

The main objectives of this assignment are:

·         To help students gain a good understanding of the IP (Internet Protocol), which is the major underlying technology of the Internet. 

·         To help students to understand the importance of subnet and routing of IP address.

·         To encourage students to conduct an independent investigation into IP related topics from books, the Internet and through practical investigation.

                                                                                      

Engagement with this assignment should help students to understand the major underlying concepts of the Internet world.

Scenario

You have been appointed as a Network System Administrator by the Australian government to allocate public IP Version 4 (IPv4) addresses and build a routing table for edge routers to connect the Australian states as shown in Figure 1.

                          

The IPv4 is an exhaustive list of IPv4 addresses for current Internet users in the world. However, in this scenario you have the liberty to use the entire available unreserved public IPv4 addresses for the Internet users in Australia.

 

 

 

 

R2

 

 

 

R1

 

 

QLD

NT

 

 

 

 

WA

 

 

R4

 

 

R3

SA

 

 

 

NSW

 

 

 

R5

 

 

 

VIC

 

 

 

 

R6

 

 

TAS

 

 

 

 

Figure 1: Edge routers R1 – R6 connecting different Australian states.

Tasks                                                  

The major task is to allocate the unreserved public IPv4 addresses to different states in Australia based on the Internet users in those states. The number of Internet users for Australian states are given below:

 

New South Wales (NSW)                                              : 6 Million

Victoria (VIC)                                                                : 4 Million

Queensland (QLD)                                                        : 3 Million

Western Australia (WA)                                                 : 2 Million

South Australia (SA)                                                     : 1 Million

Tasmania (TAS)                                                            : 300 Thousand

Northern Territory (NT)                                                 : 150 Thousand

 

The task needs to be completed based on the following constraints and assumptions:

 

§  Only unreserved public IPv4 address should be used for allocation.

§  Each state should have unique set of addresses – no address or set of addresses can be reassigned for any other state.  

§  You should use only the classless IPv4 addressing in the assignment.

§  The number of allocated addresses for each state should not exceed by 20% of the specified Internet users for that particular state. For instance, the allocated addresses for Tasmania should not exceed 360 Thousand addresses.

§  It is allowed to use one or more subnets to achieve the number of required address for a given state.

 

The minor task is to create a routing table for edge routers only for the state NT, WA and SA. The task needs to be completed based on the following constraints and assumptions:

 

§  The routing table should be minimal with no redundant routes in the table.

§  Any packets from the source (NT or WA or SA) should take minimal route to reach the destination (NT or WA or SA).

§  Identify the Network Interface Card Address to connect NT, WA and SA.

 

Recommended Readings

The required materials for this assignment are covered from Week 4 onwards. It is highly recommended to read the following resources to complete the assignment:

§  Topic 5 – IP settings and configuration in Moodle resource

§  Topic 5 – Network Layer (IPv4 & IPv6 address format) in Moodle resource

§  Subnetwork (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Subnetwork)

§  IP address (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IP_address)

§  Routing concepts: How to read the Routing Table (https://www.ictshore.com/free-ccna-course/ routing-table-fundamentals/

 

 

 

Learning Outcomes Assessed

The following course learning outcomes are assessed by completing this assessment:

·       K1. Describe and explain the role and function of network connectivity in current computing.

·       K2. Describe and explain the principles of communication in networks.

·       K3. Describe the role and functionality of hardware and software entities that contribute to the network
communications.

·       K4. Describe and explain the protocols and interactions that implement network communications.

·       K6. Describe fundamental aspects of cloud computing.

·       A1. Apply networking architecture knowledge to analyze the networking needs of business.

Assessment Details

 

All works submitted must be authored by the individual student submitting the work or where material from other sources is included it must be referenced using APA referencing.

 

Please note it is highly unlikely two students can have the same set of addresses allocated for a given state. Students found to have plagiarised will be dealt with according to university plagiarism policy (https://federation.edu.au/current-students/learning-and-study/online-help-with/ plagiarism).

Submission

 

Students are required to use the template, along with references, given in the Appendix A to complete the assignment. The completed template with your name and student number (3 pages plus reference page only) should be submitted through Turnitin in Moodle by Week 10 – refer course description for exact due date and time.

Marking Guidelines

 

IP address for each state (7 x 9 marks)

63 Marks

Subnet mask for each state (7 x 4 marks)

28 Marks

Allocation not more than 20% (7 x 2 marks)

14 Marks

Routing Table for each 3 edge routers (3 x 11 marks)  

33 Marks

Router Link (NIC) address for 3 edge routers (12 x 1 mark)

12 Marks

Total marks

150 Marks

 

The total marks for this assignment is 150 (15% Weighting for the course).

 

The marks will be available in Moodle and in FDLMarks by the end of week 12 of the semester.

 

 

IP Address (NT)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

Appendix A                                                                                                                                             

IP Address (SA)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

IP Address (TAS)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

Page 1: Insert IP address and the Subnet Mask in the box provided for each state

 

 

WA

NT

NSW

QLD

VIC

TAS

SA

IP Address (WA)

 

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

 

IP Address (QLD)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

IP Address (NSW)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

IP Address (VIC)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

 

Destination Network

Interface

Next Hop

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Page 2: Insert routing table entry in the box for 3 edge routers

 

Routing Table for R1 

 

Destination Network

Interface

Next Hop

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

WA

NT

NSW

QLD

VIC

TAS

SA

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Routing Table for R2 

 

 

R1

 

 

R2

 

 

 

 

 

Routing Table for R3 

R3

 

 

Destination Network

Interface

Next Hop

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

WA

NT

NSW

QLD

VIC

TAS

SA

Page 3: Insert the IP address for the Network Interface Card (NIC) to connect NT, WA and SA

 

 

Router

NIC 

IP Address

R1

#5

 

R1

#8

 

R1

#6

 

R1

#7

R1

#7

 

R2

#4

 

R2

#2

 

R2

#3

 

R2

#1

 

R3

#9

 

R3

#10

 

R3

#11

 

R3

#12

 

 

R2

R3

R1

NIC #6

NIC #1

NIC #2

NIC #3

NIC #4

NIC #5

NIC #8

NIC #11

NIC #12

NIC #9

NIC #10

NIC #7

 

Q3. Application 7: Johari Window Reflection

The Johari Window is a model that we use to understand and frame some of the important skills explored in HD205, including self-disclosure, feedback, self-awareness and self-management. The ultimate goal of using this model is to appropriately enlarge the open area by disclosing information or asking for feedback. Remember that the open pane includes all information known to self and known to others. When we expand our open pane and decrease our hidden and blind panes, this allows us to make deeper connections with those around us and we will be more productive, cooperative, and effective when working together. People who have a large open pane are usually easier to talk to, practice open and honest communication and get along well with others.

 

The open pane expands into the hidden pane through self-disclosure about ourselves. Expansion could be through sharingThis could be one of your deepest dreams, life goals, fears, challenges or aspirations.  Really it is sharing anything about yourself with someone who doesn’t already know those stories.  Remember to moderate your level of self-disclosure to a level that is appropriate for the relationship and the environment.

 

The open pane also expands into the blind pane whenever we receive feedback about ourselves about something we were previously unaware of. This can be done by asking someone about their observations of you.  You may be interested in knowing what someone notices about your communication style, your unconscious patterns, filler words that you habitually use, or the positive and not-so-positive ways you interact around people.

 

Part 1 – Focus on Decreasing the Hidden Pane or the Blind Pane: The purpose of this stretch is for you to mindfully expand the open area of your Johari Window and thereby skillfully shrink the blind or hidden panes. You have the option to choose eitherfrom the hidden or blind pane as an area in which you wishwork.

 

  • If you wish to expand your open pane by decreasing your hidden pane, this is done through self-disclosure to another person. Find someone in your life that you know and trust and tell them something that you typically keep hidden. Expansion could be through sharing one of your deepest dreams, life goals, fears, challenges or aspirations.  Really it is sharing anything about yourself with someone who doesn’t already know those stories.  Remember to moderate your level of self-disclosure to a level that is appropriate for the relationship and the environment; yRemember that you are at choice about the appropriate level of disclosure.  Make the stretch meaningful and powerful by choosing someone to work with that deserves to know more about you.

 

ü   The open pane also expands into the blind pane whenever we receive feedback about ourselves about something we were previously unaware of. This can be done by asking someone about their observations of you. .

  • If you choose to expand your open pane through decreasing your blind pane, please fthis happens by asking for feedback. Find someone in your life that you know and trust and ask them for feedback about some aspect of yourself.  This could be about your contribution to a work team, class project, study group or living situation.  It could be about how you show up in a personal or professional relationship.  You could choose to speak with a parent, sibling or professor or someone else.    You may be interested in knowing what someone notices about your communication style, your unconscious patterns, filler words that you habitually use, or the positive and not-so-positive ways you interact around people. Choose someone that you really value their opinion and ask them about their perspective on some area of your life that is important for you to gain information about.  When asking for feedback, use the active listening skills that have been previously discussed in class. This should be meaningful conversation rather than a quick “drive-by” feedback session.

 

Part 2 – Stretch Reflection: Please spend time reflecting on the questions below and answer each of the following prompts. A recommendation is that the length of your responses should be approximately 500 – 600 words in length, total.

Prompts: 

  1. In your own words define and describe the four panes of the Johari Window.
  2. During this stretch, which pane did you choose to decrease? Describe your experience during the stretch and how it relates to that specific pane.
  3. From the six principles of ACT (expansion, defusion, observer self, connection, committed action, and values), which one(s) supported you in expanding your open pane? How specifically did you implement this principle during the stretch and how did practicing this concept assist you?

 

Q4. Assignment 1: The CEO Challenge

 

 

You’ve just left an all – hands meeting at your company * The CEO was very upset at the rise of shadow IT projects – a major indicator that the company’s internal information system has failed to meet its needs.

Because the current information system is inadequate, inefficient, and outdated, the CEO is inviting everyone in the organization to propose a new operational, decision support, or enterprise information system to replace it. The executives have allocated $5 million to fund the most promising idea

This is your chance to make a difference in the company (not to mention your own career). Write your proposal as a memo that the entire C – suite will review. Include at least these points, in your own words, to be persuasive:

  1. Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business.
  2. Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured.
  3. Explain how the old information system handles the functions you mentioned, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better.
  4. Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.

The executives are busy, so keep your memo to 1-4 pages and avoid any extraneous content.

*You may use a current or former employer, but do not disclose anything confidential. Or, you can pick another organization if you are familiar with their internal (not customer – facing) information systems. You can disguise the organization and populate it with famous names. Made – up companies are problematic because of the amount of detail and realism they require.

 

 

 

 

To:  Replace with name

From: Replace with name

Date: Replace with date

Subject: Replace with subject of memo

Introduction

Lorem i psum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Vestibulum et nisl ante. Etiam pulvinar fringilla ipsum facilisis efficitur. Maecenas volutpat risus dignissim dui euismod auctor. Nulla facilisi. Mauris euismod tellus malesuada dolor egestas, ac vulputate odio suscipit.

Sed pellentesque sagittis diam, sit amet faucibus diam lobortis quis. Sed mattis turpis ligula, in accumsan ante pellentesque eu. Quisque ut nisl leo. Nullam ipsum odio, eleifend non orcinon, volutpat sollicitudin lacus. (Beetle Baily Cartoon)

Proposed Information System

Donec tincidunt ligula eget sollicitudin vehicula. Proin pharetra tellus id lectus mollis sollicitudin. Etiam auctor ligula a nulla posuere, consequat feugiat ex lobortis. Duis eu cursus arcu, congue luctus turpis. Sed dapibus turpis ac diam viverra consectetur. Aliquam placerat molestie eros vel posuere.

 

Figure 1.  Title (Source: www.source-of-graphic.edu

Functions Important to Business

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Figure 2. Title (Source of data citation)

Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Vestibulum et nisl ante. Etiam pulvinar fringilla ipsum facilisis efficitur. Maecenas volutpat risus dignissim dui euismod auctor. Nulla facilisi. Mauris euismod tellus malesuada dolor egestas, ac vulputate odio suscipit.

 Data Management

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Data Types

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Storage Methods

Sed facilisis, lacus vel accumsan convallis, massa est ullamcorper mauris, quis feugiat eros ligula eget est. Vivamus nunc turpis, lobortis et magna a, convallis aliquam diam. Lorem ipsudolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.

Data Quality

Sed facilisis, lacus vel accumsan convallis, massa est ullamcorper mauris, quis feugiat eros ligula eget est. Vivamus nunc turpis, lobortis et magna a, convallis aliquam diam. Lorem ipsudolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.

Transition of System Functions

Sed facilisis, lacus vel accumsan convallis, massa est ullamcorper mauris, quis feugiat eros ligula eget est. Vivamus nunc turpis, lobortis et magna a, convallis aliquam diam. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.

Evidence of Feasibility

Sed facilisis, lacus vel accumsan convallis, massa est ullamcorper mauris, quis feugiat eros ligula eget est. Vivamus nunc turpis, lobortis et magna a, convallis aliquam diam. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.

 

 

References

American Psychological Association. (2001). Publication manual of the American Psychological Association (5th ed.). Washington, DC: Author.

Cuddy, C.M. (2002). Demystifying APA style. Orthopaedic Nursing, 21(5), 35-42. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from EBSCOhost database.

Daniels, C. (2004, July 28). 50 Best companies for minorities. Fortune, 149(13), 136-

  1. Retrieved October 19, 2004, from ProQuest database.

Lawton. K. A., Cousineau, L., & Hillard, V.E. (2001). Plagiarism: Its nature and consequences. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Duke University Guide to Library Research Web site: http://www.lib.duke.edu/libguide/plagarism.htm

Proofreading for commas. (n.d.). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Purdue University Online Writing Lab Web site: http://owl.english.purdue.edu/handouts/grammar/g_commaproof.html

Sterngold, A. (2004). Confronting plagiarism: How conventional teaching invites cyber-cheating. Change, 36(3), 16+. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from ProQuest database

Strunk, W., Jr. (1999). Omit needless words. In The elements of style (chap. 3). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from http://www.bartleby.com/141/strunk5.html#13

Venes, D. (2001). Taber’s cyclopedic medical dictionary (19th ed.). Philadelphia: F.A. Davis Company.

 

 

Q5. Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox Hierarchy Charts

Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox

Hierarchy Charts

In this assignment, you will learn how hierarchy charts are used to represent program design.

  • you will create a hierarchy chart.

Creating a Hierarchy Chart

Using the South University Online Library or the Internet, research on hierarchy charts.

Based on your research and using one of the appliances that you chose in W1 Assignment 2, complete the following tasks:

  • Using Microsoft Word, Microsoft PowerPoint, or Microsoft Visio, create a hierarchy chart that reflects the appliance’s modules and how the modules call each other. Keep in mind that a hierarchy chart is different from a flowchart or pseudocode.
  • In about 2 paragraphs, describe what your hierarchy chart represents.

Support your responses with appropriate examples.

Cite any sources in APA format on a separate page.

 

Submission Details

Based on the tool you chose to create the hierarchy chart, name your deliverable as:

  • SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.doc if it is a Microsoft Word document.
  • SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.ppt if it is a Microsoft PowerPoint presentation.
  • SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.vsd if it is a Microsoft Visio document.

Submit your hierarchy chart and the Alice World file to the W1 Assignment 3 Dropbox

 

 

Q6. ITECH7201 Software Engineering: Analysis and Design


Assignment 1   

2018 Sem01

Overview

You are required to design and develop a small Java console application. Completion of this assignment  requires an understanding of:

  • Analysis and design techniques, including development of use cases and UML diagrams – specifically, use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams
  • Object-oriented programming, focusing on polymorphism and the use of interfaces

Timelines and Expectations

Percentage Value of Task: 20%

Due: Sunday, September (Week 7)

Minimum time expectation: 20 hours

Learning Outcomes Assessed

The following course learning outcomes are assessed by completing this assessment:

  • Understand the significance of detailed project planning and control, good communication and documentation and the use of appropriate tools in order to provide a quality product
  • Understand the distinction between software engineering and programming, and thus the distinction between a software configuration and a program
  • Understand the methods and techniques involved in designing, implementing and maintaining an information system, in particular using an object-oriented approach
  • Demonstrate skills in designing and implementing an information system

Assessment Details

FedHire is a car hire company that offers vehicle rentals to its clients. Clients are able to hire vehicles according to availability and preference. FedHire offers 10% loyalty discount on the rental fees to members of its loyalty club. No discount is offered to standard clients who are not members of the loyalty club. A special discount of 20%, is offered to clients who are also employees of the company.

You have been hired to design and develop a Java application for FedHire employees to manage the car rental system. The application should have an interactive menu, allowing the user to select the type of client (standard, loyalty member or staff member) making the booking and determine and track the appropriate discounts. The menu should also provide different other options, such as, displaying clients list, generating a report to display the current payments received, and quitting the execution. In the report the payments should be broken down into different categories of bookings such as standard, loyalty and staff, and the total discounts given in each category (using the discounted values where appropriate). At this stage there is no need for data to persist once the program finishes execution.

FedHire wants the system to be flexible so that users can include additional functionality at a later date without having to rewrite the entire program. This means you will need to use an interface for processing payments, and polymorphism for the various payment classes, so that new, different payment types may be added at a later date with minimal updates to the code.

FedHire asked that you provide it with some documentation before you commence coding, so that the manager is able to verify that the program you intend to code will address the business requirements. The manager would like to see use cases that summarizes the requirements in written format, as well as use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams.

Startup codes (AD_asgn01.zip) are provided herewith for your convenience. You are free to use, update and build your program on this. A sample expected output of an execution of a complete program is also attached. Notice in the sample output the clients 1, 2, and 3 are hard coded in the program; clients 4, 5, and 6 are entered at execution. Similarly, your program should include hard coded clients, at least one client in each category.

Submission

You are required to submit the assignment before the due date consisting of:

  • A Zip file containing the following (submitted via Moodle under the Assignment 1 link) o A written report comprising:
  • Use Cases summarizing the requirements
  • Copy of UML Diagrams, created in Enterprise Architect, comprising:
  • a Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking
  • a Class Diagram of the intended system
  • a Sequence Diagram showing how a new car rental booking is processed
  • A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and object- oriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism. As an example, if you found that you would change your initial UML diagrams after you had commenced coding, you should explain what these changes would be and explain what you learnt that led to these changes.

o    Enterprise Architect file(s) containing your UML Diagrams for the Use Case, Class Diagrams and Sequence Diagrams

o    Your complete Java program, addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment

Details.

Marking Criteria/Rubric

Task

Max Marks

Obtained Marks

Requirements Analysis and Design

 

 

  • Use Cases summarizing the requirements of the program

10

 

  • A Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking

10

 

  • A Class Diagram of the intended system

10

 

  • A Sequence Diagram for processing a loyalty client’s car rental booking.

10

 

Development of Code

 

 

A complete Java program addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment Details section of this specification, including:

 

 

  • Functionality to process standard (non-member) client’s payments

5

 

  • Functionality to process loyalty and employee payments, including display of the total sales amount with a 10% or 20% discount removed.

10

 

  • A payments received option that displays the total standard booking amount, the total loyalty booking amount, the total employee booking amount, the total discounts given and the total amount (all types of booking taking discounts into account where appropriate)

5

 

  • Code demonstrating the use of an interface and polymorphism to handle payments and the various payment options available

25

 

  • Code validating all inputs and adhering to Java conventions

5

 

Reflection on Learning

 

 

  • A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and objectoriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism.

10

 

Total

100

 

Scaled to 20 

20

 

Feedback

Marks will be uploaded in fdlGrades and a complete marking sheet will be provided in Moodle.

Plagiarism:

This is an individual assignment. You are not to attempt this assignment (or any part thereof) in conjunction with any other parties. All work handed in for marking should be your own and any help received should be explicitly acknowledged.

It is important to learn from the work of others and you are encouraged to explore the library, World Wide Web resources and have discussions with other students. However, work for assessment must be entirely your own work.

Plagiarism is the presentation of the expressed thought or work of another person as though it is one’s own without properly acknowledging that person. You must not allow other students to copy your work and must take care to safeguard against this happening. More information about the plagiarism policy and procedure for the university can be found at http://federation.edu.au/students/learning-and- study/online-help-with/plagiarism.

 

Q7. Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

IT Infrastructure Practical Assignment 2 Instructions

Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

Hypertext Transfer protocol is known as the mechanism for delivering web pages. The JASPER applet supports the simulation of HTTP. URLs (Universal Resource Locators) are abstract represented as URL1, URL2… URLn, and likewise for DATA which represents web pages.

Below are some experiments you can go through to understand HTTP and its commands. The first two experiments will give a feel to using the simulator and simply relate to real scenarios. Subsequent experiments will be complex, yet still relating to real events.

Launching the HTTP Simulator

  • Ensure that your default browser supports Java applets. Note that you may need to run Java in low security for the Java applets in this exercise to work properly.
  • For access to all simulations, click on the rotating globe at this book’s Companion Web site at http://williamstallings.com/BusinessDataComm/BDC7e-student/.
  • Click the spinning globe icon, and then click on the link to the HTTP Simulator.
  • This will launch the HTTP Simulator applet along with a description of the main commands we will be using for our experiments.

Main Commands Description

HTTP supports a relatively modest suite of commands. The protocol simulator supports the following, most frequently used, HTTP commands.

 

Command

Description

GET

Get data for URL

HEAD

Get header for URL

POST

Append data to URL

PUT

Send data to URL

Response Codes

HTTP provides a range of response codes, each uniquely indicating the response to the corresponding command previously received. The protocol simulator here supports a limited range of HTTP response codes, as described below.

 

Code

Description

200 OK

Command completed successfully

301 MOVED

Requested URL has moved to another location

400 ERROR

The command encountered an error

Applet Interface

The applet graphical interface consists of the control panel (bottom left corner), the commands panel (bottom right), and the simulation view (top half).

The control panel consists of several buttons. Run will perform an automatic simulation of the protocol. Stop will halt the automatic simulation. Undo will revert back one step from the latest command. Redo will revert what undo does. Clear will clear off the current simulation, resulting in a clean simulation view. Load,Save and Print buttons are only available when the protocol simulator is launched in standalone mode, which are not available as we are using the applet mode.

The command panel displays the available commands at the current point of simulation. Clicking on one of the commands will progress the simulation seen in the simulation view.

 

Continue to Experiment #1 Instructions on the following page…

 

 

EXPERIMENT #1: RETRIEVING A WEB PAGE SUCCESSFULLY

This is the simplest example: fetching the data (which is the web page contents) of a particular URL (location). To do this the client will send a GET(url) command to the server, which will respond with a 200 response code along with the contents of the location specified in the GET command.

 

  1. Click the Clearbutton to start a fresh simulation.

2.      In the command panel, click on Client: GET(URL1) – get data for URL. You should be able to see in the simulation view a corresponding flow of this command

[SR1]Remove all comments in paper before submitting. One way to do this, right click on each comment, select ‘Delete Comment’.

 

[SR2]The CEO challenge is for an internal employee provide recommendation of new IT system to remove or bring the Shadow IT projects under the IT department.

Include how this assignment will communicate how your project proposal satisfied the CEO’s concern.

[SR3]Replace Latin text with your writing for this assignment.

[SR4]Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business.

[SR5]Add diagrams when applicable

[SR6]Include source if applicable, remove when diagram is original)

[SR7]Add Charts when applicable.

[SR8]Include source if applicable, remove when diagram is original).

[SR9]Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured.

[SR10]Explain how the functions you mentioned are being handled by the old information system, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better.

[SR11]Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.

[SR12]Reference Page Notes: Use a separate references page and double space. Note that throughout the paper and reference list, titles of non-periodicals and the names of journals, book titles, and volume are set in italics rather than being underlined. See APA Manual, pages 239-281 for examples of various references.  In addition, please read pages 215-232 for basic reference guidelines.

 

Remove References in example that you do not use.

American Psychological Association. (2001). Publication manual of the American Psychological Association (5th ed.). Washington, DC: Author.

Cuddy, C.M. (2002). Demystifying APA style. Orthopaedic Nursing, 21(5), 35-42. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from EBSCOhost database.

Daniels, C. (2004, July 28). 50 Best companies for minorities. Fortune, 149(13), 136-

  1. Retrieved October 19, 2004, from ProQuest database.

Lawton. K. A., Cousineau, L., & Hillard, V.E. (2001). Plagiarism: Its nature and consequences. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Duke University Guide to Library Research Web site: http://www.lib.duke.edu/libguide/plagarism.htm

Proofreading for commas. (n.d.). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Purdue University Online Writing Lab Web site: http://owl.english.purdue.edu/handouts/grammar/g_commaproof.html

Sterngold, A. (2004). Confronting plagiarism: How conventional teaching invites cyber-cheating. Change, 36(3), 16+. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from ProQuest database

Strunk, W., Jr. (1999). Omit needless words. In The elements of style (chap. 3). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from http://www.bartleby.com/141/strunk5.html#13

Venes, D. (2001). Taber’s cyclopedic medical dictionary (19th ed.). Philadelphia: F.A. Davis Company.

 

 

Q5. Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox Hierarchy Charts

Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox

Hierarchy Charts

In this assignment, you will learn how hierarchy charts are used to represent program design.

  • you will create a hierarchy chart.

Creating a Hierarchy Chart

Using the South University Online Library or the Internet, research on hierarchy charts.

Based on your research and using one of the appliances that you chose in W1 Assignment 2, complete the following tasks:

  • Using Microsoft Word, Microsoft PowerPoint, or Microsoft Visio, create a hierarchy chart that reflects the appliance’s modules and how the modules call each other. Keep in mind that a hierarchy chart is different from a flowchart or pseudocode.
  • In about 2 paragraphs, describe what your hierarchy chart represents.

Support your responses with appropriate examples.

Cite any sources in APA format on a separate page.

 

Submission Details

Based on the tool you chose to create the hierarchy chart, name your deliverable as:

  • SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.doc if it is a Microsoft Word document.
  • SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.ppt if it is a Microsoft PowerPoint presentation.
  • SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.vsd if it is a Microsoft Visio document.

Submit your hierarchy chart and the Alice World file to the W1 Assignment 3 Dropbox

 

 

Q6. ITECH7201 Software Engineering: Analysis and Design


Assignment 1   

2018 Sem01

Overview

You are required to design and develop a small Java console application. Completion of this assignment  requires an understanding of:

  • Analysis and design techniques, including development of use cases and UML diagrams – specifically, use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams
  • Object-oriented programming, focusing on polymorphism and the use of interfaces

Timelines and Expectations

Percentage Value of Task: 20%

Due: Sunday, September (Week 7)

Minimum time expectation: 20 hours

Learning Outcomes Assessed

The following course learning outcomes are assessed by completing this assessment:

  • Understand the significance of detailed project planning and control, good communication and documentation and the use of appropriate tools in order to provide a quality product
  • Understand the distinction between software engineering and programming, and thus the distinction between a software configuration and a program
  • Understand the methods and techniques involved in designing, implementing and maintaining an information system, in particular using an object-oriented approach
  • Demonstrate skills in designing and implementing an information system

Assessment Details

FedHire is a car hire company that offers vehicle rentals to its clients. Clients are able to hire vehicles according to availability and preference. FedHire offers 10% loyalty discount on the rental fees to members of its loyalty club. No discount is offered to standard clients who are not members of the loyalty club. A special discount of 20%, is offered to clients who are also employees of the company.

You have been hired to design and develop a Java application for FedHire employees to manage the car rental system. The application should have an interactive menu, allowing the user to select the type of client (standard, loyalty member or staff member) making the booking and determine and track the appropriate discounts. The menu should also provide different other options, such as, displaying clients list, generating a report to display the current payments received, and quitting the execution. In the report the payments should be broken down into different categories of bookings such as standard, loyalty and staff, and the total discounts given in each category (using the discounted values where appropriate). At this stage there is no need for data to persist once the program finishes execution.

FedHire wants the system to be flexible so that users can include additional functionality at a later date without having to rewrite the entire program. This means you will need to use an interface for processing payments, and polymorphism for the various payment classes, so that new, different payment types may be added at a later date with minimal updates to the code.

FedHire asked that you provide it with some documentation before you commence coding, so that the manager is able to verify that the program you intend to code will address the business requirements. The manager would like to see use cases that summarizes the requirements in written format, as well as use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams.

Startup codes (AD_asgn01.zip) are provided herewith for your convenience. You are free to use, update and build your program on this. A sample expected output of an execution of a complete program is also attached. Notice in the sample output the clients 1, 2, and 3 are hard coded in the program; clients 4, 5, and 6 are entered at execution. Similarly, your program should include hard coded clients, at least one client in each category.

Submission

You are required to submit the assignment before the due date consisting of:

  • A Zip file containing the following (submitted via Moodle under the Assignment 1 link) o A written report comprising:
  • Use Cases summarizing the requirements
  • Copy of UML Diagrams, created in Enterprise Architect, comprising:
  • a Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking
  • a Class Diagram of the intended system
  • a Sequence Diagram showing how a new car rental booking is processed
  • A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and object- oriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism. As an example, if you found that you would change your initial UML diagrams after you had commenced coding, you should explain what these changes would be and explain what you learnt that led to these changes.

o    Enterprise Architect file(s) containing your UML Diagrams for the Use Case, Class Diagrams and Sequence Diagrams

o    Your complete Java program, addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment

Details.

Marking Criteria/Rubric

Task

Max Marks

Obtained Marks

Requirements Analysis and Design

 

 

  • Use Cases summarizing the requirements of the program

10

 

  • A Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking

10

 

  • A Class Diagram of the intended system

10

 

  • A Sequence Diagram for processing a loyalty client’s car rental booking.

10

 

Development of Code

 

 

A complete Java program addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment Details section of this specification, including:

 

 

  • Functionality to process standard (non-member) client’s payments

5

 

  • Functionality to process loyalty and employee payments, including display of the total sales amount with a 10% or 20% discount removed.

10

 

  • A payments received option that displays the total standard booking amount, the total loyalty booking amount, the total employee booking amount, the total discounts given and the total amount (all types of booking taking discounts into account where appropriate)

5

 

  • Code demonstrating the use of an interface and polymorphism to handle payments and the various payment options available

25

 

  • Code validating all inputs and adhering to Java conventions

5

 

Reflection on Learning

 

 

  • A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and objectoriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism.

10

 

Total

100

 

Scaled to 20 

20

 

Feedback

Marks will be uploaded in fdlGrades and a complete marking sheet will be provided in Moodle.

Plagiarism:

This is an individual assignment. You are not to attempt this assignment (or any part thereof) in conjunction with any other parties. All work handed in for marking should be your own and any help received should be explicitly acknowledged.

It is important to learn from the work of others and you are encouraged to explore the library, World Wide Web resources and have discussions with other students. However, work for assessment must be entirely your own work.

Plagiarism is the presentation of the expressed thought or work of another person as though it is one’s own without properly acknowledging that person. You must not allow other students to copy your work and must take care to safeguard against this happening. More information about the plagiarism policy and procedure for the university can be found at http://federation.edu.au/students/learning-and- study/online-help-with/plagiarism.

 

Q7. Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

IT Infrastructure Practical Assignment 2 Instructions

Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

Hypertext Transfer protocol is known as the mechanism for delivering web pages. The JASPER applet supports the simulation of HTTP. URLs (Universal Resource Locators) are abstract represented as URL1, URL2… URLn, and likewise for DATA which represents web pages.

Below are some experiments you can go through to understand HTTP and its commands. The first two experiments will give a feel to using the simulator and simply relate to real scenarios. Subsequent experiments will be complex, yet still relating to real events.

Launching the HTTP Simulator

  • Ensure that your default browser supports Java applets. Note that you may need to run Java in low security for the Java applets in this exercise to work properly.
  • For access to all simulations, click on the rotating globe at this book’s Companion Web site at http://williamstallings.com/BusinessDataComm/BDC7e-student/.
  • Click the spinning globe icon, and then click on the link to the HTTP Simulator.
  • This will launch the HTTP Simulator applet along with a description of the main commands we will be using for our experiments.

Main Commands Description

HTTP supports a relatively modest suite of commands. The protocol simulator supports the following, most frequently used, HTTP commands.

 

Command

Description

GET

Get data for URL

HEAD

Get header for URL

POST

Append data to URL

PUT

Send data to URL

Response Codes

HTTP provides a range of response codes, each uniquely indicating the response to the corresponding command previously received. The protocol simulator here supports a limited range of HTTP response codes, as described below.

 

Code

Description

200 OK

Command completed successfully

301 MOVED

Requested URL has moved to another location

400 ERROR

The command encountered an error

Applet Interface

The applet graphical interface consists of the control panel (bottom left corner), the commands panel (bottom right), and the simulation view (top half).

The control panel consists of several buttons. Run will perform an automatic simulation of the protocol. Stop will halt the automatic simulation. Undo will revert back one step from the latest command. Redo will revert what undo does. Clear will clear off the current simulation, resulting in a clean simulation view. Load,Save and Print buttons are only available when the protocol simulator is launched in standalone mode, which are not available as we are using the applet mode.

The command panel displays the available commands at the current point of simulation. Clicking on one of the commands will progress the simulation seen in the simulation view.

 

Continue to Experiment #1 Instructions on the following page…

 

 

EXPERIMENT #1: RETRIEVING A WEB PAGE SUCCESSFULLY

This is the simplest example: fetching the data (which is the web page contents) of a particular URL (location). To do this the client will send a GET(url) command to the server, which will respond with a 200 response code along with the contents of the location specified in the GET command.

 

  1. Click the Clearbutton to start a fresh simulation.
  2. In the command panel, click on Client: GET(URL1) – get data for URL. You should be able to see in the simulation view a corresponding flow of this command from the client to the server via the medium. Notice that the available choices in the command panel change as the request is received at the server.
  3. Now click the Server: 200 OK(DATA1) – send requested data. Similarly the simulation view reflects the response from server to the client.

 

The simulation is now complete for URL1. Observe the interaction between the client and server.

Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.

Q1: In reality, what does the client represent? Relate the client/server interaction you observed in this experiment to a regular activity that occurs on the Internet.

 

 

EXPERIMENT #2: UNSUCCESSFUL RETRIEVAL OF A WEB PAGE

 

Repeat Experiment 1 again, but this time selecting Server: 400 Error(Code) – report requested data unavailable at the last step.

The simulation is now complete for URL1. Observe the interaction between the client and server.

Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.

Q2: Identify a real scenario when this client and server interaction would occur.

 

 

Continue to Experiment #3 Instructions on the following page…

EXPERIMENT #3: REDIRECTION OF REQUESTED DATA

 

Repeat Step 1 and 2 of Experiment One, and then do the following

  1. In command panel, select Server: 301 MOVED(URL2) – report moved URL.
  2. Select Client: GET(URL2) – get data for new URL.
  3. Select Server: 200 OK(DATA2) – send requested data.

 

Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.

 

Q3: Observe the simulation and compare with the results in Experiment One. What is the difference in the flow, and what does it mean?

 

 

EXPERIMENT #4: POST INFORMATION TO WEB PAGES

 

It should be obvious that there are many types of interactions that a client might have with a web server. One such interaction is when a client appends data to the URL to be received by the server.

Start a new simulation similar to Experiment #1, but this time choose Client: POST(URL1, DATA1) for step 2.

Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.

Q4: What is the key difference that you observe in the interaction?

Q5: Relate the client/server interaction you observed in this experiment to a regular activity that occurs on the Internet.

 

 

Submitting your work

In a new Word document, include your screenshots of the simulations for each experiment, along with your answers for each of the five questions. Save the file as Lastname_Firstname_Assignment #. Include your name in the assignment file itself and submit your file to Blackboard. Any assignment with screenshots that do not include a visible date and timestamp or a unique desktop element to identify the student’s work will not be accepted.

 

Q8. Reference Figure 1.  Friendly Care Hospital is one of the biggest hospitals in D

IT INFRASTRUCTURE PROJECT PHASE I INSTRUCTIONS

Project Background

Reference Figure 1.  Friendly Care Hospital is one of the biggest hospitals in DC. You have recently bought the hospital, naming it [Your Firstname Lastname] Hospital.  For example, Jane Doe Hospital.  Jane Doe Hospital owns a 5-story building and houses many departments that span multiple floors. Its Radiology department is spread across the first and second floors, connected by a dedicated LAN. The department has recently deployed a new “Radiology Images” application as part of their initiative to digitize patient records.  However, the department staff sometimes faces long application delays during busy hours. It also experiences regular delays in Internet connectivity, FTPS services, web services, and email services.

Their original design, depicted in Figure 1, was categorized as a small network, providing services for up to 200 devices.  They have well surpassed this.  You, as their senior network engineer, are tasked with the job of a complete re-design.  This design must support a mediumsize network for 200 to 1,000 devices.

 

Figure 1. Friendly Care Hospital Network Design                                                  

Project Overview

This project along with the Phase II IT Infrastructure Project will help you understand how a network administrator improves network performance in wired and wireless local area and wide area networks, using the application Cisco Packet Tracer. To learn more about Packet Tracer please read the Cisco Packet Tracer DS PDF.

In this project, you will study performance improvements in a congested, wired LAN/WAN environment that can be solved to varying degrees by a new IT infrastructure design and fully functional implementation in Packet Tracer. Later, in Phase II of the project, you will scale this design to a larger enterprise IT infrastructure.

To begin the projects, you will complete a review of related literature to identify what is appropriate to improve system feasibility, RAS (reliability, availability, serviceability), security, and disaster recovery of the existing IT infrastructure and model of your hospital.  Once this review of literature is complete, you will use the outcomes and research results to advance and improve the IT infrastructure.  Proper data analysis, comparison, and contrast will be summarized within in-text tables and figures as well as appendixes to explain the results of the IT infrastructure re-design and improvement.

 

Project Requirements

  • Take screenshots demonstrating your network, servers, configurations, and protocols properly functioning in the new design.  Screenshots must include a unique piece of information identifying the student’s computer along with a proper operating system date/time.  Submit these as appendices in the Word document.
  • Submit a working Packet Tracer lab, typically this file has a .pkt file extension.

o        This will include the fully operational new IT infrastructure design o All devices in the lab must be named with your first name and last name

  • Example: Jane_Doe_Router_1 o All hardware and software should be configured properly and should be able to communicate securely using optimized networking designs, configurations, and protocols
  • IT Infrastructure Design Requirements o You must start with a blank/new Packet Tracer file, existing labs or modified labs of existing solutions will receive a zero without exception

o        Include the existing hospital services and systems but optimized/improved o Design a medium-size network for 200 to 1,000 devices

  • For example, an N-Tier design or superior supported by research
  • Add appropriate routers and switches to support this new design
  • Design and configure at least one appropriate networking protocol,

IPv4 or IPv6

  • Design IP addressing that will scale to 1,000 devices
  • Use proper network address translation (NAT)

o   Add an Internet Service Provider (ISP) into the design o Add appropriate security into the design

o   Add sufficient modularity, resiliency, and flexibility into the design

o   Design and implement the following new services and servers

  • A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server that automatically assigns working IP addresses to new workstations that allows them to connect to all network devices properly
  • A name server that manages the Domain Name System (DNS) and allows workstations to communicate with a web server external to the local area network
  • An external web server that hosts your favorite website, accessible via the ISP
  • Two new user workstations in eachbuilding that uses the new services and services properly
  • Show these services working on each workstation in your project (e.g. a website from the web server, DHCP, etc)
  • Written Requirements (Introduction, Literature Review, and Conclusion) o Submit a properly formatted APA paper in Microsoft Word o Here is an example paper: https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/18/

o   Table of Contents that automatically adjusts page numbers of the main headings

o   Introduction

  • Introduce the primary goals and objectives of the project o Review of literature that supports the new system simulation, model, and design
  • Include appropriate IT frameworks and standards in which to design the new system
  • Address system feasibility, RAS (reliability, availability, serviceability), security, and disaster recovery
  • Include at least 10 scholarly journal articles focusing on relevant research on the problems being addressed

o   Packet Tracer design explanation

  • Explain each of the additions and improvements
  • Reference the primary configurations and how these were developed
  • Include running configurations from routers/switches as appendices o Conclusion
  • Highlight any limitations, managerial implications, and conclusions of the project deliverables and outcomes
  • Save the file as Lastname_Firstname_ProjectPhaseI. Include your name in the assignment file itself and submit your file to Blackboard.
  • Any assignment without working Packet Tracer files or without screenshots that do not include a visible date and timestamp from the operating system and a unique desktop element to identify the student’s work will not be accepted.· To copy screenshots to Microsoft Word:

o   Press the “Print Screen” key on your keyboard. The key is usually located at the upper right corner of a keyboard.

o   You can also use the “snipping tool” in Windows

o   For Windows users, open application “Paint” and paste the screen shot over.

“Paint” usually can be accessed this way: Start à All Programs à

Accessories. For users of other operating systems, use a similar application.

o   In “Paint”, select the graph or area needed and copy it. You need to click this icon  in order to be able to select an area. The icon is listed on the left side of the window.

o   Paste the selected area to a word processor.

o   Save the file as Lastname_Firstname_ProjectPhaseI 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q9. Week 8 Assignment

Create a spreadsheet that includes a list of the students.

 

  1. a) Import the data from the spreadsheet to the table student; you need to create a query (Week8-del-students)to Delete the existing records.

 

  1. b) Link the spreadsheet. Create a report from the linked spreadsheet.

 

2) You are going to create the following queries

List the content of each table using condition (criteria) of your choice, you MUST explain each condition

 

You are going to add your name (Lewis Ministrelli) as student too,

Try to use criteria (condition) for the following (explain each condition)

 

Create at least one update query

Create at least one insert query

Create at least one delete query

 

Create a query and use it in a report to show the schedule of courses

Create a query and use it in a report to the list of students per class

Create a query and use it in a report to list the courses per instructor

 

3) Create a form with a custom navigation buttons (command button) to open each form and report.

 

Do the following tasks

The name of each Object should start with Week8

 

1) Create a spreadsheet that includes a list of the students.

 

  1. a) Import the data from the spreadsheet to the table student; you need to create a query (Week8-del-students) to Delete the existing records.

 

  1. b) Link the spreadsheet. Create a report from the linked spreadsheet.

 

2) You are going to create the following queries

List the content of each table using condition (criteria) of your choice, you MUST explain each condition

 

You are going to add your name (Lewis Ministrelli) as student too,

Try to use criteria (condition) for the following (explain each condition)

 

Create at least one update query

Create at least one insert query

Create at least one delete query

 

Create a query and use it in a report to show the schedule of courses

Create a query and use it in a report to the list of students per class

Create a query and use it in a report to list the courses per instructor

 

3) Create a form with a custom navigation buttons (command button) to open each form and report.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q10. Network Penetration Testing (CIS or SEC 435)

Week 1 Lab 1 submission

tudents, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” in the Student Center.
Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.

If you have not logged into the iLabs environment yet, use your access code emailed to you by the bookstore when you purchased the books to register.

Lab Assignments

Submit each lab based on the following:

  1. Log into the EC-Council iLab environment.
  2. Complete the weekly lab assignment described below using EC-Council iLab.
  3. Submit the screenshots for the steps specified in each lab assignment.
  4. Write a short answer in Word format and include with the assignment submission link the following:
  5. Summarize the technical experiences in completing the lab assignment.
  6. Identify the commands that were of greatest benefit to you.
  7. Provide general comments on the overall lab assignment experience.
    Note:This is an academic writing assignment. Correct punctuation, grammar, and spelling are necessary. Points may be deducted for poor writing.

 

Lab Assignment 1

Due Week 1 and worth 30 points

Complete the following EC-Council Labs.

Note: Lab 1 contains deliverables that are partially derived from the following course required textbook: EC-Council Press. (2017). Ethical Hacking and Countermeasures: Web Applications and Data Servers (2nd ed.). Cengage Learning.

 

Lab Version

Module Title

Location

Lab #: Title

Deliverable(s) for Submission

Strayer

SEC435

(CEHv.9)

Session Hijacking

iLab

Module 1o

Lab 1:  “Session Hijacking Using Zed Attack Proxy.”

  1. Screenshots after Steps 8 and 22.

Q1. Artificial Neural Network

 

1). What would happen if Artificial Neural Networks (ANN) did not have any bias (fixed input)? For instance, suppose that ‘y’ must be 5 when all inputs are 0.

2). What are the main similarities and differences between the functions ‘logsig’ and ‘tanh’?

3). Indicate whether the next statements are true or false and explain:

  • When the neutrons of an artificial neural network (ANN) use the LOGSIG function, the output values of the network cannot exceed a value of one no matter what input is applied tot he network. A value outside the range [0 1] is impossible to attain at the output of the ANN. If the required range is bigger than zero to one, then the output signal must be scaled appropriately.
  • When the neutrons of an artificial neural network (ANN) use the TANH function, it is very important to note that the output signal is limited to the range from -1 to 1. The ‘tanh’ function has a shape very similar to the shape of the ‘logsig’ function. However, the lower range for the ‘logsig’ function is zero when compared with the lower range of the ‘tanh’ which is -1.

 

Q2. Master-Slave J-K Flip-Flop using NAND gages with explanation of Truth Table with arbitrary clock

 

Question: Find the output using the input sequences of the J-K Master-Slave flipflop using NAND gates. Follow the input sequences. Observe and record the output sequences.

 

Q3. Frequency Modulation (FM) demodulation

 

Find an expression for the instantaneous frequency of FM modulation

Find the followings expression for the signals z(t), w(t), of an FM demodulation as shown in the diagram. Determine the bandwidth of the signal w(t) according to Carson’s rule.

The received signal passes through a square law device, DC blocker, again a square law device, again a DC blocker.

w(t) is the output of the final DC blocker

z(t) is the output of the first DC blocker

x(t) is the output of the first square law device and x2(t) is the output of the second square law device.

 

Q4. Principle and Operation of Quadrature Phase Shift Keying (QPSK) receiver

 

 

The QPSK receiver, like the BPSK receiver, can create a synchronous carrier when the received signal has a phase shift. Show that even if the signal s(t) is shifted by an angle, the output of the frequency divider produces cosine and sin carrier wave synchronous to the received signal.

Q5. Electrical Hazards, potential severity, the extent of severity and consequences, Safe Practices

 

identify the type of hazard, the potential severity and potential consequences for the plant employee due to the application of insulating tape to the exposed high-voltage wire

 

Q6. Find the Standing Wave Ratio of a Transmission Line

 

Given a lossless Transmission line with Z0=50ohm, terminated at a resistive load RL>Z0. The plot of voltage standing wave ratio is given with vmax=6volt, vmin=2volt.

(a) Determine the standing wave ratio on the line terminated (resistive).

(b) Determine RL.

(c) Determine the voltage magnitude of the incident wave.

(d) Determine the wavelength of the line if the distance between the consecutive maxima and minima is given.

 

Q7. Write an essay (1,250-1,500 words)

 

 

Many theories and intervention techniques in performance psychology have a cognitive-behavioral approach. The interactional model of personality which describes behavior as the sum of personality (p), the environmental situation (s), and the interaction (i.e., Behavior = P + S + P x S) is generally a better predictor of success than the environmental situation or the personality alone. However, in many situations the environmental conditions are so influential that the stable personality characteristics will have little effect. This is known as the personality paradox. In this assignment, you will discuss the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining both the personality paradox and how a performer’s personality interacts with the environment to produce a behavioral response.

General Requirements:

Use the following information to ensure successful completion of the assignment:

  • Instructors will be using a grading rubric to grade the assignments. It is recommended that learners review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment in order to become familiar with the assignment criteria and expectations for successful completion of the assignment.
  • Doctoral learners are required to use APA style for their writing assignments. The APA Style Guide is located in the Student Success Center.
  • This assignment requires that at least two additional scholarly research sources related to this topic, and at least one in-text citation from each source be included.

Directions:

Write an essay (1,250-1,500 words) in which you will discuss the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining both the personality paradox and how a performer’s personality interacts with the environment to produce a behavioral response. In your paper, include the following:

  1. An explanation of how the personality paradox might occur.
  2. A discussion of the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining the personality paradox.
  3. A discussion of the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining how the performer’s personality interacts with the environment.

 

Q8. Monostable or one-shot multi-vibrator

 

  •  Explain the conditions that the trigger signal that you will apply at trigger input (pin No.2) should have in order to trigger the monostable multivibrator. Explain your result.

Or

  • Explain the principle of working of mono-stable multi-vibrator (One-shot multi-vibrator)

Or

  • Give the pin description of IC 555 timer or mono-stable multi-vibrator and explain its principle of operation.

 

Q9. Binary Phase Shift Keying

 

What is the need to use the synchronous carrier in BPSK demodulation?

Can a non-synchronos carrier such as cos(w0t) be used instead?

What is the use of the square-law device, the band-pass filter, and the frequency divider?

What is the function of the bit synchronizer?

How the integrate-and-dump circuit is used to recover the original signal? Show it mathematically.

Mathematically prove how the effect of 2wcan be eliminated.

 

Q10. python programming

The assessment requires the student to incorporate all the learned technologies in single testbed/simulation. All the students are required to communicate their project that they are working on as Coursework Testbed implementation/Simulation.

 

Example projects that could be undertaken as Coursework Project include the following:

  • Manage Cloud resources: The proposed solution is to run Apache Mesos/DCOS which is a cluster management solution that is typically deployed in data centres, it manages and monitors resources and combines the resources of servers such as CPU, RAM, STORAGE and serves software applications through its framework called Marathon, it enables various applications and frameworks to share cluster resources affectively as well as in isolation.
  • VM Tool Comparisons: The purpose of this purpose is to evaluate the scalability (VM set-up and termination) using two of the most commonly used VIMs Eucalyptus, and OpenNebula.
  • Test-driven and Object-Oriented Implementation of 5G architecture: While NFV has an ETSI defined reference architecture, its beneficial to implement a pure software representation of architecture. The purpose of this project is to design Class, Interaction, State Chart, Component, Deployment Diagrams for 5G architecture using UML software such as IBM Rational Rose / MagicDraw / Lucidchart. The project requires good practice and documentation.
  • Cloud based Multimedia Streaming and Transcoding (Student may use a VMware Hypervisor to create VMs to transcode and stream multimedia contents using FFMPEG to support HLS based http streaming, this project can also be developed as Virtual Network functions.
  • Datacentre Implementation using VMware Hypervisor: Student may design and implement a data centre using VMWARE Hypervisor to meet the needs of a particular organisation.
  • Docker Management Platform: This project requires to design and develop a docker management platform using python.

The above listed are just an example projects, student may choose any one of them or may also propose a project that helps him to implement the cloud and virtualisation concepts that he has learned in this module. This would be required an approval from the Module leader.

 

Coursework Specification

  1. Each group must provide a report comprising: abstract, introduction, experimentation objectives and experimental results and conclusions
  2. Please use the appendix to provide a logbook with the contributions of each member of the group
  3. The minimum length of the report is 3500 words with at least 6 screenshots from experimental development-testing.

 

The assessment requires the student to incorporate all the learned technologies in single testbed/simulation. All the students are required to communicate their project that they are working on as Coursework Testbed implementation/Simulation.

 

Example projects that could be undertaken as Coursework Project include the following:

  • Manage Cloud resources: The proposed solution is to run Apache Mesos/DCOS which is a cluster management solution that is typically deployed in data centres, it manages and monitors resources and combines the resources of servers such as CPU, RAM, STORAGE and serves software applications through its framework called Marathon, it enables various applications and frameworks to share cluster resources affectively as well as in isolation.
  • VM Tool Comparisons: The purpose of this purpose is to evaluate the scalability (VM set-up and termination) using two of the most commonly used VIMs Eucalyptus, and OpenNebula.
  • Test-driven and Object-Oriented Implementation of 5G architecture: While NFV has an ETSI defined reference architecture, its beneficial to implement a pure software representation of architecture. The purpose of this project is to design Class, Interaction, State Chart, Component, Deployment Diagrams for 5G architecture using UML software such as IBM Rational Rose / MagicDraw / Lucidchart. The project requires good practice and documentation.
  • Cloud based Multimedia Streaming and Transcoding (Student may use a VMware Hypervisor to create VMs to transcode and stream multimedia contents using FFMPEG to support HLS based http streaming, this project can also be developed as Virtual Network functions.
  • Datacenter Implementation using VMware Hypervisor: Student may design and implement a data center using VMWARE Hypervisor to meet the needs of a particular organisation.
  • Docker Management Platform: This project requires to design and develop a docker management platform using python.

The above listed are just an example projects, student may choose any one of them or may also propose a project that helps him to implement the cloud and virtualisation concepts that he has learned in this module. This would be required an approval from the Module leader.

 

Coursework Specification

  1. Each group must provide a report comprising: abstract, introduction, experimentation objectives and experimental results and conclusions
  2. Please use the appendix to provide a logbook with the contributions of each member of the group
  3. The minimum length of the report is 3500 words with at least 6 screenshots from experimental development-testing.

 

 

PHYSICS

Q1. Calculate the magnetic field in a Toroidal ring

3.5. A laminated toroidal iron core has a mean magnetic path of diameter 15 cm and relative permeability 1000. The core has a circular cross-section of diameter 2 cm and a coil with 100 turns. The flux density in the core is 1T. Calculate

(a)the value of magnetic field strength H in the core
(b)the required coil mmf.
(c)the coil current
(d)the coil flux
(e)the coil flux linkage
(f) the coil inductance from the coil flux-linkage

 

Q2. What are the inductive and deductive methods of science? How they are involved in technology?

  • Discuss the differences between inductive and deductive methods of science
  • Elaborate on how they are involved in technology.
  • What is grounded theory?
  • The general rules to follow to apply the inductive and deductive method to technology
  • Approaches to follow to make the inductive and deductive methods successful

 

Q3. PHSC 210 Comparative Essay

Comparative Essay Instructions

Selection of Topic

Choose 1 of the following topics for your Comparative Essay:

  1. Age of the earth (radioisotope dating vs. alternative methods)
  2. Origin of coal (swamp forests vs. marine deposition)
  3. Dating the rock layers seen in the Grand Canyon (old earth vs. young earth)
  4. The fossil record (evidence of: long periods of time vs. short periods of time)
  5. Mass extinctions in the fossil record (old-earth vs. young-earth)

 

Content and Outline

Use the following outline when writing your paper. Each point on the outline below must be a separate section (with the section heading, as indicated) within your paper.

  1. Introduction
  • Indicate which topic you chose from the list above.
  • Indicate the purpose of your paper (i.e., to compare old-earth and young-earth viewpoints on your chosen topic).
  1. Old-Earth Secular View
  • What is the old-earth secular viewpoint and the evidence supporting that viewpoint on your chosen topic? Are there assumptions that are part of this viewpoint?

o   Do not discuss the old-earth creationist viewpoint on your chosen topic. For a description of old-earth creationism, go to http://www.icr.org/article/4535/.

III.                Young-Earth View

  • What is the young-earth viewpoint and the evidence for that viewpoint on your chosen topic? Are there assumptions that are part of this viewpoint?
  1. Comparison of the Viewpoints
  • Comparison is articulating similarities between the 2 viewpoints. What are the similarities (if any) in time, sequence, and processes involved?
  • Be sure to provide at least 2 similarities (comparisons) between the viewpoints.
  1. Contrast of the Viewpoints
  • Contrast is articulating differences between the 2 viewpoints. What are the differences (if any) in time, sequence, and processes involved?
  • Be sure to provide at least 2 differences (contrasts) between the viewpoints.
  1. Conclusion
  • Provide a summary statement for your paper.
  • Be sure to restate your purpose.
  • Do not introduce new material in your conclusion.

 

Avoid using first person throughout the paper. Use of “I” or “we” should be avoided.

 

Length

This paper must be 1,000–1,500 words. Do not exceed this word limit. The title page and reference page do not count toward this word total.

 

Format

You must use current APA formatting. Papers must be double-spaced with 1-inch margins. Font is to be 12-point Times New Roman. Include a cover or title page with:

Ø  paper title

Ø  your name

Ø  instructor’s name

Ø  course number, section number and course name (i.e., PHSC 210 B21, Elements of Earth Science)

Ø  date

There is no need to include an abstract in your paper.

 

Sources

Your Comparative Essay must include at least 4 scholarly sources in addition the course textbook and the Bible. Of these required sources, 2 must be from an old-earth perspective and 2 from a young-earth perspective. Acceptable sources include journal articles, manuscripts, scholarly textbooks, and/or internet sites from .edu or .gov sources. Avoid internet sites from .com, .net, .org, etc. as the information contained therein is not often peer reviewed. There are exceptions to this rule (e.g., the Institute for Creation Research site is a .org site, but it has been judged a reputable site by those in the young-earth community. Answers in Genesis is also acceptable.). In particular, avoid Wikipedia. Study Bibles are also not appropriate for this assignment.

 

Citation

Be sure to cite your sources in the body of your paper using current APA formatting. Examples of current APA formatting rules can be found here. Also, a presentation about current APA formatting is provided in Module/Week 6.

 

Plagiarism

Plagiarism is an academic infringement and a violation of Liberty’s Honor Code. To learn more about plagiarism and how to avoid it, visit this website. All submitted essays are subject to a SafeAssign review. This will compare your paper against thousands of other submissions.   Cases of plagiarism will be dealt with according to current policies established by Liberty University Online.

Submission

Submit your work to Blackboard as a Microsoft Word document. Do not paste your paper in the submission box in Blackboard, only upload the Word document. Do not submit as .pdf file.

Submit your Comparative Essay by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.

 

Title [This should be one of the 5 options from the instructions.)
Student name

PHSC 210-[Section]

Date

Instructor

Introduction

Old-Earth Secular View

Young-Earth View

Comparison of the Viewpoints

Contrast of the Viewpoints

Conclusion

[Content needs to be a bit more than 1,000 words and less than 1,500 words full credit. The Cover and Reference pages do not count in this word total. Delete all blank lines. Left align all text except headings and always indent the first line of each paragraph. ]

 

 

References

[At least 4 sources are required – at least 2 from each side of the debate – in the format below.]

Author(s) (year). Title. Publication. DOI or Retrieved from [url] [Use hanging indent format where the second line is indented as shown on this line and the line following. Please include an adequate number of sources for this essay other than your course texts (see assignment Instructions).]

 

 

Q4. PHSC 210 dISCUSSION 2

Discussion Board Forum 2 Prompt

Topic: Current Young-Earth Research

 

Thread:

In this 350 word (minimum) discussion board thread, you will choose from 1 of 10 current young-Earth Institute for Creation Research articles based on your interest. Follow these steps:

  1. Choose ONE of the following a current young-Earth articles from the list below.
    1. Oil, Fracking and Recent Global Flood (http://www.icr.org/article/oil-fracking-recent-global-flood/)
    2. Dinosaur Fossils in Late Flood Rocks (http://www.icr.org/article/dinosaur-fossils-late-flood-rocks)
    3. The Ice Age and Scattering of the Nations (http://www.icr.org/article/ice-age-scattering-nations/)
    4. Dinosaur Soft Tissues: They’re Real! (http://www.icr.org/article/4819)
    5. World’s Most Catastrophic Extinction (http://www.icr.org/article/worlds-most-catastrophic-extinction)
    6. Is there Geological Evidence for the Young Earth? (http://www.icr.org/article/there-geological-evidence-for-young-earth)
    7. The Ice Age: Causes and Consequences (http://www.icr.org/article/4788)
    8. Dinosaur Fossils Found in Marine Rocks…Again (http://www.icr.org/article/dinosaur-fossils-found-marine-rocksagain)
    9. One-Hour Oil Production? (http://www.icr.org/article/one-hour-oil-production/)
    10. Radioactive Decay Rates Not Stable (http://www.icr.org/article/radioactive-decay-rates-not-stable)

 

  1. Read the article by clicking on the matching link to the article in the Reading and Study Folder > Discussion Board 2 Article Links for this module (or copy and paste a link above into your browser).
  2. In 3 to 5 paragraphs, include the following in your thread:
    1. The author and title of the article.
    2. A summary the main finding(s) of the article.
    3. A discussion the significance of the findings.
    4. Your reasons for choosing this article.
    5. A short concluding sentence or two.
    6. (No bibliography is needed unless other sources are included. Cite using APA formatting. Also, provide in-text citations, as appropriate.).

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Replies: (Two 100-word replies are required)

After reading a classmate’s thread, answer the following questions in a minimum of 100 words:

  1. What most interested you about your classmate’s thread?
  2. Is there anything you want to add to your classmate’s thread?
  3. Are there any unanswered questions in the thread?

 

Submit your thread by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Thursday of the Module/Week of the assignment and submit your replies by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the same module/week.

 

Q5. PHSC 210 DISCUSSION 1

Discussion Board Forum 1 Prompt

 

Topic: Earth Science in Action

 

Thread:

Complete the following step-by-step process:

  1. Watch the presentation entitled “How to Find Articles for the ‘Earth Science in Action’ Assignment” in the Reading & Study folder for Module/Week 4.
  2. Explore the following 3 websites which are also available in the Reading & Study folder for Module/Week 4:

http://www.sciencedaily.com/news/earth_climate/geology/

http://geologytimes.com/

http://geology.com/news

  1. Find 1 article that interests you from 1 of the links above. Do NOT choose 1 article from each link.
  2. Read the article and take notes.
  3. Write a thread that addresses the following questions related to your chosen article:
  4. What is the title of the article?
  5. What is the web address for the article?
  6. Who is(are) the author(s)?
  7. What is(are) the topic(s) covered in the article?
  8. What new information have scientists found?
  9. Why is this new information important?
  10. What impact will this new information have on mankind and/or on science?
  11. What drew you to this article? That is, why did you find this article interesting?

 

Notes:

  1. The article chosen must have been written within the last 5 years.
  2. If you cannot answer all of the questions above, then you must choose another article.
  3. Do not look for the shortest article as it will most likely not contain sufficient information for this assignment.
  4. Be sure you do not merely list and answer the questions above. You must construct a well-written thread in narrative format with an introduction and conclusion. The following outline is recommended:
  5. Introductory paragraph (include article title, web address, author(s), and topic(s) covered)
  6. Paragraph discussing the new information found, why this information is important, and how this information will impact mankind and/or science
  7. Paragraph discussing your interest in the article
  8. Concluding paragraph
  9. Be sure to reference your article in a bibliography using current APA format. Also, provide in-text citations, as appropriate.

 

Replies:

After reading a classmate’s thread and reviewing the article at the hyperlink provided by the classmate, answer the following questions:

  1. What most interested you about the classmate’s thread and article?
  2. Is there anything fascinating about the article that the classmate did not identify?
  3. Would you recommend this article to someone else? Why or why not? Provide at least 2 reasons.

 

Submit your thread by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Thursday of Module/Week 4 and your replies by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the same module/week.

Q6. Flight Performance and Compressibility Effects Exercise

 

Complete the Aircraft Performance Exercise linked below. Review the Examples and Tutorials before you start solving the problems. Make sure that it is your own work and show work with references.

 

 

Exercise 7: Maneuvering & High Speed Flight

 

For this week’s assignment you will research a historic or current fighter type aircraft of your choice (options for historic fighter jets include, but are not limited to: Me262, P-59, MiG-15, F-86, Hawker Hunter, Saab 29, F-8, Mirage III, MiG-21, MiG-23, Su-7, Electric Lightning, Electric Canberra, F-104, F-105, F-4, F-5, A-6, A-7, Saab Draken, Super Etendard, MiG-25, Saab Viggen, F-14, and many more)

 

As previously mentioned and in contrast to formal research for other work in your academic program at ERAU, Wikipedia may be used as a starting point for this assignment. However, DO NOT USE PROPRIETARY OR CLASSIFIED INFORMATION even if you happen to have access in your line of work.

 

Notice also that NASA has some great additional information at: http://www.hq.nasa.gov/pao/History/SP-468/contents.htm.

 

  1. Selected Aircraft:

 

  1. Aircraft Gross Weight [lbs]:

 

  1. Aircraft Wing Area [ft2]:

 

  1. Positive Limit Load Factor (LLF – i.e. the max positive G) for your aircraft:

 

  1. Negative LLF (i.e. the max negative G) for your aircraft:

 

  1. Maximum Speed [kts] of your aircraft. If given as Mach number, convert by using Eq. 17.2 relationships with a sea level speed of sound of 661 kts.

 

 

For simplification, assume the CLmax for your aircraft was 1.5 (unless you can find a different CLmax in your research).

 

 

  1. Find the Stall Speed [kts] at 1G under sea level standard conditions for your aircraft (similar to all of our previous stall speed work, simply apply the lift equation in its stall speed form from page 44 to the above data):

 

 

  1. Find the corresponding Stall Speeds for 2G, 3G, 4G, and so on for your selected aircraft (up to the positive load limit from 4. above), using the relationship of Eq. 14.5. You can use the table below to track your results.

 

 

  1. Add the corresponding Stall Speeds for -1G, -2G, and so on for your selected aircraft (up to the negative load limit from 5. above) to your table. Assume that your fighter wing has symmetrical airfoil characteristics, i.e. that the negative maximum CL value is equal but opposite to the positive one. (Feel free to use specific airfoil data for your aircraft, but please make sure to use the correct maximum positive and negative Lift Coefficients in the correct places, i.e. CLmax in the positive part and highest negative CL in the negative part of the table and curve, and indicate your changes to the given example.)

 

Explanation: Making the assumption of symmetry simplifies your work, since the stall curve in the negative part of the V-G diagram becomes a mirror image of the positive side. Notice also that the simplified form of Eq. 14.5 won’t work with negative values; however, if using the G-dependent stall equation in the middle of page 222, it becomes obvious that negative signs cancel out between the negative G and the negative CLmax, and Stall Speeds can actually be calculated in the same way as for positive G, reducing your workload on the negative side to only one calculation of the stall speed at the negative LLF, if not a whole number.)

 

 

  1. Track your results in the V-G diagram below by properly labeling speeds at intercept points. Add also horizontal lines for positive and negative load limits on top and bottom and a vertical line on the right for the upper speed limit of your aircraft at sea level from 6. above. (Essentially you are re-constructing the V-G diagram by appropriately labeling it for your aircraft. Notice that the shape of the diagram and the G-dependent curve relationship is essentially universal and just the applicable speeds will change from aircraft to aircraft. Make sure to reference book Fig. 14.8 for comparison.)

 

 

 

G

VS

(kts)

PLL:
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
0
-1
-2
-3
-4
-5
NLL:

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Find the Ultimate Load Factor (ULF) based on your aircraft’s Positive Limiting Load Factor (LLF). (For the relationship between LLF and ULF, see book discussion p. 226 and Fig. 14.9):

 

 

  1. Find the Positive Ultimate Limit Load [lbs] based on the ULF in E. above and the Gross Weight from 2.?

 

 

  1. Explain how limit load factors change with changes in aircraft weight. Support your answer with formula work and/or calculation example.

 

 

  1. What is the Maneuvering Speed [kts] for your aircraft?

 

 

  1. At the Maneuvering Speed and associated load factor, find the Turn Radius ‘r’ [ft] and the Rate of Turn (ROT) [deg/s].

 

  1. I) Use Eq. 14.3 to find bank angle ‘f’ for that load factor (i.e. G). (Remember to check that your calculator is in the proper trigonometric mode when building the arccos).

 

 

  1. II) With bank angle from I) above and maneuvering speed from H., use Eq. 14.15 to find turn radius ‘r’.

 

 

III) With bank angle from I) above and maneuvering speed from H., use Eq. 14.16 to find             ROT. (Make sure to use the formula that already utilizes speed in kts and gives results in             degree per second).

 

 

  1. For your selected aircraft, describe the different features that are incorporated into the design to allow high-speed and/or supersonic flight. Explain how those design features enhance the high-speed performance, and name additional features not incorporated in your aircraft, but available to designers of supersonic aircraft.

 

 

  1. Using Fig. 14.10 from Flight Theory and Aerodynamics, find the Bank Angle for a standard rate (3 deg/s) turn at your aircraft’s maneuvering speed. (This last assignment is again designed to review some of the diagram reading skills required for your final exam; therefor, please make sure to fully understand how to extract the correct information and review book, lecture, and/or tutorials as necessary. You can use the below diagram copy to visualize your solution path by adding the appropriate lines, either via electronic means, e.g. insert line feature in Word or Acrobat, or through printout, drawing, and scanning methods.)

 

 

 

From: Dole, C. E. & Lewis, J. E. (2000). Flight Theory and Aerodynamics. New York, NY: John Wiley & Sons Inc.

 

 

Example Problems Module 8

GIVEN:

W= 25,000lb

Stall Speed @1G Level Flight = 125 KEAS= Vs1

S= 314.5 ft2

CLmax = 1.5

Sea Level Standard Day (σ = 1.0)

Utility Certification (+4.4G to -2.0G)

 

Find stall speed (KEAS) at 4.0 G (Vs2)

From the Lecture Notes and Dole & Lewis-page 222

VsKEAS =  =  =250 KEAS

or

Equation 14.5  Vs2 = Vs1   = 125 KEAS   = 250 KEAS

 

 

 

Find Va (Maneuvering Speed) (KEAS)

Equation 14.9  Va = Vs   = 125 KEAS   = 262 KEAS

 

Find Stall speed (KEAS), level flight  at 0.5 G

Equation 14.5  Va = Vs   = 125 KEAS   = 88.4 KEAS

 

 

Find Stall speed (KEAS) , level flight 60 deg bank angle

 

Equation 14.6  Vs2 = Vs1   = 125  = 176.8 KEAS

 

 

Find turn radius (r) and Rate of Turn (ROT) at 250KEAS and 70 deg bank angle level turn

 

Equation 14.15            r =    =  == 2020 ft

 

Equation 14.16            ROT() =     =  = 11.98 deg/sec

or approximated graphically using Figure 14.10

(Note: The figure has two scales for Bank Angle.  One you use for Rate of Turn (ROT) and the other you use for Radius of Turn (r).The example lines are for 70 degrees bank angle

 

 

Q7. Pecha Kucha Presentation on aging aircraft inspection and documentation

 

Please find the attachment for an abstract for your research paper on aging aircraft inspection and documentation. In this activity, you will prepare a Pecha Kucha presentation based on your topic proposal. Provide 10 slides, with a 20 second presentation for each slide, either in audio or caption format.

Important: Be sure to properly cite and reference sources for all content. Citations and references are required and must be in APA style/format. Make sure it is own work not from other sources.

Refer to the  Pecha Kucha Presentation Guidelines  for content and delivery format and guidelines.

Content Format Guidelines

This course uses a modified Pecha Kucha approach, in which each of the three Pecha Kucha Presentation activities require a varying number of slides presented in varying time frames. See each activity for specific content format guidelines. Discussion may be in either audio or caption format for the activities, with audio formats requiring an accompanying transcript.

  • Important: Be sure to properly cite and reference sources for all content. Citations and references are required and must be in APA style/format. Review the evaluation rubric to make sure that your presentation aligns to the grading standard.

Delivery Format Guidelines

The recommended presentation format for Pecha Kucha presentations in this course is a screencast, which records your slides and audio together in a single video file. However, you may also use a lower-tech approach, such as a traditional Microsoft® Office PowerPoint or Apple Keynote, combined with captions to convey your message. There are a variety of presentation software and authoring tools available online for you to develop your presentation. Review the document linked below for a list of some of the more popular tools. All of these tools offer either a free version or free 30-day trial. Examples/tutorials are often included on the product websites. Note: ERAU does not provide technical support on any products external to the Canvas learning management system.

Again, there is no specific presentation format requirement other than the guidelines outlined above. Think outside the box and be creative in your presentation!

Note: View the evaluation rubric in the each Pecha Kucha activity. Please read these instructions for information on accessing the rubric.Links to an external site.

Tips: Since this may be your first Pecha Kucha, ensure you understand what the concept is and how it works, then build your presentation and practice presenting it before recording, should you plan to create a screencast. When available, please also use streaming video links for any video recordings, as opposed to uploading complete video files to the course which are usually very large.

Accessibility Support: If your presentation uses audio, please include a written transcript. Some of the presentation authoring tools, such as Camtasia, affords the opportunity to convert its transcription files to Microsoft® Office Word format.

 

ABSTRACT

This paper is going to discuss about aging aircraft inspection and what documentation is required of aircraft in the general aviation industry that are past two decades. It would start out with the publication of the FAA produced entitled “Best Practices for Aging General Aviation Airplanes.” (Federal Aviation Administration, 2003).  This article published by the FAA was endorsed by three non-government aircraft organizations. This paper will get the source from the Hunt Library, internet researches, and utilize those sources to present information. Also would include feedbacks from pilots that operate and maintenance crews on the Civil Air Patrol Aircraft.

And some of the questions that will be brought up in this research paper would be what inspection approach existed before the Aging Aircraft Inspection criteria established by the FAA? What differences in approach did the international aviation community take and what are the differences from the domestic industry? Are they more or less comprehensive and if so how? If I would not be able to get the answer to the questions, I would focus on the requirements of the aging aircraft maintenance documentation.

 

Reference

Federal Aviation Administration (01/09/2015). Advisory Circular 120-84 Aging Aircraft Inspections and Record Reviews. Retrieved October 05, 2017, from www.faa.gov/documentLibrary/media/Advisory_Circular/AC_120-84.pdf

Parr, N. (1970, January 01). Aging Aircraft. Retrieved October 05, 2017, from http://parr-agingaircraft.blogspot.com/2014/07/documentation-for-aging-aircraft.html

Q8. Drag Exercise (Answer the questions on word file)

Complete the Drag Exercise with showing work. Need to be answered on the attached word file.

Make sure its own work and with showing work for the solution.

 

Exercise 4: Drag and Applications

 

The first part of this week’s assignment is to revisit our reciprocating engine powered (i.e. propeller type) aircraft from last week.

 

  1. Selected Aircraft (from last week’s module):

 

 

Make sure to review your data and results from last week and any feedback that you may have received on your work, in order to prevent continuing with faulty data.

 

 

 

  1. Main Wing Airfoil type & on-line database designator (from last week’s module):

 

 

  1. Aircraft Maximum Gross Weight [lbs] (from last week’s module):

 

 

  1. Wing Span [ft] (from last week’s module):

 

 

  1. Average Chord Length [ft] (from last week’s module):

 

 

  1. Wing Area ‘S’ [ft2] (from last week’s module):

 

 

  1. Find the Aspect Ratio ‘AR’ for your selected aircraft wing. (Use the wing span and average chord length from last week’s module/from above. See also page 63 in your textbook.):

 

 

  1. CLmax for your airfoil (from last week’s module):

 

 

  1. Standard sea level Stall Speed ‘Vs’ for your aircraft [kts] (from last week’s calculation):

 

 

Find the appropriate drag polar curve for your airfoil selection (2. above; from last week’s module). You can utilize any officially published airfoil diagram for your selected airfoil or use again the Airfoil Tool at http://airfoiltools.com/search .

 

 

 

 

 

 

Concentrate for this exercise on the Cl/Cd (coefficient of lift vs coefficient of drag) plot, i.e. the so called drag polar. Use again only the curve for the highest Reynolds-number (Re) selected (i.e. remove all checkmarks, except the second to last, and press the “Update plots” tab).

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. From the polar plot, find the CDmin value for your airfoil, i.e. the lowest value that the coefficient of drag ‘Cd’ (bottom scale in the online tool depiction) reaches. (Tip: for a numerical breakdown of the plotted curve, you can again select the “Details” link and directly read the lowest CD value in the table – third column, labeled “CD”):

 

What we’ve just found (…with some degree of simplification…) is the parasite drag coefficient for our airfoil, i.e. the drag that exists due to skin friction and the shape of our airfoil, even when little or no lift is produced. However, this value will only represent the airfoil, i.e. main wing portion of our aircraft; therefore, let us for the remainder of our calculations assume that our aircraft is a Flying Wing type design and the total CDP for the aircraft is the same as the CDmin that we’ve just found.

 

Let us also assume that we are at standard sea level atmospheric conditions and that our wing has an efficiency factor of e = 0.82.

 

  1. Prepare and complete the following table for your aircraft (with the data from 1. through 8. above). Start your first row with the Stall Speed ‘Vs’ (from 7. above) and start the second row from the top with the next higher full twenty knots above that stall speed. Then increase speed with every subsequent row by another 20 knots until reaching 300 kts. You are again encouraged to utilize MS® Excel as shown in the tutorial video and can also increase your table detail. However, the below depicted, and above described, interval is the minimum required for this assignment.

 

V

(KTAS)

q

(psf)

CL  

CDP

 

CDI

CD CL / CD DP

(lb)

DI

(lb)

DT

(lb)

VS
60
80
100
120
140
160
180
200
220
240
260
280
300

 

Equations for Table:

 

q =                                    CL =                   CDi =[1/ (πeAR)] CL 2                      

CD = CDP + CDi                       CD = CDP + [1/ (e AR)] CL 2                                  Dp = CDp q S

Di = CDi q S = [1/ (e AR)] CL2 q S                                   Dt = Di + Dp = CD q S

 

Answer the following questions from your table.

 

  1. I) Determine the minimum total drag ‘Dmin[lbs] (i.e. the minimum value in the total drag ‘DT’ column):

 

 

  1. II) Determine the airspeed at which this minimum drag occurs ‘VDmin[kts] (i.e. the speed associated with the row in which ‘Dmin’ was found):

 

 

III) Compare parasitic ‘DP’ and induced ‘DI’ drag at VDmin. What is special about this point          in your table?

 

 

  1. IV) Determine the maximum CL/CD value in your table (i.e. the maximum value in the CL/CD column) and the speed at which it occurs.

 

 

  1. V) Compare your results in IV) with II) and comment on your findings.

 

 

  1. VI) Explain which values in your table will directly allow glide performance prediction and how (Tip: Reference again the textbook discussion pp. 61-63).

 

  1. If the gross weight of your aircraft is decreased by 10% (e.g. due to fuel burn), how would the stall speed change? Support you answer with calculation as well as written assessment. (Remember, stall speed references and discussions can be found pp. 43-45 in your textbook.)

 

 

 

For the second part of this assignment use the given figure below (Figure 1.13 from Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators [1965]) to answer the following questions. (This assignment is designed to review some of the diagram reading skills required for your midterm exam; therefore, please make sure to fully understand all the diagram information and review book, lecture, and/or tutorials if necessary.):

 

Figure 1.13 from Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators (1965).

  1. What is the Angle of Attack at Stall for the aircraft in Figure 1.13?

 

 

  1. What Angle of Attack is associated with Best L/D?

 

 

  1. What would be the best Glide Ratio for this aircraft?

 

 

  1. What is the maximum coefficient of lift (CLmax) value?

 

Q9. Lift and Airfoils Exercise

Complete the Lift and Airfoils Exercise linked below. This exercise requires you to complete some on-line research on airfoil profiles and lift curves, which will familiarize you with another type of data depiction: charts and graphs.

Must show work and references.

Answers need to be added in the attached word file

Exercise 3: Lift and Airfoils

 

The first part of this week’s assignment is to choose and research a reciprocating engine powered (i.e. propeller type) aircraft. You will further use your selected aircraft in subsequent assignments, so be specific and make sure to stay relatively conventional with your choice in order to prevent having trouble finding the required data during your later research. Also, if you find multiple numbers (e.g. for different aircraft series, different configurations, and/or different operating conditions), please pick only one for your further work, but make sure to detail your choice in your answer (i.e. comment on the condition) and stay consistent with that choice throughout subsequent work.

 

In contrast to formal research for other work in your academic program at ERAU, Wikipedia may be used as a starting point for this assignment. However, DO NOT USE PROPRIETARY OR CLASSIFIED INFORMATION even if you happen to have access in your line of work.

 

  1. Selected Aircraft:

 

For the following part of your research, you can utilize David Lednicer’s (2010) Incomplete Guide to Airfoil Usage at http://m-selig.ae.illinois.edu/ads/aircraft.html or any other reliable source for research on your aircraft.

 

  1. Main Wing Airfoil (if more than one airfoil is used in the wing design, e.g. different between root and tip, pick the predominant profile and, as always, stay consistent):

Please note also the database designator in the following on-line tool (see picture below):

 

Find the appropriate lift curve for your Airfoil from 4. You can utilize any officially published airfoil diagram for your selected airfoil or use the Airfoil Tool at http://airfoiltools.com/search and text search for NACA or other designations, search your aircraft, or use the library links to the left of the screen. Once the proper airfoil is displayed and identified, select the “Airfoil details” link to the right, which will bring up detailed plots for your airfoil similar to the ones in your textbook.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Concentrate for this exercise on the Cl/alpha (coefficient of lift vs angle of attack) plot. Start by de-cluttering the plot and leaving only the curve for the highest Reynolds-number (Re) selected (i.e. remove all checkmarks, except the second to last, and press the “Update plots” tab).

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. From the plot, find the CLmax for your airfoil (Tip: for a numerical breakdown of the plotted curve, you can select the “Details” link and directly read the highest CL value, i.e. the highest number within the second column, and associated AOA in the table, i.e. the associated number in the first column):

 

 

  1. Find the Stall AOA of your airfoil (i.e. the AOA associated with CLmax in 3.):

 

 

  1. Find the CL value for an AOA of 5° for your selected airfoil:

 

 

  1. Find the Zero-Lift AOA for your airfoil (again, the numerical table values can be used to more precisely interpolate Zero-Lift AOA, i.e. the AOA value for which CL in the second column becomes exactly 0):
  2. Compare your researched airfoil plot to the given plot of NACA 4412 (http://airfoiltools.com/airfoil/details?airfoil=naca4412-il).

 

  1. a) How do the two CLmax compare to each other? Describe the differences in airfoil characteristics (i.e. camber & thickness) between your airfoil and the given NACA 4412,            and how those differences affect CLmax. (Use your knowledge about airfoil designation          together with the airfoil drawings and details in the on-line tool to make conclusions about )

                                                         

 

  1. b) How do the two Stall AOA compare to each other? Explain how the differences in airfoil characteristics (i.e. camber & thickness) between your airfoil and the given NACA           4412 affect Stall AOA.

 

 

  1. c) How do the two Zero-Lift AOA compare to each other? Evaluate how the differences in airfoil characteristics between your airfoil and the given NACA 4412 affect Zero-Lift AOA.

 

 

  1. Compare your researched airfoil plot to the NACA 0012 plot.

 

  1. a) How do the two Zero-Lift AOA compare to each other? Evaluate how the differences in airfoil characteristics between your airfoil and the given NACA 0012 affect Zero-Lift AOA.

 

 

  1. b) What is special about the design characteristics of NACA 0012? How and where could this airfoil design type be utilized on your selected aircraft? Describe possible additional       uses of such airfoil in aviation.

 

 

For the second part of this assignment use your knowledge of the atmosphere and the Density Ratio, (sigma), together with Table 2.1 and the Lift Equation, Equation 4.1, in your textbook (remember that the presented equation already contains a conversion factor, the 295, and speeds should be directly entered in knots; results for lift will be in lbs):

 

L = CL *  * S * V2 / 295

 

Additionally, for your selected aircraft use the following data when applying Equation 4.1:

 

  1. Research the Wing Span [ft]:
  2. Find the Average Chord Length [ft]:

      Note: Average Chord = (Root Chord + Tip Chord) / 2          (if no Average Chord is directly found                                                                                         in your research)

 

  1. Find the Maximum Gross Weight [lbs] for your selected aircraft:

 

  1. Calculate the Wing Area ‘S’ [ft2] based on your aircraft’s Wing Span (from 9.) and Average Chord Length (from 10.):

 

  1. Use the CL value for an AOA of 5° for your airfoil found in 5. above to simulate cruise conditions in the following exercise B. (Note it here for easier reference):

 

  1. Prepare and complete a table of Lift vs. Airspeed at different Pressure Altitudes utilizing the given Lift Equation and your previous data. (For the calculation of Density Ratio ‘ you can assume standard temperatures and neglect humidity.)

You can utilize MS® Excel (ideal for repetitive application of the same formula) to populate table fields and examine additional speeds and altitudes, but as a minimum, include six speeds (0, 40, 80, 120, 160, & 200 KTAS) at three different altitudes (Sea Level, 10000, 40000 ft), as shown below:

 

Calculate LIFT (lb) Pressure Altitude (PA) ft
Airspeed: 0 10,000 40,000
0 KTAS
40 KTAS
80 KTAS
120 KTAS
160 KTAS
200 KTAS

 

 

  1. I) What is the relationship between Airspeed and Lift at a constant Pressure Altitude? Evaluate each Altitude column of your table individually and describe how changes in       Airspeed affect the resulting Lift. Be specific and mathematically precise, and support   your answer with the relationships expressed in the Lift Equation.

 

 

  1. II) What is the relationship between Altitude and Lift at a constant Airspeed? Evaluate each Airspeed row of your table individually and describe how changes in         Altitude affect the resulting Lift. Be specific and mathematically precise, and support       your answer with the relationships expressed in the Lift Equation.

 

 

III) Estimate the Airspeed required to support the Maximum Gross Weight of your           selected airplane (from 11. above) at an Altitude of 10000 ft and flying at the given AOA    of 5°. (As initially indicated, a   more detailed table/Excel worksheet is beneficial to     precision for this task. To support the Weight of any aircraft in level flight, an equal    amount of Lift has to be generated – therefore, you can also algebraically develop the lift equation to yield a precise Airspeed result, i.e. substituting L=W and solving for V in the lift equation. Remember that conditions in this question are not at sea level.)

 

 

  1. In B.III) above, we noted that lift has to equal weight in order to sustain level flight. Using the same Maximum Gross Weight (from 11.), and the same Wing Area (from A.), calculate required AOA for level flight at the different airspeeds in your table under standard, sea level conditions (i.e. =1). You can start a new table or expand your existing one. (See also step by step instructions below the table.):

 

Airspeed (KTAS) Required Lift = Weight Required CL Corresponding AOA for your airfoil
0
40
80
120
160
200

 

First and similar to the note in B.III) above, develop the lift equation algebraically to yield CL results based on Airspeed inputs (i.e. substitute Lift with the aircraft Weight and solve the Lift Equation for the Coefficient CL; then insert the different Airspeeds into V, calculate the corresponding CL values, and note them in your table).

 

Finally, use your researched airfoil Cl/alpha plot (from 3. through 8.) to find corresponding AOA to your calculated CL values (enter the plot in the left scale with each calculated CL value, trace horizontally to intercept the graph for that CL value, then move down vertically to find the corresponding AOA and note it in your table (alternatively, you can also look up values in the detailed table):

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. I) Comment on your results. Are there airspeeds for which you could not find useful results? Describe where in the step by step process you’ve got stuck and why. Explain     what it aerodynamically means for your airfoil if a required CL value is greater than the          CLmax that you found in 3.

 

 

  1. II) What is the standard sea level Stall Speed for your selected aircraft at its Maximum Gross Weight? (Utilize above data and the Stall Speed Equation on page 44 of “Flight   Theory and Aerodynamics”).

 

Q10. Assignment 1: Applications of the Scientific Method

 

Assignment 1: Applications of the Scientific Method
The scientific method is useful in problem solving and decision-making in a wide variety of fields. In this assignment, you will demonstrate how to use the scientific method to make decisions and solve problems in your field of study or everyday life.

Identify a specific problem often faced in your field of study or everyday life. Research your problem and assess your data / research. Examples of such problems could be:

  1. Business
  2. Developing a new product that is superior to competitor’s brands; or
  3. Establishing a price for a new product using the law of supply and demand;
  4. Information Systems and Technology
  5. The use of personal electronic devices for work purpose, or
  6. Determining in the most cost-effective computer for your business;
  7. Criminal Justice
  8. The reliability of eyewitness testimony, or
  9. Determining what evidence reveals to you about a crime;
  10. Everyday Life
  11. Selecting a particular brand of detergent, or
  12. Determining the most cost-efficient transportation / route for your commute.

Write a three to five (3-5) page paper in which you:

  1. Explain the scientific method and describe the overall manner in which you would apply it in your field of study or everyday life.
  2. Propose one (1) testable hypothesis to explain / solve the problem you have selected. State the expected outcomes of your actions and include criteria for determining whether or not these actions would succeed. Note:Your hypothesis should be stated very precisely.
  3. Describe the main actions that you intend to put into place to test the hypothesis that you proposed in Question 2. Describe the way in which you would evaluate the success of your program. Include the results that you would deem as a success and the results that would be considered a failure.
  4. Discuss the wisdom behind the strategy you would use to test the hypothesis from Question 3, and describe the additional steps you might take, depending on the results of your test. Note:These additional steps might be to revise your original hypothesis (if the results were unsatisfactory) or to propose new hypotheses. The goal is to continuously improve your understanding of the factors influencing your outcomes, to be able to achieve greater results over time.
  5. Use at least two (2) quality resources / references in this assignment. Note:Wikipedia and personal blogs do not qualify as quality resources.

Your report must follow these formatting requirements:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Apply concepts in physical sciences to evaluate current trends and issues in the modern world.
  • Describe the physical processes influencing climate and weather.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in physical sciences.
  • Write clearly and concisely about physical sciences using proper writing mechanics.

 

MUSIC

 

Q1. Music homework assignment A grade

Until this January, few researchers did, either. In the largest-ever study of how parental involvement affects academic achievement, Keith Robinson, a sociology professor at the University of Texas at Austin, and Angel L. Harris, a sociology professor at Duke, mostly found that it doesn’t. The researchers combed through nearly three decades’ worth of longitudinal surveys of American parents and tracked 63 different measures of parental participation in kids’ academic lives, from helping them with homework, to talking with them about college plans, to volunteering at their schools. In an attempt to show whether the kids of more-involved parents improved over time, the researchers indexed these measures to children’s academic performance, including test scores in reading and math.

 

 

Q2. Using Music to Manage Duties

“pretend you are a pediatrican, a pre game football coach, and the owner of an expensive and sophisticated restaurant. Choose music for each of these duties keeping the role of music as physical and emotional stimulus in mind. Give detailed reasons why you programmed what you did for each and list your objectives”

 

 

Q3. Watch the film The Agony and the Ecstasy

Watch the film The Agony and the Ecstasy (1965) (dir. Carol Reed)

link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-LnVqkwSRbc

Finish the following questions

  1. The “Prologue”: Although the opening 12-13 minutes of the film appear to simply give a biographical account of Michelangelo’s life and a kind of inventory of his work, please consider why this feature film bio-pic opens with a kind of documentary-type introduction to the man – and to his (sculptural) work. Who is the target audience of this opening sequence? Is there any kind of rivalry or tension between the story of Michelangelo the man and Michelangelo the artist mapped out here, and how does the opening sequence either anticipate or differ from the shape of the rest of the film in this respect? How does the film art / the film as art compete with the ‘real’ art that is showcased in the “Prologue”? How does Michelangelo’s art in the film(the Sistine Chapel frescoes) compare to Michelangelo’s art as it appears in the “Prologue”?

 

  1. Charlton Heston and Rex Harrison were major mid-twentieth century actors. (Please note that they nevertheless appear not to have been the first casting choices for this film!). As it turns out, they did not get along during the making of the film. Think about the film as a star vehicle and the need for there to be (plot-driven) tension between the characters of Michelangelo and Pope Julius II, but also eventual resolution. Do you think the two men’s actual dislike for one another helped the character development in the film? How does Rex Harrison represent Julius II – as generous, as militaristic, as proud, as a believer? How does Charlton Heston portray Michelangelo – as proud, driven, a loner, a believer? How does the cinematography capture these traits in both cases? (HINT: Harrison as Julius II on his horse and the Papal throne vs. Heston as Michelangelo silhouetted against the sky in the mountains around Carrara (at 59 minutes). Finally: What do you make of the camera angle and sweeping view of the completed Sistine Chapel at 2 hours, 9 min.? Does the ceiling – rather than the actors – end up being the star of the show?

 

  1. The post-“Prologue” parts of Reed’s film are elaborately ‘choreographed’; its two parts (before and after the “Intermission”) contain multiple parallel scenes that ask the viewer to assess what kinds of developments occur as the story unfolds. Please consider the following patterns:
  2. The opening sequence of Part I in the quarry (carving out the marble that is headed for Rome to become a sculpture by Michelangelo) that then erupts into a battle scene vs. / and the opening sequence of Part II as Michelangelo (the artist) bursting into Julius II’s camp. Has anything changed in the status of the art object? What about the sequence near the end of the film when Michelangelo seeks out the (defeated) Pope in a military camp to as to be able to finish the ceiling? Or the very brief scene of cannons firing just before the final scene of the crowds gathered in the completed Sistine Chapel (at 2 hours, 7 min.). What is the relation between war / military activity and art in this film?
  3. The two entries of the Pope into Rome in Parts I and II – once in triumph, the second time in defeat.
  4. The multiple scenes when Pope Julius II is celebrating mass in the Sistine Chapel with negotiations about the ceiling / the actual painting of the ceiling interrupting the religious services. What is the relation between religious belief / faith, religious ritual, and art in this film?
  5. The multiple scenes between Michelangelo and the Contessina de Medici. Is there a development in their relationship? NB: Please note that it was and is well known that Michelangelo was homosexual. Why does Reed emphasize the relationship with the Contessina the way he does? Is there any subtle / indirect evidence of Michelangelo’s homosexuality in the film? (HINT: The scene in the brothel when the Pope’s men are searching for Michelangelo and the dark-haired young male apprentice who seems to be ever present in Part II…).
  6. The multiple scenes of direct conflict, but then also clever manipulation of Michelangelo by Julius II and vice versa. How does Julius II succeed in getting Michelangelo to go back to work after he has fallen from the scaffolding? How does Michelangelo provoke Julius II to recover from what appears to be his near death after his defeat in battle in Part II? Consider carefully the scene in Part II when the two of them meet up on the scaffolding and discuss the central fresco of the Creation of Adam (1 hour, 57 min. to 2 hours, 2 min.). What does Julius II see in Michelangelo’s depiction of God and Adam? Does he believe what Michelangelo believes? How does their final conversation in the Sistine Chapel relate to the conversation on the scaffolding? Is this some kind of buddy film?

 

  1. There are two main locations of the action of this film: the city of Florence and the city of Rome. Who and what are the main focus of attention in the respective cities? Who (what classes and / or institutions) sponsor art in these two locations? There are of course other unnamed cities in the film, and the quarry at Carrara; what do these locations represent? Consider especially the class politics of the quarry and the workers’ support of Michelangelo vs. the skepticism – at least in Part I – of the people of Rome vis-à-vis the Pope.

 

  1. Pay careful attention to the politics of the film – which are pretty accurate! What / against whom is Pope Julius II fighting and why? Who are his “enemies” (both locally in Italy and in the rest of Europe) and what countries / leaders are characterized as his friends. Why is he concerned to get the Papal States back under his control? NB: The clearest statement of the politics that Reed would have us think were at stake for Julius II are voiced by the Medici duke at 2 hours, 3 min. to 2 hours, 7 minutes.

 

  1. We see three of Renaissance Italy’s most famous artists depicted in this film: Bramante, Michelangelo, and Raphael. What pieces / kinds of art is each man most clearly identified with in the film? Where does Michelangelo stand on the matter of the relation of ‘modern’ Renaissance art to the art of the ancient Greeks (at 1 hour, 20 minutes to 1 hour, 24 min.)? What about Raphael (please note that what we see Raphael painting is his famous “School of Athens” in the Vatican Stanze at 1 hour, 31 min.)? Are there rivalries between the various artists? Do we see these artists producing alone (as great geniuses) or are they part of a team? Consider Raphael’s speech about patronage at 1 hour, 45 min. Does he accurately describe the situations of patronage depicted in / referred to in the film? Consider the ways that Julius II and Michelangelo constantly bicker about money.

 

Some more specific questions:

 

  • What was the original design for the Sistine Chapel ceiling, and what is the overall story of the final design? Why does Michelangelo destroy the first version?
  • What is the difference between Bramante’s scaffolding and Michelangelo’s scaffolding?
  • Describe what is (more or less accurately) shown to be the way that frescoes are designed and painted (at 43 minutes and at 1 hour, 9 minutes).
  • Where is Michelangelo considering fleeing to – and to do what – after he destroys the first version of the Sistine frescos?
  • Why does Michelangelo fall from the scaffolding?
  • Why does Julius II order the scaffolding taken down at 1 hour, 40 min.?
  • How does Julius II eventually pay for Michelangelo to finish the Sistine Chapel ceiling (at 1 hour, 55 min.)?

 

Q4. A Man for all Seasons

A Man for all Seasons all thing is available character and all scene describe 

 

Q5. The movie “A Man for All Season” and finish the viewing questions

the movie “A Man for All Season” and finish the viewing questions

Q1. SOC 205 Week 9 Case Study 2 I Pledge Allegiance To The Flag(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Case Study 2: I Pledge Allegiance to the Flag

Due Week 9 and worth 200 points

Religion and Politics have traditionally been highly debated topics in our society. Recently, the Pledge of Allegiance has added to this debate.

American citizens have generally recited the Pledge of Allegiance at important ceremonies ranging from presidential inaugurations to the beginning of the school day. The pledge has a great deal of sentimental value to many Americans, but also creates a great deal of controversy for others.

Review the Supreme Court case Elk Grove Unified School District v. Newdow, which highlights the debate.

Write a five to eight (5-8) page paper in which you:

  1. Summarize the salient points of the Supreme Court case Elk Grove Unified School District v. Newdow.
  2. Discuss the levels of the court through which the case evolved before it reached the Supreme Court.
  3. Explain the decision of the Supreme Court in this case in brief.
  4. Explain the fundamental impact that the court decision in question has had on American society in general and on ethics in American society in particular. Provide a rationale for the response.
  5. Discuss whether you believe that the recitation of the Pledge of Allegiance is a religious issue or a sign of respect for the United States.
  6. Discuss whether or not you think public schools should be allowed to recite the pledge.
  7. Use at least three (3) quality academic resources. Note:Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

  • This course requires use of Strayer Writing Standards (SWS). The format is different than other Strayer University courses. Please take a moment to review the SWS documentation for details.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Examine the current ethical issues inherent throughout the criminal and civil justice systems.
  • Describe the dispensation of justice through the criminal and civil justice systems.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in the criminal court and the judicial process in America.
  • Write clearly and concisely about the American court system using proper writing mechanics and SWS style conventions.

 

Q2. POLI 330 Week 2 Quiz Latest 2018…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK

Question 1

 

(TCO 6) Aristotle said that extreme democracies, pure oligarchies, or tyrannies can develop from what cause?

 

Communities where some possess much

 

Communities where some have nothing

 

All of the above

 

None of the above

 

Question 2

 

(TCO 6) Hobbes, Locke, and Rousseau would likely agree on which of the following?

 

Individuals join and stay in civil society.

 

Life is nasty and brutish.

 

Power resided with the proletariat.

 

Empirical research is important.

 

Question 3

 

3 / 3 pts

 

(TCO 6) Social contracts, the state of nature, and civil society are phrases that are best associated with _____.

 

the contractualists

 

Marxists

 

behavioralism

 

systems theory

 

Question 4

 

(TCO 6) Karl Marx used the term _____ to refer to everything built on top of the economy.

 

the social contract

 

institutions

 

behavioralism

 

superstructure

 

Question 5

 

(TCO 6) Which statement best supports Marxist theories?

 

The United States provides ample opportunities for all who work hard.

 

Similarities exist between economies in both Europe and the United States.

 

Tax breaks will often create jobs, benefiting the working class.

 

Uneven benefits to corporations with few benefits for workers led to the economic crises in the early 2000s.

 

Question 6

 

(TCO 6) Which of the following best describes classical liberalism and modern conservatism?

 

Classical liberalism is the opposite of modern conservatism.

 

Classical liberalism is similar to modern conservatism.

 

Neither classical liberalism, nor modern conservatism continues to exist.

 

Classical liberalism and modern conservatism were developed by Karl Marx.

 

Chapter 3, page 37

 

Question 7

 

(TCO 6) Thomas Hill Green might agree with which of the following?

 

No one is forced to take a job he or she doesn’t like.

 

Unions are necessary to protect workers against business owners.

 

Taxes should benefit business owners because they allow owners to hire more workers.

 

Markets regulate themselves.

 

Question 8

 

(TCO 6) Where do modern conservatives diverge from Adam Smith?

 

Adam Smith was resolute in his belief that markets produced fair outcomes, whereas modern conservatives are not.

 

Adam Smith believed government could help regulate market, but modern conservatives do not.

 

Modern conservatives believe government can help regulate markets, but Adam Smith did not.

 

Modern conservatives are resolute in their beliefs that markets are fair, but Adam Smith acknowledged that they could be unfair.

 

Question 9

 

(TCO 6) _____ prefer virtually no government involvement in anything.

 

Liberals

 

Conservatives

 

Marxists

 

Libertarians

 

Question 10

 

(TCO 6) _____ is an extreme form of nationalism.

 

Liberalism

 

Conservatism

 

Socialism

 

Fascism

 

Q3. PAD 515 Assignment 1 Theories Of Leadership(USE AS A GUIDE)

Assignment 1: Theories of Leadership
Due Week 4 and worth 150 points

For all assignments, assume that the City Manager has hired you as the Chief of Staff for your local government. The City Manager has tasked you with developing and implementing the government’s new million dollar grant funded Public Leadership Academy. The mission of the Public Leadership Academy is to provide ongoing training and development of the local government’s current and prospective public leaders. This program was developed in an effort to build and sustain world class public leadership that exemplifies exceptional leadership traits and skills, while fostering long-term relationships internal and external stakeholders and constituents. In the upcoming weeks, you will deliver your first presentation to the government’s local councilpersons, in which you address the type of public leadership model(s) that is both needed within the local government for its public leaders and required to fulfil the mission of the Public Leadership Academy.

After careful review and analysis of the steps needed to meet your goal, your first assignment is to revisit the theories and styles of leadership. You will examine the theories and styles that support the role of the public leader.

You may use the Internet and / or Strayer databases to complete any additional research.

Note: You may create and / or make all necessary assumptions needed for the completion of this assignment.

Use the basic outline below to draft your paper. Organize your responses to each question (except Question 4) under the following section headings:

  • Defining The Public Leader (for Question 1)
  • Leadership Theories (for Question 2)
  • Leadership Styles (for Question 3)

Write a four to five (4-5) page paper in which you:

  1. Determine two (2) leadership theories and two (2) leadership styles that support the definition of a public leader. Provide a rationale for your response.
  2. Assess the effectiveness of the two (2) leadership theories from Question 1. Provide two (2) examples for each leadership theory.
  3. Assess the effectiveness of the two (2) leadership styles from Question 1. Provide two (2) examples for each leadership style.
  4. Include at least four (4) peer-reviewed references (no more than five [5] years old) from material outside the textbook. Note: Appropriate peer-reviewed references include scholarly articles and governmental Websites. Wikipedia, other wikis, and any other websites ending in anything other than “.gov” do not qualify as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Evaluate the theories and models of public leadership.
  • Differentiate among the styles of public leadership.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in public leadership and conflict resolution.
  • Write clearly and concisely about issues in public leadership and conflict resolution using proper writing mechanics.

 

Q4. Discuss one effect that the two-party system of the USA

Third Party Candidates – Please respond to the following:

  • Discuss one effect that the two-party system of the United States has on the political interests of American citizens. Suggest one reason or strategy used by the two-party system to keep third party candidates from successfully running for president.

 

 

2pgs

 

Q5. SCI 110 Assignment 2 Global Warming Cause And Mitigation(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

SCI 110 Assignment 2 Global Warming Cause and Mitigation(6 pages word paper)

 

Q6. SEJPME Final Exam (Already graded A+)

 

SEJPME Final Exam

1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially       atomic                        battlefield?    [objective81]              vertical           envelopment beachhead    assault            tentative         landings        fleet dispersion

 

2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper         Fideles”
“Semper         Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”

 

3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32) mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard

4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council? [objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security

 

5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact

6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces

7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan

8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law

9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)

10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness

11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False

12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security

13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False

14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination

15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training

16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True

17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night

18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False

19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression

20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10

21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True

23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline, flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations

25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine

26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams. [objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors

27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton

28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war

29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security

30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force   development
force   planning
force training
doctrine

31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.

32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective

33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S. embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State. [objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)

34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)

35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess? [objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment

36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable

38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships

39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent

40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance

41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____ to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager

42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate

43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars

44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank

45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes: (Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military

46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war

47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False

48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command

49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams

50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective

 

Post Test
1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30

2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical

3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization

4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True

5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service

6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice

7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions

8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture

9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True

10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control

11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan

12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False

13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches

14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff

15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD

16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False

17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability

18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7

19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)

20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force

22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence

23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence

24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces

25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises

26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver

 

Pre Test (contains 50 Questions)

1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment

3rd Combat Aviation Brigade

2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information

economics

diplomacy

the military

3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True

4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force

subordinate unified command

5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences- both positive and negative.
critically think about

acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts

6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational

intermediate

7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe

maritime safety

maritime security

8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare

a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17

clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation

9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy

10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members

media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints

11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service
Life-Saving Service

Bureau of Navigation

12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True
False

13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war

when directed by the President

14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea”

Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy

15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process

16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system

initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system

17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct

network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct

18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve

19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent

60 percent
40 percent
30 percent

20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine

Law of warfare

21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities

major combat operations
forcible entry operations

22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects

assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction

23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True

False

24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador

Secretary of State

25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage

26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience

opposition
vulnerability
indifference

27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council

28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True
False

29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem

30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment

beachhead assault

31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort

command and control authority
unity of command

32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess

as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done

33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True
False

34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line

35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit

effort
workload

36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability

37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF)

Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)

38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True

39) Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought
onboard to combat the rat population, the practice continued to help keep the crew’s morale high.
False
True
40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly and ethically.
False
True

41) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you
are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning,
Sir,” in the case of an officer.
False
True
42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA)

Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)

43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries

cyberspace operations
major combat operations

humanitarian assistance

44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True

45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II

Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War

46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation

situational awareness
influence

47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests

48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic

ill-prepared
segregated

49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True

50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being.

Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”

 

Q7. POLI 330 Final Exam (Already graded A+)

POLI 330 Final Exam 

  1. (TCO 1) Which best explains the differences between historians and political scientists? (Points : 2)

Historians look for generalizations, and political scientists are reluctant to generalize.
Historians are reluctant to generalize, and political scientists look for generalizations.
Historians are more likely to look for comparisons than political scientists.
Historians tend to focus on nature-based explanations, and political scientists focus on nurture-based explanations.

 

Question 2. 2. (TCO 1) The notion that politicians think practically and political scientists think abstractly is indicative of which of the following? (Points : 2)

Political scientists often train politicians.
Politicians often train political scientists.
Political scientists and politicians are different in that the former studies the latter.
Political scientists and politicians are often indistinguishable.

 

Question 3. 3. (TCO 1) When people base their views on beliefs that may not be based in reality, they are behaving _____. (Points : 2)

irrationally
rationally
politically
legitimately

 

Question 4. 4. (TCO 1) A political leader’s ability to command respect and exercise power is known as _____. (Points : 2)

sovereignty
corruption
authority
legitimacy

 

Question 5. 5. (TCO 1) Despite a disputed 2000 presidential election, once President George W. Bush took office, few people doubted his _____. (Points : 2)

charisma
control
legitimacy
sovereignty

 

Question 6. 6. (TCO 1) Relating concepts in a way that connects them in an empirical manner is the basis of _____ building. (Points : 2)

scholarship
theory
power
culture

 

Question 7. 7. (TCO 1) A(n) _____ is an initial theory a researcher starts with to be proved with evidence. (Points : 2)

quantification
hypothesis
qualification
empirical

 

Question 8. 8. (TCO 4) Unlike natural law, positive law uses _____. (Points : 2)

the spirit of the law to make determinations
books to reach conclusions
judicial sentencing to determine case outcomes
jury selection to manipulate judgment

 

Question 9. 9. (TCO 4) Under which of the following circumstances might a case be pursued as both a criminal and a civil case? (Points : 2)

The federal government accuses investment houses of wrongdoing and investors who lost money sue them.
Drug traffickers violate property and federal law by moving drugs across state borders.
Burglars violate federal property and the state sues them for damages.
A state accuses banks of mortgage fraud in mortgages sold to investors elsewhere in the nation.

 

Question 10. 10. (TCO 4) Describe the significance of Marbury v. Madison. (Points : 2)

The ruling laid precedent for judicial review.
The ruling stated that the president is subject to the court’s decisions.
The ruling decreed that current administrations must honor the appointments of previous administrations.
The ruling claimed that federal taxes could not be levied on the states.

 

Question 11. 11. (TCO 4) What legal agency in the United States generates reputation-based ratings of prospective federal judges? (Points : 2)

Judicial Ratings Bureau
Federal Bureau of Judicial Review
American Bar Association
Office of Legal Assessment

 

Question 12. 12. (TCO 4) When was judicial review granted to the Supreme Court within the United States? (Points : 2)

It was granted during the Constitution Convention of 1787.
It was granted in the Bill of Rights.
It was the result of the Marbury v. Madison decision of 1803.
It was never officially adopted but is an unofficial practice.
 

 

Question 13. 13. (TCO 4) Which of the following best articulates the stance of judicial restraint advocates? (Points : 2)

Judicial review is the best and only true method of checking legislative power.
The court should practice restraint in cases in which legislative acts are presented for interpretation.
Only the executive branch can restrain the court, keeping the power of judicial review in balance with the other governing branches.
Only Congress should make public policy and, unless a legislative act clearly violates the Constitution, the law should stand.

 

Question 14. 14. (TCO 4) The Supreme Court’s decision in _____ (1954) triggered a revolution in American race relations, an area Congress had been unwilling to touch. (Points : 2)

Miranda v. Arizona
Dred Scott v. Sandford
Brown v. Board of Education
Gibbons v. Ogden

 

Question 15. 15. (TCO 5) Which systems demonstrate the clearest separation of power between the executive and legislative branches? (Points : 2)

Parliamentary
Presidential
Monarchies
Ministerial

 

Question 16. 16. (TCO 5) How often does the cabinet change in a parliamentary system? (Points : 2)

Every 4 years
Every 6 years
Every 8 years
When the cabinet is voted out or resigns

 

Question 17. 17. (TCO 5) Voters receive the most direct representation in which system? (Points : 2)

Parliamentary
Presidential

Electoral
Coalition

 

Question 18. 18. (TCO 5) The head of ministry is equivalent to the _____ in the United States. (Points : 2)

chief of government
head of state
departmental secretary
premier

 

Page 2 – Multiple Choice

  1. (TCO 5) The only political system that could guarantee the cooperation between the legislative and executive branches is _____. (Points : 2)

a monarchy
a dictatorship
a democracy
an oligarchy

 

Question 2. 2. (TCO 5) In the case of both parliamentary and presidential systems, examine the reason democracies will not vanish, even though the executive seems to be receiving more and more power. (Points : 2)

Checks and balances keep the chief executive from gaining too much power.
Chief executives will eventually have to face reelection, which depends greatly on the approval of voting citizens.
Both systems have methods by which to oust chief executives.
Subordinates carry out some of the workload of the chief executive.

 

Question 3. 3. (TCO 5) Explain which type of candidate parliamentary systems seek out to become ministers. (Points : 2)

Those who have experience winning elections and serving on a parliamentary committee
Newcomers who can bring in a fresh perspective to the ministry
Individuals who possess a great knowledge of the specific ministry’s area
Those who have political experience regardless of whether or not they have been elected in the past

 

Question 4. 4. (TCO 7) Radicals use the term political economy instead of _____,”which is a hard sell these days. (Points : 2)

late capitalism
Marxism
pure market system
utilitarianism

 

Question 5. 5. (TCO 7) Early 20th-century European governments subscribed to _____ doctrines, generally keeping their hands away from the economy. (Points : 2)

classic liberal
inflationary
neoclassical
Smithian

 

Question 6. 6. (TCO 7) Between 1965 and 1973, the percentage of Americans living below the poverty line _____. (Points : 2)

doubled
greatly decreased
slightly increased
rapidly increased

 

Question 7. 7. (TCO 7) Which of the following is an increasing financial concern of the Medicare program? (Points : 2)

The proportion of older people in American society is increasing steadily.
Every American citizen on reaching 65 obtains Medicare, regardless of class.
Economic inequality renders Medicare more necessary for some than for others.
Wealthy Americans are taking advantage of the Medicare system.

 

Question 8. 8. (TCO 7) Why are many politicians wary about limiting Social Security and Medicare expenses? (Points : 2)

Many would be left without enough to support them.
Caps to these programs would undermine the welfare state.
It can cost them votes.
Both are primary social safety nets.
 

 

Question 9. 9. (TCO 7) How does the American welfare state compare to those of other industrialized nations? (Points : 2)

Much less is allocated to welfare in the United States.
Other nations allocate less to welfare than the United States.
The United States allocates about the same to welfare.
Few nations besides the United States maintain funds for welfare.

 

Question 10. 10. (TCO 7) Theoretically, what are the consequences if the government assumes the burden of bad loans? (Points : 2)

Citizens will default on their mortgages.
Banks will learn from their mistakes and pay back the burden with interest.
Ultimately, the government will profit.
Firms will be encouraged to continue their risky behavior.

 

Question 11. 11. (TCO 9) _____ is a small or moderate change that essentially leaves the system intact. (Points : 2)

Mass discontent
Reform
Dramatic system change
A coup d’etat

 

Question 12. 12. (TCO 9) Describe what can often happen in a changing society when, during times of prosperity, some people get rich faster than others. (Points : 2)

Jealousy is aroused.
Politicians pay more attention to poverty.
The very poor revolt.
Economists become confused.

 

Question 13. 13. (TCO 9) What is likely to happen if the people are unhappy and there is no organization to focus their discontent? (Points : 2)

They will almost surely turn to violence.
Not much will happen.
The people will organize themselves, regardless.
They will eventually find other means of achieving contentedness.

 

Question 14. 14. (TCO 9) What about U.S. agencies such as the Department of Homeland Security, the FBI, and the CIA make them so ill prepared to fight terrorism? (Points : 2)

They have extremely different missions when it comes to terrorism.
They are poorly funded.
They have a great deal of red tape to get through in order to be able to communicate.
They are often unwilling to communicate with each other.

 

Question 15. 15. (TCO 9) According to Hannah Arendt, the American struggle was indeed a revolution, perhaps history’s only complete revolution, _____. (Points : 2)

because it alone ended with democratic institutions.
because it became an example for other nations.
because it managed to route what was then the great world power.
because it alone ended with a new foundation of liberty instead of the tyranny that came after other revolutions.

 

Question 16. 16. (TCO 9) Does terrorism work? (Points : 2)

Rarely, and seldom without political and/or economic pressure
Rarely, but primarily when brought against democratic nations
Often, and without much need for political pressure to aid it
Often, but only with the assistance of economic and/or political pressure

 

Question 17. 17. (TCO 9) Hannah Arendt pointed out that rage is the fuel of revolution, but what is now the greatest cause of rage? (Points : 2)

The low level of education in developing nations
The enormous economic mismanagement in industrialized nations
The extreme violence utilized by industrialized nations against developing nations
The massive corruption now found in developing lands

 

 Page 3 – Essay

 

  1.  Evaluate Aristotle’s six types of government. In doing so, please be sure to list and define the categorizations. Please then assess how these classifications can be useful today to someone analyzing current governmental structures. (Points : 40)
  2. Explain the relationship between electoral systems and party systems. Answers should be sure to assess this question from the perspective of both proportional representation and single-member districts and provide examples to support your points. (Points : 40)
  3. The United States has utilized multiple forms of liberalism throughout its history. Please distinguish the specific characteristics of classical and modern liberalism and outline the evolution of these forms of liberalism within the United States. Please be sure to include specific historic examples to support your points. (Points : 40)
  4. Today’s world seems to be moving beyond sovereignty and toward supranational leadership to cooperate on issues of global importance. What are some of these issues? How might they be solved through supranational cooperation? Does such cooperation impede the sovereignty of independent nations? Please sure to include specific examples in supporting your points. (Points : 40)

 

 

 

Q8. POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elec

POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elections Multimedia

POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elections Multimedia Presentation

Create a multimedia presentation of 10 to 12 content slides on political parties, political participation, and the American campaign and election process.  Address the following in your multimedia presentation:

  • Describe the purpose and functions of political parties in the United States and the various ways American citizens can participate in the campaign and election process.
  • What are the function and purpose of caucuses and primary elections in political campaigns, particularly in the presidential election process?
  • What role do national political party conventions play in the presidential election process?
  • Describe the presidential general election campaign and the important factors and events that influence it.
  • What role does the media (TV, radio, the Internet) play in modern political campaigns?
  • What is the role and influence of money in the modern political campaign?

 

Include photos, illustrations, videos, or audio clips, as appropriate. Document the source of each media item you include in your presentation.

Note: A content slide does not include the presentation’s title slide and any slide(s) containing references.

Format your references consistent with APA guidelines. Include any citations in the speaker notes.

Submit your presentation using the Assignment Files tab

  • For Local Campus students, be prepared to deliver in-class a 10- to 12-minute oral presentation accompanied by your slides or multimedia enhancements.
  • For Online Campus students, provide detailed speaker notes for each content slide in the presentation file or in a separate Word document.

 

Q9. POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet

POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet

Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet.

Submit your assignment using the Assignment Files tab.

Electoral College Simulation Exercise

Please review the following chart which contains the Electoral College votes assigned to each state and the District of Columbia, and the popular vote results for each state and the District of Columbia in a simulated American presidential election.  Based on information contained in the chart determine the following

  1. The total popular vote won by Candidate A and Candidate B in the election
  2. Which presidential candidate, A or B, won the Electoral College vote for each state and the District of Columbia, and how many total Electoral College votes did Candidate A and Candidate B receive?. Assume for this simulation that all 50 states and the District of Columbia award their Electoral College votes on a “winner-take-all” basis

Name of StateNumber of Electoral College Votes assigned to statePopular vote for Candidate A cast in the statePopular Vote for Candidate B cast in the stateWhich Candidate, A or B, won the state’s Electoral College vote?

Alabama91,159,245749,948

Alaska3195,227112,878

Arizona111,089,449975,674

Arkansas6554,724478,912

California555,976,0486,350,244

Colorado91,076,1241,055,465

Connecticut7714,368824,202

Delaware3184,348190,229

District of Columbia390,108125,978

Florida294,129,9973,784,259

Georgia161,740,7761,508,254

Hawaii4200,454224,728

Idaho4376,989245,774

Illinois202,529,4272,615,226

Indiana111,257,0701,148,334

Iowa6740,291752,882

Kansas6645,822512,678

Kentucky8997,244878,421

Louisiana81,002,124924,855

Maine4332,427368,399

Maryland101,029,2781,257,722

Massachusetts111,284,5891,596,331

Michigan162,414,7772,391,872

Minnesota101,346,6761,431,624

Mississippi6649,442502,292

Missouri101,245,9781,440,356

Montana3259,129174,434

Nebraska5499,927276,321

Nevada6398,727412,012

New Hampshire4340,492332,638

New Jersey141,792,4421,874,209

New Mexico5369,284370,544

New York293,688,4213,828,477

North Carolina151,745,2281,628,476

North Dakota3197,245110,289

Ohio182,829,6872,777,421

Oklahoma7845,779624,552

Oregon7901,244904,100

Pennsylvania202,797,4942,840,542

Rhode Island4200,440210,402

South Carolina9850,050714,846

South Dakota3230,727154,786

Tennessee111,242,7971,096,385

Texas383,789,4593,598,334

Utah6500,450401,290

Vermont3122,774182,104

Virginia131,547,9941,607,747

Washington121,390,2241,420,462

West Virginia5364,449367,429

Wisconsin101,492,4211,477,202

Wyoming3130,757100,527

 

 

 

Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate A: _________

 

Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate B: _________

 

Total Popular Votes won by Candidate A: _________________________

 

Total Popular Votes won by Candidate B: _________________________

 

 

Q10. Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

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Click the link above to submit your assignment.

Students, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” in the Student Center.
Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.

Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

Research, review and analyze Korb v. Raytheon, 707 F.Supp. 63 (D.Mass. 1989). Based on your research and the case, write a 5-6 page paper in which you:

  1. Analyze and evaluate each case independently by providing the following (about two paragraphs per case):
  • Facts of the case
  • Issues
  • Rule
  1. Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech.
  2. Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information.
  3. Analyze and explain any challenges with employment law.
  4. Analyze and discuss the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
  5. Analyze and discuss any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
  6. Provide at least four (4) additional court cases that support your analysis.

Your assignment must:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Recommend how the legal system addresses critical issues faced by public officials to include freedom of the press, funding of government contracts, separation of church and state, public ethics law, hiring lawyers, and handling civil litigation.
  • Evaluate legal subjects relevant to public administration to include property, government contracts, employment, and torts.
  • Relate the administrative process, constitutional and statutory requirements, to the scope of judicial review of administrative agency decisions.
  • Assess legal decisions related to the administration of public goods.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in constitution and administrative law.
  • Write clearly and concisely about issues in constitution and administrative law using proper writing mechanics.

Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic/organization of the paper, and language and writing skills, using the following rubric found here.

 

Rubric:

Name: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

Description: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

 

  • Grid View
  • List View

 

Unacceptable Below 70% F

Fair 70-79% C

Proficient 80-89% B

Exemplary 90-100% A

PAD525-A3-1
1. Analyze and evaluate case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

PAD525-A3-2
2. Analyze and evaluate case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

PAD525-A3-3
3. Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

PAD525-A3-4
4. Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

PAD525-A3-5
5. Analyze and explain any challenges with employment law. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

PAD525-A3-6
6. Analyze and discuss the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense. Weight: 13%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 33.63 (9.09%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

Points Range:33.67 (9.1%) – 38.44 (10.39%)

Partially analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

Points Range:38.48 (10.4%) – 43.25 (11.69%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

Points Range:43.29 (11.7%) – 48.1 (13%)

Thoroughly analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

PAD525-A3-7
7. Analyze and discuss any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

PAD525-A3-8
8. Clarity and writing mechanics Weight: 10%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 25.86 (6.99%)

More than 6 errors present

Points Range:25.9 (7%) – 29.56 (7.99%)

5-6 errors present

Points Range:29.6 (8%) – 33.26 (8.99%)

3-4 errors present

Points Range:33.3 (9%) – 37 (10%)

0-2 errors present

PAD525-A3-9
9. Research and cite at least four (4) court cases that support the analysis. Weight: 5%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 12.91 (3.49%)

Researched and cited no court cases that support the analysis.

Points Range:12.95 (3.5%) – 14.76 (3.99%)

Researched and cited one or two (1 or 2) court cases that support the analysis.

Points Range:14.8 (4%) – 16.61 (4.49%)

Researched and cited three (3) court cases that support the analysis.

Points Range:16.65 (4.5%) – 18.5 (5%)

Researched and cited at least four (4) court cases that support the analysis.

Name:PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

Description:PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

 

LAW

 

Q1. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 3

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 3

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 3

Q2. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 4

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 4

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 4

 

 

Q3. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 2

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 2

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 2

 

 

Q4. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 1

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 1

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 1

 

Q5. Lexis Uni Supreme Court Research Search

Lexis Uni Supreme Court Research Search
Sign in to the Lexis Uni website and navigate to the Criminal Justice Home page. Under “Recent Supreme Court Decisions”, click on “View all Supreme Court Decisions for Criminal Justice”. Then, narrow your search by “violent crimes”
Locate two U.S. Supreme Court cases that discuss various types of criminal defenses.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word case analysis in which you identify and examine the types of criminal defenses that were used. Include the following:
Explain the nature and types of defenses used in the cases. What evidence was used to demonstrate the defense?
Explain the similarities and differences between justification and excuse. Describe how justification and excuse play a role in the cases.
Describe the outcome of each case.
Format your case analysis consistent with APA guidelines.

 

Q6. The significant role of agencies in the budget process in 813 words with APA Style

Question: Agencies implement policy through various methods. Either they enforce laws and regulations, manage programs or manage and/or disburse public funds. What roles do agencies in your state play in the budget process?

 

Q7. The significant roles that agency play in rulemaking in 553 words APA

Question: “Rulemaking is probably the most important political activity of bureaucracy. In fact, it is a large lawmaking operation that citizens do not even know exists.” (Smith, 2008) What specific roles do agencies play in your state in the rulemaking process? Hint: Research your state’s own administrative procedures act.

 

Q8. CJS 241 Week 3 Individual Assignment Police Personnel and the Community Paper(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper in which you address the following:  •  How do police agencies at the local, state, and federal level recruit, hire, and train employees?

?

  • How can agencies ensure they are promoting diversity by hiring women and minorities?
  • How significant is stress in police training? Why should it be included in training programs?
  • How does proper recruitment and selection assist with implementation of community policing by local agencies?
  • Include a summary of the discussion on the improper hiring practices article located by your collaborative group.
  • A minimum of three (3) references are required Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines. Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.

 

Q9. CPSS 210 Week 3 Correctional Support Staff Response Paper

Assume the role of correctional support staff dedicated to assisting prisoners with reaching personal goals for probation and inclusion into society. A university counseling professor has asked you to speak to her class about your experiences. To prepare for the visit, she has sent you the questions that the students will ask you.

Write a 750- to 1,050-word response paper in which you answer the following questions:

Describe the different types of cultures and subcultures you might face in prison.
Does the prison cultural influence the prison management culture?
Does the prison culture influence the way you determine treatment in prison?
How are mental health programs delivered in prison?
In your opinion, does prison help prepare prisoners to become law-abiding citizens?
List each question and your response to the question. Your paper’s format does not need to be consistent with APA guidelines.

 

Q10. LAW 531 Final Exam…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK

1) Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of a common law legal system?

  1. Requiring guilt be proven beyond a reasonable doubt
  2. The sole source of law is a comprehensive civil code
  3. An appeal process
  4. The making of law by the judges and the following of precedent

2) Which best describes the types of agency authority held by officers of a corporation?

  1. Vicarious authority
  2. Express and obvious authority
  3. Implied and apparent authority only
  4. Express, implied, and apparent authority

3) If an LLC fails to follow formalities such as keeping minutes of meetings, which of the following is true?

  1. Only the managers of a manager-managed LLC will lose limited liability.
  2. All members will lose their limited liability.
  3. This failure will not result in imposing personal liability on any member.
  4. Only the parties responsible for the failure will lose limited liability.

4) Martha started a flower shop as a sole proprietor. After 1 year, she was forced to close the shop because business was so bad. At that time, the business assets totaled $50,000, but the business liabilities totaled $125,000. Which of the following statements is true?

  1. Martha is personally liable for the additional $75,000.
  2. Martha’s business creditors can collect only the $50,000 of business assets.
  3. Martha’s business creditors can collect only the $50,000 now, but if Martha ever goes into business again, they can get the assets of the new business.
  4. Once Martha terminates the sole proprietorship; the business creditors cannot even get the $50,000

5) Partners of a general partnership

  1. Are protected from litigation against the partnership by statute
  2. Are liable for the obligations of the partnership only to the extent of their capital contributions
  3. Do not have to pay taxes on the profits of the partnership that are distributed to them
  4. Are liable for all the obligations of their partnership

6) Which of the following forms of alternative dispute resolution allows both parties to see the strengths and weaknesses of both sides of the case through the presentation of evidence?

  1. Negotiated settlement
  2. Mini-trial
  3. Mediation
  4. Conciliation

7) A ___________ is a court-appointed party who conducts a private trial and renders a judgment

  1. Fact-finder
  2. Arbitrator
  3. Judicial referee
  4. Negotiator

8) What is a form of alternative dispute resolution that is often used when the parties involved do not want to face one another?

  1. Arbitration
  2. Fact-finding
  3. Mini-trial
  4. Conciliation

9) Which of the following is true regarding mediation?

  1. A mediator often meets with both parties at the same time
  2. A settlement agreement is never reached with a mediator.
  3. A mediator does not make a decision or award
  4. If a settlement agreement is not reached in mediation, then the parties hire a new mediator

10) There are no accountants on the board of the Oriole Corporation, a privately held corporation. The board routinely relies on a Certified Public Accountant (CPA) to explain the financial situation of the corporation. Law 531 final exam. The board does not do an independent analysis of the CPA’s report. In these circumstances, the board is

  1. Violating a duty of loyalty
  2. Violating a duty to exercise due care
  3. Violating the business judgment rule
  4. Not violating any duty

11) Self-dealing by a director of a corporation can best be described as

  1. A breach of a director’s duty of notification
  2. A breach of a director’s duty of care
  3. A breach of the Business Judgment Rule
  4. There was no breach of duty

12) Which of the following is likely to be a breach of a corporate officer or director’s duty of care?

  1. Failing to anticipate a precipitous drop in consumer demand of the company’s product
  2. Failing to make a reasonable investigation of relevant facts
  3. Failing to predict the unexpected startup of a new competitor
  4. Failing to foresee a sudden rise in the interest rate

13) In what ways may officers and directors be protected by the corporation from liability for actions taken as an officer or director?

  1. The officer or director must purchase personal liability insurance to cover such losses.
  2. Have the corporation purchase liability insurance and indemnify the officers and directors
  3. Officers and directors cannot be protected from liability
  4. Officers and directors are automatically protected from liability by virtue of corporate

14) If a plaintiff voluntarily participates in a risky activity that results in injury, what is the most likely defense to a claim that the plaintiff assumed the risk?

  1. Contributory negligence
  2. Defendant was negligent per se
  3. Defendant assumed the risk under the “danger invites rescue” doctrine
  4. Comparative negligence

15) Mark is the treasurer of Sky-Hi Tech Corporation and, as such, he is responsible for protecting the assets of the corporation. One of Mark’s subordinates, Jill, is in charge of reconciling the monthly corporate bank statements. Law/531 week 5 final. Over a period of several months, Jill embezzled a large amount of money from Sky-Hi Tech, covering up the theft using her bank reconciliations. If Mark had adequately supervised Jill, she could not have embezzled this money. Mark’s actions (or inactions) constitute a breach of his duty of

  1. Due care
  2. Obedience
  3. Loyalty
  4. Good business judgment

16) Barry buys a new sports car. The car sits low to the ground and because of the styling; visibility to the rear is limited. About a month after Barry buys the car, he backs over his pet poodle as he is leaving for work. In his strict liability suit against the car manufacturer, Barry will

  1. Win because driving a sports car is an inherently dangerous activity
  2. Win on the basis of design defect
  3. Win on the basis of packaging defect because the car could have been packaged in a differently styled body
  4. Lose because he assumed the risk of backing up in a car when he could not see to the rear

17) If a judge rules that a party lost its case because of the Statute of Frauds, the judge has essentially stated which of the following?

  1. The losing party purposely deceived the other party about a material fact.
  2. The losing party will not be allowed to introduce evidence to contradict a written agreement
  3. The losing party cannot enforce an oral contract that should have been in writing
  4. The losing party was found by the court to have lied, and therefore will lose the case

18) What does the parole evidence rule do?

  1. It limits the ability of parties to written contracts from introducing certain evidence related to the contract.
  2. It sets the rules for admissibility of evidence relating to releasing a criminal from a prison term
  3. It sets the general rules for the admissibility of evidence in criminal actions
  4. It determines which contracts are required to be in writing

19) ABC LLC and XYZ Corp. entered into a contract whereby ABC is to supply XYZ with widgets. After receiving the first shipment of widgets, XYZ finds that the widgets, while meeting the physical standards specified in the contract, do not perform as XYZ anticipated. The contract is silent as to performance specifications, but XYZ suspects that ABC knew that it was manufacturing and supplying widgets that would not perform according to industry standard. XYZ initiates a lawsuit against ABC, alleging that ABC knowingly supplied defective widgets. What process will XYZ use to help it develop its case against ABC?

  1. Pleadings
  2. Motion for summary judgment
  3. Discovery
  4. Trial

20) Under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA), an employee’s benefits must vest

  1. Within 10 years
  2. By the time of the employee’s retirement
  3. In total within 5 years or gradually within 7 years
  4. Only as provided in the pension plan

21) Which of the following statutes provides that it is legal for employees to organize a union?

  1. The Norris-LaGuardia Act
  2. The National Labor Relations Act
  3. The Labor-Management Relations Act
  4. The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act

22) William was a factory worker at the Spruce Industries plant. When management found out that William is gay, he was fired. The plant’s action is

  1. Not prohibited under federal law
  2. A violation of Title VII
  3. A violation of the Equal Pay Act
  4. A violation of the Americans with Disabilities Act

23) Janet is manager of a bank. She has all the qualifications to be promoted to bank manager. In fact, she is better qualified than any of the men being considered for the position. However, the owner of the bank believes that bank customers will LAW/531 not accept a woman as bank manager, so the owner promotes one of the males. The owner’s actions would best be described as what?

  1. Quid pro quo
  2. Hostile work environment
  3. Gender discrimination
  4. Pregnancy discrimination

24) Which one of the following statutes allows a prevailing party to recover attorney’s fees in an action against the government for an action of an agency?

  1. The Freedom of Information Act
  2. The Government Compensation Act
  3. The Administrative Procedure Act
  4. The Equal Access to Justice Act

25) Which of the following would prevent someone from acquiring land by adverse possession?

  1. The person never had to fight the original owner to remain on the land
  2. The person lived on the land secretly so that the original owner would not find out he or she was there
  3. The person lived on the land without the original owner’s permission
  4. The person was the only person who lived on the land in question

26) Which of the following would be classified as tangible personal property, as opposed to other property categories, such as fixtures or intangible property?

  1. A freestanding desk
  2. Built-in cabinets in an office
  3. A copyright to a literary work
  4. A field of corn

27) As the CEO of a high tech company, you become aware that your chief competitor is working on a new computer program that will revolutionize your industry. You know that if you can find out several key functions about the new product, LAW/531 final exams your own programmers will be able to duplicate the function of the program without actually copying its code. Which of the following actions can you ethically take?

  1. Paying the garbage company to deliver the competitor’s garbage to you
  2. Hiring a former employee of the competitor and paying her a bonus to tell you the competitor’s secrets
  3. Hiring a researcher to review all available information about the competitor, including patents, types and names of employees hired, reports by the competitor, including all SEC filings
  4. Hacking into the competitor’s computer systems to find out what you need

28) From a practical perspective, what are some of the elements of Sarbanes-Oxley?

  1. Ensuring transparency, accountability and internal controls
  2. Ensuring companies are profitable
  3. Ensuring that CEOs do not make more than 10 times the lowest paid employee
  4. Ensuring that large shareholders do not have board representation

29) Under Title IX of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, the penalty for someone who certifies “any statements as set forth in subsections (a) and (b) of this section knowing that the periodic report accompanying the statement does not comport . . .” is. Law 531 final exam answer

  1. No more than $1,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 10 years, or both
  2. No more than $500,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 6 months, or both
  3. No more than $2,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 3 years, or both
  4. No more than $5,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 20 years, or both

30) Which is prohibited under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?

  1. High salaries for corporate executives
  2. Using an independent accounting firm for audit purposes
  3. Public companies making personal loans to their directors and executives
  4. Directors and executives attending board meetings on a regular basis

ANTHROPOLOGY.

 

Q1. ACBS 160D section 1: Should Animals Be Used For The Sport(S) In Rodeo. Graded A

 

ACBS 160D section 1:Should Animals Be Used For The Sport(S) In Rodeo. Graded A

 

ACBS 160D: Human and Animal Interrelationships

 

Term Paper Topics

 

Select one of these questions to answer:

  1. Should animals be used in medical research (e.g., research on cancer)?
  2. Should animals be kept in factory farms for human consumption?
  3. Should it matter how animals are housed and treated if they are going to be killed for consumption later? (e.g., Should it matter how animals are treated in slaughterhouses before they are killed for consumption? Should it matter how chickens or pigs are kept in factory farms if they are going to be killed for meat? )
  4. Should wildlife protection have a higher priority than commercial interests (e.g., Should the pygmy owl have a higher priority than the development of housing and businesses around Tucson?  Should wildlife be protected and hinder logging or oil pipelines?)
  5. Should animals be kept for human food consumption (i.e., should humans eat other animals)?
  6. Should animals be kept in zoos or aquaria?
  7. Should animals be used in circuses?
  8. Should horses be used for the sport of racing?
  9. Should animals be used for the sport(s) in rodeo (e.g., bull riding, bronc riding, calf roping)?
  10. Should animals be hunted (e.g., commercial big game hunting, state license hunting)?
  11. Should animals be used in modern warfare?
  12. Should children/adolescents raise animals for slaughter in youth programs such as 4H or FFA? (Is this desensitization or education?)
  13. Should elderly care facilities be requiredto allow the residents to keep pets?
  14. Should animals be used in religion?

 

 

Think of all the possible perspectives that might answer the question in different ways. Put yourself in their shoes of different people and answer the topic question. Examples of different perspectives:

 

o    Animal welfare proponents

o    Animal rights advocates

o    Food security proponents

o    Ethicists, philosophers

o    National and local economic / employment interests

o    Educators

o    Medical researchers

o    Parents

o    Small business owners

o    Family ranchers or farmers

o    Large-scale agriculturalists /factory farmers

o    Wildlife managers

o    Conservationists

 

EXAMPLE:

 

The question I selected is:

 

  1. Should animals be used in medical research (e.g., research on cancer)? 

 

My Thesis statement might be:

 

In this paper I will present alternative position on the topic of animal use for medical research, considering a variety of perspectives, and concluding with a position on animal testing that seems most justifiable.

 

The body of my paper would include these sections:

 

PRO: PERSPECTIVES IN FAVOR:

Yes- animals should be used in medical research

(Include at least 1 of these perspectives)

  • Some Medical researches hold this perspective because …

o   evidence, references

  • Some Parents may also hold this perspective because ….

o   evidence, references

  • Some Animal welfare proponents may also hold this perspective because ….

o   evidence, references

  • Some Ethicists / Philosophers hold this perspective because…

o   evidence, references

 

 

CON: PERSPECTIVES AGAINST

No- animals should not be used in medical research

(Include at least 1 of these perspectives)

  • Animal rights advocates hold this perspective because…

o   evidence, references

  • Other Medical researches hold this perspective because …

o   evidence, references

  • Some Ethicists / Philosophers hold this perspective because…

o   evidence, references

 

Q2. AnthropologyWhy is it inappropriate tKINDLY BE BRIEF AND STRAIGHT FOWARD IN YOUR ANSWER

WHY IS IT NOT APPROPRIATE TO DEPOSIT NON-WESTERN ARTIFACTS IN THE NATURAL COLLECTION OF HISTORY?

 

Writea 1,050- to 1,400-word paper in which your team compares the Normal Accident Theory to the Culture of Safety model.

Include the following in your paper:

  • Explain what factors can play a role in organizational accidents similar to the one highlighted in the scenario.
    • How do organizational processes give rise to potential failures?
    • How can certain conditions influence errors and violations within the workplace (e.g., operating room, pharmacy, intensive care unit)?

Q3. The red carpet cleaning

This is a bank statement of the evidence is well taken care of. I ensured that the drive would not be scratched, bent or even slightly destroyed. the container in which I placed the evidence was well labelled. the hand drive should be cushioned from any potential shock Potential Use of the Evidence This kind.

 

Q4. ANT208H5S FINAL STUDY QUESTIONS, 2016

ANT208H5S  FINAL STUDY QUESTIONS, 2016

 

Final exam is scheduled for April 20th from 1-4 pm in Gym A/B. Please check the Registrar website for updates or changes, and for which ROOM you will write in. If there is a room split, you must write the exam in the room location you have been assigned based on your last name.

 

These are SHORT ANSWER questions, which means about a paragraph or half a page, at most. Each questions is different, and some answers require more detail than others. Thus, read each question carefully so you understand the components of the question, and make sure to answer fully (all parts). Be concise but clear.

To help you study for the exam, it is a good idea to answer these questions completely in full, as you would on the final exam. However, it is suggested that you then come up key points or words to help you remember each answer, rather than try to memorize an answer in its entirely.  Good luck!

 

 

  1. What is popular culture? Define the concept in detail, and list two examples of popular culture.

 

  1. What is cultural anthropology and two of its guiding principles? Based on the reading and lecture (week 2), also provide two detailed examples of how cultural anthropologists are represented in horror films.

 

  1. Define semiotics and hermeneutics. Using one example from the Cormack article, explain how Tim Horton’s coffee (through its commercials) is a symbol of Canadian identity.

 

  1. Define discourse and colonial discourse. Provideone example of a colonial discourse and briefly describe what that discourse consists of.

 

  1. According to the readings and lecture (week 4), what is the national discourse produced at the Vancouver Olympics and why is this problematic? Please describe and explain your answer clearly and succinctly.

 

  1. Drawing from the “What is a Nation? The Appropriation of First Nations as Canadian” readings and/or lecture, provide an example of how either First Nations and other marginal members of society contested power (representations and discourses) at the Vancouver Olympics. Explain your example in some detail.

 

  1. Some scholars argue that the spread of Hollywood films globally is a form of cultural imperialism. What does cultural imperialism mean? Define and explain the concept in detail. 

 

  1. While Bollywood has achieved international success, many filmmakers wish to expand their market globally (i.e. to the U.S, Canada, and Britain). Briefly discuss two of the issues surrounding the question “can Bollywood go global?”

 

  1. How is managing your facebook profile like neoliberalism (use a neoliberalism logic)? Explain and provide two examples (week 5)

 

  1. Based on the article by Gershon (2011) or lecture (week 5), describe two ways facebook influences social relationships.

 

  1. Soap operas such asForbidden Love produce hegemonic discourses and reproduce societal norms. However, fans have edited and remade this soap into ‘webisodes,’ Christian & Oliver, as a form of resistance. Describe the changes made and how these changes subvert dominant norms.

 

  1. The lifestyle reality television show What Not to Wear (WNTW) is a space where identity is produced and remade. The authors argued that this is achieved through governmentality. Define governmentatity and explain how it works in the show WNTW to remake identity. 

 

  1. In his article about blackness in science fiction films, Russell (week 7) argues that blackness appears as avatarism. Define avatarism and provide two examples of avatarism in film. Describe your examples.

 

  1. In her article (week 8), Abu-Lughod (2002) discusses how Egyptian melodramatic serials are embedded with political and moral messages. What are these messages and how are these messages received by the lower economic classes? Explain in detail.

 

  1. Stuart Hall (week 8) argues that audiences read, rather than passively consume, popular culture. Although audiences actively construct meaning and interpret messages, this does not mean that they can construct ANY meaning. Identify and define the three possible reading positions.

 

  1. Based on the article Luo and Sun (2015) and lecture in week 10, explain two ways in which the Chinese dating showFei Cheng Wu Rao (“If You the One?”) produces sociocultural gender norms. In your answer, identify what gender norm is being produced.

 

  1. Jhally (2002) writes that we live in an “image based culture,” which has skewed our views of gender. According to his article, how can society reveal more of the “real world of substance?” Outline his four points and explain you answer using the Dove Campaign as an example (film: The Beauty Backlash, reading and film from week 11).

 

 

 

Q5. Please remember that you may utilize LIRN

PART I

Directions: Read the questions below and formulate a response to each that is at least one hundred words in length.  Please cite the textbook and external resources to support your answer (Wikipedia sources are not permitted).  List each resource used at the end of paper in the reference list section.  Please remember that you may utilize LIRN to help you search for resources.  You can visit the Academic Resource Center for a guide on how to utilize LIRN successfully
PART II: Journal

Using a minimum of three resources (Wikipedia.com is not an option) write a 1 to 2 page paper in APA format to discuss and review your own work, school, and life experiences in which the use of participant observation to gather data would have provided unique insights.  Identify the sides in the conflict.  Where did the “data” or information used by each side in the situation originate?  How, specifically, might the data gathered by a trained anthropologist, who adheres to the anthropological code of ethics, help each side understand the other?

 

 

Q6. Hlt 362v Exercise 36 The researchers

The researchers found a significant difference between the two groups (control and treatment) for change in mobility of the women with osteoarthritis (OA) over 12 weeks with the results of F(1, 22) = 9.619, p = 0.005. Discuss each aspect of these results.

The F-value is high enough at the 5% level of significance to suggest a significant difference between the control and treatment groups. The p-value 0.005 < 0.05, so this recommends a rejection of the null hypothesis, meaning that the control and treatment groups are found to be different.

State the null hypothesis for the Baird and Sands

 

Q7. Article The Real Legacy of Steve Jo

article The Real Legacy of Steve Jobs and the case about Jobs and Apple. If we consider the five functions of management, in which of the functions do you think that Jobs excelled??

Which of the five functions were his weakest??

 

article The Real Legacy of Steve Jobs and the case about Jobs and Apple. If we consider the five functions of management, in which of the functions do you think that Jobs excelled??

Which of the five functions were his weakest??

 

Q8. CJA 344 Police Influence on Society W

Public Opinions of Police and the Justice System Police Influence on Society Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper that describes how the historical development of policing in the United States relates to the current relationship between police and different
ethnic groups and social classes. • Support your discussion with examples from law enforcement practices, court procedures, corrections populations, or all three. • Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines. Please note that utilizing popular internet

Q9. How might you use probability theory in everyday living?

Week 2 DQ1

How might you use probability theory in everyday living?

 

Q10. Assignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity Constraints

Assignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity Constraints

 

 

 

ASTRONOMY.

 

Q1. Self-esteem in the work environment is

Unit II PowerPoint Presentation

 

Self-esteem in the work environment is crucial to the overall success of everyday business operations and functions for the employee and employer; therefore, it is important to identify healthy self-esteem development and how to overcome communication barriers.

Create a PowerPoint presentation (minimum of 10 slides) on how to overcome communication barriers—verbal and nonverbal (identify and explain with supported data and illustrations). You must use at least two sources with one being the textbook. Be sure to cite any sources used in a reference slide with proper APA formatting. The cover and reference slides do not count toward the total slide requirement. Also, use the speaker notes function to explain the content in detail for each of the slides.

Note: Keep in mind the 6×6 PowerPoint rule: slides should only include six to seven lines of content with no more than six to seven words per line. Also, illustrations should relate to the content being discussed—be creative.

Refer to the following tutorial from the Success Center on developing good PowerPoint presentations:

https://columbiasouthern.adobeconnect.com/_a1174888831/powerpointbestpractices/

Information about accessing the grading rubric for this assignment is provided below.

 

This Unit covers Chapters 3, 4, & 5 in the textbook on “Building Self-Esteem & Self-Confidence, Interpersonal Communications, & Interpersonal Skills for the Digital World”.   There is a PowerPoint presentation paper due and a Journal entry that centers on self-esteem and ways to improve it in the workplace.   The PowerPoint presentation is on communications flow and barriers that get in the way of quality communications.  Keep in mind that just providing slides with bullets and data doesn’t demonstrate that the student actually understands the information in the bullets so approach this assignment from the perspective that you and I are in the classroom alone and you are doing this presentation for me knowing that I have zero knowledge of the topics addressed on the slides.   Read the syllabus instructions carefully and be sure to comply with all the requirements.  Keep in mind that originality, presentation, graphics, and quality will be part of the grade along with your speaker notes.  This unit is a good next step from what was covered in unit one because interacting with employees and interpersonal skills require high self-esteem and confidence as well as good communications flow that are the focus of this unit.  In Unit three we will focus on developing quality teams and decision-making skills all of which are tied to what was covered in the first two units.

Let me know if you have a question.

 

DuBrin, A. J. (2015). Human relations: Interpersonal job-oriented skills (12th ed.). Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson.

 

 

Q2. What kind of information do you think

Based on Walmart’s success in the United States, many expected the company to quickly dominate the British market after it bought the Asda grocery chain in 1999. That did not happen; Walmart’s market share in groceries grew to a little more than half that of its biggest competitor, Tesco. Initially, Tesco’s sales and net income rose significantly while Walmart’s sales and net income increased at a much slower rate. More recently, Walmart has made small gains in market share, and Tesco has had small decreases. Walmart found out that Tesco is a formidable worldwide competitor. Tesco operates almost 2,400 stores in Britain in four different formats. It has a very successful operation in Central Europe, and it expanded to the United States with Fresh & Easy stores. In Korea, Tesco’s 174 stores thrived while Walmart gave up after an eight-year effort to succeed and sold its 16 stores. One of the biggest reasons for Tesco’s success is its use of technology. In 1995, Tesco started a loyalty card program, called Clubcard, and over 80% of its shoppers are members. Shoppers fill out an application in the store and receive a plastic card and a key fob in the mail that is scanned before they make a purchase. Tesco gathers massive amounts of data about its customers’ 15 million purchases each week. Sales data are analyzed and turned into information that provides Tesco with a significant competitive advantage. As traditional advertising loses effectiveness, these large stores of data allow Tesco to find new and creative ways to market its products.

REQUIRED • a.What kind of information do you think Tesco gathers .How do you think Tesco has motivated over 22 million customers to sign up for its Clubcard program? • c.What can Tesco accomplish with the Clubcard data it collects? Think in terms of strategy and competitive advantage. • d.What are some of the disadvantages to the Clubcard program? • e.Do an Internet search to find out how Tesco is doing in comparison to Walmart and other grocers and retailers. Write a few paragraphs explaining your findings.

 

Q3. Being a small-business owner such a

Being a small-business owner such as a custom framing store, a restaurant, a garage, or a specific small local business of your choice, apply the basic supply management principles to the acquisition of services.

  • Discuss the trade-offs of quantity, quality, and cost in a small business such as a custom framing store, a restaurant, a garage, or a specific small local business of your pick.
  • Planning systems such as MRP and CRP might be overkills for a small-business owner. Devise a simplified version of an MRP and/or CRP such as a supply planning chart or a supply planning template for a small local business. A local small business could be a custom framing store, a restaurant, a garage, or a specific small local business of your pick.

 

Q4. Internet Research: Cabin Environmental Control Systems

In this second Internet Research assignment, find an article in an aviation related journal or other current resource focused on cabin environmental control systems. Some examples of topics that could be used in your search would be aircraft pressurization systems, oxygen systems, air conditioning systems, and aircraft heating systems. Explain the design of the cabin environmental system, how it affects human physiology, and what would happen if the system malfunctioned. This is a general assignment, but intended to get you familiar with the resources available pertaining to aviation maintenance as well as to broaden your knowledge of cabin environmental control systems. Below are some recommended resources to get you started:

  • General Aviation News (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. https://generalaviationnews.com/
  • Aviation Week (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.http://aviationweek.com/
  • AVM Magazine (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. https://www.avm-mag.com/
  • DOM Magazine (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. http://www.dommagazine.com/
  • Hunt Library (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

After conducting your research, write a one to two page synopsis of your findings. Page requirements does not include your cover page and reference page.  Your submission is expected to be grammatically sound, free of spelling errors, and formatted according to the current APA Edition. Provide at least one in-text citation and separate reference page to support your research.

 

Q5. Review Questions

These review questions will broaden your application of a few key topics from the chapters and the Module 3 objectives . Answer all four questions. All references are required to be in current APA format.

  1. Discuss the importance of integrating the voice of the customer into all decisions under the concept of Quality Function Deployment (QFD).
  2. Describe service process design and the service encounter design.
  3. What is Design for Reliability?  Why is reliability important? Describe series and parallel systems?
  4. Describe Throughput and explain why the identification and elimination of bottlenecks are key to improving productivity.

Module Report Guidelines

  • 750-word minimum, not including Reference or Cover Page
  • Current APA format
  • Double Spaced
  • A minimum of 3 references, in the Reference section at the end of the paper, are required.

o    Two references must be scholarly, peer-reviewed, and from reputable sources.

o    One textbook reference is acceptable.

Module Review Guidelines

  • Current APA format

 

Q6. Airline Service Delivery

How do the service delivery requirements of a passenger airline provider differ from the service delivery requirements of a cargo airline service?

Requirements

Discussion Board Posting Requirements

  • Create a primary response on the discussion topic. This response should be 400 words minimumfor each question and with a minimum of two references. You are welcome to write more if you feel it is warranted. It is highly recommended that you post your initial responses no later than the fourth night of the module week so that your classmates have a good chance to read and reply before the end of the week.
  • Respond to at least twoof your peers. Provide cogent responses by either supporting or debating your fellow students’ posts, and explain your viewpoint(s) clearly. Be sure to justify your responses. Your responses should be at least 100 words each. You are welcome to write more if you feel it is warranted.
  • All references must be in current APA format.

 

Below are the two peers postings

 

There are two main “servicescapes” in the aviation world (Collier & Evans, 2015). Those of us who have flown/worked with cargo on a regular basis know that doing so is a lot easier than dealing with customers and human lives all day. The cargo world operates on the “lean servicescape” which basically means that it requires less human (and financial) input to operate efficiently. Although there are still deadlines for cargo and a lot of logistics that go into flight planning, cargo involves less work and less planning to ensure a successful, profitable and safe flight. Cargo airlines don’t need to spend extra money and time to deck their aircraft out with creature comforts, put good-looking customer service staff out at the check-in’s in the terminals, or maintain a corporate social presence like passenger airlines do. Passenger airlines operate on the “elaborate servicescape”, which, in essence, means that they have to do a lot more to maintain their business and keep customers happy. While passenger airlines have to deal with ticketing, meals, accommodations for disabled passengers, planning recurring flights, angry passengers when flights are canceled or delayed, and all of the other things that come with providing a service to humans over inanimate objects, cargo airlines just have to make sure that their flights are safe, on-time, and able to generate a profit. They still have a human operating component (employees such as load masters, pilots, managers, flight planners, MX personnel, etc) but it doesn’t need to be anywhere near as developed as a passenger airline’s.

 

Collier, D. A., & Evans, J. R. (2015). OM5 (5th ed.). Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.

 

How do the service delivery requirements of a passenger airline provider differ from the service delivery requirements of a cargo airline service?

The biggest difference, in my opinion, is that for all the people who fly for fun or business it’s that they will never get to see the cargo operations side.  Spending my entire military career in and around passenger and cargo aviation I have much experience dealing with both.  For example, Lockheed Martin developed the C-5 Galaxy and its primary mission is moving cargo, people, and equipment on a global scale.  Or it can be converted into one huge passenger jet by palletizing airline seats to the cargo floor.  In its “air-bus configuration the C-5 can carry 270 passengers” (Lockheed Martin C-5 Galaxy, 2017).

So quite frankly the simplest answers are passenger aircraft move people and cargo aircraft move cargo.  However, there are air carriers which have aircraft that move people and cargo as a combination.  As we compare the two, cargo and people air carriers our textbook says that “integrating all of the elements (for both) is necessary to design a service that provides value to customers and can create a competitive advantage” (Collier D., Evans J., 2015, p. 121).  In your spare time, if you have any, look up an airline, any airline and they will most likely have passenger flights and cargo flights with aircraft designated to each.

For example, I have researched a United States air carrier by simply searching U.S. Airlines cargo and came up with American Airlines.  Punch up the website and it states that “American Airlines provides more than 100 million pounds of weekly cargo lift to major cities in the United States, Europe, Canada, Mexico, the Caribbean, Latin America and Asia Pacific” (About AACargo, 2016).  The website also discusses facilities, services, and processes.

On the other hand, at the American Airlines passenger travel site, it is geared towards personal travel, vacation packages and incentives to fly with American Airlines.  The travel site supports passenger travel such as “Black Friday Savings, Connect Your World, and Relax Before the Runway” (Plan Travel, 2017).  Both websites however different are basically the same type of layout and relatively easy to use in my opinion.  They both provide their own unique “service-delivery system design” (Collier D., Evans J., 2015, p. 121) by focusing on the customer’s wants and needs.

Cargo air services provide cargo space to customers for personal and business applications to deliver goods and products to destinations where needed. Additionally, cargo air carriers utilize technology to track freight and provide customers tracking information as a service to follow their products throughout the shipping process.  Passenger air services deliver people from one place to another.  They also provide online service to plan, make, and purchase a person’s travel arrangements.

v/R

Ken

References

About AACargo. (2016). Retrieved from American Airlines Cargo: https://www.aacargo.com/about/aacargo.html

Collier D., Evans J. (2015). Operations Management. Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.

Lockheed Martin C-5 Galaxy. (2017). Retrieved from The Aviation Zone: http://www.theaviationzone.com/factsheets/c5.asp

Plan Travel. (2017). Retrieved from American Airlines: https://www.aa.com/homePage.do

 

Q7. You Tube Video Analysis Report

You Tube Video Analysis Report

Must be own works and with references

Please go to YouTube Video site and find a video that pertains to one of the following topics:

  • Computer Aided Design (CAD)
  • Computer Aided Manufacturing (CAM)
  • Computer Aided Engineering (CAE)
  • Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM)

In your paper write the following:

  • Describe the topic and specify what you learned from the video
  • Explain the pros and cons of this approach
  • Compare manual operations vs. the new computer-aided technology
  • Find at least two additional references to support your paper

 

 

Q8. Pecha Kucha Presentation: Aircraft Instrument

Every instrument has two parts, the sensing mechanism and the display mechanism. For this activity, choose one instrument from the three basic instrument classifications. The three classifications are the: flight instrument, engine instrument, and navigation instrument. Explain how the instrument works, what flight input it measures and is a glass cockpit (digital flight instrument display) beneficial, why or why not? Your Pecha Kucha should be no more than 15 slides of 20 seconds each. Be creative and think how you can incorporate other visual aids to add to your presentation!

 

Q9. Fuel System internet research paper

For this first Internet Research assignment, find an article in an aviation related journal or other current resource focused on an aircraft fuel system or subsystem. Explain the design of the fuel system or subsystem and how it affected the aircraft and any type of problems associated with this fuel system (e.g. fuel imbalance). This is a general assignment, but intended to get you familiar with the resources available pertaining to aviation maintenance as well as to broaden your knowledge of aircraft fuel systems. Below are some recommended resources to get you started:

  • General Aviation News (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.https://generalaviationnews.com/
  • Aviation Week  (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. http://aviationweek.com/
  • AVM Magazine  (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. http://www.avm-mag.com/
  • DOM Magazine  (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.http://www.dommagazine.com/
  • Hunt library  (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

After conducting your research, write a one to two page synopsis of your findings. Page requirements does not include your cover page and reference page. document. Your submission is expected to be grammatically sound, free of spelling errors, and formatted according to the current APA Edition. Provide at least one in-text citation and separate reference page to support your research.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q10. Order Winners and Order Qualifiers Report

Order Winners and Order Qualifiers Report

Make sure it is your own works and with references. 

Evaluate the two requirements for understanding your customers’ requirements:

Order Qualifiers:

  • Why must companies understand this requirement?
  • What can you do as an operations manager to improve this requirement?

Order Winners:

  • What is the main definition and why is it different than Order Qualifiers?
  • As a professional operations manager, what can you do to differentiate your company from the competition? Please provide examples.

Module Report Guidelines

  • 750-word minimum, not including Reference or Cover Page
  • Current APA format
  • Double Spaced
  • A minimum of 3 references, in the Reference section at the end of the paper, are required.

o    Two references must be scholarly, peer-reviewed, and from reputable sources.

o    One textbook reference is acceptable.

 

GENERAL QUESTIONS

 

Q1. HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019

 

Q2. HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019

 

Q3. HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019

 

Q4. PSYC305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019

psyc305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019

psyc305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019

psyc305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019

 

Q5. HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019

 

Q6. HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019

 

Q7. HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019

 

Q8. South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)

South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)

South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)

South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)

 

 

Q9. South university nsg5003 midterm exam 2019

Why is nasal congestion a serious threat young infants

How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult?a.An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s.b.An adult’s chest wall compliance is higher than an infant’s.c.An adult’s chest wall compliance is the same as an infant’s.d.An adult’s chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant’s

 

Q10. South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)

South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)

South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)

South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)

 

 

 

MATHEMATICS.

 

  1. Need help in Acct 211

 

I need some assistance with several of my accounting assignments.  Is anyone available to assist me with this?

Q2. MATH Week 7 – HT of Two Population Means and Proportions

 

Confidence Interval and Significance Test Problems for Two Population Means and Proportions

 

*****Notes to Tutor*****

Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.

 

 

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 1  of 3

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

Guidelines

  • Your work must be organized neatly and typed
  • Clearly indicate your name and the assignment number in the file name
  • Electronic copies of your work can be submitted as an attachment to the drop box
  • You need to hand in individual work. You may talk with each other about the problems
  • However, everything in the assignment must be your own work. You are not allowed to use

classmate’s Minitab Express output. Using Minitab Express output that is not your own is a

violation of academic integrity

  • No late assignments will be accepted

Instructions

The key steps to tests of significance are to state H0 and HA, calculate the test statistic, compute the pvalue,

and make a conclusion based on the given significance level. If you input the hypotheses and the

summary statistics into Minitab Express, Minitab Express will output the test statistic and p-value and

you will not have to do any complex calculations. Keep in mind that the results obtained from software

are not meaningful unless the correct null and alternative hypotheses are determined.

If the question requires a test of significance, your solution should clearly show the four steps to the

test. In addition, you should show that you have checked that the conditions for inference are met.

Step 1: State the null and alternative hypothesis. (Use “mu” or the symbol μ.)

Step 2: Calculate the test statistic.

Step 3: Find the p-value.

Step 4: State your conclusion in the context of the problem.

(Do not just say “Reject H0” or “Do not reject H0.”)

If the question requires a confidence interval, be sure to make a statement about the confidence

interval in context of the problem.

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 2  of 3

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

  1. (4 points) Professor Handy measured the time in seconds required to catch a falling meter stick for

12 randomly selected students’ dominant hand and nondominant hand. The Minitab Express file

contains these measurements. Professor Handy claims that the reaction time in an individual’s

dominant hand is less than the reaction time in their nondominant hand. Assuming that the

differences follow a normal distribution, test the claim at the 5% significance level.

  1. (4 points) The New England Patriots. The 2017 roster of the New England Patriots, winners of the

2017 NFL Super Bowl included 12 defensive linemen and 9 offensive linemen. The Minitab Express

file for this problem contains the weights in pounds of the offensive and defensive linemen. Use

this data set to test the claim that the defensive linesmen weigh less that the offensive linemen at

the 5% level of significance.

  1. (4 points) Stress and weight in rats. In a study of the effects of stress on weight in rats, 71 rats were

randomly assigned to either a stressful environment or a control (nonstressful) environment. After

21 days, the change in weight (in grams) was determined for each rat. The table below summarizes

the data on weight gain. Test the claim that stress effects weight. (Use a 10% significance level.)

Group n Sample mean Sample Standard Dev.

Stress 20 26 13.4

No stress 51 32 14.2

  1. (4 points) A study was conducted to investigate the effectiveness of hypnotism in reducing pain.

Results for randomly selected subjects are given below. At the 1% level of significance, test the claim

that the sensory measurements are lower after hypnotism (scores are in cm. on a pain scale). Assume

sensory measurements are normally distributed. Note: You do not need to type these values into

Minitab Express; the data file has been created for you.

Before 6.6 6.5 9.0 10.3 11.3 8.1 6.3 11.6

After 6.8 2.4 7.4 8.5 8.1 6.1 3.4 2.0

  1. (4 points) Nicotine patches are often used to help smokers quit. Does giving medicine to fight

depression help? A randomized double-blind experiment assigned 244 smokers who wanted to

stop to receive nicotine patches and another 245 to receive both a patch and the antidepressant

drug bupropion. After a year, 40 participants in the nicotine patch group and 87 in the patch-plusdrug

group had abstained from smoking.

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 3  of 3

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

Count that Abstained From Smoking Sample Size

Patch + bupropion 87 245

Patch Only 40 244

Is there a significantly higher proportion of the patients that receive the patch plus bupropion

abstaining from smoking than the patch only group? Carry out a test of significance at the 5%

significance level.

  1. (4 points) A random sample of individuals participating in a survey in 2000 was asked “Do you

favor or oppose the death penalty for murder?” The results were 130 out of 200 females favored

capital punishment and 188 out of 250 males favored capital punishment. Find an approximate

95% confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of females and males that

favor capital punishment. Based upon your confidence interval do you believe the proportion of

males that favor capital punishment is greater than the proportion of females that favor capital

punishment? Justify your answer.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Number Name Position Weight Line
97 Branch, Alan NT 325 Defensive Line
99 Buchanan, Michael DE 255 Defensive Line
74 Easley, Dominique DE 290 Defensive Line
98 Forston, Marcus DT 305 Defensive Line
95 Jones, Chandler DE 265 Defensive Line
94 Jones, Chris DT 309 Defensive Line
90 Moore, Zach DE 275 Defensive Line
50 Ninkovich, Rob DE 260 Defensive Line
96 Siliga, Sealver DT 325 Defensive Line
90 Smith, Will DE 282 Defensive Line
72 Vellano, Joe DT 300 Defensive Line
75 Wilfork, Vince DT 325 Defensive Line
61 Cannon, Marcus G 335 Offensive Line
63 Connolly, Dan G 305 Offensive Line
65 Devey, Jordan G 317 Offensive Line
71 Fleming, Cameron G 325 Offensive Line
67 Kline, Josh G 295 Offensive Line
77 Solder, Nate T 320 Offensive Line
66 Stork, Bryan C 310 Offensive Line
76 Vollmer, Sebastian T 320 Offensive Line
62 Wendell, Ryan G 300 Offensive Line

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Name

Course

Professor

Date

QUESTION 1

Differences as normally distributed.

Dominant Non dominant d
1 0.177 0.179 -0.002
2 0.21 0.202 0.008
3 0.186 0.208 -0.022
4 0.189 0.184 0.005
5 0.198 0.215 -0.017
6 0.194 0.193 0.001
7 0.16 0.194 -0.034
8 0.163 0.16 0.003
9 0.166 0.209 -0.043
10 0.152 0.164 -0.012
11 0.19 0.21 -0.02
12 0.172 0.197 -0.025
d-bar -0.0132
sd= 0.0164

Paired t test:

Let d =dominant-non dominant

Test statistic:

t=(-0.0132-0)/(0.0164/SQRT(12))

t=-2.78

df=12-1=11

p-value=tdist(2.78,11,1)=0.0090

As,p-value<0.05,we reject the null hypothesis.

There is sufficient evidence to support the claim that reaction time for dominant hand is less than non dominant hand.

 

 

 

 

 

 

QUESTION 2

The test statistic and critical point has been found by running the following R code:

off <- c(335,305,317,325,295,320,310,320,300)
def <-c(325,255,290,305,265,309,275,260,325,282,300,325)t.test(off,def,alternative=”greater”,var.equal=TRUE)
qt(0.95,19)

QUESTION 3
Hypotheses.
 The first step is to state the null hypothesis and an alternative hypothesis.

Null hypothesis: uStress> uNo Stress
Alternative hypothesis: uStress < uNo Stress

An analysis plan: The significance level is 0.10. Using sample data, we will conduct a two-sample t-test of the null hypothesis.

Analyze sample data. Using sample data, we compute the standard error (SE), degrees of freedom (DF), and the t statistic test statistic (t).

SE = sqrt[(s12/n1) + (s22/n2)]
SE = 3.6342
DF = 69

t = [ (x1 – x2) – d ] / SE

t = – 1.65

where s1 is the standard deviation of sample 1, s2 is the standard deviation of sample 2, n1 is thesize of sample 1, n2 is the size of sample 2, x1 is the mean of sample 1, x2 is the mean of sample 2, d is the hypothesized difference between population means, and SE is the standard error.

The observed difference in sample means produced a t statistic of – 1.65.

P-value is 0.052

Conclusion: Since the P-value (0.052) is less than the significance level (0.10), we have to reject the null hypothesis.

From the above test we have sufficient evidence in the favor of the claim that stress effects weight.

 

QUESTION 4

QUESTION 5

QUESTION 6

 

 

 

Before After
6.6 6.8
6.5 2.4
9 7.4
10.3 8.5
11.3 8.1
8.1 6.1
6.3 3.4
11.6 2

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Student Dominant Hand Non-dominant Hand
1 0.177 0.179
2 0.21 0.202
3 0.186 0.208
4 0.189 0.184
5 0.198 0.215
6 0.194 0.193
7 0.16 0.194
8 0.163 0.16
9 0.166 0.209
10 0.152 0.164
11 0.19 0.21
12 0.172 0.197

 

 

 

Q3. MATH Week 7 – HT of Two Population Means and Proportions

See Attachments

 

Confidence Interval and Significance Test Problems for Two Population Means and Proportions

 

*****Notes to Tutor*****

Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.

 

 

 

 

 

 

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 1  of 3

 

 

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

Guidelines

  • Your work must be organized neatly and typed
  • Clearly indicate your name and the assignment number in the file name
  • Electronic copies of your work can be submitted as an attachment to the drop box
  • You need to hand in individual work. You may talk with each other about the problems
  • However, everything in the assignment must be your own work. You are not allowed to use

classmate’s Minitab Express output. Using Minitab Express output that is not your own is a

violation of academic integrity

  • No late assignments will be accepted

Instructions

The key steps to tests of significance are to state H0 and HA, calculate the test statistic, compute the pvalue,

and make a conclusion based on the given significance level. If you input the hypotheses and the

summary statistics into Minitab Express, Minitab Express will output the test statistic and p-value and

you will not have to do any complex calculations. Keep in mind that the results obtained from software

are not meaningful unless the correct null and alternative hypotheses are determined.

If the question requires a test of significance, your solution should clearly show the four steps to the

test. In addition, you should show that you have checked that the conditions for inference are met.

Step 1: State the null and alternative hypothesis. (Use “mu” or the symbol μ.)

Step 2: Calculate the test statistic.

Step 3: Find the p-value.

Step 4: State your conclusion in the context of the problem.

(Do not just say “Reject H0” or “Do not reject H0.”)

If the question requires a confidence interval, be sure to make a statement about the confidence

interval in context of the problem.

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 2  of 3

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

  1. (4 points) Professor Handy measured the time in seconds required to catch a falling meter stick for

12 randomly selected students’ dominant hand and nondominant hand. The Minitab Express file

contains these measurements. Professor Handy claims that the reaction time in an individual’s

dominant hand is less than the reaction time in their nondominant hand. Assuming that the

differences follow a normal distribution, test the claim at the 5% significance level.

  1. (4 points) The New England Patriots. The 2017 roster of the New England Patriots, winners of the

2017 NFL Super Bowl included 12 defensive linemen and 9 offensive linemen. The Minitab Express

file for this problem contains the weights in pounds of the offensive and defensive linemen. Use

this data set to test the claim that the defensive linesmen weigh less that the offensive linemen at

the 5% level of significance.

  1. (4 points) Stress and weight in rats. In a study of the effects of stress on weight in rats, 71 rats were

randomly assigned to either a stressful environment or a control (nonstressful) environment. After

21 days, the change in weight (in grams) was determined for each rat. The table below summarizes

the data on weight gain. Test the claim that stress effects weight. (Use a 10% significance level.)

Group n Sample mean Sample Standard Dev.

Stress 20 26 13.4

No stress 51 32 14.2

  1. (4 points) A study was conducted to investigate the effectiveness of hypnotism in reducing pain.

Results for randomly selected subjects are given below. At the 1% level of significance, test the claim

that the sensory measurements are lower after hypnotism (scores are in cm. on a pain scale). Assume

sensory measurements are normally distributed. Note: You do not need to type these values into

Minitab Express; the data file has been created for you.

Before 6.6 6.5 9.0 10.3 11.3 8.1 6.3 11.6

After 6.8 2.4 7.4 8.5 8.1 6.1 3.4 2.0

  1. (4 points) Nicotine patches are often used to help smokers quit. Does giving medicine to fight

depression help? A randomized double-blind experiment assigned 244 smokers who wanted to

stop to receive nicotine patches and another 245 to receive both a patch and the antidepressant

drug bupropion. After a year, 40 participants in the nicotine patch group and 87 in the patch-plusdrug

group had abstained from smoking.

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 3  of 3

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

Count that Abstained From Smoking Sample Size

Patch + bupropion 87 245

Patch Only 40 244

Is there a significantly higher proportion of the patients that receive the patch plus bupropion

abstaining from smoking than the patch only group? Carry out a test of significance at the 5%

significance level.

  1. (4 points) A random sample of individuals participating in a survey in 2000 was asked “Do you

favor or oppose the death penalty for murder?” The results were 130 out of 200 females favored

capital punishment and 188 out of 250 males favored capital punishment. Find an approximate

95% confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of females and males that

favor capital punishment. Based upon your confidence interval do you believe the proportion of

males that favor capital punishment is greater than the proportion of females that favor capital

punishment? Justify your answer.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Number Name Position Weight Line
97 Branch, Alan NT 325 Defensive Line
99 Buchanan, Michael DE 255 Defensive Line
74 Easley, Dominique DE 290 Defensive Line
98 Forston, Marcus DT 305 Defensive Line
95 Jones, Chandler DE 265 Defensive Line
94 Jones, Chris DT 309 Defensive Line
90 Moore, Zach DE 275 Defensive Line
50 Ninkovich, Rob DE 260 Defensive Line
96 Siliga, Sealver DT 325 Defensive Line
90 Smith, Will DE 282 Defensive Line
72 Vellano, Joe DT 300 Defensive Line
75 Wilfork, Vince DT 325 Defensive Line
61 Cannon, Marcus G 335 Offensive Line
63 Connolly, Dan G 305 Offensive Line
65 Devey, Jordan G 317 Offensive Line
71 Fleming, Cameron G 325 Offensive Line
67 Kline, Josh G 295 Offensive Line
77 Solder, Nate T 320 Offensive Line
66 Stork, Bryan C 310 Offensive Line
76 Vollmer, Sebastian T 320 Offensive Line
62 Wendell, Ryan G 300 Offensive Line

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Before After
6.6 6.8
6.5 2.4
9 7.4
10.3 8.5
11.3 8.1
8.1 6.1
6.3 3.4
11.6 2

 

 

Student Dominant Hand Non-dominant Hand
1 0.177 0.179
2 0.21 0.202
3 0.186 0.208
4 0.189 0.184
5 0.198 0.215
6 0.194 0.193
7 0.16 0.194
8 0.163 0.16
9 0.166 0.209
10 0.152 0.164
11 0.19 0.21
12 0.172 0.197
 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q4. MATH Week 5 CI One Mean & Proportion

 

See attachment.

 

*****Notes to Tutor*****

Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.

 

 

 

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 1  of 2

MATH232 Week 05 Assignment

Confidence Intervals for One Population Mean and

Proportion

Guidelines

  • Your work must be organized neatly and typed
  • Clearly indicate your name and the assignment number in the file name
  • Electronic copies of your work can be submitted as an attachment to the drop box
  • You need to hand in individual work. You may talk with each other about the problems
  • However, everything in the assignment must be your own work. You are not allowed to use

classmate’s Minitab Express output. Using Minitab Express output that is not your own is a

violation of academic integrity

  • No late assignments will be accepted

Example Solution

You measure the weights of a random sample of 24 male runners 18 to 24 years old. The sample

mean is 60kg and sample standard deviation is 5kg. A local gym advertises that the mean weight

for this group of men is 62kg. Calculate a 95% confidence interval for the mean weight for male

runners 18 to 24 years old.

WORK YOU NEED TO SUBMIT:

I am 95% confident that the true mean weight for male runners 18 to 24 years old is between

57.9 and 62.1 kgs.

1) (5 points) The increasing cost of health care is an important issue today. Suppose that a

random sample of 36 small companies that offer paid health insurance as a benefit was

selected. The mean health insurance cost per worker per month was $124 with a

standard deviation of $32. Construct a 99% confidence interval for the average health

cost per worker per month for all small companies.

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 2  of 2

MATH232 Week 05 Assignment

Confidence Intervals for One Population Mean and

Proportion

2) (5 points) Salmon Farming. Researchers tested 150 farm-raised salmon for organic

contaminants. They found the mean concentration of the carcinogenic insecticide mirex to

be 0.0913 parts per million, with standard deviation 0.0495 ppm. As a safety

recommendation to recreational fishers, the Environmental Protection Agency’s (EPA)

recommended “screening value” for mirex is 0.08 ppm. Calculate a 99% confidence interval

for the mean concentration of mirex. Based upon your confidence interval, are farmed

salmon contaminated beyond the level permitted by the EPA? Justify your answer.

3) (5 points) In a survey of 284 smokers, 197 smokers reported that they wanted to quit smoking.

Compute a 90% confidence interval for the true proportion of smokers that want to quit smoking.

(Adapted from the American Lung Association)

4) (5 points) When 460 junior college students were surveyed, 100 said they have a passport. Construct

a 95% confidence interval for the proportion of junior college students that have a passport. Round

to the nearest thousandth.

5) Housing Starts The attached data set represents the number of housing starts predicted for the

2nd quarter of 2014 for a random sample of 40 economists.

  1. a) Draw a histogram of the data. Comment on the shape of the distribution.
  2. b) Draw a boxplot of the data. Are there any outliers?
  3. c) Discuss the need for a large sample size in order to use the Student’s t-distribution to obtain a

confidence interval for the population mean forecast of the number of housing starts in the

second quarter of 2014.

 

 

 

Housing Starts
984
1260
1009
992
975
993
1025
1164
1060
992
1100
942
1050
1047
1000
938
1035
1030
964
970
1061
1067
1100
1095
976
1012
1038
929
920
996
990
1095
1178
1017
980
1125
964
888
946
1004

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q5. Math Week 8 Assignment

For the test of significance questions, clearly indicate each of the formal steps in the test of significance.
Step 1: State the null and alternative hypothesis.
Step 2: Calculate the test statistic.
Step 3: Find the p-value.
Step 4: State your conclusion. (Do not just say “Reject H0” or “Do not reject H0”, state the conclusion
in the context of the problem.)

  1. A market research group is interested in comparing the mean weight loss for two different popular diets.
    The researcher chooses two random samples of participants for the two diet programs. For Diet A, the
    mean weekly weight loss for 10 participants was 1.5 pounds with standard deviation 0.4 pounds. For Diet
    B, the mean weekly weight loss for 12 participants was 1.2 pounds with standard deviation 0.6 pounds. At
    a 5% significance level, does this indicate that Diet A is better than Diet B?
  2. Random samples of 50 women and 50 men are taken at Norwich University. They are asked their reaction
    to increased tuition fees. Of the women, 23 favored the increase. Of the men, 19 favor the increase. At a
    10% significance level, does this indicate that a larger proportion of women favor the increase than men?
  3. A method currently used by doctors to screen patients for a certain type of cancer fails to detect cancer in
    15% of the patients who actually have the disease. A new method has been developed that researchers hope
    will be able to detect cancer more accurately. A random sample of 80 patients known to this type of cancer
    is screened using the new method and the method failed to detect the cancer in 8 patients. At the 5% level
    of significance, can the researchers conclude that the new method is better than the one currently in use?
    (Can they conclude that the new method fails to detect cancer in less than 15% of the patients who actually
    have the disease?)
  4. Beetles in oats. In a study of leaf beetle damage on oats, researchers measured the number of beetle larvae
    per stem in small plots of oats after randomly applying one of two treatments: no pesticide or malathion at
    the rate of 0.25 pound per acre. Below are the summary statistics. Compute a 95% confidence interval for
    the difference in the mean number of beetle larvae per stem for the no pesticide group and malathion group.

Group Treatment Mean, St. Dev,  n
1 no pesticide        3.47, 1.21, 13
2 malathion           1.36, 0.52, 14

  1. A coffee shop claims that its fresh-brewed drinks have a mean caffeine content of 80 milligrams per 5
    ounces. A city health agency believes that the coffee shop’s fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine
    content. To test this claim the health agency takes a random sample of 100 five-ounce servings and found
    the average mean caffeine content of the sample was 87 milligrams with standard deviation of 25
    milligrams. Does this provide enough evidence at the 1% significance level to claim that the coffee shop’s
    fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine content? (Adapted from Reader’s Digest Eating for Good
    Health.)
    6. In a recent survey of county high school students, 100 males and 100 females, 66 of the male students and
    47 of the female students sampled admitted that they consumed alcohol on a regular basis. Find a 90%
    confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of male and female students that consume
    alcohol on a regular basis. Can you draw any conclusions from the confidence interval?
    7. Does using premium gas increase your miles per gallon? A study was conducted with nine vehicles that can
    run on regular gas to see if using premium gas will get better gas mileage. Each car in our sample was
    randomly filled first with either regular or premium gasoline, and the mileage for that tankful recorded. The
    mileage was recorded again for the same cars for a tankful of the other kind of gasoline. Is there evidence to
    suggest that using premium gas will increase your miles per gallon? (Use 10% significance level.)
    Gas Mileage (mpg)
    Premium, Regular, Difference
    Vehicle 1: 19, 20, -1
    Vehicle 2: 35, 32, 3
    Vehicle 3: 34, 33, 1
    Vehicle 4: 18, 19, -1
    Vehicle 5: 40, 37, 3
    Vehicle 6: 26, 27, -1
    Vehicle 7: 36, 33, 3
    Vehicle 8: 28, 29, -1
    Vehicle 9: 34, 31, 3
    Mean:      30, 29, 1
    St Dev: 7.7, 6.1, 2.0
  2. Suppose the mean salary for full professors in the United States is believed to be $71,650. A sample of 15
    full professors revealed a mean salary of $74,250 with a standard deviation of $5,000. Can it be concluded
    that the average salary has increased using a 1% level of significance?

 

*****Notes to Tutor*****

Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Elementary Statistics

Week 08 – Part 2 of the Final Exam

Each question is worth 13.75 points.

For the test of significance questions, clearly indicate each of the formal steps in the test of significance.

Step 1: State the null and alternative hypothesis.

Step 2: Calculate the test statistic.

Step 3: Find the p-value.

Step 4: State your conclusion. (Do not just say “Reject H0” or “Do not reject H0”, state the conclusion

in the context of the problem.)

On your written assignment copy and paste the following statement. Please state that you agree with the

following academic honesty statement.

I pledge that all of the following work is my own and I am following the rules of conduct

consistent with Norwich University’s Academic Honesty Policy stated in the Student’s

Academic Regulations.

I have not and will not receive help from any outside source on this final exam. I have not

and will not use any resources such as classroom notes, previous quizzes, or any other course

material, other than a calculator, the hypothesis testing flow chart provided, the normal

table, and Minitab Express.

I will not aid any other student on this exam. I am aware that it is a violation of academic

honesty to share or receive any information about the exam with any other student.

  1. A market research group is interested in comparing the mean weight loss for two different popular diets.

The researcher chooses two random samples of participants for the two diet programs. For Diet A, the

mean weekly weight loss for 10 participants was 1.5 pounds with standard deviation 0.4 pounds. For Diet

B, the mean weekly weight loss for 12 participants was 1.2 pounds with standard deviation 0.6 pounds. At

a 5% significance level, does this indicate that Diet A is better than Diet B?

  1. Random samples of 50 women and 50 men are taken at Norwich University. They are asked their reaction

to increased tuition fees. Of the women, 23 favored the increase. Of the men, 19 favor the increase. At a

10% significance level, does this indicate that a larger proportion of women favor the increase than men?

  1. A method currently used by doctors to screen patients for a certain type of cancer fails to detect cancer in

15% of the patients who actually have the disease. A new method has been developed that researchers hope

will be able to detect cancer more accurately. A random sample of 80 patients known to this type of cancer

is screened using the new method and the method failed to detect the cancer in 8 patients. At the 5% level

of significance, can the researchers conclude that the new method is better than the one currently in use?

(Can they conclude that the new method fails to detect cancer in less than 15% of the patients who actually

have the disease?)

  1. Beetles in oats. In a study of leaf beetle damage on oats, researchers measured the number of beetle larvae

per stem in small plots of oats after randomly applying one of two treatments: no pesticide or malathion at

the rate of 0.25 pound per acre. Below are the summary statistics. Compute a 95% confidence interval for

the difference in the mean number of beetle larvae per stem for the no pesticide group and malathion group.

Group Treatment Mean St. Dev n

1 no pesticide 3.47 1.21 13

2 malathion 1.36 0.52 14

  1. A coffee shop claims that its fresh-brewed drinks have a mean caffeine content of 80 milligrams per 5

ounces. A city health agency believes that the coffee shop’s fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine

content. To test this claim the health agency takes a random sample of 100 five-ounce servings and found

the average mean caffeine content of the sample was 87 milligrams with standard deviation of 25

milligrams. Does this provide enough evidence at the 1% significance level to claim that the coffee shop’s

fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine content? (Adapted from Reader’s Digest Eating for Good

Health.)

  1. In a recent survey of county high school students, 100 males and 100 females, 66 of the male students and

47 of the female students sampled admitted that they consumed alcohol on a regular basis. Find a 90%

confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of male and female students that consume

alcohol on a regular basis. Can you draw any conclusions from the confidence interval?

  1. Does using premium gas increase your miles per gallon? A study was conducted with nine vehicles that can

run on regular gas to see if using premium gas will get better gas mileage. Each car in our sample was

randomly filled first with either regular or premium gasoline, and the mileage for that tankful recorded. The

mileage was recorded again for the same cars for a tankful of the other kind of gasoline. Is there evidence to

suggest that using premium gas will increase your miles per gallon? (Use 10% significance level.)

Gas Mileage (mpg)

Premium Regular

Difference

Vehicle 1 19 20 -1

Vehicle 2 35 32 3

Vehicle 3 34 33 1

Vehicle 4 18 19 -1

Vehicle 5 40 37 3

Vehicle 6 26 27 -1

Vehicle 7 36 33 3

Vehicle 8 28 29 -1

Vehicle 9 34 31 3

Mean 30 29 1

St Dev 7.7 6.1 2.0

  1. Suppose the mean salary for full professors in the United States is believed to be $71,650. A sample of 15

full professors revealed a mean salary of $74,250 with a standard deviation of $5,000. Can it be concluded

that the average salary has increased using a 1% level of significance?

 

Q6. Statistics Review

These terms include (i) population vs. sample; (ii) parameter vs. statistic; and (iii) margin of error (and how to apply it to determine the range of values –

Know the types of sampling methods (e.g., random, simple random, systematic, convenience, stratified, and cluster).

Know the difference between an observational study versus an experimental one (and related terminology, like retrospective, cross-section, prospective/longitudinal, treatment group vs control group, and placebo).

(i) qualitative/categorical vs. quantitative; (ii) continuous vs. discrete; and (iii) the four levels of measurement (nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio). The questions you will be asked will be fill-in-the-blank.

Know how to convert a number between scientific notation and standard notation

Given a graphical/pictorial representation of data (e.g., histogram, stem-and-leaf, frequency polygon, ogive, pie chart, and so on), be prepared to answer a question or two that will demonstrate your understanding of the picture/chart

 

 

Q7 Derive the formula to find sums of integers, squares, cubes, fourth power of integers

Derive or Evaluate the formula for

  • the sum of ‘n’ positive integers
  • the sum of the squares of ‘n’ positive integers
  • the sum of the cubes of ‘n’ positive integers
  • the sum of the fourth power of ‘n’ positive integers
  • the sum of consecutive even numbers
  • the sum of consecutive odd integers

 

 

 

Q8. Derive the formula for the sum of positive integers and sum of the square of positive integers

Explain/ walk through the concept by deriving the formula for

  • The sum of positive integers
  • the sum of the square of positive integers

 

Q9. Derive the formula for Sum of cubes and the sum of the fourth power of ‘n’ positive integers

Evaluate the sum of the square of positive integers

Evaluate the sum of ‘n’ positive integers of the fourth power.

 

 

Q10. Stats of Psyc help needed

 

 

 

Please see the attached file with my assigement. This for Statistics of Psychology. Thank you!

 

SPSS HOMEWORK 1

 

40 POINTS

 

 

Factual Informative Scenario Anecdotal “Identifiable Victim” Scenario
25

10

25

15

10

20

32

15

10

15

15

35

30

50

45

30

 

  1. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)

 

  1. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

 

 

 

 

Cooperation Competition
88

91

73.5

82

84

92.5

76

95

98

81.5

92

87

85

79

91

95.5

72.5

74

63

 

 

  1. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)

 

  1. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

 

 

 

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 1.

 

SOCIOLOGY

Q1. 1. According to Robert Putnum, a scholar of social capital discussed in Chapter 5 of the Conley

Write a 4-6 page essay on two of the following questions. Your total assignment should be 4-6 pages long, plus an additional bibliography page. Please be very careful to cite your resources, including the textbook and/or films carefully and correctly.

  1. According to Robert Putnum, a scholar of social capital discussed in Chapter 5 of the Conley text, people have less connection and trust in their neighbors and communities today than in the past, resulting in a decline in civic (public) engagement. Conduct research on his claim. Based on data you locate from academic sources, explain how and why people are being less engaged with their communities OR conversely argue that Putnam is incorrect and that civic engagement is occurring in other spaces (the internet for example). Avoid using anecdotal or personal experience for this essay and focus on and creating a persuasive academic argument.
  2. The United States has the highest incarceration rate in the world and about 1 in 34 Americans is under correctional supervision. Based on the theories and data presented in Chapter 6 of the Conley text, consider why this might be the case. What is causing the high incarceration rate? What role does racism, poverty, and masculinity play in this pattern? Next, evaluate the rehabilitative vs. punishment approach to crime reduction. Which one does the US employ? How effective is this approach and why might this be the case?
  3. Pascoe identifies a number of social issues or problems in her book, including, gender inequality, masculine dominance and violence/homophobia in schools. Choose an issue or concern that Pascoe raises and discuss her analysis of the issue.

o    Why is it a problem?

o    Where does the problem or issue come from?

o    How have those issues been discussed in our other readings?

o    What are some possible solutions?

 

Q2. SOC 110 Week 2 Creating an Agenda

Instructions:

Resource: Ch. 11 & 12 of Working in Groups

Create an agenda for a virtual team meeting on a topic of your choice.

Draw from your own experience working within a group with the goal of achieving a specific task. You may use your experience as a student working in a group, or develop a plan for a future learning team. Your agenda should include specific items requiring group discussion and

Consensus.

In addition to the agenda, write a 200- to 350-word summary of the following:

  • In a virtual meeting, how can you ensure a group is communicating effectively?
  • How can you ensure that each team member understands what the next steps are required to achieve the meeting’s goals?

Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your agenda and summary.

 

Q3. Caste systems in India

How does the caste culture in India work? Is it still being used? Bad effects of the caste system. Good effects of the caste system

 

Q4. Programs to counter teen age smoking

What are the various programs conducted by the National Cancer Institute (NCI) and Media Campaign Resource Centers to prevent teenage cigarette smoking?

 

 

 

Q5. What is the story of social mobility in your family?

What is the story of social mobility in your family? To what extent have there been shifts both across and within generations? What factors, such as family connections or historical events, contributed to the occurrence of your social mobility? Your journal entry must be at least 200 words. No references or citations are necessary.

 

220 words

 

think as american

 

Q6. SOC 100 Week 9 Assignment 3 Obesity In America(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

SOC 100 Week 9 Assignment 3 Obesity in America(4 pages word paper)

 

Q7. Comparing Factors that Lead to Underdevelopment

This assignment calls for you to select two Less Developed Countries (LDCs) and assess if there are any factors that are common to both as far as their development is concerned. Your two countries must come from the following list:

Burundi

Benin

Cameroon

Nigeria

Nicaragua

Guatemala

Central African Republic

North Korea

Angola

Ghana

Chad

Yemen

Eritrea

Cuba

Congo

Thailand

Egypt

Iran

Equatorial Guinea

Zimbabwe

Zambia

Oman

Ethiopia

Philippines

Congo

Liberia

Gabon

Bahrain

Tanzania

India

Guyana

Mexico

El Salvador

Lebanon

Honduras

Pakistan

Syria

Guinea

Kenya

Sri Lanka

Algeria

Gambia

Mozambique

Senegal

Malawi

Indonesia

Namibia

Vietnam

Morocco

Myanmar

Rwanda

Haiti

Sudan

Bolivia

Somalia

Kuwait

Mauritania

Mali

South Africa

Iraq

Botswana

Bangladesh

Tunisia

Niger

Libya

Malaysia

Uganda

Panama

 

Source: United Nations, 2014

It may help you to be familiar with the concept of poor governance, because this often plays a significant part in why a country is underdeveloped. According to the World Bank, governance is defined as how power is exercised in the management of a country’s economic and social resources for development. Therefore, if good governance is synonymous with sound development management, then poor governance means a government has failed to deliver desirable outcomes for its people. This could mean that officials are corrupt, not transparent with their decisions, unqualified to make decisions in the first place, or prone to make decisions based on racism, tribalism or ethnicity — all of which are very common practices in LCDs.

The most common factor used to decide whether countries are underdeveloped nations is through the Human Development Index. Countries that are underdeveloped in nature offer poor health care, few educational opportunities, a low average life expectancy, a low number of job opportunities, few recreational facilities, poor economic growth, a low standard of living and a poverty-stricken life.

Instructions:

Write at least a six-page paper, in which you:

  1. Identify the two LDCs (from the list above), which you will compare and assess. Explain why you chose these two countries.
  2. Analyze the features that the LDCs have in common using at least five of the following nine factors(clearly label the five factors using headings):
  3. geography
  4. extractive institutions
  5. governmental corruption
  6. internal or external conflicts
  7. shaky financial systems
  8. unfair judicial systems
  9. ethnic, racial or tribal disparities
  10. lack or misuse of natural resources
  11. closed (statist) economies
  12. Use at least seven credible sources. Wikipedia, encyclopedias, dictionaries, blogs and other material that does not qualify as reputable academic source work at the college level. Do not use sources that are older than seven years.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

  • Be typed, double-spaced (no extra spacing between paragraphs), using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
  • Citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date (do not include an abstract).
  • The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length. Graphs, tables and photographs are notcounted toward the length of the paper; only what you have written as text itself.

 

 

Q8. SOCS 185 Week 4 quiz (Already graded A+)

SOCS 185 Week 4 quiz

Question 1

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 4) Swedish Attorney, Bjorn Liar has been asked to lead a group that will decide which of his firm’s associates will be offered partner status. He’s been asked to be more expressive and to include everyone in the decision-making process. What leadership style should Bjorn use?

 

Authoritarian

 

 

Democratic

 

Laissez-faire

 

Bureaucratic

 

Political

Chapter 5

 

Question 2

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 4) Select the appropriate conclusion from Stanley Milgram’s experiment on authority and the infliction of suffering.

 

The results of sociological investigation can be shocking.

 

Thresholds of physical pain differ substantially.

 

 

People are surprisingly likely to follow not only the directions of legitimate authority figures, but also groups of “ordinary individuals.”

 

The conclusions from Solomon Asch’s study of conformity were incorrect.

 

During times of war, values toward authorities and violence change markedly.

Chapter 5

 

Question 3

0 / 2 pts

(TCO 4) A group of businesswomen meet on a monthly basis to assist one another in advancing their careers. They give each other job leads and advice. This group is an example of _____.

You Answered

 

a role connection

 

impression management

 

status assistance

 

a network

 

LinkedIn individuals

Chapter 5

 

Question 4

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 4) By working at a specific task, people are more likely to become highly skilled and carry out a job with maximum efficiency. This is the rationale for the bureaucratic characteristic of _____.

 

employment based on technical qualifications

 

hierarchy of positions

 

 

specialization

 

rules and regulations

 

impersonality

Chapter 5

 

Question 5

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 4) Which statement is true concerning intersexual people?

 

They are sexually attracted to both sexes.

 

They are attracted to neither sex.

 

 

They have both female and male characteristics.

 

They have no gender.

 

They are in the middle of gender reassignment surgery.

Chapter 6

 

Question 6

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 6) Pat Rearc argues that without norms controlling sexual behavior and thus giving the forces of sexual passion free reign, family life and the raising of children would be threatened. To which paradigm would Pat be aligned?

 

 

Structural Functional Theory

 

Symbolic Interaction Theory

 

Social Conflict Theory

 

Queer Theory

 

Exchange Theory

Chapter 6

 

Question 7

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 6) Emile Durkheim proposed several functions of deviance. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

 

Deviance affirms cultural values and norms.

 

 

Deviance provides employment for a large segment of the work force.

 

Responding to deviance clarifies moral boundaries.

 

Deviance encourages social change.

 

Deviance promotes social unity.

Chapter 7

 

Question 8

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 6) Travis Hirschi’s approach to deviance and control proposes that

 

Hirschi is a deviant spelling of Hershey.

 

deviance results from differential access to wealth.

 

deviance is a frustration of ambition.

 

individualism inhibits the deviance.

 

 

everyone finds at least some deviance tempting.

Chapter 7

 

Question 9

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 6) Which of the following is NOT a reason researchers have given for decline in violent crime?

 

 

Increased use of the death penalty

 

Reduction in the youth population

 

Changes in policing

 

Better economy

 

Declining drug trade

Chapter 7

 

Question 10

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 3) While a _____ system is social stratification based on ascription; a _____ system is social stratification based on both birth and individual achievement.

 

caste; crass

 

caste; classless

 

cask; class

 

mobility; closed

 

 

caste; class

Chapter 8

 

Question 11

0 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) According to the Davis-Moore thesis:

You Answered

 

Equality is functional for society.

 

World inequality results from the activities of global multinationals.

 

The greater the functional importance of a position, the more rewards a society attaches to it.

 

Stratification ultimately will be eliminated in the U.S., due to our meritocracy.

 

Viola Davis and Demi Moore are same actress.

Chapter 8

 

Question 12

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) _____ is the term for earnings from work or investments and _____ is the term for the total value of money and other assets, minus outstanding debts.

 

Income; personal property

 

Profit; income

 

Wealth; income

 

 

Income; wealth

 

Rent; net worth

Chapter 8

 

Question 13

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) _____ refers to the deprivation of some people in relation to those who have more, while _____ refers to a deprivation of resources that is life-threatening.

 

 

Relative poverty; absolute poverty

 

Absolute poverty; comparative poverty

 

Normative deprivation; non-normative deprivation

 

Comparative deprivation; incomparable deprivation

 

Absolute poverty; relative poverty

Chapter 8

 

Question 14

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 5) Marx claimed social stratification would end with the creation of a socialist economy. What was Weber’s view?

 

 

Weber thought socialism would reduce economic differences but also create a political elite, increasing differences in power.

 

Weber thought capitalism could not be changed.

 

Weber thought socialism would create a new high-prestige nobility.

 

Weber agreed with Marx.

 

Weber thought social stratification would only increase as the world became more industrialized.

Chapter 8

 

Question 15

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) Accounts Payable Administrator Imelda Czechs works for a small international corporation. This category of work can be described as _____

 

blue-collar work.

 

 

white-collar work.

 

pink-collar work.

 

fur collar work.

 

no-collar work.

Chapter 8

 

Question 16

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) Which type of slavery consists of employers holding workers by paying them too little to cover their debts?

 

Chattel slavery

 

Child slavery

 

 

Debt bondage

 

Debit slavery

 

Revolving credit slavery

Chapter 9

 

Question 17

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) Which of the following gives the correct order of stages of modernization according to W. W. Rostow?

 

High mass consumption, traditional, drive to technological maturity, and take-off

 

Traditional, drive to technological maturity, take-off, and high mass consumption

 

High mass consumption, traditional, take-off, and drive to technological maturity

 

 

Traditional, take-off, drive to technological maturity, and high mass consumption

 

Take-off, drive to traditional maturity, technological, and consume mass quantities

Chapter 9

 

Question 18

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) A social theorist who contributed to the development of dependency theory by tracing the growth of the capitalist world economy is

 

Max Weber.

 

Emile Durkheim.

 

Walt Rostow.

 

Oliver Clozov

 

 

Immanuel Wallerstein.

Chapter 9

 

Question 19

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) The model of the capitalist world economy is

 

Karl Marx’s view that the bourgeois nations, such as England, would dominate the proletarian nations, such as India.

 

Erving Goffman’s view that world peace would result from many types of nations interacting with one another.

 

Talcott Parsons’s view that the inequality that exists among nations is necessary for world stability.

 

 

Immanuel Wallerstein’s view of the global economic system as divided between certain industrialized nations that control wealth, and developing countries that are controlled and exploited.

 

Gerhard Lenski’s view that, as countries gain more technology, they move through levels of development.

Chapter 9

 

Question 20

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 5) _____ is a model of economic and social development that explains global inequality in terms of technological and cultural differences between nations and _____ is a model of economic and social development that explains global inequality in terms of the historic exploitation of poor nations by rich ones.

 

Dependency theory; modernization theory

 

Destiny; manifest destiny

 

Neocolonialism; colonialism

 

 

Modernization theory; dependency theory

 

Colonialism; neocolonialism

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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  1. Discussion Board Post Help Alcohol Abuse

Alcohol abuse continues to be the most serious drug problem on college campuses throughout the United States. Every year, drinking kills more than 1,700 students and injures about 500,000 more; it is also a factor in 600,000 assaults and 100,000 rapes on college campuses. Enzyme-mediated metabolic pathways break down the toxic ethanol in alcoholic beverages. Ethanol kills liver cells and interferes with normal metabolic processes. Long-term heavy drinking causes alcoholic hepatitis, inflammation and destruction of liver tissue, and cirrhosis. Cirrhosis prevents the liver from removing drugs and other toxins from the blood, so they accumulate in the brain where they impair mental functioning and alter personality. Restricted blood flow through the liver increases susceptibility to diabetes, liver cancer and death.

 

Important Concepts from Chapter 3:

  • Introduction: Ethyl Alcohol Liver cells detoxify most of the alcohol a person drinks, but in the long run this process may lead to alcohol-related hepatitis and cirrhosis. Long term heavy use also damages memory, reflexes, and other functions. Binge drinking can stop the heart.
  • Section 3.13: Metabolism Series of enzymatic reactions in cells (metabolism) help cells acquire and use energy as they build, break down, or remodel organic molecules. Metabolism requires enzymes. Each kind of enzyme recognizes specific reactants, or substrates, and alters them in a specific way. Each enzyme functions best in a particular range of conditions that reflect the environment in which it evolved. Metabolic pathways can involve thousands of molecules and be quite complex.

 

Assignment:

  1. Visit WebMD to find out about 12 health risks of chronic heavy drinking.
  2. Visit Healthline.com to read about the effects of alcohol on the body: http://www.healthline.com/health/alcohol/effects-on-body
  3. Visit the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) website to find the Alcohol-Related Disease Impact (ARDI) for your area.
  4. Research what the Bible has to say about drinking.
  5. References should be provided in initial thread and replies.

 

Prompt: Briefly describe three health risks and/or negative physical effects of heavy drinking.  Is it a sin for a Christian to drink excessively? Why or why not (provide Biblical references)?

 

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  1. Statistics Review

q [1.1] Make sure you understand (and can correctly identify examples related to] the relevant terminology. These terms include (i) population vs. sample; (ii) parameter vs. statistic; and (iii) margin of error (and how to apply it to determine the range of values – see p. 5). Questions like #11-14, #15-18, #23-26 (on pp. 8-9) are fair game. [IMPORTANT GENERAL NOTE/ADVICE: Each of the MyLabsPlus Chapter Review homework assignments provide you with the level/type of multiple-choice questions you can expect.] q [1.2] Know the types of sampling methods (e.g., random, simple random, systematic, convenience, stratified, and cluster). See textbook page 15 for an excellent summary. Expect a few questions comparable to #23-38 (pp. 17-18). q  [1.3] Know the difference between an observational study versus an experimental one (and related terminology, like retrospective, cross-section, prospective/longitudinal, treatment group vs control group, and placebo). A number of the examples contained within Section 1.3 (pp. 19-27)  and #9-20 (pp. 28-29) are comparable to what I have in mind for this section, except that your question(s) on these topics will be in multiple-choice format.] q  [1.5] Know the three ways of classifying data:  (i) qualitative/categorical vs. quantitative; (ii) continuous vs. discrete; and (iii) the four levels of measurement (nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio). The questions you will be asked will be fill-in-the-blank. See Example 1-3 pp. 40-43 for an illustration, as well as (on pp.43-44) #5-16, #17-28, and #29-40. q [2.1] Make sure that you are easily able (with the aid of your calculator’s built-in fraction keys/functions) to do the following: (i) change back-and-forth between improper-fraction form and  mixed-number form (#1-2 & #3-4 on p. 55); (ii) simplify/reduce fractions; and (iii) perform operations with fractions (ideally with the aid of your calculator). q [2.2] Be skilled in (i) rounding decimal numbers to requested place values (for example, “round to the nearest hundredth”, “round to three decimal places”, “round to the nearest whole number”, etc.); and (ii) knowing how to use the bar notation to express a decimal in exact/unrounded form or in exact/unrounded form as a percentage [examples: % 3.8338.06 5 = = , % 45.4545.011 5 = = ]
q [2.3] Be able to convert numbers back-and-forth between fraction form, decimal form, and percentage form (e.g., #1-16, p. 63). q [2.4] Know how to convert a number between scientific notation and standard notation (e.g., Example 4-7 on pp. 65-67). q [2.5] Know how to calculate absolute change and relative change (and indicate whether it is an ‘increase’ or a ‘decrease’) with an applied problem comparable to the stock-price example we did in class. q [2.5] Given a percentage increase (such as a 2.75% increase to your annual salary) or a percentage decrease (such as a 30%-off sale), know how to solve related applied problems, such as “What would be your new salary?” or “What would be the sale price?” q [3.1] Make sure you understand the various types of frequency tables/distributions, including grouped vs. ungrouped, relative (r.f.), cumulative (c.f.), and relative cumulative (r.c.f.). I’m planning on asking you a question very similar to Ex. 8 from the in-class worksheet we completed last Saturday, which is comparable to #15-16 on p. 88. q [3.2] Given a two-way table (aka a contingency table), answer several questions about it to demonstrate your understanding of the information it provides. Example 1 on p. 91 is very similar to the difficulty level I have in mind, although I may possibly (?) omit the row/column/grand totals in the table I provide you… and leave those for you to calculate.  q [3.3-3.4] Given a graphical/pictorial representation of data (e.g., histogram, stem-and-leaf, frequency polygon, ogive, pie chart, and so on), be prepared to answer a question or two that will demonstrate your understanding of the picture/chart. q  [General advice for Chapters 1-3 OVERALL — and for the ENTIRE rest of the course] At all times, your aim should be to develop real conceptual ‘understanding’ (i.e., resist the dangerous urge to blindly memorize!). Strive to cogently explain in your own words the purpose/role of each particular topic/skill and when it is applicable (and when it isn’t). In other words, in every one of your homework sessions, make sure you are always invoking your curiosity and then asking (and answering!) the following questions: where does this fit into the “big picture”? What is its purpose? What light does it shed on a given data set (i.e., what can we conclude)? If you were in a professional position in which you had to report this to information to the general public (or to a prospective client… or a patient… or before a judge/jury in a court of law… or to a group of elected legislators), what would you tell them? People who are able to do so are always in very high demand and short supply (in virtually every occupation) in the professional job market.

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  1. STATS- SPSS HOMEWORK 2

SPSS HOMEWORK 2

40 POINTS

 

 

Drinks Per Week

Before Program

Drinks Per Week

After Program

25

17

20

29

16

17

23

21

24

23

19

16

13

14

7

18

11

8

21

10

  1. Paste SPSS output.  (7 pts)

 

  1. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

 

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Twin 1 Twin 2
254

64

89

78

89

174

47

207

21

93

136

19

40

212

230

58

198

67

119

43

89

180

61

112

100

87

126

52

56

259

70

29

  1. Paste SPSS output.  (7 pts)

 

  1. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

 

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 2.

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  1. Python programming

The assessment requires the student to incorporate all the learned technologies in single testbed/simulation. All the students are required to communicate their project that they are working on as Coursework Testbed implementation/Simulation.

 

Example projects that could be undertaken as Coursework Project include the following:

  • Manage Cloud resources: The proposed solution is to run Apache Mesos/DCOS which is a cluster management solution that is typically deployed in data centres, it manages and monitors resources and combines the resources of servers such as CPU, RAM, STORAGE and serves software applications through its framework called Marathon, it enables various applications and frameworks to share cluster resources affectively as well as in isolation.
  • VM Tool Comparisons: The purpose of this purpose is to evaluate the scalability (VM set-up and termination) using two of the most commonly used VIMs Eucalyptus, and OpenNebula.
  • Test-driven and Object-Oriented Implementation of 5G architecture: While NFV has an ETSI defined reference architecture, its beneficial to implement a pure software representation of architecture. The purpose of this project is to design Class, Interaction, State Chart, Component, Deployment Diagrams for 5G architecture using UML software such as IBM Rational Rose / MagicDraw / Lucidchart. The project requires good practice and documentation.
  • Cloud based Multimedia Streaming and Transcoding (Student may use a VMware Hypervisor to create VMs to transcode and stream multimedia contents using FFMPEG to support HLS based http streaming, this project can also be developed as Virtual Network functions.
  • Datacentre Implementation using VMware Hypervisor: Student may design and implement a data centre using VMWARE Hypervisor to meet the needs of a particular organisation.
  • Docker Management Platform: This project requires to design and develop a docker management platform using python.

The above listed are just an example projects, student may choose any one of them or may also propose a project that helps him to implement the cloud and virtualisation concepts that he has learned in this module. This would be required an approval from the Module leader.

 

Coursework Specification

  1. Each group must provide a report comprising: abstract, introduction, experimentation objectives and experimental results and conclusions
  2. Please use the appendix to provide a logbook with the contributions of each member of the group
  3. The minimum length of the report is 3500 words with at least 6 screenshots from experimental development-testing.

 

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  1. DB Post, need help

Topic: Lab Project Phase 1

Preliminary Reading: To prepare for this DB forum, please download and read the following documents, found in the Lab Project folder of the course Assignment Insructions in Blackboard:

  1. Lab Project DB 1 Article Excerpt, from Quarles, C.  (2015, March 29). Southern Baptists must learn to ‘choose our battles wisely’.  [Louisiana] Baptist Message. Retrieved from http://baptistmessage.com/southern-baptists-must-learn-to-choose-our-battles-wisely/
  • You are only required to read the excerpt included in the lab project folder, but can find the entire article at the link above.
  1. Lab Project Survey—this document contains the actual survey you will be administering
  2. Step-by-step Instructions for Survey Administration

 

Background:  Both Discussion Board assignments for this course relate directly to the Lab Project that is posted in the Course Content. This project requires you to administer a survey to at least 12 people and record the results, with an SPSS data file due at the end of Module 4. We are posing the research question, “Is there a relationship between frequency of church attendance and the level of understanding of basic Christian doctrine?”

 

Thread Prompt: Based on the preliminary reading above, respond to the following prompts:

 

  1. Summarize the Quarles (2015) excerpt in 2-3 sentences.  Include in your summary a list of the main Christian doctrines that students are failing to grasp.
  2. Before you administer your surveys, it is important to establish the null and alternative hypotheses that will guide the data analysis and interpretation. Think about the research question:“Is there a relationship between frequency of church attendance and the level of understanding of basic Christian doctrine?”  Based on the given research question and your reading, state a null hypothesis and an alternative hypothesis for the Lab Project. Note that you are not stating a hypothesis for the Quarles study, but for the lab project survey study that you will be conducting.Refer to Chapter 8 of your text for a review of formulating hypotheses, notably “Step 1” of the section “The Four Steps of a Hypothesis Test.”
  3. Based on your reading of the “Step-by-step Instructions for Survey Administration,” state which method you are using or intend to use to collect your surveys (in-person, online, etc.). Describe at least one reason why you have chosen this method, and write about one possible challenge that could arise when administering surveys with your chosen method.
  4. Share your thoughts:  Based on your own opinion, briefly describe what you predict the results of such a study might be.

 

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  1. Statistic review

These terms include (i) population vs. sample; (ii) parameter vs. statistic; and (iii) margin of error (and how to apply it to determine the range of values –

Know the types of sampling methods (e.g., random, simple random, systematic, convenience, stratified, and cluster).

Know the difference between an observational study versus an experimental one (and related terminology, like retrospective, cross-section, prospective/longitudinal, treatment group vs control group, and placebo).

(i) qualitative/categorical vs. quantitative; (ii) continuous vs. discrete; and (iii) the four levels of measurement (nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio). The questions you will be asked will be fill-in-the-blank.

Know how to convert a number between scientific notation and standard notation

Given a graphical/pictorial representation of data (e.g., histogram, stem-and-leaf, frequency polygon, ogive, pie chart, and so on), be prepared to answer a question or two that will demonstrate your understanding of the picture/chart

 

  1. Lab Project Phase 2

Lab Project Phase 2 – Survey Administration, Scoring,

and Data File Creation Instructions

 

PURPOSE:  The purpose of this assignment is to administer surveys and create an SPSS data file containing the survey data.

 

SKILLS/ KNOWLEDGE: As a result of completing this assignment, you will be able to:

 

  • Administer surveys online or in person and score the surveys
  • Use SPSS statistical software to create a data file containing the raw survey data and one index variable

 

BACKGROUND:  The questions on the survey are derived from instruments used in published studies of orthodox Christian beliefs, including Francis, Williams, & Robbins (2010) and Kaldor & Francis (2000).

 

TASKS:

 

  • Download the following documents from the “Lab Project” folder in the Assignment Instructions. The information in these documents is essential for successful completion of the Lab Project:

 

  • Lab Project Survey
  • Step-by-Step Instructions for Survey Administration
  • IRB Guidelines for Survey Administration
  • Raw Data Scoring Instructions

 

  • After reviewing the above documents, administer the Lab Project Survey to at least 12 people, either online or in-person, keeping in mind the IRB guidelines. Allow yourself plenty of time to complete this step.
  • Score your completed surveys and enter the data into a new SPSS data file. Create an index variable that represents the total understanding of Christian doctrine for your sample. Instructions for scoring the survey, entering data, and creating the index variable are in the Raw Data Scoring Instructions document in the Lab Project Folder.

ü  Ensure that your SPSS data file includes individual surveys as the cases, or rows, and the survey questions as the variables, or columns. The index variable representing total understanding of Christian doctrine will reside in column 11, as shown in the example below:

 

 

  • Note:  The only precondition to participating in the survey is that participants must be at least 15 years old; otherwise, participants can be of any gender, race, religious background, etc. It is important to emphasize that the results of the survey are anonymous by pointing out the instructions at the top of the survey. The survey is limited to 10 questions due to length limitations placed by online survey services. Do not add or remove any questions when administering the survey.
  • Submit this SPSS data file to Blackboard as the finished product for Phase 2

 

CRITERIA FOR SUCCESS: Please carefully review the Lab Phase 2 Rubric. Also, remember that asking questions contributes to learning and success, so please contact your instructor should you have any questions related to the assignment.

 

 

 

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Liberty University’s Institutional Review Board

Survey Guidelines For Students

 

In order to comply with IRB policy and to ensure a positive experience for all students and participants, the following directions must be followed when administering surveys for the Liberty University Psychology 355 Lab Project.

  1. All survey respondents must remain completely anonymous.  This means that there should be no identifying information of any sort on any of the survey forms or related documents.  If you administer the survey electronically, there should be no way to track the respondents’ identities.  If you administer the survey in person, all forms must be folded and placed by the respondents into a general collection envelope.
  2. No results or other information related to the survey are to be released, used, or published in any form outside of the confines of the Liberty University Psychology 355 environment.
  3. Respondents (or participants) have the right to withdraw or stop completion of the survey at any time.
  4. All instructions given in other documents related to the survey or the use of survey data must be followed at all times.

Failure to adhere to these requirements could result in significant point loss on the lab project.  If you have any questions about specific procedures, please contact your professor.

 

 

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Lab Project Survey

Disclosure:  I am asking you to complete this survey as part of the requirements for my statistics in psychology course. Your answers will remain completely anonymous.  No personal information about you will be linked to this survey.  Please do not put your name or any other identifying information on the survey. The results of this survey will only be used for educational purposes and will not be published or released to the public.  You must be 15 years old or older in order to complete this survey.

Directions:  For the following questions, mark the answers that most reflect your understanding of general Christian doctrine. This is not a personal belief survey. In other words, we are more interested in your understanding of what Christianity teaches, and not necessarily in your own personal beliefs, which may or may not coincide with these statements. The survey consists of two pages of questions. For each question, please mark your level of agreement with the given statement.

  1. Christianity teaches belief in a personal God.
  • Strongly agree
  • Agree
  • Neither agree nor disagree
  • Disagree
  • Strongly disagree
  1. Christianity teaches that Jesus Christ was God in a full sense.
  • Strongly agree
  • Agree
  • Neither agree nor disagree
  • Disagree
  • Strongly disagree
  1. Christianity teaches that Jesus Christ really rose from the dead.
  • Strongly agree
  • Agree
  • Neither agree nor disagree
  • Disagree
  • Strongly disagree
  1. Christianity teaches that people are born good.
  • Strongly agree
  • Agree
  • Neither agree nor disagree
  • Disagree
  • Strongly disagree
  1. Christianity teaches that Jesus Christ’s death was a sacrifice that paid for the sins of humankind.
  • Strongly agree
  • Agree
  • Neither agree nor disagree
  • Disagree
  • Strongly disagree

 

  1. Christianity teaches that what is good and evil depends on the circumstances of the time.
  • Strongly agree
  • Agree
  • Neither agree nor disagree
  • Disagree
  • Strongly disagree
  1. Christianity teaches that the Bible is God’s word and all it says is true.
  • Strongly agree
  • Agree
  • Neither agree nor disagree
  • Disagree
  • Strongly disagree
  1. Christianity teaches that faith in Jesus Christ is necessary if a person wants to go to heaven.
  • Strongly agree
  • Agree
  • Neither agree nor disagree
  • Disagree
  • Strongly disagree
  1. Christianity teaches that God exists in three persons: God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit.
  • Strongly agree
  • Agree
  • Neither agree nor disagree
  • Disagree
  • Strongly disagree
  1. Including Sundays and any other day of the week, how many times per year would you say that you attend church? (For your reference, there are 52 weeks in one year.)  Please enter a number in the box:

 

 

 

Thank you for taking the time to complete this survey!

 

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Raw Data Scoring Instructions

How to create your SPSS data file:

 

Open a new data file in SPSS. You will create a file containing one survey per row. The columns will contain one variable for each item (question) on the survey (for a total of 10). Additionally, you will create one index variable that represents the sum of responses to questions 1-9 for each survey (see below). This index variable should appear in column 11. An example is provided here for your reference:

 

 

How to score surveys and enter the results into your data file:

 

All questions on the survey except the last one are written as Likert-type items, with choices ranging from “Strongly agree” to “Strongly disagree.” In order to enter these into the data file for analysis, each of the answer choices will be given a corresponding score ranging from 1 to 5. NOTE: It is important to pay attention to the following directions, as some of the items will be reverse-scored (see below).

  1. Gather your completed surveys. It will be necessary to enter data from each individual survey into SPSS.
  2. If you have used the online method, you must follow these steps to access each individual survey:
  1. a) Sign into your account and go to “My Surveys.” Your survey title will appear with 3 icons to the right: Design, Collect, and Analyze. Click on the pie graph under “Analyze.” This will take you to a Response Summary page.
  2. b) On the menu bar to the left, click on “Browse Responses.” This allows you to view each individual survey, which is necessary in order to enter and analyze data in SPSS. Within “Browse Responses,” you can move from one individual survey to the next by clicking on the “Next” and “Prev” arrow buttons at the top.
  1. All items on the survey will be scored from 1 to 5 except for item 10. You will enter the scores for each survey in rows (survey 1 in row 1, survey 2 in row 2, etc.), under the appropriate question column (Question 1 in column 1, etc.).  If you have 10 surveys, you will have 10 cases (rows), if you have 25 surveys, 25 cases (rows), etc.
  1. a) Scores for items 1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8, and 9 are as follows:

Strongly agree = 5

Agree = 4

Neither agree nor disagree = 3

Disagree = 2

Strongly disagree = 1

  1. b) Items 4 and 6 must be reverse-scored. This is because, in opposition to the other items, these items indicate a fundamentally different worldview than the Christian worldview, so the scoring must be reversed; this allows higher scores on all items to reflect an understanding of Christian doctrine, while lower scores indicate misunderstanding or disagreement. This is a method commonly used in survey research. Therefore, scores for items 4 and 6 are as follows:

Strongly agree = 1

Agree = 2

Neither agree nor disagree = 3

Disagree = 4

Strongly disagree = 5

  1. c) For question 10 (church attendance), you will simply enter the exact number that the respondent filled in on the survey (for example, 10, 52, etc.) under the appropriate variable in the SPSS data file.
  1. Remember that the original research question is about the relationship between church attendance and understanding of Christian doctrine. We have one variable that represents church attendance (item 10), but we do not have one sole variable to compare it to—a total score that represents doctrinal understanding.

To create this total score index variable: After you have entered all of your survey data, create a new variable called Tot_Und (which is shorthand for “total understanding”) in Column 11. In this column, enter the sum of items 1-9 for each survey.

  1. You will submit this SPSS data file as your finished product in Blackboard.

 

Remember to refer to the “Lab Project Phase 2 Instructions” in addition to this document when completing this phase.

 

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.

 

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  1. SPSS Homework 4

SPSS HOMEWORK 4

40 POINTS

 

 

 

Community Clinic

 

University Clinic

 

CBT

36

32

19

25

27

31

12

27

20

29

 

PD

24

41

38

12

 

42

21

37

53

19

 

  1. Paste SPSS output.  (7 pts)

 

  1. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your line graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Male

Freshmen Sophomore Junior Senior
39

66

54

66

60

44

32

62

59

29

63

67

46

51

41

45

53

68

57

60

 

 

Female

51

46

45

57

32

 

32

21

30

49

53

56

52

60

47

59

61

55

42

58

61

 

  1. Paste SPSS output.  (7 pts)

 

  1. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your line graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 4.

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  1. SPSS Homework 3 help needed

SPSS HOMEWORK 3

40 POINTS

 

 

Therapist 1 Therapist 2 Therapist 3
35

37

35

37

36

33

39

36

37

37

31

39

35

32

29

32

25

28

33

30

32

 

  1. Paste SPSS output.  (7 pts)

 

  1. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

 

 

 

First-generation

immigrants

Second-generation

immigrants

Non-immigrants
35

39

34

37

36

23

39

26

37

28

29

36

25

18

29

22

17

25

19

30

16

 

  1. Paste SPSS output.  (7 pts)

 

  1. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 3.

 

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  1. Where does your state rank?

Description

All states are ranked according to their performance by ranking watchdogs. The Government Grading Project grades all fifty states and publishes its findings in Governing Magazine annually.

Hint: www.governing.com and https://www.publicintegrity.org/2015/11/09/18822/how-does-your-state-rank-integrity are useful resources.

  • List in order the states that are ranked in the top ten
  • Determine where your state falls among the fifty states
  1. QSO 630 wk4 discussion

Description

4-1 Discussion: Economic Order Quantity

Proctor & Gamble (but not Wal-Mart) manages the inventory at the distribution centers owned by Wal-Mart. This is an example of a concept called Vendor Managed Inventory (VMI). How does Wal-Mart’s supply chain benefit from VMI? Discuss with reasoning.

4-2 Discussion: Seasonal Product Production Quantity

Recall the following from the Module Four lecture document: “The manufacturer is trying to decide how many units to produce for the upcoming season. If too many products are produced, some of the products may be left unsold by the manufacturer to the distribution center. If too few products are produced, the manufacturer may lose some potential profit it could make from sale to the distribution center.” A similar challenge is faced by the distribution center. In other words, if too many products are bought by the distribution center from the manufacturer, some of the products may be left unsold by the distribution center to the retail stores. If too few products are bought by the distribution center, the distribution center may lose some potential profit it could make from sale to the retail stores. Discuss how the manufacturer and the distribution center can resolve their respective challenges while neither party should benefit at the expense of the other.

4-6 Term Project: Continue Work

Group/section restrictions.

Work with your group to research and brainstorm how you might use customer categories for product pricing. Be sure to identify the categories a company would choose and provide reasons for your decisions in your group discussion.

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  1. QSO 630 wk4 assignment

Description

4-5 Assignments: Complete the Problems

Apply the economic order quantity formula to the data in Example 2-2 on Page 35 in the textbook, and reproduce the answer of 2,828 units. Also, calculate the total annual cost incurred for the economic order quantity. Submit your solution.

  1. Your State’s Budget

Description

Research your state’s budget. (Hint: Start with the state’s tax department or the office of the secretary in charge of state finances.)

What are the four top areas that consume budget resources in your state? In what area does your state spend the least amount of money? What is the main policy agenda item of your state’s Governor?

 

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  1. Balanced Budgets

Description

Unlike the federal government, state governments must balance their budgets. Some short-term strategies used to assist states in closing budget gaps include short-term borrowing or the use of the “rainy day fund.” That fund is tapped only if certain conditions are met, but not all states have such a fund or at least not a well-endowed one. What strategies are your state Governor and legislature using to close any budget gap?

  1. QSO 630 wk5 discussion

Description

5-1 Discussion: One Order/Production Opportunity

Contains unread posts

Refer to the example in One Order/Production Opportunity of the Module Five lecture document. Since the manufacturer is concerned that not all of the products might be bought by the distribution center, does the manufacturer tend to produce fewer for the upcoming season? If so, does it make sense for the distribution center to offer an incentive to the manufacturer to produce more so that the distribution center might be able to buy as many as desired? For example, does it make sense for the distribution center to pay a penalty to the manufacturer for each product produced by the manufacturer but not bought by the distribution center? Discuss such potential incentives with reasoning and examples.

5-2 Discussion: Multiple Order

 

Refer to the formulas given in the Multiple Order/Production Opportunities of the Module Five lecture document: safety stock, reorder level, order quantity, and average inventory level.

  1. Discuss what happens to the average inventory level if the demand uncertainty is high. (Your response must include the formula for the average inventory level.)
  2. Discuss what happens to the reorder level if the lead time is long. (Your answer must include the formula for the reorder level.)
  3. Discuss what happens to the order quantity and the average inventory level if the ordering cost is high. (Your answer must include the formulas for the order quantity and the average inventory level.)
  4. Discuss what happens to the average inventory level if the desired service level is high. (Your answer must include the formula for the average inventory level.)

 

  1. QSO 630 wk5 assignment

Description

5-5 Assignments: Complete Text Questions

Answer questions 4, 5 and 6 from the Discussion Questions section of Chapter 2.

For additional details, please refer to the Text Questions Rubric document.

 

  1. 4 True or False Questions on Arthur Danto

Description

4 True or False Questions about Arthur Danto, if the answer is false please provide the true answer. If you know any of the rest on top of your head feel free to answer and I’ll add it to the tip.

 

  1. QSO 630 wk5 milestone

QSO 630 Module Five Overview One Order/Production Opportunity Module Four presented how the manufacturer can decide how many units of a seasonal product to produce for the upcoming season. However, it was assumed that there was no initial inventory. Here, that assumption is relaxed and the following example shows what happens. Example The initial inventory is 1,000 units, and the manufacturer is trying to decide whether to produce 2,000 additional units or zero additional units for the upcoming season. The demand from the distribution center to the manufacturer could be any of the following with the given probabilities: Demand from distribution center Probability 1,000 0.25 2,000 0.35 3,000 0.15 4,000 0.25 The following information is also given: · Fixed cost of production = $10,000 · Variable cost of production = $50 per unit · Selling price = $150 per unit · Salvage value of unsold products = $25 per unit If the manufacturer is considering production quantities of 2,000 additional units or zero additional units, which of these two options should the manufacturer choose? 2 QSO 630 Module Five If 2,000 additional units are produced, regardless of the demand from the distribution center, the production cost incurred by the manufacturer will be fixed cost + variable cost = $10,000 + (2,000 * $50) = $110,000. The revenue, however, may be different for different demands from the distribution center. For example, if the demand is 1,000 units, the manufacturer will sell 1,000 units to the distribution center, and the remaining 2,000 units will be salvaged. Revenue = (1,000 * $125) + (2,000 * $25) = $175,000. The profit will be Revenue – Cost = $175,000 – $110,000 = $65,000. If the demand is 2,000 units, the manufacturer will sell 2,000 units to the distribution center, and the remaining 1,000 units will be salvaged. Revenue = (2,000 * $125) + (1,000 * $25) = $275,000. The profit will be Revenue – Cost = $275,000 – $110,000 = $165,000. If the demand is 3,000 units or 4,000 units, the manufacturer will sell all of the 3,000 units on hand. Revenue = 3,000 * $125 = $375,000. The profit will be Revenue – Cost = $375,000 – $110,000 = $265,000. Demand Probability Revenue Profit 1,000 0.25 $175,000 $65,000 2,000 0.35 $275,000 $165,000 3,000 0.15 $375,000 $265,000 4,000 0.25 $375,000 $265,000 The expected profit of the manufacturer is the sum-product of the profits and the respective probabilities. In other words, expected profit if the manufacturer produces 2,000 additional units = (0.25 * $65,000) + (0.35 * $165,000) + (0.15 * $265,000) + (0.25 * $265,000) = $180,000. If zero additional units are produced, regardless of the demand from the distribution center, the production cost incurred by the manufacturer will be $0. In this case, the revenue too will be the same for different demands from the distribution center. For example, if the demand is 1,000 units or 2,000 units or 3,000 units or 4,000 units, the manufacturer will sell all of the 1,000 units on hand. Revenue = 1,000 * $125 = $125,000. The profit will be Revenue – Cost = $125,000 – $0 = $125,000. QSO 630 Module Five 3 Demand Probability Revenue Profit 1,000 0.25 $125,000 $125,000 2,000 0.35 $125,000 $125,000 3,000 0.15 $125,000 $125,000 4,000 0.25 $125,000 $125,000 The expected profit of the manufacturer is the sum-product of the profits and the respective probabilities. In other words, expected profit for the production quantity of zero additional units = (0.25 * $125,000) + (0.35 * $125,000) + (0.15 * $125,000) + (0.25 * $125,000) = $125,000. Since the expected profit is higher for production quantity of 2,000 additional units, the manufacturer should be recommended to produce 2,000 additional units for the season. Multiple Order/Production Opportunities The previous section considered a seasonal product with one order/production opportunity. This section now considers a generic product with multiple order/production opportunities. Like in the previous section, here too, the demand is uncertain and there is some initial inventory. A few definitions are in order: · Safety stock: If a firm does not allow its inventory to fall below a certain level, that level is called the safety stock · Reorder level: If a firm places an order for products if the inventory level falls to or below a certain level, that level is called the reorder level · Lead time: It is the duration between placement of an order and receipt of that order · Service level: The percentage of customers who get the product of their choice when they want it and where they want it; for example, if a retail store maintains a service level of 90%, the chance of stockout at that retail store is 10% Using statistical concepts learned in QSO 510 4 QSO 630 Module Five Safety Stock = z * (Standard Deviation of Demand) * Lead Time Where z is obtained using the desired service level and normal distribution concepts from QSO 510. The example that follows the below formulae illustrates the concepts. Reorder Level = (Average Demand * Lead Time) + (Safety Stock) Recall from Module Four that the Economic Order Quantity =Q * = 2RK h . Recall also that slightly changing the value of Q* will not increase the total annual cost by a lot. Hence, even though the EOQ formula was derived for a constant demand situation, Q = 2RK is used h here as well. Notice that the asterisk is removed because Q is no longer considered the “best” order quantity, given the fact that demand is no longer constant. However, R (constant annual demand) in this formula is replaced by the Average Demand calculated using historical data. Hence, Q = 2 * Average Demand* K h Recall from Module Two that the average inventory level is typically calculated by taking the average of the inventory level (Safety Stock) just before receiving the order and the inventory level (Safety Stock + Q) just after receiving the order. Hence, the average inventory level is (Safety Stock + Safety Stock + Q) / 2 = (Q/2) + (Safety Stock). The following example shows how all of the above formulae are applied: Example A retail store orders from a manufacturer. The ordering cost is $2,000 per order, and the holding cost is $1 per unit per week. Also, the lead time is two weeks, and the desired service level is 97%. The following table provides historical demand data for the last 8 weeks: Week I II III IV V VI VII VIII Demand 100 145 125 184 200 98 118 142 QSO 630 Module Five 5 Average Demand (using the AVERAGE function in MS Excel) = 139 units per week Standard Deviation of demand (using the STDEV function in MS Excel) = 37 units per week. Service level = 97%. This means, z = NORMSINV (0.97) = 1.88. Recall from QSO 510 that if area to the left of X under a normal curve is given, X is calculated by first obtaining the value of z by using the NORMSINV function in MS Excel. Safety Stock = z * (Standard Deviation of Demand) * = 1.88 * 37 * 2 = 98 units Lead Time Reorder Level = (Average Demand * Lead Time) + (Safety Stock) = (139 * 2) + (98) = 376 units Order Quantity, Q = 2 * Average Demand* K = h 2 *139 * 2,000 = 746 units per order 1 Average inventory level = (Q/2) + (Safety Stock) = (746 / 2) + (98) = 471 units

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  1. Discuss the American Dream

The concept of the American Dream is embedded in the fabric of this country. For this response, craft an argument and develop a claim regarding what the American Dream is today and how it might vary based on race, class, gender, education, sexuality. You must address at least one of these categories in your paper. If there is overlap between two categories (say, race and class or gender and sexuality) you may address how those factors interact.

Note: To answer this question, you must craft a working definition of the American Dream and this definition must be supported by evidence. However, claiming that the American Dream is “different things to different people” is not arguable. Be sure to craft a definition of the American Dream that can be supported and debated. 500 words

  1. I Need Help Crafting a Narrative – Problem Scenario

This paper will be a creative effort. You may need to talk with others who have experience with the issue you’re writing about or do some reading to ensure that your description of the problem is accurate. Your personal experience with the problem is very important, but you want to make sure it is typical of the problem you are describing. What you want to produce in this section will be similar to the first act of a play or the first part of a short story. You don’t have to resolve the issues you raise in your description. Instead, you will leave the people you describe in the midst of a dilemma they can’t seem to solve. Your major characters will probably be unhappy, stressed, frightened, or anxious.

For example, you may describe the struggles between a young girl with eating disorders and the conflicts it creates in her family. You want your description to capture the essence of what it is like for both the young girl and her parents as they struggle with this problem. You may have personal experience with this situation or you might have observed other individuals and families who have struggled with this issue. If you need to go to other sources, you can find published case studies that will help you tell an accurate story of a family in this situation. 300 to 400 words. Use APA formatting

Problem Scenario

(10 pts) Believability: Does the scenario capture the essence of the problem?

(10 pts) Complexity: Does the scenario go beyond a superficial understanding?

Writing

(10 pts) APA professional appearance (margins, font, headings, etc.)

(10 pts) Structure, organization, and flow

(10 pts) Grammar and spelling

 

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  1. History and Racial Relations in the United States HELP ASAP

In the past, we have seen occurrences in places like Ferguson, Staten Island, Baltimore and Charleston that bring into question race relations on the structural level. For this response, craft an argument and develop a claim about the extent to which the story of Elizabeth and Hazel is emblematic of contemporary race relations in the United States. Are the incidents recounted in this story representative of the structures of power at work today, or is the Elizabeth and Hazel story an anomaly, a thing of the past?

500 words

  1. Help me with philosophy question!! Plato and Love

One of the background themes of Plato’s Alcibiades is love. What does the text imply about the nature of love? Using close readings of textual passages defend an interpretation of Plato’s implied position about love and show how that interpretation survives a strong objection. 300-400 words

  1. Need help understanding this topic and writing this essay on Heideigger

In his essay “The Question Concerning Technology,” Heidegger claims that technology is a

mode of revealing, with modern technology in particular revealing nature as standing-reserve.

Do information technologies like cell phones, social media, and the like, constitute a new mode

of revealing? First, give a brief presentation of Heidegger’s analysis of modern technology. Then,

either a) argue that information technology reveals nature in a way other than as standing-reserve

or b) argue that information technology reveals nature in the same way as modern technology

more generally. 500 words, Use MLA or Chicago-Turabian formatting and citation guidelines.

  1. Noticing Patterns in Addition

What is the sum of integers from 1 to n? Justify your formula with a proof.

  1. Black and White Marbles in Two Jars

Suppose there are a large number (>10000), N, of black marbles in a jar. There is an equal number, N, of white marbles in a separate jar.

A quantity, Q, of white marbles are taken out of the jar with white marbles and transferred to the jar with black marbles. The jar with black and white marbles is thoroughly mixed so that the distribution of black and white marbles is uniform.

Afterward, the same quantity of marbles, Q, is taken from the mixed jar of black and white marbles and transferred to the original jar of white marbles to restore the total number of marbles to the original number, N.

What is the expected relationship between the final proportion of white marbles in the white marble jar and black marbles in the black marble jar?

  1. Need help with this proof, complex numbers

The function f(z) is complex valued in the complex plane. f(z) is bounded and entire. Prove that f(z) must be a constant.

 

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  1. City of Flies NEED HELP ASAP

A city of flies has a population that doubles once every day. The flies go extinct from overpopulation on the 30th day. On which day was the fly population halfway from extinction?

  1. HELP: Card Stopping Optimization

In your hands is a standard deck of 52 playing cards (26 black and 26 red). You are drawing cards one at a time. If you draw a red card you get a dollar. If you draw a black card you get fined a dollar. You can stop drawing cards anytime you want. Cards are not returned to the deck after being drawn. Come up with an optimal stopping rule that you can use to maximize your expected payoff. What is the expected payoff following your rule?

  1. Integer question help

Find the smallest positive integer that leaves a remainder of 1 when divided by 2, a remainder of 2 when divided by 3, a remainder of 3 when divided by 4, …, and a remainder of 9 when divided by 10

  1. Sociology

What are the benefits and responsibilities of becoming a US Citizen? Please list them and provide some background following MLA guidelines.

  1. Mathematics
  2. Is there a language connection between mathematical terms and English words? Please provide an explanation and examples for your answer following MLA Guidelines.
  3. How can Algebra help us to understand a probability question? Please provide an explanation and examples for your answer using MLA guidelines.
  4. Can trigonometry be used to prove the Pythagorean theorem? Please provide an explanation and examples for your answer following MLA Guidelines.
  5. How do you solve this integral of 3 sec(2x-1)tan(2x-1)?
  6. A mathematical model for the Future Value of a savings account earning interest that is compounded continuously is given by the equation FV = Pert, where FV is the amount after t years, P is the principal amount invested at t = 0, and the principal is assumed to grow continuously at a rate, r. How many years will it take the principal to triple if the annual rate is 12%?

 

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  1. Health and medical

v  What’s the difference between good bacteria and bad bacteria? Please list all the difference as well as how they both affect/interact with our organism. 450 words minimum, APA format.

v  What are the manifestations of zinc deficiency in children and how is it diagnosed? In addition to signs and symptoms, please suggest treatments too. Thanks!

 

  1. Engineering

v  What is the difference between concrete, mortar and grout? Please list all the difference between them along with their respective definitions. Please add all the necessary references and follow MLA guidelines.

v  A 72 ohm coil of wire is connected in series with an adjustable resistor (rheostat) whose resistance can be varied from 0 to 88 ohms. If the line potential of wire is 115 volts, what is the rheostat resistance when power taken by the coil is 90 watts?

v  Do magnets become demagnetized through electromagnetic/magnetic induction? Please provide the answer and explanation.

  1. Computer Science

v  What is a UNIX Machine? I know Macs are Unix machines… but what does that mean? why are Unix machines better for programming? What is windows? Because I know windows is not a Unix Platform, and how come it isn’t? And whatever it is… what is it made for?

v  What is the difference between java and java script?

v  Around what time did the Internet come around and how did it all start? Would like to know more of the history of how the internet started – just a brief discussion will do.

  1. Is my thesis arguable?

Charles Darwin created a lasting impact on how differently we view humanity because he explored his own identity, which lead him to produce new theories of evolution and exchange those ideas with the public, therefore encountering the resistance to his beliefs.

  1. Algebra 2 Math Problem?

For her chemistry experiment, Marisol needs 2 liters of a 50% alcohol solution. The lab has two containers, one with 40% alcohol solution and the other with 80% alcohol solution.

Write a system of linear equations that you can use to determine how many liters of each type of alcohol solution Marisol should combine to get 2 liters of a 50% alcohol solution. Be sure to define your variables.

 

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  1. Incentive theory in management

v  Does the incentive theory really work in motivating employees in a high-stress work environment? Please explain your answer (whether yes or no) and provide your justifications of your answer. Thank you

v  What is Chaos Theory and how does it apply to Management? Please cite sample scenarios where it is best applied to. Cite references when possible

  1. Science

What is pollination and how is it important to the environment? Please explain the scientific significance of this process. Cite references.

  1. Psychology

How animated shows do like cartoons affect the psyche of a toddler (kids aged 1-3)? Please cite references. I need an essay that states facts and statistics regarding this.

  1. Passage reading Question

Question

“2.1.9. Generally speaking, the men who hitherto have written on the affairs of India, were a set of liars. Deimachus holds the first place in the list, Megasthenes comes next, while Onesicritus and Nearchus, with others of the same class, manage to stammer out a few words [of truth]. … No faith whatever can be placed in Deimachus and Megasthenes. They coined the fables concerning men with ears large enough to sleep in, men without any mouths, without noses, with only one eye, with spider-legs, and with fingers bent backward. They renewed Homer’s fable concerning the battles of the Cranes and Pygmies, and asserted the latter to be three spans high. They told of ants digging for gold, of Pans with wedge-shaped heads, of serpents swallowing down oxen and stags, horns and all; meantime, as Eratosthenes has observed, reciprocally accusing each other of falsehood. Both of these men were sent [as] ambassadors to Palimbothra … and such are the notes of their residence abroad, which, I know not why, they thought fit to leave. Patrocles certainly does not resemble them; nor do any other of the authorities consulted by Eratosthenes contain such absurdities. 2.1.10. If the meridian [i.e. line of longitude] of Rhodes and Byzantium has been rightly determined to be the same, then that of Cilicia and Amisus has likewise been rightly determined; many observations having proved that the lines are parallel, and that they never impinge on each other.” – Ibid. Notice the difference in tone and form of argument between paragraphs 2.1.9 and 2.1.10 above. What does this suggest about the nature of the science of geography in the first century BC? Be sure to back up your observations with direct quotations (even if only a word or two) from the passage. Direct quotations must be in quotation marks “like this”. (250 words maximum, 5 points)

  1. Mathematics

An athlete needs to get across a river. He must reach from point A on one bank to point B, which is directly across from point A on the opposite bank. If he wishes to minimize the total time T it would take to do so, at what angle upstreams (measured from the line AB) should he swim? Let his swimming/rowing speed relative to the water be 6.0 mi/h, and his running speed along the bank be 10 mi/h. The river flows downstream at 3.0 mi/h.

 

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  1. Homework Help

Question

The sketch shows the EGL (Energy Grade Line) and HGL (Hydraulic Grade Line) for the tank and pipe system. (The end of the pipe at right is labeled “E”). In the sketch, pipe sizes are NOT drawn to scale. Does this appear to be frictionless or frictional flow? Indicate which of the two lines is the EGL and which is the HGL. Are all the pipes the same size? If not, which one is the smallest? Is there any point in the system where the pressure is below atmospheric pressure? If so, where? Where is the point of maximum pressure in the system? Where is the point of minimum pressure in the system? What do you think is located at the end of the pipe at point E? Is the air pressure in the tank above or below atmospheric pressure? What do you think is located at point B?

  1. Unimas Java Programming

Question

Write a Java program that contain the following class, i.e., class SecretCode. Please refer to the given UML diagram for the minimum required class’s data fields and methods. You are free to add additional class members as you see fit.

  1. HELP WITH WRITING A FOUR PAGE SCENE ABOUT BLACK LIVES MATTER

Question

I need someone to write a scene about a young girl raising awareness about black lives matter and how her surroundings keeps rejecting this movement and what she does to internally change the characters. Requirements are 4 pages long. First person narrative. NEEDS TO HAVE:

 

1)    Dialogue.  What your character says…or doesn’t say is where a scene starts.  The interaction, how characters relate to each other verbally shows so much about them.  Do they watch their words?  Are they brutally honest?  Do their actions and reactions seem in line with the actual words?  But then we need more, or all we have is a couple of talking heads.

2)   Action.  Action breaks up the dialogue.  What types of action might your character be doing while she’s telling her ex-boyfriend to jump off a cliff?  Maybe she’s reaching for a bat, which might hint to the reader that she’s got a bit of a temper.  Or maybe she’s inching away, which hints to the reader that maybe the guy’s a bad guy…and hits.

Or…maybe she’s sliding into a fighting stance, subtly and naturally.  Showing the reader that this guy may hit…and this gal knows how to fight.

Make the action a natural one for your character.

3)   Reaction.  We all react differently to situations.  So will your characters…internally and in dialogue.  If a guy comes at me with a bat, I’d probably hold up my hands and try to talk him out of smacking me.  NOT the best defense.  But my kick-ass heroine..well now.  She’d go for the jugular.  (I need to take a karate class, I think.)

4)   Emotions.  What are they?  Characters can feel more than one emotion at a time…someone dumping their boyfriend might feel both relief and sadness.  And our bodies react to emotions.  What’s fun, is often the dialogue completely contradicts the emotions.  Our heroine needs to keep her chin up, after all.

5)   Senses.  Use them all.  But here’s a key:  notice only what your character would notice.  If your hero is color blind, there’s no reason to describe the sparkling blue of the heroine’s eyes.  He can’t see that.  He can see her lush hips, tilted chin…etc.  And smell her natural lilac scent.

6)   Setting/Atmosphere.  Same thing here…your character might see a room differently than you do.  I walk into my husband’s den, and I see it needs to be vacuumed and I left my favorite socks on the couch.  He would see the pillows goofed up on the couch and know I let the dogs in and didn’t watch them.  One of his buddies might walk in and let out a whistle at the ridiculously large television.  A Broncos fan would walk in and snarl at all the Oakland Raider goodies.  I don’t even see that stuff.  You reveal your character by what they see, hear, smell…

7)   Backstory.  If you’ve done it right, numbers 1-6 have created your backstory for you.  There’s no big info dump needed…you’ve spread it throughout.  For example, my heroine walks into my home office.  She immediately spots the fairy figurine on the desk, reminding her of the one her boyfriend Joe won at their small town’s fair last year.  (Oh yeah, a bit of backstory WHILE the setting is being described.)

 

To sum up:  Layer to round out your scene so the reader might as well be your character.  Don’t layer to:  Add word count…or describe a room.  Your reader doesn’t care what the room looks likes.  Your reader cares about what the room means to the character…and what he or she sees.  And how what they notice reveals more about them.

 

 

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  1. Physics

Question

Given the heat conduction problem in the rod as follows: Length of the rod is equal 5 and heat conductivity coefficient is equal 50. The left hand end of the rod kept with the temperature equal t and there is heat flow from the right hand end equal sin t. At initial time temperature of the rod was as -3sin 8 sin There is the heat source inside of the rod expressed by the function 10 (x -5)2 x2 10 -10 sint + tsin–4e+ + cost 2 25+ Your task followings: 1. 2. 3. 4, Specify the problem as mathematical model. Find the solution of the problem. Draw the graph of the temperature at the time t 10. Draw the graph of the temperature at point x = 3 in the time interval 0

  1. Problem 1: Association Rules: Co-occurrence Matrix (10 points)

Question

A car dealer conducted a study on its 100 transactions during the period of one month, and noticed that 50 customers were “young age”, 30 customers were “middle age”, and 20 customers were “seniors”. It also noticed that 70% of “young-age” customers purchased model A, and 30% purchased model B. 90% of “young-age” customers financed their cars. Furthermore, the car dealer noticed that the” middle-age” customers purchased both models with the same probability (50-50). Only 20% of these customers financed their cars. The study also showed that 80% of the senior customers purchased model B, and 20% purchased model A. They never financed their vehicles.

Finally, going through the financing accounts, the dealer noticed that 39 Model A cars and 12 Model B cars were financed.

  1. a. Derive the co-occurrence matrix based on the transactions described above.
  2. b. Calculate support, confidence, and lift values for the following rules
  3.       i)Young age customers finance their cars.
  4.       ii)Middle age customers purchase model B.

iii) Which rule is strong?

  1. Draw a Moore machine

Question

Draw a Moore machine to perform a parity check on the input string; that is, the output string ends in 1 if the total number of 0 bits in the input string is odd and 0 if the total number of 0-bits in the input string is even.

  1. Annotated Bibliography Assignment

Question

Students will develop a case study based on a time in their life where they experienced a mircoaggression(s) which he or she believe impacted their academic. career and/or social- emotional development. the purpose of this assignment is to engage in understanding yourself as a counselor and cultural being. This is your story, therefore, may tell it as you see it. The cultural autobiography case study and training.

Researching and writing an annotated bibliography using 10 citations from journal articles between 2012-2017:2018) that support the cultural autobiographical case study, intervention.

 

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  1. Cultural Autobiography Case study Assignment

Question

Students will write a 100 – 250 word case study based on a time in their life where they experienced a microaggressionn(s) which he or she believe impacted their academic. career and/ or social-emotional development. The purpose of this assignment of this assignment is to engage in understanding yourself as a counselor and cultural being. This is your story, therefore may tell it as you see it. The cultural Autobiography case study and training intervention will consist of:

  1. Netflix Case

Question

After reading the case, you are expected to submit the written analysis of the case which ranges from 3-5, typewritten, double-spaced pages. For the analysis, you should conduct additional research on the cases beyond the information provided in the case.

  1. Describe Netflix’s strategy process over time. What approach to the strategy process does Netflix follow? What works well with this approach? What are some challenges with this process, especially as Netflix continues to grow fast?
  2. How was Netflix able to disrupt the U.S. home entertainment industry? Describe Netflix’s innovation strategy over time. Also, how did Netflix’s business change over time? How did its business model innovation support its technology strategy?
  3. What are Netflix’s core competencies? How can they help Netflix to sustain its competitive advantage? How must its core competencies be honed and modified?
  4. Netflix growth in the United States seems to be maturing. How could Netflix increase demand for its services in the United States? What other services could Netflix offer to drive future growth?
  5. International expansion appears to be a major growth opportunity for Netflix. What challenges does Netflix face by going beyond the U.S. market? What can Netflix do to address some of the challenges encountered when going internationally? And which international markets should Netflix focus on, and why?

Construction of paper (grammar, spelling, and style in addition to content) will be considered when grading the paper

 

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  1. Economics

Question

A consumer is willing to trade 3 units of x for 1 unit of y when she has 6 units of x
and 5 units of y. She also is willing to trade 6 units of x for 2 units of y when she has
12 units of x and 3 units of y. She is indifferent between bundle (6, 5) and bundle (12,
3). What is the utility function for goods x and y? Hint: What is the shape of the
indifference curve?

 

  1. Sea World & Universal Studios

Question

Contrast and discuss their competitive strategies. How are they similar? How are they different?

Please write 10 meaningful sentences answering this question using the outside resources to support your answer

  1. Intermediate Financial Economics Problem Set

Question

Please answer all questions (q1-3) in as much detail as possible, full working is required. Course text used can be found here: http://people.stern.nyu.edu/adamodar/pdfiles/valrisk/ch8.pdf

  1. Finance NPV

Question

Angie Ghent a local prominent Business Angel has expressed a keen interest in Razor Wire Productions (“RWP”), a large manufacturing of industrial fencing products. Angie estimates that RWP will have after tax earnings of $3.5 million in 2020 (year 1), $4.75 million in 2021, and $9.25 million in 2022 (year 3). In 2022 RWP is expected to have about 8.12 ROA, $12 million in total debt, and approximately $14 million in capital assets. Angie intends to value the firm as of year 2022 (her expected timeframe for exiting the investment) and is using an earnings multiple of 9 times. Angie’s required rate of return is 60%. The US tax rate is expected to remain constant at 21% for foreseeable future. Ralph Smithson owns RWP. Ralph is the sole owner and has 1.75 million shares of stock. If Angie invests $4 million into the RWP what percentage ownership of RWP should Angie receive in return? HINT: Not all of the data provided in this problem is relevant to the solution.

Part 2

Continuing with the question above, how many shares of stock and at what stock price should be issued to Angie upon closing the deal with Ralph Smithson? For the purpose of this question assume RWP has a fair market value of $23.50 million (this was determined by determining the net present value of RWP’s terminal value). DO NOT USE THE ANSWER YOU DETERMINED IN THE QUESTION ABOVE FOR THIS PROBLEM.

Part 3

After several discussions with other investors, Angie has decided to demand dilution protection by insisting that her diluted equity position still provide her a 60% return on investment in the event that future rounds of funding are necessary. In fact Angie now believes that an additional 10% of the company will have to be sold to raise an extra $3.25 million in funds in 2021, and 5% of the company for $3 million in 2022. What % ownership will Angie require now to insure that after the next rounds of funding her ownership position will be protected. For this question assume that RWP has a fair market value of $31 million (determined by discounting of RWPs terminal value). DO NOT USE THE ANSWER YOU DETERMINED IN THE QUESTION ABOVE FOR THIS PROBLEM.

 

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  1. Information systems and technology

Question

The assignment is to identify and analyze Information Systems that you use in your lives. Identify 3-4
examples for information systems under different categories such as TPS, MIS, DSS, ESS, ERP,
CRM, SCM and KMS. These information systems are those that you use in your lives.
For example:
· Supermarkets’ POS systems can be an example for TPS systems.
· Amazon’s product recommendation system can be an example for DSS systems.
· Supermarkets’ loyalty card systems can be an example for CRM systems.
· University’s LMS system can be an example for KMS systems.
Ø Please select other examples for information systems that are not already provided above.
Gather and analyze basic information about Information Systems that you use in your lives and
answer the following questions to complete your assignment. Your discussions should be based on a
business point of view:
· Why are these applications an example of information system categories (TPS, MIS, DSS,
ESS, ERP, CRM, SCM, KMS). Prove and support your idea.
· Which strategic business objectives can be achieved by using these applications? Prove and
support your idea. (Hint: The strategic business objectives are covered in the chapter 1.)
· How do these applications change and transform organizations such as hierarchical structures,
politics, culture, business processes or business models? Prove and support your idea.

  1. HUM 3360 – African-American Literature- Discussion

Question

Select one character in Loraine Hansberry A Raisin in the Sun (1771-1830), and explain how that specific character’s motivations, concerns, and/or personalities reflect or defy social historical conditions. Also, be sure to choose at least one specific passage from the text to demonstrate your points

 

 

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  1. HUM 3360 – African-American Literature

Question

 

 

Listen to slave narratives on YouTube. Locate narratives about Equiano and of others.

Please submit–1-2 paragraphs describing the tone of Equiano’s narrative, and 1-2 paragraphs describing the tone of Wheatley’s poetry. To discuss the tone, please consider the word choices of the authors, as well as the messages (not the voice of the speaker on youtube). Take another 2-3 paragraphs to compare and contrast the tones. How are they similar and how are they different?

 

Submit 2-4 paragraphs comparing and contrasting the Jacobs and Douglass narratives (listed in the Course Required Readings). Make sure you  highlight and discuss issues of gender.

  1. HUM 3360 – African-American Literature- Discussion

Question

In your own words;

African American women writers of the antebellum period genderized African American life in pre-Civil War America. Discuss how you believe Sojourner Truth genderized her experiences in her Address to the Ohio Women’s Rights Convention (1851) on page 245-249. Consider briefly discussing the tone, genre, or narrative voice. Also, be sure to choose at least one specific passage from the text to demonstrate your points.

Question

How did the British government attempt to illuminate conflict between Native Americans and colonist?

  1. Persuade essay

Question

Understanding your target audience is key to developing productive promotions and communications that influence people. In this exercise you will select the specific target audience with whom you strategically choose to engage and define the specific desired action you want them to take.  You will also identify the emotional feelings that need to be created within someone in order to prompt the desired behavior.  You should then describe the information (marketing content) that needs to be shared with someone and outline the message strategy you should select in order to create the right feelings. Then define at least one persuasion element that can be used to help drive the defined behavior you’ve identified. Be very specific! At this point you should primarily talk about the Product/Service/Organization and its audience – not any promotional tactics.

length of paper 2pages

  1. Write an Essay of 200 words

Question

Write a 200 words essay on any one of the below given topics –

  1. Gambling and Its Effects
  2. A Detailed Look at Globalization and Its Effects
  3. A Comparison of Unemployment levels in India to the rest of the world
  4. Ways In Which Creativity Can Lead To Huge Success
  5. Labour economics
  6. Crowd funding and benefits
  7. How cartels manipulate market and price
  8. The economics of global warming

Any topics that you pick from above must be written from an economic perspective. When using sources, you cannot copy paste their content and give the link in references.

You will be marked based on the following –

  1. Content – 4 marks
  2. Organisation – 4 marks
  3. Language – 4 marks
  4. Relevance to topic – 4 marks
  5. Relativeness to economics – 4 marks

 

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  1. Use of learning accounting in management education

Question

For your assignment , write a 100 word essay on the topic – “Use of learning accounting in management education”

  1. Write Up on Michelangelo’s Sistine Chapel ceiling

Question

  1. Write a 1000+ word write up on Michelangelo’s Sistine Chapel ceiling
    2. it can be based on the entire ceiling or a single painting of it
    3. Say “no” to plagiarism.
    4. Use the popular terminology across your project such as impressionism, fauvism, renaissance, modernism, cubism, humanism etc.
  2. Exercise 1

Question

In this exercise you will select the specific target audience

You should then describe the information (marketing content) that needs to be shared with someone and outline the message strategy you should select in order to create the right feelings. Then define at least one persuasion element that can be used to help drive the defined behavior you’ve identified. Be very specific! At this point you should primarily talk about the Product/Service/Organization and its audience – not any promotional tactics.

  1. Week 1 discussion questions pysch635

Question

Here are the 3 discussion questions for week 1 in Psych 635. I just need questions answered in about 100-150 words with a reference. NO paper written. These are week 1 discussion questions.

 

  1. How can you measure learning from behaviorist, social cognitive, information processing and constructivism perspectives? Choose two of these perspectives to discuss.
  2. Table 1.5 in Ch. 1 of the Learning Theoriestextbook describes the critical issues for learning theory. Provide at least three brief examples of how each issue might be manifested in one of the following fields: environmental or evolutionary psychology, forensic psychology, health or sports psychology, or industrial/organizational or engineering psychology.

3.

Review this week’s course materials and learning activities, and reflect on your learning so far this week. Respond to one or more of the following prompts in one to two paragraphs:

 

  1. Provide citation and reference to the material(s) you discuss. Describe what you found interesting regarding this topic, and why.
  2. Describe how you will apply that learning in your daily life, including your work life.
  3. Describe what may be unclear to you, and what you would like to learn.

.

  1. Discussion questions Watch the video Comment on the elements of Persuasion

https://youtu.be/cFdCzN7RYbw

After watching the video, please comment on which elements of persuasion you believe will help you influence your chosen target audience (or the audience you’re considering if you haven’t selected a specific target audience yet) to take the defined action you’ve defined in your paper. Please briefly define that audience to put it in context for the class. You do not need to describe tactical execution at this point, but if you must, share it here not in your paper.

  1. Java programming

Question

CIS 166 – Java Programming
Professor Rodrigues
Assignment 5: Die Class

You will be creating 2 Java files for this assignment: Die.java and TestDie.java
You will be creating 1 Word document that contains the UML diagram of the Die class
Part 1 – The Die Class
The program
Design a Die class that contains the following attributes:
• sides: represents how many sides a dice has. A dice usually has 6 sides but sometimes could have more. This will be provided by the user
• value: represents the current value that was rolled in the dice.
The die Class should have the following methods:
• Constructor: takes one parameter that represents the number of sides in the dice. It then rolls the dice to give it an initial value
• Accessor methods: Should return the fields of the Die class.
• roll: Randomly generates a value within the number of sides of the dice. For example, if the dice has 6 sides you need to set value to be a random number between 1 and 6. If the dice has 12 sides, you need to set the value to a random number between 1 and 12 and so on… (Hint, this function is of type VOID)
The UML diagram
Before you start programming, take a moment to figure out all the fields that you will need and all the methods that need to be created. Create the UML diagram for the Coin class. Don’t forget to account for the access specifiers (public or private), for the data types of the fields and for the return types and the parameters of the methods.
Commenting and Programming Style
The first 3 lines of you program should have a multiline comment (Starting with /* and ending with */). This should include the author’s name, the date and the purpose of the assignment.
You should create a documentation comment before every class header and method header (Starting with /** and ending with */). For now, the comment only needs to describe the purpose of the method. We will improve our comments throughout the semester. A sample is provided below.
Don’t forget to add spaces before and after every operator and to align braces.

 

 

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Part 2 – The TestDie Class
The Program
The program should create two instances of the Die class (each a six-sided die). One Die object is the computer’s die, the other Die object is the user’s die.
The program should have a loop that iterates 20 times. Each time the loop iterates, it should roll both dice. The die with the highest value wins. (In case of a tie, there is no winner for that particular roll of the dice).
As the loop iterates, the program should keep count of the number of times the computer wins, and the number of times that the user wins. After the loop performs all of its iterations, the program should display who was the grand winner, the computer or the user.
Finally, if the user wins, the program must ask the user to enter a nickname (The nickname must be at least 1 character and at most 5 characters), keep asking to user to enter a name while it is not valid. Once the user enters their nickname, append their nickname and number of wins to a file called “scores.txt”. Opening this file will contain the score of every player that has won the game.
Commenting and Style
In this test file, the first 3 lines of you program should have a multiline comment (Starting with /* and ending with */). This should include the author’s name, the date and the purpose of the file.
Add a documentation comment (/** */) explaining what methods you will be testing on the program.
You should then include single line comments throughout your main method to explain what you are doing. For example:

Don’t forget to add a space before and after operators and to align braces.

Submission and Grading:
Submit Payroll.java, TestPayroll.java and the UML diagram through Blackboard. You can compress the files if you want.
Your grade will be determined based on the following rubric:
Task
Points
Die UML diagram
10 points
Die.java contains all required attributes w/ correct data types and access specifiers
5 points
Die class contains a constructor method
10 points
Die class contains all accessor and mutator methods
10 points
Die class contains a method to roll the dice
10 points
TestDie tests uses the constructor to set up a new object
10 points
TestDie correctly uses a loop to roll multiple dice
10 points
TestDie correctly decides who won the match
10 points
TestDie correctly saves nicknames and number of wins to “score.txt”
10 points
Documentation & Style
15 points
Total
100 points
Penalties
If the program does not compile or run, 30 points will be deducted from your total.
It is very important to test your program!

  1. FP Journe Case study

Question

The case papers should be 1 page, double spaced and generally follow this outline.
Issues/problems?
Diagnosis/analysis?
Recommendations
Action Plan (immediate, short/long term)

  1. Need help with question

Question

A food freezing plant requires 20 tons of refrigeration at an evaporator temperature of -30 deg C and a condenser temperature of 35 deg C. The refrigerant Freon 22 is subcooled 4 deg C before entering the expansion valve and the vapor is superheated 5 deg C before leaving the evaporator. The clearance is 496, the suction and discharge valve pressure drops are 35 kPa and 50 kPa, respectively. Compression is polytropic with n 1.08. The mechanical efficiency is 75%. An 11.5 x 11.5 cm, six cylinder single acting compressor running at 1000 rpm is used. Determine: 1. (a) Clearance volume efficiency (b) Piston displacement (c) Total Volumetric efficiency (d) Theoretical HP in compressor (e) Actual HP in compressor (f) Heat rejected during compression (g) Heat rejected to condenser cooling water (h) Quantity of cooling water in the condenser of the temperature rise is 6 deg C.

 

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  1. Brand Positioning

Question

Write a Brand Positioning Statement for Jersey Mike’s Subs. Discuss how the Positioning Statement aligns with Jersey Mike’s business goals.

Feel free to use this basic framework in the attachment

  1. Discussion Question Week 12

Question

You are considering a firm under three separate scenarios: 1) no debt, taxes or bankruptcy costs, 2) with debt and taxes but no bankruptcy costs, and 3) with debt, taxes, and bankruptcy costs. Under which one of these three scenarios will the firm have the highest value?

  1. History of Animation

Question

— As your final work, you can write an essay about an issue chosen by you from animation

history.

— A period, a country, an artistic movement, auteur cinema, technological development or a

comparetive analysis (in the context of a specific theme) may be your subject.

— The first level of your work (midterm), consists of deciding the subject, delimitation, the

first and short abstract of the research and resources (750 – 1000 words).

  1. Measuring IMC program effectiveness

Question

identification of the particulars of the monitoring, evaluation, and control efforts that will be employed to appraise the effectiveness of all IMC program elements used. what is to be tested ? when are the tests to occur ? where? explain how the testing is to take place, including the specific methods and techniques to be used.

3 pages (approx) need some graphs and etc…

 

triumph daytona 675 motorcycle

  1. HUM3360: African American Literature-Assignment 2

Question

Submit 4-6 paragraphs on the Chestnutt and Dunbar reading assignments :  how do these texts reflect the Reconstruction Period? Describe their tone in relation to political, economic, and social progress

Submit- 5-8 paragraphs on the DuBois and Washington readings: this should consist of 2-3 paragraphs summarizing Washington’s concept of progress, and Du Bois’ concept of progress. 1-2 paragraphs – comparing and contrasting these concepts. 2 paragraphs Answering the following questions within your paper – Has one proven to be more effective than another?  Is the current Reparations movement a reflection of one of these authors?

  1. Internal combustion engine
  2. Cylinder conditions at the start of compression is an SI engine operating at WOT on an air-standard OTTO cycle are 70 oC and 98kPa. The engine has a compression ratio of 10.5:1 and uses gasoline with AF = 15.5. Combustion efficiency is 96%, and it can be assumed that there is no exhaust residual. Calculate: a) Temperature at all states in the cycle [oC] b) Pressure at all states in the cycle. [kPa] c) Specific work done during power stroke. [kJ/kg] d) Heat added during combustion. [kJ/kg] e) Net specific work done. [kJ/kg] f) Indicated thermal efficiency. [%]
  3. A CI engine operating on the air-standard diesel cycle has cylinder conditions at the start of compression of 70oC and 130 kPa. Light diesel fuel is used at an equivalent ratio of Ф = 0.8 with a combustion efficiency 𝜂𝐶 = 0.98. Compression ratio is 𝒓𝑪 = 20. Calculate: a) Temperature at all states in the cycle [oC] b) Pressure at all states in the cycle. [kPa] c) Cutoff ratio d) Indicated thermal efficiency. [%] e) Heat lost in exhaust. [kJ/kg]
  4. Figure 3 shows Pressure – Volume Diagram of Otto cycle. The engine has a capacity of 2000cc, 4 cylinders, compression ratio, Cr = 8:1 and using RON 95 as its fuel. Figure 3 : PV Diagram a. Shows that the compression ratio for the maximum work in this Otto cycle is given by 𝑟 = ( 𝑇3 𝑇1 ) 1 [2(𝛾−1)] where T1 and T3 are the lower and upper limits of absolute temperature respectively. b. Also prove that the intermediate temperatures for this condition are: 𝑇2 = 𝑇4 = √𝑇1𝑇3

 

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  1. Information Systems

Question

The assignment is to identify and analyze Information Systems that you use in your lives. Identify 3-4
examples for information systems under different categories such as TPS, MIS, DSS, ESS, ERP,
CRM, SCM and KMS. These information systems are those that you use in your lives.
For example:
· Supermarkets’ POS systems can be an example for TPS systems.
· Amazon’s product recommendation system can be an example for DSS systems.
· Supermarkets’ loyalty card systems can be an example for CRM systems.
· University’s LMS system can be an example for KMS systems.
Ø Please select other examples for information systems that are not already provided above.
Gather and analyze basic information about Information Systems that you use in your lives and
answer the following questions to complete your assignment. Your discussions should be based on a
business point of view:
· Why are these applications an example of information system categories (TPS, MIS, DSS,
ESS, ERP, CRM, SCM, KMS). Prove and support your idea.
· Which strategic business objectives can be achieved by using these applications? Prove and
support your idea. (Hint: The strategic business objectives are covered in the chapter 1.)
· How do these applications change and transform organizations such as hierarchical structures,
politics, culture, business processes or business models? Prove and support your idea.

  1. Need help on how to solve

Question

1) Historically, the average time to service a customer complaint has been 3 days and the standard deviation has been 0.50 day. Management would like to specify the control limits for an  chart with a sample size of 10- and 3- sigma limits. The LCL for the chart would be:

 

  1. A) less than 2.40.
  2. B) greater than 2.40 but less than or equal to 2.45.
  3. C) greater than 2.45 but less than or equal to 2.50.
  4. D) greater than 2.50.
  5. Week 2 discussion questions

Question

 

Just need like 100 words for each question. I need 3 different answers for each question so a total of 6 different answer (3 for each questions). These are discussion questions for the week. please add at least 1 reference.

  1. Select one of the four broad professional fields: environmental or evolutionary psychology, forensic psychology, health or sports psychology, or industrial/organizational or engineering psychology. Which of the four learning theories is most effective in guiding professional practice in your selected field? Identify strengths and deficiencies of using the theory you identified
  2. Watch the “Operant Conditioning – Discriminative Stimuli,” “Pavlov’s Experiments on Children,” and “Pavlov’s Experiments on Dogs” videos in this week’s Electronic Reserve Readings. Choose a theory of learning to explain the processes of classical conditioning and operant conditioning, supporting each usage with relevant evidence in animal and human psychological research.
  3. Business

Question

Guidelines on Sector Report:

Selected industry: Global Medical Equipment Industry

 

Each student is required to select an industry or a subsector he or she is interested in and prepare a written report covering the sector or subsector at the global level. Your Sector Report Topic should be e-mailed to the instructor no later than February 20.  Students interested in writing their sector reports on certain industries are urged to make a request for the industry they want to write a report on as soon as possible without waiting for the February 20 deadline. Be aware that the instructor will confirm the approved sub-sector or industry with a return e-mail.

 

As you will be introduced to sectors within Turkey during the SEC 302 course, for SEC 301 this report MUST be prepared at the GLOBAL LEVEL. Reports about a specific sector in Turkey or a specific company will NOT be Acceptable. The completed report is to be submitted to the instructor no later than April 30. Please note that sector reports will be checked for plagiarism through “Turn-it-in”.

 

Your sector (or sub-sector) report that will cover a global sector subsector, or better still, a global industry  should at a minimum include the following:

  1. Sector(Sub-sector or Industry) participants: (20Points)
  • Customers and Products of the Sector or Sub-sector (5 Points)
  • Major competitors within sector or sub-sector (5 Points)
  • Key Suppliers to the Sector (5 points)
  • Identifying substitutes for the sector’s products (5 points)
  1. Market (25 Points)
  2. A) Global Market size (5 Points)
  3. B) Major Geographic Markets (5 Points)
  4. C) Industry Growth Rate (5 Points)
  5. D) Drivers of demand growth (5 points)
  6. E) Future of the Sector (5 points)

 

 

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III. Attractiveness of the sector, subsector, or industry based on expected profitability as a function of the 5 competitive forces: (30 Points)

  1. A) Assessment of the Bargaining Power of the Industry Customers (5 Points)
  2. B) Assessment of the Bargaining Power of Industry’s Suppliers (5 Points) Sub-sector suppliers are industries that supply inputs to the sub-sector
  3. C) Assessment of the Intensity of Rivalry among Industry Incumbents (5 Points)
  4. D) Assessment of the Threat of New Entry into the Sector through an analysis of industry entry barriers (10 Points)
  5. E) Assessment of the Threat of Substitutes to the industry’s offering from other industries (5 Points)

 

  1. Key success factors(The factors that determine success in this industry or sub-sector; what a company has to be good in, to be successful within the current industry environment) (25 Points)

 

To write a successful sector report make sure to read the Porter article called “Understanding Industry Structure” or the Avigdor articles called “Kar Amaçlı Rekabet: 5 Güç Yaklaşımı”.

 

Please note that your sector report needs to be no less than 12 pages (can be more) including a contents page and an executive summary page and is to be prepared from a global perspective. Your executive summary should summarize your key findings, especially about the sector’s expected future. Your report can either be about a whole sector (like global retailing) or a sub-sector (like global convenience store retailing). Please note that it is highly recommended to write your report on a sub-sector or an industry rather than on an entire sector.

 

In writing your report, you are free to use information from the articles that have been listed as supplementary readings. However you are required to use at least 3 additional sources for your reports, which must be mentioned in your foot-notes. For all the sources used for your report, it is critical that you make these sources clear by mentioning the sources in foot-notes.

 

Your sector report needs to be written with double spacing and business-like font. The document format must be in PDF format. Please be clear that formats other than “PDF” are not acceptable.

 

  1. Finance

Question

Term Project

Selected corporation: Alibaba Group

You should work alone on your case study. Your case study will be a publicly-traded corporation. The selected company will be studied as an integral part of the course design. Specifically, for each company selected, the students are required to provide a descriptive analysis on corporate finance issues including ownership structure and potential governance problems, capital structure policies, dividend policies, etc. In addition to the data analysis, word-processed write-ups (5 to 10 pages of text plus supporting material such as spreadsheets, figures and tables) will be submitted as the project report.

Term Project

Selected financial institution: ICBC ( Industrial and Commercial Bank of China )

You should work alone on your case studies. Your case study will be a publicly-traded financial institution. The selected company will be studied as an integral part of the course design. Specifically, for each company selected, the students are required to provide a descriptive analysis on financial reports of a bank published on the web. In addition to the data analysis, word-processed write-ups will be submitted as the project report.

 

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  1. Theory of self

Question

Compare Hume’s theory of self, or lack thereof, with the Buddhist theory of self. How are they similar and different, and what consequences would they have on your life if they were true?

  1. Walt Disney Case

Question

After reading the case, you are expected to submit the written analysis of the case which ranges from 3-5, typewritten, double-spaced pages. For the analysis, you should conduct additional research on the cases beyond the information provided in the case. This assignment due is by this Saturday (11:59 pm). Suggested discussion questions are as follows:

  1. Have you “experienced” Disney in some way such as TV programming, movies, parks and resorts, merchandise, or video games? How did this shape your view of Disney?
  2. Are Walt Disney, Michael Eisner, and Robert Iger strategic leaders? Why or why not? Where would you place them on the Level-5 Pyramid?
  3. How did Disney create its uniqueness in the Media and Entertainment Industry?
  4. What strategic pillars did Robert Iger put in place to grow Disney into the world’s largest Media and Entertainment Company? Detail each strategic pillar and explain why this may or may not be important to Disney’s future.
  5. How is the media and entertainment industry being disrupted?
  6. What are Disney’s biggest strategic challenges? What recommendations would you give Robert Iger to address the challenges? Be specific.
  7. Where should Disney’s Board of Directors look for the next CEO: Silicon Valley, Global Brand Management, or Hollywood? Explain why.

Construction of paper (grammar, spelling, and style in addition to content) will be considered when grading the paper (see Grading Criteria for Written Assignments under the Announcements tab on the left side of Blackboard.) All cases should use standard American Psychological Association (APA) format. In particular, cases must be double-spaced, employ 1” margins, use headings and subheadings where appropriate, use page numbers, and use a 12-point Times New Roman font. The references/works cited page at the end of the paper should follow the APA format.

  1. System Design

Question

(a) use-case diagram and use-case descriptions (may include activity diagrams for complex use-cases)
(b) domain class diagram
(c) system sequence diagram and
(d) state machine diagrams

 

  1. Financial Management Case: The Capital Structure Decision Underlying Theory

Question

CASE: The Capital Structure Decision Underlying Theory

Each student pick one case and write a report on it.  No more than two students can choose the same case.  First come first serve.  Please post your preferences in Blackboard forum.

The following information are from syllabus:

CASE WRITE-UP

Each student will pick one case on the list and should submit a write-up on that case.  This write-up should be 5-10 pages, double spaced, and 12pt letter size.  It should include at least the following: 1) a cover page with case title and name; 2) an executive summary of your recommendation and brief rationale; 3) detailed analysis of all the key issues related to the case; 4) tables and charts supported by numerical analysis/calculations; 5) references.   These case write-ups should be considered as formal and professional reports.

 

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  1. Quantum Chemistry

Question

Use the virial theorem to obtain an expression for the relation between the mean kinetic and potential energies of an electron

  1. Electrical Energy Storage System

Question

Consider the operation of a PEM FC that provides power to an EV traction motor drive. The FC stack OCV characteristic is defined by the following function:

V =Voc– A ln(I) – RI – m exp(nI)

Voc is the open circuit voltage, is the activation losses, is the resistive losses, and and are mass transfer losses. The design goal is to have OCV as high as possible and the voltage losses to be also was possible. The FC stack parameters are as follows: Voc=436V,A=12.9 V, = 0.181 W, = 0.0091 Volts, and =0.013/Ampere.

  1. a)  If the FC stack delivers 10 kW of power to the load, calculate the current and voltage of the fuelcell;
  2. b)  Determine the maximum power of the fuel cell and the corresponding voltage and current.
  3. Electrical Energy Storage System

Question

Accurate measurements of the V-I characteristics of a fuel cell allowed the determination of its slope. It was found that at 10 A, the slope was -0.003 V/A, but at 5.0 A, the slope was much larger (in absolute value), -0.005 V/A. Does this make sense? If so, can you calculate the internal resistance of the cell?

  1. Electrical Energy Storage System

Question

Consider a FC/Battery EV, wherein the power system consists of a FC stack with 400 cells and an induction traction motor that operates at 300V.

  1. a) Assume that the EV consumes 2.1kW from the Li-ion battery pack alone to reach a speed of 20 MPH. Calculate the all-electric range if the battery pack has a rated energy of 1.1 kWh
  2. b) Now, consider that the EV consumes 15.0 kW from the fuel cell alone to reach a speed of 60 MPH. Calculate the all-electric range, if the EV is fueled by 4.0 kg hydrogen
  3. Electrical Energy Storage System

Question

A UC bank consists of three UCs sized at 200F, 500F, and 1000F. They have breakdown voltages of 200V, 500V, and 100V, respectively. The three capacitors are connected in series and the voltage applied across the bank is gradually increased. Which UC will breakdown first? Calculate the total applied voltage and the total energy stored at the point of breakdown.

  1. Electrical Energy Storage System

Question

For a constant power traction application, assume the following parameters for a bank of UCs: Vmax= 15.0 V; Vmin= 9.0 V; = 60 Watts; td= 5.0 seconds. Based on the given data, calculate the appropriate UC size for this application. Please make suitable assumptions where necessary.

 

 

 

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  1. Electrical Energy Storage System

Question

Consider that a UC bank consisting of the following scenario: A 2000F UC is charged to 150V and a 1000F UC is charged to 50V. The pair of UCs are then connected with plates of opposite polarity joined together. Calculate the total voltage in this case. Also, calculate the initial and final values of stored energy. Plot the wave form of the current flowing through the 2000F UC when the voltage across it is as shown in the figure.

  1. HP’s Board Room Drama and Divorce

Question

This week you also have the second mini-case analysis assignment. After reading mini case 21 ‘HP’s Board Room Drama and Divorce (Rothaermel, p520-523), you will provide answers to discussion questions at the end of this case and submit the mini case analysis in Blackboard by Saturday at 12:00 pm.

 

It is expected that the written analysis of the case range from 1-3 typewritten, double-spaced pages. For the analysis, you should conduct additional research on the cases beyond the information provided in the case. Construction of paper (grammar, spelling, and style in addition to content) will be considered when grading the paper (see Grading Criteria for Written Assignments under the Announcements tab on the left side of Blackboard.). The references/works cited page at the end of the paper should follow the APA format.

  1. Discussion post about Arthur Danto Artworld theory 150 words

Question

Use the Arthur Danto Artworld theory to discuss one of the works by Raphael, Dürer, Titan, Rembrandt, or Ai Weiwei. Make sure you use a few of the following art-relevant predicates: mimesis, Ideal, kitsch, sublime, sublime, inspiration, infection, ecstasy, Dionysian, Apollinian, taste (Hume’s), aesthetic (Kant’s), psychic distance.

150-200 words

  1. Essay

Question

Questions for Exam 2.

Choose 2 of the 3 questions to answer.  These questions are to be e-mailed to me by 4/15 at midnight. Each question is worth 6 points. Each answer needs to be 1 page or less.

 

Many Managers have Power or Authority.  If you could choose would you want to have Authority or Power in your organization and why?

 

Why do you think it is important to communicate to employees who survived a company wide Layoff and what do you think is the most important thing to communicate to surviving employees?

There are several reason employees Resist change.  Which of the following do you think is the reason most employees resist change and why?

Uncertainty

Habit

Concern over personal loss

Belief change is not in the best interest for the organization.

 

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  1. HUM3360: African American Literature Assignment 3

Question

Submit–4-6 paragraphs comparing and contrasting the tone of readings from Ellison and Wright. (Listed in the Course Required Readings)

  1. HUM3360: African American Literature Interpretive Paper

Question

1) Submit Interpretive Paper.- 1-2 page paper

Write a 1-2 page paper- Choose one of the course required readings from the first two weeks to explicate and interpret. Choose a symbol or theme from one of the course required readings and discuss its significance in the overall meaning of the reading. To explicate the text, analyze it closely – no detail it too small. Notice the word choices, the structure and organization, the repetition of images or ideas, and/or the attention to audience (if applicable). Do NOT summarize. Instead, cite passages and examine them closely.

  1. English

Write a 1500-word argumentative essay. . Develop your own thesis based on the following topic: Is the traditional model of higher education still relevant with costs skyrocketing, lack of jobs in degree fields, and our current student loan debt crisis? If so, how and why should we keep the model the same? If not, how and why should we change the model?…Cite all sources using APA format. Your paper must include proper parenthetical citations and a Reference page. LESS THAN 15% SIMILARITY

  1. Psychology

Instruction

Perform research in the Walden Library and the Internet to find three scholarly resources that focus on crime and victimization, specifically statistics of major crimes. Visit the National Center for Victims of Crime website listed in this module’s Learning Resources. Subject Research: Criminal Justice & Security Using the Walden Writing Center “Basics Executive Summaries” as a guide, write a 5- to 6-page Executive Summary in which you complete the following: Provide an overview of crime and victimization in the United States and include current statistics of at least three major crimes (UCR Part I Crimes). Identify and describe three direct impacts of crime on victims and their families. Discuss whether these are short or long-term impacts. Explain which crimes have higher reporting rates and which crimes have lower reporting rates. Identify methods for improving rates of reporting for underreported crimes. Discuss how using statistics and improving reporting rates can lead to social change.

  1. Psychology

Instruction

In a minimum of 150 words, describe some of the public misconceptions regarding sexual assault you may have heard. Describe the concept of “victim blaming.” Why are victims of sexual assault more likely to experience blame than victims of other crimes? Compare at least two countries and note any differences.

Review Chapter 11, “Sex Offenders: Assessment and Treatment,” in the course text Correctional Counseling and Treatment. Pay particular attention to the types of sex offenses as well as sex offender treatment approaches.

• Review the article “Therapeutic Responses of Psychopathic Sexual Offenders: Treatment Attrition, Therapeutic Change, and Long-Term Recidivism” in this week’s Learning Resources. Consider the efficacy of different treatment approaches for sex offenders.

• Identify a specific treatment approach for treating one group of sex offenders that is of particular interest to you.

• Conduct an academic search in the Walden Library and select at least one scholarly article from a peer-reviewed journal that discusses the treatment approach you selected. Ensure that the treatment demonstrates efficacy in the treatment of your selected offender group.

• Think about the unique characteristics of the sex offender group you selected and reflect on considerations related to their treatment.

• Consider the challenges you might encounter when using the specific treatment approach with your selected group of sex offenders. Reflect on how you would address these challenges.

• Review the course document, Treatment Outcome Models provided in the introduction area to this week’s discussion.

• Think about how the success of the treatment approach could be evaluated with each treatment outcome model.

• Select one treatment outcome model that you think would be most effective for measuring the success of the treatment approach and consider why.

With these thoughts in mind:

Post by Day 4 a brief description of the research article you selected. Include the type of sex offender and treatment approach. Then explain which treatment outcome model you would use to measure program success and why.

 

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  1. Psychology

Instruction

Review the website: Center for Sex Offender Management: Subtypes and Typologies. Consider similarities and differences among the types of sex offenders • Select two types of sex offenders to compare for this Discussion. With these thoughts in mind: Post by Day 3 a brief description of the two types of sex offenders you selected and explain at least two similarities and two differences between these two types of sex offenders. Then explain one challenge related to the treatment of each type of sex offender.

  1. Biology

Instructions

Return thFor all submissions please double space and use 11 point font, this will give me room to make comments. Please use correct grammar and complete sentences throughout. Do not type in this form, and do not copy the questions over to your responses. You may use any legitimate sources that your wish, cite them below the pertinent question response. Do not plagiarize, make sure your answers are in your own words. If you have any questions regarding plagiarism check out this website: http://www.plagiarism.org.

There are many “right” answers to the essay questions. Ensure your answers are plausible and justifiable for full credit.

  1. This is expected to be a short essay (10 points): Pompe disease is an inherited lysosomal storage disorder (LSD) which, along with the other 40+ similar genetic disorders in this family, affect 1 in 7,700 babies born. You are a pathologist and you would like to investigate and confirm the presence of LSD using histologic methods. What will you do? Include at least two histological techniques (not molecular techniques) in your answer and predicted experimental outcomes.
  2. This is expected to be a short essay (15 points): Read the posted article “Tissue-engineered artificial oesophagus patch using three-dimensionally printed polycaprolactone with mesenchymal stem cells: a preliminary report.”
  3. What is polycaprolactone and why is it a good candidate for tissue engineering (specifically 3D printing based tissue engineering).
  4. What is fibrin and what are three important contributions that it makes to the implanted artificial oesophagus?
  5. Discuss figure 6, what is Desmin and what does it indicate? Find a commercially available source for a Desmin antibody. Include the source datasheet and price with your answer.
  6. This is expected to be a short essay (15 points): Read the article “How secret conversations inside cells are transforming biology,” which can be found at https://www.nature.com/articles/d41586-019-00792-9.
  7. Summarize the main points of this article as they relate to sub-cellular structure.
  8. Given this information (at least in part) has been known for nearly 70 years, why is cell biology not being taught in a way that reflects this organization? Your answer can focus on K-12 education and/or post-secondary education.
  9. Using a TEM that you find (and must cite), indicate features of the intracellular environment that reflect the intimate association of organelles with one another.
  10. This is expected to be a long essay question (30 points): please structure with introduction/background, rationale, experiments, and include predictions for each experiment you suggest. Design a series of experiments (at least 3) to test the hypothesis: mitochondrial dysfunction and autophagy are upregulated in breast cancer cells. Include experiments to observe integrity of the mitochondrial membrane(s), overall levels of autophagy, and any other experiments you think will be helpful and/or yield useful results. Make sure to cite your sources.
  11. This is expected to be a long Essay Question (30 points): please structure with introduction/background, rationale, experiments, and include predictions for each experiment you suggest. Design a series of experiments to test the hypothesis: α-synuclein protein builds up in the brain of Parkinson’s disease patients. Include experiments to observe sub-cellular location of α-synuclein, overall levels of α-synuclein, and any other experiments you think will be helpful and/or yield useful results.
  12. Literary Studies

Instruction

This essay will be at least 1,300 to 1,500 words long. This is a research-intensive essay that will require an annotated bibliography. Three academic, scholarly peer-reviewed articles, six academic-oriented sources with at least two specific media based references will enhance your essay. These two will be directly related to the media source you choose e.g. a television weekly describing a series.

 

 

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  1. DESCRIPTIVE ETHNOGRAPHY OF AN ORGANISATION-1400 WORDS

DESCRIPTIVE ETHNOGRAPHY OF AN ORGANISATION-1400 WORDS

MUST REFERENCE THE 4 REQUIRED READINGS
REFERENCING MUST BE IN APA FORMAT
This task requires you to use ethnographic thinking and methods to construct an account of an organisational area or unit in which you have participated. This may be somewhere you have worked in a paid or voluntary capacity, or an organisation in which you are an active member such as a religious or sporting organisation. The intention is to make sense of that organisation, both for yourself and for the person reading your writing. You should briefly introduce the organisation as a whole but focus upon the unit or area that you have experienced.

The importance of your account is that you have insight into the workings of the organisation / work area that cannot be gleaned from outsider research. This is what makes your piece ethnographic. Therefore, you should provide an insight into organisational life that goes well beyond what might be found on official websites. Following a common convention in ethnographic descriptions, you will give your organisation a pseudonym. Any individuals you mention from the organisation should also be given pseudonyms.

The key to doing this task well is identifying what really goes on in the organisation using your insider experience and then using concepts and theory from the course to give depth to your account. So, as an observational ethnography, this task depends equally on developing your own descriptive and reflective abilities as it does on using academic reference materials. You will need to write in a way that communicates your insights and observations to a reader.

Some background questions to guide your initial thinking about this task are:

  • What does the organisation do? Does this match the organisation’s goals?
  • What is the culture of the organisation? Does this differ in your smaller work area? (Tip: Is the culture, for example, social? formal? high pressure? hierarchical? Does it reflect that a certain type of person is employed there?) How does the culture relate to the structure or purpose of the organisation?
  • What kinds of work practices are undertaken? How do they compare to practices that are meant to take place?
  • How does power operate in the organisation? (Tip: think about power in the formal organisational structure, in the informal culture, and by whose roles or identity are seen as more important?)

You can structure your Descriptive Ethnography of an Organisation by following the assessment criteria. At the start of your Ethnography, address the first assessment criteria by providing a detailed account of the organisation’s values, structure and purpose in your own words, in reference to concepts covered in the course. Next, address the second assessment criteria by reflecting thoughtfully on organisational culture and practices drawing on insider experience and organisational theory. A description of the organisational climate is useful here. Topics covered in the first half of the course – such as learning, motivation and power – can be used here to make sense of the culture and practices. The last part of your Ethnography addresses the final assessment criteria by identifying gaps between espoused values and practices as they manifest in organisational norms and behaviours. Here you need to compare the organisation’s values with what you know takes place. This needs to be informed by ideas in the course literature.

We will help you develop a good understanding of this ethnographic approach and support the development of your work through, for example, guided writing activities and workshopping how to integrate references into personal accounts.

Assessment criteria:

Your descriptive ethnography:

  1. Provides a detailed account of the organisation’s values, structure and purpose in your own words, in reference to concepts covered in the course;
  2. Describes and analyses organisational culture and practices drawing on insider experience and organisational theory;
  3. Identifies gaps between espoused values and practice as they manifest in organisational norms and behaviours, in reference to theories covered in the course;
  4. Is well structured, well written and edited, and referenced correctly.

 

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  1. Communications

Letter of Advice

 

For this assignment, you will write a letter of advice to either a newly engaged couple or a group of coworkers. Imagine that either the engaged couple or coworkers hear that you are taking a course in interpersonal communication and want advice regarding how to communicate in their personal or professional relationships.

 

Instructions
Use the list of learning outcomes to write your letter. The course learning outcomes you will need to cover are listed below:

  • Explain the principles of and barriers to effective interpersonal communications.
  • Analyze the role of communication in developing and maintaining one’s self-concept, self-image, and self-esteem.
  • Differentiate appropriate levels of self-disclosure and emotional intelligence in various relationships.
  • Describe strategies for using communication techniques to resolve interpersonal conflicts.
  • Analyze the impact of gender and culture on interpersonal communications.

For each of the five learning outcomes, create a separate heading that states the learning outcome that you are addressing. Then, address the following for each segment:

  • Explain the principles of and barriers to effective, competent interpersonal communications. Why do the principles matter? How can your couple or group of co-workers overcome the barriers you have listed?
  • Analyze the role of communication in developing and maintaining one’s self-concept, self-image, and self-esteem. Begin by defining each term and then explain how these three notions of the self potentially impact the relationships of your couple or group of co-workers. What advice can you offer to help them develop a positive self-concept or build each other’s self-esteem?
  • Illustrate the importance of self-disclosure and emotional intelligence in various relationships. What role does self-disclosure play in the relationships of your couple or co-workers? How can their relationships be improved by them becoming more emotionally intelligent? What connections can be made between emotional intelligence and self-disclosure?
  • Evaluate strategies for using communication techniques to resolve interpersonal conflicts. Explain one or two potential conflicts and then present at least two strategies for addressing the dispute(s).
  • Analyze the impact of gender and culture on interpersonal communications. First, define these two key terms. Then, explain the importance of gender and culture in relationships generally and for your couple or group of co-workers specifically. What advice can you give to become a better communicator based on the information you have presented?

Content Requirements
You must address all five of the learning outcomes and the questions listed with those objectives. For each objective, be sure to define key terms and relate those ideas directly to advice for your couple or co-workers. The point here is for you to demonstrate how these ideas can be utilized to help people in their relationships. Try to offer specific advice they can integrate into their lives.

Begin your paper with an introductory paragraph that has a succinct thesis statement and that previews what you plan to cover in your paper. End with a conclusion that reaffirms your thesis and restates your key points.

You must use at least five scholarly sources to help you make your points.

Must be 8 double-spaced pages in length (not including title and references pages) and formatted according to APA style.

 

Must use each learning objectives as a header dividing each section of the paper.

 

  1. Healthcare

Instruction

Part 1: Despite the documented challenges that the U.S. health care system faces, it also enjoys a number of advantages over other systems around the world. Choose 2 other countries from around the world and discuss the strengths of the U.S. health care system as compared to these countries from an administrator’s and a third-party payer’s perspectives. Be sure to not only discuss each strength, but provide an explanation as to why you believe the United States has this advantage over the other countries you chose. Part 2: Identify a nonprofit health care organization and a for-profit health care organization (not an organization mentioned in part 1). Answer the following: Summarize the types of services provided, clientele served, and provider groups involved. Compare and contrast the strengths and weaknesses of each organization from patient, provider, administrator, and third-party payer perspectives. Provide at least 2 suggestions for each organization to minimize the identified weaknesses. Summarize which organization you would rather be part of, using rationale.

 

This is paper should be written in APA format. Deliverable length should be a minimum of 7 pages and no more than 10 pages not including the cover and reference page. This paper is 2 parts but should be written to address the information below and follow the grading rubric attached. Reading should flow to understand the assignment points Number of references a minimum of 5 peer scholarly reviews. Assignment Objective: Differentiate the primary goals of nonprofit health organizations and for-profit health organizations in the U.S. Differentiate the strengths and weaknesses associated with various types of healthcare delivery systems in the U.S. from patient, provider, administrator, and third-party payer perspectives.

 

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  1. Healthcare

Instruction

Although both for-profit and not-for-profit hospitals provide a certain amount of charitable services to the public, there is debate as to which provides a higher level of charitable services to its respective community. Which type of hospital do you believe provides more charitable health care services, and why? Provide at least 2 to 3 reasons for the choice using a specific example for each type of organization.

  1. Healthcare

Instruction

Thinking about this from both a provider’s and a payer’s perspectives, answer the following questions: What are the advantages and disadvantages of using the gatekeeper system in terms of progressing through the levels of care? Provide an example of each perspective. What are at least 2 advantages and 2 disadvantages for each group? Provide a rationale for your choices.

This is a masters class in Heathcare Administration. The assignment is a “discussion board” request. Not APA, just simple discussion on the assignment below that will allow others to join in. In an HMO, the primary care physician acts as the “gatekeeper” to all higher levels of care that the patient may need. In theory, this means that the physician decides what is best for the patient and coordinates his or her care, while at the same times working to control costs and trying to ensure the delivery of care in the most efficient manner possible.

  1. Forensic Toxicology

Instruction

Term Paper: You are required to submit a term paper that is at least 12 pages in length exploring some aspect of the forensic science discipline. The length requirement excludes cover sheets, abstracts, appendices, graphs, figures, and references, if these are included. You have the freedom of choosing any topic related to the forensic science disciplines. Examples of suitable topics include a particular specialization in forensic science (entomology, forensic anthropology, etc.), a biography of a prominent historical figure in the field of forensic science, an appropriate topical event, or a discussion of important political/legal issues that involve the field of forensic science. The paper must include a minimum of six reference sources from scholarly publications (books, academic journals, governmental publications, etc.), though it is advisable to include more than the minimum. Non-scholarly sources may be used as supporting material, but will not count toward the requirement. The paper must follow APA guidelines, including proper citation and a cover sheet. The term paper should be considered a research instrument and should be supported by facts and data. The paper should not contain personal opinions.

  1. Art

The final paper assignment portion of the course will consist of a critical analysis of either a work of art, individual artist, or period/movement/artistic style of the student’s choosing, pending approval by the instructor. This assignment will be measured by the student’s ability to demonstrate a working knowledge, understanding, and competency of course lessons by applying said information to take shape as a written formal analysis. The final paper must be formatted in MLA, utilize a 12pt font, contain a bibliography, an illustrations page (do not insert illustrations into the text itself) and be at least 8 pages in length.

While emphasis should be given to the understanding and ability to discuss art in a formal context, other areas that should be included in the paper are as follows:
• Introduction– Begin by stating why you chose the particular artist, or art work and what interests it holds for you as an individual. What is the aesthetic and personal appeal for you as an individual? Then provide a clearly defined statement of intent in regarding the work.
• Description– Describe the work visually along lines of the presence and use of the elements and principles of art, both as design and aesthetic compositional devices. So look at what’s there, literally right in front of you. Start with the most basic: what medium or material is it – a photograph, an object, a painting? How does it look? Rough and quick? Slick and neat? Shiny? Dirty? Carefully made? Thrown together? The artist will have made some very deliberate decisions about the materials, style and approach, and these will feed directly into the overall feel and meaning of the work.
• Analysis– Refers to how we see the elements and principles of art. In this step, our minds take in the lines, values, and colors of the artwork. We also may take notice of the balance, proportion, rhythm, and unity found within the work. Look, see and think about what is before you. The first two – look and see – are just about using your eyes, and observational skills. The third requires a bit of thought, drawing on what we already know and creatively interpreting what we’ve observed within an artwork’s broader contexts. When we see anything, whether it’s a work of art, a movie or a billboard, our brains perform a massively complex split-second process of reading and making meaning. We absorb a whole range of clues that make up our understanding of any image, many of which we’re not even conscious of.
• Context– Particulars should include biography, history as regarding artistic style and process, along with societal influences. The broader context of an artwork will help make sense of what you’ve already observed. Much of the information about context is usually given in the little labels that tell you the artist’s name, the title of the work and the year. And there are often other valuable morsels of information included too, such as the place and year an artist was born.
• Meaning– We look for meaning in everything, so this is natural. An interpretation of the work based upon research with considerations given to the possible presence of universal themes, iconography, symbolism, metaphor, etc., that will help to give shape and inform of the inherent meaning within an artwork. What is the artist trying to communicate to us?
• Judgement– This is a summation of the previous steps leading up to it. The goal is to provide a statement of the work’s cultural significance and worth based upon analysis, objective viewpoints, critical perspectives and reasoning. The aim is to provide an answer to the question, “Is this work of art successful?”.

Artist
If you have chosen to cover a particular artist, remember the focus should be on the development of the work created by that artist. While biographical information is important in relating the development of personal artistic style, it should not become the primary concern, nor subject of the paper. Biographical information that would be pertinent would be area of birth, early training, life experiences that bear influence upon the work, geographical locations and associations with other artists or groups.
In order to inform and define individual artistic style, you should choose works to compare and contrast, that visually demonstrate and provide example of early, middle and later artistic work. Remember, artistic style is based upon the individual’s personal methodology, habits and applications of formal attributes as pertaining to the elements and principles of design. While this may be initially rooted in geographic location, culture and training, it evolves and changes based on experiences and personal choices that reflect the growth of ideas.

Artwork
Whenever you conduct a formal analysis of an artwork, you are primarily looking at applications of the elements and principles of art and informing as to how they result in an effective, or ineffective piece. If you choose to focus on artworks for your paper, you may focus on the works of several artists comparatively, artworks from a specific period that crosses mediums, i.e. renaissance painting and sculpture, or compare artwork from different periods, such as Japanese woodblock prints compared to the artwork of contemporary graphic novels.
Contextual information is provided that serves to inform of the artists, but also serves more to inform of the work and the era/period in which it was executed. Inform the reader of the materials that were utilized, what markets did it serve, how does it compare to other works that are contemporary, what stylistic properties were introduced, and what are the lasting effects on subsequent generations of artists?

Period/Style /Movement
Without a doubt, writing about art regarding a specific artistic period, style or movement is the most challenging in terms of chronology, analysis and context. It involves the consideration and comparisons of several artists, mediums and can range over several geographic locations and decades.

Period
An artistic period can range over decades, involve hundreds of artists, various mediums and be broken into several smaller movements, i.e.
The Romantic Period 1790-1880
 Nazarene movement c. 1820 – late 1840s
• The Ancients movement 1820s – 1840s
• Purismo movement. 1820 – 1860s                                   
• Hudson River School movement 1850s – c. 1880

Movement
An artistic movement is a smaller association of a larger period and is relative to a specific location. They are collective titles that are given to artworks which share the same artistic ideals, style, technical approach, or timeframe.

Style
In the visual arts, style is a “…distinctive manner which permits the grouping of works into related categories” or “…any distinctive, and therefore recognizable, way in which an act is performed or an artifact made or ought to be performed and made”. An example of this would expressionism. https://www.theartstory.org/movement-expressionism.htm

Rubric
Final Critical Analysis Paper: Topic must be submitted by Week 2.
Paper due April 14 11:59pm. (for every day late, 5 points will be deducted from the overall grade.)
• Thesis 25 pts
• Analysis 25 pts
• Synthesis 25 pts
• Clarity 25 pts
• Grammar 25 pts                                     Total: 125pts

 

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  1. Finance

1)       You are a manager at Northern​ Fibre, which is considering expanding its operations in synthetic fibre manufacturing. Your boss comes into your​ office, drops a​ consultant’s report on your​ desk, and​ complains, “We owe these consultants $ 1.6 million for this​ report, and I am not sure their analysis makes sense. Before we spend the $ 23 million on new equipment needed for this​ project, look it over and give me your​ opinion.” You open the report and find the following estimates​ (in millions of​ dollars):

 

Project Year
Earnings Forecast​ ($000,000s) 1 2 . . . 9 10
Sales revenue 29.000 29.000 29.000            29.000
Cost

of goods sold

17.400            17.400 17.400 17.400
Gross

profit

11.600 11.600 11.600 11.600
General,

​sales, and administrative expenses

1.840 1.840 1.840 1.840
Depreciation 2.300 2.300 2.300 2.300
Net

operating income

7.4600 7.4600 7.4600 7.4600
Income

tax

2.611 2.611 2.611 2.611
Net

Income

 

4.849 4.849 4.849 4.849

All of the estimates in the report seem correct. You note that the consultants used​ straight-line depreciation for the new equipment that will be purchased today​ (year 0), which is what the accounting department recommended for financial reporting purposes. Canada Revenue Agency allows a CCA rate of 30% on the equipment for tax purposes. The report concludes that because the project will increase earnings by $ 4.849 million per year for ten​ years, the project is worth $ 48.49 million. You think back to your glory days in finance class and realize there is more work to be​ done! First, you note that the consultants have not factored in the fact that the project will require $ 8 million in working capital up front​(year 0), which will be fully recovered in year 10.​ Next, you see they have attributed $ 1.84 million of​selling, general and administrative expenses to the​ project, but you know that $ 0.92 million of this amount is overhead that will be incurred even if the project is not accepted.​ Finally, you know that accounting earnings are not the right thing to focus​ on!

 

1.)     A. If the cost of capital for this project is

what is your estimate of the value of the new​ project?

 

​Value of Project = $_____________ Million (Round to three decimal​ places.)

 

 

2) Buhler Industries is a farm implement manufacturer. Management is currently evaluating a proposal to build a plant that will manufacture lightweight tractors. Buhler plans to use a cost of capital of 12 % to evaluate this project. Based on extensive​ research, it has prepared the following incomplete incremental free cash flow projections​ (in millions of​ dollars):

 

Free Cash Flow​ ($000,000s) Year 0                     Years

1–9

         Year 10
Revenues                   93.00 93.00
Manufacturing

expenses​ (other than​depreciation)

                 -33.00 −33.00
Marketing

expenses

                   −9.00 −9.00
CCA ​? ​?
EBIT ​? ​?
Taxes

​(35%)

​? ​?
Unlevered

net income

​? ​?
CCA ​? ​?
Increases

in net working capital

          −5.00               −5.00
Capital

expenditures

−143.00
Continuation

value

11.00
Free

cash flow

−143.00 ​ ? ​?

The relevant CCA rate for the capital expenditures is 10 % Assume assets are never sold.

 

  1. A.) Using the indirect method requires a separate calculation of the CCA tax shield. What is the present value of the CCA tax​ shield?

The present value of the CCA tax shield is

$_________________

million.  ​(Round to two decimal​ places.)

 

 

B.) For this​ base-case scenario, what is the NPV of the plant to manufacture lightweight

​                tractors?

The NPV is

​                $__________________ million. ​(Round to two decimal​ places.)

 

C.) Based on input from the marketing​ department, Buhler is uncertain about its revenue forecast. In​ particular, management would like to examine the sensitivity of the NPV to the revenue assumptions.

What is the NPV of this project if revenues are 10 % higher than​ forecast?

The NPV is

​                $__________________

million. ​(Round to two decimal​ places.)

 

 

D.) What is the NPV if revenues are

10 %lower than​ forecast?

The NPV is

​                $___________________________

million. ​(Round to two decimal​ places.)

  1. You are a manager at Northern​ Fibre, which is considering expanding its operations in synthetic fibre manufacturing. Your boss comes into your​ office, drops a​ consultant’s report on your​ desk, and​ complains, “We owe these consultants $ 1.9 million for this​ report, and I am not sure their analysis makes sense. Before we spend the $ 25 million on new equipment needed for this​ project, look it over and give me your​ opinion.” You open the report and find the following estimates​ (in millions of​ dollars):

 

Project Year
Earnings Forecast​ ($000,000s)            1             2 . . .     9         10
Sales revenue      26.000         26.000  26.000      26.000
Cost

of goods sold

     15. 600          5.600 15.600 15.600
Gross

profit

      10.400 10.400 10.400       10.400
General,

​sales, and administrative expenses

2.000 2.000 2.000     2.000
Depreciation 2.500 2.500 2.500      2.500
Net

operating income

5.9000 5.9000 5.9000 5.9000
Income

tax

2.065 2.065 2.065 2.065
Net

Income

 

 

3.835 3.835 3.835 3.835

All of the estimates in the report seem correct. You note that the consultants used

​ straight-line depreciation for the new equipment that will be purchased today​ (year 0), which is what the accounting department recommended for financial reporting purposes. Canada Revenue Agency allows a CCA rate of 45 % on the equipment for tax purposes. The report concludes that because the project will increase earnings by

$ 3.835 million per year for ten​ years, the project is worth $ 38.35

million. You think back to your glory days in finance class and realize there is more work to be​ done!

 

​First, you note that the consultants have not factored in the fact that the project will require $ 9 million in working capital up front​ (year 0), which will be fully recovered in year 10.​ Next, you see they have attributed $ 2 million of​ selling, general and administrative expenses to the​ project, but you know that $ 1$ million of this amount is overhead that will be incurred even if the project is not accepted.​ Finally, you know that accounting earnings are not the right thing to focus​ on!

 

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  1. Given the available​ information, what are the free cash flows in years 0 through 10 that should be used to evaluate the proposed​ project?

 

A.)     The free cash flow for year 0 is

​$_____________

million. ​(Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative​ number.)

 

B.)     The free cash flow for year 1 is

​$_____________

million. ​(Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative​ number.)

 

C.)     The free cash flow for year 2 is

​$_______________

million. ​(Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative​ number.)

 

D.)     The free cash flow for year 3 is

​$__________________

million. ​(Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative​ number.)

 

E.)      The free cash flow for year 4 is

​$________________

million. ​(Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative​ number.)

 

F.)      The free cash flow for year 5 is

​$_______________

million. ​(Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative​ number.)

 

G.)     The free cash flow for year 6 is

​$___________________

million. ​(Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative​ number.)

 

H.)     The free cash flow for year 7 is

​$__________________

million. ​(Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative​ number.)

 

I.)       The free cash flow for year 8 is

​$____________________

million. ​(Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative​ number.)

 

J.)       The free cash flow for year 9 is

​$_____________________

million. ​(Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative​ number.)

 

K.)     The free cash flow for year 10 is $______________________million. ​(Round to three decimal places and enter a decrease as a negative​ number.)

 

  1. Sociology

Instruction

Child Observation Report Student will choose one the areas of development covered in the course (infancy, early childhood, middle childhood, late childhood, or adolescence) and conduct an observation of one child’s behavior. These observations must take place on a minimum of five different occasions with a minimum of one hour each observation. (You could do more frequent, smaller observations, just needs to be ten hours total) Students will provide commentary of the behaviors observed and correlate to information on the specific area of development from text, lectures, and outside research (if necessary). Report is worth 200 points. Observation report must include both the log of dates and times that observations took place as well as a summary and conclusion.

 

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  1. Sociology Paper

Instruction

In a 2-3 page paper, review the following article and complete a critical analysis of the identified social problem within the article. Rector, Robert and Rachel Sheffield. “Understanding Poverty in the United States: Surprising Facts About America’s Poor” The Heritage Foundation, No. 2607, September 13, 2011. Use the following headings/parts within your paper to ensure all parts of the assignment are completed: Part A: Introduction (3 Points) Identify your chosen article, and provide a brief but clear discussion of how the article topic frames a social problem, given a social construction understanding of social problems. (1-2 paragraphs). Part B: Evidence (11 Points) Utilize at least three different academic sources and discuss alternative views of the identified social problem. (3-5 paragraphs) Part C: Critical Evaluation (11 Points) Critically evaluate, given the research demonstrated in Part B, the original chosen article, with a conclusion as to the accuracy of the article. (3-5 paragraphs). This evaluation should demonstrate the following: Evaluation of accuracy of the information. Distinguishes fact from opinion. Demonstrates alternative arguments and understandings.

 

  1. Leadership Paper

MGT 248, Culinary Supervisory Development

Leadership Paper

List and describe in detail all the characteristics of a good leader. You must demonstrate a clear understanding of Deming’s 14 quality tenets and motivation by empowerment. Your description should include specific practices for a Leader to be successful.

Sources:

  • Correctly APA formatted http://www.library.dtcc.edu/wilmlib/apacolor.pdf     
  • Your paper should have an introduction paragraph explaining the purpose of the paper. Then the body of the paper with all the supporting details that relate to that purpose. Then a final summary paragraph drawing conclusions based on information provided.
  • Reference page: Utilizing the library worksheet provided, present at least 3 references 4 weeks before paper due date. All materials used must be cited in APA format. If you are citing the textbook as a reference there must be at least 2 other peer reviewed current (3- 5 year) cited references. Complete web address links must be included, along with proper referrals to written books used. Wikipedia will not be accepted. It is not considered a valid reference site because it is not peer reviewed, which means it is not double-checked for accuracy. You can however use this as a jumping off place to find valid references
  • Please provide a draft of your paper 2 weeks prior to the due date. If needed I may guide you to take your paper to the writing center for improvement.
  • Your paper must be in your own words and not cut and pasted from a web site. Plagiarism will result in a Zero grade.
  • Your project should be at least four pages, using double spaced # 12 type and Times New Roman font. It needs to done in Microsoft Word and submitted to Black Board.

 

Projects & Assignments Due Dates

All assignments and projects are due on the date indicated.  Late work will be accepted as follows: up to one week late with a 20% points reduction. Up to 2 weeks late with a 30% points deduction and up to 3 weeks with a 50% deduction and after 3 weeks student will receive a zero and no work accepted for that assignment or project.

Grading

-Paper is worth 95 pts.

-Submitting the Library Worksheet 4 weeks before due date and Written draft 2 weeks before due date is worth 5 pts.

  1. Homework Help

Instruction

Research Assignment – Leading Internationally 1.The purpose of this assignment is to help you see that one’s leadership style and effectiveness is culturally dependent. Assignment Overview – Assume that you are being sent to Japan to run a division of your company’s overseas operations. Let’s assume that you have been managing for five years in your current position at a U.S.-based facility. Now that you are going overseas you want to understand what the Japanese workers look for in a leader and what it will take to be a successful leader in Japan. Therefore, I would like you to report on what it would take for you to be a successful manager in Japan. What do workers expect from their leaders? What business or cultural norms would you have to be aware of to lead successfully in this new environment? 2.Include a description of the country, its workforce, and its common business practices. Discuss, for instance, language, traditions, values, and ethics. A good place to begin your research is with your eReadings from the OERs. Pay particular attention to discussions of some of the key ways that cultures vary such as power distance, individualism vs. collectivism, and uncertainty avoidance. Then incorporate information obtained from other scholarly sources and what you’ve concluded about your own leadership style from the readings. Keep in mind that your analysis is complete only if it provides practical insights for you to succeed as a business leader in Japan. Requirements: Eight to ten page paper, excluding the cover and references page. Cite concepts from the course readings, scholarly sources from the UMUC online library, and/or the weekly modules to support your analysis – your paper should contain at least six sources published within the last five years. Follow APA style guidelines for the cover page, citations, and references page. The paper should be double-spaced with 1-inch margins with 12 pt. Times New Roman or 10 pt. Arial font.

 

 

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  1. Communication Strategies

Instruction

Midterm Assignment: Communication Strategies: An Essay Based on Experience For this assignment, you will need to consider the nature and effectiveness of different communication strategies and apply them to your own experience. You will need to consider the nature and effectiveness of the different communication strategies and techniques that are used in communicating across different cultures and how it improves one’s ability to connect with each other in a business setting. It is also true that certain other factors, assumptions, or beliefs can get in the way of effective communication. Introduce your essay by discussing why effective communication is important in the business world. Next, discuss one specific strategy that facilitates or supports effective communication in a multicultural work environment, and identify why it is effective. Then discuss a communication inhibitor—that is, a factor, an assumption, or a belief that can undermine effective communication in a multicultural work environment. Identify how and why this inhibitor gets in the way of effective communication. Finally, offer an example from your own experience of a communication event that you have either witnessed or participated in that illustrates what you have learned about either effective or ineffective communication in the workplace. In choosing an example, try to focus on a situation that illustrates the communication issues that can occur in a multicultural work environment. Requirements: Six to eight-page paper, excluding the cover and references page. Cite concepts from the course readings, scholarly sources from the UMUC online library, and/or the weekly modules to support your analysis – your paper should contain at least five quality scholarly sources published within the last five years. Follow APA style guidelines for the cover page, citations, and references page. The paper should be double-spaced with 1-inch margins with 12 pt. Times New Roman or 10 pt. Arial font.

 

  1. Communications

Instructions

Write a 4-5 paper that analyzes the intercultural dimensions of the book “Spirit Catches You.” Choose one or two individuals from the book as the focal point for your essay. Develop your paper based on the intercultural interactions struggles, barriers and/or conflicts experienced by these individuals. Remember that in an intercultural interaction, the participants almost never have equal power. Reflect on how power and positionality play a role in these individuals’ lives. Provide specific details from the book related to things that the individuals said or did to support your thesis. In addition to the concept of power and positionality, you must draw on at least 3 specific concepts or ideas from your textbook to make theoretical connections and arguments related to the motivations, actions, and interactions of the characters.

 

  1. General

Module 4

For this assignment, I want you to create a Windshield survey of your community.  This is to be a fun assignment and one I hope you will learn from. use your hometown!  The reason for this assignment is so you can learn and show us about where you grew up and how your environment and its resources affect your daily life.

Windshield surveys are a form of direct observation that involves making visual observations of a neighborhood or community while driving—literally “looking through the windshield.”

The purpose of the windshield survey is to gain a better understanding of the environment you are studying to provide insight to the resources available in a community. Specifically, windshield surveys allow for the observation of neighborhood boundaries, housing conditions, use of open spaces, shopping areas, schools, religious facilities, human services (such as hospitals and physician offices), modes of transportation, protective services (such as fire stations), and overall neighborhood life within the community. “Windshield” surveys can even be conducted on foot if a vehicle is not available. Here is a link to help you with understanding what I am wanting:

http://www.ehow.com/how_5006863_perform-windshield-survey.html

Perform a Windshield Survey of a community you choose.  With this assignment, I want you to learn more about your community, what is available and what you can give back to your community.  I also hope this will let you see from a “different perspective” what your community has to offer and any opportunities that you might find that are available from a job status in your community.

After you complete your survey, you will create a presentation about your experience.  So you will have at least two documents.  Here are some helpful tips to creating a ‘great’ presentation:

TIPS

Ø  You might want to take someone with you to be the ‘driver’ while you observe the community.

Ø  Take a digital camera.  You’ll want to get some photos to document what you find.  The pictures will also add value to your presentation.

Ø  Take a pad of paper and something to write with; you’ll want to stop and take some notes.

o    Make notes, but don’t get bogged down in the ‘details.’

Ø  You can interview someone in the community if you can’t find the information you want.

Ø  Stop and have something to eat or drink and observe what goes on around you.  Who is there? What are they talking about? What is the latest ‘buzz’ in the town?

Ø  If this is a community you know well, you’ll be challenged to NOT make a biased survey.  To avoid bias, you might want to go to the next town/community down the road and observe that community.

 

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Please use the following as criteria for both observing your “community of choice” and writing the final report.  This will be a paper different from your presentation.  No pictures will be in this paper only the data questioned below.

Paper:  (80 points) Label the paper with the heading you are discussing.

  1.  Boundaries (5 pts.) Identify the boundaries for the entire community. You can include a map, highlighting the city limits or just describe the location.
  2. Housing (5 pts.) How old are the houses.  Are they of particular style?  What materials are they made from? How well are the homes maintained? What kinds of multiple family dwellings exist (apartments, duplexes, and subsidized housing complexes)? Are there vacant houses? Is this an established community or is there a lot of new construction? Are there for-sale signs, for rent signs? What does the housing indicate about the income level of the residents?
  3. Signs of decay and/or pollution (5 pts.) Identify if there are poorly maintained homes, trash in streets, garbage-filled vacant land, etc. Describe any evidence of water, air, and/or ground pollution.
  4. Parks, recreational areas (5 pts.) Are there parks and/or playgrounds? Are they being used? What is their condition? What recreational areas or facilities were observed?
  5. Transportation (5 pts.) What forms of transportation do you see people using? Is public transportation available? How well are streets and highways maintained? Is there traffic congestion?
  6. Health and social service agencies (5 pts.) What social service agencies, including health care facilities, are in the area you surveyed? (MAP IT!)  What gaps in services did you observe?
  7. Economics (5 pts.) List the location, number, and type of industries you observe. Who are the major employers?
  8. Protective services (5 pts.) What evidence do you see of police and fire protection; sanitation services; water treatment plants?
  9.  Faith/Religion (5 pts.) List the number and types of religious facilities.
  10. Schools (5 pts.) List the location, type (e.g., private, public, vocational education), level (elementary, intermediate, middle school or junior high school, high school, college) and number of schools.
  11. General (5 pts.) Is there evidence of gangs (describe how you know whether there is gang activity present.)?  How do billboards/signs reflect information about character of the community (e.g., political affiliation, adult entertainment)? Describe the downtown area.  What cultural and ethnic groups are represented?
  12. Subjective feeling (5 pts.) How do you feel, being in the community? Do you feel comfortable? Are people friendly? Would this area be one in which you would live and/or work? Explain.
  13. Problem identification/ community needs (10 pts.) Based on your observations in the Windshield Survey, comprehensively identify any presenting problems (including gaps in service) in the community you surveyed. Be sure to identify problems.  You may want to talk to a few “key informants” or “gatekeepers” to help you with this.  This should be a detailed explanation of what you feel and others believe are problems in your community.  Reasons for non-growth?
  14. Community Strengths (10 pts.) Did you observe any community resources that may address identified problems? Develop a comprehensive list of all community strengths that you observed during your survey.  EVERY community has strengths!!  You might have to look hard, but they ARE THERE!!!This should also be a detailed explanation of what you feel and others believe are the Strengths of your community.

 

 

Module 4   Presentation Project – 40 points

The format for your presentation slide show should be:

  1. Introduction of your community (from Boundaries through General)
  2. Subjective feelings

III. Community needs

  1. Community assets/strengths – this is a great place to put in a photo of your communities point of pride! This could be a park, football field, local restaurant, etc.
  2. Conclusions

Make sure you use a presentation software that everyone can view.  .

You may make the presentation fancy or plain; you can use music or video; this is YOUR project and YOUR community of choice.  Have fun and make it your own. I want to see pictures of your community and only bulleted list of topics you want to discuss.

If the presentation is too long it will not upload correctly and you will have issues.  Limit the presentation to around 10-15 slides.

 

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  1. Week 7 – Assignment: Assess the Effectiveness of SOX Legislation

Instruction

This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions Prepare a paper in which you address the following: Identify and explain the key ethical components of SOX. Explain why financial fraud and abuse still occurs despite the passage of SOX. Recommend potential improvements of the SOX legislation based on your research. Recommend measures, beyond the scope of SOX, that organizations can implement to prevent financial statement fraud and abuse. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

 

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  1. QSO 630 wk1

Description

1-1 Discussion: Definition of Supply Chain

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Consider Dell which is famous for its low inventory of parts (from Dell’s suppliers) and finished products (assembled at Dell’s manufacturing facilities). If Dell maintains low inventory of parts, and if Dell wants the suppliers to ship the parts soon after it places an order for them, does it mean that the suppliers shall maintain a high inventory of parts? And if the suppliers shall maintain a high inventory of parts, do the suppliers incur high holding costs? And if the suppliers incur high holding costs, who will eventually pay for those costs? Dell? Or its suppliers? Or ultimately the customer? If you were Dell, discuss how you would ensure that the holding costs are actually reduced, not just transferred.

  1. Implementing Policy

Description

Agencies implement policy through various methods. Either they enforce laws and regulations, manage programs or manage and/or disburse public funds. What roles do agencies in your state play in the budget process?

 

  1. Rulemaking

Description

“Rulemaking is probably the most important political activity of bureaucracy. In fact, it is a large lawmaking operation that citizens do not even know exists.” (Smith, 2008) What specific roles do agencies play in your state in the rulemaking process? Hint: Research your state’s own administrative procedures act.

 

  1. Unit 4 Assignment

Description

Analyze the administrative process within the executive branch

Assessment: Research and develop a flow chart of your state’s own process for agency rulemaking starting with the executive branch review through to the final adoption of the rule. All the major steps and alternative steps as well as players must be identified including any relevant time lines or deadlines. Sources must be appropriately cited. Hint: Go to your own state’s website and key in appropriate search words or phrases. Start with your state’s code sections that contain its own version of the Administrative Procedures Act.

For a how-to guide on creating a PowerPoint flowchart review the resource below:

 

5.Business

With the first weekend of March Madness underway, there has been plenty of talk regarding Power 5 (P5) Conferences versus non-P5 schools.  Many sports analysts believe the P5 schools have an advantage in making the NCAA MBB tournament and when it comes to seeding in the tournament.

Read these articles:

http://www.newsobserver.com/sports/college/acc/article139198713.html (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

http://sports.yahoo.com/news/march-madness-day-2-recap-power-conference-dominance-sets-up-second-round-showdowns-042714662.html (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

If you are unfamiliar with the term P5, read this article to familiarize yourself.  http://www.huffingtonpost.com/ken-reed/big-five-have-changed-col_b_5725772.html (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

The P5 schools earned $6 billion dollars last year compared to a mere $4 billon for ALL of the other schools combined.

Do you think March Madness favors P5 schools? Why or why not?  If you think they do, what solutions do have to create parity for all schools?  What are things FGCU can do to improve our likelihood of being selected to the NCAA tournament as an at-large bid.

 

6.Psychological Statistics

SPSS HOMEWORK 1

 

40 POINTS

 

 

Factual Informative Scenario Anecdotal “Identifiable Victim” Scenario
25

10

25

15

10

20

32

15

10

15

15

35

30

50

45

30

 

  1. Paste SPSS output.  (7 pts)

 

  1. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

 

 

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Cooperation Competition  
88

91

73.5

82

84

92.5

76

95

98

81.5

  92

87

85

79

91

95.5

72.5

74

63

 

 

 

  1. Paste SPSS output.  (7 pts)

 

  1. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

 

  1. Describe in 3 Paragraphs – Law Question

Anne is 10 years old and lives in a major metropolitan U.S. city and is currently in the 4th grade. Today, during gym class, Anne’s teacher notices several large bruises on all of Anne’s arms and legs and that her clothing is torn and dirty. When the teacher questions Anne about how she got the bruises, Anne replies “I fell on the playground.” The teacher reports the bruising to the school principal. The teacher and principal request Anne’s mother attend a conference after school.

During the conference, Anne’s mother is difficult to communicate with. She appears to be intoxicated, but denies having had anything to drink. She is also very defensive, states that Anne is a clumsy, lazy child and that Anne lies to get attention. The mother denies that anyone has physically hurt Anne. During the conference, Anne sits next to her mother but does not make eye contact with anyone in the room, nor does she speak. When questioned as to why Anne’s father could not attend the conference, Anne’s mother replies that he was too tired because he works two jobs and has to sleep during the day. Anne and her mother leave the conference and Anne is not in school the next day.

In 2-3 paragraphs, using your own words:

  • List 3 signs and/or symptoms of possible child abuse and neglect with respect to Anne.
  • List 3 risk factors present in Anne’s family that could contribute to abuse.
  • What do you think would be the best course of action for Anne regarding treatment, placement, and services?
  • When responding to peers, consider whether you agree with the course of action suggested by your peers. Why might that be the best course of action, or why might another action be more appropriate. Provide support for your choices.
  1. Answer the following questions

The Swift Corporation has 5,000 sales representatives and employees in the United States who drive company cars. The company’s risk manager has recommended to the firm’s management that the company should implement a partial retention program for physical damage losses to company cars.

  1. Explain the advantages and disadvantages of a partial retention program to the Swift Corporation.
  2. Identify the factors that the Swift Corporation should consider before it adopts a partial retention program for physical damage losses to company cars.
  3. If a partial retention program is adopted, what are the various methods the Swift Corporation can use to pay for physical damage losses to company cars?
  4. Identify two risk-control measures that could be used in the company’s partial retention program for physical damage losses.
  1. Need help with the following questions

Chris and Karen are married and own a three-bedroom home in a large midwestern city. Their son, Christian, attends college away from home and lives in a fraternity house. Their daughter, Kelly, is a senior in high school. Chris is an accountant who works for a local accounting firm. Karen is a marketing analyst and is often away from home several days at a time. Kelly earns extra cash by babysitting on a regular basis.The family’s home contains household furniture, personal property, a computer that Chris uses to prepare business tax returns on weekends, and a laptop computer that Karen uses while traveling. The Swifts also own three cars. Christian drives a 2007 Ford; Chris drives a 2012 Pontiac for both business and personal use; and Karen drives a 2014 Toyota and a rental car when she is traveling. Although the Swifts have owned their home for several years, they are considering moving because of the recent increase in violent crime in their neighborhood.

  1. Describe briefly the steps in the personal risk management process.
  2. Identify the major pure risks or pure loss exposures to which Chris and Karen are exposed with respect to each of the following:
    1. Personal loss exposures
    2. Property loss exposures
    3. Liability loss exposures
  3. With respect to each of the loss exposures mentioned above, identify an appropriate personal risk management technique that could be used to treat the exposure.
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  1. Design and analysis of algorithms

Analysis & Design of Algorithms

Please answer the question in your own words, in less than 5 sentences.

Question 1

Explain the differences between java.util.Vector and java.util.ArrayList.

Question 2

Explain the differences between java.util.ArrayList and java.util.LinkedList.

Question 3

Explain the differences between java.util.TreeMap and java.util.TreeSet.

Question 4

Explain the differences between java.util.SortedSet and java.util.SortedMap.

Question 5

Explain the differences between java.util.HashMap and java.util.HashSet.

Question 6

Explain the differences between java.util.TreeMap and java.util.HashMap.

Question 7

Explain the differences between java.util.HashSet and java.util.TreeSet.

  1. Software design and construction quiz

Please answer correctly all the questions below and justify where applicable.

QUESTION 1

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QUESTION TEXT

You have been tasked with implementing an entreprise architecture strategy at VIU. Which framework would be the most useful?

Select one:

  1. TOGAF
  2. IEEE
  3. MICROSOFT .NET
  4. JAVA

QUESTION 2

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QUESTION TEXT

What does the MVC pattern do?

Select one:

  1. IT MUST BE USED OR YOUR JAVA APPLICATION WILL NOT WORK.
  2. SEPARATES TEXT FROM GRAPHICS.
  3. IT DOES NOT REALLY DO ANYTHING.
  4. SEPARATES USER INTERFACE FROM COMPUTATION AND COORDINATION.

QUESTION 3

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QUESTION TEXT

Was understanding the architecture of the ATM simulation that you did in your homework useful?

Select one:

  1. NO, IT WAS A WASTE OF TIME.
  2. YES, I UNDERSTOOD HOW THE SIMULATION WORKS AT A HIGH LEVEL.
  3. YES, IT ENABLED ME TO DEBUG THE CODE IN DETAIL.
  4. NO, THE CODE IS WHAT MATTERS.

QUESTION 4

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QUESTION TEXT

Is there a difference between the old mainframe architecture and the new cloud architecture?

Select one:

  1. WHY ARE WE TALKING ABOUT MAINFRAMES NOW? THEY WERE BEFORE I WAS BORN.
  2. YES, THE CLOUD USES THE INTERNET OR THE NETWORK IN GENERAL. MAINFRAMES DID NOT.
  3. NO, THEY ARE EXACTLY THE SAME.
  4. MAINFRAMES DID NOT HAVE AN ARCHITECTURE.

QUESTION 5

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QUESTION TEXT

Do you think that computer programs can solve Rubic Cube puzzles?

Select one:

  1. YES, IT HAS BEEN DONE.
  2. NO WAY, ONLY THE BAMBOZZLERS CAN.
  3. NO. RUBIC IS SMARTER THAN ANY COMPUTER.
  4. YES, BUT ONLY FAKE RUBIC CUBES.

QUESTION 6

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QUESTION TEXT

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Object Oriented Programming?

Select one:

  1. WELL DEFINED INTERFACES
  2. MODULARITY
  3. AGILITY
  4. INFORMATION HIDING

 

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QUESTION 7

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QUESTION TEXT

Which of the following is not an architectural style?

Select one:

  1. CONNECTOR.
  2. LAYERED.
  3. CLIENT-SERVER
  4. PEER-TO-PEER.

QUESTION 8

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QUESTION TEXT

Can we simulate a client server architecture containing one server and three clients using one computer?

Select one:

  1. YES, BUT THE COMPUTER MUST BE OPERATING A LINUX OR UNIX OPERATING SYSTEM.
  2. YES, YOU CAN, IT’S DONE ALL THE TIME.
  3. NO, YOU NEED 4 COMPUTERS.
  4. NO, YOU NEED ONE COMPUTER.

QUESTION 9

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QUESTION TEXT

Do you think that software architecture can enhance software reliability?

Select one:

  1. IN SOFTWARE ENGINEERING WE DON’T CARE ABOUT RELIABILITY.
  2. I REALLY DON’T KNOW.
  3. YES, A GOOD ARCHITECTURE CAN ENHANCE RELIABILITY.
  4. NO. THEY ARE NOT RELATED.

QUESTION 10

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QUESTION TEXT

What is software efficiency?

Select one:

  1. HIGHEST NUMBER OF LINES OF CODE.
  2. LOW COST.
  3. HIGH OCTANE.
  4. BEST USE OF RESOURCES.

QUESTION 11

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QUESTION TEXT

Is user-friendliness a functional or non-functional property?

Select one:

  1. NON-FUNCTIONAL.
  2. NEITHER.
  3. BOTH.
  4. FUNCTIONAL.

QUESTION 12

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QUESTION TEXT

Does architecture-based design help meet non-functional properties?

Select one:

  1. THERE IS NO RELATIONSHIP.
  2. YES, IT DOES.
  3. IS THIS A TRICK QUESTION?
  4. NO, IT DOES NOT.

QUESTION 13

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QUESTION TEXT

What is a method for handling exceptions used in java applications?

Select one:

  1. HIDE … POUNCE.
  2. LISTEN … CORRECT.
  3. WATCH …. GRAB.
  4. TRY … CATCH.

QUESTION 14

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QUESTION TEXT

What is the role of connectors in software architecture.

Select one:

  1. THEY CONNECT COMPUTER HARDWARE.
  2. THEY HAVE NO ROLE.
  3. THEY CONNECT DEVELOPERS AND CUSTOMERS.
  4. THEY CONNECT THE COMPONENTS THAT PERFORM THE COMPUTATIONS.

QUESTION 15

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QUESTION TEXT

Which of the following is an example of a Connector?

Select one:

  1. REMOTE PROCEDURE CALL.
  2. BACKING UP FILES.
  3. PARALLEL COMPUTATIONS.
  4. GRAPHICS PROCESSING.

QUESTION 16

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QUESTION TEXT

What are the basic elements of software architecture that you studied in this course?

Select one:

  1. COMPONENTS, CONTROLLERS, VIEWERS
  2. COMPONENTS, PACKAGES, SUB-PACKAGES, AND MODULES.
  3. COMPONENTS, CONNECTORS, INTERFACES AND CONFIGURATION.
  4. PROJECTS, PACKAGES, COMPONENTS, AND CLASSES.

QUESTION 17

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QUESTION TEXT

What was the contribution of Roy Fielding to the World Wide Web architecture?

Select one:

  1. HE INVENTED THE WEB.
  2. HE DEVELOPED THE REST ARCHITECTURAL FRAMEWORK.
  3. WHO IS ROY FIELDING ANYWAY?
  4. HE DID NOT MAKE ANY CONTRIBUTIONS.

QUESTION 18

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QUESTION TEXT

What was the contribution of Roy Fielding to software architecture?

Select one:

  1. HE INTRODUCED AN ARCHITECTURE SUGGESTING HOW THE WEB SHOULD FUNCTION.
  2. HE DEFINED RULES FOR HOW THE UNIVERSE SHOULD FUNCTION.
  3. HE CREATED THE AGILE APPROACH TO SOFTWARE DEVELOPMENT.
  4. HE INVENTED MICROSOFT EXPLORER BROWSER.

QUESTION 19

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QUESTION TEXT

Can you generate code from architecture in Object-Oriented Programming?

Select one:

  1. ME? NO WAY.
  2. NO, THAT IS IMPOSSIBLE.
  3. YES, BUT ONLY IF THE PROGRAM HAS ONE CLASS.
  4. YES, THERE ARE TOOLS THAT HELP WITH THAT.

QUESTION 20

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QUESTION TEXT

How do you think software developers view the UML 2.0 standard?

Select one:

  1. THEY ALL HATE IT AND NEVER USE IT.
  2. SOFTWARE DEVELOPERS DON’T CARE ABOUT UML. THEY JUST WRITE CODE.
  3. THEY ALL LOVE IT.
  4. MANY THINK THAT IT’S TOO COMPLICATED AND USE A SIMPLIFIED SUBSET OF IT.

 

  1. ​Create a small GUI application

Create a GUI application that displays 4 text fields, and 4 label fields and two buttons. The layout is up to you, but must be logical. A number is entered into each text field. When the “Calculate” button is pressed the application will calculate the following and display the results in each of the four label fields.

Sum of the four values

Product of the four values

The smallest value

The largest of the values

The exit button will exit the application.

  1. Sport Management and Drugs

Sports Management:

  • Describe your current knowledge regarding drugs and alcohol. Elaborate as much as possible on specific drugs.
  • What influences you to use or not use drugs and/or alcohol? Describe your beliefs, ideas, and situations that influence this decision. How did your parents and/or older siblings influence this decision? Why do these things have such an impact on your decision?
  • Describe these thoughts in detailed paragraphs. Please be honest in your responses. (These will only be read by me.)

Your paper should be at least 2 pages in length (double spaced, font size of <14). Be sure you answer each question!

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  1. Capital Budgeting

Question

Regis International Corporation (RIC), a Denver based technology company, has been applying its expertise in microprocessor technology to develop a small computer specifically designed to control home appliances.  Once programmed, the computer would automatically control the heating and air-conditioning system, hot water heater, and even small appliances such as coffee makers.  By increasing the energy efficiency of a home, the appliance control computer can save on costs hence pay for itself in a few years.  This effort has now reached the stage where a decision on whether or not to go forward with production must be made.

RIC’s marketing department plans to target sales of the appliance control computer to the owners of larger homes – the computer is cost effective only on homes with 2,000 or more square feet of heated/air-conditioned space.  The marketing vice-president forecasts sales in 2018 to be $40 million and to increase by 6 percent per year.  The engineering department has estimated that the firm would need a new manufacturing plant; this plant could be built and made ready for production in 1 year, once the “go” decision is made.  The plant would require a 25-acre site, and RIC currently has an option to purchase a suitable tract of land for $1.2 million; the land option must be exercised on December 31, 2016.  Building construction would begin in early 2017 and would continue through the end of 2017.  The building, which would fall into the MACRS 39-year class (ignore any half-year convention), would cost an estimated $8 million, payable on December 31, 2017.

span class=”Apple-converted-space”>  The equipment, which would fall into the MACRS 7-year class, would have a cost of $6.5 million, including transportation, plus another $500,000 for installation.

span class=”Apple-converted-space”>  The initial working capital investment would be made on December 31, 2017, and on December 31 of each following year, net working capital would be increased by an amount equal to 12 percent of any sales increase expected during the coming year.  The project’s estimated economic life is 6 years.  At that time, the land is expected to have a market value of $1.7 million, the building a value of $1.0 million, and the equipment a value of $2 million.  The production department has estimated the variable manufacturing costs would total 65 percent of dollar sales, and that fixed overhead costs, excluding depreciation, would be $8 million for the first year of operation.  Fixed overhead costs, other than depreciation, are projected to increase with inflation which is expected to average 6 percent per year over the 6 year life of the project.

RIC’s marginal tax rate (federal and state) is 40 percent; its weighted average cost of capital is 15%; and the company’s policy, for capital budgeting purposes, is to assume that operating cash flows occur at the end of each year.  Since the plant would begin operations on January 1, 2018, the first operating cash flows would thus occur on December 31, 2018.  The capital gains tax rate is the same as the ordinary income tax rate.

As one of the company’s financial analysts, you have been assigned the task of supervising the capital budgeting analysis.  For now, you may assume that the project has the same risk as the firm’s current average project, and hence you may use the corporate cost of capital, 15 percent, for this project.  Calculate the NINV, NPV, IRR, and payback period for the appliance control computer project.  Create Best Case and Worst Case scenarios based on the Sales number only.  Assume the Best and Worst are +/- 25% for Revenues.

In addition to showing the values for the NINV, FCFs, NPV, IRR, and payback period, please provide a copy of your spreadsheet that shows your calculated values for the initial investment, the cash flows, and the salvage value.

 

  1. Moment of Inertia

Question

A constant t A large wheel in the shape of a cylinder with a 0.333 m radius is free to rotate on a frictionless vertical axle. A constant tangential force of 250 N applied to the edge causes an angular acceleration of 0.94 rad/sec2. What is the moment of inertia of the wheel? What is the mass of the wheel? If the wheel starts at rest, what is its angular velocity after 5.0 sec?

  1. Why was grassroots conservatism particularly strong in the Sun Belt in the 1970s and 1980s?

Question

  1. Why was grassroots conservatism particularly strong in the Sun Belt in the 1970s and 1980s? Book used is an American promise with a concise history.  I need question answered with a 5 paragraph summary. one introduction, 3 for body and one conclusion.
  2. What developments in Americans society in the 1950s were at odds with prevailing norms and values?

Question

  1. What developments in Americans society in the 1950s were at odds with prevailing norms and values? Book used an American promise with concise history. I need a simple 5 paragraph essay with key terms please.

 

  1. Question from the Preston Plant Case Study

Question

What are the most significant events in the story of how the plant survived because of its adoption of quality-based principles?

  1. Data warehouse

Question

You are a senior analyst in the IT department of a company manufacturing automobile parts. The marketing Vice President (VP) is complaining about the poor response by IT in providing strategic information.

  • Draft a proposal for VP to introduce the concept of business intelligence.
  • How data warehousing and analytics as part of business intelligence for your company would be the optimal solution

 

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  1. Individual Programmatic Assessment paper

Question

Select a neurological, psychological, or neurodevelopmental disorder.

Write a 2,450- to 3,500-word paper comparing and contrasting three therapeutic interventions used to treat this disorder. Compare measures of effectiveness, such as validity, efficacy, symptom and behavior management, and recidivism. One therapy should be cognitive in nature, one should be pharmacological in nature, and the third should be an alternative therapeutic treatment.

Identify common symptoms associated with your disorder and rates of symptom reduction or management as reported with the three treatments. Based on your research, what would be your approach to treating the condition? Identify which treatments you would use. Explain why.

Analyze the neurophysiological underpinnings of diseases and disorders.

Examine contemporary attitudes toward the three treatments you selected.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Include 7 to 10 peer-reviewed sources.

 

  1. Week five discussion

Question

Students need to contribute eight substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies. Here are our topics!

 

What are some neurodevelopmental disorders resulting from toxic chemicals? Do you think these disorders can be prevented? If so, how? If not, why not?

 

What are effective disorders? How might they have an impact on functioning?

  1. Homework:LCM and GCF Review

Question

Ms. James is making fruit baskets. She has 15 apples and 6 oranges. She wants to make all fruit baskets identical without having any pieces of fruit left over. What is the greatest number of fruit baskets Ms. James can make?(Hint:GCF)

  1. Chem Help

Question

The salt sodium formate, NaCHO2(s), completely dissociates into Na+(aq) and CHO2−(aq) in an aqueous environment. The Na+ ion has no acid or base properties, but the formate ion is the conjugate base of the weak acid, formic acid.

Part a. Write a balanced chemical equation showing how the formate ion reacts with water to affect the pH of the resulting solution (you can ignore the sodium ion in your balanced equation).

Part b. Find the pH of a 0.100 M solution of sodium formate, NaCHO2.  The Ka for formic acid is 1.8×10−4.

I know the equation is HCOOH(s) + H2O(l) ⇆ CHO2−(aq) + H3O+(aq) but I don’t understand how to get the pH.

 

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  1. Colgate Canada

Question

Given that Colgate Canada plans to hike its marketing spend by $3 million for the toothpaste category, how would you spend it?

  1. Information Communication Technology

Question

Subject: Information Technology.

Question: Project Work on Poultry farm monitoring using technology such as sensors and internet.

Instructions:

*Introduction

*Literature Review

*Methodology

*System Design Analysis

*Implementation and Conclusion

*Reference

*Software

  1. What is an integrated marketing commutation?

Question

Please find at least one article which helps to define integrated marketing communication, share it with the class and use it to help provide your take on what integrated marketing communication means. Please use a credible source to locate your article. A mainstream marketing publication like Brandweek, or Adweek is fine, but an academic journal article is even better. Spend a little time describing the importance of integration and what exactly we are striving to integrate. Please source your article in your post.

 

  1. Marketing

Question

Please read the ATTACHMENT (Ivey) Colgate Palmolive Canada case study. Then discuss one important issue that needs to be addressed by Colgate based on the case and why. Their are several issues just discuss one.

Write 8 complete sentences.

  1. General Assignment

Question

In a certain community, 8 percent of all adults over 50 have diabetes. If a health service
in this community correctly diagnoses 95 percent of all persons with diabetes as having the disease and incorrectly diagnoses 2 percent of all persons without diabetes as having the disease, and the probabilities that, (a) the community health service will diagnose an adult over 50 as having diabetes. (b) a person over 50 diagnosed by the health service as having diabetes actually has the disease.

 

  1. Week 6 discussion question

Question

I do not need a paper. This is discussion question. I need 8 different 150 word answers to the question below. I need to post 8 times for discussion questions below.

Students need to contribute eight substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies. Here are our topics!

 

Do you believe that drug abuse/dependence (i.e., the tendency toward addiction) is hereditary? Why or why not?

 

From a psychological what do you think are the most important aspects of drug use? (e.g., reinforcement, brain regions that mediate rewarding feelings, cravings, etc). What are some areas that would be challenging from a treatment perspective?

  1. Stats Discrete Probability Distribution Questions

Question

Suppose that past history show that 60% of students prefer Brand C cola. A sample of 5 students is selected.

What is the probability that exactly 3 of the 5 students selected will prefer brand C

Suppose that past history show that 60% of students prefer Brand C cola. A sample of 5 students is selected.

What is the probability that at least 3 of the 5 students selected will prefer brand C?

Suppose that past history show that 60% of students prefer Brand C cola. A sample of 5 students is selected.

What is the probability that at most 2 of the 5 students selected will prefer brand C?

  1. Finance

Question

During a year of operation, a firm collects 175,000 in revenue and spends 80,000 on raw materials, labor expenses, utilities, and rent. The owners of the firm provided 500,000 of their own money to the firm instead of investing the money and earning a 14 percent annual rate of return

What’s the explicit cost of the firm?

What’s the implicit cost of the firm?

Total economic cost?

Total accounting cost?

 

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  1. Google Internet Inc

Question

Google Internet, Inc. is evaluating its cost of capital under alternative financing arrangements. In consultation with investment bankers, the company expects to be able to issue new debt at par with a coupon rate of 8% and to issue new preferred stock with a ksh. 2.50 per share dividend at ksh. 25 a share. The common stock of the company is currently selling for ksh. 20.00 a share. Google expects to pay a dividend of ksh. 1.50 per share next year. Market analysts foresee a growth in dividends at a rate of 5% per year. Google’s corporation’s tax rate is 30%.

Required:

Calculate the component cost of capital for the three sources of finance to Google Company.

  1. Write a 3 to 4-page essay (1 ½ spaced, one-inch margins) discussing how the use of electronic devices impacts on these three sources of philosophy: sense experience, leisure, and wonder.

How to Write a Paper

 

Every paper needs a title, an introductory paragraph, a body, and a concluding paragraph.

 

For an academic paper you want to pick a title that would allow a reader who was researching your topic to be able to find your paper on a database.  If you can make the title sound intriguing so much the better; however, it is more important that the title gives the reader an accurate idea of the paper’s content.  Vague titles are virtually useless.  If your paper is specifically on whether squirrels remember where they hid nuts, and you entitled it “Squirrels” or “Memory in Animals” the person who wanted to know about whether squirrels remember where they hid nuts is not going to readily find your paper in a database, if he or she finds it at all.

 

The introductory paragraph should explain to your reader exactly what you intend to do in the paper.  It should also try to gain the reader’s interest by displaying the importance of the topic.  You should state in a very general way what your conclusion or conclusions are.

 

In the body you present your various arguments for the conclusion or conclusions that you draw.  It is important to define the relevant terms.  It is always useful to consider viewpoints contrary to your own, to the extent that space allows for it, and to give a reason for why you rejects them.  In regard to some topics, you yourself may argue both that something is good in one way for reason X, but bad in another way for reason Y.  Being one-sided is a huge flaw in a philosophy paper.

 

The concluding paragraph should mirror the opening paragraph, except now you can summarize why you conclude what you conclude, as your reader will now readily follow what you are talking about.

 

[     ] Title was missing or inappropriate

[   ] YOU DID NOT WRITE AN APPROPRIATE INTRODUCTORY PARAGRAPH – reread How to Write a Paper

[    ] YOU DID NOT WRITE AN APPROPRIATE CONCLUDING PARAGRAPH

[     ] YOU DID NOT DEFINE/DESCRIBE ONE OR MORE OF THE SOURCES IN TERMS OF IT BEING A SOURCE OF PHILOSOPHY.

[     ]  YOU DID NOT STAY ON TOPIC (The paper is not about the impact of electronic devices on human life in general, but on their impact on three specific sources of philosophy.)

[    ] YOU DID NOT GIVE PROS (THE BENEFITS) of electronic devices in regard to some or all of the sources.

[    ] YOU DID NOT GIVE CONS (THE NEGATIVES) of electronic devices in regard to some or all of the sources.

[    ] YOU DID NOT SUFFICIENTLY ADDRESS ONE OR MORE OF THE BELOW:

Is the answer that comes up on a search engine always true?

Even if it is true, in the case of a philosophical question, is it an answer for the person who googled it simple b/c s/he has read what comes up?

What has to be the case in order for a philosophical question to be an answer for you?

Tie the above in with the notion of double ignorance.

[     ] Answers to philosophical questions referred to as “information.”  “Information” is typically a contingent truth (one that could be other), such as where is the nearest Starbucks or how to change a print cartridge for a given printer (that Starbucks could close and that printer could have had another design).  Philosophy seeks to know unchanging truths concerning the nature of things and their causes.

[      ] Paper would be improved by additional reflections.

 

  1. Computer Science

Instruction

Briefly describe Windows PowerShell and Linux Shell scripts. Find or create a short PowerShell script or a Linux shell script. Briefly summarize what the script does. Then, post the script as text in your answer and a screenshot of the output after running the script. If you find it somewhere, please give the source (e.g. URL) of your finding and author name if available.

Write about 150-200 words Provide citations and references for any sources

 

  1. Business

Instruction

Marketing Case Analysis Paper- This assignment requires an analysis of a case (stated in the textbook). All of the requirements on the rubric needs to be addressed in the analysis. I will provide the rubric and screenshots of the case analysis once I assignment the homework.

  1. Religious Studies

Writing Instructions:

 

Your journal will have three sections:

 

  1.  Introduction: (about two pages/600 words).  This should contain a brief description of the storyline of which this meditation is a part.  Answer the five basic questions of meaning regarding your meditation experience:
  2. Where do you come from?
  3. Where do you want to go?
  4. What obstacles must you overcome to get there?
  5. What is your plan to do that?
  6. What kind of help can you expect?

 

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  1. Meditating:  Ideally, you need to meditate for about 25 minutes once a day, for a period of seven days.  If you miss a day, or cut short the time, you will need to add it later.  You can break these up in the beginning but you need to aim for doing twenty-five minutes at one time.  I do not advise doing any one sitting for longer than that.  If you want to go longer, alternate the sitting meditations with walking meditations.

 

III.      Journal Entries:  Don’t wait!  Immediately after every sitting, write at least two hundred words detailing your experience.  All you really need to do is make some notes which you can polish later, but get them down as soon as you can!

 

As much as possible, just report your actions, thoughts and feelings, as clearly and as accurately as possible.  Pay special attention to the physical sensations that go with the thoughts and emotions, and the thoughts and emotions that go with the physical sensations.  Also note the changes in your body, mind, emotions, etc. that went on during the meditation.  Until you get all these into your notes, avoid interpretation.  Time spent interpreting these should be reserved for later, at least until you get the bare experience recorded in your notes.

 

The following questions are meant to prompt your recollection for journal entries.  You need not answer all of them in every journal entry, nor to exclude other questions and concerns:

 

  1. What was your state of mind to begin?

 

  1. What exercises and actions did you take during the session, including changes from pervious meditations?

 

  1. What did you find most difficult?

 

  1. What changes took place in your mental and physical state?

 

  1. To what extent was your meditation dominated by particular thoughts, images, feelings, etc?

 

  1. What insights or inspirations did you experience?

 

  1. What memories and associations came through your steam of consciousness?

 

  1. Conclusion: (300-500 words) This section should consist of three parts:

 

  1. Answer all the same questions that you did in the introduction, but now from hindsight interpreting what actually happened. Compare and contrast these two narratives.

 

  1. Briefly state how this experience corresponds to anything you encountered in the readings for class.

 

  1. Briefly state what you learned from meditating. What do you know now that you did not know before?  With what questions did this experience leave you?

 

  1. General

Instruction

In this essay, you will present your own Personal Philosophy of Success, identifying the On Course success strategies that you will use for years to come. This essay is your opportunity to write the script that will keep you on course to a rich, personally fulfilling life! (2-3 pages) An “A” paper will . . . Demonstrate the writer’s careful consideration of one or more On Course success strategies. Contain extensive support (examples, experiences, evidence, and/or explanation) for each strategy, and Show a commitment to excellence in preparation, including professional appearance and a command of Standard English.

 

  1. Judicial Activism

Instruction

Judicial Activism Write a 2-3 page, APA style paper on judicial activism. Present the arguments on both sides of the question as to whether judges should interpret or simply apply the Constitution. Research and provide more current examples (the current Supreme Court docket) and predict how you think the justices will decide. Then think about the idea that if one can predict the decisions of the justices on the Supreme Court–where does that leave the idea that no case is prejudged? Please include 2-3 references. Only one reference may be from an internet source (not Wikipedia) the other references must be located in the Grantham University Online Library. Only the body of the paper will count toward the page requirement. Include a title sheet. Please see the rubric below.

 

  1. Simio program

IMfgE. 565 -SYSTEMS SIMULATION

PROJECT Step 1

20 points

 

Objective: You are to conduct a simulation study of a system that includes one or two queues.  This will include the steps in the simulation study covered in class (hand out will be provided).  The goal of your study is to construct a valid simulation model of the system as it currently exists.  This will include the collection of data for use as input to your simulation.

Projects will be conducted in groups of two or three.  As an example, assume that we are modeling a queue(s) in the RSC bookstore and you have examined the system and chosen a queue or queues to be modeled.  In your analysis of the system keep in mind:

  1. a) The elements of a queuing system.
  2. b) Performance measures of a queuing system described in Chapter 2 of your ARENA text.

 

Turn in a report that includes the following:

1) Decide on the boundaries and limits of your system.  For now consider:

  1. a) Time – We are interested in the busiest time of the day. State beginning and end points?.  Is there a day of the week effect? i.e. Are some days busier than others?  If so, what days will you analyze?
  2. b) What are the physical entry and exit points to the system?
  3. c) What is the initial state of the system?

 

2) How much detail will you include?  Your level of detail depends upon the output.  You want to capture the essence of the system.  (Note: Since level of effort is a part of your grade, too little detail will result in a reduction in points)

  1. a) Are there different kinds of customers?
  2. b) What kinds of servers (manpower)?
  3. c)

 

3) Draw a logical diagram of the system. Include:

  1. a) What will be flowing through your system (food, customers, and money)?
  2. b) Where are the entry and exit points?
  3. c) Where are the servers (manpower)?

 

4) Construct a flow chart of the process.

5) What are the inputs to your systems (stochastic and deterministic)? List data to be collected.

6) How will you validate the system? i.e. Validation of the system will be performed using the number of customers that have gone through the system.

 

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IMfgE. 565 -SYSTEMS SIMULATION

 

PROJECT Step 1

SAMPLE

Goal: This project will model the checkout queue in the RSC bookstore.

 

System boundaries:

Time:

Look at one of the busiest times of the day: 4:30 – 5:30pm.  The system was inspected during weekdays only.  There was a day of week effect in that Fridays was least busy.  This study will only consider Mon. though Thurs.

Physical entry points:

Entrance and exits to the system are the natural entrance and exit points to the bookstore.

Initial state:

After several, days of observation, the state of the system was found to be busy with a few customers in the system (in service, in queues, in store).

Detail:

There are two types of customers:  customers that leave without buying anything (A), and customers that buy something (B).  There are 2 banks of cash registers, but a single queue feeding all of them, so this will be modeled as a FIFO.  There are 6 servers, and each customer will go to the next available server.

Logical Diagram:

RSC Book Store
Proportion of A and B customers.
Check out Queue
Time spent in system.
Processing time (time to service one customer).
6 servers
A
B
 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

B

 

Inter-arrival times.

 

 

 

 

Inut:

 

 

 

INPUT:

  1. Deterministic:
    1. Number of check out clerks = 6.
    2. Types of customers = 2 (A and B).
  2. Stochastic (data collection)
    1. Probability of customer type.
    2. Time between arrivals data.
    3. Time spent in bookstore.
    4. Processing time at check out counter.
    5. Time in system for Type B customers (validation data).

 

VALIDATION:  Validation of the system will be based on the time in the system for Type B customers.

 

 

 

 

Flow Chart:

 

  1. White Collar Crime

Instruction

White Collar Crime I Have to do What? This chapter discusses the differences between self-policing and traditional policing. In 1-2 pages, compare and contrast self- policing efforts with traditional policing efforts. In your opinion which model is better? Explain why.

 

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  1. PHI 101 Short paper assignment

Instruction

Metaphysics, epistemology, logic, ethics, and aesthetics are the major branches of philosophy. You need to write a brief paper about one of them. You need to do a little research and then describe in your paper what the branch of philosophy is AND why it’s important. Make your paper between 400 to 500 words. You need to cite at least one book or scholarly journal. No websites, wikis, or encyclopedias!! Submitting your assignment: 1) Write your essay in a word procession program. (Word, Google Docs, whatever fake thing Apple uses, etc…) 2) Then, copy the essay from the document, and paste it into the Blackboard “Text Submission” – “Write Submission” section. 3) Make sure that you save your original document. So, if anything goes wrong, you can resubmit. 4) Check the box to allow SafeAssign to check your work.

 

  1. Nursing Final Term Paper Nursing Theory Comparison (Major )Transcultural Nursing (formerly Culture-Care) – Madeleine Leininger (Middle Range)Marion Good & Shirley Moore – Acute Pain Management (Adults)

Instruction

Choose one grand nursing theory and one middle-range theory and have them approved by your instructor. Write an 10 page comparison paper based on your approved theories. Based on the reading assignment (McEwen & Wills, Theoretical Basis for Nursing, Theories, select a grand nursing theory. • After studying and analyzing the approved theory, write on this theory, which includes an overview of the theory and specific examples of how it could be applied in your own clinical setting. • After studying and analyzing the approved theory, write on this theory, which includes an overview of the theory and specific examples of how it could be applied in your own clinical setting. The following should be included: • An introduction, including an overview of both selected nursing theories • Background of the theories • Philosophical underpinnings of the theories • Major assumptions, concepts, and relationships • Clinical applications/usefulness/value to extending nursing science testability • Comparison of the use of both theories in nursing practice • Specific examples of how both theories could be applied in your specific clinical setting • Parsimony • Conclusion/Summary • References: Use the course text and a minimum of three additional sources, listed in APA (6th ed.) format The paper should be 8–10 pages long and based on instructor-approved theories. It should be typed in Times New Roman using 12-point font, and double-spaced with 1″ margins. APA format (6th ed.) must be used, including a properly formatted cover page and reference list. The proper use of headings in APA format is also required.

 

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  1. General

Instruction

Module 4

 

For this assignment, I want you to create a Windshield survey of your community.  This is to be a fun assignment and one I hope you will learn from. use your hometown!  The reason for this assignment is so you can learn and show us about where you grew up and how your environment and its resources affect your daily life.

 

 

Windshield surveys are a form of direct observation that involves making visual observations of a neighborhood or community while driving—literally “looking through the windshield.”

The purpose of the windshield survey is to gain a better understanding of the environment you are studying to provide insight to the resources available in a community. Specifically, windshield surveys allow for the observation of neighborhood boundaries, housing conditions, use of open spaces, shopping areas, schools, religious facilities, human services (such as hospitals and physician offices), modes of transportation, protective services (such as fire stations), and overall neighborhood life within the community. “Windshield” surveys can even be conducted on foot if a vehicle is not available. Here is a link to help you with understanding what I am wanting:

http://www.ehow.com/how_5006863_perform-windshield-survey.html

Perform a Windshield Survey of a community you choose.  With this assignment, I want you to learn more about your community, what is available and what you can give back to your community.  I also hope this will let you see from a “different perspective” what your community has to offer and any opportunities that you might find that are available from a job status in your community.

After you complete your survey, you will create a presentation about your experience.  So you will have at least two documents.  Here are some helpful tips to creating a ‘great’ presentation:

TIPS

Ø  You might want to take someone with you to be the ‘driver’ while you observe the community.

Ø  Take a digital camera.  You’ll want to get some photos to document what you find.  The pictures will also add value to your presentation.

Ø  Take a pad of paper and something to write with; you’ll want to stop and take some notes.

o   Make notes, but don’t get bogged down in the ‘details.’

Ø  You can interview someone in the community if you can’t find the information you want.

Ø  Stop and have something to eat or drink and observe what goes on around you.  Who is there? What are they talking about? What is the latest ‘buzz’ in the town?

Ø  If this is a community you know well, you’ll be challenged to NOT make a biased survey.  To avoid bias, you might want to go to the next town/community down the road and observe that community.

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Ø

 

Please use the following as criteria for both observing your “community of choice” and writing the final report.  This will be a paper different from your presentation.  No pictures will be in this paper only the data questioned below.

 

Paper:  (80 points) Label the paper with the heading you are discussing.

 

  1.  Boundaries (5 pts.) Identify the boundaries for the entire community. You can include a map, highlighting the city limits or just describe the location.
  2. Housing (5 pts.) How old are the houses.  Are they of particular style?  What materials are they made from? How well are the homes maintained? What kinds of multiple family dwellings exist (apartments, duplexes, and subsidized housing complexes)? Are there vacant houses? Is this an established community or is there a lot of new construction? Are there for-sale signs, for rent signs? What does the housing indicate about the income level of the residents?
  3. Signs of decay and/or pollution (5 pts.) Identify if there are poorly maintained homes, trash in streets, garbage-filled vacant land, etc. Describe any evidence of water, air, and/or ground pollution.
  4. Parks, recreational areas (5 pts.) Are there parks and/or playgrounds? Are they being used? What is their condition? What recreational areas or facilities were observed?
  5. Transportation (5 pts.) What forms of transportation do you see people using? Is public transportation available? How well are streets and highways maintained? Is there traffic congestion?
  6. Health and social service agencies (5 pts.) What social service agencies, including health care facilities, are in the area you surveyed? (MAP IT!)  What gaps in services did you observe?
  7. Economics (5 pts.) List the location, number, and type of industries you observe. Who are the major employers?
  8. Protective services (5 pts.) What evidence do you see of police and fire protection; sanitation services; water treatment plants?
  9.  Faith/Religion (5 pts.) List the number and types of religious facilities.
  10. Schools (5 pts.) List the location, type (e.g., private, public, vocational education), level (elementary, intermediate, middle school or junior high school, high school, college) and number of schools.
  11. General (5 pts.) Is there evidence of gangs (describe how you know whether there is gang activity present.)?  How do billboards/signs reflect information about character of the community (e.g., political affiliation, adult entertainment)? Describe the downtown area.  What cultural and ethnic groups are represented?
  12. Subjective feeling (5 pts.) How do you feel, being in the community? Do you feel comfortable? Are people friendly? Would this area be one in which you would live and/or work? Explain.
  13. Problem identification/ community needs (10 pts.) Based on your observations in the Windshield Survey, comprehensively identify any presenting problems (including gaps in service) in the community you surveyed. Be sure to identify problems.  You may want to talk to a few “key informants” or “gatekeepers” to help you with this.  This should be a detailed explanation of what you feel and others believe are problems in your community.  Reasons for non-growth?
  14. Community Strengths (10 pts.) Did you observe any community resources that may address identified problems? Develop a comprehensive list of all community strengths that you observed during your survey.  EVERY community has strengths!!  You might have to look hard, but they ARE THERE!!!This should also be a detailed explanation of what you feel and others believe are the Strengths of your community.

 

 

 

 

Module 4   Presentation Project – 40 points

 

The format for your presentation slide show should be:

  1. Introduction of your community (from Boundaries through General)
  2. Subjective feelings

III. Community needs

  1. Community assets/strengths – this is a great place to put in a photo of your communities point of pride! This could be a park, football field, local restaurant, etc.
  2. Conclusions

 

Make sure you use a presentation software that everyone can view.  .

 

You may make the presentation fancy or plain; you can use music or video; this is YOUR project and YOUR community of choice.  Have fun and make it your own. I want to see pictures of your community and only bulleted list of topics you want to discuss.

 

If the presentation is too long it will not upload correctly and you will have issues.  Limit the presentation to around 10-15 slides.

 

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  1. General

Instructions

 

Leader PowerPoint Using the guidelines provided, create a leadership PowerPoint. Grading Rubric Leader Experience: Summary in PowerPoint presentation summarizes learning experience (leader interview) with chosen leader, including 3-4 slides for each concept as follows: Content • Analyze the importance of the leader’s role to the organization and the effectiveness of the individual in the role • Relate insights and knowledge gained through the Learning experience to course and address the following concepts; (1) major role responsibilities, (2) personal leadership style of the chosen leader, (3) alignment of personal values with organization.

  1. General

Instruction

Teaching tool The Leadership Teaching Tool addresses an identified area of concern that the student has about a specific issue. Examples may include Healthy Patient Communications in the Prison System, Managing Conflict in a Critical Care Unit, Dealing with Stress while holding a Middle Management Position, Ensuring Quality Outcomes in Constrained Economic Times, etc The Teaching Tool will be in brochure format. Points will be assigned based upon the following criteria: Content • Introduce the issue being addressed, demographic data (statistics/numbers of people effected) and provide teaching information from health care providers in addressing this issue; i.e. enhancing communication, increasing quality of care, etc… (4 points) • Outline teaching interventions for this issue, the role of the healthcare provider; i.e. specific teaching interventions. (4 points) • Provide a minimum of two learning objectives at the beginning of the teaching tool

  1. Health Care

Instruction

Write a paper with evidenced based policy and reasoning explaining whether or not you believe that nurse practitioners should work independently. This would be with no physician neither signing off on anything nor supervising any of the nurse practitioner’s functions. If the NP is independent, then what would be the difference in the skills, functions, duties of the physician? Why do you feel this way? How could the present medical system go from its current state to one that functioned as in your world? Limited to 10 pages APA format

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  1. Algebra I

Instruction

Students need to complete one project and submit it before Friday of week 15. The official deadline for submission is Apr 12, 2019, before 9 PM. Format guidelines The project can be any topic in relation to algebra and its applications. However, it should NOT be on the material that is already covered in class. The students must select their own projects and articles. Important: No part of the project can be a copy and paste from anywhere, including the article under discussion (except the data and images, which need to be properly cited). If in doubt read https://ombud.msu.edu/academic-integrity/plagiarism-policy.html Turnitin has a built-in plagiarism tracker. Please use it to your advantage. The entire document should be written in APA format and should be between 4 to 10 pages in length not including images and the cover page. No extra wide margins are allowed. The margins should not be more than 1” in any direction. Choosing a topic Students must choose their own topics. Once the topic is chosen please post the topic in the following thread https://online.brooklinecollege.edu/mod/forum/view.php?id=539558 Start a new thread with the topic of your project as the subject line and post your topic in this thread. The same topic is not allowed for any two students. The student who posts a topic first gets it. Examples of viable projects: Mortgage rates Auto loan Compound interest Submission All papers should be submitted as a pdf file via the Turnitin module of Week 15. If any technical issues are encountered then contact your instructor asap. Rubric The following are the sections on which the project will be graded. A clear description of the objective of the article (20%) A clear description of the algebraic methods used (30%) Interpretation of the results (30%) Analysis of the conclusions of the article (20%) These 4 sections form the essential parts of any research article. The competence demonstrated in achieving the objective of each of these sections will be awarded accordingly. The rubric for each section and the article as a whole is 0 – Incoherent content, rambling on for pages, a clear indication of no work done, poorly chosen topic, a generic topic with no original content, copy paste from Wikipedia, a topic which is disallowed on grounds of being textbook material 1 – Some content, poorly researched, and hastily put together at the last minute 2 – Some research is done but the substance is still incoherent showing a lack of understanding 3 – Sufficient work is done, but the sections are not well-written and contain loose language and lack general cohesiveness 4 – Well researched and well-written. Minor typos, grammatical errors, lack of organization of the paper, too short a paper 5 – Excellent work, very well researched. Sections are clearly defined in terms of meaningful progress. The plan of the paper binds everything together in a cohesive manner This is applicable to each of the four sections and the whole article. So a total of 25 points possible. That will be scaled to 100 by multiplying by 4.

 

  1. Week 8 – Assignment: Interpret the Implications of Unethical Behavior

Instruction

Now is the time to compile all the concepts you have learned in this course into a comprehensive case study analysis. Assume you are an instructor presenting an unethical case study to your graduate students. Develop a PowerPoint presentation on a business of your choice. Be sure you include clear examples to support your findings. Please discuss unethical business actions that occurred from 2015 to present. Ensure to address the following key components for your student audience: Provide a brief historical summary of the organization. Identify and explain the unethical business practice examined. Reflect on ethical standards and why this practice was a violation of ethical behavior. Determine the influence of leadership in regards to this behavior. Explain any related cultural, environmental, and legal implications related to the behavior. Interpret the impact of the behavior on individuals, the organization, and society as a whole. Explain the outcome of the event, along with a comparison of the consequences (mention legal implications for the action). Determine the fairness of punishment. Explain your rationale using an ethical theory, as found in the recommended reading, to justify your rationale for the punishment’s fairness. Explain how organizational policies and procedures could be implemented to deter future occurrences like this from happening. Incorporate appropriate animations, transitions, and graphics as well as speaker notes for each slide. The speaker notes may be comprised of brief paragraphs or bulleted lists. Support your presentation with at least eight scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources may be included. Length: 15-20 slides (with a separate reference slide) Notes Length: 200-350 words for each slide Be sure to include citations for quotations and paraphrases with references in APA format and style where appropriate.

 

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  1. Week 7 – Assignment: Assess the Effectiveness of SOX Legislation

Instruction

This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions Prepare a paper in which you address the following: Identify and explain the key ethical components of SOX. Explain why financial fraud and abuse still occurs despite the passage of SOX. Recommend potential improvements of the SOX legislation based on your research. Recommend measures, beyond the scope of SOX, that organizations can implement to prevent financial statement fraud and abuse. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

 

  1. Week 6 – Assignment: The Organization’s Influence on Unethical Behavior

Instruction

This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions The assigned reading articles provide a great deal of information regarding the impact that organizational systems have on unethical behavior. For example, in the article by Kilduff et al. (2016), the researchers note that rivalry can often increase unethical behaviors. This week, you will explain how an organization’s culture (e.g., systems and practices) can unknowingly/unintentionally increase unethical behavior among employees. Explain the importance of organizational culture and codes of conduct in encouraging ethical behavior. Assess three organizational policies or practices, as found in the reading and outside research, which can increase unethical behavior among employees. Propose informal and formal system solutions to reduce unethical behavior in organizations. Explain the benefits of these system solutions, as well as possible implications for these solutions. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic.

 

  1. Week 5 – Assignment: Critique Ethical Issues Regarding Information Technology

Instruction

You have been hired as a consultant in the IT Department at Northcentral University. One of the University’s current goals is to minimize security threats and prevent breaches. To accomplish this, you have been asked to research last year’s “major hacks” to understand technology, information security measures, and issues in security management. Prepare a report for the IT supervisor that includes the following: Select one major incident to research regarding technological breaches. Identify the company that was affected, and then describe this incident and why you selected it. Explain the implications associated with this breach, specifically in terms of privacy laws and violations of the law. Analyze the impact that these technological breaches have on consumer safety and well-being. What recommendations would you make to this organization to further protect the privacy of clients? Support your report with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic

 

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  1. Computer Science

 

Instruction

  1. Data Analysis and Reporting Class: / Is SQL database / ERDs so you will use Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio inside the VMware Horizon client. You also will use Visual Studio 2017. Also, there’s reading quizzes and assignment quizzes. These class 8 weeks work, which means 8 assignments in SQL database / ERDs. 24 quizzes “I will support you will old papers for all quizzes” 2. Data Analysis/Visualization Class: / Is an Excel database and you will use excel 2016. Also, there’s an assignment project om SAM project website. Every week assignment which means 8 assignments. 3. Predictive Data Analysis Class: / Is an Excel database and you will use excel 2016 and you will Using R programing language for Introductory Econometrics by Florian Hess. Every week assignment which means 8 assignments. I will put the syllabus here and please read it carefully and tell me if you can handle the whole classes or not. please note if you cannot take the responsibility or you’re not the right person I’m looking for please ignore this announcement. I don’t want to waste my time again! That’s all. Before you do anything READ the syllabus 1,2,3. These classes will end on May 6. So, it’s only 2 months’ work.

53 . 300-Word Philosophy Essays

Instruction

Instruction

For every 300-400 word essay. Each essay is addressing two different questions to be answered. It should not be hard at all for someone who understands philosophy. If the essays are well written I might have some other things you could help me with for the class if you’re interested.

 

  1. Health Care

Instruction

There are seven components to this paper. They follow the EBP process. You will combine all the components into one project. See attachment.

Research Methods & Evidence-Based Practice Project PICOT QUESTION: In the primary care setting, does clustering care during (acute visits) increase patient satisfaction (%) while decreasing office wait time ?

 

  1. Psychology

Instruction

Each student will be required to submit one reflection paper. For this paper, you will choose any phenomenon and explain its development from the perspective of at least 2 theories that have been presented in class powerpoint notes or in assigned reading from the text. For example, if you have noticed that a small child you know seems to always want to be near his or her mother, you could attempt to explain why this may be based on the behavioral and cognitive developmental perspectives.

 

Providing only a summary of an experience or observed phenomenon will NOT meet the requirements for the reflection paper; instead, each student MUST demonstrate that he/she can explain the chosen phenomenon using theoretical perspectives discussed in the course material to receive partial/full points for this portion of the course grade. Examples of theoretical perspectives you may choose include: behaviorism (classical and/or operant conditioning), Freud’s psychoanalytic theory, Piaget’s cognitive

 

  1. Economics

Instruction

You must have access to the MSExcel and R to complete the course assignments. Course Description: Students will apply analytical techniques informed by economic theory and probability theory to solve real-life practical problems taken from a diverse set of applications such as anticipating behavioral outcomes and estimating worst-case scenarios. • How will a change in price affect quantity demanded for a given product? • How many citizens will participate in a government program (e.g. health care reform)? • What is the likely range of financial outcomes for a specific firm or industry? • How many customers will call a support service during a given period? These questions and more will be addressed. Business students interested in any quantitative discipline will find this course useful. Course Objectives: After successfully completing the course, the student will be able to: • Apply the fundamental theories of probability in a business context • Use mathematical and statistical tools to value, summarize, and analyze various outcomes • Forecast the timing and level of various outcomes using advanced regression techniques and time series models (ARIMA). • Use Quantile Regression to look at distributional outcomes • Evaluate, critique, and comment on the assumptions made and the mathematical techniques used to analyze various problems. • Develop significant computer spreadsheet skills by implementing the theory discussed in class. • Conduct advanced data analysis using a script-based analysis tool (R).

 

  1. Writing a Python script to implement computer animation tools within Autodesk Maya

Instruction

– Resetting the software package, i.e. only one instance of the tool is allowed to be open. – Creating geometric objects, more specifically boxes (of user input dimensions and locations) and spheres (of user input radii and locations). – Creating an appropriate interface to allow a user to interact with the created objects. This should be shown by demonstrating the application of geometric transformations, more specifically translations by user input (along with the x, y, and z-axes) and rotations by a user input angle (around the x, y, and z-axes). – Exiting the tool. The attached file is an example of what it should look like.

 

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  1. Psychology Homework

Develop a research question on any of these topics only pick one of these. they are  1.attention, 2.learning, 3.memory, 4.language, or 5.decision making),

Revisit the Module One Areas of Interest and Practical Applications in Cognitive Psychology discussion topic, where you examined your interests, potential problems, and applied settings related to cognitive psychology. Building on those conversations, draft a topic suggestion by identifying your particular area of interest in cognitive psychology (attention, learning, memory, language, or decision making), select an applied setting (education, law, mental health, or technology), and describe the contemporary problem as it relates to your topic and setting. Last, draft three potential research questions that explore potential improvements related to your topic and the applied setting.

For example, if you suggested the topic of attention and online students, the applied setting would be education, and you might develop the following research questions:

  • How does multitasking while studying (e.g., listening to music while reading, or texting while reading) influence attention to course material?
  • How do individuals with ADHD perform in an online learning environment, and what strategies can help them succeed?
  • What strategies can teachers and students use to increase attention to relevant material in an online course?

The instructor will provide feedback on your topic submission and make recommendations as to which research question is most feasible to pursue, given the parameters of the final project.

59.Big Data

Compare and contrast five clustering algorithms on your own. Provide real-world examples to explain any one of the clustering algorithm. In other words, how is an algorithm beneficial for a process, industry or organization.

What clustering Algorithms are good for big data? Explain your rationale?

Please locate and review an article relevant to Chapter 4. The review is between 200-to-250 words and should summarize the article. Please include how it applies to our topic, and why you found it interesting.

 

– Please write in APA Style and include at least three (3) reputable sources. (No Plagiarism)


  1. Engineering Homework

SWOT Analysis

SWOT analysis is acronym of strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats.  SWOT analysis reveals what factors or forces work in favor or against the company on the market. These factors can be internal or external, or both.  Your assignment is to complete a SWOT of the 3 companies from your previous assignment.  You should complete this assignment in Power Point.  I would also like you to add a company overview slide before each company’s SWOT analysis.  You can use bullets or a grid for the SWOT – do what is easy for you.  I’m look for a visually appealing, but concise presentations.  In the company overview cover:

  1. Company Name
  2. Summary of what they do
  3. Number of Employees
  4. Location of Company
  5. CEO and a little of his background

Please keep this overview slide concise – I’m looking for a high-level overview followed by a SWOT analysis.


  1. Week 1 – Assignment 2

Sustainable Living Guide Contributions, Part 1 of 4: Sustaining Biodiversity and Ecosystems

[WLO: 2] [CLOs: 2, 3, 4, 5, 6]

Prior to beginning work on this assignment, read Chapters 1 and 4 in the Turk and Bensel’s Contemporary Environmental Issues textbook (2014).

The purpose of this assignment is twofold: first, to enable you to explore a term (concept, technique, place, etc.) related to this week’s theme of sustaining Earth’s biodiversity and ecosystems; second, to provide your first contribution to a collective project, the Class Sustainable Living Guide. Your work this week, and in the weeks that follow, will be gathered (along with that of your peers) into a master document you will receive a few days after the end of the course. The document will provide everyone with a variety of ideas for how we can all live more sustainably in our homes and communities.

To complete this assignment, you will

  • Select a term from the list of choices in the Week 1 – Term Selection. Reply to the forum with the term that you would like to research. Do not select a term that a classmate has already chosen. No two students will be researching the same topic.
  • Download the Week 1 Assignment Template and replace the guiding text with your own words based upon your online research. Please do not include a cover page. All references, however, should be cited in your work and listed at the end, following APA format expectations.

In the template, you will

  • Define the term thoroughly.
  • Clearly relate the term to the week’s theme.
  • Explain how the term affects living things and the physical world.
  • Relate the term to the challenge of achieving environmental sustainability.
  • Justify if the term represents an obstacle to that goal, or perhaps a technique or technology that might promote it.
  • Suggest two specific actions we can take to promote sustainability in relationship to this term.
  • Provide detailed examples to support your ideas.

Please do not include a cover page, or even place your name directly on the work. In addition to submitting this assignment to Waypoint, you will also be submitting it for anonymous peer review by classmates in Week 2.

The Sustaining Biodiversity and Ecosystems assignment

  1. Marketing

If abc has total dealers =350

Out of which 50 are exclusive dealers and sales per ecxlusive dealer is =$6.44 million

Whereas 300 are non-exclusive dealers sales per nonexclusive dealer is =$9.2k

How effectively does ABC compete in exclusive dealerships? Compare with served market data.

 

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  1. IEP Lesson Development Using Evidence-Based Strategies

We have been working with Huang throughout this course. As we continue to develop his IEP, an important component of developing this plan is to identify the EBP strategies that can be used to target each goal and objective of the program. When EBP instructional strategies are determined, they can be incorporated into lesson design and planning.

Instructions:

  • Select one of the goals that you developed for Huang in Week Two.
  • Use the What Works Clearinghouse (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. or some other source to find an evidence-based strategy for teaching the selected goal.
  • Create a sample lesson plan that can be provided to Mr. Franklin that targets the selected goal for Huang and other classmates using differentiation strategies to individualize the lesson, as well as accommodations and/or modifications. You may use one of these provided formats (Lesson Plan Sample 1 or Lesson Plan Sample 2) or use a format that you are already familiar with using.

The IEP Lesson Development Using Evidence-Based Strategies paper

  • Must be two to three double-spaced pages in length (not including title and references pages) and formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site..
  • Must include a separate title page with the following:
    • APA heading/page numbers
    • Title of paper
    • Student’s name
    • Course name and number
    • Instructor’s name
    • Date submitted
  • Must use at least two scholarly sources in addition to the course text.
  • Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
  • Must include a separate references page that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
  • Recommend using APA level headings to organize your work.
  1. Nursing Paper

A seven (7) page APA style paper on Quality and Safety in Nursing.

Must have a minimum three (3) peer review articles Published within the last 10 years, referenced in the paper.

Must be typed and double spaced.

The main body of the paper must be a minimum 4 pages in length.

The peer review articles that are using must be attached to the paper as an appendix. And provide a reference page.

Please upload the link for the article so that I can print it out. Please do not use Wikipedia! 

  1. Nursing Paper

APA paper 2 pages in length excluding cover page to include a minimum of one reference. Label each topic

Introduction– Define what philosophy means to you.

-Describe your personal philosophy for nursing profession.

-Describe influential experiences which impacted your decision to pursue nursing as a profession.

-Describe your professional goals

-Define what health and wellness means to you

-Conclusion

Please make sure to include proper grammer, proper word use, punctuation, sentence composition, paragraph development, sentence clarity, spelling.logical and clear essay development: easily readable(Use heading). APA style as appropriate for referencing and format and reference.

 

  1. Discussion Questions

Need the following in 150 word minimum and if references used cited in APA format.

 

  1.  What four criteria are used to define a trait as positive?
  2.  What differences led Lyubomirsky to conclude that happy and unhappy people live in separate worlds?
  3. What is the value of self-esteem as a general life outlook and a coping resource?
  4. What is the value of self-esteem as a general life outlook and a coping resource?
  5. Relationships Brochure

Create a brochure in which you communicate the following to engaged couples:

  • 1. The effect of intimate relationships on wellbeing
  • 2. Strategies to maintain healthy relationships
  1. Information Technology

The United States Supreme Court denied a petition for certiorari (refused to review the lower court’s ruling) in the case of Authors Guild v. Google, Inc., 804 F. 3d 202 – Court of Appeals, 2nd Circuit 2015.

Tell me what you would do if you were the Supreme Court.

That case let stand the ruling of the Court of Appeals which can be found at the following website:

https://scholar.google.com/scholar_case?case=2220742578695593916&q=Authors+Guild+v.+Google+Inc&hl=en&as_sdt=4000006  last accessed February 9, 2019.

Please write a 500-word summary of fair use as this court decision says it.

  1. Week 1 – Assignment 1

Stream Morphology Laboratory

[WLO: 1] [CLOs: 1, 3, 5]

This lab enables you to construct a physical scale model of a stream system to help you understand how streams and rivers shape the landscape, and how human actions can affect river ecosystems. This lab is done with materials that you will need to supply; the list of items you will need to obtain is in the Stream Morphology Investigation Manual.

The Process:

Take the required photos and complete all parts of the assignment (calculations, data tables, etc.). On the “Lab Worksheet,” answer all of the questions in the “Lab Questions” section. Finally, transfer all of your answers and visual elements from the “Lab Worksheet” into the “Lab Report.” You will submit both the “Lab Report” and the “Lab Worksheet” to Waypoint.

The Assignment:

Make sure to complete all of the following items before submission:

  • Before you begin the assignment, read the Stream Morphology Investigation Manual and review The Scientific Method (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. presentation video.
  • Complete Activity 1 and Activity 2 using the materials that you supply. Photograph each activity following these instructions:
    • When taking lab photos, you need to include in each image a strip of paper with your name and the date clearly written on it.
  • Complete all parts of the Week 1 Lab Worksheet and answer all of the questions in the “Lab Questions” section.
  • Transfer your responses to the lab questions and the data tables and your photos from the “Lab Worksheet” into the Lab Report Template.
  • Submit your completed “Lab Report” and “Lab Worksheet” through Waypoint.
  1. Answer (8-9 Sentences)

Compare contrast the stages of Erikson and Piaget. How would you take these stages into consideration while doing your job as a parent or teachers?

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  1. APA Paper

APA paper 2 pages in length excluding cover page to include a minimum of one reference.

 Label each topic (Subheadings)

Introduction: Define what philosophy means to you.

-Describe your personal philosophy for nursing profession.

-Describe influential experiences which impacted your decision to pursue nursing as a profession.

-Describe your professional goals

-Define what health and wellness means to you

-Conclusion

 

Please make sure to include proper grammar, proper word use, punctuation, sentence composition, paragraph development, sentence clarity, and spelling. Logical and clear essay development: easily readable (Use heading). APA style as appropriate for referencing and format and reference.

  1. Discussion Topic (Mapping Cloud Security Controls To Existing Frameworks Or Regulations.)

This discussion focuses on mapping cloud security controls to existing frameworks or regulations.

You will need to create 1 new thread AND post AT LEAST 2 comments on other students’ threads. Here’s how to get started:

Download the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix spreadsheet. (A quick Internet search should give you the address of the most current version for download.) Under the “Scope Applicability” heading, select a category that is applicable to the organization for which you work. For example, if your organization handle personal medical data and uses the COBIT framework, you could choose either COBIT or HIPAA/HITECH. Once you select a category, choose  row from “Control Domain” (that no other student has already selected!) Then, create a new thread in this week’s discussion with the title from column B (i.e. CCM V3.0 Control ID.) Explain the control domain, how it maps to your chosen scope, and specifically what your organization does to implement the stated control.

If you don’t know which scope applies to your organization, just use the University of the Cumberlands (UC) as your organization. As a university, we are under the domain of FERPA, So, is you choose UC, you would need to choose a Control Domain and explain how it maps to FERPA, and how UC implements the controls.

So, here’s an example. Let’s suppose I work for a large on-line retailer. We handle payment cards and are therefore under PCI DSS requirements. I’ll select BCR-03 control ID (Business Continuity Planning.) So I would create a new thread in this week’s discussion with the title “BCR-03.” Then I’d explain what BCR-03 is, what it maps to in PCI DSS (4.1, 4.1.1, 9.1, 9.2), and then I’d explain what my organization does to comply with this control requirement.

Once you create your new thread, you need to find AT LEAST 2 other threads from other students and comment on their threads. Make sure your comments are more than “I agree”, or “Good post.”

Points:  3

  1. ACCOUNTING HOMEWORK

This assessment includes two parts. Use the templates provided as you complete each part. Both of the templates are linked in the Resources under the Required Resources heading. Note that for Part 2 you will use the template for data but will create your own document to submit.

Part 1: Ratio Analysis

Making sense of accounting data on financial statements can be difficult. Thankfully, combining numbers from income statements, balance sheets, and other data provides a starting point to analyze a company’s financial results. You now have the opportunity to demonstrate your prowess by identifying and computing financial ratios.

Using the Assessment 5, Part 1 Template, analyze and compute the necessary financial ratios. The Financial Statements worksheet in the template contains the income statement, balance sheets, and additional information needed. The Ratio Analysis worksheet contains space for your calculations and answers.

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Part 2: Interpreting Financial Statement Analysis

What does the calculation of a financial statement ratio represent? How does one year compare to another? Is there a trend to the ratio data? Is the trend positive or negative? What can be done to change the trend? These are some of the questions that can be answered when the ratio data is interpreted. For this part of the assessment, demonstrate your ability to interpret the results of a multi-year financial ratio analysis.

On the Assessment 5, Part 2 Template you will find selected ratios for a company over a two-year period. Compare the ratios, and in a separate document (Word or Excel), submit your answers to the following questions:

  1. What does the calculation of each ratio represent?
  2. How does year one compare with year two, and what trend can be seen when you compare the two years?
  3. Is the trend from year one to year two positive or negative?
  4. What are the possible reasons for the trend?
  5. What recommendations do you have for turning a negative trend to a positive trend?

Submit the completed template for Part 1 and the document you created with answers to the questions for Part 2 for this assessment.

  1. Strategic Plan Part 3: Organizational Chart and Operations Chart

For the Strategic Plan assignment, you will work throughout the course to create a market entry plan (entrepreneurial), a market expansion plan for an existing organization, or a mergers and acquisitions plan that seeks to increase your organization’s competitive advantage.

Complete Part 3 of the Strategic Plan assignment according to the directions in the Part 3: Organizational Chart and Operations Chart section of the “Strategic Plan” resource.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

75.Social Determinants Of Health In Teenagers In Liberty City Miami,FI

Hi I need a paper on the social determinants of health in teenagers in Liberty City, Miami Florida.. the paper must talk about the social determinants of health in teenagers. this is a paper for my nursing class and the information will be used in a powerpoint. the social determinants of health that should be included in this paper include:

-neighborhood and health environment

-economic stability

– health and health care services

-education

-and others as applicable

PLEASE MAKE SURE IS BASE IN LIBERTY CITY MIAMI FLORIDA AND IS ON TEENAGERS.. ALSO PAPER MUST BE APA AND NO PLAGIARISM  SHOULD BE MAX 3 PAGES MINIMUN 2. MUST HAVE THE REFERENCE PAGE.

  1. Incidence And Health Care Access Of Teenagers In Liberty City

I need a paper on the incidence and health care access of teenagers in Liberty City Miami, Fl. This is a research that must be done so that the information can be put into a PowerPoint. I need at least 2 pages of information and it should be double spaced and follow proper apa 6th edition format. Thank you

  1. Pathophysiology Disease Paper and Presentation Congestive Heart Failure

Here are the guidelines for the patho paper you will be writing.

Pathophysiology Disease Paper and Presentation Congestive heart failure

For this assignment you will need to write a 3-page paper (not including title page or bibliography) and give a 5-10 minute presentation to the class on your topic. Make sure to create a concept map to hand out to the class that includes the information stated below. Please add some creativity to your presentation.

In your presentation you will need to include the following and create a concept map as well:

Pathophysiology of the disease process

Etiology of the disease process

Signs and symptoms (manifestations) of the disease process

Treatment of the disease process

Diagnostic test

1-2 nursing diagnosis with interventions

One NCLEX-type question for the class

One interesting piece of information about your disease process found from a reputable source outside of your textbook (this should be included as a citation in your paper. It should also be included on your reference page at the end of your paper).

  1. Discussion Question with 400 Words In APA Format With No Plagarism With References

 

Data/Information/Knowledge

  1. Discuss the relationship between data, information, and knowledge. Support your discussion with at least 3 academically reviewed articles.
  2. Why do organization have information deficiency problem? Suggest ways organizations can overcome information deficiency problems.

 

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  1. Unit VI Scholarly Activity

In the following assignment, you will be given two different questions concerning the material covered in this unit. Each question should be answered using a minimum of 250 words. Any resources, including your textbook, that are utilized to answer the questions should be cited and referenced using APA formatting. A template has been provided here for you to use to answer the questions. Enter your answers into the template, and upload the template into the assignment area within Blackboard. The questions you will be answering are shown below (and in the template).

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) currently has a permissible exposure limit (PEL) for noise of 90 dBA at an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA) exposure with an action level of 50% of that exposure. OSHA uses a 5 dB exchange rate (doubling rate); this means that if the exposure increases from 90 dBA to 95 dBA, the allowed exposure time decreases to one-half—from 8 hours to 4 hours.

The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) and the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH) recommend using an exposure limit of 85 dBA instead of 90 dBA and also recommend using a 3 dB exchange rate. These levels are much more protective than the levels currently used by OSHA.

Discuss the merits of each of the two methods. Provide your opinion as to which of the approaches you believe should be used. Support your answer with at least one professional/scholarly reference.

OSHA does not currently have a regulation specifically covering ergonomic issues. OSHA has issued several guidelines for some specific industries. Consider a workplace you are familiar with where there is a potential for repetitive motion injuries.

Discuss what methods you would use to identify tasks that would present the greatest risk for repetitive motion injuries. How would you establish an ergonomics program to address the issues? What would be the greatest obstacles in establishing the ergonomics program?

  1. Entrance Essay Writing

Only imagine: hundreds of students applying to various schools where the approval committee is tired of checking the same papers! Now think a bit what can be done to make the committee regard your entrance essay as the most impressive one?

  1. Entrance essay performs you as a person and as a student;
  2. Entrance essay shows your writing skills: it reveals your abilities to write in a clear, concise and structured way;
  3. Entrance essay shows how creative and inventive you are;
  4. Entrance essay shows your burning and sincere desire to enroll to this very school, college or university;
  5. Entrance essay informs the committee on the way their institution may benefit from you;
  6. Entrance essay is your last resort; make sure it is memorable and impressive.
  7. Entrance Essays: Advice to Win
  8. Set teeth for the essay writing process;
  9. Forget about every day problems;
  10. Find some quiet spot;
  11. Brainstorm ideas and approaches;
  12. Write several drafts;
  13. Experiment with different beginnings and conclusions;
  14. Study the entrance essay requirements you have to follow. Make sure you meet all of them;

Study the topic suggested (as a rule, this is some question to answer), if some misunderstanding tortures you, do not hesitate to consult your committee or website that writes essays.

Focus on the topic suggested: support your ideas with concrete arguments;

Use clear transitions within the paragraphs and the entire entrance essay;

Do not lie –speak about the achievements you truly have only and give a critical evaluation of your negative traits which need improvement.

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Do not let your entrance essay be another one in the dump of papers; let it be a constituent part of your entrance success!

And:

Sample Statement of Purpose Essays: Your Best Opportunity to Prepare

What is the gist of the essay called “statement of purpose”? Why is it of great importance to every student? Well, in other words, statement of purpose essays can be defined as mere college application essays. And, you definitely know that it is a critically important part of the application process.

All students who write a statement of purpose essay have one common question “What makes statement of purpose essays effective and unique?” A good way to find this out is to put yourself into the shoes of admission officers. In their place, what would you like to see in the statement of purpose essays?

I can briefly explain you what qualities the adcom appreciates and what they want to read about in the statement of purpose essays.

Your enthusiasm about studies (sure, they do not need students who will do nothing);

Your ability to work in a team (or, your ability to communicate and cooperate with others);

Your independent thinking (they need guys with good thinking and analytical skills);

Your creativity, etc.

It is a kind of psychological portrait that an applicant should create in his/her statement of purpose essay. However, everything is not that easy with this portrait. You cannot just list your good qualities. That is why we strongly recommend you start with an analysis of the statement of purpose sample essays and check how everything works in reality. Carefully read past sample statement of purpose essays and check how successful applicants did the following:

emphasized their talents and uniqueness;

talked about their weak sides;

provided examples that supported and proved things they described.

In other words, statement of purpose essay samples will help you understand what a good application is and is not.

  1. Discussion Board 150 To 200 Words

As discussed in the Unit VI Lesson, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) published a final ergonomics program standard on November 14, 2000, which took effect January 16, 2001. Congress passed Senate Joint Resolution 6, which rescinded the original ergonomics rule that, under the Congressional Review Act, prohibited OSHA from issuing a rule that is substantially the same as the former one. Since 2001, OSHA has issued several ergonomics guidelines for some specific industries, and OSHA can cite ergonomic hazards only under the General Duty Clause.
What are your thoughts about the way Congress rescinded the original ergonomics rule and how OSHA currently regulates ergonomic hazards in the workplace?

  1. English homework

Provide substantive content and formatting feedback for a classmate’s expository essay.   You are being asked to act as an interested reader and respond to the draft as a reader. You need to consider the following question: How can I provide quality feedback that will help my peer when he/she is making revisions?

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  1. OPERATIONS FORCE MANAGEMENT RESTRUCTURING

IN 500 words complete a project management plan for

 OPERATIONS FORCE MANAGEMENT RESTRUCTURING  

Must utilize the PMP Concepts: The 5 Project Management Steps

  • Step 1: Initiation.
  • Step 2: Planning. ..
  • Step 3: Execution. …
  • Step 4: Monitoring and Controlling. …
  • Step 5: Closure.
  • Reference page not needed and cannot count , own words
  1. Reading Reflection

Question:

Herman and Chomsky critique media being in too few corporate hands. Is the democratization of information offered by the internet better or worse? In what ways?

 

12 font single space

Up to 3/4 page but no more than one page

  1. Information Silos

Scenario: A company called Colony Nursery and Landscaping opened a new store   located a few hundred miles away from its original location. The company wants   to implement an award system that awards their customers with points whenever   customers make a purchase, but the two stores are not able to share  information.  Colony Nursery and Landscaping will need to implement an  enterprise resource  planning (ERP) system that will solve the information silo  problem by collecting  and making this user data available. Colony Nursery and  Landscaping is hoping  that by providing customers with this award system, they  will be able to  maintain competitive advantage. Colony Nursery and Landscaping  cannot afford to  purchase, develop, or maintain this system on-site, so they  are investigating  cloud solutions.

 

In addition, for many organizations, Colony Nursery and Landscaping included,  information silos make it difficult to tap into needed information. Discuss   whether or not the problem of information silos can be solved by using the   cloud. Some organizations do not have the resources to construct or maintain   their computer infrastructure, so they utilize cloud services instead to reduce   costs and improve scalability. In this assignment, you will discuss whether or   not the cloud offers solutions for Colony Nursery and Landscaping and identify   an application that the ERP system could provide. Compose an essay that  includes  the elements listed below.

 

Define what an information silo is.

Explain why information silos are a problem for organizations.

Discuss why organizations are moving to the cloud.

Determine whether or not using cloud services, such as a cloud-based host       for data storage, would solve the ERP information silo problem at Colony       Nursery and Landscaping.

Explain how using the ERP system and awards program would provide a       competitive advantage for Colony Nursery and Landscaping.

Discuss why the implementation of an ERP system might require business       process reengineering for Colony Nursery and Landscaping. Be sure to explain       the business processes that will be affected (e.g., the customer awards       system). Use diagrams or tables as needed, but this is not required.

 

Your essay must be a minimum of two pages in length (not counting the title   and reference pages), and it must be formatted in APA style. You should include   an introduction section that gives background and context to your reader. You   must use at least two scholarly resources as references. Any information from   these resources must be cited and referenced in APA format.

  1. African Perspectives on Slavery and Freedom

Assignment 2:

African Perspectives on Slavery and Freedom: Movie and Text Review (1000 words) 6 Intro: This unit looks at African perspectives of “slavery” and “freedom” through primary sources, African film, and documentaries. It shows why historians have called for other scholars and students to understand slavery as a phenomenon shaped by time and place—whether the murkiness of categories such as “slave” and “free

” or African bonds-peoples’ contributions to economic, political, and cultural life in Atlantic and Indian Ocean worlds. In particular, the unit asks you to set your assumptions about slavery and its opposite (freedom or autonomy) aside in order to understand these terms’ ironic histories from the experiences of enslaved Africans and their descendants. 

Prompt: How have primary and secondary sources from this unit challenged the way your approach histories of enslavement from you own upbringing? Your answer need not take on everything in the unit. For example, you may choose to emphasize the limits of the slave/free dichotomy for understanding texts like Bakari’s “Of Slavery” and the movie, “Adanggaman,” or you may choose to look at Africans’ contributions to the Atlantic world. Regardless of your choice, all papers must show an understanding of slavery’s variations over time and place to receive a C or above. The movie, “Adanggaman,” provides clear examples of slavery’s changing and nature, and therefore, each paper must situate it correctly in historical context.

87. Develop A Research Question On Any Of These Topics Only Pick One Of These. They Are 1.Attention, 2.Learning, 3.Memory, 4.Language, Or 5.Decision Making),

Develop a research question on any of these topics only pick one of these. they are  1.attention, 2.learning, 3.memory, 4.language, or 5.decision making),

Revisit the Module One Areas of Interest and Practical Applications in Cognitive Psychology discussion topic, where you examined your interests, potential problems, and applied settings related to cognitive psychology. Building on those conversations, draft a topic suggestion by identifying your particular area of interest in cognitive psychology (attention, learning, memory, language, or decision making), select an applied setting (education, law, mental health, or technology), and describe the contemporary problem as it relates to your topic and setting. Last, draft three potential research questions that explore potential improvements related to your topic and the applied setting.

For example, if you suggested the topic of attention and online students, the applied setting would be education, and you might develop the following research questions:

  • How does multitasking while studying (e.g., listening to music while reading, or texting while reading) influence attention to course material?
  • How do individuals with ADHD perform in an online learning environment, and what strategies can help them succeed?
  • What strategies can teachers and students use to increase attention to relevant material in an online course?

 

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The instructor will provide feedback on your topic submission and make recommendations as to which research question is most feasible to pursue, given the parameters of the final project.

88. Article Summary

Choose an article with a min. 250 words and write a summary. length  should depend on length of article 

 

89. Psychology Homework

Define the following assessments and provide an example when each should be used:

  1. Forensic assessment
  2. Therapeutic assessment
  3. Psychological assessment
  4. Personality assessment

Remember to not go over the max words. no more than 250 words. 

 

TEXT REFERENCE CHAPTERS 11, 12, and 14 this week 

 

Cohen, R. J.& Swerdlik,ME.(2018). Psychological testing and assessment (9th ed.). New York, NY: McGraw-Hill Companies. ISBN: 9781259870507

90. Psychology Homework

#1.  Why is it important for counselors and other behavioral health professionals to become familiar with the use of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5)? How can use of the DSM’s cross-cutting symptom measures aid counselors in clinical diagnosing? 

 

Remember to not go over the max words. no more than 250 words. 

 TEXT REFERENCE cHAPTERS 11, 12, and 14 this week 

Cohen, R. J. & Swerdlik, M. E.(2018). Psychological testing and assessment (9th ed.). New York, NY: McGraw-Hill Companies. ISBN: 9781259870507

 

91. Business Assignment

·  Problem Statement

·  New Product Idea

·  Publically Traded Company who will own your innovation

Statement of the Problem.Identify how you arrived at the problem, taking between 300 (minimum) to 500 (maximum) words.  You will address questions such as the following: Does the problem have a commonly identifiable name?  Is there a root cause of the problem (i.e. obesity for type II diabetes)? How do people currently solve this problem (living with it is a solution, but generally not a pleasant one)?  Are people actively seeking out solutions, and do they understand clearly the problem they have? What is it about their current solutions that are not very attractive? 

Introduction of the Company.Tell us about the company that you have selected. Make sure your company is publically traded, to ensure you have sufficient information to complete the assignment moving forward. Any exceptions to using a publically traded company must be approved in advance, by the instructor. Provide a company overview (Business Source Complete). Where is the company headquartered? How many employees do they have? What is their stock market ticker symbol? Starbucks is a publically traded company on the NASDAQ Ticker SBUX.Include a SWOT analysis on the publically traded company that employs your team. The SWOT should be in a matrix format and summarized in your own words how the various parts impact your idea. 

Is your team struggling with a new product/service idea?Reviewing the company’s weakness or opportunities may help you identify ideas. In Starbucks case, they are focused on a growing office coffee marketplace, looking at expansion in Asia and focusing on health and wellness foods in the U.S. Humm… you now know their problem and guessing with a team conversation you could brainstorm some ideas to solve one of their problems. Do not forget to research the company (annual report to stockholders, notes) to make sure they do not already have your idea.

New Product or Service to be Introduced.  What is your product? Create a 15 word (maximum) title to your idea that gives a good clue to the new product or service.  Additionally, you will describe your unique product in good detail, taking between 300 (minimum) to 500 (maximum) words. You should identify theindustry,using GICS or Global Industry Classification Standard (Standard & Poors) or NAICS (Wards) of your new innovation.  What trends are taking place in this industry (IBIS World) that indicates opportunity for your product. Additionally,identify a minimum of 2 key featuresthat make your product unique from what is already available. 

Explain how this product fits with the overall company strategy and answer WHY customers would want to purchase and senior management should invest resources

92. Review The PERI (Problem Etiology Recommendations Implementation) Public Health Model Described Below. Select A Communicable Public Health Disease From One Of The Health Concerns Addressed In This Week’s Learning Resources.

 

Write a 1- to 2-page overview of your selected public health issue, making sure to respond to each of the following prompts:

  1. Problem: What is the health problem or issue? Use appropriate sources, including Public Health data sources (e.g., CDC, Census, etc.), to describe this problem (e.g., HIV/AIDS).
  2. What population does it impact (e.g., Women in sub-Saharan Africa)?
  3. Etiology: What are the contributory causes? What is the burden of disease for this health issue? Are certain populations or cultures more impacted than others?
  4. Recommendations: What can be done to reduce the health impact of your issue?
  5. Implementation: How can health be improved in this population? What organizations or professionals should be involved?

93. Clinical

Pedagogy is a broad term used to describe the science and art of effective teaching. Student learning is reliant upon a teacher’s ability to select specific methods and strategies that meet the needs of all students.

Allocate at least 5 hours in the field to support this field experience.

Part 1: Observation

Observe your mentor teacher in your chosen content area delivering lessons and interacting with students. While observing one specific lesson, take notes using the “Observation, Interview, and Reflection” template .

Part 2: Interview

Outside of class time, interview your mentor teacher on his or her instructional strategies. Keep in mind the most recent lesson you observed and the pedagogical approaches used during this lesson.

Include the following topics in your interview:

  • What effective, research-based pedagogical strategies does your mentor teacher typically use during instruction?
  • How does your mentor teacher connect instruction to students’ backgrounds and interests?
  • How does your mentor teacher differentiate instruction to meet the needs of exceptional students, including students with gifted abilities, students with disabilities, as well as English language learners?
  • How does your mentor teacher integrate technological tools into instructional planning and day-to-day professional practices?

You do not need to submit interview notes to the LMS, but you are strongly encouraged to take notes to inform Part 3 of the assignment.

Use any remaining field experience hours to assist the mentor teacher in providing instruction and support to the class.

Part 3: Reflection Summary

In 500-750 words, summarize your observation and interview with your mentor teacher, as well as synthesize outside research to further your understanding of best pedagogical approaches. Drawing on your observation and interview, address the following questions in your reflection:

  • What effective, research-based pedagogical strategies did you observe during the lesson? What strategies does your mentor teacher typically use in instruction?
  • How does your mentor teacher connect instruction to students’ backgrounds and interests?
  • How does your mentor teacher differentiate instruction to meet the needs of exceptional students?
  • How does your mentor teacher integrate technological tools into instructional planning and day-to-day professional practices?
  • What pedagogical approaches do you anticipate using in your future professional practice?

 

Synthesize what you experienced in your mentor teacher’s classroom or learned in your interview by drawing on outside scholarly resources to support or extend your understanding of best pedagogical approaches.

Support your reflection with 3-5 scholarly resources.

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

This assignment uses a rubric. Review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

You are required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite. Refer to the LopesWrite Technical Support articles for assistance.

94. Week 11 Discussion

 W11DQ Week 11 Discussion Question Discuss the importance of guidelines and procedures for access control. Your initial response is due by Thursday 11:59PM. It must be at least 250 words and have references. Your grade will reflect both the quality of your initial post and the depth of your responses. Refer to the Discussion Forum Grading Rubric under the Settings icon above for guidance on how your discussion will be evaluated. Guided Response: Respond to at least two of your classmates’ posts. Evaluate their discussions by agreeing, disagreeing, or adding other ideas to strengthen or enhance the perspectives presented in their initial posts.   

 

W11P Week 11 paper 

Discuss the best practices for implementing an access control system. Length, 2 – 3 pages. All paper are written in APA formatting, include title and references pages (not counted). Must use at least two references and citations. Please reference the rubric for grading All paper are checked for plagiarism using SafeAssign, you can review your score.  

 

JW11 Journal Week 11 Enter a brief paragraph of what you learned this week. 

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95. Putting AutoZone into Drive

Q1. Using no more than two sentences, describe AutoZone’s strategy. 

Q2. Based on Michael Porter’s discussion of the characteristics of an effective strategy, does AutoZone have a good strategy for growth? Explain. 

Q3. To what extent is AutoZone following the five steps of the strategic-management process? 

Q4. Conduct an environmental scan o

or SWOT analysis of AutoZone’s current reality and recommend whether the company’s current strategy is poised to succeed.

  1. Free Sample Marketing (Briefly)

From 7 to 10 slide small presentation (briefly)

 

Titles :

1) what is free sample marketing ?

2)benefit of using free sample ?

3)why free samples should be part of your marketing strategy?

4) marketing plan example (sample marketing plan)

5) when using free sample affect negatively ?

  1. Argumentive 2 Page Essay

Before you begin writing the Argument Essay, you will need to propose your treatment of the issue.  This proposal is your opportunity to consider your plan for tackling the argument.  You will need to figure out what about the issue you want to focus your argument on.  You cannot possibly cover the whole issue in this coming essay, so plan to write about a specific aspect of that issue.  Your argument will need to be proven throughout the course of your essay.  In order to prove your argument, you will need to select specific topics which you will want to highlight in your thesis statement.  In this proposal, you will pitch those topics and how you will discuss them.     Instructions:  • Create a two to three-page proposal for your Argument Essay.  The Argument Essay requires that you argue your position on an issue facing your community. • Consider the following questions when starting this assignment: o What specifically is the issue you will be exploring? o What is your argument?   o How do you propose handling the argument in your essay?  Proposal of Content This proposal is your opportunity to pitch your instructor your plan for the essay.  The structure of the Argument Essay should be discussed within the proposal.  You also should propose how you intend to gather research for this argument.  You do not have to include any research, but you should figure out how you want to incorporate it.  You also want to tell the instructor how you plan to structure the essay.  Finally, include in the proposal what will make your approach to the argument unique.   Requirements:  • The assignment should be two to three pages in length.

 

  1. Health Management

Research and pinpoint a specific health care organization, you can use the one from Unit 3. You will be using a SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats) analysis to assess the health care organization and its environment. Strengths and weaknesses are internal factors. Opportunities and threats are external factors.

You are to complete the following in your strategic action plan:

  • Create a SWOT analysis.
  • Define a strategic action plan using your SWOT analysis.
    • Identify the strengths of the organization’s structure. (internal)
    • Identify the weaknesses of the organization’s structure. (internal)
    • Identify the opportunities. (external)
    • Identify the threats. (external)
    • Match the internal and external environments to attain the organization’s goals.
  • Identify how your action plans are linked to the following:
    • Vision statement
    • Mission statement
    • Service strategy
  • Summarize your overall strategic plan, indicating its current limitations and implications for the health care industry.

Keep your SWOT analysis short and simple, and avoid complexity and over-analysis. If it helps to organize your thoughts, use a SWOT table.

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  1. Health/Public Policy

Select your state on the County Health Rankings & Roadmaps website:

  • Review the most recent state Summary Report (Downloads tab)
  • Review the Health Gaps Report for your state, paying close attention to the Highlighted Health Gaps section that are considered to be meaningful gaps that policymakers and leaders may want to examine more closely.

Prepare a report discussing the meaningful health gaps in your state and how health policies supporting community and national health can help close those gaps. Your report should also include a discussion of differences in health outcomes and health factors between the county ranked #1 in your state and the one ranked the lowest, suggesting county health policies that could help improve the ranking of the latter. Finally, your report should conclude with a summary of how public policies support community and national health.
The body of the report should be 3-4 pages, excluding the title page and references page. The County Health Rankings and the Health Gaps Report must be listed on the references page along with any other references you use in preparing the report. Use the following format for these required references:

  • Robert Wood Johnson Foundation & University of Wisconsin Population Health Institute (insert copyright year). (insert state name) Health Gaps Report. Retrieved (insert date) from http://www.countyhealthrankings.org/
  • Robert Wood Johnson Foundation & University of Wisconsin Population Health Institute (insert copyright year). (insert state name) Summary Report. Retrieved (insert date) from http://www.countyhealthrankings.org
  1. English Homework

As discussed throughout this novel, Christopher is a very unique character. It is important, when reading this novel that we take what we are learning about Christopher and translate it to our understanding of real individuals with disabilities. With a partner, you will construct a research-based essay on the importance of representing individuals with autism and other intellectual or physical disability. There are questions below to help guide your research and your writing.

INTRO:  Three or four sentences that do the following: mention book title and author; reveal that you are taking characteristics of a fictional character and discussing how similar or other relevant characteristics are depicted in important ways within media.

BODIES: You should have a minimum of 2-body paragraphs. The organization of this essay is totally up to you, but should answer the questions below.

CONCLUSION: Your conclusion will look very similar to your intro. And should contain a restatement of your thesis. The restatement of your thesis, however, should be written in different language to avoid redundancy.

Guiding Questions:

  1. To what degree are differently abled people represented in today’s media vs. that of ten years ago
  2. Why is the representation of differently abled people in media important?
  3. What is the impact of differently abled representation in the media for other differently abled
  1. Medical Coding and Billing

Write about current procedural terminology (CPT) 4 pages with reference.

 

  1. 2-Please Answer Based on These Answers as They Are Listed, Each One Must Be Answered in APA form And Not Less Than 150 Words

4-The Collaborative Patient Care Management Model, which is a multi-disciplinary and a population-based case management model, was first introduced in the year 2006. The prime objective of the model was to target such patients, which could be classified as high-cost and high-risk. The nurses not only manage these patients but also play a vital in the development of inter-disciplinary care plan (Kimball, Joynt, Cherner, & O’Neil, 2007). The model allows to develop a highly potent care plan, which has 1) greater potential to produce the desired results, and 2) the ability to reduce the overall cost of the care to be provided without compromising on its quality.

Reference

Kimball, B., Joynt, J., Cherner, D., & O’Neil, E. (2007). The Quest for New Innovative. Journal of Nursing Administration, 37(9), 392-398.

5-Thank you for sharing your post.  I agree that the ACO’s are beneficial in helping to streamline healthcare.  I have enjoyed the creation of the EMR as it allows other doctors within the same health organization access to my record so they know what it going on with me and I do not have to remember all the details.  This can be important especially in the older population as many forget to write things down.  Providing coordinated care helps to ensure that patients are receiving the right care.  Continuity of care is important to patients as well because they do not want to repeat everything that is going on with them when it has already been asked.  I find that many patients want the same nurse back if they are going to be there for several shifts in a row as they can build a short term relationship with them.

 

6-Accountable Care Organizations (ACO) is a network of doctors, hospitals, care providers home care and long-term care agencies, physician group practices, and other health care entities, such as medical homes, that come together to form a network to coordinate Medicare patient care. They share financial and medical responsibility for providing coordinated care to patients in hopes of limiting unnecessary spending. ACO are beneficial to both providers and patients. Providers become eligible for bonuses if they keep their patient’s healthy, while also meeting quality targets keep a portion of the savings. Patient’s benefit from having their care coordinated instead of getting each part of their health care separately. This reduces hospital stays, emergency room visits and expensive specialist and testing services that may be repeated by multiple healthcare providers. To protect patients ACOs must meet a long list of quality measures to ensure they are not saving money by stinting on necessary care. And if a patient is unsatisfied with there ACO they can see doctors of their choice outside the network without paying more and decline to have their information shared with the ACO (KaiserHealthnews.2015).

Reference

Kaiser Health News.(2015). Accountable Care Organizations, Explained. Retrieved from https://khn.org/news/aco-accountable-care-organization-faq/

  1. Business and Finance

Management Action Plan

An action plan is a written strategy used to achieve outlined goals. For the purposes of this assignment, the action plan will be created using PowerPoint. An action plan includes the components listed below.

  1. State the goal, which should identify what training content will be used and how it will be used.
    1. The goal for this action plan is to assist managers with identifying how performance appraisals are used to demonstrate the success of training efforts.
  2. Include the strategies for reaching the goal including what the trainee must do, what resources will be needed, and the type of support from managers and peers that will be necessary.
  3. Include the strategies for receiving the feedback, which will be used to demonstrate the success of the training efforts.
  4. Define the expected assessment results and how the results can be used to improve training.

After the title slide, begin your action plan by stating the goal. Next, identify at least three strategies for reaching the goal. Briefly explain your chosen strategies with supporting data in the speaker notes section of the PowerPoint presentation. For the third part of the action plan, develop a 10-question survey that could be used to demonstrate the success of the plan. Conclude your action plan with a summary of the expected results and how the manager could use them to improve training.

This action plan should contain at least 12 slides.

Here are some general guidelines to follow when preparing your PowerPoint presentation.

  • Design your presentation with the back of the room in mind. It is important that everyone can easily see and read the content.
  • Select a professional-looking slide design appropriate for the presentation and audience.
  • White text on a dark background is the easiest for the audience to see.
  • Use a large font size.
  • Use color and graphics when appropriate. Illustrations should relate to the content being discussed. Be creative.
  • Follow the 6 x 6 rule (i.e., use no more than six lines per slide and no more than six words per line).
  • Utilize the speaker notes function to add your talking points.
  • Bullet points work best on the slides.
  • Add slide transitions to enhance the audience’s experience.
  1. Psychology Homework

Dear Son

I have learned that various elements contribute to development over the lifespan. Furthermore, you are now aware that numerous factors that shape one’s personality are present. How can you use this newly acquired knowledge to positively shape future generations?

For this assignment, you are going to write a letter to your son or daughter that you will present to him or her on the child’s 21st birthday. If your child is already over 21, imagine back to when he or she was born. If you do not plan to have children, you may write the letter to a child who is important in your life: a niece, nephew, or friend’s child, for example. Within your letter, you must discuss the following items:

  • When and why did you decide to have the child? If writing to a child that is not your own, describe why the child is important to you.
  • What are the most important qualities for a parent to have, and why?
  • What personal characteristics do you hope your young adult son or daughter will possess, and why?
  • How did you attempt to influence the child’s physical, motor, cognitive, moral, social, personality, and sex-role development? Give specific examples in each area while detailing how each one will influence your young adult’s future actions and decision-making abilities.
  • Identify cultural influences that could affect your son’s or daughter’s motivation and drive.

In your letter, incorporate research from the textbook to explain how you have sought to positively influence your son or daughter’s development. 1 page minimum

  1. Psychology Homework

 

I  learned that certain links exist between emotions, motivation, and stress. In fact, if one does not handle his or her stress effectively, numerous health issues could arise.

For this assignment, you are to compose a reflection paper in which you examine a current or past stressful event in your life. You must embrace Selye’s general adaptation syndrome (GAS) and describe your reactions to the stressful event during each stage. You should describe the various facial expressions that you displayed as you progressed through each stage as well. Be sure also to address the following questions:

  • What coping strategies did you embrace to help solve the problem?
  • How was your professional life affected by the stressor?
  • How does Maslow’s hierarchy of needs relate to your stressor? What motivated you to solve the problem?
  • Did you experience additional conflicts with other individuals as you endured this life trial?

Tips for writing your reflection paper:

  • Introduction: This is meant to give a concise overview of the featured stressful event and is usually one paragraph in length. In your introduction, you will reveal the featured stressful event that you will examine for this paper.
  • Summary: This contains your description of the required areas listed above in the opening statement, including Selye’s GAS, your facial expressions, coping strategies, professional impact, and relationship conflicts.
  • Analysis: In this portion of the paper, you should provide information from the textbook to analyze the impact that the stressful event could have placed upon your health, future goals, and motivation. You may use sources identified from the CSU Online Library to assist your analysis efforts, but this is not required.
  • Conclusion: This summarizes your final reflections for the featured topic. For instance, what implications have you uncovered during your research that you will apply to future stressful events?

Must be at least one page in length, not counting the title and reference pages, but it can be longer if necessary to address all aspects of the assignment. It should be formatted in APA style. You are required to utilize the textbook, but other sources may be used if needed.

  1. Psychology Homework

Wade and Tavris explain that various factors combine to influence one’s thinking patterns, intelligence, and memories. In fact, we often embrace certain biases and mental shortcuts to assist our cognitive processing. These efforts can prove both costly and beneficial.

This assignment is divided into parts, so it is suggested that you begin working on it in advance.

  • Find a popular press article or story from the nightly news in which someone argues a point that you disagree with. Write a paragraph agreeing with this person. Allow one day before moving on to the next part.
  • Make sure at least one day has passed since writing the first paragraph. Now, write another paragraph disagreeing with the person. You will include both of these paragraphs in your essay.
  • Discuss the differences between your arguments from the first paragraph in which you agree and the second paragraph in which you disagree. Elaborate on whether you think that your opinion has changed on this topic, particularly thinking about your initial thoughts on the topic before you wrote either paragraph.
  • In your discussion, incorporate research from the textbook to explain how reasoning, intelligence, and memories influenced your arguments. How did cognitive dissonance affect your reasoning abilities?

Response must be at least two pages in length, but it can be longer if necessary to address all aspects of the assignment. You must use the Wade and Tavris textbook and at least one additional source. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.

  1. Psychology homework

I have learned about various psychological disorders and the complexities involved with proper diagnoses and treatment efforts. Now it is time to put your skills to the test. Choose ONE of the cases listed below and create a mental health assessment for your chosen case. In the assessment, you should address the following:

  1. Why is your client coming for treatment?
  2. What are his or her current symptoms?
  3. Does he or she have a history with this problem? If so, please describe it.
  4. How could the issue affect his or her daily life functions?
  5. What is your client’s specific diagnosis?
  6. What is the general class(es) of disorders to which this disorder belongs?
  7. What are your recommendations? What specific treatment plan will you prescribe for this patient? You should use your textbook as a reference to substantiate your plan.
  8. How could you get his or her family involved?

Choose ONE of these cases to analyze.

  1. Tony sometimes seems very wound up. At those times, he seems full of energy, talks very rapidly, and makes very grandiose plans. Once, he gave away all of his belongings and was planning to move to Washington, D.C., so that he could advise the President. At these times, he also seems to need almost no sleep. During other periods of time Tony seems very down. During these times, he does not take care of himself. He seems to want to sleep all the time, and he often makes thinly veiled references to wanting to commit suicide.
  2. Paula has not left her house for several months. When she tries to go out, she experiences great anxiety. She says she is afraid that if she leaves her house to go somewhere, she will not be able to get back. Before all this started, Paula seemed fairly normal except for having several episodes where, for no apparent reason, her heart started pounding, she started to sweat profusely, and she experienced all the symptoms of fear and terror. One of the reasons she is afraid to leave the house is because she is afraid she will have one of these episodes again. Hint: there are two specific diagnoses here.
  3. Horace sleeps a lot, has great difficulty getting out of bed in the morning, and generally does not want to do anything. He has stopped seeing friends whom he used to see often and declines all invitations to do things socially. His most common response is “I just do not feel like it.” He looks sad all the time and does not seem to take pleasure in everyday activities. This has been going on for the past two months.
  4. Patricia is a 44-year-old female who reports that she has periods of time where she cannot remember what she has done. She reports that after one such period, she received a telephone call from a man who claimed to have met her in a bar where she was “the life of the party.” She had also told the man her name was Priscilla. Patricia thinks that this is odd because she does not drink, and she is a rather shy and retiring person. However, the man had her correct telephone number and was able to give a good physical description of her.
  5. Frank was attending college in San Francisco during a recent earthquake. He lived in the area that was hardest hit by the quake. Frank was not home when the earthquake hit and was not injured in any way, but when he returned home, he found his building demolished and his two roommates crushed to death. Frank immediately drove himself to the airport, bought a ticket to Boston, and got on the plane. His parents found him on their doorstep in Boston the next morning. Frank remembers nothing about the earthquake and nothing about going to college in San Francisco. The last thing he remembers is being a high school student and living with his parents in Boston.
  1. INTERNET AND ICT

Explain how the internet and other ICTs has done the following:

  1. Transformed the society
  2. Improved mutual understanding
  3. Eliminated power differences
  4. Brought about realization of truly free and Democratic world society.
  1. Week 5 Assignment

Final Paper

The Final Paper provides you with an opportunity to integrate and reflect on what you have learned during the class.

The question to address is: “What have you learned about statistics?” In developing your responses, consider—at a minimum—and discuss the application of each of the course elements in analyzing and making decisions about data (counts and/or measurements).

In your paper,

  • Discuss the following course elements:
    • Descriptive statistics
    • Inferential statistics
    • Hypothesis development and testing
    • Selection of appropriate statistical tests
    • Evaluating statistical results.

The Final Paper

  • Must be three to five double-spaced pages in length (not including title and references pages) and formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site..
  • Must include a separate title page with the following:
    • Title of paper
    • Student’s name
    • Course name and number
    • Instructor’s name
    • Date submitted
  • Must begin with an introductory paragraph that has a succinct thesis statement.
  • Must address the topic of the paper with critical thought.
  • Must end with a conclusion that reaffirms your thesis.
  • Must use at least three scholarly sources in addition to the course text.
  • Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center
  • Must include a separate references page that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.

Carefully review the Grading Rubric (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. for the criteria that will be used to evaluate your assignment.

  1. Law Homework

No directly quoted material may be used in this project paper.

Resources should be summarized or paraphrased with appropriate in-text and Resource page citations.

Write a paper comparing and contrasting the four major classifications of drug actions on the human body (stimulants, depressants, hallucinogens, and narcotics).

Select one drug from each classification for an in-depth analysis, which should include at least:

  • the effects of those drugs on the human body,
  • a discussion of the dependence aspects of the drugs, and
  • their interactions with other drugs
  • how this drug impacts crime in the US

This paper must be from three to five full pages of text, not including the cover page or the references page and a minimum of two scholarly sources.

  1. Environmental Science Homework

Please note that these answers should be submitted on different doc and ppt

Read The Kohala Center attached  and examine the Material Flows on the Island of Hawai‘i report

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper on industrial ecology.

Focus your paper on the following, based on the industrial ecological report you chose:

  • Explain the basic materials used.
  • Discuss an energy flows analysis based on the scenario.
  • Explain how renewable and nonrenewable sources impact the industry.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

  1. Write a conclusion based on the attached a,b,c papers attache while also considering the narrative . Not less than 500 words
  • What sustainable engineering role do corporations and the government play within the oil and gas industry? What is the future outlook?
  • What is the outlook for renewable and nonrenewable sources within the oil and gas industry?
  1. Prepare a power point conclusion with speaker notes based on your Industrial Sector ( Oil and Gas) Ecology Paper.
  2. Need DQ Answer 300 Words, No Plagiarism, Use 3 References And In-Text Citation And Turn It In For The Content.

Subject: Marketing and Consumer Behaviour

  • Reading:
    • Hawkins, Mothersbaugh, Chapter(s) 15, 16
    • Topics: Information Search; Alternative Evaluation and Selection

 

Discussion Question 1 – CLO 5 

 

What are two characteristics of the source of a message that influence its ability to change attitudes? Describe each and provide with real-life examples. Provide your explanations and definitions in detail and be precise. Comment on your findings.

Provide references for content when necessary. Provide your work in detail and explain in your own words. Support your statements with peer-reviewed in-text citation(s) and reference(s).

——————————-

Need DQ Answer  300 words, no palgiarism, use 3 references and in-text citation and turn it in for the content.

113. Legal & Ethical Concepts In Management

Essay On Apple

For this assignment, the student chooses one listed company in any Stock Exchange in the world as far as the documentation filed on the company’s website is in English as well. (Apple)

 

Below there is an indicative guidance of information that could be collected in order to analyse your company from the point of view of its legal disclosure and liabilities:

The main points to cover when analysing your company:

 

  • Brief introduction to your company: you could include information related to the sector it operates, some financial indicators, where it is listed, its marketcap and its marketshare on its sector.

 

  • Static analysis: this is the legal picture of the company and basically it looks at the disclosure provided to investors on its website. There are two main players in the company: shareholders and directors:

 

  • Shareholders: Free float and whether there are core or dominant shareholders, type of shareholders (ordinary and/or preference), AGM (Annual General Meeting) agenda and type of items that are included over the last five years. Please note that in the US this tends to be under the heading “proxy statement”.

 

  • Directors: Board of Directors and composition including both executive and non-executive directors together with the Auditing and Compensation Committee. Regarding auditors: how are auditors appointed? Are they changing every certain number of years? Please consider any changes over the last 5 years auditors’ letters. Look at the compensation committee and investigate how the directors’ remuneration is devised. Note that there is no need to include directors’ CVs or even names, just look at a qualitative analysis unless there is other type of relevant information that needs to be included.

 

  • Dynamic analysis: Look at the litigation in which your company has been involved (probably by carrying out internet searches as companies are not very keen to disclose details on their own litigation unless they have a substantial impact on their accounts). You need to include a brief characterisation of the cases (criminal, tort, contractual) explaining whether the cases are due to the sector on which the company operates or they are indifferent for that matter. Pick up one or two examples to explain to the class in your oral presentation. If possible try to find out the outcome of the case (was it settled?)

 

  • Critical conclusion: Based on your findings, what is your view of the company regarding its corporate disclosure? Would you invest on it based on its degree of transparency and functioning? Why?

 

  • Referencing: Although you can use a variety of sources you need to include at least 4-6 academic sources as part of your assignment. Harvard referencing.

Format

Written assignment comprising  2,500 word (+10%)

  1. Discussion
  2. Read section 8.1. What is ‘technological inequality’ and how have you seen this inequality play out in your own life? (10 points)
  3. Read section 8.3. What have been some global implications of technology and the role it’s had in society? Be specific. Look at section 8.4. Which theoretical perspective do you most align yourself with regarding perspectives on media & technology? (15 points)

 

  1. Read section 9.4 on “Theoretical Perspectives on Social Stratification”. Which perspective do you most identify with regarding social stratification & inequality (functionalism, conflict, or symbolic interactionist)? Why? (10 pts)
  2. In your personal opinion along with facts, is the American dream available to all people? Why or Why not? Look at section 9.2 in our text. Which class would you say you are a part of (upper-class, middle-class, or lower-class)? Why?
  3. Synthesis Paper

Congratulations! You have just been hired by the Gainesville United Sports Association (totally fictional)! Because you are (now) an expert on social issues in youth sport, you were awarded a consulting contract to implement a parent education program for the youth sport organizations in Gainesville.

The Gainesville United Sports Association oversees and writes recommendations for “best practice” in privatized youth sport organizations (organized club/travel sports). For your parent education program, you will:

  1. select the 3 most pressing social issues in youth sport about which you think parents MUST be informed
  2. provide a background on each issue and justify why it is critical that the issue be addressed (benefits or consequences of the issue)
  3. provide your recommendation for “best practice” in which parents should either be engaged, or seek out (in a coach, an organization,…) – this means you can write about what parents do (their behavior or expectations), what coaches do (behavior or programming), or what an organization does (programming), or any combination of the 3.

In the end, your Synthesis Paper is a guide for parents to know the issues, and know what should be happening in their child’s youth sport organization (in the best interest of their child).

  1. Case Study

 Read the following case study on the attachment and answer the following questions:

1- What are some aspects of this program that ensured its success?

1page

2- What are important aspects of Chagas disease that influence measures to control it?: What are the activities for Chagas control? How are these activities accomplished?

3 pages

3-how would you describe JICA’s model for working in Guatemala?: Who did JICA work in Guatemala and why? What are the advantages and disadvantages of the JICA’s cooperation model?

2pages

4-In adapting the Guatemalan project model, Dr. Zuniga and his colleagues faced challenges. What were they and did Dr. Zuniga deal with them?: There are various stakeholders in Chagas disease control in Guatemala. How did Dr. Zuniga deal with them? Dr. Zuniga and his colleagues had to modify their successful program for the surveillance phase. Why? and what were the challenges they faced? How did they establish the surveillance model?

3 pages

  1. Industrial Espionage


Consider this hypothetical situation:

David Doe is a network administrator for the ABC Company. David is passed over for promotion three times. He is quite vocal in his dissatisfaction with this situation. In fact, he begins to express negative opinions about the organization in general. Eventually, David quits and begins his own consulting business. Six months after David’s departure, it is discovered that a good deal of the ABC Company’s research has suddenly been duplicated by a competitor. Executives at ABC suspect that David Doe has done some consulting work for this competitor and may have passed on sensitive data. However, in the interim since David left, his computer has been formatted and reassigned to another person. ABC has no evidence that David Doe did anything wrong.

What steps might have been taken to detect David’s alleged industrial espionage?

What steps might have been taken to prevent his perpetrating such an offense?

  1. Questions

Please answer the following questions.

Early-Stage Financing and Venture Capital is the topics!

1) Can someone explain Venture Capital and Stages of Financing?

2) What are some Venture Capital Realities?

3) Lastly, lets discuss Venture Capital Investments and Economic Conditions!

Ah a great topic: Corporate Long-Term Debt!

1) Is It Debt or Equity and why?

2) Can someone explain Long-Term Debt: The Basics?

3) What is The Indenture?


  1. Knowledge Management Systems

Choose one of the scenarios below (A or B) to complete the assignment.

Scenario AYou are the business owner of a local small engine repair shop, and you have   been thinking about implementing a knowledge management system for your   customer  service technicians. You are thinking about this because there are   times when  some of your technicians know how to fix certain engine problems  and  others do  not. Providing a central knowledge repository could help share   troubleshooting  and repair knowledge among your technicians.

Scenario BYou are the business owner of a local cleaning service, and you have been   thinking about implementing a knowledge management system for your cleaning   technicians, especially for those who troubleshoot and solve cleaning problems,  such as removing certain carpet and water stains, addressing mold, and  selecting  the proper tools and products to use for other types of cleaning  issues. You  are  thinking about this because there are times when some of your  cleaning  technicians know how to properly clean carpets and others do not.  Providing a  central knowledge repository could help share cleaning knowledge  among your  cleaning technicians.

After you chose your scenario (A or B), compose a paper that addresses the   elements listed below.

  1. Explain the role of knowledge management systems. Explain what is meant by expert systems.
  2. Explain what is meant by content management systems.
  3. Discuss how the business in the selected scenario could benefit from an         expert system and a content management system, and provide two examples for         each type of system.
  4. Discuss how the business in the selected scenario could benefit from         business intelligence, and provide two examples of these benefits.
  5. Discuss how the business in the selected scenario can use social media to         not only obtain information and knowledge but to share it as well, and       provide   two examples of how the business might use social media information       systems.

Your paper must be at least two pages in length (not counting the title and   reference pages), and you must also use at least two scholarly sources, one of   which must come from the CSU Online Library. Any information from a source must   be cited and referenced in APA format, and your paper must be formatted in   accordance to APA guidelines.

  1. PENETRATRATION TESTING

A

There are a lot of strategies for setting up network defense systems. Physical restrictions can be put in place, such as separating hardware, or using switches and cabling to do so. One can also use virtualized segmentation in the form of VLANs, and virtual networks (including switches). What strategy do you feel is best suited to defend against modern cyber security threats? State your opinion concerning which technologies you would deploy if you were positioned to protect the COPPIN campus from cyber security threats.

 

B

There are hundreds of thousands of potential cyber security attacks, which exist in the form of hackers, viruses, malware, ransomware, and other vectors. The most effective way of mitigating their effects is identifying them before they can become active. What modern security methods and tools can be used to do this? Why are they not 100% effective? Explain your rationale.

 

 

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HIUS 221 National Park Essay

Museum or National Park Assignment Instructions

 

Statement of Purpose or “Why Am I Doing This?”

There are many benefits to visiting historical museums or sites via walking tours. By actually witnessing a historical site, greater understanding of the events of past can be achieved. The visual learning dynamic as well as the tour guide learning scenario can all the more make “history come alive” and provide the student with a hands-on learning experience.

 

Completing This Assignment:

 

  • The student will visit one of three options related to U.S. historical events between the 1500s-1865: 1. A local museum. 2. A National Park. 3. A befitting video website walking video tour or suitable YouTube link of a Museum or National Park related to U.S. historical events between the 1500s-1865. Regardless of whether the student chooses to physically visit a location or view a site via a weblink route, it is required that they submit a request proposal (via the Mod. 4 DB assignment) to the course instructor seeking formal approval before taking the next steps in completing the Mod. 7 writing assignment.
  • Following the site visit, using the available assignment template, the student will then type a double space 12 font reflection (700-800 words) answering the following questions… How is this historical site relevant to events within the 1500s-1865 and the area now known as the United States? What historical information did you learn from this visit? What historical event or events were covered via this site? What (i.e.) artifacts and/or other displayed items were interesting to you and why? In other words, what stood out about this place and why? How did the site help you appreciate history?
  • The title page and reference page do not count towards the total page count.
  • When you are finished, your assignment must be:

o    In a Microsoft Word (or compatible) document

o    Formatted, including:

  • 12-point Times New Roman font
  • double-spaced
  • 1-inch margins
  • Page numbers placed at the bottom center of each page of text (not including the title page)

o    Proofread carefully to ensure it is written in scholarly language with no grammar, spelling, or punctuation errors and conforms to the standards of mechanics and style expected at the university level

  • You must use the template for the assignment provided in Assignment site.

 

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.

 

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Mrs. Linde was a patient who was admitted to a surgical unit at Ocala Regional Medical Center

Name of the patient: Mrs. Linde

Age: 76 years

Gender: Female

Clinical Scenario

Mrs. Linde was a patient who was admitted to a surgical unit at Ocala Regional Medical Center where I worked as a nurse. While attending to her, I realized that she as well as most of the patients in my surgical unit developed a high level of acuity that could easily result into severe cardiac arrest and sudden death. Mrs. Linde was therefore transferred to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) following her critical condition. I decided to talk to my Nurse Manager about rapid response team and how it can be helpful in reducing increasing cases of the contraction of cardiac arrest by the in-patients and unexpected admissions to the ICU. I believed this could be of great help to the hospital. Researchable and answerable is a significant step in the Evidence Based Practice (Fineout-Overholt and Johnston, 2005). Therefore, my manger suggested that I conduct more research to find solid evidence on the contribution of rapid response team in healthcare system. This prompted me to formulate a clinical question.

Research Question

I used PICOT (Patient’s population, issue of Interest, Comparison, Outcome and Time) format to formulate a research question. My PICOT question was derived from the prevailing aspects of the clinical issue at my surgical unit. These aspects include the increased level of acuity among the hospitalized patients in the surgical unit, increased number of in-patients contracting cardiac arrest, unexpected admissions into the ICU, and the intervention by the rapid response team. Since there was no team to provide rapid response to such patients and the hospital was not planning to address the issue of patient’s acuity prior to the impending crisis, element of the comparison (C component) in the PICOT was lack of rapid response team.  The outcomes or the results in the question were constant admission into the ICU and in-patients contracting cardiac arrest.  Other possible outcomes included prolonged hospitalization and deaths. My proposed picot question therefore was; “Among the adult in-patients in the surgical unit, how does the presence of a rapid response team compared with the absence of rapid response team influence the cases of cardiac arrests among the hospitalized patients and the unexpected admissions to the intensive care unit for patients hospitalized for three months? In this question, the components of PICOT include

  • Patient Population (P) – the adult in-patients
  • Issue of Interest (I) – the presence of a rapid response team
  • Comparison(C) – the absence of rapid response team
  • Outcome (O) – influence the cases of cardiac arrests among the hospitalized patients and the unexpected admissions to the intensive care unit for patients
  • Time (T) – hospitalized for three months

Literature Review

According to Stillwell et al. Evidence-Based Practice involves solving a problem in the health care delivery system by integrating the available evidences from the data of the patients and studies with the expertise of medical practitioners and values. From the above scenario, it is clear that various aspects affect personal experiences of patients throughout their stay in the hospital. Additionally, social aspects may influence and surpass curative variables without necessarily involving antiretroviral measures. However, Melnyk et al. 2009 suggests that it is important for nurses and medical practitioners to understand that the formulated question influences any attempt to find evidence to achieve a desirable outcome in patients so as to support a practical change.  It is also evident from the previous studies that Rapid Response Teams are the best weapon to curb cardiac arrests since they evaluate the patients at an early stage of the disease thus reducing mortality rate (Dacey et al. 2007). Another study also pointed that while therapeutic interventions have been successfully administered to the patients, such interventions may not be helpful for long-term health care processes (Cheng, 2011).

 

References

Dacey MJ, et al. The effect of a rapid response team on major clinical outcome measures in a community hospital. Crit Care Med 2007;35(9):2076-82

Abstract

Background: Rapid Response Teams (RRTs) assess patients during early phases of deterioration to reduce patient morbidity and mortality. Objectives: This study aimed to evaluate the ability of earlier medical intervention by an RRT prompted by clinical instability in patients to reduce the incidence of and mortality from unexpected cardiac arrest at our hospital. Patients and Methods: A nonrandomized, population-based study before 2008 and after 2010 introduction of the Rapid Response Teams in a 300-bed private hospital. All patients were admitted to the hospital in 2008 (n = 25348) and 2010 (n = 28024). RRT (One doctor, one senior intensive care nurse and one staff nurse) attended to clinically unstable patients immediately with resuscitation drugs, fluid, and equipment. Response was activated by the bedside nurse or doctor according to predefined criteria. Main outcome measures were incidence and outcome of unexpected cardiac arrest. Results: The incidence of unexpected cardiac arrest was 17 per 1000 hospital admissions (431 cases) in 2008 (before RRT intervention) and 12.45 per 1000 admissions (349 cases) in 2010 (after intervention), with mortality being 73.23% (274 patients) and 66.15% (231 patients) respectively. After adjustment for case mix the intervention was associated with a 19% reduction in the incidence of unexpected cardiac arrest (odds ratio 0.81, 95% confidence interval 0.65-0.98). Conclusions: The RRT was able to detect preventable adverse events and reduce the mortality and incidence of unexpected cardiac arrests

Stillwell SB et al, Evidence-based practice, step by step: asking the clinical question: a key step in evidence-based practice. 2nd ed. Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health/Lippincott Williams and Wilkins.

Abstract

The purpose of this series is to give nurses the knowledge and skills they need to implement EBP consistently, one step at a time. Articles will appear every two months to allow you time to incorporate information as you work toward implementing EBP at your institution. Also, we’ve scheduled “Ask the Authors” call-ins every few months to provide a direct line to the experts to help you resolve questions. Details about how to participate in the next call will be published with May’s Evidence-Based Practice, Step by Step

Melnyk BM, et al. Igniting a spirit of inquiry: an essential foundation for evidence-based practice. Am J Nurs2009;109(11):49-52

Abstract

This is the third article in a series from the Arizona State University College of Nursing and Health Innovation’s Center for the Advancement of Evidence-Based Practice. Evidence-based practice (EBP) is a problem-solving approach to the delivery of health care that integrates the best evidence from studies and patient care data with clinician expertise and patient preferences and values. When delivered in a context of caring and in a supportive organizational culture, the highest quality of care and best patient outcomes can be achieved.

 

.

Cheng, H. Y. Evidence-Based Medicine (EBM): What t Long -Term Care Providers Need to Know

Abstract

Evidence-based medicine (EBM) has been exponentially disseminated to every field of medicine over past 2 decades.1–7 EBM is now a part of postgraduate competency through practice-based learning.8 However, its potential use in the long-term care setting was only recently appreciated in the literature.1,9,10 EBM may play an important role in reforming nursing homes and improving quality care.1–5,9,10 The simple search term “EBM,” limited to English and human in Medline, generated 49,304 citations, which narrowed to only 173 when “nursing homes” was added, indicating that EBP is not rare and is being implemented in long-term care. It has been a great effort that each article in this special issue presents evidence-based recommendations to long-term care providers to guide their daily practice. In contrast to the evidence-based approach to individual geriatric conditions addressed in the other articles in this issue, this article briefly introduces the basic concept of EBM; addresses some potential benefits, harms, and challenges of its practice in a long-term care setting; and promotes its appropriate use among providers of long-term care. For those who already know the EBM basics and are interested in becoming experts, several textbooks on EBM are recommended.11–13 Attending an EBM workshop, such as one run by McMaster University,14 could also be helpful. Many Internet resources are also useful, including PIER: The Physicians’ Information and Education Resource (pier.acponline.org), Clinical Evidence.

 

 

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Hawkeye Pierce and BJ Hunnicutt built years of unethical situations on the popular show MASH

Hawkeye Pierce and BJ Hunnicutt built years of unethical situations on the popular show MASH. Through their comical depiction of these situations, the viewer might have been left with the impression that the unethical behavior was actually appropriate. Share your thoughts about what can happen to a business if ethical standards are not taken seriously.

Your journal entry must be at least 250 words. No references or citations are necessary.

 

Article Reviews Homework Help ASAP!

With the first weekend of March Madness underway, there has been plenty of talk regarding Power 5 (P5) Conferences versus non-P5 schools.  Many sports analysts believe the P5 schools have an advantage in making the NCAA MBB tournament and when it comes to seeding in the tournament.

Read these articles:

http://www.newsobserver.com/sports/college/acc/article139198713.html (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

http://sports.yahoo.com/news/march-madness-day-2-recap-power-conference-dominance-sets-up-second-round-showdowns-042714662.html (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

If you are unfamiliar with the term P5, read this article to familiarize yourself.  http://www.huffingtonpost.com/ken-reed/big-five-have-changed-col_b_5725772.html (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

The P5 schools earned $6 billion dollars last year compared to a mere $4 billon for ALL of the other schools combined.

Do you think March Madness favors P5 schools? Why or why not?  If you think they do, what solutions do have to create parity for all schools?  What are things FGCU can do to improve our likelihood of being selected to the NCAA tournament as an at-large bid.

For this paper, you will need two pages typed.

 

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In the case of the Coyote and Road Runner

n the case of the Coyote and Road Runner (attached), one might question the ethics of the two characters’ behaviors on many fronts. Think of a company that you have worked for or that you know about that has not successfully implemented a culture of ethical business behavior. What would you suggest to that company in order for the leaders to improve their culture?

Your journal entry must be at least 250 words.

Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions

Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions about the ethics of space travels with his crew. Do you think character has any role in business ethics? Why or why not? How does character and personal integrity pertain to you in your profession or future profession? Your Response Must be over 200 words!

Select and describe a specialty that has evolved in a different direction from that of advanced

  1. Select and describe a specialty that has evolved in a different direction from that of advanced practice nursing (e.g., administration, nursing education, health policy, and/or forensic nursing).
  2. What key differences do you see in this evolution as compared with developed APN specialties?
  3. Describe the future vision and goals each role and relate to emerging healthcare trends and needs.

Directions

The paper must be between 3 to 4 pages in length, not including the title and reference list pages. The paper must use proper APA Publication Manual, 6th Edition formatting, including title page, running head, and reference list with properly formatted citations in the body of the paper.

 

In the case of the Coyote and Road Runner

In the case of the Coyote and Road Runner (attached), one might question the ethics of the two characters’ behaviors on many fronts. Think of a company that you have worked for or that you know about that has not successfully implemented a culture of ethical business behavior. What would you suggest to that company in order for the leaders to improve their culture?

Batman and Commissioner Gordon constantly involved themselves with local, state, and federal regulations. Think about the regulations in your locality and specifically reflect on one regulation that could use some improvement. What could be improved regarding this regulation?

Your journal entry must be at least 250 words. No references or citations are necessary.

Your journal entry must be at least 250 words.

Nursing Paper PicOT Statement Help at www.homeworknest.com

This paper is on rapid research teams, it includes reasearch critique topic one and two as well as Picot statement with final draft.

 

This paper is on rapid research teams, it includes reasearch critique topic one and two as well as Picot statement with final draft.

Liberty University Math 201 Project 3 brase & brase

Select and describe a specialty that has evolved in a different direction from that of advanced

  1. Select and describe a specialty that has evolved in a different direction from that of advanced practice nursing (e.g., administration, nursing education, health policy, and/or forensic nursing).
  2. What key differences do you see in this evolution as compared with developed APN specialties?
  3. Describe the future vision and goals each role and relate to emerging healthcare trends and needs.

Directions

The paper must be between 3 to 4 pages in length, not including the title and reference list pages. The paper must use proper APA Publication Manual, 6th Edition formatting, including title page, running head, and reference list with properly formatted citations in the body of the paper.

 

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  1. Analyzing Researched Information

Description

Overview

For this assignment, you will use the same method for reading a scholarly, published article that was introduced and practiced in Unit 4, to help you analyze the information and discuss insights about its value in addressing the business management issue you have identified as a step in the EbM process.

My Business Management Issue is: Employee Job Satisfaction Problems.

Instructions

For this assignment:

  • Locate and read an article that reports on a research study related to the business management issue, key performance questions (KPQs), and key analytic questions (KAQs) you have discussed in previous units. Note:You may use one of the two articles in your annotated list from the Unit 7 assignment if it is applicable.
  • Complete the Analyzing Researched Information Template, linked in the Resources. Follow the instructions in the template, save it, and then submit it to this assignment.

 

  1. Conducting a Job Analysis

 

Description

Overview

Write a 3–4 page memo outlining O*Net findings used to prepare a CapraTek regional sales representative job description.

Context

Job analysis can be seen as the foundation on which the entire staffing process is built. An effective job analysis informs which knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) are needed to effectively perform the job.

Preparation

To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:

Read Chapters 5 and 7 and review Chapter 6 in Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book.

Read the scenario below.

Scenario
Alfred! will be produced in a new manufacturing facility. Groundbreaking on the new facility will begin this summer with full operations to be accomplished in three phases over the next two years. Distribution of the Alfred! device and components will be through existing distributors and retail outlets. While most of the new hires associated with this product line will be at the new manufacturing facility, four regional sales representatives will be hired to support the new product line.

Requirements

You have been asked to develop a job analysis, job specifications, and a job description for the four regional sales representative positions. To develop the initial information for this assessment, use O*Net OnLine, a U.S. Department of Labor-sponsored Web site of occupational information containing a database of both standardized and occupation-specific descriptors, linked in the Resources.

Hint: Begin your search by clicking Find Occupations. Then, under the Career Cluster heading, go to Marketing, Sales, and Service. From there, you can search for a sales representative in any of the technical fields.

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Write a memo to your supervisor outlining your findings, and explain why a job analysis is required for any recruiting and selection process. In addition, address the following:

A tentative wage plan and the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed for this job.
The job duties, qualifications, education, work experience, and job competencies required.
Wage information and employment trends for this position in your chosen state.
Additional Requirements

Required  length 3–4 pages.
Use Times New Roman font, 12 point.
Double space your memo.

Resources

Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapters 5–7.

U.S. Department of Labor, Employment & Training Administration. (n.d.). O*NET online. Retrieved from http://www.onetonline.org/

  1. Question unit 1

Description

does the class think that when looking at data and reviewing numbers, that these numbers can be used to make changes in government and its agencies, where the provisioning of services tends to remain the same, rather than what we see in the private sector with improved production and sales goals?

 

Explain in a paragraph

 

  1. Unit 2 Role of the Governor

Description

Constitutional constraints notwithstanding, the role and power of the governor has changed over the nation’s history. The office has evolved over time based on societal, technological and political needs. Compare the role of the executive office as described in your state’s constitution with the current roles and functions that your state governor plays. Does your state constitution state or imply the roles you have described for your current governor? Hint: Check local media stories or news articles.

 

  1. Unit 2 Advice about Agency Heads

Description

The following summarizes the advice of one governor to his cabinet members as guidelines to give to their agency heads concerning the decisions they make: (1) stay within the budget, (2) avoid negative press coverage, and (3) abstain from actions that would start conflict between agencies. What if any directives or direction has the governor of your state provided to his/he cabinet secretaries that are consistent with or inconsistent with the admonitions listed above? Cite the sources which support your response including any policy statements, press conferences, press releases, newspaper articles or legislative commentaries. Hint: Online videos of press conferences are particularly informative.

 

 

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  1. Recruiting

Description

Create a 10–12 slide presentation that includes your findings about Internet recruiting and a job posting for a sales representative position.

How organizations begin transitioning from recruiting a large pool of qualified applicants to selecting the best applicant for the position is a complex process that changes over time.

Employment selection decisions are significant for managers and organizations. Poor decisions can result in a tremendous loss for the company. Employee performance is critical to organizational effectiveness because an organization will only be as productive as its workers.

The Assessment 4 Context document contains additional information about the types of assessments used to select personnel.

To deepen your understanding, you are encouraged to consider the questions below and discuss them with a fellow learner, a work associate, an interested friend, or a member of your professional community.

  1. Have you ever taken a test in school or for a job that simply did not make sense to you? Which test would you have chosen instead?
    2. Which type of hiring strategy (for example, permanent hire, using a temporary agency, et cetera) would you use for CapraTek’s new manufacturing employees? Why?
    3. Which type of recruiting strategy (for example, permanent hire, contract-to-hire, et cetera) would you use to fill the four CapraTek sales positions? Why?
    4. How might social media fit into your hiring plans?

Preparation

To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:

Read Chapters 3 and 4 and review Chapters 1 and 2 in Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book, linked in the Resources.

Read the scenario below.

Scenario
As part of CapraTek’s human resources team, you have been asked to research other employers and their Internet recruiting practices. This assessment has three parts:

  1. Evaluate two employers’ online application processes.
    2. Evaluate two general online job search sites for ease of use and information available.
    3. Develop a job description for the CapraTek regional sales representative posting.

Present your information in the form of a PowerPoint presentation deck of 10–12 slides. Ensure your slides are uncrowded, visually appealing, and easy to read.

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Requirements

Part 1: Identify two employers whose Web sites permit candidates to apply for positions online. You may choose any employer but preferably ones you might work for. Select only employers that allow online applications. Evaluate the user-friendliness of the application process and the value of the general job information found online. Consider whether the posted job information provides candidates with what they would want to know regarding the organization.

Using information from your research, create a PowerPoint slide presentation with bulleted points highlighting your key findings. Include the sites’ links. Add information in the slides’ notes section addressing the following:

* Articulate the user-friendliness of the Web sites.
* Compare the quality of the job information for each Web site from an employer’s point-of-view.

Part 2: Select two general job search Web sites (such as CareerBuilder, Indeed, SimplyHired, Monster). You may choose local or specific job sites. Look at the ease of use and the value of the general information provided on these Web sites.

Create additional slides for your presentation in which you include the links to the two Web sites and highlight your findings about them. Add information in the slides’ notes sections that includes the following:

* Articulate the user-friendliness of these Web sites. Would you use them to search for a job? Why or why not?
* Compare the quality of the job information for each Web site from an employer’s point-of-view.
* Summarize findings for or against CapraTek using these selected Web sites for posting positions and searching for applicants.

Part 3: Using your job analysis information for CapraTek’s regional sales representatives, develop a job posting for this position. Make location, salary, and working conditions assumptions as needed. Finish the presentation with slides outlining the essentials for the regional sales representative job description as follows:

* List the necessary qualifications, including educational background, technical experience, skills, and abilities.
* Describe the physical environment and working conditions.
* List the most important duties and responsibilities, with percentage of time spent on each, classifying each duty as essential or non-essential.

Resources

* Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapters 1–4.

* Black, T. (2010). How to use social media as a recruiting tool. Retrieved from http://www.inc.com/guides/2010/04/social-media-recruiting.html

* Hartley, D. (2014). 8 findings about the impact of social media on hiring. Retrieved from http://thehiringsite.careerbuilder.com/surprising-findings-social-media-hiring/

* Heathfield, S. (2015). Recruiting stars: Top 10 ideas for recruiting great candidates. Retrieved from http://www.humanresources.about.com/cs/recruiting/a/candidatepool.htm

* JobDiva.com. (n.d.). Resume harvesting. Retrieved from http://www.jobdiva.info/transcripts/demos/harvesting.htm

* Larsen, M. (2013). The perfect recruiting email. Retrieved from http://www.recruiter.com/i/the-perfect-recruiting-email/

* Recruiter.com. (n.d.). Recruitment. Retrieved from http://www.recruiter.com/i/recruitment/

* Software Advice. (n.d.). Compare recruiting management software. Retrieved from http://www.softwareadvice.com/hr/recruiting-software-comparison/?layout=var_c0

  1. Economics and the Growth of Modern Medicine

Description

In the history of health care delivery, the development of various types of technologies has advanced the growth of medical care. Examples of lifesaving technology include the development of the microscope, X-rays, surgical equipment, and medications. These lifesaving technologies have contributed to increased longevity and life expectancy. These technologies have also brought with them increased cost, the emergence of health insurance, managed care, and high malpractice premiums and awards.

Has the benefit derived from these technologies outweighed the associated costs? Why or why not? To support your comments, select, state, and explain about at least two technological developments that have impacted these costs.

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  1. The Economics of Global Health Care

Description

As the costs of health care delivery in the United States continue to soar, it has become necessary to ‘benchmark’ with other countries abroad on how they deliver health care to their citizens. Countries to consider reviewing include:

  • England.
  • Canada.
  • France.
  • Germany.
  • Sweden.
  • Japan.
  • Cuba.

Select two countries and evaluate how they compare and contrast to how health care is financed.

  1. Methods of Presenting and Communicating Information

Description

Discussion Resources

The following resources are provided to help you complete this discussion and may be useful in completing your course assignments:

  • Marr, B. (2010). The intelligent company: Five steps to success with evidence-based management.Hoboken, NJ: Wiley.

o    Chapter 6, “Present and Communicate the Information,” pages 135–160.

o    The “Action Checklist” for Chapter 6, pages 204–205.

Discussion Instructions

Graphs, charts, and dashboards are common methods of presenting and communicating information in a business environment. Marr (2010) recommends that leaders and managers keep the target audience in mind when using a four-step process to facilitate Step 4 of the EbM model: presenting and communicating information.

Research up-to-date Internet resources related to business management graphs, charts, and dashboard designs and templates.

For your initial discussion post, address the following:

  • Explain how a manager can be certain that a presentation focuses on the needs of the audience.
  • Explain how Marr’s four-step process ensures that presentations are compelling and powerful enough to engage the minds of the audience.
  • Identify common format choices for graphic presentations.
  • Discuss one of Marr’s tips for producing useful graphics. Why would this tip be effective?
  • Explain why dashboards are popular methods for business managers to communicate information.

 

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  1. EBM Process Reflection

Description

Discussion Resource

The following multimedia presentation is provided to help you complete this discussion:

Discussion Instructions

Overview

Through the successful completion of your coursework in Units 6–9, you have explained the key components of the evidence-based management process used in health care management, analyzed sources of information used in evidence-based health care management, demonstrated analytical decision-making skills through the application of an evidence-based management process, and communicated in a manner that is professional and consistent with expectations for members of the business professions. Now that you have reached the end of the course, take time to reflect on your experience and learning over the past five weeks.

Instructions

For your initial discussion post, address the following:

  • Briefly discuss one of the most valuable personal learning experiences you have had in the last five weeks. Why does this experience stand out for you?
  • Share an example of something you learned that you will be able to use in your health care management career, either now or in the future. How will it affect your role?
  • Share an idea, material, resource, or topic that you would like to research or use further, in either your coursework or your career.
  • Provide links to resources you used in Units 6–9 that you want to save for future use. Provide the APA citations for your resources, and include the URLs for any online materials.

Support your ideas with references from the resources and your own research. Follow APA Style and Format guidelines for references and citations.

  1. Knowledge-to-Action Organizational Culture

Description

Discussion Resources

The following resources are provided to help you complete this discussion:

  • Marr, B. (2010). The intelligent company: Five steps to success with evidence-based management.Hoboken, NJ: Wiley.

o    Chapter 7, “Turning Information Into Actionable Knowledge,” pages 163–188.

o    The “Action Checklist” for Chapter 7, pages 206–208.

Discussion Instructions

Step 5 of the EbM model, making evidence-based decisions, involves asking two important questions:

  • How can we ensure that available evidence is used to make the decisions?
  • How do we create a knowledge-to-action culture?

For your initial discussion post, address the following:

  • Briefly discuss how each of these questions can be successfully answered through management or leadership style and actions.
  • Think about the organization where you currently work, or one where you worked in the past.

o    Analyze the organization’s leadership, IT capability, and organizational culture in terms of the ability to turn information into action.

o    Refer directly to Marr’s seven steps to creating a knowledge-to-action culture in your discussion post.

 

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  1. Application of the EbM Steps Presentation

Description

  • Describe your chosen business management issue.

o    Globalization and Technological Advancement

  • Explain the goal(s) organizational leadership would like to achieve with regard to the issue.
  • Describe any successes in solving the issue that have already been achieved and the improvements that are still needed.
  • Analyze the needs of the internal and external stakeholders with regard to the issue.

o    Identify the stakeholders.

o    Explain how and why they are affected by the issue.

o    Explain what they already know about the issue and what they still need to know.

o    Explain what the stakeholders will do with the information you are presenting.

Explaining Your Approach and Research

  • Provide the KPQs and/or KAQs you created for your chosen business management issue.
  • Describe the types of data you identified as needed to address the issue.
  • Explain the role of the organization’s IT department and professionals in the data collection process.
  • Describe the methodologies that could be used to analyze the data.  Be sure to include both quantitative and qualitative methods.
  • Summarize the example source of data that you researched.

o    Describe the source of the data.

o    Identify the methodology used to collect the data.

o    Share an example of actual data you have located.

o    Defend the validity and reliability of both the data and its source.

  • Share one of the articles from a year-to-date professional, peer-reviewed journal that you chose in support of your efforts to resolve the issue.

o    Analyze the value of the information found in the article in addressing the business issue.

o    What insights did you gain from the article?

o    How might the information be applied to the business issue?

Communicating to Stakeholders

  • Describe the potential types of graphs, graphics, dashboards, and narratives that would be most appropriate and effective to use when presenting and communicating this information to stakeholders.

o    Why do you believe your choices would be the best methods?

  • Explain how your choices support your KPQs and/or KAQs, while still being appropriate for the audience.

 

  1. Governor’s attempts

Description

Do you think that your Governor attempts to influence agencies to do or not do actions to protect the business climate in your state? Explain.

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  1. Screening and Interviewing External Candidates.

Description

In a 13-slide presentation deck, develop a variety of interview questions based on the KSAs and required experience for CapraTek’s regional sales representative positions.

The most common applicant screening process looks something like this:

* Review of resumes/applications for basic qualifications.
* A phone interview (generally with HR).
* A screening interview with HR that may involve some initial testing, reference checking, or background screening.
* A department interview with more in-depth testing and background checking.
* Additional interviews with other stakeholders.
* A decision process.
* Offer made to selected candidate.

To deepen your understanding, you are encouraged to consider the questions below and discuss them with a fellow learner, a work associate, an interested friend, or a member of your professional community.

* Based on your own employment experiences, what seems to be the best way to screen applicants so that only qualified applicants are actually invited to be interviewed in person?
* Are background checks and reference checks good business practices? Are they legal?
* Consider an ineffective employment interview that you, a family member, or a coworker experienced. What could the interviewer have done differently to make the interview effective?

Preparation

To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:

* Familiarize yourself with Chapters 5–14 of Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book, linked in the Resources.
* Read Baur, Buckley, Bagdasarov, and Dharmasiri’s 2014 article, “A Historical Approach to Realistic Job Previews: An Exploration Into Their Origins, Evolution, and Recommendations for the Future,” in Journal of Management History, volume 20, issue 2, pages 200–223. This article is linked in the Resources.
* Read the scenario below.

Scenario

In Assessment 4, you developed a job analysis for CapraTek’s regional sales representative positions. Based on that job analysis, you will interview candidates. Before you can do so, you must develop interview questions based on the required knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) and required experience for the CapraTek position.

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Requirements

As a member of CapraTek’s human resources team, you believe the best way to develop the interview plan and select the best candidate is to include a variety of question types. Create a PowerPoint presentation deck containing the following elements, one question per slide. Ensure that your slides are uncrowded, visually appealing, and easy to read.

4 structured interview questions.
3 semi-structured interview questions.
2 behavioral interview questions.
2 situational interview questions.

In addition, include the following:

* Explain why the questions are appropriate for CapraTek’s position and do not request illegal information. Place your explanation in the slides’ notes area.
* Describe which question type(s) relates to the KSAs or required experience for CapraTek’s position.
* Include a title slide and (if needed) a resources slide.

Resources

* Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapters 5–14.
* Baur, J. E., Buckley, M. R., Bagdasarov, Z., & Dharmasiri, A. S. (2014). A historical approach to realistic job previews: An exploration into their origins, evolution, and recommendations for the future. Journal of Management History, 20(2), 200–223. doi:http://dx.doi.org/10.1108/JMH-06-2012-0046

  1. Screening and Selecting Internal Candidates

Description

Write a 5–6 page report describing the process you used to select the best three candidates for CapraTek’s regional sales representative positions.

Recruiting candidates is only the first step in the hiring process. Evaluating candidates, selecting those to interview, conducting interviews and background screenings, presenting a job offer, and onboarding the new employee are subsequent tasks.

The Assessment 6 Context document provides additional information about these processes.

To deepen your understanding, you are encouraged to consider the questions below and discuss them with a fellow learner, a work associate, an interested friend, or a member of your professional community.

* Which employee development methods have you experienced in the workplace? How did these methods affect your retention and engagement? How could the manager have improved the strategies used to make them even more effective?
* What are the primary elements of an effective coaching style? How can a manager be a coach?
* How effective is a current or former manager’s coaching style and use of coaching strategies?
* What are the key steps you would include in a company’s internal recruiting and selection process manual?
* Why would an organization use a contract-to-hire approach to fill a job? How might an employee view this type of situation? Would you take a contract-to-hire job? Why or why not?

Preparation

To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:

* Read Chapter 15 in Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees.
* Complete the Candidate Selection interactive media piece, linked in the Resources.
* Read the scenario below.

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Scenario

You have written a job description for CapraTek’s regional sales representative positions and determined job requirements. Now it is time to determine testing methods and choose the top three candidates to interview.

Requirements

After reviewing the CapraTek regional sales representative job description and requirements you developed for Assessment 5, use the Candidate Selection media piece to review the candidates’ resumes. In a 5–6 page report, include the following in your explanation of the candidate selection process:

* Explain why and when candidate background checks will be authorized.
– Identify pre-employment screening tests for the position being recruited.
– Articulate possible legal issues associated with candidate screenings.
* Select assessment methods to use based on the job being recruited and the budget available.
– Develop the sequence in which methods will be used to screen applicants.
– Explain how technology will impact choice of screening and selection methods.
* Design a final candidate selection process for the position being recruited.
– Describe the method you would use to make your final hiring decision (compensatory, hurdles, weighted, et cetera).
– Determine which candidates meet the basic job requirements.
– Identify the top three candidates to interview for the position.
– Explain your rationale for why the selected candidates should be interviewed.

Additional Requirements

* Times New Roman font, 12 point.
* Double-spaced, typed pages.

Resources

* Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapter 15.

* Use the transcript attached to analyze and apply initial screening methods for selecting candidates at CapraTek.

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  1. Oversight of Executive Branch

Description

How does your state legislature maintain the review and oversight of the actions of the executive branch? What types of questions should be asked by legislators at committee hearings of agency heads, in your opinion?

 

  1. Performance Based Management.

Description

Progressive states have moved to performance-based management to create transparency and public accountability. They have also provided and encouraged easy access to information on how well the government is operating. Information for the public is often posted online. For a state website that does this, see www.vaperforms.virginia.gov/. What is the impact of posting agency performance and the role the state legislature plays in its oversight duties?

 

  1. Unit 3 Assignment

Description

Write a 3-4 page paper discussing the response of legislators to a proposed gubernatorial change in policy towards the state’s natural resources based on the following scenario:

Governor Goode E. Nuff was elected on a platform that promised greater protection for the state of her state’s natural resources, including a bay with diverse habitat supporting bountiful fish and shellfish.

Over the past decade, developers have been changing the shores of her state’ bay turning what was once the source of a vital and productive fishery into a haven for large homes and resorts that take advantage of the beautiful water view.

The Governor is dedicated to changing the bureaucracy and the state legislature, which have tended toward favoring developers in the past, with an eye to focusing their efforts on policies more in line with the views and priorities of those citizens who voted her into office.

To that end, she has decided to include in her legislative agenda a major push to accomplish the realignment, during the third year of her four-year term.

This agenda includes:

  1. A proposal to give citizen groups greater power to challenge new development based on evidence of it having an adverse impact on the environment
  2. A reorganization of the agency responsible for protecting her state’s bay with the creation of a new enforcement policy empowering the state to bring civil suits for money damages against industrial and developmental polluters
  3. Empowering citizen groups to intervene in county zoning decisions that would encroach upon naturally open space in environmentally sensitive areas
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  5. A substantial budget increase for the environmental enforcement agency to for the hiring of 100 additional inspectors to monitor for violations and ensure adherence to state standards for environmental protection. This legislative program requires a 14% budget increase for that agency, an amount 10% above the average 4% increase for all other state agencies.

Some members of the legislature feel that Governor Goode E. Nuff is “radical” in her approach and in her attempt to gear state policy toward protection and preservation of natural resources.

Your paper must address the following criteria:

  • What tactics can the Governor expect from these legislators and other interested parties as they attempt to “moderate” the Governor’s program?
  • On what specific points can the Governor expect direct conflict with the legislators and opposing interest groups?
  • Which parts of the Governor’s agenda are most vulnerable to attack by her opponents in the legislature, and therefore most likely to be modified or even defeated during the legislative process? What risks might the legislature be taking? What gains or losses might they face from the success or failure of such attacks, (in terms of political capital, voter opinion, etc.)?
  • What might be the best strategy for the administration to adopt in combating and countering those attacks? What gains or losses might she face from the success or failure of that strategy, (in terms of political capital, voter opinion, etc.)?
  • How might the legislative opponents attack this agenda?

In addition to fulfilling the specifics of the Assignment, a successful paper must also meet the following criteria:

  • Lengthshould be 3-4 pages, excluding cover page and references; in 10-12 point font (Arial, Courier, and Times New Roman are acceptable).
  • Assignment should follow the conventions of Standard American English(correct grammar, punctuation, etc.).
  • Writingshould be well orderedlogical and unified, as well as original and insightful
  • Your work should display superior content, organization, style,and mechanics
  • Appropriate citationstyle should be followed.
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  1. Healthcare

 

  1. Select and describe a specialty that has evolved in a different direction from that of advanced practice nursing (e.g., administration, nursing education, health policy, and/or forensic nursing).
  2. What key differences do you see in this evolution as compared with developed APN specialties?
  3. Describe the future vision and goals each role and relate to emerging healthcare trends and needs.

Directions

The paper must be between 3 to 4 pages in length, not including the title and reference list pages. The paper must use proper APA Publication Manual, 6th Edition formatting, including title page, running head, and reference list with properly formatted citations in the body of the paper.

 

  1. General Questions

 

For this assignment, read the case study, The 1920 Farrow’s Bank failure: a case of managerial hubris. This case is located in the ABI/Inform Complete Database found in the CSU Online Library (see reference below).

Hollow, M. (2014). The 1920 farrow’s bank failure: A case of managerial hubris? Journal of Management History, 20(2), 164-178.

Thomas Farrow had been evaluated as having been inflicted by managerial hubris at the time of the bank’s collapse in 1920. With this in mind, address the following questions, with thorough explanations and well-supported rationale.

 

  1. How did corporate culture, leadership, power and motivation affect Thomas’ level of managerial hubris?
  2. Relate managerial hubris to ethical decision making and the overall impact on the business environment.
  3. Explain the pressures associated with ethical decision making at Farrows Bank.
  4. Evaluate whether the level of managerial hubris would have been decreased if Farrow Bank had a truly ethical business culture. Could this have affected the final outcome of Farrow Bank? Explain your position.

 

Your response should be a minimum of three and half double- spaced pages (not including the refernce page and title page). References should include your required reading (attached) , case study (attached) reference plus a minimum of one additional credible reference. All sources used must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations, and cited per APA guidelines.

 

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  1. Business

For this assignment, you will take on the role of a Vice President of a major organization. The CEO has assigned you the responsibility of educating the leaders within the organization of the importance of maintaining an ethical culture. The tone of the presentation should be of a persuasive nature as you will also be asking these leaders to take this initiative to each of their areas. As you compile this presentation, include the following:

  1. Explain exactly what it means to maintain an ethical culture within the organization.
  2. Analyze the role that culture plays in global business ethics.
  3. Describe and persuade on the importance and rationale for maintaining an ethical culture within the entire organization. Think about methods that could be used to motivate towards ethical business practices.
  4. Recommend tactical methods that might be used within each of their areas.

Your PowerPoint presentation should be 14 slides, not including the title slide and reference slide. All sources used must be referenced and paraphrased. Directly quoted material must have accompanying citations and be cited per APA guidelines.

Use of speaker notes is required as well. In the speaker notes, you will provide what you would say if you were actually giving the presentation to an audience. Please write your notes in complete sentences and adhere to typical grammar and/or punctuation rules.

 

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  1. Business

Select a significant tragic event (either domestic or global) that has occurred during the last 50 years. The interactive PowerPoint in this unit provides some ideas of historical tragic events but understand that these are just ideas. After describing the event and the post-tragedy events, discuss the ethical aspects revolving around this incident. This may require some additional research to understand the ethical situations and the impact these had on affected people being able to move on with their lives.

  1. Describe the actions of people and organizational leaders directly and indirectly involved with the tragedy. Specifically, address the ethical issues they faced.
  2. What were some of the actions of local, state and federal personnel with respect to dealing with this tragedy?
  3. Explain the strategies of organizations that attempted to assist with the clean-up after the tragic event. Describe several of the pressures that influenced their strategies. Distinguish between social responsibility, integrity and simple business ethics.
  4. How has this event affected the ethical culture here in the United States? What other affect has it had on society as a whole?

Your response should be a minimum of three double-spaced pages. References should include, at minimum, one additional credible reference beyond the required reading (attached required reading). All sources used must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations, and cited per APA guidelines.

 

  1. Business

Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions about the ethics of space travels with his crew. Do you think character has any role in business ethics? Why or why not? How does character and personal integrity pertain to you in your profession or future profession?

Your journal entry must be at least 200 words.

 

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  1. Business

 

In the case of the Coyote and Road Runner (attached), one might question the ethics of the two characters’ behaviors on many fronts. Think of a company that you have worked for or that you know about that has not successfully implemented a culture of ethical business behavior. What would you suggest to that company in order for the leaders to improve their culture?

Your journal entry must be at least 250 words.

 

  1. Business

Hawkeye Pierce and BJ Hunnicutt built years of unethical situations on the popular show MASH. Through their comical depiction of these situations, the viewer might have been left with the impression that the unethical behavior was actually appropriate. Share your thoughts about what can happen to a business if ethical standards are not taken seriously.

Your journal entry must be at least 250 words. No references or citations are necessary.

 

  1. General Business

 

Batman and Commissioner Gordon constantly involved themselves with local, state, and federal regulations. Think about the regulations in your locality and specifically reflect on one regulation that could use some improvement. What could be improved regarding this regulation?

Your journal entry must be at least 250 words. No references or citations are necessary.

 

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  1. HIUS 221 National Park Essay

I have to turn in a report on a National Park or Museum in my area and I chose Serpent Mound Park in Peebles Ohio. See the directions below

 

Museum or National Park Assignment Instructions

 

Statement of Purpose or “Why Am I Doing This?”

There are many benefits to visiting historical museums or sites via walking tours. By actually witnessing a historical site, greater understanding of the events of past can be achieved. The visual learning dynamic as well as the tour guide learning scenario can all the more make “history come alive” and provide the student with a hands-on learning experience.

 

Completing This Assignment:

 

  • The student will visit one of three options related to U.S. historical events between the 1500s-1865: 1. A local museum. 2. A National Park. 3. A befitting video website walking video tour or suitable YouTube link of a Museum or National Park related to U.S. historical events between the 1500s-1865. Regardless of whether the student chooses to physically visit a location or view a site via a weblink route, it is required that they submit a request proposal (via the Mod. 4 DB assignment) to the course instructor seeking formal approval before taking the next steps in completing the Mod. 7 writing assignment.
  • Following the site visit, using the available assignment template, the student will then type a double space 12 font reflection (700-800 words) answering the following questions… How is this historical site relevant to events within the 1500s-1865 and the area now known as the United States? What historical information did you learn from this visit? What historical event or events were covered via this site? What (i.e.) artifacts and/or other displayed items were interesting to you and why? In other words, what stood out about this place and why? How did the site help you appreciate history?
  • The title page and reference page do not count towards the total page count.
  • When you are finished, your assignment must be:

o    In a Microsoft Word (or compatible) document

o    Formatted, including:

  • 12-point Times New Roman font
  • double-spaced
  • 1-inch margins
  • Page numbers placed at the bottom center of each page of text (not including the title page)

o    Proofread carefully to ensure it is written in scholarly language with no grammar, spelling, or punctuation errors and conforms to the standards of mechanics and style expected at the university level

  • You must use the template for the assignment provided in Assignment site.

 

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.

 

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  1. Accounting

What is periodicity assumption? Please explain this accounting concept and provide examples when possible. This discussion needs to be at least 300-400 words.

 

  1. History

 

Who is Vasco Núñez de Balboa? Please give a quick overview (around 3-5 paragraphs will do) of his early life, major contributions to explorations and history in general.

 

  1. Mathematics

 

A car is traveling at 60 mph and is tailgating another car at distance of only 30 ft. If the reaction time of the tailgater is 0.5 seconds (time between seeing the brake lights of the car ahead flash and hitting the brake), how far will his car travel during his reaction time?

Important note: Please discuss comprehensively how you got your answer.

  1. Psychology tests: What Is Reliability?

 

What are the types of Reliability considered in the field of Psychology? Explain each briefly. When possible, provide samples. Cite references please.

  1. History

Discuss the damage wrought by the Indian Ocean earthquake and tsunami. Include details on death tolls, total amount of damage, effect/impact on the cities affected, etc. Essay needs to be around 300-500 words.

 

  1. Question on GDP and national growth rate

How does a country’s GDP factor in determining a country’s growth rate? Explain and give an example of a country. Cite references.

 

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  1. Need help with Physics word problem

A man is 2,000 m from the base of a tower and is launching a rocket in the direction of the same tower. When the rocket takes off the change in the angle between the flight path and the land is represented by Φ(t) according to time. Knowing that Φ'(t) = Π/3, determine:

  1. The height of the rocket when Φ = Π/3 radians.

 

Please explain how you arrived at your answer.

  1. Modern treatments for pre-eclampsia

 

Explain what preeclampsia is, symptoms, diagnosis, and the most recent treatments being offered. Cite references.

 

  1. How Dialysis works as Kidney Treatment

How does the process of Dialysis work to resolve kidney problems? Please explain comprehensively how the process works and do cite medical references when possible.

  1. Which formula should be used to determine the total cost

The wedding photographer for the Smith/Jones wedding charges $1,000 for her preparation and first 60 prints. The cost is $2.00 per photo for photos beyond the first 60. Which formula should be used to determine the total cost, C, as a function of the number of photos, p, that are purchased, assuming at least 60 are purchased?

  1. C = 1000 p + 2
  2. C = 1000(2p – 60)
  3. C = 1000 + 2(p – 60)

Please explain your answer. Thanks!

  1. Essay on Cloning morality, and its pros and cons

Why is the morality of cloning being questioned? Does the act of cloning have benefits or disadvantages? What are they? Please answer with a 500 word essay. Cite references.

 

  1. Discuss the concept of Marxism

Please explain the concept of Marxism. Make sure to discuss its pros and cons in society. Give a detailed answer, cite references when possible. This has to be at least 500 words.

 

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  1. Short essay on Pablo Neruda’s work

What was Pablo Neruda’s most notable work? Which one do you prefer? Explain your answers in 300-500 words.

 

  1. Explain Hypothetical Syllogism

What does hypothetical syllogism mean in the field of Philosophy? Explain in 300 words, provide examples.

 

 

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  1. What is the ‘real story’ behind the animated film Pocahontas?

From what I know this film was based on a true story. Please discuss the factual turn of events in the Pocahontas – John Smith story and provide a brief comparison of those events and the characterization made on the film.

I just need a short, around 300-500 word essay on this. Thanks!

  1. Essay on Pearl Buck’s “The Good Earth”

Provide a brief summary of Pearl Buck’s “The Good Earth”. In addition to the book’s basic plot, discuss as well how this relate’s to society and what significant lessons can be learned from it.

Essay/answer has to be no less than 500 words. Thank you!

  1. Need help with Carbonic acid solution

How many milliliters of 60% carbonic acid must be mixed with how many milliliters of 15% carbonic acid to make 650 milliliters of a 38% carbonic acid solution?

Please explain how you arrived at your answer.

  1. Japan’s rise to power after World War 2

Please discuss Japan’s rise back to power as a first-world country after the Second World War. How did they do it? How far have they progressed after that time in history? This essay needs to be at least 500 words.

 

  1. Question on Caste culture in India

How does the caste culture in India work? Is it still being used? What is its good and bad sides? Please answer comprehensively and make sure to cite references. Answer must be no less than 300 words.

 

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  1. Question on Adam Smith and Capitalism

Discuss Adam Smith and His Invisible Hand of Capitalism. Discuss the merits of this theory. Please cite examples or situations whenever possible. Cite references.

 

  1. Discuss the story of the Yamashita’s treasure

What is the story behind the ‘controversial’ Yamashita treasure? Discuss this in no less than 300 words. Make sure to share interesting facts.

 

  1. Federal vs Republican Government – which is better?

What is the difference between a Federal and Republican government? Explain the good and bad sides of each, and please provide examples of countries where these two government systems are implemented. Answer needs to be at least 500 words. Cite references please.

 

  1. What is systems theory in management?

What is the systems theory used in the management setting? What is pros and cons? Give or cite a workplace situation where you think it is most effective and why?

 

  1. Need help factoring polynomials

Please help factor these polynomials. I would also appreciate if you can discuss briefly how you arrived at the answer, and provide tips on how to work on similar problems in the future. Thanks

1.)  x2 – 15x + 54

2.)   x2 – 8x – 9

3.) x2 – 10x – 11

4)    x2 – 6x – 16

  1. Describe the role of women in US politics

Describe the role of women in US politics in recent years. Give three names of women who have played a significant role in this field usually dominated by men. Give details on their contributions to the US legislation etc.

 

  1. What is your take on Donald Trump as a presidential candidate?

What is your take on Donald Trump as a presidential candidate? What do you think are his merits? What do you think are the cons of voting for him? Please present this in an essay form, college-level writing, and do include political science concepts that apply to your answer.

  1. Health & Medical

Give five examples of strength training exercises that runners can use in their daily training. Explain the steps for each, and how the athlete can benefit. Cite medical references when possible.

 

  1. Science

What is the free energy change if the ratio of the concentrations of the products to the concentrations of the reactants is 22.3, and the temperature is 37.0 °C? ΔG°\’ for the reaction is –16.7 kJ/mol. Please explain how you got your answer

 

  1. History

In a short essay, about 300-400 words please describe the French Renaissance era. Make sure to cite references.

 

  1. Mathematics

Please solve: Solve log ( 2x + 1 ) – log 6 = 2 for x. Please explain how you arrived at your answer.

 

  1. Philosophy

Can you please tell me a bit about Existential phenomenology? Just a brief explanation of what it’s all about will do.

 

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  1. What is the final temperature of the mixture?

An ice cube having a mass of 50 grams and an initial temperature of -10 degrees Celsius is placed in 400 grams of 40 degrees Celsius water. What is the final temperature of the mixture if the effects of the container can be neglected? Discuss your answer.

  1. Help find the mean and standard deviation values

Seven samples were obtained having the values 21, 22, 26, 29, 27, 26 and 24. The mean and standard deviation values are ____________?

  1. Economics international finance question.

Question

  1. Assume the exchange rate is fixed (and expected to remain fixed). Using numbers and the ‘money supply-money demand and interest rate parity diagram’, explain how an increase in the U.S. interest rate from 3% to 7% affects the Mexican interest rate, foreign exchange reserves, and the money supply in the very short run. Hold domestic credit fixed. Also include the diagram that shows the flows in money and bonds.
  2. The exchange rate is fixed. Using the two-sector model, explain how an exogenous increase in the marginal product of labour in the traded sector affects domestic prices, wages, and the price level in the long run. Hold all other exogenous variables fixed.
  3. Fill in the blanks. Do not explain; just fill in the blanks (put your answers in the booklet). (a) The exchange rate is fixed today. If, all of sudden, investors expect a devaluation of the domestic currency in the near future (there is an exogenous increase in the expected future exchange rate), the domestic interest rate ________ and foreign exchange reserves _________ in the very short run. (b) In the two-sector model with a fixed exchange rate, an exogenous increase in the marginal product of labour in the non-traded sector causes the price of the non-traded good to _______ and the wage rate to _________ (hold other exogenous variables fixed). (c) In the early 1960s, the inflation rate in Japan was ___________ the inflation rate in the U.S. The last time that Canada had a fixed exchange rate was between the years 1962 and ________. (d) In the intertemporal model with money under a flexible exchange rate, the exact equation for interest rate parity is ________________________. The approximate version of the Fisher equation is written as _____________________. (e) In the intertemporal model with money under a flexible exchange rate, a temporary increase in the money supply results in ________ in the nominal interest rate and _________ in net exports.
  4. (a) Draw the diagram for the intertemporal model with money under a flexible exchange rate (label the axes). Show the initial equilibrium as point A. Suppose there is a future increase in the money supply (the current-period money supply is unchanged). Show the shifts in the curves (or lines), if any, and denote the new equilibrium as point C. Just draw the diagram; do not explain. (b) Consider the three-sector model with a fixed exchange rate. Using equations, explain what determines the ‘terms of trade’ in the domestic eco
    nomy (suppose the domestic economy exports the resource good and imports the manufactured good).

 

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  1. Why was grassroots conservatism?

Question

1.Why was grassroots conservatism particularly strong in the Sun Belt in the 1970s and 1980s? I need this question answered in simple summary form using simple words.

  1. Using Richard Clarke’s Cyber War and his argument

Question

  1. Using Richard Clarke’s Cyber Warand his argument that our current Cybersecurity protection programs are inadequate, outline the sixsteps he recommends to improve America’s security as presented in his final chapter “The Agenda,” and provide your personal assessment and analysis of his recommendations.
  2. Discuss the unique cybersecurity issues as applicable to the TelecommunicationsCI.Specifically discuss the respective potential vulnerabilities and concerns, impact on other CIs, current government/industry activities, and present your recommendations regarding the future security of telecommunications.
  3. Discuss“Cyberpeace”as a concept. Include the possible applicability of international laws, treaties,  enforcement of law and possible punishments, and other aspects that would be leveraged for success such as those used for the Nuclear Non-Proliferation programs. Is this concept realistic and can the nations of the World come together and make it happen? Explain.
  4. Discuss the unique cybersecurity issues as applicable to the Transportation CI.Specifically discuss the respective potential vulnerabilities and concerns, current government/industry activities, and present your recommendations regarding enhanced Cybersecurity of these key national assets.

Answers must be thorough and in APA format with sources cited. Answers must be 2 pages per question.

  1. History 111

Question

  1. What specific gains did the civil rights movement achieve in the 1960s and how were those gains limited?
  2. Help

Question

Your best friends invite you over for pizza and a friendly game of cards. Describe how the following parts of the brain are involved during your evening of eating pizza, socializing, and playing cards: Broca’s area, hippocampus, hypothalamus, and occipital lobe.

  1. Targeting unhealthy foods and drinks to children

Question

Read the link below and answer the following questions

Is the FCC missing the mark on their inability to hold social media to the same standard as television and radio? Does this pose an even greater threat to our children in the long run?

https://www.azcentral.com/story/news/health/2019/03/04/instagram-social-media-may-cause-kids-eat-unhealthy-study/3052978002/

 

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  1. The normal healing of wounds can be modeled by an exponential function

 

Question

The normal healing of wounds can be modeled by an exponential function. If represents the original area of the wound and if A equals the area of the wound, then the formula describes the area of a wound after n days following an injury when no infection is present to retard the healing. Suppose that a wound initially had an area of 100 square millimeters.a) If healing is taking place, how large should the area of the wound be after 3 days?b) How large should it be after 10 days?c) How many days will it take before the wound is 11 square centimeters?

  1. Business stat

Question

Michael is running for president. The proportion of voters who favor Michael is 0.8. A simple random sample of 100 voters is taken. Round all probabilities to four decimal places.

What is the probability that the sample proportion will be between .70 and .90? Answer

What is the probability that the sample proportion will be less than .05 of the population proportion? 

 

 

The average starting salary for this year’s graduates at a large university (LU) is $20,000 with a standard deviation of $4,000. Furthermore, it is known that the starting salaries are normally distributed. All probabilities should be to four decimal places.

What is the probability that a randomly selected LU graduate will have a starting salary of at least $30,400? Answer

Individuals with starting salaries of less than $15,600 receive a low income tax break.  What percentage of the graduates will receive the tax break? (Round to two decimal places) Answer

What are the minimum and the maximum starting salaries of the middle 95% of the LU graduates? (Round to two decimal places) Minimum Answer, Maximum Answer

 

 

A department store has determined that 25% of all their sales are credit sales. A random sample of 75 sales is selected. Round all probabilities to four decimal places.

What is the probability that the sample proportion will be between 0.20 and 0.30? Answer

What is the probability that the sample proportion will be less than 0.15

 

  1. An alliance’s purpose can affect which governance

Question

An alliance’s purpose can affect which governance structure is optimal. Compare a pharmaceutical R&D alliance with a prescription-drug marketing agreement, and recommend a governing mechanism for each. Provide reasons for your selections.

  1. “Should We Require Labeling of Genetically Modified Food?”

Question

What do you think we can do to get our government to follow other country and require more disclosure on our food contents?

Why isn’t US requiring the same thing?  What do we, the consumers, have to do to get our government to look out for our health rather than the pockets of the food producers.

  1. Feasibility of CSR initiatives in SMEs – benefits and challenges

Question

Recognize and identify ethical issue(s) (i.e., competing viewpoints) present; identify the social responsibility complexities present and explain how they may impact resolution of the issues.

Select an issue of corporate social responsibility beyond the assigned readings and online discussions. The research paper should be 5 full pages of substantive content, and should rely on at least 3 credible sources. (Credible sources refer to books and published articles that are respected for academic purposes, and not web articles, blogs, or Wikipedia-type sources) The report will:  1) identify the issue; 2) describe any stakeholders involved in the issue and their role(s) in addressing it; 3) information/data pertaining to the issue from your researched source materials; 4) potential solutions to the issue; 5) any challenges or impediments in implementing the solution(s); and 6) Conclusion.  You should include a cover page, a reference page (Bibliography), and end-notes page; these pages are not included in the pages of content.

 

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  1. Online/offline Marketing Audit

Conduct an online and offline marketing audit for a brand of your choosing. Discuss the current use of online & offline marketing techniques they use to get their marketing message out.  Conduct a deep analysis of their website and the tools used to drive people to use their services and/or purchase their products.

 

Analyze an interactive marketing strategy for a company of your choosing.

3 full pages 

 

  1. Essay

Question

Summary:

Newspaper Article Assignment:

 

There are many critical international issues happening in the world today that are directly related to historical events or eras we’ve discussed in this class.  For this assignment, you must find a recent news article (from a credible source – email me if you are unsure of a source) about a current event and write a paper about how the article relates to an event or era discussed in this class.  This is not an informative paper, but rather you must use critical thinking to discuss how the current event is related to the history we’ve discussed and how it differs.  Compare and contrast the present with the past using course readings, lectures, and outside sources if necessary to supplement your paper.  Any supplemental sources should not be the main focus of your paper; your analysis of the newspaper article chosen is, and it should be obvious which is your main article.

 

Cite everything using footnotes (with full bibliographic information in them).

DO NOT PUT PARENTHESES IN YOUR TEXT.

 

*** Your answer must be about 5 pages (no more, no less), typed, DOUBLE SPACED, and 12-point Times New Roman font, one inch margins. You will be graded on content, grammar, punctuation, and following directions.  Remember, these papers add up to 20% of your final grade; they should be a well thought out responses with a beginning, middle, and end. ***

 

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Guidelines:

  • Find an article from a credible source – avoid 24-hour news channels (Fox News, CNN, MSNBC, etc.)… If you are unsure of your source, please email me.
  • Be specific. I want you to really think about this article and your response to it and how it fits into our course… You MUST cite course materials (lectures, readings, etc.)
  • Avoid replacing arguments with examples.  Use examples to illustrate a general claim, not as a replacement for them.  Examples by themselves tend toward selection bias and hasty generalizations.
  • I am interested in content, not clever rhetorical flourish.  Thus, avoid filler material… DO NOT USE BLOCK QUOTES FROM THE ARTICLES OR READINGS.  Direct quotes should be no longer than 2 sentences, MAXIMUM.
  • If you do not cite, even when you paraphrase, it will be considered plagiarism. PLAGIARIZED PAPERS WILL BE PENALIED EITHER BY AN F ON THE PAPER OR THE COURSE AND WILL BE REPORTED TO THE DEAN.
  • PROOFREAD YOUR PAPER.  You will be marked off for typos, punctuation errors, and/or major disorganization.
  • The heading of your paper should be your name ONLY.
  • 1-inch margins all around
  • The paper is to be at least 5 FULL pages long, not less (No cover page).

 

Topics to pick from:(Pick one that’s easy to for you)

-Fin de Siècle & The Dreyfus Affair “J’Accuse” (Emile Zola’s letter)
– Russo-Japanese War and the Antecedents to the Great War “The Serbs and the Hapsburgs”

– World War I “The Night the Angels Sang” essay

-The Armenian Genocide De Waal – Armenian Genocide
– The Bolshevik Revolution & Ukraine Famine Anthem by Ayn Rand & Jones chapter
– The Origins of the Nazi Party Excerpt from The Hitler Myth
– The Rise of the Nazis & Suppression of the Jews Excerpt from Between Dignity and Despair
-The Rape of Nanking Excerpt from The Rape of Nanking
– The Politics of World War II in Europe USHMM doc

 

  1. It is no secret that we have a large trade deficit

Question

Read the below link and answer the questions.

Word count 300

Arguments for protectionism would be to aide job creation or to keep wages up. This sounds great, but can all business sectors be protected or just few?

https://www.forbes.com/sites/patrickwwatson/2019/02/06/science-says-protectionism-wont-work/#3864e00873b4

 

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  1. Algebra 1

 

Instruction

Students need to complete one project and submit it before Friday of week 15. The official deadline for submission is Apr 12, 2019, before 9 PM. Format guidelines The project can be any topic in relation to algebra and its applications. However, it should NOT be on the material that is already covered in class. The students must select their own projects and articles. Important: No part of the project can be a copy and paste from anywhere, including the article under discussion (except the data and images, which need to be properly cited). If in doubt read https://ombud.msu.edu/academic-integrity/plagiarism-policy.html Turnitin has a built-in plagiarism tracker. Please use it to your advantage. The entire document should be written in APA format and should be between 4 to 10 pages in length not including images and the cover page. No extra wide margins are allowed. The margins should not be more than 1” in any direction. Choosing a topic Students must choose their own topics. Once the topic is chosen please post the topic in the following thread https://online.brooklinecollege.edu/mod/forum/view.php?id=539558 Start a new thread with the topic of your project as the subject line and post your topic in this thread. The same topic is not allowed for any two students. The student who posts a topic first gets it. Examples of viable projects: Mortgage rates Auto loan Compound interest Submission All papers should be submitted as a pdf file via the Turnitin module of Week 15. If any technical issues are encountered then contact your instructor asap. Rubric The following are the sections on which the project will be graded. A clear description of the objective of the article (20%) A clear description of the algebraic methods used (30%) Interpretation of the results (30%) Analysis of the conclusions of the article (20%) These 4 sections form the essential parts of any research article. The competence demonstrated in achieving the objective of each of these sections will be awarded accordingly. The rubric for each section and the article as a whole is 0 – Incoherent content, rambling on for pages, a clear indication of no work done, poorly chosen topic, a generic topic with no original content, copy paste from Wikipedia, a topic which is disallowed on grounds of being textbook material 1 – Some content, poorly researched, and hastily put together at the last minute 2 – Some research is done but the substance is still incoherent showing a lack of understanding 3 – Sufficient work is done, but the sections are not well-written and contain loose language and lack general cohesiveness 4 – Well researched and well-written. Minor typos, grammatical errors, lack of organization of the paper, too short a paper 5 – Excellent work, very well researched. Sections are clearly defined in terms of meaningful progress. The plan of the paper binds everything together in a cohesive manner This is applicable to each of the four sections and the whole article. So a total of 25 points possible. That will be scaled to 100 by multiplying by 4.

 

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  1. Performing Arts

The incredible true story of how boundary-shattering New England astronomer Henrietta Leavitt trades with comforts of her rural home for a job at the Harvard Observatory in Massachusetts. Her ambition leaves both her family and her new colleagues (women knows simply as “computers”) perplexed. But with a single discovery, their views of themselves, each other, and the universe itself will be upended for all time. An incredible story of bold love, boundless determination, and the vast grandeur of the cosmos – an unparalleled treat for the heart, mind, and senses. Please write a one page review to include your opinion of the play (text), the production (lights, set, costumes, etc.), the performance (acting), and your overall experience.

 

  1. Week 8 – Assignment: Interpret the Implications of Unethical Behavior

Instruction

Now is the time to compile all the concepts you have learned in this course into a comprehensive case study analysis. Assume you are an instructor presenting an unethical case study to your graduate students. Develop a PowerPoint presentation on a business of your choice. Be sure you include clear examples to support your findings. Please discuss unethical business actions that occurred from 2015 to present. Ensure to address the following key components for your student audience: Provide a brief historical summary of the organization. Identify and explain the unethical business practice examined. Reflect on ethical standards and why this practice was a violation of ethical behavior. Determine the influence of leadership in regards to this behavior. Explain any related cultural, environmental, and legal implications related to the behavior. Interpret the impact of the behavior on individuals, the organization, and society as a whole. Explain the outcome of the event, along with a comparison of the consequences (mention legal implications for the action). Determine the fairness of punishment. Explain your rationale using an ethical theory, as found in the recommended reading, to justify your rationale for the punishment’s fairness. Explain how organizational policies and procedures could be implemented to deter future occurrences like this from happening. Incorporate appropriate animations, transitions, and graphics as well as speaker notes for each slide. The speaker notes may be comprised of brief paragraphs or bulleted lists. Support your presentation with at least eight scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources may be included. Length: 15-20 slides (with a separate reference slide) Notes Length: 200-350 words for each slide Be sure to include citations for quotations and paraphrases with references in APA format and style where appropriate.

 

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  1. Week 7 – Assignment: Assess the Effectiveness of SOX Legislation

Instruction

This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions Prepare a paper in which you address the following: Identify and explain the key ethical components of SOX. Explain why financial fraud and abuse still occurs despite the passage of SOX. Recommend potential improvements of the SOX legislation based on your research. Recommend measures, beyond the scope of SOX, that organizations can implement to prevent financial statement fraud and abuse. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

 

  1. Week 6 – Assignment: The Organization’s Influence on Unethical Behavior

Instruction

This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions The assigned reading articles provide a great deal of information regarding the impact that organizational systems have on unethical behavior. For example, in the article by Kilduff et al. (2016), the researchers note that rivalry can often increase unethical behaviors. This week, you will explain how an organization’s culture (e.g., systems and practices) can unknowingly/unintentionally increase unethical behavior among employees. Explain the importance of organizational culture and codes of conduct in encouraging ethical behavior. Assess three organizational policies or practices, as found in the reading and outside research, which can increase unethical behavior among employees. Propose informal and formal system solutions to reduce unethical behavior in organizations. Explain the benefits of these system solutions, as well as possible implications for these solutions. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic.

 

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  1. Week 5 – Assignment: Critique Ethical Issues Regarding Information Technology

Instruction

You have been hired as a consultant in the IT Department at Northcentral University. One of the University’s current goals is to minimize security threats and prevent breaches. To accomplish this, you have been asked to research last year’s “major hacks” to understand technology, information security measures, and issues in security management. Prepare a report for the IT supervisor that includes the following: Select one major incident to research regarding technological breaches. Identify the company that was affected, and then describe this incident and why you selected it. Explain the implications associated with this breach, specifically in terms of privacy laws and violations of the law. Analyze the impact that these technological breaches have on consumer safety and well-being. What recommendations would you make to this organization to further protect the privacy of clients? Support your report with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic.

 

  1. Week 4 – Assignment: Effects of Ethical/Unethical Behaviors

Instruction

This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions While Wal-Mart may employ a number of individuals (e.g., 2.1 million worldwide), throughout the years, the company received negative attention in terms of their business model and practices. Not only has Wal-Mart been accused of treating employees poorly, but they have also been the target of discrimination scandals. Begin by referring to the article in the resources for this week concerning Wal-Mart. Then, conduct a review of relevant research regarding Wal-Mart and its practices. In your paper, after thoroughly researching the Wal-Mart Corporation, address the following: Briefly summarize WalMart’s mission, vision, and values. Evaluate WalMart’s actions (e.g., unethical behaviors). Elaborate on whether the actions by WalMart are illegal. Justify your rationale. Determine how WalMart can improve its corporate culture and leadership. Then, suggest steps for improvement that could be taken to improve WalMart’s culture. In addition to conducting your own research regarding WalMart, you may find it advantageous, when developing your assignment, to watch the videos included in this week’s resources. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards

 

  1. Week 3 – Assignment: Evaluate the Price of Unethical Behavior

Instruction

This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions Prepare a paper in which you evaluate a recent business case of unethical behavior with which you are familiar. Be sure to address the following in your paper: Briefly summarize the historical scenario surrounding your selected case. Explain how and why you believe the unethical behaviors occurred for as long as they did. Evaluate the outcome of events, including relations with internal and external stakeholders. Determine and explain if the punishment was justified. Explain if and why it is difficult for us to identify ethical breaches that we personally commit. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

 

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  1. Week 2 – Assignment: Examine Notions of Ethical Leadership

Instruction

This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions Assume you are an instructor of a graduate-level leadership and ethics course. In this course, your students are not convinced that the actions of leaders can truly impact individuals, the organization, and society. Therefore, you need to convey how ethical behaviors do in fact impact many individuals and further reiterate the need for ethical leadership. Explain how the authors in your readings and additional research define leadership. Specifically, focus your explanation on what it means to be an ethical leader. Interpret the manner in which leaders serve as role models (better or worse) for ethical behavior. Determine the impact the concept of trustworthiness has on the level of trust in organizational leadership. Based on your research, describe the impact that leadership behavior can have on individuals, organizations, and society. Then, explain which of the articles above convinced you of the benefits of ethical leadership, as well as the role of leaders. Identify any correlations that exist between leadership, trustworthiness, and ethics. Incorporate appropriate animations, transitions, and graphics as well as speaker notes for each slide. The speaker notes may be comprised of brief paragraphs or bulleted lists. Support your presentation with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 12-15 slides (with a separate reference slide) Notes Length: 150-250 words for each slide Be sure to include citations for quotations and paraphrases with references in APA format and style where appropriate. Save the file as PPT with the correct course code information. Upload your assignment using the Upload Assignment button below.

 

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  1. Week 1 – Assignment: Assessing Ethical Influences

Instruction

In 2009, an article was published by Kostigen, which highlighted the names of 10 unethical business people. While the names on similar lists change throughout the years, the names on this 2009 list often strike most recall among the business community. Examine this list, which can be found at http://www.marketwatch.com/story/the-10-most-unethical-people-in-business. Then, select one individual on this list to focus your paper on. Provide information regarding the individual’s unethical action/behavior. Based upon the research you conduct on this individual, utilize the articles by Bagdasarov et al. (2016) and Schwartz (2016) to analyze factors that might have contributed to this individual’s unethical behavior. Focus specifically on how diversity (e.g., cultural, gender, religious, etc. could have impacted/influenced the unethical behavior). Explain and justify the factors that may have influenced this individual to make the decision that he/she did. Explain how the decision made is reflective of Figure 1 (e.g., the integrated ethical decision-making model), in the research article by Schwartz (2016). Determine how this behavior could have been prevented if one or more of the factors mentioned above were removed. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your paper should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

 

  1. Computer Science

Instruction

Hello, I’m looking for a professional in computer science majors only. I have 3 classes. I will make it very clear I’m not looking for writers. 1. Data Analysis and Reporting Class: / Is SQL database / ERDs so you will use Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio inside the VMware Horizon client. You also will use Visual Studio 2017. Also, there’s reading quizzes and assignment quizzes. These class 8 weeks work, which means 8 assignments in SQL database / ERDs. 24 quizzes “I will support you will old papers for all quizzes” 2. Data Analysis/Visualization Class: / Is an Excel database and you will use excel 2016. Also, there’s an assignment project om SAM project website. Every week assignment which means 8 assignments. 3. Predictive Data Analysis Class: / Is an Excel database and you will use excel 2016 and you will Using R programing language for Introductory Econometrics by Florian Hess. Every week assignment which means 8 assignments. I will put the syllabus here and please read it carefully and tell me if you can handle the whole classes or not. please note if you cannot take the responsibility or you’re not the right person I’m looking for please ignore this announcement. I don’t want to waste my time again! That’s all. Before you do anything READ the syllabus 1,2,3. These classes will end on May 6. So, it’s only 2 months’ work.

 

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  1. History

Instruction

Write an essay of 2 to 4 pages in length comparing the words used in the “U.S. Declaration of Sentiments of Seneca Fall (1848)” with “The Emancipation of Women and Resolutions of the International Congress of Women.

 

  1. Finance
  2. Convert the four financial statements by the selected company from the GAAP to IFRIS standard B. Write an analysis at the end of each financial statement that show the most important changes cause of converted. C. Answer the following question after you complete convert of all the financial statements:

 

  1. Healthcare

Instruction

There are seven components to this paper. They follow the EBP process. You will combine all the components into one project.

Research Methods & Evidence-Based Practice Project PICOT QUESTION: In the primary care setting, does clustering care during (acute visits) increase patient satisfaction (%) while decreasing office wait time?

 

  1. Article review and power point

Instruction

I need two Apply Behavior Analysis articles reviewed according to the Rubrics attached below. One article must come from the Association for Contextual Behavioral Science website, when you go to the website the article must come from the section drop down which states ACT. A PowerPoint presentation is needed with the article review. The power point must be well written to where I can read the presentation and it make sense to the reader and the listener. When a valid point is made, I would like a slide or two that ask the listener for questions. I like acceptance and commitment therapy so one of the article reviews could address that area but not necessarily. Another article must be written on any application of Applied Behavior Analysis to a clinical disorder and the above instruction must be followed. Both articles must follow APA Guidelines and be grammar and error free. This is doctorial level work, so it is my expectation that the writer has the knowledge and the expertise.

 

  1. Nursing Homework Help

 

What is the role of health care reform in shifting the focus from a disease-oriented health care system toward one of wellness and prevention, and how does nursing fit into this shift?

 

  1. Nursing Homework Help

What is the impact to the nursing profession and to the public related to the projected nursing shortage? Discuss at least one way that the nursing profession is working toward a resolution of this problem.

 

  1. SCI/220 Week 2 Food Intake

Record food intake and activities performed for three days. The iProfile® will be utilized to analyze the 3-day Food Intake Record. The Activities data will be analyzed during Week 4.

Enter your food intake for three full days using the food journal within iProfile®.

Follow the WileyPLUS® iProfile® instructions. Save this information.

Access the Intake Spreadsheet within the reports menu. Select start and end dates in the calendar at the top of the screen. The intake spreadsheet will calculate and display the average for the three days. Attach a screenshot of your report or export the report using Excel or PDF.

Write a paper of at least 750 words that addresses the following points about your 3-day food intake:

  • Recorded intake of protein, carbohydrates, and lipids
  • Which foods in your recorded daily intake provide protein? Which provide carbohydrates? Which provide lipids?
  • Review how your recorded protein, carbohydrate, and lipid intake compares with the recommendations of the dietary reference intake. If your recorded protein-carbohydrate-fat intake was too high or too low, which foods might you add or remove to achieve your goal and keep other nutrients in balance?
  • Is the protein in each food you ate complete or incomplete, combining to become complementary? Why is this important?
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  • How much of your daily recommended protein, carbohydrates, and lipid intake did you achieve? If your macronutrient intake is insufficient or excessive, what might you do to bring it into the recommended range? Provide specific recommendations.
  • Macronutrient intake ranges
    • Is macronutrient intake within the recommended range important? What are the effects of too much or too little of a macronutrient? What happens if you consistently eat too little protein? What happens if you eat too few carbohydrates? What happens if you eat too few lipids?
  • Fiber intake ranges
    • Does your fiber total meet 100% of the recommendation for you as calculated at iProfile®?
    • Does your diet meet the minimum number of servings of foods from each fiber-containing group? If not, which of the fiber-containing groups–fruits and vegetables–fell short of the recommended intake?
    • Which specific foods provide the most fiber in your meals? Which provide the least? Identify trends in your food choices that might affect your fiber intakes.
  • Dietary modifications
    • What changes might you make to increase the fiber in your diet?
    • How might insufficient or excessive amounts of proteins, carbohydrates, fats, or fiber contribute to health or illness? Provide examples.
    • What have you learned about your diet?

Cite three references other than the course text.

 

  1. 2 Discussion Question (Criminal Justice)

Questions:

  1. Which model do you think contemporary American society prefers? Explain why
  2. Are dangerous societal trends being captured in UCR/NIBRS or NCVS programs? Explain why or why not.
  3. Reflection Paper

You have learned a great deal this term! You can now bring so much more to the table and help contribute to the success of your team and the company.

  1. Reflect on what you have learned in this course and program.
  2. Share with us three (3) strengthsyou can now bring to the table

 

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  1. Law Homework Help

Key Assignment Draft

In those states with the three strikes laws, any person who has 2 felony strikes and commits another felony, whether it be violent or not, can be required to serve a sentence of 25 years to life.

Look at the case of Ewing v. California:

The defendant had his third strike when he committed grand theft at a golf course in Los Angeles County. This was not a violent crime but he was subject to the three strikes laws. He appealed this case up to the United States Supreme Court—and lost.

The public has always been worried about violent crime, but just how worried are citizens about nonviolent crime? With mandatory sentencing, society will have many older inmates within the prison system. In the criminal justice community, it is known that inmates “age out of crime.” Can you imagine a 68-year-old man climbing in a window or jumping an 8-foot fence? By keeping these older inmates incarcerated, is this a disservice to society?

State prosecutors have the discretion to lower the charge so that the third offense would not be considered a third strike. For this assignment, you are a policy maker in your state legislature. You are concerned about the heavy tax burden on your constituents. The cost of the actual running of the prison and costs of personnel will rise.

You are also up for re-election, and the feedback that you have received from your constituents has shown that they are dissatisfied with the law that now stands. They are afraid of violent crimes, not just felonies, and are very aware that the last crime committed by the perpetrator does not have to be a violent crime. They are also worried about the use of their tax dollars to incarcerate nonviolent offenders.

Assignment Guidelines

  • Address the following in 5–7 pages:
    • Develop a policy regarding the three strikes laws in the State of California. Address the following in your policy:
      • What alternatives would be placed in the law to give the state prosecutor more freedom to manipulate the third strike?
      • Many prosecutors “load up” charges against defendants to force a plea bargain. What can be done to limit or prevent this practice?
      • Will your policy allow multiple counts arising from the same incident to count as multiple strikes? (For instance, a man arrested for aggravated robbery because of the use of a weapon is charged with aggravated robbery and a felony gun possession charge. Should that count as 1 strike or 2?)
      • If one of the alternatives was supervised probation, how would you convince the public that it would be more cost-effective for the person to be supervised than incarcerated?
      • Show the public where you would be saving money by not incarcerating the perpetrator.
      • If brought up in the legislature to be an amendment to the law, could this be grandfathered in to help older inmates?
      • Could this have a backlash from the public, or would they approve? How? Why?
    • Once you are finished with the policy, draft an executive summary of the policy to be used for political decision making.
  • Use 6–10 scholarly resources to support the provisions of your policy. Dictionaries and encyclopedias are not scholarly sources. Look at federal and state legislation and court cases.
  • Be sure to reference all sources using APA style.
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  1. The Social Problems of Crime & Deviance Discussion Post

 

In about two paragraphs detail the relevance of Steffensmeier et al.’s findings. In other words, are there cases that you have read about that follow the sentencing trends documented in their study? Provide some details about the specific case or cases. Also, thinking about Burt et al., what are some possible solutions to the inequality in our criminal justice system?

Be sure to cite the course readings for full credit.

  1. Literary Analysis Paper

Your task is to write will write a literary analysis of no fewer than 750 words on your chosen given topic.

Choose the topic below that corresponds with the novel you read in the novel study. The introduction should include a clear thesis (not a restatement of the prompt), which should be the claim upon which your essay will be built. Each body paragraph should begin with a strong topic sentence (an assertion), and contain evidence from the novel, as well as your own commentary, which will connect your evidence with the claim. End your essay with a strong conclusion in which you again revisit your thesis statement and give your reader “food for thought”– what didn’t you say in your essay that is relevant to the overall essay and your assertion?

ESSAY PROMPTS

Frankenstein by Mary Shelley
Review the following themes of the novel:

  1. Parents must take responsibility for their children, and creators must take responsibility for their creations.
  2. Nature is a source of solace and inspiration.
  3. Manipulation of nature has devastating effects.
  4. Excessive pursuit of knowledge or ambition leads to destruction.
  5. Human beings need love and companionship; repeated rejection and alienation leads to antisocial behavior.

Choice #1: Choose one of the above themes, and analyze how Shelley expresses the theme in the novel.

Choice #2: Analyze a key scene from the novel, discussing how this scene in particular advances one of Shelley’s major themes. In the introduction, contextualize the scene (where in the novel it is located, what characters are present). Then have a clear thesis in which you make your assertion about the scene’s importance (to plot, character, and theme).

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  1. Unit 5 Individual Project Final Paper.

Key Assignment

You will use the new venture business plan from ENTR615 and your work from Week 4 for this assignment. The final draft should incorporate feedback provided by your instructor and peers during the course.

The new venture business plan from ENTR615 should include the following sections:

  • Table of Contents (TOC)
  • Mission Statement
  • Vision Statement
  • Product or Service
  • Market Opportunity
  • Competitive Environment

Part 1

Incorporate any new information generated during this course to the following sections of your new venture business plan from ENTR615:

  • Product or Service
  • Market Opportunity
  • Competitive Environment

Part 2

Generate the following new sections for your new venture business plan from ENTR615:

  • Facilities
  • Operating Plans
  • Legal Structure

Part 3

The main component of this part of the assignment is the inclusion of updated and detailed pro forma financial documents.

The financial documents should include the following:

  • Balance sheet
  • Income statement
  • Cash flow statement

Polish and strengthen your plan to improve the following:

  • Format
  • Flow
  • Ideas

Be sure to focus on the following:

  • The sections should be tightly written and professional in a business rather than academic style.
  • Present charts, graphs, and other visual aids as appropriate.
  • Changes made to any aspect of your plan should be reflected in your financial information.

Submit your business plan and financial statements in PDF format. Your most recent EZ Numbers file for the proposed new venture should be submitted in .xlsm format.

Please submit your assignment.

For assistance with your assignment, please use your text, Web resources, and all course materials.

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  1. Personal Narrative

Your task is to write a 750-1000 word essay about a memorable event in your life.

ESSAY PROMPT

Annie Dillard’s and Louise Erdrich’s essays are observations of animals that lead back to reflections on their own lives. Write your own personal essay, following these steps.

  • Write about a memorable event in your life.
  • Explain how this event led to an insight about your own life or about the human condition.
  • Organize your ideas into a unified essay.

Step Two: Prewrite

Brainstorm possible topics.

List memorable events or encounters with nature or other people that you remember. Ask yourself questions about ways in which each encounter might be emblematic of a general truth.

Your essay will progress from the personal to the universal and include specific details to help the reader understand the insights gained from the experience.

Get Organized

Decide on the structure of your narrative and create an outline or use a story map to reflect your ideas.

Look back at Living Like Weasels and Local Deer to help you. Ask yourself these questions about each one:

  • How does the story begin? What techniques are used to engage the audience?
  • How does the writer develop the narrative? What is the sequence of events? How are the main ideas organized?
  • How does the writer use setting, people or characters, conflict, and events to reveal a theme about experiencing the natural world?
  • How does the narrative end? Is there a final observation or reflection on nature?

Flesh out your narrative with descriptive details. Visualize the places and people in your narrative, and write down details about them. Be sure to include qualities and characteristics that make them unique.

Record some ideas for revealing the insight you gained from this experience.

Draft Your Essay

Use your outline to write your essay.

Remember to

  • Begin by introducing your readers to the setting, people, and experience that will be central to the narrative.
  • Describe a chronological sequence of events (opens in a new window).
  • Write from the first-person point of view (opens in a new window), and allow your own unique voice to shine through.
  • Provide a powerful conclusion. A personal narrative should end with reflections on the events and experiences that have been described.

Revise and Edit

Revise for Words that Wow (opens in a new window).

 

Scoring

Grading will be assigned on the attached rubric.

Ideas and Evidence (20)

  • 5 points – The introduction creates a vivid impression, clearly establishes the setting, and identifies the experience.
  • 5 points – The narrative provides informative background to help explain events.
  • 5 points – Descriptive details, realistic dialogue (if included), and reflection dramatically re-create the experience.
  • 5 points – The conclusion powerfully summarizes the importance of the experience and offers an insightful observation.
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Organization (10)

  • 4 points – The organization is effective; ideas are arranges logically and events are organized chronologically.
  • 2 points – The pace is effective.
  • 4 points – Well-chosen transitions clearly connect ideas and show the sequence of events.

Language (8)

  • 2 points – A consistent, first-person point of view creates a unique voice.
  • 2 points – Sensory language is used creatively to describe people, places, and events in vivid ways.
  • 2 points – Sentence beginnings, lengths, and structures vary and have a rhythmic flow.
  • 2 points – The writing demonstrates strong command of standard English writing, including spelling, capitalization, punctuation, grammar, and usage.

MLA Formatting (2)

  • 2 points – All MLA Guidelines have been followed— margins, paragraphs indented, double-spacing, 12″ Times New Roman font, heading and title included and formatted correctly, page numbers.

Total marks = 40 points

 

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  1. SCI/220 Week 2 Carbohydrate Pamphlet

Create a 2-page pamphlet/brochure using the Microsoft® Publisher, Microsoft® PowerPoint®, Brochure Builder, or another brochure building tool. Include the following details:

  • A title.
  • Define carbohydrates and outline the basic functions of sugars, starches and fiber in the body.
  • Describe the differences between simple and complex carbohydrates, stating healthy carbohydrate sources.
  • Describe how sugars are broken down and used in the body.
  • Explain the difference between soluble and insoluble fibers, stating how the difference can be applied to food selection and consumption so as to improve health.
  • Include information on one of the following disorders related to carbohydrates: lactose intolerance, diabetes, or hypoglycemia.

Include a definition, how it affects the body, and some courses of action used to treat and manage the disorder.

Include a reference with citations in APA format.

Include clip art and a background image.

 

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  1. American National Government Final Paper- Affordable Care Act

The Final Paper should utilize the POL201 Final Paper template and be at least six pages in length (not including title page and references) and based on your previously submitted assignments. It is important to utilize APA Style Elements (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. headings for major sections of your paper in order to ensure that the paper is easy to follow.

Scaffold your paper around the following outline:

The Final Paper Assignment

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  1. Discussion Post

Post an analysis of sources and methods of data collection in the context of your DBA doctoral research question. In your analysis, do the following:

  • Explain how the “Four Principles of Data Collection” from Yin (2018) support your ability to address your DBA doctoral research question.
  • Explain the importance of utilizing multiple sources of evidence and triangulation within the data collection process. Be sure to address the specific types of data triangulation (data, investigation, investigator, methodological) and their relationship to data quality. Be sure to provide a scholarly example to support your explanation.

Be sure to support your work with a minimum of two specific citations from this week’s Learning Resources and one or more additional scholarly sources.

 

To prepare for this Discussion, review this week’s Required Readings and consider why the different sources of evidence are important to the work of a DBA doctoral researcher, including the role of triangulation within the qualitative data collection process.

 

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  1. HR Director of A U.S. Based Medium-Sized Consumer Product Firm

For this written assignment you will focus on staffing.

Think about this scenario – you are the HR director of a U.S. based medium-sized consumer products firm. Your company is opening a sales office in [you choose the country]. Your job is to decide the best approach for staffing this new office.

For this assignment:

  • Decide what your product is.
  • Decide what country you will expand to.
  • Decide what Staffing Approach to use.
  • List Advantages and Disadvantages for the approach you chose.
  • What would be the Return on Investment for your choices?

Papers should be

  • 3-4 pages in length (not including title and reference pages)
  • Reflect APA guidelines
    • a title page
    • reference page
    • in-text citations
  • A minimum of two references are required
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1.HIUS 221 American History Opposing Viewpoints Research Project: Part III – Research Paper

The topic I chose for this was the Boston Massacre and the project needs to be on “Could the Boston Massacre Have Been Prevented?” 

American History Opposing Viewpoints Research Project: Part III Instructions

Statement of Purpose or “Why Am I Doing This?”

The ability to perform solid research is a key to success in academics and professional life, but communicating that research in a clear and concise manner is equally as important. This part of the assignment provides you with the opportunity to develop writing skills—specifically in the areas of organization and use of proper grammar, mechanics, and style—and to show your ability to use sources with integrity.

Completing This Assignment:

For the topic selected in Module/Week 2 of the course and utilized again in Module/Week 4, you will complete in the actual body content at least an 800 word 3-page paper that presents the research conducted during the term.

The paper must be well organized and developed and provide a concise examination of the subject.

Utilizing the sources from Module/Week 4 that were closely connected to your original topic choice from Module/Week 2 give an extended paper overview of the event? Discuss your own arguments. Include opposing viewpoints you discovered in your research. As a result, did your opinions change? How?

Citations must conform to current Turabian citation style with properly formatted footnotes and bibliography for the 3 or more scholarly sources you use.

The title page and reference page do not count towards the total page count.

When you are finished, your assignment must be:

In a Microsoft Word (or compatible) document

Formatted, including:

12-point Times New Roman font

double-spaced

1-inch margins

Page numbers placed at the bottom center of each page of text (not including the title page)

Proofread carefully to ensure it is written in scholarly language with no grammar, spelling, or punctuation errors and conforms to the standards of mechanics and style expected at the university level

You must use the template for the assignment provided in Assignment site.

2.Psychology


Instructions
Research the psychological state of active shooters who enter an active shooter location.
Research the psychological state of police officers who enter an active shooter location.

Discuss in detail (3-5 well-developed paragraphs) the psychological state of active shooters versus the police officers who enter an active shooter location to neutralize them.  

3. Classical v. Bureaucratic Modles

Description

Compare and contrast the classical and the bureaucratic models of an organization. What values do they both rely on and why is this important for understanding government processes?

 Does the class think that the bureaucratic model will continue to have support as, the number of agencies and services the state provides continue to grow? Explain  

4. Unit 2 Discussion question

Description

The following summarizes the advice of one governor to his cabinet members as guidelines to give to their agency heads concerning the decisions they make: (1) stay within the budget, (2) avoid negative press coverage, and (3) abstain from actions that would start conflict between agencies. What if any directives or direction has the governor of your state provided to his/he cabinet secretaries that are consistent with or inconsistent with the admonitions listed above? Cite the sources which support your response including any policy statements, press conferences, press releases, newspaper articles or legislative commentaries. Hint: Online videos of press conferences are particularly informative.

5. Examining the Legal Environment

Description

Overview

Write a 4–5 page report in which you analyze data concerning CapraTek’s hiring and promotion practices.


Many U.S. laws, ordinances, and guidelines directly impact the hiring and selection process. 

Context

Organizations use several methods to find job candidates. The Assessment 2 Context document contains information about the complexities involved in recruiting, hiring, retaining, and promoting employees.

Questions to Consider

To deepen your understanding, you are encouraged to consider the questions below and discuss them with a fellow learner, a work associate, an interested friend, or a member of your professional community.

* How should organizations respond to allegations of workplace discrimination?
* What are significant legal issues that you need to be cognizant of during the recruiting and selection process? How would these issues affect the recruiting process for CapraTek’s regional sales representatives?
* As social media becomes a growing hiring influence because of its reach and information prospective applicants freely share, how can organizations protect themselves against charges of invasion of privacy?

Preparation

To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:

Read Chapter 6 of Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book


Read the scenario below.
Scenario
While planning for expansion, CapraTek is also concerned about its hiring and promotion practices at existing facilities. Management has asked for an analysis of the workforce in its flagship manufacturing facility. As the Recruiting Director for CapraTek’s major manufacturing facility you are concerned about the company’s hiring posture relative to women and minorities. Your manufacturing plant in a nearby major city especially worries you. You recently checked the latest statistics for the SMSA the plant is in and found the following:

* Females in the labor force: 35%
* Blacks in the labor force: 10%
* Hispanics in the labor force: 5%
* All other groups are 0%


To address your concerns you first looked at the selection statistics for the past 12 months. Note: This plant hires mostly unskilled laborers and then trains them. Here is what you found:

Hiring Statistic

  Total Females Black Hispanic
Number Applied 80 20 10 5
Number Hired 20 6 3 1

Next you looked at your existing work force and found the following:

* Total: 450
* Females: 50
* Blacks: 22
* Hispanics: 20

Finally, you looked at how protected classes are being moved up in the plant. While workers are hired as unskilled laborers, that is not the whole story. There are two higher paying options open to them: they can become skilled machine operators (by passing an in-depth company run training program) and from there they can become line supervisors (this pays even more than the skilled jobs). You are concerned about how that program works also; the statistics are as follows:

Positions Within the Company

  Total Females Black Hispanic
Unskilled Workers 350 45 20 15
Skilled Operators 50 1 2 3
Line Supervisors 25 2 1 1

Note: The above totals do not add up to 450 or the work force totals because there are other jobs in the plant not used in this analysis.

Requirements

Using what you know about CapraTek’s hiring and promotion practices, prepare a report for top management addressing the following: 

* Analyze the data for evidence of adverse impact using the 4/5ths rule. Consider the applicant flow.
* Analyze the data for evidence of adverse impact of employee utilization based on the relevant labor market for the state you chose in Assessment 1.
* Analyze the data for evidence of adverse impact on any protected class concentrated in lower-paying jobs.
* Assess CapraTek’s hiring and promotion practices to support its growth strategy.

Additional Requirements

* Write 4–5 typed, double-spaced pages (not including title page or references).
* Use Times New Roman font, 12 point.
* Include a title page and, if needed, a reference page.

References

* Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapter 6.

* Davison, H., Maraist, C., Hamilton, R., & Bing, M. (2012). To screen or not to screen? Using the Internet for selection decisions. Employee Responsibilities & Rights Journal, 24(1), 1–21.

* Houtenville, A., & Kalargyrou, V. (2012). People with disabilities: Employers’ perspectives on recruitment practices, strategies, and challenges in leisure and hospitality. Cornell Hospitality Quarterly, 53(1), 40–52.

6. Health Care Analytics

Description

Discussion Resources

The following resources are provided to help you complete this discussion and may be useful in completing your course assignments:

  • Marr, B. (2010). The intelligent company: Five steps to success with evidence-based management. Hoboken, NJ: Wiley.
    • Chapter 5, “Analyze the Data and Gain Insights,” pages 101–132.
    • The “Action Checklist” for Chapter 5, pages 202–204.
  • Bernard Marr & Co. (n.d.). The 6 best hadoop vendors for your big data project. Retrieved from https://www.bernardmarr.com/default.asp?contentID=1418
  • EHR Intelligence. (n.d.). Retrieved from https://ehrintelligence.com
    • Note: you may need to sign up with an e-mail address in order to have full access to this site.
  • Healthcare IT News. (2018). Analytics. Retrieved from https://www.healthcareitnews.com/category/resource-topic/analytics
  • Health Data Management. (n.d.). Retrieved from https://www.healthdatamanagement.com

Discussion Instructions

In 2010, Marr stated, “Most organizations are still more focused on simply collecting and distributing data than in doing any meaningful analysis” (p. 202). Since that time, technology has continued to rapidly advance. Support for health care leaders related to collection and analysis options for data and information has expanded as well.

Prepare for this discussion by researching the websites provided in the resources to increase your awareness of the current state of data collection and analysis in health care management. Then, locate and study a current article, blog, webcast, interview, or other source of information that addresses an issue, expert opinion, tool, new development, or future trend related to data analysis in the health care industry.

For your initial discussion post, address the following:

  • Provide the APA citation and URL (if applicable) of the source and summarize its content.
  • Explain how this information offers value to leaders managing in health care organizations.
    • Consider your investigation of the websites linked in the Resources.
  • Based on this research and examination of information, do you think Marr’s statement above is still valid today in the health care industry? Explain your position.

Support your ideas with references from the resources and your own research. Follow APA Style and Format guidelines for references and citations

7. Analyzing Researched Information

Description

Overview

For this assignment, you will use the same method for reading a scholarly, published article that was introduced and practiced in Unit 4, to help you analyze the information and discuss insights about its value in addressing the business management issue you have identified as a step in the EbM process.

My Business Management Issue is: Employee Job Satisfaction Problems.

Instructions

For this assignment:

  • Locate and read an article that reports on a research study related to the business management issue, key performance questions (KPQs), and key analytic questions (KAQs) you have discussed in previous units. Note: You may use one of the two articles in your annotated list from the Unit 7 assignment if it is applicable. 
  • Complete the Analyzing Researched Information Template, linked in the Resources. Follow the instructions in the template, save it, and then submit it to this assignment

8. Conducting a Job Analysis

Description

Overview

Write a 3–4 page memo outlining O*Net findings used to prepare a CapraTek regional sales representative job description.

Context

Job analysis can be seen as the foundation on which the entire staffing process is built. An effective job analysis informs which knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) are needed to effectively perform the job.

Preparation

To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:

Read Chapters 5 and 7 and review Chapter 6 in Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book.

Read the scenario below.

Scenario
Alfred! will be produced in a new manufacturing facility. Groundbreaking on the new facility will begin this summer with full operations to be accomplished in three phases over the next two years. Distribution of the Alfred! device and components will be through existing distributors and retail outlets. While most of the new hires associated with this product line will be at the new manufacturing facility, four regional sales representatives will be hired to support the new product line.

Requirements

You have been asked to develop a job analysis, job specifications, and a job description for the four regional sales representative positions. To develop the initial information for this assessment, use O*Net OnLine, a U.S. Department of Labor-sponsored Web site of occupational information containing a database of both standardized and occupation-specific descriptors, linked in the Resources.

Hint: Begin your search by clicking Find Occupations. Then, under the Career Cluster heading, go to Marketing, Sales, and Service. From there, you can search for a sales representative in any of the technical fields.

Write a memo to your supervisor outlining your findings, and explain why a job analysis is required for any recruiting and selection process. In addition, address the following:

A tentative wage plan and the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed for this job.
The job duties, qualifications, education, work experience, and job competencies required.
Wage information and employment trends for this position in your chosen state.
Additional Requirements

Required length is 3–4 pages. Use Times New Roman font, 12 point.
Double space your memo.

Resources

Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapters 5–7.

U.S. Department of Labor, Employment & Training Administration. (n.d.). O*NET online. Retrieved from http://www.onetonline.org/

9. Cloud Computing Security

Question

The topic I chose for my research paper is Cloud Computing Security. Cloud computing services have been provided by major vendors such as Google and Microsoft, until Apple announced iCloud for their customers. There were many issues with hackers gaining access private cloud storage of celebrities, particularly female. In my essay, I will use technology and information resources to research issues in information systems and technology. I will also focus on discussing the issues, vulnerabilities, problems, etc., and conduct an analysis, and provide recommendations.

10. Manipulating the Minitab Output

Question

Use the graphs and tables from W2 Assignment.

Create a brief Microsoft PowerPoint presentation describing your sample. Be sure to give an accurate and complete description, taking your instructor’s feedback from W2 Assignment into consideration.

11. Science Says that Protectionism wont Work

Question

Read the link below Answer the questions below 

https://www.forbes.com/sites/patrickwwatson/2019/02/06/science-says-protectionism-wont-work/#3864e00873b4

Do you all feel that we should use protectionism as a foreign trade policy? How do you see it harming or benefiting our trade deficit or economy?

12. Search the Internet for information regarding the interaction between web browser and web server using HTTPS

Question

Search the Internet for information regarding the interaction between web browser and web server using HTTPS from initial handshake to close of the session. Create a detailed drawing of the steps and also annotate each step with additional detail.

13. How to Integrate Climate Change Risks and Opportunities into Supply Chain Management

Question

Read the link above focusing on a news article discussing supply chain issues

https://www.supplychain247.com/article/how_to_integrate_climate_change_risks_and_opportunities_into_scm

14. Discussion Topic need 8 different answers for post

Question

Students need to contribute eight substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies. Here are our topics!

1. The visual system is very complex, as you can tell from this week’s reading! It would be great if you could discuss an element of the visual system that you find interesting and explain why (e.g., rods and cones, the retina, etc). 

2. We have a few sensory systems to discuss in this chapter! Please describe a phenomenon associated with the auditory (hearing), somatosensory (touch), or gustatory (taste) system. Why is the system you choose to discuss unique?  

3. As you will read, there are multiple brain regions that control sensorimotor function. What makes these regions important for how we move and balance our body?

15. In a lottery daily game, a player picks four num

Question

In a lottery daily game, a player picks four numbers from 0 to 9 without repetition. How many different does the player have

16. Creative Writing Poem

Question

ASSIGNMENT #3 DUE: Stanley Kunitz Imitation poem. Write another free-verse poem, but again with and focus on eliminating sentimentality and cliché. Try to write a poem that captures a moment, imitating Stanley Kunitz’s, “The Portrait”.  The idea is to NARROW your poem down to a focused moment, or a specific experience that illustrates an emotional moment withOUT naming that emotion. Work on SHOWING through detail and imagery. But remember to ZOOM IN. Use the moment the way Kunitz does in The Portrait. Using a “WE” or “I” speaker, write about a specific shared/experience that captures the nuances of everyday relationships of loved ones. Feel free to LIE! This poem should be written in FREE VERSE (no rhyming). Try to follow the line and stanza patterns of the Kunitz poem. 

17. Math question about combination safes

You are tasked with opening a safe without knowing the combination. Beginning with the dial at zero, the dial must be turned counterclockwise to the first combination number, then clockwise back to zero), and clockwise to the second combination number, (then counterclockwise back to zero), and counterclockwise again to the third and final combination number, whereupon the door will open immediately. There are 40 numbers of the dial, including the zero.

Without knowing the combination numbers, what is the maximum number of trials required to open the safe? (One trial means one attempt to dial a full three-number combination)

18. Coastline question math, hard concept

Suppose there’s a straight coastline and a lighthouse that is L=3 miles away from the coast. This light revolves at one revolution per minute. How fast is the beam of light travelling along the coastline? When the beam is 3L away from the coastal point closest to the light, how fast is the light travelling along the coast.

Explain how you got to the answer.

19. Career Planning and Management 300 words

Identify a possible entry-level or appropriate job for a career that might interest you. For example: Software Developer, Web designer, Web content writer, auto mechanic, or dental technician. Perform an Internet search for information about your career of interest.

  • Select several items from the search results list and go to their websites to see what you can learn about the career. Write down what you learn.
    • Do some research about the career including job qualifications, a typical workday, good versus challenging aspects of the job, technical skills required for the job, and the company background and culture. Summarize your findings in writing.
    • After your research, do you think this job is appropriate for you? Why do you think that is? 

      Do web research, and create a brief report showing:
  • Recent statistical data on identity theft
  • Type of identity theft
  • Steps than can be taken to protect yourself against identity theft

20. Defend or refute one of the following statements

1. Slavery of Africans had a greater impact in North America than it did in Central American, South America or the Caribbean.

2. Without question, the most important commodity during the era of European expansion was sliver.

3. The European Expansion was motivated purely by religious rivalries among the European power.


Choose one of the statements and defend or refute it in at least 300 words. Use MLA style and references.

21. Learning Strategies Psychology

Topic is : Human Rights

1. Define the topic

2. Why do you believe that topic is social problem in our society?

3. How are people in this group treated in our society?

4. How have government (local, state and / or federal) attempted to address this problem?

5. What can you as an individual do to have positive impact on this issue?

Paper needs to be the introduction paragraph, body paragraph, conclusion paragraph and the the reference page.

300 words or more

22. Pole and minimum number of moves

There are three poles in front of you. One pole is stacked with 64 rings ranging in weight from one ounce (at the top) to 64 ounces (at the bottom). Your task is to move all of the rings to one of the other to poles so that they end up in the same order. The rules are that you can only move one ring at a time, you can move a ring only from one pole to another, and you cannot even temporarily place a ring on top of a lighter ring.

What is the minimum number of moves you need to make to achieve the task?

Show a detailed proof and give a thorough explanation please.

23. Math help

You’re standing at the center of a circular field of radius R. The field has a low wire fence around it. Attached to the wire fence (and restricted to running around the perimeter) is a large, sharp-fanged, hungry dog who likes to eat any humans he can catch.

You can run at speed v. Unfortunately, the dog can run four times as fast, at 4v. The dog will do his best to catch you if you try to escape the field. What is your running strategy to escape the field without feeding yourself to the dog.

Please explain your solution.

24. Math Help

John is talking to Mary while working on a deal book at 2AM. Mary learns that John’s sister has three children. “How old are the children?” asks Mark. “Well,” replies John, “the product of their ages is 36.” “Hmmm, the sum of their ages is the same as this figure right here,” says John pointing at the spreadsheet. “Still not enough information,” says Mary after thinking for a minute. “The eldest is dyslexic,” says John. How old are the children?

25. Unemployment compensation

Please answer the following in connection with unemployment compensation and worker’s compensation:

  1. Evaluate: Everyone who loses his or her job is entitled to unemployment compensation.
  2. Analyze: It is important to know whether one is an employee or an independent contractor in case the person is injured at work.
  3. Evaluate this statement: Workers’ compensation legislation considers fault.
  4. Explain why someone might think this statement is true: The worker’s compensation system is not always beneficial to workers.

At least a 300 words response. APA

26. Mirror question

Please help me out with this confusing question!

Why are images in a mirror flipped horizontally and not vertically? For example, although I wear my wristwatch on my left wrist, and my reflection wears his on his right wrist, my reflection is not standing on his head.

Please explain in your own words, 200 words minimum.

27. Business question – 1 or 2 pages MLA

Question:

Don is an elderly man who lives with his nephew Evan. Don is dependent upon Evan for care. Evan advises Don to “invest” in Evan’s professional gambling venture. Evan tells Don that he will no longer provide care unless Don makes the investment. Don sells all of his stocks and bonds and signs a contract with Evan investing the proceeds of his sale of the stocks and bonds in Evan’s professional gambling venture. Can Don set aside the contract? If Don is successful in setting aside the contract, what remedy should he seek in addition to setting aside the contract?

28. Business question 4 – 1 or 2 pages MLA

Question # 4:

General Equity Corporation enters a contract with Nancy, a local artist, to create a mosaic of her famous painting “The Birth of Industry” to be set into the floor in the entrance hall of the new corporate headquarters. Nancy delays and then eventually refuses to perform the contract. In the meantime, General enters a contract with Ideal Investments, Inc. to sell the new building to Ideal. Before the sale of the building is complete, Jewel Funds, Inc. offers General a higher price for the new building and General refuses to honor the contract with Ideal Investments. General brings a lawsuit against Nancy for her breach of contract and seeks the remedy of specific performance. Ideal, after successfully enjoining the sale of the building to Jewel Funds, brings a lawsuit against General seeking a court order compelling General to complete the sale to Ideal. In your answer, discuss whether or not a court would grant the plaintiff’s request for the remedy of specific performance in each case. If you conclude that a court would not grant the remedy of specific performance in either case, discuss what the measure of damages might be available to the plaintiff in that action.

29. Business Question – 1 or 2 pages MLA

Question: Publix Supermarkets, Inc. is a Florida Corporation with its principle offices located in Lakeland, Polk County, Florida (“Publix”). Publix’s corporate offices are located in the Tenth (10th) Judicial Circuit of the State of Florida. Publix has retail supermarket locations though out the State of Florida as well as other locations in the Southeastern part of the United States. Publix has several retail supermarket locations in Hillsborough County Florida. Hillsborough Country is in the Thirteenth (13th) Judicial District for the State of Florida. The Tenth Judicial Circuit and the Thirteenth Judicial Circuit of the State of Florida are in the United States District Court for the Middle District of Florida. Cases arising in the Tenth Judicial Circuit and the Thirteenth Judicial Circuit of the State of Florida that may be brought in a federal court would be heard initially in the United States District Court for the Middle District of the State of Florida.

Some of the retail items sold to the public in the Publix stores located in Hillsborough County are delivered from a Publix distribution center located in Lakeland, Florida. The goods are delivered from the distribution center to the retail locations in Hillsborough County via a fleet of trucks owned by Publix and operated by Publix employees.

Sam Straight, a 30-year employee of Publix, is driving a Publix tractor trailer truck north bound on I-275 near downtown Tampa, Florida. Sam has the appropriate credentials to drive a tractor trailer truck in the State of Florida. He has been driving for Publix for 25 years of the 30 years he has been employed by Publix. Sam is driving under the posted speed limit and he is preparing to merge onto I-4 eastbound to return to the Publix distribution center in Lakeland.

Fred Fragile is a resident of the State of Georgia. His home is in DeKalb County Georgia, in the jurisdiction of the DeKalb County State Court. He is driving his motor home on the entrance ramp to northbound I-275 in downtown Tampa after a visit to the Florida Aquarium. Fred has the appropriate credentials to operate a motor home in the State of Georgia and Florida. He is driving under the posted speed limit. Fred wishes to merge onto I-275 and eventually travel northbound on I-275 to take I-75 northbound to return to his home in Georgia. When Fred merges onto I-275 northbound, he wants to move over one lane to his left to take I-275 North. When he enters I-275 North bound his vehicle is side by side with the Publix tractor trailer truck driven by Sam Straight. Sam wishes to merge one lane to his right to facilitate taking I-4 East to Lakeland. As the two vehicles negotiate the interchange, they come into contact with each other resulting in a multi-car accident closing I-275 North for several hours. Sam and Fred do not suffer any injuries because of the accident. Damage to Fred’s motor home totals $40,000. Damage to the Publix tractor trailer totals $25,000.

An extensive investigation by the Florida Highway Patrol has identified four people who were driving in the vicinity of the two vehicles at the time of the accident. One witness lives in Plant City, Florida. The second witness lives in Orlando, Florida. The third witness lives in Daytona Beach, Florida and the fourth witness lives in Toronto, Ontario.

Both Fred and Publix believe that there is evidence to suggest that either Fred or Sam is responsible for causing the accident. In answering the following questions, it is not necessary for you to discuss the potential for liability on the part of Publix and/or Fred.

A. If either Fred or Publix wishes to bring a claim to recover the damage to their respective vehicles, discuss the procedural steps that either party must take to initiate their claim. Discuss further the procedural steps the other party must take in response to a claim. Discuss what may occur in the event the defendant in the action fails to follow the required procedural steps if a claim is brought against them.

B. If Publix wishes to bring a claim against Fred for the damage to its tractor trailer, in addition to the steps discussed in your response to question 1 above, what elements must be present to bring the claim in a Florida court? What elements must be present to bring the claim in a Georgia court? Which state court, in your judgment, is mostly likely to hear the case?

C. If Fred wishes to bring a claim against Publix what elements must be present to hear the claim in a Georgia court? What elements must be present to hear the claim in a Florida Court?

D. The accident occurred in the Thirteenth Judicial District for the State of Florida. Publix’s corporate headquarters are in the Tenth Judicial District for the State of Florida. Assuming for the purpose of answering this question, that the litigation would be proper in either judicial district, what legal doctrine will be used to determine which district court will hear the case? If Fred’s claim is brought in the State of Florida, which district court, in your judgment, is most likely to hear the case?

E. Under what doctrine could Fred’s claim be brought in the United States District Court for the Middle District of the State of Florida? What requirements must be met in order for the claim to be brought in the United States District Court for the Middle District of Florida? Are those requirements satisfied in this case?

30. Business Development

 Please complete the following assignment.

You are the Business Development Manager for a microchip product manufactured by ABC Components Corporation. Please describe how your business development process and approach will change with each stage of the product life cycle. A five sentence paragraph should be sufficient to discuss your efforts in each of the stages: development, introduction, growth stage, maturity stage, decline stage (five paragraphs).

To get you started, think about the following…..in the development stage, who do you need to learn about, what kinds of information do you need marketing to generate, etc? Elaborate on this and provide more. This is relevant for the development stage. Each stage will be different, meaning, don’t just answer these questions for each stage. Think about each stage independently. There will be different approaches and considerations for each stage. Your responses should be based on concepts from the coursework, particularly the current chapter.

31. Business question 5 – 1 or 2 pages MLA

Question # 5:

Power Plus Battery Company (“PPBC”) has a production plant located in Tampa, Florida. PPBC manufactures batteries for motor vehicles. PPBC has 200 employees and sells its batteries to customers in twenty-five different states in the United States. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (“OHSA”) is a federal administrative agency that has the authority to establish safety standards, pursuant to the authority delegated to it by the United States Congress in the Occupational Safety and Health Act. These safety standards, also known as safety rules or regulations, apply to different industrial operations that have at least fifty (50) employees and are engaged in interstate commerce. OSHA proposes a new safety standard governing the handling of certain acids in the workplace. The proposed safety standard includes acids that PPBC uses in its production processes. After reviewing the proposed rule, PPBC concludes that compliance with the proposed rule will substantially increase its production costs and the proposed rule will not significantly increase worker safety. PPBC sends a letter to OSHA stating its objections and concerns to the new rule. Enclosed with the letter are independent research reports and other materials that support PPBC’s objections to the proposed rule. What procedures must OSHA follow when it adopts a new safety standard such as this one? What obligation does OSHA have to consider the objections and the materials submitted by PPBC? What options does OSHA have regarding the proposed rule? How does OSHA announce its final decision on the new rule? Once the new rule has been adopted, what source may interested parties use to find the final version of the new rule?

32. 2 Paragraphs question

Choose one article within the last 3 months about Marketing consumer behavior and write two paragraphs about it. It should include a link to the Article or the article on a different doc and give your thoughts on it. Examples and scenarios are more than welcome

MLA format.

33. Discussion Question – 2 Paragraphs

Discussion question: write 2 paragraphs with at least one reference

Now that you have completed a series of assignments that have led you into the active project planning and development stage for your project, briefly describe your proposed solution to address the problem, issue, suggestion, initiative, or educational need and how it has changed since you first envisioned it. What led to your current perspective and direction?

MLA format – 300 words minimum

34. Describe in 3 Paragraphs – Law Question

Anne is 10 years old and lives in a major metropolitan U.S. city and is currently in the 4th grade. Today, during gym class, Anne’s teacher notices several large bruises on all of Anne’s arms and legs and that her clothing is torn and dirty. When the teacher questions Anne about how she got the bruises, Anne replies “I fell on the playground.” The teacher reports the bruising to the school principal. The teacher and principal request Anne’s mother attend a conference after school.

During the conference, Anne’s mother is difficult to communicate with. She appears to be intoxicated, but denies having had anything to drink. She is also very defensive, states that Anne is a clumsy, lazy child and that Anne lies to get attention. The mother denies that anyone has physically hurt Anne. During the conference, Anne sits next to her mother but does not make eye contact with anyone in the room, nor does she speak. When questioned as to why Anne’s father could not attend the conference, Anne’s mother replies that he was too tired because he works two jobs and has to sleep during the day. Anne and her mother leave the conference and Anne is not in school the next day.

In 2-3 paragraphs, using your own words:

  • List 3 signs and/or symptoms of possible child abuse and neglect with respect to Anne.
  • List 3 risk factors present in Anne’s family that could contribute to abuse.
  • What do you think would be the best course of action for Anne regarding treatment, placement, and services?
  • When responding to peers, consider whether you agree with the course of action suggested by your peers. Why might that be the best course of action, or why might another action be more appropriate. Provide support for your choices.

35. Answer the following questions

The Swift Corporation has 5,000 sales representatives and employees in the United States who drive company cars. The company’s risk manager has recommended to the firm’s management that the company should implement a partial retention program for physical damage losses to company cars.

  1. Explain the advantages and disadvantages of a partial retention program to the Swift Corporation.
  2. Identify the factors that the Swift Corporation should consider before it adopts a partial retention program for physical damage losses to company cars.
  3. If a partial retention program is adopted, what are the various methods the Swift Corporation can use to pay for physical damage losses to company cars?
  4. Identify two risk-control measures that could be used in the company’s partial retention program for physical damage losses.

36. Business Questions

Chris and Karen are married and own a three-bedroom home in a large midwestern city. Their son, Christian, attends college away from home and lives in a fraternity house. Their daughter, Kelly, is a senior in high school. Chris is an accountant who works for a local accounting firm. Karen is a marketing analyst and is often away from home several days at a time. Kelly earns extra cash by babysitting on a regular basis.The family’s home contains household furniture, personal property, a computer that Chris uses to prepare business tax returns on weekends, and a laptop computer that Karen uses while traveling. The Swifts also own three cars. Christian drives a 2007 Ford; Chris drives a 2012 Pontiac for both business and personal use; and Karen drives a 2014 Toyota and a rental car when she is traveling. Although the Swifts have owned their home for several years, they are considering moving because of the recent increase in violent crime in their neighborhood.

  1. Describe briefly the steps in the personal risk management process.
  2. Identify the major pure risks or pure loss exposures to which Chris and Karen are exposed with respect to each of the following:
    1. Personal loss exposures
    1. Property loss exposures
    1. Liability loss exposures
  3. With respect to each of the loss exposures mentioned above, identify an appropriate personal risk management technique that could be used to treat the exposure.

37. Design and analysis of algorithms

Analysis & Design of Algorithms

Please answer the question in your own words, in less than 5 sentences.

Question

1. Explain the differences between java.util.Vector and java.util.ArrayList.

2. Explain the differences between java.util.ArrayList and java.util.LinkedList.

3. Explain the differences between java.util.TreeMap and java.util.TreeSet.

4. Explain the differences between java.util.SortedSet and java.util.SortedMap.

5. Explain the differences between java.util.HashMap and java.util.HashSet.

6. Explain the differences between java.util.TreeMap and java.util.HashMap.

7. Explain the differences between java.util.HashSet and java.util.TreeSet.

38. Web Development Exercise

Create a Movies class that determines the cost of a ticket to a cinema,

                   based on the moviegoer’s age. Assume that the cost of a full-price

                   ticket is $10. Assign the age to a private data member. Use a public

                   member function to determine the ticket price, based on the follow-

                   ing schedule:

                   Age            Price

                   Under 5        Free

                   5 to 17        Half price

                   18 to 55       Full price

                   Over 55        $2 off

39. Software design and construction quiz

Please answer correctly all the questions below and justify where applicable.

QUESTION 1

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QUESTION TEXT

You have been tasked with implementing an entreprise architecture strategy at VIU. Which framework would be the most useful?

Select one:

A. TOGAF

B. IEEE

C. MICROSOFT .NET

D. JAVA

QUESTION 2

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QUESTION TEXT

What does the MVC pattern do?

Select one:

A. IT MUST BE USED OR YOUR JAVA APPLICATION WILL NOT WORK.

B. SEPARATES TEXT FROM GRAPHICS.

C. IT DOES NOT REALLY DO ANYTHING.

D. SEPARATES USER INTERFACE FROM COMPUTATION AND COORDINATION.

QUESTION 3

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QUESTION TEXT

Was understanding the architecture of the ATM simulation that you did in your homework useful?

Select one:

A. NO, IT WAS A WASTE OF TIME.

B. YES, I UNDERSTOOD HOW THE SIMULATION WORKS AT A HIGH LEVEL.

C. YES, IT ENABLED ME TO DEBUG THE CODE IN DETAIL.

D. NO, THE CODE IS WHAT MATTERS.

QUESTION 4

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QUESTION TEXT

Is there a difference between the old mainframe architecture and the new cloud architecture?

Select one:

A. WHY ARE WE TALKING ABOUT MAINFRAMES NOW? THEY WERE BEFORE I WAS BORN.

B. YES, THE CLOUD USES THE INTERNET OR THE NETWORK IN GENERAL. MAINFRAMES DID NOT.

C. NO, THEY ARE EXACTLY THE SAME.

D. MAINFRAMES DID NOT HAVE AN ARCHITECTURE.

QUESTION 5

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QUESTION TEXT

Do you think that computer programs can solve Rubic Cube puzzles?

Select one:

A. YES, IT HAS BEEN DONE.

B. NO WAY, ONLY THE BAMBOZZLERS CAN.

C. NO. RUBIC IS SMARTER THAN ANY COMPUTER.

D. YES, BUT ONLY FAKE RUBIC CUBES.

QUESTION 6

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QUESTION TEXT

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Object Oriented Programming?

Select one:

A. WELL DEFINED INTERFACES

B. MODULARITY

C. AGILITY

D. INFORMATION HIDING

QUESTION 7

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QUESTION TEXT

Which of the following is not an architectural style?

Select one:

A. CONNECTOR.

B. LAYERED.

C. CLIENT-SERVER

D. PEER-TO-PEER.

QUESTION 8

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QUESTION TEXT

Can we simulate a client server architecture containing one server and three clients using one computer?

Select one:

A. YES, BUT THE COMPUTER MUST BE OPERATING A LINUX OR UNIX OPERATING SYSTEM.

B. YES, YOU CAN, IT’S DONE ALL THE TIME.

C. NO, YOU NEED 4 COMPUTERS.

D. NO, YOU NEED ONE COMPUTER.

QUESTION 9

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QUESTION TEXT

Do you think that software architecture can enhance software reliability?

Select one:

A. IN SOFTWARE ENGINEERING WE DON’T CARE ABOUT RELIABILITY.

B. I REALLY DON’T KNOW.

C. YES, A GOOD ARCHITECTURE CAN ENHANCE RELIABILITY.

D. NO. THEY ARE NOT RELATED.

QUESTION 10

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QUESTION TEXT

What is software efficiency?

Select one:

A. HIGHEST NUMBER OF LINES OF CODE.

B. LOW COST.

C. HIGH OCTANE.

D. BEST USE OF RESOURCES.

QUESTION 11

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QUESTION TEXT

Is user-friendliness a functional or non-functional property?

Select one:

A. NON-FUNCTIONAL.

B. NEITHER.

C. BOTH.

D. FUNCTIONAL.

QUESTION 12

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QUESTION TEXT

Does architecture-based design help meet non-functional properties?

Select one:

A. THERE IS NO RELATIONSHIP.

B. YES, IT DOES.

C. IS THIS A TRICK QUESTION?

D. NO, IT DOES NOT.

QUESTION 13

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QUESTION TEXT

What is a method for handling exceptions used in java applications?

Select one:

A. HIDE … POUNCE.

B. LISTEN … CORRECT.

C. WATCH …. GRAB.

D. TRY … CATCH.

QUESTION 14

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QUESTION TEXT

What is the role of connectors in software architecture.

Select one:

A. THEY CONNECT COMPUTER HARDWARE.

B. THEY HAVE NO ROLE.

C. THEY CONNECT DEVELOPERS AND CUSTOMERS.

D. THEY CONNECT THE COMPONENTS THAT PERFORM THE COMPUTATIONS.

QUESTION 15

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QUESTION TEXT

Which of the following is an example of a Connector?

Select one:

A. REMOTE PROCEDURE CALL.

B. BACKING UP FILES.

C. PARALLEL COMPUTATIONS.

D. GRAPHICS PROCESSING.

QUESTION 16

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QUESTION TEXT

What are the basic elements of software architecture that you studied in this course?

Select one:

A. COMPONENTS, CONTROLLERS, VIEWERS

B. COMPONENTS, PACKAGES, SUB-PACKAGES, AND MODULES.

C. COMPONENTS, CONNECTORS, INTERFACES AND CONFIGURATION.

D. PROJECTS, PACKAGES, COMPONENTS, AND CLASSES.

QUESTION 17

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QUESTION TEXT

What was the contribution of Roy Fielding to the World Wide Web architecture?

Select one:

A. HE INVENTED THE WEB.

B. HE DEVELOPED THE REST ARCHITECTURAL FRAMEWORK.

C. WHO IS ROY FIELDING ANYWAY?

D. HE DID NOT MAKE ANY CONTRIBUTIONS.

QUESTION 18

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QUESTION TEXT

What was the contribution of Roy Fielding to software architecture?

Select one:

A. HE INTRODUCED AN ARCHITECTURE SUGGESTING HOW THE WEB SHOULD FUNCTION.

B. HE DEFINED RULES FOR HOW THE UNIVERSE SHOULD FUNCTION.

C. HE CREATED THE AGILE APPROACH TO SOFTWARE DEVELOPMENT.

D. HE INVENTED MICROSOFT EXPLORER BROWSER.

QUESTION 19

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QUESTION TEXT

Can you generate code from architecture in Object-Oriented Programming?

Select one:

A. ME? NO WAY.

B. NO, THAT IS IMPOSSIBLE.

C. YES, BUT ONLY IF THE PROGRAM HAS ONE CLASS.

D. YES, THERE ARE TOOLS THAT HELP WITH THAT.

QUESTION 20

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QUESTION TEXT

How do you think software developers view the UML 2.0 standard?

Select one:

A. THEY ALL HATE IT AND NEVER USE IT.

B. SOFTWARE DEVELOPERS DON’T CARE ABOUT UML. THEY JUST WRITE CODE.

C. THEY ALL LOVE IT.

D. MANY THINK THAT IT’S TOO COMPLICATED AND USE A SIMPLIFIED SUBSET OF IT.

40. Create a small GUI application

Create a GUI application that displays 4 text fields, and 4 label fields and two buttons. The layout is up to you, but must be logical. A number is entered into each text field. When the “Calculate” button is pressed the application will calculate the following and display the results in each of the four label fields.

Sum of the four values

Product of the four values

The smallest value

The largest of the values

The exit button will exit the application.

41. Sport Management and Drugs

Sports Management:

  • Describe your current knowledge regarding drugs and alcohol. Elaborate as much as possible on specific drugs.
  • What influences you to use or not use drugs and/or alcohol? Describe your beliefs, ideas, and situations that influence this decision. How did your parents and/or older siblings influence this decision? Why do these things have such an impact on your decision?
  • Describe these thoughts in detailed paragraphs. Please be honest in your responses. (These will only be read by me.)

Your paper should be at least 2 pages in length (double spaced, font size of <14). Be sure you answer each question!

42. Budget Assignment

Instruction

For this exercise we are going to create a simple budget, and track our budget compliance over the course of a 12 month period. Although it is possible (and common) to track budget compliance on a month to month basis, to keep things simple for this exercise we are going to only examine the year end result. Start by creating a budget in Excel in the following format. The Budget Spreadsheet Image is attached… For the starting budget $ amounts you use the following logic. Determine the yearly values and enter them into your budget. Don’t forget to add the totals, and to determine the amount you are short/extra. Salary = $4,000 a month Rent = $1200 a month Car payment = $650 a month Phone = $95 a month Health Insurance = $250 a month Food = $500 a month We are now going to add the following data for the monthly amounts in out spreadsheet Salary: Your starting salary for the year is $4,000 a month. In June you get a 3% pay increase. Additionally you get a one-time bonus payout of $500 in October. Rent: Your monthly rent per your lease is $1,200 a month, with a 5% increase in November. Car: Your car is under lease at a rate of $650 a month. Phone: Your month rate for your phone is $95 a month, but you incurred overage charges of $25 each in the months of April, August, and December. Health Insurance: Your monthly installments for health insurance are $250 a month. Food: Food expense tends to be more varied than the other expenses be captured. Use the follow table to enter your food expenses. Food Expenses Spreadsheet is attached… Other: In the month of March you have a car repair bill of $750 and in August you took a $125 flight to visit your parents. Brief Write-up: Now review your actual income/expenses versus the budget that you established. Discuss in what areas you exceeded your budgetary amounts? What options do you have, and what actions would you take if your goal is to maintain your budget in all categories? Discuss how miscellaneous unexpected items can impact your budget.

43.History Assignment

Instruction

Choose an event or theme evident in U. S. History from the end of the Civil War to the near present and write a brilliant 3-5 pp. double-spaced paper based on one academic book, three scholarly journal articles, and at least two primary sources. The book must be published by a university press and the scholarly journal articles must be found on the JSTOR or America History and Life databases. The publication dates of the book and the articles must be between 1970 and 2015.

44.Healthcare

Instruction

• Name: Prevention of Pediatric Obesity Teaching Tool • Description: For this assignment, you will develop a Prevention of Pediatric Obesity Teaching Tool flyer for parents of children 5 years of age and less regarding the prevention of pediatric obesity. Pediatric obesity is a growing problem in the USA and is a major contributor to morbidity (hypertension, cardiovascular disease, diabetes, osteoarthritis) and mortality later in life. The tool should be developed according to the criteria established in the attached rubric. You are strongly urged to use the Center for Disease Control and Prevention as one reference (at least 3 references are required). References for the tool should be submitted in APA format and should be research based. Remember to use layman’s terms. Please review this rubric prior to completing this assignment

45. General Assignment

Instruction

Discussion #3: Communication & Motivation Select two of the three main topics to respond to and provide your mid-semester feedback. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tdmyoMe4iHM (Miracle, 4 min) Main Topic 3.1: Motivation Questions (2 parts) Question1) What motivates people? (See Module 6: Basic Motivation Model). Do you think it is money, Process Theory, or Content Theory? Question 2) Do you remember any particular motivational speech (graduation, sports, church, etc.) that inspired you to exceed what you thought were your capabilities? Main Topic 3.2: Path-Goal Does the Path-Goal Leadership concept fall under Content Theory or Process Theory of Motivation? Main Topic 3.3~Motivation What motivates employees to work hard and be more productive? The classic answer is — money! However, management texts tell us that motivation is not something you do to someone; motivation starts from within an individual with an unsatisfied need. Managers motivate employees by providing a means for them to satisfy that need. This is particularly challenging today as the Gen Y’ers (aka the Millenials) enter the workplace. For this discussion, in addition to the readings, visit the following three websites and address the question: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=owwM6FpWWoQ 60 minutes; Jason Dorsey; “Generation Y,” ( 3+ minutes) http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=h7SnQPBC6yM Twixters; 60 minutes; “Generation Y” Jason Dorsey (4:42 min) http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=erFRZimAJ0Y&feature=related Jason Dorsey~Keynote Speaker (10 min) ● Question: Do you agree with the portrayal of Gen Y, a.k.a. The Millennials? Do you fit in this category, or have children who do? Main Topic 3.4~Mid Semester Feedback If you have any comments, suggestions, complaints (compliments?) about the course to this point, please post them here. If you don’t want to go public, feel free to send me an e-mail.

46. Math Assignment

Instruction

Respond to the Main Topics, but prior to doing so, you might check out these clips: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=6x0l_vkjozc (Civil Rights 3 min) https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JENCxjbARFM (Sowell, 2 min) Main Topic 2.1: Affirmative Action or Diversity Management? Culture is generally defined as “the learned beliefs, values, norms, symbols, and traditions common to a group of people.” Ethnocentrism: the tendency for individuals to place their own group (ethnic, racial, or cultural) at the center of their observations of others and the world. → A tendency to think our own cultural values and ways of doing things are right and natural. [pg. 384] The ethnic mix in the U.S. has been changing since Columbus arrived in 1492. “Census projections suggest America may become a minority-majority country by the middle of the century,” according to Kenneth Johnson, a sociology professor at the University of New Hampshire. In other words, whites will make up less that 50% of the population. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act (1964) prohibits discrimination by covered employers on the basis of race, color, religion, sex or national origin. In the United States, Affirmative Action refers to equal opportunity employment measures that Federal contractors and subcontractors are legally required to adopt. These measures are intended to prevent discrimination against employees or applicants for employment, on the basis of “color, religion, sex, or national origin.” (Source = Wikipedia. Yes, I know it’s a double standard that students are not allowed to use Wikipedia, but I, as a faculty, am citing it. However, this is not a democracy; it is a benevolent dictatorship) Question: One train of thought is that “enlightened management” may be leaning toward Diversity Management, a concept which may make Affirmative Action superfluous, redundant, or obsolete. What are your thoughts on this? Main Topic 2.2: Dimensions of Difference Hofstede found that national culture explained more of the differences in work-related values and attitudes than did position within the organization, profession, age or gender. In summarizing the most important differences, Hofstede initially found that managers and employees varied on four primary dimensions:” Individualism and Collectivism; Power Distance; Uncertainty Avoidance; Career Success and Quality of Life. Later, Hofstede and his colleagues identified a fifth dimension: Confucian Dynamism. Question: Where is your culture located on Hofstede’s original four dimensions?

47. Science

1. Explain the competencies important for the role of nurse leader. 2. Report on the correlation from the text book theories. Did the nurse leader practice what was outlined in the text? Why or why not? 3. Reflect on at least four (4) insights gained from your interview and observation -There are 3 questions that need to be answered, each question requires a minimum of one paragraph.

48. Business

Instruction

The purpose of this assignment is for students to evaluate the lean techniques applied to business in today’s workforce. Assignment Steps Select a business you are familiar with which incorporates lean manufacturing or lean supply chains. Evaluate how this firm uses lean strategies and how much lean techniques has improved the firm’s efficiency. Evaluate ways the firm can go even further to make improvements using lean techniques. Use the results you obtained from evaluating this firm to apply to your own business or a business you are interested in which currently does not use lean. Develop a 1,050-word report in which you describe your lean evaluation project. Format your assignment consistent with APA guidelines.

49. Security Regulation Compliance This assignment consists of two (2) sections: a written paper and a PowerPoint presentation. You must submit both sections as separate files for the completion of this assignment. Label each file name according to the section of the assignment it is written for.

Instruction

In the day-to-day operations of information security, security professionals often focus the majority of their time dealing with employee access issues, implementing security methods and measures, and other day-to-day tasks. They often neglect legal issues that affect information security. As a result, organizations often violate security-related regulations and often have to pay heavy fines for their non-compliance. Thus, as a Chief Information Officer in a government agency, you realize the need to educate for senior leadership on some of the primary regulatory requirements, and you realize the need to ensure that the employees in the agency are aware of these regulatory requirements as well. Section 1: Written Paper 1. Write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you: a. Provide an overview that will be delivered to senior management of regulatory requirements the agency needs to be aware of, including: i. FISMA ii. Sarbanes-Oxley Act iii. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act iv. PCI DSS v. HIPAA vi. Intellectual Property Law b. Describe the security methods and controls that need to be implemented in order to ensure compliance with these standards and regulatory requirements. c. Describe the guidance provided by the Department of Health and Human Services, the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), and other agencies for ensuring compliance with these standards and regulatory requirements. d. Use at least five (5) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.

50. Math help

A road divides the neighborhood park into two parts. Calvin plots one part in a coordinate plane. The part of the park shown is a reflection over the x-axis of the other part. 8.g.3

Instruction

Part A: Draw the other part of the park. Part B: Write the coordinate of the vertices of the part that you drew. Then describe the effects of a reflection across the x-axis on the coordinates.

51. Psychology week 2

Instruction

Sensations Write a 1-2 page essay explaining how our sensations, thoughts, feelings, motives, actions, memories, and all other human capacities are associated with nervous system activities and structures; and discuss the types of damage that often affect the nervous system. Proper APA formatting is a requirement for all essay assignments. Cite at least three educational sources (one source may include the course textbook) in the essay.

52. Cultures in conflict week 2

Instruction

Theoretical Approach Summarize and explain the three major theoretical approaches that were introduced in this chapter – Durkheim and human consciousness, Benedict and Patterns of Culture, and Bourdieu and the principles of culture. (750-1250 words) · Which theoretical position seems clearest to you? · What evidence do you have for this theory in your own society? · Where have you potentially seen this exhibited?

53. Website Assignment

Instruction

Assignment Instructions Learning objective: To develop and design a professional webpage. Prompt: This week you are working on creating a webpage. Instructions: Build a website. Submit as Article #4 for your portfolio. Supporting Materials: https://websitesetup.org/ https://www.wix.com/ https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=M5ZG7-BlG6Q

54. Attn: GreatContentCreator Nursing Capstone Wk7

Instruction

Summary paper of program not of each term From Novice to Beginning Professional Nurse: Your nursing evolution reflects ways you have evolved in nursing school. Reflect on at least 10 BSN courses, in which you write a detailed paragraph. Provide evidence of growth in each course. Describe growth and development in becoming a professional nurse after each nursing core course. Reflect on ways courses, especially concurrent running classes, support one another. Synthesize theories and concepts into clinical settings applied to human experiences. Apply multicultural literacy. Reflect on holistic patient care. Format each course as major text headings per the APA manual. Review the rubric for more information on how your paper will be graded.

55.History

Instruction

Write a paper based of the Netflix series “Prohibition” , cite everything NO OUTSIDE SOURCES NO PLAGIARISM. Chicago format , 2 pages.

56. Science

Instruction

1. What are the functions of the nose? 2. What are the functions of the paranasal sinuses? Look up sinusitis on the Internet and tell me more about why it is such a large problem today (cite your URL). 3. What important functions are lost when you take out your tonsils?

4. What are the effects of smoking on cilia lining the trachea? Why is this unhealthy?

 5. What is the Heimlich maneuver and how is it done?

6. Where are the pleura and what is their function? How does their function differ from the pericardium (in the heart)?

7. What is surfactant and what is its function? How are premature newborns that don’t have it treated?

8. What is one cause of pulmonary edema and what changes does it bring to gas exchange? From the section on pulmonary ventilation there is some interesting information regarding how we breathe and what interferes with that process. You just need to know that during inspiration in the lungs more space (volume) is created in the intrapleural space. This causes a decrease in pressure that is translated to the lungs and the decrease in pressure in them leads to air rushing in from a place of higher pressure (outside the lung) to a place of lower pressure (inside the lung). Expiration is the reverse.

9. Explain pneumothorax – use the information about pressure to explain what happens.

10. Look up asthma on the Internet. What happens during an attack? Why? What drugs widen the airway (decrease resistance) and what drugs narrow the airway (increase resistance)?

 11. What types of different sounds can be heard by listening to your lungs with a stethescope? Why is this simple test useful?

12. What is meant by the term partial pressure and what do you have to do mathematically to get one (hint: multiply what times what) (from the outline given to you in lab and attached here)? Give an example of the partial pressure of oxygen in outside air at sea level.

13. What is the percent concentration of oxygen in the outside air at sea level, 10,000 feet and 30,000 feet? What happens to the partial pressure of oxygen as you go higher? At what altitude are the partial pressures of oxygen in the aveoli equal to those of the venous blood approaching the lungs (from the outline)? What problem does this cause?

14. What happens to partial pressure as you go below sea level? What problems can that cause (outline and Internet)?

15. What happens in carbon monoxide poisoning? Why does it happen? (in the book or on the Internet).

16. In what ways are carbon dioxide molecules carried? When does the CO2 content of the blood increase? Why does it need to be buffered?

17. What are other factors besides acidity that influence the rate and depth of respiration?

18. What are two examples of chronic obstructive lung disease and what are the symptoms for each?

19. Why is lung cancer so deadly? What is the effect of smoking on the lungs? Does it cause lung cancer? Why or why not?

57. Psychology

Instruction

Social Workers walk a fine line between assisting persons diagnosed with disabilities and empowering persons to think of their abilities. It is not unusual in health and mental health work for a social worker to have the task of establishing /assembling proof of disability for a client seeking financial resources and at the same time to be engaged in interventions designed to help a client seek rehabilitation/recovery. That rehabilitation/recovery may well endanger a client’s financial stability and eligibility for medical coverage. This week, write about the role of social workers in medical settings (clinical primary care, hospitals, skilled nursing homes for example) as they work with persons identified as disabled by chronic disease processes. Specifically, talk about how the biology of disorders may assist or interfere with the common advocacy role of social work staff. Also, you may wish to comment on your thoughts around the concept of “permanent disability”, educating other medical team professionals on the strengths perspective of social work, or the special concerns of social workers who may identify as disabled, themselves. You may have thoughts about client self-determination and diseases where lifestyle choices are thought to further or even initiate the disease process (diabetes, cardiac disease) as this relates to disability determinations. An excellent example is the AMA statement last year regarding obesity as a disability.

58. Other

You are going to create a one-minute dramatic script. The following is the beginning “setup,” or the start of the story, of the script: “There are six snakes trapped in a pit.” Your assignment is to create a one-minute dramatic script from this statement. First, tell me what genre you will be using. Then, create action, conflict, characters, and dialogue. Type up your “play” in dialogue format and submit. Have fun with it. Be creative!

59. Healthcare

Research Methods & Evidence-Based Practice Project PICOT QUESTION: In the primary care setting, does clustering care during (acute visits) increase patient satisfaction (%) while decreasing office wait time ?

60. Article review and power point

Instruction

I need two Apply Behavior Analysis articles reviewed according to the Rubrics attached below. One article must come from the Association for Contextual Behavioral Science website, when you go to the website the article must come from the section drop down which states ACT. A PowerPoint presentation is needed with the article review. The power point must be well written to where I can read the presentation and it make sense to the reader and the listener. When a valid point is made, I would like a slide or two that ask the listener for questions. I like acceptance and commitment therapy so one of the article reviews could address that area but not necessarily. Another article must be written on any application of Applied Behavior Analysis to a clinical disorder and the above instruction must be followed. Both articles must follow APA Guidelines and be grammar and error free. This is doctorial level work, so it is my expectation that the writer has the knowledge and the expertise

61. Business

Instruction

Strategic Plan: Part 2 In this second part of the final strategic plan development assignment, you will follow up on the introductory activities that you completed during the first portion in order to further develop your strategic plan. Please be sure to make adjustments as necessary based on some of your own desired adjustments and the professor’s comments as you work through the second part. During this portion of the process, your submission, which should be at least two pages in length not including any figures/graphics and the updated first portion, should include the following components: the results of a SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats) analysis or similar analysis assessing current internal and external areas of concern, strengths, and opportunities as the strategic plan progresses This cannot be the same SWOT analysis that you used for the Unit IV assignment identification of organizational stakeholders, internal and external, and how their needs and participation will likely influence and contribute to the plan’s development. Be sure that you are remaining consistent with your organization. Also, please include Part 1 with updates based on feedback from your professor and Part 2 of your plan in one document. Please include only one title page and one reference page with this assignment. References: Use these references also along with the other ones on the first part of the assignment Hull, A. (1996). Strategic Plan-making in Europe: institutional innovation. Planning Practice & Research, 11(3), 253–264. https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1080/02697459616834 Patel, M. S., Phillips, C. B., Pearce, C., Kljakovic, M., Dugdale, P., & Glasgow, N. (2008). General Practice and Pandemic Influenza: A Framework for Planning and Comparison of Plans in Five Countries. PLoS ONE, 3(5), 1–9. https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1371/journal.pone.0002269 Schulze, R. N., & Post, T. (2010). Individual Annuity Demand Under Aggregate Mortality Risk. Journal of Risk & Insurance, 77(2), 423–449. https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1111/j.1539-6975.2009.01340.x Yoon, Y.-R. (2017). Strategic disclosure of meaningful information to rival. Economic Inquiry, (2). https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1111/ecin.12372

62. General

This assignment will give you the opportunity to explore what you believe, and based on the course readings, are necessary (requisite) knowledge, skills, abilities, (KSAs) experiences, and techniques needed to effectively lead either a human resources department or one functional area of Human Resources Management (HRM) within a public organization.  By “functional area” I mean one of the segments in the ‘Life-Cycle’ of an employee as noted in the chapters in Section II of our text (e.g., recruiting, performance management, compensation, benefits, training and development, etc.).  This assignment also provides opportunities to link theory with practice, apply what has been learned and/or how the necessary KSAs could be acquired to effectively lead an organization’s human resources department.I suggest the foll

I suggest the following process:

  1. Decide if you will focus on the HRM department as a whole, or on an HRM functional area. If focusing on an HRM functional area, decide which area.
  2. Read, and if necessary, re-read the text chapter corresponding to your chosen functional area.
  3. Narrowly focus your selection to avoid the pitfalls of inadequate detail.
  4. Locate at least 5 published references that are no more than 10 years old that pertain to the specific HRM function you have chosen to investigate. You must not use any of the sources used in the Research paper in this course.
  5. OPTIONAL: Conduct an Interview. You may wish to conduct a brief an interview with a manager or HR professional who has extensive experience HRM or the functional area you have selected.  I am not requiring you do this; however, if you are able to find someone who is willing to speak with you, this often can be a helpful learning experience.

Paper Format:

  • Your paper should be at least five (5) pages longnot including the Title Page and Reference/Bibliography  
  • Title Page: must contain the Assignment Number, a Topic, your Name and Student ID Number
  • Use 12-point font, double-spaced, and one-inch margins on all 4 sides.
  • Use in-text citations so I can decipher where exactly in your paper you drew upon others’ work.
  • Provide complete reference information (author, date, title, publication, volume and page numbers; providing a URL only is insufficient) on a separate sheet.
    • Create a WORD document that contains complete citation information of all your print and/or electronic source material. To be considered “complete,” citation information must include author(s), title, date, and publisher plus, if a journal or magazine article, the name of the journal or magazine, volume and issue numbers, and page numbers.  A reference citation containing only a URL is insufficient

63.Healthcare

Instruction

Find a media article that reports the findings of an original empirical study on some psychology or health-related topic that is published in a newspaper, magazine, or other periodical, or on an Internet news website (CNN, Reuters, BBC, Vox, WebMD, Huffington Post, etc.). The media article should have been published in the last year. Thoroughly address the following questions (in ~ 2-3 double-spaced pages): What observation about human behavior/health is being reported? ~1-2 sentences (2.5 points) Describe the study sample (e.g., size, gender, age range, marital status, racial/ethnic group, SES). (If not discussed, what would be the most appropriate sample to use for this research question?) ~3-4 sentences (5 points) What is the independent variable(s)? ~1 sentence (2.5 points) What is the dependent variable(s)? ~1 sentence (2.5 points) Are any other relevant variables discussed (e.g., moderators, mediators, covariates)? (If not discussed, what other variables do you think should be included in this study?) ~ 2 sentences (2.5 points) What type of study is being discussed: experimental vs. non-experimental, etc.? (If not discussed, what would be the most appropriate type of study to use for this research question?) ~2 sentences (2.5 points) What are some limitations of the study? (e.g., methods used, conclusions drawn; you must discuss at least 2 limitations) ~4 sentences (5 points; 2.5 points per limitation) What are the implications of the study for research, practice, and/or policy? (If not discussed, what do you think the implications of the study are?) Discuss at least 2 implications (~3-4 sentences) (5 points; 2.5 points per implication) NOTES: Your assignment should be typed, 12-point font, double spaced, 1” margins. Assignments that contain grammatical, spelling, or punctuation errors will lose points. If you present in class, you will receive the full 2.5 points. The remainder of your grade is based on the extent to which you sufficiently address the above questions in writing (feedback presented in class does not reflect the grade on your assignment). Late assignments will lose 3 points per day – no exceptions. must have link to article to print out.

64. Psychology

Providing only a summary of an experience or observed phenomenon will NOT meet the requirements for the reflection paper; instead, each student MUST demonstrate that he/she can explain the chosen phenomenon using theoretical perspectives discussed in the course material to receive partial/full points for this portion of the course grade. Examples of theoretical perspectives you may choose include: behaviorism (classical and/or operant conditioning), Freud’s psychoanalytic theory, Piaget’s cognitive d

Instruction

Each student will be required to submit one reflection paper. For this paper, you will choose any phenomenon and explain its development from the perspective of at least 2 theories that have been presented in class powerpoint notes or in assigned reading from the text. For example, if you have noticed that a small child you know seems to always want to be near his or her mother, you could attempt to explain why this may be based on the behavioral and cognitive developmental perspectives.

65. Compare and Contrast- having two jobs

Essay 2 Directions

Choose one of the topics below and compose a 750 – 1250 word compare or contrast essay:

1. Two jobs you have had 2. Two towns, cities, or vacation spots 3. Two hobbies or activities you enjoy 4. High school and college 5. A big campus and a small college campus 6. Public school and private school 7. Playing video games and doing outdoor activities 8. Reading a book and watching television/movies 9. The Academic Success Center and the Library 10. A fast food restaurant and the Titan’s Café on Warner Robins campus 11. Two social media websites (Facebook, Twitter, Instagram, Snapchat, etc.) 12. Online classes and on campus classes 13. Two movies, two television shows 14. Two characters, actors, or entertainers 15. Two cellphones 16. Smartphones and smartwatches  17. GIFs and memes/ emoji’s

You will follow the Five Steps of the Writing Process, once you have chosen a topic

66.Economics

Instruction

You must have access to the MSExcel and R to complete the course assignments. Course Description: Students will apply analytical techniques informed by economic theory and probability theory to solve real-life practical problems taken from a diverse set of applications such as anticipating behavioral outcomes and estimating worst-case scenarios. • How will a change in price affect quantity demanded for a given product? • How many citizens will participate in a government program (e.g. health care reform)? • What is the likely range of financial outcomes for a specific firm or industry? • How many customers will call a support service during a given period? These questions and more will be addressed. Business students interested in any quantitative discipline will find this course useful. Course Objectives: After successfully completing the course, the student will be able to: • Apply the fundamental theories of probability in a business context • Use mathematical and statistical tools to value, summarize, and analyze various outcomes • Forecast the timing and level of various outcomes using advanced regression techniques and time series models (ARIMA). • Use Quantile Regression to look at distributional outcomes • Evaluate, critique, and comment on the assumptions made and the mathematical techniques used to analyze various problems. • Develop significant computer spreadsheet skills by implementing the theory discussed in class. • Conduct advanced data analysis using a script-based analysis tool (R).

67.General

Epidemiology Paper (160 pts. total)

 This paper is intended for you to demonstrate your analytical mind. A detailed rubric is shown below. This project

will be due in parts. Paper should be double spaced in no less than 11 pt TimesRoman.

 – Each student will choose a disease or health-related condition as an epidemiology study

 – Review the current descriptive and analytical data information sources for that condition,

 – Write a paper (5-8 pages with references) that presents that information in a logical sequence,

 – Organization of your paper should include:

 I. Your title should succinct and be descriptive enough to the reader

 II. Introduction:

 – Introduce the topic (brief definition or description) and present it’s importance to human health status

 – Explain why this condition should be studied (increasing trend, affects a large number of people, socio-

 economic burden among those affected, etc)

 – You might include some prevalence information here to indicate the impact

 III. Descriptive Epidemiology:

 – Describe and/or define the disease or condition using descriptive epidemiology references

 – who tends to get this condition, where do they usually live, and at what age

 IV. Rates:

 – Present the most current national and local prevalence and incidence rates (when available)

 V. Causes and Risk Factors

 – Discuss the (presumed, known or theoretical) causes of this disease (if there are any)

 – Provide the currently established risk factors associated with the disease

 VI. Conclusion

 – Summarize this condition and indicate any public health methods that may limit its impact

 VII. Bibliography

 – Reference all statements of fact.

 – All citations should be referenced in the text and in a bibliography at the end of the paper

 – Use the American Medical Association (AMA) 10th edition (2007) Manual of Style in your bibliography.

For examples: AMA style.

 – Use of graphs or charts to explain relationships and describe the condition is strongly encouraged

 – Entire paper should be submitted onto SHSU Blackboard turnitin . No exception, please.

68. Computer Science

Instruction

– Resetting the software package, i.e. only one instance of the tool is allowed to be open. – Creating geometric objects, more specifically boxes (of user input dimensions and locations) and spheres (of user input radii and locations). – Creating an appropriate interface to allow a user to interact with the created objects. This should be shown by demonstrating the application of geometric transformations, more specifically translations by user input (along with the x, y, and z-axes) and rotations by a user input angle (around the x, y, and z-axes). – Exiting the tool. The attached file is an example of what it should look like.

69. Computer Science

Instruction

I’m looking for specialized in business information systems, business analysis, and Computer science majors. I have 3 classes which are, Data Analysis and Reporting, Data Analysis/Visualization and Predictive Data Analysis. Data Analysis and Reporting Class / Is SQL database / ERDs so you will use Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio inside the Vmware Horizon client. Data Analysis/Visualization Class / Is excel database and you will use excel 2016 inside the Vmware Horizon client. I will put the syllabus here and please read it carefully and tell me if you can handle the classes. please note if you cannot take the responsibility or you’re not the right person I’m looking for please ignore this announcement. I don’t want to waste my time again! I’m looking for someone and never give me good work. That’s all. Before you do anything READ the syllabus.

70. History of Psychology

Discussion Questions
 

All assignments MUST be typed, double-spaced, in APA style and must be written at graduate level English. You must integrate the material presented in the text to support your discussion, citing in APA format. Outside sources may be used to support the text information, but not replace the text.
 

Your response to each question should be approx. 1 page per question.
 

Assignment should be 16 pages total plus a title and reference page
 1.   There are many reasons why the history of psychology is important.  Pick two reasons and explain why they are important.
 2.  Socrates, Plato and Aristotle were important figures in Philosophy leading up to Psychology.  Discuss how these three paved the way for Psychology.
 

3.  Discuss how Augustine changed the locus of control human behavior, from forces outside the person to forces inside the person.
 

4.  Discuss the mind-Body interaction as seen by Descartes.  How did Descartes theories contribute to the beginning of Psychology?
 

5.  Compare the roles of Locke, Berkeley, and Hume, and their importance in early Psychology.
 

6.   Herbert was an important transitional figure between philosophy and psychology.  How do his theories bring these two disciplines together?
 

7.  Discus the commonalities and the differences between existentialism and romanticism.
 

8.  What were Fechner’s contributions to the development of psychology as a science?

9.  Compare and contrast Wundt’s view of Psychology with Titchener’s views.  Which one do you agree with more?
 10.  There were many controversies over intelligence testing.  Discuss the importance of Cattell, Binet, Spearman, Goddard, Terman and Yerkes in testing history.  Briefly discuss the Bell Curve theory (without pictures), as it applies to testing IQ.
 11.  Discuss the difference between Structuralism and Functionalism.  How were the two schools (Chicago and Columbia) similar and different?
 12.  Pavlov and Watson are major behaviorists.   Explain William McDougall’s outlook and theories and why he is not as well known.
 13.  Skinner was known as the leading neobehavorist.  Why were Tolman, Hull and Gutherie not as well known?  Be sure to include Tolman, Hull and Gutherie’s theories.
14.  Discuss the founding of Gestalt theory.  What impact did it have on psychology and therapy?
 15.  Summarize the medical, psychological and supernatural models of mental illness and give examples of each.
 16.  Sigmund Freud is credited with being the Father of Psychoanalysis.  Compare and contrast how Anna Freud, Carl Jung, Alfred Adler and Karen Horney morphed Freud’s original theories into working theories that we still use today.

71.Writing Essay

Prompt. In the documentary Catfish, we saw an individual create an imaginary identity as a way of dealing with her depressing offline reality. Eventually, the relationship turned into something more than a friendship although it was actually based on an elaborate lie. The articles”Love the One You’re Near” and “There Is Now Evidence That “There’s Now Evidence That Online Dating Causes Stronger, More Diverse Marriages” also address the issue of online romance. What do you think? Is the Internet a useful place to find a partner?​ Make an argument for or against online dating. Take a position and support it with reasons and evidence. Include  a counterargument and rebuttal.  You can use logical reasoning, personal examples, examples from the documentary and the articles, expert opinions, facts, and/or statistics. Also include  at least one direct quote and a paraphrase with in-text citations. ​

72. Extra Credit: Researching Library Databases

Answer each question, the following questions for an extra Writer’s Notebook grade (this is extra credit).

  1. Find the source that discusses police wearing body cameras by Kelly Freund. List the title of the article and summarize it (you can summarize the abstract).
  2. Find the source that discusses transgender students’ bathroom rights from the Harvard Journal on Legislation. List the title of the article, the author, and the subject terms used to categorize it.
  3. Find the source that discusses the sale of organs from Boston College Law Review. List the correct Works Cited entry.
  4. Find a source that discusses raising the federal minimum wage. List the article title and author. Then describe how you searched for it and found it.

YouTube URL: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Z3y_2wzCS0c

Please watch the video below over accessing the online databases. Then complete the database activity in your next Writer’s Notebook below. You will be finding sources for your annotated bibliography and your argument research paper. You will use  Academic Search Complete to find them.  You need to find four sources that support your claim and one that is a counterargument.

You can access the online databases from the Richland College Library homepage (there is a link on the left sidebar). Click on Databases (in the left column) and then click on Academic Search Complete at the top of the page. You will have to login with your student ID email provided by DCCCD. Your email starts with a lowercase E followed by your student ID. Here’s an example:

Login: e1234567@student.dcccd.edu

Password: eConnect password

If you do not know your eCannect password, you can try logging in on the eConnect webpage. There is a box you can check to get your password hint as well.

Whenever you search a database, always look for the “Advanced Search” feature, which allows you to combine key terms. Using key terms selectively is also important. Also, when searching for authors in a database, always place the last name first, since items in a database are alphabetized. You can also use the drop down arrow to search specific things like authors, titles, journal names, or even ISBN numbers.

73. Project Management Discussion 5

1.Using expected value, is it economically better to make or buy the component?

Cost of buying 10,000 components = 10,000 * 72 = $720,000

2.    Strategically thinking, why might management opt for other than the most economical choice?

response for Naresh Erlapalli

  1. Using expected value, is it economically better to make or buy the component?

Estimated cost of purchase = 10000 * 72 = 72000

cost for production = setup cost + defective repair cost + total raw material cost

Given:

Cost of raw material per component = $40

Setup cost = $100,000

cost of defective repair per component = $120

Percent defective  0 10 20 30   40 

Probability of 10 20 30 25 15 

occurrence

No. Of defective units as probability = sum of ((percent defective/100) * (probability of occurrence/100) )* (total units) )

= (((0/100) * (10/100) ) +  ((10/100) * (20/100) ) + ((20/100) * (30/100))  +  ((30/100) * (25/100)  + ((40/100) * (15/100) ) * (10000)  

= 0.215 *10000

= 2150 Units

Total estimated repairing cost =  total defective units * cost per repair = 2150*120 = $258,000

Total cost of raw materials =  total units * cost per unit

=  10000 * 40

=  $400,000

total cost of production for 10,000 units =  $258,000 + $400,000 + 100,000 

 =  $758,000

Estimated cost of purchasing = 10,000 *72 = $720,000

Therefore, comparing the prices for purchasing and manufacturing, it is economically better to manufacture the products.

2. Strategically thinking, why might management opt for other than the most economical choice?

The management may opt for manufacturing the product even though its costlier than purchasing the product because strategically thinking it gives them an opportunity to establish themselves in the market. By manufacturing the products in house they can look for long term solutions for future orders and they can also reduce the defective components by improving themselves and also it removes the dependency on external vendors which will make them more productive.

response for Tharun Varikoti

1.  Using the expected value, is it economically better to make or buy the component?

Cost estimate with new high cost component:

$72×10,000=720,000

Another approach the management tried to take up was to build the component internally & setup:

Cost estimate if Teloxy builds it:

100,000+400,000= $500,000

Calculation after the defect:

0x10+0.1×20+0.2×30+0.3×25+0.4×15= 21.5 = 0.215

Total number of defective components for 10000 units=2150

Cost for defective component=$120

2150×120= $258,000

Thus, total cost If Teloxy builds it with the predicted defects= = 258,000 + 500,000 = $758,000

Coming to the difference if Teloxy builds it or buys it= 758,000-720,000 = $38,000.

Concluding to this calculation, economically it’s better for Teloxy to purchase it from the third-party vendor than building it.

2.  Strategically thinking, why might the management opt for other than the most economical choice?

Utilizing the normal esteem, we see that it is financially savvy for the organization to make a segment than to get it. Be that as it may, now and again, the organization might opt to purchase the part

Despite the fact that it is increasingly costly as the organization is new to the assembling procedure and that there is an immense danger of disappointment or the harmed market esteem and the notoriety if there emerges a sudden hazard. Utilizing the normal esteem and the determined numbers above, we can see that last expense per unit is $75.8 if there should be an occurrence of make option and $77 in the event of purchasing the segment which is a less expense to the organization than the expense of building the market esteem and the notoriety once it is down a direct result of any looked for of disappointment. On the off chance that the organization thinks toward this path, then the organization might opt for purchasing the part despite the fact that it isn’t practical.

References:

1.  Kerzner, H. (2017). Project management: A Systems Approach to Planning, Scheduling, and Controlling (12 ed.). Hoboken, NJ, USA: John Wiley & Sons, Inc.

74. Assignment: Journaling

When you have a strong grasp of the basic tenets, strengths, and weaknesses of key theories of psychology, you can make an informed decision as to which theory or theories best apply in understanding a particular set of behaviors. By keeping a journal of sorts, you can document the characteristics of each theory as you learn about it. Your journaling will be a useful reference for you long after you complete this course. The Psychology Theories Template provides a matrix where you can record what you have learned about each theory.

For this Assignment, you will explore key concepts found in psychodynamic theories and begin your journaling of this week’s theories.

To complete

Begin populating the Psychology Theories Template related to this week’s theories—psychodynamic theories. As you begin populating your template, consider the following:

  1. Identify who or what contributed to the development of the theory. Were there key researchers or seminal research that led to the theory?
  2. Record whether the theory emphasizes nature (biology), nurture (environment), or both.
  3. List the primary characteristics or features of the theory (its key tenets and concepts). Be sure to include if a particular period of life is emphasized.
  4. List the noteworthy strengths and weaknesses of the theory.
  5. (Optional) Include any notes that you find helpful in understanding and applying the theory, such as potential contemporary themes or fields of research in which the theory could be applied.

75. Term Paper

Upload your Term Project Paper here. You may write on any topic related to technology security.

You must produce a minimum of a 10 pages paper. You must use a minimum of 5 references.

– Assure you are citing in APA format

-You must use a minimum of one graphics (may use a table)

– Doublespace the paper

– You must use APA formatting (6th Edition)

76. Discussion

Cushing filed an application with the office of the Adjutant General of the State of New Hampshire for the use of the Portsmouth Armory to hold a dance on the evening of April 29. The application, made on behalf of the Portsmouth Area Clamshell Alliance, was received by the Adjutant General’s office on or about March 30. On March 31 the Adjutant General mailed a signed contract after agreeing to rent the armory for the evening requested. The agreement required acceptance by the renter affixing his signature to the agreement and then returning the copy to the Adjutant General within five days after receipt. Cushing received the contract offer, signed it on behalf of the Alliance, and placed it in the outbox for mailing on April 3. At 6:30 on the evening of April 4, Cushing received a telephone call from the Adjutant General revoking the rental offer. Cushing stated during the conversation that he had already signed and mailed the contract. The Adjutant General sent a written confirmation of the withdrawal on April 5. On April 6 the Adjutant General’s office received by mail from Cushing the signed contract dated April 3 and postmarked April 5.

a.  What are the arguments that a binding contract exists?

b.  What are the arguments that the contract does not exist or should not exist?

3 paragraphs with 3 references

77. Week 8- Discussion

Discussion Assignment:

Watch the following video:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=1gHbwT_R9t0

Was the news segment compelling enough to convince you that the Earth could be flat? Whether we realize it or not, we are inundated with causal claims and arguments. The Flat Earth Wiki page explains that the evidence for a flat earth is derived from many different facets of science and philosophy. The world looks flat, the bottoms of clouds are flat, the movement of the Sun; these are all examples of your senses telling you that we do not live on a spherical heliocentric world. This is using what’s called an empirical approach, or an approach that relies on information from your senses.

The causes of the following events and phenomena are well known and frequently discussed. But do you understand these causes well enough to spell them out to someone else? See how well (and in how much detail) you can explain one of these events or phenomena. Post your explanation to the discussion thread. Is your explanation relatively clear, or does it seem more open to debate? earthquakes/tsunamis
swelling caused by a bee sting
sharp rises in reported cases of autism or asthma
fake news
climate change
popularity of the Netflix series 13 Reasons Why
increasing post-graduation debt for college students
outcome of the

2016 presidential election
controversies in schools and online over free speech

 

78. Computer Science

Question 1

Calculate the slope and intercept of the first order equation y=mx+b  ->  deg_c = m * deg_f + b

Here is the spreadsheet  https://github.com/ml1150258/2019_Spring_CIS_CSC_17c/tree/master/Hmwk/CurveFitLab (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. 

Write a program/project in Netbeans using the same concepts as the  spreadsheet.  You can copy the degrees Fahrenheit column and place in a  file.  Then copy the column with error values included for degree  Celsius.  Calculate the slope and intercept for the data using the  formulas in the spreadsheet.

Question 2

Create abstract classes to inherit, show polymorphic behavior and  operator overloading.  I have written the .h and main.cpp files for  you.  Complete by writing the .cpp class files.

https://github.com/ml1150258/2019_Spring_CIS_CSC_17c/tree/master/Hmwk/Review2_CIS17c_Object_Array

79. English Homework

Readings Required:

“Analyzing a Visual: Texting while Driving”, 473 

Answer each question in 150-300 words:

  1. How does the ad’s caption “Get the Message” have a double meaning? Do you find the caption effective? Why or why not?
  2. Briefly argue how a visual argument about texting and driving (like this one) might be more or less effective than an essay on the same subject.

80. Education Homework

Story Plot      

Section 4.2 of the text discusses in detail the importance and the various types of plot we see in the stories we read.  Successful stories are those that have an identifiable plot or sequence of events (Coats, 2013).  Our understanding of the types of plot will help us to better identify the kinds of stories our future students gravitate towards.  For this post, you will complete “The Seven Basic Plots” chart, which is available in your online course.  You will choose at least two children’s books that fit into each plot category.  A title may fit into more than one category, but you must choose at least two books for each plot type.  Then, briefly discuss how knowing this information will help you choose literature for your classroom.

81. Education homework

Picturebooks      

The introduction for Chapter 3 of the text discusses picturebooks and the important role this type of literature can have in helping children develop in their visual, spatial, and gestural literacies (Coats, 2013).  Our ability as teachers to understand the basics of picturebook design will assist us in our choosing of books.  For this post, you will create a picturebook of your own, implementing and discussing those elements addressed in Chapter 3.  Go to Storybird (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. and design a picturebook to share with your classmates. If you need assistance with how to use Storybird, it is recommended you view the Storyboard Tutorial for Students (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site..  In your post, include a description of the elements of an effective picturebook design, and explain how your picturebook aligns with these elements.  Include one picture and description for each of the following:

  • Color
  • Shape, line, and texture
  • Characters and icons
  • Composition and point of view

In your post, be sure to include a discussion of these elements, why you feel your students would enjoy this book, and a working link to your picturebook.

Storyboard Tutorial for Students (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site..  In your post, include a description of the elements of an effective picturebook design, and explain how your picturebook aligns with these elements.  Include one picture and description for each of the following:

  • Color
  • Shape, line, and texture
  • Characters and icons
  • Composition and point of view

In your post, be sure to include a discussion of these elements, why you feel your students would enjoy this book, and a working link to your picturebook.

 82. Human Resource Management

Internet Search

Access the Internet and locate a health insurance company’s (e.g. UnitedHealth, Aetna, etc.) website. Write a three- to five-page double-spaced paper (excluding title and reference pages), addressing the following:

  • Describe member services and incentives.
  • Discuss new/current/upcoming technology.
  • Examine provider network and outreach.
  • Explain the insurance company’s commitment to excellence and quality.
  • List its accreditation and/or certification.
  • Generate two recommendations for improving the company’s member services and/or website.

The Internet Search assignment

Carefully review the Grading Rubric (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. for the criteria that will be used to evaluate your assignmen

83.Human Resource Management

 Information Systems Functionalities

In preparing for this discussion, read Chapter 23 of the course text. For your initial post, address the following in the discussion forum:

  • Describe information systems functionalities in claims management and member services maintained by Managed Care Organizations (MCOs).
  • Identify the significance of information systems in maintaining provider network operated by MCOs.
  • Discuss the changes in information systems to support consumerism that can be recognized in MCOs.

84. Human Resource Management.

Employer-Sponsored Health Insurance

In preparing for this discussion, read Chapters 16 and 22 of the course text. For your initial post, address the following in the discussion forum:

  • Describe the sales process in the employer-sponsored model.
  • Compare the differences between rating and underwriting.
  • Discuss the influence of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act on ONE of the four areas: (a) marketing, (b) sales, (c) rating, and (d) underwriting.

Your initial post should be at least 300 words. Support your response with a minimum of two scholarly sources (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. that were published in the last five years.

85. Political Science

Question 1: What are the major approaches to political development? Analyze critically different approaches to political development as well as the relationship between development and post-colonialism. (300 words)

Question 2: What is the relationship between political development and democracy? What is the relationship between political development and civil rights? Are they the same? Which one constitutes a prerequisite for the other?(300 words)

86. Accounting

Describe the organizations and rules that govern accounting.

87. Writing Essay

Need to write a paper with references for implementing new stores and what are cybersecurity plans and Risks. Please go through the screen shots for more details and how to write the paper,


88.Discussion

While some similarities between management and leadership exist, there are notable differences.

  • In your own words, explain what you believe the difference is between management and leadership.
  • Conduct research on the differences between management and leadership, and post your findings. References and citations are to be formatted according to APA style and formatting guidelines.

89. Entrepreneurship Case Analysis Essay

CASE ANALYSIS GRADING

Case analysis assignments are designed to demonstrate your analytical abilities and your critical thinking skills. They are NOT summaries of the case.

For each assignment, you need to show:

– The top issues which you think prompted the case to be written

– Your consideration of each issue, including any action that must be taken to address the issue and the pros/cons of that action

THEN

– Roll the electronic die.

– Assume the perspective of the company officer indicated by the die.

– Describe your reaction to the case from that officer’s perspective

You receive no points for summarizing the case.

You can receive a maximum of 5 points for issue identification.
You can receive a maximum of 15 points for your analysis of those issues.
You can receive a maximum of 5 points for the company officer perspective.

In exceptional cases, the point allocation may change.

Since we will identify key issues in the case class discussion, late analysis submissions will be discounted by 50%, unless significant new ideas are presented.  

90. Information Systems

Instructions

Paper D: Reflective paper on class learning.

Consider this assignment as a reflective piece on class learning as it applies to Ethics in Information Technology. It describes your Ah-ha or Eureka moments. It is hoped that this course made you think about the ethical issues that occur in your personal and work lives and how to go about making ethical choices. Please use the ideas you learned from this course; how you will synthesize what you learned from your research about your topic including – over-arching issues, readings, discussion from class, and conclusions from other assignments that apply to your research.

Please address the following elements:

  • From a class learning perspective, what were some of your “take-aways?”
  • How has this impacted your understanding of the ethical issues?
  • What will you do differently?
  • How has what you have learned in this course influenced your career?
  • As we continue to move toward a global community, what new challenges might we see relating to ethics in IT?

You are to prepare a reflective piece of not more than 2-3 pages, double-spaced and submit it to your Assignment Folder as an attached Microsoft Word file. This paper may be subjective in nature!

(This assignment is for the ethics in technology class)

91. English homework Help

Student Newspaper Article Summary Template

Student name: _______________________________________

Author(s): _____________________________________________________

Date Published: _________________________________________________

Title: _________________________________________________________

Newspaper: ____________________________________________________

Website: _______________________________________________________

Date Accessed: __________________________________________________

APA Citation: __________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________

Paragraph 1: Introduction: Who are the actors in this story? What happened? How did it happen? When did it happen? Is it still happening? Where did it happen?

Paragraph 2: What are the natural elements introduced in this story? What are the key points about these natural elements that the author(s) make?

Paragraph 3: What are the social elements introduced in this story? What are the key points about these social elements that the author(s) makes? Are people of all genders and races represented? Whose voices are not heard that might be important to this story?

Paragraph: 4: What are the major findings of this story? What are the implications of this story?

92. Identify Variable Types And Values

In this assignment, you will be required to use the Heart Rate Dataset to complete the following:

  • Identify the types of data represented by variables
  • The range or types of values for each variable
  • Give a brief written description of the variables, and how they are used in the data set.

Steps

1. Open the Heart Rate Dataset in Excel

2. Identify each of the variables contained in the dataset by type

3. Identify the type of data each variable represents (e.g., qualitative or quantitative) and the possible values for each

4. Briefly describe how the variable is used in the dataset, (e.g., to identify a class, or to give a specific numeric value for an individual).

Additional Instructions:

Your assignment should be typed into a Word or other word processing document, formatted in APA style. The assignments must include

Correctly identifies all variable types

Correctly gives the range of values for each variable

Correctly describes each variable

Submitted assignment is well written and well organized demonstrating excellence in scholarly writing. Mechanics (spelling and punctuation) and grammar are excellent.

93. Applied sciences

Submit a Discussion post in which you respond to the following five questions. Be sure to support your responses with information you learned from the week’s Learning Resources.

  1. Start your post with a brief description of a current or historical public health effort from your interactive courseware (e.g., water fluoridation) that is new or surprising.
  2. Considering your daily activities, describe two specific instances where public health efforts such as those identified in your learning resources (e.g., immunization) may have an impact on individuals you know.
  3. Explain how your examples might impact the burden of disease addressed in your Learning Resources this week.
  4. How would (or do) your examples of public health affect people in other less developed countries? Provide an example to illustrate your point.

94. BYOD Is A Growing Trend In Corporate Environments


BYOD is a growing trend in corporate environments, where employees bring their own devices to work. Factors  that have led to the growing popularity of BYOD include the benefits of work flexibility, increased productivity,          and efficiency of employees. Despite these benefits, there are concerns over information security and privacy. Since BYOD allows employees to access organizational data anytime anywhere, it is necessary to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of organizational information resources and assets.

Discussion Questions

 1. What are the advantages and disadvantages of allowing employees to use their personal smart phones for work?

2. What people, organization, and technology factors should be addressed when deciding whether to allow employees to use their personal smart phones for work?

Provide support for your statements and references, APA formatted.

95. Literature Analysis Research

Format: This assignment must be printed out for submission, following the standard MLA format.

Details: 2 Page (600-650 words) comparison/contrast of Masque of the Red death and The Tell-Tale Heart by Edgar Allen Poe ! Include the following:

  • Compare/contrast three (3) literary and poetic devices between literary works ,Define the literary and poetic      devices.
  • Answer: how does each work use them differently or the same?
  • Answer: what affect do the literary devices have on the reader in terms of interpretation if some or all of the literary devices are NOT included?  How would their absence change the literary work?
  • Answer: what other devices would YOU choose if you had the power to edit the literary work?  Name at least two (2) and why.

For your title, you will need to list the following choice as how you would like this grade to be counted 

  • A: Replacement grade for one (1) discussion board

96. Emerging-Threats-And-Countermeasures_ Discretion

How basic discretion steps can help in countermeasures?

3 references with minimum of 300 words

97. Discussion Question

From the perspective of a general manager in your field, which of the organizational control methods outlined in Chapter 19 of the Management textbook do you think would be the most universal? What does organizational control look like in your sphere of influence? The book is   

Daft, R. (2014). Management (11th ed.). Vanderbilt University: South-Western Cengage learning. I need at least 2 refs. 1-2 pages can do the job.

98. Monologue

Write an monologue of “mama bear from the fairy tail- goldilocks and three bear”

99. Enterprise Risk Management_ Mars And California Health System

1)Approach Mars, Incorporated used to implement ERM

2)University of California Health System’s ERM development.

Do some research on above two topics and explain In what ways are the two organization’s approaches to ERM(Enterprise Risk Management) similar? How do they differ? Choose one aspect of each ERM implementation from which the other organization would benefit and explain why.  

Minimum of 300 words with three references

100. Three 550-600 Word Research Papers. APA Format.3-4 Peer Reviewed References.No Plagiarism

Three 550-600 word research papers. APA format. APA format in paragraph citations. 3-4 Peer reviewed references. No plagiarism

Topics:

Question 1) Business Bluffing

Question 2) Stakeholder theory

Question 3)Organizational Integrity

Please follow below instructions, each paper should have,

DEFINITION: a brief definition of the key term followed by the APA reference for the term; 

SUMMARY: Summarize the article in your own words- this should be in the 150-200 word range. Be sure to note the article’s author, note their credentials and why we should put any weight behind his/her opinions, research or findings regarding the key term.

DISCUSSION: Using 300-350 words, write a brief discussion, in your own words of how the article relates to the selected chapter Key Term. A discussion is not rehashing what was already stated in the article, but the opportunity for you to add value by sharing your experiences, thoughts and opinions. This is the most important part of the assignment.

REFERENCES: All references must be listed at the bottom of the submission in APA format.

101.Nursing

What are some factors that make some people healthy and others ill? Healthy People 2020 identifies five determinants of health that influence the health of individuals and populations. Healthy People 2020 describes them as “a range of personal, social, economic, and environmental factors that influence health status” (U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 2018, About Determinants of Health, para. 1). Determinants fall into five categories, including (a) policy making, (b) social factors, (c) health services, (d) individual behavior, and (e) biology and genetics.

U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Office of Disease Prevention and Health Promotion. (2018). Healthy People 2020: About Determinants of Health. Retrieved from https://www.healthypeople.gov/2020/about/foundation-health-measures/Determinants-of-Health

102. Company Name Apple Inc:

The aim of this assignment is to provide students the opportunity to perform a thorough case analysis. Select your company and get approval from your course professor before working on it. The case analysis should include the following elements:

Title Page

Executive Summary

Background 

  • Introduce      the company and provide the reader with background information about the      company.

Situation Analysis 

  • The Environment – PESTLE Analysis
    1. Political environment
    2. Economic environment
    3. Social environment
    4. Technological environment
    5. Legal/Regulatory environment
    6. Environmental environment
  • The Industry – Porter’s Five Forces Analysis
    1. Bargaining power of suppliers
    2. Threat of new entrant
    3. Rivalry among existing competitors
    4. Bargaining power of competitors
    5. Threat of substitutes
  • The Firm 
    1. What is the mission and vision of the firm?
    2. What are the strengths of the firm?
    3. What is the firm’s financial condition?
    4. What are       the constraints and weaknesses of the firm (i.e. financial condition,       organizational conflict)?
    5. What is the       management philosophy? 
    6. What does       the organizational structure tell you about how decisions are made?
  • The Product
    1. What good       and/or service does the organization offer? 
    2. What       consumer need does the product solve?
    3. What       promotional mix, channels of distribution, and pricing strategies are being       used by the organization?
    4. What competitive advantage does the       marketing strategy offer?

SWOT Analysis 

  • Strengths 
    • Identify strengths of the organization and       answer the following questions:
      • How does        this strength affect the operations of the organization?
      • How does this strength assist the company        in meeting the needs of its target market(s)?
  • Weaknesses 
    • Identify weaknesses of the organization and       answer the following questions:
      • How does this weakness affect the        operations of the organization?
      • How does        knowledge of this weakness assist the organization in meeting the needs        of its target market(s)?
  • Opportunities 
    • Identify       opportunities in the industry (and/or external environment) and answer       the following questions:
      • How is        this opportunity related to serving the needs of our target market?
      • What        actions must the organization take to capitalize on this opportunity?
  • Threats 
    • Identify       threats in the industry (and/or external environment) and answer the       following questions:
      • How is this threat related to serving the        needs of our target market?
      • What        actions must the organization take to prevent this threat from limiting        the capabilities of the organization?

Problem Statement 

  • What is the      primary problem in the case? Secondary problems? What are the ramifications of these problems in      the long run? Short run? Include quantitative and qualitative      analysis in your response.

Strategic Plan

  • Based on the problem      identified, develop a 5-year strategic plan for the company. This plan should include:

1. Clear vision, mission statement and core values

2. SMART objectives to solve the problem

3. Corresponding strategies for the objectives identified

4. Implementation plan

5. Key Performance Indicators to monitor progress

Summary

  • Conclude the paper      with a summary of the major points.

References

As groups prepare the project, please attend to the following additional guidelines:

· Length: 30 pages (double-spaced)

· Sources: 15 scholarly sources and 15 sources of business data

· Format: APA 

Proofread the document carefully before submission at the end of the bi-term

 

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EMAN 620 – Information Technology in Emergency Management

Module # 5

Mapping Exercise

Due at the end of Module # 5

Goal:

The Goal of this exercise is to familiarize the student with online tools that help organize and display information on a map in a short time frame.  The tool I recommend you use is Google Earth.   You will be creating a map after an act of terrorism has occurred. 

Objectives:

The objectives of this exercise are to:

  • Explore a online mapping platform like Google Earth
  • Identify Key Features for a functional site map 
  • Produce a map with a legend that is clear, readable and has value to commanders and responders

Background Scenario:

A “ Dirty bomb “ has been detonated directly in front of the White house in Washington D.C . This occurred at 10 a.m. on 04-20-(this year). The President was not at the White House during the blast. It is utter chaos, with DC Fire/EMS responding. 

Your role is the Emergency manager for the City of Washington D.C. Within minutes of the attack you activate all emergency functions. At 13:00 you are expected to provide a briefing to the Mayor of D.C., and the President of the United States at a nearby facility. You have been asked to keep your brief short with a single map that portrays the situation and the response effort.

Your initial assessment reveals that there is damage to buildings within a ¼ mile.  There are currently 86 fatalities and 200+ injured.

There happens to be absolutely no wind on the day. However you are still concerned about the potential for radiation exposure. Your staff recommends a “ hot zone” with a mile radius. That means everything inside that area has potential for radiation.

Need homework help? Click Here!

Tasks:

Your overall task is to create a status map for the purpose of:

  1. Assuming you watched the video and have downloaded Google Desk Top
    1. If you cannot access Google Maps you can use another map making program to produce your map or you can create a paper map.
  2. Review the scenario. More than enough information available.
    1. Email or text me with any questions.
  3. Create a status map that provides a snapshot of the situation. A few things you should consider 
    1. The immediate impact zone
    1. The “ hot zone” i.e. suspected contamination zone
    1. Points of ingress/egress for rescuers
    1. Staging area for rescue areas
    1. De-contamination area for people/equipment leaving
    1. Temporary Debris Storage area. This should be a large area of debris from the rescue effort can be temporarily stockpiled.
  4. Create a legend, Title and any other required formatting.

Deliverables:

By the end of Module # 5 you are to submit a file (yes PDF is ok) in the assignment folder with your result. The file should contain the Map with a legend that is clear and easy to read. 

Notes:

I purposely provided sparse information.  Take as many creative and logical liberties as like to develop the scenario on your own. The point is that you have to produce a single map – with what you feel is the most important info to provide a snapshot of the situation.  It’s up to you decide to what should go on there.

The Role of Stakeholders

  1. What are the stakeholders?
  2. How do the three primary stakeholder groups influence organizations?
  3. What steps would you take to effectively communicate a strategic plan?

Final Strategic Plan

Create the Final Strategic Plan. The Final Strategic Plan contains the elements of all the previous weeks’ components and incorporates instructor feedback. However, this is not a compilation or “cut-n-paste” of these prior papers. This is intended to be a stand-alone project that builds upon your earlier learnings. The strategic recommendations will be evaluated and the best options chosen for the recommendation. The final strategic plan contains:  (JP Morgan Chase)

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  • Table of Contents
  • Executive Summary (Word Document – 350 to 700 words) 
  • Company Background
  • Mission Statement
  • Vision Statement
  • Value Statement
  • Environmental Scan
  • Internal and External Environmental Analysis
  • Strategic Recommendation
  • Implementation Plan
  • Organizational Change Management Strategies
  • Risk Management Plan
  • Conclusion
  • References

Create a 25- to 35-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation with speaker notes to present the strategic plan, combining all relevant elements from previous weeks. The objective is to sell the strategic plan to investors or company directors.

Format the assignment according to APA guidelines.
Support your assessments. Include a minimum of four authoritative references. Remember all references should be included in the body of your presentation/speaker’s notes as in-text citations. 

Excel spreadsheet

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Instructions:

For the purpose of grading the project you are required to perform the following tasks:

Step

Instructions

Points Possible

1

Start Excel. Open the downloaded Excel file named e03ch05_grader_a1_Lessons.xlsx. Save the file with the name e03ch05_grader_a1_Lessons_LastFirstreplacing LastFirst with your last and first name. In the Security Warning bar, click Enable Content.

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On the StudentData worksheet, select the range A7:K94, and then name the range Student_Data. Create a named range for each column in the Student_Data named range, using the top row as the range values.

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3

On the DataInputs worksheet, select the range A3:B3, and then create a named range using the left column as the name.
Select the range A6:E10, and then create a named range using Lesson_Pricing as the name.
Select the range A13:E17, and then create a named range using Trans_Fees as the name.
Select the range A20:G24, and then create a named range using Uniform_Fees as the name.
Select the range H6:J7, and then create a named range using Entry_Fee as the name.

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On the StudentData worksheet, in cell E5, add a COUNTIF function to count the Teacher field in the Student_Data table that meets the filter criteria in cell E4. Copy the formula through cell I5.
In cell K5, add a DCOUNTA function to count the StudentID field in the Student_Data table that meets the filter criteria in the range D1:K2.

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In cell K8, add a VLOOKUP function nested in an IFERROR function to retrieve the price per hour, located in column 3 in the Lesson_Pricing named range, for each student on the basis of the student’s skill level, located in the Skill level field. The value should be looking for an exact match. To prevent an error from being displayed when the skill level is not known, use the IFERROR function to leave the cell blank.
Copy the formula through cell K94.

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On the LessonData worksheet, in cell F3, add a MATCH function nested in an INDEX function to retrieve Skill_level of each student listed in column B (StudentID). To prevent zeros from displaying when the skill level is not known, nest the INDEX and MATCH functions in an IF function to leave the cell blank when the skill level equals 0. Copy the formula through cell F121.

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On the LessonData worksheet, in cell G3, add a MATCH function nested in an INDEX function to retrieve the total fee located in the Lesson Pricing table on the DataInputs worksheet for each student listed in column B depending on their lesson length and skill level. To prevent an error from being displayed when the skill level is not known, nest the INDEX and MATCH functions inside an IFERROR function, and display the default total fee of $50. Copy the formula down to G121.

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On the Report worksheet, in cell B3, add a VLOOKUP function to look up the teacher’s name in the Student_Data table for the student listed in cell B2. The value should be looking for an exact match.
In cell B4, add an AVERAGEIF function to calculate the teacher’s (Teacher) average in the Price_Per_Hour field for the teacher listed in cell B3.
In cell B5, add a VLOOKUP function to look up the student’s skill level in the Student_Data table for the student listed in cell B2. The value should be looking for an exact match.

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In cell B6, add a COUNTIF function to count the StudentID field on the LessonData worksheet that meets the filter criteria in cell B2.

In cell B7, add a SUMIF function to sum the Total Fee field on the LessonData worksheet that meets the filter criteria in cell B2.

In cell B8, add a two nested IF function to determine how many free lessons the student has earned. If the student has had fewer than total lessons, display 0 earned. If the student has had less than 10 lessons, display 1 earned; otherwise, display 2 earned.

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In cell E5, add a VLOOKUP function to look up the student’s uniform size in the Student_Data table for the student listed in cell B2. The function should be looking for an exact match.

In cell E7, add a HLOOKUP function to retrieve the student’s registration fee in the Entry_Fee named range for the registration type in cell E3. The function should be looking for an exact match.

In cell I13, add a COUNTIF function to count the number of uniforms in the Uniform_Size column of the Student Data table that meet the filter criteria in cell H12.

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In cell I14, add a MATCH function nested in an INDEX function to retrieve the uniform fee located in the Uniform_Fee table on the DataInputs worksheet that meets the filter criteria in cells H12 and I13. To prevent an error from displaying when no uniforms of the size located in H12 are needed, nest the INDEX and MATCH functions inside an IFERROR function to leave the cell blank. (Hint: Set the match type to 1.)

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In cell B12, add a VLOOKUP function to retrieve the student’s first name in the Student_Data table that meets the filter criteria in cell A12. The value should be looking for an exact match.

In cell C12, add a VLOOKUP function to retrieve the student’s last name in the Student_Data table that meets the filter criteria in cell A12. The value should be looking for an exact match.

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In cell D12, add a VLOOKUP function to retrieve whether or not the student has a permission slip on file in the Student_Data table that meets the filter criteria in cell A12. The value should be looking for an exact match.

In cell E12, add a VLOOKUP function nested in an IF function to retrieve the student’s uniform size. To prevent zeros from being displayed when the uniform size is not known, nest the VLOOKUP function in an IF function to leave the cell blank. The value should be looking for an exact match. 
 

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In cell F12, add an AND function nested in an IF function to determine whether the student has a permission slip and a uniform. If the student has a permission slip and the uniform size is not blank, then display Yes in the field; otherwise, display No.
Highlight B12:F12 and then copy the formulas through cell range B38:F38.

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In cell F39, add a COUNTIF function to determine how many students are currently traveling to the competition as indicated by Yes in cell range F12:F38.

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16

In cell E8, add a MATCH function nested in an INDEX function to retrieve the transportation fee located in the Trans_Fee table on the DataInputs worksheet that meets the filter criteria in cell E4 and F39.

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Click Save, exit Excel, and then submit your file as directed by your instructor.

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Total Points

100.000

List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen v List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsenv List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsenv List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsenvvv List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsenv List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsenv

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Liberty HIEU 201 History of Western Civilization Evaluative Essay 1 & 2 Thesis Statement

Evaluative Essay Instructions

Purpose

  • To evaluate an historical theme using assigned sources for support.
  • To compose a properly formatted, scholarly paper, using the most recent edition of Turabian, Notes-Bibliography.

General Directions:

For this assignment, students will choose 1 historical theme from the list below to research throughout the course:

Religion/Philosophy

Literature

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Law

Science/Medicine/Technology

Economy/Labor

Students will write 2 analytical essays on their chosen theme, using the primary sources and topic prompts within the additional documents.

In Week 3, students will submit a thesis statement for Evaluative Essay 1 to the instructor for review. This pre-submission of the thesis statement will not be required for Evaluative Essay 2.

Evaluative Essay 1 will cover the period from 3000 BC through AD 476. It is due in Week 4.

Evaluative Essay 2 will cover the period from 476-1640. It is due in Week 7.

Specific Requirements:

The evaluative essay will consider assigned sources on the chosen theme, and evaluate those sources using the topic prompt provided in the additional documents for this assignment.

Format, Length and Organization:

  • Length: 750-1100 words (roughly 3-4 pages, double spaced – not counting footnotes)
  • Double spaced text, Times New Roman, size 12 font, standard margins and indentation (see Turabian: Notes-Bibliography)
  • The paper should have a title page, body, and bibliography page
  • Using Turabian Notes-Bibliography style, format footnotes for the paper.
  • Basic Organization (except literature topic, given in literature document): The paper will consist of an introduction, body and conclusion:
    • Introduction should be one paragraph and should introduce the main argument, ending with a strong thesis statement. The thesis statement is the ONE SENTENCE argument.
    • Body of the paper is a few paragraphs (3-4) developing and supporting the argument, showing comparison and contrast of the assigned documents, as well as further analysis and Biblical evaluation. The body of the paper should provide specific examples and details from the assigned sources.
    • Conclusion is the final paragraph, restating the argument and summarizing the main points of the paper, drawing conclusions for the reader. No new information.

Sources:

  • The textbook and lectures can be used for basic background information, but the majority of supporting details should be drawn from the assigned sources within each topic document.
  • For Biblical analysis, you can use your own Bible, or one of the following websites for finding and using Scripture verses. Please note that you need to use a standard translation (such as KJV or ESV) and not a paraphrase Bible (such as the Message).

             www.biblegateway.com

            Srong’s Exhaustive Concordance https://books.google.com/books?id=3TBGAQAAMAAJ&printsec=frontcover&dq=strong%27s+exhaustive+concordance+of+the+bible&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwifx7zyxZHXAhXFPCYKHQwRBc0Q6AEIKDAA#v=onepage&q&f=false

Source Citation Examples:

      Note that no citation is needed for common knowledge information, but specific examples, details, or arguments drawn from the assigned sources DO need proper source citation.

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                             Martin Luther nailed the 95 Theses to the door of the Wittenburg Church in 1517. (common knowledge, no specific citation needed)

                             The Hebrew Old Testament is considered to be a book of folklore, myths and stories that is useful for some understanding of Hebrew history, but not always reliable as an historical source since it was written by religious devotees rather than historians.[1] – citation needed because this expresses a specific view or argument.

**If you are unsure of whether or not a citation is needed, it is better to include the citation than to leave it out. You can also contact your instructor for assistance.


[1] Marvin Perry, et.al., Western Civilization Vol. 1, MindTap edition, 2-1c. (Note that this is short-form) E

WHY IS IT NOT APPROPRIATE TO DEPOSIT NON-WESTERN ARTIFACTS IN THE NATURAL COLLECTION OF HISTORY?

Writea 1,050- to 1,400-word paper in which your team compares the Normal Accident Theory to the Culture of Safety model.

Include the following in your paper:

  • Explain what factors can play a role in organizational accidents similar to the one highlighted in the scenario.
    • How do organizational processes give rise to potential failures?
    • How can certain conditions influence errors and violations within the workplace (e.g., operating room, pharmacy, intensive care unit)?
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Week 5 Starbucks

Create a 2- to 3-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation for a Mini-Strategy using the Mini-Strategy Outline.

Organization (Starbucks)

  • Assess the organization’s current status: 
    • Leadership
    • Board members
    • Structure
    • Number of employees 
  • Conduct a basic SWOTT analysis and discuss the implications of those results.

Strategic Plan 4

Write a 1,400-word minimum strategic implementation plan in which you include the following: 

  • Organization JP Morgan Chase
  • Create an implementation plan including:
    • Objectives
    • Functional tactics
    • Action items
    • Milestones and deadlines
    • Tasks and task ownership
    • Resource allocation
  • Recommend any organizational change management strategies that may enhance successful implementation.
  • Develop key success factors, budget, and forecasted financials, including a break-even chart.
  • Create a risk management plan including contingency plans for the identified risks. 

Format your paper according to APA guidelines.

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Implementation, Strategic Controls, and Contingency Plans

  1. What are some current and potential risks in the global environment that might impact the choice of international strategies, particularly international corporate-level strategies? 
  2. How can organizations benefit from performing a political risk analysis?
  3. Under what conditions would it make sense to use a political weakness as an opportunity to transfer operations in the home country to a new market?
  4. What are some potential advantages to implementing a cooperative strategy?  What might be some potential risks?
  5. What is a strategic network? What is a strategic center firm? How is a strategic center used in business-level, corporate-level, and international cooperative strategies?
  6. What are the benefits of implementing International Cooperative Strategies? Why?
  7. What are political risks and what are economic risks? How should firms approach dealing with these risks?
  8. What is a top management team, and how does it affect a firm’s performance and its abilities to innovate and design and bring about effective strategic change?

Statistic for business

 
You may use Minitab or other software for any calculations. However, you must show your

  manual calculations when asked. You may paste your output onto your assignment to show your use of Minitab; however, this output does not replace any of the steps outlined below. This means that answers that are exclusively computer output may receive only one mark.

  If you are performing a hypothesis test, make sure you state the hypotheses, the level of significance, the rejection region, the test statistic (and p-value, if requested), your decision (whether to reject or not to reject the null hypothesis), and a conclusion that answers the question posed or interprets the decision taken. These steps must be completed in addition to any computer output.

  The data in the Minitab data files can be found in the file Assign1Data.xlsx.

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Role of sport in education

Role of sport in education. You may select to focus on either high school or college sports and their role in education. Provide your educated opinion and use sources to support your beliefs. Make sure you cite your sources in-text and with a reference page. You may use APA or MLA.

Management Accounting Problem : Holzmann Cleaning Services

Intermediate Management Accounting 2 / 3 PROJECT 1 (30 MARKS) Project 1 is due at the end of Week 3. It is out of 30 marks. Required: Assume the role of a partner in Martine’s consulting business. Martine has asked you to assist her with completing the analysis and developing a report for Gretel. Prepare a report and supporting exhibits for Gretel, president of Holzmann Cleaning Services (HCS), to analyze HCS’s current profitability and provide analysis of the overhead allocations used. It should include the following: 1. Profit analysis: Prepare a brief high-level overview of the 20X6 results in total based on Exhibit 1 in the project details document. Your discussion should highlight significant changes between 20X5 and 20X6 operations, and between 20X6 actual and 20X6 budgeted operations. (8 marks) 2. Costing analysis: Prepare overall comments on the current method HCS uses to allocate its overhead and provide further analysis on ways in which the company can improve its costing methods in order to assess and manage its costs. Your analysis should include the following: a) Calculate overhead applied rate per direct labour hour (rounded to the nearest dollar), the overhead applied amount and the resulting over- or underapplied overhead for 20X6 using the traditional costing approach. Base this on the existing method of allocating service overhead using direct labour hours as the allocation base. The 20X6 actual wages and benefit rate were the same as budgeted at $13.20 per hour. (2 marks) b) Use the regression analyses in Exhibit 3 in Project Details to determine the viability of each cost driver to predict costs for cleaning supplies and transportation. This should include reasons for choosing or not choosing the regression analyses that were provided. (3 marks) c) Use the regression analysis equation chosen in part (b) to separate the variable cost(s) from the fixed cost(s). Only the fixed cost(s) would be categorized with the other overhead costs. With the adjusted overhead costs, follow the traditional costing approach to recalculate the overhead application rate using direct labour hours as the allocation base. Calculate the over- or underapplied overhead by applying the new overhead rate. Compare your result to part (a) and provide an analysis of the differences between the two application rates. (4 marks) Intermediate Management Accounting Project 1 3 / 3 d) Using activity-based costing and the information in Exhibit 2 in Project Details, prepare a partial profit analysis for commercial and residential operations. Use wages and benefits costs (allocated on the same basis as revenue) and all costs from the activitybased data to prepare a partial operating statement that includes all direct/traceable costs. Compare the segment margins between the commercial and residential operations. (4 marks) Provide three points that highlight the reasons for the difference between cost allocations using activity-based costing and traditional costing. (3 marks) e) Provide overall comments on the results of these analyses in your report. (3 marks) In addition to the above, award 3 marks for report format and professionalism. Your report should clearly communicate the important details of the case and effectively persuade the reader to act on your advice. NOTE ON ROUNDING: Use unrounded numbers for all calculations and round the final answer to the nearest dollar

Intermediate Management Accounting 2 / 11 PROJECT DETAILS “Adding time to your day” is the slogan of Holzmann Cleaning Services (HCS). The company was started by Gretel, who began offering cleaning services to support herself while she was in university studying for a business degree. At the age of 21 she was determined to be known as more than a simple labourer who needed to fund her education. She researched different cleaning products and methodologies to deliver a fast and thorough service to her clients. Ten years later, the business has grown in size and has expanded throughout the city and local rural areas. Gretel is the majority shareholder of the private corporation with two other shareholders. The company consists of a full-time staff of three operations managers (one for commercial operations and two for residential operations), an administrative staff of three, and part-time cleaning staff of over 200 university students, called cleaning agents. Not only is Gretel able to provide high-quality cleaning services to her clients, but she is also able to offer university students part-time work, reducing the need for student loans. The company also owns a fleet of three vans that are used to transport cleaning agents to and from work sites. A fourth van is available for the operations managers to make site visits if necessary. Gretel’s training regimen is thorough as potential hires are trained in the areas of cleaning products, effective cleaning methods and acceptable deportment when entering a client’s residence or place of business. Through this training process, which Gretel carries out herself, she is able to hire only those individuals she feels would provide the high-quality service that keeps clients coming back. Recently, Gretel engaged Martine, a CPA and a local consultant, to review the latest operating statement. Gretel is discouraged with the 20X6 profit margin (Exhibit 1). Additionally, she is concerned with the cash flow as there are seasonal fluctuations in the work, with more work in the months of March and April when many homeowners request more hours for springcleaning chores. As such, Gretel must ensure that there is enough cash on hand to build cleaning supplies inventories and pay for training of any new recruits required to handle the extra work. Other than springtime, cleaning supplies inventory on hand is minimal. She is hoping that Martine will provide some guidance that will help the company attain its profit margins. She has called a meeting with Martine, Sam, the operations manager of commercial operations and Ling, one of the operations managers of residential operations. Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 3 / 11 GRETEL: I thought we had a pretty good year; sales were up, and we’ve had great reviews. Yet when I look at the bottom line, the profit margin is only 9%. I was hoping for at least 12%. According to industry statistics, the profit margins should be at least 25%. The other issue is that we were short on cash in the late summer. MARTINE: Have there been any significant changes in the operations in the past year? LING: I’ve noted that we’re taking on more residential clients outside the city. I’ve had to make sure that we schedule in more travel time to reach the destination on time. SAM: And don’t forget that at the request of a majority of our commercial clients, we’ve included more eco-friendly cleaning products. It helps boost their image of being socially responsible. MARTINE: I can imagine that this has increased both your travel and cleaning supplies costs. How do you currently cost out your services and how do you arrive at a charge-out rate? GRETEL: We treat the wage costs of our cleaning agents as direct costs. The cost of cleaning supplies, transportation and operations managers’ salaries are considered overhead. We apply the overhead at $10 per direct labour hour and add on an additional 60% to arrive at our charge-out rate. MARTINE: Have you ever taken an activity-based approach to costing your services? Besides the increase in cleaning supplies’ costs, are there some other significant differences in the costs consumed by your commercial clients versus the costs consumed by your residential clients? LING: Well, I’ve had a bit of free time on the residential side so I’ve helped Sam out on occasion with the commercial side. I’ve noted that most of the commercial clients are clustered around the downtown core. So it takes less time to travel there. GRETEL: Because our commercial clients have in-house accounts payable departments, we usually only bill them once per month. While our more recent residential clients are on monthly billing, we still have some that are on weekly billing. However, you should note that we spend almost three times more hours training cleaning agents who work for our commercial clients than training those who work for our residential clients. Part of the reason is that eco-friendly products require more application knowledge. MARTINE: So I understand that the operations managers are not that busy on the residential side? What’s the breakdown between residential and commercial clients? GRETEL: We have about 120 regular commercial clients. They account for 60% of the revenue, even though they amount to less than half of the clients. As for the residential side, I’m not sure we require both full-time operations managers. Alex has gone home early on some days because there was a shortage of work. Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 4 / 11 MARTINE: And are your cash disbursements pretty much in line with your revenues? GRETEL: For the most part. Our major expenses are cleaning supplies and transportation, which mostly fluctuate with revenues, except for annual preventive maintenance on our vans, which takes place in the slower months of July and August. Oh, and one more thing: I would really like a solid way of giving a potential client a quote before we begin a contract with them. Right now, I measure the square metres and estimate how many hours it will take to complete the work. I multiply that by the direct labour hourly rate and then add on our $10 overhead factor per direct labour hour and 60% for profit. Any ideas? MARTINE: Let me work on this and get back to you with a full report. In the week following the meeting, Martine spent time with Gretel, the operations managers and the administrative staff. She developed the following: · cost pools for indirect costs related to cleaning services along with the cost driver for each pool and activity breakdowns for residential and commercial clients (Exhibit 2) · regression analyses summary results (Exhibit 3) to determine the statistical relationship between: o direct labour hours and transportation costs o direct labour hours and cleaning supplies costs · details regarding expected growth for 20X7 (Exhibit 4) · details regarding a typical commercial and residential client that could be used to develop quotes (Exhibit 5) · details relating to cash collections and disbursements (Exhibit 6) Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 5 / 11 Exhibit 1 REVENUES AND EXPENSES 20X5 20X6 20X6 Budget Total revenue 728,910 819,000 778,050 90,090 12% 40,950 5% Cost of sales Wages and benefits 233,747 292,184 277,575 58,437 25% 14,609 5% Cleaning supplies 66,406 88,541 67,291 22,135 33% 21,250 32% Transportation costs (including fuel, insurance, depreciation and maintenance) 23,619 30,281 25,890 6,662 28% 4,391 17% Salaries of operations managers 116,000 120,000 118,000 4,000 3% 2,000 2% Cost of sales (direct expenses) 439,772 531,006 488,756 91,234 21% 42,250 9% Gross margin 289,138 287,994 289,294 Operating expenses Administrative labour (training and billing) 175,750 185,000 166,500 9,250 5% 18,500 11% Depreciation (excluding transportation vehicles) 2,703 2,350 2,303 (353) (13%) 47 2% Repairs and maintenance (excluding transportation) 881 890 872 9 1% 18 2% Utilities and telephone/telecommunication 4,712 4,620 4,528 (92) (2%) 92 2% Rent 10,320 10,320 10,114 0 0% 206 2% Interest and bank charges 998 1,050 1,029 52 5% 21 2% Business fees 4,200 4,200 4,116 0 0% 84 2% Advertising and promotion 1,890 2,520 2,470 630 33% 50 2% Insurance (excluding transportation) 2,594 2,730 2,675 136 5% 55 2% 204,048 213,680 194,607 9,632 5% 19,073 10% Net operating profit/loss 85,090 74,314 94,687 (10,776) (13%) (20,373) (22%) 11.67% 9.07% 12.17% Variance from 20X5 actual Variance from 20X6 budget EXHIBIT 1 Holzmann Cleaning Services — Report on Operations Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 6 / 11 Exhibit 2 Cost pools and activities for activity-based costing analysis Cost driver Cost pool Total activity Commercial activity Residential activity Cleaning supplies commercial Square metres $ 70,833 664,054 664,054 Cleaning supplies residential Square metres $ 17,708 442,703 442,703 Billing Number of invoices $ 129,500 3,054 1,062 1,992 Transportation Number of kilometres $ 30,281 53,124 15,937 37,187 Training Number of hours $ 55,500 554 416 138 Operations management Number of managers $ 120,000 3 1 2 Total expenses $ 423,822 Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 7 / 11 Exhibit 3 Summary results of regression analyses Analysis of transportation costs and statistical relationship with direct labour hours (Based on monthly information) Regression Statistics Multiple R 0.370106959 R Square 0.136979161 Adjusted R Square 0.050677077 Standard Error 205.6109076 Observations 12 ANOVA d f SS MS Regression 1 67100.46346 67100.46346 Residual 10 422758.4532 42275.84532 Total 11 489858.9167 Coefficients Standard Error t-Stat Intercept 2006.01049 414.9577567 4.8342523 Labour hours 0.280500299 0.222646934 1.25984353 TRANSPORTATION ANALYSIS USING LABOUR HOURS Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 8 / 11 Analysis of cleaning-supply costs and statistical relationship with direct labour hours (Based on monthly information) Regression Statistics Multiple R 0.834454446 R Square 0.696314222 Adjusted R Square 0.665945644 Standard Error 152.2094937 Observations 12 ANOVA d f SS MS Regression 1 531207.6171 531207.6171 Residual 10 231677.2996 23167.72996 Total 11 762884.9167 Coefficients Standard Error t-Stat Intercept 5922.619076 307.1846274 19.28032378 Labour hours 0.78922842 0.164820911 4.788399819 CLEANING SUPPLIES COST ANALYSIS USING LABOUR HOURS Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 9 / 11 Exhibit 4 20X7 expected growth data Change in dollars: Expected revenue growth (due to increase in charge-out rate to $39 per hour) 8% Expected increase in cleaning supplies costs due to increase in volume (residential and commercial) 7% Expected increase in commercial cleaning supplies costs due to price increase 9% Labour wage and benefit rate per hour $13.46 Expected increase in transportation costs 9% Change in activity for ABC analysis: Increase in overall square metres of cleaning 7% Increase in number of invoices (commercial only, see option 2 below for residential) 5% Increase total kilometres driven (30% of total kilometres relate to commercial clients) 8% All other expenses will be unchanged. Cost reduction options: 1. Reduce operations management staff costs by putting one residential operations manager on half-time. This would reduce the total cost from $120,000 to $100,000. 2. Change all residential billing to monthly. This would reduce the number of residential invoices sent out by 10% from 20X6 activity. Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 10 / 11 Exhibit 5 Client data for contract quote development According to Gretel, a cleaning agent is able to clean approximately 50 square metres per hour, on average. Base the annual sales amount on 50 annual visits for commercial clients and a per-visit basis for residential clients. Use the following variable costs: · Wages and benefits — see 20X7 budget and information in Exhibit 4 for hourly rates. · Cleaning-supply costs — see 20X7 budget and information in Exhibit 4 for rate per square metre. · Transportation costs — see 20X7 budget and information in Exhibit 4 for rate per kilometre. Commercial client: Typical commercial client details are as follows: · square metres 1,950 · kilometres driven per visit (round trip) 20 Residential client: Typical residential client details are as follows: · square metres 232 · kilometres driven per visit (round trip) 25 Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 11 / 11 Exhibit 6 Cash collection and disbursement activity May June July August September October Sales revenue $85,100 $62,900 $67,155 $49,210 $50,875 $68,265 Purchases of cleaning supplies $7,664 $7,240 $7,500 $6,850 $6,900 $7,575 Transportation costs $2,022 $1,904 $2,323 $2,377 $1,327 $1,475 Direct labour wages $30,360 $22,440 $23,958 $17,556 $18,150 $24,354 Management salaries $25,417 $25,417 $25,417 $25,417 $25,417 $25,417 General operating expenses $2,390 $2,390 $2,390 $2,390 $2,390 $2,390 Cash collections: Cash sales 25% Credit collections: Amount collected in month of service 50% Amount collected in month following service 30% Amount collected in second month following service 15% Uncollectable 5% Cash disbursements: Transportation 100% Paid in month incurred Cleaning supplies 60% Paid in month incurred 40% Paid in month following Direct labour 50% Paid in month incurred 50% Paid in month following Remaining expenses 100% Paid in month incurred Additional notes: Depreciation included in monthly general operating expenses $ 196 Annual dividend payment to three shareholders, paid in August $8,000 Expected July 1 beginning cash balance $5,000

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Intermediate Management Accounting 2 / 3 PROJECT 2 (40 MARKS) Project 2 consists of a second report from Martine to Gretel, the president of Holzmann Cleaning Services (HCS). It is due at the end of Week 5 and is out of 40 marks. 1. Prepare a complete 20X7 operating budget for both commercial and residential operations, based on the details provided in Exhibit 4 in Project Details. The operating budget will require adjustments to the activity-based analysis prepared for the direct costs in requirement 2 of Project 1. Indirect general costs should be allocated 60% to commercial and 40% to residential. (6 marks) Provide a discussion of the results in your report. (4 marks) Note: It is important to provide the analysis done in Project 1 so that markers don’t deduct marks for errors made in Project 1. 2. a) Revise the 20X7 operating budget statements to a contribution format. Assume the following are variable costs: i) Wages and benefits ii) Cleaning supplies iii) Transportation costs All remaining costs are fixed. (1 mark) Based on the 20X7 budget: b) Calculate the break-even point in sales dollars based on the 20X7 sales mix. (2 marks) c) Calculate the sales revenue required to achieve a 25% profit margin. (2 marks) d) Provide comments on the results in the report. Your discussion should also include comments on the margin of safety (1 mark) and the limits of the CVP analysis as it pertains to HCS. (2 marks) 3. To assist Gretel in submitting bids for new work, use the 20X7 contribution margin budget to determine an average markup percentage on variable costs for both commercial and residential cleaning services. Using the markup percentages, calculate the sales price of a typical commercial and residential contract (see Exhibit 5 in Project Details). (8 marks) Also provide a short discussion of the results in your report. (2 marks) Intermediate Management Accounting Project 2 3 / 3 4. Cash analysis: a) Prepare a cash budget for the quarter starting July 20X6 using the information in Exhibit 6 found in Project Details. (6 marks) b) Prepare a discussion that highlights your findings in your report. What advice can you give Gretel regarding the handling of cash and her operations during this period? (4 marks) In addition to the above, award 2 marks for report format and professionalism. Your report should clearly communicate the important details of the case and effectively persuade the reader to act on your advice. NOTE ON ROUNDING: Use unrounded numbers for all calculations and round the final answer to the nearest dollar.

Strategic Choice and Evaluation

Answer the following questions No Intro or conclusion…

  1. What is the relationship between a firm’s customers and its business level strategy in terms of who, what and how?  Why is this relationship important?
  2. How can each of the business-level strategies be used to position the firm relative to the five forces of competition in a way that helps the firm earn above-average returns?
  3. What motives might encourage managers and leaders to over diversify their firm?
  4. What might encourage diversification?
  5. What are some trends in the global environment that might impact the choice of international strategies, particularly international corporate-level strategies?
  6. What are two important issues that can potentially affect a firm’s ability to successfully use international strategies?
  7. Why do firms use suborder’s strategic alliances?
  8. What risks are firms likely to experience if they use cooperative strategies?

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How motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.

Write a 1500–2000 word essay explaining how motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.

    Define how modern fire research has impacted fire science as it relates to each of the following:

        Infrared imaging

        GPS

        Water mist

        Compressed air foam

    Explain how each of the above has had an impact on fire science.

Use examples to support your discussion.

Include an introductory and conclusion paragraph.

Format your work consistent with APA guidelines.

Include a title page and reference page and cite all sources

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CSTU 101 learning activity 1


Go online and find some information about the “Elgin Marbles” (also called the “Parthenon Marbles”). Read a little about the controversy between the British and Greek governments concerning the ownership of these marbles. In a 2-paragraph essay, first summarize the controversy in your own words, and then take a clear position by supporting either the Greek or British side. Discuss 2 main reasons that support your position. You do not need to do extensive research or reading to complete this assignment well. However, if you include sources, cite them in current APA format. This assignment must be 250–300 words and must include the word count in parentheses. Submit a draft of your Learning Activity to SafeAssign for feedback a few days before the assignment is due.

How motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.

Write a 1500–2000 word essay explaining how motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.

    Define how modern fire research has impacted fire science as it relates to each of the following:

        Infrared imaging

        GPS

        Water mist

        Compressed air foam

    Explain how each of the above has had an impact on fire science.

Use examples to support your discussion.

Include an introductory and conclusion paragraph.

Format your work consistent with APA guidelines.

Include a title page and reference page and cite all sources

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statistics helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33

Mini-Strategy Week Three

Create a 3- to 4 – slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation 

Include the following in your outline:

  • Organizations (Apple Inc)
  • Evaluate the organization’s mission statement, vision statement and values’ statement.
  • Discuss the organization’s current goals and objectives.
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Strategic Plan, Part 3

Write a 1,400-word minimum internal environmental analysis in which you include the following: 

  • Assess the organization’s internal environment. ( JP Morgan Chase )
  • Identify the most important strengths and weaknesses of your organization including an assessment of the organization’s resources.
  • Identify the most important internal environmental factors in the general, industry, and external analysis in relation to the internal analysis.
  • Perform competitor analysis.
  • Assess the structure of the organization and the influence this has on its performance.
  • Determine the organization’s competitive position and the possibilities this provides. 

Format your paper according to APA guidelines.

Support your assessments with Include a minimum of two authoritative references. Remember all references should be included in the body of your paper as in-text citations. 

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Internal Capabilities and Resources

 
Why is it important for a firm to study and understand its internal organization?

  What is value chain analysis? What does the firm gain by successfully using this tool?

  What factors affect the likelihood a firm will take a competitive action?

  What factors affect the likelihood that your organization will initiate a competitive response to a competitor’s actions?

  What is outsourcing? How do you see the future of outsourcing in your own industry? Do you see it growing, declining & why?

  What does it mean to say that each core competence could become a core rigidity?

  How do you see the relationship between an organization’s “org” structure and its strategy? Discuss what it means to say that structure and strategy have a reciprocal relationship

  How do firms identify internal strengths and weaknesses? Why is it vital that managers have a clear understanding of their firm’s strengths and weaknesses?

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Week 2 General Questions/Thoughts

  1. Why is it important for a firm to study and understand the external environment?
  2. Which are most important among the economic, technological, social and demographic, political and ecological remote environmental factors impacting your own industry & firm?  Make sure to explain your strategic thinking about your firm and be as specific as possible.
  3. What are the differences between the general environment and the industry environment? Why are these differences important?
  4. What is the external environmental analysis process (four parts). What does the firm want to learn when using this process?
  5. Explain the differences among the seven segments of the general environment. Why are these details of interest to organizations?
  6. How do the five forces of competition in an industry affect its profitability potential?
  7. Why is it important for a company’s design to include sustainable processes?

MGT 279 Assignment 4

1. In summary, what does the report’s author blame for the problems encountered on the Big Dig project?

2. As an expert, to what extent do you think the author has got things right? Based on your knowledge of what it takes to manage major programs, how would you summarize what went wrong with this project?

3. To what extent do you feel that if the Big Dig had followed the US Department of Defense approach to managing major programs it would have been more successful? What problems might arise in trying to employ the US DoD approach?

4. What lessons can be derived from the Big Dig experience that can be shared with individuals and organizations that are about to begin work on a major program?

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MGT 270 Assignment 6


Questions

  1. Based on demographic data supplied in “Our Community” (p. 3), provide a summary of some key characteristics of the community and its members.
  • Beginning in the 1990s, PWC tied its budget to achieving its strategic plan. Explain how PWC uses the strategic plan to establish the foundation of its budget, using specific examples from Citizens Guide.
  1. What are the top four sources of revenue for PWC? Do you believe the PWC revenue profile is typical for counties in the USA? Explain your answer.
  1. PWC divides its budget into two categories: capital budget and operating budget. What is the difference between the two. What is the primary source of revenue for the capital budget? For the operating budget?
  1. A big portion of the PWC budget entails “transfer to schools.” What does this mean from both the Revenue and Expenditure perspective? Supplement your answer with data from Citizens Guide. Be sure to look at the special character of this budget item on p. 11.
  1. Smart county budgeting requires political sensitivity of elected officials. How is such political sensitivity reflected in the PWC budget process? (Hint: See p. 14.)
  2. The PWC Capital Improvement Program (CIP) is reasonably typical for counties in the USA. Why do county (and municipal) budgets distinguish between capital budgets and operating budgets? Which three budget areas dominate anticipated capital budget expenditures? Where do you think the money is being spent in these three areas?
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MGT 270 Assignment 7


Slann points out that two prevailing traits of today’s world are increasing interdependence in the global economy and increased strength of ethnic and religious forces. Your response should be 1 – 2 pages long, single spaced. Note that the answers to these questions require thought and research on your part. There is no cookbook answer.

  1.  
    1. What evidence is there to back up Slann’s view?
  • To what extent do these two traits reinforce each other, or work in contrary directions?

Strategic Plan, Part 2: Strategic Planning Process Paper

You will perform an environmental scan for your target company. 

Choose an organization according to the following:

  • Organization that you want to work for once you complete your MBA (JP Morgan Chase)

Write a 1,050-word minimum environmental analysis in which you include the following: 

  • Determine how to create value and sustain competitive advantage using the environmental scanning strategy.
  • Evaluate the company’s external environment.
  • Identify and assess one or more of the Five Forces that are most important in driving competition in your organization’s external industry environment.
  • Assess the company’s general environment.
  • Evaluate the organization’s industry operating environment.

Format your paper according to APA guidelines.

Support your assessments with Include a minimum of two authoritative references. Remember all references should be included in the body of your paper as in-text citations. 

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Qualitative study on Autism


Prior to beginning work on this assignment, be sure to have read all the required resources for the week.

Locate a peer-reviewed qualitative research study in the Ashford University Library on the topic you chose in Week One for your Final Research Proposal. You may choose to use a qualitative study that was included in the literature review you used in the Week One assignment by searching the reference list for qualitative research studies on the topic. It is also acceptable to utilize a qualitative research study on your topic that was not included in your literature review.

Once you have located an appropriate qualitative study, identify the specific qualitative research design used. Summarize the main points of the study including information on the research question, sampling strategy, research design, data analysis method(s), findings, and conclusion(s). Evaluate the published qualitative research study focusing on and identifying the researcher’s paradigm or worldview and any evidence of reflexivity described in the report. Explain whether or not potential biases were adequately addressed by the researchers. Describe how the researchers applied ethical principles in the research study.

Assignment # 1

Philosopher Report on Edward T. Hall. research the contributions of this ethicist to communication ethics. Detail the contributions of this writer to the understanding of communication ethics. Write a 4-5 page report and present your findings in this paper. The report should include: biographical information, an overview of his philosophy (main concepts he is known for) and the connection he has to communication ethics. Cite 5 sources.

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Assignment # 6

Instructions Choose one of the articles below for analysis. Discuss the subject matter in the article, and interpret the results and what the confidence interval and margin of error mean as they apply to the specific subject matter. Bobkoff, D. (2016, Aug 05). Hillary clinton looks like she’s about to crush donald trump — but it might not be so simple. The News Herald Retrieved from http://search.proquest.com.proxy1.ncu.edu/docview/1817877470?accountid=28180 McKnight, P. (2006, Jun 03). Understanding a poll’s margin of error: The Vancouver Sun Retrieved from http://search.proquest.com.proxy1.ncu.edu/docview/242148444?accountid=28180 Silver, N. (2013, Mar 08). A justice’s use of statistics, viewed skeptically. New York Times Retrieved from http://search.proquest.com.proxy1.ncu.edu/docview/1315037352?accountid=28180 Graves, A. (2017, Jun 27). DID SOUTH ST. PETERSBURG’S POVERTY RATE FALL AS FAST AS RICK KRISEMAN SAID? EVIDENCE THIN. Tampa Bay Times Retrieved from http://search.proquest.com.proxy1.ncu.edu/docview/1914205644?accountid=28180 Alternatively, you may search for an original article. If you choose this route, locate a news article or report (in a popular news source such as Time, Newsweek, or the Wall Street Journal) in which a population mean is estimated from a sample. The article should include a margin of error and confidence interval. The Northcentral Library has created a resource to aid you in finding an appropriate article: Population in the News Assignment Guide Length: 1-2 pages not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts that are presented in the course and provide new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your paper should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

Assignment # 4

Read the article entitled, “Are We Smarter than Our Parents?” in chapter 5 of your textbook. This article addresses a study by Dr. James Flynn of the rise of the IQ rate over generations, and how statistics are involved in tracking this phenomenon, especially with reference to the material in chapter 5. Write a paper in which you explore some of the statistical data that has been found in this area of study. Additionally choose and answer one of the four questions below in a focused and clear manner. Remember to integrate the statistical data in the article that discusses this topic. 1.Which explanation do you favor for the Flynn effect: that people are getting smarter or that people are merely getting more practice at the skills measured on IQ tests? Defend your opinion. 2.The rise in performance on IQ tests contrasts sharply with a steady decline in performance over the past few decades on many tests that measure factual knowledge, such as the SAT. Think of several possible ways to explain these contrasting results, and form an opinion as to the most likely explanation. 3.Results on IQ tests tend to differ among different ethnic groups. Some people have used this fact to argue that some ethnic groups tend to be intellectually superior to others. Can such an argument still be supported in light of the Flynn effect? Defend your opinion. 4.Discuss some of the common uses of JQ tests. Do you think that IQ tests should be used for these purposes? Does the Flynn effect alter your thoughts about the uses of IQ tests? Explain. Length: 1-2 pages not including title and reference pages

Professional Portfolio Based on ISOP

Professional Portfolio This assignment requires you to gather a compilation of papers and projects from this course and previous courses and add them to your Professional Portfolio. The portfolio is designed to help you compile all you have learned throughout your undergraduate studies with the best examples of your work to represent what you are capable of doing when you graduate the program. This assignment also gives you a opportunity to reflect on what you have learned as a student of psychology, and to prepare to actualize your post-graduation goals. It will serve as a resource as you navigate the world of prospective employers and graduate admissions committees. The student portfolio is also a measure of effectiveness for the Argosy University baccalaureate program in Psychology. As you develop professionally following graduation, you can add work samples and other pertinent materials, as well as modify existing documents, to reflect that development. The Professional Portfolio includes two main sections. A Professional Profile section that is completed by all students with either an Employment focus or a Graduate School focus, depending on your post-baccalaureate plans. The second section holds your Professional Work Samples demonstrating your abilities, skills, and competencies across a range of tasks and objectives. This section also includes a Final Evaluation of your work samples, yourself, and the psychology program. The Professional Profile section summarizes your career planning and professional goals. You have already compiled the documents for this section in Modules 1 and 2 of this course. It contains the following documents: A Cover Letter as a way to introduce yourself to a potential employer This includes details about yourself and why you feel you are qualified for the position. (Employment). OR A Personal Statement describing your immediate and long-term career goals, including an explanation of why these goals are appropriate in terms of your knowledge, skills, personal characteristics, values, and experiences (Graduate School). Note: The personal statement is attached to the Curriculum Vitae (Graduate School), and the Cover Letter is attached to the Resume (Employment), so take the time to be creative and not repeat yourself. A Resume with list of References that is current, accurate, and professional in appearance. (Employment). OR A Curriculum Vitae with list of References that is current, accurate and professional in appearance. (Graduate School) OPTIONAL: A copy of your Transcript(s) The Professional Work Samples section demonstrates your performance and mastery of Argosy University’s program outcomes/competencies for the Psychology major. Select 3-5 documents to serve as samples of your best work in the program. Together, they should illustrate your mastery of all the 7 program outcomes listed below. Examples of the type of work that would illustrate each outcome is provided below, as well. The 3-5 documents should be samples of your work that you completed in previous courses as an undergraduate student. These outcomes are listed below, along with the assignments that could be included to demonstrate mastery of the outcome: Cognitive abilities (critical thinking and information literacy): Assignments or projects that demonstrate problem solving, analysis, synthesis, appropriate use of information resources, etc. Research skills: A copy of a research proposal, a survey developed, etc. Communication skills (written and oral): A topic paper, presentation outline, or PowerPoint that demonstrates your written and oral communication skills. Ethics & Diversity awareness: Papers that demonstrate your understanding and/or analysis of ethical and diversity issues in psychology. Knowledge of foundations of the field: Assignments, papers, or projects that demonstrate your understanding of basic concepts, theories, and empirical findings in one or more of the domains of psychology, including biological, cognitive, developmental, personality, and social. Knowledge of applied psychology: Assignments, papers, or projects from courses and/or an internship that demonstrates your ability to apply psychology to personal, social, and/or organizational problems. Interpersonal Effectiveness: PowerPoint presentations, videos of your presentations that demonstrate your ability to communicate effectively, appreciate diversity and cultural sensitivity and awareness of your impact on others. Once you have assembled your work samples, you will write a 700-1000 word narrative to serve as a preface to the Professional Work Samples section. This narrative should consist of a clear and thoughtful analysis of how each work sample reveals your strengths and areas for improvement, according to each of the seven areas addressed in the program outcomes/competencies (listed above). Towards this purpose, you will complete the Student Self Appraisal of Learningfirst, and then use that to generate the preface . Make sure you also address how you intend to strengthen your competencies in all areas as you graduate onto the next step of your professional career. On which areas will you focus most and why? This preface should also include an evaluation of the Psychology program as well as suggestions for the program that will enable it to help future Psychology majors develop these strengths and overcome these weaknesses in the future. Enter each of these components (Professional Profile, Professional Work Samples, with self- evaluation) into the Professional Profile Template.

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GE’s Poor Planning Results in Delays & Increased Costs

ASSIGNMENT-1

Principles of Management (MGT101 )

2nd Semester (2018-2019)

Assignment Workload:

  • This Assignment consists of a Mini Case.
  • Assignment is to be submitted by each student individually.

Assignment Purposes/Learning Outcomes:

After completion of Assignment-1 students will able to understand the

  • Recognize the functions of planning, organizing and controlling and how they interrelate (Lo2.1)
  • Ability to carry out organization’s role in ethics, diversity, and social responsibility. (Lo3.3)
  • Answer questions related to case study.

Assignment Regulation:

  • All students are encouraged to use their own words.
  • Student must apply “Times New Roman Font” with 1.5 space within their reports.
  • A mark of zero will be given for any submission that includes copying from other resource without referencing it.
  • Assignment -1 should be submitted on or before the end of Week-07.
  • If the assignment shows more than 25% plagiarism, the students would be graded zero.
  • Due date for the submission of Assignment-1:
  • Assignment -1 should be posted in the Black Board by Week-5.
  • The due date for the submission of Assignment-1 is end of 7th Week.
  • Assignment has to be in Word format only no PDF.

Assignment Structure:

A.No Type Marks
Assignment-1 Case Study 5
Total   5

Assignment-1

Please go to Chapter 5 “Planning” available in your textbook Management: A Practical Approach 7th edition by Kinicki, A., & Williams, B., at the end of the Chapter read Case: “GE’s Poor Planning Results in Delays & Increased Costs” and answer the following questions:

  • Assignment Questions:
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Q1. Which of the fundamentals of planning did GE execute ineffectively? Explain your rationale.

Q2. State two SMART goals for GE based on the case. Given the political issues discussed in the case, how might GE ensure that these goals are attainable? Discuss.

Q3. Using Figure 5.5 “The Planning /Control Cycle”, describe what GE could have done to improve the process of transporting the evaporator. Provide specific recommendations.

Q4. What did you learn about planning based on this case? Explain.

Ans:-

Graduate Course Analysis

Assignment Deadline: 2/15/2018

Assignment Deadline Time: 3:30pm M.S.T.

NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO PUNCTUATION ERRORS!

 

Write a 1,750-word essay report on perception and concept of forensic science in 21st-century criminal justice.

Be sure to THOROUGHLY ADRESS the following components in the essay: 

  • How important is forensic science to policing and criminal investigations, court processes, and security efforts at various levels? Explain your rationale in a historical approach.
  • How accurate is the popular media representation of forensic science? How does this influence popular opinion on justice-related issues?
  • What possible influence does the “CSI” effect have on the judicial process?

Provide Subtitles for each section

Include at least four (4) Peer-Reviewed resources within the essay.

Properly quote and cite all references used. Essay MUST have direct “in-text” quotes (examples) to support writing.

Properly format your paper consistent with APA guidelines. Paper MUST be in APA ESSAY FORMAT. Reference Page MUST be in APA FORMAT. Essay must have a strong introduction, body, conclusion, and smooth transitional phrases for sentences and paragraphs.

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NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO PUNCTUATION ERRORS!

NOTE: cover page, reference page and subtitles are NOT included in the 1,750-word count for essay. Essay must have thoroughly detailed information and references to support analysis.

NAME __________________________________________

Introduction to Theatre Exam #1

  1. List four distinguishing traits of Ancient Greek Theatre . . .
  1.  

b.

c.

d.

  1. Shakespeare was a major theatrical influence during the

_____________________________________ era.

  1. What is a cyclorama?
  1. Explain how catharsis relates to Ancient Greek theatre.
  1. When an audience sits on three sides of the stage, what type of stage configuration is that called?
  1. Name three traits that can describe Roman Theatre.

a.

b.

c.

  1. What is the area downstage of the curtain line referred to as?
  1. If you are hidden from the view of the audience in a proscenium theatre, you are likely ______________________________________________________  . (In what area?)
  1. List three distinguishing traits associated with theatre during the Middle Ages.
  1.  
  2.  
  3.  
  1. What type of curtains are used to hide the offstage areas from the view of the audience?
  1. What is the stuff called that you can put in front of a light to change its color?
  1.   List three major theatre artists from the Elizabethan era.
  1.  
  2.  
  3.  
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  1. Explain the difference between a spot light and a flood light.
  1. Give me the names of three major figures in Greek Theatre.
    1.  
    2.  
    3.  
  1. What purpose did theatre serve in the Middle Ages?
  1.   Describe to me how your experience might have been had you attended a public showing of a piece of theatre in the Elizabethan era.
  1. What do you call a piece of masking that hangs vertically to hide the wing space of a proscenium stage?
  1. What kind of stage configuration has audience sitting on four sides?
  1. What’s the difference between private theatre and public theatre during the Elizabethan era?
  1. What is the literal translations of tragedy according to the Ancient Greeks?
  1. Describe what a pageant wagon from the Middle Ages would look like.
  1. ___________________________ was the god of wine, fertility, and theatre in Ancient Greece.
  1. What kinds of Roman theatre are equivalent to our modern “reality” programming?
  1.   Who wrote POETICS?
  1. Who was the most famous actor of the Elizabethan era?
  1. What is the device called that goes between the lamp and the lens of a spot light that allows a designer to create patterns in the light?
  1. List two distinctive traits of a proscenium stage.
    1.  
    2.  
  1. Why might have the Greeks performed their theatre in an amphitheater?
  1. What is a dithyramb?
  1. Near the end of the Roman Empire, what entity outlawed theatrical performances?
  1. What era of theatre history most resembles our current theatrical paradigm?
  1. Please explain the difference between upstage and downstage.
  1. Please, label each area of the stage on the plan view drawing below . . .

                                                AUDIENCE IS HERE

  1. What is a satyr play?
  1. Who did the Romans get most of their theatrical ideas from?
  1. What were the two possible purposes of an “orange girl” at an Elizabethan theatre performance?
  1. Out of the four eras of theatre history we studied in class, which two were considered “Golden Ages” of theatre?
  1. What era (of the four we studied) of theatre is the most intriguing to you, and why?
  1. What is the name of the masking curtain that hangs horizontally to hide the stuff hanging above the stage from the view of the audience?
  1. Explain how theatre lost its original purpose (why it was invented) throughout its history from the Greeks to the Romans to the Middle Ages.
  1. At a public performance at the Globe theatre during the Elizabethan era, what choices might you have as to where you view the performance (hint: there are three of them).
  1. What new type of lighting instrument allows you to use colored diodes to mix color while using a lot less electricity?
  1. According to Aristotle’s POETICS what defines a play as a comedy?
  1. What is a raked stage?
  1. Who was employed to put on the plays depicting stories from the Old Testament in the Middle Ages?
  1.   Tell me what Hamlet is saying in this quotation in your own words . . .

“I have of late–but wherefore I know not–lost all my mirth, forgone all custom of exercises; and indeed it goes so heavily with my disposition, that this goodly frame, the earth, seems to me a sterile promontory; this excellent canopy, the air, look you, this brave o’erhanging firmament, this majestical roof fretted with golden fire, why, it appeareth nothing to me but a foul and pestilent congregation of vapors. What a piece of work is a man, how noble in reason, how infinite in faculties, in form and moving, how express and admirable in action, how like an angel in apprehension, how like a god! The beauty of the world; the paragon of animals; and yet to me what is this quintessence of dust? Man delights not me.

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Describe the role of Jubal Early in the American Civil War.

Give a quick backgrounder on his early life. Then discuss his role in the Civil War. Cite references as well.

 

What is the Copernican principle?

Discuss this concept clearly and comprehensively. Provide examples when possible. Cite references.

Describe the role of Jubal Early in the American Civil War.

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Give a quick backgrounder on his early life. Then discuss his role in the Civil War. Cite references as well.

What is a Double-blind control experiment

What is a Double-blind control experiment and where it is most effectively used for? Please explain comprehensively.

What is the difference between Skeptical empiricism and plain empiricism?

What is the difference between Skeptical empiricism and plain empiricism? Please explain comprehensively

What is the UK Gateway Protection Programme?

Explain its history, purpose, and achievements. Cite references. Thanks

 

Discuss the Fall of the Soviet Union during the Cold War

Answer this in 300-400 words. Make sure to give a detailed discussion and please cite references.

Function of X – True or False

True or False? The equation x = | y | , with x >= 0, represents y as a function of x.

Explain your answer.

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The SOX Act Prepare a Power Point presentation of at least 20 slides that includes the following:

Assess the provision of the Sox Act that requires the establishment of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB) and the measures that public accounting firms are taking to ensure that they maintain their independence in all audit assignments, including the mechanisms they are establishing to ensure that the necessary independence and integrity are prevalent in all aspects of their relationship with their clients.Analyze how executives of corporate America have embraced the new regulations and requirements of the Sox Act while maintaining their purpose to produce a profit for investors and staying in compliance of the new rules in the industry. Explain what those new requirements are for the CEO and CFO of publicly traded companies. Describe your assessment of the responsibilities established for accounting personnel—including protection for whistle-blowers—and for the public accounting auditors.Determine how the responsibilities of the board of directors audit committee have changed due to the Sox Act in overseeing the financial reporting process and to hire and be in charge of the independent auditors.Provide recommended sanctions to be imposed on those who do not comply with the SOX Act provisions, and whether or not the sanctions should be stiffened or should include other personnel in the organization.Researched sources should follow these guidelines:At least half of the researched sources should be from authoritative electronic sources related to the accounting field.The findings presented in the paper should be accurate renditions of the Sox Act, including citations and references.Follow APA guidelines when citing references.Include a reference slide.

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Research Paper Psyc 312

Research Paper Instructions

 

You will be responsible for writing a Research Paper focusing on a social psychology topic of your choosing. The topic must be one that is discussed in the textbook. The focus of the paper will be to present and review peer-reviewed research regarding your topic as well as provide a Biblical integration discussion for your topic.

 

For your paper, you must thoroughly review and cite 2 peer-reviewed journal articles that demonstrate research regarding your topic. Your articles must present original research studies (e.g., correlational or experimental) in which the authors of the article actually formed hypotheses, collected/analyzed data, and compiled results themselves. Theoretical/review articles and meta-analyses are not permitted to be reviewed for this paper.

 

Some examples include (please note you do not need to choose one of these topics):

 

  1. For a paper on the Bystander Effect, you could find an article in which the authors manipulated the number of people present and measured helping behavior.

 

  1. For a paper on Relational Aggression, you could find an article in which the authors measured and correlated parenting styles with degree of relational aggression in daughters.

 

Keep in mind that these 2 articles must come from academic, peer-reviewed journals. Articles from newspapers, magazines, and websites will not count. Also, information from unpublished dissertations contained in dissertation or thesis databases should not be used. In addition to your 2 peer-reviewed articles, you must also cite the textbook in your paper. Other book sources will not count toward the source requirements. In the Biblical Integration section of your paper, you will be required to cite 2 different Scriptural references.

 

You will submit your paper as a Microsoft Word document through Safe Assign. A “draft” link is available for you to check the originality of your work, but all papers must be submitted in the “final” link for credit and grading. Your paper must contain original work to this course only (i.e., you cannot reuse a paper or portion of a paper you have written in the past for another course). Papers that do not include a topic covered in the textbook will be returned and you will be asked to submit a new paper. Normal late policies will apply. In addition, the paper should be written mostly in your own words. Excessive use of quotes is not permitted and will result in a score reduction. Be sure you are paraphrasing information from articles well and citing correctly to avoid plagiarism. Paraphrasing that is too close to the original wording is still considered plagiarism. All instances of plagiarism will be reviewed and action taken as necessary (e.g., point reduction, Code of Honor report, a score of 0 for the paper, failure of the course).

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Your paper must include a current APA-style title page, abstract, body, and reference section. The body of the paper must be at least 5 pages with a maximum of 7 pages (not including the title page, abstract, and references). Papers shorter or longer than this requirement are subject to point deductions. Please note that there is a specific page length requirement for the Biblical Integration section (1 page). Be sure to use current APA-style citations throughout the paper to avoid plagiarism.

The structure of the paper must follow the outline below and all section components must be included for maximum credit.

 

  1. Title Page– current APA style

 

  1. Abstract– current APA style

 

  1. Introduction
  • Provide a definition of the social psychology concept you are researching
  • Provide a brief background of why this concept is important
  • To relate your concept to “real life,” provide a specific, real-world example of your concept. This example can be either something you’ve witnessed in your own life, an example you “make up” to illustrate your concept, or an example used in one of your sources. If you use an example from a source, be sure to cite appropriately.

 

  1. Review of Article I
  • Introduce the article, including the purpose of the article and any relevant hypotheses.
  • Summarize methods (i.e., type of participants, procedures used to manipulate or measure variables)
  • Summarize study results
  • Explain how study and results demonstrate or support the social psychology topic chosen (you must be able to demonstrate that you can relate the specific study results to the general topic chosen)

 

  1. Review of Article II
  • Include all of the same elements listed above

 

  1. Biblical Integration (must be at least one pagein length)
  • Discuss your topic from a Biblical standpoint (i.e., what does the Bible say about it). You must use at least twodifferent Scriptural references in this section to support your discussion.

 

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  1. Conclusion
  • Briefly summarize/define the chosen topic
  • Briefly summarize the major results of each study
  • Briefly summarize the Biblical standpoint discussed

 

  1. Reference Page– Current APA style
  • Include 2 peer-reviewed journal articles describing original research
  • Include textbook reference
  • (Note that the Bible does notneed to be included in your reference section)

 

Research Paper: Topic and References Instructions

 

For this assignment you will decide on your Research Paper topic and find references to be used in your paper. Before completing this assignment, thoroughly read the Research Paper Instructions in Module 7 so you know the guidelines for the paper and what will be expected of you. Be sure you are picking a Social Psychology concept covered in your textbook, and one for which you can present an example and discuss from a Biblical standpoint. For this assignment, you will create and submit an APA-style reference page, submitted as a Word document. The reference page must include 3 references with the following guidelines:

  • Two references must be peer-reviewed journal articles. Articles from newspapers, magazines, and websites will not count. Also, information from unpublished dissertations contained in dissertation or thesis databases may not be used.
  • Both of these journal articles must present original research studies (e.g., correlational or experimental). This means that the authors of the article actually conducted a study themselves in which they formed hypotheses, collected/analyzed data, and compiled results. No theoretical/review articles or meta-analyses are allowed.
  • One reference needs to be your course textbook

 

Please note that the instructor will not be able to look up each of your articles to verify whether they meet criteria (although this is sometimes obvious from the title). You are responsible for ensuring any article you submit fits the guidelines above. If not, you will need to do more research before your paper is due since you will not be able to complete the paper correctly without appropriate articles and will incur significant point deductions at that time. Attached to the end of this document is a list of questions you can ask yourself to ensure you are choosing appropriate articles.

 

At the bottom of the page underneath your APA-style references, list your topic (including the chapter number for where your topic is found in your textbook) and two different Scriptural references that you will use in your paper. This requirement allows you to check whether or not you can apply Scripture to your topic, which will be required for your final paper. Please list out both the Scriptural citation and the text. If you are referencing long passages of text, please only type out one or two of the most applicable verses for this assignment. For your paper, you can reference more than what you list here if needed. The information can be organized as follows:

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Topic (including chapter number where topic is found):

 

Scriptural Reference 1: (e.g., John 3:16 (NIV) “For God so loved the world that He gave His one and only Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish but have eternal life.”)

 

Scriptural Reference 2:

 

**You will be allowed to alter your references and Scriptural choices if necessary for the final Research Paper, but will need to ensure that any changes to your references continue to meet requirements for full credit on your paper.

 

Your Research Paper: Topic and References is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

Questions to Ask Yourself When Choosing Articles

 

  1. Does my article come from a peer-reviewed journal article?

If so, you should be able to answer NO to each of the following other sources:

  1. Does the article come from a magazine, book, website, or thesis/dissertation database?

 

  1. Did the authors of this article conduct an original research study themselves?

If so, you should be able to answer NO to each of the following questions:

  1. Are the authors onlyreviewing someone else’s work?
  2. Are the authors compiling others’ research into a meta-analysis?
  3. Are the authors onlyproviding a theoretical discussion of the topic or describing a model they are proposing?

 

  1. Did the authors form hypotheses, seek out a sample, collect data from this sample, analyze their own results, and provide a discussion of these results?

 

If you can answer YES to questions 1, 2, and 3, then your article is appropriate for your paper!

 

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KELLY ESSAY PLEASE HELP!!

Please see attached file for assisnment requirments. Must use 2 scholar articles.

Analyze the 4 common elements in most human disturbance according to Kelly (threat, fear, anxiety, and guilt). Compare each of these constructs with what Scripture says regarding these particular elements.

 

This assignment does not require a Title page or Abstract page, but does require a Reference page and in-text citations

 

Supplemental Assignment 2 Instructions

You will take an active part (e.g., spend half a day volunteering/helping out) in a community outreach activity (not a university or church activity unless it is an activity that reaches out to the community) of your choosing, which will familiarize you with the needs of the community. Some examples of activities include volunteering at a shelter, a camp, a recreation center, a home for girls or boys, a soup kitchen, a clothing bank, a detoxification center, a tutoring center for younger children, a vocational rehabilitation center, Habitat for Humanity, a minority community center, etc. After the completion of the activity, you will document your experience by writing a paper. The paper will be written in current APA format and will include one title page, one abstract page, two full pages of text, and one reference page.  The paper will explain in detail: (1) the experience (what was observed, how it affected you), (2) what was learned from the project (what the community’s needs are, what ethics are in place, how you can help make a difference), and (3) a discussion of two course concepts that relate to your observations.  For number three (3), cite two empirical studies from the research literature that address each one of the two course concepts discussed relating to sociocultural diversity that you observed in the outreach activity.  Make sure to cite each of these concepts in correct APA format.

 

 

https://learn.liberty.edu/bbcswebdav/pid-25610776-dt-content-rid-309992438_1/courses/PSYC351_B03_201840/PSYC351_B03_201840_ImportedContent_20180820094702/PSYC351_Presentations/On-Line%208%20Cognitive%20Behavioral%20Therapy%20%26%20Spirituality%20Part%201%20%28LMS%29/res/html5.html

 

 

https://learn.liberty.edu/bbcswebdav/pid-25610778-dt-content-rid-309992582_1/courses/PSYC351_B03_201840/PSYC351_B03_201840_ImportedContent_20180820094702/PSYC351_Presentations/On-Line%208%20Cognitive%20Behavioral%20Therapy%20%26%20Spirituality%20Part%202%20%28LMS%29/res/html5.html

 

Assessing Spirituality – The Relationship between Spirituality and Mental Health

Read the “Assessing Spirituality – The Relationship between Spirituality and Mental Health” article. (link below)

In this quantitative study, the authors attempted to investigate the possible relationship between two spirituality variables (religious coping styles and spiritual well-being) and two psychological variables (anxiety and depression). Also studied were differences between those who self-disclosed a spiritual/religious identity and those who did not. Their data analysis concluded that individuals who reported a high use of religious coping styles also reported high levels of spiritual well-being.

  • The authors felt a limitation of their study was in defining ‘spirituality.’ State how that can be an obstacle in doing religious counseling.
  • The authors state, “Spiritual well-being can clearly incorporate God into ones’ life while also incorporating self-reliance.” Is this not a seeming contradiction? Give your thoughts on this.

 

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Response paper Phil 201

Having completed the unit of philosophy of religion, you are now ready to respond to an article written by an actual atheist. This article titled “On Being an Atheist,” was written by H. J. McCloskey in 1968 for the journal Question. McCloskey is an Australian philosopher who wrote a number of atheistic works in the 1960s and 70s including the book God and Evil (Nijhoff, 1974). In this article, McCloskey is both critical of the classical arguments for God’s existence and offers the problem of evil as a reason why one should not believe in God. Please note the following parameters for this paper:

 

  1. Your assignment is to read McCloskey’s short article found in the Reading & Study folder in Module/Week 7 and respond to each of the questions below. Your instructor is looking for a detailed response to each question.
  2. The response paper is to be a minimum of 1,500 words (not including quotes) and must be written as a single essay and not just a list of answers to questions.
  3. The basis for your answers must primarily come from the resources provided in the lessons covering the philosophy of religion unit of the course (Evans and Manis, Craig, and the presentation) and these sources must be mentioned in your paper. You are not merely to quote these sources as an answer to the question—answer them in your own words.
  4. You may use other outside sources as well, as long as you properly document them. However, outside sources are not necessary. Each of the questions can be answered from the sources provided in the lessons.
  5. While the use of the Bible is not restricted, its use is not necessary and is discouraged unless you intend to explain the context of the passage and how that context applies to the issue at hand in accordance with the guidelines provided earlier in the course. You are not to merely quote scripture passages as answers to the questions. Remember this is a philosophical essay not a biblical or theological essay.
  6. While you may quote from sources, all quotations must be properly cited and quotes from sources will not count towards the 1,500 word count of the paper.
  7. You may be critical of McCloskey, but must remain respectful. Any disparaging comment(s) about McCloskey will result in a significant reduction in grade.
  8. Please note that this paper will be submitted through SafeAssign, which is a plagiarism detection program. The program is a database of previously submitted papers including copies of papers that have been located on the Internet. Once submitted, your paper will become part of the database as well. The program detects not only exact wording but similar wording. This means that if you plagiarize, it is very likely that it will be discovered. Plagiarism will result in a 0 for the paper and the likelihood of you being dropped from the course.

 

 

 

Specifically, you must address the following questions in your paper:

 

  1. McCloskey refers to the arguments as “proofs” and often implies that they can’t definitively establish the case for God, so therefore they should be abandoned. What would you say about this in light of Foreman’s comments in his “Approaching the Question of God’s Existence” presentation?
  2. On the Cosmological Argument:
  3. McCloskey claims that the “mere existence of the world constitutes no reason for believing in such a being [i.e., a necessarily existing being].” Using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the non-temporal form of the argument (on pp. 69–77), explain why the cause of the universe must be necessary (and therefore uncaused).
  4. McCloskey also claims that the cosmological argument “does not entitle us to postulate an all-powerful, all-perfect, uncaused cause.” In light of Evans and Manis’ final paragraph on the cosmological argument (p. 77), how might you respond to McCloskey?
  5. On the Teleological Argument:
  6. McCloskey claims that “to get the proof going, genuine indisputable examples of design and purpose are needed.” Discuss this standard of “indisputability” which he calls a “very conclusive objection.” Is it reasonable?
  7. From your reading in Evans and Manis, can you offer an example of design that, while not necessarily “indisputable,” you believe provides strong evidence of a designer of the universe?
  8. McCloskey implies that evolution has displaced the need for a designer. Assuming evolution is true, for argument’s sake, how would you respond to McCloskey (see Evans and Manis pp. 82–83)?
  9. McCloskey claims that the presence of imperfection and evil in the world argues against “the perfection of the divine design or divine purpose in the world.” Remembering Evans’ comments about the limitations of the conclusion of the cosmological argument, how might you respond to McCloskey’s charge about the teleological argument?
  10. On the Problem of Evil:
  11. McCloskey’s main objection to theism is the presence of evil in the world and he raises it several times: “No being who was perfect could have created a world in which there was avoidable suffering or in which his creatures would (and in fact could have been created so as not to) engage in morally evil acts, acts which very often result in injury to innocent persons.” The language of this claim seems to imply that it is an example of the logical form of the problem. Given this implication and using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the logical problem (pp. 159–168, noting especially his concluding paragraphs to this section), how might you respond to McCloskey?

 

 

b.      McCloskey specifically discusses the free will argument, asking “might not God have very easily so have arranged the world and biased man to virtue that men always freely chose what is right?” From what you have already learned about free will in the course, and what Evans and Manis says about the free will theodicy, especially the section on Mackie and Plantinga’s response (pp. 163–166) and what he says about the evidential problem (pp. 168–172), how would you respond t

to McCloskey’s question?

  1. On Atheism as Comforting:
  2. In the final pages of McCloskey’s article, he claims that atheism is more comforting than theism. Using the argument presented by William Lane Craig in the article “The Absurdity of Life without God,” (located in Reading & Study for Module/Week 6), respond to McCloskey’s claim.

 

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EFFECT OF SLAVE TRADE IN AFRICA

Though colonialism may have officially ended, the effects of colonialism are still very much present today. This is true in modern-day Africa.
Review the following resources for additional information on the slave trade in Africa:

  • Origins of African Slaves: Slave Trade Routes
  • Lasting Effects of Slavery on Africa
  • African Countries and Independence Dates

Select 1 of the following countries from which the most slaves originated:

  • Democratic Republic of the Congo
  • Ghana
  • Ivory Coast

Use this template to complete your paper:

  • For your selected country, identify the former colonial ruling country.
  • Identify your selected country’s date of independence from the colonial ruling country, and discuss the length of time the slave trade operated there.
  • Discuss how the depopulation and fractured familial relationships inherent in the slave trade have affected your chosen country. Be sure to support your discussion with relevant examples.

o    Are these effects still felt today? If so, how? Provide examples.

  • Based on your review of this information, what conclusions can you draw about the slave trade and its effects on your selected country?
  • Based on your key findings and conclusions, what recommendations do you have to help improve the conditions in the country now? Make sure your recommendations:

o    include specific interventions or strategies to address the issues and constraints identified

o    are feasible (politically and operationally)

o    are realistic (short- and long-term)

  • Utilize at least 2 credible sources to support the arguments presented in the paper. Make sure you cite them appropriately within your paper, and list them in APA format on your Reference page.
  • Your paper should be 4–5 pages in length, not counting the Title page and Reference page. In accordance with APA formatting requirements, your paper should include a Title and Reference page, should be double-spaced, and include a running head and page numbers.

References
Boddy-Evans, A. (2017, September 18). Chronological list of African independence. Retrieved from https://www.thoughtco.com/chronological-list-of-african-independence-4070467
Pruitt, S. (2016, May 3). What part of Africa did most slaves come from? HISTORY. Retrieved from http://www.history.com/news/ask-history/what-part-of-africa-did-most-slaves-come-from
Ross, W. (2007, March 29). Slavery’s long effects on Africa. BBC News. Retrieved from http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/hi/africa/6504141.st

 

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PSY 370 Assignment 2 LASA I—Amphetamine Use and Abuse

Aaliyah continues to struggle with balancing her work hours and her schoolwork. She has been drinking coffee to help her stay awake, but it is no longer working. She has an exam coming up and needs to stay up to study.

 

Aaliyah decides to take an amphetamine to stay awake to study for the exam. She promises herself that she will only take it this one time for the exam. The drug allows her to stay awake and alert while she is studying for the exam. She also feels that she is learning the material better as a result of the amphetamine. When the grades are in, Aaliyah receives an A on her work.

 

As the semester continues, Aaliyah turns to amphetamines more and more often to help her stay awake to complete her schoolwork. Soon, Aaliyah finds that one pill no longer keeps her awake as long as she needs.

 

She starts taking more than one pill at a time. She knows that taking amphetamines so often is not good for her health, and she finds she experiences an increase in headaches when she takes them, but she continues to take them because they are helping her be successful in school and at work.

 

Based on the case study, prepare a paper that addresses the following:

  • Examine the change in amphetamine use and abuse in the U.S. from the 1950s to the present.
  • Explain to which schedule amphetamines belong and why they are on the Schedule of Controlled Substances.
  • Explain the effects Aaliyah might be experiencing as a result of her regular amphetamine use. Be sure to include:

o    Acute effects, chronic effects, and withdrawal

o    Effects on physiology (brain and body), behavior, mood, and toxicity

  • Give at least three indications from the case study suggesting there may be a problem with Aaliyah’s substance use. That is, describe at least three likely behaviors that Aaliyah is likely to exhibit if she is misusing amphetamines.

Determine whether Aaliyah has a substance use disorder. Include a discussion of DSM criteria. Use the template to help you make the assessment.

 

Write a 4-5-page paper in Word format. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.

 

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Assignment 2 Grading Criteria

Maximum Points

Examined the change in amphetamine use and abuse in the U.S. from the 1950s to the present.

24

Explained why amphetamine is on the Schedule of Controlled Substances and to which schedule it belongs.

20

Explained the acute, chronic, and withdrawal effects of amphetamines on physiology, behavior, mood, and toxicity.

40

Described at least 3 behaviors Aaliyah is likely to exhibit if she is misusing amphetamines.

40

Used DSM criteria to determine whether Aaliyah has a substance use disorder.

32

Style (4 points): Tone, audience, and word choice Organization (12 points):Introduction, transitions, and conclusion

Usage and Mechanics (12 points): Grammar, spelling, and sentence structure

APA Elements (16 points): In text citations and references, paraphrasing, and appropriate use of quotations and other elements of style

44

Total:

200

 

HHS 497 Week 2 Assignment Theory and Research Related to Social Issue

HHS 497 Week 2 Assignment Theory and Research Related to Social Issue

By now, you have had the opportunity to explore some of the fundamental elements of your social issue of interest. In this written assignment, you will now focus your attention on identifying and analyzing the scope of scholarly literature that addresses the social issue. Specifically, you will access the Ashford University Library, in addition to other scholarly content from previous coursework that might be pertinent (e.g., textbooks, research articles, etc.), to find sources that examine theoretical perspectives and relevant research that pertain to your selected topic.

This assignment will require that you develop a research-based report demonstrating theory and research methodology related to your social issue.

In your paper
• Describe two to three theories that relate to your topic area in some manner. To accommodate the broad

spectrum of social issues that might be explored, aim to find theories that attempt to explain some the following areas:

o Thereason(s)forwhythesocialissueexistsorpersists
o Factorsthatcontributetoit
o Social, environmental, political, or economic considerations that underlie it o Emergingalternativeviewpointsthatclarifytheissue

  • Critically evaluate the theories described, taking into account their benefits and limitations, as well as how health and human service organizations might use them to better understand the scope of the issue.
  • Describe two to three examples of research studies that have explored the issue. These studies must come from their original source; do not rely on literature reviews that summarize research conducted by others. Studies can examine any area related to the issue with the exception of interventions, as this will be addressed in the Week Three assignment. Examples include:

o Exploring the social issue’s impact on a specific group
o Identifying relationships between variables (Trochim, 2006) related to the issue
o Examining social attitudes and viewpoints through survey research (Trochim, 2006)
o Identifyingemergingtrends
o Exploring lived experiences or personal accounts using qualitative data (Trochim, 2006)

  • Analyze pertinent aspects related to the research studies, such as core aims/objectives, research methods used, findings, and implications for future research and/or practice.

The Theory and Research Related to Social Issue Paper

  • Must be three to four double-spaced pages in length (not including title and references pages) and

formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.

  • Must include a separate title page with the following:

o Titleofpaper
o Student’sname
o Course name and number o Instructor’sname
o Datesubmitted

  • Must use at least five scholarly sources in addition to the course text.
    o TheScholarly,PeerReviewed,andOtherCredibleSourcestableoffersadditionalguidanceon

appropriate source types. If you have questions about whether a specific source is appropriate for this assignment, please contact your instructor. Your instructor has the final say about the appropriateness of a specific source for a particular assignment.

  • Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
  • Must include a separate references page that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the

Ashford Writing Center.

 

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HHS 497 Week 1 Assignment Background of Social Issues

HHS 497 Week 1 Assignment Background of Social Issues

Background of Social Issues. Due by Day 7. Throughout the course of your degree program, you have had the opportunity to examine various topical issues that are addressed by professionals in the health and human services field. To demonstrate your mastery of the program learning outcomes, you will synthesize your knowledge of various content areas related to a social issue of your choosing, and use this to develop an original intervention (i.e., strategy, technique, or application) to address this particular topic in your Final Paper. To facilitate in the development of this final assignment, you will prepare and submit the first of four written assignments, which will involve a thorough overview of your proposed social issue.

More specifically, your task will involve addressing the following content areas:

  • Identify a social issue that health and/or human service organizations address in some capacity and

discuss its current impact on group(s) affected by it. When selecting an area of focus, take into account broad topics that have been exhaustively scrutinized at the scholarly level, such as homelessness, mental health, aging, substance abuse, child welfare, etc. A good place to begin your search on an area of interest is the HHS A to Z Index.

  • Describe the historical underpinnings of this issue. Factors to consider include: where and how it originated, pertinent events and their dates, and its current status.
  • Discuss specific factors contributing to the social issue. Consider environmental, social, political, and economic reasons that have attempted to explain why this issue persists.
  • Evaluate the impact of this social issue on the delivery of health and human service efforts by reviewing the scholarly literature and relevant professional/governmental resources for evidence of formal responses in the form of policy implementation, legislation, or Acts related to this social issue. What impact has this had on how health and/or human service organizations provide support in terms of direct practice with clients and within communities?

At minimum, your submission must include three scholarly sources (excluding the required course readings), two of which must come from the Ashford University Library (e.g., articles, professional critiques, research reports, etc.). The third source can come from either the library or from a professional website ending in .gov.

The Background of Social Issues Paper

  • Must be three to four double-spaced pages in length (not including title and references pages) and

formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.

  • Must include a separate title page with the following:

o Titleofpaper
o Student’sname
o Course name and number o Instructor’sname
o Datesubmitted

  • Must use at least three scholary sources (excluding the required course readings), two of which must come from within the Ashford University Library (e.g., articles, professional critiques, research reports, etc.). The third source can come from either the library or from a professional website ending in .gov).

o The Scholarly, Peer Reviewed, and Other Credible Sources table offers additional guidance on appropriate source types. If you have questions about whether a specific source is appropriate for this assignment, please contact your instructor. Your instructor has the final say about the appropriateness of a specific source for a particular assignment.

  • Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
  • Must include a separate references page that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the

Ashford Writing Center.

 

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ETH 321 Assignment Week 3 Team Assignment Sexual Harassment Education for Managers

The purpose of this assignment is to define sexual harassment in the workplace and its negative effect on employees and the business, to analyze the requirements for a sexual harassment claim, to develop methods that a business can adopt to reduce or eliminate sexual harassment claims and litigation, and to assess liability based on the form of business entity.

 

Read the following scenario.    High-profile sexual harassment scandals, such as allegations against Bill Cosby, Harvey Weinstein of the Weinstein Company, and Bill O’Reilly and Roger Aisles of Fox News, are changing the landscape of workplace sexual harassment claims and litigation.

 

Conduct a roundtable discussion (in person, web conference, or via e-mail, text, etc.) with your Learning Team members regarding sexual harassment as a growing ethical and legal concern for businesses today. Each Learning Team member must be prepared to discuss each topic. Assign a group moderator to keep the discussions on track. Your discussion should last at least 45 minutes to one hour and include the following:

 

  • Define sexual harassment and discuss applicable law (such as the Civil Rights Act of 1964). How does the state law in your state address sexual harassment?

 

  • Discuss a recent sexual harassment claim in the news and whether media coverage is beneficial or detrimental to reporting and reducing sexual harassment claims in the workplace. Should sexual harassment claims be addressed publicly or handled privately?

 

  • Explain the ethical and legal considerations of a business protecting its employees (the accuser, the accused, and other employees in the company) while a workplace sexual harassment investigation is underway. Does your answer change if the allegation is a widely known scandal-making front page news?

 

  • Compare the sexual harassment liability of a business entity that is a sole proprietorship with an entity that is a corporation.

 

  • Recommend risk management procedures a business can implement to avoid or reduce sexual harassment claims from occurring in the workplace.

 

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You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position.  Both have similar educational

You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position.  Both have similar educational backgrounds and certifications.  However, the first candidate has 20 years of related experience while the second candidate has 6 years of similar experience.

The first candidate is asking for competitive base salary plus one week of extra vacation as part of the benefits package.  The second candidate is asking for a competitive base salary plus a company smart phone (upgraded each year), paid internet service at home.  The first candidate is willing to work a flexible schedule (nights, weekends, etc), while the second candidate prefers to work remotely from home.  Both are requesting to be included in the company’s annual bonus plan.

Write a 700-1100 paper that includes the following:

Compare the direct and indirect compensation requests for each candidate.

As an HR professional, what do you think is the best hiring decision for the company and why?

Use APA format and references

 

Str 581 week 1 career connection values and strategy paper

Choose an organization according to the following:

  • Current employer
  • Most recent or former employer
  • Place of business that you have patronized or have been familiar with over a long period of time.

o    Avoid choosing an organization that is so large that historical data would be difficult to apply. Firms in the Russell 2000® index may fit well, whereas firms in the Dow 30 Industrial index probably do not.

  • The organization can be a start-up that you or a significant other may create in the future. For a start-up, focus on an entrepreneurial idea that is of substantive interest, so this project leaves you with a product you may leverage in the future.

Write a 1,050-word paper in which you address the following: 

  • Identify the major components of the strategic management process.
  • Discuss how these components work together to create value for the organization.
  • Evaluate the company’s mission statement, vision statement, motivation strategy, innovation strategy, and people strategy. If the organization does not have one or more of these, how does that affect the organization and its people?
  • Explain the role of ethics and corporate social responsibility in strategic planning.  How does this direct their strategy? How does the organization’s vison and mission align with your own values and vision?  If you are currently working for the organization, how does your role influence this and vice versa?

 

Problem 1 Estimate the daily carbon utilization to remove chlorobenzene from 1 million gal/day of

Problem 1 Estimate the daily carbon utilization to remove chlorobenzene from 1 million gal/day of groundwater saturated with chlorobenzene. Assume a chlorobenzene concentration of 5 mg/L is acceptable for discharge to a POTW.

 

Problem 2 Provide a preliminary design of a carbon adsorption system (i.e. the height of the adsorption zone, the number and size of column units, and the daily carbon usage rate) for the removal of 2,4,6- trichlorophenol from 250,000 gal/day of water. The following data are provided: Bohart-Adams model: a = 2.3 days/ft; b = -10 days (for the 90% removal line) in laboratory tests where trichlorophenol concentration was reduced from 395 mg/L to 10 mg/L at a loading of 4 gal/(ft2 ∙min) using laboratory columns with the following specifications: 2.3 m column length, 0.051 m column diameter, and 0.5 L/min flow rate. The adsorption zone was 19 ft. Assume that the unit weight of carbon is 481 kg/m3 .

 

Problem 3 A plating waste with a flow of 40,000 gal/day contains 274 mg/L of NaCN. Determine the amounts of chlorine as Cl2 and NaOH required to oxidize the cyanide to CO2 and N2.

 

Problem 4 A waste contains 150 mg/L of copper at a flow rate of 75 L/min. Determine the amount of sodium borohydride required to treat this waste.

 

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Resources: Section 508 Website, including Subpart B

Resources:  Section 508 Website, including Subpart B

Prepare a 7- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation that explains Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973.

List several of the technical requirements placed on software applications (§ 1194.21) and web-based applications (§ 1194.22), then explain the purpose each serves.

Incorporate additional research or academic information to support your presentation.

Format your PowerPoint® speaker notes according to APA guidelines.

 

GSCM-440 Iowa Elevators 3-1 Kirtis Gibbs DeVry University


What were the executives looking for from the procurement group to provide?

What is the corporate structure today and what will it look like in the future?

What is the overall plan? What does purchasing have to do with the categories? If they do it, then what is the outcome? Would it encounter support or resistance?

Create a case to clarify the new structure and the benefits that will be created from it.

 

British petroleum – BP-Conduct research using Scholarly, Peer Reviewed, and Other Credible Sources

Select one of the companies you would like to research below:

  • British Petroleum (BP)
  • Facebook
  • Hyundai
  • Dunkin’ Donuts
  • Netflix

Conduct research using Scholarly, Peer Reviewed, and Other Credible Sources to address the following required elements:

  • State what you believe is the distinctive competence and core competence of your selected company.
  • Give an example of how the values and mission statement help to shape planning. Additionally, discuss some internal and external factors that may influence the business in the future.
  • Complete the SWOT Analysis template for your selected organization; applying each of the categories in evaluating the company.

Support your claims with examples from required materials and/or other scholarly or credible resources, and properly cite any references.

 

complete and include the swot table in the paper

Refs and cite with the book below, journal articles and any other sources

 

BUS ADM 201 Introduction to Financial Accounting

1 Name:_________________ BUS ADM 201 Introduction to Financial Accounting TA:___________________ Spring 2018 Disc #:_________________ EXTRA CREDIT III Due at 11:59 on Saturday, May 12th GRADING: Worth up to 15 points. Carefully READ the requirements on page 2 first. Partially completed problems will earn no credit—that means all requirements must be FULLY completed. All work must be completed by hand. If you complete all items as requested, you will earn at least 7.5 points. The remaining points are dependent upon the accuracy of your answers. Round amounts to the nearest dollar, if applicable. Jamukha Corporation prepares annual financial statements. The balance sheet at December 31, 2016, is presented below. Jamukha Corporation Balance Sheet December 31, 2016 Assets Liabilities and Stockholders’ Equity Cash 22,500 Accounts payable 52,900 Accounts receivable 28,000 Common stock ($1 par) 10,000 Allowance for doubtful accounts (350) Paid-in capital in excess of par – Common stock 90,000 Inventory 55,000 Retained earnings 76,750 Prepaid insurance 4,500 Equipment 230,000 A/D – Equipment (110,000) 229,650 229,650 During 2017 the following transactions occurred: 1. Purchased $176,000 inventory on account. Jamukha Corp. uses a perpetual inventory system. 2. Sales of $335,000, plus 5.6% sales tax, were made to customers on account. Cost of goods sold was $194,500. 3. Received $26,000 cash down payment for orders that will be shipped next year. 4. Issued 12 year, $80,000 face value, 4% bonds on July 1 at 102. The bonds were sold to yield an effective annual rate of 3.79101%, and they pay interest every January 1 and July 1. 5. Collected $245,000 on account. 6. Paid general expenses of $41,250. 7. Paid $220,750 on account. 8. Paid the sales tax collected from customers to the State of Wisconsin. 9. On January 1, Jamukha Corp. sold for $9,000 cash equipment which originally cost $65,000. Accumulated depreciation for this equipment as of December 31, 2016, was $50,000. This transaction is exempt from sales tax. 2 10. Issued 1,600 shares of $100 par, 7% preferred stock for $194,000 cash. 11. Purchased equipment on July 1, 2017, for $180,000 cash. 12. Purchased 500 shares of Jamukha Corp. common stock from a disgruntled shareholder for $42 per share. 13. Recorded salaries and payroll taxes. Employee’s gross salaries were $60,000. FICA tax was withheld at a rate of 7.65%. Federal income taxes (FIT) of $6,000 were withheld, and state income taxes (SIT) of $3,000 were withheld. The federal unemployment tax (FUTA) rate was 1%, and the state unemployment tax (SUTA) rate was 3.25%. No cash has been paid yet, so record all the amounts due in the appropriate payable accounts. 14. The paychecks and payroll taxes from entry #13 were paid. Adjusting Journal Entries: 15. Straight-line depreciation with a 5 year useful life and no salvage value is used for equipment purchased in previous years. The equipment purchased on July 1, 2017 (#11) is depreciated using double-declining balance with a useful life of 15 years and a $30,000 salvage value. (Hint: The equipment was purchased midway through the year.) 16. Accrue bond interest payable and amortize bond discount/premium. Jamukha Corp. uses effective-interest amortization. (Hint: The bond was issued midway through the year.) 17. The prepaid insurance relates to a policy purchased on December 31, 2016. This insurance expires at a rate of $300 per month. Record as a general expense. 18. Jamukha estimates that 5% of accounts receivable are uncollectible. 19. Jamukha Corp. is an S-corporation and is not subject to income tax. REQUIRED: Print out the solution pages for the general journal, ledger, and worksheet that follow and enter the following transactions. I suggest that you use a pencil. a. Enter the transactions numbered 1-14 in the general journal provided on the following pages. b. Post the journal entries to the ledger accounts for items 1-14. Look at the cash account for an example of how to use the running balance ledger. I have completed the first two lines of it for you. It is a good idea to keep track of whether your balance column is a debit or a credit, particularly for contra accounts. c. Prepare an unadjusted trial balance at December 31, 2017 and enter on the worksheet. d. Worksheet requirement: Using your unadjusted trial balance (c) above and the data for adjusting entries (#15-19), prepare a 12-column worksheet similar to worksheet for Sierra Corporation in Chapter 4 and the prior extra credit assignments. You will not receive any credit if the worksheet is incomplete. To save time, you are not required to formally journalize or post your adjusting entries (you can just enter them on the worksheet). You are not required to record closing entries. e. Prepare a formal statement of cash flows using the T-account approach. Templates for the statement and the T-account worksheet are attached. (You are not required to formally present the other statements— just complete them on the worksheet.) 3 EXTRA CREDIT III SOLUTION Name _____________________ Journal: Requirement (a) General Journal Debit Credit a.1. a.2. a.3. a.4. a.5. a.6. a.7. a.8. a.9. a.10. a.11. a.12. a.13. a.14. 4 General Ledger: Requirement (b) CASH DR CR BALANCE Beginning 22,500 22,500 DR Item 3 26,000 48,500 DR ACCOUNTS RECEIVABLE DR CR BALANCE Beginning 28,000 28,000 DR ALLOWANCE FOR DOUBTFUL ACCOUNTS DR CR BALANCE Beginning 350 350 CR INVENTORY DR CR BALANCE Beginning 55,000 55,000 DR PREPAID INSURANCE DR CR BALANCE Beginning 4,500 4,500 DR EQUIPMENT DR CR BALANCE Beginning 230,000 230,000 DR ACCUM DEPRECIATION – EQUIPMENT DR CR BALANCE Beginning 110,000 110,000 CR 5 General Ledger: Requirement (b) continued ACCOUNTS PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE Beginning 52,900 52,900 CR SALARIES PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE SALES TAX PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE FICA PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE FIT PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE SIT PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE FUTA PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE SUTA PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE UNEARNED REVENUE DR CR BALANCE BONDS PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE PREMIUM ON BONDS PAYABLE DR CR BALANCE 6 General Ledger: Requirement (b) continued COMMON STOCK ($1 PAR) DR CR BALANCE Beginning 10,000 10,000 CR PREFERRED STOCK ($100 PAR) DR CR BALANCE PAID-IN CAPITAL IN EXCESS OF PAR – COMMON STOCK DR CR BALANCE Beginning 90,000 90,000 CR PAID-IN CAPITAL IN EXCESS OF PAR – PREFERRED STOCK DR CR BALANCE TREASURY STOCK DR CR BALANCE RETAINED EARNINGS DR CR BALANCE Beginning 76,750 76,750 CR SALES REVENUE DR CR BALANCE COST OF GOODS SOLD DR CR BALANCE GENERAL EXPENSES DR CR BALANCE SALARIES EXPENSE DR CR BALANCE PAYROLL TAX EXPENSE DR CR BALANCE LOSS ON DISPOSAL DR CR BALANCE 7 Account Title DR CR DR CR DR CR DR CR DR CR DR CR Totals Net loss Totals Ending retained earnings Totals Sheet Jamukha Corporation Worksheet: Requirement (c), (d) For the Year Ended December 31, 2017 Unadjusted Adjusted Income Retained Balance Trial Balance Adjustments Trial Balance Statement Earnings Statement 8 Jamukha Corporation Statement of Cash Flows: Requirement (e) For the Year Ended December 31, 2017 CASH FROM OPERATING ACTIVITIES: Increases Decreases Net Cash From Operating Activities CASH FROM INVESTNG ACTIVITIES: Net Cash From Investing Activities CASH FROM FINANCING ACTIVITIES: Net Cash From Financing Activities NET INCREASE IN CASH Cash at beginning of year Cash at end of year 9 110,000 10,000 28,000 52,900 0 350 0 90,000 55,000 0 0 4,500 0 76,750 230,000 0 0 Accounts receivable Accounts payable Pref. stock ($100 par) Statement of Cash Flows T-Account Worksheet Requirement (e) Use the formal statement to show activity within the cash account. On this statement, debits to cash correspond to increases and credits correspond to decreases. A/D – Equipment Common stock ($1 par) Allow. for doubtful accts Interest payable PICEP – CS Inventory Unearned revenue PICEP – PS Prepaid insurance Bonds payable Retained earnings Equipment Premium on B/P Treasury stock

 

FINA 408 Individual Final Company Analysis Project-DELTA AIRLINES


FINA 408 Individual Final Company Analysis Project

Grading Guidelines

The paper is graded on a 100-point scale.  The following describes the breakdown of points available:

25 points for ORGANIZATION

This is a long and complicated paper, so it is essential that you are organized in your presentation of the information.  Please be sure to present each item in the order suggested by the outline and have clear headings and sub-headings to make it easy to follow.  Also, it is important to organize the paper in a way that prevents the reader from having to flip back and forth from one section to another to follow the discussion (e.g., ensure that each ratio/calculation is discussed immediately after it is presented, rather than having a separate table elsewhere in the report.

25 points for ANALYSIS

To receive the full amount of points for this category, be sure to provide thorough discussion of your analysis process and an explanation of what the ratio/calculation means.  It is important to demonstrate that you have a good understanding of why each calculation was done, and what information can be learned from it.  Also, in this section I remove points for any situation where I feel that the analysis presented is not the students’ original work (i.e., taken from another source without attribution.)  While you can certainly refer to other analysts’ work regarding your company, please be sure to conduct your own analyses and draw your own conclusions throughout the paper.  If citations are not provided for others’ analyses in several instances throughout the paper, the appropriate academic sanctions will be imposed.

25 points for THOROUGHNESS

In order to receive the full amount of points available for this portion of the paper, you must include every item listed on the general outline provided at the beginning of the course.  Points will be removed if any item is missing from the analysis.

25 points for CONTENT

In this category, I am assessing the extent to which the entire report provides a complete analysis of the company, utilizing the steps we practiced throughout the course.  Do you tie it all together with connecting themes and findings?  Or, is it just a list of the various calculations with a sentence or two in between explaining each.  A successful paper will present a congruous and thorough analysis of the company with insightful and thoughtful commentary throughout.

 

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FINA 408 Individual Final Company Analysis Project

FINA 408 Individual Final Company Analysis Project

Grading Guidelines

The paper is graded on a 100-point scale.  The following describes the breakdown of points available:

25 points for ORGANIZATION

This is a long and complicated paper, so it is essential that you are organized in your presentation of the information.  Please be sure to present each item in the order suggested by the outline and have clear headings and sub-headings to make it easy to follow.  Also, it is important to organize the paper in a way that prevents the reader from having to flip back and forth from one section to another to follow the discussion (e.g., ensure that each ratio/calculation is discussed immediately after it is presented, rather than having a separate table elsewhere in the report.

25 points for ANALYSIS

To receive the full amount of points for this category, be sure to provide thorough discussion of your analysis process and an explanation of what the ratio/calculation means.  It is important to demonstrate that you have a good understanding of why each calculation was done, and what information can be learned from it.  Also, in this section I remove points for any situation where I feel that the analysis presented is not the students’ original work (i.e., taken from another source without attribution.)  While you can certainly refer to other analysts’ work regarding your company, please be sure to conduct your own analyses and draw your own conclusions throughout the paper.  If citations are not provided for others’ analyses in several instances throughout the paper, the appropriate academic sanctions will be imposed.

25 points for THOROUGHNESS

In order to receive the full amount of points available for this portion of the paper, you must include every item listed on the general outline provided at the beginning of the course.  Points will be removed if any item is missing from the analysis.

25 points for CONTENT

In this category, I am assessing the extent to which the entire report provides a complete analysis of the company, utilizing the steps we practiced throughout the course.  Do you tie it all together with connecting themes and findings?  Or, is it just a list of the various calculations with a sentence or two in between explaining each.  A successful paper will present a congruous and thorough analysis of the company with insightful and thoughtful commentary throughout.

FINA 408 Individual Project

SAMPLE – OUTLINE FOR SPRING 2018 WILL DIFFER

 

  1. Introduction
  2. Purpose of project
  3. Short description of company

 

  1. Governance and Communication Analysis

 

  1. Introduce the concepts addressed in the questions below, then answer the questions and discuss the importance of the following:

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  1. Who is the company’s current CEO?  Is he or she also the Chair of the Board?  Discuss the company’s considerations in making this decision.  Do you agree that this is the best leadership structure for this board? Why or why not?2.  Who serves on the board’s Audit Committee?  How many members are Financial Experts?  What experience qualifies them for that designation?  Do you agree with this designation? Why or why not?

    3. Is there more than one class of common stock outstanding?  How many votes does each share of each class of stock get?  Does any one person or entity control the voting rights at the company? If so, who?

    4. Who or what entity holds the highest percentage of the company’s stock?  Are most of the beneficial owners reported individuals or institutions? What are the implications of the company’s ownership structure?

    5.   What was the total amount of compensation paid to the CEO last year?  What portion of his or her total pay was annual bonus and non-equity incentives?  What were the main performance measures used to determine the CEO’s annual bonus and/or non-equity incentives?

    6. Listen to a recording of an analyst call (AKA earnings call or quarterly conference call) for your company.  Listen to about 15-20 minutes of the call and write a summary of your observations, including any questions that you might have wanted to ask the CEO/CFO, etc.

 

 

 

 

 

III.           Strategy Analysis

  1. Industry Analysis:  Porter’s Five Forces
  2. Rivalry among existing firms
  3. Threat of new entrants

iii.      Threat of substitutes

  1. Buyer power
  2. Supplier power
  3. Company Strategy Analysis
  4. Is your company following a Low Cost Leader or a Product/Service Differentiation Strategy?
  5. Where would evidence of this strategy show up in their financials?

 

  1. Financial Analysis
  2. Recasted Income Statement (3 years)
  3. Recasted Balance Sheet (3 years)
  4. Common Size Income Statement (3 years)
  5. DuPont Analysis (1 year)
  6. Profitability Analysis Ratios (3 years)
  7. Profit Margin
  8. Return on Assets (ROA)

iii.      Return on Equity (ROE)

  1. Gross profit margin
  2. EBIT Margin
  3. Accounts Receivable Turnover and Days’ Receivable

vii.      Inventory Turnover and Days’ Inventory

viii.      Accounts Payable Turnover and Days’ Payable

  1. PP&E Turnover
  2. Long-term Asset Turnover
  3. Risk Analysis
  4. Non-Financial Risk Analysis
  5. Review the Risk Factors section of the company’s most recent 10-K and discuss the three factors mentioned which, in your opinion, may have the most significant impact on the company
  6. Financial Risk Ratios (3 years)
  7. Current ratio
  8. Quick ratio
  9. Cash ratio
  10. Liabilities-to-equity ratio
  11. Capital structure ratio
  12. Interest coverage ratio

 

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  1. Forecast
  2. Growth Rate
  3. Sustainable Growth Rate
  4. Calculate and discuss the company’s dividend payout ratio (if applicable) and the Sustainable Growth Rate
  5. Weighted Average Cost of Capital
  6. Use the CAPM to compute the required rate of return on equity capital for the company
  7. Determine the cost of debt (if applicable) and the cost of preferred stock (if applicable)
  8. Compute the weighted average cost of capital for the company
  9. Explain why this cost is important for companies to consider, and discuss the WACC for your company
  10. Forecasted Income Statement (5 years)
  11. Prepare a forecasted income statement for 5 years
  12. Explain in detail your projections for Revenues, including any segment analysis conducted

 

 

How mangers need to conduct Performance Evaluations with a multicultural workforce

Write a one page paper on how Managers need to conduct Performance Evaluations with a multicultural workforce.  How can each generation learn from one another?  Then tell me what can Generation X  do to make the workplace a better place?

Analysis, Modeling, and Design

Business Case Research Paper

A Business Case Definition:  Documentation detailing the requirements to move an idea from conceptualization to project initiation.

For this assignment, I want you to compare and contrast a Business Case and a Business Plan.   Include definitions and applications.   Also please explore business case templates. The above definition of a business case is mine, if you would like to offer a different definition as part of your assignment, please do so, but of course you will defend it therein. There are examples of Business Case Templates located in the readings for this course. There are also some links provided. Please review other web sites of relevance and indicate those you use.

I want you to submit to me in three weeks maximum a paper on the above and stating why the details in the business case template are there and how this represents the corpus of data that would be submitted to obtain funding and project approval to get a project started. The paper should be from 4 to 6 pages in length.  Select a business case template that you like and tell me why you selected that business case template. I want you to reference at least three different business case templates and select the one you believe to be the best. Include the one, or URL for it, with your paper. You should reference the others that you evaluated to come to your conclusion.

This is the first of two projects; the second is identified in week four assignments. Yes you can look now if you want to it should be there.

 

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Accounting problem

Ordinary Tax – 39.6%

Capital Gain – 20%

Recap on Depreciation – 25%

 

Problem 1

 

XYZ LLC is planning to purchase land and a commercial building for $200,000,000.  An appraisal of the property has identified that 15% of the purchase price relates to land with the remaining relating to the building.  A Cost Segregation Study (“Cost Seg”) was performed which showed that 90% of the building cost related to real property and that 8% and 2% related to 7 and 5 year personal property respectively. XYZ LLC plans to hold the property for 7 years and then sell it for $210,000,000.  Calculate the after tax IRR assuming no cash flow other then tax savings from depreciation under two alternatives: 1) assuming no Cost Seg data is used to calculated depreciation and 2) Cost Seg data is used.  Also, assume that when the personal property is sold that it will have no value.

Economic Gain – 10 million

 

Depreciation rates are as follows:

 

Real Property – 39 year straight line

 

7 and 5 Year Personal Property – double declining with switch to straight line or:

 

7 Year Property                                   5 Year Property

 

  1. 14.29%                              1.       20%
  2. 24.49%                              2.       32%
  3. 17.49       %                                  3.       19.2%
  4. 12.49       %                                  4.       11.52%
  5.   8.93       %                                  5.       11.5%
  6.   8.92       %                                  6.       5.76%
  7.   8.93
  8.   4.46

 

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Signature Assignment

Assignment Steps 

Develop a 700- to 1,050-word memo to a prospective employer outlining your credentials, including: taking this class, all of the projects you have done for this class individually and with your team, and their impact on the businesses you have engaged with so a senior manager reading it would want to hire you as either an operations consultant or permanent employee.

Summarize the business case for each project.

Outline what you specifically accomplished, assuming these projects were implemented, and their estimated impacts on the business.

Utilize the learnings from your skills in global sourcing, procurement, and outsourcing which can also be of benefit to your target firm.

Format your assignment as if you would be giving a presentation to senior management.

 

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BSBMKG414 Undertake marketing activitis

Formative question

Activity 1.

  1. What is marketing? (20-40words)

 

  1. What is the USP? (20-40 words)

 

  1. Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. How does the organisation market itself and what is its USP? (50-75 words)

 

 

 

 

Activity 2.

  1. What might policies and procedures used in the workplace in regard to marketing activities bebased on? (30-50 words)

 

  1. What information can you find in an organisation’s marketing plan in relation to pricing? What will the organisation have taken into account when setting pricing levels? 100-150words

 

 

 

Activity 3.

How can you determine the need for marketing activities? Provide at least three examples.

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Activity 4.

  1. How can you investigate previous marketing activities for relevant information? Provide at least five examples.

 

  1. Describe the meaning of tactical, strategic and investment decision that might have been made in previous marketing activities. 1sentence each

 

 

 

Activity 5.

  1. Explain the value of profiling the market segment. 75-125words

 

  1. Think about a product that has been successfully marketed. Identify the market segments that have been targeted as part of the marketing campaign. 20-40words

 

 

Activity 6.

  1. What is positioning? 1 sentence

 

  1. What is market mix? 20-40words

 

  1. Describe how to create a positioning strategy. 150-200 words

 

Activity 7.

  1. What question might an organisation ask to identify expected marketing activity outcomes? Provides at least three examples.
  2. How can colleagues be prepared for marketing activities? Provide at least two examples.

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Activity 8.

  1. How can information be analysed? Provide at least three examples

 

  1. What question do you need to ask when conducting a customer analysis? Provide at least five examples

 

 

 

Activity 9.

  1. What steps can be taken to develop activity plans? 1 sentence

 

  1. What resource might be needed for documenting work activities? Provide at least three examples

Activity 10

  1. From whom should you seek approval for plans? Provides at least three examples

 

  1. What processes could you go through to obtain approval of plans? 1 sentence

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Activity 11.

  1. What types of resouces can be required for implementing marketing activities? Provide three examples.
  2. You have been asked to put together a sample bag to be given out at a product launch. What will you need to do? 75-125 words

Activity 12

  1. What type of marketing activities might an organisation become involved in? Provide at least two examples.
  2. Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. What types of activities does it undertake? Which  work best? Why? 50-75 words

Activity 13

  1. Outline the responsibilities of a copywriter. 30-50words

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  1. Who are considered relevant marketing personnel within an organisation? Provide at least five examples.

 

 

Activity 14.

  1. How can marketing activities be reviewed? Provide at least five examples.

 

  1. When marketing activities have been reviewed, how can they be amended? 30-50words

Activity 15

  1. How can outcomes of marketing activities be measured? Provide at least three examples.
  2. How can outcomes of marketing activities be documented? Provide at least two examples.

Activity 16.

  1. Hoe can you review expected outcomes of marketing activities? 40-60words
  2. How can they be documented? 1 sentence

Acitivty 17.

What are the main components of a report? You shoud able to identify at least 10

 

Summative assessment 1

Question 1.

Identify the seven basic steps in planning marketing activities.

 

Question 2

List five examples of basic marketing activities.

 

Question 3.

Describe the difference between organisational policies, procedures and practices. 150-200 words

 

Question 4.

Outline how market research can be used to assess suitability of an organisation’s existing products. Why is it difficult to introduce and market a new product or service? 75-100words

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Summative Assessment 2.

Project

The owner of a new animal training school, which uses a special new technique and claims to be able to teach dogs read, contacts your advertising agency.

The short-term goal of the new training school is to expand its small premises on the outskirts of Brisbane to a nationally recognised company with many school in all the major cities and large provincial towns

The long-term goal of the school is to expand, over a 10 year period, from its base in Australia into America.

Describe in a report form how you would put together a team to :

  • Conduct market research
  • Develop product knowledge
  • Examine the situation including previous marketing activities and decide on a plan of action
  • Clearly describe the goals that you have set
  • How you would allocate roles and responsibilities to individuals members of your team
  • What resources will you required (including team members)
  • Set realistic timeline for your campaign
  • Describe how you will obtain budget figures and relate actual cost to the budget
  • Compile and attach an agenda for the inaugural team meetings
  • Outline promotional activities that should be planned and some advertising methods that could be used but may not be appropriate
  • Detail why, in your opinion, they would not be appropriate
  • Describe how you intend to set up relationships with relevant groups and what groups would be targeted
  • What networks will be used to assist in the promotion
  • What brainstorming is and why it can be useful
  • Review marketing activities

1000-2000words

 

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Production/Operation

Draft written responses to the following text questions. Please be sure to answer the whole question as an essay in a thorough manner. Please provide at least a full page of text

 

  1. Define Inventory and give 5 examples of inventory
  2. Give 4 reasons to hold inventory
  3. What is the difference between fixed order quantity and fixed order interval in inventory management?
  4. Explain briefly what does the 80/20 rule means in inventory management

 

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BSBMKG414 Undertake marketing activitis

Formative question

Activity 1.

  1. What is marketing? (20-40words)

 

  1. What is the USP? (20-40 words)
  2. Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. How does the organisation market itself and what is its USP? (50-75 words)

 

Activity 2.

  1. What might policies and procedures used in the workplace in regard to marketing activities bebased on? (30-50 words)
  2. What information can you find in an organisation’s marketing plan in relation to pricing? What will the organisation have taken into account when setting pricing levels? 100-150words

 

Activity 3.

How can you determine the need for marketing activities? Provide at least three examples.

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Activity 4.

  1. How can you investigate previous marketing activities for relevant information? Provide at least five examples.

 

  1. Describe the meaning of tactical, strategic and investment decision that might have been made in previous marketing activities. 1sentence each

 

 

 

Activity 5.

  1. Explain the value of profiling the market segment. 75-125words

 

  1. Think about a product that has been successfully marketed. Identify the market segments that have been targeted as part of the marketing campaign. 20-40words

 

 

Activity 6.

  1. What is positioning? 1 sentence

 

  1. What is market mix? 20-40words

 

  1. Describe how to create a positioning strategy. 150-200 words

 

 

 

 

Activity 7.

  1. What question might an organisation ask to identify expected marketing activity outcomes? Provides at least three examples.

 

  1. How can colleagues be prepared for marketing activities? Provide at least two examples.

 

 

 

Activity 8.

  1. How can information be analysed? Provide at least three examples

 

  1. What question do you need to ask when conducting a customer analysis? Provide at least five examples

 

 

 

Activity 9.

  1. What steps can be taken to develop activity plans? 1 sentence

 

  1. What resource might be needed for documenting work activities? Provide at least three examples

 

 

 

Activity 10

  1. From whom should you seek approval for plans? Provides at least three examples

 

  1. What processes could you go through to obtain approval of plans? 1 sentence

 

 

 

Activity 11.

  1. What types of resouces can be required for implementing marketing activities? Provide three examples.

 

 

  1. You have been asked to put together a sample bag to be given out at a product launch. What will you need to do? 75-125 words

 

 

Activity 12

  1. What type of marketing activities might an organisation become involved in? Provide at least two examples.

 

  1. Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. What types of activities does it undertake? Which  work best? Why? 50-75 words

 

 

 

Activity 13

  1. Outline the responsibilities of a copywriter. 30-50words

 

  1. Who are considered relevant marketing personnel within an organisation? Provide at least five examples.

 

 

Activity 14.

  1. How can marketing activities be reviewed? Provide at least five examples.

 

  1. When marketing activities have been reviewed, how can they be amended? 30-50words

 

 

 

 

Activity 15

  1. How can outcomes of marketing activities be measured? Provide at least three examples.

 

 

  1. How can outcomes of marketing activities be documented? Provide at least two examples.

 

 

Activity 16.

  1. Hoe can you review expected outcomes of marketing activities? 40-60words

 

 

  1. How can they be documented? 1 sentence

 

 

 

Acitivty 17.

What are the main components of a report? You shoud able to identify at least 10

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Summative assessment 1

Question 1.

Identify the seven basic steps in planning marketing activities.

 

 

Question 2

List five examples of basic marketing activities.

 

Question 3.

Describe the difference between organizational policies, procedures and practices. 150-200 words

 

Question 4.

Outline how market research can be used to assess suitability of an organization’s existing products. Why is it difficult to introduce and market a new product or service? 75-100words

 

 

Summative Assessment 2.

Project

The owner of a new animal training school, which uses a special new technique and claims to be able to teach dogs read, contacts your advertising agency.

The short-term goal of the new training school is to expand its small premises on the outskirts of Brisbane to a nationally recognized company with many school in all the major cities and large provincial towns

The long-term goal of the school is to expand, over a 10 year period, from its base in Australia into America.

Describe in a report form how you would put together a team to:

  • Conduct market research
  • Develop product knowledge
  • Examine the situation including previous marketing activities and decide on a plan of action
  • Clearly describe the goals that you have set
  • How you would allocate roles and responsibilities to individuals members of your team
  • What resources will you required (including team members)
  • Set realistic timeline for your campaign
  • Describe how you will obtain budget figures and relate actual cost to the budget
  • Compile and attach an agenda for the inaugural team meetings
  • Outline promotional activities that should be planned and some advertising methods that could be used but may not be appropriate
  • Detail why, in your opinion, they would not be appropriate
  • Describe how you intend to set up relationships with relevant groups and what groups would be targeted
  • What networks will be used to assist in the promotion
  • What brainstorming is and why it can be useful
  • Review marketing activities

 

1000-2000words

 

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Analysis, Modeling, and Design

Business Case Research Paper

A Business Case Definition:  Documentation detailing the requirements to move an idea from conceptualization to project initiation.

For this assignment, I want you to compare and contrast a Business Case and a Business Plan.   Include definitions and applications.   Also please explore business case templates. The above definition of a business case is mine, if you would like to offer a different definition as part of your assignment, please do so, but of course you will defend it therein. There are examples of Business Case Templates located in the readings for this course. There are also some links provided. Please review other web sites of relevance and indicate those you use.

I want you to submit to me in three weeks maximum a paper on the above and stating why the details in the business case template are there and how this represents the corpus of data that would be submitted to obtain funding and project approval to get a project started. The paper should be from 4 to 6 pages in length.  Select a business case template that you like and tell me why you selected that business case template. I want you to reference at least three different business case templates and select the one you believe to be the best. Include the one, or URL for it, with your paper. You should reference the others that you evaluated to come to your conclusion.

This is the first of two projects; the second is identified in week four assignments. Yes you can look now if you want to it should be there.

 

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Accounting problem

Ordinary Tax – 39.6%

Capital Gain – 20%

Recap on Depreciation – 25%

 

Problem 1

 

XYZ LLC is planning to purchase land and a commercial building for $200,000,000.  An appraisal of the property has identified that 15% of the purchase price relates to land with the remaining relating to the building.  A Cost Segregation Study (“Cost Seg”) was performed which showed that 90% of the building cost related to real property and that 8% and 2% related to 7 and 5 year personal property respectively. XYZ LLC plans to hold the property for 7 years and then sell it for $210,000,000.  Calculate the after tax IRR assuming no cash flow other then tax savings from depreciation under two alternatives: 1) assuming no Cost Seg data is used to calculated depreciation and 2) Cost Seg data is used.  Also, assume that when the personal property is sold that it will have no value.

Economic Gain – 10 million

 

Depreciation rates are as follows:

 

Real Property – 39 year straight line

 

7 and 5 Year Personal Property – double declining with switch to straight line or:

 

7 Year Property                                   5 Year Property

 

  1. 14.29%                              1.       20%
  2. 24.49%                              2.       32%
  3. 17.49       %                                  3.       19.2%
  4. 12.49       %                                  4.       11.52%
  5.   8.93       %                                  5.       11.5%
  6.   8.92       %                                  6.       5.76%
  7.   8.93
  8.   4.46

 

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ECON312 week 3 Homework 2018

Question 1

Maryland farmers turn from tobacco to flowers

Maryland tobacco farmers will be subsidized if they switch from growing tobacco to growing crops such as flowers and organic vegetables. How does offering farmers a payment to exit tobacco growing influence the opportunity cost of growing tobacco? What is the opportunity cost of using the equipment owned by a tobacco farmer?

Offering farmers a payment to exit tobacco growing _______ the opportunity cost of growing tobacco.

The opportunity cost of using the equipment owned by a tobacco farmer is _______.

increases; the next best alternative forgone, which could be the production of flowers and organic vegetables

increases; the implicit cost of using the tobacco equipment

decreases; the explicit cost of using the tobacco equipment

decreases; the sum of the implicit and explicit costs of using the tobacco equipment

does not change; the next best alternative forgone, which could be the production of flowers and organic vegetables

Question 2

Perfect competition is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT

firms produce an identical product.

no restrictions on entry into or exit from the industry.

buyers and sellers are well informed about prices.

a large number of buyers and sellers.

considerable advertising by individual firms.

Question 3

Which of the following illustrates economies of scale, diseconomies of scale, and constant returns to scale?

Liza’s average total cost changes from $4.50 to $2.20 when she increases salad production from 7 to 9 an hour.

Sam’s average total cost changes from $1.30 to $2.80 when he increases smoothie production from 5 to 8 gallons an hour.

Tina’s average total cost remains at $3 when she increases pizza production from 12 to 13 an hour.

Sam faces economies of scale; Liza faces diseconomies of scale; Tina faces constant returns to scale.

Sam faces economies of scale; Tina faces diseconomies of scale; Liza faces constant returns to scale.

Tina faces economies of scale; Sam faces diseconomies of scale; Liza faces constant returns to scale.

Liza faces economies of scale; Sam faces diseconomies of scale; Tina faces constant returns to scale.

Question 4

Jennifer owns a pig farm near Salina, Kansas. Last year she earned $39,000 in total revenue while incurring $38,000 in explicit costs. She could have earned $27,000 as a teacher in Salina. These are all her revenue and costs. Therefore Jennifer earned an

economic profit of $1,000.

accounting profit of $1,000 but incurred an economic loss of $65,000.

None of the above answers is correct.

accounting profit of $1,000 but incurred an economic loss of $26,000.

accounting profit of $1,000 but incurred an economic loss of $38,000.

Question 5

The main source of economies of scale is

reductions in the price of factors of production.

the ability to hire less labor.

increasing average costs.

decreasing marginal product.

greater specialization of both labor and capital.

Question 6

Jennifer’s Bakery Shop produces baked goods in a perfectly competitive market. If Jennifer decides to produce her 100th batch of cookies, the marginal cost is $120. She can sell this batch of cookies at a market price of $110. To maximize her profit, Jennifer should

produce this batch of cookies because their MR exceeds their MC.

produce this batch of cookies because they will help lower her average fixed cost.

not produce this additional batch.

charge $120 for this batch.

shut down.

Question 7

Anna owns a dog grooming salon in Brunswick, Georgia. The above table has Anna’s total product schedule. Anna pays each worker $300 per week and she pays rent of $600 a week for her salon. These are her only costs. When Anna has a staff of 2 workers, her average total cost equals

$10.00.

$1,200.

$300.

$2,400.

$12.00.

Question 8

As a typical firm increases its output, its marginal cost

is constant.

increases at first and then decreases.

is negative at first and then positive.

decreases.

decreases at first and then increases.

Question 9

To produce more output in the short run, a firm must employ more of

its fixed resources.

Firms cannot produce more output in the short run.

its variable resources.

all its resources.

the least costly resources regardless of whether they are fixed or variable.

Question 10

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The market demand curve in a perfectly competitive market is ________ and the demand curve for a perfectly competitive firm’s output is ________.

horizontal; horizontal

downward sloping; horizontal

downward sloping; downward sloping

downward sloping; upward sloping

horizontal; downward sloping

Question 11

 

Quantity (bushels of rutabagas)

Total revenue (dollars)

Total cost (dollars)

0

0

12

1

10

22

2

20

28

3

30

30

4

40

31

5

50

34

6

60

45

7

70

59

8

80

80

The above table has the total revenue and total cost schedule for Omar, a perfectly competitive grower of rutabagas. Omar’s total profit is maximized when he produces ________ bushels of rutabagas.

7

5

6

3

8

Question 12

If concerns about mad-cow disease impose economic losses on the perfectly competitive cattle ranchers, exit by the ranchers combined with no further changes in the demand for beef will force the price of beef to

fluctuate, with the trend being lower prices.

probably change, but more information about the market supply of beef is needed to answer the question.

decrease.

not change.

increase.

Question 13

 

Quantity of labor (workers)

Total product

(lawns mowed per week)

0

0

1

30

2

55

3

75

4

80

5

82

 

Kenya owns a lawn mowing company. His total product schedule is in the above table. Decreasing marginal returns first occur with the

third worker.

second worker.

first worker.

fourth worker.

fifth worker.

Question 14

The above figure illustrates a perfectly competitive firm. If the market price is $10 a unit, to maximize its profit (or minimize its loss) the firm should

produce 30 units.

produce more than 30 units and less than 40 units.

shut down.

produce 40 units.

produce between 10 and less than 30 units.

Question 15

Quantity of labor (workers)

Total product

(dogs groomed per week)

0

0

1

40

2

100

3

150

4

190

5

220

6

240

 

Anna owns a dog grooming salon in Brunswick, Georgia. The above table has Anna’s total product schedule. Anna pays each worker $300 per week and she pays rent of $600 a week for her salon. These are her only costs. When Anna has a staff of 2 workers, her average fixed cost equals

$2,400.

$6.00.

$10.00.

$7.50.

$600.

Question 16

When an economist uses the term “cost” referring to a firm, the economist refers to the

price of the good to the consumer.

explicit cost of producing a good or service but not the implicit cost of producing a good or service.

implicit cost of producing a good or service but not the explicit cost of producing a good or service.

cost that can be actually verified and measured.

opportunity cost of producing a good or service, which includes both implicit and explicit cost.

Question 17

Quantity of labor (workers)

Total product

(dogs groomed per week)

0

0

1

40

2

100

3

150

4

190

5

220

6

240

 

Anna owns a dog grooming salon in Brunswick, Georgia. The above table has Anna’s total product schedule. Anna pays each worker $300 per week and she pays rent of $600 a week for her salon. These are her only costs. When Anna has a staff of 6 workers, her average fixed cost equals

$7.50.

$2.50.

$6.00.

$600.

$10.00.

Question 18

U.S. Steel Lays Off 756

With a drop in the demand for steel pipe and tube, U.S. Steel Corporation will idle plants in Ohio and Texas and lay off 756 workers.

Source: The Wall Street Journal , January 6, 2015

As U.S. Steel responded to the fall in demand, how did its marginal cost change?

What can you say about minimum AVC in the plants that closed?

As U.S. Steel responded to the fall in demand, its marginal cost ______.

The minimum average variable cost in the plants that closed must have been ______.

decreased; greater than the market price

decreased; less than the market price

decreased; equal to average fixed cost

increased; less than the market price

increased; greater than the market price

Question 19

The law of decreasing returns states that as a firm uses more of a

fixed input and a variable input, the marginal product of the fixed input and the marginal product of the variable input both decrease.

fixed input, with a given quantity of variable inputs, the marginal product of the fixed input eventually decreases.

variable input, with a given quantity of fixed inputs, the marginal product of the variable input eventually decreases.

variable input, output will begin to fall immediately.

variable input, total output will increase indefinitely.

Question 20

GM cuts jobs at its Australian manufacturing unit

GM will cut 500 jobs, or about 12% of its workforce, at its Australian plant because of a sharp fall in demand for its locally-made “Cruze” small car.

Source: The Wall Street Journal , April 8, 2013

As GM cuts its workforce, how will the marginal product and average product of a worker change in the short run?

Suppose that before the cuts the marginal product of GM workers is below their average product.

As the number of workers decreases, the marginal product of a GM worker ______ and the average product of a GM worker ______ in the short run.

does not? change; does not change

decreases; increases

increases; decreases

increases; increases

decreases; decreases

Question 21

Output (pizzas per hour)

Total cost

(dollars)

0

20

1

35

2

49

3

61

4

71

5

79

6

85

Paulette owns a pizza parlor. Her total cost schedule is in the above table. Her total variable cost of producing four pizzas per hour is

Some amount, but more information is needed to determine this total variable cost.

$49.

$20.

$71.

$51.

Question 22

Airlines seek new ways to save on fuel as costs soar

Fuel is an airline’s biggest single expense. In 2008, the cost of jet fuel rocketed. Airlines tried to switch to newer generation aircraft, which have more fuel-efficient engines.

Source: The New York Times , June 11, 2008

Explain how a technological advance that makes airplane engines more fuel efficient changes an airline’s average variable cost, marginal cost, and average total cost.

A technological advance that makes an airplane engine more fuel efficient ______ an airline’s average variable cost and ______ an airline’s marginal cost.

increases; increases

decreases; does not change

does not change; decreases

decreases; decreases

Question 23

Labour (Workers)

Output (bikes)

Total fixed costs (dollars)

Total variable costs (dollars)

Total costs (dollars)

0

0

200

0

200

1

20

200

100

300

2

50

200

200

400

3

60

200

300

500

4

64

200

400

600

 

The table above gives costs at Jan’s Bike Shop. Unfortunately, Jan’s record keeping has been spotty. Each worker is paid $100 a day. Labor costs are the only variable costs of production. What is the total fixed cost of producing 64 bikes?

$200

$500

$300

$400

$600

Question 24

California’s commercial drone industry is taking off

Customers are finding ever more creative ways to use drones, and 3E Robotics Inc., America’s largest producer of consumer drones, expects sales to soar.

Source: Los Angeles Times, June 13, 2015

Explain what is happening in the market for commercial drones.

How would you expect the price of a drone to change in the short run and the long run?

How would you expect the economic profit of a drone producer such as 3D Robotics to change in the short run and in the long run?

In the short run, the equilibrium price of a drone _______ and the economic profit of drone producers _______.

falls; decreases

rises; increases

rises; remains unchanged

falls; remains unchanged

Question 25

Coffee king Starbucks raises its prices

Starbucks will raise its price because the wholesale price of milk has risen by nearly 70% in the past year. There’s a lot of milk in those Starbucks lattes, noted John Glass, CIBC World Markets restaurant analyst.

Source: USA Today, July 24, 2007

Is the cost of milk a fixed cost or a variable cost?

Describe how the increase in the price of milk changes Starbucks’ short-run cost curves.

The cost of milk is a ______ cost. An increase in the cost of milk shifts the ______ curves upward.

variable; total cost, total variable cost, and total fixed cost

fixed; average total cost, average fixed cost, total cost, and total fixed cost

fixed; total cost and average total cost

variable; average total cost, average variable cost, total cost, total variable cost, and marginal cost

Question 26

The long run is a time period that is

five years or longer.

long enough to change the amount of labor employed but not to change the size of the plant.

long enough to change the amount of labor employed.

long enough to change the size of the firm’s plant and all other inputs.

None of the above answers describes the long run.

Question 27

A perfectly competitive firm is producing 50 units of output, which it sells at the market price of $23 per unit. The firm’s average total cost is $20. What is the firm’s total revenue?

$1,150

$1,000

$150

$23

$20

Question 28

Metropolitan Museum completes round of layoffs

The museum cut 74 jobs and 95 other workers retired. The museum also laid off 127 other employees in its retail shops. The cut in labor costs is $10 million, but the museum expects no change in the number of visitors.

Source: The New York Times, June 22, 2009

Explain how the job cuts and shop closings will change the museum’s short-run average cost curves and marginal cost curve.

A cut in labor but no change in output increases the marginal product of labor.

What is the effect on the marginal cost curve?

A rightward movement along the marginal cost curve occurs.

The marginal cost curve shifts upward.

A leftward movement along the marginal cost curve occurs.

The marginal cost curve shifts downward.

Question 29

Kenya owns a lawn mowing company. His total product schedule is in the above table. The marginal product of the fourth worker is ________ lawns mowed per week.

25

5

20

80

320

Question 30

Output (gallons of ice cream per hour)

Total cost (dollars)

0

1

1

2

2

3

3

5

4

8

5

11

 

The Jerry-Berry Ice Cream Shoppe’s total cost schedule is in the above table. Based on the table, the marginal cost of producing the fourth gallon of ice cream is

$5.

$3.

$8.

$2.

$32.

 

 

ECON312 Week 2 Homework 2018

Question 1

The price of cotton clothing falls. As a result,

the demand for cotton clothing decreases.

both the demand for cotton clothing increases and the quantity demand of cotton clothing increases.

the quantity demanded of cotton clothing increases.

the quantity demanded of cotton clothing decreases.

the demand for cotton clothing increases.

Question 2

If a higher price for wheat decreases the quantity of corn being produced, which of the following describes what has occurred?

The quantity of wheat supplied increased and the supply of corn decreased.

The supply of wheat increased and the supply of corn decreased.

The quantity of wheat supplied increased and quantity of corn supplied decreased.

The supply of wheat decreased and the supply of corn decreased.

The supply of wheat increased and the quantity of corn supplied decreased

Question 3

If both producers and consumers believe that a product’s price will rise in the future, then at the present, demand ________ and supply ________.

increases; increases

increases; decreases

decreases; decreases

does not change; does not change

decreases; increases

Question 4

You are just about to finish college and are about to start a high paying job. Because of this new job, what is the most likely outcome in the market for cars?

Your demand for cars will decrease.

The market supply of cars will increase.

Your demand for cars will increase.

The demand and the supply for cars will decrease.

The market supply of cars will decrease.

Question 5

Many Americans are selling their used cars and buying new fuel-efficient hybrids. Other things remaining the same, in the market for used cars, ______ and in the market for hybrids ______.

Supply increases and the price falls; demand increases and the price rises
Demand decreases and the price rises; supply increases and the price falls
Both demand and supply decrease and the price might rise, fall, or not change; demand increases and the price rises
Demand decreases, supply increases, and the price falls; supply in-creases and the price fall

Question 6

If the price of a one good increases and the quantity demanded of a different good decreases, then these two goods are

substitutes.

normal goods.

inelastic goods.

complements.

inferior goods.

Question 7

 

Which figure above shows the effect if research is published claiming that eating pizza is healthy?

Figure B

Figure C

Figure A

Figure D

Both Figure A and Figure D

Question 8

If consumers buy a large number of plug-in electric cars, the equilibrium price of electricity will ________ and the equilibrium quantity of electricity will ________.

rise; increase

fall; increase

not change; increase

rise; decrease

fall; decrease

Question 9

Which of the following describes the law of demand? When other things remain the same, as

the quantity demanded of bread increases, the price of bread falls.

more people decide to eat pizza, the demand for pizza increases.

your income increases, you’ll buy more hamburgers.

the price of peanut butter increases, the quantity demanded of jelly decreases.

the price of gas falls, the quantity demanded of gas increases.

Question 10

In a recession, consumers have less income to spend. As a result, if dining out is a normal good, then which of the following would happen to the demand curve for dining out?

The demand curve would shift rightward.

The demand curve would not shift but the price of dining out would fall.

The demand curve would shift leftward.

The demand curve would not shift but the price of dining out would rise.

The effect on the demand curve is unknown.

Question 11

Computer chips are a normal good. Suppose the economy slips into a recession so that income falls. As a result, the demand for computer chips ________ so that the price of a computer chip ________.

decreases; rises

decreases; does not change

increases; falls

decreases; falls

increases; rises

Question 12

If income increases and the demand for bus rides decreases,

consumers are behaving irrationally.

bus rides are an inferior good.

bus rides must be a complement good with some other good.

bus rides are a substitute good.

bus rides are a normal good.

Question 13

 

Which figure above shows the effect of a technological advance in the production of pizza?

Figure A

Figure B

Figure C

Figure D

Both Figure A and Figure D

Question 14

Suppose over the next several years the productivity of firms producing electric cars improves dramatically. The advance in productivity leads to

an increase in the supply of electric cars so that the supply curve shifts leftward.

a decrease in the supply of electric cars so that the supply curve shifts rightward.

an increase in the supply electric cars so that the supply curve shifts rightward.

no change in the supply of electric cars, only a change in the quantity supplied of electric cars.

a decrease in the supply of electric cars so that the supply curve shifts leftward.

Question 15

If good weather conditions result in a larger than normal crop of peaches, then the

equilibrium price of peaches falls, and the equilibrium quantity of peaches decreases.

equilibrium price of peaches falls, and the equilibrium quantity of peaches increases.

equilibrium price of peaches rises, and the equilibrium quantity of peaches increases.

demand curve for peaches shifts leftward.

increase in the supply of peaches induces a greater demand for peaches, so that the equilibrium price rises and the equilibrium quantity increases.

Question 16

People eat at restaurants less often when their incomes fall because of a recession. Eating at restaurants must be

a complement to other goods.

an inelastic good.

an inferior good.

a normal good.

a substitute for other goods.

Question 17

Which of the following increases the supply of a product?

some producers going bankrupt and leaving the industry

an increase in the expected future price of the product

a higher price for the product

lower prices for the resources used to produce the product

a decrease in productivity

Question 18

If a 30 percent price increase generates a 20 percent decrease in quantity demanded, then demand is

perfectly inelastic.

inelastic.

perfectly elastic.

unit elastic.

elastic.

Question 19

Suppose the San Francisco 49ers lower ticket prices by 15 percent and as a result the quantity of tickets demanded increases by 10 percent. This set of results shows that San Francisco 49ers tickets have

an elastic demand.

a unit elastic demand.

an inelastic supply.

an elastic supply.

an inelastic demand.

Question 20

In the above figure, the movement from point a to point b reflects

a decrease in the cost of the tomato sauce used to produce pizza.

a decrease in income if pizza is a normal good.

an increase in the number of producers of pizza.

an increase in the supply of pizza.

an increase in the price of pizza.

Question 21

If the automobile workers’ union successfully negotiates a wage increase for its members, how does the wage hike affect the supply of automobiles?

The quantity supplied decreases.

The supply and quantity supplied decreases.

The quantity supplied increases.

The supply decreases.

The supply increases.

Question 22

In the above figure, the shift in the demand curve from D to D1 can be the result of

a decrease in income if pizza is a normal good.

an increase in the price of a sub sandwich, a substitute for pizza.

an increase in the price of soda, a complement to pizza.

an increase in the price of pizza.

a change in quantity demanded.

Question 23

Patrick lives near two gas stations, Exxon and Shell. If Exxon decreases the price of gas, we predict that the quantity of gasoline demanded at Shell will

increase because Exxon and Shell gas are substitutes.

decrease because Exxon and Shell gas are substitutes.

not change Exxon and Shell are different brands of gasoline.

increase because Exxon and Shell gas are complements.

decrease because Exxon and Shell gas are complements.

Question 24

 

Pizza is a normal good. Which figure above shows the effect of a decrease in consumers’ incomes?

Figure A

Figure B

Figure C

Figure D

Both Figure B and Figure C

Question 25

Suppose improvements in technology cause the supply of natural gas to increase and at the same time the demand for natural gas increases. What are we sure of?

Equilibrium price decreases.

Both equilibrium price and quantity increase.

Equilibrium price increases.

Equilibrium quantity decreases.

Equilibrium quantity increases.

Question 26

Consider the market for smart phones. Which of the following shifts the demand curve rightward?

an increase in the price of smart phones

a decrease in the price of smart phones

a decrease in the number of smart phone buyers

an increase in the supply of smart phones

an increase in the price of land-line phone service, a substitute for smart phones

Question 27

Price

(dollars per gallon)

Quantity demanded

(gallon per gasoline)

Quantity supplied

(gallon per gasoline)

3.73

337,562

443,074

3.63

396,398

428,008

3.65

412,031

412,031

3.62

417,899

392,665

The table above shows the situation in the gasoline market in Tulsa, Oklahoma. If the price of a gallon of gasoline is $2.20, then

There is neither a surplus nor a shortage, but the market is NOT in equilibrium.

the gasoline market in Tulsa is in equilibrium.

Without more information we cannot determine if there is a surplus, a shortage, or an equilibrium in the gasoline market in Tulsa.

there is a shortage of gasoline in Tulsa.

there is a surplus of gasoline in Tulsa.

Question 28

If a 10 percent price increase generates a 10 percent decrease in quantity demanded, then demand is

elastic.

perfectly elastic.

perfectly inelastic.

inelastic.

unit elastic.

Question 29

The law of supply reflects the fact that

suppliers have an incentive to use their resources in the way that brings the biggest return.

the demand curve is downward sloping.

higher prices are more attractive to consumers because they signal a higher quality product.

people buy more of a good when its price falls.

businesses can sell more goods at lower prices.

Question 30

In the above figure, an increase in cost of the cheese used to produce pizza

has no effect.

results in a movement from point a to point b.

shifts the supply curve from S to S2.

shifts the supply curve from S to S1.

results in a movement from point b to point a.

 

ECON312 Week 4 Quiz latest 2018

Question 1

Diseconomies of scale is a result of

mismanagement.

difficulties of coordinating and controlling a large enterprise.

larger fixed costs as the firm’s production increases.

technological progress.

specialization of labor, capital, and management.

Question 2

In a perfectly competitive market, the firm is a price taker because ______.

the price in the market is the price that maximizes each? firm’s producer surplus

the firms in perfect competition are interdependent and if one firm charges a lower? price, other firms will also lower their prices and all firms will incur an economic loss

it produces only a tiny proportion of the total output of a particular good and buyers are well informed about the prices of other firms

the price is dictated by the largest firm in the? market, and if a given firm lowers its price other firms will conspire against it

each firms makes a slightly different product

Question 3

Which of the following chain of events occurs when a tariff is imposed on a good?

Domestic prices fall, decreasing the domestic quantity supplied and increasing the quantity demanded.

Domestic prices fall, shifting the demand curve rightward, and consumers buy more of the good.

Domestic prices rise, shifting the demand curve leftward and the domestic supply curve rightward.

Domestic prices rise, decreasing the quantity demanded and increasing the domestic quantity supplied.

Domestic prices rise, shifting the domestic supply curve rightward.

Question 4

Energizer and Duracell dominate the battery market. It is possible that they could ________ because they operate in ________.

earn $0 profit in the long run; a monopolistically competitive market

form a cartel and collude; an oligopoly

have excess capacity; a natural monopoly

collude; a perfect competitive market

form a cartel; a monopolistically competitive market

Question 5

Which of the following is a list of fixed inputs for a hospital?

the lobby, the doctors, and the electricity it uses

antibiotics, pain medication, and other prescription drugs

the emergency room, intensive care unit, and other facilities

the nurses, receptionists, and other employees

bandages, casts, and other materials

Question 6

Cost curves shift if

  1. technology changes.
  2. the prices of factors of production change.

iii. productivity changes.

i and ii

i and iii

i, ii, and iii

i only

ii only

Question 7

Mylan Pharmaceuticals holds a patent on the EpiPen – designed to inject epinephrine into shock victims. In 2016, Mylan received criticism for charging $600 for this life-saving drug. The market for EpiPens is considered ________ which means that the price of an Epipen ________ its marginal cost.

a monopoly; equals

monopolistic competition; is greater than

an oligopoly; equals

a monopoly; is greater than

perfect competition; equals

Question 8

Anna owns a dog grooming salon in Brunswick, Georgia. The above table has Anna’s total product schedule. Anna pays each worker $300 per week and she pays rent of $600 a week for her salon. These are her only costs. When Anna has a staff of 2 workers, her average variable cost equals

$6.00.

$300.

$2,400.

$10.00.

$600.

Question 9

Suppose the grocery store market in Kansas City is perfectly competitive. Then one store buys all the others and becomes a single-price monopoly. The figure above shows the relevant demand and cost curves. When the market is perfectly competitive, the quantity of steak is ________ pounds, and when the market is a monopoly, the quantity of steak is ________ pounds.

2,000; 4,000

4,000; 4,000

5,000; 3,000

4,000; less than 2,000 pounds.

3,000; 2,000

Question 10

The above figure illustrates a perfectly competitive firm. If the market price is $40 a unit, to maximize its profit (or minimize its loss) the firm should

produce more than 10 and less than 30 units.

produce more than 30 units and less than 40 units.

produce 40 units.

shut down.

produce 30 units.

Question 11

Airlines seek new ways to save on fuel as costs soar

Fuel is an airline’s biggest single expense. In 2008, the cost of jet fuel rocketed. Airlines tried to switch to newer generation aircraft, which have more fuel-efficient engines.

Source: The New York Times , June 11, 2008

Is the price of fuel a fixed cost or a variable cost?

Is the price of a new fuel-efficient engine a fixed cost or a variable cost?

Explain how a technological advance that makes an airplane engine more fuel efficient changes an airline’s average total cost.

The cost of the new fuel-efficient engines are a _______ cost.

The cost of fuel is a _______ cost.

fixed; total

marginal; variable

fixed; variable

variable; fixed

Question 12

GM cuts jobs at its Australian manufacturing unit

GM will cut 500 jobs, or about 12% of its workforce, at its Australian plant because of a sharp fall in demand for its locally-made “Cruze” small car.

Source: The Wall Street Journal , April 8, 2013

As GM cuts its workforce, how will the marginal product and average product of a worker change in the short run?

Suppose that before the cuts the marginal product of GM workers is below their average product.

As the number of workers decreases, the marginal product of a GM worker ______ and the average product of a GM worker ______ in the short run.

does not change; does not change

decreases; decreases

decreases; increases

increases; decreases

increases; increases

Question 13

To maximize profit, a firm in monopolistic competition will produce the quantity where marginal revenue

is greater than marginal cost.

is less than marginal cost.

equals marginal cost.

equals zero.

equals average total cost.

Question 14

Austin owns the Fruit Bowl food truck. Which of the following would be short run decisions for Austin?

  1. how much fruit to buy
  2. how many workers to hire

iii. installing a new stove in his truck

i and ii

i only

i, ii and iii

ii only

ii and iii

Question 15

Paulette owns a pizza parlor. Her total cost schedule is in the above table. Her total fixed cost is equal to

$35.

$85.

Some amount, but more information is needed to determine her fixed cost.

$79.

$20.

Question 16

Consider the market for running shoes shown above. A tariff of ________ is imposed and causes the amount of shoes imported to ________ pairs.

$40; decrease from 4 million to 2 million

$20; decrease from 4 million to 3 million

$40; decrease from 5 million to 2 million

$20; decrease from 4 million to 2 million

$60; decrease from 4 million to 2 million

Question 17

Henry, a perfectly competitive lime grower in Southern California, notices that the market price of limes is greater than his marginal cost. What should Henry do?

advertise his limes to be able to sell more output

look for the output level where marginal revenue minus marginal cost is maximized

expand his output to increase profits

shut down and earn no profit but also incur no loss

shut down and incur a loss equal to his total fixed cost

Question 18

A collusive agreement to form a cartel is difficult to maintain because

supply will decrease because of the high cartel price.

each member firm can increase its own profits by cutting its price and selling more.

forming a cartel is legal but frowned upon throughout the world.

demanders will rebel once they realize a cartel has been formed.

each firm can increase its profit if it decreases its production even more than the decrease set by the cartel.

Question 19

Labor (workers)

Output (bikes)

Total fixed costs (dollars)

Total variable cost (dollars)

Total cost (dollars)

0

0

200

 

 

1

20

 

100

 

2

50

 

 

 

3

60

 

 

 

4

64

 

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The table above gives costs at Jan’s Bike Shop. Unfortunately, Jan’s record keeping has been spotty. Each worker is paid $100 a day. Labor costs are the only variable costs of production. What is the total cost of producing 50 bikes?

$200

$100

$500

$400

$300

Question 20

Keith is a perfectly competitive carnation grower. The market price is $2 per dozen carnations. Keith’s average total cost to grow carnations is $2.50 per dozen. In the long run, Keith will

exit the industry if the price and his costs do not change.

continue to make an economic profit.

incur an economic loss.

raise his price to more than $2.50 per dozen carnations.

raise his price to $2.50 per dozen carnations.

Question 21

Use the figure above to answer this question. Mary is the only veterinarian in a small town. To maximize her profit, Mary will choose to treat ________ animals per hour and charge ________ per customer in order to ________.

4; $50; operate on the inelastic portion of her demand curve

6; $20; maximize profit

6; $30; minimize average total cost

6; $20; minimize cost in order to attract more customers

4; $50; maximize profit

Question 22

The U.S. Postal Service has a monopoly over first-class mail service because

stamps are copyrighted.

stamps are patented.

the government has granted this agency a public franchise.

stamps are trademarked.

it owns a vital resource, namely all mailboxes.

Question 23

A firm’s fundamental goal is

to decrease its employment of workers in order to cut its costs.

to maximize profit.

to make a quality product.

different for each firm.

to gain market share.

Question 24

Price (dollars per unit

Quantity demanded (units per day)

Quantity supplied (units per day)

2

20

14

6

19

16

6

18

18

8

17

20

10

16

22

12

15

24

 

The table above has the domestic demand and domestic supply schedules for a good. If the world price of the good is $10 and international trade occurs, then according to the table

the country imports 6 units a day.

domestic production is higher before trade than after trade.

the country imports 16 units a day.

the country exports 22 units a day.

the country exports 6 units a day.

Question 25

How do advertising and other selling costs affect a firm?

The do not change demand and shift the average total cost curve downward.

They shift the average total cost curve upward.

They shift the marginal cost curve upward.

The only effect is that the demand for the product increases.

The only effect is that the excess capacity is reduced.

Question 26

A Nash equilibrium in the duopoly game

means that one player has greater market power.

can occur only if firms cooperate with each other.

occurs when each player takes the best possible action regardless of the strategy chosen by other firms.

will always lead to equilibrium in which the firms’ total profit is the largest.

means that a firm must be able to determine its actions and the actions of its competitor.

Question 27

The table above shows the revenue figures for the top four firms along with a total for the remaining firms in the fast-food industry. What is the four-firm concentration ratio for the industry?

80 percent

200 percent

20 percent

100 percent

25 percent

Question 28

In the 1950s, crude oil and natural gas imports were restricted to keep the domestic industries viable in case of a war. The rationale for this protection is the ________ argument for protection.

anti-dumping

national security

infant-industry

save domestic jobs

penalizing lax environmental standards

Question 29

The figure above shows the U.S. demand and U.S. supply curves for cherries. At a world price of $2 per pound once international trade occurs, the total imports of cherries to the United States from other nations equals

600,000 pounds.

200,000 pounds.

400,000 pounds.

800,000 pounds.

0 pounds.

Question 30

Quantity

(bottles per week)

Marginal cost

Average variable cost

Dollars per bottle

0

0

0

100

3.00

4.40

200

3.20

3.90

300

3.50

3.50

400

3.82

3.55

500

4.20

3.60

600

5.00

3.75

 

The table shows the cost structure of a firm selling bottles of water in a perfectly competitive market.

What is the quantity at the firm’s shutdown point?

The firm’s shutdown point occurs at a quantity of

nothing

bottles of water per week and the market price is $

nothing a bottle.

Question 31

Anna owns a dog grooming salon in Brunswick, Georgia. The above table has Anna’s total product schedule. Anna pays each worker $300 per week and she pays rent of $600 a week for her salon. These are her only costs. When Anna has a staff of 6 workers, her total cost equals

$1,800.

$300.

$2,400.

$7.50.

$10.00.

Question 32

The above figure represents the market for cable television in Oakland, Florida. Time Warner Communications (TWC) is the sole provider of cable television to the residents of this Central Florida community. If TWC operated under a marginal cost pricing rule, what is the price of cable television in Oakland?

$0

$40

$30

$10

$20

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Question 33

Excess capacity exists when a firm produces

more than the profit-maximizing level of output.

less than the quantity that minimizes average total cost.

None of the above answers is correct.

less than the quantity that minimizes marginal cost.

more than the quantity that minimizes marginal cost.

Question 34

The figure above shows the U.S. demand and U.S. supply curves for cherries. In the absence of international trade, cherry farmers would receive ________ per pound of cherries.

$2.00

$2.50

$0.50

$1.00

$1.50

Question 35

Suppose Pat’s Paints is a perfectly competitive firm. If Pat’s Paints’ marginal revenue equals $5 per can, and Pat decides to sell 100 cans of paint, Pat’s total revenue equals

$500.

$20.

Information on the price of a can of paint is needed to answer the question.

$5.

$100.

Question 36

Kenya owns a lawn mowing company. His total product schedule is in the above table. When 4 workers are employed, the average product is ________ lawns mowed per week.

80

20

5

25

320

Question 37

Country A imports 1,000 cars per month. After imposing a $50 per car tariff, imports fall to 800 cars per month. How much does Country A’s government collect in tariff revenue?

$90,000

$10,000

$60,000

$40,000

$50,000

Question 38

The above figure shows the U.S. market for flip-flops. With international trade, U.S. consumers buy ________ flip-flops and U.S. producers produce ________ flip-flops.

700,000; 500,000

300,000; 700,000

700,000; 300,000

500,000; 500,000

500,000; 300,000

Question 39

Perfect competition is a market in which there are? _____ firms, each selling? _____ product; many? buyers; _____ to the entry of new firms into the industry; no advantage to established firms; and buyers and sellers _____ about prices.

few; differentiated; barriers; are well informed

many; identical; no barriers; are well informed

many; identical; barriers; have no information

few; differentiated; no barriers; have no information

Question 40

Which of the following is an implicit cost in Jim’s business venture?

  1. the salary Jim could have earned at another job
  2. the interest Jim must pay on the loan he incurred to help open his business

iii. the interest Jim lost when he used his savings to help open his business

ii and iii

iii only

i and iii

i only

ii only

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ECON312 Week 2 Quiz latest 2018

Question 1

People eat at restaurants less often when their incomes fall because of a recession. Eating at restaurants must be

a substitute for other goods.

a complement to other goods.

an inelastic good.

an inferior good.

a normal good.

Question 2

In stores, it is common to find seasonal products marked down when the season ends. What explains this behavior?

The store is trying to sell the goods and realizes that they are substitutes for other goods whose prices have risen.

The store is trying to increase its customers’ incomes by increasing their purchasing power.

The store is trying to increase its customers’ demand for the product.

The store manager must be trying to drive away customers by selling low quality products.

The law of demand is being used to increase the quantity demanded.

Question 3

As a person increases his or her caloric intake, the person’s weight increases, ceteris paribus. The relationship between the person’s caloric intake and the person’s weight is an example of

a trended relationship.

unrelated variables.

a negative relationship.

a single point on a graph.

a positive relationship.

Question 4

When the percentage change in the quantity supplied is twice the percentage change in price, then supply is

perfectly inelastic.

inelastic.

unit elastic.

elastic.

perfectly elastic.

Question 5

Suppose you eat two hamburgers for lunch. The marginal benefit of the first burger is ________ of the second burger.

smaller than the marginal benefit

equal to the marginal benefit

equal to the marginal cost and the marginal benefit

not related to the marginal benefit

larger than the marginal benefit

Question 6

The price elasticity of demand measures the extent to which the quantity demanded changes when

the price of the good changes.

consumer preferences change.

the price of a related good changes.

the expected future price of a good changes.

both the demand and supply of the good change.

Question 7

Matt pays a $50 a month membership fee at Bruno’s Gym. He can exercise at the gym as many times as he wishes. If the membership fee is measured along the vertical axis and the number of times he exercises is measured along the horizontal axis, the graph between his membership fee and the number of times he exercises will

be negatively sloped.

be positively sloped.

be a horizontal line.

start out positively sloped and then, as Matt loses interest, become negatively sloped.

be a vertical line.

Question 8

An increase in the quantity demanded is shown as

a movement toward the demand curve.

a leftward shift of the demand curve.

both a movement along the demand curve and a shift of the demand curve.

a rightward shift of the demand curve.

a movement along the demand curve.

Question 9

Researchers have found a hybrid of corn that is cheaper to grow. This technological breakthrough

increases the demand for hybrid corn.

decreases the supply of hybrid corn.

Both answers A and C are correct.

Both answers A and B are correct.

increases the supply of hybrid corn.

Question 10

Suppose the relationship between a person’s age and his or her height is plotted with the age measured along the x-axis and the height measured along the y-axis. Then, the curve showing this relationship is

negatively sloped and becoming less steep.

positively sloped and becoming more steep.

positively sloped and becoming less steep.

a straight line with a positive slope.

a straight line with a negative slope.

Question 11

Assume a market is in equilibrium. There is an increase in supply, but no change in demand As a result the equilibrium price ________, and the equilibrium quantity ________.

rises; increases

rises; does not change

rises; decreases

falls; decreases

falls; increases

Question 12

What is an inferior good?

a product that is complementary

a product of low quality that we do not want to purchase

a product for which demand increases when income decreases, and demand decreases when income increases

a product that is a substitute for another, better good

a product for which demand increases when income increases, and demand decreases when income decreases

Question 13

A time series graph

shows how a certain variable changes over time.

depicts a series of good economic times a nation had.

is not useful if the goal is to determine a variable’s trend.

shows points that are scattered.

uses bars rather than lines.

Question 14

In the diagram above, which figure(s) show(s) an inverse relationship between the variables?

only C

only B

both A and C

both B and C

only D

Question 15

When a landscaping company decides to use drafting software and computers instead of hiring designers to draw design plans by hand, it is answering the ________ question.

why

for whom

opportunity cost

what

how

Question 16

The cross elasticity of demand is a measure of how

total revenue changes when the price of a product changes.

demand for a product changes when the price of a substitute or complement changes.

responsive consumers are to changes in the price of a product.

demand for a product changes when income changes.

responsive suppliers are to changes in the price of a product.

Question 17

In the above figure, the shift in the demand curve from D to D2 can be the result of

an increase in the price of soda, a complement to pizza.

an increase in income if pizza is a normal good.

a decrease in the supply of pizza that raises the price of pizza.

a change in quantity demanded.

an increase in the price of a sub sandwich, a substitute for pizza.

Question 18

When you make the decision to spend your time attending class, which economic question are you answering?

Is this in the social interest?

For whom?

How?

What?

Why?

Question 19

Going skiing will cost Adam $80 a day. He also loses $40 per day in wages because he has to take time off from work. Adam still decides to go skiing.

His decision is rational if Adam’s marginal benefit of spending a day skiing is greater than his marginal cost.

Adam is definitely making a decision that is in the social interest.

Adam’s lost $40 per day in wages is not an opportunity cost and so did not affect his decision.

He loses a total of $120 per day, so his decision is irrational.

The $80 price of skiing is not an opportunity cost and so did not affect Adam’s decision.

Question 20

Suppose the equilibrium price of oranges is $2.00 per pound. If the actual price is above the equilibrium price, a

surplus exists and the price rises to restore equilibrium.

shortage exists and the price falls to restore equilibrium.

shortage exists and the price rises to restore equilibrium.

surplus exists but nothing happens until either the demand or the supply changes.

surplus exists and the price falls to restore equilibrium.

Question 21

The production possibilities frontier illustrates the

maximum combinations of goods and services that can be produced.

goods and services that people want.

limits to people’s wants.

resources the economy possess, but not its level of technology.

amount of each good that people want to buy.

Question 22

The above figure shows the production possibility frontier for an economy. The point or points that are attainable are

points A, B, and C.

points A and D.

points B and C.

point E.

points A, B, C, and D.

Question 23

Wichita is building a convention center and financing it with revenues raised from a city hotel tax. Local politicians assert that the convention center is essentially free for Wichita residents because out-of-town visitors are paying for it. Someone who is practicing the economic way of thinking would disagree because

there are other projects that could be undertaken with the tax funds.

the convention center may not pass a marginal cost-benefit test.

the hotel tax may reduce commercial property values in the area.

they believe that Wichita does not need a new convention center.

the hotel tax may lead to a decline in visits to Wichita.

Question 24

Which figure above shows the effect if research is published claiming that eating pizza is healthy?

Figure D

Both Figure A and Figure D

Figure B

Figure A

Figure C

Question 25

The United States can use all its resources to produce 250 DVDs or 500 shoes. China can use all of its resources to produce 30 DVDs or 300 shoes. The opportunity cost of producing a DVD in the United States is

2 shoes.

500 shoes.

1 DVD.

20 shoes.

1/2 of a shoe.

Question 26

Proponents of cuts in income tax rates argue that when income tax rates are cut, workers have an incentive to increase their work hours. This argument is based on the assumption that

workers make decisions based on the social interest.

the marginal cost of each additional work hour is not important to most workers.

workers are irrational.

the opportunity cost of working is negative.

workers make decisions based on the marginal benefit of each hour worked compared to the marginal cost of work.

Question 27

The slope of the line shown in the above figure is

5/2.

2/5.

5.

2/3.

2.

Question 28

Which figure above shows the effect of an increase in the cost of the tomato sauce used to produce pizza?

Figure D

Both Figure B and Figure C

Figure C

Figure B

Figure A

Question 29

A student at New York University used to take the Redhound bus when she visited her grandmother in Boston. After graduating, although the bus fare and the plane fare were the same as they were when she was a student, with a well-paid job on Wall Street she now takes the plane to Boston to visit her grandmother. For this student, travel by Redhound bus is

a substitute good.

a good with negative preferences.

a normal good.

a complement good.

an inferior good.

Question 30

A graph shows that the number of U.S. tourists visiting a Caribbean island increases as the temperature in the northeastern United States falls. The graph shows

a direct relationship.

an invalid relationship.

a negative relationship.

a positive relationship.

no relationship.

Question 31

The income elasticity of demand is a measure of

how responsive suppliers are to changes in the price of a product.

how demand for a product changes when the price of a substitute or complement product changes.

the extent to which the supply of a good changes when the demand changes as a result of a change in income.

how responsive consumers are to changes in the price of a product.

the extent to which the demand for a good changes when income changes.

Question 32

Moving from one point to another on a production possibilities frontier implies

increasing the production of one good and decreasing the production of another.

decreasing the production of both goods.

changing the amount of factors of production that are employed.

increasing the production of both goods.

holding the production levels of both goods constant.

Question 33

Suppose the Chicago Bears football team raises ticket prices by 13 percent and as a result the quantity of tickets demanded decreases by 21 percent. This response means that the demand for Bears tickets is

unit elastic.

elastic.

inelastic.

perfectly elastic.

perfectly inelastic.

Question 34

The American Dairy Association starts a highly successful advertising campaign that makes most people want to drink more milk. As a result,

the demand for milk increases.

the demand for milk is not affected.

the demand for milk decreases because the price of milk rises.

the quantity demanded of milk increases.

the price of milk falls to encourage people to drink more milk.

Question 35

Price

(dollars per gasoline)

Quantity demanded (gallons of gasoline)

Quantity supplied (gallons of gasoline)

3.73

337,982

441, 074

3.68

396, 398

428, 008

3.65

412, 031

412, 031

3.62

417, 899

391, 665

 

The table above shows the situation in the gasoline market in Tulsa, Oklahoma. If the price of a gallon of gasoline is $2.30 then

Without more information we cannot determine if there is a surplus, a shortage, or an equilibrium in the gasoline market in Tulsa.

there is a shortage of gasoline in Tulsa.

the gasoline market in Tulsa is in equilibrium.

there is a surplus of gasoline in Tulsa.

There is neither a surplus nor a shortage, but the market is NOT in equilibrium.

Question 36

The law of supply states that, other things remaining the same,

if the price of a good increases, firms buy less of it.

if the price of a good increases, the supply increases.

demand increases when supply increases.

as people’s income increase, the supply of goods increases.

if the price of a good increases, the quantity supplied increases.

Question 37

Milk can be used to produce cheese or butter. If the price of a pound of butter rises, what happens to the supply of cheese?

The supply of cheese decreases.

The supply of cheese increases.

The supply of cheese stays the same, and there is no change in the quantity supplied of cheese.

The supply of cheese could increase, decrease, or stay the same depending on what happens to the supply of butter.

The supply of cheese stays the same, and there is a decrease in the quantity supplied of cheese.

Question 38

A trend is

the minimum value of a variable.

a general tendency for a variable to rise or fall.

the difference between the maximum value of a variable and the minimum value of the variable.

a measure of closeness on a scatter diagram.

the maximum value of a variable.

Question 39

The figure above shows a

trend diagram.

cross-section graph.

time-series graph.

slope.

scatter diagram.

Question 40

The question “Should economics majors or sociology majors earn more after they graduate?” is an example of a ________ question.

for whom

why

where

how

what

Economics Question

In an effort to make the distribution of income more nearly equal, the government of a country passes a tax law that changes the Lorenz curve from

y = 0.97x2.1 for one year to y = 0.36x2 + 0.64x for the next year. Find the Gini coefficient of income for both years. (Round your answers to three decimal places.)

Before

After

 

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ECO 372 Final Exam Guide (New 2018)

ECO 372 Final Exam Guide (New 2018)

1.

Martha lends $200 to a friend who promises to return it after a year. Instead of lending it to her friend, Martha could have put the money in a bank where she could have earned an interest rate of 2 percent per annum. Martha’s opportunity cost of lending the money is _____.

A.$2

B.$204

C.$200

  1. $4

 

2

The exhibit given below shows the short-run aggregate demand and supply curves in an economy, AD1 and AS1, and the long-run aggregate supply curve, LRAS. The economy was initially in equilibrium when there was a decrease in aggregate demand, causing a shift of the aggregate demand curve from

  1. AD1 to AD2. Which of the following is true in this case?

 

  1. The economy will move from point B to point A in the short run and then to point C in the long run.

 

  1. The economy will move from point C to point B in the short run and then eventually to point A.

 

  1. The economy will move from point D to point A in the short run and then to point C in the long run.

 

  1. The economy will move from point D to point C in the long run.

 

3

Suppose an economy is in long-run equilibrium. An increase in consumption expenditure will:

 

 

  1. shift the short-run aggregate supply curve rightward and increase both the price level and real output in the long run.

 

  1. decrease both the price level and real gross domestic product in the long run.

 

  1. increase the price level in the long run but have no effect on real gross domestic product.

 

  1. shift the aggregate demand curve rightward and increase the real output in the long run.

 

 

4

In the long run, a higher saving rate:

 

  1. always leads to a higher level of productivity because of increasing returns to scale.

 

  1. does not lead to a higher level of income because of deterioration in labor productivity.

 

  1. always leads to a higher growth rate of output because of improvement in the stock of human capital.

 

  1. does not always lead to a higher growth rate of output because of diminishing returns to capital.

 

5.

Suppose the net foreign investment in Italy is positive. This implies that:

 

  1. Italians are buying more foreign assets than foreigners are buying Italian assets.

 

  1. foreigners are buying relatively more Italian assets.

 

  1. Italy is experiencing a net capital inflow.

 

  1. foreign direct investment in Italy is higher than foreign portfolio investment in the country.

 

 

6)

The circular-flow diagram shows that:

 

  1. firms receive wages and profits from households in the products market.

 

  1. households sell the factors of production to firms in the inputs market.

 

  1. households supply resources to firms in the products market.

 

  1. firms supply labor and other resources to the government in the factor market.

 

 

 

7)

The table given below shows the total amount of spending in the country of Mesodonia. Mesodonia’s

Mesodonia’s gross domestic product is:

Components of GDP             Value in millions

consumption                           $110

Investment                             $1400

Gov. expenditure                  $3200

Exports                                   $400

Imports                                    $550

 

Which one?

 

  1. $5,660 million.
  2. $4,710 million.
  3. $4,160 million.
  4. $4,560 million.

 

 

8

 

The country of Merilya exported goods and services worth $1.2 million and imported goods and services worth $2.7 million. The net exports of the country was _____.

 

  1. 3.9 million, and it had a trade surplus

 

  1. −$1.5 million, and it had a trade deficit

 

  1. $2 million, and it had a trade surplus

 

  1. −$3.9 million, and it had a trade deficit

 

 

9

Suppose the Fed purchases government bonds through open-market operations. All other things remaining equal, this is likely to:

 

  1. decrease the price level and increase the real wealth of consumers.

 

  1. decrease the price level and make domestic goods less expensive relative to foreign goods.

 

  1. increase the price level and eventually decrease the interest rate and investment spending.

 

  1. increase the price level and eventually decrease the demand for money as well as goods and services.

 

 

10

A rise in the price of bacon from $14 per pound to $16 per pound will reduce the purchasing power of the dollar by:

 

  1. 0.55 pounds of bacons.

 

  1. 0.06 pounds of bacon.

 

  1. 5 pounds of bacon.

 

  1. 2 pounds of bacon.

 

 

11.

A difference between commodity money and fiat money is that:

 

  1. fiat money cannot be used as a unit of account.

 

  1. commodity money is used in a barter economy.

 

  1. fiat money does not have any intrinsic value.

 

  1. commodity money cannot be used as a unit of account.

 

 

 

12

Suppose the net capital outflow from Zenovia is negative. This implies that:

 

  1. the real interest rate in Zenovia is high.

 

  1. the real interest rate in foreign countries is higher than in Zenovia.

 

  1. foreigners are not interested in buying assets in Zenovia.

 

  1. the citizens of Zenovia are investing more in foreign assets than foreigners are investing in assets in Zenovia.

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13

There is an increase in human capital when _____.

 

  1. Shiroh persuades the management of her company to offer more perks to employees

 

  1. Sue rents a laser printer to teach her employees how to fix it

 

  1. Samantha receives training in quality management after joining a new firm

 

  1. Susie puts in more than 8 hours of work at her workplace every day

 

 

14

After retirement, Molly deposits $500,000 in a local bank in Merrina. At an interest rate of 4 percent, she will receive approximately _____ after 3 years.

 

 

  1. $662,345
  2. $608,326
  3. $562,432
  4. $750,000

 

 

15

Ruth wants to calculate the present value of a sum of money that she will receive after the demise of her grandparents. To calculate the present value, she should use the:

 

 

  1. expenditure method.

 

  1. discounting method.

 

  1. value-added method.

 

  1. compounding method.

 

 

16

The buyers and sellers in the country of Perylia use corn as a medium of exchange. This means that:

 

  1. Perylia uses commodity money.

 

  1. corn cannot be used as a store of value or as a unit of account in Perylia.

 

  1. Perylia uses fiat money.

 

  1. corn can be used as a store of value but not as a unit of account in Perylia.

 

 

17

Scarcity occurs because of:

 

  1. the excess of quantity supplied over quantity demanded.

 

  1. overutilization of labor.

 

  1. limited human needs and wants.

 

  1. the limited supply of resources.

 

 

18

The Phillips curve shows:

 

 

  1. the negative relationship between inflation and unemployment.

 

  1. the positive relationship between the interest rate and the supply of money.

 

  1. the positive relationship between the price level and aggregate supply.

 

  1. the negative relationship between the interest rate and the demand for money.

 

 

19

Ephlon Inc., an Italian bike manufacturer, opens a factory in the United States. This is an example of:

 

 

  1. the accumulation of human capital.

 

  1. the catch-up effect.

 

  1. a foreign direct investment.

 

  1. a foreign portfolio investment.

 

 

20

Jack is an out-of-work sculptor. He has been looking for a job for the last two years. Unable to find any, he has given up his job search. Which of the following is true in this case?

 

 

  1. This is an example of frictional unemployment.

 

  1. This is an example of structural unemployment.

 

  1. He is a part of the unemployed labor force.

 

  1. He is a discouraged worker and will not be included in the calculation of the unemployment rate.

 

21

Suppose the central bank of a country undertakes an expansionary monetary policy. Which of the following is most likely to be the effect of such a policy, all other things remaining unchanged?

 

  1. An increase in the price level that reduces the real value of households’ money holdings and stimulates consumer spending

 

  1. An increase in the price level that stimulates spending on net exports and increases the demand for money

 

  1. A decrease in the price level that reduces the amount of money that people want to hold and decreases the interest rate.

 

  1. A decrease in the price level that reduces the interest rate and lowers the real value of the domestic currency foreign-exchange market.

 

22

Following the unexpected good performance of Leathex, all its employees were given a one-time bonus. This consequently led to a rightward shift of the demand curve for shoes manufactured by the company and a leftward shift of the demand curve for socks. This shows that shoes are:

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  1. inferior goods.

 

  1. substitutes.

 

  1. normal goods.

 

  1. complementary goods.

 

23

A higher interest rate in a country:

 

  1. encourages citizens to buy foreign assets.

 

  1. makes domestic bonds less attractive to foreigners.

 

  1. lowers saving in the country and decreases the quantity of loanable funds supplied.•

 

  1. discourages investment and decreases the quantity of loanable funds demanded.

 

 

24

If the price level in an economy is 120 and the equilibrium price level is 100, _____.•

 

  1. people will want to hold more money than is supplied by the central bank•

 

  1. the demand for money curve will shift to the left

 

  1. the purchasing power of money will increase

 

  1. the supply of money is likely to exceed the demand for money

 

 

25

A recent survey showed the health benefits of cranberry juice for treating heart and other respiratory disorders. The exhibit below shows that the initial demand curve for cranberry juice is D1. Which of the following is likely to be a consequence of the publication of the survey?

 

  1. The demand curve will shift from D1 to D3.

 

  1. There will be a movement from point A to point C on D1.

 

  1. The demand curve will shift from D1 to D2.

 

  1. There will be a movement from point A to point B on D1.

 

 

26

Keynesian economists believe that when an economy is in a recession, the government should:

 

  1. decrease tax rates rather than increase government spending because households always view such tax cuts as permanent and increase their current consumption.

 

  1. increase its purchases rather than decrease taxes because households save a part of the increase in their income as a result of tax cuts.

 

  1. increase the money supply in the economy so that interest rates decline, reducing the cost of borrowing to finance new investment projects.

 

  1. increase the money supply in the economy so that an excess supply of money can induce households to increase their consumption expenditure.

 

 

27

The Marions purchased a Persian rug worth $5,000 from an Iranian textile mill. Everything else remaining unchanged, this will:

 

  1. decrease the consumption expenditure in the domestic country by $5,000.

 

  1. decrease the net imports of the domestic country by $5,000.

 

  1. reduce the net exports of the domestic country by $5,000.

 

  1. increase the gross domestic product of the domestic country by $5,000.

 

 

 

 

28

As more capital is used in the production process, the amount of other inputs being fixed, the production function becomes:

 

  1. flat because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital decreases.

 

  1. steep because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital decreases.

 

  1. steep because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital increases.

 

  1. flat because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital increases.

 

 

29

The natural rate of unemployment in a country is 4 percent. This implies that:•

 

  1. the country has an unemployment rate of 4 percent in the short run.•

 

  1. the country has a 4 percent unemployment rate when the labor market is in equilibrium. •

 

  1. 4 percent of the labor force is unemployed at any given point of time.

 

  1. the unemployment rate is constant at 4 percent over time.

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30

 

 

Which of the following is true according to the circular-flow diagram?

 

  1. Firms receive wages, rent, and profit from the government.

 

  1. Firms receive income from households.

 

  1. Households receive revenue from the government.

 

  1. Households receive wages, rent, and profit from firms.

 

ECO 372 Final Exam

1 The Marions purchased a Persian rug worth $5,000 from an Iranian textile mill. Everything else remaining unchanged, this will:

decrease the net imports of the domestic country by $5,000.
decrease the consumption expenditure in the domestic country by $5,000.
reduce the net exports of the domestic country by $5,000.
increase the gross domestic product of the domestic country by $5,000.

 

 

2 The table given below shows the total amount of spending in the country of Mesodonia. Mesodonia’s gross domestic product is:

$5,660 million.
$4,560 million.
$4,160 million.
$4,710 million.

 

3 The circular-flow diagram shows that:
firms receive wages and profits from households in the products market.
households sell the factors of production to firms in the inputs market.
households supply resources to firms in the products market.
firms supply labor and other resources to the government in the factor market.

 

4 Martha lends $200 to a friend who promises to return it after a year. Instead of lending it to her friend, Martha could have put the money in a bank where she could have earned an interest rate of 2 percent per annum. Martha’s opportunity cost of lending the money is _____.

$204
$200
$2
$4

 

5 Following the unexpected good performance of Leathex, all its employees were given a one-time bonus. This consequently led to a rightward shift of the demand curve for shoes manufactured by the company and a leftward shift of the demand curve for socks. This shows that shoes are:

normal goods.
complementary goods.
substitutes.
inferior goods.

 

6 Ephlon Inc., an Italian bike manufacturer, opens a factory in the United States. This is an example of:

the catch-up effect.
the accumulation of human capital.
a foreign portfolio investment.
a foreign direct investment.

 

7 Which of the following is true according to the circular-flow diagram?

Households receive revenue from the government.
Firms receive income from households.
Firms receive wages, rent, and profit from the government.
Households receive wages, rent, and profit from firms.

 

8 Scarcity occurs because of:
overutilization of labor.
the limited supply of resources.
limited human needs and wants.
the excess of quantity supplied over quantity demanded.

 

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9 In the long run, a higher saving rate:
does not always lead to a higher growth rate of output because of diminishing returns to capital.
does not lead to a higher level of income because of deterioration in labor productivity.
always leads to a higher growth rate of output because of improvement in the stock of human capital.
always leads to a higher level of productivity because of increasing returns to scale.

 

 

10 The buyers and sellers in the country of Perylia use corn as a medium of exchange. This means that:
corn can be used as a store of value but not as a unit of account in Perylia.
Perylia uses fiat money.
Perylia uses commodity money.
corn cannot be used as a store of value or as a unit of account in Perylia.

 

11 Suppose the net foreign investment in Italy is positive. This implies that:

Italy is experiencing a net capital inflow.
foreigners are buying relatively more Italian assets.
foreign direct investment in Italy is higher than foreign portfolio investment in the country.
Italians are buying more foreign assets than foreigners are buying Italian assets.

 

12 The exhibit given below shows the short-run aggregate demand and supply curves in an economy, AD1 and AS1, and the long-run aggregate supply curve, LRAS. The economy was initially in equilibrium when there was a decrease in aggregate demand, causing a shift of the aggregate demand curve from AD1 to AD2. Which of the following is true in this case?

The economy will move from point D to point A in the short run and then to point C in the long run.
The economy will move from point B to point A in the short run and then to point C in the long run.
The economy will move from point C to point B in the short run and then eventually to point A.
The economy will move from point D to point C in the long run.

 

13 A difference between commodity money and fiat money is that:

fiat money cannot be used as a unit of account.
commodity money cannot be used as a unit of account.
commodity money is used in a barter economy.
fiat money does not have any intrinsic value.

 

 

 

14 As more capital is used in the production process, the amount of other inputs being fixed, the production function becomes:

steep because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital decreases.
flat because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital decreases.
flat because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital increases.
steep because the extra output produced from an additional unit of capital increases.

 

15 Suppose the Fed purchases government bonds through open-market operations. All other things remaining equal, this is likely to:

decrease the price level and make domestic goods less expensive relative to foreign goods.
decrease the price level and increase the real wealth of consumers.
increase the price level and eventually decrease the demand for money as well as goods and services.
increase the price level and eventually decrease the interest rate and investment spending.

 

16 Jack is an out-of-work sculptor. He has been looking for a job for the last two years. Unable to find any, he has given up his job search. Which of the following is true in this case?

This is an example of frictional unemployment.
He is a discouraged worker and will not be included in the calculation of the unemployment rate.
This is an example of structural unemployment.
He is a part of the unemployed labor force.

 

17 The country of Merilya exported goods and services worth $1.2 million and imported goods and services worth $2.7 million. The net exports of the country was _____.

$2 million, and it had a trade surplus
−$3.9 million, and it had a trade deficit
$3.9 million, and it had a trade surplus
−$1.5 million, and it had a trade deficit

 

18 If the price level in an economy is 120 and the equilibrium price level is 100, _____.

the supply of money is likely to exceed the demand for money
the demand for money curve will shift to the left
people will want to hold more money than is supplied by the central bank
the purchasing power of money will increase

 

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19 A recent survey showed the health benefits of cranberry juice for treating heart and other respiratory disorders. The exhibit below shows that the initial demand curve for cranberry juice is D1. Which of the following is likely to be a consequence of the publication of the survey?
The demand curve will shift from D1 to D2.
There will be a movement from point A to point C on D1.
The demand curve will shift from D1 to D3.
There will be a movement from point A to point B on D1.

 

20 Suppose the central bank of a country undertakes an expansionary monetary policy. Which of the following is most likely to be the effect of such a policy, all other things remaining unchanged?

A decrease in the price level that reduces the amount of money that people want to hold and decreases the interest rate.
A decrease in the price level that reduces the interest rate and lowers the real value of the domestic currency foreign-exchange market.
An increase in the price level that stimulates spending on net exports and increases the demand for money
An increase in the price level that reduces the real value of households’ money holdings and stimulates consumer spending

 

21 The Phillips curve shows:

the positive relationship between the price level and aggregate supply.
the positive relationship between the interest rate and the supply of money.
the negative relationship between inflation and unemployment.
the negative relationship between the interest rate and the demand for money.

 

22 A rise in the price of bacon from $14 per pound to $16 per pound will reduce the purchasing power of the dollar by:

5 pounds of bacon.
0.55 pounds of bacons.
2 pounds of bacon.
0.06 pounds of bacon.

 

23 There is an increase in human capital when _____.

Susie puts in more than 8 hours of work at her workplace every day
Sue rents a laser printer to teach her employees how to fix it
Shiroh persuades the management of her company to offer more perks to employees
Samantha receives training in quality management after joining a new firm

 

24 Suppose an economy is in long-run equilibrium. An increase in consumption expenditure will:

decrease both the price level and real gross domestic product in the long run.
increase the price level in the long run but have no effect on real gross domestic product.
shift the aggregate demand curve rightward and increase the real output in the long run.
shift the short-run aggregate supply curve rightward and increase both the price level and real output in the long run.

 

25 After retirement, Molly deposits $500,000 in a local bank in Merrina. At an interest rate of 4 percent, she will receive approximately _____ after 3 years.

$662,345
$608,326
$562,432
$750,000

 

26 Ruth wants to calculate the present value of a sum of money that she will receive after the demise of her grandparents. To calculate the present value, she should use the:

discounting method.
value-added method.
expenditure method.
compounding method.

 

27 A higher interest rate in a country:

makes domestic bonds less attractive to foreigners.
lowers saving in the country and decreases the quantity of loanable funds supplied.
discourages investment and decreases the quantity of loanable funds demanded.
encourages citizens to buy foreign assets.

 

28 Keynesian economists believe that when an economy is in a recession, the government should:

increase its purchases rather than decrease taxes because households save a part of the increase in their income as a result of tax cuts.
increase the money supply in the economy so that interest rates decline, reducing the cost of borrowing to finance new investment projects.
decrease tax rates rather than increase government spending because households always view such tax cuts as permanent and increase their current consumption.
increase the money supply in the economy so that an excess supply of money can induce households to increase their consumption expenditure.

 

29 The natural rate of unemployment in a country is 4 percent. This implies that:

4 percent of the labor force is unemployed at any given point of time.
the unemployment rate is constant at 4 percent over time.
the country has a 4 percent unemployment rate when the labor market is in equilibrium.
the country has an unemployment rate of 4 percent in the short run.

 

30 Suppose the net capital outflow from Zenovia is negative. This implies that:

the real interest rate in Zenovia is high.
the citizens of Zenovia are investing more in foreign assets than foreigners are investing in assets in Zenovia.
the real interest rate in foreign countries is higher than in Zenovia.
foreigners are not interested in buying assets in Zenovia

 

 

Eco/372 Macroeconomics

Resources: National Bureau of Economic Research; Principles of Macroeconomics: Ch. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7 

Scenario: Your organization’s CEO is concerned that members of the strategic planning committee are not familiar with current economic thought and principles. The CEO has assigned you the task of developing a report to introduce some of these thoughts and principles. 

Develop a 1,050-word report to the members of the strategic planning committee explaining the following information:

  • How economists are both scientists and policymakers and what principles society uses to allocate its scarce resources.
  • Using the circular flow model, explain the flow of money and goods in an economy.
  • How the economy coordinates society’s independent economic actors.
  • A country’s gross domestic product (GDP) and how it is defined and calculated.
  • How the consumer price index (CPI) is constructed and why it is an imperfect measurement of the cost of living.

Format the assignment consistent with APA guidelines. 

 

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Phoenix Eco/365 Ten Principles Of Economics And How Markets Work

Purpose of Assignment

In Week 1, students are introduced to the ten fundamental principles  on which the study of economics is based. Throughout this course, the  students will use these ten principles to better develop their  understanding of economics and how society manages its scarce resources.  Students will see how markets work using supply and demand for a good  to determine both the quantity produced and the price at which the good  sells. The concepts of equilibrium and elasticity are used to explain  the sensitivity of quantity supplied and quantity demanded to changes in  economic variables. Students will see how government policies impact  prices and quantities in markets.

 

Assignment Steps

Resources: Principles of Microeconomics, Ch. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 6.

Prepare an 875-word research paper as part of a  marketing research committee for your organization about current  microeconomic thought and theory.

Identify the fundamental lessons the Ten Principles of Economics teaches regarding:

  • How people make decisions
  • How people interact
  • How the economy works as a whole 

Explain the following to help the committee members understand how markets work:

  • How society manages its scarce resources and benefits from economic interdependence.
  • Why the demand curve slopes downward and the supply curve slopes upward. 

o    Where the point of equilibrium is and what does it determine?

  • The impact of price controls, taxes, and elasticity on changes in supply, demand and equilibrium prices.

Format consistent with APA guidelines.

 

Assumptions of ordinary least square

Describe the major assumptions of ordinary least squares and define the  error term

The necessary OLS assumptions, which are used to derive the OLS estimators in linear regression models, are discussed below. OLS Assumption 1: The linear regression model is “linear in parameters.” When the dependent variable (Y)(Y)(Y) is a linear function of independent variables (X′s)(X’s)(X′s) and the error term, the regression is linear in parameters and not necessarily linear in X′sX’sX′s. For example, consider the following: A1. The linear regression model is “linear in parameters.” A2. There is a random sampling of observations. A3. The conditional mean should be zero. A4. There is no multi-collinearity (or perfect collinearity). A5. Spherical errors: There is homoscedasticity and no autocorrelation A6: Optional Assumption: Error terms should be normally distributed. a)Y=β0+β1X1+β2X2+εa)\quad Y={ \beta }_{ 0 }+{ \beta }_{ 1 }{ X }_{ 1 }+{ \beta }_{ 2 }{ X }_{ 2 }+\varepsilona)Y=β0​+β1​X1​+β2​X2​+ε b)Y=β0+β1X12+β2X2+εb)\quad Y={ \beta }_{ 0 }+{ \beta }_{ 1 }{ X }_{ { 1 }^{ 2 } }+{ \beta }_{ 2 }{ X }_{ 2 }+\varepsilonb)Y=β0​+β1​X12​+β2​X2​+ε c)Y=β0+β12X1+β2X2+εc)\quad Y={ \beta }_{ 0 }+{ \beta }_{ { 1 }^{ 2 } }{ X }_{ 1 }+{ \beta }_{ 2 }{ X }_{ 2 }+\varepsilonc)Y=β0​+β12​X1​+β2​X2​+ε In the above three examples, for a) and b) OLS assumption 1 is satisfied. For c) OLS assumption 1 is not satisfied because it is not linear in parameter β1{ \beta }_{ 1 }β1​. OLS Assumption 2: There is a random sampling of observations This assumption of OLS regression …

Difference between Economic growth and Economic Development

Cleary Distinguish between economic development and economic growth

The theory of comparative advantage

Cleary describe the benefits of this theory to a nation’s economy

ACC 291 Week 5 Practice: Connect Practice Assignment

ACC 291 Week 5 Practice: Connect Practice Assignment

attempt 1

1

Healthy Eating Foods Company is a distributor of nutritious snack foods such as granola bars. On December 31, 2019, the firm’s general ledger contained the accounts and balances that follow.

Required:

Record adjusting entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record closing entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record reversing entries in the general journal as of January 1, 2020.
Analyze:

Assuming that the firm did not record a reversing entry for salaries payable, what entry is required when salaries of $6,000 are paid on January 3?

 

2

Good to Go Auto Products distributes automobile parts to service stations and repair shops. The adjusted trial balance data that follows is from the firm’s worksheet for the year ended December 31, 2019

Accounts    Debit    Credit
Cash    $    99,000
Petty Cash Fund         600
Notes Receivable, due 2020         15,000
Accounts Receivable         140,200
Allowance for Doubtful Accounts                   $    3,800
Interest Receivable         150
Merchandise Inventory         128,500
Warehouse Supplies         3,300
Office Supplies         700
Prepaid Insurance         4,640
Land         16,000
Building         107,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Building                        16,700
Warehouse Equipment         19,800
Accumulated Depreciation—Warehouse Equipment                        9,500
Office Equipment         9,400
Accumulated Depreciation—Office Equipment                        3,900
Notes Payable, due 2020                        15,000
Accounts Payable                        56,900
Interest Payable                        400
Loans Payable—Long-Term                        17,000
Mortgage Payable                        20,000
Colin O’Brien, Capital (Jan. 1)                        326,870
Colin O’Brien, Drawing         70,650
Income Summary         131,400              128,500
Sales                        1,110,300
Sales Returns and Allowances         8,400
Interest Income                        580
Purchases         463,000
Freight In         9,800
Purchases Returns and Allowances                        13,650
Purchases Discounts                        9,240
Warehouse Wages Expense         108,600
Warehouse Supplies Expense         5,800
Depreciation Expense—Warehouse Equipment         3,400
Salaries Expense—Sales         151,700
Travel Expense         24,000
Delivery Expense         37,425
Salaries Expense—Office         85,000
Office Supplies Expense         1,220
Insurance Expense         9,875
Utilities Expense         8,000
Telephone Expense         3,280
Payroll Taxes Expense         31,600
Building Repairs Expense         3,700
Property Taxes Expense         16,400
Uncollectible Accounts Expense         3,580
Depreciation Expense—Building         5,600
Depreciation Expense—Office Equipment         1,620
Interest Expense         4,000
Totals    $    1,732,340         $    1,732,340
Required:

Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The expense accounts represent warehouse expenses, selling expenses, and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the period.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019. The mortgage payable extends for more than one year.
Analyze:

What percentage of total operating expenses is attributable to warehouse expenses?

 

3

Superior Hardwood Company distributes hardwood products to small furniture manufacturers. The adjusted trial balance data given below is from the firm’s worksheet for the year ended December 31, 2019.

ACCOUNTS    Debit    Credit
Cash    $    34,100
Petty Cash Fund         500
Notes Receivable, due 2020         11,800
Accounts Receivable         86,000
Allowance for Doubtful Accounts                   $    6,000
Merchandise Inventory         234,000
Warehouse Supplies         2,860
Office Supplies         1,420
Prepaid Insurance         10,200
Land         46,000
Building         178,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Building                        54,000
Warehouse Equipment         37,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Warehouse Equipment                        17,400
Delivery Equipment         51,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Delivery Equipment                        19,600
Office Equipment         25,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Office Equipment                        12,000
Notes Payable, due 2020                        20,200
Accounts Payable                        49,000
Interest Payable                        580
Mortgage Payable                        61,000
Loans Payable, Long-term                        17,000
Charles Ronie, Capital (Jan. 1)                        452,460
Charles Ronie, Drawing         127,000
Income Summary         244,000              234,000
Sales                        1,685,000
Sales Returns and Allowances         18,200
Interest Income                        1,580
Purchases         767,000
Freight In         13,800
Purchases Returns and Allowances                        8,440
Purchases Discounts                        11,160
Warehouse Wages Expense         199,600
Warehouse Supplies Expense         7,100
Depreciation Expense—Warehouse Equipment         5,800
Salaries Expense—Sales         269,200
Travel and Entertainment Expense         21,500
Delivery Wages Expense         60,330
Depreciation Expense—Delivery Equipment         9,800
Salaries Expense—Office         70,600
Office Supplies Expense         4,000
Insurance Expense         6,200
Utilities Expense         9,290
Telephone Expense         6,520
Payroll Taxes Expense         59,000
Property Taxes Expense         5,600
Uncollectible Accounts Expense         5,800
Depreciation Expense—Building         9,000
Depreciation Expense—Office Equipment         4,000
Interest Expense         8,200
Totals    $    2,649,420         $    2,649,420
Required:

Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The expense accounts represent warehouse expenses, selling expenses, and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the period.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019. The mortgage payable extends for more than a year.
Analyze:

What is the current ratio for this business?

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4

The data below concerns adjustments to be made at Coffee Bean Importers.

Adjustments

On November 1, 2019, the firm signed a lease for a warehouse and paid rent of $21,000 in advance for a six-month period.
On December 31, 2019, an inventory of supplies showed that items costing $1,940 were on hand. The balance of the Suppliesaccount was $11,880.
A depreciation schedule for the firm’s equipment shows that a total of $10,750 should be charged off as depreciation in 2019.
On December 31, 2019, the firm owed salaries of $6,100 that will not be paid until January 2020.
On December 31, 2019, the firm owed the employer’s social security (6.2 percent) and Medicare (1.45 percent) taxes on all accrued salaries.
On October 1, 2019, the firm received a five-month, 8 percent note for $6,500 from a customer with an overdue balance.
Required:

Record the adjusting entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record reversing entries in the general journal as of January 1, 2020.
Analyze:

After the adjusting entries have been posted, what is the balance of the Prepaid Rent account on January 1, 2020?

 

5

The Artisan Wines is a retail store selling vintage wines. On December 31, 2019, the firm’s general ledger contained the accounts and balances below. All account balances are normal.

Required:

Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The company does not classify its operating expenses as selling expenses and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the year.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019.
Analyze:

What is the inventory turnover for Artisan Wines?

 

Explanation
Analyze:

The inventory turnover for Artisan Wines is 6.59 times, calculated as follows:

Cost of good sold    =    92,225    =    6.59
Average inventory    14,000

Average inventory    =    13,000 + 15,000    =    14,000
2
 

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attempt 2

1

The data below concerns adjustments to be made at Coffee Bean Importers.

Adjustments

On November 1, 2019, the firm signed a lease for a warehouse and paid rent of $21,000 in advance for a six-month period.
On December 31, 2019, an inventory of supplies showed that items costing $1,940 were on hand. The balance of the Suppliesaccount was $11,880.
A depreciation schedule for the firm’s equipment shows that a total of $10,750 should be charged off as depreciation in 2019.
On December 31, 2019, the firm owed salaries of $6,100 that will not be paid until January 2020.
On December 31, 2019, the firm owed the employer’s social security (6.2 percent) and Medicare (1.45 percent) taxes on all accrued salaries.
On October 1, 2019, the firm received a five-month, 8 percent note for $6,500 from a customer with an overdue balance.
Required:

Record the adjusting entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record reversing entries in the general journal as of January 1, 2020.
Analyze:

After the adjusting entries have been posted, what is the balance of the Prepaid Rent account on January 1, 2020?

 

2

The Artisan Wines is a retail store selling vintage wines. On December 31, 2019, the firm’s general ledger contained the accounts and balances below. All account balances are normal.

 

Required:

Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The company does not classify its operating expenses as selling expenses and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the year.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019.
Analyze:

What is the inventory turnover for Artisan Wines?

 

3

Healthy Eating Foods Company is a distributor of nutritious snack foods such as granola bars. On December 31, 2019, the firm’s general ledger contained the accounts and balances that follow.

Required:

Record adjusting entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record closing entries in the general journal as of December 31, 2019.
Record reversing entries in the general journal as of January 1, 2020.
Analyze:

Assuming that the firm did not record a reversing entry for salaries payable, what entry is required when salaries of $6,000 are paid on January 3?

 

4

Good to Go Auto Products distributes automobile parts to service stations and repair shops. The adjusted trial balance data that follows is from the firm’s worksheet for the year ended December 31, 2019

Accounts    Debit    Credit
Cash    $    99,000
Petty Cash Fund         600
Notes Receivable, due 2020         15,000
Accounts Receivable         140,200
Allowance for Doubtful Accounts                   $    3,800
Interest Receivable         150
Merchandise Inventory         128,500
Warehouse Supplies         3,300
Office Supplies         700
Prepaid Insurance         4,640
Land         16,000
Building         107,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Building                        16,700
Warehouse Equipment         19,800
Accumulated Depreciation—Warehouse Equipment                        9,500
Office Equipment         9,400
Accumulated Depreciation—Office Equipment                        3,900
Notes Payable, due 2020                        15,000
Accounts Payable                        56,900
Interest Payable                        400
Loans Payable—Long-Term                        17,000
Mortgage Payable                        20,000
Colin O’Brien, Capital (Jan. 1)                        326,870
Colin O’Brien, Drawing         70,650
Income Summary         131,400              128,500
Sales                        1,110,300
Sales Returns and Allowances         8,400
Interest Income                        580
Purchases         463,000
Freight In         9,800
Purchases Returns and Allowances                        13,650
Purchases Discounts                        9,240
Warehouse Wages Expense         108,600
Warehouse Supplies Expense         5,800
Depreciation Expense—Warehouse Equipment         3,400
Salaries Expense—Sales         151,700
Travel Expense         24,000
Delivery Expense         37,425
Salaries Expense—Office         85,000
Office Supplies Expense         1,220
Insurance Expense         9,875
Utilities Expense         8,000
Telephone Expense         3,280
Payroll Taxes Expense         31,600
Building Repairs Expense         3,700
Property Taxes Expense         16,400
Uncollectible Accounts Expense         3,580
Depreciation Expense—Building         5,600
Depreciation Expense—Office Equipment         1,620
Interest Expense         4,000
Totals    $    1,732,340         $    1,732,340
Required:

Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The expense accounts represent warehouse expenses, selling expenses, and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the period.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019. The mortgage payable extends for more than one year.
Analyze:

What percentage of total operating expenses is attributable to warehouse expenses?

 

5

Superior Hardwood Company distributes hardwood products to small furniture manufacturers. The adjusted trial balance data given below is from the firm’s worksheet for the year ended December 31, 2019.

ACCOUNTS    Debit    Credit
Cash    $    34,100
Petty Cash Fund         500
Notes Receivable, due 2020         11,800
Accounts Receivable         86,000
Allowance for Doubtful Accounts                   $    6,000
Merchandise Inventory         234,000
Warehouse Supplies         2,860
Office Supplies         1,420
Prepaid Insurance         10,200
Land         46,000
Building         178,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Building                        54,000
Warehouse Equipment         37,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Warehouse Equipment                        17,400
Delivery Equipment         51,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Delivery Equipment                        19,600
Office Equipment         25,000
Accumulated Depreciation—Office Equipment                        12,000
Notes Payable, due 2020                        20,200
Accounts Payable                        49,000
Interest Payable                        580
Mortgage Payable                        61,000
Loans Payable, Long-term                        17,000
Charles Ronie, Capital (Jan. 1)                        452,460
Charles Ronie, Drawing         127,000
Income Summary         244,000              234,000
Sales                        1,685,000
Sales Returns and Allowances         18,200
Interest Income                        1,580
Purchases         767,000
Freight In         13,800
Purchases Returns and Allowances                        8,440
Purchases Discounts                        11,160
Warehouse Wages Expense         199,600
Warehouse Supplies Expense         7,100
Depreciation Expense—Warehouse Equipment         5,800
Salaries Expense—Sales         269,200
Travel and Entertainment Expense         21,500
Delivery Wages Expense         60,330
Depreciation Expense—Delivery Equipment         9,800
Salaries Expense—Office         70,600
Office Supplies Expense         4,000
Insurance Expense         6,200
Utilities Expense         9,290
Telephone Expense         6,520
Payroll Taxes Expense         59,000
Property Taxes Expense         5,600
Uncollectible Accounts Expense         5,800
Depreciation Expense—Building         9,000
Depreciation Expense—Office Equipment         4,000
Interest Expense         8,200
Totals    $    2,649,420         $    2,649,420
Required:

Prepare a classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019. The expense accounts represent warehouse expenses, selling expenses, and general and administrative expenses.
Prepare a statement of owner’s equity for the year ended December 31, 2019. No additional investments were made during the period.
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2019. The mortgage payable extends for more than a year.
Analyze:

What is the current ratio for this business?

 

SCI 256 Select an ecosystem

SCI 256 Select an ecosystem in your area (forest, lake, desert, grassland).

Write a 600- to 1000-word paper explaining the following:

1)   Describe the structure of your ecosystem including important abiotic features and dominant plant and animal species.
2)   Explain some functions/processes of your ecosystem including one nutrient cycle and one food chain.
3)  Give two examples of species interactions (predation, competition, mutualism, etc.) that occur in your ecosystem.
4)  Identify an invasive species in your ecosystem. Explain its effects on the ecosystem and efforts to control or eradicate it.

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BSBMKG414 Undertake marketing activities

Formative question

Activity 1.

  1. What is marketing? (20-40words)

 

  1. What is the USP? (20-40 words)

 

  1. Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. How does the organisation market itself and what is its USP? (50-75 words)

 

 

 

 

Activity 2.

  1. What might policies and procedures used in the workplace in regard to marketing activities bebased on? (30-50 words)

 

  1. What information can you find in an organisation’s marketing plan in relation to pricing? What will the organisation have taken into account when setting pricing levels? 100-150words

 

 

 

Activity 3.

How can you determine the need for marketing activities? Provide at least three examples.

 

 

 

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Activity 4.

  1. How can you investigate previous marketing activities for relevant information? Provide at least five examples.

 

  1. Describe the meaning of tactical, strategic and investment decision that might have been made in previous marketing activities. 1sentence each

 

 

 

Activity 5.

  1. Explain the value of profiling the market segment. 75-125words

 

  1. Think about a product that has been successfully marketed. Identify the market segments that have been targeted as part of the marketing campaign. 20-40words

 

 

Activity 6.

  1. What is positioning? 1 sentence

 

  1. What is market mix? 20-40words

 

  1. Describe how to create a positioning strategy. 150-200 words

 

 

 

 

Activity 7.

  1. What question might an organisation ask to identify expected marketing activity outcomes? Provides at least three examples.

 

  1. How can colleagues be prepared for marketing activities? Provide at least two examples.

 

 

 

Activity 8.

  1. How can information be analysed? Provide at least three examples

 

  1. What question do you need to ask when conducting a customer analysis? Provide at least five examples

 

 

 

Activity 9.

  1. What steps can be taken to develop activity plans? 1 sentence

 

  1. What resource might be needed for documenting work activities? Provide at least three examples

 

 

 

Activity 10

  1. From whom should you seek approval for plans? Provides at least three examples

 

  1. What processes could you go through to obtain approval of plans? 1 sentence

 

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Activity 11.

  1. What types of resouces can be required for implementing marketing activities? Provide three examples.

 

 

  1. You have been asked to put together a sample bag to be given out at a product launch. What will you need to do? 75-125 words

 

 

Activity 12

  1. What type of marketing activities might an organisation become involved in? Provide at least two examples.

 

  1. Consider an organization with a strong market presence. What types of activities does it undertake? Which  work best? Why? 50-75 words

 

 

 

Activity 13

  1. Outline the responsibilities of a copywriter. 30-50words

 

  1. Who are considered relevant marketing personnel within an organization? Provide at least five examples.

 

 

Activity 14.

  1. How can marketing activities be reviewed? Provide at least five examples.

 

  1. When marketing activities have been reviewed, how can they be amended? 30-50words

 

 

 

 

Activity 15

  1. How can outcomes of marketing activities be measured? Provide at least three examples.

 

 

  1. How can outcomes of marketing activities be documented? Provide at least two examples.

 

 

Activity 16.

  1. Hoe can you review expected outcomes of marketing activities? 40-60words

 

 

  1. How can they be documented? 1 sentence

 

 

 

Acitivty 17.

What are the main components of a report? You shoud able to identify at least 10

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Summative assessment 1

Question 1.

Identify the seven basic steps in planning marketing activities.

 

 

Question 2

List five examples of basic marketing activities.

 

Question 3.

Describe the difference between organisational policies, procedures and practices. 150-200 words

 

Question 4.

Outline how market research can be used to assess suitability of an organisation’s existing products. Why is it difficult to introduce and market a new product or service? 75-100words

 

 

Summative Assessment 2.

Project

The owner of a new animal training school, which uses a special new technique and claims to be able to teach dogs read, contacts your advertising agency.

The short-term goal of the new training school is to expand its small premises on the outskirts of Brisbane to a nationally recognised company with many school in all the major cities and large provincial towns

The long-term goal of the school is to expand, over a 10 year period, from its base in Australia into America.

Describe in a report form how you would put together a team to :

  • Conduct market research
  • Develop product knowledge
  • Examine the situation including previous marketing activities and decide on a plan of action
  • Clearly describe the goals that you have set
  • How you would allocate roles and responsibilities to individuals members of your team
  • What resources will you required (including team members)
  • Set realistic timeline for your campaign
  • Describe how you will obtain budget figures and relate actual cost to the budget
  • Compile and attach an agenda for the inaugural team meetings
  • Outline promotional activities that should be planned and some advertising methods that could be used but may not be appropriate
  • Detail why, in your opinion, they would not be appropriate
  • Describe how you intend to set up relationships with relevant groups and what groups would be targeted
  • What networks will be used to assist in the promotion
  • What brainstorming is and why it can be useful
  • Review marketing activities

1000-2000words

 

 

Production/Operation

 

Draft written responses to the following text questions. Please be sure to answer the whole question as an essay in a thorough manner. Please provide at least a full page of text

 

  1. Define Inventory and give 5 examples of inventory
  2. Give 4 reasons to hold inventory
  3. What is the difference between fixed order quantity and fixed order interval in inventory management?
  4. Explain briefly what does the 80/20 rule means in inventory management

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DEVRY POLI330 Week 8 Final Exam 1

  1. (TCO 1) Historians and political scientists are different because historians _____ and political scientists _____. (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) Historians look for generalizations, while political scientists are reluctant to generalize
  2. B) Historians are somewhat more reluctant to generalize, while political scientists look for generalizations
  3. C) Historians are much more likely to look for comparisons than political scientists are
  4. D) Historians tend to focus on nature-based explanations, while political scientists focus on nurture-based explanations

 

  1. (TCO 1) The notion that politicians think practically and political scientists think abstractly is indicative of which of the following? (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) Political scientists often train politicians
  2. B) Politicians often train political scientists

C)Political scientists and politicians are different in that the former studies the latter

  1. D) Political scientists and politicians are often indistinguishable

 

  1. (TCO 1) Voting for someone who is charismatic but whose policies might not benefit you would be considered _____ behavior. (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) irrational
  2. B) rational
  3. C) legitimate
  4. D) selfish

 

  1. (TCO 1) _____ is the use of public office for private gain.(Points : 2)

 

  1. A) Sovereignty
  2. B) Corruption
  3. C) Authority
  4. D) Legitimacy

 

  1. (TCO 1) The notion that we acknowledge the rightful roles of our leaders or our laws is known as _____. (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) sovereignty
  2. B) authority
  3. C) legitimacy
  4. D) monarchy

 

  1. (TCO 1) Relating concepts in a way that connects them in an empirical manner is the basis of _____

 

  1. A) scholarship
  2. B) theory
  3. C) power
  4. D) culture

 

  1. (TCO 1) The term for measuring with numbers is _____. (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) quantify
  2. B) hypothesis
  3. C) qualify
  4. D) empirical

 

  1. (TCO 4) The English common law stressed the rights of free and equal men and was developed on the basis of precedent set by earlier judges, known today as _____. (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) judge-made law

 

  1. B) judicial precedent

 

  1. C) example by trial

 

  1. D) court-generated

 

  1. (TCO 4) Which of the following issues is a civil concern? (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) Extortion

 

  1. B) Theft

 

  1. C) Divorce

 

  1. D) Trafficking

 

  1. (TCO 4) The concept of judicial review falls under which article of the U.S. Constitution?(Points : 2)

 

  1. A) Article I: The Legislative Branch

 

  1. B) Article III: The Judicial Branch

 

  1. C) Article VI: Debts, Supremacy, Oaths

 

  1. D) Judicial review is not mentioned in the U.S. Constitution.

 

  1. (TCO 4) Who nominates and approves federal judges in the U.S. court system? (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) The President and the Senate

 

  1. B) The Senate and the House

 

  1. C) The President and Speaker of the House

 

  1. D) The Senate and the Secretary of State

 

  1. (TCO 4) Which of the following was an argument against granting the U.S. Supreme Court the power of judicial review? (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) Many feared that such a power would give the Court a double check and compromise its neutrality.

 

  1. B) Some thought that such power would create untrustworthy judges.
  2. C) The founding fathers argued that judicial review would lead to undue indictments by the Court.
  3. D) Drafters of the Constitution feared that few laws would ever be set in stone.

 

  1. (TCO 4) Examine the ideal role of American judges. (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) Judges should intervene frequently, interpreting the law according to their expertise and ensuring a fair trial

 

  1. B) Judges should act as umpires, passively watching the legal drama and ruling only on disputed points of procedure
  2. C) Judges should not intervene unless attorneys object, at which point they may either overrule or sustain the objection

 

  1. D) Judges should take an active role, questioning witnesses, eliciting evidence, and commenting on procedure.

 

  1. (TCO 4) In Lombard v. Louisiana (1963), the Warren Court supported _____, ruling that blacks who had refused to leave a segregated lunch counter could not be prosecuted. (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) boycotts

 

  1. B) sit-ins

 

  1. C) picket lines

 

  1. D) protests

 

  1. (TCO 5) Why do the responsibilities of legislative and executive powers often overlap? (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) Separation of powers is rarely clear-cut
  2. B) Separation of powers is rare among industrialized nations
  3. C) Separation of powers is absolute
  4. D) Separation of powers grants obtuse levels of power to the executive branch.

 

  1. (TCO 5) How often does the cabinet change in a parliamentary system? (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) Every four years
  2. B) Every six years
  3. C) Every eight years
  4. D) When the cabinet is voted out or resigns

 

  1. (TCO 5) Because of the separation of powers inherent in a presidential system, some scholars think that executive­legislative _____ is common in systems like that used in the United States. (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) cooperation
  2. B) stagnation
  3. C) deadlock
  4. D) insolvency

 

  1. (TCO 5) Who directly calls forth the leader of the largest party to take office with a cabinet and become the prime minister? (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) The voters
  2. B) Parliament
  3. C) The monarch
  4. D) The House of Commons

DEVRY POLI330 Week 8 Final Exam 2

  1. (TCO 5) When it comes to electing officials, which factor matters the most to voters in both presidential and parliamentary elections? (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) Party affiliation

 

  1. B) Political ideologies

 

  1. C) Money invested in campaign

 

  1. D) Personality

 

  1. (TCO 5) Who receives the most attention in both parliamentary and presidential systems? (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) Head of state

 

  1. B) Chief executive

 

  1. C) The legislature

 

  1. D) Voting citizens

 

  1. (TCO 5) Describe how the United States expands its cabinet. (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) The president can create a new department at his or her will
  2. B) Congress must agree on the new department and provisions for its funds must be made
  3. C) In order for a new department to be developed, a former one must be deleted
  4. D) New departments are no longer developed

 

  1. (TCO 7) Radicals use the term political economy instead of _____ to describe their critique of capitalism and the inequitable distribution of wealth among nations. (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) Marxism

 

  1. B) laissez-faire

 

  1. C) public-choice

 

  1. D) Keynesian

 

  1. (TCO 7) How do Keynesian economic policies differ from the traditional laissez­faire policies developed by Adam Smith? (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) Laissez-faire policies advocate for “cutthroat” capitalism, while Keynesian policies seek to spread wealth equally among a nation’s citizens
  2. B) Laissez-faire policies advocate for increased spending and stimuli for government-run businesses, while Keynesian economics argues for a hands-free approach
  3. C) Keynesian policies advocate for increased government control of economics, while traditional laissez-faire economics argues for a hands-free approach
  4. D) The more liberal laissez-faire economies distribute wealth more evenly among society, while Keynesian economics tends to distribute wealth among the top one percent

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  1. (TCO 7) What event is largely considered responsible for deterring Johnson’s War on Poverty? (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) Great Society

 

  1. B) Vietnam War

 

  1. C) Middle-class entitlements

 

  1. D) Tax expenditures

 

  1. (TCO 7) Which of the following is an increasing financial concern of the Medicare program? (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) The proportion of older people in American society is increasing steadily

 

  1. B) Every American citizen on reaching 65 obtains Medicare, regardless of class

 

  1. C) Economic inequality renders Medicare more necessary for some than for others

 

  1. D) Wealthy Americans are taking advantage of the Medicare system

 

  1. (TCO 7) Why are many politicians wary about limiting Social Security and Medicare expenses? (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) Many would be left without enough to support them

 

  1. B) Caps to these program would undermine the welfare state

 

  1. C) It can cost them votes

 

  1. D) Both are primary social safety nets

 

  1. (TCO 7) How does the American welfare state compare to those of other industrialized nations? (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) Much less is allocated to welfare in the United States

 

  1. B) Other nations allocate less to welfare than the United States

 

  1. C) The United States allocates about the same to welfare

 

  1. D) Few nations besides the United States maintain funds for welfare

 

  1. (TCO 7) Theoretically, what are the consequences if the government assumes the burden of bad loans? (Points :2)

 

  1. A) Citizens will default on their mortgages

 

  1. B) Banks will learn from their mistakes and pay back the burden with interest

 

  1. C) Ultimately, the government will profit

 

  1. D) Firms will be encouraged to continue their risky behavior

 

  1. (TCO 9) What is the most common response to serious domestic unrest? (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) Revolution

 

  1. B) Coup d’état

 

  1. C) Military takeover

 

  1. D) UN diplomatic action

 

  1. (TCO 9) Riots triggered by police beating youths, protests against globalization, and labor strikes against austerity are all examples of _____. (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) purely traditional violence

 

  1. B) issue-oriented violence

 

  1. C) violence carried out by civilian institutions of government

 

  1. D) coups

 

  1. (TCO 9) What is likely to happen if the people are unhappy and there is no organization to focus their discontent? (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) They will almost assuredly turn to violence

 

  1. B) Not much will happen

 

  1. C) The people will organize themselves, regardless

 

  1. D) They will eventually find other means of achieving contentedness

 

  1. (TCO 9) What about U.S. agencies such as the Department of Homeland Security, the FBI, and the CIA make them so ill prepared to fight terrorism? (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) They have extremely different missions when it comes to terrorism

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  1. B) They are poorly funded

 

  1. C) They have a great deal of red-tape to get through in order to be able to communicate

 

  1. D) They are often unwilling to communicate with each other

 

  1. (TCO 9) According to Hannah Arendt, the American struggle was indeed a revolution, perhaps history’s only complete revolution, _____.(Points : 2)

 

  1. A) for it alone ended with a democratic institutions
  2. B) because it became an example for other nations
  3. C) because it managed to route what was then the great world power
  4. D) for it alone ended with a new foundation of liberty instead of the tyranny that came after other revolutions

 

  1. (TCO 9) Does terrorism work? (Points : 2)

 

  1. A) Rarely, and seldom without political and/or economic pressure
  2. B) Rarely, but primarily when brought against democratic nations
  3. C) Often, and without much need for political pressure to aid it
  4. D) Often, but only with the assistance of economic and/or political pressure

 

  1. (TCO 9) Hannah Arendt pointed out that rage is the fuel of revolution, but what is now the greatest cause of rage?(Points : 2)

 

  1. A) The low level of education in developing nations

 

  1. B) The enormous economic mismanagement in industrialized nations

 

  1. C) The extreme violence utilized by industrialized nations against developing nations

 

  1. D) The massive corruption now found in the developing lands

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POLI330 Week 2 Quiz Latest 2018

Question

Question 1

(TCO 6) Aristotle said that extreme democracies, pure oligarchies, or tyrannies can develop from what cause?

Communities where some possess much

Communities where some have nothing

All of the above

None of the above

Question 2

(TCO 6) Hobbes, Locke, and Rousseau would likely agree on which of the following?

Individuals join and stay in civil society.

Life is nasty and brutish.

Power resided with the proletariat.

Empirical research is important.

Question 3

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 6) Social contracts, the state of nature, and civil society are phrases that are best associated with _____.

the contractualists

Marxists

behavioralism

systems theory

Question 4

(TCO 6) Karl Marx used the term _____ to refer to everything built on top of the economy.

the social contract

institutions

behavioralism

superstructure

Question 5

(TCO 6) Which statement best supports Marxist theories?

The United States provides ample opportunities for all who work hard.

Similarities exist between economies in both Europe and the United States.

Tax breaks will often create jobs, benefiting the working class.

Uneven benefits to corporations with few benefits for workers led to the economic crises in the early 2000s.

Question 6

(TCO 6) Which of the following best describes classical liberalism and modern conservatism?

Classical liberalism is the opposite of modern conservatism.

Classical liberalism is similar to modern conservatism.

Neither classical liberalism, nor modern conservatism continues to exist.

Classical liberalism and modern conservatism were developed by Karl Marx.

Chapter 3, page 37

Question 7

(TCO 6) Thomas Hill Green might agree with which of the following?

No one is forced to take a job he or she doesn’t like.

Unions are necessary to protect workers against business owners.

Taxes should benefit business owners because they allow owners to hire more workers.

Markets regulate themselves.

Question 8

(TCO 6) Where do modern conservatives diverge from Adam Smith?

Adam Smith was resolute in his belief that markets produced fair outcomes, whereas modern conservatives are not.

Adam Smith believed government could help regulate market, but modern conservatives do not.

Modern conservatives believe government can help regulate markets, but Adam Smith did not.

Modern conservatives are resolute in their beliefs that markets are fair, but Adam Smith acknowledged that they could be unfair.

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Question 9

(TCO 6) _____ prefer virtually no government involvement in anything.

Liberals

Conservatives

Marxists

Libertarians

Question 10

(TCO 6) _____ is an extreme form of nationalism.

Liberalism

Conservatism

Socialism

Fascism

POLI330 Week 1 Quiz 

Question

Question 1

(TCO 1) Aristotle’s view that humans live naturally in herds is most related to what explanation for political power?

Biology

Psychology

Anthropology

Economics

Question 2

(TCO 1) The statement “Man is by nature a political animal”is attributed to _____.

Niccolo Machiavelli

Seymour Martin Lipset

Mao Zedong

Aristotle

Question 3

(TCO 1) When people base their views on beliefs that may not be based in reality, they are behaving _____.

irrationally

rationally

politically

legitimately

Question 4

(TCO 1) The notion that we acknowledge the rightful roles of our leaders or our laws is known as _____.

sovereignty

authority

legitimacy

monarchy

Question 5

(TCO 1) Despite a disputed 2000 presidential election, once President George W. Bush took office, few people doubted his _____.

charisma

control

legitimacy

sovereignty

Question 6

(TCO 1) A(n) _____ is an initial theory a researcher starts with to be proved with evidence.

quantify

hypothesis

qualify

empirical

Question 7

(TCO 1) When scholars consider various approaches to studying a given topic, they are most concerned with _____.

reason

balance

theory

rationality

Question 8

(TCO 1) Descriptions of political phenomena often lack _____.

rationality

reasoning

theory

balance

Question 9

(TCO 1) _____ is a subfield of political science.

Public administration

Anthropology

Biology

Sociology

Question 10

(TCO 1) Which are both true for most politicians?

They think practically and are skeptical of power.

They seek popularity and hold firm views.

They offer single causes and think abstractly.

They seek accuracy and offer long-term consequences.

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POLI330 Week 3 Quiz

Question

Question 1

(TCO 2) Hereditary rule by one person is known as _____.

a monarchy

a republic

institutionalization

a state

Question 2

(TCO 2) According to Aristotle, democracy is the _____ form of government by _____.

corrupt; one

corrupt; a few

corrupt; many

legitimate; many

Question 3

(TCO 2) Which of the following descriptions best depicts a federal system of government?

The central government maintains all the power.

The first-order subdivisions maintain all the power.

Federal systems exist where there are no governments.

Federal systems have divided power between a central government and first-order governments.

Question 4

(TCO 2) In a single-member district election, the winner receives a minimum of _____.

a plurality of the votes

50% of the votes

two-thirds of the votes

three-fourths of the votes

Question 5

(TCO 2) If the Green Party receives 15% of the vote in a proportional system, which of the following is likely to happen?

The Green Party would receive no seats.

The Green Party would try to form a coalition with other parties.

The Green Party would attempt to gerrymander districts to its advantage.

The Green Party would demand a recount of the votes.

Question 6

(TCO 2) Welfare states tend to have which of the following combinations of state ownership and welfare benefits?

High levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits

High levels of state ownership but low levels of welfare benefits

Low levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits

Low levels of state ownership and low levels of welfare benefits

Question 7

(TCO 2) The concept of basic law originated in which country?

Britain

France

Germany

United States

Question 8

(TCO 2) Which type of regime has a free media, competitive elections, and protected civil liberties?

Democratic

Transitional

Authoritarian

Totalitarian

Question 9

(TCO 2) The mass media in totalitarian states _____.

show the system is functioning well under wise leaders, but practice a mildly critical attitude toward the official ideology

question the system, but still push the official ideology

show the system is functioning well under wise leaders, and sell the official ideology

question the system only in times of crisis, otherwise selling the official ideology

Question 10

(TCO 2) What are features of an all-encompassing ideology?

An official theory of history and economics, a portrayal of the world in black-and-white terms, and acceptance of an imperfect society

An official theory of history and economics, a portrayal of the world in black-and-white terms, and claims of a perfect society

An eclectic sense of history and economics, a portrayal of the world in complex terms, and claims of a perfect society

An official theory of history and economics, a portrayal of the world in complex terms, and claims of a perfect society

POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elec

POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elections Multimedia Presentation

Create a multimedia presentation of 10 to 12 content slides on political parties, political participation, and the American campaign and election process.  Address the following in your multimedia presentation:

  • Describe the purpose and functions of political parties in the United States and the various ways American citizens can participate in the campaign and election process.
  • What are the function and purpose of caucuses and primary elections in political campaigns, particularly in the presidential election process?
  • What role do national political party conventions play in the presidential election process?
  • Describe the presidential general election campaign and the important factors and events that influence it.
  • What role does the media (TV, radio, the Internet) play in modern political campaigns?
  • What is the role and influence of money in the modern political campaign?

 

Include photos, illustrations, videos, or audio clips, as appropriate. Document the source of each media item you include in your presentation.

Note: A content slide does not include the presentation’s title slide and any slide(s) containing references.

Format your references consistent with APA guidelines. Include any citations in the speaker notes.

Submit your presentation using the Assignment Files tab

  • For Local Campus students, be prepared to deliver in-class a 10- to 12-minute oral presentation accompanied by your slides or multimedia enhancements.
  • For Online Campus students, provide detailed speaker notes for each content slide in the presentation file or in a separate Word document

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POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet

POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet

Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet.

Submit your assignment using the Assignment Files tab.

Electoral College Simulation Exercise

Please review the following chart which contains the Electoral College votes assigned to each state and the District of Columbia, and the popular vote results for each state and the District of Columbia in a simulated American presidential election.  Based on information contained in the chart determine the following

  1. The total popular vote won by Candidate A and Candidate B in the election
  2. Which presidential candidate, A or B, won the Electoral College vote for each state and the District of Columbia, and how many total Electoral College votes did Candidate A and Candidate B receive?. Assume for this simulation that all 50 states and the District of Columbia award their Electoral College votes on a “winner-take-all” basis

 

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Name of StateNumber of Electoral College Votes assigned to statePopular vote for Candidate A cast in the statePopular Vote for Candidate B cast in the stateWhich Candidate, A or B, won the state’s Electoral College vote?

Alabama91,159,245749,948

Alaska3195,227112,878

Arizona111,089,449975,674

Arkansas6554,724478,912

California555,976,0486,350,244

Colorado91,076,1241,055,465

Connecticut7714,368824,202

Delaware3184,348190,229

District of Columbia390,108125,978

Florida294,129,9973,784,259

Georgia161,740,7761,508,254

Hawaii4200,454224,728

Idaho4376,989245,774

Illinois202,529,4272,615,226

Indiana111,257,0701,148,334

Iowa6740,291752,882

Kansas6645,822512,678

Kentucky8997,244878,421

Louisiana81,002,124924,855

Maine4332,427368,399

Maryland101,029,2781,257,722

Massachusetts111,284,5891,596,331

Michigan162,414,7772,391,872

Minnesota101,346,6761,431,624

Mississippi6649,442502,292

Missouri101,245,9781,440,356

Montana3259,129174,434

Nebraska5499,927276,321

Nevada6398,727412,012

New Hampshire4340,492332,638

New Jersey141,792,4421,874,209

New Mexico5369,284370,544

New York293,688,4213,828,477

North Carolina151,745,2281,628,476

North Dakota3197,245110,289

Ohio182,829,6872,777,421

Oklahoma7845,779624,552

Oregon7901,244904,100

Pennsylvania202,797,4942,840,542

Rhode Island4200,440210,402

South Carolina9850,050714,846

South Dakota3230,727154,786

Tennessee111,242,7971,096,385

Texas383,789,4593,598,334

Utah6500,450401,290

Vermont3122,774182,104

Virginia131,547,9941,607,747

Washington121,390,2241,420,462

West Virginia5364,449367,429

Wisconsin101,492,4211,477,202

Wyoming3130,757100,527

 

 

 

Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate A: _________

 

Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate B: _________

 

Total Popular Votes won by Candidate A: _________________________

 

Total Popular Votes won by Candidate B: _________________________

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Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

  1. click “View in Browser.”

Click the link above to submit your assignment.

Students, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” in the Student Center.
Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.

Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

Research, review and analyze Korb v. Raytheon, 707 F.Supp. 63 (D.Mass. 1989). Based on your research and the case, write a 5-6 page paper in which you:

  1. Analyze and evaluate each case independently by providing the following (about two paragraphs per case):
  • Facts of the case
  • Issues
  • Rule
  1. Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech.
  2. Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information.
  3. Analyze and explain any challenges with employment law.
  4. Analyze and discuss the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
  5. Analyze and discuss any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
  6. Provide at least four (4) additional court cases that support your analysis.

Your assignment must:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Recommend how the legal system addresses critical issues faced by public officials to include freedom of the press, funding of government contracts, separation of church and state, public ethics law, hiring lawyers, and handling civil litigation.
  • Evaluate legal subjects relevant to public administration to include property, government contracts, employment, and torts.
  • Relate the administrative process, constitutional and statutory requirements, to the scope of judicial review of administrative agency decisions.
  • Assess legal decisions related to the administration of public goods.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in constitution and administrative law.
  • Write clearly and concisely about issues in constitution and administrative law using proper writing mechanics.

Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic/organization of the paper, and language and writing skills, using the following rubric found here.

 

Rubric:

Name: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

Description: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

 

  • Grid View
  • List View

 

Unacceptable Below 70% F

Fair 70-79% C

Proficient 80-89% B

Exemplary 90-100% A

PAD525-A3-1
1. Analyze and evaluate case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

PAD525-A3-2
2. Analyze and evaluate case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

PAD525-A3-3
3. Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

PAD525-A3-4
4. Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

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PAD525-A3-5
5. Analyze and explain any challenges with employment law. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

PAD525-A3-6
6. Analyze and discuss the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense. Weight: 13%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 33.63 (9.09%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

Points Range:33.67 (9.1%) – 38.44 (10.39%)

Partially analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

Points Range:38.48 (10.4%) – 43.25 (11.69%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

Points Range:43.29 (11.7%) – 48.1 (13%)

Thoroughly analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

PAD525-A3-7
7. Analyze and discuss any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

PAD525-A3-8
8. Clarity and writing mechanics Weight: 10%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 25.86 (6.99%)

More than 6 errors present

Points Range:25.9 (7%) – 29.56 (7.99%)

5-6 errors present

Points Range:29.6 (8%) – 33.26 (8.99%)

3-4 errors present

Points Range:33.3 (9%) – 37 (10%)

0-2 errors present

PAD525-A3-9
9. Research and cite at least four (4) court cases that support the analysis. Weight: 5%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 12.91 (3.49%)

Researched and cited no court cases that support the analysis.

Points Range:12.95 (3.5%) – 14.76 (3.99%)

Researched and cited one or two (1 or 2) court cases that support the analysis.

Points Range:14.8 (4%) – 16.61 (4.49%)

Researched and cited three (3) court cases that support the analysis.

Points Range:16.65 (4.5%) – 18.5 (5%)

Researched and cited at least four (4) court cases that support the analysis.

Name:PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

Description:PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

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POLI 330 Week 1 to week 6 

POLI 330 Week 1 Quiz Latest 2018

Question

Question 1

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Which best explains the differences between historians and political scientists?

Historians look for generalizations, and political scientists are reluctant to generalize.

Historians are reluctant to generalize, and political scientists look for generalizations.

Historians are more likely to look for comparisons than political scientists.

Historians tend to focus on nature-based explanations, and political scientists focus on nurture-based explanations.

Question 2

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Which of the following did Machiavelli contribute to the study of politics?

Social contract theory

The role of power in politics

The role of wealth in society

The connection between race and politics

Question 3

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) When people base their views on beliefs that may not be based in reality, they are behaving _____.

irrationally

rationally

politically

legitimately

Question 4

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) A political leaders’ ability to command respect and exercise power is known as _____.

sovereignty

corruption

authority

legitimacy

Question 5

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Issues related to a border dispute between the United States and Canada would relate to _____.

sovereignty

authority

legitimacy

monarchy

Question 6

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) A theory that is tested in an attempt to prove or refute with evidence, is known as _____.

scholarship

corruption

a methodology

a hypothesis

Question 7

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) When scholars consider various approaches to studying a given topic, they are most concerned with _____.

reason

balance

theory

rationality

Question 8

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Which of the following is the best example of theory?

People join groups because of an innate desire to be with others who have similar views.

Democratic governments last longer than nondemocratic governments.

Republicans are older than Democrats.

Corruption is rampant in government.

Question 9

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Which political science subfield studies the interface of politics and economics?

Public administration

Public policy

Comparative politics

Political theory

Question 10

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Which are both true for most political scientists?

They think practically and seek accuracy.

They seek popularity and are skeptical of power.

They offer single causes and think abstractly.

They are skeptical of power and offer long-term consequences.

 

POLI330 Week 2 Quiz Latest 2018

Question

Question 1

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 6) Which of the following best characterizes Aristotle?

He explained both what is and what ought to be.

He neither explained what is nor what ought to be.

He only explained what ought to be.

He only explained what is.

Question 2

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 6) Hobbes, Locke, and Rousseau would likely agree on which of the following?

Individuals join and stay in civil society.

Empirical research is important.

Power resided with the proletariat.

Life is nasty and brutish.

Question 3

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 6) If _____ were alive, he might suggest that poor academic performance in schools could be attributed to a society that does not promote education and provides few resources devoted to schools.

Jean-Jacques Rousseau

Thomas Hobbes

John Locke

Niccolo Machiavelli

Question 4

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 6) Which of the following would most likely be supported by the bourgeoisie?

Conflict for economic gain

Minority rights

Equality for all

A revolt by the proletariat

Question 5

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 6) Which statement best supports Marxist theories?

Uneven benefits to corporations with few benefits for workers led to the economic crises in the early 2000s.

The United States provides ample opportunities for all who work hard.

Tax breaks will often create jobs, benefiting the working class.

Similarities exist between economies in both Europe and the United States.

Question 6

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 6) Which statement best applies to Adam Smith?

Marxists promoted his views because of concerns of the proletariat.

His views began as conservative, but are now associated with modern liberalism.

His views were once considered liberal, but are now promoted by conservatives.

His views have always been advocated by liberals.

Question 7

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 6) Thomas Hill Green might agree with which of the following?

Markets regulate themselves.

Taxes should benefit business owners because they allow owners to hire more workers.

No one is forced to take a job he or she doesn’t like.

Unions are necessary to protect workers against business owners.

Question 8

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 6) Modern American conservatism would favor government involvement in what activity?

Regulating markets

A progressive tax system

Religious promotion

Protecting organized labor

Question 9

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 6) _____ prefer virtually no government involvement in anything.

Marxists

Liberals

Conservatives

Libertarians

Question 10

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 6) Fascism existed during the 20th century in what country?

Italy

Iceland

Ireland

France

POLI330 Week 3 Quiz Latest 2018

Question 1

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) Hereditary rule by one person is known as _____.

a monarchy

a republic

institutionalization

a state

Question 2

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) According to Aristotle, democracy is the _____ form of government by _____.

corrupt; one

corrupt; a few

corrupt; many

legitimate; many

Question 3

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) The idea that American states serve as “laboratories of democracy” is an advantage of _____ systems of government.

unitary

confederal

federal

proportional

Question 4

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) In _____, representatives are elected based on their party’s percentage of the vote.

proportional representative systems

majoritarian systems

single-member districts

multimember districts

Question 5

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) An advantage of a proportional representation system of government would be _____.

a strong two-party system

the ability to draw districts to favor the majority party

representation of minor parties

the ability of the central government to provide benefits to the populations

Question 6

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) Welfare states tend to have which of the following combinations of state ownership and welfare benefits?

High levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits

High levels of state ownership but low levels of welfare benefits

Low levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits

Low levels of state ownership and low levels of welfare benefits

Question 7

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) Judicial activism refers to _____.

liberal judges

conservative judges

judicial restraint by judges

willingness to override legislatures

Question 8

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) Though rare, a “true” democracy, is a system in which _____.

all citizens meet periodically to elect officials

all citizens meet periodically to elect officials and personally enact laws

popular accountability is common, but political competition is extremely limited

the wealthy almost always have greater influence than the poor

Question 9

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) _____ states regularly use organized terror and violence against their citizens to maintain control and achieve their goals.

Authoritarian

Transitional

Oligarchic

Totalitarian

Question 10

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) Describe the purpose of total control as relates to the image of the state.

To reveal the state as a genuine and open entity

To excuse the state’s invasive and/or violent political measures

To convey to the citizens a perception of only everyday order

To convey to visitors a perception of nearly perfect order

 

POLI330 Week 4 Quiz Latest 2018

Question

Question 1

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Explain which individuals have the most influence on politics via interest groups.

Women

The elderly

A wide variety of people

Rich individuals

Question 2

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Why did the 2010 healthcare reform bill contain no provision for public insurance options?

The insurance industry blocked the Democrats’ efforts for a public option.

The people had no desire for a public option.

Democrats were not interested in a public option.

Farmers, heavily invested in the insurance industry, blocked them

Question 3

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) A great deal of legislation originates in _____.

economic downturns

corporate boardrooms

specialized agencies

secret

Question 4

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Some interest groups maintain a low profile by promoting their objectives without _____ them.

lobbying for

fully funding

advertising

openly debating

Question 5

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) By welcoming new groups into their ranks, parties _____.

rob those groups of their individual interests and concerns

give groups a pragmatic and psychological stake in the overall political system

establish a monocultural dependence on the party system

enhance political hegemony by disenfranchising voters outside of these groups

Question 6

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) The American electoral system is based on the British “first past the post” (FPTP) system, named so because _____.

third parties can“post” to earn representation

major parties are subject to intense scrutiny by third parties

it resembles a horse race; even a nose better wins

it tends to promote more equal representation

Question 7

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Which of the following is an advantage to having less powerful, less centralized parties?

Fluid and flexible parties may be better able to process demands from a wider range of citizens.

Multiple party platforms possess greater persuasive abilities over the general public.

Parties can form a stronger organizational identity based around a single, cohesive ideology.

Third parties can effectively shoot for power grabs at legislative seats.

Question 8

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Why do Americans vote so little?

Typically, given the enormous number of immigrants the United States plays host to, most U.S.nonvoters are poorly versed in the tradition of voting, and are therefore are largely unengaged by most elections.

Typically, more than half of U.S. nonvoters say they that while they are interested in and satisfied with candidates, they still feel that their vote makes no difference or that none of the candidates are really good, and the two large parties may not offer an interesting or clear-cut choice.

Typically, most U.S.nonvoters say they are uninterested in or dissatisfied with candidates, feeling their vote makes no difference or that none of the candidates are really good, and the two large parties may not offer an interesting or clear-cut choice.

Typically, most U.S.voters find it impossible to convince others to vote, despite the fact that nonvoters are most likely to vote if convinced by those close to them.

Question 9

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) What was the relationship between African American voting rates and Barack Obama’s run for president?

African American voting rates rose to those of white voters as African American income and education levels rose.

African American voting rates unexpectedly remained far below those of white voters as African American income and education levels remained steady.

African American voting rates rose to those of Hispanic voters as African American income and education levels rose.

African American voting rates fell unexpectedly below those of white voters despite African American income and education levels rising.

Question 10

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Why is it that in most of the world, cities have higher turnouts than rural areas?

Partly because those who live rurally tend to feel less enfranchised

Partly because urbanites have higher education levels on average

Partly because people who have lived in the same place are less likely to vote than are transients or newcomers

Partly because men tend to vote more than women

POLI330 Week 5 Quiz Latest 2018

Question

Question 1

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 5) Which of the following statements best defines feudalism?

A political structure in which power is dispersed evenly

A system of political power dispersed among layers

A political structure in which power rests with church leaders

A system of political power distributed to the working class

Question 2

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 5) Countries with limits on government have usually had feudal pasts, which suggests what about the dispersion of power?

Equal distribution of power is the only effective political structure.

Power must be distributed by the working class.

Power should be concentrated among the lower classes.

Dispersion of power is good and concentration of power is bad.

Question 3

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 5) How often does the cabinet change in a parliamentary system?

Every 4 years

Every 6 years

Every 8 years

When the cabinet is voted out or resigns

Question 4

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 5) Because of the separation of powers inherent in a presidential system, some scholars think that executive-legislative _____ is common in systems like that used in the United States.

cooperation

stagnation

deadlock

insolvency

Question 5

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 5) Describe how the election process in a parliamentary system slightly resembles presidential elections in the United States.

Party chiefs run as candidates for prime minister.

Citizens vote directly for the each new prime minister.

Citizens vote for a party member with the knowledge that the next prime minister will be the head of the largest party.

The prime minister is appointed for a 4-year term and can be reappointed one time.

Question 6

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 5) Distinguish the process that a parliamentary system uses to oust a chief executive from the one available in the U.S. presidential system.

Parliamentary systems rely on impeachment and presidential ones rely on constructive no confidence.

Parliamentary systems use constructive no confidence and presidential systems have the option of impeachment.

The prime minister can dissolve parliament and the president can resign from office.

Parliamentary systems can hold a vote of no confidence and presidential ones have the option of impeachment.

Question 7

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) Which of the following issues is a civil concern?

Extortion

Theft

Divorce

Trafficking

Question 8

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) International law consists of _____ and established customs recognized by most nations.

treaties

ratification

amendments

cease-fires

Question 9

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) What legal agency in the United States generates reputation-based ratings of prospective federal judges?

Judicial Ratings Bureau

Federal Bureau of Judicial Review

American Bar Association

Office of Legal Assessment

Question 10

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) Describe the significance of Marbury v. Madison.

The ruling laid precedent for judicial review.

The ruling stated that the president is subject to the court’s decisions.

The ruling decreed that current administrations must honor the appointments of previous administrations.

The ruling claimed that federal taxes could not be levied on the states.

 

POLI330 Week 6 Quiz Latest 2018

Question

Question 1

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 7) Radicals use the term “political economy” instead of _____ to describe their critique of capitalism and the inequitable distribution of wealth among nations.

Marxism

laissez-faire

public choice

Keynesian

Question 2

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 7) How do Keynesian economic policies differ from the traditional laissez-faire policies developed by Adam Smith?

Laissez-faire policies advocate for “cutthroat” capitalism, and Keynesian policies seek to spread wealth equally among a nation’s citizens.

Keynesian economics advocates for increased government control of economics, and traditional laissez-faire argues for a hands-free approach.

Smithian policies advocate for increased spending and stimuli for government-run businesses, and Keynesian economics argues for a hands-free approach.

The more liberal Smithian economies distribute wealth more evenly among society, and Keynesian economics tends to distribute wealth among the top 1%.

Question 3

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 7) During the 1970s, critics developed this new term to describe inflation with stagnant economic growth.

Growth Slope

Quagmire

Stagflation

Recession

Question 4

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 7) Between 1965 and 1973, the percentage of Americans living below the poverty line _____.

doubled

greatly decreased

slightly increased

rapidly increased

Question 5

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 7) The _____ administration simplified the Food Stamp program by eliminating the provision that recipients buy the stamps at a discount with their own money.

Kennedy

Johnson

Ford

Carter

Question 6

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 7) Medical costs consume nearly _____% of the U.S.gross domestic product, most of it paid through government and private health insurance.

11

18

22

26

Question 7

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 7) Many Americans think the federal budget goes primarily toward welfare, which is _____.

absolutely true

somewhat exaggerated

not at all the case

slightly offensive

Question 8

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 7) How does the American welfare state compare to those of other industrialized nations?

Much less is allocated to welfare in the United States.

Other nations allocate less to welfare than the United States.

The United States allocates about the same to welfare.

Few nations besides the United States maintain funds for welfare.

Question 9

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 7) What was the poverty line in 2012?

$14,505

$17,060

$23,050

$26,750

Question 10

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 7) Investigate what historically happens to conservatives when firms are supposedly “too big to fail.”

Conservatives argue for expensive bail-out packages.

Most conservatives suggest letting the free market run its course.

Most argue against expensive stimulus packages.

They switch parties.

 

POLI330 Week 3 Quiz 

Question 1

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) Hereditary rule by one person is known as _____.

a monarchy

a republic

institutionalization

a state

Question 2

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) According to Aristotle, democracy is the _____ form of government by _____.

corrupt; one

corrupt; a few

corrupt; many

legitimate; many

Question 3

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) The idea that American states serve as “laboratories of democracy” is an advantage of _____ systems of government.

unitary

confederal

federal

proportional

Question 4

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) In _____, representatives are elected based on their party’s percentage of the vote.

proportional representative systems

majoritarian systems

single-member districts

multimember districts

Question 5

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) An advantage of a proportional representation system of government would be _____.

a strong two-party system

the ability to draw districts to favor the majority party

representation of minor parties

the ability of the central government to provide benefits to the populations

Question 6

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) Welfare states tend to have which of the following combinations of state ownership and welfare benefits?

High levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits

High levels of state ownership but low levels of welfare benefits

Low levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits

Low levels of state ownership and low levels of welfare benefits

Question 7

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) Judicial activism refers to _____.

liberal judges

conservative judges

judicial restraint by judges

willingness to override legislatures

Question 8

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) Though rare, a “true” democracy, is a system in which _____.

all citizens meet periodically to elect officials

all citizens meet periodically to elect officials and personally enact laws

popular accountability is common, but political competition is extremely limited

the wealthy almost always have greater influence than the poor

Question 9

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) _____ states regularly use organized terror and violence against their citizens to maintain control and achieve their goals.

Authoritarian

Transitional

Oligarchic

Totalitarian

Question 10

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) Describe the purpose of total control as relates to the image of the state.

To reveal the state as a genuine and open entity

To excuse the state’s invasive and/or violent political measures

To convey to the citizens a perception of only everyday order

To convey to visitors a perception of nearly perfect order

 

POLI330 Week 4 Quiz 

Question

Question 1

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Explain which individuals have the most influence on politics via interest groups.

Women

The elderly

A wide variety of people

Rich individuals

Question 2

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Why did the 2010 healthcare reform bill contain no provision for public insurance options?

The insurance industry blocked the Democrats’ efforts for a public option.

The people had no desire for a public option.

Democrats were not interested in a public option.

Farmers, heavily invested in the insurance industry, blocked them

Question 3

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) A great deal of legislation originates in _____.

economic downturns

corporate boardrooms

specialized agencies

secret

Question 4

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Some interest groups maintain a low profile by promoting their objectives without _____ them.

lobbying for

fully funding

advertising

openly debating

Question 5

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) By welcoming new groups into their ranks, parties _____.

rob those groups of their individual interests and concerns

give groups a pragmatic and psychological stake in the overall political system

establish a monocultural dependence on the party system

enhance political hegemony by disenfranchising voters outside of these groups

Question 6

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) The American electoral system is based on the British “first past the post” (FPTP) system, named so because _____.

third parties can“post” to earn representation

major parties are subject to intense scrutiny by third parties

it resembles a horse race; even a nose better wins

it tends to promote more equal representation

Question 7

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Which of the following is an advantage to having less powerful, less centralized parties?

Fluid and flexible parties may be better able to process demands from a wider range of citizens.

Multiple party platforms possess greater persuasive abilities over the general public.

Parties can form a stronger organizational identity based around a single, cohesive ideology.

Third parties can effectively shoot for power grabs at legislative seats.

Question 8

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Why do Americans vote so little?

Typically, given the enormous number of immigrants the United States plays host to, most U.S.nonvoters are poorly versed in the tradition of voting, and are therefore are largely unengaged by most elections.

Typically, more than half of U.S. nonvoters say they that while they are interested in and satisfied with candidates, they still feel that their vote makes no difference or that none of the candidates are really good, and the two large parties may not offer an interesting or clear-cut choice.

Typically, most U.S.nonvoters say they are uninterested in or dissatisfied with candidates, feeling their vote makes no difference or that none of the candidates are really good, and the two large parties may not offer an interesting or clear-cut choice.

Typically, most U.S.voters find it impossible to convince others to vote, despite the fact that nonvoters are most likely to vote if convinced by those close to them.

Question 9

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) What was the relationship between African American voting rates and Barack Obama’s run for president?

African American voting rates rose to those of white voters as African American income and education levels rose.

African American voting rates unexpectedly remained far below those of white voters as African American income and education levels remained steady.

African American voting rates rose to those of Hispanic voters as African American income and education levels rose.

African American voting rates fell unexpectedly below those of white voters despite African American income and education levels rising.

Question 10

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Why is it that in most of the world, cities have higher turnouts than rural areas?

Partly because those who live rurally tend to feel less enfranchised

Partly because urbanites have higher education levels on average

Partly because people who have lived in the same place are less likely to vote than are transients or newcomers

Partly because men tend to vote more than women

 

POLI 330 Week 1 Quiz


POLI 330 Week 1 Quiz Latest 2018

Question

Question 1

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Which best explains the differences between historians and political scientists?

Historians look for generalizations, and political scientists are reluctant to generalize.

Historians are reluctant to generalize, and political scientists look for generalizations.

Historians are more likely to look for comparisons than political scientists.

Historians tend to focus on nature-based explanations, and political scientists focus on nurture-based explanations.

Question 2

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Which of the following did Machiavelli contribute to the study of politics?

Social contract theory

The role of power in politics

The role of wealth in society

The connection between race and politics

Question 3

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) When people base their views on beliefs that may not be based in reality, they are behaving _____.

irrationally

rationally

politically

legitimately

Question 4

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) A political leaders’ ability to command respect and exercise power is known as _____.

sovereignty

corruption

authority

legitimacy

Question 5

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Issues related to a border dispute between the United States and Canada would relate to _____.

sovereignty

authority

legitimacy

monarchy

Question 6

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) A theory that is tested in an attempt to prove or refute with evidence, is known as _____.

scholarship

corruption

a methodology

a hypothesis

Question 7

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) When scholars consider various approaches to studying a given topic, they are most concerned with _____.

reason

balance

theory

rationality

Question 8

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Which of the following is the best example of theory?

People join groups because of an innate desire to be with others who have similar views.

Democratic governments last longer than nondemocratic governments.

Republicans are older than Democrats.

Corruption is rampant in government.

Question 9

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Which political science subfield studies the interface of politics and economics?

Public administration

Public policy

Comparative politics

Political theory

Question 10

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Which are both true for most political scientists?

They think practically and seek accuracy.

They seek popularity and are skeptical of power.

They offer single causes and think abstractly.

They are skeptical of power and offer long-term consequences.

 

The Politics and Administration Dichotomy

The Politics and Administration Dichotomy

The issues of politics and administration dichotomy first raised by Woodrow Wilson continue to generate debate among scholars of public administration in modern time. While some think Wilson’s idea was useful, others reject the idea as impossible. In a 2-3 page paper, and in your opinion, is that distinction practical and workable? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using such a dichotomy today as a way to advance that field of study? Support your case with examples.

 

Korea Unification

Assignment 1-1050 words

How can a culture that produces exquisite art still be at war? Well, I suppose that the two have little to do with each other.

Of course, one has to question whether or not war is really a matter of the Korean Peninsula per se. Rather, Korea seems to have been caught in the global cold war. Right on the front lines of the conflict between the United States and China and the Soviet Union, Korea was pulled apart more by global forces than by internal politics.

After the fall of the Soviet Union, after the money used to support North Korea is gone, we are left with a tense situation on the Korean Peninsula itself.

So what can be done?

Can Korea reunify?

Case Assignment

Please answer the following question:

Given the lessons you learned about German reunification in the last module, what are the most important issues facing efforts towards Korean peninsula reunification?

Please answer this question in three to five pages and turn it in by the end of this module. Do not forget to refer closely to the background information.

 

Assignment 2-700 word

What role does the United States play in the current Korean conflict?

Review the material in the background information page.

Then write a two to three page paper answering this question:

Why is the United States such an important player in the potential reunification of Korea?

Upload your papers for grading.

The SLP assignments in POL 201 generally call for a detailed analysis of the involvement of US interests in the nation being studied. In addressing SLP questions, such an analysis requires some historical perspective and a balanced and thorough consideration of that involvement

 

Describe about the organization American Red Cross. At least 300 words!

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